The Virginia Register OF
REGULATIONS is an official state publication issued every other week
throughout the year. Indexes are published quarterly, and are cumulative for
the year. The Virginia Register has several functions. The new and
amended sections of regulations, both as proposed and as finally adopted, are
required by law to be published in the Virginia Register. In addition,
the Virginia Register is a source of other information about state
government, including petitions for rulemaking, emergency regulations,
executive orders issued by the Governor, and notices of public hearings on
regulations.
ADOPTION,
AMENDMENT, AND REPEAL OF REGULATIONS
An
agency wishing to adopt, amend, or repeal regulations must first publish in the
Virginia Register a notice of intended regulatory action; a basis,
purpose, substance and issues statement; an economic impact analysis prepared
by the Department of Planning and Budget; the agency’s response to the economic
impact analysis; a summary; a notice giving the public an opportunity to
comment on the proposal; and the text of the proposed regulation.
Following
publication of the proposal in the Virginia Register, the promulgating agency
receives public comments for a minimum of 60 days. The Governor reviews the
proposed regulation to determine if it is necessary to protect the public
health, safety and welfare, and if it is clearly written and easily
understandable. If the Governor chooses to comment on the proposed regulation,
his comments must be transmitted to the agency and the Registrar no later than
15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment period. The
Governor’s comments, if any, will be published in the Virginia Register.
Not less than 15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment
period, the agency may adopt the proposed regulation.
The
Joint Commission on Administrative Rules (JCAR) or the appropriate standing
committee of each house of the General Assembly may meet during the
promulgation or final adoption process and file an objection with the Registrar
and the promulgating agency. The objection will be published in the Virginia
Register. Within 21 days after receipt by the agency of a legislative
objection, the agency shall file a response with the Registrar, the objecting
legislative body, and the Governor.
When
final action is taken, the agency again publishes the text of the regulation as
adopted, highlighting all changes made to the proposed regulation and
explaining any substantial changes made since publication of the proposal. A
30-day final adoption period begins upon final publication in the Virginia
Register.
The
Governor may review the final regulation during this time and, if he objects,
forward his objection to the Registrar and the agency. In addition to or in
lieu of filing a formal objection, the Governor may suspend the effective date
of a portion or all of a regulation until the end of the next regular General
Assembly session by issuing a directive signed by a majority of the members of
the appropriate legislative body and the Governor. The Governor’s objection or
suspension of the regulation, or both, will be published in the Virginia
Register. If the Governor finds that changes made to the proposed
regulation have substantial impact, he may require the agency to provide an
additional 30-day public comment period on the changes. Notice of the
additional public comment period required by the Governor will be published in
the Virginia Register.
The
agency shall suspend the regulatory process for 30 days when it receives
requests from 25 or more individuals to solicit additional public comment,
unless the agency determines that the changes have minor or inconsequential
impact.
A
regulation becomes effective at the conclusion of the 30-day final adoption
period, or at any other later date specified by the promulgating agency, unless
(i) a legislative objection has been filed, in which event the regulation,
unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after
the expiration of the 21-day objection period; (ii) the Governor exercises his
authority to require the agency to provide for additional public comment, in
which event the regulation, unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date
specified, which shall be after the expiration of the period for which the
Governor has provided for additional public comment; (iii) the Governor and the
General Assembly exercise their authority to suspend the effective date of a
regulation until the end of the next regular legislative session; or (iv) the
agency suspends the regulatory process, in which event the regulation, unless
withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after the
expiration of the 30-day public comment period and no earlier than 15 days from
publication of the readopted action.
A
regulatory action may be withdrawn by the promulgating agency at any time
before the regulation becomes final.
FAST-TRACK
RULEMAKING PROCESS
Section
2.2-4012.1 of the Code of Virginia provides an exemption from certain
provisions of the Administrative Process Act for agency regulations deemed by
the Governor to be noncontroversial.  To use this process, Governor's
concurrence is required and advance notice must be provided to certain
legislative committees.  Fast-track regulations will become effective on the
date noted in the regulatory action if no objections to using the process are
filed in accordance with § 2.2-4012.1.
EMERGENCY
REGULATIONS
Pursuant
to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of Virginia, an agency, upon consultation
with the Attorney General, and at the discretion of the Governor, may adopt
emergency regulations that are necessitated by an emergency situation. An
agency may also adopt an emergency regulation when Virginia statutory law or
the appropriation act or federal law or federal regulation requires that a
regulation be effective in 280 days or less from its enactment. The emergency regulation becomes operative upon its adoption
and filing with the Registrar of Regulations, unless a later date is specified.
Emergency regulations are limited to no more than 18 months in duration;
however, may be extended for six months under certain circumstances as provided
for in § 2.2-4011 D. Emergency regulations are published as soon as
possible in the Register.
During
the time the emergency status is in effect, the agency may proceed with the
adoption of permanent regulations through the usual procedures. To begin
promulgating the replacement regulation, the agency must (i) file the Notice of
Intended Regulatory Action with the Registrar within 60 days of the effective
date of the emergency regulation and (ii) file the proposed regulation with the
Registrar within 180 days of the effective date of the emergency regulation. If
the agency chooses not to adopt the regulations, the emergency status ends when
the prescribed time limit expires.
STATEMENT
The
foregoing constitutes a generalized statement of the procedures to be followed.
For specific statutory language, it is suggested that Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006
et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia be examined
carefully.
CITATION
TO THE VIRGINIA REGISTER
The Virginia
Register is cited by volume, issue, page number, and date. 34:8 VA.R.
763-832 December 11, 2017, refers to Volume 34, Issue 8, pages 763 through
832 of the Virginia Register issued on 
December 11, 2017.
The
Virginia Register of Regulations is
published pursuant to Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of
Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia. 
Members
of the Virginia Code Commission: John
S. Edwards, Chair; James A. "Jay" Leftwich, Vice Chair;
Ryan T. McDougle; Nicole Cheuk; Rita Davis; Leslie L. Lilley; Thomas
M. Moncure, Jr.; Christopher R. Nolen; Charles S. Sharp; Samuel T. Towell; Malfourd
W. Trumbo; Mark J. Vucci.
Staff
of the Virginia Register: Karen
Perrine, Registrar of Regulations; Anne Bloomsburg, Assistant
Registrar; Nikki Clemons, Regulations Analyst; Rhonda Dyer,
Publications Assistant; Terri Edwards, Senior Operations Staff
Assistant.
 
 
                                                        PUBLICATION SCHEDULE AND DEADLINES
Vol. 35 Iss. 24 - July 22, 2019
August 2019 through August 2020
 
  | Volume: Issue | Material Submitted By Noon* | Will Be Published On | 
 
  | 35:26 | July 31, 2019 | August 19, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:1 | August 14, 2019 | September 2, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:2 | August 28, 2019 | September 16, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:3 | September 11, 2019 | September 30, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:4 | September 25, 2019 | October 14, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:5 | October 9, 2019 | October 28, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:6 | October 23, 2019 | November 11, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:7 | November 6, 2019 | November 25, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:8 | November 18, 2019 (Monday) | December 9, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:9 | December 4, 2019 | December 23, 2019 | 
 
  | 36:10 | December 18, 2019 | January 6, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:11 | January 1, 2020 | January 20, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:12 | January 15, 2020 | February 3, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:13 | January 29, 2020 | February 17, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:14 | February 12. 2020 | March 2, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:15 | February 26, 2020 | March 16, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:16 | March 11, 2020 | March 30, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:17 | March 25, 2020 | April 13, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:18 | April 8, 2020 | April 27, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:19 | April 22. 2020 | May 11, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:20 | May 6, 2020 | May 25, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:21 | May 20, 2020 | June 8, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:22 | June 3, 2020 | June 22, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:23 | June 17, 2020 | July 6, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:24 | July 1, 2020 | July 20, 2020 | 
 
  | 36:25 | July 15, 2020 | August 3, 2020 | 
*Filing deadlines are Wednesdays
unless otherwise specified.
 
   
                                                        PETITIONS FOR RULEMAKING
Vol. 35 Iss. 24 - July 22, 2019
TITLE
11. GAMING
CHARITABLE GAMING BOARD
Agency Decision
Title of Regulation: 11VAC15-40.
Charitable Gaming Regulations.
Statutory Authority: § 18.2-340.15 of the Code of
Virginia.
Name of Petitioner: Nathan A. Freels, Powerhouse Gaming.
Nature of Petitioner's Request: Petitioner requests that
the Charitable Gaming Board amend Charitable Gaming Regulations to allow
"for the calculation of Use of Proceeds be adjusted such that electronic
pulltabs are calculated as 2% of the charitable gaming gross receipts
specifically realized from the use of electronic pulltabs."
Agency Decision: Request denied.
Statement of Reason for Decision: The Charitable Gaming
Board (board) voted to take no action on the petitioner's request for
rulemaking for the following reason:
In 2018, the board created a workgroup to evaluate use of
proceeds and to consider whether changes to the current structure are
appropriate and necessary. It is premature for the board to interject itself
into this evaluation until the workgroup has completed its work. Though the board
voted to take no action on the petition, the workgroup will consider the
specific idea brought forth in the petition for rulemaking as it deliberates
over use of proceeds.
Agency Contact: Michael Menefee, Program Manager,
Charitable and Regulatory Programs, Department of Agriculture and Consumer
Services, 102 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-3983, or
email michael.menefee@cdacs.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-26; Filed July 1, 2019, 5:56 p.m.
w  ––––––––––––––––––  w
TITLE
24 TRANSPORTATION AND MOTOR VEHICLES
COMMISSION ON THE VIRGINIA ALCOHOL SAFETY ACTION PROGRAM
Agency Decision
Title of Regulation: 24VAC35-30.
VASAP Case Management Policy and Procedure Manual.
Statutory Authority: §§ 18.2-271.1 and 18.2-271.2
of the Code of Virginia.
Name of Petitioner: Cynthia Ellen Hites.
Nature of Petitioner's Request: "I, Cynthia Ellen
Hites, as a citizen of the Commonwealth of Virginia, pursuant to
§ 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, do humbly submit this petition for the
following amendment to Virginia Administrative Code 24VAC35-30-150 (VASAP
Policy and Procedures Manual). Currently, the law states the following: Section
150, Paragraph A: 'Noncompliance reporting. When the offender has been deemed
noncompliant by the case manager, that case manager, within five working days,
shall notify in writing the referring court or agency and the offender.' As of
now, no penalty exists to the caseworker for breech of this law. With no
adverse effect to the caseworker, or ASAP director, respectively, for failing
to fulfill their duties, ASAP caseworkers can effectively operate with impunity
regarding the time allotted them to notify [the] offender and court of
noncompliance. There are no penalties established for the incidences of
caseworker error or malfeasance that result in restart of [an] ignition
interlock sentence, or force [the] offender to reappear in court to face
further punishment. I propose the following language be adopted, in lieu of the
current: 'A. Noncompliance reporting. When the offender has been deemed
noncompliant by the case manager, that case manager, within five working days,
shall notify in writing the referring court or agency and the offender. If
[the] caseworker fails to notify in writing both parties, within five working
days, the instance of noncompliance shall not be considered, and the offender
shall incur no penalty.'"
Agency Decision: Request denied.
Statement of Reason for Decision: During its June 7,
2019, meeting, the Commission on VASAP denied this petition, taking no action
for the following reasons:
1) Failure of a case manager to report noncompliance promptly
should not exonerate a client for violation of a probationary requirement;
however, it might be considered in mitigation.
2) Whenever there is any malfeasance by a case manager, or a
failure to otherwise perform required duties, any corrective or disciplinary
action of the ASAP employee is a personnel matter best handled on a
case-by-case basis to account for the specific circumstances.
3) ASAP case managers are not state employees. Thus, any
employee consequences pertaining to job performance must be addressed by the
local ASAP director and policy board and should not be included in state
regulations.
Agency Contact: Richard Foy, Field Services Specialist,
Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program, 701 East Franklin
Street, Suite 1110, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-5895, or email rfoy@vasap.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-25; Filed June 20, 2019, 4:55 p.m.
 
 
 
                                                        
                                                        NOTICES OF INTENDED REGULATORY ACTION
Vol. 35 Iss. 24 - July 22, 2019
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONALLICENSING
 Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
 
 Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the
 Code of Virginia that the Board of Nursing intends to consider amending 18VAC90-19,
 Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing. The purpose of the proposed
 action is to initiate rulemaking in response to a petition for rulemaking from
 the Virginia Association of Clinical Nurse Specialists, which requested changes
 to regulations relating to registration of a clinical nurse specialist. The
 board intends to amend 18VAC90-19-210 to clarify that the board will accept for
 registration evidence of a clinical nurse specialist certification that has
 been retired or is the core certification, provided the certification has been
 maintained and is current. Likewise, a retired or core certification that
 remains current qualifies a clinical nurse specialist to renew registration.
 
 The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the
 proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3005 of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 21, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Jay P. Douglas, R.N., Executive
 Director, Board of Nursing, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233,
 telephone (804) 367-4520, FAX (804) 527-4455, or email
 jay.douglas@dhp.virginia.gov.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-28; Filed July 1, 2019, 8:12 p.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Grants to Area Agencies on Aging
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
 
 Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the
 Code of Virginia that the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services
 intends to consider amending 22VAC30-60, Grants to Area Agencies on Aging.
 The purpose of the proposed action is to update and clarify the chapter, which
 prescribes the requirements for a state-designated area agency on aging in
 Virginia to receive federal and state funds for various programs, including
 those for nutrition services, care coordination, legal assistance, and
 information and referral services.
 
 This Notice of Intended Regulatory Action serves as the report
 of the findings of the regulatory review pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the
 proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
 
 Statutory Authority: § 51.5-131 of the Code of
 Virginia; 42 USC § 3001 et seq.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 21, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Charlotte Arbogast, Policy Advisor,
 Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services, 8004 Franklin Farms Drive,
 Richmond, VA 23229, telephone (804) 662-7063, FAX (804) 662-7663, TTY (800)
 464-9950, or email charlotte.arbogast@dars.virginia.gov.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-6060; Filed June 25, 2019, 10:00 a.m. 
 
                                                        REGULATIONS
Vol. 35 Iss. 24 - July 22, 2019
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
BOARD OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Final Regulation
 
 Title of Regulation: 2VAC5-115. Regulations for
 Determining Whether a Facility Meets the Purpose of Finding Permanent Adoptive
 Homes for Animals (adding 2VAC5-115-10, 2VAC5-115-20,
 2VAC5-115-30). 
 
 Statutory Authority: § 3.2-6501 of the Code of
 Virginia; Chapter 319 of the 2016 Acts of Assembly.
 
 Effective Date: August 22, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Dr. Kathryn MacDonald, Program Manager,
 Animal Care and Emergency Response, Department of Agriculture and Consumer
 Services, 102 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 692-4001,
 FAX (804) 371-2380, or email kathryn.macdonald@vdacs.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 Pursuant to Chapter 319 of the 2016 Acts of Assembly, which
 directed the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services to promulgate a
 regulation to determine whether a private animal shelter meets the purpose of
 finding permanent adoptive homes for animals, the new chapter establishes
 provisions for making such a determination.
 
 Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
 summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
 obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
 of Regulations. 
 
 CHAPTER 115
 REGULATIONS FOR DETERMINING WHETHER A FACILITY MEETS THE PURPOSE OF FINDING
 PERMANENT ADOPTIVE HOMES FOR ANIMALS
 
 2VAC5-115-10. Definitions.
 
 The following words and terms when used in this chapter
 shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates
 otherwise:
 
 "Facility" means a building or portion thereof
 as designated by the State Veterinarian, other than a private residential
 dwelling and its surrounding grounds, that is used to contain primary
 enclosures in which animals are housed or kept.
 
 "Foster care provider" means a person who
 provides care or rehabilitation for companion animals through an affiliation
 with a public or private animal shelter, home-based rescue, releasing agency,
 or other animal welfare organization. 
 
 "Private animal shelter" means a facility
 operated for the purpose of finding permanent adoptive homes for animals that
 is used to house or contain animals and that is owned or operated by an
 incorporated, nonprofit, and nongovernmental entity, including a humane
 society, animal welfare organization, society for the prevention of cruelty to
 animals, or any other similar organization.
 
 "Releasing agency" means (i) a public animal
 shelter or (ii) a private animal shelter, humane society, animal welfare
 organization, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, or other
 similar entity or home-based rescue that releases companion animals for
 adoption.
 
 2VAC5-115-20. Meeting the purpose of finding permanent
 adoptive homes for animals.
 
 A facility that is operated for the purpose of finding
 permanent adoptive homes for animals shall annually (i) find permanent adoptive
 homes for animals and (ii) conduct at least three of the following activities:
 
 1. Be accessible to the public to view animals available
 for adoption;
 
 2. Advertise to the general public animals that are
 available for adoption;
 
 3. Transfer animals available for adoption to a releasing
 agency;
 
 4. Utilize a foster care provider for animals temporarily
 awaiting placement in permanent adoptive homes; or
 
 5. Offer services to the public in an effort to keep
 animals in their permanent homes.
 
 2VAC5-115-30. Failure to meet requirements.
 
 Failure to meet the requirements in this chapter will
 result in the State Veterinarian or the State Veterinarian's representative
 determining that the facility does not operate for the purpose of finding
 permanent adoptive homes for animals and is not a private animal shelter.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4927; Filed June 27, 2019, 4:40 p.m. 
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
BOARD OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Forms
 
  
 
 Forms
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S
 NOTICE: Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the
 agency. The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue
 of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a
 hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or
 may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main
 Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
 
  
 
 Titles of Regulations:
 2VAC5-670. Regulations Governing Pesticide Product Registration, Handling,
 Storage, and Disposal under Authority of the Virginia Pesticide Control Act.
 
 2VAC5-675. Regulations
 Governing Pesticide Fees Charged by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer
 Services.
 
 2VAC5-680. Regulations
 Governing Licensing of Pesticide Businesses Operating under Authority of the
 Virginia Pesticide Control Act.
 
 2VAC5-685. Regulations
 Governing Pesticide Applicator Certification under Authority of Virginia
 Pesticide Control Act.
 
 Contact Information: Liza Fleeson Trossbach, Program
 Manager, Office of Pesticide Services, Department of Agriculture and Consumer
 Services, P.O. Box 1163, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-6559, or email
 liza.fleeson@vdacs.virginia.gov.
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-670)
 
 Application for New Pesticide Product Registration, VDACS
 07208 (rev. 9/2014) 
 
 Application
 for New Pesticide Product Registration/Additional Information and Instructions,
 VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-675) 
 
 Application for New Pesticide Product
 Registration/Additional Information and Instructions, VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 
 Application for Virginia Pesticide Business License to
 sell, distribute, store, apply, or recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209
 (rev. 7/2017) 
 
 Application for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator
 Certificate/Commercial Pesticide Applicator Categories, VDACS-07210 (rev.
 7/2017) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Certification
 Application/Eligibility Requirements for Commercial Applicator Certification,
 VDACS-07211 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 Pesticide Registered Technician Application/General
 Training Requirements for Registered Technicians, VDACS-07212-A (rev.
 7/2018)
 
 Pesticide Registered Technician Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination, VDACS-07212-B (eff. 7/2018) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination/Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Categories, VDACS-07218 (rev. 7/2017) 
 
 Application
 for New Pesticide Product Registration/Additional Information and Instructions,
 VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Application
 for Virginia Pesticide Business License to sell, distribute, store, apply, or
 recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Application
 for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator Certificate/Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Categories, VDACS-07210 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Certification Application/Eligibility Requirements for
 Commercial Applicator Certification, VDACS-07211 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Application/General Training Requirements for Registered
 Technicians, VDACS-07212A (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination, VDACS-07212B (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination/Commercial Pesticide Applicator Categories, VDACS-07218 (rev.
 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-680) 
 
 Application for Virginia Pesticide Business License, Form
 VDACS-07209 (rev. 9/06). 
 
 Application
 for Virginia Pesticide Business License to sell, distribute, store, apply, or
 recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Certificate of Insurance, Form VDACS-07214 (rev. 4/96).
 
 Request to take the Virginia Pesticide Business License
 Examination (rev. 1/09) 
 
 Request
 to take the Virginia Pesticide Business License Examination (rev. 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-685) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Certification Application
 - A, Form VDACS-07211 (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination - B, Form VDACS-07218 (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Certification Application - A, Form VDACS-07211 (rev.
 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination - B, Form VDACS-07218 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Certification Exam bubble answer sheet, 2003
 
 Private Pesticide Applicator
 Certification Exam bubble answer sheet, 2003
 
 Private Pesticide Applicator
 Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination at
 Department of Motor Vehicles Customer Service Center (eff. 1/2009)
 
 Power of Attorney (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Proof of Additional Category
 Specific Training for Registered Technicians (rev. 8/2016)
 
 Application for Reciprocal
 Pesticide Applicator Certificate, Form VDACS-07210 (rev. 9/2016) 
 
 Pesticide Registered
 Technician Application Form - RT-A, Form VDACS-07212-A (rev. 9/2016) 
 
 Pesticide Registered
 Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination –
 RT-B, Form VDACS-07212-B (eff. 9/2016)
 
 Application
 for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator Certificate, Form VDACS-07210 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Application Form - RT-A, Form VDACS-07212-A (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination – RT-B, Form VDACS-07212-B (rev. 7/2019)
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-6080; Filed July 11, 2019, 8:51 a.m. 
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
BOARD OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Forms
 
  
 
 Forms
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S
 NOTICE: Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the
 agency. The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue
 of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a
 hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or
 may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main
 Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
 
  
 
 Titles of Regulations:
 2VAC5-670. Regulations Governing Pesticide Product Registration, Handling,
 Storage, and Disposal under Authority of the Virginia Pesticide Control Act.
 
 2VAC5-675. Regulations
 Governing Pesticide Fees Charged by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer
 Services.
 
 2VAC5-680. Regulations
 Governing Licensing of Pesticide Businesses Operating under Authority of the
 Virginia Pesticide Control Act.
 
 2VAC5-685. Regulations
 Governing Pesticide Applicator Certification under Authority of Virginia
 Pesticide Control Act.
 
 Contact Information: Liza Fleeson Trossbach, Program
 Manager, Office of Pesticide Services, Department of Agriculture and Consumer
 Services, P.O. Box 1163, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-6559, or email
 liza.fleeson@vdacs.virginia.gov.
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-670)
 
 Application for New Pesticide Product Registration, VDACS
 07208 (rev. 9/2014) 
 
 Application
 for New Pesticide Product Registration/Additional Information and Instructions,
 VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-675) 
 
 Application for New Pesticide Product
 Registration/Additional Information and Instructions, VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 
 Application for Virginia Pesticide Business License to
 sell, distribute, store, apply, or recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209
 (rev. 7/2017) 
 
 Application for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator
 Certificate/Commercial Pesticide Applicator Categories, VDACS-07210 (rev.
 7/2017) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Certification
 Application/Eligibility Requirements for Commercial Applicator Certification,
 VDACS-07211 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 Pesticide Registered Technician Application/General
 Training Requirements for Registered Technicians, VDACS-07212-A (rev.
 7/2018)
 
 Pesticide Registered Technician Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination, VDACS-07212-B (eff. 7/2018) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination/Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Categories, VDACS-07218 (rev. 7/2017) 
 
 Application
 for New Pesticide Product Registration/Additional Information and Instructions,
 VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Application
 for Virginia Pesticide Business License to sell, distribute, store, apply, or
 recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Application
 for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator Certificate/Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Categories, VDACS-07210 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Certification Application/Eligibility Requirements for
 Commercial Applicator Certification, VDACS-07211 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Application/General Training Requirements for Registered
 Technicians, VDACS-07212A (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination, VDACS-07212B (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination/Commercial Pesticide Applicator Categories, VDACS-07218 (rev.
 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-680) 
 
 Application for Virginia Pesticide Business License, Form
 VDACS-07209 (rev. 9/06). 
 
 Application
 for Virginia Pesticide Business License to sell, distribute, store, apply, or
 recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Certificate of Insurance, Form VDACS-07214 (rev. 4/96).
 
 Request to take the Virginia Pesticide Business License
 Examination (rev. 1/09) 
 
 Request
 to take the Virginia Pesticide Business License Examination (rev. 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-685) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Certification Application
 - A, Form VDACS-07211 (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination - B, Form VDACS-07218 (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Certification Application - A, Form VDACS-07211 (rev.
 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination - B, Form VDACS-07218 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Certification Exam bubble answer sheet, 2003
 
 Private Pesticide Applicator
 Certification Exam bubble answer sheet, 2003
 
 Private Pesticide Applicator
 Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination at
 Department of Motor Vehicles Customer Service Center (eff. 1/2009)
 
 Power of Attorney (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Proof of Additional Category
 Specific Training for Registered Technicians (rev. 8/2016)
 
 Application for Reciprocal
 Pesticide Applicator Certificate, Form VDACS-07210 (rev. 9/2016) 
 
 Pesticide Registered
 Technician Application Form - RT-A, Form VDACS-07212-A (rev. 9/2016) 
 
 Pesticide Registered
 Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination –
 RT-B, Form VDACS-07212-B (eff. 9/2016)
 
 Application
 for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator Certificate, Form VDACS-07210 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Application Form - RT-A, Form VDACS-07212-A (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination – RT-B, Form VDACS-07212-B (rev. 7/2019)
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-6080; Filed July 11, 2019, 8:51 a.m. 
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
BOARD OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Forms
 
  
 
 Forms
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S
 NOTICE: Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the
 agency. The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue
 of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a
 hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or
 may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main
 Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
 
  
 
 Titles of Regulations:
 2VAC5-670. Regulations Governing Pesticide Product Registration, Handling,
 Storage, and Disposal under Authority of the Virginia Pesticide Control Act.
 
 2VAC5-675. Regulations
 Governing Pesticide Fees Charged by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer
 Services.
 
 2VAC5-680. Regulations
 Governing Licensing of Pesticide Businesses Operating under Authority of the
 Virginia Pesticide Control Act.
 
 2VAC5-685. Regulations
 Governing Pesticide Applicator Certification under Authority of Virginia
 Pesticide Control Act.
 
 Contact Information: Liza Fleeson Trossbach, Program
 Manager, Office of Pesticide Services, Department of Agriculture and Consumer
 Services, P.O. Box 1163, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-6559, or email
 liza.fleeson@vdacs.virginia.gov.
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-670)
 
 Application for New Pesticide Product Registration, VDACS
 07208 (rev. 9/2014) 
 
 Application
 for New Pesticide Product Registration/Additional Information and Instructions,
 VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-675) 
 
 Application for New Pesticide Product
 Registration/Additional Information and Instructions, VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 
 Application for Virginia Pesticide Business License to
 sell, distribute, store, apply, or recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209
 (rev. 7/2017) 
 
 Application for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator
 Certificate/Commercial Pesticide Applicator Categories, VDACS-07210 (rev.
 7/2017) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Certification
 Application/Eligibility Requirements for Commercial Applicator Certification,
 VDACS-07211 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 Pesticide Registered Technician Application/General
 Training Requirements for Registered Technicians, VDACS-07212-A (rev.
 7/2018)
 
 Pesticide Registered Technician Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination, VDACS-07212-B (eff. 7/2018) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination/Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Categories, VDACS-07218 (rev. 7/2017) 
 
 Application
 for New Pesticide Product Registration/Additional Information and Instructions,
 VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Application
 for Virginia Pesticide Business License to sell, distribute, store, apply, or
 recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Application
 for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator Certificate/Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Categories, VDACS-07210 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Certification Application/Eligibility Requirements for
 Commercial Applicator Certification, VDACS-07211 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Application/General Training Requirements for Registered
 Technicians, VDACS-07212A (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination, VDACS-07212B (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination/Commercial Pesticide Applicator Categories, VDACS-07218 (rev.
 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-680) 
 
 Application for Virginia Pesticide Business License, Form
 VDACS-07209 (rev. 9/06). 
 
 Application
 for Virginia Pesticide Business License to sell, distribute, store, apply, or
 recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Certificate of Insurance, Form VDACS-07214 (rev. 4/96).
 
 Request to take the Virginia Pesticide Business License
 Examination (rev. 1/09) 
 
 Request
 to take the Virginia Pesticide Business License Examination (rev. 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-685) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Certification Application
 - A, Form VDACS-07211 (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination - B, Form VDACS-07218 (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Certification Application - A, Form VDACS-07211 (rev.
 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination - B, Form VDACS-07218 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Certification Exam bubble answer sheet, 2003
 
 Private Pesticide Applicator
 Certification Exam bubble answer sheet, 2003
 
 Private Pesticide Applicator
 Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination at
 Department of Motor Vehicles Customer Service Center (eff. 1/2009)
 
 Power of Attorney (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Proof of Additional Category
 Specific Training for Registered Technicians (rev. 8/2016)
 
 Application for Reciprocal
 Pesticide Applicator Certificate, Form VDACS-07210 (rev. 9/2016) 
 
 Pesticide Registered
 Technician Application Form - RT-A, Form VDACS-07212-A (rev. 9/2016) 
 
 Pesticide Registered
 Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination –
 RT-B, Form VDACS-07212-B (eff. 9/2016)
 
 Application
 for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator Certificate, Form VDACS-07210 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Application Form - RT-A, Form VDACS-07212-A (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination – RT-B, Form VDACS-07212-B (rev. 7/2019)
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-6080; Filed July 11, 2019, 8:51 a.m. 
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
BOARD OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Forms
 
  
 
 Forms
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S
 NOTICE: Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the
 agency. The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue
 of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a
 hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or
 may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main
 Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
 
  
 
 Titles of Regulations:
 2VAC5-670. Regulations Governing Pesticide Product Registration, Handling,
 Storage, and Disposal under Authority of the Virginia Pesticide Control Act.
 
 2VAC5-675. Regulations
 Governing Pesticide Fees Charged by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer
 Services.
 
 2VAC5-680. Regulations
 Governing Licensing of Pesticide Businesses Operating under Authority of the
 Virginia Pesticide Control Act.
 
 2VAC5-685. Regulations
 Governing Pesticide Applicator Certification under Authority of Virginia
 Pesticide Control Act.
 
 Contact Information: Liza Fleeson Trossbach, Program
 Manager, Office of Pesticide Services, Department of Agriculture and Consumer
 Services, P.O. Box 1163, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-6559, or email
 liza.fleeson@vdacs.virginia.gov.
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-670)
 
 Application for New Pesticide Product Registration, VDACS
 07208 (rev. 9/2014) 
 
 Application
 for New Pesticide Product Registration/Additional Information and Instructions,
 VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-675) 
 
 Application for New Pesticide Product
 Registration/Additional Information and Instructions, VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 
 Application for Virginia Pesticide Business License to
 sell, distribute, store, apply, or recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209
 (rev. 7/2017) 
 
 Application for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator
 Certificate/Commercial Pesticide Applicator Categories, VDACS-07210 (rev.
 7/2017) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Certification
 Application/Eligibility Requirements for Commercial Applicator Certification,
 VDACS-07211 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 Pesticide Registered Technician Application/General
 Training Requirements for Registered Technicians, VDACS-07212-A (rev.
 7/2018)
 
 Pesticide Registered Technician Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination, VDACS-07212-B (eff. 7/2018) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination/Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Categories, VDACS-07218 (rev. 7/2017) 
 
 Application
 for New Pesticide Product Registration/Additional Information and Instructions,
 VDACS-07208 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Application
 for Virginia Pesticide Business License to sell, distribute, store, apply, or
 recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Application
 for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator Certificate/Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Categories, VDACS-07210 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Certification Application/Eligibility Requirements for
 Commercial Applicator Certification, VDACS-07211 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Application/General Training Requirements for Registered
 Technicians, VDACS-07212A (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination, VDACS-07212B (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination/Commercial Pesticide Applicator Categories, VDACS-07218 (rev.
 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-680) 
 
 Application for Virginia Pesticide Business License, Form
 VDACS-07209 (rev. 9/06). 
 
 Application
 for Virginia Pesticide Business License to sell, distribute, store, apply, or
 recommend pesticides for use, VDACS-07209 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Certificate of Insurance, Form VDACS-07214 (rev. 4/96).
 
 Request to take the Virginia Pesticide Business License
 Examination (rev. 1/09) 
 
 Request
 to take the Virginia Pesticide Business License Examination (rev. 7/2019)
 
 FORMS (2VAC5-685) 
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Certification Application
 - A, Form VDACS-07211 (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization
 to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination - B, Form VDACS-07218 (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Certification Application - A, Form VDACS-07211 (rev.
 7/2019)
 
 Commercial
 Pesticide Applicator Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination - B, Form VDACS-07218 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Commercial Pesticide Applicator
 Certification Exam bubble answer sheet, 2003
 
 Private Pesticide Applicator
 Certification Exam bubble answer sheet, 2003
 
 Private Pesticide Applicator
 Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination at
 Department of Motor Vehicles Customer Service Center (eff. 1/2009)
 
 Power of Attorney (rev. 9/2016)
 
 Proof of Additional Category
 Specific Training for Registered Technicians (rev. 8/2016)
 
 Application for Reciprocal
 Pesticide Applicator Certificate, Form VDACS-07210 (rev. 9/2016) 
 
 Pesticide Registered
 Technician Application Form - RT-A, Form VDACS-07212-A (rev. 9/2016) 
 
 Pesticide Registered
 Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator Examination –
 RT-B, Form VDACS-07212-B (eff. 9/2016)
 
 Application
 for Reciprocal Pesticide Applicator Certificate, Form VDACS-07210 (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Application Form - RT-A, Form VDACS-07212-A (rev. 7/2019)
 
 Pesticide
 Registered Technician Request for Authorization to Take Pesticide Applicator
 Examination – RT-B, Form VDACS-07212-B (rev. 7/2019)
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-6080; Filed July 11, 2019, 8:51 a.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF GAME AND INLAND FISHERIES
Proposed Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
 Board of Game and Inland Fisheries is claiming an exemption from the
 Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 29.1-701 E of the Code of
 Virginia, which provides that the board shall promulgate regulations to
 supplement Chapter 7 (§ 29.1-700 et seq.) of Title 29.1 of the Code of
 Virginia as prescribed in Article 1 (§ 29.1-500 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of
 Title 29.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-380. Watercraft:
 Motorboat Numbering (amending 4VAC15-380-110). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-701 and 29.1-710 of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information:
 
 August 22, 2019 - 9 a.m. - Department of Game and Inland
 Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228
 
 Public Comment Deadline: July 31, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Regulations Coordinator,
 Department of Game and Inland Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400,
 Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 367-8341, or email
 aaron.proctor@dgif.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendment adds the definition of "tender
 vessel."
 
 4VAC15-380-110. Lifeboats and tender vessels defined. 
 
 The term "lifeboat" as used in § 29.1-710 of the
 Code of Virginia shall mean a boat used exclusively as a lifesaving device
 during times of emergency. 
 
 The term "tender vessel" as authorized under §
 29.1-710 of the Code of Virginia shall mean a vessel equipped with propulsion
 machinery of less than 10 horsepower that: 
 
 1. Is owned by the owner of a vessel for which a valid
 certificate of number has been issued;
 
 2. Displays the number of the owner's vessel as prescribed
 in 4VAC15-380-30 followed by the suffix "1"; and
 
 3. Is used as a tender for direct transportation between
 that vessel and the shore and for no other purpose. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-6051; Filed June 27, 2019, 2:36 p.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF GAME AND INLAND FISHERIES
Proposed Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
 Board of Game and Inland Fisheries is claiming an exemption from the
 Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 29.1-701 E of the Code of
 Virginia, which provides that the board shall promulgate regulations to
 supplement Chapter 7 (§ 29.1-700 et seq.) of Title 29.1 of the Code of
 Virginia as prescribed in Article 1 (§ 29.1-500 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of
 Title 29.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-430. Watercraft: Safety
 Equipment Requirements (amending 4VAC15-430-20 through 4VAC15-430-50).
 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-701 and 29.1-735 of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information:
 
 August 22, 2019 - 9 a.m. - Department of Game and Inland
 Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228
 
 Public Comment Deadline: July 31, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Regulations Coordinator,
 Department of Game and Inland Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400,
 Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 367-8341, or email
 aaron.proctor@dgif.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendments update requirements for personal
 flotation devices to align with federal regulations.
 
 4VAC15-430-20. Definitions. 
 
 As used in this chapter the following words and terms shall
 have the following meanings: 
 
 "Coastal waters" means the territorial seas of the
 United States, and those waters directly connected to the territorial seas
 (i.e., bays, sounds, harbors, rivers, inlets, etc.) where any entrance exceeds
 two nautical miles between opposite shorelines to the first point where the
 largest distance between shorelines narrows to two miles, as shown on the
 current edition of the appropriate National Ocean Service chart used for
 navigation. Shorelines of islands or points of land present within a waterway
 are considered when determining the distance between opposite shorelines. 
 
 "Passenger" means every person carried on board a
 vessel other than: 
 
 1. The owner or his representative; 
 
 2. The operator; 
 
 3. Bona fide members of the crew engaged in the business of
 the vessel who have contributed no consideration for their carriage and who are
 paid for their services; or 
 
 4. Any guest on board a vessel that is being used exclusively
 for pleasure purposes who has not contributed any consideration, directly or
 indirectly, for his carriage. 
 
 "Personal flotation device" or "PFD"
 means a device that is approved by the U.S. Coast Guard. 
 
 "Racing shell, rowing scull, racing canoe, and racing
 kayak" means a manually propelled vessel that is recognized by national or
 international racing associations for use in competitive racing and one in
 which all occupants row, scull, or paddle, with the exception of a coxswain, if
 one is provided, and is not designed to carry and does not carry any equipment
 not solely for competitive racing. 
 
 "Recreational vessel" means any vessel being
 manufactured or operated primarily for pleasure, or leased, rented, or
 chartered to another for the latter's pleasure. It does not include any vessel
 engaged in the carrying of any passengers for consideration. 
 
 "Sailboard" means a sail-propelled vessel with no
 freeboard and equipped with a swivel-mounted mast not secured to a hull by guys
 or stays.
 
 "Throwable PFD" means a PFD that is intended to
 be thrown to a person in the water. A PFD marked as Type IV or Type V with Type
 IV performance is considered a throwable PFD unless specifically marked
 otherwise. A wearable PFD is not a throwable PFD.
 
 "Use" means operate, navigate, or employ. 
 
 "Vessel" means every description of watercraft,
 other than a seaplane on the water, used or capable of being used as a means of
 transportation on water, but does not include surfboards, tubes, swimming
 rafts, inflatable toys and similar devices routinely used as water toys or
 swimming aids. 
 
 "Visual distress signal" means a device that is
 approved by the U.S. Coast Guard or certified by the manufacturer. 
 
 "Wearable PFD" means a PFD that is intended to
 be worn or otherwise attached to the body. A PFD marked as Type I, Type II,
 Type III, or Type V with Type I, II, or III performance is considered a
 wearable PFD.
 
 4VAC15-430-30. Personal flotation devices required. 
 
 A. Except as provided in 4VAC15-430-40, it shall be unlawful
 to use a recreational vessel unless at least one PFD of the following types
 is on board for each person: 
 
 1. Type I PFD At least one wearable PFD is on board
 for each person; 
 
 2. Type II PFD Each PFD is used in accordance with
 any requirements on the approval label; or and
 
 3. Type III PFD Each PFD is used in accordance with
 any requirements in its owner's manual if the approval label makes reference to
 such a manual. 
 
 B. Except as provided in 4VAC15-430-40, it shall be unlawful
 to use a recreational vessel of 16 feet or greater unless one Type IV throwable
 PFD is on board in addition to the total number of PFDs required in subsection
 A of this section. 
 
 C. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 29.1-742 of the Code
 of Virginia, it shall be unlawful to operate a personal watercraft unless each
 person riding on the personal watercraft or being towed by it is wearing a Type
 I, Type II, Type III or Type V PFD wearable PFD that is approved for
 such activity. 
 
 4VAC15-430-40. Personal flotation device exemptions. 
 
 A. A Type V PFD may be used in lieu of any PFD required
 under 4VAC15-430-30, provided: 
 
 1. The approval label on the Type V PFD indicates that the
 device is approved: 
 
 a. For the activity in which the vessel is being used; or 
 
 b. As a substitute for a PFD of the type required on the
 vessel in use; 
 
 2. The PFD is used in accordance with any requirements on
 the approval label; 
 
 3. The PFD is used in accordance with requirements in its
 owner's manual, if the approval label makes reference to such a manual; and 
 
 4. The PFD is being worn. 
 
 B. A. The following vessels are exempted
 from the requirements for carriage of the additional Type IV not
 required to carry an additional throwable PFD required by 4VAC15-430-30.
 
 
 1. Personal watercraft.
 
 2. Nonmotorized canoes and kayaks 16 feet in length and over.
 
 3. Racing shells, rowing sculls, racing canoes, and racing
 kayaks. 
 
 4. Sailboards. 
 
 5. Vessels of the United States used by foreign competitors
 while practicing for or racing in competition. 
 
 B. The following vessels are not required to carry any
 PFD:
 
 1. Racing shells, rowing sculls, racing canoes, and racing
 kayaks while participating in or preparing and practicing for a race.
 
 2. Sailboards.
 
 C. Vessels of the United States used by foreign
 competitors while practicing for or racing in competition are not required to
 carry any PFD, provided the vessel carries one of the sponsoring foreign
 country's acceptable flotation devices for each foreign competitor onboard.
 
 4VAC15-430-50. Personal flotation device stowage. 
 
 A. It shall be unlawful to use a recreational vessel unless
 each Type I, II, or III wearable PFD required by 4VAC15-430-30,
 or equivalent type allowed by 4VAC15-430-40, is readily accessible.
 "Readily accessible" means that PFDs are stowed where they can be
 easily reached, or are out in the open ready for wear. A readily accessible PFD
 cannot be in a protective covering or under lock and key. 
 
 B. It shall be unlawful to use a recreational vessel unless
 each Type IV throwable PFD required by 4VAC15-430-30 of this
 chapter is immediately available. "Immediately available" means the
 PFD shall be quickly reachable in an emergency situation. An immediately
 available PFD cannot be in a protective covering, in a closed compartment or
 under other equipment. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-6052; Filed June 27, 2019, 2:45 p.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD
Final Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
 Virginia Waste Management Board is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the
 Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 3, which
 excludes regulations that consist only of changes in style or form or
 corrections of technical errors, and an exemption from Article 2 of the
 Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code
 of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to meet the
 requirements of federal law or regulations, provided such regulations do not
 differ materially from those required by federal law or regulation. The
 Virginia Waste Management Board will receive, consider, and respond to
 petitions by any interested person at any time with respect to reconsideration
 or revision.
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-60. Virginia Hazardous
 Waste Management Regulations (amending 9VAC20-60-18, 9VAC20-60-70,
 9VAC20-60-260, 9VAC20-60-261, 9VAC20-60-264, 9VAC20-60-265, 9VAC20-60-266,
 9VAC20-60-328, 9VAC20-60-1390, 9VAC20-60-1430, 9VAC20-60-1505). 
 
 Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1402 of the Code of
 Virginia; 42 USC § 6921 et seq.; 40 CFR Parts 260 through 272.
 
 Effective Date: August 23, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Lisa A. Ellis, Coordinator, Hazardous
 Waste Compliance Program, Department of Environmental Quality, 1111 East Main
 Street, Suite 1400, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804)
 698-4237, or email lisa.ellis@deq.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary: 
 
 The amendments incorporate the 2018 amendments to Title 40
 of the Code of Federal Regulations into the regulation, not including the
 provisions of the Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) Response to Vacatur
 of Certain Provisions of the Definition of Solid Waste Rule (83 FR 24664). The
 amendments also incorporate EPA rules promulgated after July 1, 2018: (i) Safe
 Management of Recalled Air Bags (83 FR 61552) and (ii) Management of Hazardous
 Waste Pharmaceuticals and Amendment to the P075 Listing for Nicotine (84 FR
 5816). 
 
 9VAC20-60-18. Applicability of incorporated references based on
 the dates on which they became effective. 
 
 A. Except as noted, when a regulation of the United
 States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) set forth in Title 40 of
 the Code of Federal Regulations is referenced and incorporated herein into
 this chapter, that regulation shall be as it exists and has been published
 in the July 1, 2017, update 2018 annual edition; however, the
 incorporation by reference of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations shall
 not include the requirements of EPA's Response to Vacatur of Certain Provisions
 of the Definition of Solid Waste Rule (83 FR 24664, May 30, 2018).
 
 B. The references and incorporation of Title 40 of the
 Code of Federal Regulations into this chapter also includes the following rules
 promulgated by the United States Environmental Protection Agency after
 publication of the July 1, 2018, annual edition of Title 40 of the Code of
 Federal Regulations:
 
 1. Safe Management of Recalled Air Bags (83 FR 61552,
 November 30, 2018); and
 
 2. Management of Hazardous Waste Pharmaceuticals Rule and
 Amendment to the P075 Listing for Nicotine (84 FR 5816, February 22,
 2019).
 
 9VAC20-60-70. Public participation. 
 
 A. All regulations developed under the provisions of Title
 10.1 of the Code of Virginia for hazardous waste management shall be developed
 in accordance with the provisions of the Commonwealth of Virginia
 Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) and the
 Virginia Waste Management Board Public Participation Guidelines, 9VAC20-10
 9VAC20-11. 
 
 B. Modifications and revisions to all hazardous waste
 management facility permits, except changes to interim status, shall be subject
 to public participation in accordance with 9VAC20-60-270. 
 
 C. Modifications and revisions to this chapter shall be the
 subject of public participation as specified by the Virginia Administrative
 Process Act and the public participation guidelines of the board. 
 
 D. Dockets of all permitting actions, enforcement actions,
 and administrative actions relative to this chapter shall be available to the
 public for review, consistent with the Commonwealth of Virginia Administrative
 Process Act, the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.
 of the Code of Virginia), and the provisions of this chapter. 
 
 E. All reports and related materials received from hazardous
 waste generators, transporters, and facilities, as required by this
 chapter, shall be open to the public for review. 
 
 F. Public participation in the compliance evaluation and
 enforcement programs is encouraged. The department will: 
 
 1. Investigate and provide written responses to all citizen complaints
 addressed to the department; 
 
 2. Not oppose intervention by any citizen in a suit brought
 before a court by the department as a result of the enforcement action; and 
 
 3. Publish a notice in major daily or weekly newspaper of
 general circulation in the area and provide at least 30 days of public comment
 on proposed settlements of civil enforcement actions except where the
 settlement requires some immediate action. 
 
 9VAC20-60-260. Adoption of 40 CFR Part 260 by reference. 
 
 A. Except as otherwise provided, the regulations of the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency set forth in 40 CFR Part 260
 are hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. Except as otherwise provided, all material definitions, reference
 materials, and other ancillaries that are a part of 40 CFR Part 260 are also
 hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. 
 
 B. In all locations in these regulations where 40 CFR Part
 260 is incorporated by reference, the following additions, modifications, and
 exceptions shall amend the incorporated text for the purpose of its
 incorporation into these regulations: 
 
 1. In 40 CFR 260.10, the term "Administrator" shall
 mean the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency or
 his designee. 
 
 2. In 40 CFR 260.10, the term "contained" shall be
 appended by adding the following: (5) Hazardous secondary materials managed
 under the exclusion provided in 40 CFR 261.4(a)(23) or (a)(24) shall not be
 managed in a land-based unit unless the land-based unit meets the applicable
 standards of 40 CFR Parts 260 through 270, as incorporated by reference, for
 management of hazardous waste.
 
 3. In 40 CFR 260.10, the term "EPA" shall mean the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency. 
 
 4. In 40 CFR 260.10 the term "new tank system" and
 "existing tank system," the reference to July 14, 1986, applies only
 to tank regulations promulgated pursuant to federal Hazardous and Solid Waste
 Amendment (HSWA) requirements. HSWA requirement categories include: 
 
 a. Interim status and permitting requirements applicable to
 tank systems owned and operated by small quantity generators; 
 
 b. Leak detection requirements for all underground tank
 systems for which construction commenced after July 14, 1986; and 
 
 c. Permitting standards for underground tanks that cannot be
 entered for inspection. 
 
 For non-HSWA regulations, the reference date shall be January
 1, 1998. 
 
 5. In 40 CFR 260.10, the term "Regional
 Administrator" shall mean the Regional Administrator of Region III of the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency or his designee. 
 
 6. In 40 CFR 260.10 definitions of the terms
 "Person," "State," and "United States," the term
 "state" shall have the meaning originally intended by the Code of
 Federal Regulations and not be supplanted by "Commonwealth of
 Virginia." 
 
 7. In 40 CFR 260.10 and wherever elsewhere in Title 40 of the
 Code of Federal Regulations the term "universal waste" appears, it
 shall be amended by addition of the following sentence: "In addition to
 the hazardous wastes listed herein, the term "universal waste" shall
 include those hazardous wastes listed in Part XVI (9VAC20-60-1495 et seq.) of
 the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations as universal wastes, under
 such terms and requirements as shall therein be ascribed." 
 
 8. Throughout 40 CFR 260.11(a), the terms "EPA" and
 "U.S. Environmental Protection Agency" shall not be supplanted with
 the term "Commonwealth of Virginia." 
 
 9. In Part XIV (9VAC20-60-1370 et seq.), the Virginia
 Hazardous Waste Management Regulations contain provisions analogous to 40 CFR
 260.30, 40 CFR 260.31, 40 CFR 260.32, 40 CFR 260.33, 40 CFR 260.34, 40 CFR
 260.40, and 40 CFR 260.41. These sections of 40 CFR Part 260 are not
 incorporated by reference and are not a part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste
 Management Regulations. 
 
 10. Sections 40 CFR 260.2, 40 CFR 260.20, 40 CFR 260.21,
 40 CFR 260.22, and 40 CFR 260.23 are not included in the incorporation of 40
 CFR Part 260 by reference and are not a part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste
 Management Regulations. 
 
 11. Appendix I to 40 CFR Part 260 is not incorporated by
 reference and is not a part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations.
 
 12. In the 40 CFR 260.10 definitions of the terms "AES
 filing compliance date," and "Electronic import-export reporting
 compliance date," the term "EPA" shall have the meaning
 originally intended by the Code of Federal Regulations and not be supplanted by
 "Department of Environmental Quality."
 
 13. In 40 CFR 260.4(a)(4) and 40 CFR 260.5(b)(2), the term
 "EPA" shall be retained and shall mean the United States
 Environmental Protection Agency. The term "EPA" shall not be
 supplanted with "Department of Environmental Quality" as instructed
 in 9VAC20-60-14 B 2.
 
 14. The United States Environmental Protection Agency's
 amendments to 40 CFR 260 by the Response to Vacatur of Certain Provisions of
 the Definition of Solid Waste rule (83 FR 24664, May 30, 2018) shall not be
 included in the incorporation by reference of 40 CFR 260 and are not part of
 this chapter, 9VAC20-60; therefore, the incorporation of 40 CFR 260 is modified
 as follows:
 
 a. Retain 40 CFR 260.42 as it appears in EPA's Definition
 of Solid Waste rule (80 FR 1694, January 13, 2015).
 
 b. Retain 40 CFR 260.43 as it appears in EPA's Definition
 of Solid Waste rule (80 FR 1694, January 13, 2015).
 
 9VAC20-60-261. Adoption of 40 CFR Part 261 by reference. 
 
 A. Except as otherwise provided, the regulations of the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency set forth in 40 CFR Part 261
 are hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. Except as otherwise provided, all material definitions, reference
 materials, and other ancillaries that are a part of 40 CFR Part 261 are also
 hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. 
 
 B. In all locations in these regulations where 40 CFR Part
 261 is incorporated by reference, the following additions, modifications, and
 exceptions shall amend the incorporated text for the purpose of its
 incorporation into these regulations this chapter: 
 
 1. Any agreements required by 40 CFR 261.4(b)(11)(ii) shall be
 sent to the United States Environmental Protection Agency at the address
 shown Waste Identification Branch (5304), U.S. Environmental Protection
 Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20460 and to the
 Department of Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, Virginia 23218. 
 
 2. In 40 CFR 261.4(e)(3)(iii), the text "in the Region
 where the sample is collected" shall be deleted. 
 
 3. In 40 CFR 261.4(f)(1), the term "Regional
 Administrator" shall mean the Regional Administrator of Region III of the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency or his designee. 
 
 4. In 40 CFR 261.6(a)(2), recyclable materials shall be
 subject to the requirements of 9VAC20-60-270 and Part XII (9VAC20-60-1260 et
 seq.) of this chapter. 
 
 5. Reserved.
 
 6. In 40 CFR 261.9 and wherever elsewhere in Title 40 of the
 Code of Federal Regulations there is a listing of universal wastes or a listing
 of hazardous wastes that are the subject of provisions set out in 40 CFR Part
 273 as universal wastes, it shall be amended by addition of the following
 sentence: "In addition to the hazardous wastes listed here, the term
 "universal waste" and all lists of universal waste or waste subject
 to provisions of 40 CFR Part 273 shall include those hazardous wastes listed in
 Part XVI (9VAC20-60-1495 et seq.) of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations as universal wastes, in accordance with the terms and requirements
 described." 
 
 7. In Subparts B and D of 40 CFR Part 261, the term
 "Administrator" shall mean the Administrator of the United States
 Environmental Protection Agency, and the term "Director" shall not
 supplant "Administrator" throughout Subparts B and D. 
 
 8. For the purpose of this chapter, any solid waste is a
 hazardous waste if it is defined to be hazardous waste under the laws or
 regulations of the state in which it first became a solid waste.
 
 9. In 40 CFR 261.6(c)(1) and 40 CFR 261.6(c)(2) mercury-containing
 lamp recycling facilities must also comply with all applicable requirements of
 9VAC20-60-264 B 34 and 9VAC20-60-265 B 21.
 
 10. In Subpart E of 40 CFR Part 261, the term "EPA"
 shall have the meaning originally intended by the Code of Federal Regulations
 and not be supplanted by "Department of Environmental Quality." 
 
 11. In 40 CFR 261.2(a), reference to 40 CFR 260.30, 40 CFR
 260.31, and 40 CFR 260.34 are replaced by analogous provisions of Part XIV
 (9VAC20-60-1370 et seq.) of this chapter.
 
 12. In 40 CFR 261.3(a)(2), reference to exclusion under 40 CFR
 260.20 and 40 CFR 260.22 are not incorporated by reference.
 
 13. In 40 CFR 261.21(f)(6)(i), the term "EPA"
 shall be retained and shall mean the United States Environmental Protection
 Agency. The term "EPA" shall not be supplanted with "Department
 of Environmental Quality" as instructed in 9VAC20-60-14 B 2.
 
 14. The United States Environmental Protection Agency's
 (EPA's) amendments to 40 CFR 261 by the Response to Vacatur of Certain
 Provisions of the Definition of Solid Waste Rule (83 FR 24664, May 30, 2018)
 shall not be included in the incorporation by reference of 40 CFR 261 and are
 not part of this chapter, 9VAC20-60; therefore, the incorporation of 40 CFR 261
 is modified as follows:
 
 a. Retain 40 CFR 261.4(a)(23) as it appears in EPA's
 Definition of Solid Waste rule (80 FR 1694, January 13, 2015).
 
 b. Retain 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24) as it appears in EPA's
 Definition of Solid Waste rule (80 FR 1694, January 13, 2015).
 
 c. Reserve 40 CFR 261.4(a)(25) as it appears in EPA's
 Definition of Solid Waste rule (80 FR 1694, January 13, 2015). 
 
 9VAC20-60-264. Adoption of 40 CFR Part 264 by reference. 
 
 A. Except as otherwise provided, the regulations of the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency set forth in 40 CFR Part 264 are
 hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. Except as otherwise provided, all material definitions, reference
 materials and other ancillaries that are a part of 40 CFR Part 264 are also
 hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. 
 
 B. In all locations in these regulations where 40 CFR Part
 264 is incorporated by reference, the following additions, modifications, and
 exceptions shall amend the incorporated text for the purpose of its
 incorporation into these regulations: 
 
 1. Sections 40 CFR 264.1(d), 40 CFR 264.1(f), 40 CFR
 264.149, 40 CFR 264.150, 40 CFR 264.301(l), and Appendix VI are not
 included in the incorporation of 40 CFR Part 264 by reference and are not a
 part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations. 
 
 2. In 40 CFR 264.1(g)(11) and wherever elsewhere in Title 40
 of the Code of Federal Regulations there is a listing of universal wastes or a
 listing of hazardous wastes that are the subject of provisions set out in 40
 CFR Part 273 as universal wastes, it shall be amended by addition of the
 following sentence: "In addition to the hazardous wastes listed here, the
 term "universal waste" and all lists of universal waste or waste subject
 to provisions of 40 CFR Part 273 shall include those hazardous wastes
 listed in Part XVI (9VAC20-60-1495 et seq.) of the Virginia Hazardous Waste
 Management Regulations as universal wastes, in accordance with the terms and
 requirements described." 
 
 3. In 40 CFR 264.12(a), the term "Regional
 Administrator" shall mean the Regional Administrator of Region III of the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency or his designee. 
 
 4. In 40 CFR 264.33, the following sentence shall be added to
 the end of the paragraph: "A record of tests or inspections will be
 maintained on a log at that facility or other reasonably accessible and
 convenient location." 
 
 5. In addition to the notifications required by 40 CFR
 264.56(d)(2), notification shall be made to the on-scene coordinator, the
 National Response Center, and the Virginia Department of Emergency Management,
 Emergency Operations Center. In the associated report filed under 40 CFR
 264.56(i), the owner or operator shall include such other information
 specifically requested by the director, which is reasonably necessary and
 relevant to the purpose of an operating record. 
 
 6. In 40 CFR 264.93, "hazardous constituents" shall
 include constituents identified in 40 CFR Part 264 Appendix IX in addition
 to those in 40 CFR Part 261 Appendix VIII. 
 
 7. The federal text at 40 CFR 264.94(a)(2) is not incorporated
 by reference. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR 264.94(a)(2):
 "For any of the constituents for which the USEPA has established a Maximum
 Contaminant Level (MCL) under the National Primary Drinking Water Regulation,
 40 CFR Part 141 (regulations under the Safe Drinking Water Act), the
 concentration must not exceed the value of the MCL; or." 
 
 8. The owner or operator must submit the detailed, written
 closure cost estimate described in 40 CFR 264.142 upon the written request of
 the director. 
 
 9. In 40 CFR 264.143(b)(1), 40 CFR 264.143(c)(1), 40 CFR
 264.145(b)(1), and 40 CFR 264.145(c)(1), any surety company issuing surety
 bonds to guarantee payment or performance must be licensed pursuant to Chapter
 10 (§ 38.2-1000 et seq.) of Title 38.2 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 10. In 40 CFR 264.143(b), 40 CFR 264.143(c), 40 CFR
 264.145(b), and 40 CFR 264.145(c), any owner or operator demonstrating
 financial assurance for closure or post-closure care using a surety bond shall
 submit with the surety bond a copy of the deed book page documenting that the
 power of attorney of the attorney-in-fact executing the bond has been recorded
 pursuant to § 38.2-2416 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 11. Where in 40 CFR 264.143(c)(5) the phrase "final
 administrative determination pursuant to section 3008 of RCRA" appears, it
 shall be replaced with "final determination pursuant to Chapter 40 (§
 2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia." 
 
 12. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 264.143(d)(8): "Following a final administrative determination pursuant to
 Chapter 40 (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia that the
 owner or operator has failed to perform final closure in accordance with the
 approved closure plan, the applicable regulations or other permit requirements
 when required to do so, the director may draw on the letter of credit." 
 
 13. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 264.143(e)(1): "An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this
 section by obtaining closure insurance which conforms to the requirements of
 this paragraph and submitting a certificate of such insurance, along with a
 complete copy of the insurance policy, to the department. An owner or operator
 of a new facility must submit the certificate of insurance along with a
 complete copy of the insurance policy to the department at least 60 days before
 the date on which the hazardous waste is first received for treatment, storage
 or disposal. The insurance must be effective before this initial receipt of
 hazardous waste. At a minimum, the insurer must be licensed pursuant to Chapter
 10 (§ 38.2-1000 et seq.) of Title 38.2 of the Code of Virginia." 
 
 14. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 264.143(f)(3)(ii), 40 CFR 264.145(f)(3)(ii), and 40 CFR
 264.147(f)(3)(ii): "A copy of the owner's or operator's audited financial
 statements for the latest completed fiscal year; including a copy of the
 independent certified public accountant's report on examination of the owner's
 or operator's financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year;
 and" 
 
 15. In addition to the other requirements in 40 CFR
 264.143(f)(3), 40 CFR 264.145(f)(3) and 40 CFR 264.147(f)(3), an owner or
 operator must submit confirmation from the rating service that the owner or
 operator has a current rating for its most recent bond issuance of AAA, AA, A,
 or BBB as issued by Standard and Poor's or Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa as issued by
 Moody's if the owner or operator passes the financial test with a bond rating
 as provided in 40 CFR 264.143(f)(1)(ii)(A). 
 
 16. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 264.143(h) and 40 CFR 264.145(h): "An owner or operator may use a
 financial assurance mechanism specified in this section to meet the
 requirements of this section for more than one facility in Virginia. Evidence
 of financial assurance submitted to the department must include a list showing,
 for each facility, the EPA Identification Number, name, address, and the amount
 of funds for closure or post-closure assured by the mechanism. The amount of
 funds available through the mechanism must be no less than the sum of funds
 that would be available if a separate mechanism had been established and
 maintained for each facility. In directing funds available through the
 mechanism for closure or post-closure care of any of the facilities covered by
 the mechanism, the director may direct only the amount of funds designated for
 that facility, unless the owner or operator agrees to the use of additional
 funds available under the mechanism." 
 
 17. In addition to the requirements of 40 CFR 264.144,
 "the owner or operator must submit a detailed, written post-closure cost
 estimate upon the written request of the director." 
 
 18. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 264.144(b): "During the active life of the facility and the post-closure
 period, the owner or operator must adjust the post-closure cost estimate for
 inflation within 60 days prior to the anniversary date of the establishment of
 the financial instruments used to comply with 40 CFR 264.145. For owners or
 operators using the financial test or corporate guarantee, the post-closure
 cost estimate must be updated for inflation within 30 days after the close of
 the firm's fiscal year and before the submission of updated information to the
 department as specified in 40 CFR 264.145(f)(5). The adjustment may be made by
 recalculating the post-closure cost estimate in current dollars or by using an
 inflation factor derived from the most recent Implicit Price Deflator for Gross
 National Product published by the U.S. Department of Commerce in its Survey of
 Current Business as specified in 40 CFR 264.142(b)(1) and (2). The inflation
 factor is the result of dividing the latest published annual Deflator by the
 Deflator for the previous year. 
 
 a. The first adjustment is made by multiplying the
 post-closure cost estimate by the inflation factor. The result is the adjusted
 post-closure cost estimate. 
 
 b. Subsequent adjustments are made by multiplying the latest
 adjusted post-closure cost estimate by the latest inflation factor." 
 
 19. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 264.144(c): "During the active life of the facility and the post-closure
 period, the owner or operator must revise the post-closure cost estimate within
 30 days after the director has approved the request to modify the post-closure
 plan, if the change in the post-closure plan increases the cost of post-closure
 care. The revised post-closure cost estimate must be adjusted for inflation as
 specified in 264.144(b)." 
 
 20. Where in 40 CFR 264.145(c)(5) the phrase "final
 administrative determination pursuant to section 3008 of RCRA" appears, it
 shall be replaced with "final determination pursuant to Chapter 40 (§
 2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia." 
 
 21. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 264.145(d)(9): "Following a final administrative determination pursuant to
 Chapter 40 (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia that the
 owner or operator has failed to perform post-closure in accordance with the
 approved post-closure plan, the applicable regulations, or other permit
 requirements when required to do so, the director may draw on the letter of
 credit." 
 
 22. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 264.145(e)(1): "An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this
 section by obtaining post-closure insurance which conforms to the requirements
 of this paragraph and submitting a certificate of such insurance to the
 department. An owner or operator of a new facility must submit the certificate
 of insurance along with a complete copy of the insurance policy to the
 department at least 60 days before the date on which the hazardous waste is
 first received for treatment, storage or disposal. The insurance must be
 effective before this initial receipt of hazardous waste. At a minimum, the
 insurer must be licensed pursuant to Chapter 10 (§ 38.2-1000 et seq.) of Title
 38.2 of the Code of Virginia." 
 
 23. In 40 CFR 264.147(a)(1)(ii), 40 CFR 264.147(b)(1)(ii), 40
 CFR 264.147(g)(2), and 40 CFR 264.147(i)(4), the term "Virginia"
 shall not be substituted for the term "State" or "States." 
 
 24. In 40 CFR 264.191(a), the compliance date of January 12,
 1988, applies only for HSWA tanks. For non-HSWA tanks, the compliance date is
 November 2, 1997, instead of January 12, 1997. 
 
 25. In 40 CFR 264.191(c), the reference to July 14, 1986,
 applies only to HSWA tanks. For non-HSWA tanks, the applicable date is November
 2, 1987, instead of July 14, 1986. 
 
 26. In 40 CFR 264.193, the federal effective dates apply only
 to HSWA tanks. For non-HSWA tanks, the applicable date is November 2, 1997,
 instead of January 12, 1997. 
 
 27. A copy of all reports made in accordance with 40 CFR
 264.196(d) shall be sent to the director and to the chief administrative
 officer of the local government of the jurisdiction in which the event occurs.
 The sentence in 40 CFR 264.196(d)(1), "If the release has been
 reported pursuant to 40 CFR Part 302, that report will satisfy this
 requirement." is not incorporated by reference into these regulations and
 is not a part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations. 
 
 28. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 264.570(a): "The requirements of this subpart apply to owners and
 operators of facilities that use new or existing drip pads to convey wood
 drippage, precipitation and/or surface water run-off to an associated
 collection system. Existing HSWA drip pads are those constructed before
 December 6, 1990, and those for which the owner or operator has a design and
 has entered into a binding financial or other agreement for construction prior
 to December 6, 1990. Existing non-HSWA drip pads are those constructed before
 January 14, 1993, and those for which the owner or operator has a design and
 has entered into a binding financial or other agreements for construction prior
 to January 14, 1993. All other drip pads are new drip pads. The requirement at
 40 CFR 264.573(b)(3) to install a leak collection system applies only to
 those HSWA drip pads that are constructed after December 24, 1992, except for
 those constructed after December 24, 1992, for which the owner or operator has
 a design and has entered into a binding financial or other agreement for
 construction prior to December 24, 1992. For non-HSWA drip pads, the
 requirement at 40 CFR 264.573(b)(3) to install a leak collection system
 applies only to those non-HSWA drip pads that are constructed after September
 8, 1993, except for those constructed after September 8, 1993, for which the
 owner or operator has a design and has entered into a binding financial or
 other agreement for construction prior to September 8, 1993." 
 
 29. In 40 CFR 264.1030(c), the reference to 40 CFR 124.15
 shall be replaced by a reference to 40 CFR 124.5. 
 
 30. The underground injection of hazardous waste for
 treatment, storage or disposal shall be prohibited throughout the Commonwealth
 of Virginia. 
 
 31. In addition to the notices required in Subpart B and
 others parts of 40 CFR Part 264, the following notices are also required: 
 
 a. The owner or operator of a facility that has arranged to
 receive hazardous waste from a foreign source (a source located outside of the
 United States of America) shall notify the department and administrator in writing
 at least four weeks in advance of the date the waste is expected to arrive at
 the facility. Notice of subsequent shipments of the same waste from the same
 foreign source is not required. 
 
 b. The owner or operator of a facility that receives hazardous
 waste from an off-site source (except where the owner or operator of the
 facility is also the generator of this waste) shall inform the generator in
 writing that he has appropriate permits for, and will accept, the waste that
 the generator is shipping. The owner or operator shall keep a copy of this
 written notice as part of the operating record. 
 
 c. Before transferring ownership or operation of a facility
 during its operating life, or of a disposal facility during the post-closure
 care period, the owner or operator shall notify the new owner or operator in
 writing of the requirements contained in this section and 9VAC20-60-270. An
 owner or operator's failure to notify the new owner or operator of the
 requirements in this section and 9VAC20-60-270 in no way relieves the new owner
 or operator of his obligation to comply with all applicable requirements. 
 
 d. Any person responsible for the release of a hazardous
 substance from the facility that poses an immediate or imminent threat to
 public health and who is required by law to notify the National Response Center
 shall notify the department and the chief administrative officer of the local
 government of the jurisdiction in which the release occurs or their designees.
 In cases when the released hazardous substances are hazardous wastes or
 hazardous waste constituents additional requirements are prescribed by Subpart
 D of 40 CFR Part 264. 
 
 32. In 40 CFR 264.71, the terms "EPA" and
 "Environmental Protection Agency" shall mean the United States
 Environmental Protection Agency, and the reference to "system" means
 the United States Environmental Protection Agency's national electronic
 manifest system.
 
 33. Regardless of the provisions of 9VAC20-60-18, the
 requirements of 40 CFR 264.71(j) are Subpart FF of 40 CFR Part 264
 shall not be incorporated into this chapter.
 
 34. Requirements for mercury-containing lamp recycling
 facilities. The following requirements apply to all facilities that recover or
 reclaim mercury from lamps.
 
 a. All owners and operators of mercury-containing lamp
 recycling facilities shall:
 
 (1) Have established markets for the utilization of reclaimed
 materials and be able to identify these markets to the department;
 
 (2) Only introduce into the processing equipment lamps or
 devices for which the equipment was specifically designed to process and
 operate and maintain processing equipment consistent with the equipment
 manufacturer's specifications; and
 
 (3) Not speculatively accumulate the materials. 
 
 b. If a mercury-containing lamp recycling facility's
 processed materials are to be delivered to a facility other than a mercury
 reclamation facility, the owner or operator shall:
 
 (1) Demonstrate proper equipment operation and efficiency
 by sampling and analytical testing of the processed materials. The testing
 shall ensure that such processed materials (i) have less than three parts per
 million of "average mercury" during each consecutive 12-week time
 period of operations ("average mercury" shall be calculated pursuant
 to subdivision 34 b (3) of this subsection); (ii) have less than five parts per
 million of total mercury as reported in the "weekly composite sample of
 process operations" ("weekly composite sample of process
 operations" shall be calculated pursuant to subdivision 34 b (3) of this
 subsection); (iii) are not a hazardous waste; and (iv) comply with 40 CFR Part
 268, if applicable.
 
 (2) Retest, reprocess, or deliver to a mercury reclamation
 facility processed materials that are in excess of the allowable levels of
 mercury specified in subdivision 34 b (1) of this subsection.
 
 (3) Sample and perform analytical testing of the processed
 material for total mercury as follows:
 
 (a) Facility operators shall take daily physical samples of
 the mercury-containing materials at the point at which they exit the processing
 equipment. These samples shall be representative of the materials
 processed during that day.
 
 (b) At the beginning of each week, the prior week's daily
 samples shall be consolidated into one weekly sample, which shall be submitted
 for chemical analysis of total mercury content using an approved EPA
 methodology. At least three separate daily samples shall be taken in order to
 obtain a weekly sample. When a facility is not operating at least three days
 during a week, that week will be dropped out of the 12-week rolling average as
 calculated under subdivision 34 b (3) (c) of this subsection. However, all
 daily samples that are in a week that has been dropped out shall be counted
 towards the very next weekly sample that is included in a 12-week rolling
 average. The result of this analysis shall be considered the "weekly
 composite sample of process operations."
 
 (c) The "average mercury" value calculation shall be
 the rolling average of weekly composite sample results from samples taken
 during the most recent 12-week time period with each new weekly composite
 sample result replacing the oldest sample result that was used in the previous
 12-week period.
 
 c. Mercury-containing lamp recycling facilities shall ensure
 that the separated materials that are generated from their operations are
 suitable and safe for their intended end use and shall bear the burden of
 responsibility for the safety of these materials sold or delivered from the
 operations. Facilities shall notify in writing receiving sources, other than
 mercury reclamation facilities, of the amount and type of hazardous substances
 present in the processed materials as demonstrated by laboratory analysis.
 
 d. Operating requirements. Mercury-containing lamp recycling
 facilities shall be operated in accordance with the following requirements: 
 
 (1) Mercury-containing lamp recycling facilities shall control
 mercury emissions through the use of a single air handling system with
 redundant mercury controls and comply with the following:
 
 (a) The owner or operator shall operate, monitor, and maintain
 an air handling system with redundant air pollution control equipment in order
 to reduce the mercury content of the air collected during the volume reduction
 and mercury recovery and reclamation processes.
 
 (b) Redundant air pollution control equipment shall
 incorporate at least two carbon filters or equivalent technology arranged in a
 series so that the air passes through both filters before being released. In
 the event of a single filter failure, each filter shall be designed to ensure
 compliance with the risk-based protectiveness standards for mercury vapor
 provided in subdivision 34 e of this subsection.
 
 (c) A sample of air shall be collected after the first carbon
 filter (or equivalent technology) and upstream of the second once each
 operating day while mercury-containing lamps or devices are being processed.
 The mercury content of the sample shall be determined for comparison with the
 risk-based protectiveness standards provided in subdivision 34 e of this
 subsection.
 
 (d) The owner or operator shall operate, monitor, and maintain
 the air pollution control equipment in such a manner as not to exceed the
 risk-based protectiveness standards under subdivision 34 e of this subsection
 for mercury vapor downstream of the first carbon filter (or equivalent
 technology) and upstream of the second carbon filter.
 
 (2) The area in which the processing equipment is located
 shall be fully enclosed and kept under negative pressure while processing
 mercury-containing lamps or devices.
 
 e. Testing for mercury releases
 from lamp crushing units shall be performed using a mercury vapor analyzer that
 has been approved for the application by the U.S. Occupational Safety and
 Health Administration or the Virginia Department of Labor and Industry or a
 comparable device that has been calibrated by the manufacturer or laboratory
 providing the equipment. Mercury vapor monitors used for testing must be
 capable of detecting mercury at the applicable concentrations provided below or
 lower in air and must be equipped with a data recording device to provide a
 record of measurements taken. Mercury monitoring data shall be documented and
 available for inspection in accordance with subdivision 34 g of this
 subsection. The acute exposure protectiveness standard is 300 µg/m3
 for a 10-minute exposure with the understanding that the acute exposure
 protectiveness standard is considered a ceiling value and at no time during
 bulb crushing operation will the air concentrations of mercury exceed 300 µg/m3.
 The following are risk-based protectiveness standards at a distance of five
 feet from the bulb crushing unit:
 
 
  
   | Monthly Bulb Crushing Duration
   (X Hours/Month)* | Chronic Exposure Air Emission
   Limit (µg/m3) | Acute Exposure Air Emission
   Limit (µg/m3) | 
  
   | X = 32 | 1.314skin µg/m3 | 300 µg/m3 | 
  
   | 8 < X < 32 | 6.317 skin µg/m3 | 300 µg/m3 | 
  
   | X = 8 | 27.375 skin µg/m3 | 300 µg/m3 | 
  
   | *Monthly crushing duration is
   determined based on the maximum number of hours that bulb crushing occurred
   in any one month over the last 12-month period. | 
 
 
 f. Closure. Mercury-containing lamp recycling facilities must
 prepare and maintain a closure plan conforming to the requirements of 40 CFR
 Part 264, Subpart G as adopted by reference in this section. Financial
 assurance shall be provided to the department in accordance with 40 CFR Part
 264, Subpart H as adopted by reference in this section. 
 
 g. Recordkeeping requirements. The owner or operator of a
 mercury-containing lamp recycling facility shall maintain records of monitoring
 information that (i) specify the date, place, and time of measurement; (ii)
 provide the methodology used; and (iii) list the analytical results. The
 records maintained shall include all calibration and maintenance records of
 monitoring equipment. The owner or operator shall retain records of all
 monitoring data and supporting information available for department inspection
 for a period of at least three years from the date of collection.
 
 35. The following additional information is required from
 owners or operators of facilities that store or treat hazardous waste in waste
 piles if an exemption is sought to Subpart F of 40 CFR Part 264 and 40 CFR
 264.251 as provided in 40 CFR 264.250(c) and 40 CFR 264.90(b)(2): 
 
 a. An explanation of how the standards of 40 CFR
 264.250(c) will be complied with; and 
 
 b. Detailed plans and an engineering report describing how the
 requirements of 40 CFR 264.90(b)(2) will be met. 
 
 9VAC20-60-265. Adoption of 40 CFR Part 265 by reference. 
 
 A. Except as otherwise provided, the regulations of the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency set forth in 40 CFR Part 265 are
 hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. Except as otherwise provided, all material definitions, reference
 materials and other ancillaries that are parts of 40 CFR Part 265 are also
 hereby incorporated as parts of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. 
 
 B. In all locations in these regulations where 40 CFR
 Part 265 is incorporated by reference, the following additions, modifications, and
 exceptions shall amend the incorporated text for the purpose of its
 incorporation into these regulations: 
 
 1. Sections 40 CFR 265.1(c)(4), 40 CFR 265.149 and 40 CFR
 265.150 and Subpart R of 40 CFR Part 265 are not included in the incorporation
 of 40 CFR Part 265 by reference and are not a part of the Virginia Hazardous
 Waste Management Regulations. 
 
 2. In 40 CFR 265.1(c)(14) and wherever elsewhere in Title 40
 of the Code of Federal Regulations there is a listing of universal wastes or a
 listing of hazardous wastes that are the subject of provisions set out in 40
 CFR Part 273 as universal wastes, it shall be amended by addition of the
 following sentence: "In addition to the hazardous wastes listed here, the
 term "universal waste" and all lists of universal waste or waste
 subject to provision of 40 CFR Part 273 shall include those hazardous wastes
 listed in Part XVI (9VAC20-60-1495 et seq.) of the Virginia Hazardous Waste
 Management Regulations as universal wastes, in accordance with the terms and
 requirements described." 
 
 3. A copy of all reports and notices made in accordance with
 40 CFR 265.12 shall be sent to the department, the administrator and the chief
 administrative officer of the local government of the jurisdiction in which the
 event occurs. 
 
 4. In 40 CFR 265.12(a), the term "Regional
 Administrator" shall mean the Regional Administrator of Region III of the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency or his designee. 
 
 5. In 40 CFR 265.33, the following sentence shall be added to
 the end of the paragraph: "A record of tests or inspections will be
 maintained on a log at that facility or other reasonably accessible and
 convenient location." 
 
 6. In addition to the notifications required by 40 CFR
 265.56(d)(2), notification shall be made to the on-scene coordinator, the
 National Response Center, and the Virginia Department of Emergency Management,
 Emergency Operations Center. In the associated report filed under 40 CFR
 265.56(i), the owner or operator shall include such other information
 specifically requested by the director, which is reasonably necessary and
 relevant to the purpose of an operating record. 
 
 7. In addition to the requirements of 40 CFR 265.91, a log
 shall be made of each ground water groundwater monitoring well
 describing the soils or rock encountered, the permeability of formations, and
 the cation exchange capacity of soils encountered. A copy of the logs with
 appropriate maps shall be sent to the department. 
 
 8. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 265.143(g) and 40 CFR 265.145(g): "An owner or operator may use a
 financial assurance mechanism specified in this section to meet the
 requirements of this section for more than one facility in Virginia. Evidence
 of financial assurance submitted to the department must include a list showing,
 for each facility, the EPA Identification Number, name, address, and the amount
 of funds for closure or post-closure assured by the mechanism. The amount of
 funds available through the mechanism must be no less than the sum of funds
 that would be available if a separate mechanism had been established and
 maintained for each facility. In directing funds available through the
 mechanism for closure or post-closure care of any of the facilities covered by
 the mechanism, the director may direct only the amount of funds designated for
 that facility, unless the owner or operator agrees to the use of additional
 funds available under the mechanism. 
 
 9. In 40 CFR 265.147(a)(1)(ii), 40 CFR 265.147(g)(2), and 40
 CFR 265.147(i)(4), the term "Virginia" shall not be substituted for
 the term "State" or "States." 
 
 10. In 40 CFR 265.191(a), the compliance date of January 12,
 1988, applies only for HSWA tanks. For non-HSWA tanks, the compliance date is
 November 2, 1986. 
 
 11. In 40 CFR 265.191(c), the reference to July 14, 1986,
 applies only to HSWA tanks. For non-HSWA tanks, the applicable date is November
 2, 1987. 
 
 12. In 40 CFR 265.193, the federal effective dates apply only
 to HSWA tanks. For non-HSWA tanks, the applicable date of January 12, 1987, is
 replaced with November 2, 1997. 
 
 13. The following text shall be substituted for 40 CFR
 265.440(a): "The requirements of this subpart apply to owners and
 operators of facilities that use new or existing drip pads to convey wood
 drippage, precipitation and/or surface water run-off to an associated
 collection system. Existing HSWA drip pads are those constructed before
 December 6, 1990, and those for which the owner or operator has a design and
 has entered into a binding financial or other agreement for construction prior
 to December 6, 1990. Existing non-HSWA drip pads are those constructed before
 January 14, 1993, and those for which the owner or operator has a design and
 has entered into a binding financial or other agreement for construction prior
 to January 14, 1993. All other drip pads are new drip pads. The requirement at
 40 CFR 265.443(b)(3) to install a leak collection system applies only to those
 HSWA drip pads that are constructed after December 24, 1992, except for those
 constructed after December 24, 1992, for which the owner or operator has a
 design and has entered into a binding financial or other agreement for
 construction prior to December 24, 1992. For non-HSWA drip pads, the
 requirement at 40 CFR 264.573(b)(3) to install a leak collection system applies
 only to those non-HSWA drip pads that are constructed after September 8, 1993,
 except for those constructed after September 8, 1993, for which the owner or
 operator has a design and has entered into a binding financial or other
 agreement for construction prior to September 8, 1993." 
 
 14. In 40 CFR 265.1083(c)(4)(ii), the second occurrence of the
 term "EPA" shall mean the United States Environmental Protection
 Agency. 
 
 15. In addition to the requirements of 40 CFR 265.310, the
 owner or operator shall consider at least the following factors in addressing
 the closure and post-closure care objectives of this part: 
 
 a. Type and amount of hazardous waste and hazardous waste
 constituents in the landfill; 
 
 b. The mobility and the expected rate of migration of the hazardous
 waste and hazardous waste constituents; 
 
 c. Site location, topography, and surrounding land use, with
 respect to the potential effects of pollutant migration; 
 
 d. Climate, including amount, frequency and pH of
 precipitation; 
 
 e. Characteristics of the cover, including material, final
 surface contours, thickness, porosity and permeability, slope, length of run of
 slope, and type of vegetation on the cover; and 
 
 f. Geological and soil profiles and surface and subsurface
 hydrology of the site. 
 
 16. Additionally, during the post-closure care period, the
 owner or operator of a hazardous waste landfill shall comply with the
 requirements of 40 CFR 265.116 and the following items: 
 
 a. Maintain the function and integrity of the final cover as
 specified in the approved closure plan; 
 
 b. Maintain and monitor the leachate collection, removal, and
 treatment system, if present, to prevent excess accumulation of the leachate in
 the system; 
 
 c. Maintain and monitor the landfill gas collection and
 control system, if present, to control the vertical and horizontal escape of
 gases; 
 
 d. Protect and maintain, if present, surveyed benchmarks; and 
 
 e. Restrict access to the landfill as appropriate for its
 post-closure use. 
 
 17. The underground injection of hazardous waste for
 treatment, storage or disposal shall be prohibited throughout the Commonwealth
 of Virginia. 
 
 18. Regulated units of the facility are those units used for
 storage treatment or disposal of hazardous waste in surface impoundments, waste
 piles, land treatment units, or landfills that received hazardous waste after
 July 26, 1982. In addition to the requirements of Subpart G of 40 CFR Part
 265, owners or operators of regulated units who manage hazardous wastes in
 regulated units shall comply with the closure and post-closure requirements
 contained in Subpart G of 40 CFR Part 264, Subpart H of 40 CFR Part 264,
 and Subpart K of 40 CFR Part 264 through Subpart N of 40 CFR Part 264, as
 applicable, and shall comply with the requirements in Subpart F of 40 CFR Part
 264 during any post-closure care period and for the extended ground water
 monitoring period, rather than the equivalent requirements contained in 40 CFR
 Part 265. The following provisions shall also apply: 
 
 a. For owners or operators of surface impoundments or waste
 piles included above who intend to remove all hazardous wastes at closure in
 accordance with 40 CFR 264.228(a)(1) or 40 CFR 264.258(a), as applicable,
 submittal of contingent closure and contingent post-closure plans is not
 required. However, if the facility is subsequently required to close as a
 landfill in accordance with Subpart N of 40 CFR Part 264, a modified closure
 plan shall be submitted no more than 30 days after such determination. These
 plans will be processed as closure plan amendments. For such facilities, the
 corresponding post-closure plan shall be submitted within 90 days of the
 determination that the unit shall be closed as a landfill. 
 
 b. A permit application as required under 9VAC20-60-270 to
 address the post-closure care requirements of 40 CFR 264.117 and for ground
 water groundwater monitoring requirements of 40 CFR 264.98, 40 CFR
 264.99, or 40 CFR 264.100, as applicable, shall be submitted for all regulated
 units that fail to satisfy the requirements of closure by removal or decontamination
 in 40 CFR 264.228(a)(1), 40 CFR 264.258(a), or 40 CFR 264.280(d) and 40
 CFR 264.280(e), as applicable. The permit application shall be submitted at the
 same time as the closure plan for those units closing with wastes in place and
 six months following the determination that closure by removal or
 decontamination is unachievable for those units attempting such closure. The
 permit application shall address the post-closure care maintenance of both the
 final cover and the ground water groundwater monitoring wells as
 well as the implementation of the applicable ground water groundwater
 monitoring program whenever contaminated soils, subsoils, liners, etc., are
 left in place. When all contaminated soils, subsoils, liners, etc., have been
 removed yet ground water groundwater contamination remains, the
 permit application shall address the post-closure care maintenance of the
 ground water monitoring wells as well as the implementation of the applicable
 ground water monitoring program. 
 
 c. In addition to the requirements of 40 CFR
 264.112(d)(2)(i) for requesting an extension to the one-year limit, the owner
 or operator shall demonstrate that he will continue to take all steps to
 prevent threats to human health and the environment. 
 
 d. In addition to the requirements of 40 CFR 264.119(c), the
 owner or operator shall also request a modification to the post-closure permit
 if he wishes to remove contaminated structures and equipment. 
 
 19. In 40 CFR 265.71, the terms "EPA" and
 "Environmental Protection Agency" shall mean the United States
 Environmental Protection Agency, and the reference to "system" means
 the United States Environmental Protection Agency's national electronic
 manifest system.
 
 20. Regardless of the provisions of 9VAC20-60-18, the
 requirements of 40 CFR 265.71(j) are Subpart FF of 40 CFR Part 265
 shall not be incorporated into this chapter.
 
 21. Requirements for mercury-containing lamp recycling
 facilities. The following requirements apply to all facilities that recover or
 reclaim mercury from lamps: 
 
 a. All owners and operators of mercury-containing lamp
 recycling facilities shall:
 
 (1) Have established markets for the utilization of reclaimed
 materials and be able to identify these markets to the department;
 
 (2) Only introduce into the processing equipment lamps or
 devices for which the equipment was specifically designed to process and
 operate and maintain processing equipment consistent with the equipment
 manufacturer's specifications; and
 
 (3) Not speculatively accumulate the materials. 
 
 b. If a mercury-containing lamp recycling facility's processed
 materials are to be delivered to a facility other than a mercury reclamation
 facility, the owner or operator shall: 
 
 (1) Demonstrate proper equipment operation and efficiency
 by sampling and analytical testing of the processed materials. The testing
 shall ensure that such processed materials (i) have less than three parts per
 million of "average mercury" during each consecutive 12-week time
 period of operations ("average mercury" shall be calculated pursuant
 to subdivision 21 b (3) of this subsection); (ii) have less than five parts per
 million of total mercury as reported in the "weekly composite sample of
 process operations" ("weekly composite sample of process
 operations" shall be calculated pursuant to subdivision 21 b (3) of this
 subsection); (iii) are not a hazardous waste; and (iv) comply with 40 CFR Part
 268, if applicable.
 
 (2) Retest, reprocess, or deliver to a mercury reclamation
 facility processed materials that are in excess of the allowable levels of
 mercury specified in subdivision 21 b (1) of this subsection.
 
 (3) Sample and perform analytical testing of the processed
 material for total mercury as follows:
 
 (a) Facility operators shall take daily physical samples of
 the mercury-containing materials at the point at which they exit the processing
 equipment. These samples shall be representative of the materials
 processed during that day.
 
 (b) At the beginning of each week, the prior week's daily
 samples shall be consolidated into one weekly sample that shall be submitted
 for chemical analysis of total mercury content using an approved EPA
 methodology. At least three separate daily samples shall be taken in order to
 obtain a weekly sample. When a facility is not operating at least three days
 during a week, that week will be dropped out of the 12-week rolling average as
 calculated under subdivision 21 b (3) (c) of this subsection. However, all
 daily samples that are in a week that has been dropped out shall be counted
 towards the very next weekly sample that is included in a 12-week rolling
 average. The result of this analysis shall be considered the "weekly
 composite sample of process operations."
 
 (c) The "average mercury" value calculation shall be
 the rolling average of weekly composite sample results from samples taken
 during the most recent 12-week time period with each new weekly composite
 sample result replacing the oldest sample result that was used in the previous
 12-week period.
 
 c. Mercury-containing lamp recycling facilities shall
 ensure that the separated materials that are generated from their operations
 are suitable and safe for their intended end use and shall bear the burden of
 responsibility for the safety of these materials sold or delivered from the
 operations. Facilities shall notify in writing receiving sources, other than
 mercury reclamation facilities, of the amount and type of any hazardous
 substances present in the processed materials as demonstrated by laboratory
 analysis.
 
 d. Operating requirements. Mercury-containing lamp recycling facilities
 shall be operated in accordance with the following requirements: 
 
 (1) Mercury-containing lamp recycling facilities shall control
 mercury emissions through the use of a single air handling system with
 redundant mercury controls and comply with the following:
 
 (a) The owner or operator shall operate, monitor, and maintain
 an air handling system with redundant air pollution control equipment in order
 to reduce the mercury content of the air collected during the volume reduction
 and mercury recovery and reclamation processes.
 
 (b) Redundant air pollution control equipment shall
 incorporate at least two carbon filters or equivalent technology arranged in a
 series so that the air passes through both filters before being released. In
 the event of a single filter failure, each filter shall be designed to ensure
 compliance with the risk-based protectiveness standards for mercury vapor
 provided in subdivision 21 e of this subsection.
 
 (c) A sample of air shall be collected after the first carbon
 filter (or equivalent technology) and upstream of the second once each
 operating day while mercury-containing lamps or devices are being processed.
 The mercury content of the sample shall be determined for comparison with the
 risk-based protectiveness standards provided in subdivision 21 e of this
 subsection.
 
 (d) The owner or operator shall operate, monitor, and maintain
 the air pollution control equipment in such a manner as not to exceed the
 risk-based protectiveness standards under subdivision 21 e of this subsection for
 mercury vapor downstream of the first carbon filter (or equivalent technology)
 and upstream of the second carbon filter. 
 
 (2) The area in which the processing equipment is located
 shall be fully enclosed and kept under negative pressure while processing
 mercury-containing lamps or devices.
 
 e. Testing for mercury releases from lamp crushing units shall
 be performed using a mercury vapor analyzer that has been approved for the
 application by the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration or the
 Virginia Department of Labor and Industry or a comparable device that has been
 calibrated by the manufacturer or laboratory providing the equipment. Mercury
 vapor monitors used for testing must be capable of detecting mercury at the
 applicable concentrations provided below in this subdivision or
 lower in air and must be equipped with a data recording device to provide a
 record of measurements taken. Mercury monitoring data shall be documented and
 available for inspection in accordance with subdivision 21 g of this
 subsection. The acute exposure protectiveness standard is 300 µg/m3
 for a 10-minute exposure with the understanding that the acute exposure
 protectiveness standard is considered a ceiling value and at no time during
 bulb crushing operation will the air concentrations of mercury exceed 300 µg/m3.
 The following are risk-based protectiveness standards at a distance of five
 feet from the bulb crushing unit:
 
 
  
   | Monthly Bulb Crushing Duration (X Hours/Month)* | Chronic Exposure Air Emission Limit (µg/m3) | Acute Exposure Air Emission Limit (µg/m3)  | 
  
   | X = 32 | 1.314skin µg/m3 | 300 µg/m3 | 
  
   | 8 < X < 32 | 6.317 skin µg/m3 | 300 µg/m3 | 
  
   | X = 8 | 27.375 skin µg/m3 | 300 µg/m3 | 
  
   | *Monthly crushing duration is determined based on the
   maximum number of hours that bulb crushing occurred in any one month over the
   last 12-month period. | 
 
 
 f. Closure. Mercury-containing lamp recycling facilities must
 prepare and maintain a closure plan conforming to the requirements of 40 CFR
 Part 265, Subpart G as adopted by reference in this section. Financial
 assurance shall be provided to the department in accordance with 40 CFR Part
 265, Subpart H as adopted by reference in this section. 
 
 g. Recordkeeping requirements. The owner or operator of a
 mercury-containing lamp recycling facility shall maintain records of monitoring
 information that (i) specify the date, place, and time of measurement; (ii)
 provide the methodology used; and (iii) list the analytical results. The
 records maintained shall include all calibration and maintenance records of
 monitoring equipment. The owner or operator shall retain records of all
 monitoring data and supporting information available for department inspection
 for a period of at least three years from the date of collection.
 
 22. In 40 CFR 265.12, the term "EPA" shall mean the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency. 
 
 9VAC20-60-266. Adoption of 40 CFR Part 266 by reference. 
 
 A. Except as otherwise provided, the regulations of the
 United States Environmental Protection Agency set forth in 40 CFR Part 266 are
 hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. Except as otherwise provided, all material definitions, reference
 materials and other ancillaries that are a part of 40 CFR Part 266 are also
 hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management
 Regulations. 
 
 B. In all locations in these regulations where 40 CFR Part
 266 is incorporated by reference, the following additions, modifications and
 exceptions shall amend the incorporated text for the purpose of its
 incorporation into these regulations: 
 
 1. In addition to the requirements of Subpart C of 40 CFR Part
 266, those who generate or transport recyclable materials or those who own or
 operate facilities that use or store recyclable materials are also subject to
 applicable requirements of Parts IV (9VAC20-60-305 et seq.), VII (9VAC20-60-420
 et seq.), and XII (9VAC20-60-1260 et seq.) of these regulations if the
 materials are used in a manner constituting disposal. 
 
 2. In addition to the requirements of Subpart C of 40 CFR Part
 266, those who generate or transport recyclable materials or those who own or
 operate facilities that use or store recyclable materials are also subject to
 applicable requirements of Parts IV, VII and XII of these regulations if the
 recyclable materials are for precious metals recovery. 
 
 3. In addition to the requirements of Subpart G of 40 CFR Part
 266, those who store lead-acid batteries subject to 40 CFR 266.80(b) are also
 subject to the requirements of Parts IV, VII and XII of these regulations.
 
 4. In 40 CFR Part 266, references to 49 CFR Parts 171
 through 180 shall be as 49 CFR Parts 171 through 180 are incorporated by
 reference in 9VAC20-110-110.
 
 5. In 40 CFR 266.506(b)(3)(i), reference to (i) 40 CFR Part
 62, Subpart FFF shall be replaced by 40 CFR Part 62, Subpart VV, which
 incorporates Article 54 (9VAC5-40-7950 et seq.) of 9VAC5-40; and (ii) 40 CFR
 Part 60, Subpart Eb shall be as it is incorporated by reference in Article 5
 (9VAC5-50-400 et seq.) of 9VAC5-50.
 
 6. In 40 CFR 266.506(b)(3)(ii), reference to (i) 40 CFR
 Part 62, Subpart JJJ shall be replaced by 40 CFR Part 62, Subpart VV, which
 incorporates Article 46 (9VAC5-40-6550 et seq.) of 9VAC5-40; and (ii) 40 CFR
 Part 60, Subpart AAAA shall be as it is incorporated by reference in Article 5
 (9VAC5-50-400 et seq.) of 9VAC5-50.
 
 7. In 40 CFR 266.506(b)(3)(iii), reference to (i) 40 CFR
 Part 62, Subpart HHH is not applicable in the Commonwealth of Virginia as there
 are no affected facilities and a negative declaration was made in 40 CFR Part
 62, Subpart VV; and (ii) 40 CFR Part 60, Subpart Ec shall be as Subpart Ec is
 incorporated by reference in Article 5 (9VAC5-50-400 et seq.) of 9VAC5-50.
 
 8. In 40 CFR 266.506(b)(3)(iv), reference to 40 CFR Part
 62, Subpart III shall be replaced by 40 CFR Part 62, Subpart VV, which
 incorporates Article 45 (9VAC5-40-6250 et seq.) of 9VAC5-40; and (ii) 40 CFR
 Part 60, Subpart CCCC shall be as Subpart CCCC is incorporated by reference in
 Article 5 (9VAC5-50-400 et seq.) of 9VAC5-50.
 
 9. In 40 CFR 266.506(b)(3)(v), reference to 40 CFR Part 63,
 Subpart EEE shall be as Subpart EEE is incorporated by reference in Article 2
 (9VAC5-60-90 et seq.) of 9VAC5-60.
 
 9VAC20-60-328. EPA identification number. 
 
 A. A generator shall not treat, store, dispose of, transport,
 or offer for transportation hazardous waste without having received an EPA
 identification number from the administrator or the department. 
 
 B. A generator who has not received an EPA identification
 number may obtain one by applying to the department using EPA Form 8700-12.
 Upon receiving a request, the department will assign an EPA identification
 number to the generator. 
 
 C. A generator shall not offer his hazardous waste to
 transporters or to facilities that have not received an EPA identification
 number. 
 
 D. Provisional identification number. If an emergency or other
 unusual incident occurs which causes a necessity for the rapid transport of a
 hazardous waste to an authorized hazardous waste management facility, the
 generator involved in such a circumstance can telephone the Department of
 Environmental Quality (804-698-4000) and obtain a provisional identification
 number. Applicants receiving such a number will be mailed a blank EPA Form
 8700-12 that shall be completed and returned to the Department of Environmental
 Quality regional office within 10 calendar days. (Note: The department's
 website, http://www.deq.state.va.us http://www.deq.virginia.gov,
 or the receptionist at 804-698-4000, will provide information on how to contact
 the appropriate regional office.) 
 
 9VAC20-60-1390. Changes in classifications as a solid waste. 
 
 A. Variances. 
 
 1. Applicability. 
 
 a. A person who recycles waste that is managed entirely within
 the Commonwealth may petition the director to exclude the waste at a particular
 site from the classification as the solid waste (Parts I (9VAC20-60-12 et seq.)
 and III (9VAC20-60-124 et seq.) of this chapter). The conditions under which a
 petition for a variance will be accepted are shown in subdivision 2 of this
 subsection. The wastes excluded under such petitions may still, however, remain
 classified as a solid waste for the purposes of other regulations issued by the
 Virginia Waste Management Board or other agencies of the Commonwealth. 
 
 b. A person who generates wastes at a generating site in
 Virginia and whose waste is subject to federal jurisdiction (e.g., the waste is
 transported across state boundaries) shall first obtain a favorable decision
 from the administrator in accordance with Subpart C, 40 CFR Part 260, before
 his waste may be considered for a variance by the director. 
 
 c. A person who recycles materials from a generating site
 outside the Commonwealth and who causes them to be brought into the
 Commonwealth for recycling shall first obtain a favorable decision from the
 administrator in accordance with Subpart C, 40 CFR Part 260, before the waste
 may be considered for a variance by the director. 
 
 d. A person who received a favorable decision from the
 administrator in the response to a petition for variance or nonwaste
 determination or a person whose wastes were delisted as a result of a
 successful petition to the administrator shall provide a notification to the
 department containing the following information: (i) the petitioner's name and
 address and (ii) a copy of the administrator's decision. 
 
 2. Conditions for a variance. In accordance with the standards
 and criteria in subsection B of this section and the procedures in
 9VAC20-60-1420 B, the director may determine on a case-by-case basis that the
 following recycled materials are not solid wastes: 
 
 a. Materials that are accumulated speculatively without
 sufficient amounts being recycled (as defined in Part I). 
 
 b. Materials that are reclaimed and then reused within the
 original primary production process in which they were generated. 
 
 c. Materials that have been reclaimed but must be reclaimed
 further before the materials are completely recovered. 
 
 d. Hazardous secondary materials that are reclaimed in a
 continuous industrial process.
 
 e. Hazardous secondary materials that are indistinguishable in
 all relevant aspects from a product or intermediate.
 
 f. Hazardous secondary materials that are transferred for
 reclamation under 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24) and are managed at a verified reclamation
 facility or intermediate facility where the management of the hazardous
 secondary materials is not addressed under an a RCRA Part B
 permit or interim status standards.
 
 B. Standards and criteria for variances. 
 
 1. The director may grant requests for a variance from
 classifying as a solid waste those materials that are accumulated speculatively
 without sufficient amounts being recycled if the applicant demonstrates that
 sufficient amounts of the material will be recycled or transferred for
 recycling in the following year. If a variance is granted, it is valid only for
 the following year, but can be renewed on an annual basis by filing a new
 application. The director's decision will be based on the following criteria: 
 
 a. The manner in which the material is expected to be
 recycled, and when the material is expected to be recycled, and whether this
 expected disposition is likely to occur (for example, because of past practice,
 market factors, the nature of the material, or contractual arrangement for
 recycling); 
 
 b. The reason that the applicant has accumulated the material
 for one or more years without recycling 75% of the volume accumulated at the
 beginning of the year; 
 
 c. The quantity of material already accumulated and the
 quantity expected to be generated and accumulated before the material is
 recycled; 
 
 d. The extent to which the material is handled to minimize
 loss; and 
 
 e. Other relevant factors. 
 
 2. The director may grant requests for a variance from
 classifying as a solid waste those materials that are reclaimed and then reused
 as feedstock within the original production process in which the materials were
 generated if the reclamation operation is an essential part of the production
 process. This determination will be based on the following criteria: 
 
 a. How economically viable the production process would be if
 it were to use virgin materials, rather than reclaimed materials; 
 
 b. The prevalence of the practice on an industry-wide basis; 
 
 c. The extent to which the material is handled before
 reclamation to minimize loss; 
 
 d. The time periods between generating the material and its
 reclamation, and between reclamation and return to the original primary
 production process; 
 
 e. The location of the reclamation operation in relation to
 the production process; 
 
 f. Whether the reclaimed material is used for the purpose for
 which it was originally produced when it is returned to the original process,
 and whether it is returned to the process in substantially its original form; 
 
 g. Whether the person who generates the material also reclaims
 it; and 
 
 h. Other relevant factors. 
 
 3. The director may grant requests for a variance from
 classifying as a solid waste those hazardous secondary materials that have been
 partially reclaimed but must be reclaimed further before recovery is completed
 if the partial reclamation has produced a commodity-like material. A
 determination that a partially reclaimed material for which the variance is
 sought is commodity-like will be based on whether the hazardous secondary
 material is legitimately recycled as specified in 40 CFR 260.43 and on
 whether all of the following decision criteria are satisfied:
 
 a. Whether the degree of partial reclamation the material has
 undergone is substantial as demonstrated by using a partial reclamation process
 other than the process that generated the hazardous waste;
 
 b. Whether the partially reclaimed material has sufficient
 economic value that it will be purchased for further reclamation;
 
 c. Whether the partially reclaimed material is a viable
 substitute for a product or intermediate produced from virgin or raw materials
 that is used in subsequent production steps; 
 
 d. Whether there is a market for the partially reclaimed
 material as demonstrated by known customer or customers who are further
 reclaiming the material (e.g., records of sales or contracts and evidence of
 subsequent use, such as bills of lading); and
 
 e. Whether the partially reclaimed material is handled to
 minimize loss.
 
 4. The director may grant requests for a variance from
 classifying as a solid waste those hazardous secondary materials that are
 transferred for reclamation under 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24) and are managed at a
 verified reclamation facility or intermediate facility where the management of
 the hazardous secondary materials is not addressed under a RCRA Part B permit
 or interim status standards. The director's decision will be based on the
 following criteria:
 
 a. The reclamation facility or intermediate facility must
 demonstrate that the reclamation process for the hazardous secondary materials
 is legitimate pursuant to 40 CFR 260.43;
 
 b. The reclamation facility or intermediate facility must
 satisfy the financial assurance condition in 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F);
 
 c. The reclamation facility or intermediate facility must not
 be subject to a formal enforcement action in the previous three years and not
 be classified as a significant noncomplier under RCRA Subtitle C, or must
 provide credible evidence that the facility will manage the hazardous secondary
 materials properly. Credible evidence may include a demonstration that the
 facility has taken remedial steps to address the violations and prevent future
 violations, or that the violations are not relevant to the proper management of
 the hazardous secondary materials;
 
 d. The intermediate or reclamation facility must have the
 equipment and trained personnel needed to safely manage the hazardous secondary
 material and must meet emergency preparedness and response requirements under
 40 CFR Part 261 Subpart M; 
 
 e. If residuals are generated from the reclamation of the
 excluded hazardous secondary materials, the reclamation facility must have the
 permits required (if any) to manage the residuals, have a contract with an
 appropriately permitted facility to dispose of the residuals, or present
 credible evidence that the residuals will be managed in a manner that is protective
 of human health and the environment; and
 
 f. The intermediate or reclamation facility must address the
 potential for risk to proximate populations from unpermitted releases of the
 hazardous secondary material to the environment (i.e., releases that are not
 covered by a permit, such as a permit to discharge to water or air), which may
 include, but are not limited to, potential releases through surface
 transport by precipitation runoff, releases to soil and groundwater, wind-blown
 dust, fugitive air emissions, and catastrophic unit failures, and must include
 consideration of potential cumulative risks from other nearby potential
 stressors.
 
 5. An applicant may apply to the administrator for a formal
 determination that a hazardous secondary material is not discarded and
 therefore not a solid waste (i.e., nonwaste determination). The determinations
 will be based on the criteria contained in subdivision B 6 or B 7 of this
 section, as applicable. If an application is denied, the hazardous secondary
 material might still be eligible for a solid waste variance or exclusion (e.g.,
 one of the solid waste variances under this section). Determinations may also
 be granted by the director if the state is either authorized for this provision
 or if the following conditions are met:
 
 a. The director determines the hazardous secondary material
 meets the criteria in subdivision B 6 or B 7 of this section, as applicable;
 
 b. The state requests that EPA review its determination; and
 
 c. EPA approves the state determination.
 
 6. The director may grant a nonwaste determination for
 hazardous secondary material that is reclaimed in a continuous industrial
 process if the applicant demonstrates that the hazardous secondary material is
 a part of the production process and is not discarded. The determination will
 be based on whether the hazardous secondary material is legitimately recycled
 as specified in 40 CFR 260.43 and on the following criteria:
 
 a. The extent that the management of the hazardous secondary
 material is part of the continuous primary production process and is not waste
 treatment; 
 
 b. Whether the capacity of the production process would use
 the hazardous secondary material in a reasonable timeframe and ensure that the
 hazardous secondary material will not be abandoned (e.g., based on past
 practices, market factors, the nature of the hazardous secondary material, or
 any contractual arrangements);
 
 c. Whether the hazardous constituents in the hazardous
 secondary material are reclaimed rather than released to the air, water, or
 land at significantly higher levels from either a statistical or from a health
 and environmental risk perspective than would otherwise be released by the
 production process; and
 
 d. Other relevant factors that demonstrate the hazardous
 secondary material is not discarded, including why the hazardous secondary
 material cannot meet, or should not have to meet, the conditions of an
 exclusion under 40 CFR 261.2 or 40 CFR 261.4.
 
 7. The director may grant a nonwaste determination for
 hazardous secondary material that is indistinguishable in all relevant aspects
 from a product or intermediate if the applicant demonstrates that the hazardous
 secondary material is comparable to a product or intermediate and is not
 discarded. The determination will be based on whether the hazardous secondary
 material is legitimately recycled as specified in 40 CFR 260.43 and on the
 following criteria:
 
 a. Whether market participants treat the hazardous secondary
 material as a product or intermediate rather than a waste (e.g., based on the
 current positive value of the hazardous secondary material, stability of
 demand, or any contractual arrangements);
 
 b. Whether the chemical and physical identity of the hazardous
 secondary material is comparable to commercial products or intermediates;
 
 c. Whether the capacity of the market would use the hazardous
 secondary material in a reasonable timeframe and ensure that the hazardous
 secondary material will not be abandoned (e.g., based on past practices, market
 factors, the nature of the hazardous secondary material, or any contractual
 arrangements);
 
 d. Whether the hazardous constituents in the hazardous
 secondary material are reclaimed rather than released to the air, water, or
 land at significantly higher levels from either a statistical or from a health
 and environmental risk perspective than would otherwise be released by the
 production process; and
 
 e. Other relevant factors that demonstrate the hazardous
 secondary material is not discarded, including why the hazardous secondary
 material cannot meet, or should not have to meet, the conditions of an
 exclusion under 40 CFR 261.2 or 40 CFR 261.4.
 
 9VAC20-60-1430. Petitions to include additional hazardous
 wastes. 
 
 A. General. 
 
 1. Any person seeking to add a hazardous waste or a category
 of hazardous waste to the universal waste regulations of 9VAC20-60-273 and Part
 XVI (9VAC20-60-1495 et seq.) of this chapter may petition for a regulatory
 amendment under this part. 
 
 2. To be successful, the petitioner shall demonstrate to the
 satisfaction of the director that regulation under the universal waste
 regulations of 9VAC20-60-273 and Part XVI of this chapter: 
 
 a. Is appropriate for the waste or category of waste; 
 
 b. Will improve management practices for the waste or category
 of waste; and 
 
 c. Will improve implementation of the hazardous waste program.
 
 
 The petition shall include the information required by
 9VAC20-60-1370 C. The petition should also address as many of the factors
 listed in subsection B of this section as are appropriate for the waste or
 category of waste addressed in the petition. 
 
 3. The director will grant or deny a petition using the
 factors listed in subsection B of this section. The decision will be based on
 the weight of evidence showing that regulation under 9VAC20-60-273 and Part XVI
 of this chapter is appropriate for the waste or category of waste, will improve
 management practices for the waste or category of waste, and will improve
 implementation of the hazardous waste program. 
 
 4. The director may request additional information needed to
 evaluate the merits of the petition. 
 
 5. If the director adds new hazardous wastes to the list
 contained in 9VAC20-60-273 and in Part XVI of these regulations, management of
 these wastes under the universal waste regulations would only be allowed within
 the Commonwealth or other states that have added those particular wastes to
 their regulations. Shipments of such wastes to a state where universal waste
 standards do not apply to that waste would have to comply with the full
 hazardous waste requirements of Parts I through XV of this chapter. 
 
 B. Factors to consider. 
 
 1. The waste or category of waste, as generated by a wide
 variety of generators, is listed in Subpart D of 40 CFR Part 261, or (if not
 listed) a proportion of the waste stream exhibits one or more characteristics
 of hazardous waste identified in Subpart C of 40 CFR Part 261. (When a
 characteristic waste is added to the universal waste regulations of
 9VAC20-60-273 and Part XVI of this chapter by using a generic name to identify
 the waste category (e.g., batteries), the definition of universal waste will be
 amended to include only the hazardous waste portion of the waste category
 (e.g., hazardous waste batteries). Thus, only the portion of the waste stream
 that does exhibit one or more characteristics (i.e., is hazardous waste) is
 subject to the universal waste regulations of 9VAC20-60-273 and Part XVI of
 this chapter; 
 
 2. The waste or category of waste is not exclusive to a
 specific industry or group of industries, is commonly generated by a wide
 variety of types of establishments (including, for example, households, retail
 and commercial businesses, office complexes, conditionally exempt very
 small quantity generators, small businesses, government organizations, as well
 as large industrial facilities); 
 
 3. The waste or category of waste is generated by a large
 number of generators (e.g., more than 1,000 nationally) and is frequently
 generated in relatively small quantities by each generator; 
 
 4. Systems to be used for collecting the waste or category of
 waste (including packaging, marking, and labeling practices) would ensure close
 stewardship of the waste; 
 
 5. The risk posed by the waste or category of waste during
 accumulation and transport is relatively low compared to other hazardous
 wastes, and specific management standards proposed or referenced by the
 petitioner (e.g., waste management requirements appropriate to be added to
 9VAC20-60-273 or Part XVI of this chapter; and applicable requirements of the Virginia
 Regulations Governing the Transportation of Hazardous Materials, 9VAC20-110-10
 et seq.) 9VAC20-110) would be protective of human health and the
 environment during accumulation and transport; 
 
 6. Regulation of the waste or category of waste under
 9VAC20-60-273 will increase the likelihood that the waste will be diverted from
 nonhazardous waste management systems (e.g., the municipal waste stream,
 nonhazardous industrial or commercial waste stream, municipal sewer or
 stormwater systems) to recycling, treatment, or disposal in compliance with the
 Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations; 
 
 7. Regulation of the waste or category of waste under
 9VAC20-60-273 will improve implementation of and compliance with the hazardous
 waste regulatory program; and 
 
 8. Such other factors as may be appropriate. 
 
 9VAC20-60-1505. Additional universal wastes. 
 
 A. The Commonwealth of Virginia incorporates at 9VAC20-60-273
 A all universal wastes adopted by the federal government at 40 CFR Part 273. In
 addition to the universal wastes listed in 40 CFR Part 273, the universal
 wastes listed in this section are also universal wastes in Virginia if the
 requirements as provided in this section for each particular universal waste
 are met.
 
 B. Mercury-containing lamps may be crushed for size reduction
 provided the requirements of this subsection are met.
 
 1. Mercury-containing lamps are crushed under the control of
 the generator as defined in subdivision 4 of this subsection, and the crushed
 lamps are sent off site for recycling. 
 
 2. The use of mobile crushing units is prohibited. Mobile
 crushing units include any device or equipment or combination of devices and
 equipment that is designed to be transported and operated at more than one
 site. 
 
 3. Mercury-containing lamps that are crushed for size
 reduction by a generator or under the control of the generator as defined in
 subdivision 4 of this subsection may be managed under the provisions for
 universal wastes, 9VAC20-60-273, if the owner or operator complies with all the
 requirements and qualifications of this section.
 
 4. "Under the control of the generator" means:
 
 a. That the mercury-containing lamps are generated and crushed
 at the generating facility (for purposes of this definition, generating
 facility means all contiguous property owned, leased, or otherwise controlled
 by the universal waste (UW) lamp generator); or
 
 b. That the mercury-containing lamps are generated and crushed
 at different facilities if the crushing facility is controlled by the generator
 or if both the generating facility and the crushing facility are controlled by
 a person as defined in 40 CFR Part 260.10, and if the generator provides one of
 the following certifications: (i) "on behalf of [insert generator facility
 name], I certify that this facility will send the indicated UW lamps to [insert
 crushing facility name], which is controlled by [insert generator facility
 name] and that [insert the name of either facility] has acknowledged full
 responsibility for the safe management of the UW lamps" or (ii) "on
 behalf of [insert generator facility name] I certify that this facility will
 send the indicated UW lamps to [insert crushing facility name], that both
 facilities are under common control, and that [insert name of either facility]
 has acknowledged full responsibility for the safe management of the UW lamps."
 For purposes of this certification, "control" means the power to
 direct the policies of the facility, whether by the ownership of stock, voting
 rights, or otherwise, except that contractors who operate facilities on behalf
 of a different person as defined in 40 CFR Part 260.10 shall not be deemed to
 "control" such facilities. The certification shall be submitted to
 the department in accordance with subdivision 7 (h) of this subsection.
 
 5. Mercury-containing lamp crushing operations that do not
 meet the definition of "under the control of the generator" in
 subdivision 4 of this subsection are subject to all applicable requirements for
 destination facilities in 40 CFR Part 273, Subpart E. 
 
 6. Safety hazards to operating personnel shall be controlled
 through an active safety program consistent with the requirements of 29 CFR
 Part 1910.
 
 7. Crushing, handling, and storing mercury-containing lamps
 shall occur in a safe and controlled manner that minimizes the release of
 mercury to the environment. Requirements for a safe and controlled manner shall
 include the following:
 
 a. Mercury-containing lamps shall be crushed in a mechanical
 unit specifically designed to crush mercury-containing lamps. This unit shall
 be hermetically sealed, except for air intakes, and under negative pressure.
 Air intake points must be closed when the unit is not operating. 
 
 b. Crushing operations shall occur in a space with its ambient
 air isolated from other work areas where persons who are not involved in the
 crushing operation may work. The ambient air from rooms containing crushing
 operations shall be discharged after filtration directly to an area outside the
 building where persons are unlikely to be directly exposed. If a situation
 exists at a particular facility in which the facility determines that discharge
 of ambient air from a room containing a crushing operation to the outside is
 technically or financially impracticable, the department may approve an
 alternated design that allows the discharge of ambient air from a room
 containing a crushing operation to another internal building space or
 centralized air circulation system if:
 
 (1) The ambient air is discharged to the internal building
 space or centralized air circulation system through filtration system capable
 of capturing both particulate and vapor phase mercury.
 
 (2) The filtration system is maintained as recommended by the
 manufacturer to ensure that it operates at its design mercury removal
 efficiency.
 
 (3) Maintenance of the filtration system shall be documented
 and records of maintenance shall be kept on site.
 
 c. Mercury-containing lamps shall be crushed with a device
 that is equipped with air pollution controls that capture both particulate and
 vapor phase mercury. At a minimum, these controls shall include a HEPA filter,
 a sorption column of sulfur impregnated activated carbon media, and a negative
 air flow (vacuum) throughout the unit. The crushing unit shall have
 documentation from the manufacturer that demonstrates that the unit is equipped
 as required and: 
 
 (1) Achieves a particle retention rate of 99.97% in the HEPA
 filter (at a particle diameter less than 0.3 microns); and 
 
 (2) Achieves the air emission limits specified in the
 risk-based protectiveness standards table of subdivision 7 n (2) of this
 subsection.
 
 d. Mercury-containing lamps shall be crushed indoors. 
 
 e. The transfer of crushed mercury-containing lamps in drums
 or containers to other drums or containers is not permitted.
 
 f. Crushed mercury-containing lamps shall be stored in closed
 and hermetically sealed, nonleaking drums or containers that are in good
 condition (e.g., no severe rusting, no apparent structural defects, and no
 leaking). 
 
 g. Drums or containers used for storage of crushed
 mercury-containing lamps shall be properly sealed and labeled. The label shall bear
 the words "universal waste-lamps," "waste lamps," or
 "used lamps." 
 
 h. The generator or facility under the control of the
 generator shall make written notification to the department of the physical
 location of the crushing operation no later than January 31, 2017, for all
 existing operations or 30 calendar days prior to beginning operation of a new
 crushing operation. The notification shall include the name of the individual
 or company that owns the operation; the EPA ID number if one has been issued for
 the facility; the location of the crushing operation; and the names, addresses,
 and telephone numbers of the operator and principal contact person or persons.
 A written notice of changes in the notification data shall be sent to the
 department within 15 calendar days of the change. The notification shall
 include the certification required under subdivision 4 (b) of this subsection
 if applicable.
 
 i. A written procedure specifying how to safely crush, handle,
 and store mercury-containing lamps and how to minimize the release of mercury,
 including during drum changes and malfunctions, shall be developed,
 implemented, and documented. This procedure shall include (i) the type of
 equipment to be used to crush mercury-containing lamps safely, (ii)
 instructions for proper equipment operation and a schedule for maintenance of
 the unit in accordance with written procedures developed by the manufacturer of
 the equipment, (iii) proper waste management practices, and (iv) the use of
 personal protective equipment to include at a minimum safety glasses or full
 face shield and cut-proof gloves. The maintenance schedule shall identify all
 maintenance operations and the frequency with which they must be performed,
 including replacement of particle filters and the activated carbon media as
 recommended by the manufacturer of the crushing unit.
 
 j. Maintenance activities shall be documented and records of
 maintenance shall be maintained and available for inspection per subdivision 8
 of this subsection. 
 
 k. Each unit operator shall receive initial and annual
 training in crushing procedures, waste handling, safety, use of personal
 protective equipment, and emergency procedures, including proper procedures for
 cleaning up broken mercury-containing lamps. All training shall be documented
 and records of training shall be maintained and available for inspection per
 subdivision 8 of this subsection. 
 
 l. Residues, filter media, used equipment, other
 mercury-containing equipment, and other solid waste shall not be placed in the
 container with the crushed mercury-containing lamps. Any waste materials
 generated as part of the crushing operation that are determined to be hazardous
 waste shall be managed under this chapter, as hazardous waste or if not
 hazardous waste, as a solid waste under the Solid Waste Management Regulations,
 9VAC20-81.
 
 m. Any spills of the contents of the mercury-containing lamps
 that may occur shall be cleaned up in accordance with 40 CFR Part 273.13(d)(2)
 or 40 CFR Part 273.33(d)(2).
 
 n. All generators or facilities under the control of the
 generator that crush mercury-containing lamps, except those generators or
 facilities that crush two hours or less and no more than 220 pounds/100
 kilograms (CESQG (VSQG equivalent) of bulbs per month, shall
 provide monitoring as follows:
 
 (1) Ambient air within the lamp crushing room and exhaust air
 from the lamp crushing unit shall be tested for mercury during the first month
 of using the lamp crushing unit and whenever the unit is modified or replaced,
 and annually thereafter. In addition, all connection points for hoses
 circulating air from within the unit, the seal between the unit and the drum,
 and openings in the crushing unit (e.g., the lamp feed tube) shall also be
 tested for mercury release during the first month of lamp crushing operation
 and annually thereafter. Routine maintenance of the machine does not constitute
 modified or replaced for purposes of requiring ambient air testing. Ambient air
 shall be tested within five feet of the lamp crushing device. Exhaust air and
 other tests shall be performed within two inches of the designated testing
 points on the lamp crushing device. All mercury testing required by this
 section shall be performed at a time when the lamp crushing device is being
 used to crush mercury-containing lamps.
 
 (2) Testing for mercury releases from lamp crushing units
 shall be performed using a mercury vapor analyzer that has been approved for
 the application by the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration or
 the Virginia Department of Labor and Industry, or a comparable device that has
 been calibrated by the manufacturer or laboratory providing the equipment.
 Mercury vapor monitors used for testing must be capable of detecting mercury at
 the applicable concentrations provided below or lower in air and must be
 equipped with a data recording device to provide a record of measurements
 taken. Mercury monitoring data shall be documented and available for inspection
 per subdivision 8 of this subsection. The acute exposure protectiveness
 standard is 300 µg/m3 for a 10-minute exposure with the
 understanding that the acute exposure protectiveness standard is considered a
 ceiling value and at no time during bulb crushing operation will the air
 concentrations of mercury exceed 300 µg/m3. Alternately, compliance
 with the acute exposure protectiveness standard may be demonstrated by
 comparing the 95% upper confidence level of the mean of the individual data
 points to the standard. The following are risk-based protectiveness standards
 at a distance of five feet from the bulb crushing unit:
 
 
  
   | Monthly Bulb Crushing Duration (X Hours/Month)* | Chronic Exposure Air Emission Limit (µg/m3) | Acute Exposure Air Emission Limit (µg/m3) | 
  
   | X = 32 | 1.314skin µg/m3 | 300 µg/m3 | 
  
   | 8 < X < 32 | 6.317 skin µg/m3 | 300 µg/m3 | 
  
   | X = 8 | 27.375 skin µg/m3 | 300µg/m3 | 
  
   | X = 2 and no more than 220 lbs/month or 100 kg/month of bulbs
   crushed | Monitoring not required | Monitoring not required | 
  
   | *Monthly crushing duration is determined based on the
   maximum number of hours that bulb crushing occurred in any one month over the
   last 12-month period. | 
 
 
 (3) Any lamp crushing device that, when tested as described in
 subdivisions 7 n (1) and 7 n (2) of this subsection, fails to meet the criteria
 specified in subdivision 7 n (2) of this subsection, must immediately be
 removed from service. Lamp crushing devices removed from service under this
 subdivision may not be returned to service until the device has been inspected
 and repaired, and in subsequent testing has been shown to meet the specified
 criteria. Test data and documentation of repairs shall be kept in the facility
 record and available for inspection per subdivision 8 of this subsection.
 
 (4) The facility shall document the amount of time spent
 crushing lamps and this information shall be maintained in the facility record
 and available for inspection per subdivision 8 of this subsection.
 
 8. A copy of all records, notifications, certifications, and
 reports required by this section shall be kept on site and be available for
 examination by the department for a period of at least three years.
 
 9. All requirements of this section shall be immediately
 effective for all new facilities beginning operations on or after January 1,
 2017. All requirements of this section shall be effective for all existing
 facilities no later than April 1, 2017.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5986; Filed June 26, 2019, 1:44 p.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD
Fast-Track Regulation
 
 Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-70. Financial Assurance
 Regulations for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer and Treatment Facilities (amending 9VAC20-70-210, 9VAC20-70-290). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 10.1-1402 and 10.1-1410 of the
 Code of Virginia; §§ 1008(a)(3), 2002, and 4004(a) of the Resource Conservation
 and Recovery Act; 40 CFR Part 258.
 
 Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
 scheduled.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 21, 2019.
 
 Effective Date: September 5, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Melissa Porterfield, Department of
 Environmental Quality, 1111 East Main Street, Suite 1400, P.O. Box 1105,
 Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4238, FAX (804) 698-4019, or email
 melissa.porterfield@deq.virginia.gov.
 
 Basis: Section 10.1-1402 of the Code of Virginia
 authorizes the Virginia Waste Management Board to promulgate and enforce
 regulations necessary to carry out its powers and duties and the intent of the
 chapter and federal law. Section 10.1-1410 of the Code of Virginia authorizes
 the board to promulgate regulations that ensure that if a solid waste
 treatment, transfer, or disposal facility is abandoned, the costs associated
 with protecting the public health and safety from the consequences of such abandonment
 may be recovered from the person abandoning the facility. 
 
 Purpose: This amendment removes language that is no
 longer applicable. Removing the obsolete language will avoid confusion
 concerning the requirements applicable to local governments using the local
 government financial test. The amendments protect public health, safety and
 welfare by providing clarity to local governments required to provide financial
 assurance for their activities.
 
 Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This
 action makes technical corrections. A previous amendment to this regulation
 removed requirements for local governments to provide additional financial
 assurance if their closure cost obligations are between 20% and 43% of their
 total annual revenue. The amendments remove obsolete language pertaining to the
 removal of the requirement for additional financial assurance to be provided
 when the locality's closure cost obligations are between 20% and 43% of their
 total annual revenue. The amendments do not change any financial assurance
 requirements for local governments and avoid confusion concerning the
 applicable regulatory requirements.
 
 This regulatory action is expected to be noncontroversial since
 it deletes obsolete language. It does not change any requirements of the local
 government financial test. An informal public comment period was held on the
 proposed changes and no comments were received on the changes.
 
 Substance: Corrections are being made to remove obsolete
 language related to the local government financial test that is no longer
 applicable. The amendments do not change any requirements of the local
 government financial test. 
 
 Issues: The primary advantage of this action is the
 removal of obsolete language, which makes the requirements related to the local
 government financial test easier to understand. This change benefits the
 regulated community and the agency. There are no disadvantages to the public,
 agency, Commonwealth, or regulated community.
 
 Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
 
 Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia
 Waste Management Board (Board) proposes to eliminate obsolete language.
 
 Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
 all proposed changes.
 
 Estimated Economic Impact. The
 purpose of this regulation is to assure that owners and operators of permitted
 or unpermitted waste management facilities are financially responsible for the
 closure, post-closure care and corrective action at their facilities. The
 regulation establishes standards and procedures for financial assurance to be
 used in the issuance and continuation of permits to construct, operate, modify,
 close, or provide post-closure care and to be used in the performance of
 corrective actions or in formulation of enforcement documents issued by the
 Department of Environmental Quality.
 
 Eliminating obsolete language would have no impact on
 requirements in practice but would be beneficial in that clarity for readers of
 the regulation would be improved.
 
 Businesses and Entities Affected. As the proposed amendments do
 not change any requirements in practice and only improve the clarity of the
 requirements, it is readers of the regulation that are particularly affected.
 
 Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do
 not disproportionately affect particular localities.
 
 Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments would
 not affect employment.
 
 Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
 amendments do not significantly affect the use and value of private property.
 
 Real Estate Development Costs. The revised proposed amendments
 do not significantly affect real estate development costs.
 
 Small Businesses: 
 
 Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
 small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
 that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
 
 Costs and Other Effects. The
 proposed amendments do not significantly affect costs for small businesses.
 
 Alternative Method that Minimizes
 Adverse Impact. The proposed amendments do not adversely affect small
 businesses.
 
 Adverse Impacts:
 
 Businesses. The proposed
 amendments do not adversely affect businesses.
 
 Localities. The proposed
 amendments do not adversely affect localities.
 
 Other Entities. The proposed
 amendments do not adversely affect other entities.
 
 __________________
 
 1Adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in
 cost for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs.
 
 Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
 Department of Environmental Quality has reviewed the economic impact analysis
 prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget and has no comment.
 
 Summary:
 
 The amendments remove language pertaining to an obsolete
 requirement for additional financial assurance to be provided when a locality's
 closure cost obligations are between 20% and 43% of their total annual revenue.
 This action does not change any financial assurance requirements for local
 governments.
 
 9VAC20-70-210. Local government financial test. 
 
 An owner or operator that satisfies the requirements of
 subdivisions 1 through 3 of this section may demonstrate financial assurance
 using the local government financial test up to the amount specified in
 subdivision 4 of this section. 
 
 1. Financial component. 
 
 a. The owner or operator shall satisfy the provisions of
 subdivision 1 a of this section, as applicable: 
 
 (1) If the owner or operator has outstanding, rated, general
 obligation bonds that are not secured by insurance, a letter of credit, or
 other collateral or guarantee, he shall supply the director with documentation
 demonstrating that the owner or operator has a current rating of Aaa, Aa, A, or
 Baa, as issued by Moody's, or AAA, AA, A, or BBB, as issued by Standard and
 Poor's on all such general obligation bonds; or 
 
 (2) If the owner or operator does not have outstanding, rated
 general obligation bonds, he shall satisfy each of the following financial
 ratios based on the owner's or operator's most recent audited annual financial
 statement: 
 
 (a) A ratio of cash plus marketable securities to total
 expenditures greater than or equal to 0.05; and 
 
 (b) A ratio of annual debt service to total expenditures less
 than or equal to 0.20. 
 
 b. The owner or operator shall prepare his financial
 statements in conformity with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles for
 governments and have its his financial statements audited by an
 independent certified public accountant or by the Auditor of Public Accounts. 
 
 c. An owner or operator is not eligible to assure its his
 obligations under this section if he: 
 
 (1) Is currently in default on any outstanding general
 obligation bonds; 
 
 (2) Has any outstanding general obligation bonds rated lower
 than Baa as issued by Moody's or BBB as issued by Standard and Poor's; 
 
 (3) Operated at a deficit equal to 5.0% or more of total
 annual revenue in each of the past two fiscal years; or 
 
 (4) Receives an adverse opinion, disclaimer of opinion, or
 other qualified opinion from the independent certified public accountant or
 Auditor of Public Accounts auditing its his financial statement
 as required under subdivision 1 b of this section. However, the director may
 evaluate qualified opinions on a case-by-case basis and allow use of the
 financial test in cases where the director deems the qualification insufficient
 to warrant disallowance of the test. 
 
 2. Public notice component. The local government owner or
 operator shall place a reference to the closure, post-closure care, or
 corrective action costs assured through the financial test into the next
 comprehensive annual financial report (CAFR) after January 7, 1998, or prior to
 the initial receipt of waste at the facility, whichever is later. Disclosure
 shall include the nature and source of closure and post-closure requirements,
 the reported liability at the balance sheet date, the estimated total closure
 and post-closure care cost remaining to be recognized, the percentage of
 landfill capacity used to date, and the estimated landfill life in years. A
 reference to corrective action cost shall be placed in CAFR no later than 120
 days after the corrective action remedy has been selected in accordance with
 9VAC20-81-260. For the first year the financial test is used to assure costs at
 a particular facility, the reference may instead be placed in the operating
 record until issuance of the next available CAFR if timing does not permit the
 reference to be incorporated into the most recently issued CAFR or budget. For
 closure and post-closure care costs, conformance with Government Accounting
 Standards Board Statement 18 assures compliance with this public notice
 component. 
 
 3. Recordkeeping and reporting requirements. 
 
 a. The local government owner or operator must submit to the department
 the following items and place copies of the items in the facility's operating
 record: 
 
 (1) An original letter signed by the local government's chief
 financial officer worded as specified in 9VAC20-70-290 G; 
 
 (2) The local government's independently audited year-end
 financial statements for the latest fiscal year, including the unqualified
 opinion of the auditor who must be an independent, certified public accountant
 or an appropriate state agency that conducts equivalent comprehensive audits; 
 
 (3) A report to the local government from the local
 government's independent certified public accountant (CPA) or the Auditor of
 Public Accounts based on performing an agreed upon procedures engagement
 relative to the financial ratios required by subdivision 1 a (2) of this
 section, if applicable, and the requirements of subdivisions 1 b, 1 c (3),
 and 1 c (4) of this section. The CPA or state agency's report shall state the
 procedures performed and the CPA or state agency's findings; 
 
 (4) A copy of the comprehensive annual financial report (CAFR)
 used to comply with subdivision 2 of this section or certification that the
 requirements of General Accounting Standards Board Statement 18 have been met; and
 
 (5) A certification from the local government's chief executive
 officer stating in detail the method selected by the local government for
 funding closure and post-closure costs. If the method selected by the local
 government is a trust fund, escrow account or similar mechanism, there
 shall be included a certification from the local government's chief financial
 officer indicating the current reserve obligated to closure and post-closure
 care cost. If the method selected by local governments is the use of annual
 operating budget and Capital Investment Funds, there shall be a certification
 from the local government's chief financial officer so indicating. Nothing
 herein shall be construed to prohibit the local government from revising its
 plan for funding closure and post-closure care costs if such revision provides
 economic benefit to the local government and if such revision provides adequate
 means for funding closure and post-closure care cost. This certification shall
 be worded as specified in 9VAC20-70-290 H; and (6) If the local government
 is required under this section to fund a restricted sinking fund, escrow
 account, or to obtain an irrevocable letter of credit, an original letter
 signed by the local government's chief financial officer and worded as
 specified in 9VAC20-70-290 I must be submitted. 
 
 b. The items required in subdivision 3 a of this section shall
 be submitted to the department and placed in the facility operating record as
 follows: 
 
 (1) In the case of closure and post-closure care, either
 before January 7, 1998, or prior to the initial receipt of waste at the
 facility, whichever is later; or 
 
 (2) In the case of corrective action, not later than 120 days
 after the corrective action remedy is selected in accordance with the
 requirements of 9VAC20-81-260. 
 
 c. After the initial submission of the items, the local
 government owner or operator must update the information, place a copy of the
 updated information in the operating record, and submit the updated
 documentation described in subdivisions 3 a (1) through (6) of this section to
 the department within 180 days following the close of the owner or operator's
 fiscal year. 
 
 d. The local government owner or operator is no longer
 required to meet the requirements of subdivision 3 of this section when: 
 
 (1) The owner or operator substitutes alternate financial
 assurance as specified in this section; or 
 
 (2) The owner or operator is released from the requirements of
 this section in accordance with 9VAC20-70-111 E, 9VAC20-70-112 B, or
 9VAC20-70-113 C. 
 
 e. A local government shall satisfy the requirements of the financial
 test at the close of each fiscal year. If the local government owner or
 operator no longer meets the requirements of the local government financial
 test it must, within 210 days following the close of the owner or operator's
 fiscal year, obtain alternative financial assurance that meets the requirements
 of this section, place a copy of the financial assurance mechanism in the
 operating record, and submit the original financial assurance mechanism to the
 director. 
 
 f. The director, based on a reasonable belief that the local
 government owner or operator may no longer meet the requirements of the local
 government financial test, may require additional reports of financial
 condition from the local government at any time. If the director finds, on the basis
 of such reports or other information, that the owner or operator no longer
 meets the requirements of the local government financial test, the local
 government shall provide alternate financial assurance in accordance with this
 article. 
 
 4. Calculation of costs to be assured. The portion of the
 closure, post-closure, and corrective action costs for which an owner or
 operator can assure under subdivision 1 of this section is determined as
 follows: 
 
 a. If the local government owner or operator does not assure
 other environmental obligations through a financial test, it may assure
 closure, post-closure, and corrective action costs that equal up to 43% of the
 local government's total annual revenue or the sum of total revenues of
 constituent governments in the case of regional authorities. 
 
 b. If the local government assures other environmental
 obligations through a financial test, including those associated with UIC
 facilities under 40 CFR 144.62, petroleum underground storage tank facilities
 under 9VAC25-590, PCB polychlorinated biphenyls storage
 facilities under 40 CFR Part 761, and hazardous waste treatment, storage, and
 disposal facilities under Part IX or X of the Virginia Hazardous Waste
 Management Regulations (9VAC20-60), it shall add those costs to the closure,
 post-closure, and corrective action costs it seeks to assure under subdivision
 1 of this section. The total shall not exceed 43% of the local government's
 total annual revenue. 
 
 c. The owner or operator shall obtain an alternate financial
 assurance mechanism for those costs that exceed the limits set in subdivisions
 4 a and 4 b of this section. 
 
 9VAC20-70-290. Wording of financial mechanisms. 
 
 A. Wording of trust agreements. 
 
 (NOTE: Instructions in parentheses are to be replaced with
 the relevant information and the parentheses deleted.) 
 
 TRUST AGREEMENT 
 
 Trust agreement, the "Agreement," entered into as
 of (date) by and between (name of the owner or operator), a (State)
 (corporation, partnership, association, proprietorship), the
 "Grantor," and (name of corporate trustee), a (State corporation)
 (national bank), the "Trustee." 
 
 Whereas, the Virginia Waste Management Board has established
 certain regulations applicable to the Grantor, requiring that the owner or
 operator of a (solid) (regulated medical) (yard) waste (transfer station)
 (receiving) (management) facility must provide assurance that funds will be
 available when needed for (closure, post-closure care, or corrective action) of
 the facility, 
 
 Whereas, the Grantor has elected to establish a trust to
 provide (all or part of) such financial assurance for the facility identified
 herein, 
 
 Whereas, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized
 officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this agreement, and
 the Trustee is willing to act as trustee, 
 
 Now, therefore, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:
 
 
 Section 1. Definitions. As used in this Agreement: 
 
 A. The term "fiduciary" means any person who
 exercises any power of control, management, or disposition or renders investment
 advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any
 moneys or other property of this trust fund, or has any authority or
 responsibility to do so, or who has any authority or responsibility in the
 administration of this trust fund. 
 
 B. The term "Grantor" means the owner or operator
 who enters into this Agreement and any successors or assigns of the Grantor. 
 
 C. The term "Trustee" means the Trustee who enters
 into this Agreement and any successor Trustee. 
 
 Section 2. Identification of Facility and Cost Estimates.
 This Agreement pertains to facility(ies) and cost estimates identified on
 attached Schedule A. 
 
 (NOTE: On Schedule A, for each facility list, as applicable,
 the permit number, name, address, and the current closure, post-closure,
 corrective action cost estimates, or portions thereof, for which financial
 assurance is demonstrated by this Agreement.) 
 
 Section 3. Establishment of Fund. The Grantor and the Trustee
 hereby establish a trust fund, the "Fund," for the benefit of the
 Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia. The Grantor and
 the Trustee intend that no third party have access to the Fund except as herein
 provided. The Fund is established initially as property consisting of cash or
 securities, which are acceptable to the Trustee, described in Schedule B
 attached hereto. Such property and any other property subsequently transferred
 to the Trustee is referred to as the fund, together with all earnings and
 profits thereon, less any payments or distributions made by the Trustee
 pursuant to this Agreement. The Fund will be held by the Trustee, IN TRUST, as
 hereinafter provided. The Trustee undertakes no responsibility for the amount
 or adequacy of, nor any duty to collect from the Grantor, any payments to
 discharge any liabilities of the Grantor established by the Commonwealth of
 Virginia's Department of Environmental Quality. 
 
 Section 4. Payment for (Closure, Post-Closure Care, or
 Corrective Action). The Trustee will make such payments from the Fund as the
 Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia will direct, in
 writing, to provide for the payment of the costs of (closure, post-closure
 care, corrective action) of the facility covered by this Agreement. The Trustee
 will reimburse the Grantor or other persons as specified by the Department of
 Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia, from the Fund for (closure,
 post-closure care, corrective action) expenditures in such amounts as the
 Department of Environmental Quality will direct, in writing. In addition, the
 Trustee will refund to the Grantor such amounts as the Department of
 Environmental Quality specifies in writing. Upon refund, such funds will no
 longer constitute part of the Fund as defined herein. 
 
 Section 5. Payments Comprising the Fund. Payments made to the
 Trustee for the fund will consist of cash or securities acceptable to the
 Trustee. 
 
 Section 6. Trustee Management. The Trustee will invest and
 reinvest the principal and income of the Fund and keep the Fund invested as a
 single fund, without distinction between principal and income, in accordance
 with investment guidelines and objectives communicated in writing to the
 Trustee from time to time by the Grantor, subject, however, to the provisions
 of this Section. In investing, reinvesting, exchanging, selling and managing
 the Fund, the Trustee or any other fiduciary will discharge his duties with
 respect to the trust fund solely in the interest of the beneficiary and with
 the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then
 prevailing which persons of prudence, acting in a like capacity and familiar
 with such matters, would use in the conduct of any enterprise of a like
 character and with like aims; except that: 
 
 A. Securities or other obligations of the Grantor, or any
 other owner or operator of the facility, or any of their affiliates as defined
 in the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended, 15 USC § 80a-2(a), will not
 be acquired or held, unless they are securities or other obligations of the
 federal or a state government; 
 
 B. The Trustee is authorized to invest the Fund in time or
 demand deposits of the Trustee, to the extent insured by an agency of the
 federal or state government; and 
 
 C. The Trustee is authorized to hold cash awaiting investment
 or distribution uninvested for a reasonable time and without liability for the
 payment of interest thereon. 
 
 Section 7. Commingling and Investment. The Trustee is
 expressly authorized in its discretion: 
 
 A. To transfer from time to time any or all of the assets of
 the Fund to any common, commingled or collective trust fund created by the
 Trustee in which the Fund is eligible to participate subject to all of the
 provisions thereof, to be commingled with the assets of other trusts
 participating herein. To the extent of the equitable share of the Fund in any
 such commingled trust, such commingled trust will be part of the Fund; and 
 
 B. To purchase shares in any investment company registered
 under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 USC § 80a-1 et seq., of
 one which may be created, managed, underwritten, or to which investment advice
 is rendered or the shares of which are sold by the Trustee. The Trustees may
 vote such shares in its discretion. 
 
 Section 8. Express Powers of Trustee. Without in any way
 limiting the powers and discretions conferred upon the Trustee by the other
 provisions of this Agreement or by law, the Trustee is expressly authorized and
 empowered: 
 
 A. To sell, exchange, convey, transfer or otherwise dispose of
 any property held by it, by private contract or at public auction. No person
 dealing with the Trustee will be bound to see to the application of the
 purchase money or to inquire into the validity or expediency of any such sale
 or other dispositions; 
 
 B. To make, execute, acknowledge and deliver any and all
 documents of transfer and conveyance and any and all other instruments that may
 be necessary or appropriate to carry out the powers herein granted; 
 
 C. To register any securities held in the fund in its own name
 or in the name of a nominee and to hold any security in bearer form or in book
 entry, or to combine certificates representing such securities with
 certificates of the same issue held by the Trustee in other fiduciary
 capacities, or to deposit or arrange for the deposit of such securities in a
 qualified central depository even though, when so deposited, such securities
 may be merged and held in bulk in the name of the nominee of such depository
 with other securities deposited therein by another person, or to deposit or
 arrange for the deposit of any securities issued by the United State
 government, or any agency or instrumentality thereof with a Federal Reserve
 Bank, but the books and records of the Trustee will at all times show that all
 such securities are part of the Fund; 
 
 D. To deposit any cash in the fund in interest-bearing
 accounts maintained or savings certificates issued by the Trustee, in its
 separate corporate capacity, or in any other banking institution affiliated
 with the Trustee, to the extent insured by an agency of the Federal or State
 government; and 
 
 E. To compromise or otherwise adjust all claims in favor of or
 against the Fund. 
 
 Section 9. Taxes and Expenses. All taxes of any kind that may
 be assessed or levied against or in respect of the Fund and all brokerage commissions
 incurred by the Fund will be paid from the Fund. All other expenses incurred by
 the Trustee in connection with the administration of this Trust, including fees
 for legal services rendered to the Trustee, the compensation of the Trustee to
 the extent not paid directly by the Grantor, and all other proper charges and
 disbursements of the Trustee will be paid from the Fund. 
 
 Section 10. Annual Valuation. The Trustee will annually, at
 the end of the month coincident with or preceding the anniversary date of
 establishment of the Fund, furnish the Grantor and to the director of the
 Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia, a statement
 confirming the value of the Trust. Any securities in the Fund will be valued at
 market value as of no more than 30 days prior to the date of the statement. The
 failure of the Grantor to object in writing to the Trustee within 90 days after
 the statement has been furnished to the Grantor and the director of the
 Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia will constitute a
 conclusively binding assent by the Grantor, barring the Grantor from asserting
 any claim or liability against the Trustee with respect to matters disclosed in
 the statement. 
 
 Section 11. Advice of Counsel. The Trustee may from time to
 time consult with counsel, who may be counsel to the Grantor, with respect to
 any question arising as to the construction of this Agreement or any action to
 be taken hereunder. The Trustee will be fully protected, to the extent
 permitted by law, in acting upon the advice of counsel. 
 
 Section 12. Trustee Compensation. The Trustee will be
 entitled to reasonable compensation for its services as agreed upon in writing
 from time to time with the Grantor. 
 
 Section 13. Successor Trustee. The Trustee may resign or the
 Grantor may replace the Trustee, but such resignation or replacement shall not
 be effective until the Grantor has appointed a successor trustee and this
 successor accepts the appointment. The successor trustee shall have the same
 powers and duties as those conferred upon the Trustee hereunder. Upon
 acceptance of the appointment by the successor trustee, the Trustee will
 assign, transfer and pay over to the successor trustee the funds and properties
 then constituting the Fund. If for any reason the grantor cannot or does not
 act in the event of the resignation of the Trustee, the Trustee may apply to a
 court of competent jurisdiction for the appointment of a successor trustee or
 for instructions. The successor trustee and the date on which he assumes
 administration of the trust will be specified in writing and sent to the
 Grantor, the director of the Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth
 of Virginia, and the present trustees by certified mail 10 days before such
 change becomes effective. Any expenses incurred by the Trustee as a result of
 any of the acts contemplated by this section will be paid as provided in Part
 IX. 
 
 Section 14. Instructions to the Trustee. All orders, requests
 and instructions by the Grantor to the Trustee will be in writing, signed by
 such persons as are designated in the attached Exhibit A or such other
 designees as the grantor may designate by amendment to Exhibit A. The Trustee
 will be fully protected in acting without inquiry in accordance with the Grantor's
 orders, requests and instructions. All orders, requests, and instructions by
 the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of
 Virginia, to the Trustee will be in writing, signed by the Director and the
 Trustee will act and will be fully protected in acting in accordance with such
 orders, requests and instructions. The Trustee will have the right to assume,
 in the absence of written notice to the contrary, that no event constituting a
 change or a termination of the authority of any person to act on behalf of the
 Grantor or the Commonwealth of Virginia's Department of Environmental Quality
 hereunder has occurred. The Trustee will have no duty to act in the absence of
 such orders, requests and instructions from the Grantor and/or the Commonwealth
 of Virginia's Department of Environmental Quality, except as provided for
 herein. 
 
 Section 15. Notice of Nonpayment. The Trustee will notify the
 Grantor and the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality,
 Commonwealth of Virginia, by certified mail within 10 days following the
 expiration of the 30-day period after the anniversary of the establishment of
 the Trust, if no payment is received from the Grantor during that period. After
 the pay-in period is completed, the Trustee is not required to send a notice of
 nonpayment. 
 
 Section 16. Amendment of Agreement. This Agreement may be
 amended by an instrument in writing executed by the Grantor, the Trustee, and
 the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of
 Virginia, or by the Trustee and the Director of the Department of Environmental
 Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia, if the Grantor ceases to exist. 
 
 Section 17. Irrevocability and Termination. Subject to the
 right of the parties to amend this Agreement as provided in Section 16, this
 Trust will be irrevocable and will continue until terminated at the written
 agreement of the Grantor, the Trustee, and the Director of the Department of
 Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia, or by the Trustee and the
 Director if the Grantor ceases to exist. Upon termination of the Trust, all
 remaining trust property, less final trust administration expenses, will be
 delivered to the Grantor. 
 
 Section 18. Immunity and Indemnification. The Trustee will
 not incur personal liability of any nature in connection with any act or
 omission, made in good faith, in the administration of this Trust, or in
 carrying out any directions by the Grantor or the Director of the Department of
 Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia, issued in accordance with this
 Agreement. The Trustee will be indemnified and saved harmless by the Grantor or
 from the Trust Fund, or both, from and against any personal liability to which
 the Trustee may be subjected by reason of any act or conduct in its official
 capacity, including all expenses reasonably incurred in its defense in the
 event the Grantor fails to provide such defense. 
 
 Section 19. Choice of Law. This Agreement will be
 administered, construed and enforced according to the laws of the Commonwealth
 of Virginia. 
 
 Section 20. Interpretation. As used in the Agreement, words
 in the singular include the plural and words in the plural include the
 singular. The descriptive headings for each section of this Agreement will not
 affect the interpretation of the legal efficacy of this Agreement. 
 
 In witness whereof the parties have caused this Agreement to
 be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate
 seals to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date first above written.
 The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is identical to
 the wording specified in 9VAC20-70-290 A of the Financial Assurance Regulations
 for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer and Treatment Facilities, as such
 regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below. 
 
 
  
   | (Signature of Grantor) |   | 
  
   | By: (Title) | (Date) | 
  
   | Attest: |   | 
  
   | (Title) | (Date) | 
  
   | (Seal) |   | 
  
   | (Signature of Trustee) |   | 
  
   | By |   | 
  
   | Attest: |   | 
  
   | (Title) |   | 
  
   | (Seal) | (Date) | 
 
 
 Certification of Acknowledgment: 
 
 COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA 
 
 STATE OF __________ 
 
 CITY/COUNTY OF __________ 
 
 On this date, before me personally came (owner or operator)
 to me known, who being by me duly sworn, did depose and say that she/he resides
 at (address), that she/he is (title) of (corporation), the corporation described
 in and which executed the above instrument; that she/he knows the seal of said
 corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is such corporate seal;
 that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors of said corporation,
 and that she/he signed her/his name thereto by like order. 
 
 (Signature of Notary Public) 
 
 B. Wording of surety bond guaranteeing performance or
 payment. 
 
 (NOTE: instructions in parentheses are to be replaced with
 the relevant information and the parentheses deleted.) 
 
 PERFORMANCE OR PAYMENT BOND 
 
 Date bond executed: __________ 
 
 Effective date: __________ 
 
 Principal: (legal name and business address) _____________ 
 
 Type of organization: (insert "individual,"
 "joint venture," "partnership," or "corporation")
 _____________ 
 
 State of incorporation: __________ 
 
 Surety: (name and business address) _____________ 
 
 Name, address, permit number, if any, and (closure,
 post-closure care, or corrective action) cost estimate for the facility:
 _____________ 
 
 Penal sum of bond: $________ 
 
 Surety's bond number: __________ 
 
 Know all men by these present, That we, the Principal and
 Surety hereto are firmly bound to the Department of Environmental Quality,
 Commonwealth of Virginia, (hereinafter called the Department) in the above
 penal sum for the payment of which we bind ourselves, our heirs, executors,
 administrators, successors and assigns, jointly and severally; provided that,
 where the Surety(ies) are corporations acting as co-sureties, we, the Sureties,
 bind ourselves in such sum "jointly and severally" only for the
 purpose of allowing a joint action or actions against any or all of us, and for
 all other purposes each Surety binds itself, jointly and severally with the
 Principal, for the payment of each sum only as is set forth opposite the name
 of such Surety, but if no limit of liability is indicated, the limit of
 liability shall be the full amount of the penal sum. 
 
 Whereas, said Principal is required to have a permit from the
 Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia, in order to own
 or operate the (solid, regulated medical, yard) waste management facility
 identified above, and 
 
 Whereas, said Principal is required to provide financial
 assurance for (closure, post-closure care, corrective action) of the facility
 as a condition of the permit or an order issued by the department, 
 
 Now, therefore the conditions of this obligation are such
 that if the Principal shall faithfully perform (closure, post-closure care,
 corrective action), whenever required to do so, of the facility identified
 above in accordance with the order or the (closure, post-closure care,
 corrective action) plan submitted to receive said permit and other requirements
 of said permit as such plan and permit may be amended or renewed pursuant to
 all applicable laws, statutes, rules, and regulations, as such laws, statutes,
 rules, and regulations may be amended, 
 
 Or, if the Principal shall faithfully perform (closure,
 post-closure care, corrective action) following an order to begin (closure,
 post-closure care, corrective action) issued by the Commonwealth of Virginia's
 Department of Environmental Quality or by a court, or following a notice of
 termination of the permit, 
 
 Or, if the Principal shall provide alternate financial
 assurance as specified in the Department's regulations and obtain the
 director's written approval of such assurance, within 90 days of the date
 notice of cancellation is received by the Director of the Department of
 Environmental Quality from the Surety, then this obligation will be null and void,
 otherwise it is to remain in full force and effect for the life of the
 management facility identified above. 
 
 The Surety shall become liable on this bond obligation only
 when the Principal has failed to fulfill the conditions described above. Upon
 notification by the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality,
 Commonwealth of Virginia, that the Principal has been found in violation of the
 requirements of the Department's regulations, the Surety must either perform
 (closure, post-closure care, corrective action) in accordance with the approved
 plan and other permit requirements or forfeit the (closure, post-closure care,
 corrective action) amount guaranteed for the facility to the Commonwealth of
 Virginia. 
 
 Upon notification by the Director of the Department of
 Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia, that the Principal has been
 found in violation of an order to begin (closure, post-closure care, corrective
 action), the Surety must either perform (closure, post-closure care, corrective
 action) in accordance with the order or forfeit the amount of the (closure,
 post-closure care, corrective action) guaranteed for the facility to the
 Commonwealth of Virginia. 
 
 The Surety hereby waives notification of amendments to the
 (closure, post-closure care, corrective action) plans, orders, permit,
 applicable laws, statutes, rules, and regulations and agrees that such
 amendments shall in no way alleviate its obligation on this bond. 
 
 For purposes of this bond, (closure, post-closure care,
 corrective action) shall be deemed to have been completed when the Director of
 the Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia, determines
 that the conditions of the approved plan have been met. 
 
 The liability of the Surety shall not be discharged by any
 payment or succession of payments hereunder, unless and until such payment or
 payments shall amount in the aggregate to the penal sum of the bond, but the
 obligation of the Surety hereunder shall not exceed the amount of said penal
 sum unless the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality,
 Commonwealth of Virginia, should prevail in an action to enforce the terms of
 this bond. In this event, the Surety shall pay, in addition to the penal sum
 due under the terms of the bond, all interest accrued from the date the
 Director of the Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia,
 first ordered the Surety to perform. The accrued interest shall be calculated
 at the judgment rate of interest pursuant to § 6.2-302 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 
 The Surety may cancel the bond by sending written notice of
 cancellation to the owner or operator and to the Director of the Department of
 Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia, provided, however, that
 cancellation cannot occur (1) during the 120 days beginning on the date of
 receipt of the notice of cancellation by the director as shown on the signed
 return receipt; or (2) while an enforcement action is pending. 
 
 The Principal may terminate this bond by sending written
 notice to the Surety, provided, however, that no such notice shall become
 effective until the Surety receives written authorization for termination of
 the bond by the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality,
 Commonwealth of Virginia. 
 
 In witness whereof, the Principal and Surety have executed
 this Performance Bond and have affixed their seals on the date set forth above.
 
 
 The persons whose signatures appear below hereby certify that
 they are authorized to execute this surety bond on behalf of the Principal and
 Surety and I hereby certify that the wording of this surety bond is identical
 to the wording specified in 9VAC20-70-290 B of the Financial Assurance
 Regulations for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities as
 such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below. 
 
 Principal 
 
 Signature(s): __________ 
 
 Name(s) and Title(s): (typed)__________ 
 
 Corporate Surety 
 
 Name and Address: __________ 
 
 State of Incorporation: __________ 
 
 Liability Limit: $___ 
 
 Signature(s): __________ 
 
 Name(s) and Title(s): (typed)__________ 
 
 Corporate Seal: 
 
 C. Wording of irrevocable standby letter of credit. 
 
 (NOTE: Instructions in parentheses are to be replaced with
 the relevant information and the parentheses deleted.) 
 
 IRREVOCABLE STANDBY LETTER OF CREDIT 
 
 Director 
 
 Department of Environmental Quality 
 
 P.O. Box 1105
 
 Richmond, Virginia 23218
 
 Dear (Sir or Madam): 
 
 We hereby establish our Irrevocable Letter of Credit No......
 in your favor at the request and for the account of (owner's or operator's name
 and address) up to the aggregate amount of (in words) U.S. dollars $____,
 available upon presentation of 
 
 1. Your sight draft, bearing reference to this letter of
 credit No ____ together with 
 
 2. Your signed statement declaring that the amount of the
 draft is payable pursuant to regulations issued under the authority of the
 Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth of Virginia. 
 
 The following amounts are included in the amount of this
 letter of credit: (Insert the facility permit number, if any, name and address,
 and the closure, post-closure care, corrective action cost estimate, or
 portions thereof, for which financial assurance is demonstrated by this letter
 of credit.) 
 
 This letter of credit is effective as of (date) and will
 expire on (date at least one year later), but such expiration date will be
 automatically extended for a period of (at least one year) on (date) and on
 each successive expiration date, unless, at least 120 days before the current
 expiration date, we notify you and (owner or operator's name) by certified mail
 that we decide not to extend the Letter of Credit beyond the current expiration
 date. In the event you are so notified, unused portion of the credit will be
 available upon presentation of your sight draft for 120 days after the date of receipt
 by you as shown on the signed return receipt or while a compliance procedure is
 pending, whichever is later. 
 
 Whenever this letter of credit is drawn on under and in
 compliance with the terms of this credit, we will duly honor such draft upon
 presentation to us, and we will pay to you the amount of the draft promptly and
 directly. 
 
 I hereby certify that I am authorized to execute this letter
 of credit on behalf of (issuing institution) and I hereby certify that the
 wording of this letter of credit is identical to the wording specified in
 9VAC20-70-290 C of the Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid Waste
 Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities as such regulations were
 constituted on the date shown immediately below. 
 
 Attest: 
 
 (Print name and title of
 official of issuing institution) (Date) 
 
 
 
 This credit is subject to (insert "the most recent
 edition of the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits, published
 by the International Chamber of Commerce," of "the Uniform Commercial
 Code.") 
 
 D. Assignment of certificate of deposit account. 
 
 City _______________________ ____________, 20___ 
 
 FOR VALUE RECEIVED, the undersigned assigns all right, title
 and interest to the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality, Commonwealth
 of Virginia, and its successors and assigns the Virginia Department of
 Environmental Quality the principal amount of the instrument, including all
 monies deposited now or in the future to that instrument, indicated below: 
 
 () If checked here, this assignment includes all interest now
 and hereafter accrued. 
 
 Certificate of Deposit Account No. _____________________ 
 
 This assignment is given as security to the Virginia
 Department of Environmental Quality in the amount of _______________________
 Dollars ($_____________). 
 
 Continuing Assignment. This assignment shall continue to
 remain in effect for all subsequent terms of the automatically renewable
 certificate of deposit. 
 
 Assignment of Document. The undersigned also assigns any
 certificate or other document evidencing ownership to the Virginia Department
 of Environmental Quality. 
 
 Additional Security. This assignment shall secure the payment
 of any financial obligation of the (name of owner/operator) to the Virginia
 Department of Environmental Quality for ("closure" "post closure
 care" "corrective action") at the (facility name and permit
 number) located (physical address) 
 
 Application of Funds. The undersigned agrees that all or any
 part of the funds of the indicated account or instrument may be applied to the
 payment of any and all financial assurance obligations of (name of
 owner/operator) to the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality for
 ("closure" "post closure care" "corrective
 action") at the (facility name and address). The undersigned authorizes
 the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality to withdraw any principal
 amount on deposit in the indicated account or instrument including any
 interest, if indicated, and to apply it in the Virginia Department of
 Environmental Quality's discretion to fund ("closure" "post
 closure care" "corrective action") at the (facility name) or in
 the event of (owner or operator's) failure to comply with the Virginia
 Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer, and
 Treatment Facilities, 9VAC20-70. The undersigned agrees that the Virginia
 Department of Environmental Quality may withdraw any principal and/or interest
 from the indicated account or instrument without demand or notice. (The
 undersigned) agrees to assume any and all loss of penalty due to federal
 regulations concerning the early withdrawal of funds. Any partial withdrawal of
 principal or interest shall not release this assignment. 
 
 The party or parties to this Assignment set their hand or
 seals, or if corporate, has caused this assignment to be signed in its
 corporate name by its duly authorized officers and its seal to be affixed by
 authority of its Board of Directors the day and year above written. 
 
 
  
   |   | SEAL  | 
  
   | (Owner)  |   | 
  
   |   |   | 
  
   | (print owner's name)  |   | 
  
   |   | SEAL | 
  
   | (Owner)  |   | 
  
   |   |   | 
  
   | (print owner's name)  |   | 
 
 
 THE FOLLOWING SECTION IS TO BE COMPLETED BY THE BRANCH OR
 LENDING OFFICE: 
 
 The signature(s) as shown above compare correctly with the
 name(s) as shown on record as owner(s) of the Certificate of Deposit indicated
 above. The above assignment has been properly recorded by placing a hold in the
 amount of $ _______________________ for the benefit of the Department of
 Environmental Quality. 
 
 () If checked here, the accrued interest on the Certificate
 of Deposit indicated above has been maintained to capitalize versus being
 mailed by check or transferred to a deposit account. 
 
 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   | (Signature) |   | (Date) | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   | (print name) |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   | (Title) |   |   | 
 
 
 E. Wording of certificate of insurance. 
 
 (NOTE: Instructions in parentheses are to be replaced with
 the relevant information and the parentheses deleted.) 
 
 CERTIFICATE OF INSURANCE 
 
 Name and Address of Insurer
 (herein called the "Insurer"): 
 
 _____________ 
 
 _____________ 
 
  
 
 Name and Address of Insured
 (herein called the "Insured"): 
 
 _____________ 
 
 _____________ 
 
 _____________ 
 
 Facilities Covered: (List for each facility: Permit number
 (if applicable), name, address and the amount of insurance for closure,
 post-closure care, or corrective action. (These amounts for all facilities
 covered shall total the face amount shown below.)) 
 
 Face Amount: $ __________ 
 
 Policy Number: __________ 
 
 Effective Date: ___________ 
 
 The Insurer hereby certifies that it has issued to the
 Insured the policy of insurance identified above to provide financial assurance
 for (insert "closure," "post-closure care,"
 "corrective action") for the facilities identified above. The Insurer
 further warrants that such policy conforms in all respects with the
 requirements of 9VAC20-70-190 of the Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid Waste
 Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities ("Regulations")
 (9VAC20-70), as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately
 below. It is agreed that any provision of the policy inconsistent with such
 regulations is hereby amended to eliminate such inconsistency. 
 
 Whenever requested by the Director, the Insurer agrees to
 furnish to the Director a duplicate original of the policy listed above,
 including all endorsements thereon. 
 
 I hereby certify that the wording of this certificate is identical
 to the wording specified in 9VAC20-70-290 E of the Financial Assurance
 Regulations for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities as
 such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below. 
 
 (Authorized signature for Insurer) 
 
 (Name of person signing) 
 
 (Title of person signing) 
 
 Signature of witness or notary: 
 
 (Date) 
 
 F. Wording of letter from chief financial officer. 
 
 (NOTE: Instructions in parentheses are to be replaced with
 the relevant information and the parentheses removed.) 
 
 Director 
 
 Department of Environmental Quality 
 
 P.O. Box 1105
 
 Richmond, Virginia 23218
 
 Dear (Sir, Madam): 
 
 I am the chief financial officer of (name and address of
 firm). This letter is in support of this firm's use of the financial test to demonstrate
 financial assurance, as specified in 9VAC20-70-200 of the Financial Assurance
 Regulations for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities
 (9VAC20-70) ("Regulations"). 
 
 (Fill out the following four paragraphs regarding solid
 waste, regulated medical waste, yard waste composting, hazardous waste,
 underground injection (regulated under the federal program in 40 CFR Part 144,
 or its equivalent in other states), petroleum underground storage (9VAC25-590),
 above ground storage facilities (9VAC25-640) and PCB storage (regulated under
 40 CFR Part 761) facilities and associated cost estimates. If your firm has no
 facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write "None" in the
 space indicated. For each facility, include its name, address, permit number,
 if any, and current closure, post-closure care, corrective action or any other
 environmental obligation cost estimates. Identify each cost estimate as to
 whether it is for closure, post-closure care, corrective action or other
 environmental obligation.) 
 
 1. This firm is the owner or operator of the following
 facilities for which financial assurance is demonstrated through the corporate
 test specified in 9VAC20-70-200 or its equivalent in other applicable
 regulations. The current cost estimates covered by the test are shown for each
 facility: 
 
 2. This firm guarantees, through the corporate guarantee
 specified in 9VAC20-70-220, the financial assurance for the following
 facilities owned or operated by subsidiaries of this firm. The current cost estimates
 so guaranteed are shown for each facility: 
 
 3. This firm, as owner or operator or guarantor, is
 demonstrating financial assurance for the following facilities through the use
 of a financial test. The current cost estimates covered by such a test are
 shown for each facility: 
 
 4. This firm is the owner or operator of the following waste
 management facilities for which financial assurance is not demonstrated through
 the financial test or any other financial assurance mechanism. The current cost
 estimates for the facilities which are not covered by such financial assurance
 are shown for each facility: 
 
 This firm (insert "is required" or "is not
 required") to file a Form 10K with the Securities and Exchange Commission
 (SEC) for the latest fiscal year. 
 
 The fiscal year of this firm ends on (month, day). The
 figures for the following items marked with an asterisk are derived from this
 firm's independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest
 completed fiscal year, ended (date). 
 
 
  
   | 1) Sum of current closure, post-closure care, corrective
   action or other environmental obligations cost estimates (total of all cost
   estimates shown in the four paragraphs above.) | $_____________ | 
  
   | 2) Tangible net worth*  | $_____________ | 
  
   | 3) Total assets located in the United States*  | $_____________ | 
  
   |   | YES   | NO | 
  
   | Line 2 exceeds line 1 by at least $10 million? | _____ | _____ | 
  
   | Line 3 exceeds line 1 by at least $10 million? | _____ | _____ | 
 
 
 (Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of 9VAC20-70-200 1 a
 (1) are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of 9VAC20-70-200 1 a (2)
 are used. Fill in Alternative III if the criteria of 9VAC20-70-200 1 a (3) are
 used.) 
 
 ALTERNATIVE I 
 
 Current bond rating of this firm's senior unsubordinated debt
 and name of rating service 
 
 Date of issuance of bond 
 
 Date of maturity of bond 
 
 
  
   | ALTERNATIVE II  | 
  
   | 4) Total liabilities* (if any portion of the closure,
   post-closure care, corrective action or other environmental obligations cost
   estimates is included in total liabilities, you may deduct the amount of that
   portion from this line and add that amount to line 5.) | $____________ | 
  
   | 5) Net worth* | $____________ | 
  
   | Is line 4 divided by line 5 less than 1.5? | YES | NO | 
 
 
  
 
 
  
   | ALTERNATIVE III  | 
  
   | 6) Total liabilities*   | $_______ | 
  
   | 7) The sum of net income plus
   depreciation, depletion, and amortization minus $10 million*  | $_______ | 
  
   | Is line 7 divided by line 6 less than 0.1? | YES | NO | 
 
 
 I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical
 to the wording in 9VAC20-70-290 F of the Financial Assurance Regulations for
 Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities as such regulations
 were constituted on the date shown immediately below. 
 
 (Signature) 
 
 (Name) 
 
 (Title) 
 
 (Date) 
 
 G. Wording of the local government letter from chief
 financial officer. 
 
 (NOTE: Instructions in parentheses are to be replaced with
 the relevant information and the parentheses deleted.) 
 
 LETTER FROM CHIEF FINANCIAL OFFICER 
 
 I am the chief financial officer of (insert: name and address
 of local government owner or operator, or guarantor). This letter is in support
 of the use of the financial test to demonstrate financial responsibility for
 ("closure care" "post-closure care" "corrective action
 costs") arising from operating a solid waste management facility. 
 
 The following facilities are assured by this financial test:
 (List for each facility: the name and address of the facility, the permit
 number, the closure, post-closure and/or corrective action costs, whichever
 applicable, for each facility covered by this instrument). 
 
 This owner's or operator's financial statements were prepared
 in conformity with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles for governments and
 have been audited by ("an independent certified public accountant"
 "Auditor of Public Accounts"). The owner or operator has not received
 an adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion from ("an independent
 certified public accountant" "Auditor of Public Accounts") on
 its financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year. 
 
 This owner or operator is not currently in default on any
 outstanding general obligation bond. Any outstanding issues of general
 obligation, if rated, have a Moody's rating of Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa or a Standard
 and Poor's rating of AAA, AA, A or BBB; if rated by both firms, the bonds have
 a Moody's rating of Aaa, Aa, A or Baa and a Standard and Poor's rating of AAA,
 AA, A, or BBB. 
 
 The fiscal year of this owner or operator ends on (month,
 day). The figures for the following items marked with the asterisk are derived
 from this owner's or operator's independently audited, year-end financial
 statements for the latest completed fiscal year ended (date). 
 
 (Please complete Alternative I or Alternative II.) 
 
 (Fill in Alternative I if the criteria in 9VAC20-70-210 1 a
 (1) are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of 9VAC20-70-210 1 a (2)
 are used.) 
 
 ALTERNATIVE I - BOND RATING TEST 
 
 The details of the issue date, maturity, outstanding amount,
 bond rating, and bond rating agency of all outstanding general obligation bond
 issues that are being used by (name of local government owner or operator, or
 guarantor) to demonstrate financial responsibility are as follows: (complete
 table): 
 
 
  
   | Issue Date | Maturity Date | Outstanding Amount | Bond Rating | Rating Agency | 
  
   | ______ | ______ | __________ | ______ | ___________ | 
  
   | ______ | ______ | __________ | ______ | ___________ | 
  
   | ______ | ______ | __________ | ______ | ___________ | 
  
   | ______ | ______ | __________ | ______ | ___________ | 
  
   | ______ | ______ | __________ | ______ | ___________ | 
  
   | ______ | ______ | ___________ | ______ | ___________ | 
 
 
 Any outstanding issues of general obligation bonds, if rated,
 have a Moody's rating of Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa or a Standard and Poor's rating of
 AAA, AA, A or BBB; if rated by both firms, the bonds have a Moody's rating of
 Aaa, Aa, A or Baa and a Standard and Poor's rating of AAA, AA, A or BBB. 
 
 
  
   | 1) Sum of current closure, post-closure and corrective
   action cost estimates (total of all cost estimates listed above) | $_______________ | 
  
   | *2) Operating Deficit |   | 
  
   |   | (a) latest completed fiscal year (insert year) | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (b) previous fiscal year (insert year) | $_______________ | 
  
   | *3) Total Revenue |   | 
  
   |   | (a) latest completed fiscal
   year (insert year) | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (b) previous fiscal year (insert year) | $_______________ | 
  
   | 4) Other self-insured
   environmental costs |   | 
  
   |   | (a) Amount of aggregate
   underground injection control systems financial assurance insured by a
   financial test under 40 CFR 144.62 | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (b) Amount of annual underground storage tank aggregate
   coverage insured by a financial test under 40 CFR Part 280 and 9VAC25-590  | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (c) Amount of aggregate costs associated with PCB storage
   facilities insured by a financial test under 40 CFR Part 761 | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (d) Amount of annual aggregate hazardous waste financial
   assurance insured by a financial test under 40 CFR Parts 264 and 265 and
   9VAC20-60 | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (e) Total of lines 4(a) through 4(d) | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | YES | NO | 
  
   | 5) Is (line 2a / line 3a) < 0.05? | ____ | ____ | 
  
   | 6) Is (line 2b / line 3b) < 0.05? | ____ | ____ | 
  
   | 7) Is (line 1 + line 4e) <= (line 3a x 0.43)? | ____ | ____ | 
  
   | 8) Is (line 1 + line 4e) <= (line 3a x 0.20)?
 | ____
 | ____
 | 
  
   |  |  |  |  |  | 
 
 
 If the answer to line 7 is yes and the answer to line 8 is
 no, please attach documentation from the agent/trustee /issuing institution
 stating the current balance of the account/fund /irrevocable letter of credit
 as of the latest fiscal reporting year to this form as required by
 9VAC20-70-210. 
 
 ALTERNATIVE II - FINANCIAL
 RATIO TEST 
 
 
  
   | 1) Sum of current closure,
   post-closure and corrective action cost estimates | $_______________ | 
  
   | *2) Operating Deficit |   | 
  
   |   | (a) latest completed fiscal year (insert year) | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (b) previous fiscal year (insert year) | $_______________ | 
  
   | *3) Total Revenue |   | 
  
   |   | (a) latest completed fiscal year (insert year) | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (b) previous fiscal year (insert year) | $_______________ | 
  
   | 4) Other self-insured environmental costs |   | 
  
   |   | (a) Amount of aggregate underground injection control
   systems financial assurance insured by a financial test under 40 CFR 144.62 | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (b) Amount of annual underground storage tank aggregate
   coverage insured by a financial test under 40 CFR Part 280 and 9VAC25-590  | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (c) Amount of aggregate costs associated with PCB storage
   facilities insured by a financial test under 40 CFR Part 761 | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (d) Amount of annual aggregate hazardous waste financial
   assurance insured by a financial test under 40 CFR Parts 264 and 265 and
   9VAC20-60 | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | (e) Total of lines 4(a) through 4(d) | $_______________ | 
  
   | *5) Cash plus marketable securities | $_______________ | 
  
   | *6) Total Expenditures | $_______________ | 
  
   | *7) Annual Debt Service | $_______________ | 
  
   |   | YES | NO | 
  
   | 8) Is (line 2a / line 3a) < 0.05? | ____ | ____ | 
  
   | 9) Is (line 2b / line 3b) < 0.05? | ____ | ____ | 
  
   | 10) Is (line 1 + line 4e) <= (line 3a x 0.43)? | ____ | ____ | 
  
   | 11) Is (line 5 / line 6) >= 0.05? | ____ | ____ | 
  
   | 12) Is (line 7 / line 6) <= 0.20?
 | ____
 | ____
 | 
  
   | 13) Is (line 1 + line 4e) <= (line 3a x.20)
 | ____
 | ____
 | 
  
   |  |  |  |  |  | 
 
 
  
 
 If the answer to line 13 is
 no, please attach documentation from the agent/trustee/issuing institution
 stating the current balance of the account/fund/irrevocable letter of credit as
 of the latest fiscal reporting year to this form as required by 9VAC20-70-210. 
 
 I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical
 to the wording in 9VAC20-70-290 G of the Financial Assurance Regulations for
 Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities as such regulations
 were constituted on the date shown immediately below. 
 
 (Signature) 
 
 (Name of person signing) 
 
 (Title of person signing) 
 
 (Date) 
 
 H. Certification of funding. 
 
 CERTIFICATION OF FUNDING 
 
 I certify the following information details the current plan
 for funding closure and post closure at the solid waste management facilities
 listed below. 
 
 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   | Facility Permit #  |   | Source for funding closure and post closure  | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   Name of Locality or Corporation:
   _______________________________________ | 
  
   |   |   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   |   |   | 
  
   | Signature |   | Printed Name |   | Date | 
  
   |   |   |   |   |   | 
  
   | Title |   |   |   |   | 
  
   |   |   |   |   |   |   | 
 
 
 I. Certification of
 escrow/sinking fund /irrevocable letter of credit balance. 
 
 CERTIFICATION OF ESCROW/SINKING FUND BALANCE OR AMOUNT OF
 IRREVOCABLE LETTER OF CREDIT 
 
 I am the Chief Financial Officer of (name of locality) and
 hereby certify that as of (date) the current balance in the restricted sinking
 (type of fund) fund or the escrow account or the amount of the irrevocable
 letter of credit restricted to landfill closure costs is $_____________ 
 
 The calculation used to determine the amount required to
 be funded is as follows: 
 
 (Show the values that were used in the following formula: 
 
 (CE * CD) - E 
 
 Where CE is the current closure cost estimate, CD is the
 percentage of landfill capacity used to date, and E is current year expenses
 for closure.) 
 
 Therefore, this account has been funded or an irrevocable
 letter of credit has been obtained in accordance with the Financial Assurance
 Regulations for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer and Treatment Facilities,
 9VAC20-70. 
 
 (Signature) 
 
 (Name of person signing) 
 
 (Title of person signing) 
 
 (Date) 
 
 J. I. Wording of corporate guarantee. 
 
 (NOTE: Instructions in parentheses are to be replaced with
 the relevant information and the parentheses removed.) 
 
 CORPORATE GUARANTEE 
 
 Guarantee made this (date) by (name of guaranteeing entity),
 a business corporation organized under the laws of the state of (insert name of
 state), herein referred to as guarantor. This guarantee is made on behalf of
 the (owner or operator) of (business address), which is (one of the following:
 "our subsidiary"; "a subsidiary of (name and address of common
 parent corporation) of which guarantor is a subsidiary"; or "an
 entity with which the guarantor has a substantial business relationship, as
 defined in Part I of the Virginia Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid
 Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities (9VAC20-70)") to the
 Virginia Department of Environmental Quality ("Department"), obligee,
 on behalf of our subsidiary (owner or operator) of (business address). 
 
 Recitals 
 
 1. Guarantor meets or exceeds the financial test criteria in
 9VAC20-70-200 and agrees to comply with the reporting requirements for
 guarantors as specified in 9VAC20-70-220 of the Financial Assurance Regulations
 for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities
 ("Regulations"). 
 
 2. (Owner or operator) owns or operates the following (solid,
 regulated medical, yard) waste management facility(ies) covered by this
 guarantee: (List for each facility: name, address, and permit number, if any.
 Indicate for each whether guarantee is for closure, post-closure care,
 corrective action or other environmental obligations.) 
 
 3. "Closure plans", "post-closure care
 plans" and "corrective action plans" as used below refer to the
 plans maintained as required by the Solid Waste Management Regulations
 (9VAC20-81), or the Regulated Medical Waste Management Regulations
 (9VAC20-120). 
 
 4. For value received from (owner or operator), guarantor
 guarantees to the Department that in the event that (owner or operator) fails
 to perform (insert "closure," "post-closure care," or
 "corrective action") of the above facility(ies) in accordance with
 the closure or post-closure care plans and other (requirements of the) permit
 or (the order) whenever required to do so, the guarantor shall do so or
 establish a trust fund as specified in 9VAC20-70-140 in the name of (owner or
 operator) in the amount of the current cost estimates. 
 
 5. Guarantor agrees that if, at the end of any fiscal year
 before termination of this guarantee, the guarantor fails to meet the financial
 test criteria, guarantor shall send within 90 days, by certified mail, notice
 to the director and to (owner or operator) that he intends to provide alternate
 financial assurance as specified in Article 4 of Part III of the Regulations,
 in the name of (owner or operator). Within 120 days after the end of such
 fiscal year, the guarantor shall establish such financial assurance unless
 (owner or operator) has done so. 
 
 6. The guarantor agrees to notify the director by certified
 mail, of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy),
 U.S. Code, naming guarantor as debtor, within 10 days after commencement of the
 proceeding. 
 
 7. Guarantor agrees that within 30 days after being notified
 by the director of a determination that guarantor no longer meets the financial
 test criteria or that he is disallowed from continuing as a guarantor of
 closure, post-closure care, or corrective action, he shall establish alternate
 financial assurance as specified in Article 4 of Part III of the Regulations,
 in the name of (owner or operator) unless (owner or operator) has done so. 
 
 8. Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee
 notwithstanding any or all of the following: amendment or modification of the
 closure, post-closure or corrective action plan, amendment or modification of
 the permit, amendment or modification of the order, the extension or reduction
 of the time of performance of closure, post-closure, or corrective action or
 any other modification or alteration of an obligation of the owner or operator
 pursuant to the (Solid Waste Management Regulations or Regulated Medical Waste
 Management Regulations or § 10.1-1454.1 of the Code of Virginia). 
 
 9. Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee for
 so long as (owner or operator) shall comply with the applicable financial
 assurance requirements of Article 4 of Part III of the Regulations for the
 above-listed facilities, except as provided in paragraph 10 of this agreement. 
 
 10. (Insert the following
 language if the guarantor is (a) a direct or higher-tier corporate parent, or
 (b) a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner
 or operator:) Guarantor may terminate this guarantee by sending notice by
 certified mail to the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality and
 to the (owner or operator), provided that this guarantee may not be terminated
 unless and until (the owner or operator) obtains and the director approves,
 alternate (closure, post-closure, corrective action) coverage complying with
 the requirements of 9VAC20-70. (Insert the following language if the guarantor
 is a firm qualifying as a guarantor due to its "substantial business
 relationship" with the owner or operator:) Guarantor may terminate this
 guarantee 120 days following the receipt of notification, through certified
 mail, by the director and by (the owner or operator). 
 
 11. Guarantor agrees that if (owner or operator) fails to
 provide alternate financial assurance as specified in Article 4 of Part III of
 the Regulations, and obtain written approval of such assurance from the
 director within 90 days after a notice of cancellation by the guarantor is
 received by the director from guarantor, guarantor shall provide such alternate
 financial assurance in the name of (owner or operator). 
 
 12. Guarantor expressly waives notice of acceptance of this
 guarantee by the Department or by (owner or operator). Guarantor also expressly
 waives notice of amendments or modifications of the closure and/or post-closure
 plan and of amendments or modifications of the facility permit(s). 
 
 I hereby certify that the wording of this guarantee is
 identical to the wording in 9VAC20-70-290 JI of the Financial
 Assurance Regulations for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment
 Facilities as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately
 below. 
 
 (Name of guarantor) 
 
 Effective date: __________ 
 
 (Authorized signature for guarantor) __________ 
 
 (Name of person signing) __________ 
 
 (Title of person signing) __________ 
 
 Signature of witness or notary: __________ 
 
 K. J. Wording of local government guarantee. 
 
 (NOTE: Instructions in parentheses are to be replaced with
 the relevant information and the parentheses removed.) 
 
 LOCAL GOVERNMENT GUARANTEE 
 
 Guarantee made this (date) by (name of guaranteeing entity),
 a local government created under the laws of the state of Virginia, herein
 referred to as guarantor. This guarantee is made on behalf of the (owner or
 operator) of (address), to the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality
 ("Department"), obligee. 
 
 Recitals 
 
 1. Guarantor meets or exceeds the financial test criteria in
 9VAC20-70-210 and agrees to comply with the reporting requirements for
 guarantors as specified in 9VAC20-70-230 of the Financial Assurance Regulations
 for Solid Waste Disposal, Treatment and Transfer Facilities ("Regulations").
 
 
 2. (Owner or operator) owns or operates the following (solid,
 regulated medical, yard) waste management facility(ies) covered by this
 guarantee: (List for each facility: name, address, and permit number, if any.
 Indicate for each whether guarantee is for closure, post-closure care,
 corrective action or other environmental obligations.) 
 
 3. "Closure plans" and "post-closure care
 plans" as used below refer to the plans maintained as required by the
 Solid Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-81).
 
 4. For value received from (owner or operator), guarantor
 guarantees to the Department that in the event that (owner or operator) fails
 to perform (insert "closure," "post-closure care," or
 "corrective action") of the above facility(ies) in accordance with the
 closure or post-closure care plans and other (requirements of the) permit or
 (the order) whenever required to do so, the guarantor shall do so or establish
 a trust fund as specified in 9VAC20-70-150 in the name of (owner or operator)
 in the amount of the current cost estimates. 
 
 5. Guarantor agrees that if, at the end of any fiscal year
 before termination of this guarantee, the guarantor fails to meet the financial
 test criteria, guarantor shall send within 90 days, by certified mail, notice
 to the director and to (owner or operator) that he intends to provide alternate
 financial assurance as specified in Article 4 of Part III of the Regulations,
 in the name of (owner or operator). Within 120 days after the end of such
 fiscal year, the guarantor shall establish such financial assurance unless
 (owner or operator) has done so. 
 
 6. The guarantor agrees to notify the director by certified
 mail, of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (bankruptcy),
 U.S. Code, naming guarantor as debtor, within 10 days after commencement of the
 proceeding. 
 
 7. Guarantor agrees that within 30 days after being notified
 by the director of a determination that guarantor no longer meets the financial
 test criteria or that he is disallowed from continuing as a guarantor of
 closure, post-closure care, or corrective action, he shall establish alternate
 financial assurance as specified in Article 4 of Part III of the Regulations in
 the name of (owner or operator) unless (owner or operator) has done so. 
 
 8. Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee
 notwithstanding any or all of the following: amendment or modification of the
 closure or post-closure plan, amendment or modification of the closure or
 post-closure plan, amendment or modification of the permit, amendment or
 modification of the order, the extension or reduction of the time of
 performance of the closure or post-closure, or any other modification or
 alteration of an obligation of the owner or operator pursuant to the Virginia
 (Solid Waste Management or Regulated Medical Waste Management) Regulations. 
 
 9. Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee for
 so long as (owner or operator) shall comply with the applicable financial
 assurance requirements of Article 4 of Part III of the Regulations for the
 above-listed facilities, except as provided in paragraph 10 of this agreement. 
 
 10. Guarantor may terminate this guarantee by sending notice
 by certified mail to the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality
 and to the (owner or operator), provided that this guarantee may not be
 terminated unless and until (the owner or operator) obtains and the director
 approves, alternate (closure, post-closure, corrective action,) coverage
 complying with the requirements of 9VAC20-70. 
 
 11. Guarantor agrees that if (owner or operator) fails to
 provide alternate financial assurance as specified in Article 4 of Part III of
 the Regulations, and obtain written approval of such assurance from the
 director with 90 days after a notice of cancellation by the guarantor is
 received by the director from guarantor, guarantor shall provide such alternate
 financial assurance in the name of (owner or operator). 
 
 12. Guarantor expressly waives notice of acceptance of this
 guarantee by the Department or by (owner or operator). Guarantor also expressly
 waives notice of amendments or modifications of the closure and/or post-closure
 plan and of amendments or modifications of the facility permit(s). 
 
 I hereby certify that the wording of this guarantee is
 identical to the wording specified in 9VAC20-70-290 K J of the
 Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer and
 Treatment Facilities as such regulations were constituted on the date shown
 immediately below. 
 
 (Name of guarantor) __________ 
 
 Effective date: __________ 
 
 (Authorized signature for guarantor) __________ 
 
 (Name of person signing) __________ 
 
 (Title of person signing) __________ 
 
 Signature of witness or notary: __________ 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5480; Filed June 23, 2019, 11:56 a.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD
Forms
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S NOTICE:
 Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The
 forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the
 Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a
 hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or
 may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main
 Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-90. Solid Waste
 Management Permit Action Fees and Annual Fees.
 
 Contact Information: Gary Graham, Regulatory Analyst,
 Department of Environmental Quality, 1111 East Main Street, Suite 1400,
 Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 698-4103, or email gary.graham@deq.virginia.gov.
 
 FORMS (9VAC20-90)
 
 Solid Waste Information and Assessment Program -
 Reporting Table, Form DEQ 50-25 with Statement of Economic Benefits Form
 and Instructions (rev. 11/2014)
 
 Solid Waste Annual Permit Fee Quarter Payment Form PF001
 (rev. 6/2018)
 
 Solid
 Waste Annual Permit Fee Quarter Payment Form PF001 (rev. 6/2019)
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-6059; Filed July 1, 2019, 3:32 p.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD
Final Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
 Virginia Waste Management Board is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the
 Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 3, which
 excludes regulations that consist only of changes in style or form or
 corrections of technical errors, and an exemption from Article 2 of the
 Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code
 of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to meet the
 requirements of federal law or regulations, provided such regulations do not
 differ materially from those required by federal law or regulation. The
 Virginia Waste Management Board will receive, consider, and respond to
 petitions by any interested person at any time with respect to reconsideration
 or revision.
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation:
 9VAC20-110. Regulations Governing the Transportation of Hazardous Materials (amending 9VAC20-110-110). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 10.1-1450 and 44-146.30 of
 the Code of Virginia; 49 USC §§ 1809 through 1810; 49 CFR Parts 107,
 170 through 180, 383, and 390 through 397.
 
 Effective Date: August 21, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Debra A. Harris, Department of
 Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804)
 698-4209, FAX (804) 698-4019, or email debra.harris@deq.virgina.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The amendment updates the federal regulations from Title 49
 of the Code of Federal Regulations that are incorporated by reference into
 Virginia's Regulations Governing the Transportation of Hazardous Materials
 (9VAC20-110) to the latest version as published on October 1, 2018.
 
 Part III 
 Compliance with Federal Regulations 
 
 9VAC20-110-110. Compliance. 
 
 A. Every person who transports or offers for transportation
 hazardous materials within or through the Commonwealth of Virginia shall comply
 with the federal regulations governing the transportation of hazardous
 materials promulgated by the U.S. Secretary of Transportation with amendments
 promulgated as of October 1, 2016 2018, pursuant to the Hazardous
 Materials Transportation Act, and located at Title 49 of the Code of Federal
 Regulations as set forth below and which are incorporated in these regulations
 by reference: 
 
 1. Special Permits. 49 CFR Part 107, Subpart B. 
 
 2. Registration of Cargo Tank and Cargo Tank Motor Vehicle
 Manufacturers, Assemblers, Repairers, Inspectors, Testers, and Design
 Certifying Engineers in 49 CFR Part 107, Subpart F. 
 
 3. Registration of Persons Who Offer or Transport Hazardous
 Materials in 49 CFR Part 107, Subpart G. 
 
 4. Hazardous Materials Regulations in 49 CFR Parts 171 through
 177. 
 
 5. Specifications for Packagings in 49 CFR Part 178. 
 
 6. Specifications for Tank Cars in 49 CFR Part 179. 
 
 7. Continuing Qualification and Maintenance of Packagings in
 49 CFR Part 180. 
 
 8. Motor Carrier Safety Regulations in 49 CFR Parts 390
 through 397. 
 
 B. The references to and
 incorporation by reference of 49 CFR Part 390 into this chapter includes
 the compliance date extension as promulgated by the U.S. Department of
 Transportation's Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (83 FR 62505,
 December 4, 2018).
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5539; Filed June 27, 2019, 8:41 p.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Fast-Track Regulation 
 
 Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-640. Aboveground Storage
 Tank and Pipeline Facility Financial Responsibility Requirements (amending 9VAC25-640-30; repealing 9VAC25-640-250).
 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 62.1-44.15 and 62.1-44.34:16 of
 the Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
 scheduled.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 21, 2019.
 
 Effective Date: September 5, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Melissa Porterfield, Department of
 Environmental Quality, 1111 East Main Street, Suite 1400, P.O. Box 1105,
 Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4238, FAX (804) 698-4019, or email
 melissa.porterfield@deq.virginia.gov.
 
 Basis: The legal basis for the Aboveground Storage Tank
 and Pipeline Facility Financial Responsibility Requirements (9VAC25-640) is the
 State Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
 Specifically, § 62.1-44.34:16 D of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State
 Water Control Board to promulgate regulations requiring operators of facilities
 to demonstrate financial responsibility based on the total storage capacity of
 all facilities operated within the Commonwealth and operators of pipelines to
 demonstrate financial responsibility for any pipelines operated within the
 Commonwealth.
 
 Purpose: The amendment modifies the language in
 9VAC25-640-30 to include the revisions made to the exclusions in 9VAC25-91-30
 of the Facility and Aboveground Storage Tank (AST) Regulation. This will remove
 confusion concerning activities excluded from regulation. The amendments are
 necessary to protect the public health, safety, and welfare as they remove
 confusion concerning activities excluded from the regulation.
 
 9VAC25-640-250, which is obsolete, is being repealed.
 Regulations are periodically reviewed as required by Executive Order 17 (2014)
 and §§ 2.2-4007.1 and 2.2-4017 of the Code of Virginia and the regulatory
 language is no longer needed or applicable.
 
 Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
 proposed amendments are expected to be noncontroversial and therefore justify
 using the fast-track rulemaking process. 
 
 Substance: This amendment modifies the language in
 9VAC25-640-30 to include the revisions made to the exclusions in 9VAC25-91-30
 of the Facility and Aboveground Storage Tank (AST) Regulation. This will remove
 confusion concerning activities excluded from regulation. 
 
 9VAC25-640-250, which is obsolete is also being repealed.
 
 Issues: The public, regulated community, and agency will
 all benefit from these changes. There are no disadvantages to the public,
 regulated community, or agency.
 
 Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
 Analysis:
 
 Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State
 Water Control Board (Board) proposes to incorporate the changes that occurred
 in a companion regulation.
 
 Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
 all proposed changes.
 
 Estimated Economic Impact. This regulation establishes
 financial assurance requirements for facilities and individual storage tanks
 that are subject to a companion regulation, the Facility and Aboveground
 Storage Tank (AST) Regulation (9VAC25-91). The companion regulation contains
 the technical requirements for registration of facilities and individual ASTs
 among others. The Board recently excluded ASTs that are an integral part of an
 equipment or machinery (e.g., fuel tank affixed into the frame of an emergency
 generator) from registration.1 In the same action, the Board also
 added an example to clarify that airport refueling trucks and mobile refueling
 vehicles are exempt from registration because they are examples of
 "licensed motor vehicles" that are already excluded from the
 regulation. In this action, the Board proposes to incorporate in this
 regulation the new exemption and the clarification of an existing exemption in
 the companion regulation.
 
 The companion regulation determines whether a facility or an
 individual AST is subject to registration. Thus, when the companion regulation
 was amended to exempt certain equipment, the financial assurance requirements
 relating to those types of ASTs were automatically made obsolete. As a result,
 amending this regulation will have no economic impact other than improving the
 clarity of this regulation and consistency between this regulation and the
 companion regulation.
 
 Businesses and Entities Affected. At the end of fiscal year
 2017, there were 10,972 active registered ASTs in Virginia. These ASTs were
 located at 4,003 facilities within the state.
 
 Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do
 not affect any particular locality more than others.
 
 Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not
 have any effect on employment.
 
 Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
 amendments do not have any effect on the use and value of private property.
 
 Real Estate Development Costs. No impact on real estate
 development costs is expected.
 
 Small Businesses: 
 
 Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia, small
 business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that
 (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
 
 Costs and Other Effects. According to the Department of
 Environmental Quality, there are 2,030 facilities that only have one AST
 registered, which is an indication that the facility is likely a small
 business. The proposed changes do not affect costs for them, but will likely
 improve clarity of the regulation.
 
 Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
 amendments do not have adverse effects on small businesses.
 
 Adverse Impacts:
 
 Businesses. The proposed amendments do not have adverse impacts
 on businesses.
 
 Localities. The proposed amendments would not adversely affect
 localities.
 
 Other Entities. The proposed amendments would not adversely
 affect other entities.
 
 ______________________
 
 1http://townhall.virginia.gov/l/viewstage.cfm?stageid=6844
 
 Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
 Department of Environmental Quality has reviewed the economic impact analysis
 prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget and has no comment.
 
 Summary:
 
 The amendments (i) revise the list of exclusions in
 9VAC25-640 for consistency with the Facility and Aboveground Storage Tank
 Regulation (9VAC25-91-30), a companion regulation, and (ii) repeal an obsolete
 section regarding regular review of the regulation.
 
 9VAC25-640-30. Exclusions. 
 
 The requirements of this chapter do not apply to: 
 
 1. Vessels; 
 
 2. Licensed motor vehicles, unless used solely for the storage
 of oil (e.g., airport refueling trucks and mobile refueling vehicles); 
 
 3. An AST with a storage capacity of 660 gallons or less of
 oil, except with regard to purposes of the requirements of 9VAC25-640-220; 
 
 4. An AST containing petroleum, including crude oil or any
 fraction thereof, which is liquid at standard temperature and pressure (60°F at
 14.7 pounds per square inch absolute) subject to and specifically listed or
 designated as a hazardous substance under subparagraphs (A) through (F) of §
 101(14) of the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
 Liability Act (CERCLA) (42 USC § 9601 et seq.); 
 
 5. A wastewater treatment tank system that is part of a
 wastewater treatment facility regulated under § 402 or § 307(b) of
 the federal Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.); 
 
 6. An AST that is regulated by the Department of Mines,
 Minerals and Energy under Chapter 22.1 (§ 45.1-361.1 et seq.) of Title
 45.1 of the Code of Virginia; 
 
 7. An AST used for the storage of products that are regulated
 pursuant to the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (21 USC § 301 et seq.),
 except with regard to purposes of the requirements of 9VAC25-640-220; 
 
 8. An AST that is used to store hazardous wastes listed or
 identified under Subtitle C of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
 (RCRA) (Solid Waste Disposal Act) (42 USC § 6901 et seq.); 
 
 9. An AST that is used to store propane gas, butane gas,
 or other liquid petroleum gases; 
 
 10. An AST used to store nonpetroleum hydrocarbon-based animal
 and vegetable oils; 
 
 11. A liquid trap or associated gathering lines directly
 related to oil or gas production, or gathering operations; 
 
 12. A surface impoundment, pit, pond, or lagoon; 
 
 13. A storm water or wastewater collection system; 
 
 14. Equipment or machinery that contains oil for operational
 purposes, including but not limited to lubricating systems, hydraulic systems,
 and heat transfer systems; 
 
 15. An AST that forms an integral part (cannot be readily
 detached or removed) of the equipment or machinery and the contents of the AST
 are solely used by the attached equipment or machinery (e.g., fuel tank affixed
 into the frame of an emergency generator);
 
 16. An AST used to contain oil for less than 120 days
 when: (i) used in connection with activities related to the containment and
 clean up of oil; (ii) used by a federal, state, or local entity in
 responding to an emergency; or (iii) used temporarily on site to replace
 permanent storage capacity, except with regard to purposes of the requirements
 of 9VAC25-640-220; 
 
 16. 17. Oil-filled electrical equipment,
 including, but not limited to, transformers, circuit breakers, or
 capacitors; 
 
 17. 18. A flow-through process tank; 
 
 18. 19. Oily water separators; 
 
 19. 20. An AST containing dredge spoils; 
 
 20. 21. An AST located on a farm or residence
 used for storing motor fuel for noncommercial purposes with an aggregated
 storage capacity of 1,100 gallons or less, except with regard to purposes of
 the requirements of 9VAC25-640-220; 
 
 21. 22. Pipes or piping beyond the first valve
 from the AST that connects an AST with production process tanks or production
 process equipment; 
 
 22. 23. An AST storing asphalt and asphalt
 compounds which are not liquid at standard conditions of temperature and
 pressure (60°F at 14.7 pounds per square inch absolute); 
 
 23. 24. Underground storage tanks regulated
 under a state program; 
 
 24. 25. An AST with a capacity of 5,000 gallons
 or less used for storing heating oil for consumptive use on the premises where
 stored, except with regard to purposes of the requirements of 9VAC25-640-220. 
 
 9VAC25-640-250. Evaluation of chapter. (Repealed.)
 
 A. By October 31, 2012, the
 department shall perform an analysis on this chapter and provide the board with
 a report on the results. The analysis shall include (i) the purpose and need
 for the chapter; (ii) alternatives that would achieve the stated purpose of
 this chapter in a less burdensome and less intrusive manner; (iii) an
 assessment of the effectiveness of this chapter; (iv) the results of a review
 of current state and federal statutory and regulatory requirements, including
 identification and justification of requirements of this chapter which are more
 stringent than federal requirements; and (v) the results of a review as to
 whether this chapter is clearly written and easily understandable by affected
 entities.
 
 B. Upon review of the
 department's analysis, the board shall confirm the need to (i) continue this
 chapter without amendments, (ii) repeal this chapter or (iii) amend this
 chapter. If the board's decision is to repeal or amend this chapter, the board
 shall authorize the department to initiate the applicable regulatory process to
 carry out the decision of the board.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-4744; Filed June 23, 2019, 12:10 p.m. 
TITLE 10. FINANCE AND FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Final Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
 State Corporation Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative
 Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 2 of the Code of Virginia,
 which exempts courts, any agency of the Supreme Court, and any agency that by
 the Constitution is expressly granted any of the powers of a court of record.
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation: 10VAC5-120. Money Order Sellers
 and Money Transmitters (amending 10VAC5-120-10, 10VAC5-120-20,
 10VAC5-120-40 through 10VAC5-120-70; adding 10VAC5-120-35). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 6.2-1913 and 12.1-13 of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 Effective Date: July 15, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Dustin Physioc, Deputy Commissioner,
 Bureau of Financial Institutions, State Corporation Commission, P.O. Box 640,
 Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 786-0831, FAX (804) 371-9416, or email
 dustin.physioc@scc.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The amendments implement Chapter 634 of the 2019 Acts of
 Assembly and require licensees to register with the Nationwide Multistate
 Licensing System and Registry (NMLS). Amendments (i) require current licensees
 to transition to NMLS and for other persons seeking a license under Chapter 19
 (§ 6.2-1900 et seq.) of Title 6.2 of the Code of Virginia to apply through NMLS;
 (ii) require licensees to maintain current information in NMLS records; (iii)
 clarify that licenses must be renewed annually between November 1 and December
 31; (iv) replace existing reporting requirements with a requirement that
 licensees file quarterly call reports through NMLS along with information
 concerning their financial condition; (v) establish the time period within
 which licensees must file audited financial statements required by § 6.2-1905
 D of the Code of Virginia; (vi) provide that the authorized delegate
 information referenced in § 6.2-1917 B of the Code of Virginia must be
 submitted through the NMLS agent reporting functionality; (vii) specify that
 the annual assessment is calculated using the information reported by licensees
 in quarterly call reports or other written reports required by the Commissioner
 of Financial Institutions; (viii) provide that if the Bureau of Financial
 Institutions requests information from an applicant to complete a deficient
 application and the information is not received within 60 days of the request,
 the application is deemed abandoned unless an extension of time is requested
 and approved prior to the expiration of the 60-day period; and (ix) make other
 technical changes for consistency and clarity. 
 
 AT RICHMOND, JULY 1, 2019
 
 COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
 
 STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
 
 CASE NO. BFI-2019-00016
 
 Ex Parte: In re: Money Order Sellers
 and Money Transmitters
 
 ORDER ADOPTING REGULATIONS
 
 On May 21, 2019, the State Corporation Commission
 ("Commission") entered an Order to Take Notice of a proposal by the
 Bureau of Financial Institutions ("Bureau") to amend the Commission's
 regulations governing licensed money order sellers and money transmitters
 ("licensees"), which are set forth in Chapter 120 of Title 10 of the
 Virginia Administrative Code ("Chapter 120").
 
 The proposed amendments to Chapter 120 were prompted by
 Chapter 634 of the 2019 Virginia Acts of Assembly, which became effective on
 July 1, 2019, and requires all licensees to register with the Nationwide
 Multistate Licensing System and Registry ("NMLS"). The proposal sets
 forth the requirements for current licensees to transition to NMLS and for
 other persons seeking a license under Chapter 19 of Title 6.2 of the Code of
 Virginia to submit their applications through NMLS. Additionally, the proposed
 regulations require licensees to maintain current information in their NMLS
 records and clarify that all licenses must be renewed annually between November
 1 and December 31. The proposal also: (i) replaces the existing reporting
 requirements in subsections A and B of 10 VAC 5-120-40 with a requirement that
 licensees file quarterly call reports through NMLS along with information
 concerning their financial condition; (ii) prescribes the time period within
 which licensees must file the audited financial statements required by
 § 6.2-1905 D of the Code of Virginia; (iii) requires the authorized
 delegate information specified in § 6.2-1917 B of the Code of Virginia to
 be submitted through the agent reporting functionality in NMLS; (iv) specifies
 that the annual assessment will be calculated using the information reported by
 licensees in their quarterly call reports or other written reports that may be
 required by the Commissioner of Financial Institutions; and (v) provides that
 if the Bureau requests information from an applicant to complete a deficient
 application and such information is not received within 60 days of the Bureau's
 request, the application will be deemed abandoned unless an extension of time
 is requested and approved prior to the expiration of the 60-day period. Various
 technical and conforming amendments were also proposed.
 
 The Order to Take Notice and proposed regulations were
 published in the Virginia Register of Regulations on June 10, 2019, posted on
 the Commission's website, and sent to all licensees and other interested
 parties. Licensees and other interested parties were afforded the opportunity
 to file written comments or request a hearing on or before June 21, 2019. No
 comments or requests for a hearing were filed.
 
 NOW THE COMMISSION, having considered the proposed
 regulations, the record herein, and applicable law, concludes that the proposed
 regulations should be adopted as proposed with an effective date of July 15,
 2019.
 
 Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
 
 (1) The proposed regulations, as attached hereto, are adopted
 effective July 15, 2019.
 
 (2) This Order and the attached regulations shall be posted
 on the Commission's website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
 
 (3) The Commission's Division of Information Resources shall
 provide a copy of this Order, including a copy of the attached regulations, to
 the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for publication in the Virginia Register
 of Regulations.
 
 (4) This case is dismissed, and the papers herein shall be
 placed in the Commission's file for ended causes.
 
 AN ATTESTED COPY hereof, together with a copy of the attached
 regulations, shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to the Commission's
 Office of General Counsel and the Commissioner of Financial Institutions, who
 shall forthwith send by e-mail or U.S. mail a copy of this Order, together with
 a copy of the attached regulations, to all licensed money order sellers and
 money transmitters, and such other interested parties as he may designate.
 
 10VAC5-120-10. Definitions. 
 
 The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
 have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
 
 "Authorized delegate," "licensee,"
 "monetary value," "money order," and
 "outstanding" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in
 § 6.2-1900 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 "Bureau," "commission," and
 "commissioner" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in
 § 6.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Chapter 19" means Chapter 19 (§ 6.2-1900 et seq.)
 of Title 6.2 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Generally accepted accounting principles" for
 purposes of Chapter 19 and this chapter means standard accounting guidelines as
 established and administered by the American Institute of Certified Public
 Accountants (AICPA) and the United States Financial Accounting Standards Board
 (FASB).
 
 "Merchant or service provider" means a person
 engaged in the business of selling goods or services, but excluding a person
 licensed or required to be licensed under Chapter 19.
 
 "Money transmission" for purposes of Chapter 19 and
 this chapter shall have the meaning ascribed to it in § 6.2-1900 of the
 Code of Virginia. However, the term shall not include the actions of an agent
 who collects funds on behalf of a merchant or service provider, provided that
 (i) the agent has been explicitly designated in a written agreement as an agent
 of the merchant or service provider; (ii) any funds collected by the agent
 shall be deemed for all purposes to be received by the merchant or service
 provider, regardless of whether the agent actually remits such funds to the
 merchant or service provider; (iii) the agent provides the Virginia resident
 with a dated receipt indicating that payment to the agent constitutes payment
 to the merchant or service provider; and (iv) there is no risk of loss to the
 Virginia resident if the agent fails to remit such resident's funds to the
 merchant or service provider. This definition shall not be construed to
 prohibit the merchant or service provider from seeking indemnification from its
 agent for any direct losses incurred due to the agent's failure to remit funds
 in accordance with its agreement.
 
 "Reporting period" means a calendar quarter, the
 first six months of a calendar year, or the last six months of a calendar year,
 as the case may be.
 
 "Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and
 Registry" and "registry" shall have the meanings ascribed to
 them in § 6.2-1900 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Senior officer" for purposes of Chapter 19 means
 an individual who has significant management responsibility within an
 organization or otherwise has the authority to influence or control the conduct
 of the organization's affairs, including but not limited to its
 compliance with applicable laws and regulations. 
 
 10VAC5-120-20. Surety bond standards. 
 
 A. Every licensee shall be bonded in a principal amount
 determined by the Commissioner of Financial Institutions. The bond amount shall
 be equal to the licensee's Virginia average monthly money order sales during
 the preceding two reporting periods calendar quarters, or its
 Virginia average monthly money transmission volume during such periods, or
 both, as applicable, rounded to the next highest multiple of $10,000, but not
 exceeding $500,000. The commissioner, however, may increase the amount of bond
 required to a maximum of $1 million upon the basis of the impaired financial
 condition of a licensee, as evidenced by net worth reduction, financial losses,
 or other relevant criteria. 
 
 B. The amount of bond required of a new licensee shall be
 based upon the applicant's financial condition, capitalization, projected
 Virginia monthly money order sales and money transmission volume, experience,
 and other factors deemed pertinent. 
 
 C. The minimum bond required shall be $25,000. 
 
 D. The form of the bond will be prescribed and provided by
 the commissioner. The required bond shall be submitted prior to the issuance of
 a license, and shall be maintained continuously thereafter as long as
 the licensee or former licensee has money orders outstanding or unfulfilled
 money transmission agreements. 
 
 10VAC5-120-35. Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and
 Registry.
 
 A. Applications for a license under Chapter 19 shall be
 made through the registry in accordance with instructions provided by the
 commissioner. The commissioner may provide these instructions through the
 registry, on the commission's Internet website, or by any other means the
 commissioner deems appropriate.
 
 B. Every licensee holding a license under Chapter 19 prior
 to July 1, 2019, shall register with the registry and file through the registry
 a transition request for its license under Chapter 19 no later than September
 1, 2019.
 
 C. Every licensee shall maintain current information in
 its records with the registry. Except as otherwise required by Chapter 19 or
 this chapter, a licensee shall update its information as soon as is
 practicable, but in no event later than 10 business days from when a change
 takes effect.
 
 D. A license issued under Chapter 19 shall expire on December
 31 of each calendar year unless it is renewed by a licensee on or after
 November 1 of the same year. However, licenses that are granted between
 November 1 and December 31 shall not expire until the end of the following
 calendar year. A license shall be renewed upon the commissioner finding that
 the licensee has satisfied the requirements set forth in subsection F of §
 6.2-1905 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 10VAC5-120-40. Reporting and filing requirements. 
 
 A. 1. Licensees licensed for less than three years shall
 file reports with the commissioner within 45 days after the end of each
 calendar quarter. 
 
 2. Licensees licensed for three years or longer shall file
 reports with the commissioner within 45 days after the end of each semiannual
 reporting period. 
 
 3. Licensees affiliated by common ownership with another
 licensee licensed for three years or longer, and licensees that acquire all or
 part of the money order sales business or money transmission business of
 another licensee licensed for three years or longer, shall file reports with
 the commissioner within 45 days after the end of each semiannual reporting
 period.  
 
 Pursuant to subsection D of § 6.2-1905 of the Code of
 Virginia, every licensee shall file quarterly call reports through the registry
 as well as such other information pertaining to the licensee's financial
 condition as may be required by the registry. Reports shall be in such form,
 contain such information, and be submitted with such frequency and by such
 dates as the registry may require. Compliance with this subsection shall
 satisfy the requirement in subsection B of § 6.2-1917 of the Code of Virginia
 that a licensee file its quarterly financial statements with the commissioner.
 
 B. Licensees shall file a report of outstandings and
 permissible investments with the commissioner within 45 days after the end of
 each calendar quarter.
 
 C. Within one business day after a licensee becomes
 aware of the occurrence of any of the following events, the licensee shall file
 a written report with the commissioner describing the event: 
 
 1. Bankruptcy, reorganization, or receivership proceedings are
 filed by or against the licensee. 
 
 2. Any local, state, or federal governmental authority
 institutes revocation, suspension, or other formal administrative, regulatory,
 or enforcement proceedings against the licensee.
 
 3. Any local, state, or federal governmental authority (i)
 revokes or suspends the licensee's money order seller license, money
 transmitter license, or other license for a similar business; (ii) takes formal
 administrative, regulatory, or enforcement action against the licensee relating
 to its money order sales, money transmission, or similar business; or (iii)
 takes any other action against the licensee relating to its money order sales,
 money transmission, or similar business where the total amount of restitution
 or other payment from the licensee exceeds $20,000. A licensee shall not be
 required to provide the commissioner with information about such event to the
 extent that such disclosure is prohibited by the laws of another state.
 
 4. Based on allegations by any local, state, or federal
 governmental authority that the licensee violated any law or regulation
 applicable to the conduct of its licensed money order sales, money
 transmission, or similar business, the licensee enters into, or otherwise
 agrees to the entry of, a settlement or consent order, decree, or agreement
 with or by such governmental authority.
 
 5. The licensee surrenders its money order seller license,
 money transmitter license, or other license for a similar business in another
 state in lieu of threatened or pending license revocation; license suspension;
 or other administrative, regulatory, or enforcement action.
 
 6. The licensee is denied a money order seller license, money
 transmitter license, or other license for a similar business in another state.
 
 7. The licensee or any of its members, partners, directors,
 officers, principals, employees, or authorized delegates is indicted or
 convicted of a felony.
 
 D. C. The reports required by this section
 shall contain such information as the commissioner may require. The
 commissioner may require such additional reports as he deems necessary.
 
 D. Every licensee shall file the audited financial
 statements required by subsection D of § 6.2-1905 of the Code of Virginia
 within 105 days of the end of its fiscal year. For example, if a licensee's
 fiscal year ends on March 31, its audited financial statements must be filed by
 July 14 of the same year. If a licensee is unable to file its audited financial
 statements within 105 days of the end of its fiscal year, the licensee may
 request an extension, which may be granted by the commissioner for good cause
 shown. A licensee's audited financial statements shall cover the prior 12-month
 fiscal period and be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting
 principles.
 
 E. The authorized delegate information required by
 subsection B of § 6.2-1917 of the Code of Virginia shall be submitted to the
 commissioner through the registry's agent reporting functionality.
 
 F. Any reports, notifications, or filings required by
 Chapter 19 or this chapter may be submitted to the commissioner through the
 registry, provided that the registry is capable of receiving such reports,
 notifications, or filings.
 
 10VAC5-120-50. Assessment schedule for the examination and
 supervision of money order sellers and money transmitters.
 
 Pursuant to subsection B of § 6.2-1905 of the Code of
 Virginia, the commission sets the following schedule for the annual assessment
 to be paid by persons licensed under Chapter 19. The assessment defrays the
 costs of the examination and supervision of licensees by the bureau.
 
 The annual assessment shall be $0.000047 per dollar of money
 orders sold and money transmitted by a licensee pursuant to Chapter 19. The assessment
 shall be based on the dollar volume of business conducted by a licensee, either
 directly or through its authorized delegates, during the calendar year
 preceding the year of the assessment as reported by each licensee in (i) the
 quarterly call reports filed through the registry or (ii) such other written
 reports as the commissioner may require pursuant to subsection D of
 § 6.2-1905 of the Code of Virginia. If a licensee fails to fully report
 its volume information for the prior calendar year by the assessment date, a
 provisional fee subject to adjustment when the information is reported, shall
 be assessed.
 
 The amount calculated using the above schedule in
 this section shall be rounded down to the nearest whole dollar.
 
 Fees shall be assessed on or before August 1 for the current
 calendar year. The assessment shall be paid by licensees on or before September
 1.
 
 The annual report, due April 15 each year, of each
 licensee provides the basis for its assessment. In cases where a license has
 been granted between January 1 and April 15 of the year of the assessment, the
 licensee's initial annual assessment shall be $0.
 
 Fees prescribed and assessed pursuant to this schedule are
 apart from, and do not include, the following: (i) the annual
 license renewal fee of $750 authorized by subsection A of § 6.2-1905 of
 the Code of Virginia and (ii) the reimbursement for expenses authorized by
 subsection C of § 6.2-1905 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 10VAC5-120-60. Responding to requests from the Bureau of
 Financial Institutions; providing false, misleading, or deceptive information.
 
 A. When the bureau requests a written response, books,
 records, documentation, or other information from a licensee or its authorized
 delegate in connection with the bureau's investigation, enforcement, or
 examination of compliance with applicable laws and regulations, the licensee or
 authorized delegate shall deliver a written response as well as any requested
 books, records, documentation, or information within the time period specified
 in the bureau's request. If no time period is specified, a written response as
 well as any requested books, records, documentation, or information shall be
 delivered by the licensee or its authorized delegate to the bureau not later
 than 30 days from the date of such request. In determining the specified time
 period for responding to the bureau and when considering a request for an
 extension of time to respond, the bureau shall take into consideration the
 volume and complexity of the requested written response, books, records,
 documentation, or information, and such other factors as the bureau
 determines to be relevant under the circumstances. Requests made by the bureau
 pursuant to this subsection are deemed to be in furtherance of the bureau's
 investigation and examination authority provided for in § 6.2-1910 of the
 Code of Virginia. 
 
 B. A licensee shall not provide any false, misleading, or
 deceptive information to the bureau.
 
 C. If the bureau requests information from an applicant to
 complete a deficient application filed under § 6.2-1903 or 6.2-1914 of the
 Code of Virginia, and the information is not received within 60 days of the
 request, the application shall be deemed abandoned unless a request for an
 extension of time is received and approved by the bureau prior to the
 expiration of the 60-day period.
 
 10VAC5-120-70. Acquisitions; additional business requirements
 and restrictions; operating rules.
 
 A. Any person submitting an application to acquire, directly
 or indirectly, 25% or more of the voting shares of a corporation or 25% or more
 of the ownership of any other person licensed to conduct business under Chapter
 19 shall pay a nonrefundable application fee of $500. 
 
 B. A licensee shall not permit an authorized delegate to
 designate or appoint a subdelegate to sell money orders or engage in money
 transmission business.
 
 C. The audited financial statements filed by a licensee
 pursuant to § 6.2-1905 D of the Code of Virginia shall cover the prior 12-month
 fiscal period and be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting
 principles. 
 
 D. Quarterly financial statements filed by a licensee
 pursuant to § 6.2-1917 B of the Code of Virginia shall be consolidated and
 prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
 
 E. A licensee shall comply with Chapter 19, this
 chapter, and all other state and federal laws and regulations applicable to the
 conduct of its business. For purposes of Chapter 19 and this chapter, the acts
 and omissions of a licensee's authorized delegates shall be deemed acts and
 omissions of such licensee.
 
 F. D. In addition to the records specified in subsection
 B of § 6.2-1916 B of the Code of Virginia, a licensee shall
 maintain in its principal place of business such other books, accounts, and
 records as the commissioner may reasonably require in order to determine
 whether such licensee is complying with the provisions of Chapter 19, this
 chapter, and other laws and regulations applicable to the conduct of its
 business.
 
 G. E. If a licensee, authorized delegate, or
 former licensee disposes of records containing a consumer's personal financial
 information or copies of a consumer's identification documents, such records
 and copies shall be shredded, incinerated, or otherwise disposed of in a secure
 manner. A licensee, authorized delegate, or former licensee may arrange for
 service from a business record destruction vendor.
 
 H. F. A licensee or former licensee shall
 provide the following information to the bureau within 10 days after such
 person's license is surrendered or revoked or the licensed business is
 otherwise closed: (i) the names, addresses, telephone numbers, fax numbers, and
 email addresses of a designated contact person and the person who consumers may
 contact regarding outstanding money orders or money transmission transactions;
 (ii) the location of the licensee's or former licensee's money order and money
 transmission records; and (iii) any additional information that the bureau may
 reasonably require. A licensee or former licensee shall maintain current
 information with the bureau until the licensee or former licensee has no
 outstanding money orders and money transmission transactions.
 
 I. G. A person shall remain subject to the
 provisions of Chapter 19 and this chapter applicable to licensees in connection
 with all money orders sold and money or monetary value received for
 transmission while licensed under Chapter 19 notwithstanding the occurrence of
 any of the following events:
 
 1. The person's license is surrendered or revoked; or
 
 2. The person ceases selling money orders or transmitting
 money or monetary value.
 
 J. H. A licensee shall not provide any
 information to a Virginia resident that is false, misleading, or deceptive.
 
 K. I. A licensee shall not engage in any
 activity that directly or indirectly results in an evasion of the provisions of
 Chapter 19 or this chapter.
 
 L. J. A licensee shall
 continuously maintain the requirements and standards for licensure prescribed
 in § 6.2-1906 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-6009; Filed July 1, 2019, 4:27 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Final Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S
 NOTICE: The State Board of Health is claiming an exemption from Article 2
 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of
 the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to conform
 to changes in Virginia statutory law or the appropriation act where no agency
 discretion is involved. The State Board of Health will receive, consider, and
 respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with respect to
 reconsideration or revision.
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation:
 12VAC5-220. Virginia Medical Care Facilities Certificate of Public Need Rules
 and Regulations (amending 12VAC5-220-100; adding
 12VAC5-220-155). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-102.2 of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 Effective Date: August 23, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Erik Bodin, Division Director, COPN,
 MCHIP, and Cooperative Agreement, Virginia Department of Health, 9960 Mayland
 Drive, Suite 401, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-1889, or email
 erik.bodin@vdh.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 As required by legislation enacted during the 2019 Session
 of the General Assembly, the amendments (i) establish an exemption from the
 requirement for a certificate of public need, for a period of no more than 30
 days, for projects involving a temporary increase in the total number of beds
 in an existing hospital or nursing home when the commissioner has determined
 that a natural or man-made disaster has caused the evacuation of a hospital or
 nursing home and that a public health emergency exists due to a shortage of
 hospital or nursing home beds (Chapters 136 and 343) and (ii) require every
 medical care facility subject to the requirements of certificate of public need
 law whose certificate does not include conditions for charity care but opt to
 provide charity care to annually report the amount of charity care provided to
 the commissioner (Chapter 839). 
 
 Part III 
 Mandatory Requirements 
 
 12VAC5-220-100. Requirements for reviewable medical care
 facility projects; exceptions. 
 
 A. Prior to initiating a reviewable medical care
 facility project the owner or sponsor shall obtain a certificate of public need
 from the commissioner. In the case of an acquisition of an existing medical
 care facility, the notification requirement set forth in 12VAC5-220-120 shall
 be met. 
 
 B. Projects involving a temporary increase in the total
 number of beds in an existing hospital or nursing home shall be exempt from the
 requirement for a certificate, for a period of no more than 30 days, if the
 commissioner has determined that a natural or man-made disaster has caused the
 evacuation of a hospital or nursing home and that a public health emergency
 exists due to a shortage of hospital or nursing home beds.
 
 12VAC5-220-155. Requirements for the reporting of charity
 care.
 
 Every medical care facility subject to the requirements of
 Article 1.1 (§ 32.1-102.1 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 32.1 of the Code of
 Virginia, other than a nursing home, that is not a medical care facility for
 which a certificate with conditions imposed pursuant to § 32.1-102.4 F of the
 Code of Virginia has been issued and that provides charity care, as defined in
 § 32.1-102.1 of the Code of Virginia, shall annually report to the
 commissioner the amount of charity care provided.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5942; Filed June 20, 2019, 5:41 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Final Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S
 NOTICE: The State Board of Health is claiming an exemption from Article 2
 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of
 the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to conform
 to changes in Virginia statutory law or the appropriation act where no agency
 discretion is involved. The State Board of Health will receive, consider, and
 respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with respect to
 reconsideration or revision.
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-371. Regulations for the
 Licensure of Nursing Facilities (amending 12VAC5-371-30, 12VAC5-371-40). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-127 of the Code
 of Virginia.
 
 Effective Date: August 23, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Robert Payne, Director, Office of
 Licensure and Certification, Virginia Department of Health, 9960 Mayland Drive,
 Suite 401, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-2109, FAX (804) 527-4502, or
 email robert.payne@vdh.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 In accordance with Chapters 136 and 343 of the 2019 Acts of
 Assembly, the amendment establishes an exemption, for a period of no more than
 30 days, from the requirement to obtain a license to add temporary beds in an
 existing nursing home when the commissioner has determined that a natural or
 man-made disaster has caused the evacuation of a hospital or nursing home and
 that a public health emergency exists due to a shortage of nursing home beds.
 
 12VAC5-371-30. License. 
 
 A. A license to operate a facility is issued to a person or
 organization. An organization may be a partnership, association, corporation,
 or public entity. 
 
 B. Each license and renewal thereof shall be issued for one
 year. A nursing facility shall operate within the terms of its license, which
 include the: 
 
 1. Name of the facility; 
 
 2. Name of the operator; 
 
 3. Physical location of the nursing facility; 
 
 4. Maximum number of beds allowed; and 
 
 5. Date the license expires. 
 
 C. A separate license shall be required for nursing
 facilities maintained on separate premises, even though they are owned or are
 operated under the same management. 
 
 D. Every nursing facility shall be designated by a permanent
 and appropriate name. The name shall not be changed without first notifying the
 OLC. 
 
 E. The number of resident beds allowed in a nursing facility
 shall be determined by the department. Requests to increase beds must be made
 in writing and must include an approved Certificate of Public Need, except
 as provided in 12VAC5-371-40 J. 
 
 F. Nursing facility units located in and operated by
 hospitals shall be licensed under Regulations for the Licensure of Hospitals in
 Virginia (12VAC5-410). Approval for such units shall be included on the annual
 license issued to each hospital. 
 
 G. Any person establishing, conducting, maintaining, or
 operating a nursing facility without a license shall be guilty of a Class 6
 felony. 
 
 12VAC5-371-40. Licensing process. 
 
 A. Upon request, the OLC will provide consultation to any
 person seeking information about obtaining a license. The purpose of such
 consultation is to: 
 
 1. Explain the standards and the licensing process; 
 
 2. Provide assistance in locating other sources of
 information; 
 
 3. Review the potential applicant's proposed program plans,
 forms, and other documents, as they relate to standards; and 
 
 4. Alert the potential applicant regarding the need to meet
 other state and local ordinances, such as fire and building codes and
 environmental health standards, where applicable. 
 
 B. Upon request, the OLC will provide an application form for
 a license to operate a nursing facility. 
 
 C. The OLC shall consider the application complete when all
 requested information and the application fee is submitted with the form
 required. If the OLC finds the application incomplete, the applicant will be
 notified of receipt of the incomplete application. 
 
 D. The applicant shall complete and submit the initial
 application to the OLC at least 30 days prior to a planned opening date to
 allow the OLC time to act on the application. An application for a license may
 be withdrawn at any time. 
 
 E. Application for initial license of a nursing facility
 shall include a statement of any agreement made with the commissioner as a
 condition for Certificate of Public Need approval to provide a level of care at
 a reduced rate to indigents or accept patients requiring specialized care. 
 
 Any initial license issued to any nursing facility that made
 such agreement as a condition of its Certificate of Public Need approval shall
 not be renewed without demonstrating prior to or at the time of applying for
 renewal that it is substantially complying with its agreement. 
 
 F. The renewal of a nursing facility license shall be
 conditioned upon the up-to-date payment of any civil penalties owed as a result
 of willful refusal, failure, or neglect to honor certain conditions established
 in their award of a Certificate of Public Need pursuant to § 32.1-102.4 F of
 the Code of Virginia. 
 
 G. Prior to changes in operation which would affect the terms
 of the license, the licensee must secure a modification to the terms of the
 license from the OLC. 
 
 H. Requests to modify a license must be submitted in writing,
 30 working days in advance of any proposed changes, to the Director of the
 Office of Licensure and Certification. 
 
 I. The license shall be returned to the OLC following a
 correction or reissuance when there has been a change in: 
 
 1. Address; 
 
 2. Operator; 
 
 3. Name; or 
 
 4. Bed capacity. 
 
 J. Nursing facilities shall be exempt, for a period of no
 more than 30 days, from the requirement to obtain a license to add temporary
 beds when the commissioner has determined that a natural or man-made disaster
 has caused the evacuation of a hospital or nursing home and that a public
 health emergency exists due to a shortage of hospital or nursing home beds.
 
 J. K. The OLC will evaluate written information
 about any planned changes in operation which would affect either the terms of
 the license or the continuing eligibility for a license. A licensing
 representative may visit the facility during the process of evaluating a
 proposed modification. 
 
 K. L. If a modification can be granted, the OLC
 shall respond in writing with a modified license. In the event a new
 application is needed, the licensee will receive written notification. When the
 modification cannot be granted, the licensee shall be advised by letter. 
 
 L. M. The department shall send an application
 for renewal of the license to the licensee prior to the expiration date of the
 current license. 
 
 M. N. The licensee shall submit the completed renewal
 application form along with any required attachments and the application fee by
 the date indicated in the cover letter. 
 
 N. O. It is the licensee's responsibility to
 complete and return the application to assure timely processing. Should a
 current license expire before a new license is issued, the current license
 shall remain in effect provided the complete and accurate application was filed
 on time. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5944; Filed June 20, 2019, 5:42 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Final Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
 State Board of Health is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the
 Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of the Code
 of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to conform to
 changes in Virginia statutory law or the appropriation act where no agency
 discretion is involved. The State Board of Health will receive, consider, and
 respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with respect to
 reconsideration or revision.
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-410. Regulations for the
 Licensure of Hospitals in Virginia (amending 12VAC5-410-110, 12VAC5-410-130,
 12VAC5-410-230). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-127 of the Code
 of Virginia.
 
 Effective Date: August 23, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Robert Payne, Director, Office of
 Licensure and Certification, Virginia Department of Health, 9960 Mayland Drive,
 Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-2109, FAX (804) 527-4502, or email robert.payne@vdh.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 In accordance with legislation enacted during the 2019
 Session of the General Assembly, the amendments (i) establish an exemption, for
 a period of no more than 30 days, from the requirement to obtain a license to
 add temporary beds in an existing hospital when the commissioner has determined
 that a natural or man-made disaster has caused the evacuation of a hospital or
 nursing home and that a public health emergency exists due to a shortage of
 hospital beds (Chapters 136 and 343) and (ii) require every hospital to provide
 written information about a patient's ability to request an estimate of the
 payment, post that information conspicuously in public areas of the hospital,
 including admissions or registration areas, and include that information on any
 website maintained by the hospital (Chapters 670 and 671). 
 
 12VAC5-410-110. Bed capacity. 
 
 A. Each license issued by the commissioner shall specify the
 maximum allowable number of beds. The number of beds allowed shall be determined
 by the OLC and shall so appear on the license issued by the OLC. 
 
 B. Request for licensed bed increase or decrease shall be
 made in writing to the OLC. No increase will be granted without an approved
 Certificate of Public Need. 
 
 C. Hospitals shall be exempt from the requirement to
 obtain a license to add temporary beds, for a period of no more than 30 days,
 when the commissioner has determined that a natural or man-made disaster has
 caused the evacuation of a hospital or nursing home and that a public health
 emergency exists due to a shortage of hospital or nursing home beds.
 
 12VAC5-410-130. Return of license. 
 
 The OLC shall be notified in writing at least within 30
 working days in advance of any proposed change in location or ownership of the
 facility. A license shall not be transferred from one owner to another or from
 one location to another. The license issued by the commissioner shall be
 returned to the OLC for correction or reissuance when any of the following
 changes occur during the licensing year: 
 
 1. Revocation; 
 
 2. Change of location; 
 
 3. Change of ownership; 
 
 4. Change of name; 
 
 5. Change of bed capacity, except as provided in
 12VAC5-410-110 C; or 
 
 6. Voluntary closure. 
 
 Article 2 
 Patient Care Services 
 
 12VAC5-410-230. Patient care management.
 
 A. All patients shall be under the care of a member of the
 medical staff.
 
 B. Each hospital shall have a plan that includes effective
 mechanisms for the periodic review and revision of patient care policies and
 procedures.
 
 C. Each hospital shall establish a protocol relating to the
 rights and responsibilities of patients based on Joint Commission on
 Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations' 2000 Hospital Accreditation
 Standards, January 2000. The protocol shall include a process reasonably
 designed to inform patients of their rights and responsibilities. Patients
 shall be given a copy of their rights and responsibilities upon admission.
 
 D. No medication or treatment shall be given except on the
 signed order of a person lawfully authorized by state statutes.
 
 1. Hospital personnel, as designated in medical staff bylaws,
 rules and regulations, or hospital policies and procedures, may accept
 emergency telephone and other verbal orders for medication or treatment for
 hospital patients from physicians and other persons lawfully authorized by
 state statute to give patient orders.
 
 2. As specified in the hospital's medical staff bylaws, rules
 and regulations, or hospital policies and procedures, emergency telephone and
 other verbal orders shall be signed within a reasonable period of time not to
 exceed 72 hours, by the person giving the order, or, when such person is not
 available, cosigned by another physician or other person authorized to give the
 order.
 
 E. Each hospital shall have a reliable method for identification
 of each patient, including newborn infants.
 
 F. Each hospital shall include in its visitation policy a
 provision allowing each adult patient to receive visits from any individual
 from whom the patient desires to receive visits, subject to other restrictions
 contained in the visitation policy including the patient's medical condition
 and the number of visitors permitted in the patient's room simultaneously.
 
 G. Each hospital that is equipped to provide life-sustaining
 treatment shall develop a policy to determine the medical or ethical
 appropriateness of proposed medical care, which shall include:
 
 1. A process for obtaining a second opinion regarding the
 medical and ethical appropriateness of proposed medical care in cases in which
 a physician has determined proposed care to be medically or ethically
 inappropriate; 
 
 2. Provisions for review of the determination that proposed
 medical care is medically or ethically inappropriate by an interdisciplinary
 medical review committee and a determination by the interdisciplinary medical
 review committee regarding the medical and ethical appropriateness of the
 proposed health care of the patient; 
 
 3. Requirements for a written explanation of the decision of
 the interdisciplinary medical review committee, which shall be included in the
 patient's medical record; and
 
 4. Provisions to ensure the patient, the patient's agent, or
 the person authorized to make the patient's medical decisions in accordance
 with § 54.1-2986 of the Code of Virginia is informed of the patient's right to
 obtain the patient's medical record and the right to obtain an independent
 medical opinion and afforded reasonable opportunity to participate in the
 medical review committee meeting. 
 
 The policy shall not prevent the patient, the patient's
 agent, or the person authorized to make the patient's medical decisions from
 obtaining legal counsel to represent the patient or from seeking other legal
 remedies, including court review, provided that the patient, the patient's
 agent, person authorized to make the patient's medical decisions, or legal
 counsel provide written notice to the chief executive officer of the hospital
 within 14 days of the date of the physician's determination that proposed
 medical treatment is medically or ethically inappropriate as documented in the
 patient's medical record.
 
 H. Each hospital shall establish a protocol requiring that,
 before a health care provider arranges for air medical transportation services
 for a patient who does not have an emergency medical condition as defined in 42 USC
 § 1395dd(e)(1), the hospital shall provide the patient or the patient's
 authorized representative with written or electronic notice that the patient
 (i) may have a choice of transportation by an air medical transportation
 provider or medically appropriate ground transportation by an emergency medical
 services provider and (ii) will be responsible for charges incurred for such
 transportation in the event that the provider is not a contracted network
 provider of the patient's health insurance carrier or such charges are not
 otherwise covered in full or in part by the patient's health insurance plan.
 
 I. Each hospital shall provide written information about
 the patient's ability to request an estimate of the payment amount for which
 the participant will be responsible pursuant to § 32.1-137.05 of the Code
 of Virginia. The written information shall be posted conspicuously in public
 areas of the hospital, including admissions or registration areas, and included
 on any website maintained by the hospital.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5943; Filed June 20, 2019, 5:42 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-10. State Plan under
 Title XIX of the Social Security Act Medical Assistance Program; General Provisions (amending 12VAC30-10-540).
 
 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
 Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-20, 12VAC30-50-30,
 12VAC30-50-60, 12VAC30-50-70, 12VAC30-50-130, 12VAC30-50-226).
 
 12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
 High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-5, 12VAC30-60-50,
 12VAC30-60-61).
 
 12VAC30-130. Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services (repealing 12VAC30-130-850 through
 12VAC30-130-890). 
 
 Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
 Virginia, 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
 
 Effective Date: August 22, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
 Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad
 Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)
 786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The regulatory action implements Items 301 OO and 301 PP of
 Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, which required the department to
 develop and implement a care coordination model and make programmatic changes
 in the provision of residential treatment for children. The action replaces
 emergency regulations published in 33:13 VA.R. 1436-1469 February 20,
 2017, and extended in 35:9 VA.R. 1130 December 24, 2018.
 
 The amendments clarify policy interpretations and revise
 program standards to allow for more evidence-based service delivery, allow the
 department to implement more effective utilization management in collaboration
 with the behavioral health service administrator, enhance individualized
 coordination of care, implement standardized coordination of individualized
 aftercare resources by ensuring access to medical and behavioral health service
 providers in the individual's home community, and support department audit
 practices. The action meets the requirements set forth by the Centers for
 Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) in 42 CFR 441 Subpart D and 42 CFR
 441.453. 
 
 The amendments include changes to the following areas: (i)
 provider qualifications, including acceptable licensing standards; (ii)
 preadmission assessment requirements; (iii) program requirements; (iv)
 discharge planning and care coordination requirements; and (v) utilization
 review requirements to clarify program requirements, ensure adequate
 documentation of service delivery, and help providers avoid payment
 retractions. 
 
 The action requires enhanced care coordination to provide
 the necessary objective evaluations of treatment progress and to facilitate
 evidence-based practices during the treatment to reduce the length of stay by
 ensuring that medical necessity indicates the correct level of care, that
 appropriate and effective care is delivered in a person centered manner, and
 that service providers and local systems use standardized preadmission and
 discharge processes to ensure effective services are delivered. The final
 regulatory text is the same as the proposed regulatory text.
 
 Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No
 public comments were received by the promulgating agency. 
 
 12VAC30-10-540. Inspection of care in intermediate care
 facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities, facilities providing inpatient psychiatric
 services for individuals under younger than 21 years of age,
 and mental hospitals. 
 
 All applicable requirements of 42 CFR 456, Subpart I,
 are met with respect to periodic inspections of care and services.* 
 
 Inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age
 21 are not provided under this plan. 
 
 *Inspection of Care (IOC) in Intermediate Care Facilities
 for the Mentally Retarded and Institutions for Mental Diseases are Inspection
 of care in intermediate care facilities for persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities is completed through contractual arrangements
 with the Virginia Department of Health. 
 
 12VAC30-50-20. Services provided to the categorically needy
 without limitation. 
 
 The following services as described in Part III
 (12VAC30-50-100 et seq.) of this chapter are provided to the categorically
 needy without limitation: 
 
 1. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older. 
 
 2. Services for individuals age 65 years of age
 or over older in institutions for mental diseases: inpatient
 hospital services; skilled nursing facility services; and services in an
 intermediate care facility. 
 
 3. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined, in
 accordance with § 1902(a)(31)(A) of the Social Security Act (the
 Act), to be in need of such care, including such services in a public
 institution (or distinct part thereof) for the mentally retarded or
 persons with intellectual or developmental disability or related
 conditions. 
 
 4. Hospice care (in accordance with § 1905(o) of the Act). 
 
 5. Any other medical care and any type of remedial care
 recognized under state law, specified by the U.S. Secretary of Health
 and Human Services: care and services provided in religious nonmedical
 health care institutions;, nursing facility services for patients
 under  younger than 21 years of age;, or
 emergency hospital services.
 
 6. Private health insurance premiums, coinsurance, and
 deductibles when cost effective (pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No.
 101-508 § 4402).
 
 7. Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE)
 services are provided for eligible individuals as an optional State Plan
 service for categorically needy individuals without limitation.
 
 8. Pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No. 111-148 § 4107,
 counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women
 shall be covered. 
 
 a. Counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use
 by pregnant women means diagnostic, therapy, and counseling services and
 pharmacotherapy (including the coverage of prescription and nonprescription
 tobacco cessation agents approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration) for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women who use tobacco
 products or who are being treated for tobacco use that is furnished (i) by or
 under the supervision of a physician, (ii) by any other health care professional
 who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law
 and is authorized to provide Medicaid coverable services other than tobacco
 cessation services, or (iii) by any other health care professional who is
 legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law and
 who is specifically designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human
 Services in federal regulations for this purpose. 
 
 b. No cost sharing shall be applied to these services. In
 addition to other services that are covered for pregnant women, 12VAC30-50-510
 also provides for other smoking cessation services that are covered for
 pregnant women.
 
 9. Inpatient psychiatric facility services and residential
 psychiatric treatment services (including therapeutic group homes and
 psychiatric residential treatment facilities) for individuals younger than 21
 years of age.
 
 12VAC30-50-30. Services not provided to the categorically
 needy. 
 
 The following services and devices are not provided to the
 categorically needy: 
 
 1. Chiropractors' Chiropractor services. 
 
 2. Private duty nursing services. 
 
 3. Dentures. 
 
 4. Other diagnostic and preventive services other than those
 provided elsewhere in this plan: diagnostic services (see (12VAC30-50-95)
 et seq.). 
 
 5. Inpatient psychiatric facility services for individuals
 under 21 years of age, other than those covered under early and periodic
 screening, diagnosis, and treatment (at 12VAC30-50-130). (Reserved.)
 
 6. Special tuberculosis (TB) related services under § 1902(z)(2)(F)
 of the Social Security Act (the Act). 
 
 7. Respiratory care services (in accordance with § 1920(e)(9)(A)
 through (C) of the Act). 
 
 8. Ambulatory prenatal care for pregnant women furnished
 during a presumptive eligibility period by a qualified provider (in accordance
 with § 1920 of the Act). 
 
 9. Any other medical care and any type of remedial care
 recognized under state law specified by the U.S. Secretary of Health
 and Human Services: personal care services in recipient's home, prescribed
 in accordance with a plan of treatment and provided by a qualified person under
 supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 12VAC30-50-60. Services provided to all medically needy groups
 without limitations. 
 
 Services as described in Part III (12VAC30-50-100 et seq.) of
 this chapter are provided to all medically needy groups without limitations.
 
 1. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older. 
 
 2. Early and periodic screening and diagnosis of individuals under
 younger than 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions found. 
 
 3. Pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No. 111-148 § 4107,
 counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women
 shall be covered. 
 
 a. Counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use
 by pregnant women means diagnostic, therapy, and counseling services and
 pharmacotherapy (including the coverage of prescription and nonprescription
 tobacco cessation agents approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration) for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women who use tobacco
 products or who are being treated for tobacco use that is furnished (i) by or
 under the supervision of a physician, (ii) by any other health care
 professional who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services
 under state law and is authorized to provide Medicaid coverable services other
 than tobacco cessation services, or (iii) by any other health care professional
 who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law
 and who is specifically designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human
 Services in federal regulations for this purpose. 
 
 b. No cost sharing shall be applied to these services. In
 addition to other services that are covered for pregnant women, 12VAC30-50-510
 also provides for other smoking cessation services that are covered for
 pregnant women.
 
 4. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined in
 accordance with § 1905(a)(4)(A) of the Social Security Act (the
 Act) to be in need of such care.
 
 5. Hospice care (in accordance with § 1905(o) of the
 Act).
 
 6. Any other medical care or any other type of remedial care
 recognized under state law, specified by the secretary U.S. Secretary
 of Health and Human Services, including: care and services provided in
 religious nonmedical health care institutions;, skilled nursing
 facility services for patients under younger than 21 years of age;,
 and emergency hospital services.
 
 7. Private health insurance premiums, coinsurance and
 deductibles when cost effective (pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No.
 101-508 § 4402).
 
 8. Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE)
 services are provided for eligible individuals as an optional State Plan service
 for medically needy individuals without limitation. 
 
 9. Inpatient psychiatric facility services and residential
 psychiatric treatment services (including therapeutic group homes and
 psychiatric residential treatment facilities) for individuals younger than 21
 years of age.
 
 12VAC30-50-70. Services or devices not provided to the
 medically needy. 
 
 1. Chiropractors' Chiropractor services. 
 
 2. Private duty nursing services. 
 
 3. Dentures. 
 
 4. Diagnostic or preventive services other than those provided
 elsewhere in the State Plan. 
 
 5. Inpatient hospital services, skilled nursing facility
 services, and intermediate care facility services for individuals age 65
 years of age or older in institutions for mental disease(s) diseases.
 
 
 6. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined in
 accordance with § 1905(a)(4)(A) of the Social Security Act (the Act),
 to be in need of such care in a public institution, or a distinct part thereof,
 for the mentally retarded or persons with intellectual or
 developmental disability or related conditions. 
 
 7. Inpatient psychiatric facility services for individuals
 under 21 years of age, other than those covered under early and periodic
 screening, diagnosis, and treatment (at 12VAC30-50-130). (Reserved.)
 
 8. Special tuberculosis (TB) services under §
 1902(z)(2)(F) of the Act. 
 
 9. Respiratory care services (in accordance with § 1920(e)(9)(A)
 through (C) of the Act). 
 
 10. Ambulatory prenatal care for pregnant women furnished
 during a presumptive eligibility period by a qualified provider (in accordance
 with § 1920 of the Act). 
 
 11. Personal care services in a recipient's home, prescribed
 in accordance with a plan of treatment and provided by a qualified person under
 supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 12. Home and community care for functionally disabled elderly
 individuals, as defined, described and limited in 12VAC30-50-460 and
 12VAC30-50-470. 
 
 13. Personal care services furnished to an individual who is
 not an inpatient or resident of a hospital, nursing facility, intermediate care
 facility for the mentally retarded intellectually or developmentally
 disabled persons, or institution for mental disease that are (i) authorized
 for the individual by a physician in accordance with a plan of treatment, (ii)
 provided by an individual who is qualified to provide such services and who is
 not a member of the individual's family, and (iii) furnished in a home. 
 
 12VAC30-50-130. Nursing facility services, EPSDT, including
 school health services, and family planning.
 
 A. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
 
 Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
 performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
 arts.
 
 B. Early General provisions for early and
 periodic screening and, diagnosis, and treatment (EPSDT)
 of individuals younger than 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions
 found.
 
 1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
 behalf of individuals younger than 21 years of age, who are Medicaid
 eligible, for medically necessary stays in acute care facilities,
 and the accompanying attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per
 admission when such services are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and
 treatment of health conditions identified through a physical examination.
 
 2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
 through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
 physician's office are covered for foster children of the local departments
 of social services departments on specific referral from those
 departments.
 
 3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
 necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
 evaluation. The department DMAS shall place appropriate
 utilization controls upon this service.
 
 4. Consistent with § 6403 of the Omnibus Budget
 Reconciliation Act of 1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic,
 and treatment services means the following services: screening services, vision
 services, dental services, hearing services, and such other necessary health
 care, diagnostic services, treatment, and other measures described in Social
 Security Act § 1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and
 mental illnesses and conditions discovered by the screening services and that
 are medically necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the
 State Plan and notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages
 21 years of age and older, provided for by § 1905(a) of the Social
 Security Act.
 
 5. C. Community mental health services provided
 through early and periodic screening diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age. These services in order to be
 covered (i) shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by
 LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii) are
 shall be reflected in provider records and on providers' provider
 claims for services by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are
 consistent with the requested professional services. 
 
 a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
 when used in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context
 clearly indicates otherwise:
 
 "Activities of daily living" means personal care
 activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
 and eating.
 
 "Adolescent or child" means the individual
 receiving the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of
 these terms this term, adolescent means an individual 12 through
 20 years of age; a child means an individual from birth up to 12 years of
 age. 
 
 "Behavioral health service" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Behavioral health services administrator" or
 "BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
 benefits program under contract with DMAS. 
 
 "Care coordination" means the collaboration
 and sharing of information among health care providers, who are involved
 with an individual's health care, to improve the care. 
 
 "Caregiver" means the same as defined
 in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
 local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
 who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
 completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
 Health and Developmental Services.
 
 "Clinical experience" means providing direct
 behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
 part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
 and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
 field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
 in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
 community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
 younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
 (Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
 practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
 hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
 established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
 Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013. 
 
 "Child" means an individual ages birth through 11
 years.
 
 "DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
 and Developmental Services.
 
 "Direct supervisor" means the person who provides
 direct supervision to the peer recovery specialist. The direct supervisor (i)
 shall have two consecutive years of documented practical experience rendering
 peer support services or family support services, have certification training
 as a PRS under a certifying body approved by DBHDS, and have documented
 completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; (ii) shall be a qualified
 mental health professional (QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E) as defined in 12VAC35-105-20
 with at least two consecutive years of documented experience as a QMHP, and who
 has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; or (iii) shall
 be an LMHP who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training
 who is acting within his scope of practice under state law. An LMHP providing
 services before April 1, 2018, shall have until April 1, 2018, to complete the
 DBHDS PRS supervisor training.
 
 "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services and its contractors.
 
 "EPSDT" means early and periodic screening,
 diagnosis, and treatment.
 
 "Family support partners" means the same as defined
 in 12VAC30-130-5170.
 
 "Human services field" means the same as the term is
 defined by DBHDS the Department of Health Professions in the
 document entitled Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018.
 
 "Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
 the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226. 
 
 "Licensed mental health professional" or
 "LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
 as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
 professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
 therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
 practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
 practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
 "Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their signatures
 to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
 means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
 psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
 for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
 functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
 supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
 preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
 Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
 they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
 signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
 "LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
 "supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
 social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
 compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
 18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
 considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
 duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title
 "Supervisee in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such
 status. 
 
 "Peer recovery specialist" or "PRS" means
 the same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Person centered" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Progress notes" means individual-specific
 documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
 individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
 contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
 the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
 minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
 staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
 progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
 include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
 service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
 service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
 or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
 note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
 documented for each service that is billed.
 
 "Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
 education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
 members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
 illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
 illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
 strategies. 
 
 "Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
 interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
 emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
 individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
 illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
 skills.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-child" or
 "QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
 "QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
 consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590 including a
 "QMHP-trainee" as defined by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
 "QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
 12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
 
 "Recovery-oriented services" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Resiliency" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Self-advocacy" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the
 face-to-face interaction in which the provider obtains information from the
 child or adolescent, and parent or other family member as appropriate, about
 the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It includes documented
 history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health care problems
 and issues and shall contain all of the following elements: (i) the presenting issue/reason
 issue or reason for referral, (ii) mental health
 history/hospitalizations, (iii) previous interventions by providers and
 timeframes and response to treatment, (iv) medical profile, (v) developmental
 history including history of abuse, if appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational
 educational or vocational status, (vii) current living situation and
 family history and relationships, (viii) legal status, (ix) drug and alcohol
 profile, (x) resources and strengths, (xi) mental status exam and profile,
 (xii) diagnosis, (xiii) professional summary and clinical formulation, (xiv)
 recommended care and treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. 
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-850.
 
 "Strength-based" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Supervision" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 b. 2. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age shall be time-limited
 interventions provided in the individual's residence and when clinically
 necessary in community settings. All interventions and the settings of the
 intervention shall be defined in the Individual Service Plan. All IIH services
 shall be designed to specifically improve family dynamics, and
 provide modeling, and the clinically necessary interventions that
 increase functional and therapeutic interpersonal relations between family
 members in the home. IIH services are designed to promote psychoeducational
 benefits of psychoeducation in the home setting of an individual who is
 at risk of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who is being
 transitioned to home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented medical
 need of the individual. These services provide crisis treatment; individual and
 family counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to assist the
 individual and his the individual's parents or guardians, as
 appropriate, to understand and practice appropriate problem solving, anger
 management, and interpersonal interaction, etc.); care coordination with other
 required services; and 24-hour emergency response. 
 
 (1) a. Service authorization shall be required
 for Medicaid reimbursement prior to the onset of services. Services rendered
 before the date of authorization shall not be reimbursed.
 
 (2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall
 be required prior to the start of services at the onset of services and
 ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of services. Services based
 upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs
 shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider
 intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
 
 (3) c. These services may shall
 only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C,
 or a QMHP-E.
 
 c. 3. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be
 provided two or more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic
 interventions (a unit is defined in 12VAC30-60-61 D 11). Day treatment
 programs provide evaluation; medication education and management; opportunities
 to learn and use daily living skills and to enhance social and interpersonal
 skills (e.g., problem solving, anger management, community responsibility,
 increased impulse control, and appropriate peer relations, etc.); and
 individual, group, and family counseling. 
 
 (1) a. Service authorization shall be required
 for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 (2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall be
 required at prior to the onset start of services,
 and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of services. Services
 based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes
 or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific
 provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
 
 (3) c. These services may shall be
 rendered only by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or
 a QMHP-E.
 
 d. Community-based services for children and adolescents
 younger than 21 years of age (Level A) pursuant to 42 CFR 440.031(d).
 
 (1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
 services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
 provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
 supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
 attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
 service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
 demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
 mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the
 community. The service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's
 condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
 The application of a national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in
 use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an
 equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this
 service.
 
 (2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
 receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 (3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
 other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
 
 (4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid
 reimbursement. Services that were rendered before the date of service authorization
 shall not be reimbursed. 
 
 (5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS
 shall reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no
 more than 16 beds.
 
 (6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
 Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
 Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
 Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Regulation Governing Juvenile
 Group Homes and Halfway Houses (6VAC35-41), or Regulations for Children's
 Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
 
 (7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
 psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
 include development or maintenance of daily living skills, anger management,
 social skills, family living skills, communication skills, stress management,
 and any care coordination activities. 
 
 (8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
 other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
 medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
 contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
 
 (9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
 the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
 services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
 provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
 intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
 
 (10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 D. Therapeutic group home services and psychiatric
 residential treatment facility (PRTF) services for early and periodic screening
 diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age.
 
 1. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this subsection shall have the following meanings:
 
 "Active treatment" means implementation of an
 initial plan of care (IPOC) and comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 
 "Assessment" means the face-to-face interaction
 by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S to obtain information from the child or
 adolescent and parent, guardian, or other family member, as appropriate, utilizing
 a tool or series of tools to provide a comprehensive evaluation and review of
 the child's or adolescent's mental health status. The assessment shall include
 a documented history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health
 problems and behavioral and emotional issues.
 
 "Certificate of need" or "CON" means a
 written statement by an independent certification team that services in a
 therapeutic group home or PRTF are or were needed. 
 
 "Combined treatment services" means a structured,
 therapeutic milieu and planned interventions that promote (i) the development
 or restoration of adaptive functioning, self-care, and social skills; (ii)
 community integrated activities and community living skills that each
 individual requires to live in less restrictive environments; (iii) behavioral
 consultation; (iv) individual and group therapy; (v) skills restoration, the
 restoration of coping skills, family living and health awareness, interpersonal
 skills, communication skills, and stress management skills; (vi) family
 education and family therapy; and (vii) individualized treatment planning.
 
 "Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
 "CIPOC" means a person centered plan of care that meets all of the
 requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
 information gathered during the referral process.
 
 "Crisis" means a deteriorating or unstable
 situation that produces an acute, heightened emotional, mental, physical,
 medical, or behavioral event.
 
 "Crisis management" means immediately provided
 activities and interventions designed to rapidly manage a crisis. The
 activities and interventions include behavioral health care to provide
 immediate assistance to individuals experiencing acute behavioral health
 problems that require immediate intervention to stabilize and prevent harm and
 higher level of acuity. Activities shall include assessment and short-term
 counseling designed to stabilize the individual. Individuals are referred to
 long-term services once the crisis has been stabilized.
 
 "Daily supervision" means the supervision
 provided in a PRTF through a resident-to-staff ratio approved by the Office of
 Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
 with documented supervision checks every 15 minutes throughout a 24-hour
 period.
 
 "Discharge planning" means family and
 locality-based care coordination that begins upon admission to a PRTF or
 therapeutic group home with the goal of transitioning the individual out of the
 PRTF or therapeutic group home to a less restrictive care setting with
 continued, clinically-appropriate, and possibly intensive, services as soon as
 possible upon discharge. Discharge plans shall be recommended by the treating physician,
 psychiatrist, or treating LMHP responsible for the overall supervision of the
 plan of care and shall be approved by the DMAS contractor.
 
 "DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association.
 
 "Emergency admissions" means those admissions
 that are made when, pending a review for the certificate of need, it appears
 that the individual is in need of an immediate admission to a therapeutic group
 home or PRTF and likely does not meet the medical necessity criteria to receive
 crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, or acute psychiatric inpatient
 services. 
 
 "Emergency services" means unscheduled and
 sometimes scheduled crisis intervention, stabilization, acute psychiatric inpatient
 services, and referral assistance provided over the telephone or face-to-face
 if indicated, and available 24 hours a day, seven days per week.
 
 "Family engagement" means a family-centered and
 strengths-based approach to partnering with families in making decisions,
 setting goals, achieving desired outcomes, and promoting safety, permanency,
 and well-being for children, adolescents, and families. Family engagement
 requires ongoing opportunities for an individual to build and maintain
 meaningful relationships with family members, for example, frequent,
 unscheduled, and noncontingent telephone calls and visits between an individual
 and family members. Family engagement may also include enhancing or
 facilitating the development of the individual's relationship with other family
 members and supportive adults responsible for the individual's care and
 well-being upon discharge.
 
 "Family engagement activity" means an
 intervention consisting of family psychoeducational training or coaching,
 transition planning with the family, family and independent living skills, and
 training on accessing community supports as identified in the plan of care.
 Family engagement activity does not include and is not the same as family
 therapy.
 
 "Family therapy" means counseling services
 involving the individual's family and significant others to advance the
 treatment goals when (i) the counseling with the family member and significant
 others is for the direct benefit of the individual, (ii) the counseling is not
 aimed at addressing treatment needs of the individual's family or significant
 others, and (iii) the individual is present except when it is clinically
 appropriate for the individual to be absent in order to advance the
 individual's treatment goals. Family therapy shall be aligned with the goals of
 the individual's plan of care. All family therapy services furnished are for
 the direct benefit of the individual, in accordance with the individual's needs
 and treatment goals identified in the individual's plan of care, and for the
 purpose of assisting in the individual's recovery.
 
 "FAPT" means the family assessment and planning
 team.
 
 "ICD-10" means International Statistical
 Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th Revision,
 published by the World Health Organization. 
 
 "Independent certification team" means a team
 that has competence in diagnosis and treatment of mental illness, preferably in
 child psychiatry; has knowledge of the individual's situation; and is composed
 of at least one physician and one LMHP. The independent certification team
 shall be a DMAS-authorized contractor with contractual or employment
 relationships with the required team members. 
 
 "Individual" means the child or adolescent
 younger than 21 years of age who is receiving therapeutic group home or PRTF
 services.
 
 "Individual and group therapy" means the
 application of principles, standards, and methods of the counseling profession
 in (i) conducting assessments and diagnosis for the purpose of establishing
 treatment goals and objectives and (ii) planning, implementing, and evaluating
 plans of care using treatment interventions to facilitate human development and
 to identify and remediate mental, emotional, or behavioral disorders and
 associated distresses that interfere with mental health. 
 
 "Initial plan of care" or "IPOC" means
 a person centered plan of care established at admission that meets all of the
 requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
 information gathered during the referral process.
 
 "Intervention" means scheduled therapeutic
 treatment such as individual or group psychoeducation; skills restoration;
 structured behavior support and training activities; recreation, art, and music
 therapies; community integration activities that promote or assist in the
 child's or adolescent's ability to acquire coping and functional or
 self-regulating behavior skills; day and overnight passes; and family
 engagement activities. Interventions shall not include individual, group, and
 family therapy; medical or dental appointments; or physician services,
 medication evaluation, or management provided by a licensed clinician or
 physician and shall not include school attendance. Interventions shall be provided
 in the therapeutic group home or PRTF and, when clinically necessary, in a
 community setting or as part of a therapeutic pass. All interventions and
 settings of the intervention shall be established in the plan of care.
 
 "Plan of care" means the initial plan of care
 (IPOC) and the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 
 "Physician" means an individual licensed to
 practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in Virginia, as defined in § 54.1-2900
 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" or
 "PRTF" means the same as defined in 42 CFR 483.352 and is a 24-hour,
 supervised, clinically and medically necessary, out-of-home active treatment
 program designed to provide necessary support and address mental health,
 behavioral, substance abuse, cognitive, and training needs of an individual
 younger than 21 years of age in order to prevent or minimize the need for more
 intensive treatment.
 
 "Recertification" means a certification for each
 applicant or recipient for whom therapeutic group home or PRTF services are
 needed. 
 
 "Room and board" means a component of the total
 daily cost for placement in a licensed PRTF. Residential room and board costs
 are maintenance costs associated with placement in a licensed PRTF and include
 a semi-private room, three meals and two snacks per day, and personal care
 items. Room and board costs are reimbursed only for PRTF settings. 
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means
 services including physician and other health care services that are furnished
 to children while they are in a freestanding psychiatric hospital or PRTF that
 are billed by the arranged practitioners separately from the freestanding
 psychiatric hospital's or PRTF's per diem.
 
 "Skills restoration" means a face-to-face service
 to assist individuals in the restoration of lost skills that are necessary to
 achieve the goals established in the beneficiary's plan of care. Services
 include assisting the individual in restoring self-management, interpersonal,
 communication, and problem solving skills through modeling, coaching, and
 cueing.
 
 "Therapeutic group home" means a congregate
 residential service providing 24-hour supervision in a community-based home
 having eight or fewer residents. 
 
 "Therapeutic pass" means time at home or
 time with family consisting of partial or entire days of time away from the
 therapeutic group home or psychiatric residential treatment facility as
 clinically indicated in the plan of care and as paired with facility-based and
 community-based interventions to promote discharge planning, community
 integration, and family engagement activities. Therapeutic passes are not
 recreational but are a therapeutic component of the plan of care and are
 designed for the direct benefit of the individual.
 
 "Treatment planning" means development of a
 person centered plan of care that is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels.
 
 e. 2. Therapeutic behavioral group
 home services (Level B) pursuant to 42 CFR 440.130(d).
 
 (1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in
 a residential setting. The residential services will provide structure for
 daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination,
 and psychiatric treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health
 goals as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
 qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
 arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that
 results in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the
 home, school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be
 expected to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the
 services will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized
 set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
 InterQual ® Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS
 shall be required for this service.
 
 (2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
 be reimbursed. 
 
 (3) a. Therapeutic group home services for children
 and adolescents younger than 21 years of age shall provide therapeutic services
 to restore or maintain appropriate skills necessary to promote prosocial
 behavior and healthy living, including skills restoration, family living and
 health awareness, interpersonal skills, communication skills, and stress
 management skills. Therapeutic services shall also engage families and reflect
 family-driven practices that correlate to sustained positive outcomes
 post-discharge for youth and their family members. Each component of
 therapeutic group home services is provided for the direct benefit of the
 individual, in accordance with the individual's needs and treatment goals
 identified in the individual's plan of care, and for the purpose of assisting
 in the individual's recovery. These services are provided under 42 CFR
 440.130(d) in accordance with the rehabilitative services benefit.
 
 b. The plan of care shall include individualized
 activities, including a minimum of one intervention per 24-hour period in
 addition to individual, group, and family therapies. Daily interventions are
 not required when there is documentation to justify clinical or medical reasons
 for the individual's deviations from the plan of care. Interventions shall be
 documented on a progress note and shall be outlined in and aligned with the
 treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC and CIPOC. Any deviation from the
 plan of care shall be documented along with a clinical or medical justification
 for the deviation. 
 
 c. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
 therapeutic group home. The following requirements for severity of need and
 intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity
 criteria for admission.
 
 (1) Severity of need required for admission. All of the
 following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
 
 (a) The individual's behavioral health condition can only
 be safely and effectively treated in a 24-hour therapeutic milieu with onsite
 behavioral health therapy due to significant impairments in home, school, and
 community functioning caused by current mental health symptoms consistent with
 a DSM-5 diagnosis. 
 
 (b) The certificate of need must demonstrate all of the
 following: (i) ambulatory care resources (all available modalities of treatment
 less restrictive than inpatient treatment) available in the community do not
 meet the treatment needs of the individual; (ii) proper treatment of the
 individual's psychiatric condition requires services on an inpatient basis
 under the direction of a physician; and (iii) the services can reasonably be
 expected to improve the individual's condition or prevent further regression so
 that the services will no longer be needed.
 
 (c) The state uniform assessment tool shall be completed.
 The assessment shall demonstrate at least two areas of moderate impairment in
 major life activities. A moderate impairment is defined as a major or
 persistent disruption in major life activities. A moderate impairment is
 evidenced by, but not limited to (i) frequent conflict in the family setting
 such as credible threats of physical harm, where "frequent" means
 more than expected for the individual's age and developmental level; (ii)
 frequent inability to accept age-appropriate direction and supervision from
 caretakers, from family members, at school, or in the home or community; (iii)
 severely limited involvement in social support, which means significant
 avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of existing
 relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions; (iv)
 impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at least one caretaker in
 the home, school, or community; (v) limited ability to consider the effect of
 one's inappropriate conduct on others; and (vi) interactions consistently
 involving conflict, which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
 
 (d) Less restrictive community-based services have been
 given a fully adequate trial and were unsuccessful or, if not attempted, have
 been considered, but in either situation were determined to be unable to meet
 the individual's treatment needs and the reasons for that are discussed in the certificate
 of need.
 
 (e) The individual's symptoms, or the need for treatment in
 a 24 hours a day, seven days a week level of care (LOC), are not primarily due
 to any of the following: (i) intellectual disability, developmental disability,
 or autistic spectrum disorder; (ii) organic mental disorders, traumatic brain
 injury, or other medical condition; or (iii) the individual does not require a
 more intensive level of care.
 
 (f) The individual does not require primary medical or
 surgical treatment.
 
 (2) Intensity and quality of service necessary for
 admission. All of the following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria
 for intensity and quality of service:
 
 (a) The therapeutic group home service has been prescribed
 by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or other LMHP who has documented that a
 residential setting is the least restrictive clinically appropriate service
 that can meet the specifically identified treatment needs of the individual.
 
 (b) The therapeutic group home is not being used for
 clinically inappropriate reasons, including (i) an alternative to incarceration
 or preventative detention; (ii) an alternative to a parent's, guardian's, or
 agency's capacity to provide a place of residence for the individual; or (iii)
 a treatment intervention when other less restrictive alternatives are
 available.
 
 (c) The individual's treatment goals are included in the
 service specific provider intake and include behaviorally defined objectives
 that require and can reasonably be achieved within a therapeutic group home setting.
 
 (d) The therapeutic group home is required to coordinate
 with the individual's community resources, including schools and FAPT as
 appropriate, with the goal of transitioning the individual out of the program
 to a less restrictive care setting for continued, sometimes intensive, services
 as soon as possible and appropriate.
 
 (e) The therapeutic group home program must incorporate
 nationally established, evidence-based, trauma-informed services and supports
 that promote recovery and resiliency. 
 
 (f) Discharge planning begins upon admission, with concrete
 plans for the individual to transition back into the community beginning within
 the first week of admission, with clear action steps and target dates outlined
 in the plan of care.
 
 (3) Continued stay criteria. The following criteria shall
 be met in order to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
 
 (a) All of the admission guidelines continue to be met and
 continue to be supported by the written clinical documentation. 
 
 (b) The individual shall meet one of the following
 criteria: (i) the desired outcome or level of functioning has not been restored
 or improved in the timeframe outlined in the individual's plan of care or the
 individual continues to be at risk for relapse based on history or (ii) the
 nature of the functional gains is tenuous and use of less intensive services
 will not achieve stabilization.
 
 (c) The individual shall meet one of the following
 criteria: (i) the individual has achieved initial CIPOC goals, but additional
 goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower level of care; (ii) the
 individual is making satisfactory progress toward meeting goals but has not
 attained plan of care goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a lower level
 of care; (iii) the individual is not making progress, and the plan of care has
 been modified to identify more effective interventions; or (iv) there are
 current indications that the individual requires this level of treatment to
 maintain level of functioning as evidenced by failure to achieve goals identified
 for therapeutic visits or stays in a nontreatment residential setting or in a
 lower level of residential treatment. 
 
 (d) There is a written, up-to-date discharge plan that (i)
 identifies the custodial parent or custodial caregiver at discharge; (ii) identifies
 the school the individual will attend at discharge, if applicable; (iii)
 includes individualized education program (IEP) and FAPT recommendations, if
 necessary; (iv) outlines the aftercare treatment plan (discharge to another
 residential level of care is not an acceptable discharge goal); and (v) lists
 barriers to community reintegration and progress made on resolving these
 barriers since last review.
 
 (e) The active plan of care includes structure for combined
 treatment services and activities to ensure the attainment of therapeutic
 mental health goals as identified in the plan of care. Combined treatment
 services reinforce and practice skills learned in individual, group, and family
 therapy such as community integration skills, coping skills, family living and
 health awareness skills, interpersonal skills, and stress management skills.
 Combined treatment services may occur in group settings, in one-on-one
 interactions, or in the home setting during a therapeutic pass. In addition to
 the combined treatment services, the child or adolescent must also receive
 psychotherapy services, care coordination, family-based discharge planning, and
 locality-based transition activities. The child or adolescent shall receive
 intensive family interventions at least twice per month, although it is
 recommended that the intensive family interventions be provided at a frequency
 of one family therapy session per week. Family involvement begins immediately
 upon admission to therapeutic group home. If the minimum requirement cannot be
 met, the reasons must be reported, and continued efforts to involve family
 members must also be documented. Other family members or supportive adults may
 be included as indicated in the plan of care.
 
 (f) Less restrictive treatment options have been considered
 but cannot yet meet the individual's treatment needs. There is sufficient
 current clinical documentation or evidence to show that therapeutic group home
 level of care continues to be the least restrictive level of care that can meet
 the individual's mental health treatment needs.
 
 (4) Discharge shall occur if any of the following applies:
 (i) the level of functioning has improved with respect to the goals outlined in
 the plan of care, and the individual can reasonably be expected to maintain these
 gains at a lower level of treatment; (ii) the individual no longer benefits
 from service as evidenced by absence of progress toward plan of care goals for
 a period of 60 days; or (iii) other less intensive services may achieve
 stabilization.
 
 d. The following clinical activities shall be required for
 each therapeutic group home resident:
 
 (1) An assessment be performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
 or LMHP-S.
 
 (2) A face-to-face evaluation shall be performed by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30 calendar days prior to admission
 with a documented DSM-5 or ICD-10 diagnosis.
 
 (3) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
 independent certification team according to the requirements of subdivision D 4
 of this section. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 calendar days by
 an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S acting within his scope of practice.
 
 (4) An IPOC that is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels. The IPOC shall be completed on the day of
 admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be signed by the
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual and a family member or
 legally authorized representative. The IPOC shall include all of the following:
 
 
 (a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
 that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
 strategies and treatment alliance; 
 
 (b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 (c) A description of the functional level of the
 individual; 
 
 (d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 (e) Orders for medications, psychiatric, medical, dental,
 and any special health care needs whether or not provided in the facilities,
 treatments, restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies,
 therapeutic passes, social services, community integration, diet, and special
 procedures recommended for the health and safety of the individual; 
 
 (f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; and 
 
 (g) Plans for discharge. 
 
 (5) A CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
 days after admission. The CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria: 
 
 (a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and shall reflect the need
 for therapeutic group home care; 
 
 (b) Be based on input from school, home, other health care
 providers, FAPT if necessary, the individual, and the family or legal guardian;
 
 
 (c) Shall state treatment objectives that include
 measurable short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 (d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; and 
 
 (e) Include a comprehensive discharge plan with necessary,
 clinically appropriate community services to ensure continuity of care upon
 discharge with the individual's family, school, and community. 
 
 (6) The CIPOC shall be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30
 calendar days by the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a
 family member or primary caregiver. Updates shall be signed and dated by the
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a family member or
 legally authorized representative. The review shall include all of the
 following: 
 
 (a) The individual's response to the services provided; 
 
 (b) Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall response to the CIPOC interventions; and 
 
 (c) Determinations regarding whether the services being
 provided continue to be required. 
 
 (7) Crisis management, clinical assessment, and
 individualized therapy shall be provided to address both behavioral health and
 substance use disorder needs as indicated in the plan of care to address
 intermittent crises and challenges within the therapeutic group home setting or
 community settings as defined in the plan of care and to avoid a higher level
 of care.
 
 (8) Care coordination shall be provided with medical,
 educational, and other behavioral health providers and other entities involved
 in the care and discharge planning for the individual as included in the plan
 of care.
 
 (9) Weekly individual therapy shall be provided in the
 therapeutic group home, or other settings as appropriate for the individual's
 needs, by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be documented in
 progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61. 
 
 (10) Weekly (or more frequently if clinically indicated)
 group therapy shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which
 shall be documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
 12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the plan of care.
 
 (11) Family treatment shall be provided as clinically
 indicated, provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, and documented in
 progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61 and as
 planned and documented in the plan of care.
 
 (12) Family engagement activities shall be provided in
 addition to family therapy or counseling. Family engagement activities shall be
 provided at least weekly as outlined in the plan of care, and daily
 communication with the family or legally authorized representative shall be
 part of the family engagement strategies in the plan of care. For each
 service authorization period when family engagement is not possible, the
 therapeutic group home shall identify and document the specific barriers to the
 individual's engagement with the individual's family or legally authorized
 representatives. The therapeutic group home shall document on a weekly basis
 the reasons why family engagement is not occurring as required. The therapeutic
 group home shall document alternative family engagement strategies to be used
 as part of the interventions in the plan of care and request approval of the
 revised plan of care by DMAS. When family engagement is not possible, the
 therapeutic group home shall collaborate with DMAS on a weekly basis to develop
 individualized family engagement strategies and document the revised strategies
 in the plan of care.
 
 (13) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
 indicated in the plan of care and as paired with facility-based and community-based
 interventions to promote discharge planning, community integration, and family
 engagement activities. 
 
 (a) The provider shall document how the family was prepared
 for the therapeutic pass to include a review of the plan of care goals and
 objectives being addressed by the planned interventions and the safety and
 crisis plan in effect during the therapeutic pass.
 
 (b) If a facility staff member does not accompany the
 individual on the therapeutic pass and the therapeutic pass exceeds 24 hours,
 the provider shall make daily contacts with the family and be available 24
 hours per day to address concerns, incidents, or crises that may arise during
 the pass.
 
 (c) Contact with the family shall occur within seven
 calendar days of the therapeutic pass to discuss the accomplishments and
 challenges of the therapeutic pass along with an update on progress toward plan
 of care goals and any necessary changes to the plan of care.
 
 (d) Twenty-four therapeutic passes shall be permitted per
 individual, per admission, without authorization as approved by the treating
 LMHP and documented in the plan of care. Additional therapeutic passes shall
 require service authorization. Any unauthorized therapeutic passes shall result
 in retraction for those days of service.
 
 (14) Discharge planning shall begin at admission and
 continue throughout the individual's stay at the therapeutic group home. The
 family or guardian, the community services board (CSB), the family assessment
 and planning team (FAPT) case manager, and the DMAS contracted care manager
 shall be involved in treatment planning and shall identify the anticipated
 needs of the individual and family upon discharge and available services in the
 community. Prior to discharge, the therapeutic group home shall submit an active
 and viable discharge plan to the DMAS contractor for review. Once the DMAS
 contractor approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin actively
 collaborating with the family or legally authorized representative and the
 treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
 appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The therapeutic
 group home shall request permission from the parent or legally authorized
 representative to share treatment information with these providers and shall
 share information pursuant to a valid release. The therapeutic group home shall
 request information from post-discharge providers to establish that the
 planning of pending services and transition planning activities has begun,
 shall establish that the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall
 provide individualized education program recommendations to the school if
 necessary. The therapeutic group home shall inform the DMAS contractor of all
 scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
 the DMAS contractor within one business day of the individual's discharge date
 from the therapeutic group home.
 
 (15) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed.
 Facilities that only provide independent living services or nonclinical
 services that do not meet the requirements of this subsection are not reimbursed
 eligible for reimbursement. DMAS shall reimburse only for services
 provided in facilities or programs with no more than 16 beds. 
 
 (4) These residential (16) Therapeutic group home
 services providers must shall be licensed by the Department
 of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the Regulations
 for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
 
 (5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
 seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
 programming must include development or maintenance of daily living skills,
 anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication skills,
 and stress management. This service may be provided in a program setting or a
 community-based group home. 
 
 (6) The individual must receive, at least weekly,
 individual psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is
 provided as part of the program. 
 
 (7) (17) Individuals shall be discharged from
 this service when treatment goals are met or other less intensive
 services may achieve stabilization.
 
 (8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
 the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
 services. (18) Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or
 outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs plans of care
 shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out
 in 12VAC30-60-61. 
 
 (9) These (19) Therapeutic group home services
 may only be rendered by and within the scope of practice of an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, 
 LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 (10) (20) The facility/group psychiatric
 residential treatment facility or therapeutic group home shall coordinate
 necessary services and discharge planning with other providers as
 medically and clinically necessary. Documentation of this care coordination
 shall be maintained by the facility/group facility or group home
 in the individual's record. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
 when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted, and
 recommended next steps.
 
 (21) Failure to perform any of the items described in this subsection
 shall result in a retraction of the per diem for each day of noncompliance. 
 
 3. PRTF services are a 24-hour, supervised, clinically and
 medically necessary out-of-home program designed to provide necessary support
 and address mental health, behavioral, substance use, cognitive, or other
 treatment needs of an individual younger than 21 years of age in order to
 prevent or minimize the need for more inpatient treatment. Active treatment and
 comprehensive discharge planning shall begin prior to admission. In order to be
 covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age, these services shall (i)
 meet DMAS-approved psychiatric medical necessity criteria or be approved as an
 EPSDT service based upon a diagnosis made by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S
 who is practicing within the scope of his license and (ii) be reflected in
 provider records and on the provider's claims for services by recognized
 diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested professional
 services. 
 
 a. PRTF services shall be covered for the purpose of
 diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders when such
 services are rendered by a psychiatric facility that is not a hospital and is
 accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
 Organizations, the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities,
 the Council on Accreditation of Services for Families and Children, or by any
 other accrediting organization with comparable standards that is recognized by
 the state.
 
 b. Providers of PRTF services shall be licensed by DBHDS. 
 
 c. PRTF services are reimbursable only when the treatment
 program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically
 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR 441.156 and (ii)
 the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G. Each admission
 must be service authorized, and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements for
 clinical necessity.
 
 d. The PRTF benefit for individuals younger than 21 years
 of age shall include services defined at 42 CFR 440.160 that are provided
 under the direction of a physician pursuant to a certification of medical
 necessity and plan of care developed by an interdisciplinary team of
 professionals and shall involve active treatment designed to achieve the
 child's discharge from PRTF services at the earliest possible time. The PRTF
 services benefit shall include services provided under arrangement furnished by
 Medicaid enrolled providers other than the PRTF, as long as the PRTF (i) arranges
 for and oversees the provision of all services, (ii) maintains all medical
 records of care furnished to the individual, and (iii) ensures that the
 services are furnished under the direction of a physician. Services provided
 under arrangement shall be documented by a written referral from the PRTF. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the facility who is licensed to prescribe drugs shall be
 considered the referral. 
 
 e. PRTFs, as defined at 42 CFR 483.352, shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these services: (i)
 medical and psychological services, including those furnished by physicians,
 licensed mental health professionals, and other licensed or certified health professionals
 (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists, respiratory therapists, and substance abuse
 treatment practitioners); (ii) pharmacy services; (iii) outpatient hospital
 services; (iv) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and therapy for
 individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (v) laboratory and
 radiology services; (vi) durable medical equipment; (vii) vision services;
 (viii) dental, oral surgery, and orthodontic services; (ix) nonemergency
 transportation services; and (x) emergency services. 
 
 f. PRTF services shall include assessment and
 reassessment; room and board; daily supervision; combined treatment services;
 individual, family, and group therapy; care coordination; interventions;
 general or special education; medical treatment (including medication,
 coordination of necessary medical services, and 24-hour onsite nursing);
 specialty services; and discharge planning that meets the medical and clinical
 needs of the individual.
 
 g. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a PRTF. The
 following requirements for severity of need and intensity and quality of
 service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity criteria for admission:
 
 (1) Severity of need required for admission. The following
 criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
 
 (a) There is clinical evidence that the individual has a
 DSM-5 disorder that is amenable to active psychiatric treatment.
 
 (b) There is a high degree of potential of the condition
 leading to acute psychiatric hospitalization in the absence of residential
 treatment.
 
 (c) Either (i) there is clinical evidence that the
 individual would be a risk to self or others if the individual were not in a
 PRTF or (ii) as a result of the individual's mental disorder, there is an
 inability for the individual to adequately care for his own physical needs, and
 caretakers, guardians, or family members are unable to safely fulfill these
 needs, representing potential serious harm to self.
 
 (d) The individual requires supervision seven days per
 week, 24 hours per day to develop skills necessary for daily living; to assist
 with planning and arranging access to a range of educational, therapeutic, and
 aftercare services; and to develop the adaptive and functional behavior that
 will allow the individual to live outside of a PRTF setting.
 
 (e) The individual's current living environment does not
 provide the support and access to therapeutic services needed.
 
 (f) The individual is medically stable and does not require
 the 24-hour medical or nursing monitoring or procedures provided in a hospital
 level of care.
 
 (2) Intensity and quality of service necessary for
 admission. The following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for
 intensity and quality of service:
 
 (a) The evaluation and assignment of a DSM-5 diagnosis must
 result from a face-to-face psychiatric evaluation.
 
 (b) The program provides supervision seven days per week,
 24 hours per day to assist with the development of skills necessary for daily
 living; to assist with planning and arranging access to a range of educational,
 therapeutic, and aftercare services; and to assist with the development of the
 adaptive and functional behavior that will allow the individual to live outside
 of a PRTF setting.
 
 (c) An individualized plan of active psychiatric treatment
 and residential living support is provided in a timely manner. This treatment
 must be medically monitored, with 24-hour medical availability and 24-hour
 nursing services availability. This plan includes (i) at least once-a-week
 psychiatric reassessments; (ii) intensive family or support system involvement
 occurring at least once per week or valid reasons identified as to why such a
 plan is not clinically appropriate or feasible; (iii) psychotropic medications,
 when used, are to be used with specific target symptoms identified; (iv)
 evaluation for current medical problems; (v) evaluation for concomitant
 substance use issues; and (vi) linkage or coordination with the individual's
 community resources, including the local school division and FAPT case manager,
 as appropriate, with the goal of returning the individual to his regular social
 environment as soon as possible, unless contraindicated. School contact should
 address an individualized educational plan as appropriate.
 
 (d) A urine drug screen is considered at the time of
 admission, when progress is not occurring, when substance misuse is suspected,
 or when substance use and medications may have a potential adverse interaction.
 After a positive screen, additional random screens are considered and referral
 to a substance use disorder provider is considered.
 
 (3) Criteria for continued stay. The following criteria
 shall be met to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
 
 (a) Despite reasonable therapeutic efforts, clinical
 evidence indicates at least one of the following: (i) the persistence of
 problems that caused the admission to a degree that continues to meet the
 admission criteria (both severity of need and intensity of service needs); (ii)
 the emergence of additional problems that meet the admission criteria (both severity
 of need and intensity of service needs); or (iii) that disposition planning or
 attempts at therapeutic reentry into the community have resulted in or would
 result in exacerbation of the psychiatric illness to the degree that would
 necessitate continued PRTF treatment. Subjective opinions without objective
 clinical information or evidence are not sufficient to meet severity of need
 based on justifying the expectation that there would be a decompensation.
 
 (b) There is evidence of objective, measurable, and
 time-limited therapeutic clinical goals that must be met before the individual
 can return to a new or previous living situation. There is evidence that
 attempts are being made to secure timely access to treatment resources and
 housing in anticipation of discharge, with alternative housing contingency
 plans also being addressed.
 
 (c) There is evidence that the plan of care is focused on
 the alleviation of psychiatric symptoms and precipitating psychosocial
 stressors that are interfering with the individual's ability to return to a
 less-intensive level of care.
 
 (d) The current or revised plan of care can be reasonably
 expected to bring about significant improvement in the problems meeting the
 criteria in subdivision 3 c (3) (a) of this subsection, and this is documented
 in weekly progress notes written and signed by the provider.
 
 (e) There is evidence of intensive family or support system
 involvement occurring at least once per week, unless there is an identified
 valid reason why it is not clinically appropriate or feasible.
 
 (f) A discharge plan is formulated that is directly linked
 to the behaviors or symptoms that resulted in admission and begins to identify
 appropriate post-PRTF resources including the local school division and FAPT
 case manager as appropriate.
 
 (g) All applicable elements in admission-intensity and
 quality of service criteria are applied as related to assessment and treatment
 if clinically relevant and appropriate.
 
 (4) Discharge criteria. Discharge shall occur if any of the
 following applies: (i) the level of functioning has improved with respect to
 the goals outlined in the plan of care, and the individual can reasonably be
 expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment; (ii) the
 individual no longer benefits from service as evidenced by absence of progress
 toward plan of care goals for a period of 30 days; or (iii) other less
 intensive services may achieve stabilization.
 
 h. The following clinical activities shall be required for
 each PRTF resident:
 
 (1) A face-to-face assessment shall be performed by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RS, or LMHP-S within 30 calendar days prior to admission and
 weekly thereafter and shall document a DSM-5 or ICD-10 diagnosis. 
 
 (2) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
 independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
 D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 30 calendar days by a physician
 acting within his scope of practice.
 
 (3) The initial plan of care (IPOC) shall be completed
 within 24 hours of admission by the treatment team. The IPOC shall
 include: 
 
 (a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
 that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
 strategies and treatment alliance; 
 
 (b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 (c) A description of the functional level of the
 individual;
 
 (d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 (e) Any orders for medications, psychiatric, medical,
 dental, and any special health care needs, whether or not provided in the
 facility; education or special education; treatments; interventions; and
 restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social
 services, diet, and special procedures recommended for the health and safety of
 the individual; 
 
 (f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; 
 
 (g) Plans for discharge; and 
 
 (h) Signature and date by the individual, parent, or
 legally authorized representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
 
 (4) The CIPOC shall be completed and signed no later than
 14 calendar days after admission by the treatment team. The PRTF shall request
 authorizations from families to release confidential information to collect
 information from medical and behavioral health treatment providers, schools,
 FAPT, social services, court services, and other relevant parties. This
 information shall be used when considering changes and updating the CIPOC. The
 CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria:
 
 (a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for PRTF care;
 
 (b) Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
 and other personnel specified in subdivision 3 d 4 of this subsection who are
 employed by or provide services to the individual in the facility in
 consultation with the individual, family member, or legally authorized
 representative, or appropriate others into whose care the individual will be
 released after discharge;
 
 (c) Shall state treatment objectives that shall include
 measurable, evidence-based, and short-term and long-term goals and objectives;
 family engagement activities; and the design of community-based aftercare with
 target dates for achievement;
 
 (d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 interventions, activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment
 objectives related to the individual and family treatment needs; and 
 
 (e) Describe comprehensive transition plans and
 coordination of current care and post-discharge plans with related community
 services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's
 family, school, and community.
 
 (5) The CIPOC shall be reviewed every 30 calendar days by
 the team specified in subdivision 3 d 4 of this subsection to determine that
 services being provided are or were required from a PRTF and to recommend
 changes in the plan as indicated by the individual's overall adjustment during
 the time away from home. The CIPOC shall include the signature and date from
 the individual, parent, or legally authorized representative, a physician, and
 treatment team members.
 
 (6) Individual therapy shall be provided three times
 per week (or more frequently based upon the individual's needs) provided by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the plan of care
 and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection and
 12VAC30-60-61.
 
 (7) Group therapy shall be provided as clinically indicated
 by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the plan of
 care and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection.
 
 (8) Family therapy shall be provided as clinically
 indicated by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the
 plan of care and progress notes in accordance with the individual and family or
 legally authorized representative's goals and the requirements in this
 subsection.
 
 (9) Family engagement shall be provided in addition to
 family therapy or counseling. Family engagement shall be provided at least
 weekly as outlined in the plan of care and daily communication with the
 treatment team representative and the treatment team representative and the family
 or legally authorized representative shall be part of the family engagement
 strategies in the plan of care. For each service authorization period when
 family engagement is not possible, the PRTF shall identify and document the
 specific barriers to the individual's engagement with his family or legally
 authorized representatives. The PRTF shall document on a weekly basis the
 reasons that family engagement is not occurring as required. The PRTF shall
 document alternate family engagement strategies to be used as part of the
 interventions in the plan of care and request approval of the revised plan of
 care by DMAS. When family engagement is not possible, the PRTF shall
 collaborate with DMAS on a weekly basis to develop individualized family
 engagement strategies and document the revised strategies in the plan of care.
 
 (10) Three interventions shall be provided per 24-hour
 period including nights and weekends. Family engagement activities are
 considered to be an intervention and shall occur based on the treatment and
 visitation goals and scheduling needs of the family or legally authorized
 representative. Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall
 be outlined in and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the plan
 of care. Any deviation from the plan of care shall be documented along with a
 clinical or medical justification for the deviation based on the needs of the
 individual. 
 
 (11) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
 indicated in the plan of care and as paired with community-based and
 facility-based interventions to promote discharge planning, community
 integration, and family engagement. Therapeutic passes include activities as
 listed in subdivision 2 d (13) of this section. Twenty-four therapeutic passes
 shall be permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as
 approved by the treating physician and documented in the plan of care.
 Additional therapeutic passes shall require service authorization from DMAS.
 Any unauthorized therapeutic passes not approved by the provider or DMAS shall
 result in retraction for those days of service.
 
 (12) Discharge planning shall begin at admission and
 continue throughout the individual's placement at the PRTF. The parent or
 legally authorized representative, the community services board (CSB), the
 family assessment planning team (FAPT) case manager, if appropriate, and the
 DMAS contracted care manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall
 identify the anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and
 identify the available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the PRTF
 shall submit an active discharge plan to the DMAS contractor for review. Once
 the DMAS contractor approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin
 collaborating with the parent or legally authorized representative and the
 treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
 appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The PRTF shall
 request written permission from the parent or legally authorized representative
 to share treatment information with these providers and shall share information
 pursuant to a valid release. The PRTF shall request information from
 post-discharge providers to establish that the planning of services and
 activities has begun, shall establish that the individual has been enrolled in
 school, and shall provide individualized education program recommendations to
 the school if necessary. The PRTF shall inform the DMAS contractor of all
 scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
 the DMAS contractor within one business day of the individual's discharge date
 from the PRTF.
 
 (13) Failure to perform any of the items as described in
 subdivisions 3 h (1) through 3 h (12) of this subsection up until the discharge
 of the individual shall result in a retraction of the per diem and all other
 contracted and coordinated service payments for each day of noncompliance. 
 
 i. The team developing the CIPOC shall meet the following
 requirements:
 
 (1) At least one member of the team must have expertise in
 pediatric behavioral health. Based on education and experience, preferably
 including competence in child or adolescent psychiatry, the team must be
 capable of all of the following: assessing the individual's immediate and
 long-range therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths
 and liabilities; assessing the potential resources of the individual's family
 or legally authorized representative; setting treatment objectives; and
 prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the CIPOC's objectives.
 
 (2) The team shall include one of the following: 
 
 (a) A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist; 
 
 (b) A licensed clinical psychologist and a physician
 licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or 
 
 (c) A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
 with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental diseases and a licensed clinical psychologist.
 
 (3) The team shall also include one of the following: an
 LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 4. Requirements for independent certification teams
 applicable to both therapeutic group homes and PRTFs:
 
 a. The independent certification team shall certify the
 need for PRTF or therapeutic group home services and issue a certificate of
 need document within the process and timeliness standards as approved by DMAS
 under contractual agreement with the DMAS contractor.
 
 b. The independent certification team shall be approved by
 DMAS through a memorandum of understanding with a locality or be approved under
 contractual agreement with the DMAS contractor. The team shall initiate and
 coordinate referral to the family assessment and planning team (FAPT) as
 defined in §§ 2.2-5207 and 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia to facilitate care
 coordination and for consideration of educational coverage and other supports
 not covered by DMAS.
 
 c. The independent certification team shall assess the
 individual's and family's strengths and needs in addition to diagnoses,
 behaviors, and symptoms that indicate the need for behavioral health treatment
 and also consider whether local resources and community-based care are
 sufficient to meet the individual's treatment needs, as presented within the
 previous 30 calendar days, within the least restrictive environment.
 
 d. The LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP, as
 part of the independent certification team, shall meet with an individual and
 the individual's parent or legally authorized representative within two business
 days from a request to assess the individual's needs and begin the process to
 certify the need for an out-of-home placement. 
 
 e. The independent certification team shall meet with an
 individual and the individual's parent or legally authorized representative
 within 10 business days from a request to certify the need for an out-of-home
 placement.
 
 f. The independent certification team shall assess the
 treatment needs of the individual to issue a certificate of need (CON) for the
 most appropriate medically necessary services. The certification shall include
 the dated signature and credentials for each of the team members who rendered
 the certification. Referring or treatment providers shall not actively
 participate during the certification process but may provide supporting
 clinical documentation to the certification team.
 
 g. The CON shall be effective for 30 calendar days prior to
 admission.
 
 h. The independent certification team shall provide the
 completed CON to the facility within one calendar day of completing the CON.
 
 i. The individual and the individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative shall have the right to freedom of choice of service
 providers.
 
 j. If the individual or the individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative disagrees with the independent certification team's
 recommendation, the parent or legally authorized representative may appeal the
 recommendation in accordance with 12VAC30-110. 
 
 k. If the LMHP, as part of the independent certification
 team, determines that the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
 LMHP shall refer the individual to an appropriate Medicaid-enrolled crisis
 intervention provider, crisis stabilization provider, or inpatient psychiatric
 provider in accordance with 12VAC30-50-226 or shall refer the individual for
 emergency admission to a PRTF or therapeutic group home under subdivision 4 m
 of this subsection and shall also alert the individual's managed care
 organization. 
 
 l. For individuals who are already eligible for Medicaid at
 the time of admission, the independent certification team shall be a
 DMAS-authorized contractor with competence in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental illness, preferably in child psychiatry, and have knowledge of the
 individual's situation and service availability in the individual's local
 service area. The team shall be composed of at least one physician and one
 LMHP, including LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP. An individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative shall be included in the certification process.
 
 m. For emergency admissions, an assessment must be made by
 the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 Reimbursement shall only occur when a certificate of need is issued by the team
 responsible for the CIPOC within 14 calendar days after admission. The
 certification shall cover any period of time after admission and before claims
 are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. After processing an emergency
 admission, the therapeutic group home, PRTF, or institution for mental diseases
 (IMD) shall notify the DMAS contractor within five calendar days of the
 individual's status as being under the care of the facility. 
 
 n. For all individuals who apply and become eligible for
 Medicaid while an inpatient in a facility or program, the certification team
 shall refer the case to the DMAS contractor for referral to the local FAPT to
 facilitate care coordination and consideration of educational coverage and
 other supports not covered by DMAS.
 
 o. For individuals who apply and become eligible for
 Medicaid while an inpatient in the facility or program, the certification shall
 be made by the team responsible for the CIPOC and shall cover any period of
 time before the application for Medicaid eligibility for which claims are made
 for reimbursement by Medicaid. Upon the individual's enrollment into the
 Medicaid program, the therapeutic group home, PRTF, or IMD shall notify the
 DMAS contractor of the individual's status as being under the care of the
 facility within five calendar days of the individual becoming eligible for
 Medicaid benefits.
 
 5. Service authorization requirements applicable to both
 therapeutic group homes and PRTFs: 
 
 a. Authorization shall be required and shall be conducted
 by DMAS using medical necessity criteria specified in this subsection. 
 
 b. An individual shall have a valid psychiatric diagnosis
 and meet the medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to
 satisfy the criteria for admission. The diagnosis shall be current, as
 documented within the past 12 months. If a current diagnosis is not available,
 the individual will require a mental health evaluation prior to admission by an
 LMHP affiliated with the independent certification team to establish a
 diagnosis and recommend and coordinate referral to the available treatment
 options.
 
 c. At authorization, an initial length of stay shall be
 agreed upon by the individual and parent or legally authorized representative
 with the treating provider, and the treating provider shall be responsible for
 evaluating and documenting evidence of treatment progress, assessing the need
 for ongoing out-of-home placement, and obtaining authorization for continued
 stay.
 
 d. Information that is required to obtain authorization for
 these services shall include: 
 
 (1) A completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by DMAS; 
 
 (2) A certificate of need completed by an independent
 certification team specifying all of the following: 
 
 (a) The ambulatory care and Medicaid or FAPT-funded
 services available in the community do not meet the specific treatment needs of
 the individual; 
 
 (b) Alternative community-based care was not successful; 
 
 (c) Proper treatment of the individual's psychiatric
 condition requires services in a 24-hour supervised setting under the direction
 of a physician; and 
 
 (d) The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 individual's condition or prevent further regression so that a more intensive
 level of care will not be needed;
 
 (3) Diagnosis as defined in the DSM-5 and based on (i) an
 evaluation by a psychiatrist or LMHP that has been completed within 30 calendar
 days of admission or (ii) a diagnosis confirmed in writing by an LMHP after
 review of a previous evaluation completed within one year of admission;
 
 (4) A description of the individual's behavior during the
 seven calendar days immediately prior to admission;
 
 (5) A description of alternate placements and community
 mental health and rehabilitation services and traditional behavioral health
 services pursued and attempted and the outcomes of each service;
 
 (6) The individual's level of functioning and clinical
 stability;
 
 (7) The level of family involvement and supports available;
 and
 
 (8) The initial plan of care (IPOC).
 
 6. Continued stay criteria requirements applicable to both
 therapeutic group homes and PRTFs. For a continued stay authorization or a
 reauthorization to occur, the individual shall meet the medical necessity
 criteria as defined in this subsection to satisfy the criteria for continuing
 care. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by DMAS. A current
 plan of care and a current (within 30 calendar days) summary of progress
 related to the goals and objectives of the plan of care shall be submitted to
 DMAS for continuation of the service. The service provider shall also submit:
 
 a. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
 than 30 business days prior to the date of submission; 
 
 b. Documentation that the required services have been
 provided as defined in the plan of care; 
 
 c. Current (within the last 14 calendar days) information
 on progress related to the achievement of all treatment and discharge-related
 goals; and 
 
 d. A description of the individual's continued impairment
 and treatment needs, problem behaviors, family engagement activities,
 community-based discharge planning and care coordination, and need for a
 residential level of care. 
 
 7. EPSDT services requirements applicable to therapeutic
 group homes and PRTFs. Service limits may be exceeded based on medical
 necessity for individuals eligible for EPSDT. EPSDT services may involve
 service modalities not available to other individuals, such as applied
 behavioral analysis and neuro-rehabilitative services. Individualized services
 to address specific clinical needs identified in an EPSDT screening shall
 require authorization by a DMAS contractor. In unique EPSDT cases, DMAS may
 authorize specialized services beyond the standard therapeutic group home or
 PRTF medical necessity criteria and program requirements, as medically and
 clinically indicated to ensure the most appropriate treatment is available to
 each individual. Treating service providers authorized to deliver medically
 necessary EPSDT services in therapeutic group homes and PRTFs on behalf of a
 Medicaid-enrolled individual shall adhere to the individualized interventions
 and evidence-based progress measurement criteria described in the plan of care
 and approved for reimbursement by DMAS. All documentation, independent
 certification team, family engagement activity, therapeutic pass, and discharge
 planning requirements shall apply to cases approved as EPSDT PRTF or
 therapeutic group home service.
 
 8. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age for medically necessary stays in
 inpatient psychiatric facilities described in 42 CFR 440.160(b)(1) and (b)(2)
 for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral
 disorders identified under EPSDT when such services meet the requirements set
 forth in subdivision 7 of this subsection.
 
 a. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be provided under
 the direction of a physician. 
 
 b. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be provided by (i)
 a psychiatric hospital that undergoes a state survey to determine whether the
 hospital meets the requirements for participation in Medicare as a psychiatric
 hospital as specified in 42 CFR 482.60 or is accredited by a national
 organization whose psychiatric hospital accrediting program has been approved
 by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS); or (ii) a hospital
 with an inpatient psychiatric program that undergoes a state survey to
 determine whether the hospital meets the requirements for participation in
 Medicare as a hospital, as specified in 42 CFR part 482 or is accredited by a
 national accrediting organization whose hospital accrediting program has been
 approved by CMS.
 
 c. Inpatient psychiatric admissions at general acute care
 hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to the
 requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25.
 
 d. PRTF services are reimbursable only when the treatment
 program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically
 42 CFR 441.151(a) and 42 CFR 441.151 (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR
 441.156 and (ii) the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G.
 Each admission must be service authorized and the treatment must meet DMAS
 requirements for clinical necessity.
 
 e. The inpatient psychiatric benefit for individuals
 younger than 21 years of age shall include services that are provided pursuant
 to a certification of medical necessity and plan of care developed by an
 interdisciplinary team of professionals and shall involve active treatment
 designed to achieve the individual's discharge from inpatient status at the
 earliest possible time. The inpatient psychiatric benefit shall include
 services provided under arrangement furnished by Medicaid enrolled providers
 other than the inpatient psychiatric facility, as long as the inpatient
 psychiatric facility (i) arranges for and oversees the provision of all
 services, (ii) maintains all medical records of care furnished to the
 individual, and (iii) ensures that the services are furnished under the
 direction of a physician. Services provided under arrangement shall be
 documented by a written referral from the inpatient psychiatric facility. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the inpatient psychiatric facility who is licensed to prescribe
 drugs shall be considered the referral. 
 
 f. State freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order pharmacy services
 and emergency services. Private freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall
 arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order the
 following services: (i) medical and psychological services including those
 furnished by physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other
 licensed or certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists,
 respiratory therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii)
 outpatient hospital services; (iii) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and
 therapy for individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (iv)
 laboratory and radiology services; (v) vision services; (vi) dental, oral
 surgery, and orthodontic services; (vii) nonemergency transportation services;
 and (viii) emergency services. (Emergency services means the same as is set
 forth in 12VAC30-50-310 B.)
 
 f. E. Mental health family support partners.
 
 (1) 1. Mental health family support partners are
 peer recovery support services and are nonclinical, peer-to-peer activities
 that engage, educate, and support the caregiver and an individual's self-help
 efforts to improve health recovery resiliency and wellness. Mental health
 family support partners is a peer support service and is a strength-based,
 individualized service provided to the caregiver of a Medicaid-eligible
 individual younger than 21 years of age with a mental health disorder that is
 the focus of support. The services provided to the caregiver and individual
 must be directed exclusively toward the benefit of the Medicaid-eligible
 individual. Services are expected to improve outcomes for individuals younger
 than 21 years of age with complex needs who are involved with multiple systems
 and increase the individual's and family's confidence and capacity to manage
 their own services and supports while promoting recovery and healthy
 relationships. These services are rendered by a PRS who is (i) a parent of a
 minor or adult child with a similar mental health disorder or (ii) an adult
 with personal experience with a family member with a similar mental health
 disorder with experience navigating behavioral health care services. The PRS
 shall perform the service within the scope of his knowledge, lived experience,
 and education.
 
 (2) 2. Under the clinical oversight of the LMHP
 making the recommendation for mental health family support partners, the peer
 recovery specialist in consultation with his direct supervisor shall develop a
 recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan based on the LMHP's recommendation for
 service, the individual's and the caregiver's perceived recovery needs, and any
 clinical assessments or service specific provider intakes as defined in this
 section within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service. Development of
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall include collaboration with
 the individual and the individual's caregiver. Individualized goals and
 strategies shall be focused on the individual's identified needs for
 self-advocacy and recovery. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall
 also include documentation of how many days per week and how many hours per
 week are required to carry out the services in order to meet the goals of the
 plan. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall be completed, signed,
 and dated by the LMHP, the PRS, the direct supervisor, the individual, and the
 individual's caregiver within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service.
 The PRS shall act as an advocate for the individual, encouraging the individual
 and the caregiver to take a proactive role in developing and updating goals and
 objectives in the individualized recovery planning.
 
 (3) 3. Documentation of required activities
 shall be required as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5200 A, C, and E through J.
 
 (4) 4. Limitations and exclusions to service
 delivery shall be the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5210. 
 
 (5) 5. Caregivers of individuals younger than 21
 years of age who qualify to receive mental health family support partners shall
 (i) care for an individual with a mental health disorder who requires recovery
 assistance and (ii) meet two or more of the following:
 
 (a) a. Individual and his caregiver need
 peer-based recovery-oriented services for the maintenance of wellness and the
 acquisition of skills needed to support the individual. 
 
 (b) b. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance to develop self-advocacy skills to assist the individual in
 achieving self-management of the individual's health status. 
 
 (c) c. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance and support to prepare the individual for a successful work or
 school experience. 
 
 (d) d. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance to help the individual and caregiver assume responsibility for
 recovery.
 
 (6) 6. Individuals 18 through, 19, and
 20 years of age who meet the medical necessity criteria in 12VAC30-50-226 B 7
 e, who would benefit from receiving peer supports directly and who choose to
 receive mental health peer support services directly instead of through their
 caregiver, shall be permitted to receive mental health peer support services by
 an appropriate PRS.
 
 (7) 7. To qualify for continued mental health
 family support partners, medical necessity criteria shall continue to be met,
 and progress notes shall document the status of progress relative to the goals
 identified in the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 (8) 8. Discharge criteria from mental health
 family support partners shall be the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5180 E.
 
 (9) 9. Mental health family support partners
 services shall be rendered on an individual basis or in a group.
 
 (10) 10. Prior to service initiation, a
 documented recommendation for mental health family support partners services shall
 be made by a licensed mental health professional (LMHP) who is acting within
 his scope of practice under state law. The recommendation shall verify that the
 individual meets the medical necessity criteria set forth in subdivision 5 of
 this subsection. The recommendation shall be valid for no longer than 30
 calendar days.
 
 (11) 11. Effective July 1, 2017, a peer recovery
 specialist shall have the qualifications, education, experience, and
 certification required by DBHDS in order to be eligible to register with the
 Virginia Board of Counseling on or after July 1, 2018. Upon the promulgation of
 regulations by the Board of Counseling, registration of peer recovery
 specialists by the Board of Counseling shall be required. The PRS shall perform
 mental health family support partners services under the oversight of the LMHP
 making the recommendation for services and providing the clinical oversight of
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 (12) 12. The PRS shall be employed by or have a
 contractual relationship with the enrolled provider licensed for one of the
 following: 
 
 (a) a. Acute care general and emergency
 department hospital services licensed by the Department of Health. 
 
 (b) b. Freestanding psychiatric hospital and
 inpatient psychiatric unit licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services.
 
 (c) c. Psychiatric residential treatment
 facility licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services.
 
 (d) d. Therapeutic group home licensed by the
 Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (e) e. Outpatient mental health clinic services
 licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (f) f. Outpatient psychiatric services provider.
 
 (g) g. A community mental health and rehabilitative
 services provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services as a provider of one of the following community mental
 health and rehabilitative services as defined in this section, 12VAC30-50-226,
 12VAC30-50-420, or 12VAC30-50-430 for which the individual younger than 21
 years meets medical necessity criteria: (i) intensive in home; (ii)
 therapeutic day treatment; (iii) day treatment or partial hospitalization; (iv)
 crisis intervention; (v) crisis stabilization; (vi) mental health skill
 building; or (vii) mental health case management.
 
 (13) 13. Only the licensed and enrolled provider
 as referenced in subdivision 5 f (12) 12 of this subsection shall
 be eligible to bill and receive reimbursement from DMAS or its contractor
 for mental health family support partner services. Payments shall not be
 permitted to providers that fail to enter into an enrollment agreement with
 DMAS or its contractor. Reimbursement shall be subject to retraction for
 any billed service that is determined not to be in compliance with DMAS
 requirements.
 
 (14) 14. Supervision of the PRS shall meet the
 requirements set forth in 12VAC30-50-226 B 7 l.
 
 6. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than age 21 for medically necessary stays in inpatient
 psychiatric facilities described in 42 CFR 440.160(b)(1) and (b)(2) for the
 purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders
 identified under EPSDT when such services are rendered by: (i) a psychiatric hospital
 or an inpatient psychiatric program in a hospital accredited by the Joint
 Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations or (ii) a psychiatric
 facility that is accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
 Healthcare Organizations or the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation
 Facilities. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general acute care
 hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to the
 requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient
 psychiatric admissions to residential treatment facilities shall also be
 subject to the requirements of Part XIV (12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount,
 Duration and Scope of Selected Services. 
 
 a. The inpatient psychiatric services benefit for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age shall include services defined at 42
 CFR 440.160 that are provided under the direction of a physician pursuant to a
 certification of medical necessity and plan of care developed by an
 interdisciplinary team of professionals and shall involve active
 treatment designed to achieve the child's discharge from inpatient status at
 the earliest possible time. The inpatient psychiatric services benefit shall
 include services provided under arrangement furnished by Medicaid enrolled
 providers other than the inpatient psychiatric facility, as long as the
 inpatient psychiatric facility (i) arranges for and oversees the provision of
 all services, (ii) maintains all medical records of care furnished to the
 individual, and (iii) ensures that the services are furnished under the
 direction of a physician. Services provided under arrangement shall be
 documented by a written referral from the inpatient psychiatric facility. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the facility who is licensed to prescribe drugs shall be
 considered the referral. 
 
 b. Eligible services provided under arrangement with the
 inpatient psychiatric facility shall vary by provider type as described in this
 subsection. For purposes of this section, emergency services means the same as
 is set out in 12VAC30-50-310 B.
 
 (1) State freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these services: (i)
 pharmacy services and (ii) emergency services.
 
 (2) Private freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall
 arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these
 services: (i) medical and psychological services including those furnished by
 physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other licensed or
 certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists, respiratory
 therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii) outpatient
 hospital services; (iii) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and therapy
 for individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (iv)
 laboratory and radiology services; (v) vision services; (vi) dental, oral
 surgery, and orthodontic services; (vii) transportation services; and (viii) emergency
 services. 
 
 (3) Residential treatment facilities, as defined at 42 CFR
 483.352, shall arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians
 order these services: (i) medical and psychological services, including those
 furnished by physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other
 licensed or certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists,
 respiratory therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii)
 pharmacy services; (iii) outpatient hospital services; (iv) physical therapy,
 occupational therapy, and therapy for individuals with speech, hearing, or
 language disorders; (v) laboratory and radiology services; (vi) durable medical
 equipment; (vii) vision services; (viii) dental, oral surgery, and orthodontic
 services; (ix) transportation services; and (x) emergency services. 
 
 c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only
 when the treatment program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441
 Subpart D, specifically 42 CFR 441.151(a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42
 CFR 441.156, and (ii) the conditions of participation in 42 CFR Part 483
 Subpart G. Each admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet
 DMAS requirements for clinical necessity.
 
 d. Service limits may be exceeded based on medical
 necessity for individuals eligible for EPSDT.
 
 7. F. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when
 provided by practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or dealing
 in hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
 
 8. G. Addiction and recovery treatment services
 shall be covered under EPSDT consistent with 12VAC30-130-5000 et seq.
 
 9. H. Services facilitators shall be required
 for all consumer-directed personal care services consistent with the
 requirements set out in 12VAC30-120-935. 
 
 10. I. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age. 
 
 a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
 when used in this subsection shall have the following meanings unless the
 context clearly indicates otherwise:
 
 "Behavioral therapy" means systematic interventions
 provided by licensed practitioners acting within the scope of practice defined
 under a Virginia Department of Health Professions regulatory board and covered
 as remedial care under 42 CFR 440.130(d) to individuals younger than 21 years
 of age. Behavioral therapy includes applied behavioral analysis. Family
 training related to the implementation of the behavioral therapy shall be included
 as part of the behavioral therapy service. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 subject to clinical reviews and determined as medically necessary. Behavioral
 therapy may be provided in the individual's home and community settings as
 deemed by DMAS or its contractor as medically necessary treatment.
 
 "Counseling" means a professional mental health
 service that can only be provided by a person holding a license issued by a
 health regulatory board at the Department of Health Professions, which includes
 conducting assessments, making diagnoses of mental disorders and conditions,
 establishing treatment plans, and determining treatment interventions. 
 
 "Individual" means the child or adolescent younger
 than 21 years of age who is receiving behavioral therapy services.
 
 "Primary care provider" means a licensed medical
 practitioner who provides preventive and primary health care and is responsible
 for providing routine EPSDT screening and referral and coordination of other
 medical services needed by the individual.
 
 b. 2. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 designed to enhance communication skills and decrease maladaptive patterns of
 behavior, which if left untreated, could lead to more complex problems and the
 need for a greater or a more intensive level of care. The service goal shall be
 to ensure the individual's family or caregiver is trained to effectively manage
 the individual's behavior in the home using modification strategies. All
 services shall be provided in accordance with the ISP and clinical assessment summary.
 
 c. 3. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 covered when recommended by the individual's primary care provider or other
 licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or licensed nurse
 practitioner and determined by DMAS or its contractor to be medically
 necessary to correct or ameliorate significant impairments in major life
 activities that have resulted from either developmental, behavioral, or mental
 disabilities. Criteria for medical necessity are set out in 12VAC30-60-61 H
 F. Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the onset of
 these services in order to receive authorization for reimbursement. Individual
 service plans (ISPs) shall be required throughout the entire duration of
 services. The services shall be provided in accordance with the individual
 service plan and clinical assessment summary. These services shall be provided
 in settings that are natural or normal for a child or adolescent without a
 disability, such as the individual's home, unless there is justification in the
 ISP, which has been authorized for reimbursement, to include service settings
 that promote a generalization of behaviors across different settings to
 maintain the targeted functioning outside of the treatment setting in the
 individual's home and the larger community within which the individual resides.
 Covered behavioral therapy services shall include:
 
 (1) a. Initial and periodic service-specific
 provider intake as defined in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (2) b. Development of initial and updated ISPs
 as established in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (3) c. Clinical supervision activities.
 Requirements for clinical supervision are set out in 12VAC30-60-61 H F;
 
 (4) d. Behavioral training to increase the
 individual's adaptive functioning and communication skills; 
 
 (5) e. Training a family member in behavioral
 modification methods as established in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (6) f. Documentation and analysis of
 quantifiable behavioral data related to the treatment objectives; and
 
 (7) g. Care coordination.
 
 C. J. School health services.
 
 1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
 July 1, 2006.
 
 2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
 services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
 otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
 services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
 receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
 providers.
 
 a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
 receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
 reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
 
 b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
 individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
 service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
 services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
 illnesses or conditions.
 
 3. Providers shall be licensed under the applicable state
 practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department of
 Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part 440.
 Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions, and services
 necessary to correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners
 qualified to make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice,
 either as a member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the
 IEP team.
 
 a. Providers shall be employed by the school division or under
 contract to the school division. 
 
 b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in
 subdivision 4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal
 regulations and consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider
 manuals. 
 
 c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
 shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the
 community from other providers.
 
 d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
 control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456. 
 
 e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
 described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
 the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
 Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
 providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
 determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
 described as to the amount, duration and scope. 
 
 4. Covered services include:
 
 a. Physical therapy, and occupational therapy
 and services for individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders,
 performed by, or under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications
 set forth at 42 CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
 
 b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR
 440.60. These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing
 standards and criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are
 to be provided by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but
 may be delegated by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the
 regulations of the Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on
 delegation of nursing tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is
 under the supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 (1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
 level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
 implementation, and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing
 services when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical
 nurse. These skilled nursing services shall include dressing changes,
 maintaining patent airways, medication administration/monitoring administration
 or monitoring, and urinary catheterizations. 
 
 (2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and
 specifically related to an active, written plan of care developed by a
 registered nurse that is based on a written order from a physician, physician
 assistant, or nurse practitioner for skilled nursing services. This
 order shall be recertified on an annual basis. 
 
 c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
 licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
 or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
 medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient services
 include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy coverage,
 and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and neuropsychological testing
 are allowed when done for purposes other than educational diagnosis, school
 admission, evaluation of an individual with intellectual or developmental
 disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any placement issue.
 These services are covered in the nonschool settings also. School providers who
 may render these services when licensed by the state include psychiatrists,
 licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists, licensed clinical social
 workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical nurse specialists,
 marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
 
 d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
 440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
 care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
 professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner
 professional develops a written plan for meeting the needs of the child
 individual, which is implemented by the assistant. The assistant must
 have qualifications comparable to those for other personal care aides
 recognized by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance Services. The
 assistant performs services such as assisting with toileting, ambulation, and
 eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a specially adapted school
 vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
 provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
 the IEP. Children Individuals requiring an aide during
 transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
 IEP.
 
 e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
 services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
 440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
 physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
 identify the nature or extent of a child's an individual's
 medical or other health related condition. 
 
 f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
 431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D (12VAC30-50-530).
 Transportation shall be rendered only by school division personnel or
 contractors. Transportation is covered for a child an individual
 who requires transportation on a specially adapted school vehicle that enables
 transportation to or from the school or school contracted provider on days when
 the student individual is receiving a Medicaid-covered service
 under the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's individual's
 IEP. Children Individuals requiring an aide during transportation
 on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the IEP. 
 
 g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
 the need for medical services in a child's an individual's IEP
 and shall be performed by any of the above licensed practitioners within the
 scope of practice. Assessments and reassessments not tied to medical needs of
 the child individual shall not be covered.
 
 5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
 duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
 responsibility to ensure that if a child an individual is
 receiving additional therapy outside of the school, that there will be
 coordination of services to avoid duplication of service. 
 
 D. K. Family planning services and supplies for
 individuals of child-bearing age.
 
 1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
 performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
 arts.
 
 2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
 that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
 services to treat infertility or services to promote fertility. Family planning
 services shall not cover payment for abortion services and no funds shall be
 used to perform, assist, encourage, or make direct referrals for abortions.
 
 3. Family planning services as established by § 1905(a)(4)(C)
 of the Social Security Act include annual family planning exams; cervical
 cancer screening for women; sexually transmitted infection (STI) testing; lab
 services for family planning and STI testing; family planning education,
 counseling, and preconception health; sterilization procedures; nonemergency
 transportation to a family planning service; and U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration approved prescription and over-the-counter contraceptives,
 subject to limits in 12VAC30-50-210.
 
 12VAC30-50-226. Community mental health services.
 
 A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
 indicates otherwise: 
 
 "Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"
 means personal care tasks such as bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring,
 and eating or feeding. An individual's degree of independence in performing
 these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care and service
 needs.
 
 "Affiliated" means any entity or property in which
 a provider or facility has a direct or indirect ownership interest of 5.0% or
 more, or any management, partnership, or control of an entity.
 
 "Behavioral health service" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Behavioral health services administrator" or
 "BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
 benefits program under contract with DMAS. DMAS' designated BHSA shall be
 authorized to constitute, oversee, enroll, and train a provider network;
 perform service authorization; adjudicate claims; process claims; gather and
 maintain data; reimburse providers; perform quality assessment and improvement;
 conduct member outreach and education; resolve member and provider issues; and
 perform utilization management including care coordination for the provision of
 Medicaid-covered behavioral health services. Such authority shall include
 entering into or terminating contracts with providers in accordance with DMAS
 authority pursuant to 42 CFR Part 1002 and § 32.1-325 D and E of the Code
 of Virginia. DMAS shall retain authority for and oversight of the BHSA entity
 or entities.
 
 "Certified prescreener" means an employee of either
 the local community services board/behavioral board or behavioral
 health authority or its designee who is skilled in the assessment and treatment
 of mental illness and who has completed a certification program approved by
 DBHDS. 
 
 "Clinical experience" means, for the purpose of
 rendering (i) mental health day treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii)
 intensive community treatment, (iii) psychosocial rehabilitation, (iv) mental
 health skill building, (v) crisis stabilization, or (vi) crisis intervention
 services, practical experience in providing direct services to individuals with
 diagnoses of mental illness or intellectual disability or the provision of
 direct geriatric services or special education services. Experience shall
 include supervised internships, supervised practicums, or supervised field
 experience. Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
 practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
 hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be
 established by DBHDS in the document titled Human Services and Related Fields
 Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
 
 "Code" means the Code of Virginia. 
 
 "DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
 and Developmental Services consistent with Chapter 3 (§ 37.2-300 et seq.)
 of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Direct supervisor" means the person who provides
 direct supervision to the peer recovery specialist. The direct supervisor (i)
 shall have two consecutive years of documented practical experience rendering
 peer support services or family support services, have certification training
 as a PRS under a certifying body approved by DBHDS, and have documented
 completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; (ii) shall be a qualified
 mental health professional (QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E) as defined in
 12VAC35-105-20 with at least two consecutive years of documented experience as
 a QMHP, and who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training;
 or (iii) shall be an LMHP who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS
 supervisor training who is acting within his scope of practice under state law.
 An LMHP providing services before April 1, 2018, shall have until April 1,
 2018, to complete the DBHDS PRS supervisor training.
 
 "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services and its contractor or contractors consistent with Chapter 10 (§
 32.1-323 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 "DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
 of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association.
 
 "Human services field" means the same as the term
 is defined by DBHDS the Department of Health Professions in the
 guidance document entitled Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013. Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018.
 
 "Individual" means the patient, client, or
 recipient of services described in this section. 
 
 "Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
 a comprehensive and regularly updated treatment plan specific to the
 individual's unique treatment needs as identified in the service-specific
 provider intake. The ISP contains, but is not limited to, the individual's
 treatment or training needs, the individual's goals and measurable objectives
 to meet the identified needs, services to be provided with the recommended
 frequency to accomplish the measurable goals and objectives, the estimated
 timetable for achieving the goals and objectives, and an individualized
 discharge plan that describes transition to other appropriate services. The
 individual shall be included in the development of the ISP and the ISP shall be
 signed by the individual. If the individual is a minor child, the ISP
 shall also be signed by the individual's parent/legal parent or legal
 guardian. Documentation shall be provided if the individual, who is a minor
 child or an adult who lacks legal capacity, is unable or unwilling to sign the
 ISP.
 
 "Individualized training" means instruction and
 practice in functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
 individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living skills,
 and use of community resources; assistance with medical management; and
 monitoring health, nutrition, and physical condition. The training shall be
 rehabilitative and based on a variety of incremental (or cumulative) approaches
 or tools to organize and guide the individual's life planning and shall reflect
 what is important to the individual in addition to all other factors that
 affect his the individual's functioning, including effects of the
 disability and issues of health and safety.
 
 "Licensed mental health professional" or
 "LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the
 same as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
 professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
 therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
 practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
 practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
 "Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
 signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-resident in psychology" or
 "LMHP-RP" means the same as an individual in a residency, as that
 term is defined in 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An
 LMHP-resident in psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65
 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Psychology. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services
 provided by such residents, they shall use the title "Resident in
 Psychology" after their signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
 "LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
 "supervisee" is defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
 social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
 compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
 18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be considered
 a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at
 a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Social Work.
 For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for services
 provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title "Supervisee in
 Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "Peer recovery specialist" or "PRS" means
 the same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Person centered" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-adult" or
 "QMHP-A" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-child" or
 "QMHP-C" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
 "QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in
 12VAC35-105-20, including a "QMHP-trainee" as defined by the
 Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
 "QPPMH" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Recovery-oriented services" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160. 
 
 "Recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Register" or "registration" means
 notifying DMAS or its contractor that an individual will be receiving services
 that do not require service authorization.
 
 "Resiliency" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Review of ISP" means that the provider evaluates
 and updates the individual's progress toward meeting the individualized service
 plan objectives and documents the outcome of this review. For DMAS to determine
 that these reviews are satisfactory and complete, the reviews shall (i) update
 the goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP to reflect any change in the
 individual's progress and treatment needs as well as any newly identified
 problems; (ii) be conducted in a manner that enables the individual to
 participate in the process; and (iii) be documented in the individual's medical
 record no later than 15 calendar days from the date of the review. 
 
 "Self-advocacy" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Service authorization" means the process to
 approve specific services for an enrolled Medicaid, FAMIS Plus, or FAMIS
 individual by a DMAS service authorization contractor prior to service delivery
 and reimbursement in order to validate that the service requested is medically
 necessary and meets DMAS and DMAS contractor criteria for reimbursement.
 Service authorization does not guarantee payment for the service.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the same
 as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 and also includes individuals who are older than
 21 years of age.
 
 "Strength-based" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Supervision" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 B. Mental health services. The following services, with their
 definitions, shall be covered: day treatment/partial hospitalization,
 psychosocial rehabilitation, crisis services, intensive community treatment
 (ICT), and mental health skill building. Staff travel time shall not be
 included in billable time for reimbursement. These services, in order to be
 covered, shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by
 LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and are reflected
 in provider records and on providers' claims for services by recognized
 diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested professional
 services. These services are intended to be delivered in a person-centered
 person centered manner. The individuals who are receiving these services
 shall be included in all service planning activities. All services which do not
 require service authorization require registration. This registration shall
 transmit service-specific information to DMAS or its contractor in accordance
 with service authorization requirements. 
 
 1. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
 provided in sessions of two or more consecutive hours per day, which may be
 scheduled multiple times per week, to groups of individuals in a nonresidential
 setting. These services, limited annually to 780 units, include the major
 diagnostic, medical, psychiatric, psychosocial, and psychoeducational treatment
 modalities designed for individuals who require coordinated, intensive,
 comprehensive, and multidisciplinary treatment but who do not require inpatient
 treatment. One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two but less
 than four hours on a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as at
 least four but less than seven hours in a given day. Three units of service
 shall be defined as seven or more hours in a given day. Authorization is
 required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 a. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
 time limited interventions that are more intensive than outpatient services and
 are required to stabilize an individual's psychiatric condition. The services
 are delivered when the individual is at risk of psychiatric hospitalization or
 is transitioning from a psychiatric hospitalization to the community. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual is at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization or is transitioning from a psychiatric
 hospitalization to the community. 
 
 b. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
 emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
 life activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or homelessness or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that the individual
 requires repeated interventions or monitoring by the mental health, social
 services, or judicial system that have been documented; or
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 c. Individuals shall be discharged from this service when they
 are no longer in an acute psychiatric state and other less intensive services
 may achieve psychiatric stabilization. 
 
 d. Admission and services for time periods longer than 90
 calendar days must be authorized based upon a face-to-face evaluation by a
 physician, psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional
 counselor, licensed clinical social worker, or psychiatric clinical nurse
 specialist. 
 
 e. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 2. Psychosocial rehabilitation shall be provided at least two
 or more hours per day to groups of individuals in a nonresidential setting.
 These services, limited annually to 936 units, include assessment, education to
 teach the patient about the diagnosed mental illness and appropriate
 medications to avoid complication and relapse, and opportunities to learn and
 use independent living skills and to enhance social and interpersonal skills
 within a supportive and normalizing program structure and environment. One unit
 of service is defined as a minimum of two but less than four hours on a given
 day. Two units are defined as at least four but less than seven hours in a
 given day. Three units of service shall be defined as seven or more hours in a
 given day. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service.
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
 emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
 life activities. Services are provided to individuals: (i) who without
 these services would be unable to remain in the community or (ii) who meet at
 least two of the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that repeated
 interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
 behavior. 
 
 b. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 3. Crisis intervention shall provide immediate mental health
 care, available 24 hours a day, seven days per week, to assist individuals who
 are experiencing acute psychiatric dysfunction requiring immediate clinical
 attention. This service's objectives shall be to prevent exacerbation of a
 condition, to prevent injury to the client or others, and to provide treatment
 in the context of the least restrictive setting. Crisis intervention activities
 shall include assessing the crisis situation, providing short-term counseling
 designed to stabilize the individual, providing access to further immediate
 assessment and follow-up, and linking the individual and family with ongoing
 care to prevent future crises. Crisis intervention services may include office
 visits, home visits, preadmission screenings, telephone contacts, and other
 client-related activities for the prevention of institutionalization. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. The provision of this service to an individual shall be
 registered with either DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA within one
 business day or the completion of the service-specific provider intake to avoid
 duplication of services and to ensure informed care coordination. 
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
 psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
 hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 at the time of admission to the service:
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
 interventions documented by mental health, social services, or the judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
 behavior. 
 
 b. The annual limit for crisis intervention is 720 units per
 year. A unit shall equal 15 minutes. 
 
 c. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, an
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, or a certified prescreener.
 
 4. Intensive community treatment (ICT), initially covered for
 a maximum of 26 weeks based on an initial service-specific provider intake and
 may be reauthorized for up to an additional 26 weeks annually based on written
 intake and certification of need by a licensed mental health provider (LMHP),
 shall be defined by 12VAC35-105-20 or LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP and shall
 include medical psychotherapy, psychiatric assessment, medication management,
 and care coordination activities offered to outpatients outside the clinic,
 hospital, or office setting for individuals who are best served in the
 community. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 a. To qualify for ICT, the individual must meet at least one
 of the following criteria: 
 
 (1) The individual must be at high risk for psychiatric
 hospitalization or becoming or remaining homeless due to mental illness or
 require intervention by the mental health or criminal justice system due to
 inappropriate social behavior. 
 
 (2) The individual has a history (three months or more) of a
 need for intensive mental health treatment or treatment for co-occurring
 serious mental illness and substance use disorder and demonstrates a resistance
 to seek out and utilize appropriate treatment options. 
 
 b. A written, service-specific provider intake, as defined at
 12VAC30-50-130, that documents the individual's eligibility and the need for
 this service must be completed prior to the initiation of services. This intake
 must be maintained in the individual's records. 
 
 c. An individual service plan shall be initiated at the time
 of admission and must be fully developed, as defined in this section, within 30
 days of the initiation of services. 
 
 d. The annual unit limit shall be 130 units with a unit
 equaling one hour.
 
 e. These services may only be rendered by a team that meets
 the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
 
 5. Crisis stabilization services for nonhospitalized
 individuals shall provide direct mental health care to individuals experiencing
 an acute psychiatric crisis which may jeopardize their current community living
 situation. Services may be provided for up to a 15-day period per crisis
 episode following a face-to-face service-specific provider intake by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. Only one unit of service shall be
 reimbursed for this intake. The provision of this service to an individual
 shall be registered with either DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA
 within one business day of the completion of the service-specific provider
 intake to avoid duplication of services and to ensure informed care
 coordination. 
 
 a. The goals of crisis stabilization programs shall be to
 avert hospitalization or rehospitalization, provide normative environments with
 a high assurance of safety and security for crisis intervention, stabilize
 individuals in psychiatric crisis, and mobilize the resources of the community
 support system and family members and others for on-going maintenance and
 rehabilitation. The services must be documented in the individual's records as
 having been provided consistent with the ISP in order to receive Medicaid
 reimbursement. 
 
 b. The crisis stabilization program shall provide to
 individuals, as appropriate, psychiatric assessment including medication
 evaluation, treatment planning, symptom and behavior management, and individual
 and group counseling. 
 
 c. This service may be provided in any of the following
 settings, but shall not be limited to: (i) the home of an individual who lives
 with family or other primary caregiver; (ii) the home of an individual who
 lives independently; or (iii) community-based programs licensed by DBHDS to
 provide residential services but which are not institutions for mental disease
 (IMDs). 
 
 d. This service shall not be reimbursed for (i) individuals
 with medical conditions that require hospital care; (ii) individuals with a
 primary diagnosis of substance abuse; or (iii) individuals with psychiatric
 conditions that cannot be managed in the community (i.e., individuals who are
 of imminent danger to themselves or others). 
 
 e. The maximum limit on this service is 60 days annually.
 
 f. Services must be documented through daily progress notes
 and a daily log of times spent in the delivery of services. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
 psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
 hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 at the time of admission to the service: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing and maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that the individual is at
 risk of psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social
 supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
 interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that the
 individual is unable to recognize personal danger or significantly
 inappropriate social behavior. 
 
 g. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E or a certified
 prescreener.
 
 6. Mental health skill-building services (MHSS) shall be
 defined as goal-directed training to enable individuals to achieve and maintain
 community stability and independence in the most appropriate, least restrictive
 environment. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. Services
 that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not be
 reimbursed. These services may be authorized up to six consecutive months as
 long as the individual meets the coverage criteria for this service. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. These services shall provide goal-directed training in the
 following areas in order to be reimbursed by Medicaid or the BHSA DMAS
 contractor: (i) functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
 individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living, and use
 of community resources; (ii) assistance with medication management; and (iii)
 monitoring of health, nutrition, and physical condition with goals towards
 self-monitoring and self-regulation of all of these activities. Providers shall
 be reimbursed only for training activities defined in the ISP and only where
 services meet the service definition, eligibility, and service provision
 criteria and this section. A review of MHSS services by an LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S shall be repeated for all individuals who have received at
 least six months of MHSS to determine the continued need for this service.
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
 behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities. Services are provided to individuals who
 require individualized goal-directed training in order to achieve or maintain
 stability and independence in the community.
 
 b. Individuals ages 21 years of age and older
 shall meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive
 mental health skill-building services:
 
 (1) The individual shall have one of the following as a
 primary mental health diagnosis:
 
 (a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
 the DSM-5;
 
 (b) Major depressive disorder;
 
 (c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
 
 (d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a physician
 has documented specific to the identified individual within the past year and
 that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness; (ii)
 results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii) produces functional
 limitations in the individual's major life activities that are documented in
 the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires individualized training for
 the individual in order to achieve or maintain independent living in the
 community.
 
 (2) The individual shall require individualized goal-directed
 training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic living
 skills, such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical
 health medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and
 personal support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation,
 and the maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use
 of community resources. 
 
 (3) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
 following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
 nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
 or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
 a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) (PRTF)
 as a result of decompensation related to the individual's serious mental
 illness; or (v) a temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation, pursuant to § 37.2-809
 B of the Code of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially
 admitted to services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge
 summaries from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment
 provided, (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the
 name of the treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement.
 Family member statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (4) The individual shall have had a prescription for
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications within the 12
 months prior to the service-specific provider intake date. If a physician or
 other practitioner who is authorized by his license to prescribe medications
 indicates that antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications
 are medically contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain
 medical records signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing
 the contraindication. This documentation shall be maintained in the
 individual's mental health skill-building services record, and the provider
 shall document and describe how the individual will be able to actively
 participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of medication.
 This criterion shall be met upon admission to services and shall not be
 required for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from
 prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii)
 the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
 treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
 statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 c. Individuals aged 18 to 21 years of age shall
 meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive mental
 health skill-building services:
 
 (1) The individual shall not be living in a supervised setting
 as described in § 63.2-905.1 of the Code of Virginia. If the individual is
 transitioning into an independent living situation, MHSS shall only be
 authorized for up to six months prior to the date of transition.
 
 (2) The individual shall have at least one of the following as
 a primary mental health diagnosis.: 
 
 (a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
 the DSM-5;
 
 (b) Major depressive disorder;
 
 (c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
 
 (d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a physician
 has documented specific to the identified individual within the past year and
 that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness or serious
 emotional disturbance; (ii) results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii)
 produces functional limitations in the individual's major life activities that
 are documented in the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires
 individualized training for the individual in order to achieve or maintain
 independent living in the community.
 
 (3) The individual shall require individualized goal-directed
 training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic living skills
 such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical health
 medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and personal
 support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation, and the
 maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use of
 community resources.
 
 (4) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
 following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
 nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
 or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
 a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) as a result
 of decompensation related to the individual's serious mental illness; or (v)
 temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation pursuant to § 37.2-809 B of the Code
 of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to
 services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries
 from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided,
 (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
 treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
 statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (5) The individual shall have had a prescription for
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications, within the 12
 months prior to the assessment date. If a physician or other practitioner who
 is authorized by his license to prescribe medications indicates that
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications are medically
 contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain medical records
 signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing the
 contraindication. This documentation of medication management shall be
 maintained in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. For
 individuals not prescribed antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant
 medications, the provider shall have documentation from the medication
 management physician describing how the individual will be able to actively
 participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of medication.
 This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to services and
 not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from prior
 providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii) the
 dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the treatment
 provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member statements
 shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (6) An independent clinical assessment, established in
 12VAC30-130-3020, shall be completed for the individual.
 
 d. Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
 onset of services and individual service plans (ISPs) shall be required during
 the entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing,
 or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied
 reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are
 set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 e. The yearly limit for mental health skill-building services
 is 520 units. Only direct face-to-face contacts and services to the individual
 shall be reimbursable. One unit is 1 to 2.99 hours per day, and two
 units is 3 to 4.99 hours per day.
 
 f. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH.
 
 g. The provider shall clearly document details of the services
 provided during the entire amount of time billed.
 
 h. The ISP shall not include activities that contradict or
 duplicate those in the treatment plan established by the therapeutic
 group home or assisted living facility. The provider shall coordinate mental
 health skill-building services with the treatment plan established by the group
 home or assisted living facility and shall document all coordination activities
 in the medical record. 
 
 i. Limits and exclusions.
 
 (1) Group Therapeutic group home (Level A or
 B) and assisted living facility providers shall not serve as the mental
 health skill-building services provider for individuals residing in the
 provider's respective facility. Individuals residing in facilities may,
 however, receive MHSS from another MHSS agency not affiliated with the owner of
 the facility in which they reside.
 
 (2) Mental health skill-building services shall not be reimbursed
 for individuals who are receiving in-home residential services or congregate
 residential services through the Intellectual Disability Waiver or Individual
 and Family Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver.
 
 (3) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 reimbursed for individuals who are also receiving services under the Department
 of Social Services independent living program (22VAC40-151), independent living
 services (22VAC40-131 and 22VAC40-151), or independent living arrangement (22VAC40-131)
 or any Comprehensive Services Act-funded independent living skills programs.
 
 (4) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who are receiving treatment foster care
 (12VAC30-130-900 et seq.).
 
 (5) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who reside in intermediate care facilities for
 individuals with intellectual disabilities or hospitals.
 
 (6) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who reside in nursing facilities, except for up to 60
 days prior to discharge. If the individual has not been discharged from the
 nursing facility during the 60-day period of services, mental health
 skill-building services shall be terminated and no further service authorizations
 shall be available to the individual unless a provider can demonstrate and
 document that mental health skill-building services are necessary. Such
 documentation shall include facts demonstrating a change in the individual's
 circumstances and a new plan for discharge requiring up to 60 days of mental
 health skill-building services.
 
 (7) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available for residents of psychiatric residential treatment centers (Level
 C facilities) except for the intake code H0032 (modifier U8) in the seven
 days immediately prior to discharge.
 
 (8) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 reimbursed if personal care services or attendant care services are being
 received simultaneously, unless justification is provided why this is necessary
 in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. Medical
 record documentation shall fully substantiate the need for services when
 personal care or attendant care services are being provided. This applies to
 individuals who are receiving additional services through the Intellectual
 Disability Waiver (12VAC30-120-1000 et seq.), Individual and Family
 Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver (12VAC30-120-700 et seq.), the
 Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction Waiver (12VAC30-120-900 et seq.),
 and EPSDT services (12VAC30-50-130). 
 
 (9) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 duplicative of other services. Providers shall be required to ensure that if an
 individual is receiving additional therapeutic services that there will be
 coordination of services by either the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A,
 QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH to avoid duplication of services.
 
 (10) Individuals who have organic disorders, such as delirium,
 dementia, or other cognitive disorders not elsewhere classified, will be
 prohibited from receiving mental health skill-building services unless their
 physicians issue signed and dated statements indicating that the individuals
 can benefit from this service.
 
 (11) Individuals who are not diagnosed with a serious mental
 health disorder but who have personality disorders or other mental health
 disorders, or both, that may lead to chronic disability shall not be excluded
 from the mental health skill-building services eligibility criteria provided
 that the individual has a primary mental health diagnosis from the list
 included in subdivision B 6 b (1) or B 6 c (2) of this section and that the
 provider can document and describe how the individual is expected to actively
 participate in and benefit from mental health skill-building services.
 
 7. Mental health peer support services.
 
 a. Mental health peer support services are peer recovery
 support services and are nonclinical, peer-to-peer activities that engage,
 educate, and support an individual's self-help efforts to improve health
 recovery, resiliency, and wellness. Mental health peer support services for
 adults is a person centered, strength-based, and recovery-oriented
 rehabilitative service for individuals 21 years of age or older provided
 by a peer recovery specialist successful in the recovery process with lived
 experience with a mental health disorder, who is trained to offer support and
 assistance in helping others in the recovery to reduce the disabling effects of
 a mental health disorder that is the focus of support. Services assist the
 individual with developing and maintaining a path to recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness. Specific peer support service activities shall emphasize the
 acquisition, development, and enhancement of recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness. Services are designed to promote empowerment, self-determination,
 understanding, and coping skills through mentoring and service coordination
 supports, as well as to assist individuals in achieving positive coping
 mechanisms for the stressors and barriers encountered when recovering from
 their illnesses or disorders.
 
 b. Under the clinical oversight of the LMHP making the
 recommendation for mental health support services, the peer recovery specialist
 in consultation with his direct supervisor shall develop a recovery,
 resiliency, and wellness plan based on the LMHP's recommendation for service,
 the individual's perceived recovery needs, and any clinical assessments or
 service specific provider intakes as defined in this section within 30 calendar
 days of the initiation of service. Development of the recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness plan shall include collaboration with the individual. Individualized
 goals and strategies shall be focused on the individual's identified needs for
 self-advocacy and recovery. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall
 also include documentation of how many days per week and how many hours per
 week are required to carry out the services in order to meet the goals of the
 plan. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall be completed, signed,
 and dated by the LMHP, the PRS, the direct supervisor, and the individual
 within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service. The PRS shall act as an
 advocate for the individual, encouraging the individual to take a proactive
 role in developing and updating goals and objectives in the individualized
 recovery planning.
 
 c. Documentation of required activities shall be required as
 set forth in 12VAC30-130-5200 A, C, and E through J.
 
 d. Limitations and exclusions to service delivery shall be the
 same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5210.
 
 e. Individuals 21 years of age or older qualifying for
 mental health peer support services shall meet the following requirements:
 
 (1) Require recovery-oriented assistance and support services
 for the acquisition of skills needed to engage in and maintain recovery; for
 the development of self-advocacy skills to achieve a decreasing dependency on
 formalized treatment systems; and to increase responsibilities, wellness
 potential, and shared accountability for the individual's own recovery. 
 
 (2) Have a documented mental health disorder diagnosis. 
 
 (3) Demonstrate moderate to severe functional impairment
 because of a diagnosis that interferes with or limits performance in at least
 one of the following domains: educational (e.g., obtaining a high school or
 college degree); social (e.g., developing a social support system); vocational
 (e.g., obtaining part-time or full-time employment); self-maintenance (e.g.,
 managing symptoms, understanding his illness, living more independently).
 
 f. To qualify for continued mental health peer support
 services, medical necessity criteria shall continue to be met, and progress
 notes shall document the status of progress relative to the goals identified in
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 g. Discharge criteria from mental health peer support services
 is the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5180 E.
 
 h. Mental health peer support services shall be rendered
 on an individual basis or in a group.
 
 i. Prior to service initiation, a documented recommendation
 for mental health peer support services shall be made by a licensed mental
 health professional acting within the scope of practice under state law The
 recommendation shall verify that the individual meets the medical necessity
 criteria set forth in subdivision 7 e of this subsection. The recommendation
 shall be valid for no longer than 30 calendar days.
 
 j. Effective July 1, 2017, a peer recovery specialist shall
 have the qualifications, education, experience, and certification established
 by DBHDS in order to be eligible to register with the Board of Counseling on or
 after July 1, 2018. Upon the promulgation of regulations by the Board of
 Counseling, registration of peer recovery specialists by the Board of Counseling
 shall be required. The PRS shall perform mental health peer support services
 under the oversight of the LMHP making the recommendation for services and
 providing the clinical oversight of the recovery, resiliency, and wellness
 plan. The PRS shall be employed by or have a contractual relationship with an
 enrolled provider licensed for one of the following:
 
 (1) Acute care general hospital licensed by the Department of
 Health. 
 
 (2) Freestanding psychiatric hospital and inpatient
 psychiatric unit licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services.
 
 (3) Outpatient mental health clinic services licensed by the
 Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (4) Outpatient psychiatric services provider.
 
 (5) Rural health clinics and federally qualified health
 centers.
 
 (6) Hospital emergency department services licensed by the
 Department of Health.
 
 (7) Community mental health and rehabilitative services
 provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services as a provider of one of the following community mental health and
 rehabilitative services defined in this section or 12VAC30-50-420 for which the
 individual meets medical necessity criteria:
 
 (a) Day treatment or partial hospitalization;
 
 (b) Psychosocial rehabilitation;
 
 (c) Crisis intervention;
 
 (d) Intensive community treatment;
 
 (e) Crisis stabilization; 
 
 (f) Mental health skill building; or
 
 (g) Mental health case management.
 
 k. Only the licensed and enrolled provider referenced in
 subdivision 7 j of this subsection shall be eligible to bill mental health peer
 support services. Payments shall not be permitted to providers that fail to
 enter into an enrollment agreement with DMAS or its contractor.
 Reimbursement shall be subject to retraction for any billed service that is
 determined to not to be in compliance with DMAS requirements.
 
 l. Supervision of the PRS shall be required as set forth in
 the definition of "supervision" in 12VAC30-130-5160. Supervision of
 the PRS shall also meet the following requirements: the supervisor shall be
 under the clinical oversight of the LMHP making the recommendation for
 services, and the peer recovery specialist in consultation with his direct
 supervisor shall conduct and document a review of the recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness plan every 90 calendar days with the individual and the caregiver, as
 applicable. The review shall be signed by the PRS and the individual and, as
 applicable, the identified family member or caregiver. Review of the recovery,
 resiliency, and wellness plan means the PRS evaluates and updates the
 individual's progress every 90 days toward meeting the plan's goals and
 documents the outcome of this review in the individual's medical record. For
 DMAS to determine that these reviews are complete, the reviews shall (i) update
 the goals and objectives as needed to reflect any change in the individual's
 recovery as well as any newly identified needs, (ii) be conducted in a manner
 that enables the individual to actively participate in the process, and (iii)
 be documented by the PRS in the individual's medical record no later than 15
 calendar days from the date of the review.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-50) 
 
 Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
 Disorders, Fifth Edition, DSM-5, 2013, American Psychiatric Association
 
 Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,
 1996, HCIA, Inc.
 
 Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,
 American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and
 Gynecologists
 
 Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and
 Addenda
 
 Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
 DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2010, dated March 13, 2014 (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf)
 
 Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
 Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,
 American Society of Addiction Medicine
 
 Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
 (rev. 5/13) 
 
 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted on
 November 3, 2017, revised on February 9, 2018
 
 12VAC30-60-5. Applicability of utilization review requirements.
 
 A. These utilization requirements shall apply to all Medicaid
 covered services unless otherwise specified.
 
 B. Some Medicaid covered services require an approved service
 authorization prior to service delivery in order for reimbursement to occur. 
 
 1. To obtain service authorization, all providers' information
 supplied to the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS), service
 authorization contractor, or the behavioral health service authorization
 contractor or its contractor shall be fully substantiated throughout
 individuals' medical records. 
 
 2. Providers shall be required to maintain documentation
 detailing all relevant information about the Medicaid individuals who are in providers'
 the provider's care. Such documentation shall fully disclose the extent
 of services provided in order to support providers' the provider's
 claims for reimbursement for services rendered. This documentation shall be
 written, signed, and dated at the time the services are rendered unless
 specified otherwise. 
 
 C. DMAS, or its designee contractor, shall
 perform reviews of the utilization of all Medicaid covered services pursuant to
 42 CFR 440.260 and 42 CFR Part 456. 
 
 D. DMAS shall recover expenditures made for covered services
 when providers' documentation does not comport with standards specified in all
 applicable regulations.
 
 E. Providers who are determined not to be in compliance with
 DMAS requirements shall be subject to 12VAC30-80-130 for the repayment of those
 overpayments to DMAS.
 
 F. Utilization review requirements specific to community
 mental health services and residential treatment services, including
 therapeutic group homes and psychiatric residential treatment facilities (PRTFs),
 as set out in 12VAC30-50-130 and 12VAC30-50-226, shall be as follows:
 
 1. To apply to be reimbursed as a Medicaid provider, the
 required Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS)
 license shall be either a full, annual, triennial, or conditional license.
 Providers must be enrolled with DMAS or the BHSA its contractor
 to be reimbursed. Once a health care entity has been enrolled as a provider, it
 shall maintain, and update periodically as DMAS or its contractor
 requires, a current Provider Enrollment Agreement for each Medicaid service
 that the provider offers. 
 
 2. Health care entities with provisional licenses shall not be
 reimbursed as Medicaid providers of community mental health services.
 
 3. Payments shall not be permitted to health care entities
 that either hold provisional licenses or fail to enter into a Medicaid
 Provider Enrollment Agreement provider contract with DMAS or its
 contractor for a service prior to rendering that service.
 
 4. The behavioral health service authorization contractor
 DMAS or its contractor shall apply a national standardized set of
 medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
 InterQual Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by
 DMAS. Services that fail to meet medical necessity criteria shall be denied
 service authorization.
 
 5. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement for services
 provided by staff in residency, the following terms shall be used after their
 signatures to indicate such status:
 
 a. An LMHP-R shall use the term "Resident" after
 his signature.
 
 b. An LMHP-RP shall use the term "Resident in
 Psychology" after his signature.
 
 c. An LMHP-S shall use the term "Supervisee in Social
 Work" after his signature.
 
 12VAC30-60-50. Utilization control: Intermediate Care
 Facilities care facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR)
 persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities and Institutions
 institutions for Mental Disease (IMD) mental disease. 
 
 A. "Institution for mental disease" or
 "IMD" means the same as that term is defined in § 1905(i) of the
 Social Security Act.
 
 B. With respect to each Medicaid-eligible resident in
 an ICF/MR intermediate care facility for persons with intellectual
 and developmental disabilities (ICF/ID) or an IMD in Virginia, a
 written plan of care must be developed prior to admission to or authorization
 of benefits in such facility, and a regular program of independent professional
 review (including a medical evaluation) shall be completed periodically for
 such services. The purpose of the review is to determine: the adequacy of the
 services available to meet his the resident's current health
 needs and promote his the resident's maximum physical well being;
 the necessity and desirability of his the resident's continued
 placement in the facility; and the feasibility of meeting his the
 resident's health care needs through alternative institutional or
 noninstitutional services. Long-term care of residents in such facilities will
 be provided in accordance with federal law that is based on the resident's
 medical and social needs and requirements. 
 
 B. C. With respect to each ICF/MR ICF/ID
 or IMD, periodic on-site onsite inspections of the care being
 provided to each person receiving medical assistance, by one or more
 independent professional review teams (composed of a physician or registered
 nurse and other appropriate health and social service personnel), shall be
 conducted. The review shall include, with respect to each recipient, a
 determination of the adequacy of the services available to meet his the
 resident's current health needs and promote his the resident's
 maximum physical well-being, the necessity and desirability of continued
 placement in the facility, and the feasibility of meeting his the
 resident's health care needs through alternative institutional or
 noninstitutional services. Full reports shall be made to the state agency by
 the review team of the findings of each inspection, together with any
 recommendations. 
 
 C. D. In order for reimbursement to be made to
 a facility for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities, the resident must meet criteria for placement
 in such facility as described in 12VAC30-60-360 and the facility must provide
 active treatment for mental retardation intellectual or developmental
 disabilities. 
 
 D. E. In each case for which payment for
 nursing facility services for the mentally retarded persons with
 intellectual or developmental disabilities or institution for mental
 disease services is made under the State Plan: 
 
 1. A physician must certify for each applicant or recipient
 that inpatient care is needed in a facility for the mentally retarded or an
 institution for mental disease. A certificate of need shall be completed
 by an independent certification team according to the requirements of
 12VAC30-50-130 D 5. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 calendar days
 by a physician, or by a physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within
 their scope of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician.
 The certification must be made at the time of admission or, if an individual
 applies for assistance while in the facility, before the Medicaid agency
 authorizes payment; and 
 
 2. A physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner
 acting within the scope of the practice as defined by state law and under the
 supervision of a physician, must recertify for each applicant at least every 365
 60 calendar days that services are needed in a facility for the
 mentally retarded persons with intellectual and developmental
 disabilities or an institution for mental disease. 
 
 E. F. When a resident no longer meets criteria
 for facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual
 and developmental disabilities or for an institution for mental
 disease, or no longer requires active treatment in a facility for the
 mentally retarded persons with intellectual and developmental
 disabilities then the resident must shall be discharged. 
 
 F. G. All services provided in an IMD and in
 an ICF/MR ICF/ID shall be provided in accordance with guidelines
 found in the Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual. 
 
 H. All services provided in an IMD shall be provided with
 the applicable provider agreement and all documents referenced therein.
 
 I. Psychiatric services in IMDs shall only be covered for
 eligible individuals younger than 21 years of age.
 
 J. IMD services provided without service authorization
 from DMAS or its contractor shall not be covered.
 
 K. Absence of any of the required IMD documentation shall
 result in denial or retraction of reimbursement. 
 
 L. In each case for which payment for IMD services is made
 under the State Plan:
 
 1. A physician shall certify at the time of admission, or
 at the time the IMD is notified of an individual's retroactive eligibility
 status, that the individual requires or required inpatient services in an IMD
 consistent with 42 CFR 456.160.
 
 2. The physician, or physician assistant or nurse
 practitioner acting within the scope of practice as defined by state law and
 under the supervision of a physician, shall recertify at least every 60
 calendar days that the individual continues to require inpatient services in an
 IMD.
 
 3.  Before admission to an IMD or before authorization
 for payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall perform a medical
 evaluation of the individual, and appropriate personnel shall complete a
 psychiatric and social evaluation as described in 42 CFR 456.170.
 
 4. Before admission to an IMD or before authorization for
 payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall establish a written
 plan of care for each individual as described in 42 CFR 441.155 and 42 CFR
 456.180. 
 
 M. It shall be documented that the individual requiring
 admission to an IMD who is younger than 21 years of age, that treatment is
 medically necessary, and that the necessity was identified as a result of an
 independent certification of need team review. Required documentation shall
 include the following:
 
 1. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association, and based on an evaluation by a psychiatrist completed within 30
 calendar days of admission or if the diagnosis is confirmed, in writing, by a
 previous evaluation completed within one year within admission.
 
 2. A certification of the need for services as defined in
 42 CFR 441.152 by an interdisciplinary team meeting the requirements of 42
 CFR 441.153 or 42 CFR 441.156 and the Psychiatric Treatment of Minors Act (§
 16.1-335 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
 
 N. The use of seclusion and restraint in an IMD shall be
 in accordance with 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376. Each use of a
 seclusion or restraint, as defined in 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376,
 shall be reported by the service provider to DMAS or its contractor within one
 calendar day of the incident.
 
 12VAC30-60-61. Services related to the Early and Periodic
 Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT); community mental health and
 behavioral therapy services for children.
 
 A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
 otherwise:
 
 "At risk" means one or more of the following: (i)
 within the two weeks before the intake, the individual shall be screened by an
 LMHP for escalating behaviors that have put either the individual or others at
 immediate risk of physical injury; (ii) the parent/guardian parent or
 guardian is unable to manage the individual's mental, behavioral, or
 emotional problems in the home and is actively, within the past two to four
 weeks, seeking an out-of-home placement; (iii) a representative of either a
 juvenile justice agency, a department of social services (either the state
 agency or local agency), a community services board/behavioral health authority,
 the Department of Education, or an LMHP, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20, and who
 is neither an employee of nor consultant to the intensive in-home (IIH)
 services or therapeutic day treatment (TDT) provider, has recommended an
 out-of-home placement absent an immediate change of behaviors and when
 unsuccessful mental health services are evident; (iv) the individual has a
 history of unsuccessful services (either crisis intervention, crisis
 stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, outpatient substance abuse services,
 or mental health support) within the past 30 calendar days; or
 (v) the treatment team or family assessment planning team (FAPT) recommends IIH
 services or TDT for an individual currently who is either: (a) transitioning
 out of psychiatric residential treatment facility Level C (PRTF)
 services, (b) transitioning out of a therapeutic group home Level A
 or B services, (c) transitioning out of acute psychiatric hospitalization,
 or (d) transitioning between foster homes, mental health case management,
 crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, or
 outpatient substance abuse services. 
 
 "Failed services" or "unsuccessful
 services" means, as measured by ongoing behavioral, mental, or physical
 distress, that the services did not treat or resolve the individual's mental
 health or behavioral issues.
 
 "Individual" means the Medicaid-eligible person
 receiving these services and for the purpose of this section includes children
 from birth up to 12 years of age or and adolescents ages 12
 through 20 years.
 
 "Licensed assistant behavior analyst" means a
 person who has met the licensing requirements of 18VAC85-150 and holds a valid
 license issued by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Licensed behavior analyst" means a person who has
 met the licensing requirements of 18VAC85-150 and holds a valid license issued
 by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "New service" means a community mental health
 rehabilitation service for which the individual does not have a current service
 authorization in effect as of July 17, 2011.
 
 "Out-of-home placement" means placement in one or
 more of the following: (i) either a Level A or Level B therapeutic
 group home; (ii) regular foster home if the individual is currently residing
 with his the individual's biological family and, due to his
 behavior problems, is at risk of being placed in the custody of the local
 department of social services; (iii) treatment foster care if the individual is
 currently residing with his the individual's biological family or
 a regular foster care family and, due to the individual's behavioral problems,
 is at risk of removal to a higher level of care; (iv) Level C psychiatric
 residential treatment facility; (v) emergency shelter for the individual
 only due either to his mental health or behavior or both; (vi) psychiatric
 hospitalization; or (vii) juvenile justice system or incarceration. 
 
 "Progress notes" means individual-specific
 documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
 individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
 contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
 the notes. Individualized progress notes are part of the minimum documentation
 requirements and shall convey the individual's status, staff interventions,
 and, as appropriate, the individual's progress or lack of progress toward goals
 and objectives in the plan of care. The progress notes shall also include, at a
 minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the service rendered, the
 signature and credentials of the person who rendered the service, the setting
 in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time or units required to
 deliver the service. The content of each progress note shall corroborate the
 time or units billed. Progress notes shall be documented for each service that
 is billed.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the
 evaluation that is conducted according to the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services (DMAS) intake definition set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 B. Utilization review requirements for all services in this
 section.
 
 1. The services described in this section shall be rendered
 consistent with the definitions, service limits, and requirements described in
 this section and in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 2. Providers shall be required to refund payments made by
 Medicaid if they fail to maintain adequate documentation to support billed
 activities.
 
 3. Individual service plans (ISPs) shall meet all of the
 requirements set forth in 12VAC30-60-143 B 7.
 
 C. Utilization review of intensive in-home (IIH) services for
 children and adolescents. 
 
 1. The service definition for intensive in-home (IIH) services
 is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 2. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral or emotional
 illness that results in significant functional impairments in major life
 activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
 continuing or intermittent basis to be authorized for these services: 
 
 a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
 interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
 community. 
 
 b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
 repeated interventions by the mental health, social services or judicial system
 are or have been necessary. 
 
 c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 3. Prior to admission, an appropriate service-specific
 provider intake, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, shall be conducted by the
 licensed mental health professional (LMHP), LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or
 LMHP-RP, documenting the individual's diagnosis and describing how service
 needs can best be met through intervention provided typically but not solely in
 the individual's residence. The service-specific provider intake shall describe
 how the individual's clinical needs put the individual at risk of out-of-home
 placement and shall be conducted face-to-face in the individual's residence.
 Claims for services that are based upon service-specific provider intakes that
 are incomplete, outdated (more than 12 months old), or missing shall not be
 reimbursed.
 
 4. An individual service plan (ISP) shall be fully completed,
 signed, and dated by either an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
 QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E and the individual and individual's parent/guardian parent
 or guardian within 30 calendar days of initiation of services. The
 ISP shall meet all of the requirements as defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
 
 5. DMAS shall not reimburse for dates of services in which the
 progress notes are not individualized and child-specific. Duplicated progress
 notes shall not constitute the required child-specific individualized progress
 notes. Each progress note shall demonstrate unique differences particular to
 the individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress. Claim payments shall
 be retracted for services that are supported by documentation that does not
 demonstrate unique differences particular to the individual. 
 
 6. Services shall be directed toward the treatment of the
 eligible individual and delivered primarily in the family's residence with the
 individual present. As clinically indicated, the services may be rendered
 in the community if there is documentation, on that date of service, of the
 necessity of providing services in the community. The documentation shall describe
 how the alternative community service location supports the identified clinical
 needs of the individual and describe how it facilitates the implementation of
 the ISP. For services provided outside of the home, there shall be
 documentation reflecting therapeutic treatment as set forth in the ISP provided
 for that date of service in the appropriately signed and dated progress notes.
 
 7. These services shall be provided when the clinical needs of
 the individual put him the individual at risk for out-of-home
 placement, as these terms are defined in this section:
 
 a. When services that are far more intensive than outpatient
 clinic care are required to stabilize the individual in the family situation,;
 or 
 
 b. When the individual's residence as the setting for services
 is more likely to be successful than a clinic. 
 
 The service-specific provider intake shall describe how the
 individual meets either subdivision 7 a or 7 b of this subdivision
 7 subsection.
 
 8. Services shall not be provided if the individual is no
 longer a resident of the home.
 
 9. Services shall also be used to facilitate the transition to
 home from an out-of-home placement when services more intensive than outpatient
 clinic care are required for the transition to be successful. The individual
 and responsible parent/guardian parent or guardian shall be
 available and in agreement to participate in the transition. 
 
 10. At least one parent/legal parent or legal
 guardian or responsible adult with whom the individual is living must be
 willing to participate in the intensive in-home services with the goal of
 keeping the individual with the family. In the instance of this service, a
 responsible adult shall be an adult who lives in the same household with the
 child and is responsible for engaging in therapy and service-related activities
 to benefit the individual. 
 
 11. The enrolled provider shall be licensed by the Department
 of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) as a provider of
 intensive in-home services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment
 agreement with DMAS or its contractor in effect prior to the delivery of this
 service that indicates that the provider will offer intensive in-home services.
 
 12. Services must only be provided by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. Reimbursement shall
 not be provided for such services when they have been rendered by a QPPMH as
 defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 13. The billing unit for intensive in-home service shall be
 one hour. Although the pattern of service delivery may vary, intensive in-home
 services is an intensive service provided to individuals for whom there is an
 ISP in effect which demonstrates the need for a minimum of three hours a week
 of intensive in-home service, and includes a plan for service provision of a
 minimum of three hours of service delivery per individual/family individual
 or family per week in the initial phase of treatment. It is expected that
 the pattern of service provision may show more intensive services and more
 frequent contact with the individual and family initially with a lessening or
 tapering off of intensity toward the latter weeks of service. Service plans
 shall incorporate an individualized discharge plan that describes transition
 from intensive in-home to less intensive or nonhome based services.
 
 14. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be updated as
 the individual's needs and progress changes and signed by either the parent or
 legal guardian and the individual. Documentation shall be provided if the
 individual, who is a minor child, is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP. If
 there is a lapse in services that is greater than 31 consecutive calendar days
 without any communications from family members/legal members or legal
 guardian or the individual with the provider, the provider shall discharge the
 individual. If the individual continues to need services, then a new intake/admission
 intake or admission shall be documented and a new service authorization
 shall be required.
 
 15. The provider shall ensure that the maximum staff-to-caseload
 ratio fully meets the needs of the individual.
 
 16. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
 management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430,
 the provider shall contact the case manager and provide notification of
 the provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates
 to the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be
 sent to the case manager within 30 calendar days of the service
 discontinuation date. Providers and case managers who are using the same
 electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
 delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
 of the information in the electronic health records. 
 
 17. Emergency assistance shall be available 24 hours per day,
 seven days a week. 
 
 18. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements at
 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines violate these marketing
 requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E. 
 
 19. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or guardian, shall
 inform him the primary care provider of the individual's receipt
 of IIH services. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
 contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
 
 D. Utilization review of therapeutic day treatment for
 children and adolescents. 
 
 1. The service definition for therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
 for children and adolescents is contained in 12VAC30-50-130. 
 
 2. Therapeutic day treatment is appropriate for children and
 adolescents who meet one of the following criteria: 
 
 a. Children and adolescents who require year-round treatment
 in order to sustain behavior or emotional gains. 
 
 b. Children and adolescents whose behavior and emotional
 problems are so severe they cannot be handled in self-contained or resource
 emotionally disturbed (ED) classrooms without: 
 
 (1) This programming during the school day; or 
 
 (2) This programming to supplement the school day or school
 year. 
 
 c. Children and adolescents who would otherwise be placed on
 homebound instruction because of severe emotional/behavior problems that
 interfere with learning. 
 
 d. Children and adolescents who (i) have deficits in social
 skills, peer relations or dealing with authority; (ii) are hyperactive; (iii)
 have poor impulse control; or (iv) are extremely depressed or marginally
 connected with reality. 
 
 e. Children in preschool enrichment and early intervention
 programs when the children's emotional/behavioral emotional or
 behavioral problems are so severe that they the children
 cannot function in these programs without additional services. 
 
 3. The service-specific provider intake shall document the
 individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets these specific
 service criteria in subdivision 2 of this subsection. 
 
 4. Prior to admission to this service, a service-specific
 provider intake shall be conducted by the LMHP as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 5. An ISP shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an
 LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and by the
 individual or the parent/guardian parent or guardian within 30 calendar
 days of initiation of services and shall meet all requirements of an ISP as
 defined in 12VAC30-50-226. Individual progress notes shall be required for each
 contact with the individual and shall meet all of the requirements as defined
 in 12VAC30-50-130 this section.
 
 6. Such services shall not duplicate those services provided
 by the school. 
 
 7. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
 behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities. Individuals shall meet at least two of
 the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
 interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
 community. 
 
 b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
 repeated interventions by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary. 
 
 c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 8. The enrolled provider of therapeutic day treatment for
 child and adolescent services shall be licensed by DBHDS to provide day support
 services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment agreement in
 effect with DMAS prior to the delivery of this service that indicates that the
 provider offers therapeutic day treatment services for children and
 adolescents. 
 
 9. Services shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
 LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. 
 
 10. The minimum staff-to-individual ratio as defined by DBHDS
 licensing requirements shall ensure that adequate staff is available to meet
 the needs of the individual identified on the ISP. 
 
 11. The program shall operate a minimum of two hours per day
 and may offer flexible program hours (i.e., before or after school or during
 the summer). One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two hours but
 less than three hours in a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as
 a minimum of three but less than five hours in a given day. Three units of
 service shall be defined as five or more hours of service in a given day. 
 
 12. Time required for academic instruction when no treatment
 activity is going on shall not be included in the billing unit. 
 
 13. Services shall be provided following a service-specific
 provider intake that is conducted by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
 or LMHP-RP. An LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident shall make and document
 the diagnosis. The service-specific provider intake shall include the elements
 as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 14. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
 management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider
 shall collaborate with the case manager and provide notification of the
 provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to
 the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be sent
 to the case manager within 30 calendar days of the service
 discontinuation date. Providers and case managers using the same electronic
 health record for the individual shall meet requirements for delivery of the
 notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this
 documentation into the electronic health record. 
 
 15. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
 the individual's parent or legal guardian, shall inform the primary care
 provider of the child's the individual's receipt of community
 mental health rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was
 contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. The
 parent/legal parent or legal guardian shall be required to give
 written consent that this provider has permission to inform the primary care
 provider of the child's or adolescent's receipt of community mental health
 rehabilitative services. 
 
 16. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
 set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
 marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E.
 
 17. If there is a lapse in services greater than 31
 consecutive calendar days, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
 individual continues to need services, a new intake/admission intake
 or admission documentation shall be prepared and a new service
 authorization shall be required.
 
 E. Utilization review of community-based services for
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level A). 
 
 1. The staff ratio must be at least one to six during the
 day and at least one to 10 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. The program
 director supervising the program/group home must be, at minimum, a QMHP-C or
 QMHP-E (as defined in 12VAC35-105-20). The program director must be employed
 full time. 
 
 2. In order for Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at
 least 50% of the provider's direct care staff at the group home must meet DBHDS
 paraprofessional staff criteria, defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 3. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 All community-based services for children and adolescents younger than 21
 (Level A) require authorization prior to reimbursement for these services.
 Reimbursement shall not be made for this service when other less intensive
 services may achieve stabilization. 
 
 4. Services must be provided in accordance with an
 individual service plan (ISP), which must be fully completed within 30 days of
 authorization for Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 5. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
 shall be conducted according to DMAS specifications described in
 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 6. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be
 performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 7. If an individual receiving community-based services for
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level A) is also
 receiving case management services, the provider shall collaborate with the
 case manager by notifying the case manager of the provision of Level A services
 and shall send monthly updates on the individual's progress. When the
 individual is discharged from Level A services, a discharge summary shall be
 sent to the case manager within 30 days of the service discontinuation
 date. Providers and case managers who are using the same electronic health
 record for the individual shall meet requirements for the delivery of the
 notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this
 documentation into the electronic health record. 
 
 F. E. Utilization review of therapeutic behavioral
 services group home for children and adolescents younger than 21
 years of age (Level B). 
 
 1. The staff ratio must be at least one to four during the
 day and at least one to eight between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. approved
 by the Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services. The clinical director must shall be a licensed
 mental health professional. The caseload of the clinical director must not
 exceed 16 individuals including all sites for which the same clinical director
 is responsible. 
 
 2. The program director must shall be full time
 and be a QMHP-C or QMHP-E with a bachelor's degree and at least one year's
 clinical experience meet the requirements for a program director as
 defined in 12VAC35-46-350.
 
 3. For Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least 50% of
 the provider's direct care staff at the therapeutic group home shall
 meet DBHDS paraprofessional staff qualified paraprofessional in
 mental health (QPPMH) criteria, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. The program/group
 therapeutic group home must shall coordinate services with
 other providers. 
 
 4. All therapeutic behavioral group home
 services (Level B) shall be authorized prior to reimbursement for these
 services. Services rendered without such prior authorization shall not be
 covered. 
 
 5. Services must be provided in accordance with an ISP a
 comprehensive individual plan of care as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, which
 shall be fully completed within 30 calendar days of authorization for
 Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 6. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
 an assessment shall be performed using all elements specified by DMAS in
 12VAC30-50-130. 
 
 7. Such service-specific provider intakes assessments
 shall be performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 8. If an individual receiving therapeutic behavioral group
 home services for children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level
 B) is also receiving case management services, the therapeutic behavioral
 group home services provider must collaborate with the care coordinator/case
 manager by notifying him of the provision of Level B therapeutic
 group home services and the Level B therapeutic group home
 services provider shall send monthly updates on the individual's treatment
 status. When the individual is discharged from Level B services, a discharge
 summary shall be sent to the care coordinator/case manager within 30 days of
 the discontinuation date. 
 
 9. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
 guardian parent or legally authorized representative, shall inform
 the primary care provider of the individual's receipt of these Level B therapeutic
 group home services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
 when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. If these
 individuals are children or adolescents, then the parent/legal guardian parent
 or legally authorized representative shall be required to give written
 consent that this provider has permission to inform the primary care provider
 of the individual's receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
 
 
 G. Utilization review. Utilization reviews for
 community-based services for children and adolescents younger than 21 years of
 age (Level A) and therapeutic behavioral services for children and adolescents
 younger than 21 years of age (Level B) shall include determinations whether
 providers meet all DMAS requirements, including compliance with DMAS marketing
 requirements. Providers that DMAS determines have violated the DMAS marketing
 requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E. 
 
 H. F. Utilization review of behavioral therapy
 services for children individuals younger than 21 years of age. 
 
 1. In order for Medicaid to cover behavioral therapy services,
 the provider shall be enrolled with DMAS or its contractor as a Medicaid
 provider. The provider enrollment agreement shall be in effect prior to the
 delivery of services for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 2. Behavioral therapy services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age when recommended by the individual's
 primary care provider, licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or
 licensed nurse practitioner and determined by DMAS or its contractor to be
 medically necessary to correct or ameliorate significant impairments in major
 life activities that have resulted from either developmental, behavioral, or
 mental disabilities.
 
 3. Behavioral therapy services require service authorization.
 Services shall be authorized only when eligibility and medical necessity
 criteria are met.
 
 4. Prior to treatment, an appropriate service-specific
 provider intake shall be conducted, documented, signed, and dated by a licensed
 behavior analyst (LBA), licensed assistant behavior analyst (LABA), LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, acting within the scope of his practice,
 documenting the individual's diagnosis (including a description of the
 behaviors targeted for treatment with their frequency, duration, and intensity)
 and describing how service needs can best be met through behavioral therapy.
 The service-specific provider intake shall be conducted face-to-face in the
 individual's residence with the individual and parent or guardian. 
 
 5. The ISP shall be developed upon admission to the service
 and reviewed within 30 days of admission to the service to ensure that all
 treatment goals are reflective of the individual's clinical needs and shall
 describe each treatment goal, targeted behavior, one or more measurable
 objectives for each targeted behavior, the behavioral modification strategy to
 be used to manage each targeted behavior, the plan for parent or caregiver
 training, care coordination, and the measurement and data collection methods to
 be used for each targeted behavior in the ISP. The ISP as defined in
 12VAC30-50-130 shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an LBA, LABA,
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S. Every three months, the LBA, LABA, LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S shall review the ISP, modify the ISP as appropriate,
 and update the ISP, and all of these activities shall occur with the individual
 in a manner in which the individual may participate in the process. The ISP
 shall be rewritten at least annually. 
 
 6. Reimbursement for the initial service-specific provider
 intake and the initial ISP shall be limited to five hours without service
 authorization. If additional time is needed to complete these documents,
 service authorization shall be required. 
 
 7. Clinical supervision shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement
 of behavioral therapy services that are rendered by an LABA, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
 or LMHP-S or unlicensed staff consistent with the scope of practice as
 described by the applicable Virginia Department of Health Professions
 regulatory board. Clinical supervision of unlicensed staff shall occur at least
 weekly. As documented in the individual's medical record, clinical supervision
 shall include a review of progress notes and data and dialogue with supervised
 staff about the individual's progress and the effectiveness of the ISP.
 Clinical supervision shall be documented by, at a minimum, the
 contemporaneously dated signature of the clinical supervisor. 
 
 8. Family training involving the individual's family and
 significant others to advance the treatment goals of the individual shall be
 provided when (i) the training with the family member or significant other is
 for the direct benefit of the individual, (ii) the training is not aimed at
 addressing the treatment needs of the individual's family or significant
 others, (iii) the individual is present except when it is clinically
 appropriate for the individual to be absent in order to advance the
 individual's treatment goals, and (iv) the training is aligned with the goals
 of the individual's treatment plan. 
 
 9. The following shall not be covered under this service:
 
 a. Screening to identify physical, mental, or developmental
 conditions that may require evaluation or treatment. Screening is covered as an
 EPSDT service provided by the primary care provider and is not covered as a
 behavioral therapy service under this section. 
 
 b. Services other than the initial service-specific provider
 intake that are provided but are not based upon the individual's ISP or linked
 to a service in the ISP. Time not actively involved in providing services
 directed by the ISP shall not be reimbursed.
 
 c. Services that are based upon an incomplete, missing, or
 outdated service-specific provider intake or ISP.
 
 d. Sessions that are conducted for family support, education,
 recreational, or custodial purposes, including respite or child care.
 
 e. Services that are provided by a provider but are rendered
 primarily by a relative or guardian who is legally responsible for the
 individual's care.
 
 f. Services that are provided in a clinic or provider's office
 without documented justification for the location in the ISP.
 
 g. Services that are provided in the absence of the individual
 or a parent or other authorized caregiver identified in the ISP with the
 exception of treatment review processes described in subdivision 12 e of this
 subsection, care coordination, and clinical supervision. 
 
 h. Services provided by a local education agency.
 
 i. Provider travel time.
 
 10. Behavioral therapy services shall not be reimbursed
 concurrently with community mental health services described in 12VAC30-50-130 B
 5 C or 12VAC30-50-226, or behavioral, psychological, or psychiatric
 therapeutic consultation described in 12VAC30-120-756, 12VAC30-120-1000,
 or 12VAC30-135-320.
 
 11. If the individual is receiving targeted case management
 services under the Medicaid state plan State Plan (defined in
 12VAC30-50-410 through 12VAC30-50-491 12VAC30-50-491), the
 provider shall notify the case manager of the provision of behavioral therapy
 services unless the parent or guardian requests that the information not be
 released. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to the case
 manager on the individual's status pursuant to a valid release of information.
 A discharge summary shall be sent to the case manager within 30 days of the
 service discontinuation date. A refusal of the parent or guardian to release
 information shall be documented in the medical record for the date the request
 was discussed.
 
 12. Other standards to ensure quality of services:
 
 a. Services shall be delivered only by an LBA, LABA, LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, or clinically supervised unlicensed staff consistent
 with the scope of practice as described by the applicable Virginia Department
 of Health Professions regulatory board. 
 
 b. Individual-specific services shall be directed toward the
 treatment of the eligible individual and delivered in the family's residence
 unless an alternative location is justified and documented in the ISP.
 
 c. Individual-specific progress notes shall be created
 contemporaneously with the service activities and shall document the name and
 Medicaid number of each individual; the provider's name, signature, and date;
 and time of service. Documentation shall include activities provided, length of
 services provided, the individual's reaction to that day's activity, and
 documentation of the individual's and the parent or caregiver's progress toward
 achieving each behavioral objective through analysis and reporting of
 quantifiable behavioral data. Documentation shall be prepared to clearly demonstrate
 efficacy using baseline and service-related data that shows clinical progress
 and generalization for the child and family members toward the therapy goals as
 defined in the service plan.
 
 d. Documentation of all billed services shall include the amount
 of time or billable units spent to deliver the service and shall be signed and
 dated on the date of the service by the practitioner rendering the service.
 
 e. Billable time is permitted for the LBA, LABA, LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S to better define behaviors and develop documentation
 strategies to measure treatment performance and the efficacy of the ISP
 objectives, provided that these activities are documented in a progress note as
 described in subdivision 12 c of this subsection.
 
 13. Failure to comply with any of the requirements in
 12VAC30-50-130 or in this section shall result in retraction.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-60) 
 
 Department of Medical Assistance Services Provider Manuals (https://www.virginiamedicaid.dmas.virginia.gov/wps/portal/ProviderManuals):
 
 Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual
 
 Virginia Medicaid Rehabilitation Manual 
 
 Virginia Medicaid Hospice Manual
 
 Virginia Medicaid School Division Manual
 
 Development
 of Special Criteria for the Purposes of Pre-Admission Screening, Medicaid Memo,
 October 3, 2012, Department of Medical Assistance Services
 
 Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
 Edition (DSM-IV-TR), copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
 
 Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
 Substance-Related Disorders (ASAM PPC-2R), Second Edition, copyright 2001,
 American Society on Addiction Medicine, Inc.
 
 Medicaid Memo, Reissuance of the Pre-Admission
 Screening (PAS) Provider Manual, Chapter IV, November 22, 2016, Department of
 Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: New Service
 Authorization Requirement for an Independent Clinical Assessment for Medicaid
 and FAMIS Children's Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services, dated
 June 16, 2011, Department of Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
 Children Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Children's Services,
 July 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of
 Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
 Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Adult-Oriented Services, July
 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of Medical
 Assistance Services
 
 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018
 
 Part XIV 
 Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents (Repealed)
 
 12VAC30-130-850. Definitions. (Repealed.) 
 
 The following words and terms when used in this part shall
 have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
 
 "Active treatment" means implementation of a
 professionally developed and supervised individual plan of care that must be
 designed to achieve the recipient's discharge from inpatient status at the
 earliest possible time. 
 
 "Certification" means a statement signed by a
 physician that inpatient services in a residential treatment facility are or
 were needed. The certification must be made at the time of admission, or, if an
 individual applies for assistance while in a mental hospital or residential
 treatment facility, before the Medicaid agency authorizes payment. 
 
 "Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
 "CIPOC" means a written plan developed for each recipient in
 accordance with 12VAC30-130-890 to improve his condition to the extent that
 inpatient care is no longer necessary. 
 
 "Emergency services" means a medical condition
 manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe
 pain) such that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of
 health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical
 attention to result in placing the health of the individual (or, with respect
 to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious
 jeopardy, serious impairment to bodily functions, or serious dysfunction of any
 bodily organ or part.
 
 "Individual" or "individuals" means a
 child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age who is receiving a service
 covered under this part of this chapter. 
 
 "Initial plan of care" means a plan of care
 established at admission, signed by the attending physician or staff physician,
 that meets the requirements in 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 "Inpatient psychiatric facility" or
 "IPF" means a private or state-run freestanding psychiatric hospital
 or psychiatric residential treatment center.
 
 "Recertification" means a certification for each
 applicant or recipient that inpatient services in a residential treatment
 facility are needed. Recertification must be made at least every 60 days by a
 physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within the scope
 of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician. 
 
 "Recipient" or "recipients" means the
 child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age receiving this covered
 service. 
 
 "RTC-Level C" means a psychiatric residential
 treatment facility (Level C).
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means services
 including physician and other health care services that are furnished to
 children while they are in an IPF that are billed by the arranged practitioners
 separately from the IPF per diem.
 
 12VAC30-130-860. Service coverage; eligible individuals;
 service certification. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall be
 24-hour, supervised, medically necessary, out-of-home programs designed to
 provide necessary support and address the special mental health and behavioral
 needs of a child or adolescent in order to prevent or minimize the need for
 more intensive inpatient treatment. Services must include, but shall not be
 limited to, assessment and evaluation, medical treatment (including drugs),
 individual and group counseling, and family therapy necessary to treat the
 child. 
 
 B. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall provide
 a total, 24 hours per day, specialized form of highly organized, intensive and
 planned therapeutic interventions that shall be utilized to treat some of the
 most severe mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Residential treatment
 is a definitive therapeutic modality designed to deliver specified results for
 a defined group of problems for children or adolescents for whom outpatient day
 treatment or other less intrusive levels of care are not appropriate, and for
 whom a protected, structured milieu is medically necessary for an extended
 period of time. 
 
 C. Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level B) and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be therapeutic services rendered in a
 residential type setting such as a group home or program that provides
 structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision and
 mental health care to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals
 as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). The child or
 adolescent must have a medical need for the service arising from a condition
 due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant
 functional impairments in major life activities. 
 
 D. Active treatment shall be required. Residential
 Treatment, Therapeutic Behavioral and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under age 21 shall be designed to serve the mental health needs of
 children. In order to be reimbursed for Residential Treatment (Level C),
 Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
 B), and Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
 A), the facility must provide active mental health treatment beginning at
 admission and it must be related to the recipient's principle diagnosis and
 admitting symptoms. To the extent that any recipient needs mental health
 treatment and his needs meet the medical necessity criteria for the service, he
 will be approved for these services. These services do not include
 interventions and activities designed only to meet the supportive nonmental
 health special needs, including but not limited to personal care, habilitation
 or academic educational needs of the recipients. 
 
 E. An individual eligible for Residential Treatment
 Services (Level C) is a recipient under the age of 21 years whose treatment
 needs cannot be met by ambulatory care resources available in the community,
 for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires services on an
 inpatient basis under the direction of a physician. 
 
 An individual eligible for Therapeutic Behavioral Services
 for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B) is a child, under the age of 21
 years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
 intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
 direction of a Licensed Mental Health Professional. 
 
 An individual eligible for Community-Based Services for
 Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) is a child, under the age of 21
 years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
 intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
 direction of a qualified mental health professional. The services for all three
 levels can reasonably be expected to improve the child's or adolescent's
 condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed. 
 
 F. In order for Medicaid to reimburse for Residential
 Treatment (Level C), Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the need for the service must be certified
 according to the standards and requirements set forth in subdivisions 1 and 2
 of this subsection. At least one member of the independent certifying team must
 have pediatric mental health expertise. 
 
 1. For an individual who is already a Medicaid recipient
 when he is admitted to a facility or program, certification must: 
 
 a. Be made by an independent certifying team that includes
 a licensed physician who: 
 
 (1) Has competence in diagnosis and treatment of pediatric
 mental illness; and 
 
 (2) Has knowledge of the recipient's mental health history
 and current situation. 
 
 b. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team. 
 
 2. For a recipient who applies for Medicaid while an
 inpatient in the facility or program, the certification must: 
 
 a. Be made by the team responsible for the plan of care; 
 
 b. Cover any period of time before the application for
 Medicaid eligibility for which claims for reimbursement by Medicaid are made;
 and 
 
 c. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team. 
 
 12VAC30-130-870. Preauthorization. (Repealed.)
 
 
 A. Authorization for Residential Treatment (Level C) shall
 be required within 24 hours of admission and shall be conducted by DMAS or its
 utilization management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified by
 DMAS. At preauthorization, an initial length of stay shall be assigned and the
 residential treatment provider shall be responsible for obtaining authorization
 for continued stay. 
 
 B. DMAS will not pay for admission to or continued stay in
 residential facilities (Level C) that were not authorized by DMAS. 
 
 C. Information that is required in order to obtain
 admission preauthorization for Medicaid payment shall include: 
 
 1. A completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by the department. 
 
 2. A certification of the need for this service by the team
 described in 12VAC30-130-860 that: 
 
 a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
 do not meet the specific treatment needs of the recipient; 
 
 b. Proper treatment of the recipient's psychiatric
 condition requires services on an inpatient basis under the direction of a
 physician; and 
 
 c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 recipient's condition or prevent further regression so that the services will
 not be needed. 
 
 3. Additional required written documentation shall include
 all of the following: 
 
 a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
 including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
 Retardation, Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
 Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning); 
 
 b. A description of the child's behavior during the seven
 days immediately prior to admission; 
 
 c. A description of alternative placements tried or
 explored and the outcomes of each placement; 
 
 d. The child's functional level and clinical stability; 
 
 e. The level of family support available; and 
 
 f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 D. Continued stay criteria for Residential Treatment
 (Level C): information for continued stay authorization (Level C) for Medicaid
 payment must include: 
 
 1. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
 than 90 days prior to the date of submission; 
 
 2. Documentation that the required services are provided as
 indicated; 
 
 3. Current (within the last 30 days) information on
 progress related to the achievement of treatment goals. The treatment goals
 must address the reasons for admission, including a description of any new
 symptoms amenable to treatment; 
 
 4. Description of continued impairment, problem behaviors,
 and need for Residential Treatment level of care. 
 
 E. Denial of service may be appealed by the recipient
 consistent with 12VAC30-110-10 et seq.; denial of reimbursement may be appealed
 by the provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
 seq. of the Code of Virginia). 
 
 F. DMAS will not pay for services for Therapeutic Behavioral
 Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based
 Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) that are not prior
 authorized by DMAS. 
 
 G. Authorization for Level A and Level B residential
 treatment shall be required within three business days of admission.
 Authorization for services shall be based upon the medical necessity criteria
 described in 12VAC30-50-130. The authorized length of stay must not exceed six
 months and may be reauthorized. The provider shall be responsible for
 documenting the need for a continued stay and providing supporting
 documentation. 
 
 H. Information that is required in order to obtain
 admission authorization for Medicaid payment must include: 
 
 1. A current completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by the department. The state designated uniform assessment
 instrument must indicate at least two areas of moderate impairment for Level B
 and two areas of moderate impairment for Level A. A moderate impairment is
 evidenced by, but not limited to: 
 
 a. Frequent conflict in the family setting, for example,
 credible threats of physical harm. 
 
 b. Frequent inability to accept age appropriate direction
 and supervision from caretakers, family members, at school, or in the home or community.
 
 
 c. Severely limited involvement in social support; which
 means significant avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of
 existing relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions.
 
 
 d. Impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at
 least one caretaker in the home, school or community. 
 
 e. Limited ability to consider the effect of one's
 inappropriate conduct on others, interactions consistently involving conflict,
 which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors. 
 
 2. A certification of the need for the service by the team
 described in 12VAC30-130-860 that: 
 
 a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
 do not meet the specific treatment needs of the child; 
 
 b. Proper treatment of the child's psychiatric condition
 requires services in a community-based residential program; and 
 
 c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 child's condition or prevent regression so that the services will not be
 needed. 
 
 3. Additional required written documentation must include
 all of the following: 
 
 a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
 including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
 Retardation), Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
 Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning); 
 
 b. A description of the child's behavior during the 30 days
 immediately prior to admission; 
 
 c. A description of alternative placements tried or
 explored and the outcomes of each placement; 
 
 d. The child's functional level and clinical stability; 
 
 e. The level of family support available; and 
 
 f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 I. Denial of service may be appealed by the child
 consistent with 12VAC30-110; denial of reimbursement may be appealed by the
 provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of
 the Code of Virginia). 
 
 J. Continued stay criteria for Levels A and B: 
 
 1. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by
 DMAS or its contractor. 
 
 2. A current Individual Service Plan (ISP) (plan of care)
 and a current (within 30 days) summary of progress related to the goals and
 objectives on the ISP (plan of care) must be submitted for continuation of the
 service. 
 
 3. For reauthorization to occur, the desired outcome or
 level of functioning has not been restored or improved, over the time frame
 outlined in the child's ISP (plan of care) or the child continues to be at risk
 for relapse based on history or the tenuous nature of the functional gains and
 use of less intensive services will not achieve stabilization. Any one of the
 following must apply: 
 
 a. The child has achieved initial service plan (plan of
 care) goals but additional goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower
 level of care. 
 
 b. The child is making satisfactory progress toward meeting
 goals but has not attained ISP goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a
 lower level of care. 
 
 c. The child is not making progress, and the service plan
 (plan of care) has been modified to identify more effective interventions. 
 
 d. There are current indications that the child requires
 this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as evidenced by
 failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or stays in a
 nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential treatment. 
 
 K. Discharge criteria for Levels A and B. 
 
 1. Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
 if either of the following applies: 
 
 a. The level of functioning has improved with respect to
 the goals outlined in the service plan (plan of care) and the child can
 reasonably be expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment;
 or 
 
 b. The child no longer benefits from service as evidenced
 by absence of progress toward service plan goals for a period of 60 days. 
 
 12VAC30-130-880. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
 
 
 A. Providers must provide all Residential Treatment
 Services (Level C) as defined within this part and set forth in 42 CFR Part 441
 Subpart D. 
 
 B. Providers of Residential Treatment Services (Level C)
 must be: 
 
 1. A residential treatment program for children and
 adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric hospital
 accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
 Organizations; 
 
 2. A residential treatment program for children and
 adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric unit of an
 acute general hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
 Healthcare Organizations; or 
 
 3. A psychiatric facility that is (i) accredited by the
 Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
 on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Quality and
 Leadership in Supports for People with Disabilities, or the Council on
 Accreditation of Services for Families and Children and (ii) licensed by
 DMHMRSAS as a residential treatment program for children and adolescents. 
 
 C. Providers of Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be licensed by the Department of Social
 Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of Education under the
 Standards for Interdepartmental Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities
 (22VAC42-10). 
 
 D. Providers of Therapeutic Behavioral Services (Level B)
 must be licensed by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation, and
 Substance Abuse Services (DMHMRSAS) under the Standards for Interdepartmental
 Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC42-10). 
 
 12VAC30-130-890. Plans of care; review of plans of care.
 (Repealed.) 
 
 A. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization review
 and audit. The absence of any required documentation may result in denial or
 retraction of any reimbursement.
 
 B. For Residential Treatment Services (Level C) (RTS-Level
 C), an initial plan of care must be completed at admission and a Comprehensive
 Individual Plan of Care (CIPOC) must be completed no later than 14 days after
 admission. 
 
 C. Initial plan of care
 (Level C) must include: 
 
 1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 2. A description of the functional level of the individual;
 
 
 3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
 rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
 special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the individual and
 a list of services provided under arrangement (see 12VAC30-50-130 for eligible
 services provided under arrangement) that will be furnished to the individual
 through the RTC-Level C's referral to an employed or a contracted provider of
 services under arrangement, including the prescribed frequency of treatment and
 the circumstances under which such treatment shall be sought;
 
 5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; 
 
 6. Plans for discharge; and 
 
 7. Signature and date by the physician. 
 
 D. The CIPOC for Level C
 must meet all of the following criteria: 
 
 1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for inpatient psychiatric care; 
 
 2. Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
 and other personnel specified under subsection G of this section, who are
 employed by, or provide services to, patients in the facility in consultation
 with the individual and his parents, legal guardians, or appropriate others in
 whose care he will be released after discharge; 
 
 3. State treatment objectives that must include measurable
 short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; 
 
 5. Include a list of services provided under arrangement
 (described in 12VAC30-50-130) that will be furnished to the individual through
 referral to an employee or a contracted provider of services under arrangement,
 including the prescribed frequency of treatment and the circumstances under
 which such treatment shall be sought; and
 
 6. Describe comprehensive discharge plans and coordination
 of inpatient services and post-discharge plans with related community services
 to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the individual's family,
 school, and community. 
 
 E. Review of the CIPOC for Level C. The CIPOC must be
 reviewed every 30 days by the team specified in subsection G of this section
 to: 
 
 1. Determine that services being provided are or were
 required on an inpatient basis; and 
 
 2. Recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall adjustment as an inpatient. 
 
 F. The development and review of the plan of care for
 Level C as specified in this section satisfies the facility's utilization
 control requirements for recertification and establishment and periodic review
 of the plan of care, as required in 42 CFR 456.160 and 456.180. 
 
 G. Team developing the CIPOC for Level C. The following
 requirements must be met: 
 
 1. At least one member of the team must have expertise in
 pediatric mental health. Based on education and experience, preferably
 including competence in child psychiatry, the team must be capable of all of
 the following: 
 
 a. Assessing the individual's immediate and long-range
 therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and liabilities;
 
 
 b. Assessing the potential resources of the individual's
 family; 
 
 c. Setting treatment objectives; and 
 
 d. Prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's
 objectives. 
 
 2. The team must include, at a minimum, either: 
 
 a. A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist; 
 
 b. A clinical psychologist who has a doctoral degree and a
 physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or 
 
 c. A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
 with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental diseases, and a psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
 psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
 association. 
 
 3. The team must also include one of the following: 
 
 a. A psychiatric social worker; 
 
 b. A registered nurse with specialized training or one
 year's experience in treating mentally ill individuals; 
 
 c. An occupational therapist who is licensed, if required
 by the state, and who has specialized training or one year of experience in
 treating mentally ill individuals; or 
 
 d. A psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
 psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
 association. 
 
 H. The RTC-Level C shall not receive a per diem
 reimbursement for any day that: 
 
 1. The initial or comprehensive written plan of care fails
 to include within three business days of the initiation of the service provided
 under arrangement:
 
 a. The prescribed frequency of treatment of such service,
 or includes a frequency that was exceeded; or
 
 b. All services that the individual needs while residing at
 the RTC-Level C and that will be furnished to the individual through the
 RTC-Level C referral to an employed or contracted provider of services under
 arrangement; 
 
 2. The initial or comprehensive written plan of care fails
 to list the circumstances under which the service provided under arrangement
 shall be sought; 
 
 3. The referral to the service provided under arrangement
 was not present in the individual's RTC-Level C record;
 
 4. The service provided under arrangement was not supported
 in that provider's records by a documented referral from the RTC-Level C; 
 
 5. The medical records from the provider of services under
 arrangement (i.e., admission and discharge documents, treatment plans, progress
 notes, treatment summaries, and documentation of medical results and findings)
 (i) were not present in the individual's RTC-Level C record or had not been
 requested in writing by the RTC-Level C within seven days of discharge from or
 completion of the service or services provided under arrangement or (ii) had
 been requested in writing within seven days of discharge from or completion of
 the service or services provided under arrangement, but not received within 30
 days of the request, and not re-requested; 
 
 6. The RTC-Level C did not have a fully executed contract
 or employee relationship with an independent provider of services under
 arrangement in advance of the provision of such services. For emergency
 services, the RTC-Level C shall have a fully executed contract with the
 emergency services provider prior to submission of the emergency service
 provider's claim for payment;
 
 7. A physician's order for the service under arrangement is
 not present in the record; or
 
 8. The service under arrangement is not included in the
 individual's CIPOC within 30 calendar days of the physician's order. 
 
 I. The provider of services under arrangement shall be
 required to reimburse DMAS for the cost of any such service provided under arrangement
 that was (i) furnished prior to receiving a referral or (ii) in excess of the
 amounts in the referral. Providers of services under arrangement shall be
 required to reimburse DMAS for the cost of any such services provided under
 arrangement that were rendered in the absence of an employment or contractual
 relationship.
 
 J. For therapeutic behavioral services for children and
 adolescents under 21 (Level B), the initial plan of care must be completed at
 admission by the licensed mental health professional (LMHP) and a CIPOC must be
 completed by the LMHP no later than 30 days after admission. The assessment
 must be signed and dated by the LMHP. 
 
 K. For community-based services for children and
 adolescents under 21 (Level A), the initial plan of care must be completed at
 admission by the QMHP and a CIPOC must be completed by the QMHP no later than
 30 days after admission. The individualized plan of care must be signed and
 dated by the program director. 
 
 L. Initial plan of care for Levels A and B must include: 
 
 1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 2. A description of the functional level of the individual;
 
 
 3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
 rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
 special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient; 
 
 5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; and 
 
 6. Plans for discharge. 
 
 M. The CIPOC for Levels A and B must meet all of the
 following criteria: 
 
 1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for residential psychiatric care; 
 
 2. The CIPOC for both levels must be based on input from
 school, home, other health care providers, the individual and family (or legal
 guardian); 
 
 3. State treatment objectives that include measurable
 short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; and 
 
 5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans with related
 community services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the
 individual's family, school, and community.
 
 N. Review of the CIPOC for Levels A and B. The CIPOC must
 be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30 days by the QMHP for Level A and by the
 LMHP for Level B. The review must include: 
 
 1. The response to services provided; 
 
 2. Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall response to the plan of care interventions; and 
 
 3. Determinations regarding whether the services being
 provided continue to be required. 
 
 Updates must be signed and dated by the service provider. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4495; Filed July 3, 2019, 8:58 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-10. State Plan under
 Title XIX of the Social Security Act Medical Assistance Program; General Provisions (amending 12VAC30-10-540).
 
 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
 Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-20, 12VAC30-50-30,
 12VAC30-50-60, 12VAC30-50-70, 12VAC30-50-130, 12VAC30-50-226).
 
 12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
 High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-5, 12VAC30-60-50,
 12VAC30-60-61).
 
 12VAC30-130. Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services (repealing 12VAC30-130-850 through
 12VAC30-130-890). 
 
 Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
 Virginia, 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
 
 Effective Date: August 22, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
 Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad
 Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)
 786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The regulatory action implements Items 301 OO and 301 PP of
 Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, which required the department to
 develop and implement a care coordination model and make programmatic changes
 in the provision of residential treatment for children. The action replaces
 emergency regulations published in 33:13 VA.R. 1436-1469 February 20,
 2017, and extended in 35:9 VA.R. 1130 December 24, 2018.
 
 The amendments clarify policy interpretations and revise
 program standards to allow for more evidence-based service delivery, allow the
 department to implement more effective utilization management in collaboration
 with the behavioral health service administrator, enhance individualized
 coordination of care, implement standardized coordination of individualized
 aftercare resources by ensuring access to medical and behavioral health service
 providers in the individual's home community, and support department audit
 practices. The action meets the requirements set forth by the Centers for
 Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) in 42 CFR 441 Subpart D and 42 CFR
 441.453. 
 
 The amendments include changes to the following areas: (i)
 provider qualifications, including acceptable licensing standards; (ii)
 preadmission assessment requirements; (iii) program requirements; (iv)
 discharge planning and care coordination requirements; and (v) utilization
 review requirements to clarify program requirements, ensure adequate
 documentation of service delivery, and help providers avoid payment
 retractions. 
 
 The action requires enhanced care coordination to provide
 the necessary objective evaluations of treatment progress and to facilitate
 evidence-based practices during the treatment to reduce the length of stay by
 ensuring that medical necessity indicates the correct level of care, that
 appropriate and effective care is delivered in a person centered manner, and
 that service providers and local systems use standardized preadmission and
 discharge processes to ensure effective services are delivered. The final
 regulatory text is the same as the proposed regulatory text.
 
 Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No
 public comments were received by the promulgating agency. 
 
 12VAC30-10-540. Inspection of care in intermediate care
 facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities, facilities providing inpatient psychiatric
 services for individuals under younger than 21 years of age,
 and mental hospitals. 
 
 All applicable requirements of 42 CFR 456, Subpart I,
 are met with respect to periodic inspections of care and services.* 
 
 Inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age
 21 are not provided under this plan. 
 
 *Inspection of Care (IOC) in Intermediate Care Facilities
 for the Mentally Retarded and Institutions for Mental Diseases are Inspection
 of care in intermediate care facilities for persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities is completed through contractual arrangements
 with the Virginia Department of Health. 
 
 12VAC30-50-20. Services provided to the categorically needy
 without limitation. 
 
 The following services as described in Part III
 (12VAC30-50-100 et seq.) of this chapter are provided to the categorically
 needy without limitation: 
 
 1. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older. 
 
 2. Services for individuals age 65 years of age
 or over older in institutions for mental diseases: inpatient
 hospital services; skilled nursing facility services; and services in an
 intermediate care facility. 
 
 3. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined, in
 accordance with § 1902(a)(31)(A) of the Social Security Act (the
 Act), to be in need of such care, including such services in a public
 institution (or distinct part thereof) for the mentally retarded or
 persons with intellectual or developmental disability or related
 conditions. 
 
 4. Hospice care (in accordance with § 1905(o) of the Act). 
 
 5. Any other medical care and any type of remedial care
 recognized under state law, specified by the U.S. Secretary of Health
 and Human Services: care and services provided in religious nonmedical
 health care institutions;, nursing facility services for patients
 under  younger than 21 years of age;, or
 emergency hospital services.
 
 6. Private health insurance premiums, coinsurance, and
 deductibles when cost effective (pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No.
 101-508 § 4402).
 
 7. Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE)
 services are provided for eligible individuals as an optional State Plan
 service for categorically needy individuals without limitation.
 
 8. Pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No. 111-148 § 4107,
 counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women
 shall be covered. 
 
 a. Counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use
 by pregnant women means diagnostic, therapy, and counseling services and
 pharmacotherapy (including the coverage of prescription and nonprescription
 tobacco cessation agents approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration) for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women who use tobacco
 products or who are being treated for tobacco use that is furnished (i) by or
 under the supervision of a physician, (ii) by any other health care professional
 who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law
 and is authorized to provide Medicaid coverable services other than tobacco
 cessation services, or (iii) by any other health care professional who is
 legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law and
 who is specifically designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human
 Services in federal regulations for this purpose. 
 
 b. No cost sharing shall be applied to these services. In
 addition to other services that are covered for pregnant women, 12VAC30-50-510
 also provides for other smoking cessation services that are covered for
 pregnant women.
 
 9. Inpatient psychiatric facility services and residential
 psychiatric treatment services (including therapeutic group homes and
 psychiatric residential treatment facilities) for individuals younger than 21
 years of age.
 
 12VAC30-50-30. Services not provided to the categorically
 needy. 
 
 The following services and devices are not provided to the
 categorically needy: 
 
 1. Chiropractors' Chiropractor services. 
 
 2. Private duty nursing services. 
 
 3. Dentures. 
 
 4. Other diagnostic and preventive services other than those
 provided elsewhere in this plan: diagnostic services (see (12VAC30-50-95)
 et seq.). 
 
 5. Inpatient psychiatric facility services for individuals
 under 21 years of age, other than those covered under early and periodic
 screening, diagnosis, and treatment (at 12VAC30-50-130). (Reserved.)
 
 6. Special tuberculosis (TB) related services under § 1902(z)(2)(F)
 of the Social Security Act (the Act). 
 
 7. Respiratory care services (in accordance with § 1920(e)(9)(A)
 through (C) of the Act). 
 
 8. Ambulatory prenatal care for pregnant women furnished
 during a presumptive eligibility period by a qualified provider (in accordance
 with § 1920 of the Act). 
 
 9. Any other medical care and any type of remedial care
 recognized under state law specified by the U.S. Secretary of Health
 and Human Services: personal care services in recipient's home, prescribed
 in accordance with a plan of treatment and provided by a qualified person under
 supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 12VAC30-50-60. Services provided to all medically needy groups
 without limitations. 
 
 Services as described in Part III (12VAC30-50-100 et seq.) of
 this chapter are provided to all medically needy groups without limitations.
 
 1. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older. 
 
 2. Early and periodic screening and diagnosis of individuals under
 younger than 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions found. 
 
 3. Pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No. 111-148 § 4107,
 counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women
 shall be covered. 
 
 a. Counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use
 by pregnant women means diagnostic, therapy, and counseling services and
 pharmacotherapy (including the coverage of prescription and nonprescription
 tobacco cessation agents approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration) for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women who use tobacco
 products or who are being treated for tobacco use that is furnished (i) by or
 under the supervision of a physician, (ii) by any other health care
 professional who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services
 under state law and is authorized to provide Medicaid coverable services other
 than tobacco cessation services, or (iii) by any other health care professional
 who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law
 and who is specifically designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human
 Services in federal regulations for this purpose. 
 
 b. No cost sharing shall be applied to these services. In
 addition to other services that are covered for pregnant women, 12VAC30-50-510
 also provides for other smoking cessation services that are covered for
 pregnant women.
 
 4. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined in
 accordance with § 1905(a)(4)(A) of the Social Security Act (the
 Act) to be in need of such care.
 
 5. Hospice care (in accordance with § 1905(o) of the
 Act).
 
 6. Any other medical care or any other type of remedial care
 recognized under state law, specified by the secretary U.S. Secretary
 of Health and Human Services, including: care and services provided in
 religious nonmedical health care institutions;, skilled nursing
 facility services for patients under younger than 21 years of age;,
 and emergency hospital services.
 
 7. Private health insurance premiums, coinsurance and
 deductibles when cost effective (pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No.
 101-508 § 4402).
 
 8. Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE)
 services are provided for eligible individuals as an optional State Plan service
 for medically needy individuals without limitation. 
 
 9. Inpatient psychiatric facility services and residential
 psychiatric treatment services (including therapeutic group homes and
 psychiatric residential treatment facilities) for individuals younger than 21
 years of age.
 
 12VAC30-50-70. Services or devices not provided to the
 medically needy. 
 
 1. Chiropractors' Chiropractor services. 
 
 2. Private duty nursing services. 
 
 3. Dentures. 
 
 4. Diagnostic or preventive services other than those provided
 elsewhere in the State Plan. 
 
 5. Inpatient hospital services, skilled nursing facility
 services, and intermediate care facility services for individuals age 65
 years of age or older in institutions for mental disease(s) diseases.
 
 
 6. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined in
 accordance with § 1905(a)(4)(A) of the Social Security Act (the Act),
 to be in need of such care in a public institution, or a distinct part thereof,
 for the mentally retarded or persons with intellectual or
 developmental disability or related conditions. 
 
 7. Inpatient psychiatric facility services for individuals
 under 21 years of age, other than those covered under early and periodic
 screening, diagnosis, and treatment (at 12VAC30-50-130). (Reserved.)
 
 8. Special tuberculosis (TB) services under §
 1902(z)(2)(F) of the Act. 
 
 9. Respiratory care services (in accordance with § 1920(e)(9)(A)
 through (C) of the Act). 
 
 10. Ambulatory prenatal care for pregnant women furnished
 during a presumptive eligibility period by a qualified provider (in accordance
 with § 1920 of the Act). 
 
 11. Personal care services in a recipient's home, prescribed
 in accordance with a plan of treatment and provided by a qualified person under
 supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 12. Home and community care for functionally disabled elderly
 individuals, as defined, described and limited in 12VAC30-50-460 and
 12VAC30-50-470. 
 
 13. Personal care services furnished to an individual who is
 not an inpatient or resident of a hospital, nursing facility, intermediate care
 facility for the mentally retarded intellectually or developmentally
 disabled persons, or institution for mental disease that are (i) authorized
 for the individual by a physician in accordance with a plan of treatment, (ii)
 provided by an individual who is qualified to provide such services and who is
 not a member of the individual's family, and (iii) furnished in a home. 
 
 12VAC30-50-130. Nursing facility services, EPSDT, including
 school health services, and family planning.
 
 A. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
 
 Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
 performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
 arts.
 
 B. Early General provisions for early and
 periodic screening and, diagnosis, and treatment (EPSDT)
 of individuals younger than 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions
 found.
 
 1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
 behalf of individuals younger than 21 years of age, who are Medicaid
 eligible, for medically necessary stays in acute care facilities,
 and the accompanying attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per
 admission when such services are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and
 treatment of health conditions identified through a physical examination.
 
 2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
 through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
 physician's office are covered for foster children of the local departments
 of social services departments on specific referral from those
 departments.
 
 3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
 necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
 evaluation. The department DMAS shall place appropriate
 utilization controls upon this service.
 
 4. Consistent with § 6403 of the Omnibus Budget
 Reconciliation Act of 1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic,
 and treatment services means the following services: screening services, vision
 services, dental services, hearing services, and such other necessary health
 care, diagnostic services, treatment, and other measures described in Social
 Security Act § 1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and
 mental illnesses and conditions discovered by the screening services and that
 are medically necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the
 State Plan and notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages
 21 years of age and older, provided for by § 1905(a) of the Social
 Security Act.
 
 5. C. Community mental health services provided
 through early and periodic screening diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age. These services in order to be
 covered (i) shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by
 LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii) are
 shall be reflected in provider records and on providers' provider
 claims for services by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are
 consistent with the requested professional services. 
 
 a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
 when used in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context
 clearly indicates otherwise:
 
 "Activities of daily living" means personal care
 activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
 and eating.
 
 "Adolescent or child" means the individual
 receiving the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of
 these terms this term, adolescent means an individual 12 through
 20 years of age; a child means an individual from birth up to 12 years of
 age. 
 
 "Behavioral health service" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Behavioral health services administrator" or
 "BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
 benefits program under contract with DMAS. 
 
 "Care coordination" means the collaboration
 and sharing of information among health care providers, who are involved
 with an individual's health care, to improve the care. 
 
 "Caregiver" means the same as defined
 in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
 local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
 who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
 completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
 Health and Developmental Services.
 
 "Clinical experience" means providing direct
 behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
 part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
 and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
 field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
 in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
 community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
 younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
 (Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
 practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
 hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
 established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
 Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013. 
 
 "Child" means an individual ages birth through 11
 years.
 
 "DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
 and Developmental Services.
 
 "Direct supervisor" means the person who provides
 direct supervision to the peer recovery specialist. The direct supervisor (i)
 shall have two consecutive years of documented practical experience rendering
 peer support services or family support services, have certification training
 as a PRS under a certifying body approved by DBHDS, and have documented
 completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; (ii) shall be a qualified
 mental health professional (QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E) as defined in 12VAC35-105-20
 with at least two consecutive years of documented experience as a QMHP, and who
 has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; or (iii) shall
 be an LMHP who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training
 who is acting within his scope of practice under state law. An LMHP providing
 services before April 1, 2018, shall have until April 1, 2018, to complete the
 DBHDS PRS supervisor training.
 
 "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services and its contractors.
 
 "EPSDT" means early and periodic screening,
 diagnosis, and treatment.
 
 "Family support partners" means the same as defined
 in 12VAC30-130-5170.
 
 "Human services field" means the same as the term is
 defined by DBHDS the Department of Health Professions in the
 document entitled Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018.
 
 "Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
 the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226. 
 
 "Licensed mental health professional" or
 "LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
 as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
 professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
 therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
 practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
 practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
 "Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their signatures
 to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
 means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
 psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
 for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
 functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
 supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
 preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
 Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
 they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
 signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
 "LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
 "supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
 social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
 compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
 18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
 considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
 duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title
 "Supervisee in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such
 status. 
 
 "Peer recovery specialist" or "PRS" means
 the same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Person centered" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Progress notes" means individual-specific
 documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
 individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
 contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
 the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
 minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
 staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
 progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
 include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
 service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
 service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
 or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
 note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
 documented for each service that is billed.
 
 "Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
 education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
 members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
 illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
 illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
 strategies. 
 
 "Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
 interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
 emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
 individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
 illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
 skills.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-child" or
 "QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
 "QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
 consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590 including a
 "QMHP-trainee" as defined by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
 "QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
 12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
 
 "Recovery-oriented services" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Resiliency" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Self-advocacy" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the
 face-to-face interaction in which the provider obtains information from the
 child or adolescent, and parent or other family member as appropriate, about
 the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It includes documented
 history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health care problems
 and issues and shall contain all of the following elements: (i) the presenting issue/reason
 issue or reason for referral, (ii) mental health
 history/hospitalizations, (iii) previous interventions by providers and
 timeframes and response to treatment, (iv) medical profile, (v) developmental
 history including history of abuse, if appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational
 educational or vocational status, (vii) current living situation and
 family history and relationships, (viii) legal status, (ix) drug and alcohol
 profile, (x) resources and strengths, (xi) mental status exam and profile,
 (xii) diagnosis, (xiii) professional summary and clinical formulation, (xiv)
 recommended care and treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. 
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-850.
 
 "Strength-based" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Supervision" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 b. 2. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age shall be time-limited
 interventions provided in the individual's residence and when clinically
 necessary in community settings. All interventions and the settings of the
 intervention shall be defined in the Individual Service Plan. All IIH services
 shall be designed to specifically improve family dynamics, and
 provide modeling, and the clinically necessary interventions that
 increase functional and therapeutic interpersonal relations between family
 members in the home. IIH services are designed to promote psychoeducational
 benefits of psychoeducation in the home setting of an individual who is
 at risk of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who is being
 transitioned to home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented medical
 need of the individual. These services provide crisis treatment; individual and
 family counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to assist the
 individual and his the individual's parents or guardians, as
 appropriate, to understand and practice appropriate problem solving, anger
 management, and interpersonal interaction, etc.); care coordination with other
 required services; and 24-hour emergency response. 
 
 (1) a. Service authorization shall be required
 for Medicaid reimbursement prior to the onset of services. Services rendered
 before the date of authorization shall not be reimbursed.
 
 (2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall
 be required prior to the start of services at the onset of services and
 ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of services. Services based
 upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs
 shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider
 intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
 
 (3) c. These services may shall
 only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C,
 or a QMHP-E.
 
 c. 3. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be
 provided two or more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic
 interventions (a unit is defined in 12VAC30-60-61 D 11). Day treatment
 programs provide evaluation; medication education and management; opportunities
 to learn and use daily living skills and to enhance social and interpersonal
 skills (e.g., problem solving, anger management, community responsibility,
 increased impulse control, and appropriate peer relations, etc.); and
 individual, group, and family counseling. 
 
 (1) a. Service authorization shall be required
 for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 (2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall be
 required at prior to the onset start of services,
 and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of services. Services
 based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes
 or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific
 provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
 
 (3) c. These services may shall be
 rendered only by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or
 a QMHP-E.
 
 d. Community-based services for children and adolescents
 younger than 21 years of age (Level A) pursuant to 42 CFR 440.031(d).
 
 (1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
 services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
 provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
 supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
 attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
 service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
 demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
 mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the
 community. The service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's
 condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
 The application of a national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in
 use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an
 equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this
 service.
 
 (2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
 receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 (3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
 other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
 
 (4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid
 reimbursement. Services that were rendered before the date of service authorization
 shall not be reimbursed. 
 
 (5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS
 shall reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no
 more than 16 beds.
 
 (6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
 Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
 Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
 Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Regulation Governing Juvenile
 Group Homes and Halfway Houses (6VAC35-41), or Regulations for Children's
 Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
 
 (7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
 psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
 include development or maintenance of daily living skills, anger management,
 social skills, family living skills, communication skills, stress management,
 and any care coordination activities. 
 
 (8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
 other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
 medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
 contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
 
 (9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
 the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
 services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
 provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
 intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
 
 (10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 D. Therapeutic group home services and psychiatric
 residential treatment facility (PRTF) services for early and periodic screening
 diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age.
 
 1. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this subsection shall have the following meanings:
 
 "Active treatment" means implementation of an
 initial plan of care (IPOC) and comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 
 "Assessment" means the face-to-face interaction
 by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S to obtain information from the child or
 adolescent and parent, guardian, or other family member, as appropriate, utilizing
 a tool or series of tools to provide a comprehensive evaluation and review of
 the child's or adolescent's mental health status. The assessment shall include
 a documented history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health
 problems and behavioral and emotional issues.
 
 "Certificate of need" or "CON" means a
 written statement by an independent certification team that services in a
 therapeutic group home or PRTF are or were needed. 
 
 "Combined treatment services" means a structured,
 therapeutic milieu and planned interventions that promote (i) the development
 or restoration of adaptive functioning, self-care, and social skills; (ii)
 community integrated activities and community living skills that each
 individual requires to live in less restrictive environments; (iii) behavioral
 consultation; (iv) individual and group therapy; (v) skills restoration, the
 restoration of coping skills, family living and health awareness, interpersonal
 skills, communication skills, and stress management skills; (vi) family
 education and family therapy; and (vii) individualized treatment planning.
 
 "Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
 "CIPOC" means a person centered plan of care that meets all of the
 requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
 information gathered during the referral process.
 
 "Crisis" means a deteriorating or unstable
 situation that produces an acute, heightened emotional, mental, physical,
 medical, or behavioral event.
 
 "Crisis management" means immediately provided
 activities and interventions designed to rapidly manage a crisis. The
 activities and interventions include behavioral health care to provide
 immediate assistance to individuals experiencing acute behavioral health
 problems that require immediate intervention to stabilize and prevent harm and
 higher level of acuity. Activities shall include assessment and short-term
 counseling designed to stabilize the individual. Individuals are referred to
 long-term services once the crisis has been stabilized.
 
 "Daily supervision" means the supervision
 provided in a PRTF through a resident-to-staff ratio approved by the Office of
 Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
 with documented supervision checks every 15 minutes throughout a 24-hour
 period.
 
 "Discharge planning" means family and
 locality-based care coordination that begins upon admission to a PRTF or
 therapeutic group home with the goal of transitioning the individual out of the
 PRTF or therapeutic group home to a less restrictive care setting with
 continued, clinically-appropriate, and possibly intensive, services as soon as
 possible upon discharge. Discharge plans shall be recommended by the treating physician,
 psychiatrist, or treating LMHP responsible for the overall supervision of the
 plan of care and shall be approved by the DMAS contractor.
 
 "DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association.
 
 "Emergency admissions" means those admissions
 that are made when, pending a review for the certificate of need, it appears
 that the individual is in need of an immediate admission to a therapeutic group
 home or PRTF and likely does not meet the medical necessity criteria to receive
 crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, or acute psychiatric inpatient
 services. 
 
 "Emergency services" means unscheduled and
 sometimes scheduled crisis intervention, stabilization, acute psychiatric inpatient
 services, and referral assistance provided over the telephone or face-to-face
 if indicated, and available 24 hours a day, seven days per week.
 
 "Family engagement" means a family-centered and
 strengths-based approach to partnering with families in making decisions,
 setting goals, achieving desired outcomes, and promoting safety, permanency,
 and well-being for children, adolescents, and families. Family engagement
 requires ongoing opportunities for an individual to build and maintain
 meaningful relationships with family members, for example, frequent,
 unscheduled, and noncontingent telephone calls and visits between an individual
 and family members. Family engagement may also include enhancing or
 facilitating the development of the individual's relationship with other family
 members and supportive adults responsible for the individual's care and
 well-being upon discharge.
 
 "Family engagement activity" means an
 intervention consisting of family psychoeducational training or coaching,
 transition planning with the family, family and independent living skills, and
 training on accessing community supports as identified in the plan of care.
 Family engagement activity does not include and is not the same as family
 therapy.
 
 "Family therapy" means counseling services
 involving the individual's family and significant others to advance the
 treatment goals when (i) the counseling with the family member and significant
 others is for the direct benefit of the individual, (ii) the counseling is not
 aimed at addressing treatment needs of the individual's family or significant
 others, and (iii) the individual is present except when it is clinically
 appropriate for the individual to be absent in order to advance the
 individual's treatment goals. Family therapy shall be aligned with the goals of
 the individual's plan of care. All family therapy services furnished are for
 the direct benefit of the individual, in accordance with the individual's needs
 and treatment goals identified in the individual's plan of care, and for the
 purpose of assisting in the individual's recovery.
 
 "FAPT" means the family assessment and planning
 team.
 
 "ICD-10" means International Statistical
 Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th Revision,
 published by the World Health Organization. 
 
 "Independent certification team" means a team
 that has competence in diagnosis and treatment of mental illness, preferably in
 child psychiatry; has knowledge of the individual's situation; and is composed
 of at least one physician and one LMHP. The independent certification team
 shall be a DMAS-authorized contractor with contractual or employment
 relationships with the required team members. 
 
 "Individual" means the child or adolescent
 younger than 21 years of age who is receiving therapeutic group home or PRTF
 services.
 
 "Individual and group therapy" means the
 application of principles, standards, and methods of the counseling profession
 in (i) conducting assessments and diagnosis for the purpose of establishing
 treatment goals and objectives and (ii) planning, implementing, and evaluating
 plans of care using treatment interventions to facilitate human development and
 to identify and remediate mental, emotional, or behavioral disorders and
 associated distresses that interfere with mental health. 
 
 "Initial plan of care" or "IPOC" means
 a person centered plan of care established at admission that meets all of the
 requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
 information gathered during the referral process.
 
 "Intervention" means scheduled therapeutic
 treatment such as individual or group psychoeducation; skills restoration;
 structured behavior support and training activities; recreation, art, and music
 therapies; community integration activities that promote or assist in the
 child's or adolescent's ability to acquire coping and functional or
 self-regulating behavior skills; day and overnight passes; and family
 engagement activities. Interventions shall not include individual, group, and
 family therapy; medical or dental appointments; or physician services,
 medication evaluation, or management provided by a licensed clinician or
 physician and shall not include school attendance. Interventions shall be provided
 in the therapeutic group home or PRTF and, when clinically necessary, in a
 community setting or as part of a therapeutic pass. All interventions and
 settings of the intervention shall be established in the plan of care.
 
 "Plan of care" means the initial plan of care
 (IPOC) and the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 
 "Physician" means an individual licensed to
 practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in Virginia, as defined in § 54.1-2900
 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" or
 "PRTF" means the same as defined in 42 CFR 483.352 and is a 24-hour,
 supervised, clinically and medically necessary, out-of-home active treatment
 program designed to provide necessary support and address mental health,
 behavioral, substance abuse, cognitive, and training needs of an individual
 younger than 21 years of age in order to prevent or minimize the need for more
 intensive treatment.
 
 "Recertification" means a certification for each
 applicant or recipient for whom therapeutic group home or PRTF services are
 needed. 
 
 "Room and board" means a component of the total
 daily cost for placement in a licensed PRTF. Residential room and board costs
 are maintenance costs associated with placement in a licensed PRTF and include
 a semi-private room, three meals and two snacks per day, and personal care
 items. Room and board costs are reimbursed only for PRTF settings. 
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means
 services including physician and other health care services that are furnished
 to children while they are in a freestanding psychiatric hospital or PRTF that
 are billed by the arranged practitioners separately from the freestanding
 psychiatric hospital's or PRTF's per diem.
 
 "Skills restoration" means a face-to-face service
 to assist individuals in the restoration of lost skills that are necessary to
 achieve the goals established in the beneficiary's plan of care. Services
 include assisting the individual in restoring self-management, interpersonal,
 communication, and problem solving skills through modeling, coaching, and
 cueing.
 
 "Therapeutic group home" means a congregate
 residential service providing 24-hour supervision in a community-based home
 having eight or fewer residents. 
 
 "Therapeutic pass" means time at home or
 time with family consisting of partial or entire days of time away from the
 therapeutic group home or psychiatric residential treatment facility as
 clinically indicated in the plan of care and as paired with facility-based and
 community-based interventions to promote discharge planning, community
 integration, and family engagement activities. Therapeutic passes are not
 recreational but are a therapeutic component of the plan of care and are
 designed for the direct benefit of the individual.
 
 "Treatment planning" means development of a
 person centered plan of care that is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels.
 
 e. 2. Therapeutic behavioral group
 home services (Level B) pursuant to 42 CFR 440.130(d).
 
 (1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in
 a residential setting. The residential services will provide structure for
 daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination,
 and psychiatric treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health
 goals as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
 qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
 arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that
 results in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the
 home, school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be
 expected to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the
 services will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized
 set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
 InterQual ® Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS
 shall be required for this service.
 
 (2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
 be reimbursed. 
 
 (3) a. Therapeutic group home services for children
 and adolescents younger than 21 years of age shall provide therapeutic services
 to restore or maintain appropriate skills necessary to promote prosocial
 behavior and healthy living, including skills restoration, family living and
 health awareness, interpersonal skills, communication skills, and stress
 management skills. Therapeutic services shall also engage families and reflect
 family-driven practices that correlate to sustained positive outcomes
 post-discharge for youth and their family members. Each component of
 therapeutic group home services is provided for the direct benefit of the
 individual, in accordance with the individual's needs and treatment goals
 identified in the individual's plan of care, and for the purpose of assisting
 in the individual's recovery. These services are provided under 42 CFR
 440.130(d) in accordance with the rehabilitative services benefit.
 
 b. The plan of care shall include individualized
 activities, including a minimum of one intervention per 24-hour period in
 addition to individual, group, and family therapies. Daily interventions are
 not required when there is documentation to justify clinical or medical reasons
 for the individual's deviations from the plan of care. Interventions shall be
 documented on a progress note and shall be outlined in and aligned with the
 treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC and CIPOC. Any deviation from the
 plan of care shall be documented along with a clinical or medical justification
 for the deviation. 
 
 c. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
 therapeutic group home. The following requirements for severity of need and
 intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity
 criteria for admission.
 
 (1) Severity of need required for admission. All of the
 following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
 
 (a) The individual's behavioral health condition can only
 be safely and effectively treated in a 24-hour therapeutic milieu with onsite
 behavioral health therapy due to significant impairments in home, school, and
 community functioning caused by current mental health symptoms consistent with
 a DSM-5 diagnosis. 
 
 (b) The certificate of need must demonstrate all of the
 following: (i) ambulatory care resources (all available modalities of treatment
 less restrictive than inpatient treatment) available in the community do not
 meet the treatment needs of the individual; (ii) proper treatment of the
 individual's psychiatric condition requires services on an inpatient basis
 under the direction of a physician; and (iii) the services can reasonably be
 expected to improve the individual's condition or prevent further regression so
 that the services will no longer be needed.
 
 (c) The state uniform assessment tool shall be completed.
 The assessment shall demonstrate at least two areas of moderate impairment in
 major life activities. A moderate impairment is defined as a major or
 persistent disruption in major life activities. A moderate impairment is
 evidenced by, but not limited to (i) frequent conflict in the family setting
 such as credible threats of physical harm, where "frequent" means
 more than expected for the individual's age and developmental level; (ii)
 frequent inability to accept age-appropriate direction and supervision from
 caretakers, from family members, at school, or in the home or community; (iii)
 severely limited involvement in social support, which means significant
 avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of existing
 relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions; (iv)
 impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at least one caretaker in
 the home, school, or community; (v) limited ability to consider the effect of
 one's inappropriate conduct on others; and (vi) interactions consistently
 involving conflict, which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
 
 (d) Less restrictive community-based services have been
 given a fully adequate trial and were unsuccessful or, if not attempted, have
 been considered, but in either situation were determined to be unable to meet
 the individual's treatment needs and the reasons for that are discussed in the certificate
 of need.
 
 (e) The individual's symptoms, or the need for treatment in
 a 24 hours a day, seven days a week level of care (LOC), are not primarily due
 to any of the following: (i) intellectual disability, developmental disability,
 or autistic spectrum disorder; (ii) organic mental disorders, traumatic brain
 injury, or other medical condition; or (iii) the individual does not require a
 more intensive level of care.
 
 (f) The individual does not require primary medical or
 surgical treatment.
 
 (2) Intensity and quality of service necessary for
 admission. All of the following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria
 for intensity and quality of service:
 
 (a) The therapeutic group home service has been prescribed
 by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or other LMHP who has documented that a
 residential setting is the least restrictive clinically appropriate service
 that can meet the specifically identified treatment needs of the individual.
 
 (b) The therapeutic group home is not being used for
 clinically inappropriate reasons, including (i) an alternative to incarceration
 or preventative detention; (ii) an alternative to a parent's, guardian's, or
 agency's capacity to provide a place of residence for the individual; or (iii)
 a treatment intervention when other less restrictive alternatives are
 available.
 
 (c) The individual's treatment goals are included in the
 service specific provider intake and include behaviorally defined objectives
 that require and can reasonably be achieved within a therapeutic group home setting.
 
 (d) The therapeutic group home is required to coordinate
 with the individual's community resources, including schools and FAPT as
 appropriate, with the goal of transitioning the individual out of the program
 to a less restrictive care setting for continued, sometimes intensive, services
 as soon as possible and appropriate.
 
 (e) The therapeutic group home program must incorporate
 nationally established, evidence-based, trauma-informed services and supports
 that promote recovery and resiliency. 
 
 (f) Discharge planning begins upon admission, with concrete
 plans for the individual to transition back into the community beginning within
 the first week of admission, with clear action steps and target dates outlined
 in the plan of care.
 
 (3) Continued stay criteria. The following criteria shall
 be met in order to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
 
 (a) All of the admission guidelines continue to be met and
 continue to be supported by the written clinical documentation. 
 
 (b) The individual shall meet one of the following
 criteria: (i) the desired outcome or level of functioning has not been restored
 or improved in the timeframe outlined in the individual's plan of care or the
 individual continues to be at risk for relapse based on history or (ii) the
 nature of the functional gains is tenuous and use of less intensive services
 will not achieve stabilization.
 
 (c) The individual shall meet one of the following
 criteria: (i) the individual has achieved initial CIPOC goals, but additional
 goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower level of care; (ii) the
 individual is making satisfactory progress toward meeting goals but has not
 attained plan of care goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a lower level
 of care; (iii) the individual is not making progress, and the plan of care has
 been modified to identify more effective interventions; or (iv) there are
 current indications that the individual requires this level of treatment to
 maintain level of functioning as evidenced by failure to achieve goals identified
 for therapeutic visits or stays in a nontreatment residential setting or in a
 lower level of residential treatment. 
 
 (d) There is a written, up-to-date discharge plan that (i)
 identifies the custodial parent or custodial caregiver at discharge; (ii) identifies
 the school the individual will attend at discharge, if applicable; (iii)
 includes individualized education program (IEP) and FAPT recommendations, if
 necessary; (iv) outlines the aftercare treatment plan (discharge to another
 residential level of care is not an acceptable discharge goal); and (v) lists
 barriers to community reintegration and progress made on resolving these
 barriers since last review.
 
 (e) The active plan of care includes structure for combined
 treatment services and activities to ensure the attainment of therapeutic
 mental health goals as identified in the plan of care. Combined treatment
 services reinforce and practice skills learned in individual, group, and family
 therapy such as community integration skills, coping skills, family living and
 health awareness skills, interpersonal skills, and stress management skills.
 Combined treatment services may occur in group settings, in one-on-one
 interactions, or in the home setting during a therapeutic pass. In addition to
 the combined treatment services, the child or adolescent must also receive
 psychotherapy services, care coordination, family-based discharge planning, and
 locality-based transition activities. The child or adolescent shall receive
 intensive family interventions at least twice per month, although it is
 recommended that the intensive family interventions be provided at a frequency
 of one family therapy session per week. Family involvement begins immediately
 upon admission to therapeutic group home. If the minimum requirement cannot be
 met, the reasons must be reported, and continued efforts to involve family
 members must also be documented. Other family members or supportive adults may
 be included as indicated in the plan of care.
 
 (f) Less restrictive treatment options have been considered
 but cannot yet meet the individual's treatment needs. There is sufficient
 current clinical documentation or evidence to show that therapeutic group home
 level of care continues to be the least restrictive level of care that can meet
 the individual's mental health treatment needs.
 
 (4) Discharge shall occur if any of the following applies:
 (i) the level of functioning has improved with respect to the goals outlined in
 the plan of care, and the individual can reasonably be expected to maintain these
 gains at a lower level of treatment; (ii) the individual no longer benefits
 from service as evidenced by absence of progress toward plan of care goals for
 a period of 60 days; or (iii) other less intensive services may achieve
 stabilization.
 
 d. The following clinical activities shall be required for
 each therapeutic group home resident:
 
 (1) An assessment be performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
 or LMHP-S.
 
 (2) A face-to-face evaluation shall be performed by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30 calendar days prior to admission
 with a documented DSM-5 or ICD-10 diagnosis.
 
 (3) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
 independent certification team according to the requirements of subdivision D 4
 of this section. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 calendar days by
 an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S acting within his scope of practice.
 
 (4) An IPOC that is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels. The IPOC shall be completed on the day of
 admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be signed by the
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual and a family member or
 legally authorized representative. The IPOC shall include all of the following:
 
 
 (a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
 that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
 strategies and treatment alliance; 
 
 (b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 (c) A description of the functional level of the
 individual; 
 
 (d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 (e) Orders for medications, psychiatric, medical, dental,
 and any special health care needs whether or not provided in the facilities,
 treatments, restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies,
 therapeutic passes, social services, community integration, diet, and special
 procedures recommended for the health and safety of the individual; 
 
 (f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; and 
 
 (g) Plans for discharge. 
 
 (5) A CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
 days after admission. The CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria: 
 
 (a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and shall reflect the need
 for therapeutic group home care; 
 
 (b) Be based on input from school, home, other health care
 providers, FAPT if necessary, the individual, and the family or legal guardian;
 
 
 (c) Shall state treatment objectives that include
 measurable short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 (d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; and 
 
 (e) Include a comprehensive discharge plan with necessary,
 clinically appropriate community services to ensure continuity of care upon
 discharge with the individual's family, school, and community. 
 
 (6) The CIPOC shall be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30
 calendar days by the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a
 family member or primary caregiver. Updates shall be signed and dated by the
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a family member or
 legally authorized representative. The review shall include all of the
 following: 
 
 (a) The individual's response to the services provided; 
 
 (b) Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall response to the CIPOC interventions; and 
 
 (c) Determinations regarding whether the services being
 provided continue to be required. 
 
 (7) Crisis management, clinical assessment, and
 individualized therapy shall be provided to address both behavioral health and
 substance use disorder needs as indicated in the plan of care to address
 intermittent crises and challenges within the therapeutic group home setting or
 community settings as defined in the plan of care and to avoid a higher level
 of care.
 
 (8) Care coordination shall be provided with medical,
 educational, and other behavioral health providers and other entities involved
 in the care and discharge planning for the individual as included in the plan
 of care.
 
 (9) Weekly individual therapy shall be provided in the
 therapeutic group home, or other settings as appropriate for the individual's
 needs, by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be documented in
 progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61. 
 
 (10) Weekly (or more frequently if clinically indicated)
 group therapy shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which
 shall be documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
 12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the plan of care.
 
 (11) Family treatment shall be provided as clinically
 indicated, provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, and documented in
 progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61 and as
 planned and documented in the plan of care.
 
 (12) Family engagement activities shall be provided in
 addition to family therapy or counseling. Family engagement activities shall be
 provided at least weekly as outlined in the plan of care, and daily
 communication with the family or legally authorized representative shall be
 part of the family engagement strategies in the plan of care. For each
 service authorization period when family engagement is not possible, the
 therapeutic group home shall identify and document the specific barriers to the
 individual's engagement with the individual's family or legally authorized
 representatives. The therapeutic group home shall document on a weekly basis
 the reasons why family engagement is not occurring as required. The therapeutic
 group home shall document alternative family engagement strategies to be used
 as part of the interventions in the plan of care and request approval of the
 revised plan of care by DMAS. When family engagement is not possible, the
 therapeutic group home shall collaborate with DMAS on a weekly basis to develop
 individualized family engagement strategies and document the revised strategies
 in the plan of care.
 
 (13) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
 indicated in the plan of care and as paired with facility-based and community-based
 interventions to promote discharge planning, community integration, and family
 engagement activities. 
 
 (a) The provider shall document how the family was prepared
 for the therapeutic pass to include a review of the plan of care goals and
 objectives being addressed by the planned interventions and the safety and
 crisis plan in effect during the therapeutic pass.
 
 (b) If a facility staff member does not accompany the
 individual on the therapeutic pass and the therapeutic pass exceeds 24 hours,
 the provider shall make daily contacts with the family and be available 24
 hours per day to address concerns, incidents, or crises that may arise during
 the pass.
 
 (c) Contact with the family shall occur within seven
 calendar days of the therapeutic pass to discuss the accomplishments and
 challenges of the therapeutic pass along with an update on progress toward plan
 of care goals and any necessary changes to the plan of care.
 
 (d) Twenty-four therapeutic passes shall be permitted per
 individual, per admission, without authorization as approved by the treating
 LMHP and documented in the plan of care. Additional therapeutic passes shall
 require service authorization. Any unauthorized therapeutic passes shall result
 in retraction for those days of service.
 
 (14) Discharge planning shall begin at admission and
 continue throughout the individual's stay at the therapeutic group home. The
 family or guardian, the community services board (CSB), the family assessment
 and planning team (FAPT) case manager, and the DMAS contracted care manager
 shall be involved in treatment planning and shall identify the anticipated
 needs of the individual and family upon discharge and available services in the
 community. Prior to discharge, the therapeutic group home shall submit an active
 and viable discharge plan to the DMAS contractor for review. Once the DMAS
 contractor approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin actively
 collaborating with the family or legally authorized representative and the
 treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
 appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The therapeutic
 group home shall request permission from the parent or legally authorized
 representative to share treatment information with these providers and shall
 share information pursuant to a valid release. The therapeutic group home shall
 request information from post-discharge providers to establish that the
 planning of pending services and transition planning activities has begun,
 shall establish that the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall
 provide individualized education program recommendations to the school if
 necessary. The therapeutic group home shall inform the DMAS contractor of all
 scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
 the DMAS contractor within one business day of the individual's discharge date
 from the therapeutic group home.
 
 (15) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed.
 Facilities that only provide independent living services or nonclinical
 services that do not meet the requirements of this subsection are not reimbursed
 eligible for reimbursement. DMAS shall reimburse only for services
 provided in facilities or programs with no more than 16 beds. 
 
 (4) These residential (16) Therapeutic group home
 services providers must shall be licensed by the Department
 of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the Regulations
 for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
 
 (5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
 seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
 programming must include development or maintenance of daily living skills,
 anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication skills,
 and stress management. This service may be provided in a program setting or a
 community-based group home. 
 
 (6) The individual must receive, at least weekly,
 individual psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is
 provided as part of the program. 
 
 (7) (17) Individuals shall be discharged from
 this service when treatment goals are met or other less intensive
 services may achieve stabilization.
 
 (8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
 the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
 services. (18) Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or
 outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs plans of care
 shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out
 in 12VAC30-60-61. 
 
 (9) These (19) Therapeutic group home services
 may only be rendered by and within the scope of practice of an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, 
 LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 (10) (20) The facility/group psychiatric
 residential treatment facility or therapeutic group home shall coordinate
 necessary services and discharge planning with other providers as
 medically and clinically necessary. Documentation of this care coordination
 shall be maintained by the facility/group facility or group home
 in the individual's record. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
 when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted, and
 recommended next steps.
 
 (21) Failure to perform any of the items described in this subsection
 shall result in a retraction of the per diem for each day of noncompliance. 
 
 3. PRTF services are a 24-hour, supervised, clinically and
 medically necessary out-of-home program designed to provide necessary support
 and address mental health, behavioral, substance use, cognitive, or other
 treatment needs of an individual younger than 21 years of age in order to
 prevent or minimize the need for more inpatient treatment. Active treatment and
 comprehensive discharge planning shall begin prior to admission. In order to be
 covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age, these services shall (i)
 meet DMAS-approved psychiatric medical necessity criteria or be approved as an
 EPSDT service based upon a diagnosis made by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S
 who is practicing within the scope of his license and (ii) be reflected in
 provider records and on the provider's claims for services by recognized
 diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested professional
 services. 
 
 a. PRTF services shall be covered for the purpose of
 diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders when such
 services are rendered by a psychiatric facility that is not a hospital and is
 accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
 Organizations, the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities,
 the Council on Accreditation of Services for Families and Children, or by any
 other accrediting organization with comparable standards that is recognized by
 the state.
 
 b. Providers of PRTF services shall be licensed by DBHDS. 
 
 c. PRTF services are reimbursable only when the treatment
 program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically
 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR 441.156 and (ii)
 the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G. Each admission
 must be service authorized, and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements for
 clinical necessity.
 
 d. The PRTF benefit for individuals younger than 21 years
 of age shall include services defined at 42 CFR 440.160 that are provided
 under the direction of a physician pursuant to a certification of medical
 necessity and plan of care developed by an interdisciplinary team of
 professionals and shall involve active treatment designed to achieve the
 child's discharge from PRTF services at the earliest possible time. The PRTF
 services benefit shall include services provided under arrangement furnished by
 Medicaid enrolled providers other than the PRTF, as long as the PRTF (i) arranges
 for and oversees the provision of all services, (ii) maintains all medical
 records of care furnished to the individual, and (iii) ensures that the
 services are furnished under the direction of a physician. Services provided
 under arrangement shall be documented by a written referral from the PRTF. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the facility who is licensed to prescribe drugs shall be
 considered the referral. 
 
 e. PRTFs, as defined at 42 CFR 483.352, shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these services: (i)
 medical and psychological services, including those furnished by physicians,
 licensed mental health professionals, and other licensed or certified health professionals
 (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists, respiratory therapists, and substance abuse
 treatment practitioners); (ii) pharmacy services; (iii) outpatient hospital
 services; (iv) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and therapy for
 individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (v) laboratory and
 radiology services; (vi) durable medical equipment; (vii) vision services;
 (viii) dental, oral surgery, and orthodontic services; (ix) nonemergency
 transportation services; and (x) emergency services. 
 
 f. PRTF services shall include assessment and
 reassessment; room and board; daily supervision; combined treatment services;
 individual, family, and group therapy; care coordination; interventions;
 general or special education; medical treatment (including medication,
 coordination of necessary medical services, and 24-hour onsite nursing);
 specialty services; and discharge planning that meets the medical and clinical
 needs of the individual.
 
 g. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a PRTF. The
 following requirements for severity of need and intensity and quality of
 service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity criteria for admission:
 
 (1) Severity of need required for admission. The following
 criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
 
 (a) There is clinical evidence that the individual has a
 DSM-5 disorder that is amenable to active psychiatric treatment.
 
 (b) There is a high degree of potential of the condition
 leading to acute psychiatric hospitalization in the absence of residential
 treatment.
 
 (c) Either (i) there is clinical evidence that the
 individual would be a risk to self or others if the individual were not in a
 PRTF or (ii) as a result of the individual's mental disorder, there is an
 inability for the individual to adequately care for his own physical needs, and
 caretakers, guardians, or family members are unable to safely fulfill these
 needs, representing potential serious harm to self.
 
 (d) The individual requires supervision seven days per
 week, 24 hours per day to develop skills necessary for daily living; to assist
 with planning and arranging access to a range of educational, therapeutic, and
 aftercare services; and to develop the adaptive and functional behavior that
 will allow the individual to live outside of a PRTF setting.
 
 (e) The individual's current living environment does not
 provide the support and access to therapeutic services needed.
 
 (f) The individual is medically stable and does not require
 the 24-hour medical or nursing monitoring or procedures provided in a hospital
 level of care.
 
 (2) Intensity and quality of service necessary for
 admission. The following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for
 intensity and quality of service:
 
 (a) The evaluation and assignment of a DSM-5 diagnosis must
 result from a face-to-face psychiatric evaluation.
 
 (b) The program provides supervision seven days per week,
 24 hours per day to assist with the development of skills necessary for daily
 living; to assist with planning and arranging access to a range of educational,
 therapeutic, and aftercare services; and to assist with the development of the
 adaptive and functional behavior that will allow the individual to live outside
 of a PRTF setting.
 
 (c) An individualized plan of active psychiatric treatment
 and residential living support is provided in a timely manner. This treatment
 must be medically monitored, with 24-hour medical availability and 24-hour
 nursing services availability. This plan includes (i) at least once-a-week
 psychiatric reassessments; (ii) intensive family or support system involvement
 occurring at least once per week or valid reasons identified as to why such a
 plan is not clinically appropriate or feasible; (iii) psychotropic medications,
 when used, are to be used with specific target symptoms identified; (iv)
 evaluation for current medical problems; (v) evaluation for concomitant
 substance use issues; and (vi) linkage or coordination with the individual's
 community resources, including the local school division and FAPT case manager,
 as appropriate, with the goal of returning the individual to his regular social
 environment as soon as possible, unless contraindicated. School contact should
 address an individualized educational plan as appropriate.
 
 (d) A urine drug screen is considered at the time of
 admission, when progress is not occurring, when substance misuse is suspected,
 or when substance use and medications may have a potential adverse interaction.
 After a positive screen, additional random screens are considered and referral
 to a substance use disorder provider is considered.
 
 (3) Criteria for continued stay. The following criteria
 shall be met to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
 
 (a) Despite reasonable therapeutic efforts, clinical
 evidence indicates at least one of the following: (i) the persistence of
 problems that caused the admission to a degree that continues to meet the
 admission criteria (both severity of need and intensity of service needs); (ii)
 the emergence of additional problems that meet the admission criteria (both severity
 of need and intensity of service needs); or (iii) that disposition planning or
 attempts at therapeutic reentry into the community have resulted in or would
 result in exacerbation of the psychiatric illness to the degree that would
 necessitate continued PRTF treatment. Subjective opinions without objective
 clinical information or evidence are not sufficient to meet severity of need
 based on justifying the expectation that there would be a decompensation.
 
 (b) There is evidence of objective, measurable, and
 time-limited therapeutic clinical goals that must be met before the individual
 can return to a new or previous living situation. There is evidence that
 attempts are being made to secure timely access to treatment resources and
 housing in anticipation of discharge, with alternative housing contingency
 plans also being addressed.
 
 (c) There is evidence that the plan of care is focused on
 the alleviation of psychiatric symptoms and precipitating psychosocial
 stressors that are interfering with the individual's ability to return to a
 less-intensive level of care.
 
 (d) The current or revised plan of care can be reasonably
 expected to bring about significant improvement in the problems meeting the
 criteria in subdivision 3 c (3) (a) of this subsection, and this is documented
 in weekly progress notes written and signed by the provider.
 
 (e) There is evidence of intensive family or support system
 involvement occurring at least once per week, unless there is an identified
 valid reason why it is not clinically appropriate or feasible.
 
 (f) A discharge plan is formulated that is directly linked
 to the behaviors or symptoms that resulted in admission and begins to identify
 appropriate post-PRTF resources including the local school division and FAPT
 case manager as appropriate.
 
 (g) All applicable elements in admission-intensity and
 quality of service criteria are applied as related to assessment and treatment
 if clinically relevant and appropriate.
 
 (4) Discharge criteria. Discharge shall occur if any of the
 following applies: (i) the level of functioning has improved with respect to
 the goals outlined in the plan of care, and the individual can reasonably be
 expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment; (ii) the
 individual no longer benefits from service as evidenced by absence of progress
 toward plan of care goals for a period of 30 days; or (iii) other less
 intensive services may achieve stabilization.
 
 h. The following clinical activities shall be required for
 each PRTF resident:
 
 (1) A face-to-face assessment shall be performed by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RS, or LMHP-S within 30 calendar days prior to admission and
 weekly thereafter and shall document a DSM-5 or ICD-10 diagnosis. 
 
 (2) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
 independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
 D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 30 calendar days by a physician
 acting within his scope of practice.
 
 (3) The initial plan of care (IPOC) shall be completed
 within 24 hours of admission by the treatment team. The IPOC shall
 include: 
 
 (a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
 that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
 strategies and treatment alliance; 
 
 (b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 (c) A description of the functional level of the
 individual;
 
 (d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 (e) Any orders for medications, psychiatric, medical,
 dental, and any special health care needs, whether or not provided in the
 facility; education or special education; treatments; interventions; and
 restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social
 services, diet, and special procedures recommended for the health and safety of
 the individual; 
 
 (f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; 
 
 (g) Plans for discharge; and 
 
 (h) Signature and date by the individual, parent, or
 legally authorized representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
 
 (4) The CIPOC shall be completed and signed no later than
 14 calendar days after admission by the treatment team. The PRTF shall request
 authorizations from families to release confidential information to collect
 information from medical and behavioral health treatment providers, schools,
 FAPT, social services, court services, and other relevant parties. This
 information shall be used when considering changes and updating the CIPOC. The
 CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria:
 
 (a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for PRTF care;
 
 (b) Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
 and other personnel specified in subdivision 3 d 4 of this subsection who are
 employed by or provide services to the individual in the facility in
 consultation with the individual, family member, or legally authorized
 representative, or appropriate others into whose care the individual will be
 released after discharge;
 
 (c) Shall state treatment objectives that shall include
 measurable, evidence-based, and short-term and long-term goals and objectives;
 family engagement activities; and the design of community-based aftercare with
 target dates for achievement;
 
 (d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 interventions, activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment
 objectives related to the individual and family treatment needs; and 
 
 (e) Describe comprehensive transition plans and
 coordination of current care and post-discharge plans with related community
 services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's
 family, school, and community.
 
 (5) The CIPOC shall be reviewed every 30 calendar days by
 the team specified in subdivision 3 d 4 of this subsection to determine that
 services being provided are or were required from a PRTF and to recommend
 changes in the plan as indicated by the individual's overall adjustment during
 the time away from home. The CIPOC shall include the signature and date from
 the individual, parent, or legally authorized representative, a physician, and
 treatment team members.
 
 (6) Individual therapy shall be provided three times
 per week (or more frequently based upon the individual's needs) provided by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the plan of care
 and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection and
 12VAC30-60-61.
 
 (7) Group therapy shall be provided as clinically indicated
 by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the plan of
 care and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection.
 
 (8) Family therapy shall be provided as clinically
 indicated by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the
 plan of care and progress notes in accordance with the individual and family or
 legally authorized representative's goals and the requirements in this
 subsection.
 
 (9) Family engagement shall be provided in addition to
 family therapy or counseling. Family engagement shall be provided at least
 weekly as outlined in the plan of care and daily communication with the
 treatment team representative and the treatment team representative and the family
 or legally authorized representative shall be part of the family engagement
 strategies in the plan of care. For each service authorization period when
 family engagement is not possible, the PRTF shall identify and document the
 specific barriers to the individual's engagement with his family or legally
 authorized representatives. The PRTF shall document on a weekly basis the
 reasons that family engagement is not occurring as required. The PRTF shall
 document alternate family engagement strategies to be used as part of the
 interventions in the plan of care and request approval of the revised plan of
 care by DMAS. When family engagement is not possible, the PRTF shall
 collaborate with DMAS on a weekly basis to develop individualized family
 engagement strategies and document the revised strategies in the plan of care.
 
 (10) Three interventions shall be provided per 24-hour
 period including nights and weekends. Family engagement activities are
 considered to be an intervention and shall occur based on the treatment and
 visitation goals and scheduling needs of the family or legally authorized
 representative. Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall
 be outlined in and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the plan
 of care. Any deviation from the plan of care shall be documented along with a
 clinical or medical justification for the deviation based on the needs of the
 individual. 
 
 (11) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
 indicated in the plan of care and as paired with community-based and
 facility-based interventions to promote discharge planning, community
 integration, and family engagement. Therapeutic passes include activities as
 listed in subdivision 2 d (13) of this section. Twenty-four therapeutic passes
 shall be permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as
 approved by the treating physician and documented in the plan of care.
 Additional therapeutic passes shall require service authorization from DMAS.
 Any unauthorized therapeutic passes not approved by the provider or DMAS shall
 result in retraction for those days of service.
 
 (12) Discharge planning shall begin at admission and
 continue throughout the individual's placement at the PRTF. The parent or
 legally authorized representative, the community services board (CSB), the
 family assessment planning team (FAPT) case manager, if appropriate, and the
 DMAS contracted care manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall
 identify the anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and
 identify the available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the PRTF
 shall submit an active discharge plan to the DMAS contractor for review. Once
 the DMAS contractor approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin
 collaborating with the parent or legally authorized representative and the
 treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
 appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The PRTF shall
 request written permission from the parent or legally authorized representative
 to share treatment information with these providers and shall share information
 pursuant to a valid release. The PRTF shall request information from
 post-discharge providers to establish that the planning of services and
 activities has begun, shall establish that the individual has been enrolled in
 school, and shall provide individualized education program recommendations to
 the school if necessary. The PRTF shall inform the DMAS contractor of all
 scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
 the DMAS contractor within one business day of the individual's discharge date
 from the PRTF.
 
 (13) Failure to perform any of the items as described in
 subdivisions 3 h (1) through 3 h (12) of this subsection up until the discharge
 of the individual shall result in a retraction of the per diem and all other
 contracted and coordinated service payments for each day of noncompliance. 
 
 i. The team developing the CIPOC shall meet the following
 requirements:
 
 (1) At least one member of the team must have expertise in
 pediatric behavioral health. Based on education and experience, preferably
 including competence in child or adolescent psychiatry, the team must be
 capable of all of the following: assessing the individual's immediate and
 long-range therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths
 and liabilities; assessing the potential resources of the individual's family
 or legally authorized representative; setting treatment objectives; and
 prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the CIPOC's objectives.
 
 (2) The team shall include one of the following: 
 
 (a) A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist; 
 
 (b) A licensed clinical psychologist and a physician
 licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or 
 
 (c) A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
 with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental diseases and a licensed clinical psychologist.
 
 (3) The team shall also include one of the following: an
 LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 4. Requirements for independent certification teams
 applicable to both therapeutic group homes and PRTFs:
 
 a. The independent certification team shall certify the
 need for PRTF or therapeutic group home services and issue a certificate of
 need document within the process and timeliness standards as approved by DMAS
 under contractual agreement with the DMAS contractor.
 
 b. The independent certification team shall be approved by
 DMAS through a memorandum of understanding with a locality or be approved under
 contractual agreement with the DMAS contractor. The team shall initiate and
 coordinate referral to the family assessment and planning team (FAPT) as
 defined in §§ 2.2-5207 and 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia to facilitate care
 coordination and for consideration of educational coverage and other supports
 not covered by DMAS.
 
 c. The independent certification team shall assess the
 individual's and family's strengths and needs in addition to diagnoses,
 behaviors, and symptoms that indicate the need for behavioral health treatment
 and also consider whether local resources and community-based care are
 sufficient to meet the individual's treatment needs, as presented within the
 previous 30 calendar days, within the least restrictive environment.
 
 d. The LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP, as
 part of the independent certification team, shall meet with an individual and
 the individual's parent or legally authorized representative within two business
 days from a request to assess the individual's needs and begin the process to
 certify the need for an out-of-home placement. 
 
 e. The independent certification team shall meet with an
 individual and the individual's parent or legally authorized representative
 within 10 business days from a request to certify the need for an out-of-home
 placement.
 
 f. The independent certification team shall assess the
 treatment needs of the individual to issue a certificate of need (CON) for the
 most appropriate medically necessary services. The certification shall include
 the dated signature and credentials for each of the team members who rendered
 the certification. Referring or treatment providers shall not actively
 participate during the certification process but may provide supporting
 clinical documentation to the certification team.
 
 g. The CON shall be effective for 30 calendar days prior to
 admission.
 
 h. The independent certification team shall provide the
 completed CON to the facility within one calendar day of completing the CON.
 
 i. The individual and the individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative shall have the right to freedom of choice of service
 providers.
 
 j. If the individual or the individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative disagrees with the independent certification team's
 recommendation, the parent or legally authorized representative may appeal the
 recommendation in accordance with 12VAC30-110. 
 
 k. If the LMHP, as part of the independent certification
 team, determines that the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
 LMHP shall refer the individual to an appropriate Medicaid-enrolled crisis
 intervention provider, crisis stabilization provider, or inpatient psychiatric
 provider in accordance with 12VAC30-50-226 or shall refer the individual for
 emergency admission to a PRTF or therapeutic group home under subdivision 4 m
 of this subsection and shall also alert the individual's managed care
 organization. 
 
 l. For individuals who are already eligible for Medicaid at
 the time of admission, the independent certification team shall be a
 DMAS-authorized contractor with competence in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental illness, preferably in child psychiatry, and have knowledge of the
 individual's situation and service availability in the individual's local
 service area. The team shall be composed of at least one physician and one
 LMHP, including LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP. An individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative shall be included in the certification process.
 
 m. For emergency admissions, an assessment must be made by
 the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 Reimbursement shall only occur when a certificate of need is issued by the team
 responsible for the CIPOC within 14 calendar days after admission. The
 certification shall cover any period of time after admission and before claims
 are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. After processing an emergency
 admission, the therapeutic group home, PRTF, or institution for mental diseases
 (IMD) shall notify the DMAS contractor within five calendar days of the
 individual's status as being under the care of the facility. 
 
 n. For all individuals who apply and become eligible for
 Medicaid while an inpatient in a facility or program, the certification team
 shall refer the case to the DMAS contractor for referral to the local FAPT to
 facilitate care coordination and consideration of educational coverage and
 other supports not covered by DMAS.
 
 o. For individuals who apply and become eligible for
 Medicaid while an inpatient in the facility or program, the certification shall
 be made by the team responsible for the CIPOC and shall cover any period of
 time before the application for Medicaid eligibility for which claims are made
 for reimbursement by Medicaid. Upon the individual's enrollment into the
 Medicaid program, the therapeutic group home, PRTF, or IMD shall notify the
 DMAS contractor of the individual's status as being under the care of the
 facility within five calendar days of the individual becoming eligible for
 Medicaid benefits.
 
 5. Service authorization requirements applicable to both
 therapeutic group homes and PRTFs: 
 
 a. Authorization shall be required and shall be conducted
 by DMAS using medical necessity criteria specified in this subsection. 
 
 b. An individual shall have a valid psychiatric diagnosis
 and meet the medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to
 satisfy the criteria for admission. The diagnosis shall be current, as
 documented within the past 12 months. If a current diagnosis is not available,
 the individual will require a mental health evaluation prior to admission by an
 LMHP affiliated with the independent certification team to establish a
 diagnosis and recommend and coordinate referral to the available treatment
 options.
 
 c. At authorization, an initial length of stay shall be
 agreed upon by the individual and parent or legally authorized representative
 with the treating provider, and the treating provider shall be responsible for
 evaluating and documenting evidence of treatment progress, assessing the need
 for ongoing out-of-home placement, and obtaining authorization for continued
 stay.
 
 d. Information that is required to obtain authorization for
 these services shall include: 
 
 (1) A completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by DMAS; 
 
 (2) A certificate of need completed by an independent
 certification team specifying all of the following: 
 
 (a) The ambulatory care and Medicaid or FAPT-funded
 services available in the community do not meet the specific treatment needs of
 the individual; 
 
 (b) Alternative community-based care was not successful; 
 
 (c) Proper treatment of the individual's psychiatric
 condition requires services in a 24-hour supervised setting under the direction
 of a physician; and 
 
 (d) The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 individual's condition or prevent further regression so that a more intensive
 level of care will not be needed;
 
 (3) Diagnosis as defined in the DSM-5 and based on (i) an
 evaluation by a psychiatrist or LMHP that has been completed within 30 calendar
 days of admission or (ii) a diagnosis confirmed in writing by an LMHP after
 review of a previous evaluation completed within one year of admission;
 
 (4) A description of the individual's behavior during the
 seven calendar days immediately prior to admission;
 
 (5) A description of alternate placements and community
 mental health and rehabilitation services and traditional behavioral health
 services pursued and attempted and the outcomes of each service;
 
 (6) The individual's level of functioning and clinical
 stability;
 
 (7) The level of family involvement and supports available;
 and
 
 (8) The initial plan of care (IPOC).
 
 6. Continued stay criteria requirements applicable to both
 therapeutic group homes and PRTFs. For a continued stay authorization or a
 reauthorization to occur, the individual shall meet the medical necessity
 criteria as defined in this subsection to satisfy the criteria for continuing
 care. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by DMAS. A current
 plan of care and a current (within 30 calendar days) summary of progress
 related to the goals and objectives of the plan of care shall be submitted to
 DMAS for continuation of the service. The service provider shall also submit:
 
 a. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
 than 30 business days prior to the date of submission; 
 
 b. Documentation that the required services have been
 provided as defined in the plan of care; 
 
 c. Current (within the last 14 calendar days) information
 on progress related to the achievement of all treatment and discharge-related
 goals; and 
 
 d. A description of the individual's continued impairment
 and treatment needs, problem behaviors, family engagement activities,
 community-based discharge planning and care coordination, and need for a
 residential level of care. 
 
 7. EPSDT services requirements applicable to therapeutic
 group homes and PRTFs. Service limits may be exceeded based on medical
 necessity for individuals eligible for EPSDT. EPSDT services may involve
 service modalities not available to other individuals, such as applied
 behavioral analysis and neuro-rehabilitative services. Individualized services
 to address specific clinical needs identified in an EPSDT screening shall
 require authorization by a DMAS contractor. In unique EPSDT cases, DMAS may
 authorize specialized services beyond the standard therapeutic group home or
 PRTF medical necessity criteria and program requirements, as medically and
 clinically indicated to ensure the most appropriate treatment is available to
 each individual. Treating service providers authorized to deliver medically
 necessary EPSDT services in therapeutic group homes and PRTFs on behalf of a
 Medicaid-enrolled individual shall adhere to the individualized interventions
 and evidence-based progress measurement criteria described in the plan of care
 and approved for reimbursement by DMAS. All documentation, independent
 certification team, family engagement activity, therapeutic pass, and discharge
 planning requirements shall apply to cases approved as EPSDT PRTF or
 therapeutic group home service.
 
 8. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age for medically necessary stays in
 inpatient psychiatric facilities described in 42 CFR 440.160(b)(1) and (b)(2)
 for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral
 disorders identified under EPSDT when such services meet the requirements set
 forth in subdivision 7 of this subsection.
 
 a. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be provided under
 the direction of a physician. 
 
 b. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be provided by (i)
 a psychiatric hospital that undergoes a state survey to determine whether the
 hospital meets the requirements for participation in Medicare as a psychiatric
 hospital as specified in 42 CFR 482.60 or is accredited by a national
 organization whose psychiatric hospital accrediting program has been approved
 by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS); or (ii) a hospital
 with an inpatient psychiatric program that undergoes a state survey to
 determine whether the hospital meets the requirements for participation in
 Medicare as a hospital, as specified in 42 CFR part 482 or is accredited by a
 national accrediting organization whose hospital accrediting program has been
 approved by CMS.
 
 c. Inpatient psychiatric admissions at general acute care
 hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to the
 requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25.
 
 d. PRTF services are reimbursable only when the treatment
 program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically
 42 CFR 441.151(a) and 42 CFR 441.151 (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR
 441.156 and (ii) the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G.
 Each admission must be service authorized and the treatment must meet DMAS
 requirements for clinical necessity.
 
 e. The inpatient psychiatric benefit for individuals
 younger than 21 years of age shall include services that are provided pursuant
 to a certification of medical necessity and plan of care developed by an
 interdisciplinary team of professionals and shall involve active treatment
 designed to achieve the individual's discharge from inpatient status at the
 earliest possible time. The inpatient psychiatric benefit shall include
 services provided under arrangement furnished by Medicaid enrolled providers
 other than the inpatient psychiatric facility, as long as the inpatient
 psychiatric facility (i) arranges for and oversees the provision of all
 services, (ii) maintains all medical records of care furnished to the
 individual, and (iii) ensures that the services are furnished under the
 direction of a physician. Services provided under arrangement shall be
 documented by a written referral from the inpatient psychiatric facility. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the inpatient psychiatric facility who is licensed to prescribe
 drugs shall be considered the referral. 
 
 f. State freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order pharmacy services
 and emergency services. Private freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall
 arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order the
 following services: (i) medical and psychological services including those
 furnished by physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other
 licensed or certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists,
 respiratory therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii)
 outpatient hospital services; (iii) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and
 therapy for individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (iv)
 laboratory and radiology services; (v) vision services; (vi) dental, oral
 surgery, and orthodontic services; (vii) nonemergency transportation services;
 and (viii) emergency services. (Emergency services means the same as is set
 forth in 12VAC30-50-310 B.)
 
 f. E. Mental health family support partners.
 
 (1) 1. Mental health family support partners are
 peer recovery support services and are nonclinical, peer-to-peer activities
 that engage, educate, and support the caregiver and an individual's self-help
 efforts to improve health recovery resiliency and wellness. Mental health
 family support partners is a peer support service and is a strength-based,
 individualized service provided to the caregiver of a Medicaid-eligible
 individual younger than 21 years of age with a mental health disorder that is
 the focus of support. The services provided to the caregiver and individual
 must be directed exclusively toward the benefit of the Medicaid-eligible
 individual. Services are expected to improve outcomes for individuals younger
 than 21 years of age with complex needs who are involved with multiple systems
 and increase the individual's and family's confidence and capacity to manage
 their own services and supports while promoting recovery and healthy
 relationships. These services are rendered by a PRS who is (i) a parent of a
 minor or adult child with a similar mental health disorder or (ii) an adult
 with personal experience with a family member with a similar mental health
 disorder with experience navigating behavioral health care services. The PRS
 shall perform the service within the scope of his knowledge, lived experience,
 and education.
 
 (2) 2. Under the clinical oversight of the LMHP
 making the recommendation for mental health family support partners, the peer
 recovery specialist in consultation with his direct supervisor shall develop a
 recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan based on the LMHP's recommendation for
 service, the individual's and the caregiver's perceived recovery needs, and any
 clinical assessments or service specific provider intakes as defined in this
 section within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service. Development of
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall include collaboration with
 the individual and the individual's caregiver. Individualized goals and
 strategies shall be focused on the individual's identified needs for
 self-advocacy and recovery. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall
 also include documentation of how many days per week and how many hours per
 week are required to carry out the services in order to meet the goals of the
 plan. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall be completed, signed,
 and dated by the LMHP, the PRS, the direct supervisor, the individual, and the
 individual's caregiver within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service.
 The PRS shall act as an advocate for the individual, encouraging the individual
 and the caregiver to take a proactive role in developing and updating goals and
 objectives in the individualized recovery planning.
 
 (3) 3. Documentation of required activities
 shall be required as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5200 A, C, and E through J.
 
 (4) 4. Limitations and exclusions to service
 delivery shall be the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5210. 
 
 (5) 5. Caregivers of individuals younger than 21
 years of age who qualify to receive mental health family support partners shall
 (i) care for an individual with a mental health disorder who requires recovery
 assistance and (ii) meet two or more of the following:
 
 (a) a. Individual and his caregiver need
 peer-based recovery-oriented services for the maintenance of wellness and the
 acquisition of skills needed to support the individual. 
 
 (b) b. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance to develop self-advocacy skills to assist the individual in
 achieving self-management of the individual's health status. 
 
 (c) c. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance and support to prepare the individual for a successful work or
 school experience. 
 
 (d) d. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance to help the individual and caregiver assume responsibility for
 recovery.
 
 (6) 6. Individuals 18 through, 19, and
 20 years of age who meet the medical necessity criteria in 12VAC30-50-226 B 7
 e, who would benefit from receiving peer supports directly and who choose to
 receive mental health peer support services directly instead of through their
 caregiver, shall be permitted to receive mental health peer support services by
 an appropriate PRS.
 
 (7) 7. To qualify for continued mental health
 family support partners, medical necessity criteria shall continue to be met,
 and progress notes shall document the status of progress relative to the goals
 identified in the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 (8) 8. Discharge criteria from mental health
 family support partners shall be the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5180 E.
 
 (9) 9. Mental health family support partners
 services shall be rendered on an individual basis or in a group.
 
 (10) 10. Prior to service initiation, a
 documented recommendation for mental health family support partners services shall
 be made by a licensed mental health professional (LMHP) who is acting within
 his scope of practice under state law. The recommendation shall verify that the
 individual meets the medical necessity criteria set forth in subdivision 5 of
 this subsection. The recommendation shall be valid for no longer than 30
 calendar days.
 
 (11) 11. Effective July 1, 2017, a peer recovery
 specialist shall have the qualifications, education, experience, and
 certification required by DBHDS in order to be eligible to register with the
 Virginia Board of Counseling on or after July 1, 2018. Upon the promulgation of
 regulations by the Board of Counseling, registration of peer recovery
 specialists by the Board of Counseling shall be required. The PRS shall perform
 mental health family support partners services under the oversight of the LMHP
 making the recommendation for services and providing the clinical oversight of
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 (12) 12. The PRS shall be employed by or have a
 contractual relationship with the enrolled provider licensed for one of the
 following: 
 
 (a) a. Acute care general and emergency
 department hospital services licensed by the Department of Health. 
 
 (b) b. Freestanding psychiatric hospital and
 inpatient psychiatric unit licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services.
 
 (c) c. Psychiatric residential treatment
 facility licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services.
 
 (d) d. Therapeutic group home licensed by the
 Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (e) e. Outpatient mental health clinic services
 licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (f) f. Outpatient psychiatric services provider.
 
 (g) g. A community mental health and rehabilitative
 services provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services as a provider of one of the following community mental
 health and rehabilitative services as defined in this section, 12VAC30-50-226,
 12VAC30-50-420, or 12VAC30-50-430 for which the individual younger than 21
 years meets medical necessity criteria: (i) intensive in home; (ii)
 therapeutic day treatment; (iii) day treatment or partial hospitalization; (iv)
 crisis intervention; (v) crisis stabilization; (vi) mental health skill
 building; or (vii) mental health case management.
 
 (13) 13. Only the licensed and enrolled provider
 as referenced in subdivision 5 f (12) 12 of this subsection shall
 be eligible to bill and receive reimbursement from DMAS or its contractor
 for mental health family support partner services. Payments shall not be
 permitted to providers that fail to enter into an enrollment agreement with
 DMAS or its contractor. Reimbursement shall be subject to retraction for
 any billed service that is determined not to be in compliance with DMAS
 requirements.
 
 (14) 14. Supervision of the PRS shall meet the
 requirements set forth in 12VAC30-50-226 B 7 l.
 
 6. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than age 21 for medically necessary stays in inpatient
 psychiatric facilities described in 42 CFR 440.160(b)(1) and (b)(2) for the
 purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders
 identified under EPSDT when such services are rendered by: (i) a psychiatric hospital
 or an inpatient psychiatric program in a hospital accredited by the Joint
 Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations or (ii) a psychiatric
 facility that is accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
 Healthcare Organizations or the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation
 Facilities. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general acute care
 hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to the
 requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient
 psychiatric admissions to residential treatment facilities shall also be
 subject to the requirements of Part XIV (12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount,
 Duration and Scope of Selected Services. 
 
 a. The inpatient psychiatric services benefit for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age shall include services defined at 42
 CFR 440.160 that are provided under the direction of a physician pursuant to a
 certification of medical necessity and plan of care developed by an
 interdisciplinary team of professionals and shall involve active
 treatment designed to achieve the child's discharge from inpatient status at
 the earliest possible time. The inpatient psychiatric services benefit shall
 include services provided under arrangement furnished by Medicaid enrolled
 providers other than the inpatient psychiatric facility, as long as the
 inpatient psychiatric facility (i) arranges for and oversees the provision of
 all services, (ii) maintains all medical records of care furnished to the
 individual, and (iii) ensures that the services are furnished under the
 direction of a physician. Services provided under arrangement shall be
 documented by a written referral from the inpatient psychiatric facility. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the facility who is licensed to prescribe drugs shall be
 considered the referral. 
 
 b. Eligible services provided under arrangement with the
 inpatient psychiatric facility shall vary by provider type as described in this
 subsection. For purposes of this section, emergency services means the same as
 is set out in 12VAC30-50-310 B.
 
 (1) State freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these services: (i)
 pharmacy services and (ii) emergency services.
 
 (2) Private freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall
 arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these
 services: (i) medical and psychological services including those furnished by
 physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other licensed or
 certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists, respiratory
 therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii) outpatient
 hospital services; (iii) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and therapy
 for individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (iv)
 laboratory and radiology services; (v) vision services; (vi) dental, oral
 surgery, and orthodontic services; (vii) transportation services; and (viii) emergency
 services. 
 
 (3) Residential treatment facilities, as defined at 42 CFR
 483.352, shall arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians
 order these services: (i) medical and psychological services, including those
 furnished by physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other
 licensed or certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists,
 respiratory therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii)
 pharmacy services; (iii) outpatient hospital services; (iv) physical therapy,
 occupational therapy, and therapy for individuals with speech, hearing, or
 language disorders; (v) laboratory and radiology services; (vi) durable medical
 equipment; (vii) vision services; (viii) dental, oral surgery, and orthodontic
 services; (ix) transportation services; and (x) emergency services. 
 
 c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only
 when the treatment program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441
 Subpart D, specifically 42 CFR 441.151(a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42
 CFR 441.156, and (ii) the conditions of participation in 42 CFR Part 483
 Subpart G. Each admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet
 DMAS requirements for clinical necessity.
 
 d. Service limits may be exceeded based on medical
 necessity for individuals eligible for EPSDT.
 
 7. F. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when
 provided by practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or dealing
 in hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
 
 8. G. Addiction and recovery treatment services
 shall be covered under EPSDT consistent with 12VAC30-130-5000 et seq.
 
 9. H. Services facilitators shall be required
 for all consumer-directed personal care services consistent with the
 requirements set out in 12VAC30-120-935. 
 
 10. I. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age. 
 
 a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
 when used in this subsection shall have the following meanings unless the
 context clearly indicates otherwise:
 
 "Behavioral therapy" means systematic interventions
 provided by licensed practitioners acting within the scope of practice defined
 under a Virginia Department of Health Professions regulatory board and covered
 as remedial care under 42 CFR 440.130(d) to individuals younger than 21 years
 of age. Behavioral therapy includes applied behavioral analysis. Family
 training related to the implementation of the behavioral therapy shall be included
 as part of the behavioral therapy service. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 subject to clinical reviews and determined as medically necessary. Behavioral
 therapy may be provided in the individual's home and community settings as
 deemed by DMAS or its contractor as medically necessary treatment.
 
 "Counseling" means a professional mental health
 service that can only be provided by a person holding a license issued by a
 health regulatory board at the Department of Health Professions, which includes
 conducting assessments, making diagnoses of mental disorders and conditions,
 establishing treatment plans, and determining treatment interventions. 
 
 "Individual" means the child or adolescent younger
 than 21 years of age who is receiving behavioral therapy services.
 
 "Primary care provider" means a licensed medical
 practitioner who provides preventive and primary health care and is responsible
 for providing routine EPSDT screening and referral and coordination of other
 medical services needed by the individual.
 
 b. 2. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 designed to enhance communication skills and decrease maladaptive patterns of
 behavior, which if left untreated, could lead to more complex problems and the
 need for a greater or a more intensive level of care. The service goal shall be
 to ensure the individual's family or caregiver is trained to effectively manage
 the individual's behavior in the home using modification strategies. All
 services shall be provided in accordance with the ISP and clinical assessment summary.
 
 c. 3. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 covered when recommended by the individual's primary care provider or other
 licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or licensed nurse
 practitioner and determined by DMAS or its contractor to be medically
 necessary to correct or ameliorate significant impairments in major life
 activities that have resulted from either developmental, behavioral, or mental
 disabilities. Criteria for medical necessity are set out in 12VAC30-60-61 H
 F. Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the onset of
 these services in order to receive authorization for reimbursement. Individual
 service plans (ISPs) shall be required throughout the entire duration of
 services. The services shall be provided in accordance with the individual
 service plan and clinical assessment summary. These services shall be provided
 in settings that are natural or normal for a child or adolescent without a
 disability, such as the individual's home, unless there is justification in the
 ISP, which has been authorized for reimbursement, to include service settings
 that promote a generalization of behaviors across different settings to
 maintain the targeted functioning outside of the treatment setting in the
 individual's home and the larger community within which the individual resides.
 Covered behavioral therapy services shall include:
 
 (1) a. Initial and periodic service-specific
 provider intake as defined in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (2) b. Development of initial and updated ISPs
 as established in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (3) c. Clinical supervision activities.
 Requirements for clinical supervision are set out in 12VAC30-60-61 H F;
 
 (4) d. Behavioral training to increase the
 individual's adaptive functioning and communication skills; 
 
 (5) e. Training a family member in behavioral
 modification methods as established in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (6) f. Documentation and analysis of
 quantifiable behavioral data related to the treatment objectives; and
 
 (7) g. Care coordination.
 
 C. J. School health services.
 
 1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
 July 1, 2006.
 
 2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
 services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
 otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
 services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
 receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
 providers.
 
 a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
 receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
 reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
 
 b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
 individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
 service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
 services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
 illnesses or conditions.
 
 3. Providers shall be licensed under the applicable state
 practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department of
 Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part 440.
 Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions, and services
 necessary to correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners
 qualified to make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice,
 either as a member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the
 IEP team.
 
 a. Providers shall be employed by the school division or under
 contract to the school division. 
 
 b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in
 subdivision 4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal
 regulations and consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider
 manuals. 
 
 c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
 shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the
 community from other providers.
 
 d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
 control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456. 
 
 e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
 described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
 the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
 Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
 providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
 determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
 described as to the amount, duration and scope. 
 
 4. Covered services include:
 
 a. Physical therapy, and occupational therapy
 and services for individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders,
 performed by, or under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications
 set forth at 42 CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
 
 b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR
 440.60. These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing
 standards and criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are
 to be provided by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but
 may be delegated by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the
 regulations of the Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on
 delegation of nursing tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is
 under the supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 (1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
 level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
 implementation, and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing
 services when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical
 nurse. These skilled nursing services shall include dressing changes,
 maintaining patent airways, medication administration/monitoring administration
 or monitoring, and urinary catheterizations. 
 
 (2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and
 specifically related to an active, written plan of care developed by a
 registered nurse that is based on a written order from a physician, physician
 assistant, or nurse practitioner for skilled nursing services. This
 order shall be recertified on an annual basis. 
 
 c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
 licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
 or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
 medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient services
 include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy coverage,
 and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and neuropsychological testing
 are allowed when done for purposes other than educational diagnosis, school
 admission, evaluation of an individual with intellectual or developmental
 disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any placement issue.
 These services are covered in the nonschool settings also. School providers who
 may render these services when licensed by the state include psychiatrists,
 licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists, licensed clinical social
 workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical nurse specialists,
 marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
 
 d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
 440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
 care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
 professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner
 professional develops a written plan for meeting the needs of the child
 individual, which is implemented by the assistant. The assistant must
 have qualifications comparable to those for other personal care aides
 recognized by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance Services. The
 assistant performs services such as assisting with toileting, ambulation, and
 eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a specially adapted school
 vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
 provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
 the IEP. Children Individuals requiring an aide during
 transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
 IEP.
 
 e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
 services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
 440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
 physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
 identify the nature or extent of a child's an individual's
 medical or other health related condition. 
 
 f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
 431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D (12VAC30-50-530).
 Transportation shall be rendered only by school division personnel or
 contractors. Transportation is covered for a child an individual
 who requires transportation on a specially adapted school vehicle that enables
 transportation to or from the school or school contracted provider on days when
 the student individual is receiving a Medicaid-covered service
 under the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's individual's
 IEP. Children Individuals requiring an aide during transportation
 on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the IEP. 
 
 g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
 the need for medical services in a child's an individual's IEP
 and shall be performed by any of the above licensed practitioners within the
 scope of practice. Assessments and reassessments not tied to medical needs of
 the child individual shall not be covered.
 
 5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
 duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
 responsibility to ensure that if a child an individual is
 receiving additional therapy outside of the school, that there will be
 coordination of services to avoid duplication of service. 
 
 D. K. Family planning services and supplies for
 individuals of child-bearing age.
 
 1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
 performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
 arts.
 
 2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
 that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
 services to treat infertility or services to promote fertility. Family planning
 services shall not cover payment for abortion services and no funds shall be
 used to perform, assist, encourage, or make direct referrals for abortions.
 
 3. Family planning services as established by § 1905(a)(4)(C)
 of the Social Security Act include annual family planning exams; cervical
 cancer screening for women; sexually transmitted infection (STI) testing; lab
 services for family planning and STI testing; family planning education,
 counseling, and preconception health; sterilization procedures; nonemergency
 transportation to a family planning service; and U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration approved prescription and over-the-counter contraceptives,
 subject to limits in 12VAC30-50-210.
 
 12VAC30-50-226. Community mental health services.
 
 A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
 indicates otherwise: 
 
 "Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"
 means personal care tasks such as bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring,
 and eating or feeding. An individual's degree of independence in performing
 these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care and service
 needs.
 
 "Affiliated" means any entity or property in which
 a provider or facility has a direct or indirect ownership interest of 5.0% or
 more, or any management, partnership, or control of an entity.
 
 "Behavioral health service" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Behavioral health services administrator" or
 "BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
 benefits program under contract with DMAS. DMAS' designated BHSA shall be
 authorized to constitute, oversee, enroll, and train a provider network;
 perform service authorization; adjudicate claims; process claims; gather and
 maintain data; reimburse providers; perform quality assessment and improvement;
 conduct member outreach and education; resolve member and provider issues; and
 perform utilization management including care coordination for the provision of
 Medicaid-covered behavioral health services. Such authority shall include
 entering into or terminating contracts with providers in accordance with DMAS
 authority pursuant to 42 CFR Part 1002 and § 32.1-325 D and E of the Code
 of Virginia. DMAS shall retain authority for and oversight of the BHSA entity
 or entities.
 
 "Certified prescreener" means an employee of either
 the local community services board/behavioral board or behavioral
 health authority or its designee who is skilled in the assessment and treatment
 of mental illness and who has completed a certification program approved by
 DBHDS. 
 
 "Clinical experience" means, for the purpose of
 rendering (i) mental health day treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii)
 intensive community treatment, (iii) psychosocial rehabilitation, (iv) mental
 health skill building, (v) crisis stabilization, or (vi) crisis intervention
 services, practical experience in providing direct services to individuals with
 diagnoses of mental illness or intellectual disability or the provision of
 direct geriatric services or special education services. Experience shall
 include supervised internships, supervised practicums, or supervised field
 experience. Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
 practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
 hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be
 established by DBHDS in the document titled Human Services and Related Fields
 Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
 
 "Code" means the Code of Virginia. 
 
 "DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
 and Developmental Services consistent with Chapter 3 (§ 37.2-300 et seq.)
 of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Direct supervisor" means the person who provides
 direct supervision to the peer recovery specialist. The direct supervisor (i)
 shall have two consecutive years of documented practical experience rendering
 peer support services or family support services, have certification training
 as a PRS under a certifying body approved by DBHDS, and have documented
 completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; (ii) shall be a qualified
 mental health professional (QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E) as defined in
 12VAC35-105-20 with at least two consecutive years of documented experience as
 a QMHP, and who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training;
 or (iii) shall be an LMHP who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS
 supervisor training who is acting within his scope of practice under state law.
 An LMHP providing services before April 1, 2018, shall have until April 1,
 2018, to complete the DBHDS PRS supervisor training.
 
 "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services and its contractor or contractors consistent with Chapter 10 (§
 32.1-323 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 "DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
 of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association.
 
 "Human services field" means the same as the term
 is defined by DBHDS the Department of Health Professions in the
 guidance document entitled Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013. Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018.
 
 "Individual" means the patient, client, or
 recipient of services described in this section. 
 
 "Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
 a comprehensive and regularly updated treatment plan specific to the
 individual's unique treatment needs as identified in the service-specific
 provider intake. The ISP contains, but is not limited to, the individual's
 treatment or training needs, the individual's goals and measurable objectives
 to meet the identified needs, services to be provided with the recommended
 frequency to accomplish the measurable goals and objectives, the estimated
 timetable for achieving the goals and objectives, and an individualized
 discharge plan that describes transition to other appropriate services. The
 individual shall be included in the development of the ISP and the ISP shall be
 signed by the individual. If the individual is a minor child, the ISP
 shall also be signed by the individual's parent/legal parent or legal
 guardian. Documentation shall be provided if the individual, who is a minor
 child or an adult who lacks legal capacity, is unable or unwilling to sign the
 ISP.
 
 "Individualized training" means instruction and
 practice in functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
 individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living skills,
 and use of community resources; assistance with medical management; and
 monitoring health, nutrition, and physical condition. The training shall be
 rehabilitative and based on a variety of incremental (or cumulative) approaches
 or tools to organize and guide the individual's life planning and shall reflect
 what is important to the individual in addition to all other factors that
 affect his the individual's functioning, including effects of the
 disability and issues of health and safety.
 
 "Licensed mental health professional" or
 "LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the
 same as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
 professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
 therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
 practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
 practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
 "Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
 signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-resident in psychology" or
 "LMHP-RP" means the same as an individual in a residency, as that
 term is defined in 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An
 LMHP-resident in psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65
 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Psychology. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services
 provided by such residents, they shall use the title "Resident in
 Psychology" after their signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
 "LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
 "supervisee" is defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
 social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
 compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
 18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be considered
 a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at
 a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Social Work.
 For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for services
 provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title "Supervisee in
 Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "Peer recovery specialist" or "PRS" means
 the same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Person centered" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-adult" or
 "QMHP-A" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-child" or
 "QMHP-C" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
 "QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in
 12VAC35-105-20, including a "QMHP-trainee" as defined by the
 Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
 "QPPMH" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Recovery-oriented services" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160. 
 
 "Recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Register" or "registration" means
 notifying DMAS or its contractor that an individual will be receiving services
 that do not require service authorization.
 
 "Resiliency" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Review of ISP" means that the provider evaluates
 and updates the individual's progress toward meeting the individualized service
 plan objectives and documents the outcome of this review. For DMAS to determine
 that these reviews are satisfactory and complete, the reviews shall (i) update
 the goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP to reflect any change in the
 individual's progress and treatment needs as well as any newly identified
 problems; (ii) be conducted in a manner that enables the individual to
 participate in the process; and (iii) be documented in the individual's medical
 record no later than 15 calendar days from the date of the review. 
 
 "Self-advocacy" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Service authorization" means the process to
 approve specific services for an enrolled Medicaid, FAMIS Plus, or FAMIS
 individual by a DMAS service authorization contractor prior to service delivery
 and reimbursement in order to validate that the service requested is medically
 necessary and meets DMAS and DMAS contractor criteria for reimbursement.
 Service authorization does not guarantee payment for the service.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the same
 as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 and also includes individuals who are older than
 21 years of age.
 
 "Strength-based" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Supervision" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 B. Mental health services. The following services, with their
 definitions, shall be covered: day treatment/partial hospitalization,
 psychosocial rehabilitation, crisis services, intensive community treatment
 (ICT), and mental health skill building. Staff travel time shall not be
 included in billable time for reimbursement. These services, in order to be
 covered, shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by
 LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and are reflected
 in provider records and on providers' claims for services by recognized
 diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested professional
 services. These services are intended to be delivered in a person-centered
 person centered manner. The individuals who are receiving these services
 shall be included in all service planning activities. All services which do not
 require service authorization require registration. This registration shall
 transmit service-specific information to DMAS or its contractor in accordance
 with service authorization requirements. 
 
 1. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
 provided in sessions of two or more consecutive hours per day, which may be
 scheduled multiple times per week, to groups of individuals in a nonresidential
 setting. These services, limited annually to 780 units, include the major
 diagnostic, medical, psychiatric, psychosocial, and psychoeducational treatment
 modalities designed for individuals who require coordinated, intensive,
 comprehensive, and multidisciplinary treatment but who do not require inpatient
 treatment. One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two but less
 than four hours on a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as at
 least four but less than seven hours in a given day. Three units of service
 shall be defined as seven or more hours in a given day. Authorization is
 required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 a. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
 time limited interventions that are more intensive than outpatient services and
 are required to stabilize an individual's psychiatric condition. The services
 are delivered when the individual is at risk of psychiatric hospitalization or
 is transitioning from a psychiatric hospitalization to the community. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual is at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization or is transitioning from a psychiatric
 hospitalization to the community. 
 
 b. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
 emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
 life activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or homelessness or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that the individual
 requires repeated interventions or monitoring by the mental health, social
 services, or judicial system that have been documented; or
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 c. Individuals shall be discharged from this service when they
 are no longer in an acute psychiatric state and other less intensive services
 may achieve psychiatric stabilization. 
 
 d. Admission and services for time periods longer than 90
 calendar days must be authorized based upon a face-to-face evaluation by a
 physician, psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional
 counselor, licensed clinical social worker, or psychiatric clinical nurse
 specialist. 
 
 e. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 2. Psychosocial rehabilitation shall be provided at least two
 or more hours per day to groups of individuals in a nonresidential setting.
 These services, limited annually to 936 units, include assessment, education to
 teach the patient about the diagnosed mental illness and appropriate
 medications to avoid complication and relapse, and opportunities to learn and
 use independent living skills and to enhance social and interpersonal skills
 within a supportive and normalizing program structure and environment. One unit
 of service is defined as a minimum of two but less than four hours on a given
 day. Two units are defined as at least four but less than seven hours in a
 given day. Three units of service shall be defined as seven or more hours in a
 given day. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service.
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
 emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
 life activities. Services are provided to individuals: (i) who without
 these services would be unable to remain in the community or (ii) who meet at
 least two of the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that repeated
 interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
 behavior. 
 
 b. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 3. Crisis intervention shall provide immediate mental health
 care, available 24 hours a day, seven days per week, to assist individuals who
 are experiencing acute psychiatric dysfunction requiring immediate clinical
 attention. This service's objectives shall be to prevent exacerbation of a
 condition, to prevent injury to the client or others, and to provide treatment
 in the context of the least restrictive setting. Crisis intervention activities
 shall include assessing the crisis situation, providing short-term counseling
 designed to stabilize the individual, providing access to further immediate
 assessment and follow-up, and linking the individual and family with ongoing
 care to prevent future crises. Crisis intervention services may include office
 visits, home visits, preadmission screenings, telephone contacts, and other
 client-related activities for the prevention of institutionalization. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. The provision of this service to an individual shall be
 registered with either DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA within one
 business day or the completion of the service-specific provider intake to avoid
 duplication of services and to ensure informed care coordination. 
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
 psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
 hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 at the time of admission to the service:
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
 interventions documented by mental health, social services, or the judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
 behavior. 
 
 b. The annual limit for crisis intervention is 720 units per
 year. A unit shall equal 15 minutes. 
 
 c. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, an
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, or a certified prescreener.
 
 4. Intensive community treatment (ICT), initially covered for
 a maximum of 26 weeks based on an initial service-specific provider intake and
 may be reauthorized for up to an additional 26 weeks annually based on written
 intake and certification of need by a licensed mental health provider (LMHP),
 shall be defined by 12VAC35-105-20 or LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP and shall
 include medical psychotherapy, psychiatric assessment, medication management,
 and care coordination activities offered to outpatients outside the clinic,
 hospital, or office setting for individuals who are best served in the
 community. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 a. To qualify for ICT, the individual must meet at least one
 of the following criteria: 
 
 (1) The individual must be at high risk for psychiatric
 hospitalization or becoming or remaining homeless due to mental illness or
 require intervention by the mental health or criminal justice system due to
 inappropriate social behavior. 
 
 (2) The individual has a history (three months or more) of a
 need for intensive mental health treatment or treatment for co-occurring
 serious mental illness and substance use disorder and demonstrates a resistance
 to seek out and utilize appropriate treatment options. 
 
 b. A written, service-specific provider intake, as defined at
 12VAC30-50-130, that documents the individual's eligibility and the need for
 this service must be completed prior to the initiation of services. This intake
 must be maintained in the individual's records. 
 
 c. An individual service plan shall be initiated at the time
 of admission and must be fully developed, as defined in this section, within 30
 days of the initiation of services. 
 
 d. The annual unit limit shall be 130 units with a unit
 equaling one hour.
 
 e. These services may only be rendered by a team that meets
 the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
 
 5. Crisis stabilization services for nonhospitalized
 individuals shall provide direct mental health care to individuals experiencing
 an acute psychiatric crisis which may jeopardize their current community living
 situation. Services may be provided for up to a 15-day period per crisis
 episode following a face-to-face service-specific provider intake by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. Only one unit of service shall be
 reimbursed for this intake. The provision of this service to an individual
 shall be registered with either DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA
 within one business day of the completion of the service-specific provider
 intake to avoid duplication of services and to ensure informed care
 coordination. 
 
 a. The goals of crisis stabilization programs shall be to
 avert hospitalization or rehospitalization, provide normative environments with
 a high assurance of safety and security for crisis intervention, stabilize
 individuals in psychiatric crisis, and mobilize the resources of the community
 support system and family members and others for on-going maintenance and
 rehabilitation. The services must be documented in the individual's records as
 having been provided consistent with the ISP in order to receive Medicaid
 reimbursement. 
 
 b. The crisis stabilization program shall provide to
 individuals, as appropriate, psychiatric assessment including medication
 evaluation, treatment planning, symptom and behavior management, and individual
 and group counseling. 
 
 c. This service may be provided in any of the following
 settings, but shall not be limited to: (i) the home of an individual who lives
 with family or other primary caregiver; (ii) the home of an individual who
 lives independently; or (iii) community-based programs licensed by DBHDS to
 provide residential services but which are not institutions for mental disease
 (IMDs). 
 
 d. This service shall not be reimbursed for (i) individuals
 with medical conditions that require hospital care; (ii) individuals with a
 primary diagnosis of substance abuse; or (iii) individuals with psychiatric
 conditions that cannot be managed in the community (i.e., individuals who are
 of imminent danger to themselves or others). 
 
 e. The maximum limit on this service is 60 days annually.
 
 f. Services must be documented through daily progress notes
 and a daily log of times spent in the delivery of services. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
 psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
 hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 at the time of admission to the service: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing and maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that the individual is at
 risk of psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social
 supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
 interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that the
 individual is unable to recognize personal danger or significantly
 inappropriate social behavior. 
 
 g. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E or a certified
 prescreener.
 
 6. Mental health skill-building services (MHSS) shall be
 defined as goal-directed training to enable individuals to achieve and maintain
 community stability and independence in the most appropriate, least restrictive
 environment. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. Services
 that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not be
 reimbursed. These services may be authorized up to six consecutive months as
 long as the individual meets the coverage criteria for this service. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. These services shall provide goal-directed training in the
 following areas in order to be reimbursed by Medicaid or the BHSA DMAS
 contractor: (i) functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
 individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living, and use
 of community resources; (ii) assistance with medication management; and (iii)
 monitoring of health, nutrition, and physical condition with goals towards
 self-monitoring and self-regulation of all of these activities. Providers shall
 be reimbursed only for training activities defined in the ISP and only where
 services meet the service definition, eligibility, and service provision
 criteria and this section. A review of MHSS services by an LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S shall be repeated for all individuals who have received at
 least six months of MHSS to determine the continued need for this service.
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
 behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities. Services are provided to individuals who
 require individualized goal-directed training in order to achieve or maintain
 stability and independence in the community.
 
 b. Individuals ages 21 years of age and older
 shall meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive
 mental health skill-building services:
 
 (1) The individual shall have one of the following as a
 primary mental health diagnosis:
 
 (a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
 the DSM-5;
 
 (b) Major depressive disorder;
 
 (c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
 
 (d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a physician
 has documented specific to the identified individual within the past year and
 that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness; (ii)
 results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii) produces functional
 limitations in the individual's major life activities that are documented in
 the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires individualized training for
 the individual in order to achieve or maintain independent living in the
 community.
 
 (2) The individual shall require individualized goal-directed
 training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic living
 skills, such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical
 health medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and
 personal support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation,
 and the maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use
 of community resources. 
 
 (3) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
 following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
 nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
 or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
 a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) (PRTF)
 as a result of decompensation related to the individual's serious mental
 illness; or (v) a temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation, pursuant to § 37.2-809
 B of the Code of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially
 admitted to services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge
 summaries from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment
 provided, (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the
 name of the treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement.
 Family member statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (4) The individual shall have had a prescription for
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications within the 12
 months prior to the service-specific provider intake date. If a physician or
 other practitioner who is authorized by his license to prescribe medications
 indicates that antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications
 are medically contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain
 medical records signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing
 the contraindication. This documentation shall be maintained in the
 individual's mental health skill-building services record, and the provider
 shall document and describe how the individual will be able to actively
 participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of medication.
 This criterion shall be met upon admission to services and shall not be
 required for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from
 prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii)
 the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
 treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
 statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 c. Individuals aged 18 to 21 years of age shall
 meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive mental
 health skill-building services:
 
 (1) The individual shall not be living in a supervised setting
 as described in § 63.2-905.1 of the Code of Virginia. If the individual is
 transitioning into an independent living situation, MHSS shall only be
 authorized for up to six months prior to the date of transition.
 
 (2) The individual shall have at least one of the following as
 a primary mental health diagnosis.: 
 
 (a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
 the DSM-5;
 
 (b) Major depressive disorder;
 
 (c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
 
 (d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a physician
 has documented specific to the identified individual within the past year and
 that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness or serious
 emotional disturbance; (ii) results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii)
 produces functional limitations in the individual's major life activities that
 are documented in the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires
 individualized training for the individual in order to achieve or maintain
 independent living in the community.
 
 (3) The individual shall require individualized goal-directed
 training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic living skills
 such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical health
 medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and personal
 support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation, and the
 maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use of
 community resources.
 
 (4) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
 following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
 nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
 or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
 a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) as a result
 of decompensation related to the individual's serious mental illness; or (v)
 temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation pursuant to § 37.2-809 B of the Code
 of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to
 services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries
 from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided,
 (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
 treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
 statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (5) The individual shall have had a prescription for
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications, within the 12
 months prior to the assessment date. If a physician or other practitioner who
 is authorized by his license to prescribe medications indicates that
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications are medically
 contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain medical records
 signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing the
 contraindication. This documentation of medication management shall be
 maintained in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. For
 individuals not prescribed antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant
 medications, the provider shall have documentation from the medication
 management physician describing how the individual will be able to actively
 participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of medication.
 This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to services and
 not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from prior
 providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii) the
 dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the treatment
 provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member statements
 shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (6) An independent clinical assessment, established in
 12VAC30-130-3020, shall be completed for the individual.
 
 d. Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
 onset of services and individual service plans (ISPs) shall be required during
 the entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing,
 or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied
 reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are
 set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 e. The yearly limit for mental health skill-building services
 is 520 units. Only direct face-to-face contacts and services to the individual
 shall be reimbursable. One unit is 1 to 2.99 hours per day, and two
 units is 3 to 4.99 hours per day.
 
 f. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH.
 
 g. The provider shall clearly document details of the services
 provided during the entire amount of time billed.
 
 h. The ISP shall not include activities that contradict or
 duplicate those in the treatment plan established by the therapeutic
 group home or assisted living facility. The provider shall coordinate mental
 health skill-building services with the treatment plan established by the group
 home or assisted living facility and shall document all coordination activities
 in the medical record. 
 
 i. Limits and exclusions.
 
 (1) Group Therapeutic group home (Level A or
 B) and assisted living facility providers shall not serve as the mental
 health skill-building services provider for individuals residing in the
 provider's respective facility. Individuals residing in facilities may,
 however, receive MHSS from another MHSS agency not affiliated with the owner of
 the facility in which they reside.
 
 (2) Mental health skill-building services shall not be reimbursed
 for individuals who are receiving in-home residential services or congregate
 residential services through the Intellectual Disability Waiver or Individual
 and Family Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver.
 
 (3) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 reimbursed for individuals who are also receiving services under the Department
 of Social Services independent living program (22VAC40-151), independent living
 services (22VAC40-131 and 22VAC40-151), or independent living arrangement (22VAC40-131)
 or any Comprehensive Services Act-funded independent living skills programs.
 
 (4) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who are receiving treatment foster care
 (12VAC30-130-900 et seq.).
 
 (5) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who reside in intermediate care facilities for
 individuals with intellectual disabilities or hospitals.
 
 (6) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who reside in nursing facilities, except for up to 60
 days prior to discharge. If the individual has not been discharged from the
 nursing facility during the 60-day period of services, mental health
 skill-building services shall be terminated and no further service authorizations
 shall be available to the individual unless a provider can demonstrate and
 document that mental health skill-building services are necessary. Such
 documentation shall include facts demonstrating a change in the individual's
 circumstances and a new plan for discharge requiring up to 60 days of mental
 health skill-building services.
 
 (7) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available for residents of psychiatric residential treatment centers (Level
 C facilities) except for the intake code H0032 (modifier U8) in the seven
 days immediately prior to discharge.
 
 (8) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 reimbursed if personal care services or attendant care services are being
 received simultaneously, unless justification is provided why this is necessary
 in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. Medical
 record documentation shall fully substantiate the need for services when
 personal care or attendant care services are being provided. This applies to
 individuals who are receiving additional services through the Intellectual
 Disability Waiver (12VAC30-120-1000 et seq.), Individual and Family
 Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver (12VAC30-120-700 et seq.), the
 Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction Waiver (12VAC30-120-900 et seq.),
 and EPSDT services (12VAC30-50-130). 
 
 (9) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 duplicative of other services. Providers shall be required to ensure that if an
 individual is receiving additional therapeutic services that there will be
 coordination of services by either the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A,
 QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH to avoid duplication of services.
 
 (10) Individuals who have organic disorders, such as delirium,
 dementia, or other cognitive disorders not elsewhere classified, will be
 prohibited from receiving mental health skill-building services unless their
 physicians issue signed and dated statements indicating that the individuals
 can benefit from this service.
 
 (11) Individuals who are not diagnosed with a serious mental
 health disorder but who have personality disorders or other mental health
 disorders, or both, that may lead to chronic disability shall not be excluded
 from the mental health skill-building services eligibility criteria provided
 that the individual has a primary mental health diagnosis from the list
 included in subdivision B 6 b (1) or B 6 c (2) of this section and that the
 provider can document and describe how the individual is expected to actively
 participate in and benefit from mental health skill-building services.
 
 7. Mental health peer support services.
 
 a. Mental health peer support services are peer recovery
 support services and are nonclinical, peer-to-peer activities that engage,
 educate, and support an individual's self-help efforts to improve health
 recovery, resiliency, and wellness. Mental health peer support services for
 adults is a person centered, strength-based, and recovery-oriented
 rehabilitative service for individuals 21 years of age or older provided
 by a peer recovery specialist successful in the recovery process with lived
 experience with a mental health disorder, who is trained to offer support and
 assistance in helping others in the recovery to reduce the disabling effects of
 a mental health disorder that is the focus of support. Services assist the
 individual with developing and maintaining a path to recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness. Specific peer support service activities shall emphasize the
 acquisition, development, and enhancement of recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness. Services are designed to promote empowerment, self-determination,
 understanding, and coping skills through mentoring and service coordination
 supports, as well as to assist individuals in achieving positive coping
 mechanisms for the stressors and barriers encountered when recovering from
 their illnesses or disorders.
 
 b. Under the clinical oversight of the LMHP making the
 recommendation for mental health support services, the peer recovery specialist
 in consultation with his direct supervisor shall develop a recovery,
 resiliency, and wellness plan based on the LMHP's recommendation for service,
 the individual's perceived recovery needs, and any clinical assessments or
 service specific provider intakes as defined in this section within 30 calendar
 days of the initiation of service. Development of the recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness plan shall include collaboration with the individual. Individualized
 goals and strategies shall be focused on the individual's identified needs for
 self-advocacy and recovery. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall
 also include documentation of how many days per week and how many hours per
 week are required to carry out the services in order to meet the goals of the
 plan. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall be completed, signed,
 and dated by the LMHP, the PRS, the direct supervisor, and the individual
 within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service. The PRS shall act as an
 advocate for the individual, encouraging the individual to take a proactive
 role in developing and updating goals and objectives in the individualized
 recovery planning.
 
 c. Documentation of required activities shall be required as
 set forth in 12VAC30-130-5200 A, C, and E through J.
 
 d. Limitations and exclusions to service delivery shall be the
 same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5210.
 
 e. Individuals 21 years of age or older qualifying for
 mental health peer support services shall meet the following requirements:
 
 (1) Require recovery-oriented assistance and support services
 for the acquisition of skills needed to engage in and maintain recovery; for
 the development of self-advocacy skills to achieve a decreasing dependency on
 formalized treatment systems; and to increase responsibilities, wellness
 potential, and shared accountability for the individual's own recovery. 
 
 (2) Have a documented mental health disorder diagnosis. 
 
 (3) Demonstrate moderate to severe functional impairment
 because of a diagnosis that interferes with or limits performance in at least
 one of the following domains: educational (e.g., obtaining a high school or
 college degree); social (e.g., developing a social support system); vocational
 (e.g., obtaining part-time or full-time employment); self-maintenance (e.g.,
 managing symptoms, understanding his illness, living more independently).
 
 f. To qualify for continued mental health peer support
 services, medical necessity criteria shall continue to be met, and progress
 notes shall document the status of progress relative to the goals identified in
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 g. Discharge criteria from mental health peer support services
 is the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5180 E.
 
 h. Mental health peer support services shall be rendered
 on an individual basis or in a group.
 
 i. Prior to service initiation, a documented recommendation
 for mental health peer support services shall be made by a licensed mental
 health professional acting within the scope of practice under state law The
 recommendation shall verify that the individual meets the medical necessity
 criteria set forth in subdivision 7 e of this subsection. The recommendation
 shall be valid for no longer than 30 calendar days.
 
 j. Effective July 1, 2017, a peer recovery specialist shall
 have the qualifications, education, experience, and certification established
 by DBHDS in order to be eligible to register with the Board of Counseling on or
 after July 1, 2018. Upon the promulgation of regulations by the Board of
 Counseling, registration of peer recovery specialists by the Board of Counseling
 shall be required. The PRS shall perform mental health peer support services
 under the oversight of the LMHP making the recommendation for services and
 providing the clinical oversight of the recovery, resiliency, and wellness
 plan. The PRS shall be employed by or have a contractual relationship with an
 enrolled provider licensed for one of the following:
 
 (1) Acute care general hospital licensed by the Department of
 Health. 
 
 (2) Freestanding psychiatric hospital and inpatient
 psychiatric unit licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services.
 
 (3) Outpatient mental health clinic services licensed by the
 Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (4) Outpatient psychiatric services provider.
 
 (5) Rural health clinics and federally qualified health
 centers.
 
 (6) Hospital emergency department services licensed by the
 Department of Health.
 
 (7) Community mental health and rehabilitative services
 provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services as a provider of one of the following community mental health and
 rehabilitative services defined in this section or 12VAC30-50-420 for which the
 individual meets medical necessity criteria:
 
 (a) Day treatment or partial hospitalization;
 
 (b) Psychosocial rehabilitation;
 
 (c) Crisis intervention;
 
 (d) Intensive community treatment;
 
 (e) Crisis stabilization; 
 
 (f) Mental health skill building; or
 
 (g) Mental health case management.
 
 k. Only the licensed and enrolled provider referenced in
 subdivision 7 j of this subsection shall be eligible to bill mental health peer
 support services. Payments shall not be permitted to providers that fail to
 enter into an enrollment agreement with DMAS or its contractor.
 Reimbursement shall be subject to retraction for any billed service that is
 determined to not to be in compliance with DMAS requirements.
 
 l. Supervision of the PRS shall be required as set forth in
 the definition of "supervision" in 12VAC30-130-5160. Supervision of
 the PRS shall also meet the following requirements: the supervisor shall be
 under the clinical oversight of the LMHP making the recommendation for
 services, and the peer recovery specialist in consultation with his direct
 supervisor shall conduct and document a review of the recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness plan every 90 calendar days with the individual and the caregiver, as
 applicable. The review shall be signed by the PRS and the individual and, as
 applicable, the identified family member or caregiver. Review of the recovery,
 resiliency, and wellness plan means the PRS evaluates and updates the
 individual's progress every 90 days toward meeting the plan's goals and
 documents the outcome of this review in the individual's medical record. For
 DMAS to determine that these reviews are complete, the reviews shall (i) update
 the goals and objectives as needed to reflect any change in the individual's
 recovery as well as any newly identified needs, (ii) be conducted in a manner
 that enables the individual to actively participate in the process, and (iii)
 be documented by the PRS in the individual's medical record no later than 15
 calendar days from the date of the review.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-50) 
 
 Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
 Disorders, Fifth Edition, DSM-5, 2013, American Psychiatric Association
 
 Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,
 1996, HCIA, Inc.
 
 Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,
 American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and
 Gynecologists
 
 Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and
 Addenda
 
 Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
 DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2010, dated March 13, 2014 (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf)
 
 Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
 Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,
 American Society of Addiction Medicine
 
 Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
 (rev. 5/13) 
 
 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted on
 November 3, 2017, revised on February 9, 2018
 
 12VAC30-60-5. Applicability of utilization review requirements.
 
 A. These utilization requirements shall apply to all Medicaid
 covered services unless otherwise specified.
 
 B. Some Medicaid covered services require an approved service
 authorization prior to service delivery in order for reimbursement to occur. 
 
 1. To obtain service authorization, all providers' information
 supplied to the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS), service
 authorization contractor, or the behavioral health service authorization
 contractor or its contractor shall be fully substantiated throughout
 individuals' medical records. 
 
 2. Providers shall be required to maintain documentation
 detailing all relevant information about the Medicaid individuals who are in providers'
 the provider's care. Such documentation shall fully disclose the extent
 of services provided in order to support providers' the provider's
 claims for reimbursement for services rendered. This documentation shall be
 written, signed, and dated at the time the services are rendered unless
 specified otherwise. 
 
 C. DMAS, or its designee contractor, shall
 perform reviews of the utilization of all Medicaid covered services pursuant to
 42 CFR 440.260 and 42 CFR Part 456. 
 
 D. DMAS shall recover expenditures made for covered services
 when providers' documentation does not comport with standards specified in all
 applicable regulations.
 
 E. Providers who are determined not to be in compliance with
 DMAS requirements shall be subject to 12VAC30-80-130 for the repayment of those
 overpayments to DMAS.
 
 F. Utilization review requirements specific to community
 mental health services and residential treatment services, including
 therapeutic group homes and psychiatric residential treatment facilities (PRTFs),
 as set out in 12VAC30-50-130 and 12VAC30-50-226, shall be as follows:
 
 1. To apply to be reimbursed as a Medicaid provider, the
 required Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS)
 license shall be either a full, annual, triennial, or conditional license.
 Providers must be enrolled with DMAS or the BHSA its contractor
 to be reimbursed. Once a health care entity has been enrolled as a provider, it
 shall maintain, and update periodically as DMAS or its contractor
 requires, a current Provider Enrollment Agreement for each Medicaid service
 that the provider offers. 
 
 2. Health care entities with provisional licenses shall not be
 reimbursed as Medicaid providers of community mental health services.
 
 3. Payments shall not be permitted to health care entities
 that either hold provisional licenses or fail to enter into a Medicaid
 Provider Enrollment Agreement provider contract with DMAS or its
 contractor for a service prior to rendering that service.
 
 4. The behavioral health service authorization contractor
 DMAS or its contractor shall apply a national standardized set of
 medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
 InterQual Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by
 DMAS. Services that fail to meet medical necessity criteria shall be denied
 service authorization.
 
 5. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement for services
 provided by staff in residency, the following terms shall be used after their
 signatures to indicate such status:
 
 a. An LMHP-R shall use the term "Resident" after
 his signature.
 
 b. An LMHP-RP shall use the term "Resident in
 Psychology" after his signature.
 
 c. An LMHP-S shall use the term "Supervisee in Social
 Work" after his signature.
 
 12VAC30-60-50. Utilization control: Intermediate Care
 Facilities care facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR)
 persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities and Institutions
 institutions for Mental Disease (IMD) mental disease. 
 
 A. "Institution for mental disease" or
 "IMD" means the same as that term is defined in § 1905(i) of the
 Social Security Act.
 
 B. With respect to each Medicaid-eligible resident in
 an ICF/MR intermediate care facility for persons with intellectual
 and developmental disabilities (ICF/ID) or an IMD in Virginia, a
 written plan of care must be developed prior to admission to or authorization
 of benefits in such facility, and a regular program of independent professional
 review (including a medical evaluation) shall be completed periodically for
 such services. The purpose of the review is to determine: the adequacy of the
 services available to meet his the resident's current health
 needs and promote his the resident's maximum physical well being;
 the necessity and desirability of his the resident's continued
 placement in the facility; and the feasibility of meeting his the
 resident's health care needs through alternative institutional or
 noninstitutional services. Long-term care of residents in such facilities will
 be provided in accordance with federal law that is based on the resident's
 medical and social needs and requirements. 
 
 B. C. With respect to each ICF/MR ICF/ID
 or IMD, periodic on-site onsite inspections of the care being
 provided to each person receiving medical assistance, by one or more
 independent professional review teams (composed of a physician or registered
 nurse and other appropriate health and social service personnel), shall be
 conducted. The review shall include, with respect to each recipient, a
 determination of the adequacy of the services available to meet his the
 resident's current health needs and promote his the resident's
 maximum physical well-being, the necessity and desirability of continued
 placement in the facility, and the feasibility of meeting his the
 resident's health care needs through alternative institutional or
 noninstitutional services. Full reports shall be made to the state agency by
 the review team of the findings of each inspection, together with any
 recommendations. 
 
 C. D. In order for reimbursement to be made to
 a facility for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities, the resident must meet criteria for placement
 in such facility as described in 12VAC30-60-360 and the facility must provide
 active treatment for mental retardation intellectual or developmental
 disabilities. 
 
 D. E. In each case for which payment for
 nursing facility services for the mentally retarded persons with
 intellectual or developmental disabilities or institution for mental
 disease services is made under the State Plan: 
 
 1. A physician must certify for each applicant or recipient
 that inpatient care is needed in a facility for the mentally retarded or an
 institution for mental disease. A certificate of need shall be completed
 by an independent certification team according to the requirements of
 12VAC30-50-130 D 5. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 calendar days
 by a physician, or by a physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within
 their scope of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician.
 The certification must be made at the time of admission or, if an individual
 applies for assistance while in the facility, before the Medicaid agency
 authorizes payment; and 
 
 2. A physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner
 acting within the scope of the practice as defined by state law and under the
 supervision of a physician, must recertify for each applicant at least every 365
 60 calendar days that services are needed in a facility for the
 mentally retarded persons with intellectual and developmental
 disabilities or an institution for mental disease. 
 
 E. F. When a resident no longer meets criteria
 for facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual
 and developmental disabilities or for an institution for mental
 disease, or no longer requires active treatment in a facility for the
 mentally retarded persons with intellectual and developmental
 disabilities then the resident must shall be discharged. 
 
 F. G. All services provided in an IMD and in
 an ICF/MR ICF/ID shall be provided in accordance with guidelines
 found in the Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual. 
 
 H. All services provided in an IMD shall be provided with
 the applicable provider agreement and all documents referenced therein.
 
 I. Psychiatric services in IMDs shall only be covered for
 eligible individuals younger than 21 years of age.
 
 J. IMD services provided without service authorization
 from DMAS or its contractor shall not be covered.
 
 K. Absence of any of the required IMD documentation shall
 result in denial or retraction of reimbursement. 
 
 L. In each case for which payment for IMD services is made
 under the State Plan:
 
 1. A physician shall certify at the time of admission, or
 at the time the IMD is notified of an individual's retroactive eligibility
 status, that the individual requires or required inpatient services in an IMD
 consistent with 42 CFR 456.160.
 
 2. The physician, or physician assistant or nurse
 practitioner acting within the scope of practice as defined by state law and
 under the supervision of a physician, shall recertify at least every 60
 calendar days that the individual continues to require inpatient services in an
 IMD.
 
 3.  Before admission to an IMD or before authorization
 for payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall perform a medical
 evaluation of the individual, and appropriate personnel shall complete a
 psychiatric and social evaluation as described in 42 CFR 456.170.
 
 4. Before admission to an IMD or before authorization for
 payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall establish a written
 plan of care for each individual as described in 42 CFR 441.155 and 42 CFR
 456.180. 
 
 M. It shall be documented that the individual requiring
 admission to an IMD who is younger than 21 years of age, that treatment is
 medically necessary, and that the necessity was identified as a result of an
 independent certification of need team review. Required documentation shall
 include the following:
 
 1. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association, and based on an evaluation by a psychiatrist completed within 30
 calendar days of admission or if the diagnosis is confirmed, in writing, by a
 previous evaluation completed within one year within admission.
 
 2. A certification of the need for services as defined in
 42 CFR 441.152 by an interdisciplinary team meeting the requirements of 42
 CFR 441.153 or 42 CFR 441.156 and the Psychiatric Treatment of Minors Act (§
 16.1-335 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
 
 N. The use of seclusion and restraint in an IMD shall be
 in accordance with 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376. Each use of a
 seclusion or restraint, as defined in 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376,
 shall be reported by the service provider to DMAS or its contractor within one
 calendar day of the incident.
 
 12VAC30-60-61. Services related to the Early and Periodic
 Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT); community mental health and
 behavioral therapy services for children.
 
 A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
 otherwise:
 
 "At risk" means one or more of the following: (i)
 within the two weeks before the intake, the individual shall be screened by an
 LMHP for escalating behaviors that have put either the individual or others at
 immediate risk of physical injury; (ii) the parent/guardian parent or
 guardian is unable to manage the individual's mental, behavioral, or
 emotional problems in the home and is actively, within the past two to four
 weeks, seeking an out-of-home placement; (iii) a representative of either a
 juvenile justice agency, a department of social services (either the state
 agency or local agency), a community services board/behavioral health authority,
 the Department of Education, or an LMHP, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20, and who
 is neither an employee of nor consultant to the intensive in-home (IIH)
 services or therapeutic day treatment (TDT) provider, has recommended an
 out-of-home placement absent an immediate change of behaviors and when
 unsuccessful mental health services are evident; (iv) the individual has a
 history of unsuccessful services (either crisis intervention, crisis
 stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, outpatient substance abuse services,
 or mental health support) within the past 30 calendar days; or
 (v) the treatment team or family assessment planning team (FAPT) recommends IIH
 services or TDT for an individual currently who is either: (a) transitioning
 out of psychiatric residential treatment facility Level C (PRTF)
 services, (b) transitioning out of a therapeutic group home Level A
 or B services, (c) transitioning out of acute psychiatric hospitalization,
 or (d) transitioning between foster homes, mental health case management,
 crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, or
 outpatient substance abuse services. 
 
 "Failed services" or "unsuccessful
 services" means, as measured by ongoing behavioral, mental, or physical
 distress, that the services did not treat or resolve the individual's mental
 health or behavioral issues.
 
 "Individual" means the Medicaid-eligible person
 receiving these services and for the purpose of this section includes children
 from birth up to 12 years of age or and adolescents ages 12
 through 20 years.
 
 "Licensed assistant behavior analyst" means a
 person who has met the licensing requirements of 18VAC85-150 and holds a valid
 license issued by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Licensed behavior analyst" means a person who has
 met the licensing requirements of 18VAC85-150 and holds a valid license issued
 by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "New service" means a community mental health
 rehabilitation service for which the individual does not have a current service
 authorization in effect as of July 17, 2011.
 
 "Out-of-home placement" means placement in one or
 more of the following: (i) either a Level A or Level B therapeutic
 group home; (ii) regular foster home if the individual is currently residing
 with his the individual's biological family and, due to his
 behavior problems, is at risk of being placed in the custody of the local
 department of social services; (iii) treatment foster care if the individual is
 currently residing with his the individual's biological family or
 a regular foster care family and, due to the individual's behavioral problems,
 is at risk of removal to a higher level of care; (iv) Level C psychiatric
 residential treatment facility; (v) emergency shelter for the individual
 only due either to his mental health or behavior or both; (vi) psychiatric
 hospitalization; or (vii) juvenile justice system or incarceration. 
 
 "Progress notes" means individual-specific
 documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
 individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
 contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
 the notes. Individualized progress notes are part of the minimum documentation
 requirements and shall convey the individual's status, staff interventions,
 and, as appropriate, the individual's progress or lack of progress toward goals
 and objectives in the plan of care. The progress notes shall also include, at a
 minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the service rendered, the
 signature and credentials of the person who rendered the service, the setting
 in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time or units required to
 deliver the service. The content of each progress note shall corroborate the
 time or units billed. Progress notes shall be documented for each service that
 is billed.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the
 evaluation that is conducted according to the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services (DMAS) intake definition set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 B. Utilization review requirements for all services in this
 section.
 
 1. The services described in this section shall be rendered
 consistent with the definitions, service limits, and requirements described in
 this section and in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 2. Providers shall be required to refund payments made by
 Medicaid if they fail to maintain adequate documentation to support billed
 activities.
 
 3. Individual service plans (ISPs) shall meet all of the
 requirements set forth in 12VAC30-60-143 B 7.
 
 C. Utilization review of intensive in-home (IIH) services for
 children and adolescents. 
 
 1. The service definition for intensive in-home (IIH) services
 is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 2. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral or emotional
 illness that results in significant functional impairments in major life
 activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
 continuing or intermittent basis to be authorized for these services: 
 
 a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
 interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
 community. 
 
 b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
 repeated interventions by the mental health, social services or judicial system
 are or have been necessary. 
 
 c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 3. Prior to admission, an appropriate service-specific
 provider intake, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, shall be conducted by the
 licensed mental health professional (LMHP), LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or
 LMHP-RP, documenting the individual's diagnosis and describing how service
 needs can best be met through intervention provided typically but not solely in
 the individual's residence. The service-specific provider intake shall describe
 how the individual's clinical needs put the individual at risk of out-of-home
 placement and shall be conducted face-to-face in the individual's residence.
 Claims for services that are based upon service-specific provider intakes that
 are incomplete, outdated (more than 12 months old), or missing shall not be
 reimbursed.
 
 4. An individual service plan (ISP) shall be fully completed,
 signed, and dated by either an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
 QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E and the individual and individual's parent/guardian parent
 or guardian within 30 calendar days of initiation of services. The
 ISP shall meet all of the requirements as defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
 
 5. DMAS shall not reimburse for dates of services in which the
 progress notes are not individualized and child-specific. Duplicated progress
 notes shall not constitute the required child-specific individualized progress
 notes. Each progress note shall demonstrate unique differences particular to
 the individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress. Claim payments shall
 be retracted for services that are supported by documentation that does not
 demonstrate unique differences particular to the individual. 
 
 6. Services shall be directed toward the treatment of the
 eligible individual and delivered primarily in the family's residence with the
 individual present. As clinically indicated, the services may be rendered
 in the community if there is documentation, on that date of service, of the
 necessity of providing services in the community. The documentation shall describe
 how the alternative community service location supports the identified clinical
 needs of the individual and describe how it facilitates the implementation of
 the ISP. For services provided outside of the home, there shall be
 documentation reflecting therapeutic treatment as set forth in the ISP provided
 for that date of service in the appropriately signed and dated progress notes.
 
 7. These services shall be provided when the clinical needs of
 the individual put him the individual at risk for out-of-home
 placement, as these terms are defined in this section:
 
 a. When services that are far more intensive than outpatient
 clinic care are required to stabilize the individual in the family situation,;
 or 
 
 b. When the individual's residence as the setting for services
 is more likely to be successful than a clinic. 
 
 The service-specific provider intake shall describe how the
 individual meets either subdivision 7 a or 7 b of this subdivision
 7 subsection.
 
 8. Services shall not be provided if the individual is no
 longer a resident of the home.
 
 9. Services shall also be used to facilitate the transition to
 home from an out-of-home placement when services more intensive than outpatient
 clinic care are required for the transition to be successful. The individual
 and responsible parent/guardian parent or guardian shall be
 available and in agreement to participate in the transition. 
 
 10. At least one parent/legal parent or legal
 guardian or responsible adult with whom the individual is living must be
 willing to participate in the intensive in-home services with the goal of
 keeping the individual with the family. In the instance of this service, a
 responsible adult shall be an adult who lives in the same household with the
 child and is responsible for engaging in therapy and service-related activities
 to benefit the individual. 
 
 11. The enrolled provider shall be licensed by the Department
 of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) as a provider of
 intensive in-home services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment
 agreement with DMAS or its contractor in effect prior to the delivery of this
 service that indicates that the provider will offer intensive in-home services.
 
 12. Services must only be provided by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. Reimbursement shall
 not be provided for such services when they have been rendered by a QPPMH as
 defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 13. The billing unit for intensive in-home service shall be
 one hour. Although the pattern of service delivery may vary, intensive in-home
 services is an intensive service provided to individuals for whom there is an
 ISP in effect which demonstrates the need for a minimum of three hours a week
 of intensive in-home service, and includes a plan for service provision of a
 minimum of three hours of service delivery per individual/family individual
 or family per week in the initial phase of treatment. It is expected that
 the pattern of service provision may show more intensive services and more
 frequent contact with the individual and family initially with a lessening or
 tapering off of intensity toward the latter weeks of service. Service plans
 shall incorporate an individualized discharge plan that describes transition
 from intensive in-home to less intensive or nonhome based services.
 
 14. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be updated as
 the individual's needs and progress changes and signed by either the parent or
 legal guardian and the individual. Documentation shall be provided if the
 individual, who is a minor child, is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP. If
 there is a lapse in services that is greater than 31 consecutive calendar days
 without any communications from family members/legal members or legal
 guardian or the individual with the provider, the provider shall discharge the
 individual. If the individual continues to need services, then a new intake/admission
 intake or admission shall be documented and a new service authorization
 shall be required.
 
 15. The provider shall ensure that the maximum staff-to-caseload
 ratio fully meets the needs of the individual.
 
 16. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
 management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430,
 the provider shall contact the case manager and provide notification of
 the provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates
 to the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be
 sent to the case manager within 30 calendar days of the service
 discontinuation date. Providers and case managers who are using the same
 electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
 delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
 of the information in the electronic health records. 
 
 17. Emergency assistance shall be available 24 hours per day,
 seven days a week. 
 
 18. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements at
 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines violate these marketing
 requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E. 
 
 19. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or guardian, shall
 inform him the primary care provider of the individual's receipt
 of IIH services. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
 contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
 
 D. Utilization review of therapeutic day treatment for
 children and adolescents. 
 
 1. The service definition for therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
 for children and adolescents is contained in 12VAC30-50-130. 
 
 2. Therapeutic day treatment is appropriate for children and
 adolescents who meet one of the following criteria: 
 
 a. Children and adolescents who require year-round treatment
 in order to sustain behavior or emotional gains. 
 
 b. Children and adolescents whose behavior and emotional
 problems are so severe they cannot be handled in self-contained or resource
 emotionally disturbed (ED) classrooms without: 
 
 (1) This programming during the school day; or 
 
 (2) This programming to supplement the school day or school
 year. 
 
 c. Children and adolescents who would otherwise be placed on
 homebound instruction because of severe emotional/behavior problems that
 interfere with learning. 
 
 d. Children and adolescents who (i) have deficits in social
 skills, peer relations or dealing with authority; (ii) are hyperactive; (iii)
 have poor impulse control; or (iv) are extremely depressed or marginally
 connected with reality. 
 
 e. Children in preschool enrichment and early intervention
 programs when the children's emotional/behavioral emotional or
 behavioral problems are so severe that they the children
 cannot function in these programs without additional services. 
 
 3. The service-specific provider intake shall document the
 individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets these specific
 service criteria in subdivision 2 of this subsection. 
 
 4. Prior to admission to this service, a service-specific
 provider intake shall be conducted by the LMHP as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 5. An ISP shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an
 LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and by the
 individual or the parent/guardian parent or guardian within 30 calendar
 days of initiation of services and shall meet all requirements of an ISP as
 defined in 12VAC30-50-226. Individual progress notes shall be required for each
 contact with the individual and shall meet all of the requirements as defined
 in 12VAC30-50-130 this section.
 
 6. Such services shall not duplicate those services provided
 by the school. 
 
 7. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
 behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities. Individuals shall meet at least two of
 the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
 interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
 community. 
 
 b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
 repeated interventions by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary. 
 
 c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 8. The enrolled provider of therapeutic day treatment for
 child and adolescent services shall be licensed by DBHDS to provide day support
 services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment agreement in
 effect with DMAS prior to the delivery of this service that indicates that the
 provider offers therapeutic day treatment services for children and
 adolescents. 
 
 9. Services shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
 LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. 
 
 10. The minimum staff-to-individual ratio as defined by DBHDS
 licensing requirements shall ensure that adequate staff is available to meet
 the needs of the individual identified on the ISP. 
 
 11. The program shall operate a minimum of two hours per day
 and may offer flexible program hours (i.e., before or after school or during
 the summer). One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two hours but
 less than three hours in a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as
 a minimum of three but less than five hours in a given day. Three units of
 service shall be defined as five or more hours of service in a given day. 
 
 12. Time required for academic instruction when no treatment
 activity is going on shall not be included in the billing unit. 
 
 13. Services shall be provided following a service-specific
 provider intake that is conducted by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
 or LMHP-RP. An LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident shall make and document
 the diagnosis. The service-specific provider intake shall include the elements
 as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 14. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
 management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider
 shall collaborate with the case manager and provide notification of the
 provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to
 the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be sent
 to the case manager within 30 calendar days of the service
 discontinuation date. Providers and case managers using the same electronic
 health record for the individual shall meet requirements for delivery of the
 notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this
 documentation into the electronic health record. 
 
 15. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
 the individual's parent or legal guardian, shall inform the primary care
 provider of the child's the individual's receipt of community
 mental health rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was
 contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. The
 parent/legal parent or legal guardian shall be required to give
 written consent that this provider has permission to inform the primary care
 provider of the child's or adolescent's receipt of community mental health
 rehabilitative services. 
 
 16. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
 set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
 marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E.
 
 17. If there is a lapse in services greater than 31
 consecutive calendar days, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
 individual continues to need services, a new intake/admission intake
 or admission documentation shall be prepared and a new service
 authorization shall be required.
 
 E. Utilization review of community-based services for
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level A). 
 
 1. The staff ratio must be at least one to six during the
 day and at least one to 10 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. The program
 director supervising the program/group home must be, at minimum, a QMHP-C or
 QMHP-E (as defined in 12VAC35-105-20). The program director must be employed
 full time. 
 
 2. In order for Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at
 least 50% of the provider's direct care staff at the group home must meet DBHDS
 paraprofessional staff criteria, defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 3. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 All community-based services for children and adolescents younger than 21
 (Level A) require authorization prior to reimbursement for these services.
 Reimbursement shall not be made for this service when other less intensive
 services may achieve stabilization. 
 
 4. Services must be provided in accordance with an
 individual service plan (ISP), which must be fully completed within 30 days of
 authorization for Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 5. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
 shall be conducted according to DMAS specifications described in
 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 6. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be
 performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 7. If an individual receiving community-based services for
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level A) is also
 receiving case management services, the provider shall collaborate with the
 case manager by notifying the case manager of the provision of Level A services
 and shall send monthly updates on the individual's progress. When the
 individual is discharged from Level A services, a discharge summary shall be
 sent to the case manager within 30 days of the service discontinuation
 date. Providers and case managers who are using the same electronic health
 record for the individual shall meet requirements for the delivery of the
 notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this
 documentation into the electronic health record. 
 
 F. E. Utilization review of therapeutic behavioral
 services group home for children and adolescents younger than 21
 years of age (Level B). 
 
 1. The staff ratio must be at least one to four during the
 day and at least one to eight between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. approved
 by the Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services. The clinical director must shall be a licensed
 mental health professional. The caseload of the clinical director must not
 exceed 16 individuals including all sites for which the same clinical director
 is responsible. 
 
 2. The program director must shall be full time
 and be a QMHP-C or QMHP-E with a bachelor's degree and at least one year's
 clinical experience meet the requirements for a program director as
 defined in 12VAC35-46-350.
 
 3. For Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least 50% of
 the provider's direct care staff at the therapeutic group home shall
 meet DBHDS paraprofessional staff qualified paraprofessional in
 mental health (QPPMH) criteria, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. The program/group
 therapeutic group home must shall coordinate services with
 other providers. 
 
 4. All therapeutic behavioral group home
 services (Level B) shall be authorized prior to reimbursement for these
 services. Services rendered without such prior authorization shall not be
 covered. 
 
 5. Services must be provided in accordance with an ISP a
 comprehensive individual plan of care as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, which
 shall be fully completed within 30 calendar days of authorization for
 Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 6. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
 an assessment shall be performed using all elements specified by DMAS in
 12VAC30-50-130. 
 
 7. Such service-specific provider intakes assessments
 shall be performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 8. If an individual receiving therapeutic behavioral group
 home services for children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level
 B) is also receiving case management services, the therapeutic behavioral
 group home services provider must collaborate with the care coordinator/case
 manager by notifying him of the provision of Level B therapeutic
 group home services and the Level B therapeutic group home
 services provider shall send monthly updates on the individual's treatment
 status. When the individual is discharged from Level B services, a discharge
 summary shall be sent to the care coordinator/case manager within 30 days of
 the discontinuation date. 
 
 9. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
 guardian parent or legally authorized representative, shall inform
 the primary care provider of the individual's receipt of these Level B therapeutic
 group home services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
 when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. If these
 individuals are children or adolescents, then the parent/legal guardian parent
 or legally authorized representative shall be required to give written
 consent that this provider has permission to inform the primary care provider
 of the individual's receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
 
 
 G. Utilization review. Utilization reviews for
 community-based services for children and adolescents younger than 21 years of
 age (Level A) and therapeutic behavioral services for children and adolescents
 younger than 21 years of age (Level B) shall include determinations whether
 providers meet all DMAS requirements, including compliance with DMAS marketing
 requirements. Providers that DMAS determines have violated the DMAS marketing
 requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E. 
 
 H. F. Utilization review of behavioral therapy
 services for children individuals younger than 21 years of age. 
 
 1. In order for Medicaid to cover behavioral therapy services,
 the provider shall be enrolled with DMAS or its contractor as a Medicaid
 provider. The provider enrollment agreement shall be in effect prior to the
 delivery of services for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 2. Behavioral therapy services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age when recommended by the individual's
 primary care provider, licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or
 licensed nurse practitioner and determined by DMAS or its contractor to be
 medically necessary to correct or ameliorate significant impairments in major
 life activities that have resulted from either developmental, behavioral, or
 mental disabilities.
 
 3. Behavioral therapy services require service authorization.
 Services shall be authorized only when eligibility and medical necessity
 criteria are met.
 
 4. Prior to treatment, an appropriate service-specific
 provider intake shall be conducted, documented, signed, and dated by a licensed
 behavior analyst (LBA), licensed assistant behavior analyst (LABA), LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, acting within the scope of his practice,
 documenting the individual's diagnosis (including a description of the
 behaviors targeted for treatment with their frequency, duration, and intensity)
 and describing how service needs can best be met through behavioral therapy.
 The service-specific provider intake shall be conducted face-to-face in the
 individual's residence with the individual and parent or guardian. 
 
 5. The ISP shall be developed upon admission to the service
 and reviewed within 30 days of admission to the service to ensure that all
 treatment goals are reflective of the individual's clinical needs and shall
 describe each treatment goal, targeted behavior, one or more measurable
 objectives for each targeted behavior, the behavioral modification strategy to
 be used to manage each targeted behavior, the plan for parent or caregiver
 training, care coordination, and the measurement and data collection methods to
 be used for each targeted behavior in the ISP. The ISP as defined in
 12VAC30-50-130 shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an LBA, LABA,
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S. Every three months, the LBA, LABA, LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S shall review the ISP, modify the ISP as appropriate,
 and update the ISP, and all of these activities shall occur with the individual
 in a manner in which the individual may participate in the process. The ISP
 shall be rewritten at least annually. 
 
 6. Reimbursement for the initial service-specific provider
 intake and the initial ISP shall be limited to five hours without service
 authorization. If additional time is needed to complete these documents,
 service authorization shall be required. 
 
 7. Clinical supervision shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement
 of behavioral therapy services that are rendered by an LABA, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
 or LMHP-S or unlicensed staff consistent with the scope of practice as
 described by the applicable Virginia Department of Health Professions
 regulatory board. Clinical supervision of unlicensed staff shall occur at least
 weekly. As documented in the individual's medical record, clinical supervision
 shall include a review of progress notes and data and dialogue with supervised
 staff about the individual's progress and the effectiveness of the ISP.
 Clinical supervision shall be documented by, at a minimum, the
 contemporaneously dated signature of the clinical supervisor. 
 
 8. Family training involving the individual's family and
 significant others to advance the treatment goals of the individual shall be
 provided when (i) the training with the family member or significant other is
 for the direct benefit of the individual, (ii) the training is not aimed at
 addressing the treatment needs of the individual's family or significant
 others, (iii) the individual is present except when it is clinically
 appropriate for the individual to be absent in order to advance the
 individual's treatment goals, and (iv) the training is aligned with the goals
 of the individual's treatment plan. 
 
 9. The following shall not be covered under this service:
 
 a. Screening to identify physical, mental, or developmental
 conditions that may require evaluation or treatment. Screening is covered as an
 EPSDT service provided by the primary care provider and is not covered as a
 behavioral therapy service under this section. 
 
 b. Services other than the initial service-specific provider
 intake that are provided but are not based upon the individual's ISP or linked
 to a service in the ISP. Time not actively involved in providing services
 directed by the ISP shall not be reimbursed.
 
 c. Services that are based upon an incomplete, missing, or
 outdated service-specific provider intake or ISP.
 
 d. Sessions that are conducted for family support, education,
 recreational, or custodial purposes, including respite or child care.
 
 e. Services that are provided by a provider but are rendered
 primarily by a relative or guardian who is legally responsible for the
 individual's care.
 
 f. Services that are provided in a clinic or provider's office
 without documented justification for the location in the ISP.
 
 g. Services that are provided in the absence of the individual
 or a parent or other authorized caregiver identified in the ISP with the
 exception of treatment review processes described in subdivision 12 e of this
 subsection, care coordination, and clinical supervision. 
 
 h. Services provided by a local education agency.
 
 i. Provider travel time.
 
 10. Behavioral therapy services shall not be reimbursed
 concurrently with community mental health services described in 12VAC30-50-130 B
 5 C or 12VAC30-50-226, or behavioral, psychological, or psychiatric
 therapeutic consultation described in 12VAC30-120-756, 12VAC30-120-1000,
 or 12VAC30-135-320.
 
 11. If the individual is receiving targeted case management
 services under the Medicaid state plan State Plan (defined in
 12VAC30-50-410 through 12VAC30-50-491 12VAC30-50-491), the
 provider shall notify the case manager of the provision of behavioral therapy
 services unless the parent or guardian requests that the information not be
 released. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to the case
 manager on the individual's status pursuant to a valid release of information.
 A discharge summary shall be sent to the case manager within 30 days of the
 service discontinuation date. A refusal of the parent or guardian to release
 information shall be documented in the medical record for the date the request
 was discussed.
 
 12. Other standards to ensure quality of services:
 
 a. Services shall be delivered only by an LBA, LABA, LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, or clinically supervised unlicensed staff consistent
 with the scope of practice as described by the applicable Virginia Department
 of Health Professions regulatory board. 
 
 b. Individual-specific services shall be directed toward the
 treatment of the eligible individual and delivered in the family's residence
 unless an alternative location is justified and documented in the ISP.
 
 c. Individual-specific progress notes shall be created
 contemporaneously with the service activities and shall document the name and
 Medicaid number of each individual; the provider's name, signature, and date;
 and time of service. Documentation shall include activities provided, length of
 services provided, the individual's reaction to that day's activity, and
 documentation of the individual's and the parent or caregiver's progress toward
 achieving each behavioral objective through analysis and reporting of
 quantifiable behavioral data. Documentation shall be prepared to clearly demonstrate
 efficacy using baseline and service-related data that shows clinical progress
 and generalization for the child and family members toward the therapy goals as
 defined in the service plan.
 
 d. Documentation of all billed services shall include the amount
 of time or billable units spent to deliver the service and shall be signed and
 dated on the date of the service by the practitioner rendering the service.
 
 e. Billable time is permitted for the LBA, LABA, LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S to better define behaviors and develop documentation
 strategies to measure treatment performance and the efficacy of the ISP
 objectives, provided that these activities are documented in a progress note as
 described in subdivision 12 c of this subsection.
 
 13. Failure to comply with any of the requirements in
 12VAC30-50-130 or in this section shall result in retraction.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-60) 
 
 Department of Medical Assistance Services Provider Manuals (https://www.virginiamedicaid.dmas.virginia.gov/wps/portal/ProviderManuals):
 
 Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual
 
 Virginia Medicaid Rehabilitation Manual 
 
 Virginia Medicaid Hospice Manual
 
 Virginia Medicaid School Division Manual
 
 Development
 of Special Criteria for the Purposes of Pre-Admission Screening, Medicaid Memo,
 October 3, 2012, Department of Medical Assistance Services
 
 Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
 Edition (DSM-IV-TR), copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
 
 Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
 Substance-Related Disorders (ASAM PPC-2R), Second Edition, copyright 2001,
 American Society on Addiction Medicine, Inc.
 
 Medicaid Memo, Reissuance of the Pre-Admission
 Screening (PAS) Provider Manual, Chapter IV, November 22, 2016, Department of
 Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: New Service
 Authorization Requirement for an Independent Clinical Assessment for Medicaid
 and FAMIS Children's Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services, dated
 June 16, 2011, Department of Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
 Children Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Children's Services,
 July 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of
 Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
 Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Adult-Oriented Services, July
 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of Medical
 Assistance Services
 
 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018
 
 Part XIV 
 Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents (Repealed)
 
 12VAC30-130-850. Definitions. (Repealed.) 
 
 The following words and terms when used in this part shall
 have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
 
 "Active treatment" means implementation of a
 professionally developed and supervised individual plan of care that must be
 designed to achieve the recipient's discharge from inpatient status at the
 earliest possible time. 
 
 "Certification" means a statement signed by a
 physician that inpatient services in a residential treatment facility are or
 were needed. The certification must be made at the time of admission, or, if an
 individual applies for assistance while in a mental hospital or residential
 treatment facility, before the Medicaid agency authorizes payment. 
 
 "Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
 "CIPOC" means a written plan developed for each recipient in
 accordance with 12VAC30-130-890 to improve his condition to the extent that
 inpatient care is no longer necessary. 
 
 "Emergency services" means a medical condition
 manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe
 pain) such that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of
 health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical
 attention to result in placing the health of the individual (or, with respect
 to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious
 jeopardy, serious impairment to bodily functions, or serious dysfunction of any
 bodily organ or part.
 
 "Individual" or "individuals" means a
 child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age who is receiving a service
 covered under this part of this chapter. 
 
 "Initial plan of care" means a plan of care
 established at admission, signed by the attending physician or staff physician,
 that meets the requirements in 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 "Inpatient psychiatric facility" or
 "IPF" means a private or state-run freestanding psychiatric hospital
 or psychiatric residential treatment center.
 
 "Recertification" means a certification for each
 applicant or recipient that inpatient services in a residential treatment
 facility are needed. Recertification must be made at least every 60 days by a
 physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within the scope
 of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician. 
 
 "Recipient" or "recipients" means the
 child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age receiving this covered
 service. 
 
 "RTC-Level C" means a psychiatric residential
 treatment facility (Level C).
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means services
 including physician and other health care services that are furnished to
 children while they are in an IPF that are billed by the arranged practitioners
 separately from the IPF per diem.
 
 12VAC30-130-860. Service coverage; eligible individuals;
 service certification. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall be
 24-hour, supervised, medically necessary, out-of-home programs designed to
 provide necessary support and address the special mental health and behavioral
 needs of a child or adolescent in order to prevent or minimize the need for
 more intensive inpatient treatment. Services must include, but shall not be
 limited to, assessment and evaluation, medical treatment (including drugs),
 individual and group counseling, and family therapy necessary to treat the
 child. 
 
 B. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall provide
 a total, 24 hours per day, specialized form of highly organized, intensive and
 planned therapeutic interventions that shall be utilized to treat some of the
 most severe mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Residential treatment
 is a definitive therapeutic modality designed to deliver specified results for
 a defined group of problems for children or adolescents for whom outpatient day
 treatment or other less intrusive levels of care are not appropriate, and for
 whom a protected, structured milieu is medically necessary for an extended
 period of time. 
 
 C. Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level B) and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be therapeutic services rendered in a
 residential type setting such as a group home or program that provides
 structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision and
 mental health care to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals
 as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). The child or
 adolescent must have a medical need for the service arising from a condition
 due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant
 functional impairments in major life activities. 
 
 D. Active treatment shall be required. Residential
 Treatment, Therapeutic Behavioral and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under age 21 shall be designed to serve the mental health needs of
 children. In order to be reimbursed for Residential Treatment (Level C),
 Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
 B), and Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
 A), the facility must provide active mental health treatment beginning at
 admission and it must be related to the recipient's principle diagnosis and
 admitting symptoms. To the extent that any recipient needs mental health
 treatment and his needs meet the medical necessity criteria for the service, he
 will be approved for these services. These services do not include
 interventions and activities designed only to meet the supportive nonmental
 health special needs, including but not limited to personal care, habilitation
 or academic educational needs of the recipients. 
 
 E. An individual eligible for Residential Treatment
 Services (Level C) is a recipient under the age of 21 years whose treatment
 needs cannot be met by ambulatory care resources available in the community,
 for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires services on an
 inpatient basis under the direction of a physician. 
 
 An individual eligible for Therapeutic Behavioral Services
 for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B) is a child, under the age of 21
 years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
 intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
 direction of a Licensed Mental Health Professional. 
 
 An individual eligible for Community-Based Services for
 Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) is a child, under the age of 21
 years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
 intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
 direction of a qualified mental health professional. The services for all three
 levels can reasonably be expected to improve the child's or adolescent's
 condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed. 
 
 F. In order for Medicaid to reimburse for Residential
 Treatment (Level C), Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the need for the service must be certified
 according to the standards and requirements set forth in subdivisions 1 and 2
 of this subsection. At least one member of the independent certifying team must
 have pediatric mental health expertise. 
 
 1. For an individual who is already a Medicaid recipient
 when he is admitted to a facility or program, certification must: 
 
 a. Be made by an independent certifying team that includes
 a licensed physician who: 
 
 (1) Has competence in diagnosis and treatment of pediatric
 mental illness; and 
 
 (2) Has knowledge of the recipient's mental health history
 and current situation. 
 
 b. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team. 
 
 2. For a recipient who applies for Medicaid while an
 inpatient in the facility or program, the certification must: 
 
 a. Be made by the team responsible for the plan of care; 
 
 b. Cover any period of time before the application for
 Medicaid eligibility for which claims for reimbursement by Medicaid are made;
 and 
 
 c. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team. 
 
 12VAC30-130-870. Preauthorization. (Repealed.)
 
 
 A. Authorization for Residential Treatment (Level C) shall
 be required within 24 hours of admission and shall be conducted by DMAS or its
 utilization management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified by
 DMAS. At preauthorization, an initial length of stay shall be assigned and the
 residential treatment provider shall be responsible for obtaining authorization
 for continued stay. 
 
 B. DMAS will not pay for admission to or continued stay in
 residential facilities (Level C) that were not authorized by DMAS. 
 
 C. Information that is required in order to obtain
 admission preauthorization for Medicaid payment shall include: 
 
 1. A completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by the department. 
 
 2. A certification of the need for this service by the team
 described in 12VAC30-130-860 that: 
 
 a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
 do not meet the specific treatment needs of the recipient; 
 
 b. Proper treatment of the recipient's psychiatric
 condition requires services on an inpatient basis under the direction of a
 physician; and 
 
 c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 recipient's condition or prevent further regression so that the services will
 not be needed. 
 
 3. Additional required written documentation shall include
 all of the following: 
 
 a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
 including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
 Retardation, Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
 Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning); 
 
 b. A description of the child's behavior during the seven
 days immediately prior to admission; 
 
 c. A description of alternative placements tried or
 explored and the outcomes of each placement; 
 
 d. The child's functional level and clinical stability; 
 
 e. The level of family support available; and 
 
 f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 D. Continued stay criteria for Residential Treatment
 (Level C): information for continued stay authorization (Level C) for Medicaid
 payment must include: 
 
 1. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
 than 90 days prior to the date of submission; 
 
 2. Documentation that the required services are provided as
 indicated; 
 
 3. Current (within the last 30 days) information on
 progress related to the achievement of treatment goals. The treatment goals
 must address the reasons for admission, including a description of any new
 symptoms amenable to treatment; 
 
 4. Description of continued impairment, problem behaviors,
 and need for Residential Treatment level of care. 
 
 E. Denial of service may be appealed by the recipient
 consistent with 12VAC30-110-10 et seq.; denial of reimbursement may be appealed
 by the provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
 seq. of the Code of Virginia). 
 
 F. DMAS will not pay for services for Therapeutic Behavioral
 Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based
 Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) that are not prior
 authorized by DMAS. 
 
 G. Authorization for Level A and Level B residential
 treatment shall be required within three business days of admission.
 Authorization for services shall be based upon the medical necessity criteria
 described in 12VAC30-50-130. The authorized length of stay must not exceed six
 months and may be reauthorized. The provider shall be responsible for
 documenting the need for a continued stay and providing supporting
 documentation. 
 
 H. Information that is required in order to obtain
 admission authorization for Medicaid payment must include: 
 
 1. A current completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by the department. The state designated uniform assessment
 instrument must indicate at least two areas of moderate impairment for Level B
 and two areas of moderate impairment for Level A. A moderate impairment is
 evidenced by, but not limited to: 
 
 a. Frequent conflict in the family setting, for example,
 credible threats of physical harm. 
 
 b. Frequent inability to accept age appropriate direction
 and supervision from caretakers, family members, at school, or in the home or community.
 
 
 c. Severely limited involvement in social support; which
 means significant avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of
 existing relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions.
 
 
 d. Impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at
 least one caretaker in the home, school or community. 
 
 e. Limited ability to consider the effect of one's
 inappropriate conduct on others, interactions consistently involving conflict,
 which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors. 
 
 2. A certification of the need for the service by the team
 described in 12VAC30-130-860 that: 
 
 a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
 do not meet the specific treatment needs of the child; 
 
 b. Proper treatment of the child's psychiatric condition
 requires services in a community-based residential program; and 
 
 c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 child's condition or prevent regression so that the services will not be
 needed. 
 
 3. Additional required written documentation must include
 all of the following: 
 
 a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
 including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
 Retardation), Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
 Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning); 
 
 b. A description of the child's behavior during the 30 days
 immediately prior to admission; 
 
 c. A description of alternative placements tried or
 explored and the outcomes of each placement; 
 
 d. The child's functional level and clinical stability; 
 
 e. The level of family support available; and 
 
 f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 I. Denial of service may be appealed by the child
 consistent with 12VAC30-110; denial of reimbursement may be appealed by the
 provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of
 the Code of Virginia). 
 
 J. Continued stay criteria for Levels A and B: 
 
 1. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by
 DMAS or its contractor. 
 
 2. A current Individual Service Plan (ISP) (plan of care)
 and a current (within 30 days) summary of progress related to the goals and
 objectives on the ISP (plan of care) must be submitted for continuation of the
 service. 
 
 3. For reauthorization to occur, the desired outcome or
 level of functioning has not been restored or improved, over the time frame
 outlined in the child's ISP (plan of care) or the child continues to be at risk
 for relapse based on history or the tenuous nature of the functional gains and
 use of less intensive services will not achieve stabilization. Any one of the
 following must apply: 
 
 a. The child has achieved initial service plan (plan of
 care) goals but additional goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower
 level of care. 
 
 b. The child is making satisfactory progress toward meeting
 goals but has not attained ISP goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a
 lower level of care. 
 
 c. The child is not making progress, and the service plan
 (plan of care) has been modified to identify more effective interventions. 
 
 d. There are current indications that the child requires
 this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as evidenced by
 failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or stays in a
 nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential treatment. 
 
 K. Discharge criteria for Levels A and B. 
 
 1. Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
 if either of the following applies: 
 
 a. The level of functioning has improved with respect to
 the goals outlined in the service plan (plan of care) and the child can
 reasonably be expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment;
 or 
 
 b. The child no longer benefits from service as evidenced
 by absence of progress toward service plan goals for a period of 60 days. 
 
 12VAC30-130-880. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
 
 
 A. Providers must provide all Residential Treatment
 Services (Level C) as defined within this part and set forth in 42 CFR Part 441
 Subpart D. 
 
 B. Providers of Residential Treatment Services (Level C)
 must be: 
 
 1. A residential treatment program for children and
 adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric hospital
 accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
 Organizations; 
 
 2. A residential treatment program for children and
 adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric unit of an
 acute general hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
 Healthcare Organizations; or 
 
 3. A psychiatric facility that is (i) accredited by the
 Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
 on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Quality and
 Leadership in Supports for People with Disabilities, or the Council on
 Accreditation of Services for Families and Children and (ii) licensed by
 DMHMRSAS as a residential treatment program for children and adolescents. 
 
 C. Providers of Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be licensed by the Department of Social
 Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of Education under the
 Standards for Interdepartmental Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities
 (22VAC42-10). 
 
 D. Providers of Therapeutic Behavioral Services (Level B)
 must be licensed by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation, and
 Substance Abuse Services (DMHMRSAS) under the Standards for Interdepartmental
 Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC42-10). 
 
 12VAC30-130-890. Plans of care; review of plans of care.
 (Repealed.) 
 
 A. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization review
 and audit. The absence of any required documentation may result in denial or
 retraction of any reimbursement.
 
 B. For Residential Treatment Services (Level C) (RTS-Level
 C), an initial plan of care must be completed at admission and a Comprehensive
 Individual Plan of Care (CIPOC) must be completed no later than 14 days after
 admission. 
 
 C. Initial plan of care
 (Level C) must include: 
 
 1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 2. A description of the functional level of the individual;
 
 
 3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
 rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
 special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the individual and
 a list of services provided under arrangement (see 12VAC30-50-130 for eligible
 services provided under arrangement) that will be furnished to the individual
 through the RTC-Level C's referral to an employed or a contracted provider of
 services under arrangement, including the prescribed frequency of treatment and
 the circumstances under which such treatment shall be sought;
 
 5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; 
 
 6. Plans for discharge; and 
 
 7. Signature and date by the physician. 
 
 D. The CIPOC for Level C
 must meet all of the following criteria: 
 
 1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for inpatient psychiatric care; 
 
 2. Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
 and other personnel specified under subsection G of this section, who are
 employed by, or provide services to, patients in the facility in consultation
 with the individual and his parents, legal guardians, or appropriate others in
 whose care he will be released after discharge; 
 
 3. State treatment objectives that must include measurable
 short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; 
 
 5. Include a list of services provided under arrangement
 (described in 12VAC30-50-130) that will be furnished to the individual through
 referral to an employee or a contracted provider of services under arrangement,
 including the prescribed frequency of treatment and the circumstances under
 which such treatment shall be sought; and
 
 6. Describe comprehensive discharge plans and coordination
 of inpatient services and post-discharge plans with related community services
 to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the individual's family,
 school, and community. 
 
 E. Review of the CIPOC for Level C. The CIPOC must be
 reviewed every 30 days by the team specified in subsection G of this section
 to: 
 
 1. Determine that services being provided are or were
 required on an inpatient basis; and 
 
 2. Recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall adjustment as an inpatient. 
 
 F. The development and review of the plan of care for
 Level C as specified in this section satisfies the facility's utilization
 control requirements for recertification and establishment and periodic review
 of the plan of care, as required in 42 CFR 456.160 and 456.180. 
 
 G. Team developing the CIPOC for Level C. The following
 requirements must be met: 
 
 1. At least one member of the team must have expertise in
 pediatric mental health. Based on education and experience, preferably
 including competence in child psychiatry, the team must be capable of all of
 the following: 
 
 a. Assessing the individual's immediate and long-range
 therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and liabilities;
 
 
 b. Assessing the potential resources of the individual's
 family; 
 
 c. Setting treatment objectives; and 
 
 d. Prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's
 objectives. 
 
 2. The team must include, at a minimum, either: 
 
 a. A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist; 
 
 b. A clinical psychologist who has a doctoral degree and a
 physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or 
 
 c. A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
 with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental diseases, and a psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
 psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
 association. 
 
 3. The team must also include one of the following: 
 
 a. A psychiatric social worker; 
 
 b. A registered nurse with specialized training or one
 year's experience in treating mentally ill individuals; 
 
 c. An occupational therapist who is licensed, if required
 by the state, and who has specialized training or one year of experience in
 treating mentally ill individuals; or 
 
 d. A psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
 psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
 association. 
 
 H. The RTC-Level C shall not receive a per diem
 reimbursement for any day that: 
 
 1. The initial or comprehensive written plan of care fails
 to include within three business days of the initiation of the service provided
 under arrangement:
 
 a. The prescribed frequency of treatment of such service,
 or includes a frequency that was exceeded; or
 
 b. All services that the individual needs while residing at
 the RTC-Level C and that will be furnished to the individual through the
 RTC-Level C referral to an employed or contracted provider of services under
 arrangement; 
 
 2. The initial or comprehensive written plan of care fails
 to list the circumstances under which the service provided under arrangement
 shall be sought; 
 
 3. The referral to the service provided under arrangement
 was not present in the individual's RTC-Level C record;
 
 4. The service provided under arrangement was not supported
 in that provider's records by a documented referral from the RTC-Level C; 
 
 5. The medical records from the provider of services under
 arrangement (i.e., admission and discharge documents, treatment plans, progress
 notes, treatment summaries, and documentation of medical results and findings)
 (i) were not present in the individual's RTC-Level C record or had not been
 requested in writing by the RTC-Level C within seven days of discharge from or
 completion of the service or services provided under arrangement or (ii) had
 been requested in writing within seven days of discharge from or completion of
 the service or services provided under arrangement, but not received within 30
 days of the request, and not re-requested; 
 
 6. The RTC-Level C did not have a fully executed contract
 or employee relationship with an independent provider of services under
 arrangement in advance of the provision of such services. For emergency
 services, the RTC-Level C shall have a fully executed contract with the
 emergency services provider prior to submission of the emergency service
 provider's claim for payment;
 
 7. A physician's order for the service under arrangement is
 not present in the record; or
 
 8. The service under arrangement is not included in the
 individual's CIPOC within 30 calendar days of the physician's order. 
 
 I. The provider of services under arrangement shall be
 required to reimburse DMAS for the cost of any such service provided under arrangement
 that was (i) furnished prior to receiving a referral or (ii) in excess of the
 amounts in the referral. Providers of services under arrangement shall be
 required to reimburse DMAS for the cost of any such services provided under
 arrangement that were rendered in the absence of an employment or contractual
 relationship.
 
 J. For therapeutic behavioral services for children and
 adolescents under 21 (Level B), the initial plan of care must be completed at
 admission by the licensed mental health professional (LMHP) and a CIPOC must be
 completed by the LMHP no later than 30 days after admission. The assessment
 must be signed and dated by the LMHP. 
 
 K. For community-based services for children and
 adolescents under 21 (Level A), the initial plan of care must be completed at
 admission by the QMHP and a CIPOC must be completed by the QMHP no later than
 30 days after admission. The individualized plan of care must be signed and
 dated by the program director. 
 
 L. Initial plan of care for Levels A and B must include: 
 
 1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 2. A description of the functional level of the individual;
 
 
 3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
 rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
 special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient; 
 
 5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; and 
 
 6. Plans for discharge. 
 
 M. The CIPOC for Levels A and B must meet all of the
 following criteria: 
 
 1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for residential psychiatric care; 
 
 2. The CIPOC for both levels must be based on input from
 school, home, other health care providers, the individual and family (or legal
 guardian); 
 
 3. State treatment objectives that include measurable
 short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; and 
 
 5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans with related
 community services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the
 individual's family, school, and community.
 
 N. Review of the CIPOC for Levels A and B. The CIPOC must
 be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30 days by the QMHP for Level A and by the
 LMHP for Level B. The review must include: 
 
 1. The response to services provided; 
 
 2. Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall response to the plan of care interventions; and 
 
 3. Determinations regarding whether the services being
 provided continue to be required. 
 
 Updates must be signed and dated by the service provider. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4495; Filed July 3, 2019, 8:58 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-10. State Plan under
 Title XIX of the Social Security Act Medical Assistance Program; General Provisions (amending 12VAC30-10-540).
 
 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
 Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-20, 12VAC30-50-30,
 12VAC30-50-60, 12VAC30-50-70, 12VAC30-50-130, 12VAC30-50-226).
 
 12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
 High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-5, 12VAC30-60-50,
 12VAC30-60-61).
 
 12VAC30-130. Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services (repealing 12VAC30-130-850 through
 12VAC30-130-890). 
 
 Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
 Virginia, 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
 
 Effective Date: August 22, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
 Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad
 Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)
 786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The regulatory action implements Items 301 OO and 301 PP of
 Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, which required the department to
 develop and implement a care coordination model and make programmatic changes
 in the provision of residential treatment for children. The action replaces
 emergency regulations published in 33:13 VA.R. 1436-1469 February 20,
 2017, and extended in 35:9 VA.R. 1130 December 24, 2018.
 
 The amendments clarify policy interpretations and revise
 program standards to allow for more evidence-based service delivery, allow the
 department to implement more effective utilization management in collaboration
 with the behavioral health service administrator, enhance individualized
 coordination of care, implement standardized coordination of individualized
 aftercare resources by ensuring access to medical and behavioral health service
 providers in the individual's home community, and support department audit
 practices. The action meets the requirements set forth by the Centers for
 Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) in 42 CFR 441 Subpart D and 42 CFR
 441.453. 
 
 The amendments include changes to the following areas: (i)
 provider qualifications, including acceptable licensing standards; (ii)
 preadmission assessment requirements; (iii) program requirements; (iv)
 discharge planning and care coordination requirements; and (v) utilization
 review requirements to clarify program requirements, ensure adequate
 documentation of service delivery, and help providers avoid payment
 retractions. 
 
 The action requires enhanced care coordination to provide
 the necessary objective evaluations of treatment progress and to facilitate
 evidence-based practices during the treatment to reduce the length of stay by
 ensuring that medical necessity indicates the correct level of care, that
 appropriate and effective care is delivered in a person centered manner, and
 that service providers and local systems use standardized preadmission and
 discharge processes to ensure effective services are delivered. The final
 regulatory text is the same as the proposed regulatory text.
 
 Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No
 public comments were received by the promulgating agency. 
 
 12VAC30-10-540. Inspection of care in intermediate care
 facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities, facilities providing inpatient psychiatric
 services for individuals under younger than 21 years of age,
 and mental hospitals. 
 
 All applicable requirements of 42 CFR 456, Subpart I,
 are met with respect to periodic inspections of care and services.* 
 
 Inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age
 21 are not provided under this plan. 
 
 *Inspection of Care (IOC) in Intermediate Care Facilities
 for the Mentally Retarded and Institutions for Mental Diseases are Inspection
 of care in intermediate care facilities for persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities is completed through contractual arrangements
 with the Virginia Department of Health. 
 
 12VAC30-50-20. Services provided to the categorically needy
 without limitation. 
 
 The following services as described in Part III
 (12VAC30-50-100 et seq.) of this chapter are provided to the categorically
 needy without limitation: 
 
 1. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older. 
 
 2. Services for individuals age 65 years of age
 or over older in institutions for mental diseases: inpatient
 hospital services; skilled nursing facility services; and services in an
 intermediate care facility. 
 
 3. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined, in
 accordance with § 1902(a)(31)(A) of the Social Security Act (the
 Act), to be in need of such care, including such services in a public
 institution (or distinct part thereof) for the mentally retarded or
 persons with intellectual or developmental disability or related
 conditions. 
 
 4. Hospice care (in accordance with § 1905(o) of the Act). 
 
 5. Any other medical care and any type of remedial care
 recognized under state law, specified by the U.S. Secretary of Health
 and Human Services: care and services provided in religious nonmedical
 health care institutions;, nursing facility services for patients
 under  younger than 21 years of age;, or
 emergency hospital services.
 
 6. Private health insurance premiums, coinsurance, and
 deductibles when cost effective (pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No.
 101-508 § 4402).
 
 7. Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE)
 services are provided for eligible individuals as an optional State Plan
 service for categorically needy individuals without limitation.
 
 8. Pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No. 111-148 § 4107,
 counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women
 shall be covered. 
 
 a. Counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use
 by pregnant women means diagnostic, therapy, and counseling services and
 pharmacotherapy (including the coverage of prescription and nonprescription
 tobacco cessation agents approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration) for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women who use tobacco
 products or who are being treated for tobacco use that is furnished (i) by or
 under the supervision of a physician, (ii) by any other health care professional
 who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law
 and is authorized to provide Medicaid coverable services other than tobacco
 cessation services, or (iii) by any other health care professional who is
 legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law and
 who is specifically designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human
 Services in federal regulations for this purpose. 
 
 b. No cost sharing shall be applied to these services. In
 addition to other services that are covered for pregnant women, 12VAC30-50-510
 also provides for other smoking cessation services that are covered for
 pregnant women.
 
 9. Inpatient psychiatric facility services and residential
 psychiatric treatment services (including therapeutic group homes and
 psychiatric residential treatment facilities) for individuals younger than 21
 years of age.
 
 12VAC30-50-30. Services not provided to the categorically
 needy. 
 
 The following services and devices are not provided to the
 categorically needy: 
 
 1. Chiropractors' Chiropractor services. 
 
 2. Private duty nursing services. 
 
 3. Dentures. 
 
 4. Other diagnostic and preventive services other than those
 provided elsewhere in this plan: diagnostic services (see (12VAC30-50-95)
 et seq.). 
 
 5. Inpatient psychiatric facility services for individuals
 under 21 years of age, other than those covered under early and periodic
 screening, diagnosis, and treatment (at 12VAC30-50-130). (Reserved.)
 
 6. Special tuberculosis (TB) related services under § 1902(z)(2)(F)
 of the Social Security Act (the Act). 
 
 7. Respiratory care services (in accordance with § 1920(e)(9)(A)
 through (C) of the Act). 
 
 8. Ambulatory prenatal care for pregnant women furnished
 during a presumptive eligibility period by a qualified provider (in accordance
 with § 1920 of the Act). 
 
 9. Any other medical care and any type of remedial care
 recognized under state law specified by the U.S. Secretary of Health
 and Human Services: personal care services in recipient's home, prescribed
 in accordance with a plan of treatment and provided by a qualified person under
 supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 12VAC30-50-60. Services provided to all medically needy groups
 without limitations. 
 
 Services as described in Part III (12VAC30-50-100 et seq.) of
 this chapter are provided to all medically needy groups without limitations.
 
 1. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older. 
 
 2. Early and periodic screening and diagnosis of individuals under
 younger than 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions found. 
 
 3. Pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No. 111-148 § 4107,
 counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women
 shall be covered. 
 
 a. Counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use
 by pregnant women means diagnostic, therapy, and counseling services and
 pharmacotherapy (including the coverage of prescription and nonprescription
 tobacco cessation agents approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration) for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women who use tobacco
 products or who are being treated for tobacco use that is furnished (i) by or
 under the supervision of a physician, (ii) by any other health care
 professional who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services
 under state law and is authorized to provide Medicaid coverable services other
 than tobacco cessation services, or (iii) by any other health care professional
 who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law
 and who is specifically designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human
 Services in federal regulations for this purpose. 
 
 b. No cost sharing shall be applied to these services. In
 addition to other services that are covered for pregnant women, 12VAC30-50-510
 also provides for other smoking cessation services that are covered for
 pregnant women.
 
 4. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined in
 accordance with § 1905(a)(4)(A) of the Social Security Act (the
 Act) to be in need of such care.
 
 5. Hospice care (in accordance with § 1905(o) of the
 Act).
 
 6. Any other medical care or any other type of remedial care
 recognized under state law, specified by the secretary U.S. Secretary
 of Health and Human Services, including: care and services provided in
 religious nonmedical health care institutions;, skilled nursing
 facility services for patients under younger than 21 years of age;,
 and emergency hospital services.
 
 7. Private health insurance premiums, coinsurance and
 deductibles when cost effective (pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No.
 101-508 § 4402).
 
 8. Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE)
 services are provided for eligible individuals as an optional State Plan service
 for medically needy individuals without limitation. 
 
 9. Inpatient psychiatric facility services and residential
 psychiatric treatment services (including therapeutic group homes and
 psychiatric residential treatment facilities) for individuals younger than 21
 years of age.
 
 12VAC30-50-70. Services or devices not provided to the
 medically needy. 
 
 1. Chiropractors' Chiropractor services. 
 
 2. Private duty nursing services. 
 
 3. Dentures. 
 
 4. Diagnostic or preventive services other than those provided
 elsewhere in the State Plan. 
 
 5. Inpatient hospital services, skilled nursing facility
 services, and intermediate care facility services for individuals age 65
 years of age or older in institutions for mental disease(s) diseases.
 
 
 6. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined in
 accordance with § 1905(a)(4)(A) of the Social Security Act (the Act),
 to be in need of such care in a public institution, or a distinct part thereof,
 for the mentally retarded or persons with intellectual or
 developmental disability or related conditions. 
 
 7. Inpatient psychiatric facility services for individuals
 under 21 years of age, other than those covered under early and periodic
 screening, diagnosis, and treatment (at 12VAC30-50-130). (Reserved.)
 
 8. Special tuberculosis (TB) services under §
 1902(z)(2)(F) of the Act. 
 
 9. Respiratory care services (in accordance with § 1920(e)(9)(A)
 through (C) of the Act). 
 
 10. Ambulatory prenatal care for pregnant women furnished
 during a presumptive eligibility period by a qualified provider (in accordance
 with § 1920 of the Act). 
 
 11. Personal care services in a recipient's home, prescribed
 in accordance with a plan of treatment and provided by a qualified person under
 supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 12. Home and community care for functionally disabled elderly
 individuals, as defined, described and limited in 12VAC30-50-460 and
 12VAC30-50-470. 
 
 13. Personal care services furnished to an individual who is
 not an inpatient or resident of a hospital, nursing facility, intermediate care
 facility for the mentally retarded intellectually or developmentally
 disabled persons, or institution for mental disease that are (i) authorized
 for the individual by a physician in accordance with a plan of treatment, (ii)
 provided by an individual who is qualified to provide such services and who is
 not a member of the individual's family, and (iii) furnished in a home. 
 
 12VAC30-50-130. Nursing facility services, EPSDT, including
 school health services, and family planning.
 
 A. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
 
 Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
 performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
 arts.
 
 B. Early General provisions for early and
 periodic screening and, diagnosis, and treatment (EPSDT)
 of individuals younger than 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions
 found.
 
 1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
 behalf of individuals younger than 21 years of age, who are Medicaid
 eligible, for medically necessary stays in acute care facilities,
 and the accompanying attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per
 admission when such services are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and
 treatment of health conditions identified through a physical examination.
 
 2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
 through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
 physician's office are covered for foster children of the local departments
 of social services departments on specific referral from those
 departments.
 
 3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
 necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
 evaluation. The department DMAS shall place appropriate
 utilization controls upon this service.
 
 4. Consistent with § 6403 of the Omnibus Budget
 Reconciliation Act of 1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic,
 and treatment services means the following services: screening services, vision
 services, dental services, hearing services, and such other necessary health
 care, diagnostic services, treatment, and other measures described in Social
 Security Act § 1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and
 mental illnesses and conditions discovered by the screening services and that
 are medically necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the
 State Plan and notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages
 21 years of age and older, provided for by § 1905(a) of the Social
 Security Act.
 
 5. C. Community mental health services provided
 through early and periodic screening diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age. These services in order to be
 covered (i) shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by
 LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii) are
 shall be reflected in provider records and on providers' provider
 claims for services by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are
 consistent with the requested professional services. 
 
 a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
 when used in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context
 clearly indicates otherwise:
 
 "Activities of daily living" means personal care
 activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
 and eating.
 
 "Adolescent or child" means the individual
 receiving the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of
 these terms this term, adolescent means an individual 12 through
 20 years of age; a child means an individual from birth up to 12 years of
 age. 
 
 "Behavioral health service" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Behavioral health services administrator" or
 "BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
 benefits program under contract with DMAS. 
 
 "Care coordination" means the collaboration
 and sharing of information among health care providers, who are involved
 with an individual's health care, to improve the care. 
 
 "Caregiver" means the same as defined
 in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
 local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
 who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
 completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
 Health and Developmental Services.
 
 "Clinical experience" means providing direct
 behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
 part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
 and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
 field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
 in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
 community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
 younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
 (Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
 practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
 hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
 established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
 Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013. 
 
 "Child" means an individual ages birth through 11
 years.
 
 "DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
 and Developmental Services.
 
 "Direct supervisor" means the person who provides
 direct supervision to the peer recovery specialist. The direct supervisor (i)
 shall have two consecutive years of documented practical experience rendering
 peer support services or family support services, have certification training
 as a PRS under a certifying body approved by DBHDS, and have documented
 completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; (ii) shall be a qualified
 mental health professional (QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E) as defined in 12VAC35-105-20
 with at least two consecutive years of documented experience as a QMHP, and who
 has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; or (iii) shall
 be an LMHP who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training
 who is acting within his scope of practice under state law. An LMHP providing
 services before April 1, 2018, shall have until April 1, 2018, to complete the
 DBHDS PRS supervisor training.
 
 "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services and its contractors.
 
 "EPSDT" means early and periodic screening,
 diagnosis, and treatment.
 
 "Family support partners" means the same as defined
 in 12VAC30-130-5170.
 
 "Human services field" means the same as the term is
 defined by DBHDS the Department of Health Professions in the
 document entitled Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018.
 
 "Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
 the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226. 
 
 "Licensed mental health professional" or
 "LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
 as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
 professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
 therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
 practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
 practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
 "Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their signatures
 to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
 means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
 psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
 for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
 functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
 supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
 preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
 Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
 they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
 signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
 "LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
 "supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
 social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
 compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
 18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
 considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
 duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title
 "Supervisee in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such
 status. 
 
 "Peer recovery specialist" or "PRS" means
 the same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Person centered" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Progress notes" means individual-specific
 documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
 individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
 contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
 the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
 minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
 staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
 progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
 include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
 service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
 service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
 or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
 note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
 documented for each service that is billed.
 
 "Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
 education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
 members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
 illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
 illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
 strategies. 
 
 "Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
 interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
 emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
 individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
 illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
 skills.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-child" or
 "QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
 "QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
 consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590 including a
 "QMHP-trainee" as defined by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
 "QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
 12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
 
 "Recovery-oriented services" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Resiliency" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Self-advocacy" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the
 face-to-face interaction in which the provider obtains information from the
 child or adolescent, and parent or other family member as appropriate, about
 the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It includes documented
 history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health care problems
 and issues and shall contain all of the following elements: (i) the presenting issue/reason
 issue or reason for referral, (ii) mental health
 history/hospitalizations, (iii) previous interventions by providers and
 timeframes and response to treatment, (iv) medical profile, (v) developmental
 history including history of abuse, if appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational
 educational or vocational status, (vii) current living situation and
 family history and relationships, (viii) legal status, (ix) drug and alcohol
 profile, (x) resources and strengths, (xi) mental status exam and profile,
 (xii) diagnosis, (xiii) professional summary and clinical formulation, (xiv)
 recommended care and treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. 
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-850.
 
 "Strength-based" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Supervision" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 b. 2. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age shall be time-limited
 interventions provided in the individual's residence and when clinically
 necessary in community settings. All interventions and the settings of the
 intervention shall be defined in the Individual Service Plan. All IIH services
 shall be designed to specifically improve family dynamics, and
 provide modeling, and the clinically necessary interventions that
 increase functional and therapeutic interpersonal relations between family
 members in the home. IIH services are designed to promote psychoeducational
 benefits of psychoeducation in the home setting of an individual who is
 at risk of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who is being
 transitioned to home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented medical
 need of the individual. These services provide crisis treatment; individual and
 family counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to assist the
 individual and his the individual's parents or guardians, as
 appropriate, to understand and practice appropriate problem solving, anger
 management, and interpersonal interaction, etc.); care coordination with other
 required services; and 24-hour emergency response. 
 
 (1) a. Service authorization shall be required
 for Medicaid reimbursement prior to the onset of services. Services rendered
 before the date of authorization shall not be reimbursed.
 
 (2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall
 be required prior to the start of services at the onset of services and
 ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of services. Services based
 upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs
 shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider
 intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
 
 (3) c. These services may shall
 only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C,
 or a QMHP-E.
 
 c. 3. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be
 provided two or more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic
 interventions (a unit is defined in 12VAC30-60-61 D 11). Day treatment
 programs provide evaluation; medication education and management; opportunities
 to learn and use daily living skills and to enhance social and interpersonal
 skills (e.g., problem solving, anger management, community responsibility,
 increased impulse control, and appropriate peer relations, etc.); and
 individual, group, and family counseling. 
 
 (1) a. Service authorization shall be required
 for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 (2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall be
 required at prior to the onset start of services,
 and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of services. Services
 based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes
 or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific
 provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
 
 (3) c. These services may shall be
 rendered only by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or
 a QMHP-E.
 
 d. Community-based services for children and adolescents
 younger than 21 years of age (Level A) pursuant to 42 CFR 440.031(d).
 
 (1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
 services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
 provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
 supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
 attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
 service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
 demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
 mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the
 community. The service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's
 condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
 The application of a national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in
 use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an
 equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this
 service.
 
 (2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
 receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 (3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
 other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
 
 (4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid
 reimbursement. Services that were rendered before the date of service authorization
 shall not be reimbursed. 
 
 (5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS
 shall reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no
 more than 16 beds.
 
 (6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
 Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
 Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
 Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Regulation Governing Juvenile
 Group Homes and Halfway Houses (6VAC35-41), or Regulations for Children's
 Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
 
 (7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
 psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
 include development or maintenance of daily living skills, anger management,
 social skills, family living skills, communication skills, stress management,
 and any care coordination activities. 
 
 (8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
 other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
 medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
 contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
 
 (9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
 the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
 services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
 provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
 intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
 
 (10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 D. Therapeutic group home services and psychiatric
 residential treatment facility (PRTF) services for early and periodic screening
 diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age.
 
 1. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this subsection shall have the following meanings:
 
 "Active treatment" means implementation of an
 initial plan of care (IPOC) and comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 
 "Assessment" means the face-to-face interaction
 by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S to obtain information from the child or
 adolescent and parent, guardian, or other family member, as appropriate, utilizing
 a tool or series of tools to provide a comprehensive evaluation and review of
 the child's or adolescent's mental health status. The assessment shall include
 a documented history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health
 problems and behavioral and emotional issues.
 
 "Certificate of need" or "CON" means a
 written statement by an independent certification team that services in a
 therapeutic group home or PRTF are or were needed. 
 
 "Combined treatment services" means a structured,
 therapeutic milieu and planned interventions that promote (i) the development
 or restoration of adaptive functioning, self-care, and social skills; (ii)
 community integrated activities and community living skills that each
 individual requires to live in less restrictive environments; (iii) behavioral
 consultation; (iv) individual and group therapy; (v) skills restoration, the
 restoration of coping skills, family living and health awareness, interpersonal
 skills, communication skills, and stress management skills; (vi) family
 education and family therapy; and (vii) individualized treatment planning.
 
 "Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
 "CIPOC" means a person centered plan of care that meets all of the
 requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
 information gathered during the referral process.
 
 "Crisis" means a deteriorating or unstable
 situation that produces an acute, heightened emotional, mental, physical,
 medical, or behavioral event.
 
 "Crisis management" means immediately provided
 activities and interventions designed to rapidly manage a crisis. The
 activities and interventions include behavioral health care to provide
 immediate assistance to individuals experiencing acute behavioral health
 problems that require immediate intervention to stabilize and prevent harm and
 higher level of acuity. Activities shall include assessment and short-term
 counseling designed to stabilize the individual. Individuals are referred to
 long-term services once the crisis has been stabilized.
 
 "Daily supervision" means the supervision
 provided in a PRTF through a resident-to-staff ratio approved by the Office of
 Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
 with documented supervision checks every 15 minutes throughout a 24-hour
 period.
 
 "Discharge planning" means family and
 locality-based care coordination that begins upon admission to a PRTF or
 therapeutic group home with the goal of transitioning the individual out of the
 PRTF or therapeutic group home to a less restrictive care setting with
 continued, clinically-appropriate, and possibly intensive, services as soon as
 possible upon discharge. Discharge plans shall be recommended by the treating physician,
 psychiatrist, or treating LMHP responsible for the overall supervision of the
 plan of care and shall be approved by the DMAS contractor.
 
 "DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association.
 
 "Emergency admissions" means those admissions
 that are made when, pending a review for the certificate of need, it appears
 that the individual is in need of an immediate admission to a therapeutic group
 home or PRTF and likely does not meet the medical necessity criteria to receive
 crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, or acute psychiatric inpatient
 services. 
 
 "Emergency services" means unscheduled and
 sometimes scheduled crisis intervention, stabilization, acute psychiatric inpatient
 services, and referral assistance provided over the telephone or face-to-face
 if indicated, and available 24 hours a day, seven days per week.
 
 "Family engagement" means a family-centered and
 strengths-based approach to partnering with families in making decisions,
 setting goals, achieving desired outcomes, and promoting safety, permanency,
 and well-being for children, adolescents, and families. Family engagement
 requires ongoing opportunities for an individual to build and maintain
 meaningful relationships with family members, for example, frequent,
 unscheduled, and noncontingent telephone calls and visits between an individual
 and family members. Family engagement may also include enhancing or
 facilitating the development of the individual's relationship with other family
 members and supportive adults responsible for the individual's care and
 well-being upon discharge.
 
 "Family engagement activity" means an
 intervention consisting of family psychoeducational training or coaching,
 transition planning with the family, family and independent living skills, and
 training on accessing community supports as identified in the plan of care.
 Family engagement activity does not include and is not the same as family
 therapy.
 
 "Family therapy" means counseling services
 involving the individual's family and significant others to advance the
 treatment goals when (i) the counseling with the family member and significant
 others is for the direct benefit of the individual, (ii) the counseling is not
 aimed at addressing treatment needs of the individual's family or significant
 others, and (iii) the individual is present except when it is clinically
 appropriate for the individual to be absent in order to advance the
 individual's treatment goals. Family therapy shall be aligned with the goals of
 the individual's plan of care. All family therapy services furnished are for
 the direct benefit of the individual, in accordance with the individual's needs
 and treatment goals identified in the individual's plan of care, and for the
 purpose of assisting in the individual's recovery.
 
 "FAPT" means the family assessment and planning
 team.
 
 "ICD-10" means International Statistical
 Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th Revision,
 published by the World Health Organization. 
 
 "Independent certification team" means a team
 that has competence in diagnosis and treatment of mental illness, preferably in
 child psychiatry; has knowledge of the individual's situation; and is composed
 of at least one physician and one LMHP. The independent certification team
 shall be a DMAS-authorized contractor with contractual or employment
 relationships with the required team members. 
 
 "Individual" means the child or adolescent
 younger than 21 years of age who is receiving therapeutic group home or PRTF
 services.
 
 "Individual and group therapy" means the
 application of principles, standards, and methods of the counseling profession
 in (i) conducting assessments and diagnosis for the purpose of establishing
 treatment goals and objectives and (ii) planning, implementing, and evaluating
 plans of care using treatment interventions to facilitate human development and
 to identify and remediate mental, emotional, or behavioral disorders and
 associated distresses that interfere with mental health. 
 
 "Initial plan of care" or "IPOC" means
 a person centered plan of care established at admission that meets all of the
 requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
 information gathered during the referral process.
 
 "Intervention" means scheduled therapeutic
 treatment such as individual or group psychoeducation; skills restoration;
 structured behavior support and training activities; recreation, art, and music
 therapies; community integration activities that promote or assist in the
 child's or adolescent's ability to acquire coping and functional or
 self-regulating behavior skills; day and overnight passes; and family
 engagement activities. Interventions shall not include individual, group, and
 family therapy; medical or dental appointments; or physician services,
 medication evaluation, or management provided by a licensed clinician or
 physician and shall not include school attendance. Interventions shall be provided
 in the therapeutic group home or PRTF and, when clinically necessary, in a
 community setting or as part of a therapeutic pass. All interventions and
 settings of the intervention shall be established in the plan of care.
 
 "Plan of care" means the initial plan of care
 (IPOC) and the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 
 "Physician" means an individual licensed to
 practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in Virginia, as defined in § 54.1-2900
 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" or
 "PRTF" means the same as defined in 42 CFR 483.352 and is a 24-hour,
 supervised, clinically and medically necessary, out-of-home active treatment
 program designed to provide necessary support and address mental health,
 behavioral, substance abuse, cognitive, and training needs of an individual
 younger than 21 years of age in order to prevent or minimize the need for more
 intensive treatment.
 
 "Recertification" means a certification for each
 applicant or recipient for whom therapeutic group home or PRTF services are
 needed. 
 
 "Room and board" means a component of the total
 daily cost for placement in a licensed PRTF. Residential room and board costs
 are maintenance costs associated with placement in a licensed PRTF and include
 a semi-private room, three meals and two snacks per day, and personal care
 items. Room and board costs are reimbursed only for PRTF settings. 
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means
 services including physician and other health care services that are furnished
 to children while they are in a freestanding psychiatric hospital or PRTF that
 are billed by the arranged practitioners separately from the freestanding
 psychiatric hospital's or PRTF's per diem.
 
 "Skills restoration" means a face-to-face service
 to assist individuals in the restoration of lost skills that are necessary to
 achieve the goals established in the beneficiary's plan of care. Services
 include assisting the individual in restoring self-management, interpersonal,
 communication, and problem solving skills through modeling, coaching, and
 cueing.
 
 "Therapeutic group home" means a congregate
 residential service providing 24-hour supervision in a community-based home
 having eight or fewer residents. 
 
 "Therapeutic pass" means time at home or
 time with family consisting of partial or entire days of time away from the
 therapeutic group home or psychiatric residential treatment facility as
 clinically indicated in the plan of care and as paired with facility-based and
 community-based interventions to promote discharge planning, community
 integration, and family engagement activities. Therapeutic passes are not
 recreational but are a therapeutic component of the plan of care and are
 designed for the direct benefit of the individual.
 
 "Treatment planning" means development of a
 person centered plan of care that is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels.
 
 e. 2. Therapeutic behavioral group
 home services (Level B) pursuant to 42 CFR 440.130(d).
 
 (1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in
 a residential setting. The residential services will provide structure for
 daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination,
 and psychiatric treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health
 goals as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
 qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
 arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that
 results in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the
 home, school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be
 expected to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the
 services will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized
 set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
 InterQual ® Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS
 shall be required for this service.
 
 (2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
 be reimbursed. 
 
 (3) a. Therapeutic group home services for children
 and adolescents younger than 21 years of age shall provide therapeutic services
 to restore or maintain appropriate skills necessary to promote prosocial
 behavior and healthy living, including skills restoration, family living and
 health awareness, interpersonal skills, communication skills, and stress
 management skills. Therapeutic services shall also engage families and reflect
 family-driven practices that correlate to sustained positive outcomes
 post-discharge for youth and their family members. Each component of
 therapeutic group home services is provided for the direct benefit of the
 individual, in accordance with the individual's needs and treatment goals
 identified in the individual's plan of care, and for the purpose of assisting
 in the individual's recovery. These services are provided under 42 CFR
 440.130(d) in accordance with the rehabilitative services benefit.
 
 b. The plan of care shall include individualized
 activities, including a minimum of one intervention per 24-hour period in
 addition to individual, group, and family therapies. Daily interventions are
 not required when there is documentation to justify clinical or medical reasons
 for the individual's deviations from the plan of care. Interventions shall be
 documented on a progress note and shall be outlined in and aligned with the
 treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC and CIPOC. Any deviation from the
 plan of care shall be documented along with a clinical or medical justification
 for the deviation. 
 
 c. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
 therapeutic group home. The following requirements for severity of need and
 intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity
 criteria for admission.
 
 (1) Severity of need required for admission. All of the
 following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
 
 (a) The individual's behavioral health condition can only
 be safely and effectively treated in a 24-hour therapeutic milieu with onsite
 behavioral health therapy due to significant impairments in home, school, and
 community functioning caused by current mental health symptoms consistent with
 a DSM-5 diagnosis. 
 
 (b) The certificate of need must demonstrate all of the
 following: (i) ambulatory care resources (all available modalities of treatment
 less restrictive than inpatient treatment) available in the community do not
 meet the treatment needs of the individual; (ii) proper treatment of the
 individual's psychiatric condition requires services on an inpatient basis
 under the direction of a physician; and (iii) the services can reasonably be
 expected to improve the individual's condition or prevent further regression so
 that the services will no longer be needed.
 
 (c) The state uniform assessment tool shall be completed.
 The assessment shall demonstrate at least two areas of moderate impairment in
 major life activities. A moderate impairment is defined as a major or
 persistent disruption in major life activities. A moderate impairment is
 evidenced by, but not limited to (i) frequent conflict in the family setting
 such as credible threats of physical harm, where "frequent" means
 more than expected for the individual's age and developmental level; (ii)
 frequent inability to accept age-appropriate direction and supervision from
 caretakers, from family members, at school, or in the home or community; (iii)
 severely limited involvement in social support, which means significant
 avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of existing
 relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions; (iv)
 impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at least one caretaker in
 the home, school, or community; (v) limited ability to consider the effect of
 one's inappropriate conduct on others; and (vi) interactions consistently
 involving conflict, which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
 
 (d) Less restrictive community-based services have been
 given a fully adequate trial and were unsuccessful or, if not attempted, have
 been considered, but in either situation were determined to be unable to meet
 the individual's treatment needs and the reasons for that are discussed in the certificate
 of need.
 
 (e) The individual's symptoms, or the need for treatment in
 a 24 hours a day, seven days a week level of care (LOC), are not primarily due
 to any of the following: (i) intellectual disability, developmental disability,
 or autistic spectrum disorder; (ii) organic mental disorders, traumatic brain
 injury, or other medical condition; or (iii) the individual does not require a
 more intensive level of care.
 
 (f) The individual does not require primary medical or
 surgical treatment.
 
 (2) Intensity and quality of service necessary for
 admission. All of the following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria
 for intensity and quality of service:
 
 (a) The therapeutic group home service has been prescribed
 by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or other LMHP who has documented that a
 residential setting is the least restrictive clinically appropriate service
 that can meet the specifically identified treatment needs of the individual.
 
 (b) The therapeutic group home is not being used for
 clinically inappropriate reasons, including (i) an alternative to incarceration
 or preventative detention; (ii) an alternative to a parent's, guardian's, or
 agency's capacity to provide a place of residence for the individual; or (iii)
 a treatment intervention when other less restrictive alternatives are
 available.
 
 (c) The individual's treatment goals are included in the
 service specific provider intake and include behaviorally defined objectives
 that require and can reasonably be achieved within a therapeutic group home setting.
 
 (d) The therapeutic group home is required to coordinate
 with the individual's community resources, including schools and FAPT as
 appropriate, with the goal of transitioning the individual out of the program
 to a less restrictive care setting for continued, sometimes intensive, services
 as soon as possible and appropriate.
 
 (e) The therapeutic group home program must incorporate
 nationally established, evidence-based, trauma-informed services and supports
 that promote recovery and resiliency. 
 
 (f) Discharge planning begins upon admission, with concrete
 plans for the individual to transition back into the community beginning within
 the first week of admission, with clear action steps and target dates outlined
 in the plan of care.
 
 (3) Continued stay criteria. The following criteria shall
 be met in order to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
 
 (a) All of the admission guidelines continue to be met and
 continue to be supported by the written clinical documentation. 
 
 (b) The individual shall meet one of the following
 criteria: (i) the desired outcome or level of functioning has not been restored
 or improved in the timeframe outlined in the individual's plan of care or the
 individual continues to be at risk for relapse based on history or (ii) the
 nature of the functional gains is tenuous and use of less intensive services
 will not achieve stabilization.
 
 (c) The individual shall meet one of the following
 criteria: (i) the individual has achieved initial CIPOC goals, but additional
 goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower level of care; (ii) the
 individual is making satisfactory progress toward meeting goals but has not
 attained plan of care goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a lower level
 of care; (iii) the individual is not making progress, and the plan of care has
 been modified to identify more effective interventions; or (iv) there are
 current indications that the individual requires this level of treatment to
 maintain level of functioning as evidenced by failure to achieve goals identified
 for therapeutic visits or stays in a nontreatment residential setting or in a
 lower level of residential treatment. 
 
 (d) There is a written, up-to-date discharge plan that (i)
 identifies the custodial parent or custodial caregiver at discharge; (ii) identifies
 the school the individual will attend at discharge, if applicable; (iii)
 includes individualized education program (IEP) and FAPT recommendations, if
 necessary; (iv) outlines the aftercare treatment plan (discharge to another
 residential level of care is not an acceptable discharge goal); and (v) lists
 barriers to community reintegration and progress made on resolving these
 barriers since last review.
 
 (e) The active plan of care includes structure for combined
 treatment services and activities to ensure the attainment of therapeutic
 mental health goals as identified in the plan of care. Combined treatment
 services reinforce and practice skills learned in individual, group, and family
 therapy such as community integration skills, coping skills, family living and
 health awareness skills, interpersonal skills, and stress management skills.
 Combined treatment services may occur in group settings, in one-on-one
 interactions, or in the home setting during a therapeutic pass. In addition to
 the combined treatment services, the child or adolescent must also receive
 psychotherapy services, care coordination, family-based discharge planning, and
 locality-based transition activities. The child or adolescent shall receive
 intensive family interventions at least twice per month, although it is
 recommended that the intensive family interventions be provided at a frequency
 of one family therapy session per week. Family involvement begins immediately
 upon admission to therapeutic group home. If the minimum requirement cannot be
 met, the reasons must be reported, and continued efforts to involve family
 members must also be documented. Other family members or supportive adults may
 be included as indicated in the plan of care.
 
 (f) Less restrictive treatment options have been considered
 but cannot yet meet the individual's treatment needs. There is sufficient
 current clinical documentation or evidence to show that therapeutic group home
 level of care continues to be the least restrictive level of care that can meet
 the individual's mental health treatment needs.
 
 (4) Discharge shall occur if any of the following applies:
 (i) the level of functioning has improved with respect to the goals outlined in
 the plan of care, and the individual can reasonably be expected to maintain these
 gains at a lower level of treatment; (ii) the individual no longer benefits
 from service as evidenced by absence of progress toward plan of care goals for
 a period of 60 days; or (iii) other less intensive services may achieve
 stabilization.
 
 d. The following clinical activities shall be required for
 each therapeutic group home resident:
 
 (1) An assessment be performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
 or LMHP-S.
 
 (2) A face-to-face evaluation shall be performed by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30 calendar days prior to admission
 with a documented DSM-5 or ICD-10 diagnosis.
 
 (3) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
 independent certification team according to the requirements of subdivision D 4
 of this section. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 calendar days by
 an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S acting within his scope of practice.
 
 (4) An IPOC that is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels. The IPOC shall be completed on the day of
 admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be signed by the
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual and a family member or
 legally authorized representative. The IPOC shall include all of the following:
 
 
 (a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
 that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
 strategies and treatment alliance; 
 
 (b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 (c) A description of the functional level of the
 individual; 
 
 (d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 (e) Orders for medications, psychiatric, medical, dental,
 and any special health care needs whether or not provided in the facilities,
 treatments, restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies,
 therapeutic passes, social services, community integration, diet, and special
 procedures recommended for the health and safety of the individual; 
 
 (f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; and 
 
 (g) Plans for discharge. 
 
 (5) A CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
 days after admission. The CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria: 
 
 (a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and shall reflect the need
 for therapeutic group home care; 
 
 (b) Be based on input from school, home, other health care
 providers, FAPT if necessary, the individual, and the family or legal guardian;
 
 
 (c) Shall state treatment objectives that include
 measurable short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 (d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; and 
 
 (e) Include a comprehensive discharge plan with necessary,
 clinically appropriate community services to ensure continuity of care upon
 discharge with the individual's family, school, and community. 
 
 (6) The CIPOC shall be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30
 calendar days by the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a
 family member or primary caregiver. Updates shall be signed and dated by the
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a family member or
 legally authorized representative. The review shall include all of the
 following: 
 
 (a) The individual's response to the services provided; 
 
 (b) Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall response to the CIPOC interventions; and 
 
 (c) Determinations regarding whether the services being
 provided continue to be required. 
 
 (7) Crisis management, clinical assessment, and
 individualized therapy shall be provided to address both behavioral health and
 substance use disorder needs as indicated in the plan of care to address
 intermittent crises and challenges within the therapeutic group home setting or
 community settings as defined in the plan of care and to avoid a higher level
 of care.
 
 (8) Care coordination shall be provided with medical,
 educational, and other behavioral health providers and other entities involved
 in the care and discharge planning for the individual as included in the plan
 of care.
 
 (9) Weekly individual therapy shall be provided in the
 therapeutic group home, or other settings as appropriate for the individual's
 needs, by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be documented in
 progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61. 
 
 (10) Weekly (or more frequently if clinically indicated)
 group therapy shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which
 shall be documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
 12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the plan of care.
 
 (11) Family treatment shall be provided as clinically
 indicated, provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, and documented in
 progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61 and as
 planned and documented in the plan of care.
 
 (12) Family engagement activities shall be provided in
 addition to family therapy or counseling. Family engagement activities shall be
 provided at least weekly as outlined in the plan of care, and daily
 communication with the family or legally authorized representative shall be
 part of the family engagement strategies in the plan of care. For each
 service authorization period when family engagement is not possible, the
 therapeutic group home shall identify and document the specific barriers to the
 individual's engagement with the individual's family or legally authorized
 representatives. The therapeutic group home shall document on a weekly basis
 the reasons why family engagement is not occurring as required. The therapeutic
 group home shall document alternative family engagement strategies to be used
 as part of the interventions in the plan of care and request approval of the
 revised plan of care by DMAS. When family engagement is not possible, the
 therapeutic group home shall collaborate with DMAS on a weekly basis to develop
 individualized family engagement strategies and document the revised strategies
 in the plan of care.
 
 (13) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
 indicated in the plan of care and as paired with facility-based and community-based
 interventions to promote discharge planning, community integration, and family
 engagement activities. 
 
 (a) The provider shall document how the family was prepared
 for the therapeutic pass to include a review of the plan of care goals and
 objectives being addressed by the planned interventions and the safety and
 crisis plan in effect during the therapeutic pass.
 
 (b) If a facility staff member does not accompany the
 individual on the therapeutic pass and the therapeutic pass exceeds 24 hours,
 the provider shall make daily contacts with the family and be available 24
 hours per day to address concerns, incidents, or crises that may arise during
 the pass.
 
 (c) Contact with the family shall occur within seven
 calendar days of the therapeutic pass to discuss the accomplishments and
 challenges of the therapeutic pass along with an update on progress toward plan
 of care goals and any necessary changes to the plan of care.
 
 (d) Twenty-four therapeutic passes shall be permitted per
 individual, per admission, without authorization as approved by the treating
 LMHP and documented in the plan of care. Additional therapeutic passes shall
 require service authorization. Any unauthorized therapeutic passes shall result
 in retraction for those days of service.
 
 (14) Discharge planning shall begin at admission and
 continue throughout the individual's stay at the therapeutic group home. The
 family or guardian, the community services board (CSB), the family assessment
 and planning team (FAPT) case manager, and the DMAS contracted care manager
 shall be involved in treatment planning and shall identify the anticipated
 needs of the individual and family upon discharge and available services in the
 community. Prior to discharge, the therapeutic group home shall submit an active
 and viable discharge plan to the DMAS contractor for review. Once the DMAS
 contractor approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin actively
 collaborating with the family or legally authorized representative and the
 treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
 appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The therapeutic
 group home shall request permission from the parent or legally authorized
 representative to share treatment information with these providers and shall
 share information pursuant to a valid release. The therapeutic group home shall
 request information from post-discharge providers to establish that the
 planning of pending services and transition planning activities has begun,
 shall establish that the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall
 provide individualized education program recommendations to the school if
 necessary. The therapeutic group home shall inform the DMAS contractor of all
 scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
 the DMAS contractor within one business day of the individual's discharge date
 from the therapeutic group home.
 
 (15) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed.
 Facilities that only provide independent living services or nonclinical
 services that do not meet the requirements of this subsection are not reimbursed
 eligible for reimbursement. DMAS shall reimburse only for services
 provided in facilities or programs with no more than 16 beds. 
 
 (4) These residential (16) Therapeutic group home
 services providers must shall be licensed by the Department
 of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the Regulations
 for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
 
 (5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
 seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
 programming must include development or maintenance of daily living skills,
 anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication skills,
 and stress management. This service may be provided in a program setting or a
 community-based group home. 
 
 (6) The individual must receive, at least weekly,
 individual psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is
 provided as part of the program. 
 
 (7) (17) Individuals shall be discharged from
 this service when treatment goals are met or other less intensive
 services may achieve stabilization.
 
 (8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
 the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
 services. (18) Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or
 outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs plans of care
 shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out
 in 12VAC30-60-61. 
 
 (9) These (19) Therapeutic group home services
 may only be rendered by and within the scope of practice of an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, 
 LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 (10) (20) The facility/group psychiatric
 residential treatment facility or therapeutic group home shall coordinate
 necessary services and discharge planning with other providers as
 medically and clinically necessary. Documentation of this care coordination
 shall be maintained by the facility/group facility or group home
 in the individual's record. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
 when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted, and
 recommended next steps.
 
 (21) Failure to perform any of the items described in this subsection
 shall result in a retraction of the per diem for each day of noncompliance. 
 
 3. PRTF services are a 24-hour, supervised, clinically and
 medically necessary out-of-home program designed to provide necessary support
 and address mental health, behavioral, substance use, cognitive, or other
 treatment needs of an individual younger than 21 years of age in order to
 prevent or minimize the need for more inpatient treatment. Active treatment and
 comprehensive discharge planning shall begin prior to admission. In order to be
 covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age, these services shall (i)
 meet DMAS-approved psychiatric medical necessity criteria or be approved as an
 EPSDT service based upon a diagnosis made by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S
 who is practicing within the scope of his license and (ii) be reflected in
 provider records and on the provider's claims for services by recognized
 diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested professional
 services. 
 
 a. PRTF services shall be covered for the purpose of
 diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders when such
 services are rendered by a psychiatric facility that is not a hospital and is
 accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
 Organizations, the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities,
 the Council on Accreditation of Services for Families and Children, or by any
 other accrediting organization with comparable standards that is recognized by
 the state.
 
 b. Providers of PRTF services shall be licensed by DBHDS. 
 
 c. PRTF services are reimbursable only when the treatment
 program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically
 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR 441.156 and (ii)
 the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G. Each admission
 must be service authorized, and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements for
 clinical necessity.
 
 d. The PRTF benefit for individuals younger than 21 years
 of age shall include services defined at 42 CFR 440.160 that are provided
 under the direction of a physician pursuant to a certification of medical
 necessity and plan of care developed by an interdisciplinary team of
 professionals and shall involve active treatment designed to achieve the
 child's discharge from PRTF services at the earliest possible time. The PRTF
 services benefit shall include services provided under arrangement furnished by
 Medicaid enrolled providers other than the PRTF, as long as the PRTF (i) arranges
 for and oversees the provision of all services, (ii) maintains all medical
 records of care furnished to the individual, and (iii) ensures that the
 services are furnished under the direction of a physician. Services provided
 under arrangement shall be documented by a written referral from the PRTF. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the facility who is licensed to prescribe drugs shall be
 considered the referral. 
 
 e. PRTFs, as defined at 42 CFR 483.352, shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these services: (i)
 medical and psychological services, including those furnished by physicians,
 licensed mental health professionals, and other licensed or certified health professionals
 (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists, respiratory therapists, and substance abuse
 treatment practitioners); (ii) pharmacy services; (iii) outpatient hospital
 services; (iv) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and therapy for
 individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (v) laboratory and
 radiology services; (vi) durable medical equipment; (vii) vision services;
 (viii) dental, oral surgery, and orthodontic services; (ix) nonemergency
 transportation services; and (x) emergency services. 
 
 f. PRTF services shall include assessment and
 reassessment; room and board; daily supervision; combined treatment services;
 individual, family, and group therapy; care coordination; interventions;
 general or special education; medical treatment (including medication,
 coordination of necessary medical services, and 24-hour onsite nursing);
 specialty services; and discharge planning that meets the medical and clinical
 needs of the individual.
 
 g. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a PRTF. The
 following requirements for severity of need and intensity and quality of
 service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity criteria for admission:
 
 (1) Severity of need required for admission. The following
 criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
 
 (a) There is clinical evidence that the individual has a
 DSM-5 disorder that is amenable to active psychiatric treatment.
 
 (b) There is a high degree of potential of the condition
 leading to acute psychiatric hospitalization in the absence of residential
 treatment.
 
 (c) Either (i) there is clinical evidence that the
 individual would be a risk to self or others if the individual were not in a
 PRTF or (ii) as a result of the individual's mental disorder, there is an
 inability for the individual to adequately care for his own physical needs, and
 caretakers, guardians, or family members are unable to safely fulfill these
 needs, representing potential serious harm to self.
 
 (d) The individual requires supervision seven days per
 week, 24 hours per day to develop skills necessary for daily living; to assist
 with planning and arranging access to a range of educational, therapeutic, and
 aftercare services; and to develop the adaptive and functional behavior that
 will allow the individual to live outside of a PRTF setting.
 
 (e) The individual's current living environment does not
 provide the support and access to therapeutic services needed.
 
 (f) The individual is medically stable and does not require
 the 24-hour medical or nursing monitoring or procedures provided in a hospital
 level of care.
 
 (2) Intensity and quality of service necessary for
 admission. The following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for
 intensity and quality of service:
 
 (a) The evaluation and assignment of a DSM-5 diagnosis must
 result from a face-to-face psychiatric evaluation.
 
 (b) The program provides supervision seven days per week,
 24 hours per day to assist with the development of skills necessary for daily
 living; to assist with planning and arranging access to a range of educational,
 therapeutic, and aftercare services; and to assist with the development of the
 adaptive and functional behavior that will allow the individual to live outside
 of a PRTF setting.
 
 (c) An individualized plan of active psychiatric treatment
 and residential living support is provided in a timely manner. This treatment
 must be medically monitored, with 24-hour medical availability and 24-hour
 nursing services availability. This plan includes (i) at least once-a-week
 psychiatric reassessments; (ii) intensive family or support system involvement
 occurring at least once per week or valid reasons identified as to why such a
 plan is not clinically appropriate or feasible; (iii) psychotropic medications,
 when used, are to be used with specific target symptoms identified; (iv)
 evaluation for current medical problems; (v) evaluation for concomitant
 substance use issues; and (vi) linkage or coordination with the individual's
 community resources, including the local school division and FAPT case manager,
 as appropriate, with the goal of returning the individual to his regular social
 environment as soon as possible, unless contraindicated. School contact should
 address an individualized educational plan as appropriate.
 
 (d) A urine drug screen is considered at the time of
 admission, when progress is not occurring, when substance misuse is suspected,
 or when substance use and medications may have a potential adverse interaction.
 After a positive screen, additional random screens are considered and referral
 to a substance use disorder provider is considered.
 
 (3) Criteria for continued stay. The following criteria
 shall be met to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
 
 (a) Despite reasonable therapeutic efforts, clinical
 evidence indicates at least one of the following: (i) the persistence of
 problems that caused the admission to a degree that continues to meet the
 admission criteria (both severity of need and intensity of service needs); (ii)
 the emergence of additional problems that meet the admission criteria (both severity
 of need and intensity of service needs); or (iii) that disposition planning or
 attempts at therapeutic reentry into the community have resulted in or would
 result in exacerbation of the psychiatric illness to the degree that would
 necessitate continued PRTF treatment. Subjective opinions without objective
 clinical information or evidence are not sufficient to meet severity of need
 based on justifying the expectation that there would be a decompensation.
 
 (b) There is evidence of objective, measurable, and
 time-limited therapeutic clinical goals that must be met before the individual
 can return to a new or previous living situation. There is evidence that
 attempts are being made to secure timely access to treatment resources and
 housing in anticipation of discharge, with alternative housing contingency
 plans also being addressed.
 
 (c) There is evidence that the plan of care is focused on
 the alleviation of psychiatric symptoms and precipitating psychosocial
 stressors that are interfering with the individual's ability to return to a
 less-intensive level of care.
 
 (d) The current or revised plan of care can be reasonably
 expected to bring about significant improvement in the problems meeting the
 criteria in subdivision 3 c (3) (a) of this subsection, and this is documented
 in weekly progress notes written and signed by the provider.
 
 (e) There is evidence of intensive family or support system
 involvement occurring at least once per week, unless there is an identified
 valid reason why it is not clinically appropriate or feasible.
 
 (f) A discharge plan is formulated that is directly linked
 to the behaviors or symptoms that resulted in admission and begins to identify
 appropriate post-PRTF resources including the local school division and FAPT
 case manager as appropriate.
 
 (g) All applicable elements in admission-intensity and
 quality of service criteria are applied as related to assessment and treatment
 if clinically relevant and appropriate.
 
 (4) Discharge criteria. Discharge shall occur if any of the
 following applies: (i) the level of functioning has improved with respect to
 the goals outlined in the plan of care, and the individual can reasonably be
 expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment; (ii) the
 individual no longer benefits from service as evidenced by absence of progress
 toward plan of care goals for a period of 30 days; or (iii) other less
 intensive services may achieve stabilization.
 
 h. The following clinical activities shall be required for
 each PRTF resident:
 
 (1) A face-to-face assessment shall be performed by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RS, or LMHP-S within 30 calendar days prior to admission and
 weekly thereafter and shall document a DSM-5 or ICD-10 diagnosis. 
 
 (2) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
 independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
 D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 30 calendar days by a physician
 acting within his scope of practice.
 
 (3) The initial plan of care (IPOC) shall be completed
 within 24 hours of admission by the treatment team. The IPOC shall
 include: 
 
 (a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
 that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
 strategies and treatment alliance; 
 
 (b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 (c) A description of the functional level of the
 individual;
 
 (d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 (e) Any orders for medications, psychiatric, medical,
 dental, and any special health care needs, whether or not provided in the
 facility; education or special education; treatments; interventions; and
 restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social
 services, diet, and special procedures recommended for the health and safety of
 the individual; 
 
 (f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; 
 
 (g) Plans for discharge; and 
 
 (h) Signature and date by the individual, parent, or
 legally authorized representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
 
 (4) The CIPOC shall be completed and signed no later than
 14 calendar days after admission by the treatment team. The PRTF shall request
 authorizations from families to release confidential information to collect
 information from medical and behavioral health treatment providers, schools,
 FAPT, social services, court services, and other relevant parties. This
 information shall be used when considering changes and updating the CIPOC. The
 CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria:
 
 (a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for PRTF care;
 
 (b) Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
 and other personnel specified in subdivision 3 d 4 of this subsection who are
 employed by or provide services to the individual in the facility in
 consultation with the individual, family member, or legally authorized
 representative, or appropriate others into whose care the individual will be
 released after discharge;
 
 (c) Shall state treatment objectives that shall include
 measurable, evidence-based, and short-term and long-term goals and objectives;
 family engagement activities; and the design of community-based aftercare with
 target dates for achievement;
 
 (d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 interventions, activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment
 objectives related to the individual and family treatment needs; and 
 
 (e) Describe comprehensive transition plans and
 coordination of current care and post-discharge plans with related community
 services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's
 family, school, and community.
 
 (5) The CIPOC shall be reviewed every 30 calendar days by
 the team specified in subdivision 3 d 4 of this subsection to determine that
 services being provided are or were required from a PRTF and to recommend
 changes in the plan as indicated by the individual's overall adjustment during
 the time away from home. The CIPOC shall include the signature and date from
 the individual, parent, or legally authorized representative, a physician, and
 treatment team members.
 
 (6) Individual therapy shall be provided three times
 per week (or more frequently based upon the individual's needs) provided by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the plan of care
 and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection and
 12VAC30-60-61.
 
 (7) Group therapy shall be provided as clinically indicated
 by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the plan of
 care and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection.
 
 (8) Family therapy shall be provided as clinically
 indicated by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the
 plan of care and progress notes in accordance with the individual and family or
 legally authorized representative's goals and the requirements in this
 subsection.
 
 (9) Family engagement shall be provided in addition to
 family therapy or counseling. Family engagement shall be provided at least
 weekly as outlined in the plan of care and daily communication with the
 treatment team representative and the treatment team representative and the family
 or legally authorized representative shall be part of the family engagement
 strategies in the plan of care. For each service authorization period when
 family engagement is not possible, the PRTF shall identify and document the
 specific barriers to the individual's engagement with his family or legally
 authorized representatives. The PRTF shall document on a weekly basis the
 reasons that family engagement is not occurring as required. The PRTF shall
 document alternate family engagement strategies to be used as part of the
 interventions in the plan of care and request approval of the revised plan of
 care by DMAS. When family engagement is not possible, the PRTF shall
 collaborate with DMAS on a weekly basis to develop individualized family
 engagement strategies and document the revised strategies in the plan of care.
 
 (10) Three interventions shall be provided per 24-hour
 period including nights and weekends. Family engagement activities are
 considered to be an intervention and shall occur based on the treatment and
 visitation goals and scheduling needs of the family or legally authorized
 representative. Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall
 be outlined in and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the plan
 of care. Any deviation from the plan of care shall be documented along with a
 clinical or medical justification for the deviation based on the needs of the
 individual. 
 
 (11) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
 indicated in the plan of care and as paired with community-based and
 facility-based interventions to promote discharge planning, community
 integration, and family engagement. Therapeutic passes include activities as
 listed in subdivision 2 d (13) of this section. Twenty-four therapeutic passes
 shall be permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as
 approved by the treating physician and documented in the plan of care.
 Additional therapeutic passes shall require service authorization from DMAS.
 Any unauthorized therapeutic passes not approved by the provider or DMAS shall
 result in retraction for those days of service.
 
 (12) Discharge planning shall begin at admission and
 continue throughout the individual's placement at the PRTF. The parent or
 legally authorized representative, the community services board (CSB), the
 family assessment planning team (FAPT) case manager, if appropriate, and the
 DMAS contracted care manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall
 identify the anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and
 identify the available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the PRTF
 shall submit an active discharge plan to the DMAS contractor for review. Once
 the DMAS contractor approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin
 collaborating with the parent or legally authorized representative and the
 treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
 appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The PRTF shall
 request written permission from the parent or legally authorized representative
 to share treatment information with these providers and shall share information
 pursuant to a valid release. The PRTF shall request information from
 post-discharge providers to establish that the planning of services and
 activities has begun, shall establish that the individual has been enrolled in
 school, and shall provide individualized education program recommendations to
 the school if necessary. The PRTF shall inform the DMAS contractor of all
 scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
 the DMAS contractor within one business day of the individual's discharge date
 from the PRTF.
 
 (13) Failure to perform any of the items as described in
 subdivisions 3 h (1) through 3 h (12) of this subsection up until the discharge
 of the individual shall result in a retraction of the per diem and all other
 contracted and coordinated service payments for each day of noncompliance. 
 
 i. The team developing the CIPOC shall meet the following
 requirements:
 
 (1) At least one member of the team must have expertise in
 pediatric behavioral health. Based on education and experience, preferably
 including competence in child or adolescent psychiatry, the team must be
 capable of all of the following: assessing the individual's immediate and
 long-range therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths
 and liabilities; assessing the potential resources of the individual's family
 or legally authorized representative; setting treatment objectives; and
 prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the CIPOC's objectives.
 
 (2) The team shall include one of the following: 
 
 (a) A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist; 
 
 (b) A licensed clinical psychologist and a physician
 licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or 
 
 (c) A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
 with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental diseases and a licensed clinical psychologist.
 
 (3) The team shall also include one of the following: an
 LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 4. Requirements for independent certification teams
 applicable to both therapeutic group homes and PRTFs:
 
 a. The independent certification team shall certify the
 need for PRTF or therapeutic group home services and issue a certificate of
 need document within the process and timeliness standards as approved by DMAS
 under contractual agreement with the DMAS contractor.
 
 b. The independent certification team shall be approved by
 DMAS through a memorandum of understanding with a locality or be approved under
 contractual agreement with the DMAS contractor. The team shall initiate and
 coordinate referral to the family assessment and planning team (FAPT) as
 defined in §§ 2.2-5207 and 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia to facilitate care
 coordination and for consideration of educational coverage and other supports
 not covered by DMAS.
 
 c. The independent certification team shall assess the
 individual's and family's strengths and needs in addition to diagnoses,
 behaviors, and symptoms that indicate the need for behavioral health treatment
 and also consider whether local resources and community-based care are
 sufficient to meet the individual's treatment needs, as presented within the
 previous 30 calendar days, within the least restrictive environment.
 
 d. The LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP, as
 part of the independent certification team, shall meet with an individual and
 the individual's parent or legally authorized representative within two business
 days from a request to assess the individual's needs and begin the process to
 certify the need for an out-of-home placement. 
 
 e. The independent certification team shall meet with an
 individual and the individual's parent or legally authorized representative
 within 10 business days from a request to certify the need for an out-of-home
 placement.
 
 f. The independent certification team shall assess the
 treatment needs of the individual to issue a certificate of need (CON) for the
 most appropriate medically necessary services. The certification shall include
 the dated signature and credentials for each of the team members who rendered
 the certification. Referring or treatment providers shall not actively
 participate during the certification process but may provide supporting
 clinical documentation to the certification team.
 
 g. The CON shall be effective for 30 calendar days prior to
 admission.
 
 h. The independent certification team shall provide the
 completed CON to the facility within one calendar day of completing the CON.
 
 i. The individual and the individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative shall have the right to freedom of choice of service
 providers.
 
 j. If the individual or the individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative disagrees with the independent certification team's
 recommendation, the parent or legally authorized representative may appeal the
 recommendation in accordance with 12VAC30-110. 
 
 k. If the LMHP, as part of the independent certification
 team, determines that the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
 LMHP shall refer the individual to an appropriate Medicaid-enrolled crisis
 intervention provider, crisis stabilization provider, or inpatient psychiatric
 provider in accordance with 12VAC30-50-226 or shall refer the individual for
 emergency admission to a PRTF or therapeutic group home under subdivision 4 m
 of this subsection and shall also alert the individual's managed care
 organization. 
 
 l. For individuals who are already eligible for Medicaid at
 the time of admission, the independent certification team shall be a
 DMAS-authorized contractor with competence in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental illness, preferably in child psychiatry, and have knowledge of the
 individual's situation and service availability in the individual's local
 service area. The team shall be composed of at least one physician and one
 LMHP, including LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP. An individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative shall be included in the certification process.
 
 m. For emergency admissions, an assessment must be made by
 the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 Reimbursement shall only occur when a certificate of need is issued by the team
 responsible for the CIPOC within 14 calendar days after admission. The
 certification shall cover any period of time after admission and before claims
 are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. After processing an emergency
 admission, the therapeutic group home, PRTF, or institution for mental diseases
 (IMD) shall notify the DMAS contractor within five calendar days of the
 individual's status as being under the care of the facility. 
 
 n. For all individuals who apply and become eligible for
 Medicaid while an inpatient in a facility or program, the certification team
 shall refer the case to the DMAS contractor for referral to the local FAPT to
 facilitate care coordination and consideration of educational coverage and
 other supports not covered by DMAS.
 
 o. For individuals who apply and become eligible for
 Medicaid while an inpatient in the facility or program, the certification shall
 be made by the team responsible for the CIPOC and shall cover any period of
 time before the application for Medicaid eligibility for which claims are made
 for reimbursement by Medicaid. Upon the individual's enrollment into the
 Medicaid program, the therapeutic group home, PRTF, or IMD shall notify the
 DMAS contractor of the individual's status as being under the care of the
 facility within five calendar days of the individual becoming eligible for
 Medicaid benefits.
 
 5. Service authorization requirements applicable to both
 therapeutic group homes and PRTFs: 
 
 a. Authorization shall be required and shall be conducted
 by DMAS using medical necessity criteria specified in this subsection. 
 
 b. An individual shall have a valid psychiatric diagnosis
 and meet the medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to
 satisfy the criteria for admission. The diagnosis shall be current, as
 documented within the past 12 months. If a current diagnosis is not available,
 the individual will require a mental health evaluation prior to admission by an
 LMHP affiliated with the independent certification team to establish a
 diagnosis and recommend and coordinate referral to the available treatment
 options.
 
 c. At authorization, an initial length of stay shall be
 agreed upon by the individual and parent or legally authorized representative
 with the treating provider, and the treating provider shall be responsible for
 evaluating and documenting evidence of treatment progress, assessing the need
 for ongoing out-of-home placement, and obtaining authorization for continued
 stay.
 
 d. Information that is required to obtain authorization for
 these services shall include: 
 
 (1) A completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by DMAS; 
 
 (2) A certificate of need completed by an independent
 certification team specifying all of the following: 
 
 (a) The ambulatory care and Medicaid or FAPT-funded
 services available in the community do not meet the specific treatment needs of
 the individual; 
 
 (b) Alternative community-based care was not successful; 
 
 (c) Proper treatment of the individual's psychiatric
 condition requires services in a 24-hour supervised setting under the direction
 of a physician; and 
 
 (d) The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 individual's condition or prevent further regression so that a more intensive
 level of care will not be needed;
 
 (3) Diagnosis as defined in the DSM-5 and based on (i) an
 evaluation by a psychiatrist or LMHP that has been completed within 30 calendar
 days of admission or (ii) a diagnosis confirmed in writing by an LMHP after
 review of a previous evaluation completed within one year of admission;
 
 (4) A description of the individual's behavior during the
 seven calendar days immediately prior to admission;
 
 (5) A description of alternate placements and community
 mental health and rehabilitation services and traditional behavioral health
 services pursued and attempted and the outcomes of each service;
 
 (6) The individual's level of functioning and clinical
 stability;
 
 (7) The level of family involvement and supports available;
 and
 
 (8) The initial plan of care (IPOC).
 
 6. Continued stay criteria requirements applicable to both
 therapeutic group homes and PRTFs. For a continued stay authorization or a
 reauthorization to occur, the individual shall meet the medical necessity
 criteria as defined in this subsection to satisfy the criteria for continuing
 care. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by DMAS. A current
 plan of care and a current (within 30 calendar days) summary of progress
 related to the goals and objectives of the plan of care shall be submitted to
 DMAS for continuation of the service. The service provider shall also submit:
 
 a. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
 than 30 business days prior to the date of submission; 
 
 b. Documentation that the required services have been
 provided as defined in the plan of care; 
 
 c. Current (within the last 14 calendar days) information
 on progress related to the achievement of all treatment and discharge-related
 goals; and 
 
 d. A description of the individual's continued impairment
 and treatment needs, problem behaviors, family engagement activities,
 community-based discharge planning and care coordination, and need for a
 residential level of care. 
 
 7. EPSDT services requirements applicable to therapeutic
 group homes and PRTFs. Service limits may be exceeded based on medical
 necessity for individuals eligible for EPSDT. EPSDT services may involve
 service modalities not available to other individuals, such as applied
 behavioral analysis and neuro-rehabilitative services. Individualized services
 to address specific clinical needs identified in an EPSDT screening shall
 require authorization by a DMAS contractor. In unique EPSDT cases, DMAS may
 authorize specialized services beyond the standard therapeutic group home or
 PRTF medical necessity criteria and program requirements, as medically and
 clinically indicated to ensure the most appropriate treatment is available to
 each individual. Treating service providers authorized to deliver medically
 necessary EPSDT services in therapeutic group homes and PRTFs on behalf of a
 Medicaid-enrolled individual shall adhere to the individualized interventions
 and evidence-based progress measurement criteria described in the plan of care
 and approved for reimbursement by DMAS. All documentation, independent
 certification team, family engagement activity, therapeutic pass, and discharge
 planning requirements shall apply to cases approved as EPSDT PRTF or
 therapeutic group home service.
 
 8. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age for medically necessary stays in
 inpatient psychiatric facilities described in 42 CFR 440.160(b)(1) and (b)(2)
 for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral
 disorders identified under EPSDT when such services meet the requirements set
 forth in subdivision 7 of this subsection.
 
 a. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be provided under
 the direction of a physician. 
 
 b. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be provided by (i)
 a psychiatric hospital that undergoes a state survey to determine whether the
 hospital meets the requirements for participation in Medicare as a psychiatric
 hospital as specified in 42 CFR 482.60 or is accredited by a national
 organization whose psychiatric hospital accrediting program has been approved
 by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS); or (ii) a hospital
 with an inpatient psychiatric program that undergoes a state survey to
 determine whether the hospital meets the requirements for participation in
 Medicare as a hospital, as specified in 42 CFR part 482 or is accredited by a
 national accrediting organization whose hospital accrediting program has been
 approved by CMS.
 
 c. Inpatient psychiatric admissions at general acute care
 hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to the
 requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25.
 
 d. PRTF services are reimbursable only when the treatment
 program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically
 42 CFR 441.151(a) and 42 CFR 441.151 (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR
 441.156 and (ii) the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G.
 Each admission must be service authorized and the treatment must meet DMAS
 requirements for clinical necessity.
 
 e. The inpatient psychiatric benefit for individuals
 younger than 21 years of age shall include services that are provided pursuant
 to a certification of medical necessity and plan of care developed by an
 interdisciplinary team of professionals and shall involve active treatment
 designed to achieve the individual's discharge from inpatient status at the
 earliest possible time. The inpatient psychiatric benefit shall include
 services provided under arrangement furnished by Medicaid enrolled providers
 other than the inpatient psychiatric facility, as long as the inpatient
 psychiatric facility (i) arranges for and oversees the provision of all
 services, (ii) maintains all medical records of care furnished to the
 individual, and (iii) ensures that the services are furnished under the
 direction of a physician. Services provided under arrangement shall be
 documented by a written referral from the inpatient psychiatric facility. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the inpatient psychiatric facility who is licensed to prescribe
 drugs shall be considered the referral. 
 
 f. State freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order pharmacy services
 and emergency services. Private freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall
 arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order the
 following services: (i) medical and psychological services including those
 furnished by physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other
 licensed or certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists,
 respiratory therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii)
 outpatient hospital services; (iii) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and
 therapy for individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (iv)
 laboratory and radiology services; (v) vision services; (vi) dental, oral
 surgery, and orthodontic services; (vii) nonemergency transportation services;
 and (viii) emergency services. (Emergency services means the same as is set
 forth in 12VAC30-50-310 B.)
 
 f. E. Mental health family support partners.
 
 (1) 1. Mental health family support partners are
 peer recovery support services and are nonclinical, peer-to-peer activities
 that engage, educate, and support the caregiver and an individual's self-help
 efforts to improve health recovery resiliency and wellness. Mental health
 family support partners is a peer support service and is a strength-based,
 individualized service provided to the caregiver of a Medicaid-eligible
 individual younger than 21 years of age with a mental health disorder that is
 the focus of support. The services provided to the caregiver and individual
 must be directed exclusively toward the benefit of the Medicaid-eligible
 individual. Services are expected to improve outcomes for individuals younger
 than 21 years of age with complex needs who are involved with multiple systems
 and increase the individual's and family's confidence and capacity to manage
 their own services and supports while promoting recovery and healthy
 relationships. These services are rendered by a PRS who is (i) a parent of a
 minor or adult child with a similar mental health disorder or (ii) an adult
 with personal experience with a family member with a similar mental health
 disorder with experience navigating behavioral health care services. The PRS
 shall perform the service within the scope of his knowledge, lived experience,
 and education.
 
 (2) 2. Under the clinical oversight of the LMHP
 making the recommendation for mental health family support partners, the peer
 recovery specialist in consultation with his direct supervisor shall develop a
 recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan based on the LMHP's recommendation for
 service, the individual's and the caregiver's perceived recovery needs, and any
 clinical assessments or service specific provider intakes as defined in this
 section within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service. Development of
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall include collaboration with
 the individual and the individual's caregiver. Individualized goals and
 strategies shall be focused on the individual's identified needs for
 self-advocacy and recovery. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall
 also include documentation of how many days per week and how many hours per
 week are required to carry out the services in order to meet the goals of the
 plan. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall be completed, signed,
 and dated by the LMHP, the PRS, the direct supervisor, the individual, and the
 individual's caregiver within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service.
 The PRS shall act as an advocate for the individual, encouraging the individual
 and the caregiver to take a proactive role in developing and updating goals and
 objectives in the individualized recovery planning.
 
 (3) 3. Documentation of required activities
 shall be required as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5200 A, C, and E through J.
 
 (4) 4. Limitations and exclusions to service
 delivery shall be the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5210. 
 
 (5) 5. Caregivers of individuals younger than 21
 years of age who qualify to receive mental health family support partners shall
 (i) care for an individual with a mental health disorder who requires recovery
 assistance and (ii) meet two or more of the following:
 
 (a) a. Individual and his caregiver need
 peer-based recovery-oriented services for the maintenance of wellness and the
 acquisition of skills needed to support the individual. 
 
 (b) b. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance to develop self-advocacy skills to assist the individual in
 achieving self-management of the individual's health status. 
 
 (c) c. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance and support to prepare the individual for a successful work or
 school experience. 
 
 (d) d. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance to help the individual and caregiver assume responsibility for
 recovery.
 
 (6) 6. Individuals 18 through, 19, and
 20 years of age who meet the medical necessity criteria in 12VAC30-50-226 B 7
 e, who would benefit from receiving peer supports directly and who choose to
 receive mental health peer support services directly instead of through their
 caregiver, shall be permitted to receive mental health peer support services by
 an appropriate PRS.
 
 (7) 7. To qualify for continued mental health
 family support partners, medical necessity criteria shall continue to be met,
 and progress notes shall document the status of progress relative to the goals
 identified in the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 (8) 8. Discharge criteria from mental health
 family support partners shall be the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5180 E.
 
 (9) 9. Mental health family support partners
 services shall be rendered on an individual basis or in a group.
 
 (10) 10. Prior to service initiation, a
 documented recommendation for mental health family support partners services shall
 be made by a licensed mental health professional (LMHP) who is acting within
 his scope of practice under state law. The recommendation shall verify that the
 individual meets the medical necessity criteria set forth in subdivision 5 of
 this subsection. The recommendation shall be valid for no longer than 30
 calendar days.
 
 (11) 11. Effective July 1, 2017, a peer recovery
 specialist shall have the qualifications, education, experience, and
 certification required by DBHDS in order to be eligible to register with the
 Virginia Board of Counseling on or after July 1, 2018. Upon the promulgation of
 regulations by the Board of Counseling, registration of peer recovery
 specialists by the Board of Counseling shall be required. The PRS shall perform
 mental health family support partners services under the oversight of the LMHP
 making the recommendation for services and providing the clinical oversight of
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 (12) 12. The PRS shall be employed by or have a
 contractual relationship with the enrolled provider licensed for one of the
 following: 
 
 (a) a. Acute care general and emergency
 department hospital services licensed by the Department of Health. 
 
 (b) b. Freestanding psychiatric hospital and
 inpatient psychiatric unit licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services.
 
 (c) c. Psychiatric residential treatment
 facility licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services.
 
 (d) d. Therapeutic group home licensed by the
 Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (e) e. Outpatient mental health clinic services
 licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (f) f. Outpatient psychiatric services provider.
 
 (g) g. A community mental health and rehabilitative
 services provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services as a provider of one of the following community mental
 health and rehabilitative services as defined in this section, 12VAC30-50-226,
 12VAC30-50-420, or 12VAC30-50-430 for which the individual younger than 21
 years meets medical necessity criteria: (i) intensive in home; (ii)
 therapeutic day treatment; (iii) day treatment or partial hospitalization; (iv)
 crisis intervention; (v) crisis stabilization; (vi) mental health skill
 building; or (vii) mental health case management.
 
 (13) 13. Only the licensed and enrolled provider
 as referenced in subdivision 5 f (12) 12 of this subsection shall
 be eligible to bill and receive reimbursement from DMAS or its contractor
 for mental health family support partner services. Payments shall not be
 permitted to providers that fail to enter into an enrollment agreement with
 DMAS or its contractor. Reimbursement shall be subject to retraction for
 any billed service that is determined not to be in compliance with DMAS
 requirements.
 
 (14) 14. Supervision of the PRS shall meet the
 requirements set forth in 12VAC30-50-226 B 7 l.
 
 6. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than age 21 for medically necessary stays in inpatient
 psychiatric facilities described in 42 CFR 440.160(b)(1) and (b)(2) for the
 purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders
 identified under EPSDT when such services are rendered by: (i) a psychiatric hospital
 or an inpatient psychiatric program in a hospital accredited by the Joint
 Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations or (ii) a psychiatric
 facility that is accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
 Healthcare Organizations or the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation
 Facilities. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general acute care
 hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to the
 requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient
 psychiatric admissions to residential treatment facilities shall also be
 subject to the requirements of Part XIV (12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount,
 Duration and Scope of Selected Services. 
 
 a. The inpatient psychiatric services benefit for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age shall include services defined at 42
 CFR 440.160 that are provided under the direction of a physician pursuant to a
 certification of medical necessity and plan of care developed by an
 interdisciplinary team of professionals and shall involve active
 treatment designed to achieve the child's discharge from inpatient status at
 the earliest possible time. The inpatient psychiatric services benefit shall
 include services provided under arrangement furnished by Medicaid enrolled
 providers other than the inpatient psychiatric facility, as long as the
 inpatient psychiatric facility (i) arranges for and oversees the provision of
 all services, (ii) maintains all medical records of care furnished to the
 individual, and (iii) ensures that the services are furnished under the
 direction of a physician. Services provided under arrangement shall be
 documented by a written referral from the inpatient psychiatric facility. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the facility who is licensed to prescribe drugs shall be
 considered the referral. 
 
 b. Eligible services provided under arrangement with the
 inpatient psychiatric facility shall vary by provider type as described in this
 subsection. For purposes of this section, emergency services means the same as
 is set out in 12VAC30-50-310 B.
 
 (1) State freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these services: (i)
 pharmacy services and (ii) emergency services.
 
 (2) Private freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall
 arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these
 services: (i) medical and psychological services including those furnished by
 physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other licensed or
 certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists, respiratory
 therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii) outpatient
 hospital services; (iii) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and therapy
 for individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (iv)
 laboratory and radiology services; (v) vision services; (vi) dental, oral
 surgery, and orthodontic services; (vii) transportation services; and (viii) emergency
 services. 
 
 (3) Residential treatment facilities, as defined at 42 CFR
 483.352, shall arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians
 order these services: (i) medical and psychological services, including those
 furnished by physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other
 licensed or certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists,
 respiratory therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii)
 pharmacy services; (iii) outpatient hospital services; (iv) physical therapy,
 occupational therapy, and therapy for individuals with speech, hearing, or
 language disorders; (v) laboratory and radiology services; (vi) durable medical
 equipment; (vii) vision services; (viii) dental, oral surgery, and orthodontic
 services; (ix) transportation services; and (x) emergency services. 
 
 c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only
 when the treatment program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441
 Subpart D, specifically 42 CFR 441.151(a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42
 CFR 441.156, and (ii) the conditions of participation in 42 CFR Part 483
 Subpart G. Each admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet
 DMAS requirements for clinical necessity.
 
 d. Service limits may be exceeded based on medical
 necessity for individuals eligible for EPSDT.
 
 7. F. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when
 provided by practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or dealing
 in hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
 
 8. G. Addiction and recovery treatment services
 shall be covered under EPSDT consistent with 12VAC30-130-5000 et seq.
 
 9. H. Services facilitators shall be required
 for all consumer-directed personal care services consistent with the
 requirements set out in 12VAC30-120-935. 
 
 10. I. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age. 
 
 a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
 when used in this subsection shall have the following meanings unless the
 context clearly indicates otherwise:
 
 "Behavioral therapy" means systematic interventions
 provided by licensed practitioners acting within the scope of practice defined
 under a Virginia Department of Health Professions regulatory board and covered
 as remedial care under 42 CFR 440.130(d) to individuals younger than 21 years
 of age. Behavioral therapy includes applied behavioral analysis. Family
 training related to the implementation of the behavioral therapy shall be included
 as part of the behavioral therapy service. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 subject to clinical reviews and determined as medically necessary. Behavioral
 therapy may be provided in the individual's home and community settings as
 deemed by DMAS or its contractor as medically necessary treatment.
 
 "Counseling" means a professional mental health
 service that can only be provided by a person holding a license issued by a
 health regulatory board at the Department of Health Professions, which includes
 conducting assessments, making diagnoses of mental disorders and conditions,
 establishing treatment plans, and determining treatment interventions. 
 
 "Individual" means the child or adolescent younger
 than 21 years of age who is receiving behavioral therapy services.
 
 "Primary care provider" means a licensed medical
 practitioner who provides preventive and primary health care and is responsible
 for providing routine EPSDT screening and referral and coordination of other
 medical services needed by the individual.
 
 b. 2. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 designed to enhance communication skills and decrease maladaptive patterns of
 behavior, which if left untreated, could lead to more complex problems and the
 need for a greater or a more intensive level of care. The service goal shall be
 to ensure the individual's family or caregiver is trained to effectively manage
 the individual's behavior in the home using modification strategies. All
 services shall be provided in accordance with the ISP and clinical assessment summary.
 
 c. 3. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 covered when recommended by the individual's primary care provider or other
 licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or licensed nurse
 practitioner and determined by DMAS or its contractor to be medically
 necessary to correct or ameliorate significant impairments in major life
 activities that have resulted from either developmental, behavioral, or mental
 disabilities. Criteria for medical necessity are set out in 12VAC30-60-61 H
 F. Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the onset of
 these services in order to receive authorization for reimbursement. Individual
 service plans (ISPs) shall be required throughout the entire duration of
 services. The services shall be provided in accordance with the individual
 service plan and clinical assessment summary. These services shall be provided
 in settings that are natural or normal for a child or adolescent without a
 disability, such as the individual's home, unless there is justification in the
 ISP, which has been authorized for reimbursement, to include service settings
 that promote a generalization of behaviors across different settings to
 maintain the targeted functioning outside of the treatment setting in the
 individual's home and the larger community within which the individual resides.
 Covered behavioral therapy services shall include:
 
 (1) a. Initial and periodic service-specific
 provider intake as defined in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (2) b. Development of initial and updated ISPs
 as established in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (3) c. Clinical supervision activities.
 Requirements for clinical supervision are set out in 12VAC30-60-61 H F;
 
 (4) d. Behavioral training to increase the
 individual's adaptive functioning and communication skills; 
 
 (5) e. Training a family member in behavioral
 modification methods as established in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (6) f. Documentation and analysis of
 quantifiable behavioral data related to the treatment objectives; and
 
 (7) g. Care coordination.
 
 C. J. School health services.
 
 1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
 July 1, 2006.
 
 2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
 services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
 otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
 services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
 receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
 providers.
 
 a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
 receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
 reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
 
 b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
 individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
 service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
 services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
 illnesses or conditions.
 
 3. Providers shall be licensed under the applicable state
 practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department of
 Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part 440.
 Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions, and services
 necessary to correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners
 qualified to make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice,
 either as a member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the
 IEP team.
 
 a. Providers shall be employed by the school division or under
 contract to the school division. 
 
 b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in
 subdivision 4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal
 regulations and consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider
 manuals. 
 
 c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
 shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the
 community from other providers.
 
 d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
 control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456. 
 
 e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
 described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
 the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
 Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
 providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
 determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
 described as to the amount, duration and scope. 
 
 4. Covered services include:
 
 a. Physical therapy, and occupational therapy
 and services for individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders,
 performed by, or under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications
 set forth at 42 CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
 
 b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR
 440.60. These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing
 standards and criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are
 to be provided by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but
 may be delegated by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the
 regulations of the Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on
 delegation of nursing tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is
 under the supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 (1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
 level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
 implementation, and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing
 services when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical
 nurse. These skilled nursing services shall include dressing changes,
 maintaining patent airways, medication administration/monitoring administration
 or monitoring, and urinary catheterizations. 
 
 (2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and
 specifically related to an active, written plan of care developed by a
 registered nurse that is based on a written order from a physician, physician
 assistant, or nurse practitioner for skilled nursing services. This
 order shall be recertified on an annual basis. 
 
 c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
 licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
 or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
 medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient services
 include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy coverage,
 and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and neuropsychological testing
 are allowed when done for purposes other than educational diagnosis, school
 admission, evaluation of an individual with intellectual or developmental
 disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any placement issue.
 These services are covered in the nonschool settings also. School providers who
 may render these services when licensed by the state include psychiatrists,
 licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists, licensed clinical social
 workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical nurse specialists,
 marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
 
 d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
 440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
 care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
 professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner
 professional develops a written plan for meeting the needs of the child
 individual, which is implemented by the assistant. The assistant must
 have qualifications comparable to those for other personal care aides
 recognized by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance Services. The
 assistant performs services such as assisting with toileting, ambulation, and
 eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a specially adapted school
 vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
 provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
 the IEP. Children Individuals requiring an aide during
 transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
 IEP.
 
 e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
 services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
 440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
 physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
 identify the nature or extent of a child's an individual's
 medical or other health related condition. 
 
 f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
 431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D (12VAC30-50-530).
 Transportation shall be rendered only by school division personnel or
 contractors. Transportation is covered for a child an individual
 who requires transportation on a specially adapted school vehicle that enables
 transportation to or from the school or school contracted provider on days when
 the student individual is receiving a Medicaid-covered service
 under the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's individual's
 IEP. Children Individuals requiring an aide during transportation
 on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the IEP. 
 
 g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
 the need for medical services in a child's an individual's IEP
 and shall be performed by any of the above licensed practitioners within the
 scope of practice. Assessments and reassessments not tied to medical needs of
 the child individual shall not be covered.
 
 5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
 duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
 responsibility to ensure that if a child an individual is
 receiving additional therapy outside of the school, that there will be
 coordination of services to avoid duplication of service. 
 
 D. K. Family planning services and supplies for
 individuals of child-bearing age.
 
 1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
 performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
 arts.
 
 2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
 that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
 services to treat infertility or services to promote fertility. Family planning
 services shall not cover payment for abortion services and no funds shall be
 used to perform, assist, encourage, or make direct referrals for abortions.
 
 3. Family planning services as established by § 1905(a)(4)(C)
 of the Social Security Act include annual family planning exams; cervical
 cancer screening for women; sexually transmitted infection (STI) testing; lab
 services for family planning and STI testing; family planning education,
 counseling, and preconception health; sterilization procedures; nonemergency
 transportation to a family planning service; and U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration approved prescription and over-the-counter contraceptives,
 subject to limits in 12VAC30-50-210.
 
 12VAC30-50-226. Community mental health services.
 
 A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
 indicates otherwise: 
 
 "Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"
 means personal care tasks such as bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring,
 and eating or feeding. An individual's degree of independence in performing
 these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care and service
 needs.
 
 "Affiliated" means any entity or property in which
 a provider or facility has a direct or indirect ownership interest of 5.0% or
 more, or any management, partnership, or control of an entity.
 
 "Behavioral health service" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Behavioral health services administrator" or
 "BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
 benefits program under contract with DMAS. DMAS' designated BHSA shall be
 authorized to constitute, oversee, enroll, and train a provider network;
 perform service authorization; adjudicate claims; process claims; gather and
 maintain data; reimburse providers; perform quality assessment and improvement;
 conduct member outreach and education; resolve member and provider issues; and
 perform utilization management including care coordination for the provision of
 Medicaid-covered behavioral health services. Such authority shall include
 entering into or terminating contracts with providers in accordance with DMAS
 authority pursuant to 42 CFR Part 1002 and § 32.1-325 D and E of the Code
 of Virginia. DMAS shall retain authority for and oversight of the BHSA entity
 or entities.
 
 "Certified prescreener" means an employee of either
 the local community services board/behavioral board or behavioral
 health authority or its designee who is skilled in the assessment and treatment
 of mental illness and who has completed a certification program approved by
 DBHDS. 
 
 "Clinical experience" means, for the purpose of
 rendering (i) mental health day treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii)
 intensive community treatment, (iii) psychosocial rehabilitation, (iv) mental
 health skill building, (v) crisis stabilization, or (vi) crisis intervention
 services, practical experience in providing direct services to individuals with
 diagnoses of mental illness or intellectual disability or the provision of
 direct geriatric services or special education services. Experience shall
 include supervised internships, supervised practicums, or supervised field
 experience. Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
 practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
 hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be
 established by DBHDS in the document titled Human Services and Related Fields
 Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
 
 "Code" means the Code of Virginia. 
 
 "DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
 and Developmental Services consistent with Chapter 3 (§ 37.2-300 et seq.)
 of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Direct supervisor" means the person who provides
 direct supervision to the peer recovery specialist. The direct supervisor (i)
 shall have two consecutive years of documented practical experience rendering
 peer support services or family support services, have certification training
 as a PRS under a certifying body approved by DBHDS, and have documented
 completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; (ii) shall be a qualified
 mental health professional (QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E) as defined in
 12VAC35-105-20 with at least two consecutive years of documented experience as
 a QMHP, and who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training;
 or (iii) shall be an LMHP who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS
 supervisor training who is acting within his scope of practice under state law.
 An LMHP providing services before April 1, 2018, shall have until April 1,
 2018, to complete the DBHDS PRS supervisor training.
 
 "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services and its contractor or contractors consistent with Chapter 10 (§
 32.1-323 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 "DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
 of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association.
 
 "Human services field" means the same as the term
 is defined by DBHDS the Department of Health Professions in the
 guidance document entitled Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013. Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018.
 
 "Individual" means the patient, client, or
 recipient of services described in this section. 
 
 "Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
 a comprehensive and regularly updated treatment plan specific to the
 individual's unique treatment needs as identified in the service-specific
 provider intake. The ISP contains, but is not limited to, the individual's
 treatment or training needs, the individual's goals and measurable objectives
 to meet the identified needs, services to be provided with the recommended
 frequency to accomplish the measurable goals and objectives, the estimated
 timetable for achieving the goals and objectives, and an individualized
 discharge plan that describes transition to other appropriate services. The
 individual shall be included in the development of the ISP and the ISP shall be
 signed by the individual. If the individual is a minor child, the ISP
 shall also be signed by the individual's parent/legal parent or legal
 guardian. Documentation shall be provided if the individual, who is a minor
 child or an adult who lacks legal capacity, is unable or unwilling to sign the
 ISP.
 
 "Individualized training" means instruction and
 practice in functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
 individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living skills,
 and use of community resources; assistance with medical management; and
 monitoring health, nutrition, and physical condition. The training shall be
 rehabilitative and based on a variety of incremental (or cumulative) approaches
 or tools to organize and guide the individual's life planning and shall reflect
 what is important to the individual in addition to all other factors that
 affect his the individual's functioning, including effects of the
 disability and issues of health and safety.
 
 "Licensed mental health professional" or
 "LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the
 same as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
 professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
 therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
 practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
 practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
 "Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
 signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-resident in psychology" or
 "LMHP-RP" means the same as an individual in a residency, as that
 term is defined in 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An
 LMHP-resident in psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65
 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Psychology. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services
 provided by such residents, they shall use the title "Resident in
 Psychology" after their signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
 "LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
 "supervisee" is defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
 social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
 compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
 18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be considered
 a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at
 a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Social Work.
 For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for services
 provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title "Supervisee in
 Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "Peer recovery specialist" or "PRS" means
 the same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Person centered" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-adult" or
 "QMHP-A" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-child" or
 "QMHP-C" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
 "QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in
 12VAC35-105-20, including a "QMHP-trainee" as defined by the
 Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
 "QPPMH" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Recovery-oriented services" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160. 
 
 "Recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Register" or "registration" means
 notifying DMAS or its contractor that an individual will be receiving services
 that do not require service authorization.
 
 "Resiliency" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Review of ISP" means that the provider evaluates
 and updates the individual's progress toward meeting the individualized service
 plan objectives and documents the outcome of this review. For DMAS to determine
 that these reviews are satisfactory and complete, the reviews shall (i) update
 the goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP to reflect any change in the
 individual's progress and treatment needs as well as any newly identified
 problems; (ii) be conducted in a manner that enables the individual to
 participate in the process; and (iii) be documented in the individual's medical
 record no later than 15 calendar days from the date of the review. 
 
 "Self-advocacy" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Service authorization" means the process to
 approve specific services for an enrolled Medicaid, FAMIS Plus, or FAMIS
 individual by a DMAS service authorization contractor prior to service delivery
 and reimbursement in order to validate that the service requested is medically
 necessary and meets DMAS and DMAS contractor criteria for reimbursement.
 Service authorization does not guarantee payment for the service.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the same
 as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 and also includes individuals who are older than
 21 years of age.
 
 "Strength-based" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Supervision" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 B. Mental health services. The following services, with their
 definitions, shall be covered: day treatment/partial hospitalization,
 psychosocial rehabilitation, crisis services, intensive community treatment
 (ICT), and mental health skill building. Staff travel time shall not be
 included in billable time for reimbursement. These services, in order to be
 covered, shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by
 LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and are reflected
 in provider records and on providers' claims for services by recognized
 diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested professional
 services. These services are intended to be delivered in a person-centered
 person centered manner. The individuals who are receiving these services
 shall be included in all service planning activities. All services which do not
 require service authorization require registration. This registration shall
 transmit service-specific information to DMAS or its contractor in accordance
 with service authorization requirements. 
 
 1. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
 provided in sessions of two or more consecutive hours per day, which may be
 scheduled multiple times per week, to groups of individuals in a nonresidential
 setting. These services, limited annually to 780 units, include the major
 diagnostic, medical, psychiatric, psychosocial, and psychoeducational treatment
 modalities designed for individuals who require coordinated, intensive,
 comprehensive, and multidisciplinary treatment but who do not require inpatient
 treatment. One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two but less
 than four hours on a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as at
 least four but less than seven hours in a given day. Three units of service
 shall be defined as seven or more hours in a given day. Authorization is
 required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 a. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
 time limited interventions that are more intensive than outpatient services and
 are required to stabilize an individual's psychiatric condition. The services
 are delivered when the individual is at risk of psychiatric hospitalization or
 is transitioning from a psychiatric hospitalization to the community. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual is at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization or is transitioning from a psychiatric
 hospitalization to the community. 
 
 b. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
 emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
 life activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or homelessness or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that the individual
 requires repeated interventions or monitoring by the mental health, social
 services, or judicial system that have been documented; or
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 c. Individuals shall be discharged from this service when they
 are no longer in an acute psychiatric state and other less intensive services
 may achieve psychiatric stabilization. 
 
 d. Admission and services for time periods longer than 90
 calendar days must be authorized based upon a face-to-face evaluation by a
 physician, psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional
 counselor, licensed clinical social worker, or psychiatric clinical nurse
 specialist. 
 
 e. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 2. Psychosocial rehabilitation shall be provided at least two
 or more hours per day to groups of individuals in a nonresidential setting.
 These services, limited annually to 936 units, include assessment, education to
 teach the patient about the diagnosed mental illness and appropriate
 medications to avoid complication and relapse, and opportunities to learn and
 use independent living skills and to enhance social and interpersonal skills
 within a supportive and normalizing program structure and environment. One unit
 of service is defined as a minimum of two but less than four hours on a given
 day. Two units are defined as at least four but less than seven hours in a
 given day. Three units of service shall be defined as seven or more hours in a
 given day. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service.
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
 emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
 life activities. Services are provided to individuals: (i) who without
 these services would be unable to remain in the community or (ii) who meet at
 least two of the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that repeated
 interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
 behavior. 
 
 b. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 3. Crisis intervention shall provide immediate mental health
 care, available 24 hours a day, seven days per week, to assist individuals who
 are experiencing acute psychiatric dysfunction requiring immediate clinical
 attention. This service's objectives shall be to prevent exacerbation of a
 condition, to prevent injury to the client or others, and to provide treatment
 in the context of the least restrictive setting. Crisis intervention activities
 shall include assessing the crisis situation, providing short-term counseling
 designed to stabilize the individual, providing access to further immediate
 assessment and follow-up, and linking the individual and family with ongoing
 care to prevent future crises. Crisis intervention services may include office
 visits, home visits, preadmission screenings, telephone contacts, and other
 client-related activities for the prevention of institutionalization. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. The provision of this service to an individual shall be
 registered with either DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA within one
 business day or the completion of the service-specific provider intake to avoid
 duplication of services and to ensure informed care coordination. 
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
 psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
 hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 at the time of admission to the service:
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
 interventions documented by mental health, social services, or the judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
 behavior. 
 
 b. The annual limit for crisis intervention is 720 units per
 year. A unit shall equal 15 minutes. 
 
 c. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, an
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, or a certified prescreener.
 
 4. Intensive community treatment (ICT), initially covered for
 a maximum of 26 weeks based on an initial service-specific provider intake and
 may be reauthorized for up to an additional 26 weeks annually based on written
 intake and certification of need by a licensed mental health provider (LMHP),
 shall be defined by 12VAC35-105-20 or LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP and shall
 include medical psychotherapy, psychiatric assessment, medication management,
 and care coordination activities offered to outpatients outside the clinic,
 hospital, or office setting for individuals who are best served in the
 community. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 a. To qualify for ICT, the individual must meet at least one
 of the following criteria: 
 
 (1) The individual must be at high risk for psychiatric
 hospitalization or becoming or remaining homeless due to mental illness or
 require intervention by the mental health or criminal justice system due to
 inappropriate social behavior. 
 
 (2) The individual has a history (three months or more) of a
 need for intensive mental health treatment or treatment for co-occurring
 serious mental illness and substance use disorder and demonstrates a resistance
 to seek out and utilize appropriate treatment options. 
 
 b. A written, service-specific provider intake, as defined at
 12VAC30-50-130, that documents the individual's eligibility and the need for
 this service must be completed prior to the initiation of services. This intake
 must be maintained in the individual's records. 
 
 c. An individual service plan shall be initiated at the time
 of admission and must be fully developed, as defined in this section, within 30
 days of the initiation of services. 
 
 d. The annual unit limit shall be 130 units with a unit
 equaling one hour.
 
 e. These services may only be rendered by a team that meets
 the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
 
 5. Crisis stabilization services for nonhospitalized
 individuals shall provide direct mental health care to individuals experiencing
 an acute psychiatric crisis which may jeopardize their current community living
 situation. Services may be provided for up to a 15-day period per crisis
 episode following a face-to-face service-specific provider intake by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. Only one unit of service shall be
 reimbursed for this intake. The provision of this service to an individual
 shall be registered with either DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA
 within one business day of the completion of the service-specific provider
 intake to avoid duplication of services and to ensure informed care
 coordination. 
 
 a. The goals of crisis stabilization programs shall be to
 avert hospitalization or rehospitalization, provide normative environments with
 a high assurance of safety and security for crisis intervention, stabilize
 individuals in psychiatric crisis, and mobilize the resources of the community
 support system and family members and others for on-going maintenance and
 rehabilitation. The services must be documented in the individual's records as
 having been provided consistent with the ISP in order to receive Medicaid
 reimbursement. 
 
 b. The crisis stabilization program shall provide to
 individuals, as appropriate, psychiatric assessment including medication
 evaluation, treatment planning, symptom and behavior management, and individual
 and group counseling. 
 
 c. This service may be provided in any of the following
 settings, but shall not be limited to: (i) the home of an individual who lives
 with family or other primary caregiver; (ii) the home of an individual who
 lives independently; or (iii) community-based programs licensed by DBHDS to
 provide residential services but which are not institutions for mental disease
 (IMDs). 
 
 d. This service shall not be reimbursed for (i) individuals
 with medical conditions that require hospital care; (ii) individuals with a
 primary diagnosis of substance abuse; or (iii) individuals with psychiatric
 conditions that cannot be managed in the community (i.e., individuals who are
 of imminent danger to themselves or others). 
 
 e. The maximum limit on this service is 60 days annually.
 
 f. Services must be documented through daily progress notes
 and a daily log of times spent in the delivery of services. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
 psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
 hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 at the time of admission to the service: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing and maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that the individual is at
 risk of psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social
 supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
 interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that the
 individual is unable to recognize personal danger or significantly
 inappropriate social behavior. 
 
 g. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E or a certified
 prescreener.
 
 6. Mental health skill-building services (MHSS) shall be
 defined as goal-directed training to enable individuals to achieve and maintain
 community stability and independence in the most appropriate, least restrictive
 environment. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. Services
 that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not be
 reimbursed. These services may be authorized up to six consecutive months as
 long as the individual meets the coverage criteria for this service. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. These services shall provide goal-directed training in the
 following areas in order to be reimbursed by Medicaid or the BHSA DMAS
 contractor: (i) functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
 individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living, and use
 of community resources; (ii) assistance with medication management; and (iii)
 monitoring of health, nutrition, and physical condition with goals towards
 self-monitoring and self-regulation of all of these activities. Providers shall
 be reimbursed only for training activities defined in the ISP and only where
 services meet the service definition, eligibility, and service provision
 criteria and this section. A review of MHSS services by an LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S shall be repeated for all individuals who have received at
 least six months of MHSS to determine the continued need for this service.
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
 behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities. Services are provided to individuals who
 require individualized goal-directed training in order to achieve or maintain
 stability and independence in the community.
 
 b. Individuals ages 21 years of age and older
 shall meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive
 mental health skill-building services:
 
 (1) The individual shall have one of the following as a
 primary mental health diagnosis:
 
 (a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
 the DSM-5;
 
 (b) Major depressive disorder;
 
 (c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
 
 (d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a physician
 has documented specific to the identified individual within the past year and
 that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness; (ii)
 results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii) produces functional
 limitations in the individual's major life activities that are documented in
 the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires individualized training for
 the individual in order to achieve or maintain independent living in the
 community.
 
 (2) The individual shall require individualized goal-directed
 training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic living
 skills, such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical
 health medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and
 personal support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation,
 and the maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use
 of community resources. 
 
 (3) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
 following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
 nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
 or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
 a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) (PRTF)
 as a result of decompensation related to the individual's serious mental
 illness; or (v) a temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation, pursuant to § 37.2-809
 B of the Code of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially
 admitted to services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge
 summaries from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment
 provided, (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the
 name of the treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement.
 Family member statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (4) The individual shall have had a prescription for
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications within the 12
 months prior to the service-specific provider intake date. If a physician or
 other practitioner who is authorized by his license to prescribe medications
 indicates that antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications
 are medically contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain
 medical records signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing
 the contraindication. This documentation shall be maintained in the
 individual's mental health skill-building services record, and the provider
 shall document and describe how the individual will be able to actively
 participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of medication.
 This criterion shall be met upon admission to services and shall not be
 required for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from
 prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii)
 the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
 treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
 statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 c. Individuals aged 18 to 21 years of age shall
 meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive mental
 health skill-building services:
 
 (1) The individual shall not be living in a supervised setting
 as described in § 63.2-905.1 of the Code of Virginia. If the individual is
 transitioning into an independent living situation, MHSS shall only be
 authorized for up to six months prior to the date of transition.
 
 (2) The individual shall have at least one of the following as
 a primary mental health diagnosis.: 
 
 (a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
 the DSM-5;
 
 (b) Major depressive disorder;
 
 (c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
 
 (d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a physician
 has documented specific to the identified individual within the past year and
 that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness or serious
 emotional disturbance; (ii) results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii)
 produces functional limitations in the individual's major life activities that
 are documented in the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires
 individualized training for the individual in order to achieve or maintain
 independent living in the community.
 
 (3) The individual shall require individualized goal-directed
 training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic living skills
 such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical health
 medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and personal
 support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation, and the
 maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use of
 community resources.
 
 (4) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
 following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
 nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
 or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
 a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) as a result
 of decompensation related to the individual's serious mental illness; or (v)
 temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation pursuant to § 37.2-809 B of the Code
 of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to
 services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries
 from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided,
 (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
 treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
 statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (5) The individual shall have had a prescription for
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications, within the 12
 months prior to the assessment date. If a physician or other practitioner who
 is authorized by his license to prescribe medications indicates that
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications are medically
 contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain medical records
 signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing the
 contraindication. This documentation of medication management shall be
 maintained in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. For
 individuals not prescribed antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant
 medications, the provider shall have documentation from the medication
 management physician describing how the individual will be able to actively
 participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of medication.
 This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to services and
 not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from prior
 providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii) the
 dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the treatment
 provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member statements
 shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (6) An independent clinical assessment, established in
 12VAC30-130-3020, shall be completed for the individual.
 
 d. Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
 onset of services and individual service plans (ISPs) shall be required during
 the entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing,
 or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied
 reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are
 set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 e. The yearly limit for mental health skill-building services
 is 520 units. Only direct face-to-face contacts and services to the individual
 shall be reimbursable. One unit is 1 to 2.99 hours per day, and two
 units is 3 to 4.99 hours per day.
 
 f. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH.
 
 g. The provider shall clearly document details of the services
 provided during the entire amount of time billed.
 
 h. The ISP shall not include activities that contradict or
 duplicate those in the treatment plan established by the therapeutic
 group home or assisted living facility. The provider shall coordinate mental
 health skill-building services with the treatment plan established by the group
 home or assisted living facility and shall document all coordination activities
 in the medical record. 
 
 i. Limits and exclusions.
 
 (1) Group Therapeutic group home (Level A or
 B) and assisted living facility providers shall not serve as the mental
 health skill-building services provider for individuals residing in the
 provider's respective facility. Individuals residing in facilities may,
 however, receive MHSS from another MHSS agency not affiliated with the owner of
 the facility in which they reside.
 
 (2) Mental health skill-building services shall not be reimbursed
 for individuals who are receiving in-home residential services or congregate
 residential services through the Intellectual Disability Waiver or Individual
 and Family Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver.
 
 (3) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 reimbursed for individuals who are also receiving services under the Department
 of Social Services independent living program (22VAC40-151), independent living
 services (22VAC40-131 and 22VAC40-151), or independent living arrangement (22VAC40-131)
 or any Comprehensive Services Act-funded independent living skills programs.
 
 (4) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who are receiving treatment foster care
 (12VAC30-130-900 et seq.).
 
 (5) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who reside in intermediate care facilities for
 individuals with intellectual disabilities or hospitals.
 
 (6) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who reside in nursing facilities, except for up to 60
 days prior to discharge. If the individual has not been discharged from the
 nursing facility during the 60-day period of services, mental health
 skill-building services shall be terminated and no further service authorizations
 shall be available to the individual unless a provider can demonstrate and
 document that mental health skill-building services are necessary. Such
 documentation shall include facts demonstrating a change in the individual's
 circumstances and a new plan for discharge requiring up to 60 days of mental
 health skill-building services.
 
 (7) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available for residents of psychiatric residential treatment centers (Level
 C facilities) except for the intake code H0032 (modifier U8) in the seven
 days immediately prior to discharge.
 
 (8) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 reimbursed if personal care services or attendant care services are being
 received simultaneously, unless justification is provided why this is necessary
 in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. Medical
 record documentation shall fully substantiate the need for services when
 personal care or attendant care services are being provided. This applies to
 individuals who are receiving additional services through the Intellectual
 Disability Waiver (12VAC30-120-1000 et seq.), Individual and Family
 Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver (12VAC30-120-700 et seq.), the
 Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction Waiver (12VAC30-120-900 et seq.),
 and EPSDT services (12VAC30-50-130). 
 
 (9) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 duplicative of other services. Providers shall be required to ensure that if an
 individual is receiving additional therapeutic services that there will be
 coordination of services by either the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A,
 QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH to avoid duplication of services.
 
 (10) Individuals who have organic disorders, such as delirium,
 dementia, or other cognitive disorders not elsewhere classified, will be
 prohibited from receiving mental health skill-building services unless their
 physicians issue signed and dated statements indicating that the individuals
 can benefit from this service.
 
 (11) Individuals who are not diagnosed with a serious mental
 health disorder but who have personality disorders or other mental health
 disorders, or both, that may lead to chronic disability shall not be excluded
 from the mental health skill-building services eligibility criteria provided
 that the individual has a primary mental health diagnosis from the list
 included in subdivision B 6 b (1) or B 6 c (2) of this section and that the
 provider can document and describe how the individual is expected to actively
 participate in and benefit from mental health skill-building services.
 
 7. Mental health peer support services.
 
 a. Mental health peer support services are peer recovery
 support services and are nonclinical, peer-to-peer activities that engage,
 educate, and support an individual's self-help efforts to improve health
 recovery, resiliency, and wellness. Mental health peer support services for
 adults is a person centered, strength-based, and recovery-oriented
 rehabilitative service for individuals 21 years of age or older provided
 by a peer recovery specialist successful in the recovery process with lived
 experience with a mental health disorder, who is trained to offer support and
 assistance in helping others in the recovery to reduce the disabling effects of
 a mental health disorder that is the focus of support. Services assist the
 individual with developing and maintaining a path to recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness. Specific peer support service activities shall emphasize the
 acquisition, development, and enhancement of recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness. Services are designed to promote empowerment, self-determination,
 understanding, and coping skills through mentoring and service coordination
 supports, as well as to assist individuals in achieving positive coping
 mechanisms for the stressors and barriers encountered when recovering from
 their illnesses or disorders.
 
 b. Under the clinical oversight of the LMHP making the
 recommendation for mental health support services, the peer recovery specialist
 in consultation with his direct supervisor shall develop a recovery,
 resiliency, and wellness plan based on the LMHP's recommendation for service,
 the individual's perceived recovery needs, and any clinical assessments or
 service specific provider intakes as defined in this section within 30 calendar
 days of the initiation of service. Development of the recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness plan shall include collaboration with the individual. Individualized
 goals and strategies shall be focused on the individual's identified needs for
 self-advocacy and recovery. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall
 also include documentation of how many days per week and how many hours per
 week are required to carry out the services in order to meet the goals of the
 plan. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall be completed, signed,
 and dated by the LMHP, the PRS, the direct supervisor, and the individual
 within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service. The PRS shall act as an
 advocate for the individual, encouraging the individual to take a proactive
 role in developing and updating goals and objectives in the individualized
 recovery planning.
 
 c. Documentation of required activities shall be required as
 set forth in 12VAC30-130-5200 A, C, and E through J.
 
 d. Limitations and exclusions to service delivery shall be the
 same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5210.
 
 e. Individuals 21 years of age or older qualifying for
 mental health peer support services shall meet the following requirements:
 
 (1) Require recovery-oriented assistance and support services
 for the acquisition of skills needed to engage in and maintain recovery; for
 the development of self-advocacy skills to achieve a decreasing dependency on
 formalized treatment systems; and to increase responsibilities, wellness
 potential, and shared accountability for the individual's own recovery. 
 
 (2) Have a documented mental health disorder diagnosis. 
 
 (3) Demonstrate moderate to severe functional impairment
 because of a diagnosis that interferes with or limits performance in at least
 one of the following domains: educational (e.g., obtaining a high school or
 college degree); social (e.g., developing a social support system); vocational
 (e.g., obtaining part-time or full-time employment); self-maintenance (e.g.,
 managing symptoms, understanding his illness, living more independently).
 
 f. To qualify for continued mental health peer support
 services, medical necessity criteria shall continue to be met, and progress
 notes shall document the status of progress relative to the goals identified in
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 g. Discharge criteria from mental health peer support services
 is the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5180 E.
 
 h. Mental health peer support services shall be rendered
 on an individual basis or in a group.
 
 i. Prior to service initiation, a documented recommendation
 for mental health peer support services shall be made by a licensed mental
 health professional acting within the scope of practice under state law The
 recommendation shall verify that the individual meets the medical necessity
 criteria set forth in subdivision 7 e of this subsection. The recommendation
 shall be valid for no longer than 30 calendar days.
 
 j. Effective July 1, 2017, a peer recovery specialist shall
 have the qualifications, education, experience, and certification established
 by DBHDS in order to be eligible to register with the Board of Counseling on or
 after July 1, 2018. Upon the promulgation of regulations by the Board of
 Counseling, registration of peer recovery specialists by the Board of Counseling
 shall be required. The PRS shall perform mental health peer support services
 under the oversight of the LMHP making the recommendation for services and
 providing the clinical oversight of the recovery, resiliency, and wellness
 plan. The PRS shall be employed by or have a contractual relationship with an
 enrolled provider licensed for one of the following:
 
 (1) Acute care general hospital licensed by the Department of
 Health. 
 
 (2) Freestanding psychiatric hospital and inpatient
 psychiatric unit licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services.
 
 (3) Outpatient mental health clinic services licensed by the
 Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (4) Outpatient psychiatric services provider.
 
 (5) Rural health clinics and federally qualified health
 centers.
 
 (6) Hospital emergency department services licensed by the
 Department of Health.
 
 (7) Community mental health and rehabilitative services
 provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services as a provider of one of the following community mental health and
 rehabilitative services defined in this section or 12VAC30-50-420 for which the
 individual meets medical necessity criteria:
 
 (a) Day treatment or partial hospitalization;
 
 (b) Psychosocial rehabilitation;
 
 (c) Crisis intervention;
 
 (d) Intensive community treatment;
 
 (e) Crisis stabilization; 
 
 (f) Mental health skill building; or
 
 (g) Mental health case management.
 
 k. Only the licensed and enrolled provider referenced in
 subdivision 7 j of this subsection shall be eligible to bill mental health peer
 support services. Payments shall not be permitted to providers that fail to
 enter into an enrollment agreement with DMAS or its contractor.
 Reimbursement shall be subject to retraction for any billed service that is
 determined to not to be in compliance with DMAS requirements.
 
 l. Supervision of the PRS shall be required as set forth in
 the definition of "supervision" in 12VAC30-130-5160. Supervision of
 the PRS shall also meet the following requirements: the supervisor shall be
 under the clinical oversight of the LMHP making the recommendation for
 services, and the peer recovery specialist in consultation with his direct
 supervisor shall conduct and document a review of the recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness plan every 90 calendar days with the individual and the caregiver, as
 applicable. The review shall be signed by the PRS and the individual and, as
 applicable, the identified family member or caregiver. Review of the recovery,
 resiliency, and wellness plan means the PRS evaluates and updates the
 individual's progress every 90 days toward meeting the plan's goals and
 documents the outcome of this review in the individual's medical record. For
 DMAS to determine that these reviews are complete, the reviews shall (i) update
 the goals and objectives as needed to reflect any change in the individual's
 recovery as well as any newly identified needs, (ii) be conducted in a manner
 that enables the individual to actively participate in the process, and (iii)
 be documented by the PRS in the individual's medical record no later than 15
 calendar days from the date of the review.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-50) 
 
 Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
 Disorders, Fifth Edition, DSM-5, 2013, American Psychiatric Association
 
 Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,
 1996, HCIA, Inc.
 
 Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,
 American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and
 Gynecologists
 
 Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and
 Addenda
 
 Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
 DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2010, dated March 13, 2014 (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf)
 
 Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
 Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,
 American Society of Addiction Medicine
 
 Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
 (rev. 5/13) 
 
 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted on
 November 3, 2017, revised on February 9, 2018
 
 12VAC30-60-5. Applicability of utilization review requirements.
 
 A. These utilization requirements shall apply to all Medicaid
 covered services unless otherwise specified.
 
 B. Some Medicaid covered services require an approved service
 authorization prior to service delivery in order for reimbursement to occur. 
 
 1. To obtain service authorization, all providers' information
 supplied to the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS), service
 authorization contractor, or the behavioral health service authorization
 contractor or its contractor shall be fully substantiated throughout
 individuals' medical records. 
 
 2. Providers shall be required to maintain documentation
 detailing all relevant information about the Medicaid individuals who are in providers'
 the provider's care. Such documentation shall fully disclose the extent
 of services provided in order to support providers' the provider's
 claims for reimbursement for services rendered. This documentation shall be
 written, signed, and dated at the time the services are rendered unless
 specified otherwise. 
 
 C. DMAS, or its designee contractor, shall
 perform reviews of the utilization of all Medicaid covered services pursuant to
 42 CFR 440.260 and 42 CFR Part 456. 
 
 D. DMAS shall recover expenditures made for covered services
 when providers' documentation does not comport with standards specified in all
 applicable regulations.
 
 E. Providers who are determined not to be in compliance with
 DMAS requirements shall be subject to 12VAC30-80-130 for the repayment of those
 overpayments to DMAS.
 
 F. Utilization review requirements specific to community
 mental health services and residential treatment services, including
 therapeutic group homes and psychiatric residential treatment facilities (PRTFs),
 as set out in 12VAC30-50-130 and 12VAC30-50-226, shall be as follows:
 
 1. To apply to be reimbursed as a Medicaid provider, the
 required Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS)
 license shall be either a full, annual, triennial, or conditional license.
 Providers must be enrolled with DMAS or the BHSA its contractor
 to be reimbursed. Once a health care entity has been enrolled as a provider, it
 shall maintain, and update periodically as DMAS or its contractor
 requires, a current Provider Enrollment Agreement for each Medicaid service
 that the provider offers. 
 
 2. Health care entities with provisional licenses shall not be
 reimbursed as Medicaid providers of community mental health services.
 
 3. Payments shall not be permitted to health care entities
 that either hold provisional licenses or fail to enter into a Medicaid
 Provider Enrollment Agreement provider contract with DMAS or its
 contractor for a service prior to rendering that service.
 
 4. The behavioral health service authorization contractor
 DMAS or its contractor shall apply a national standardized set of
 medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
 InterQual Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by
 DMAS. Services that fail to meet medical necessity criteria shall be denied
 service authorization.
 
 5. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement for services
 provided by staff in residency, the following terms shall be used after their
 signatures to indicate such status:
 
 a. An LMHP-R shall use the term "Resident" after
 his signature.
 
 b. An LMHP-RP shall use the term "Resident in
 Psychology" after his signature.
 
 c. An LMHP-S shall use the term "Supervisee in Social
 Work" after his signature.
 
 12VAC30-60-50. Utilization control: Intermediate Care
 Facilities care facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR)
 persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities and Institutions
 institutions for Mental Disease (IMD) mental disease. 
 
 A. "Institution for mental disease" or
 "IMD" means the same as that term is defined in § 1905(i) of the
 Social Security Act.
 
 B. With respect to each Medicaid-eligible resident in
 an ICF/MR intermediate care facility for persons with intellectual
 and developmental disabilities (ICF/ID) or an IMD in Virginia, a
 written plan of care must be developed prior to admission to or authorization
 of benefits in such facility, and a regular program of independent professional
 review (including a medical evaluation) shall be completed periodically for
 such services. The purpose of the review is to determine: the adequacy of the
 services available to meet his the resident's current health
 needs and promote his the resident's maximum physical well being;
 the necessity and desirability of his the resident's continued
 placement in the facility; and the feasibility of meeting his the
 resident's health care needs through alternative institutional or
 noninstitutional services. Long-term care of residents in such facilities will
 be provided in accordance with federal law that is based on the resident's
 medical and social needs and requirements. 
 
 B. C. With respect to each ICF/MR ICF/ID
 or IMD, periodic on-site onsite inspections of the care being
 provided to each person receiving medical assistance, by one or more
 independent professional review teams (composed of a physician or registered
 nurse and other appropriate health and social service personnel), shall be
 conducted. The review shall include, with respect to each recipient, a
 determination of the adequacy of the services available to meet his the
 resident's current health needs and promote his the resident's
 maximum physical well-being, the necessity and desirability of continued
 placement in the facility, and the feasibility of meeting his the
 resident's health care needs through alternative institutional or
 noninstitutional services. Full reports shall be made to the state agency by
 the review team of the findings of each inspection, together with any
 recommendations. 
 
 C. D. In order for reimbursement to be made to
 a facility for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities, the resident must meet criteria for placement
 in such facility as described in 12VAC30-60-360 and the facility must provide
 active treatment for mental retardation intellectual or developmental
 disabilities. 
 
 D. E. In each case for which payment for
 nursing facility services for the mentally retarded persons with
 intellectual or developmental disabilities or institution for mental
 disease services is made under the State Plan: 
 
 1. A physician must certify for each applicant or recipient
 that inpatient care is needed in a facility for the mentally retarded or an
 institution for mental disease. A certificate of need shall be completed
 by an independent certification team according to the requirements of
 12VAC30-50-130 D 5. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 calendar days
 by a physician, or by a physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within
 their scope of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician.
 The certification must be made at the time of admission or, if an individual
 applies for assistance while in the facility, before the Medicaid agency
 authorizes payment; and 
 
 2. A physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner
 acting within the scope of the practice as defined by state law and under the
 supervision of a physician, must recertify for each applicant at least every 365
 60 calendar days that services are needed in a facility for the
 mentally retarded persons with intellectual and developmental
 disabilities or an institution for mental disease. 
 
 E. F. When a resident no longer meets criteria
 for facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual
 and developmental disabilities or for an institution for mental
 disease, or no longer requires active treatment in a facility for the
 mentally retarded persons with intellectual and developmental
 disabilities then the resident must shall be discharged. 
 
 F. G. All services provided in an IMD and in
 an ICF/MR ICF/ID shall be provided in accordance with guidelines
 found in the Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual. 
 
 H. All services provided in an IMD shall be provided with
 the applicable provider agreement and all documents referenced therein.
 
 I. Psychiatric services in IMDs shall only be covered for
 eligible individuals younger than 21 years of age.
 
 J. IMD services provided without service authorization
 from DMAS or its contractor shall not be covered.
 
 K. Absence of any of the required IMD documentation shall
 result in denial or retraction of reimbursement. 
 
 L. In each case for which payment for IMD services is made
 under the State Plan:
 
 1. A physician shall certify at the time of admission, or
 at the time the IMD is notified of an individual's retroactive eligibility
 status, that the individual requires or required inpatient services in an IMD
 consistent with 42 CFR 456.160.
 
 2. The physician, or physician assistant or nurse
 practitioner acting within the scope of practice as defined by state law and
 under the supervision of a physician, shall recertify at least every 60
 calendar days that the individual continues to require inpatient services in an
 IMD.
 
 3.  Before admission to an IMD or before authorization
 for payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall perform a medical
 evaluation of the individual, and appropriate personnel shall complete a
 psychiatric and social evaluation as described in 42 CFR 456.170.
 
 4. Before admission to an IMD or before authorization for
 payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall establish a written
 plan of care for each individual as described in 42 CFR 441.155 and 42 CFR
 456.180. 
 
 M. It shall be documented that the individual requiring
 admission to an IMD who is younger than 21 years of age, that treatment is
 medically necessary, and that the necessity was identified as a result of an
 independent certification of need team review. Required documentation shall
 include the following:
 
 1. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association, and based on an evaluation by a psychiatrist completed within 30
 calendar days of admission or if the diagnosis is confirmed, in writing, by a
 previous evaluation completed within one year within admission.
 
 2. A certification of the need for services as defined in
 42 CFR 441.152 by an interdisciplinary team meeting the requirements of 42
 CFR 441.153 or 42 CFR 441.156 and the Psychiatric Treatment of Minors Act (§
 16.1-335 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
 
 N. The use of seclusion and restraint in an IMD shall be
 in accordance with 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376. Each use of a
 seclusion or restraint, as defined in 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376,
 shall be reported by the service provider to DMAS or its contractor within one
 calendar day of the incident.
 
 12VAC30-60-61. Services related to the Early and Periodic
 Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT); community mental health and
 behavioral therapy services for children.
 
 A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
 otherwise:
 
 "At risk" means one or more of the following: (i)
 within the two weeks before the intake, the individual shall be screened by an
 LMHP for escalating behaviors that have put either the individual or others at
 immediate risk of physical injury; (ii) the parent/guardian parent or
 guardian is unable to manage the individual's mental, behavioral, or
 emotional problems in the home and is actively, within the past two to four
 weeks, seeking an out-of-home placement; (iii) a representative of either a
 juvenile justice agency, a department of social services (either the state
 agency or local agency), a community services board/behavioral health authority,
 the Department of Education, or an LMHP, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20, and who
 is neither an employee of nor consultant to the intensive in-home (IIH)
 services or therapeutic day treatment (TDT) provider, has recommended an
 out-of-home placement absent an immediate change of behaviors and when
 unsuccessful mental health services are evident; (iv) the individual has a
 history of unsuccessful services (either crisis intervention, crisis
 stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, outpatient substance abuse services,
 or mental health support) within the past 30 calendar days; or
 (v) the treatment team or family assessment planning team (FAPT) recommends IIH
 services or TDT for an individual currently who is either: (a) transitioning
 out of psychiatric residential treatment facility Level C (PRTF)
 services, (b) transitioning out of a therapeutic group home Level A
 or B services, (c) transitioning out of acute psychiatric hospitalization,
 or (d) transitioning between foster homes, mental health case management,
 crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, or
 outpatient substance abuse services. 
 
 "Failed services" or "unsuccessful
 services" means, as measured by ongoing behavioral, mental, or physical
 distress, that the services did not treat or resolve the individual's mental
 health or behavioral issues.
 
 "Individual" means the Medicaid-eligible person
 receiving these services and for the purpose of this section includes children
 from birth up to 12 years of age or and adolescents ages 12
 through 20 years.
 
 "Licensed assistant behavior analyst" means a
 person who has met the licensing requirements of 18VAC85-150 and holds a valid
 license issued by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Licensed behavior analyst" means a person who has
 met the licensing requirements of 18VAC85-150 and holds a valid license issued
 by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "New service" means a community mental health
 rehabilitation service for which the individual does not have a current service
 authorization in effect as of July 17, 2011.
 
 "Out-of-home placement" means placement in one or
 more of the following: (i) either a Level A or Level B therapeutic
 group home; (ii) regular foster home if the individual is currently residing
 with his the individual's biological family and, due to his
 behavior problems, is at risk of being placed in the custody of the local
 department of social services; (iii) treatment foster care if the individual is
 currently residing with his the individual's biological family or
 a regular foster care family and, due to the individual's behavioral problems,
 is at risk of removal to a higher level of care; (iv) Level C psychiatric
 residential treatment facility; (v) emergency shelter for the individual
 only due either to his mental health or behavior or both; (vi) psychiatric
 hospitalization; or (vii) juvenile justice system or incarceration. 
 
 "Progress notes" means individual-specific
 documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
 individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
 contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
 the notes. Individualized progress notes are part of the minimum documentation
 requirements and shall convey the individual's status, staff interventions,
 and, as appropriate, the individual's progress or lack of progress toward goals
 and objectives in the plan of care. The progress notes shall also include, at a
 minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the service rendered, the
 signature and credentials of the person who rendered the service, the setting
 in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time or units required to
 deliver the service. The content of each progress note shall corroborate the
 time or units billed. Progress notes shall be documented for each service that
 is billed.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the
 evaluation that is conducted according to the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services (DMAS) intake definition set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 B. Utilization review requirements for all services in this
 section.
 
 1. The services described in this section shall be rendered
 consistent with the definitions, service limits, and requirements described in
 this section and in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 2. Providers shall be required to refund payments made by
 Medicaid if they fail to maintain adequate documentation to support billed
 activities.
 
 3. Individual service plans (ISPs) shall meet all of the
 requirements set forth in 12VAC30-60-143 B 7.
 
 C. Utilization review of intensive in-home (IIH) services for
 children and adolescents. 
 
 1. The service definition for intensive in-home (IIH) services
 is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 2. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral or emotional
 illness that results in significant functional impairments in major life
 activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
 continuing or intermittent basis to be authorized for these services: 
 
 a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
 interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
 community. 
 
 b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
 repeated interventions by the mental health, social services or judicial system
 are or have been necessary. 
 
 c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 3. Prior to admission, an appropriate service-specific
 provider intake, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, shall be conducted by the
 licensed mental health professional (LMHP), LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or
 LMHP-RP, documenting the individual's diagnosis and describing how service
 needs can best be met through intervention provided typically but not solely in
 the individual's residence. The service-specific provider intake shall describe
 how the individual's clinical needs put the individual at risk of out-of-home
 placement and shall be conducted face-to-face in the individual's residence.
 Claims for services that are based upon service-specific provider intakes that
 are incomplete, outdated (more than 12 months old), or missing shall not be
 reimbursed.
 
 4. An individual service plan (ISP) shall be fully completed,
 signed, and dated by either an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
 QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E and the individual and individual's parent/guardian parent
 or guardian within 30 calendar days of initiation of services. The
 ISP shall meet all of the requirements as defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
 
 5. DMAS shall not reimburse for dates of services in which the
 progress notes are not individualized and child-specific. Duplicated progress
 notes shall not constitute the required child-specific individualized progress
 notes. Each progress note shall demonstrate unique differences particular to
 the individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress. Claim payments shall
 be retracted for services that are supported by documentation that does not
 demonstrate unique differences particular to the individual. 
 
 6. Services shall be directed toward the treatment of the
 eligible individual and delivered primarily in the family's residence with the
 individual present. As clinically indicated, the services may be rendered
 in the community if there is documentation, on that date of service, of the
 necessity of providing services in the community. The documentation shall describe
 how the alternative community service location supports the identified clinical
 needs of the individual and describe how it facilitates the implementation of
 the ISP. For services provided outside of the home, there shall be
 documentation reflecting therapeutic treatment as set forth in the ISP provided
 for that date of service in the appropriately signed and dated progress notes.
 
 7. These services shall be provided when the clinical needs of
 the individual put him the individual at risk for out-of-home
 placement, as these terms are defined in this section:
 
 a. When services that are far more intensive than outpatient
 clinic care are required to stabilize the individual in the family situation,;
 or 
 
 b. When the individual's residence as the setting for services
 is more likely to be successful than a clinic. 
 
 The service-specific provider intake shall describe how the
 individual meets either subdivision 7 a or 7 b of this subdivision
 7 subsection.
 
 8. Services shall not be provided if the individual is no
 longer a resident of the home.
 
 9. Services shall also be used to facilitate the transition to
 home from an out-of-home placement when services more intensive than outpatient
 clinic care are required for the transition to be successful. The individual
 and responsible parent/guardian parent or guardian shall be
 available and in agreement to participate in the transition. 
 
 10. At least one parent/legal parent or legal
 guardian or responsible adult with whom the individual is living must be
 willing to participate in the intensive in-home services with the goal of
 keeping the individual with the family. In the instance of this service, a
 responsible adult shall be an adult who lives in the same household with the
 child and is responsible for engaging in therapy and service-related activities
 to benefit the individual. 
 
 11. The enrolled provider shall be licensed by the Department
 of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) as a provider of
 intensive in-home services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment
 agreement with DMAS or its contractor in effect prior to the delivery of this
 service that indicates that the provider will offer intensive in-home services.
 
 12. Services must only be provided by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. Reimbursement shall
 not be provided for such services when they have been rendered by a QPPMH as
 defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 13. The billing unit for intensive in-home service shall be
 one hour. Although the pattern of service delivery may vary, intensive in-home
 services is an intensive service provided to individuals for whom there is an
 ISP in effect which demonstrates the need for a minimum of three hours a week
 of intensive in-home service, and includes a plan for service provision of a
 minimum of three hours of service delivery per individual/family individual
 or family per week in the initial phase of treatment. It is expected that
 the pattern of service provision may show more intensive services and more
 frequent contact with the individual and family initially with a lessening or
 tapering off of intensity toward the latter weeks of service. Service plans
 shall incorporate an individualized discharge plan that describes transition
 from intensive in-home to less intensive or nonhome based services.
 
 14. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be updated as
 the individual's needs and progress changes and signed by either the parent or
 legal guardian and the individual. Documentation shall be provided if the
 individual, who is a minor child, is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP. If
 there is a lapse in services that is greater than 31 consecutive calendar days
 without any communications from family members/legal members or legal
 guardian or the individual with the provider, the provider shall discharge the
 individual. If the individual continues to need services, then a new intake/admission
 intake or admission shall be documented and a new service authorization
 shall be required.
 
 15. The provider shall ensure that the maximum staff-to-caseload
 ratio fully meets the needs of the individual.
 
 16. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
 management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430,
 the provider shall contact the case manager and provide notification of
 the provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates
 to the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be
 sent to the case manager within 30 calendar days of the service
 discontinuation date. Providers and case managers who are using the same
 electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
 delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
 of the information in the electronic health records. 
 
 17. Emergency assistance shall be available 24 hours per day,
 seven days a week. 
 
 18. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements at
 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines violate these marketing
 requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E. 
 
 19. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or guardian, shall
 inform him the primary care provider of the individual's receipt
 of IIH services. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
 contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
 
 D. Utilization review of therapeutic day treatment for
 children and adolescents. 
 
 1. The service definition for therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
 for children and adolescents is contained in 12VAC30-50-130. 
 
 2. Therapeutic day treatment is appropriate for children and
 adolescents who meet one of the following criteria: 
 
 a. Children and adolescents who require year-round treatment
 in order to sustain behavior or emotional gains. 
 
 b. Children and adolescents whose behavior and emotional
 problems are so severe they cannot be handled in self-contained or resource
 emotionally disturbed (ED) classrooms without: 
 
 (1) This programming during the school day; or 
 
 (2) This programming to supplement the school day or school
 year. 
 
 c. Children and adolescents who would otherwise be placed on
 homebound instruction because of severe emotional/behavior problems that
 interfere with learning. 
 
 d. Children and adolescents who (i) have deficits in social
 skills, peer relations or dealing with authority; (ii) are hyperactive; (iii)
 have poor impulse control; or (iv) are extremely depressed or marginally
 connected with reality. 
 
 e. Children in preschool enrichment and early intervention
 programs when the children's emotional/behavioral emotional or
 behavioral problems are so severe that they the children
 cannot function in these programs without additional services. 
 
 3. The service-specific provider intake shall document the
 individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets these specific
 service criteria in subdivision 2 of this subsection. 
 
 4. Prior to admission to this service, a service-specific
 provider intake shall be conducted by the LMHP as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 5. An ISP shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an
 LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and by the
 individual or the parent/guardian parent or guardian within 30 calendar
 days of initiation of services and shall meet all requirements of an ISP as
 defined in 12VAC30-50-226. Individual progress notes shall be required for each
 contact with the individual and shall meet all of the requirements as defined
 in 12VAC30-50-130 this section.
 
 6. Such services shall not duplicate those services provided
 by the school. 
 
 7. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
 behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities. Individuals shall meet at least two of
 the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
 interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
 community. 
 
 b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
 repeated interventions by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary. 
 
 c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 8. The enrolled provider of therapeutic day treatment for
 child and adolescent services shall be licensed by DBHDS to provide day support
 services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment agreement in
 effect with DMAS prior to the delivery of this service that indicates that the
 provider offers therapeutic day treatment services for children and
 adolescents. 
 
 9. Services shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
 LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. 
 
 10. The minimum staff-to-individual ratio as defined by DBHDS
 licensing requirements shall ensure that adequate staff is available to meet
 the needs of the individual identified on the ISP. 
 
 11. The program shall operate a minimum of two hours per day
 and may offer flexible program hours (i.e., before or after school or during
 the summer). One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two hours but
 less than three hours in a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as
 a minimum of three but less than five hours in a given day. Three units of
 service shall be defined as five or more hours of service in a given day. 
 
 12. Time required for academic instruction when no treatment
 activity is going on shall not be included in the billing unit. 
 
 13. Services shall be provided following a service-specific
 provider intake that is conducted by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
 or LMHP-RP. An LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident shall make and document
 the diagnosis. The service-specific provider intake shall include the elements
 as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 14. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
 management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider
 shall collaborate with the case manager and provide notification of the
 provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to
 the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be sent
 to the case manager within 30 calendar days of the service
 discontinuation date. Providers and case managers using the same electronic
 health record for the individual shall meet requirements for delivery of the
 notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this
 documentation into the electronic health record. 
 
 15. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
 the individual's parent or legal guardian, shall inform the primary care
 provider of the child's the individual's receipt of community
 mental health rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was
 contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. The
 parent/legal parent or legal guardian shall be required to give
 written consent that this provider has permission to inform the primary care
 provider of the child's or adolescent's receipt of community mental health
 rehabilitative services. 
 
 16. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
 set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
 marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E.
 
 17. If there is a lapse in services greater than 31
 consecutive calendar days, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
 individual continues to need services, a new intake/admission intake
 or admission documentation shall be prepared and a new service
 authorization shall be required.
 
 E. Utilization review of community-based services for
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level A). 
 
 1. The staff ratio must be at least one to six during the
 day and at least one to 10 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. The program
 director supervising the program/group home must be, at minimum, a QMHP-C or
 QMHP-E (as defined in 12VAC35-105-20). The program director must be employed
 full time. 
 
 2. In order for Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at
 least 50% of the provider's direct care staff at the group home must meet DBHDS
 paraprofessional staff criteria, defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 3. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 All community-based services for children and adolescents younger than 21
 (Level A) require authorization prior to reimbursement for these services.
 Reimbursement shall not be made for this service when other less intensive
 services may achieve stabilization. 
 
 4. Services must be provided in accordance with an
 individual service plan (ISP), which must be fully completed within 30 days of
 authorization for Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 5. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
 shall be conducted according to DMAS specifications described in
 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 6. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be
 performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 7. If an individual receiving community-based services for
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level A) is also
 receiving case management services, the provider shall collaborate with the
 case manager by notifying the case manager of the provision of Level A services
 and shall send monthly updates on the individual's progress. When the
 individual is discharged from Level A services, a discharge summary shall be
 sent to the case manager within 30 days of the service discontinuation
 date. Providers and case managers who are using the same electronic health
 record for the individual shall meet requirements for the delivery of the
 notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this
 documentation into the electronic health record. 
 
 F. E. Utilization review of therapeutic behavioral
 services group home for children and adolescents younger than 21
 years of age (Level B). 
 
 1. The staff ratio must be at least one to four during the
 day and at least one to eight between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. approved
 by the Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services. The clinical director must shall be a licensed
 mental health professional. The caseload of the clinical director must not
 exceed 16 individuals including all sites for which the same clinical director
 is responsible. 
 
 2. The program director must shall be full time
 and be a QMHP-C or QMHP-E with a bachelor's degree and at least one year's
 clinical experience meet the requirements for a program director as
 defined in 12VAC35-46-350.
 
 3. For Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least 50% of
 the provider's direct care staff at the therapeutic group home shall
 meet DBHDS paraprofessional staff qualified paraprofessional in
 mental health (QPPMH) criteria, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. The program/group
 therapeutic group home must shall coordinate services with
 other providers. 
 
 4. All therapeutic behavioral group home
 services (Level B) shall be authorized prior to reimbursement for these
 services. Services rendered without such prior authorization shall not be
 covered. 
 
 5. Services must be provided in accordance with an ISP a
 comprehensive individual plan of care as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, which
 shall be fully completed within 30 calendar days of authorization for
 Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 6. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
 an assessment shall be performed using all elements specified by DMAS in
 12VAC30-50-130. 
 
 7. Such service-specific provider intakes assessments
 shall be performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 8. If an individual receiving therapeutic behavioral group
 home services for children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level
 B) is also receiving case management services, the therapeutic behavioral
 group home services provider must collaborate with the care coordinator/case
 manager by notifying him of the provision of Level B therapeutic
 group home services and the Level B therapeutic group home
 services provider shall send monthly updates on the individual's treatment
 status. When the individual is discharged from Level B services, a discharge
 summary shall be sent to the care coordinator/case manager within 30 days of
 the discontinuation date. 
 
 9. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
 guardian parent or legally authorized representative, shall inform
 the primary care provider of the individual's receipt of these Level B therapeutic
 group home services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
 when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. If these
 individuals are children or adolescents, then the parent/legal guardian parent
 or legally authorized representative shall be required to give written
 consent that this provider has permission to inform the primary care provider
 of the individual's receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
 
 
 G. Utilization review. Utilization reviews for
 community-based services for children and adolescents younger than 21 years of
 age (Level A) and therapeutic behavioral services for children and adolescents
 younger than 21 years of age (Level B) shall include determinations whether
 providers meet all DMAS requirements, including compliance with DMAS marketing
 requirements. Providers that DMAS determines have violated the DMAS marketing
 requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E. 
 
 H. F. Utilization review of behavioral therapy
 services for children individuals younger than 21 years of age. 
 
 1. In order for Medicaid to cover behavioral therapy services,
 the provider shall be enrolled with DMAS or its contractor as a Medicaid
 provider. The provider enrollment agreement shall be in effect prior to the
 delivery of services for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 2. Behavioral therapy services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age when recommended by the individual's
 primary care provider, licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or
 licensed nurse practitioner and determined by DMAS or its contractor to be
 medically necessary to correct or ameliorate significant impairments in major
 life activities that have resulted from either developmental, behavioral, or
 mental disabilities.
 
 3. Behavioral therapy services require service authorization.
 Services shall be authorized only when eligibility and medical necessity
 criteria are met.
 
 4. Prior to treatment, an appropriate service-specific
 provider intake shall be conducted, documented, signed, and dated by a licensed
 behavior analyst (LBA), licensed assistant behavior analyst (LABA), LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, acting within the scope of his practice,
 documenting the individual's diagnosis (including a description of the
 behaviors targeted for treatment with their frequency, duration, and intensity)
 and describing how service needs can best be met through behavioral therapy.
 The service-specific provider intake shall be conducted face-to-face in the
 individual's residence with the individual and parent or guardian. 
 
 5. The ISP shall be developed upon admission to the service
 and reviewed within 30 days of admission to the service to ensure that all
 treatment goals are reflective of the individual's clinical needs and shall
 describe each treatment goal, targeted behavior, one or more measurable
 objectives for each targeted behavior, the behavioral modification strategy to
 be used to manage each targeted behavior, the plan for parent or caregiver
 training, care coordination, and the measurement and data collection methods to
 be used for each targeted behavior in the ISP. The ISP as defined in
 12VAC30-50-130 shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an LBA, LABA,
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S. Every three months, the LBA, LABA, LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S shall review the ISP, modify the ISP as appropriate,
 and update the ISP, and all of these activities shall occur with the individual
 in a manner in which the individual may participate in the process. The ISP
 shall be rewritten at least annually. 
 
 6. Reimbursement for the initial service-specific provider
 intake and the initial ISP shall be limited to five hours without service
 authorization. If additional time is needed to complete these documents,
 service authorization shall be required. 
 
 7. Clinical supervision shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement
 of behavioral therapy services that are rendered by an LABA, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
 or LMHP-S or unlicensed staff consistent with the scope of practice as
 described by the applicable Virginia Department of Health Professions
 regulatory board. Clinical supervision of unlicensed staff shall occur at least
 weekly. As documented in the individual's medical record, clinical supervision
 shall include a review of progress notes and data and dialogue with supervised
 staff about the individual's progress and the effectiveness of the ISP.
 Clinical supervision shall be documented by, at a minimum, the
 contemporaneously dated signature of the clinical supervisor. 
 
 8. Family training involving the individual's family and
 significant others to advance the treatment goals of the individual shall be
 provided when (i) the training with the family member or significant other is
 for the direct benefit of the individual, (ii) the training is not aimed at
 addressing the treatment needs of the individual's family or significant
 others, (iii) the individual is present except when it is clinically
 appropriate for the individual to be absent in order to advance the
 individual's treatment goals, and (iv) the training is aligned with the goals
 of the individual's treatment plan. 
 
 9. The following shall not be covered under this service:
 
 a. Screening to identify physical, mental, or developmental
 conditions that may require evaluation or treatment. Screening is covered as an
 EPSDT service provided by the primary care provider and is not covered as a
 behavioral therapy service under this section. 
 
 b. Services other than the initial service-specific provider
 intake that are provided but are not based upon the individual's ISP or linked
 to a service in the ISP. Time not actively involved in providing services
 directed by the ISP shall not be reimbursed.
 
 c. Services that are based upon an incomplete, missing, or
 outdated service-specific provider intake or ISP.
 
 d. Sessions that are conducted for family support, education,
 recreational, or custodial purposes, including respite or child care.
 
 e. Services that are provided by a provider but are rendered
 primarily by a relative or guardian who is legally responsible for the
 individual's care.
 
 f. Services that are provided in a clinic or provider's office
 without documented justification for the location in the ISP.
 
 g. Services that are provided in the absence of the individual
 or a parent or other authorized caregiver identified in the ISP with the
 exception of treatment review processes described in subdivision 12 e of this
 subsection, care coordination, and clinical supervision. 
 
 h. Services provided by a local education agency.
 
 i. Provider travel time.
 
 10. Behavioral therapy services shall not be reimbursed
 concurrently with community mental health services described in 12VAC30-50-130 B
 5 C or 12VAC30-50-226, or behavioral, psychological, or psychiatric
 therapeutic consultation described in 12VAC30-120-756, 12VAC30-120-1000,
 or 12VAC30-135-320.
 
 11. If the individual is receiving targeted case management
 services under the Medicaid state plan State Plan (defined in
 12VAC30-50-410 through 12VAC30-50-491 12VAC30-50-491), the
 provider shall notify the case manager of the provision of behavioral therapy
 services unless the parent or guardian requests that the information not be
 released. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to the case
 manager on the individual's status pursuant to a valid release of information.
 A discharge summary shall be sent to the case manager within 30 days of the
 service discontinuation date. A refusal of the parent or guardian to release
 information shall be documented in the medical record for the date the request
 was discussed.
 
 12. Other standards to ensure quality of services:
 
 a. Services shall be delivered only by an LBA, LABA, LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, or clinically supervised unlicensed staff consistent
 with the scope of practice as described by the applicable Virginia Department
 of Health Professions regulatory board. 
 
 b. Individual-specific services shall be directed toward the
 treatment of the eligible individual and delivered in the family's residence
 unless an alternative location is justified and documented in the ISP.
 
 c. Individual-specific progress notes shall be created
 contemporaneously with the service activities and shall document the name and
 Medicaid number of each individual; the provider's name, signature, and date;
 and time of service. Documentation shall include activities provided, length of
 services provided, the individual's reaction to that day's activity, and
 documentation of the individual's and the parent or caregiver's progress toward
 achieving each behavioral objective through analysis and reporting of
 quantifiable behavioral data. Documentation shall be prepared to clearly demonstrate
 efficacy using baseline and service-related data that shows clinical progress
 and generalization for the child and family members toward the therapy goals as
 defined in the service plan.
 
 d. Documentation of all billed services shall include the amount
 of time or billable units spent to deliver the service and shall be signed and
 dated on the date of the service by the practitioner rendering the service.
 
 e. Billable time is permitted for the LBA, LABA, LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S to better define behaviors and develop documentation
 strategies to measure treatment performance and the efficacy of the ISP
 objectives, provided that these activities are documented in a progress note as
 described in subdivision 12 c of this subsection.
 
 13. Failure to comply with any of the requirements in
 12VAC30-50-130 or in this section shall result in retraction.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-60) 
 
 Department of Medical Assistance Services Provider Manuals (https://www.virginiamedicaid.dmas.virginia.gov/wps/portal/ProviderManuals):
 
 Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual
 
 Virginia Medicaid Rehabilitation Manual 
 
 Virginia Medicaid Hospice Manual
 
 Virginia Medicaid School Division Manual
 
 Development
 of Special Criteria for the Purposes of Pre-Admission Screening, Medicaid Memo,
 October 3, 2012, Department of Medical Assistance Services
 
 Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
 Edition (DSM-IV-TR), copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
 
 Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
 Substance-Related Disorders (ASAM PPC-2R), Second Edition, copyright 2001,
 American Society on Addiction Medicine, Inc.
 
 Medicaid Memo, Reissuance of the Pre-Admission
 Screening (PAS) Provider Manual, Chapter IV, November 22, 2016, Department of
 Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: New Service
 Authorization Requirement for an Independent Clinical Assessment for Medicaid
 and FAMIS Children's Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services, dated
 June 16, 2011, Department of Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
 Children Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Children's Services,
 July 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of
 Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
 Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Adult-Oriented Services, July
 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of Medical
 Assistance Services
 
 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018
 
 Part XIV 
 Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents (Repealed)
 
 12VAC30-130-850. Definitions. (Repealed.) 
 
 The following words and terms when used in this part shall
 have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
 
 "Active treatment" means implementation of a
 professionally developed and supervised individual plan of care that must be
 designed to achieve the recipient's discharge from inpatient status at the
 earliest possible time. 
 
 "Certification" means a statement signed by a
 physician that inpatient services in a residential treatment facility are or
 were needed. The certification must be made at the time of admission, or, if an
 individual applies for assistance while in a mental hospital or residential
 treatment facility, before the Medicaid agency authorizes payment. 
 
 "Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
 "CIPOC" means a written plan developed for each recipient in
 accordance with 12VAC30-130-890 to improve his condition to the extent that
 inpatient care is no longer necessary. 
 
 "Emergency services" means a medical condition
 manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe
 pain) such that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of
 health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical
 attention to result in placing the health of the individual (or, with respect
 to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious
 jeopardy, serious impairment to bodily functions, or serious dysfunction of any
 bodily organ or part.
 
 "Individual" or "individuals" means a
 child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age who is receiving a service
 covered under this part of this chapter. 
 
 "Initial plan of care" means a plan of care
 established at admission, signed by the attending physician or staff physician,
 that meets the requirements in 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 "Inpatient psychiatric facility" or
 "IPF" means a private or state-run freestanding psychiatric hospital
 or psychiatric residential treatment center.
 
 "Recertification" means a certification for each
 applicant or recipient that inpatient services in a residential treatment
 facility are needed. Recertification must be made at least every 60 days by a
 physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within the scope
 of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician. 
 
 "Recipient" or "recipients" means the
 child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age receiving this covered
 service. 
 
 "RTC-Level C" means a psychiatric residential
 treatment facility (Level C).
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means services
 including physician and other health care services that are furnished to
 children while they are in an IPF that are billed by the arranged practitioners
 separately from the IPF per diem.
 
 12VAC30-130-860. Service coverage; eligible individuals;
 service certification. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall be
 24-hour, supervised, medically necessary, out-of-home programs designed to
 provide necessary support and address the special mental health and behavioral
 needs of a child or adolescent in order to prevent or minimize the need for
 more intensive inpatient treatment. Services must include, but shall not be
 limited to, assessment and evaluation, medical treatment (including drugs),
 individual and group counseling, and family therapy necessary to treat the
 child. 
 
 B. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall provide
 a total, 24 hours per day, specialized form of highly organized, intensive and
 planned therapeutic interventions that shall be utilized to treat some of the
 most severe mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Residential treatment
 is a definitive therapeutic modality designed to deliver specified results for
 a defined group of problems for children or adolescents for whom outpatient day
 treatment or other less intrusive levels of care are not appropriate, and for
 whom a protected, structured milieu is medically necessary for an extended
 period of time. 
 
 C. Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level B) and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be therapeutic services rendered in a
 residential type setting such as a group home or program that provides
 structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision and
 mental health care to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals
 as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). The child or
 adolescent must have a medical need for the service arising from a condition
 due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant
 functional impairments in major life activities. 
 
 D. Active treatment shall be required. Residential
 Treatment, Therapeutic Behavioral and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under age 21 shall be designed to serve the mental health needs of
 children. In order to be reimbursed for Residential Treatment (Level C),
 Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
 B), and Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
 A), the facility must provide active mental health treatment beginning at
 admission and it must be related to the recipient's principle diagnosis and
 admitting symptoms. To the extent that any recipient needs mental health
 treatment and his needs meet the medical necessity criteria for the service, he
 will be approved for these services. These services do not include
 interventions and activities designed only to meet the supportive nonmental
 health special needs, including but not limited to personal care, habilitation
 or academic educational needs of the recipients. 
 
 E. An individual eligible for Residential Treatment
 Services (Level C) is a recipient under the age of 21 years whose treatment
 needs cannot be met by ambulatory care resources available in the community,
 for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires services on an
 inpatient basis under the direction of a physician. 
 
 An individual eligible for Therapeutic Behavioral Services
 for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B) is a child, under the age of 21
 years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
 intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
 direction of a Licensed Mental Health Professional. 
 
 An individual eligible for Community-Based Services for
 Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) is a child, under the age of 21
 years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
 intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
 direction of a qualified mental health professional. The services for all three
 levels can reasonably be expected to improve the child's or adolescent's
 condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed. 
 
 F. In order for Medicaid to reimburse for Residential
 Treatment (Level C), Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the need for the service must be certified
 according to the standards and requirements set forth in subdivisions 1 and 2
 of this subsection. At least one member of the independent certifying team must
 have pediatric mental health expertise. 
 
 1. For an individual who is already a Medicaid recipient
 when he is admitted to a facility or program, certification must: 
 
 a. Be made by an independent certifying team that includes
 a licensed physician who: 
 
 (1) Has competence in diagnosis and treatment of pediatric
 mental illness; and 
 
 (2) Has knowledge of the recipient's mental health history
 and current situation. 
 
 b. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team. 
 
 2. For a recipient who applies for Medicaid while an
 inpatient in the facility or program, the certification must: 
 
 a. Be made by the team responsible for the plan of care; 
 
 b. Cover any period of time before the application for
 Medicaid eligibility for which claims for reimbursement by Medicaid are made;
 and 
 
 c. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team. 
 
 12VAC30-130-870. Preauthorization. (Repealed.)
 
 
 A. Authorization for Residential Treatment (Level C) shall
 be required within 24 hours of admission and shall be conducted by DMAS or its
 utilization management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified by
 DMAS. At preauthorization, an initial length of stay shall be assigned and the
 residential treatment provider shall be responsible for obtaining authorization
 for continued stay. 
 
 B. DMAS will not pay for admission to or continued stay in
 residential facilities (Level C) that were not authorized by DMAS. 
 
 C. Information that is required in order to obtain
 admission preauthorization for Medicaid payment shall include: 
 
 1. A completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by the department. 
 
 2. A certification of the need for this service by the team
 described in 12VAC30-130-860 that: 
 
 a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
 do not meet the specific treatment needs of the recipient; 
 
 b. Proper treatment of the recipient's psychiatric
 condition requires services on an inpatient basis under the direction of a
 physician; and 
 
 c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 recipient's condition or prevent further regression so that the services will
 not be needed. 
 
 3. Additional required written documentation shall include
 all of the following: 
 
 a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
 including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
 Retardation, Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
 Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning); 
 
 b. A description of the child's behavior during the seven
 days immediately prior to admission; 
 
 c. A description of alternative placements tried or
 explored and the outcomes of each placement; 
 
 d. The child's functional level and clinical stability; 
 
 e. The level of family support available; and 
 
 f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 D. Continued stay criteria for Residential Treatment
 (Level C): information for continued stay authorization (Level C) for Medicaid
 payment must include: 
 
 1. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
 than 90 days prior to the date of submission; 
 
 2. Documentation that the required services are provided as
 indicated; 
 
 3. Current (within the last 30 days) information on
 progress related to the achievement of treatment goals. The treatment goals
 must address the reasons for admission, including a description of any new
 symptoms amenable to treatment; 
 
 4. Description of continued impairment, problem behaviors,
 and need for Residential Treatment level of care. 
 
 E. Denial of service may be appealed by the recipient
 consistent with 12VAC30-110-10 et seq.; denial of reimbursement may be appealed
 by the provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
 seq. of the Code of Virginia). 
 
 F. DMAS will not pay for services for Therapeutic Behavioral
 Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based
 Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) that are not prior
 authorized by DMAS. 
 
 G. Authorization for Level A and Level B residential
 treatment shall be required within three business days of admission.
 Authorization for services shall be based upon the medical necessity criteria
 described in 12VAC30-50-130. The authorized length of stay must not exceed six
 months and may be reauthorized. The provider shall be responsible for
 documenting the need for a continued stay and providing supporting
 documentation. 
 
 H. Information that is required in order to obtain
 admission authorization for Medicaid payment must include: 
 
 1. A current completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by the department. The state designated uniform assessment
 instrument must indicate at least two areas of moderate impairment for Level B
 and two areas of moderate impairment for Level A. A moderate impairment is
 evidenced by, but not limited to: 
 
 a. Frequent conflict in the family setting, for example,
 credible threats of physical harm. 
 
 b. Frequent inability to accept age appropriate direction
 and supervision from caretakers, family members, at school, or in the home or community.
 
 
 c. Severely limited involvement in social support; which
 means significant avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of
 existing relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions.
 
 
 d. Impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at
 least one caretaker in the home, school or community. 
 
 e. Limited ability to consider the effect of one's
 inappropriate conduct on others, interactions consistently involving conflict,
 which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors. 
 
 2. A certification of the need for the service by the team
 described in 12VAC30-130-860 that: 
 
 a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
 do not meet the specific treatment needs of the child; 
 
 b. Proper treatment of the child's psychiatric condition
 requires services in a community-based residential program; and 
 
 c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 child's condition or prevent regression so that the services will not be
 needed. 
 
 3. Additional required written documentation must include
 all of the following: 
 
 a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
 including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
 Retardation), Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
 Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning); 
 
 b. A description of the child's behavior during the 30 days
 immediately prior to admission; 
 
 c. A description of alternative placements tried or
 explored and the outcomes of each placement; 
 
 d. The child's functional level and clinical stability; 
 
 e. The level of family support available; and 
 
 f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 I. Denial of service may be appealed by the child
 consistent with 12VAC30-110; denial of reimbursement may be appealed by the
 provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of
 the Code of Virginia). 
 
 J. Continued stay criteria for Levels A and B: 
 
 1. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by
 DMAS or its contractor. 
 
 2. A current Individual Service Plan (ISP) (plan of care)
 and a current (within 30 days) summary of progress related to the goals and
 objectives on the ISP (plan of care) must be submitted for continuation of the
 service. 
 
 3. For reauthorization to occur, the desired outcome or
 level of functioning has not been restored or improved, over the time frame
 outlined in the child's ISP (plan of care) or the child continues to be at risk
 for relapse based on history or the tenuous nature of the functional gains and
 use of less intensive services will not achieve stabilization. Any one of the
 following must apply: 
 
 a. The child has achieved initial service plan (plan of
 care) goals but additional goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower
 level of care. 
 
 b. The child is making satisfactory progress toward meeting
 goals but has not attained ISP goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a
 lower level of care. 
 
 c. The child is not making progress, and the service plan
 (plan of care) has been modified to identify more effective interventions. 
 
 d. There are current indications that the child requires
 this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as evidenced by
 failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or stays in a
 nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential treatment. 
 
 K. Discharge criteria for Levels A and B. 
 
 1. Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
 if either of the following applies: 
 
 a. The level of functioning has improved with respect to
 the goals outlined in the service plan (plan of care) and the child can
 reasonably be expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment;
 or 
 
 b. The child no longer benefits from service as evidenced
 by absence of progress toward service plan goals for a period of 60 days. 
 
 12VAC30-130-880. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
 
 
 A. Providers must provide all Residential Treatment
 Services (Level C) as defined within this part and set forth in 42 CFR Part 441
 Subpart D. 
 
 B. Providers of Residential Treatment Services (Level C)
 must be: 
 
 1. A residential treatment program for children and
 adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric hospital
 accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
 Organizations; 
 
 2. A residential treatment program for children and
 adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric unit of an
 acute general hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
 Healthcare Organizations; or 
 
 3. A psychiatric facility that is (i) accredited by the
 Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
 on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Quality and
 Leadership in Supports for People with Disabilities, or the Council on
 Accreditation of Services for Families and Children and (ii) licensed by
 DMHMRSAS as a residential treatment program for children and adolescents. 
 
 C. Providers of Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be licensed by the Department of Social
 Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of Education under the
 Standards for Interdepartmental Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities
 (22VAC42-10). 
 
 D. Providers of Therapeutic Behavioral Services (Level B)
 must be licensed by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation, and
 Substance Abuse Services (DMHMRSAS) under the Standards for Interdepartmental
 Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC42-10). 
 
 12VAC30-130-890. Plans of care; review of plans of care.
 (Repealed.) 
 
 A. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization review
 and audit. The absence of any required documentation may result in denial or
 retraction of any reimbursement.
 
 B. For Residential Treatment Services (Level C) (RTS-Level
 C), an initial plan of care must be completed at admission and a Comprehensive
 Individual Plan of Care (CIPOC) must be completed no later than 14 days after
 admission. 
 
 C. Initial plan of care
 (Level C) must include: 
 
 1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 2. A description of the functional level of the individual;
 
 
 3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
 rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
 special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the individual and
 a list of services provided under arrangement (see 12VAC30-50-130 for eligible
 services provided under arrangement) that will be furnished to the individual
 through the RTC-Level C's referral to an employed or a contracted provider of
 services under arrangement, including the prescribed frequency of treatment and
 the circumstances under which such treatment shall be sought;
 
 5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; 
 
 6. Plans for discharge; and 
 
 7. Signature and date by the physician. 
 
 D. The CIPOC for Level C
 must meet all of the following criteria: 
 
 1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for inpatient psychiatric care; 
 
 2. Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
 and other personnel specified under subsection G of this section, who are
 employed by, or provide services to, patients in the facility in consultation
 with the individual and his parents, legal guardians, or appropriate others in
 whose care he will be released after discharge; 
 
 3. State treatment objectives that must include measurable
 short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; 
 
 5. Include a list of services provided under arrangement
 (described in 12VAC30-50-130) that will be furnished to the individual through
 referral to an employee or a contracted provider of services under arrangement,
 including the prescribed frequency of treatment and the circumstances under
 which such treatment shall be sought; and
 
 6. Describe comprehensive discharge plans and coordination
 of inpatient services and post-discharge plans with related community services
 to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the individual's family,
 school, and community. 
 
 E. Review of the CIPOC for Level C. The CIPOC must be
 reviewed every 30 days by the team specified in subsection G of this section
 to: 
 
 1. Determine that services being provided are or were
 required on an inpatient basis; and 
 
 2. Recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall adjustment as an inpatient. 
 
 F. The development and review of the plan of care for
 Level C as specified in this section satisfies the facility's utilization
 control requirements for recertification and establishment and periodic review
 of the plan of care, as required in 42 CFR 456.160 and 456.180. 
 
 G. Team developing the CIPOC for Level C. The following
 requirements must be met: 
 
 1. At least one member of the team must have expertise in
 pediatric mental health. Based on education and experience, preferably
 including competence in child psychiatry, the team must be capable of all of
 the following: 
 
 a. Assessing the individual's immediate and long-range
 therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and liabilities;
 
 
 b. Assessing the potential resources of the individual's
 family; 
 
 c. Setting treatment objectives; and 
 
 d. Prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's
 objectives. 
 
 2. The team must include, at a minimum, either: 
 
 a. A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist; 
 
 b. A clinical psychologist who has a doctoral degree and a
 physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or 
 
 c. A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
 with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental diseases, and a psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
 psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
 association. 
 
 3. The team must also include one of the following: 
 
 a. A psychiatric social worker; 
 
 b. A registered nurse with specialized training or one
 year's experience in treating mentally ill individuals; 
 
 c. An occupational therapist who is licensed, if required
 by the state, and who has specialized training or one year of experience in
 treating mentally ill individuals; or 
 
 d. A psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
 psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
 association. 
 
 H. The RTC-Level C shall not receive a per diem
 reimbursement for any day that: 
 
 1. The initial or comprehensive written plan of care fails
 to include within three business days of the initiation of the service provided
 under arrangement:
 
 a. The prescribed frequency of treatment of such service,
 or includes a frequency that was exceeded; or
 
 b. All services that the individual needs while residing at
 the RTC-Level C and that will be furnished to the individual through the
 RTC-Level C referral to an employed or contracted provider of services under
 arrangement; 
 
 2. The initial or comprehensive written plan of care fails
 to list the circumstances under which the service provided under arrangement
 shall be sought; 
 
 3. The referral to the service provided under arrangement
 was not present in the individual's RTC-Level C record;
 
 4. The service provided under arrangement was not supported
 in that provider's records by a documented referral from the RTC-Level C; 
 
 5. The medical records from the provider of services under
 arrangement (i.e., admission and discharge documents, treatment plans, progress
 notes, treatment summaries, and documentation of medical results and findings)
 (i) were not present in the individual's RTC-Level C record or had not been
 requested in writing by the RTC-Level C within seven days of discharge from or
 completion of the service or services provided under arrangement or (ii) had
 been requested in writing within seven days of discharge from or completion of
 the service or services provided under arrangement, but not received within 30
 days of the request, and not re-requested; 
 
 6. The RTC-Level C did not have a fully executed contract
 or employee relationship with an independent provider of services under
 arrangement in advance of the provision of such services. For emergency
 services, the RTC-Level C shall have a fully executed contract with the
 emergency services provider prior to submission of the emergency service
 provider's claim for payment;
 
 7. A physician's order for the service under arrangement is
 not present in the record; or
 
 8. The service under arrangement is not included in the
 individual's CIPOC within 30 calendar days of the physician's order. 
 
 I. The provider of services under arrangement shall be
 required to reimburse DMAS for the cost of any such service provided under arrangement
 that was (i) furnished prior to receiving a referral or (ii) in excess of the
 amounts in the referral. Providers of services under arrangement shall be
 required to reimburse DMAS for the cost of any such services provided under
 arrangement that were rendered in the absence of an employment or contractual
 relationship.
 
 J. For therapeutic behavioral services for children and
 adolescents under 21 (Level B), the initial plan of care must be completed at
 admission by the licensed mental health professional (LMHP) and a CIPOC must be
 completed by the LMHP no later than 30 days after admission. The assessment
 must be signed and dated by the LMHP. 
 
 K. For community-based services for children and
 adolescents under 21 (Level A), the initial plan of care must be completed at
 admission by the QMHP and a CIPOC must be completed by the QMHP no later than
 30 days after admission. The individualized plan of care must be signed and
 dated by the program director. 
 
 L. Initial plan of care for Levels A and B must include: 
 
 1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 2. A description of the functional level of the individual;
 
 
 3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
 rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
 special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient; 
 
 5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; and 
 
 6. Plans for discharge. 
 
 M. The CIPOC for Levels A and B must meet all of the
 following criteria: 
 
 1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for residential psychiatric care; 
 
 2. The CIPOC for both levels must be based on input from
 school, home, other health care providers, the individual and family (or legal
 guardian); 
 
 3. State treatment objectives that include measurable
 short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; and 
 
 5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans with related
 community services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the
 individual's family, school, and community.
 
 N. Review of the CIPOC for Levels A and B. The CIPOC must
 be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30 days by the QMHP for Level A and by the
 LMHP for Level B. The review must include: 
 
 1. The response to services provided; 
 
 2. Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall response to the plan of care interventions; and 
 
 3. Determinations regarding whether the services being
 provided continue to be required. 
 
 Updates must be signed and dated by the service provider. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4495; Filed July 3, 2019, 8:58 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-10. State Plan under
 Title XIX of the Social Security Act Medical Assistance Program; General Provisions (amending 12VAC30-10-540).
 
 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
 Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-20, 12VAC30-50-30,
 12VAC30-50-60, 12VAC30-50-70, 12VAC30-50-130, 12VAC30-50-226).
 
 12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
 High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-5, 12VAC30-60-50,
 12VAC30-60-61).
 
 12VAC30-130. Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services (repealing 12VAC30-130-850 through
 12VAC30-130-890). 
 
 Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
 Virginia, 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
 
 Effective Date: August 22, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
 Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad
 Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)
 786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The regulatory action implements Items 301 OO and 301 PP of
 Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, which required the department to
 develop and implement a care coordination model and make programmatic changes
 in the provision of residential treatment for children. The action replaces
 emergency regulations published in 33:13 VA.R. 1436-1469 February 20,
 2017, and extended in 35:9 VA.R. 1130 December 24, 2018.
 
 The amendments clarify policy interpretations and revise
 program standards to allow for more evidence-based service delivery, allow the
 department to implement more effective utilization management in collaboration
 with the behavioral health service administrator, enhance individualized
 coordination of care, implement standardized coordination of individualized
 aftercare resources by ensuring access to medical and behavioral health service
 providers in the individual's home community, and support department audit
 practices. The action meets the requirements set forth by the Centers for
 Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) in 42 CFR 441 Subpart D and 42 CFR
 441.453. 
 
 The amendments include changes to the following areas: (i)
 provider qualifications, including acceptable licensing standards; (ii)
 preadmission assessment requirements; (iii) program requirements; (iv)
 discharge planning and care coordination requirements; and (v) utilization
 review requirements to clarify program requirements, ensure adequate
 documentation of service delivery, and help providers avoid payment
 retractions. 
 
 The action requires enhanced care coordination to provide
 the necessary objective evaluations of treatment progress and to facilitate
 evidence-based practices during the treatment to reduce the length of stay by
 ensuring that medical necessity indicates the correct level of care, that
 appropriate and effective care is delivered in a person centered manner, and
 that service providers and local systems use standardized preadmission and
 discharge processes to ensure effective services are delivered. The final
 regulatory text is the same as the proposed regulatory text.
 
 Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No
 public comments were received by the promulgating agency. 
 
 12VAC30-10-540. Inspection of care in intermediate care
 facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities, facilities providing inpatient psychiatric
 services for individuals under younger than 21 years of age,
 and mental hospitals. 
 
 All applicable requirements of 42 CFR 456, Subpart I,
 are met with respect to periodic inspections of care and services.* 
 
 Inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age
 21 are not provided under this plan. 
 
 *Inspection of Care (IOC) in Intermediate Care Facilities
 for the Mentally Retarded and Institutions for Mental Diseases are Inspection
 of care in intermediate care facilities for persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities is completed through contractual arrangements
 with the Virginia Department of Health. 
 
 12VAC30-50-20. Services provided to the categorically needy
 without limitation. 
 
 The following services as described in Part III
 (12VAC30-50-100 et seq.) of this chapter are provided to the categorically
 needy without limitation: 
 
 1. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older. 
 
 2. Services for individuals age 65 years of age
 or over older in institutions for mental diseases: inpatient
 hospital services; skilled nursing facility services; and services in an
 intermediate care facility. 
 
 3. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined, in
 accordance with § 1902(a)(31)(A) of the Social Security Act (the
 Act), to be in need of such care, including such services in a public
 institution (or distinct part thereof) for the mentally retarded or
 persons with intellectual or developmental disability or related
 conditions. 
 
 4. Hospice care (in accordance with § 1905(o) of the Act). 
 
 5. Any other medical care and any type of remedial care
 recognized under state law, specified by the U.S. Secretary of Health
 and Human Services: care and services provided in religious nonmedical
 health care institutions;, nursing facility services for patients
 under  younger than 21 years of age;, or
 emergency hospital services.
 
 6. Private health insurance premiums, coinsurance, and
 deductibles when cost effective (pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No.
 101-508 § 4402).
 
 7. Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE)
 services are provided for eligible individuals as an optional State Plan
 service for categorically needy individuals without limitation.
 
 8. Pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No. 111-148 § 4107,
 counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women
 shall be covered. 
 
 a. Counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use
 by pregnant women means diagnostic, therapy, and counseling services and
 pharmacotherapy (including the coverage of prescription and nonprescription
 tobacco cessation agents approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration) for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women who use tobacco
 products or who are being treated for tobacco use that is furnished (i) by or
 under the supervision of a physician, (ii) by any other health care professional
 who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law
 and is authorized to provide Medicaid coverable services other than tobacco
 cessation services, or (iii) by any other health care professional who is
 legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law and
 who is specifically designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human
 Services in federal regulations for this purpose. 
 
 b. No cost sharing shall be applied to these services. In
 addition to other services that are covered for pregnant women, 12VAC30-50-510
 also provides for other smoking cessation services that are covered for
 pregnant women.
 
 9. Inpatient psychiatric facility services and residential
 psychiatric treatment services (including therapeutic group homes and
 psychiatric residential treatment facilities) for individuals younger than 21
 years of age.
 
 12VAC30-50-30. Services not provided to the categorically
 needy. 
 
 The following services and devices are not provided to the
 categorically needy: 
 
 1. Chiropractors' Chiropractor services. 
 
 2. Private duty nursing services. 
 
 3. Dentures. 
 
 4. Other diagnostic and preventive services other than those
 provided elsewhere in this plan: diagnostic services (see (12VAC30-50-95)
 et seq.). 
 
 5. Inpatient psychiatric facility services for individuals
 under 21 years of age, other than those covered under early and periodic
 screening, diagnosis, and treatment (at 12VAC30-50-130). (Reserved.)
 
 6. Special tuberculosis (TB) related services under § 1902(z)(2)(F)
 of the Social Security Act (the Act). 
 
 7. Respiratory care services (in accordance with § 1920(e)(9)(A)
 through (C) of the Act). 
 
 8. Ambulatory prenatal care for pregnant women furnished
 during a presumptive eligibility period by a qualified provider (in accordance
 with § 1920 of the Act). 
 
 9. Any other medical care and any type of remedial care
 recognized under state law specified by the U.S. Secretary of Health
 and Human Services: personal care services in recipient's home, prescribed
 in accordance with a plan of treatment and provided by a qualified person under
 supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 12VAC30-50-60. Services provided to all medically needy groups
 without limitations. 
 
 Services as described in Part III (12VAC30-50-100 et seq.) of
 this chapter are provided to all medically needy groups without limitations.
 
 1. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older. 
 
 2. Early and periodic screening and diagnosis of individuals under
 younger than 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions found. 
 
 3. Pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No. 111-148 § 4107,
 counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women
 shall be covered. 
 
 a. Counseling and pharmacotherapy for cessation of tobacco use
 by pregnant women means diagnostic, therapy, and counseling services and
 pharmacotherapy (including the coverage of prescription and nonprescription
 tobacco cessation agents approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration) for cessation of tobacco use by pregnant women who use tobacco
 products or who are being treated for tobacco use that is furnished (i) by or
 under the supervision of a physician, (ii) by any other health care
 professional who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services
 under state law and is authorized to provide Medicaid coverable services other
 than tobacco cessation services, or (iii) by any other health care professional
 who is legally authorized to provide tobacco cessation services under state law
 and who is specifically designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human
 Services in federal regulations for this purpose. 
 
 b. No cost sharing shall be applied to these services. In
 addition to other services that are covered for pregnant women, 12VAC30-50-510
 also provides for other smoking cessation services that are covered for
 pregnant women.
 
 4. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined in
 accordance with § 1905(a)(4)(A) of the Social Security Act (the
 Act) to be in need of such care.
 
 5. Hospice care (in accordance with § 1905(o) of the
 Act).
 
 6. Any other medical care or any other type of remedial care
 recognized under state law, specified by the secretary U.S. Secretary
 of Health and Human Services, including: care and services provided in
 religious nonmedical health care institutions;, skilled nursing
 facility services for patients under younger than 21 years of age;,
 and emergency hospital services.
 
 7. Private health insurance premiums, coinsurance and
 deductibles when cost effective (pursuant to Pub. L. P.L. No.
 101-508 § 4402).
 
 8. Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE)
 services are provided for eligible individuals as an optional State Plan service
 for medically needy individuals without limitation. 
 
 9. Inpatient psychiatric facility services and residential
 psychiatric treatment services (including therapeutic group homes and
 psychiatric residential treatment facilities) for individuals younger than 21
 years of age.
 
 12VAC30-50-70. Services or devices not provided to the
 medically needy. 
 
 1. Chiropractors' Chiropractor services. 
 
 2. Private duty nursing services. 
 
 3. Dentures. 
 
 4. Diagnostic or preventive services other than those provided
 elsewhere in the State Plan. 
 
 5. Inpatient hospital services, skilled nursing facility
 services, and intermediate care facility services for individuals age 65
 years of age or older in institutions for mental disease(s) diseases.
 
 
 6. Intermediate care facility services (other than such
 services in an institution for mental diseases) for persons determined in
 accordance with § 1905(a)(4)(A) of the Social Security Act (the Act),
 to be in need of such care in a public institution, or a distinct part thereof,
 for the mentally retarded or persons with intellectual or
 developmental disability or related conditions. 
 
 7. Inpatient psychiatric facility services for individuals
 under 21 years of age, other than those covered under early and periodic
 screening, diagnosis, and treatment (at 12VAC30-50-130). (Reserved.)
 
 8. Special tuberculosis (TB) services under §
 1902(z)(2)(F) of the Act. 
 
 9. Respiratory care services (in accordance with § 1920(e)(9)(A)
 through (C) of the Act). 
 
 10. Ambulatory prenatal care for pregnant women furnished
 during a presumptive eligibility period by a qualified provider (in accordance
 with § 1920 of the Act). 
 
 11. Personal care services in a recipient's home, prescribed
 in accordance with a plan of treatment and provided by a qualified person under
 supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 12. Home and community care for functionally disabled elderly
 individuals, as defined, described and limited in 12VAC30-50-460 and
 12VAC30-50-470. 
 
 13. Personal care services furnished to an individual who is
 not an inpatient or resident of a hospital, nursing facility, intermediate care
 facility for the mentally retarded intellectually or developmentally
 disabled persons, or institution for mental disease that are (i) authorized
 for the individual by a physician in accordance with a plan of treatment, (ii)
 provided by an individual who is qualified to provide such services and who is
 not a member of the individual's family, and (iii) furnished in a home. 
 
 12VAC30-50-130. Nursing facility services, EPSDT, including
 school health services, and family planning.
 
 A. Nursing facility services (other than services in an
 institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
 
 Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
 performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
 arts.
 
 B. Early General provisions for early and
 periodic screening and, diagnosis, and treatment (EPSDT)
 of individuals younger than 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions
 found.
 
 1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
 behalf of individuals younger than 21 years of age, who are Medicaid
 eligible, for medically necessary stays in acute care facilities,
 and the accompanying attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per
 admission when such services are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and
 treatment of health conditions identified through a physical examination.
 
 2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
 through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
 physician's office are covered for foster children of the local departments
 of social services departments on specific referral from those
 departments.
 
 3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
 necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
 evaluation. The department DMAS shall place appropriate
 utilization controls upon this service.
 
 4. Consistent with § 6403 of the Omnibus Budget
 Reconciliation Act of 1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic,
 and treatment services means the following services: screening services, vision
 services, dental services, hearing services, and such other necessary health
 care, diagnostic services, treatment, and other measures described in Social
 Security Act § 1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and
 mental illnesses and conditions discovered by the screening services and that
 are medically necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the
 State Plan and notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages
 21 years of age and older, provided for by § 1905(a) of the Social
 Security Act.
 
 5. C. Community mental health services provided
 through early and periodic screening diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age. These services in order to be
 covered (i) shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by
 LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii) are
 shall be reflected in provider records and on providers' provider
 claims for services by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are
 consistent with the requested professional services. 
 
 a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
 when used in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context
 clearly indicates otherwise:
 
 "Activities of daily living" means personal care
 activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
 and eating.
 
 "Adolescent or child" means the individual
 receiving the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of
 these terms this term, adolescent means an individual 12 through
 20 years of age; a child means an individual from birth up to 12 years of
 age. 
 
 "Behavioral health service" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Behavioral health services administrator" or
 "BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
 benefits program under contract with DMAS. 
 
 "Care coordination" means the collaboration
 and sharing of information among health care providers, who are involved
 with an individual's health care, to improve the care. 
 
 "Caregiver" means the same as defined
 in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
 local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
 who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
 completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
 Health and Developmental Services.
 
 "Clinical experience" means providing direct
 behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
 part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
 and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
 field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
 in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
 community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
 younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
 (Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
 practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
 hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
 established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
 Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013. 
 
 "Child" means an individual ages birth through 11
 years.
 
 "DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
 and Developmental Services.
 
 "Direct supervisor" means the person who provides
 direct supervision to the peer recovery specialist. The direct supervisor (i)
 shall have two consecutive years of documented practical experience rendering
 peer support services or family support services, have certification training
 as a PRS under a certifying body approved by DBHDS, and have documented
 completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; (ii) shall be a qualified
 mental health professional (QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E) as defined in 12VAC35-105-20
 with at least two consecutive years of documented experience as a QMHP, and who
 has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; or (iii) shall
 be an LMHP who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training
 who is acting within his scope of practice under state law. An LMHP providing
 services before April 1, 2018, shall have until April 1, 2018, to complete the
 DBHDS PRS supervisor training.
 
 "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services and its contractors.
 
 "EPSDT" means early and periodic screening,
 diagnosis, and treatment.
 
 "Family support partners" means the same as defined
 in 12VAC30-130-5170.
 
 "Human services field" means the same as the term is
 defined by DBHDS the Department of Health Professions in the
 document entitled Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018.
 
 "Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
 the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226. 
 
 "Licensed mental health professional" or
 "LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
 as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
 professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
 therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
 practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
 practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
 "Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their signatures
 to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
 means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
 psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
 for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
 functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
 supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
 preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
 Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
 they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
 signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
 "LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
 "supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
 social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
 compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
 18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
 considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
 duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title
 "Supervisee in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such
 status. 
 
 "Peer recovery specialist" or "PRS" means
 the same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Person centered" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Progress notes" means individual-specific
 documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
 individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
 contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
 the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
 minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
 staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
 progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
 include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
 service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
 service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
 or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
 note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
 documented for each service that is billed.
 
 "Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
 education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
 members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
 illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
 illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
 strategies. 
 
 "Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
 interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
 emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
 individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
 illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
 skills.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-child" or
 "QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
 "QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
 consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590 including a
 "QMHP-trainee" as defined by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
 "QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
 12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
 
 "Recovery-oriented services" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Resiliency" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Self-advocacy" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the
 face-to-face interaction in which the provider obtains information from the
 child or adolescent, and parent or other family member as appropriate, about
 the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It includes documented
 history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health care problems
 and issues and shall contain all of the following elements: (i) the presenting issue/reason
 issue or reason for referral, (ii) mental health
 history/hospitalizations, (iii) previous interventions by providers and
 timeframes and response to treatment, (iv) medical profile, (v) developmental
 history including history of abuse, if appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational
 educational or vocational status, (vii) current living situation and
 family history and relationships, (viii) legal status, (ix) drug and alcohol
 profile, (x) resources and strengths, (xi) mental status exam and profile,
 (xii) diagnosis, (xiii) professional summary and clinical formulation, (xiv)
 recommended care and treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. 
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-850.
 
 "Strength-based" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Supervision" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 b. 2. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age shall be time-limited
 interventions provided in the individual's residence and when clinically
 necessary in community settings. All interventions and the settings of the
 intervention shall be defined in the Individual Service Plan. All IIH services
 shall be designed to specifically improve family dynamics, and
 provide modeling, and the clinically necessary interventions that
 increase functional and therapeutic interpersonal relations between family
 members in the home. IIH services are designed to promote psychoeducational
 benefits of psychoeducation in the home setting of an individual who is
 at risk of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who is being
 transitioned to home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented medical
 need of the individual. These services provide crisis treatment; individual and
 family counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to assist the
 individual and his the individual's parents or guardians, as
 appropriate, to understand and practice appropriate problem solving, anger
 management, and interpersonal interaction, etc.); care coordination with other
 required services; and 24-hour emergency response. 
 
 (1) a. Service authorization shall be required
 for Medicaid reimbursement prior to the onset of services. Services rendered
 before the date of authorization shall not be reimbursed.
 
 (2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall
 be required prior to the start of services at the onset of services and
 ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of services. Services based
 upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs
 shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider
 intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
 
 (3) c. These services may shall
 only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C,
 or a QMHP-E.
 
 c. 3. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be
 provided two or more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic
 interventions (a unit is defined in 12VAC30-60-61 D 11). Day treatment
 programs provide evaluation; medication education and management; opportunities
 to learn and use daily living skills and to enhance social and interpersonal
 skills (e.g., problem solving, anger management, community responsibility,
 increased impulse control, and appropriate peer relations, etc.); and
 individual, group, and family counseling. 
 
 (1) a. Service authorization shall be required
 for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 (2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall be
 required at prior to the onset start of services,
 and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of services. Services
 based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes
 or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific
 provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
 
 (3) c. These services may shall be
 rendered only by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or
 a QMHP-E.
 
 d. Community-based services for children and adolescents
 younger than 21 years of age (Level A) pursuant to 42 CFR 440.031(d).
 
 (1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
 services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
 provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
 supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
 attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
 service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
 demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
 mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the
 community. The service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's
 condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
 The application of a national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in
 use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an
 equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this
 service.
 
 (2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
 receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 (3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
 other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
 
 (4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid
 reimbursement. Services that were rendered before the date of service authorization
 shall not be reimbursed. 
 
 (5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS
 shall reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no
 more than 16 beds.
 
 (6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
 Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
 Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
 Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Regulation Governing Juvenile
 Group Homes and Halfway Houses (6VAC35-41), or Regulations for Children's
 Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
 
 (7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
 psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
 include development or maintenance of daily living skills, anger management,
 social skills, family living skills, communication skills, stress management,
 and any care coordination activities. 
 
 (8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
 other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
 medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
 contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
 
 (9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
 the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
 services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
 provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
 intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
 
 (10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 D. Therapeutic group home services and psychiatric
 residential treatment facility (PRTF) services for early and periodic screening
 diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age.
 
 1. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this subsection shall have the following meanings:
 
 "Active treatment" means implementation of an
 initial plan of care (IPOC) and comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 
 "Assessment" means the face-to-face interaction
 by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S to obtain information from the child or
 adolescent and parent, guardian, or other family member, as appropriate, utilizing
 a tool or series of tools to provide a comprehensive evaluation and review of
 the child's or adolescent's mental health status. The assessment shall include
 a documented history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health
 problems and behavioral and emotional issues.
 
 "Certificate of need" or "CON" means a
 written statement by an independent certification team that services in a
 therapeutic group home or PRTF are or were needed. 
 
 "Combined treatment services" means a structured,
 therapeutic milieu and planned interventions that promote (i) the development
 or restoration of adaptive functioning, self-care, and social skills; (ii)
 community integrated activities and community living skills that each
 individual requires to live in less restrictive environments; (iii) behavioral
 consultation; (iv) individual and group therapy; (v) skills restoration, the
 restoration of coping skills, family living and health awareness, interpersonal
 skills, communication skills, and stress management skills; (vi) family
 education and family therapy; and (vii) individualized treatment planning.
 
 "Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
 "CIPOC" means a person centered plan of care that meets all of the
 requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
 information gathered during the referral process.
 
 "Crisis" means a deteriorating or unstable
 situation that produces an acute, heightened emotional, mental, physical,
 medical, or behavioral event.
 
 "Crisis management" means immediately provided
 activities and interventions designed to rapidly manage a crisis. The
 activities and interventions include behavioral health care to provide
 immediate assistance to individuals experiencing acute behavioral health
 problems that require immediate intervention to stabilize and prevent harm and
 higher level of acuity. Activities shall include assessment and short-term
 counseling designed to stabilize the individual. Individuals are referred to
 long-term services once the crisis has been stabilized.
 
 "Daily supervision" means the supervision
 provided in a PRTF through a resident-to-staff ratio approved by the Office of
 Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
 with documented supervision checks every 15 minutes throughout a 24-hour
 period.
 
 "Discharge planning" means family and
 locality-based care coordination that begins upon admission to a PRTF or
 therapeutic group home with the goal of transitioning the individual out of the
 PRTF or therapeutic group home to a less restrictive care setting with
 continued, clinically-appropriate, and possibly intensive, services as soon as
 possible upon discharge. Discharge plans shall be recommended by the treating physician,
 psychiatrist, or treating LMHP responsible for the overall supervision of the
 plan of care and shall be approved by the DMAS contractor.
 
 "DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association.
 
 "Emergency admissions" means those admissions
 that are made when, pending a review for the certificate of need, it appears
 that the individual is in need of an immediate admission to a therapeutic group
 home or PRTF and likely does not meet the medical necessity criteria to receive
 crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, or acute psychiatric inpatient
 services. 
 
 "Emergency services" means unscheduled and
 sometimes scheduled crisis intervention, stabilization, acute psychiatric inpatient
 services, and referral assistance provided over the telephone or face-to-face
 if indicated, and available 24 hours a day, seven days per week.
 
 "Family engagement" means a family-centered and
 strengths-based approach to partnering with families in making decisions,
 setting goals, achieving desired outcomes, and promoting safety, permanency,
 and well-being for children, adolescents, and families. Family engagement
 requires ongoing opportunities for an individual to build and maintain
 meaningful relationships with family members, for example, frequent,
 unscheduled, and noncontingent telephone calls and visits between an individual
 and family members. Family engagement may also include enhancing or
 facilitating the development of the individual's relationship with other family
 members and supportive adults responsible for the individual's care and
 well-being upon discharge.
 
 "Family engagement activity" means an
 intervention consisting of family psychoeducational training or coaching,
 transition planning with the family, family and independent living skills, and
 training on accessing community supports as identified in the plan of care.
 Family engagement activity does not include and is not the same as family
 therapy.
 
 "Family therapy" means counseling services
 involving the individual's family and significant others to advance the
 treatment goals when (i) the counseling with the family member and significant
 others is for the direct benefit of the individual, (ii) the counseling is not
 aimed at addressing treatment needs of the individual's family or significant
 others, and (iii) the individual is present except when it is clinically
 appropriate for the individual to be absent in order to advance the
 individual's treatment goals. Family therapy shall be aligned with the goals of
 the individual's plan of care. All family therapy services furnished are for
 the direct benefit of the individual, in accordance with the individual's needs
 and treatment goals identified in the individual's plan of care, and for the
 purpose of assisting in the individual's recovery.
 
 "FAPT" means the family assessment and planning
 team.
 
 "ICD-10" means International Statistical
 Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th Revision,
 published by the World Health Organization. 
 
 "Independent certification team" means a team
 that has competence in diagnosis and treatment of mental illness, preferably in
 child psychiatry; has knowledge of the individual's situation; and is composed
 of at least one physician and one LMHP. The independent certification team
 shall be a DMAS-authorized contractor with contractual or employment
 relationships with the required team members. 
 
 "Individual" means the child or adolescent
 younger than 21 years of age who is receiving therapeutic group home or PRTF
 services.
 
 "Individual and group therapy" means the
 application of principles, standards, and methods of the counseling profession
 in (i) conducting assessments and diagnosis for the purpose of establishing
 treatment goals and objectives and (ii) planning, implementing, and evaluating
 plans of care using treatment interventions to facilitate human development and
 to identify and remediate mental, emotional, or behavioral disorders and
 associated distresses that interfere with mental health. 
 
 "Initial plan of care" or "IPOC" means
 a person centered plan of care established at admission that meets all of the
 requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
 information gathered during the referral process.
 
 "Intervention" means scheduled therapeutic
 treatment such as individual or group psychoeducation; skills restoration;
 structured behavior support and training activities; recreation, art, and music
 therapies; community integration activities that promote or assist in the
 child's or adolescent's ability to acquire coping and functional or
 self-regulating behavior skills; day and overnight passes; and family
 engagement activities. Interventions shall not include individual, group, and
 family therapy; medical or dental appointments; or physician services,
 medication evaluation, or management provided by a licensed clinician or
 physician and shall not include school attendance. Interventions shall be provided
 in the therapeutic group home or PRTF and, when clinically necessary, in a
 community setting or as part of a therapeutic pass. All interventions and
 settings of the intervention shall be established in the plan of care.
 
 "Plan of care" means the initial plan of care
 (IPOC) and the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 
 "Physician" means an individual licensed to
 practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in Virginia, as defined in § 54.1-2900
 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" or
 "PRTF" means the same as defined in 42 CFR 483.352 and is a 24-hour,
 supervised, clinically and medically necessary, out-of-home active treatment
 program designed to provide necessary support and address mental health,
 behavioral, substance abuse, cognitive, and training needs of an individual
 younger than 21 years of age in order to prevent or minimize the need for more
 intensive treatment.
 
 "Recertification" means a certification for each
 applicant or recipient for whom therapeutic group home or PRTF services are
 needed. 
 
 "Room and board" means a component of the total
 daily cost for placement in a licensed PRTF. Residential room and board costs
 are maintenance costs associated with placement in a licensed PRTF and include
 a semi-private room, three meals and two snacks per day, and personal care
 items. Room and board costs are reimbursed only for PRTF settings. 
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means
 services including physician and other health care services that are furnished
 to children while they are in a freestanding psychiatric hospital or PRTF that
 are billed by the arranged practitioners separately from the freestanding
 psychiatric hospital's or PRTF's per diem.
 
 "Skills restoration" means a face-to-face service
 to assist individuals in the restoration of lost skills that are necessary to
 achieve the goals established in the beneficiary's plan of care. Services
 include assisting the individual in restoring self-management, interpersonal,
 communication, and problem solving skills through modeling, coaching, and
 cueing.
 
 "Therapeutic group home" means a congregate
 residential service providing 24-hour supervision in a community-based home
 having eight or fewer residents. 
 
 "Therapeutic pass" means time at home or
 time with family consisting of partial or entire days of time away from the
 therapeutic group home or psychiatric residential treatment facility as
 clinically indicated in the plan of care and as paired with facility-based and
 community-based interventions to promote discharge planning, community
 integration, and family engagement activities. Therapeutic passes are not
 recreational but are a therapeutic component of the plan of care and are
 designed for the direct benefit of the individual.
 
 "Treatment planning" means development of a
 person centered plan of care that is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels.
 
 e. 2. Therapeutic behavioral group
 home services (Level B) pursuant to 42 CFR 440.130(d).
 
 (1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in
 a residential setting. The residential services will provide structure for
 daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination,
 and psychiatric treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health
 goals as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
 qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
 arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that
 results in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the
 home, school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be
 expected to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the
 services will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized
 set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
 InterQual ® Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS
 shall be required for this service.
 
 (2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
 be reimbursed. 
 
 (3) a. Therapeutic group home services for children
 and adolescents younger than 21 years of age shall provide therapeutic services
 to restore or maintain appropriate skills necessary to promote prosocial
 behavior and healthy living, including skills restoration, family living and
 health awareness, interpersonal skills, communication skills, and stress
 management skills. Therapeutic services shall also engage families and reflect
 family-driven practices that correlate to sustained positive outcomes
 post-discharge for youth and their family members. Each component of
 therapeutic group home services is provided for the direct benefit of the
 individual, in accordance with the individual's needs and treatment goals
 identified in the individual's plan of care, and for the purpose of assisting
 in the individual's recovery. These services are provided under 42 CFR
 440.130(d) in accordance with the rehabilitative services benefit.
 
 b. The plan of care shall include individualized
 activities, including a minimum of one intervention per 24-hour period in
 addition to individual, group, and family therapies. Daily interventions are
 not required when there is documentation to justify clinical or medical reasons
 for the individual's deviations from the plan of care. Interventions shall be
 documented on a progress note and shall be outlined in and aligned with the
 treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC and CIPOC. Any deviation from the
 plan of care shall be documented along with a clinical or medical justification
 for the deviation. 
 
 c. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
 therapeutic group home. The following requirements for severity of need and
 intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity
 criteria for admission.
 
 (1) Severity of need required for admission. All of the
 following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
 
 (a) The individual's behavioral health condition can only
 be safely and effectively treated in a 24-hour therapeutic milieu with onsite
 behavioral health therapy due to significant impairments in home, school, and
 community functioning caused by current mental health symptoms consistent with
 a DSM-5 diagnosis. 
 
 (b) The certificate of need must demonstrate all of the
 following: (i) ambulatory care resources (all available modalities of treatment
 less restrictive than inpatient treatment) available in the community do not
 meet the treatment needs of the individual; (ii) proper treatment of the
 individual's psychiatric condition requires services on an inpatient basis
 under the direction of a physician; and (iii) the services can reasonably be
 expected to improve the individual's condition or prevent further regression so
 that the services will no longer be needed.
 
 (c) The state uniform assessment tool shall be completed.
 The assessment shall demonstrate at least two areas of moderate impairment in
 major life activities. A moderate impairment is defined as a major or
 persistent disruption in major life activities. A moderate impairment is
 evidenced by, but not limited to (i) frequent conflict in the family setting
 such as credible threats of physical harm, where "frequent" means
 more than expected for the individual's age and developmental level; (ii)
 frequent inability to accept age-appropriate direction and supervision from
 caretakers, from family members, at school, or in the home or community; (iii)
 severely limited involvement in social support, which means significant
 avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of existing
 relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions; (iv)
 impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at least one caretaker in
 the home, school, or community; (v) limited ability to consider the effect of
 one's inappropriate conduct on others; and (vi) interactions consistently
 involving conflict, which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
 
 (d) Less restrictive community-based services have been
 given a fully adequate trial and were unsuccessful or, if not attempted, have
 been considered, but in either situation were determined to be unable to meet
 the individual's treatment needs and the reasons for that are discussed in the certificate
 of need.
 
 (e) The individual's symptoms, or the need for treatment in
 a 24 hours a day, seven days a week level of care (LOC), are not primarily due
 to any of the following: (i) intellectual disability, developmental disability,
 or autistic spectrum disorder; (ii) organic mental disorders, traumatic brain
 injury, or other medical condition; or (iii) the individual does not require a
 more intensive level of care.
 
 (f) The individual does not require primary medical or
 surgical treatment.
 
 (2) Intensity and quality of service necessary for
 admission. All of the following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria
 for intensity and quality of service:
 
 (a) The therapeutic group home service has been prescribed
 by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or other LMHP who has documented that a
 residential setting is the least restrictive clinically appropriate service
 that can meet the specifically identified treatment needs of the individual.
 
 (b) The therapeutic group home is not being used for
 clinically inappropriate reasons, including (i) an alternative to incarceration
 or preventative detention; (ii) an alternative to a parent's, guardian's, or
 agency's capacity to provide a place of residence for the individual; or (iii)
 a treatment intervention when other less restrictive alternatives are
 available.
 
 (c) The individual's treatment goals are included in the
 service specific provider intake and include behaviorally defined objectives
 that require and can reasonably be achieved within a therapeutic group home setting.
 
 (d) The therapeutic group home is required to coordinate
 with the individual's community resources, including schools and FAPT as
 appropriate, with the goal of transitioning the individual out of the program
 to a less restrictive care setting for continued, sometimes intensive, services
 as soon as possible and appropriate.
 
 (e) The therapeutic group home program must incorporate
 nationally established, evidence-based, trauma-informed services and supports
 that promote recovery and resiliency. 
 
 (f) Discharge planning begins upon admission, with concrete
 plans for the individual to transition back into the community beginning within
 the first week of admission, with clear action steps and target dates outlined
 in the plan of care.
 
 (3) Continued stay criteria. The following criteria shall
 be met in order to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
 
 (a) All of the admission guidelines continue to be met and
 continue to be supported by the written clinical documentation. 
 
 (b) The individual shall meet one of the following
 criteria: (i) the desired outcome or level of functioning has not been restored
 or improved in the timeframe outlined in the individual's plan of care or the
 individual continues to be at risk for relapse based on history or (ii) the
 nature of the functional gains is tenuous and use of less intensive services
 will not achieve stabilization.
 
 (c) The individual shall meet one of the following
 criteria: (i) the individual has achieved initial CIPOC goals, but additional
 goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower level of care; (ii) the
 individual is making satisfactory progress toward meeting goals but has not
 attained plan of care goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a lower level
 of care; (iii) the individual is not making progress, and the plan of care has
 been modified to identify more effective interventions; or (iv) there are
 current indications that the individual requires this level of treatment to
 maintain level of functioning as evidenced by failure to achieve goals identified
 for therapeutic visits or stays in a nontreatment residential setting or in a
 lower level of residential treatment. 
 
 (d) There is a written, up-to-date discharge plan that (i)
 identifies the custodial parent or custodial caregiver at discharge; (ii) identifies
 the school the individual will attend at discharge, if applicable; (iii)
 includes individualized education program (IEP) and FAPT recommendations, if
 necessary; (iv) outlines the aftercare treatment plan (discharge to another
 residential level of care is not an acceptable discharge goal); and (v) lists
 barriers to community reintegration and progress made on resolving these
 barriers since last review.
 
 (e) The active plan of care includes structure for combined
 treatment services and activities to ensure the attainment of therapeutic
 mental health goals as identified in the plan of care. Combined treatment
 services reinforce and practice skills learned in individual, group, and family
 therapy such as community integration skills, coping skills, family living and
 health awareness skills, interpersonal skills, and stress management skills.
 Combined treatment services may occur in group settings, in one-on-one
 interactions, or in the home setting during a therapeutic pass. In addition to
 the combined treatment services, the child or adolescent must also receive
 psychotherapy services, care coordination, family-based discharge planning, and
 locality-based transition activities. The child or adolescent shall receive
 intensive family interventions at least twice per month, although it is
 recommended that the intensive family interventions be provided at a frequency
 of one family therapy session per week. Family involvement begins immediately
 upon admission to therapeutic group home. If the minimum requirement cannot be
 met, the reasons must be reported, and continued efforts to involve family
 members must also be documented. Other family members or supportive adults may
 be included as indicated in the plan of care.
 
 (f) Less restrictive treatment options have been considered
 but cannot yet meet the individual's treatment needs. There is sufficient
 current clinical documentation or evidence to show that therapeutic group home
 level of care continues to be the least restrictive level of care that can meet
 the individual's mental health treatment needs.
 
 (4) Discharge shall occur if any of the following applies:
 (i) the level of functioning has improved with respect to the goals outlined in
 the plan of care, and the individual can reasonably be expected to maintain these
 gains at a lower level of treatment; (ii) the individual no longer benefits
 from service as evidenced by absence of progress toward plan of care goals for
 a period of 60 days; or (iii) other less intensive services may achieve
 stabilization.
 
 d. The following clinical activities shall be required for
 each therapeutic group home resident:
 
 (1) An assessment be performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
 or LMHP-S.
 
 (2) A face-to-face evaluation shall be performed by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30 calendar days prior to admission
 with a documented DSM-5 or ICD-10 diagnosis.
 
 (3) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
 independent certification team according to the requirements of subdivision D 4
 of this section. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 calendar days by
 an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S acting within his scope of practice.
 
 (4) An IPOC that is specific to the individual's unique
 treatment needs and acuity levels. The IPOC shall be completed on the day of
 admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be signed by the
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual and a family member or
 legally authorized representative. The IPOC shall include all of the following:
 
 
 (a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
 that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
 strategies and treatment alliance; 
 
 (b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 (c) A description of the functional level of the
 individual; 
 
 (d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 (e) Orders for medications, psychiatric, medical, dental,
 and any special health care needs whether or not provided in the facilities,
 treatments, restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies,
 therapeutic passes, social services, community integration, diet, and special
 procedures recommended for the health and safety of the individual; 
 
 (f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; and 
 
 (g) Plans for discharge. 
 
 (5) A CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
 days after admission. The CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria: 
 
 (a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and shall reflect the need
 for therapeutic group home care; 
 
 (b) Be based on input from school, home, other health care
 providers, FAPT if necessary, the individual, and the family or legal guardian;
 
 
 (c) Shall state treatment objectives that include
 measurable short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 (d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; and 
 
 (e) Include a comprehensive discharge plan with necessary,
 clinically appropriate community services to ensure continuity of care upon
 discharge with the individual's family, school, and community. 
 
 (6) The CIPOC shall be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30
 calendar days by the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a
 family member or primary caregiver. Updates shall be signed and dated by the
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a family member or
 legally authorized representative. The review shall include all of the
 following: 
 
 (a) The individual's response to the services provided; 
 
 (b) Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall response to the CIPOC interventions; and 
 
 (c) Determinations regarding whether the services being
 provided continue to be required. 
 
 (7) Crisis management, clinical assessment, and
 individualized therapy shall be provided to address both behavioral health and
 substance use disorder needs as indicated in the plan of care to address
 intermittent crises and challenges within the therapeutic group home setting or
 community settings as defined in the plan of care and to avoid a higher level
 of care.
 
 (8) Care coordination shall be provided with medical,
 educational, and other behavioral health providers and other entities involved
 in the care and discharge planning for the individual as included in the plan
 of care.
 
 (9) Weekly individual therapy shall be provided in the
 therapeutic group home, or other settings as appropriate for the individual's
 needs, by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be documented in
 progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61. 
 
 (10) Weekly (or more frequently if clinically indicated)
 group therapy shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which
 shall be documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
 12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the plan of care.
 
 (11) Family treatment shall be provided as clinically
 indicated, provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, and documented in
 progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61 and as
 planned and documented in the plan of care.
 
 (12) Family engagement activities shall be provided in
 addition to family therapy or counseling. Family engagement activities shall be
 provided at least weekly as outlined in the plan of care, and daily
 communication with the family or legally authorized representative shall be
 part of the family engagement strategies in the plan of care. For each
 service authorization period when family engagement is not possible, the
 therapeutic group home shall identify and document the specific barriers to the
 individual's engagement with the individual's family or legally authorized
 representatives. The therapeutic group home shall document on a weekly basis
 the reasons why family engagement is not occurring as required. The therapeutic
 group home shall document alternative family engagement strategies to be used
 as part of the interventions in the plan of care and request approval of the
 revised plan of care by DMAS. When family engagement is not possible, the
 therapeutic group home shall collaborate with DMAS on a weekly basis to develop
 individualized family engagement strategies and document the revised strategies
 in the plan of care.
 
 (13) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
 indicated in the plan of care and as paired with facility-based and community-based
 interventions to promote discharge planning, community integration, and family
 engagement activities. 
 
 (a) The provider shall document how the family was prepared
 for the therapeutic pass to include a review of the plan of care goals and
 objectives being addressed by the planned interventions and the safety and
 crisis plan in effect during the therapeutic pass.
 
 (b) If a facility staff member does not accompany the
 individual on the therapeutic pass and the therapeutic pass exceeds 24 hours,
 the provider shall make daily contacts with the family and be available 24
 hours per day to address concerns, incidents, or crises that may arise during
 the pass.
 
 (c) Contact with the family shall occur within seven
 calendar days of the therapeutic pass to discuss the accomplishments and
 challenges of the therapeutic pass along with an update on progress toward plan
 of care goals and any necessary changes to the plan of care.
 
 (d) Twenty-four therapeutic passes shall be permitted per
 individual, per admission, without authorization as approved by the treating
 LMHP and documented in the plan of care. Additional therapeutic passes shall
 require service authorization. Any unauthorized therapeutic passes shall result
 in retraction for those days of service.
 
 (14) Discharge planning shall begin at admission and
 continue throughout the individual's stay at the therapeutic group home. The
 family or guardian, the community services board (CSB), the family assessment
 and planning team (FAPT) case manager, and the DMAS contracted care manager
 shall be involved in treatment planning and shall identify the anticipated
 needs of the individual and family upon discharge and available services in the
 community. Prior to discharge, the therapeutic group home shall submit an active
 and viable discharge plan to the DMAS contractor for review. Once the DMAS
 contractor approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin actively
 collaborating with the family or legally authorized representative and the
 treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
 appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The therapeutic
 group home shall request permission from the parent or legally authorized
 representative to share treatment information with these providers and shall
 share information pursuant to a valid release. The therapeutic group home shall
 request information from post-discharge providers to establish that the
 planning of pending services and transition planning activities has begun,
 shall establish that the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall
 provide individualized education program recommendations to the school if
 necessary. The therapeutic group home shall inform the DMAS contractor of all
 scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
 the DMAS contractor within one business day of the individual's discharge date
 from the therapeutic group home.
 
 (15) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed.
 Facilities that only provide independent living services or nonclinical
 services that do not meet the requirements of this subsection are not reimbursed
 eligible for reimbursement. DMAS shall reimburse only for services
 provided in facilities or programs with no more than 16 beds. 
 
 (4) These residential (16) Therapeutic group home
 services providers must shall be licensed by the Department
 of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the Regulations
 for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
 
 (5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
 seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
 programming must include development or maintenance of daily living skills,
 anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication skills,
 and stress management. This service may be provided in a program setting or a
 community-based group home. 
 
 (6) The individual must receive, at least weekly,
 individual psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is
 provided as part of the program. 
 
 (7) (17) Individuals shall be discharged from
 this service when treatment goals are met or other less intensive
 services may achieve stabilization.
 
 (8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
 the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
 services. (18) Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or
 outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs plans of care
 shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out
 in 12VAC30-60-61. 
 
 (9) These (19) Therapeutic group home services
 may only be rendered by and within the scope of practice of an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, 
 LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 (10) (20) The facility/group psychiatric
 residential treatment facility or therapeutic group home shall coordinate
 necessary services and discharge planning with other providers as
 medically and clinically necessary. Documentation of this care coordination
 shall be maintained by the facility/group facility or group home
 in the individual's record. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
 when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted, and
 recommended next steps.
 
 (21) Failure to perform any of the items described in this subsection
 shall result in a retraction of the per diem for each day of noncompliance. 
 
 3. PRTF services are a 24-hour, supervised, clinically and
 medically necessary out-of-home program designed to provide necessary support
 and address mental health, behavioral, substance use, cognitive, or other
 treatment needs of an individual younger than 21 years of age in order to
 prevent or minimize the need for more inpatient treatment. Active treatment and
 comprehensive discharge planning shall begin prior to admission. In order to be
 covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age, these services shall (i)
 meet DMAS-approved psychiatric medical necessity criteria or be approved as an
 EPSDT service based upon a diagnosis made by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S
 who is practicing within the scope of his license and (ii) be reflected in
 provider records and on the provider's claims for services by recognized
 diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested professional
 services. 
 
 a. PRTF services shall be covered for the purpose of
 diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders when such
 services are rendered by a psychiatric facility that is not a hospital and is
 accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
 Organizations, the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities,
 the Council on Accreditation of Services for Families and Children, or by any
 other accrediting organization with comparable standards that is recognized by
 the state.
 
 b. Providers of PRTF services shall be licensed by DBHDS. 
 
 c. PRTF services are reimbursable only when the treatment
 program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically
 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR 441.156 and (ii)
 the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G. Each admission
 must be service authorized, and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements for
 clinical necessity.
 
 d. The PRTF benefit for individuals younger than 21 years
 of age shall include services defined at 42 CFR 440.160 that are provided
 under the direction of a physician pursuant to a certification of medical
 necessity and plan of care developed by an interdisciplinary team of
 professionals and shall involve active treatment designed to achieve the
 child's discharge from PRTF services at the earliest possible time. The PRTF
 services benefit shall include services provided under arrangement furnished by
 Medicaid enrolled providers other than the PRTF, as long as the PRTF (i) arranges
 for and oversees the provision of all services, (ii) maintains all medical
 records of care furnished to the individual, and (iii) ensures that the
 services are furnished under the direction of a physician. Services provided
 under arrangement shall be documented by a written referral from the PRTF. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the facility who is licensed to prescribe drugs shall be
 considered the referral. 
 
 e. PRTFs, as defined at 42 CFR 483.352, shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these services: (i)
 medical and psychological services, including those furnished by physicians,
 licensed mental health professionals, and other licensed or certified health professionals
 (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists, respiratory therapists, and substance abuse
 treatment practitioners); (ii) pharmacy services; (iii) outpatient hospital
 services; (iv) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and therapy for
 individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (v) laboratory and
 radiology services; (vi) durable medical equipment; (vii) vision services;
 (viii) dental, oral surgery, and orthodontic services; (ix) nonemergency
 transportation services; and (x) emergency services. 
 
 f. PRTF services shall include assessment and
 reassessment; room and board; daily supervision; combined treatment services;
 individual, family, and group therapy; care coordination; interventions;
 general or special education; medical treatment (including medication,
 coordination of necessary medical services, and 24-hour onsite nursing);
 specialty services; and discharge planning that meets the medical and clinical
 needs of the individual.
 
 g. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a PRTF. The
 following requirements for severity of need and intensity and quality of
 service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity criteria for admission:
 
 (1) Severity of need required for admission. The following
 criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
 
 (a) There is clinical evidence that the individual has a
 DSM-5 disorder that is amenable to active psychiatric treatment.
 
 (b) There is a high degree of potential of the condition
 leading to acute psychiatric hospitalization in the absence of residential
 treatment.
 
 (c) Either (i) there is clinical evidence that the
 individual would be a risk to self or others if the individual were not in a
 PRTF or (ii) as a result of the individual's mental disorder, there is an
 inability for the individual to adequately care for his own physical needs, and
 caretakers, guardians, or family members are unable to safely fulfill these
 needs, representing potential serious harm to self.
 
 (d) The individual requires supervision seven days per
 week, 24 hours per day to develop skills necessary for daily living; to assist
 with planning and arranging access to a range of educational, therapeutic, and
 aftercare services; and to develop the adaptive and functional behavior that
 will allow the individual to live outside of a PRTF setting.
 
 (e) The individual's current living environment does not
 provide the support and access to therapeutic services needed.
 
 (f) The individual is medically stable and does not require
 the 24-hour medical or nursing monitoring or procedures provided in a hospital
 level of care.
 
 (2) Intensity and quality of service necessary for
 admission. The following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for
 intensity and quality of service:
 
 (a) The evaluation and assignment of a DSM-5 diagnosis must
 result from a face-to-face psychiatric evaluation.
 
 (b) The program provides supervision seven days per week,
 24 hours per day to assist with the development of skills necessary for daily
 living; to assist with planning and arranging access to a range of educational,
 therapeutic, and aftercare services; and to assist with the development of the
 adaptive and functional behavior that will allow the individual to live outside
 of a PRTF setting.
 
 (c) An individualized plan of active psychiatric treatment
 and residential living support is provided in a timely manner. This treatment
 must be medically monitored, with 24-hour medical availability and 24-hour
 nursing services availability. This plan includes (i) at least once-a-week
 psychiatric reassessments; (ii) intensive family or support system involvement
 occurring at least once per week or valid reasons identified as to why such a
 plan is not clinically appropriate or feasible; (iii) psychotropic medications,
 when used, are to be used with specific target symptoms identified; (iv)
 evaluation for current medical problems; (v) evaluation for concomitant
 substance use issues; and (vi) linkage or coordination with the individual's
 community resources, including the local school division and FAPT case manager,
 as appropriate, with the goal of returning the individual to his regular social
 environment as soon as possible, unless contraindicated. School contact should
 address an individualized educational plan as appropriate.
 
 (d) A urine drug screen is considered at the time of
 admission, when progress is not occurring, when substance misuse is suspected,
 or when substance use and medications may have a potential adverse interaction.
 After a positive screen, additional random screens are considered and referral
 to a substance use disorder provider is considered.
 
 (3) Criteria for continued stay. The following criteria
 shall be met to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
 
 (a) Despite reasonable therapeutic efforts, clinical
 evidence indicates at least one of the following: (i) the persistence of
 problems that caused the admission to a degree that continues to meet the
 admission criteria (both severity of need and intensity of service needs); (ii)
 the emergence of additional problems that meet the admission criteria (both severity
 of need and intensity of service needs); or (iii) that disposition planning or
 attempts at therapeutic reentry into the community have resulted in or would
 result in exacerbation of the psychiatric illness to the degree that would
 necessitate continued PRTF treatment. Subjective opinions without objective
 clinical information or evidence are not sufficient to meet severity of need
 based on justifying the expectation that there would be a decompensation.
 
 (b) There is evidence of objective, measurable, and
 time-limited therapeutic clinical goals that must be met before the individual
 can return to a new or previous living situation. There is evidence that
 attempts are being made to secure timely access to treatment resources and
 housing in anticipation of discharge, with alternative housing contingency
 plans also being addressed.
 
 (c) There is evidence that the plan of care is focused on
 the alleviation of psychiatric symptoms and precipitating psychosocial
 stressors that are interfering with the individual's ability to return to a
 less-intensive level of care.
 
 (d) The current or revised plan of care can be reasonably
 expected to bring about significant improvement in the problems meeting the
 criteria in subdivision 3 c (3) (a) of this subsection, and this is documented
 in weekly progress notes written and signed by the provider.
 
 (e) There is evidence of intensive family or support system
 involvement occurring at least once per week, unless there is an identified
 valid reason why it is not clinically appropriate or feasible.
 
 (f) A discharge plan is formulated that is directly linked
 to the behaviors or symptoms that resulted in admission and begins to identify
 appropriate post-PRTF resources including the local school division and FAPT
 case manager as appropriate.
 
 (g) All applicable elements in admission-intensity and
 quality of service criteria are applied as related to assessment and treatment
 if clinically relevant and appropriate.
 
 (4) Discharge criteria. Discharge shall occur if any of the
 following applies: (i) the level of functioning has improved with respect to
 the goals outlined in the plan of care, and the individual can reasonably be
 expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment; (ii) the
 individual no longer benefits from service as evidenced by absence of progress
 toward plan of care goals for a period of 30 days; or (iii) other less
 intensive services may achieve stabilization.
 
 h. The following clinical activities shall be required for
 each PRTF resident:
 
 (1) A face-to-face assessment shall be performed by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RS, or LMHP-S within 30 calendar days prior to admission and
 weekly thereafter and shall document a DSM-5 or ICD-10 diagnosis. 
 
 (2) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
 independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
 D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 30 calendar days by a physician
 acting within his scope of practice.
 
 (3) The initial plan of care (IPOC) shall be completed
 within 24 hours of admission by the treatment team. The IPOC shall
 include: 
 
 (a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
 that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
 strategies and treatment alliance; 
 
 (b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 (c) A description of the functional level of the
 individual;
 
 (d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 (e) Any orders for medications, psychiatric, medical,
 dental, and any special health care needs, whether or not provided in the
 facility; education or special education; treatments; interventions; and
 restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social
 services, diet, and special procedures recommended for the health and safety of
 the individual; 
 
 (f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; 
 
 (g) Plans for discharge; and 
 
 (h) Signature and date by the individual, parent, or
 legally authorized representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
 
 (4) The CIPOC shall be completed and signed no later than
 14 calendar days after admission by the treatment team. The PRTF shall request
 authorizations from families to release confidential information to collect
 information from medical and behavioral health treatment providers, schools,
 FAPT, social services, court services, and other relevant parties. This
 information shall be used when considering changes and updating the CIPOC. The
 CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria:
 
 (a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for PRTF care;
 
 (b) Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
 and other personnel specified in subdivision 3 d 4 of this subsection who are
 employed by or provide services to the individual in the facility in
 consultation with the individual, family member, or legally authorized
 representative, or appropriate others into whose care the individual will be
 released after discharge;
 
 (c) Shall state treatment objectives that shall include
 measurable, evidence-based, and short-term and long-term goals and objectives;
 family engagement activities; and the design of community-based aftercare with
 target dates for achievement;
 
 (d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 interventions, activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment
 objectives related to the individual and family treatment needs; and 
 
 (e) Describe comprehensive transition plans and
 coordination of current care and post-discharge plans with related community
 services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's
 family, school, and community.
 
 (5) The CIPOC shall be reviewed every 30 calendar days by
 the team specified in subdivision 3 d 4 of this subsection to determine that
 services being provided are or were required from a PRTF and to recommend
 changes in the plan as indicated by the individual's overall adjustment during
 the time away from home. The CIPOC shall include the signature and date from
 the individual, parent, or legally authorized representative, a physician, and
 treatment team members.
 
 (6) Individual therapy shall be provided three times
 per week (or more frequently based upon the individual's needs) provided by an
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the plan of care
 and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection and
 12VAC30-60-61.
 
 (7) Group therapy shall be provided as clinically indicated
 by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the plan of
 care and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection.
 
 (8) Family therapy shall be provided as clinically
 indicated by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the
 plan of care and progress notes in accordance with the individual and family or
 legally authorized representative's goals and the requirements in this
 subsection.
 
 (9) Family engagement shall be provided in addition to
 family therapy or counseling. Family engagement shall be provided at least
 weekly as outlined in the plan of care and daily communication with the
 treatment team representative and the treatment team representative and the family
 or legally authorized representative shall be part of the family engagement
 strategies in the plan of care. For each service authorization period when
 family engagement is not possible, the PRTF shall identify and document the
 specific barriers to the individual's engagement with his family or legally
 authorized representatives. The PRTF shall document on a weekly basis the
 reasons that family engagement is not occurring as required. The PRTF shall
 document alternate family engagement strategies to be used as part of the
 interventions in the plan of care and request approval of the revised plan of
 care by DMAS. When family engagement is not possible, the PRTF shall
 collaborate with DMAS on a weekly basis to develop individualized family
 engagement strategies and document the revised strategies in the plan of care.
 
 (10) Three interventions shall be provided per 24-hour
 period including nights and weekends. Family engagement activities are
 considered to be an intervention and shall occur based on the treatment and
 visitation goals and scheduling needs of the family or legally authorized
 representative. Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall
 be outlined in and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the plan
 of care. Any deviation from the plan of care shall be documented along with a
 clinical or medical justification for the deviation based on the needs of the
 individual. 
 
 (11) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
 indicated in the plan of care and as paired with community-based and
 facility-based interventions to promote discharge planning, community
 integration, and family engagement. Therapeutic passes include activities as
 listed in subdivision 2 d (13) of this section. Twenty-four therapeutic passes
 shall be permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as
 approved by the treating physician and documented in the plan of care.
 Additional therapeutic passes shall require service authorization from DMAS.
 Any unauthorized therapeutic passes not approved by the provider or DMAS shall
 result in retraction for those days of service.
 
 (12) Discharge planning shall begin at admission and
 continue throughout the individual's placement at the PRTF. The parent or
 legally authorized representative, the community services board (CSB), the
 family assessment planning team (FAPT) case manager, if appropriate, and the
 DMAS contracted care manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall
 identify the anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and
 identify the available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the PRTF
 shall submit an active discharge plan to the DMAS contractor for review. Once
 the DMAS contractor approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin
 collaborating with the parent or legally authorized representative and the
 treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
 appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The PRTF shall
 request written permission from the parent or legally authorized representative
 to share treatment information with these providers and shall share information
 pursuant to a valid release. The PRTF shall request information from
 post-discharge providers to establish that the planning of services and
 activities has begun, shall establish that the individual has been enrolled in
 school, and shall provide individualized education program recommendations to
 the school if necessary. The PRTF shall inform the DMAS contractor of all
 scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
 the DMAS contractor within one business day of the individual's discharge date
 from the PRTF.
 
 (13) Failure to perform any of the items as described in
 subdivisions 3 h (1) through 3 h (12) of this subsection up until the discharge
 of the individual shall result in a retraction of the per diem and all other
 contracted and coordinated service payments for each day of noncompliance. 
 
 i. The team developing the CIPOC shall meet the following
 requirements:
 
 (1) At least one member of the team must have expertise in
 pediatric behavioral health. Based on education and experience, preferably
 including competence in child or adolescent psychiatry, the team must be
 capable of all of the following: assessing the individual's immediate and
 long-range therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths
 and liabilities; assessing the potential resources of the individual's family
 or legally authorized representative; setting treatment objectives; and
 prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the CIPOC's objectives.
 
 (2) The team shall include one of the following: 
 
 (a) A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist; 
 
 (b) A licensed clinical psychologist and a physician
 licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or 
 
 (c) A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
 with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental diseases and a licensed clinical psychologist.
 
 (3) The team shall also include one of the following: an
 LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 4. Requirements for independent certification teams
 applicable to both therapeutic group homes and PRTFs:
 
 a. The independent certification team shall certify the
 need for PRTF or therapeutic group home services and issue a certificate of
 need document within the process and timeliness standards as approved by DMAS
 under contractual agreement with the DMAS contractor.
 
 b. The independent certification team shall be approved by
 DMAS through a memorandum of understanding with a locality or be approved under
 contractual agreement with the DMAS contractor. The team shall initiate and
 coordinate referral to the family assessment and planning team (FAPT) as
 defined in §§ 2.2-5207 and 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia to facilitate care
 coordination and for consideration of educational coverage and other supports
 not covered by DMAS.
 
 c. The independent certification team shall assess the
 individual's and family's strengths and needs in addition to diagnoses,
 behaviors, and symptoms that indicate the need for behavioral health treatment
 and also consider whether local resources and community-based care are
 sufficient to meet the individual's treatment needs, as presented within the
 previous 30 calendar days, within the least restrictive environment.
 
 d. The LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP, as
 part of the independent certification team, shall meet with an individual and
 the individual's parent or legally authorized representative within two business
 days from a request to assess the individual's needs and begin the process to
 certify the need for an out-of-home placement. 
 
 e. The independent certification team shall meet with an
 individual and the individual's parent or legally authorized representative
 within 10 business days from a request to certify the need for an out-of-home
 placement.
 
 f. The independent certification team shall assess the
 treatment needs of the individual to issue a certificate of need (CON) for the
 most appropriate medically necessary services. The certification shall include
 the dated signature and credentials for each of the team members who rendered
 the certification. Referring or treatment providers shall not actively
 participate during the certification process but may provide supporting
 clinical documentation to the certification team.
 
 g. The CON shall be effective for 30 calendar days prior to
 admission.
 
 h. The independent certification team shall provide the
 completed CON to the facility within one calendar day of completing the CON.
 
 i. The individual and the individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative shall have the right to freedom of choice of service
 providers.
 
 j. If the individual or the individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative disagrees with the independent certification team's
 recommendation, the parent or legally authorized representative may appeal the
 recommendation in accordance with 12VAC30-110. 
 
 k. If the LMHP, as part of the independent certification
 team, determines that the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
 LMHP shall refer the individual to an appropriate Medicaid-enrolled crisis
 intervention provider, crisis stabilization provider, or inpatient psychiatric
 provider in accordance with 12VAC30-50-226 or shall refer the individual for
 emergency admission to a PRTF or therapeutic group home under subdivision 4 m
 of this subsection and shall also alert the individual's managed care
 organization. 
 
 l. For individuals who are already eligible for Medicaid at
 the time of admission, the independent certification team shall be a
 DMAS-authorized contractor with competence in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental illness, preferably in child psychiatry, and have knowledge of the
 individual's situation and service availability in the individual's local
 service area. The team shall be composed of at least one physician and one
 LMHP, including LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP. An individual's parent or legally
 authorized representative shall be included in the certification process.
 
 m. For emergency admissions, an assessment must be made by
 the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
 Reimbursement shall only occur when a certificate of need is issued by the team
 responsible for the CIPOC within 14 calendar days after admission. The
 certification shall cover any period of time after admission and before claims
 are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. After processing an emergency
 admission, the therapeutic group home, PRTF, or institution for mental diseases
 (IMD) shall notify the DMAS contractor within five calendar days of the
 individual's status as being under the care of the facility. 
 
 n. For all individuals who apply and become eligible for
 Medicaid while an inpatient in a facility or program, the certification team
 shall refer the case to the DMAS contractor for referral to the local FAPT to
 facilitate care coordination and consideration of educational coverage and
 other supports not covered by DMAS.
 
 o. For individuals who apply and become eligible for
 Medicaid while an inpatient in the facility or program, the certification shall
 be made by the team responsible for the CIPOC and shall cover any period of
 time before the application for Medicaid eligibility for which claims are made
 for reimbursement by Medicaid. Upon the individual's enrollment into the
 Medicaid program, the therapeutic group home, PRTF, or IMD shall notify the
 DMAS contractor of the individual's status as being under the care of the
 facility within five calendar days of the individual becoming eligible for
 Medicaid benefits.
 
 5. Service authorization requirements applicable to both
 therapeutic group homes and PRTFs: 
 
 a. Authorization shall be required and shall be conducted
 by DMAS using medical necessity criteria specified in this subsection. 
 
 b. An individual shall have a valid psychiatric diagnosis
 and meet the medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to
 satisfy the criteria for admission. The diagnosis shall be current, as
 documented within the past 12 months. If a current diagnosis is not available,
 the individual will require a mental health evaluation prior to admission by an
 LMHP affiliated with the independent certification team to establish a
 diagnosis and recommend and coordinate referral to the available treatment
 options.
 
 c. At authorization, an initial length of stay shall be
 agreed upon by the individual and parent or legally authorized representative
 with the treating provider, and the treating provider shall be responsible for
 evaluating and documenting evidence of treatment progress, assessing the need
 for ongoing out-of-home placement, and obtaining authorization for continued
 stay.
 
 d. Information that is required to obtain authorization for
 these services shall include: 
 
 (1) A completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by DMAS; 
 
 (2) A certificate of need completed by an independent
 certification team specifying all of the following: 
 
 (a) The ambulatory care and Medicaid or FAPT-funded
 services available in the community do not meet the specific treatment needs of
 the individual; 
 
 (b) Alternative community-based care was not successful; 
 
 (c) Proper treatment of the individual's psychiatric
 condition requires services in a 24-hour supervised setting under the direction
 of a physician; and 
 
 (d) The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 individual's condition or prevent further regression so that a more intensive
 level of care will not be needed;
 
 (3) Diagnosis as defined in the DSM-5 and based on (i) an
 evaluation by a psychiatrist or LMHP that has been completed within 30 calendar
 days of admission or (ii) a diagnosis confirmed in writing by an LMHP after
 review of a previous evaluation completed within one year of admission;
 
 (4) A description of the individual's behavior during the
 seven calendar days immediately prior to admission;
 
 (5) A description of alternate placements and community
 mental health and rehabilitation services and traditional behavioral health
 services pursued and attempted and the outcomes of each service;
 
 (6) The individual's level of functioning and clinical
 stability;
 
 (7) The level of family involvement and supports available;
 and
 
 (8) The initial plan of care (IPOC).
 
 6. Continued stay criteria requirements applicable to both
 therapeutic group homes and PRTFs. For a continued stay authorization or a
 reauthorization to occur, the individual shall meet the medical necessity
 criteria as defined in this subsection to satisfy the criteria for continuing
 care. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by DMAS. A current
 plan of care and a current (within 30 calendar days) summary of progress
 related to the goals and objectives of the plan of care shall be submitted to
 DMAS for continuation of the service. The service provider shall also submit:
 
 a. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
 than 30 business days prior to the date of submission; 
 
 b. Documentation that the required services have been
 provided as defined in the plan of care; 
 
 c. Current (within the last 14 calendar days) information
 on progress related to the achievement of all treatment and discharge-related
 goals; and 
 
 d. A description of the individual's continued impairment
 and treatment needs, problem behaviors, family engagement activities,
 community-based discharge planning and care coordination, and need for a
 residential level of care. 
 
 7. EPSDT services requirements applicable to therapeutic
 group homes and PRTFs. Service limits may be exceeded based on medical
 necessity for individuals eligible for EPSDT. EPSDT services may involve
 service modalities not available to other individuals, such as applied
 behavioral analysis and neuro-rehabilitative services. Individualized services
 to address specific clinical needs identified in an EPSDT screening shall
 require authorization by a DMAS contractor. In unique EPSDT cases, DMAS may
 authorize specialized services beyond the standard therapeutic group home or
 PRTF medical necessity criteria and program requirements, as medically and
 clinically indicated to ensure the most appropriate treatment is available to
 each individual. Treating service providers authorized to deliver medically
 necessary EPSDT services in therapeutic group homes and PRTFs on behalf of a
 Medicaid-enrolled individual shall adhere to the individualized interventions
 and evidence-based progress measurement criteria described in the plan of care
 and approved for reimbursement by DMAS. All documentation, independent
 certification team, family engagement activity, therapeutic pass, and discharge
 planning requirements shall apply to cases approved as EPSDT PRTF or
 therapeutic group home service.
 
 8. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age for medically necessary stays in
 inpatient psychiatric facilities described in 42 CFR 440.160(b)(1) and (b)(2)
 for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral
 disorders identified under EPSDT when such services meet the requirements set
 forth in subdivision 7 of this subsection.
 
 a. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be provided under
 the direction of a physician. 
 
 b. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be provided by (i)
 a psychiatric hospital that undergoes a state survey to determine whether the
 hospital meets the requirements for participation in Medicare as a psychiatric
 hospital as specified in 42 CFR 482.60 or is accredited by a national
 organization whose psychiatric hospital accrediting program has been approved
 by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS); or (ii) a hospital
 with an inpatient psychiatric program that undergoes a state survey to
 determine whether the hospital meets the requirements for participation in
 Medicare as a hospital, as specified in 42 CFR part 482 or is accredited by a
 national accrediting organization whose hospital accrediting program has been
 approved by CMS.
 
 c. Inpatient psychiatric admissions at general acute care
 hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to the
 requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25.
 
 d. PRTF services are reimbursable only when the treatment
 program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically
 42 CFR 441.151(a) and 42 CFR 441.151 (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR
 441.156 and (ii) the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G.
 Each admission must be service authorized and the treatment must meet DMAS
 requirements for clinical necessity.
 
 e. The inpatient psychiatric benefit for individuals
 younger than 21 years of age shall include services that are provided pursuant
 to a certification of medical necessity and plan of care developed by an
 interdisciplinary team of professionals and shall involve active treatment
 designed to achieve the individual's discharge from inpatient status at the
 earliest possible time. The inpatient psychiatric benefit shall include
 services provided under arrangement furnished by Medicaid enrolled providers
 other than the inpatient psychiatric facility, as long as the inpatient
 psychiatric facility (i) arranges for and oversees the provision of all
 services, (ii) maintains all medical records of care furnished to the
 individual, and (iii) ensures that the services are furnished under the
 direction of a physician. Services provided under arrangement shall be
 documented by a written referral from the inpatient psychiatric facility. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the inpatient psychiatric facility who is licensed to prescribe
 drugs shall be considered the referral. 
 
 f. State freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order pharmacy services
 and emergency services. Private freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall
 arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order the
 following services: (i) medical and psychological services including those
 furnished by physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other
 licensed or certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists,
 respiratory therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii)
 outpatient hospital services; (iii) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and
 therapy for individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (iv)
 laboratory and radiology services; (v) vision services; (vi) dental, oral
 surgery, and orthodontic services; (vii) nonemergency transportation services;
 and (viii) emergency services. (Emergency services means the same as is set
 forth in 12VAC30-50-310 B.)
 
 f. E. Mental health family support partners.
 
 (1) 1. Mental health family support partners are
 peer recovery support services and are nonclinical, peer-to-peer activities
 that engage, educate, and support the caregiver and an individual's self-help
 efforts to improve health recovery resiliency and wellness. Mental health
 family support partners is a peer support service and is a strength-based,
 individualized service provided to the caregiver of a Medicaid-eligible
 individual younger than 21 years of age with a mental health disorder that is
 the focus of support. The services provided to the caregiver and individual
 must be directed exclusively toward the benefit of the Medicaid-eligible
 individual. Services are expected to improve outcomes for individuals younger
 than 21 years of age with complex needs who are involved with multiple systems
 and increase the individual's and family's confidence and capacity to manage
 their own services and supports while promoting recovery and healthy
 relationships. These services are rendered by a PRS who is (i) a parent of a
 minor or adult child with a similar mental health disorder or (ii) an adult
 with personal experience with a family member with a similar mental health
 disorder with experience navigating behavioral health care services. The PRS
 shall perform the service within the scope of his knowledge, lived experience,
 and education.
 
 (2) 2. Under the clinical oversight of the LMHP
 making the recommendation for mental health family support partners, the peer
 recovery specialist in consultation with his direct supervisor shall develop a
 recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan based on the LMHP's recommendation for
 service, the individual's and the caregiver's perceived recovery needs, and any
 clinical assessments or service specific provider intakes as defined in this
 section within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service. Development of
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall include collaboration with
 the individual and the individual's caregiver. Individualized goals and
 strategies shall be focused on the individual's identified needs for
 self-advocacy and recovery. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall
 also include documentation of how many days per week and how many hours per
 week are required to carry out the services in order to meet the goals of the
 plan. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall be completed, signed,
 and dated by the LMHP, the PRS, the direct supervisor, the individual, and the
 individual's caregiver within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service.
 The PRS shall act as an advocate for the individual, encouraging the individual
 and the caregiver to take a proactive role in developing and updating goals and
 objectives in the individualized recovery planning.
 
 (3) 3. Documentation of required activities
 shall be required as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5200 A, C, and E through J.
 
 (4) 4. Limitations and exclusions to service
 delivery shall be the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5210. 
 
 (5) 5. Caregivers of individuals younger than 21
 years of age who qualify to receive mental health family support partners shall
 (i) care for an individual with a mental health disorder who requires recovery
 assistance and (ii) meet two or more of the following:
 
 (a) a. Individual and his caregiver need
 peer-based recovery-oriented services for the maintenance of wellness and the
 acquisition of skills needed to support the individual. 
 
 (b) b. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance to develop self-advocacy skills to assist the individual in
 achieving self-management of the individual's health status. 
 
 (c) c. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance and support to prepare the individual for a successful work or
 school experience. 
 
 (d) d. Individual and his caregiver need
 assistance to help the individual and caregiver assume responsibility for
 recovery.
 
 (6) 6. Individuals 18 through, 19, and
 20 years of age who meet the medical necessity criteria in 12VAC30-50-226 B 7
 e, who would benefit from receiving peer supports directly and who choose to
 receive mental health peer support services directly instead of through their
 caregiver, shall be permitted to receive mental health peer support services by
 an appropriate PRS.
 
 (7) 7. To qualify for continued mental health
 family support partners, medical necessity criteria shall continue to be met,
 and progress notes shall document the status of progress relative to the goals
 identified in the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 (8) 8. Discharge criteria from mental health
 family support partners shall be the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5180 E.
 
 (9) 9. Mental health family support partners
 services shall be rendered on an individual basis or in a group.
 
 (10) 10. Prior to service initiation, a
 documented recommendation for mental health family support partners services shall
 be made by a licensed mental health professional (LMHP) who is acting within
 his scope of practice under state law. The recommendation shall verify that the
 individual meets the medical necessity criteria set forth in subdivision 5 of
 this subsection. The recommendation shall be valid for no longer than 30
 calendar days.
 
 (11) 11. Effective July 1, 2017, a peer recovery
 specialist shall have the qualifications, education, experience, and
 certification required by DBHDS in order to be eligible to register with the
 Virginia Board of Counseling on or after July 1, 2018. Upon the promulgation of
 regulations by the Board of Counseling, registration of peer recovery
 specialists by the Board of Counseling shall be required. The PRS shall perform
 mental health family support partners services under the oversight of the LMHP
 making the recommendation for services and providing the clinical oversight of
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 (12) 12. The PRS shall be employed by or have a
 contractual relationship with the enrolled provider licensed for one of the
 following: 
 
 (a) a. Acute care general and emergency
 department hospital services licensed by the Department of Health. 
 
 (b) b. Freestanding psychiatric hospital and
 inpatient psychiatric unit licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services.
 
 (c) c. Psychiatric residential treatment
 facility licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services.
 
 (d) d. Therapeutic group home licensed by the
 Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (e) e. Outpatient mental health clinic services
 licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (f) f. Outpatient psychiatric services provider.
 
 (g) g. A community mental health and rehabilitative
 services provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services as a provider of one of the following community mental
 health and rehabilitative services as defined in this section, 12VAC30-50-226,
 12VAC30-50-420, or 12VAC30-50-430 for which the individual younger than 21
 years meets medical necessity criteria: (i) intensive in home; (ii)
 therapeutic day treatment; (iii) day treatment or partial hospitalization; (iv)
 crisis intervention; (v) crisis stabilization; (vi) mental health skill
 building; or (vii) mental health case management.
 
 (13) 13. Only the licensed and enrolled provider
 as referenced in subdivision 5 f (12) 12 of this subsection shall
 be eligible to bill and receive reimbursement from DMAS or its contractor
 for mental health family support partner services. Payments shall not be
 permitted to providers that fail to enter into an enrollment agreement with
 DMAS or its contractor. Reimbursement shall be subject to retraction for
 any billed service that is determined not to be in compliance with DMAS
 requirements.
 
 (14) 14. Supervision of the PRS shall meet the
 requirements set forth in 12VAC30-50-226 B 7 l.
 
 6. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than age 21 for medically necessary stays in inpatient
 psychiatric facilities described in 42 CFR 440.160(b)(1) and (b)(2) for the
 purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders
 identified under EPSDT when such services are rendered by: (i) a psychiatric hospital
 or an inpatient psychiatric program in a hospital accredited by the Joint
 Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations or (ii) a psychiatric
 facility that is accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
 Healthcare Organizations or the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation
 Facilities. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general acute care
 hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to the
 requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient
 psychiatric admissions to residential treatment facilities shall also be
 subject to the requirements of Part XIV (12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount,
 Duration and Scope of Selected Services. 
 
 a. The inpatient psychiatric services benefit for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age shall include services defined at 42
 CFR 440.160 that are provided under the direction of a physician pursuant to a
 certification of medical necessity and plan of care developed by an
 interdisciplinary team of professionals and shall involve active
 treatment designed to achieve the child's discharge from inpatient status at
 the earliest possible time. The inpatient psychiatric services benefit shall
 include services provided under arrangement furnished by Medicaid enrolled
 providers other than the inpatient psychiatric facility, as long as the
 inpatient psychiatric facility (i) arranges for and oversees the provision of
 all services, (ii) maintains all medical records of care furnished to the
 individual, and (iii) ensures that the services are furnished under the
 direction of a physician. Services provided under arrangement shall be
 documented by a written referral from the inpatient psychiatric facility. For
 purposes of pharmacy services, a prescription ordered by an employee or
 contractor of the facility who is licensed to prescribe drugs shall be
 considered the referral. 
 
 b. Eligible services provided under arrangement with the
 inpatient psychiatric facility shall vary by provider type as described in this
 subsection. For purposes of this section, emergency services means the same as
 is set out in 12VAC30-50-310 B.
 
 (1) State freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall arrange
 for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these services: (i)
 pharmacy services and (ii) emergency services.
 
 (2) Private freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall
 arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians order these
 services: (i) medical and psychological services including those furnished by
 physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other licensed or
 certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists, respiratory
 therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii) outpatient
 hospital services; (iii) physical therapy, occupational therapy, and therapy
 for individuals with speech, hearing, or language disorders; (iv)
 laboratory and radiology services; (v) vision services; (vi) dental, oral
 surgery, and orthodontic services; (vii) transportation services; and (viii) emergency
 services. 
 
 (3) Residential treatment facilities, as defined at 42 CFR
 483.352, shall arrange for, maintain records of, and ensure that physicians
 order these services: (i) medical and psychological services, including those
 furnished by physicians, licensed mental health professionals, and other
 licensed or certified health professionals (i.e., nutritionists, podiatrists,
 respiratory therapists, and substance abuse treatment practitioners); (ii)
 pharmacy services; (iii) outpatient hospital services; (iv) physical therapy,
 occupational therapy, and therapy for individuals with speech, hearing, or
 language disorders; (v) laboratory and radiology services; (vi) durable medical
 equipment; (vii) vision services; (viii) dental, oral surgery, and orthodontic
 services; (ix) transportation services; and (x) emergency services. 
 
 c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only
 when the treatment program is fully in compliance with (i) 42 CFR Part 441
 Subpart D, specifically 42 CFR 441.151(a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42
 CFR 441.156, and (ii) the conditions of participation in 42 CFR Part 483
 Subpart G. Each admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet
 DMAS requirements for clinical necessity.
 
 d. Service limits may be exceeded based on medical
 necessity for individuals eligible for EPSDT.
 
 7. F. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when
 provided by practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or dealing
 in hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
 
 8. G. Addiction and recovery treatment services
 shall be covered under EPSDT consistent with 12VAC30-130-5000 et seq.
 
 9. H. Services facilitators shall be required
 for all consumer-directed personal care services consistent with the
 requirements set out in 12VAC30-120-935. 
 
 10. I. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age. 
 
 a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
 when used in this subsection shall have the following meanings unless the
 context clearly indicates otherwise:
 
 "Behavioral therapy" means systematic interventions
 provided by licensed practitioners acting within the scope of practice defined
 under a Virginia Department of Health Professions regulatory board and covered
 as remedial care under 42 CFR 440.130(d) to individuals younger than 21 years
 of age. Behavioral therapy includes applied behavioral analysis. Family
 training related to the implementation of the behavioral therapy shall be included
 as part of the behavioral therapy service. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 subject to clinical reviews and determined as medically necessary. Behavioral
 therapy may be provided in the individual's home and community settings as
 deemed by DMAS or its contractor as medically necessary treatment.
 
 "Counseling" means a professional mental health
 service that can only be provided by a person holding a license issued by a
 health regulatory board at the Department of Health Professions, which includes
 conducting assessments, making diagnoses of mental disorders and conditions,
 establishing treatment plans, and determining treatment interventions. 
 
 "Individual" means the child or adolescent younger
 than 21 years of age who is receiving behavioral therapy services.
 
 "Primary care provider" means a licensed medical
 practitioner who provides preventive and primary health care and is responsible
 for providing routine EPSDT screening and referral and coordination of other
 medical services needed by the individual.
 
 b. 2. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 designed to enhance communication skills and decrease maladaptive patterns of
 behavior, which if left untreated, could lead to more complex problems and the
 need for a greater or a more intensive level of care. The service goal shall be
 to ensure the individual's family or caregiver is trained to effectively manage
 the individual's behavior in the home using modification strategies. All
 services shall be provided in accordance with the ISP and clinical assessment summary.
 
 c. 3. Behavioral therapy services shall be
 covered when recommended by the individual's primary care provider or other
 licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or licensed nurse
 practitioner and determined by DMAS or its contractor to be medically
 necessary to correct or ameliorate significant impairments in major life
 activities that have resulted from either developmental, behavioral, or mental
 disabilities. Criteria for medical necessity are set out in 12VAC30-60-61 H
 F. Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the onset of
 these services in order to receive authorization for reimbursement. Individual
 service plans (ISPs) shall be required throughout the entire duration of
 services. The services shall be provided in accordance with the individual
 service plan and clinical assessment summary. These services shall be provided
 in settings that are natural or normal for a child or adolescent without a
 disability, such as the individual's home, unless there is justification in the
 ISP, which has been authorized for reimbursement, to include service settings
 that promote a generalization of behaviors across different settings to
 maintain the targeted functioning outside of the treatment setting in the
 individual's home and the larger community within which the individual resides.
 Covered behavioral therapy services shall include:
 
 (1) a. Initial and periodic service-specific
 provider intake as defined in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (2) b. Development of initial and updated ISPs
 as established in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (3) c. Clinical supervision activities.
 Requirements for clinical supervision are set out in 12VAC30-60-61 H F;
 
 (4) d. Behavioral training to increase the
 individual's adaptive functioning and communication skills; 
 
 (5) e. Training a family member in behavioral
 modification methods as established in 12VAC30-60-61 H F; 
 
 (6) f. Documentation and analysis of
 quantifiable behavioral data related to the treatment objectives; and
 
 (7) g. Care coordination.
 
 C. J. School health services.
 
 1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
 July 1, 2006.
 
 2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
 services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
 otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
 services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
 receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
 providers.
 
 a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
 receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
 reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
 
 b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
 individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
 service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
 services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
 illnesses or conditions.
 
 3. Providers shall be licensed under the applicable state
 practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department of
 Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part 440.
 Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions, and services
 necessary to correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners
 qualified to make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice,
 either as a member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the
 IEP team.
 
 a. Providers shall be employed by the school division or under
 contract to the school division. 
 
 b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in
 subdivision 4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal
 regulations and consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider
 manuals. 
 
 c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
 shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the
 community from other providers.
 
 d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
 control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456. 
 
 e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
 described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
 the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
 Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
 providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
 determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
 described as to the amount, duration and scope. 
 
 4. Covered services include:
 
 a. Physical therapy, and occupational therapy
 and services for individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders,
 performed by, or under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications
 set forth at 42 CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
 
 b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR
 440.60. These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing
 standards and criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are
 to be provided by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but
 may be delegated by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the
 regulations of the Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on
 delegation of nursing tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is
 under the supervision of a registered nurse. 
 
 (1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
 level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
 implementation, and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing
 services when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical
 nurse. These skilled nursing services shall include dressing changes,
 maintaining patent airways, medication administration/monitoring administration
 or monitoring, and urinary catheterizations. 
 
 (2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and
 specifically related to an active, written plan of care developed by a
 registered nurse that is based on a written order from a physician, physician
 assistant, or nurse practitioner for skilled nursing services. This
 order shall be recertified on an annual basis. 
 
 c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
 licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
 or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
 medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient services
 include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy coverage,
 and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and neuropsychological testing
 are allowed when done for purposes other than educational diagnosis, school
 admission, evaluation of an individual with intellectual or developmental
 disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any placement issue.
 These services are covered in the nonschool settings also. School providers who
 may render these services when licensed by the state include psychiatrists,
 licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists, licensed clinical social
 workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical nurse specialists,
 marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
 
 d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
 440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
 care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
 professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner
 professional develops a written plan for meeting the needs of the child
 individual, which is implemented by the assistant. The assistant must
 have qualifications comparable to those for other personal care aides
 recognized by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance Services. The
 assistant performs services such as assisting with toileting, ambulation, and
 eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a specially adapted school
 vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
 provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
 the IEP. Children Individuals requiring an aide during
 transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
 IEP.
 
 e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
 services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
 440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
 physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
 identify the nature or extent of a child's an individual's
 medical or other health related condition. 
 
 f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
 431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D (12VAC30-50-530).
 Transportation shall be rendered only by school division personnel or
 contractors. Transportation is covered for a child an individual
 who requires transportation on a specially adapted school vehicle that enables
 transportation to or from the school or school contracted provider on days when
 the student individual is receiving a Medicaid-covered service
 under the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's individual's
 IEP. Children Individuals requiring an aide during transportation
 on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the IEP. 
 
 g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
 the need for medical services in a child's an individual's IEP
 and shall be performed by any of the above licensed practitioners within the
 scope of practice. Assessments and reassessments not tied to medical needs of
 the child individual shall not be covered.
 
 5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
 duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
 responsibility to ensure that if a child an individual is
 receiving additional therapy outside of the school, that there will be
 coordination of services to avoid duplication of service. 
 
 D. K. Family planning services and supplies for
 individuals of child-bearing age.
 
 1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
 performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
 arts.
 
 2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
 that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
 services to treat infertility or services to promote fertility. Family planning
 services shall not cover payment for abortion services and no funds shall be
 used to perform, assist, encourage, or make direct referrals for abortions.
 
 3. Family planning services as established by § 1905(a)(4)(C)
 of the Social Security Act include annual family planning exams; cervical
 cancer screening for women; sexually transmitted infection (STI) testing; lab
 services for family planning and STI testing; family planning education,
 counseling, and preconception health; sterilization procedures; nonemergency
 transportation to a family planning service; and U.S. Food and Drug
 Administration approved prescription and over-the-counter contraceptives,
 subject to limits in 12VAC30-50-210.
 
 12VAC30-50-226. Community mental health services.
 
 A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
 indicates otherwise: 
 
 "Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"
 means personal care tasks such as bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring,
 and eating or feeding. An individual's degree of independence in performing
 these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care and service
 needs.
 
 "Affiliated" means any entity or property in which
 a provider or facility has a direct or indirect ownership interest of 5.0% or
 more, or any management, partnership, or control of an entity.
 
 "Behavioral health service" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Behavioral health services administrator" or
 "BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
 benefits program under contract with DMAS. DMAS' designated BHSA shall be
 authorized to constitute, oversee, enroll, and train a provider network;
 perform service authorization; adjudicate claims; process claims; gather and
 maintain data; reimburse providers; perform quality assessment and improvement;
 conduct member outreach and education; resolve member and provider issues; and
 perform utilization management including care coordination for the provision of
 Medicaid-covered behavioral health services. Such authority shall include
 entering into or terminating contracts with providers in accordance with DMAS
 authority pursuant to 42 CFR Part 1002 and § 32.1-325 D and E of the Code
 of Virginia. DMAS shall retain authority for and oversight of the BHSA entity
 or entities.
 
 "Certified prescreener" means an employee of either
 the local community services board/behavioral board or behavioral
 health authority or its designee who is skilled in the assessment and treatment
 of mental illness and who has completed a certification program approved by
 DBHDS. 
 
 "Clinical experience" means, for the purpose of
 rendering (i) mental health day treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii)
 intensive community treatment, (iii) psychosocial rehabilitation, (iv) mental
 health skill building, (v) crisis stabilization, or (vi) crisis intervention
 services, practical experience in providing direct services to individuals with
 diagnoses of mental illness or intellectual disability or the provision of
 direct geriatric services or special education services. Experience shall
 include supervised internships, supervised practicums, or supervised field
 experience. Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
 practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
 hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be
 established by DBHDS in the document titled Human Services and Related Fields
 Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
 
 "Code" means the Code of Virginia. 
 
 "DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
 and Developmental Services consistent with Chapter 3 (§ 37.2-300 et seq.)
 of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Direct supervisor" means the person who provides
 direct supervision to the peer recovery specialist. The direct supervisor (i)
 shall have two consecutive years of documented practical experience rendering
 peer support services or family support services, have certification training
 as a PRS under a certifying body approved by DBHDS, and have documented
 completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training; (ii) shall be a qualified
 mental health professional (QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E) as defined in
 12VAC35-105-20 with at least two consecutive years of documented experience as
 a QMHP, and who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS supervisor training;
 or (iii) shall be an LMHP who has documented completion of the DBHDS PRS
 supervisor training who is acting within his scope of practice under state law.
 An LMHP providing services before April 1, 2018, shall have until April 1,
 2018, to complete the DBHDS PRS supervisor training.
 
 "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services and its contractor or contractors consistent with Chapter 10 (§
 32.1-323 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 "DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
 of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association.
 
 "Human services field" means the same as the term
 is defined by DBHDS the Department of Health Professions in the
 guidance document entitled Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013. Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018.
 
 "Individual" means the patient, client, or
 recipient of services described in this section. 
 
 "Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
 a comprehensive and regularly updated treatment plan specific to the
 individual's unique treatment needs as identified in the service-specific
 provider intake. The ISP contains, but is not limited to, the individual's
 treatment or training needs, the individual's goals and measurable objectives
 to meet the identified needs, services to be provided with the recommended
 frequency to accomplish the measurable goals and objectives, the estimated
 timetable for achieving the goals and objectives, and an individualized
 discharge plan that describes transition to other appropriate services. The
 individual shall be included in the development of the ISP and the ISP shall be
 signed by the individual. If the individual is a minor child, the ISP
 shall also be signed by the individual's parent/legal parent or legal
 guardian. Documentation shall be provided if the individual, who is a minor
 child or an adult who lacks legal capacity, is unable or unwilling to sign the
 ISP.
 
 "Individualized training" means instruction and
 practice in functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
 individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living skills,
 and use of community resources; assistance with medical management; and
 monitoring health, nutrition, and physical condition. The training shall be
 rehabilitative and based on a variety of incremental (or cumulative) approaches
 or tools to organize and guide the individual's life planning and shall reflect
 what is important to the individual in addition to all other factors that
 affect his the individual's functioning, including effects of the
 disability and issues of health and safety.
 
 "Licensed mental health professional" or
 "LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the
 same as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
 professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
 therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
 practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
 practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
 services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
 "Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
 signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-resident in psychology" or
 "LMHP-RP" means the same as an individual in a residency, as that
 term is defined in 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An
 LMHP-resident in psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the
 regulatory requirements for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65
 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a
 "resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
 specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
 Psychology. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services
 provided by such residents, they shall use the title "Resident in
 Psychology" after their signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
 "LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
 "supervisee" is defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
 social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
 compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
 18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be considered
 a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at
 a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Social Work.
 For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for services
 provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title "Supervisee in
 Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such status.
 
 "Peer recovery specialist" or "PRS" means
 the same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Person centered" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-adult" or
 "QMHP-A" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-child" or
 "QMHP-C" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
 "QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in
 12VAC35-105-20, including a "QMHP-trainee" as defined by the
 Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
 "QPPMH" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 "Recovery-oriented services" means the same as
 defined in 12VAC30-130-5160. 
 
 "Recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan" means the
 same as defined in 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Register" or "registration" means
 notifying DMAS or its contractor that an individual will be receiving services
 that do not require service authorization.
 
 "Resiliency" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Review of ISP" means that the provider evaluates
 and updates the individual's progress toward meeting the individualized service
 plan objectives and documents the outcome of this review. For DMAS to determine
 that these reviews are satisfactory and complete, the reviews shall (i) update
 the goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP to reflect any change in the
 individual's progress and treatment needs as well as any newly identified
 problems; (ii) be conducted in a manner that enables the individual to
 participate in the process; and (iii) be documented in the individual's medical
 record no later than 15 calendar days from the date of the review. 
 
 "Self-advocacy" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Service authorization" means the process to
 approve specific services for an enrolled Medicaid, FAMIS Plus, or FAMIS
 individual by a DMAS service authorization contractor prior to service delivery
 and reimbursement in order to validate that the service requested is medically
 necessary and meets DMAS and DMAS contractor criteria for reimbursement.
 Service authorization does not guarantee payment for the service.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the same
 as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 and also includes individuals who are older than
 21 years of age.
 
 "Strength-based" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 "Supervision" means the same as defined in
 12VAC30-130-5160.
 
 B. Mental health services. The following services, with their
 definitions, shall be covered: day treatment/partial hospitalization,
 psychosocial rehabilitation, crisis services, intensive community treatment
 (ICT), and mental health skill building. Staff travel time shall not be
 included in billable time for reimbursement. These services, in order to be
 covered, shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by
 LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and are reflected
 in provider records and on providers' claims for services by recognized
 diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested professional
 services. These services are intended to be delivered in a person-centered
 person centered manner. The individuals who are receiving these services
 shall be included in all service planning activities. All services which do not
 require service authorization require registration. This registration shall
 transmit service-specific information to DMAS or its contractor in accordance
 with service authorization requirements. 
 
 1. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
 provided in sessions of two or more consecutive hours per day, which may be
 scheduled multiple times per week, to groups of individuals in a nonresidential
 setting. These services, limited annually to 780 units, include the major
 diagnostic, medical, psychiatric, psychosocial, and psychoeducational treatment
 modalities designed for individuals who require coordinated, intensive,
 comprehensive, and multidisciplinary treatment but who do not require inpatient
 treatment. One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two but less
 than four hours on a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as at
 least four but less than seven hours in a given day. Three units of service
 shall be defined as seven or more hours in a given day. Authorization is
 required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 a. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
 time limited interventions that are more intensive than outpatient services and
 are required to stabilize an individual's psychiatric condition. The services
 are delivered when the individual is at risk of psychiatric hospitalization or
 is transitioning from a psychiatric hospitalization to the community. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual is at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization or is transitioning from a psychiatric
 hospitalization to the community. 
 
 b. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
 emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
 life activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or homelessness or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that the individual
 requires repeated interventions or monitoring by the mental health, social
 services, or judicial system that have been documented; or
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 c. Individuals shall be discharged from this service when they
 are no longer in an acute psychiatric state and other less intensive services
 may achieve psychiatric stabilization. 
 
 d. Admission and services for time periods longer than 90
 calendar days must be authorized based upon a face-to-face evaluation by a
 physician, psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional
 counselor, licensed clinical social worker, or psychiatric clinical nurse
 specialist. 
 
 e. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 2. Psychosocial rehabilitation shall be provided at least two
 or more hours per day to groups of individuals in a nonresidential setting.
 These services, limited annually to 936 units, include assessment, education to
 teach the patient about the diagnosed mental illness and appropriate
 medications to avoid complication and relapse, and opportunities to learn and
 use independent living skills and to enhance social and interpersonal skills
 within a supportive and normalizing program structure and environment. One unit
 of service is defined as a minimum of two but less than four hours on a given
 day. Two units are defined as at least four but less than seven hours in a
 given day. Three units of service shall be defined as seven or more hours in a
 given day. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service.
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
 emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
 life activities. Services are provided to individuals: (i) who without
 these services would be unable to remain in the community or (ii) who meet at
 least two of the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that repeated
 interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
 behavior. 
 
 b. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
 
 3. Crisis intervention shall provide immediate mental health
 care, available 24 hours a day, seven days per week, to assist individuals who
 are experiencing acute psychiatric dysfunction requiring immediate clinical
 attention. This service's objectives shall be to prevent exacerbation of a
 condition, to prevent injury to the client or others, and to provide treatment
 in the context of the least restrictive setting. Crisis intervention activities
 shall include assessing the crisis situation, providing short-term counseling
 designed to stabilize the individual, providing access to further immediate
 assessment and follow-up, and linking the individual and family with ongoing
 care to prevent future crises. Crisis intervention services may include office
 visits, home visits, preadmission screenings, telephone contacts, and other
 client-related activities for the prevention of institutionalization. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. The provision of this service to an individual shall be
 registered with either DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA within one
 business day or the completion of the service-specific provider intake to avoid
 duplication of services and to ensure informed care coordination. 
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
 psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
 hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 at the time of admission to the service:
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
 interventions documented by mental health, social services, or the judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
 behavior. 
 
 b. The annual limit for crisis intervention is 720 units per
 year. A unit shall equal 15 minutes. 
 
 c. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, an
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, or a certified prescreener.
 
 4. Intensive community treatment (ICT), initially covered for
 a maximum of 26 weeks based on an initial service-specific provider intake and
 may be reauthorized for up to an additional 26 weeks annually based on written
 intake and certification of need by a licensed mental health provider (LMHP),
 shall be defined by 12VAC35-105-20 or LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP and shall
 include medical psychotherapy, psychiatric assessment, medication management,
 and care coordination activities offered to outpatients outside the clinic,
 hospital, or office setting for individuals who are best served in the
 community. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 a. To qualify for ICT, the individual must meet at least one
 of the following criteria: 
 
 (1) The individual must be at high risk for psychiatric
 hospitalization or becoming or remaining homeless due to mental illness or
 require intervention by the mental health or criminal justice system due to
 inappropriate social behavior. 
 
 (2) The individual has a history (three months or more) of a
 need for intensive mental health treatment or treatment for co-occurring
 serious mental illness and substance use disorder and demonstrates a resistance
 to seek out and utilize appropriate treatment options. 
 
 b. A written, service-specific provider intake, as defined at
 12VAC30-50-130, that documents the individual's eligibility and the need for
 this service must be completed prior to the initiation of services. This intake
 must be maintained in the individual's records. 
 
 c. An individual service plan shall be initiated at the time
 of admission and must be fully developed, as defined in this section, within 30
 days of the initiation of services. 
 
 d. The annual unit limit shall be 130 units with a unit
 equaling one hour.
 
 e. These services may only be rendered by a team that meets
 the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
 
 5. Crisis stabilization services for nonhospitalized
 individuals shall provide direct mental health care to individuals experiencing
 an acute psychiatric crisis which may jeopardize their current community living
 situation. Services may be provided for up to a 15-day period per crisis
 episode following a face-to-face service-specific provider intake by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. Only one unit of service shall be
 reimbursed for this intake. The provision of this service to an individual
 shall be registered with either DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA
 within one business day of the completion of the service-specific provider
 intake to avoid duplication of services and to ensure informed care
 coordination. 
 
 a. The goals of crisis stabilization programs shall be to
 avert hospitalization or rehospitalization, provide normative environments with
 a high assurance of safety and security for crisis intervention, stabilize
 individuals in psychiatric crisis, and mobilize the resources of the community
 support system and family members and others for on-going maintenance and
 rehabilitation. The services must be documented in the individual's records as
 having been provided consistent with the ISP in order to receive Medicaid
 reimbursement. 
 
 b. The crisis stabilization program shall provide to
 individuals, as appropriate, psychiatric assessment including medication
 evaluation, treatment planning, symptom and behavior management, and individual
 and group counseling. 
 
 c. This service may be provided in any of the following
 settings, but shall not be limited to: (i) the home of an individual who lives
 with family or other primary caregiver; (ii) the home of an individual who
 lives independently; or (iii) community-based programs licensed by DBHDS to
 provide residential services but which are not institutions for mental disease
 (IMDs). 
 
 d. This service shall not be reimbursed for (i) individuals
 with medical conditions that require hospital care; (ii) individuals with a
 primary diagnosis of substance abuse; or (iii) individuals with psychiatric
 conditions that cannot be managed in the community (i.e., individuals who are
 of imminent danger to themselves or others). 
 
 e. The maximum limit on this service is 60 days annually.
 
 f. Services must be documented through daily progress notes
 and a daily log of times spent in the delivery of services. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
 psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
 hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
 at the time of admission to the service: 
 
 (1) Experience difficulty in establishing and maintaining
 normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that the individual is at
 risk of psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social
 supports; 
 
 (2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
 as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
 nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
 jeopardized; 
 
 (3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
 interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary; or 
 
 (4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that the
 individual is unable to recognize personal danger or significantly
 inappropriate social behavior. 
 
 g. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E or a certified
 prescreener.
 
 6. Mental health skill-building services (MHSS) shall be
 defined as goal-directed training to enable individuals to achieve and maintain
 community stability and independence in the most appropriate, least restrictive
 environment. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. Services
 that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not be
 reimbursed. These services may be authorized up to six consecutive months as
 long as the individual meets the coverage criteria for this service. The
 service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
 the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
 this service. These services shall provide goal-directed training in the
 following areas in order to be reimbursed by Medicaid or the BHSA DMAS
 contractor: (i) functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
 individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living, and use
 of community resources; (ii) assistance with medication management; and (iii)
 monitoring of health, nutrition, and physical condition with goals towards
 self-monitoring and self-regulation of all of these activities. Providers shall
 be reimbursed only for training activities defined in the ISP and only where
 services meet the service definition, eligibility, and service provision
 criteria and this section. A review of MHSS services by an LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S shall be repeated for all individuals who have received at
 least six months of MHSS to determine the continued need for this service.
 
 a. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
 behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities. Services are provided to individuals who
 require individualized goal-directed training in order to achieve or maintain
 stability and independence in the community.
 
 b. Individuals ages 21 years of age and older
 shall meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive
 mental health skill-building services:
 
 (1) The individual shall have one of the following as a
 primary mental health diagnosis:
 
 (a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
 the DSM-5;
 
 (b) Major depressive disorder;
 
 (c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
 
 (d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a physician
 has documented specific to the identified individual within the past year and
 that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness; (ii)
 results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii) produces functional
 limitations in the individual's major life activities that are documented in
 the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires individualized training for
 the individual in order to achieve or maintain independent living in the
 community.
 
 (2) The individual shall require individualized goal-directed
 training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic living
 skills, such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical
 health medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and
 personal support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation,
 and the maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use
 of community resources. 
 
 (3) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
 following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
 nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
 or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
 a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) (PRTF)
 as a result of decompensation related to the individual's serious mental
 illness; or (v) a temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation, pursuant to § 37.2-809
 B of the Code of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially
 admitted to services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge
 summaries from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment
 provided, (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the
 name of the treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement.
 Family member statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (4) The individual shall have had a prescription for
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications within the 12
 months prior to the service-specific provider intake date. If a physician or
 other practitioner who is authorized by his license to prescribe medications
 indicates that antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications
 are medically contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain
 medical records signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing
 the contraindication. This documentation shall be maintained in the
 individual's mental health skill-building services record, and the provider
 shall document and describe how the individual will be able to actively
 participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of medication.
 This criterion shall be met upon admission to services and shall not be
 required for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from
 prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii)
 the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
 treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
 statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 c. Individuals aged 18 to 21 years of age shall
 meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive mental
 health skill-building services:
 
 (1) The individual shall not be living in a supervised setting
 as described in § 63.2-905.1 of the Code of Virginia. If the individual is
 transitioning into an independent living situation, MHSS shall only be
 authorized for up to six months prior to the date of transition.
 
 (2) The individual shall have at least one of the following as
 a primary mental health diagnosis.: 
 
 (a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
 the DSM-5;
 
 (b) Major depressive disorder;
 
 (c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
 
 (d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a physician
 has documented specific to the identified individual within the past year and
 that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness or serious
 emotional disturbance; (ii) results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii)
 produces functional limitations in the individual's major life activities that
 are documented in the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires
 individualized training for the individual in order to achieve or maintain
 independent living in the community.
 
 (3) The individual shall require individualized goal-directed
 training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic living skills
 such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical health
 medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and personal
 support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation, and the
 maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use of
 community resources.
 
 (4) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
 following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
 nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
 or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
 a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) as a result
 of decompensation related to the individual's serious mental illness; or (v)
 temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation pursuant to § 37.2-809 B of the Code
 of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to
 services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries
 from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided,
 (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
 treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
 statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (5) The individual shall have had a prescription for
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications, within the 12
 months prior to the assessment date. If a physician or other practitioner who
 is authorized by his license to prescribe medications indicates that
 antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications are medically
 contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain medical records
 signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing the
 contraindication. This documentation of medication management shall be
 maintained in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. For
 individuals not prescribed antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant
 medications, the provider shall have documentation from the medication
 management physician describing how the individual will be able to actively
 participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of medication.
 This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to services and
 not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from prior
 providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii) the
 dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the treatment
 provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member statements
 shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
 
 (6) An independent clinical assessment, established in
 12VAC30-130-3020, shall be completed for the individual.
 
 d. Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
 onset of services and individual service plans (ISPs) shall be required during
 the entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing,
 or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied
 reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are
 set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 e. The yearly limit for mental health skill-building services
 is 520 units. Only direct face-to-face contacts and services to the individual
 shall be reimbursable. One unit is 1 to 2.99 hours per day, and two
 units is 3 to 4.99 hours per day.
 
 f. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH.
 
 g. The provider shall clearly document details of the services
 provided during the entire amount of time billed.
 
 h. The ISP shall not include activities that contradict or
 duplicate those in the treatment plan established by the therapeutic
 group home or assisted living facility. The provider shall coordinate mental
 health skill-building services with the treatment plan established by the group
 home or assisted living facility and shall document all coordination activities
 in the medical record. 
 
 i. Limits and exclusions.
 
 (1) Group Therapeutic group home (Level A or
 B) and assisted living facility providers shall not serve as the mental
 health skill-building services provider for individuals residing in the
 provider's respective facility. Individuals residing in facilities may,
 however, receive MHSS from another MHSS agency not affiliated with the owner of
 the facility in which they reside.
 
 (2) Mental health skill-building services shall not be reimbursed
 for individuals who are receiving in-home residential services or congregate
 residential services through the Intellectual Disability Waiver or Individual
 and Family Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver.
 
 (3) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 reimbursed for individuals who are also receiving services under the Department
 of Social Services independent living program (22VAC40-151), independent living
 services (22VAC40-131 and 22VAC40-151), or independent living arrangement (22VAC40-131)
 or any Comprehensive Services Act-funded independent living skills programs.
 
 (4) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who are receiving treatment foster care
 (12VAC30-130-900 et seq.).
 
 (5) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who reside in intermediate care facilities for
 individuals with intellectual disabilities or hospitals.
 
 (6) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available to individuals who reside in nursing facilities, except for up to 60
 days prior to discharge. If the individual has not been discharged from the
 nursing facility during the 60-day period of services, mental health
 skill-building services shall be terminated and no further service authorizations
 shall be available to the individual unless a provider can demonstrate and
 document that mental health skill-building services are necessary. Such
 documentation shall include facts demonstrating a change in the individual's
 circumstances and a new plan for discharge requiring up to 60 days of mental
 health skill-building services.
 
 (7) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 available for residents of psychiatric residential treatment centers (Level
 C facilities) except for the intake code H0032 (modifier U8) in the seven
 days immediately prior to discharge.
 
 (8) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 reimbursed if personal care services or attendant care services are being
 received simultaneously, unless justification is provided why this is necessary
 in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. Medical
 record documentation shall fully substantiate the need for services when
 personal care or attendant care services are being provided. This applies to
 individuals who are receiving additional services through the Intellectual
 Disability Waiver (12VAC30-120-1000 et seq.), Individual and Family
 Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver (12VAC30-120-700 et seq.), the
 Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction Waiver (12VAC30-120-900 et seq.),
 and EPSDT services (12VAC30-50-130). 
 
 (9) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
 duplicative of other services. Providers shall be required to ensure that if an
 individual is receiving additional therapeutic services that there will be
 coordination of services by either the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A,
 QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH to avoid duplication of services.
 
 (10) Individuals who have organic disorders, such as delirium,
 dementia, or other cognitive disorders not elsewhere classified, will be
 prohibited from receiving mental health skill-building services unless their
 physicians issue signed and dated statements indicating that the individuals
 can benefit from this service.
 
 (11) Individuals who are not diagnosed with a serious mental
 health disorder but who have personality disorders or other mental health
 disorders, or both, that may lead to chronic disability shall not be excluded
 from the mental health skill-building services eligibility criteria provided
 that the individual has a primary mental health diagnosis from the list
 included in subdivision B 6 b (1) or B 6 c (2) of this section and that the
 provider can document and describe how the individual is expected to actively
 participate in and benefit from mental health skill-building services.
 
 7. Mental health peer support services.
 
 a. Mental health peer support services are peer recovery
 support services and are nonclinical, peer-to-peer activities that engage,
 educate, and support an individual's self-help efforts to improve health
 recovery, resiliency, and wellness. Mental health peer support services for
 adults is a person centered, strength-based, and recovery-oriented
 rehabilitative service for individuals 21 years of age or older provided
 by a peer recovery specialist successful in the recovery process with lived
 experience with a mental health disorder, who is trained to offer support and
 assistance in helping others in the recovery to reduce the disabling effects of
 a mental health disorder that is the focus of support. Services assist the
 individual with developing and maintaining a path to recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness. Specific peer support service activities shall emphasize the
 acquisition, development, and enhancement of recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness. Services are designed to promote empowerment, self-determination,
 understanding, and coping skills through mentoring and service coordination
 supports, as well as to assist individuals in achieving positive coping
 mechanisms for the stressors and barriers encountered when recovering from
 their illnesses or disorders.
 
 b. Under the clinical oversight of the LMHP making the
 recommendation for mental health support services, the peer recovery specialist
 in consultation with his direct supervisor shall develop a recovery,
 resiliency, and wellness plan based on the LMHP's recommendation for service,
 the individual's perceived recovery needs, and any clinical assessments or
 service specific provider intakes as defined in this section within 30 calendar
 days of the initiation of service. Development of the recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness plan shall include collaboration with the individual. Individualized
 goals and strategies shall be focused on the individual's identified needs for
 self-advocacy and recovery. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall
 also include documentation of how many days per week and how many hours per
 week are required to carry out the services in order to meet the goals of the
 plan. The recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan shall be completed, signed,
 and dated by the LMHP, the PRS, the direct supervisor, and the individual
 within 30 calendar days of the initiation of service. The PRS shall act as an
 advocate for the individual, encouraging the individual to take a proactive
 role in developing and updating goals and objectives in the individualized
 recovery planning.
 
 c. Documentation of required activities shall be required as
 set forth in 12VAC30-130-5200 A, C, and E through J.
 
 d. Limitations and exclusions to service delivery shall be the
 same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5210.
 
 e. Individuals 21 years of age or older qualifying for
 mental health peer support services shall meet the following requirements:
 
 (1) Require recovery-oriented assistance and support services
 for the acquisition of skills needed to engage in and maintain recovery; for
 the development of self-advocacy skills to achieve a decreasing dependency on
 formalized treatment systems; and to increase responsibilities, wellness
 potential, and shared accountability for the individual's own recovery. 
 
 (2) Have a documented mental health disorder diagnosis. 
 
 (3) Demonstrate moderate to severe functional impairment
 because of a diagnosis that interferes with or limits performance in at least
 one of the following domains: educational (e.g., obtaining a high school or
 college degree); social (e.g., developing a social support system); vocational
 (e.g., obtaining part-time or full-time employment); self-maintenance (e.g.,
 managing symptoms, understanding his illness, living more independently).
 
 f. To qualify for continued mental health peer support
 services, medical necessity criteria shall continue to be met, and progress
 notes shall document the status of progress relative to the goals identified in
 the recovery, resiliency, and wellness plan.
 
 g. Discharge criteria from mental health peer support services
 is the same as set forth in 12VAC30-130-5180 E.
 
 h. Mental health peer support services shall be rendered
 on an individual basis or in a group.
 
 i. Prior to service initiation, a documented recommendation
 for mental health peer support services shall be made by a licensed mental
 health professional acting within the scope of practice under state law The
 recommendation shall verify that the individual meets the medical necessity
 criteria set forth in subdivision 7 e of this subsection. The recommendation
 shall be valid for no longer than 30 calendar days.
 
 j. Effective July 1, 2017, a peer recovery specialist shall
 have the qualifications, education, experience, and certification established
 by DBHDS in order to be eligible to register with the Board of Counseling on or
 after July 1, 2018. Upon the promulgation of regulations by the Board of
 Counseling, registration of peer recovery specialists by the Board of Counseling
 shall be required. The PRS shall perform mental health peer support services
 under the oversight of the LMHP making the recommendation for services and
 providing the clinical oversight of the recovery, resiliency, and wellness
 plan. The PRS shall be employed by or have a contractual relationship with an
 enrolled provider licensed for one of the following:
 
 (1) Acute care general hospital licensed by the Department of
 Health. 
 
 (2) Freestanding psychiatric hospital and inpatient
 psychiatric unit licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and
 Developmental Services.
 
 (3) Outpatient mental health clinic services licensed by the
 Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
 
 (4) Outpatient psychiatric services provider.
 
 (5) Rural health clinics and federally qualified health
 centers.
 
 (6) Hospital emergency department services licensed by the
 Department of Health.
 
 (7) Community mental health and rehabilitative services
 provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services as a provider of one of the following community mental health and
 rehabilitative services defined in this section or 12VAC30-50-420 for which the
 individual meets medical necessity criteria:
 
 (a) Day treatment or partial hospitalization;
 
 (b) Psychosocial rehabilitation;
 
 (c) Crisis intervention;
 
 (d) Intensive community treatment;
 
 (e) Crisis stabilization; 
 
 (f) Mental health skill building; or
 
 (g) Mental health case management.
 
 k. Only the licensed and enrolled provider referenced in
 subdivision 7 j of this subsection shall be eligible to bill mental health peer
 support services. Payments shall not be permitted to providers that fail to
 enter into an enrollment agreement with DMAS or its contractor.
 Reimbursement shall be subject to retraction for any billed service that is
 determined to not to be in compliance with DMAS requirements.
 
 l. Supervision of the PRS shall be required as set forth in
 the definition of "supervision" in 12VAC30-130-5160. Supervision of
 the PRS shall also meet the following requirements: the supervisor shall be
 under the clinical oversight of the LMHP making the recommendation for
 services, and the peer recovery specialist in consultation with his direct
 supervisor shall conduct and document a review of the recovery, resiliency, and
 wellness plan every 90 calendar days with the individual and the caregiver, as
 applicable. The review shall be signed by the PRS and the individual and, as
 applicable, the identified family member or caregiver. Review of the recovery,
 resiliency, and wellness plan means the PRS evaluates and updates the
 individual's progress every 90 days toward meeting the plan's goals and
 documents the outcome of this review in the individual's medical record. For
 DMAS to determine that these reviews are complete, the reviews shall (i) update
 the goals and objectives as needed to reflect any change in the individual's
 recovery as well as any newly identified needs, (ii) be conducted in a manner
 that enables the individual to actively participate in the process, and (iii)
 be documented by the PRS in the individual's medical record no later than 15
 calendar days from the date of the review.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-50) 
 
 Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
 Disorders, Fifth Edition, DSM-5, 2013, American Psychiatric Association
 
 Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,
 1996, HCIA, Inc.
 
 Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,
 American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and
 Gynecologists
 
 Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and
 Addenda
 
 Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
 DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2010, dated March 13, 2014 (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf)
 
 Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
 Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,
 American Society of Addiction Medicine
 
 Human Services and Related Fields Approved
 Degrees/Experience, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
 (rev. 5/13) 
 
 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted on
 November 3, 2017, revised on February 9, 2018
 
 12VAC30-60-5. Applicability of utilization review requirements.
 
 A. These utilization requirements shall apply to all Medicaid
 covered services unless otherwise specified.
 
 B. Some Medicaid covered services require an approved service
 authorization prior to service delivery in order for reimbursement to occur. 
 
 1. To obtain service authorization, all providers' information
 supplied to the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS), service
 authorization contractor, or the behavioral health service authorization
 contractor or its contractor shall be fully substantiated throughout
 individuals' medical records. 
 
 2. Providers shall be required to maintain documentation
 detailing all relevant information about the Medicaid individuals who are in providers'
 the provider's care. Such documentation shall fully disclose the extent
 of services provided in order to support providers' the provider's
 claims for reimbursement for services rendered. This documentation shall be
 written, signed, and dated at the time the services are rendered unless
 specified otherwise. 
 
 C. DMAS, or its designee contractor, shall
 perform reviews of the utilization of all Medicaid covered services pursuant to
 42 CFR 440.260 and 42 CFR Part 456. 
 
 D. DMAS shall recover expenditures made for covered services
 when providers' documentation does not comport with standards specified in all
 applicable regulations.
 
 E. Providers who are determined not to be in compliance with
 DMAS requirements shall be subject to 12VAC30-80-130 for the repayment of those
 overpayments to DMAS.
 
 F. Utilization review requirements specific to community
 mental health services and residential treatment services, including
 therapeutic group homes and psychiatric residential treatment facilities (PRTFs),
 as set out in 12VAC30-50-130 and 12VAC30-50-226, shall be as follows:
 
 1. To apply to be reimbursed as a Medicaid provider, the
 required Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS)
 license shall be either a full, annual, triennial, or conditional license.
 Providers must be enrolled with DMAS or the BHSA its contractor
 to be reimbursed. Once a health care entity has been enrolled as a provider, it
 shall maintain, and update periodically as DMAS or its contractor
 requires, a current Provider Enrollment Agreement for each Medicaid service
 that the provider offers. 
 
 2. Health care entities with provisional licenses shall not be
 reimbursed as Medicaid providers of community mental health services.
 
 3. Payments shall not be permitted to health care entities
 that either hold provisional licenses or fail to enter into a Medicaid
 Provider Enrollment Agreement provider contract with DMAS or its
 contractor for a service prior to rendering that service.
 
 4. The behavioral health service authorization contractor
 DMAS or its contractor shall apply a national standardized set of
 medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
 InterQual Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by
 DMAS. Services that fail to meet medical necessity criteria shall be denied
 service authorization.
 
 5. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement for services
 provided by staff in residency, the following terms shall be used after their
 signatures to indicate such status:
 
 a. An LMHP-R shall use the term "Resident" after
 his signature.
 
 b. An LMHP-RP shall use the term "Resident in
 Psychology" after his signature.
 
 c. An LMHP-S shall use the term "Supervisee in Social
 Work" after his signature.
 
 12VAC30-60-50. Utilization control: Intermediate Care
 Facilities care facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR)
 persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities and Institutions
 institutions for Mental Disease (IMD) mental disease. 
 
 A. "Institution for mental disease" or
 "IMD" means the same as that term is defined in § 1905(i) of the
 Social Security Act.
 
 B. With respect to each Medicaid-eligible resident in
 an ICF/MR intermediate care facility for persons with intellectual
 and developmental disabilities (ICF/ID) or an IMD in Virginia, a
 written plan of care must be developed prior to admission to or authorization
 of benefits in such facility, and a regular program of independent professional
 review (including a medical evaluation) shall be completed periodically for
 such services. The purpose of the review is to determine: the adequacy of the
 services available to meet his the resident's current health
 needs and promote his the resident's maximum physical well being;
 the necessity and desirability of his the resident's continued
 placement in the facility; and the feasibility of meeting his the
 resident's health care needs through alternative institutional or
 noninstitutional services. Long-term care of residents in such facilities will
 be provided in accordance with federal law that is based on the resident's
 medical and social needs and requirements. 
 
 B. C. With respect to each ICF/MR ICF/ID
 or IMD, periodic on-site onsite inspections of the care being
 provided to each person receiving medical assistance, by one or more
 independent professional review teams (composed of a physician or registered
 nurse and other appropriate health and social service personnel), shall be
 conducted. The review shall include, with respect to each recipient, a
 determination of the adequacy of the services available to meet his the
 resident's current health needs and promote his the resident's
 maximum physical well-being, the necessity and desirability of continued
 placement in the facility, and the feasibility of meeting his the
 resident's health care needs through alternative institutional or
 noninstitutional services. Full reports shall be made to the state agency by
 the review team of the findings of each inspection, together with any
 recommendations. 
 
 C. D. In order for reimbursement to be made to
 a facility for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
 developmental disabilities, the resident must meet criteria for placement
 in such facility as described in 12VAC30-60-360 and the facility must provide
 active treatment for mental retardation intellectual or developmental
 disabilities. 
 
 D. E. In each case for which payment for
 nursing facility services for the mentally retarded persons with
 intellectual or developmental disabilities or institution for mental
 disease services is made under the State Plan: 
 
 1. A physician must certify for each applicant or recipient
 that inpatient care is needed in a facility for the mentally retarded or an
 institution for mental disease. A certificate of need shall be completed
 by an independent certification team according to the requirements of
 12VAC30-50-130 D 5. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 calendar days
 by a physician, or by a physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within
 their scope of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician.
 The certification must be made at the time of admission or, if an individual
 applies for assistance while in the facility, before the Medicaid agency
 authorizes payment; and 
 
 2. A physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner
 acting within the scope of the practice as defined by state law and under the
 supervision of a physician, must recertify for each applicant at least every 365
 60 calendar days that services are needed in a facility for the
 mentally retarded persons with intellectual and developmental
 disabilities or an institution for mental disease. 
 
 E. F. When a resident no longer meets criteria
 for facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual
 and developmental disabilities or for an institution for mental
 disease, or no longer requires active treatment in a facility for the
 mentally retarded persons with intellectual and developmental
 disabilities then the resident must shall be discharged. 
 
 F. G. All services provided in an IMD and in
 an ICF/MR ICF/ID shall be provided in accordance with guidelines
 found in the Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual. 
 
 H. All services provided in an IMD shall be provided with
 the applicable provider agreement and all documents referenced therein.
 
 I. Psychiatric services in IMDs shall only be covered for
 eligible individuals younger than 21 years of age.
 
 J. IMD services provided without service authorization
 from DMAS or its contractor shall not be covered.
 
 K. Absence of any of the required IMD documentation shall
 result in denial or retraction of reimbursement. 
 
 L. In each case for which payment for IMD services is made
 under the State Plan:
 
 1. A physician shall certify at the time of admission, or
 at the time the IMD is notified of an individual's retroactive eligibility
 status, that the individual requires or required inpatient services in an IMD
 consistent with 42 CFR 456.160.
 
 2. The physician, or physician assistant or nurse
 practitioner acting within the scope of practice as defined by state law and
 under the supervision of a physician, shall recertify at least every 60
 calendar days that the individual continues to require inpatient services in an
 IMD.
 
 3.  Before admission to an IMD or before authorization
 for payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall perform a medical
 evaluation of the individual, and appropriate personnel shall complete a
 psychiatric and social evaluation as described in 42 CFR 456.170.
 
 4. Before admission to an IMD or before authorization for
 payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall establish a written
 plan of care for each individual as described in 42 CFR 441.155 and 42 CFR
 456.180. 
 
 M. It shall be documented that the individual requiring
 admission to an IMD who is younger than 21 years of age, that treatment is
 medically necessary, and that the necessity was identified as a result of an
 independent certification of need team review. Required documentation shall
 include the following:
 
 1. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition 2013, American Psychiatric
 Association, and based on an evaluation by a psychiatrist completed within 30
 calendar days of admission or if the diagnosis is confirmed, in writing, by a
 previous evaluation completed within one year within admission.
 
 2. A certification of the need for services as defined in
 42 CFR 441.152 by an interdisciplinary team meeting the requirements of 42
 CFR 441.153 or 42 CFR 441.156 and the Psychiatric Treatment of Minors Act (§
 16.1-335 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
 
 N. The use of seclusion and restraint in an IMD shall be
 in accordance with 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376. Each use of a
 seclusion or restraint, as defined in 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376,
 shall be reported by the service provider to DMAS or its contractor within one
 calendar day of the incident.
 
 12VAC30-60-61. Services related to the Early and Periodic
 Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT); community mental health and
 behavioral therapy services for children.
 
 A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
 this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
 otherwise:
 
 "At risk" means one or more of the following: (i)
 within the two weeks before the intake, the individual shall be screened by an
 LMHP for escalating behaviors that have put either the individual or others at
 immediate risk of physical injury; (ii) the parent/guardian parent or
 guardian is unable to manage the individual's mental, behavioral, or
 emotional problems in the home and is actively, within the past two to four
 weeks, seeking an out-of-home placement; (iii) a representative of either a
 juvenile justice agency, a department of social services (either the state
 agency or local agency), a community services board/behavioral health authority,
 the Department of Education, or an LMHP, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20, and who
 is neither an employee of nor consultant to the intensive in-home (IIH)
 services or therapeutic day treatment (TDT) provider, has recommended an
 out-of-home placement absent an immediate change of behaviors and when
 unsuccessful mental health services are evident; (iv) the individual has a
 history of unsuccessful services (either crisis intervention, crisis
 stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, outpatient substance abuse services,
 or mental health support) within the past 30 calendar days; or
 (v) the treatment team or family assessment planning team (FAPT) recommends IIH
 services or TDT for an individual currently who is either: (a) transitioning
 out of psychiatric residential treatment facility Level C (PRTF)
 services, (b) transitioning out of a therapeutic group home Level A
 or B services, (c) transitioning out of acute psychiatric hospitalization,
 or (d) transitioning between foster homes, mental health case management,
 crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, or
 outpatient substance abuse services. 
 
 "Failed services" or "unsuccessful
 services" means, as measured by ongoing behavioral, mental, or physical
 distress, that the services did not treat or resolve the individual's mental
 health or behavioral issues.
 
 "Individual" means the Medicaid-eligible person
 receiving these services and for the purpose of this section includes children
 from birth up to 12 years of age or and adolescents ages 12
 through 20 years.
 
 "Licensed assistant behavior analyst" means a
 person who has met the licensing requirements of 18VAC85-150 and holds a valid
 license issued by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "Licensed behavior analyst" means a person who has
 met the licensing requirements of 18VAC85-150 and holds a valid license issued
 by the Department of Health Professions.
 
 "New service" means a community mental health
 rehabilitation service for which the individual does not have a current service
 authorization in effect as of July 17, 2011.
 
 "Out-of-home placement" means placement in one or
 more of the following: (i) either a Level A or Level B therapeutic
 group home; (ii) regular foster home if the individual is currently residing
 with his the individual's biological family and, due to his
 behavior problems, is at risk of being placed in the custody of the local
 department of social services; (iii) treatment foster care if the individual is
 currently residing with his the individual's biological family or
 a regular foster care family and, due to the individual's behavioral problems,
 is at risk of removal to a higher level of care; (iv) Level C psychiatric
 residential treatment facility; (v) emergency shelter for the individual
 only due either to his mental health or behavior or both; (vi) psychiatric
 hospitalization; or (vii) juvenile justice system or incarceration. 
 
 "Progress notes" means individual-specific
 documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
 individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
 contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
 the notes. Individualized progress notes are part of the minimum documentation
 requirements and shall convey the individual's status, staff interventions,
 and, as appropriate, the individual's progress or lack of progress toward goals
 and objectives in the plan of care. The progress notes shall also include, at a
 minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the service rendered, the
 signature and credentials of the person who rendered the service, the setting
 in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time or units required to
 deliver the service. The content of each progress note shall corroborate the
 time or units billed. Progress notes shall be documented for each service that
 is billed.
 
 "Service-specific provider intake" means the
 evaluation that is conducted according to the Department of Medical Assistance
 Services (DMAS) intake definition set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 B. Utilization review requirements for all services in this
 section.
 
 1. The services described in this section shall be rendered
 consistent with the definitions, service limits, and requirements described in
 this section and in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 2. Providers shall be required to refund payments made by
 Medicaid if they fail to maintain adequate documentation to support billed
 activities.
 
 3. Individual service plans (ISPs) shall meet all of the
 requirements set forth in 12VAC30-60-143 B 7.
 
 C. Utilization review of intensive in-home (IIH) services for
 children and adolescents. 
 
 1. The service definition for intensive in-home (IIH) services
 is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 2. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral or emotional
 illness that results in significant functional impairments in major life
 activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
 continuing or intermittent basis to be authorized for these services: 
 
 a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
 interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
 community. 
 
 b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
 repeated interventions by the mental health, social services or judicial system
 are or have been necessary. 
 
 c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 3. Prior to admission, an appropriate service-specific
 provider intake, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, shall be conducted by the
 licensed mental health professional (LMHP), LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or
 LMHP-RP, documenting the individual's diagnosis and describing how service
 needs can best be met through intervention provided typically but not solely in
 the individual's residence. The service-specific provider intake shall describe
 how the individual's clinical needs put the individual at risk of out-of-home
 placement and shall be conducted face-to-face in the individual's residence.
 Claims for services that are based upon service-specific provider intakes that
 are incomplete, outdated (more than 12 months old), or missing shall not be
 reimbursed.
 
 4. An individual service plan (ISP) shall be fully completed,
 signed, and dated by either an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
 QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E and the individual and individual's parent/guardian parent
 or guardian within 30 calendar days of initiation of services. The
 ISP shall meet all of the requirements as defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
 
 5. DMAS shall not reimburse for dates of services in which the
 progress notes are not individualized and child-specific. Duplicated progress
 notes shall not constitute the required child-specific individualized progress
 notes. Each progress note shall demonstrate unique differences particular to
 the individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress. Claim payments shall
 be retracted for services that are supported by documentation that does not
 demonstrate unique differences particular to the individual. 
 
 6. Services shall be directed toward the treatment of the
 eligible individual and delivered primarily in the family's residence with the
 individual present. As clinically indicated, the services may be rendered
 in the community if there is documentation, on that date of service, of the
 necessity of providing services in the community. The documentation shall describe
 how the alternative community service location supports the identified clinical
 needs of the individual and describe how it facilitates the implementation of
 the ISP. For services provided outside of the home, there shall be
 documentation reflecting therapeutic treatment as set forth in the ISP provided
 for that date of service in the appropriately signed and dated progress notes.
 
 7. These services shall be provided when the clinical needs of
 the individual put him the individual at risk for out-of-home
 placement, as these terms are defined in this section:
 
 a. When services that are far more intensive than outpatient
 clinic care are required to stabilize the individual in the family situation,;
 or 
 
 b. When the individual's residence as the setting for services
 is more likely to be successful than a clinic. 
 
 The service-specific provider intake shall describe how the
 individual meets either subdivision 7 a or 7 b of this subdivision
 7 subsection.
 
 8. Services shall not be provided if the individual is no
 longer a resident of the home.
 
 9. Services shall also be used to facilitate the transition to
 home from an out-of-home placement when services more intensive than outpatient
 clinic care are required for the transition to be successful. The individual
 and responsible parent/guardian parent or guardian shall be
 available and in agreement to participate in the transition. 
 
 10. At least one parent/legal parent or legal
 guardian or responsible adult with whom the individual is living must be
 willing to participate in the intensive in-home services with the goal of
 keeping the individual with the family. In the instance of this service, a
 responsible adult shall be an adult who lives in the same household with the
 child and is responsible for engaging in therapy and service-related activities
 to benefit the individual. 
 
 11. The enrolled provider shall be licensed by the Department
 of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) as a provider of
 intensive in-home services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment
 agreement with DMAS or its contractor in effect prior to the delivery of this
 service that indicates that the provider will offer intensive in-home services.
 
 12. Services must only be provided by an LMHP,
 LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. Reimbursement shall
 not be provided for such services when they have been rendered by a QPPMH as
 defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 13. The billing unit for intensive in-home service shall be
 one hour. Although the pattern of service delivery may vary, intensive in-home
 services is an intensive service provided to individuals for whom there is an
 ISP in effect which demonstrates the need for a minimum of three hours a week
 of intensive in-home service, and includes a plan for service provision of a
 minimum of three hours of service delivery per individual/family individual
 or family per week in the initial phase of treatment. It is expected that
 the pattern of service provision may show more intensive services and more
 frequent contact with the individual and family initially with a lessening or
 tapering off of intensity toward the latter weeks of service. Service plans
 shall incorporate an individualized discharge plan that describes transition
 from intensive in-home to less intensive or nonhome based services.
 
 14. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be updated as
 the individual's needs and progress changes and signed by either the parent or
 legal guardian and the individual. Documentation shall be provided if the
 individual, who is a minor child, is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP. If
 there is a lapse in services that is greater than 31 consecutive calendar days
 without any communications from family members/legal members or legal
 guardian or the individual with the provider, the provider shall discharge the
 individual. If the individual continues to need services, then a new intake/admission
 intake or admission shall be documented and a new service authorization
 shall be required.
 
 15. The provider shall ensure that the maximum staff-to-caseload
 ratio fully meets the needs of the individual.
 
 16. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
 management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430,
 the provider shall contact the case manager and provide notification of
 the provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates
 to the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be
 sent to the case manager within 30 calendar days of the service
 discontinuation date. Providers and case managers who are using the same
 electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
 delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
 of the information in the electronic health records. 
 
 17. Emergency assistance shall be available 24 hours per day,
 seven days a week. 
 
 18. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements at
 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines violate these marketing
 requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E. 
 
 19. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or guardian, shall
 inform him the primary care provider of the individual's receipt
 of IIH services. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
 contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
 
 D. Utilization review of therapeutic day treatment for
 children and adolescents. 
 
 1. The service definition for therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
 for children and adolescents is contained in 12VAC30-50-130. 
 
 2. Therapeutic day treatment is appropriate for children and
 adolescents who meet one of the following criteria: 
 
 a. Children and adolescents who require year-round treatment
 in order to sustain behavior or emotional gains. 
 
 b. Children and adolescents whose behavior and emotional
 problems are so severe they cannot be handled in self-contained or resource
 emotionally disturbed (ED) classrooms without: 
 
 (1) This programming during the school day; or 
 
 (2) This programming to supplement the school day or school
 year. 
 
 c. Children and adolescents who would otherwise be placed on
 homebound instruction because of severe emotional/behavior problems that
 interfere with learning. 
 
 d. Children and adolescents who (i) have deficits in social
 skills, peer relations or dealing with authority; (ii) are hyperactive; (iii)
 have poor impulse control; or (iv) are extremely depressed or marginally
 connected with reality. 
 
 e. Children in preschool enrichment and early intervention
 programs when the children's emotional/behavioral emotional or
 behavioral problems are so severe that they the children
 cannot function in these programs without additional services. 
 
 3. The service-specific provider intake shall document the
 individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets these specific
 service criteria in subdivision 2 of this subsection. 
 
 4. Prior to admission to this service, a service-specific
 provider intake shall be conducted by the LMHP as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
 
 5. An ISP shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an
 LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and by the
 individual or the parent/guardian parent or guardian within 30 calendar
 days of initiation of services and shall meet all requirements of an ISP as
 defined in 12VAC30-50-226. Individual progress notes shall be required for each
 contact with the individual and shall meet all of the requirements as defined
 in 12VAC30-50-130 this section.
 
 6. Such services shall not duplicate those services provided
 by the school. 
 
 7. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
 clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
 behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant functional
 impairments in major life activities. Individuals shall meet at least two of
 the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis: 
 
 a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
 interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
 hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
 community. 
 
 b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
 repeated interventions by the mental health, social services, or judicial
 system are or have been necessary. 
 
 c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
 unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
 social behavior. 
 
 8. The enrolled provider of therapeutic day treatment for
 child and adolescent services shall be licensed by DBHDS to provide day support
 services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment agreement in
 effect with DMAS prior to the delivery of this service that indicates that the
 provider offers therapeutic day treatment services for children and
 adolescents. 
 
 9. Services shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
 LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. 
 
 10. The minimum staff-to-individual ratio as defined by DBHDS
 licensing requirements shall ensure that adequate staff is available to meet
 the needs of the individual identified on the ISP. 
 
 11. The program shall operate a minimum of two hours per day
 and may offer flexible program hours (i.e., before or after school or during
 the summer). One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two hours but
 less than three hours in a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as
 a minimum of three but less than five hours in a given day. Three units of
 service shall be defined as five or more hours of service in a given day. 
 
 12. Time required for academic instruction when no treatment
 activity is going on shall not be included in the billing unit. 
 
 13. Services shall be provided following a service-specific
 provider intake that is conducted by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
 or LMHP-RP. An LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident shall make and document
 the diagnosis. The service-specific provider intake shall include the elements
 as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 14. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
 management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider
 shall collaborate with the case manager and provide notification of the
 provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to
 the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be sent
 to the case manager within 30 calendar days of the service
 discontinuation date. Providers and case managers using the same electronic
 health record for the individual shall meet requirements for delivery of the
 notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this
 documentation into the electronic health record. 
 
 15. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
 the individual's parent or legal guardian, shall inform the primary care
 provider of the child's the individual's receipt of community
 mental health rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was
 contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. The
 parent/legal parent or legal guardian shall be required to give
 written consent that this provider has permission to inform the primary care
 provider of the child's or adolescent's receipt of community mental health
 rehabilitative services. 
 
 16. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
 set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
 marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E.
 
 17. If there is a lapse in services greater than 31
 consecutive calendar days, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
 individual continues to need services, a new intake/admission intake
 or admission documentation shall be prepared and a new service
 authorization shall be required.
 
 E. Utilization review of community-based services for
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level A). 
 
 1. The staff ratio must be at least one to six during the
 day and at least one to 10 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. The program
 director supervising the program/group home must be, at minimum, a QMHP-C or
 QMHP-E (as defined in 12VAC35-105-20). The program director must be employed
 full time. 
 
 2. In order for Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at
 least 50% of the provider's direct care staff at the group home must meet DBHDS
 paraprofessional staff criteria, defined in 12VAC35-105-20. 
 
 3. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
 All community-based services for children and adolescents younger than 21
 (Level A) require authorization prior to reimbursement for these services.
 Reimbursement shall not be made for this service when other less intensive
 services may achieve stabilization. 
 
 4. Services must be provided in accordance with an
 individual service plan (ISP), which must be fully completed within 30 days of
 authorization for Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 5. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
 shall be conducted according to DMAS specifications described in
 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 6. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be
 performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 7. If an individual receiving community-based services for
 children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level A) is also
 receiving case management services, the provider shall collaborate with the
 case manager by notifying the case manager of the provision of Level A services
 and shall send monthly updates on the individual's progress. When the
 individual is discharged from Level A services, a discharge summary shall be
 sent to the case manager within 30 days of the service discontinuation
 date. Providers and case managers who are using the same electronic health
 record for the individual shall meet requirements for the delivery of the
 notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this
 documentation into the electronic health record. 
 
 F. E. Utilization review of therapeutic behavioral
 services group home for children and adolescents younger than 21
 years of age (Level B). 
 
 1. The staff ratio must be at least one to four during the
 day and at least one to eight between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. approved
 by the Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
 Services. The clinical director must shall be a licensed
 mental health professional. The caseload of the clinical director must not
 exceed 16 individuals including all sites for which the same clinical director
 is responsible. 
 
 2. The program director must shall be full time
 and be a QMHP-C or QMHP-E with a bachelor's degree and at least one year's
 clinical experience meet the requirements for a program director as
 defined in 12VAC35-46-350.
 
 3. For Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least 50% of
 the provider's direct care staff at the therapeutic group home shall
 meet DBHDS paraprofessional staff qualified paraprofessional in
 mental health (QPPMH) criteria, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. The program/group
 therapeutic group home must shall coordinate services with
 other providers. 
 
 4. All therapeutic behavioral group home
 services (Level B) shall be authorized prior to reimbursement for these
 services. Services rendered without such prior authorization shall not be
 covered. 
 
 5. Services must be provided in accordance with an ISP a
 comprehensive individual plan of care as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, which
 shall be fully completed within 30 calendar days of authorization for
 Medicaid reimbursement. 
 
 6. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
 an assessment shall be performed using all elements specified by DMAS in
 12VAC30-50-130. 
 
 7. Such service-specific provider intakes assessments
 shall be performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
 
 8. If an individual receiving therapeutic behavioral group
 home services for children and adolescents younger than 21 years of age (Level
 B) is also receiving case management services, the therapeutic behavioral
 group home services provider must collaborate with the care coordinator/case
 manager by notifying him of the provision of Level B therapeutic
 group home services and the Level B therapeutic group home
 services provider shall send monthly updates on the individual's treatment
 status. When the individual is discharged from Level B services, a discharge
 summary shall be sent to the care coordinator/case manager within 30 days of
 the discontinuation date. 
 
 9. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
 is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
 guardian parent or legally authorized representative, shall inform
 the primary care provider of the individual's receipt of these Level B therapeutic
 group home services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
 when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. If these
 individuals are children or adolescents, then the parent/legal guardian parent
 or legally authorized representative shall be required to give written
 consent that this provider has permission to inform the primary care provider
 of the individual's receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
 
 
 G. Utilization review. Utilization reviews for
 community-based services for children and adolescents younger than 21 years of
 age (Level A) and therapeutic behavioral services for children and adolescents
 younger than 21 years of age (Level B) shall include determinations whether
 providers meet all DMAS requirements, including compliance with DMAS marketing
 requirements. Providers that DMAS determines have violated the DMAS marketing
 requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
 12VAC30-130-2000 E. 
 
 H. F. Utilization review of behavioral therapy
 services for children individuals younger than 21 years of age. 
 
 1. In order for Medicaid to cover behavioral therapy services,
 the provider shall be enrolled with DMAS or its contractor as a Medicaid
 provider. The provider enrollment agreement shall be in effect prior to the
 delivery of services for Medicaid reimbursement.
 
 2. Behavioral therapy services shall be covered for
 individuals younger than 21 years of age when recommended by the individual's
 primary care provider, licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or
 licensed nurse practitioner and determined by DMAS or its contractor to be
 medically necessary to correct or ameliorate significant impairments in major
 life activities that have resulted from either developmental, behavioral, or
 mental disabilities.
 
 3. Behavioral therapy services require service authorization.
 Services shall be authorized only when eligibility and medical necessity
 criteria are met.
 
 4. Prior to treatment, an appropriate service-specific
 provider intake shall be conducted, documented, signed, and dated by a licensed
 behavior analyst (LBA), licensed assistant behavior analyst (LABA), LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, acting within the scope of his practice,
 documenting the individual's diagnosis (including a description of the
 behaviors targeted for treatment with their frequency, duration, and intensity)
 and describing how service needs can best be met through behavioral therapy.
 The service-specific provider intake shall be conducted face-to-face in the
 individual's residence with the individual and parent or guardian. 
 
 5. The ISP shall be developed upon admission to the service
 and reviewed within 30 days of admission to the service to ensure that all
 treatment goals are reflective of the individual's clinical needs and shall
 describe each treatment goal, targeted behavior, one or more measurable
 objectives for each targeted behavior, the behavioral modification strategy to
 be used to manage each targeted behavior, the plan for parent or caregiver
 training, care coordination, and the measurement and data collection methods to
 be used for each targeted behavior in the ISP. The ISP as defined in
 12VAC30-50-130 shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an LBA, LABA,
 LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S. Every three months, the LBA, LABA, LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S shall review the ISP, modify the ISP as appropriate,
 and update the ISP, and all of these activities shall occur with the individual
 in a manner in which the individual may participate in the process. The ISP
 shall be rewritten at least annually. 
 
 6. Reimbursement for the initial service-specific provider
 intake and the initial ISP shall be limited to five hours without service
 authorization. If additional time is needed to complete these documents,
 service authorization shall be required. 
 
 7. Clinical supervision shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement
 of behavioral therapy services that are rendered by an LABA, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
 or LMHP-S or unlicensed staff consistent with the scope of practice as
 described by the applicable Virginia Department of Health Professions
 regulatory board. Clinical supervision of unlicensed staff shall occur at least
 weekly. As documented in the individual's medical record, clinical supervision
 shall include a review of progress notes and data and dialogue with supervised
 staff about the individual's progress and the effectiveness of the ISP.
 Clinical supervision shall be documented by, at a minimum, the
 contemporaneously dated signature of the clinical supervisor. 
 
 8. Family training involving the individual's family and
 significant others to advance the treatment goals of the individual shall be
 provided when (i) the training with the family member or significant other is
 for the direct benefit of the individual, (ii) the training is not aimed at
 addressing the treatment needs of the individual's family or significant
 others, (iii) the individual is present except when it is clinically
 appropriate for the individual to be absent in order to advance the
 individual's treatment goals, and (iv) the training is aligned with the goals
 of the individual's treatment plan. 
 
 9. The following shall not be covered under this service:
 
 a. Screening to identify physical, mental, or developmental
 conditions that may require evaluation or treatment. Screening is covered as an
 EPSDT service provided by the primary care provider and is not covered as a
 behavioral therapy service under this section. 
 
 b. Services other than the initial service-specific provider
 intake that are provided but are not based upon the individual's ISP or linked
 to a service in the ISP. Time not actively involved in providing services
 directed by the ISP shall not be reimbursed.
 
 c. Services that are based upon an incomplete, missing, or
 outdated service-specific provider intake or ISP.
 
 d. Sessions that are conducted for family support, education,
 recreational, or custodial purposes, including respite or child care.
 
 e. Services that are provided by a provider but are rendered
 primarily by a relative or guardian who is legally responsible for the
 individual's care.
 
 f. Services that are provided in a clinic or provider's office
 without documented justification for the location in the ISP.
 
 g. Services that are provided in the absence of the individual
 or a parent or other authorized caregiver identified in the ISP with the
 exception of treatment review processes described in subdivision 12 e of this
 subsection, care coordination, and clinical supervision. 
 
 h. Services provided by a local education agency.
 
 i. Provider travel time.
 
 10. Behavioral therapy services shall not be reimbursed
 concurrently with community mental health services described in 12VAC30-50-130 B
 5 C or 12VAC30-50-226, or behavioral, psychological, or psychiatric
 therapeutic consultation described in 12VAC30-120-756, 12VAC30-120-1000,
 or 12VAC30-135-320.
 
 11. If the individual is receiving targeted case management
 services under the Medicaid state plan State Plan (defined in
 12VAC30-50-410 through 12VAC30-50-491 12VAC30-50-491), the
 provider shall notify the case manager of the provision of behavioral therapy
 services unless the parent or guardian requests that the information not be
 released. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to the case
 manager on the individual's status pursuant to a valid release of information.
 A discharge summary shall be sent to the case manager within 30 days of the
 service discontinuation date. A refusal of the parent or guardian to release
 information shall be documented in the medical record for the date the request
 was discussed.
 
 12. Other standards to ensure quality of services:
 
 a. Services shall be delivered only by an LBA, LABA, LMHP,
 LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, or clinically supervised unlicensed staff consistent
 with the scope of practice as described by the applicable Virginia Department
 of Health Professions regulatory board. 
 
 b. Individual-specific services shall be directed toward the
 treatment of the eligible individual and delivered in the family's residence
 unless an alternative location is justified and documented in the ISP.
 
 c. Individual-specific progress notes shall be created
 contemporaneously with the service activities and shall document the name and
 Medicaid number of each individual; the provider's name, signature, and date;
 and time of service. Documentation shall include activities provided, length of
 services provided, the individual's reaction to that day's activity, and
 documentation of the individual's and the parent or caregiver's progress toward
 achieving each behavioral objective through analysis and reporting of
 quantifiable behavioral data. Documentation shall be prepared to clearly demonstrate
 efficacy using baseline and service-related data that shows clinical progress
 and generalization for the child and family members toward the therapy goals as
 defined in the service plan.
 
 d. Documentation of all billed services shall include the amount
 of time or billable units spent to deliver the service and shall be signed and
 dated on the date of the service by the practitioner rendering the service.
 
 e. Billable time is permitted for the LBA, LABA, LMHP, LMHP-R,
 LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S to better define behaviors and develop documentation
 strategies to measure treatment performance and the efficacy of the ISP
 objectives, provided that these activities are documented in a progress note as
 described in subdivision 12 c of this subsection.
 
 13. Failure to comply with any of the requirements in
 12VAC30-50-130 or in this section shall result in retraction.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-60) 
 
 Department of Medical Assistance Services Provider Manuals (https://www.virginiamedicaid.dmas.virginia.gov/wps/portal/ProviderManuals):
 
 Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual
 
 Virginia Medicaid Rehabilitation Manual 
 
 Virginia Medicaid Hospice Manual
 
 Virginia Medicaid School Division Manual
 
 Development
 of Special Criteria for the Purposes of Pre-Admission Screening, Medicaid Memo,
 October 3, 2012, Department of Medical Assistance Services
 
 Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
 Edition (DSM-IV-TR), copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
 
 Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
 Substance-Related Disorders (ASAM PPC-2R), Second Edition, copyright 2001,
 American Society on Addiction Medicine, Inc.
 
 Medicaid Memo, Reissuance of the Pre-Admission
 Screening (PAS) Provider Manual, Chapter IV, November 22, 2016, Department of
 Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: New Service
 Authorization Requirement for an Independent Clinical Assessment for Medicaid
 and FAMIS Children's Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services, dated
 June 16, 2011, Department of Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
 Children Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Children's Services,
 July 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of
 Medical Assistance Services
 
 Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
 Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Adult-Oriented Services, July
 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of Medical
 Assistance Services
 
 Approved
 Degrees in Human Services and Related Fields for QMHP Registration, adopted
 November 3, 2017, revised February 9, 2018
 
 Part XIV 
 Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents (Repealed)
 
 12VAC30-130-850. Definitions. (Repealed.) 
 
 The following words and terms when used in this part shall
 have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
 
 "Active treatment" means implementation of a
 professionally developed and supervised individual plan of care that must be
 designed to achieve the recipient's discharge from inpatient status at the
 earliest possible time. 
 
 "Certification" means a statement signed by a
 physician that inpatient services in a residential treatment facility are or
 were needed. The certification must be made at the time of admission, or, if an
 individual applies for assistance while in a mental hospital or residential
 treatment facility, before the Medicaid agency authorizes payment. 
 
 "Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
 "CIPOC" means a written plan developed for each recipient in
 accordance with 12VAC30-130-890 to improve his condition to the extent that
 inpatient care is no longer necessary. 
 
 "Emergency services" means a medical condition
 manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe
 pain) such that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of
 health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical
 attention to result in placing the health of the individual (or, with respect
 to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious
 jeopardy, serious impairment to bodily functions, or serious dysfunction of any
 bodily organ or part.
 
 "Individual" or "individuals" means a
 child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age who is receiving a service
 covered under this part of this chapter. 
 
 "Initial plan of care" means a plan of care
 established at admission, signed by the attending physician or staff physician,
 that meets the requirements in 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 "Inpatient psychiatric facility" or
 "IPF" means a private or state-run freestanding psychiatric hospital
 or psychiatric residential treatment center.
 
 "Recertification" means a certification for each
 applicant or recipient that inpatient services in a residential treatment
 facility are needed. Recertification must be made at least every 60 days by a
 physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within the scope
 of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician. 
 
 "Recipient" or "recipients" means the
 child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age receiving this covered
 service. 
 
 "RTC-Level C" means a psychiatric residential
 treatment facility (Level C).
 
 "Services provided under arrangement" means services
 including physician and other health care services that are furnished to
 children while they are in an IPF that are billed by the arranged practitioners
 separately from the IPF per diem.
 
 12VAC30-130-860. Service coverage; eligible individuals;
 service certification. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall be
 24-hour, supervised, medically necessary, out-of-home programs designed to
 provide necessary support and address the special mental health and behavioral
 needs of a child or adolescent in order to prevent or minimize the need for
 more intensive inpatient treatment. Services must include, but shall not be
 limited to, assessment and evaluation, medical treatment (including drugs),
 individual and group counseling, and family therapy necessary to treat the
 child. 
 
 B. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall provide
 a total, 24 hours per day, specialized form of highly organized, intensive and
 planned therapeutic interventions that shall be utilized to treat some of the
 most severe mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Residential treatment
 is a definitive therapeutic modality designed to deliver specified results for
 a defined group of problems for children or adolescents for whom outpatient day
 treatment or other less intrusive levels of care are not appropriate, and for
 whom a protected, structured milieu is medically necessary for an extended
 period of time. 
 
 C. Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level B) and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be therapeutic services rendered in a
 residential type setting such as a group home or program that provides
 structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision and
 mental health care to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals
 as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). The child or
 adolescent must have a medical need for the service arising from a condition
 due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant
 functional impairments in major life activities. 
 
 D. Active treatment shall be required. Residential
 Treatment, Therapeutic Behavioral and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under age 21 shall be designed to serve the mental health needs of
 children. In order to be reimbursed for Residential Treatment (Level C),
 Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
 B), and Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
 A), the facility must provide active mental health treatment beginning at
 admission and it must be related to the recipient's principle diagnosis and
 admitting symptoms. To the extent that any recipient needs mental health
 treatment and his needs meet the medical necessity criteria for the service, he
 will be approved for these services. These services do not include
 interventions and activities designed only to meet the supportive nonmental
 health special needs, including but not limited to personal care, habilitation
 or academic educational needs of the recipients. 
 
 E. An individual eligible for Residential Treatment
 Services (Level C) is a recipient under the age of 21 years whose treatment
 needs cannot be met by ambulatory care resources available in the community,
 for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires services on an
 inpatient basis under the direction of a physician. 
 
 An individual eligible for Therapeutic Behavioral Services
 for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B) is a child, under the age of 21
 years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
 intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
 direction of a Licensed Mental Health Professional. 
 
 An individual eligible for Community-Based Services for
 Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) is a child, under the age of 21
 years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
 intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
 direction of a qualified mental health professional. The services for all three
 levels can reasonably be expected to improve the child's or adolescent's
 condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed. 
 
 F. In order for Medicaid to reimburse for Residential
 Treatment (Level C), Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the need for the service must be certified
 according to the standards and requirements set forth in subdivisions 1 and 2
 of this subsection. At least one member of the independent certifying team must
 have pediatric mental health expertise. 
 
 1. For an individual who is already a Medicaid recipient
 when he is admitted to a facility or program, certification must: 
 
 a. Be made by an independent certifying team that includes
 a licensed physician who: 
 
 (1) Has competence in diagnosis and treatment of pediatric
 mental illness; and 
 
 (2) Has knowledge of the recipient's mental health history
 and current situation. 
 
 b. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team. 
 
 2. For a recipient who applies for Medicaid while an
 inpatient in the facility or program, the certification must: 
 
 a. Be made by the team responsible for the plan of care; 
 
 b. Cover any period of time before the application for
 Medicaid eligibility for which claims for reimbursement by Medicaid are made;
 and 
 
 c. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team. 
 
 12VAC30-130-870. Preauthorization. (Repealed.)
 
 
 A. Authorization for Residential Treatment (Level C) shall
 be required within 24 hours of admission and shall be conducted by DMAS or its
 utilization management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified by
 DMAS. At preauthorization, an initial length of stay shall be assigned and the
 residential treatment provider shall be responsible for obtaining authorization
 for continued stay. 
 
 B. DMAS will not pay for admission to or continued stay in
 residential facilities (Level C) that were not authorized by DMAS. 
 
 C. Information that is required in order to obtain
 admission preauthorization for Medicaid payment shall include: 
 
 1. A completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by the department. 
 
 2. A certification of the need for this service by the team
 described in 12VAC30-130-860 that: 
 
 a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
 do not meet the specific treatment needs of the recipient; 
 
 b. Proper treatment of the recipient's psychiatric
 condition requires services on an inpatient basis under the direction of a
 physician; and 
 
 c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 recipient's condition or prevent further regression so that the services will
 not be needed. 
 
 3. Additional required written documentation shall include
 all of the following: 
 
 a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
 including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
 Retardation, Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
 Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning); 
 
 b. A description of the child's behavior during the seven
 days immediately prior to admission; 
 
 c. A description of alternative placements tried or
 explored and the outcomes of each placement; 
 
 d. The child's functional level and clinical stability; 
 
 e. The level of family support available; and 
 
 f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 D. Continued stay criteria for Residential Treatment
 (Level C): information for continued stay authorization (Level C) for Medicaid
 payment must include: 
 
 1. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
 than 90 days prior to the date of submission; 
 
 2. Documentation that the required services are provided as
 indicated; 
 
 3. Current (within the last 30 days) information on
 progress related to the achievement of treatment goals. The treatment goals
 must address the reasons for admission, including a description of any new
 symptoms amenable to treatment; 
 
 4. Description of continued impairment, problem behaviors,
 and need for Residential Treatment level of care. 
 
 E. Denial of service may be appealed by the recipient
 consistent with 12VAC30-110-10 et seq.; denial of reimbursement may be appealed
 by the provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
 seq. of the Code of Virginia). 
 
 F. DMAS will not pay for services for Therapeutic Behavioral
 Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based
 Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) that are not prior
 authorized by DMAS. 
 
 G. Authorization for Level A and Level B residential
 treatment shall be required within three business days of admission.
 Authorization for services shall be based upon the medical necessity criteria
 described in 12VAC30-50-130. The authorized length of stay must not exceed six
 months and may be reauthorized. The provider shall be responsible for
 documenting the need for a continued stay and providing supporting
 documentation. 
 
 H. Information that is required in order to obtain
 admission authorization for Medicaid payment must include: 
 
 1. A current completed state-designated uniform assessment
 instrument approved by the department. The state designated uniform assessment
 instrument must indicate at least two areas of moderate impairment for Level B
 and two areas of moderate impairment for Level A. A moderate impairment is
 evidenced by, but not limited to: 
 
 a. Frequent conflict in the family setting, for example,
 credible threats of physical harm. 
 
 b. Frequent inability to accept age appropriate direction
 and supervision from caretakers, family members, at school, or in the home or community.
 
 
 c. Severely limited involvement in social support; which
 means significant avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of
 existing relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions.
 
 
 d. Impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at
 least one caretaker in the home, school or community. 
 
 e. Limited ability to consider the effect of one's
 inappropriate conduct on others, interactions consistently involving conflict,
 which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors. 
 
 2. A certification of the need for the service by the team
 described in 12VAC30-130-860 that: 
 
 a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
 do not meet the specific treatment needs of the child; 
 
 b. Proper treatment of the child's psychiatric condition
 requires services in a community-based residential program; and 
 
 c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
 child's condition or prevent regression so that the services will not be
 needed. 
 
 3. Additional required written documentation must include
 all of the following: 
 
 a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
 including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
 Retardation), Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
 Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning); 
 
 b. A description of the child's behavior during the 30 days
 immediately prior to admission; 
 
 c. A description of alternative placements tried or
 explored and the outcomes of each placement; 
 
 d. The child's functional level and clinical stability; 
 
 e. The level of family support available; and 
 
 f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
 12VAC30-130-890. 
 
 I. Denial of service may be appealed by the child
 consistent with 12VAC30-110; denial of reimbursement may be appealed by the
 provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of
 the Code of Virginia). 
 
 J. Continued stay criteria for Levels A and B: 
 
 1. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by
 DMAS or its contractor. 
 
 2. A current Individual Service Plan (ISP) (plan of care)
 and a current (within 30 days) summary of progress related to the goals and
 objectives on the ISP (plan of care) must be submitted for continuation of the
 service. 
 
 3. For reauthorization to occur, the desired outcome or
 level of functioning has not been restored or improved, over the time frame
 outlined in the child's ISP (plan of care) or the child continues to be at risk
 for relapse based on history or the tenuous nature of the functional gains and
 use of less intensive services will not achieve stabilization. Any one of the
 following must apply: 
 
 a. The child has achieved initial service plan (plan of
 care) goals but additional goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower
 level of care. 
 
 b. The child is making satisfactory progress toward meeting
 goals but has not attained ISP goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a
 lower level of care. 
 
 c. The child is not making progress, and the service plan
 (plan of care) has been modified to identify more effective interventions. 
 
 d. There are current indications that the child requires
 this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as evidenced by
 failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or stays in a
 nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential treatment. 
 
 K. Discharge criteria for Levels A and B. 
 
 1. Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
 if either of the following applies: 
 
 a. The level of functioning has improved with respect to
 the goals outlined in the service plan (plan of care) and the child can
 reasonably be expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment;
 or 
 
 b. The child no longer benefits from service as evidenced
 by absence of progress toward service plan goals for a period of 60 days. 
 
 12VAC30-130-880. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
 
 
 A. Providers must provide all Residential Treatment
 Services (Level C) as defined within this part and set forth in 42 CFR Part 441
 Subpart D. 
 
 B. Providers of Residential Treatment Services (Level C)
 must be: 
 
 1. A residential treatment program for children and
 adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric hospital
 accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
 Organizations; 
 
 2. A residential treatment program for children and
 adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric unit of an
 acute general hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
 Healthcare Organizations; or 
 
 3. A psychiatric facility that is (i) accredited by the
 Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
 on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Quality and
 Leadership in Supports for People with Disabilities, or the Council on
 Accreditation of Services for Families and Children and (ii) licensed by
 DMHMRSAS as a residential treatment program for children and adolescents. 
 
 C. Providers of Community-Based Services for Children and
 Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be licensed by the Department of Social
 Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of Education under the
 Standards for Interdepartmental Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities
 (22VAC42-10). 
 
 D. Providers of Therapeutic Behavioral Services (Level B)
 must be licensed by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation, and
 Substance Abuse Services (DMHMRSAS) under the Standards for Interdepartmental
 Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC42-10). 
 
 12VAC30-130-890. Plans of care; review of plans of care.
 (Repealed.) 
 
 A. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization review
 and audit. The absence of any required documentation may result in denial or
 retraction of any reimbursement.
 
 B. For Residential Treatment Services (Level C) (RTS-Level
 C), an initial plan of care must be completed at admission and a Comprehensive
 Individual Plan of Care (CIPOC) must be completed no later than 14 days after
 admission. 
 
 C. Initial plan of care
 (Level C) must include: 
 
 1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 2. A description of the functional level of the individual;
 
 
 3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
 rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
 special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the individual and
 a list of services provided under arrangement (see 12VAC30-50-130 for eligible
 services provided under arrangement) that will be furnished to the individual
 through the RTC-Level C's referral to an employed or a contracted provider of
 services under arrangement, including the prescribed frequency of treatment and
 the circumstances under which such treatment shall be sought;
 
 5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; 
 
 6. Plans for discharge; and 
 
 7. Signature and date by the physician. 
 
 D. The CIPOC for Level C
 must meet all of the following criteria: 
 
 1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for inpatient psychiatric care; 
 
 2. Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
 and other personnel specified under subsection G of this section, who are
 employed by, or provide services to, patients in the facility in consultation
 with the individual and his parents, legal guardians, or appropriate others in
 whose care he will be released after discharge; 
 
 3. State treatment objectives that must include measurable
 short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; 
 
 5. Include a list of services provided under arrangement
 (described in 12VAC30-50-130) that will be furnished to the individual through
 referral to an employee or a contracted provider of services under arrangement,
 including the prescribed frequency of treatment and the circumstances under
 which such treatment shall be sought; and
 
 6. Describe comprehensive discharge plans and coordination
 of inpatient services and post-discharge plans with related community services
 to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the individual's family,
 school, and community. 
 
 E. Review of the CIPOC for Level C. The CIPOC must be
 reviewed every 30 days by the team specified in subsection G of this section
 to: 
 
 1. Determine that services being provided are or were
 required on an inpatient basis; and 
 
 2. Recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall adjustment as an inpatient. 
 
 F. The development and review of the plan of care for
 Level C as specified in this section satisfies the facility's utilization
 control requirements for recertification and establishment and periodic review
 of the plan of care, as required in 42 CFR 456.160 and 456.180. 
 
 G. Team developing the CIPOC for Level C. The following
 requirements must be met: 
 
 1. At least one member of the team must have expertise in
 pediatric mental health. Based on education and experience, preferably
 including competence in child psychiatry, the team must be capable of all of
 the following: 
 
 a. Assessing the individual's immediate and long-range
 therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and liabilities;
 
 
 b. Assessing the potential resources of the individual's
 family; 
 
 c. Setting treatment objectives; and 
 
 d. Prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's
 objectives. 
 
 2. The team must include, at a minimum, either: 
 
 a. A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist; 
 
 b. A clinical psychologist who has a doctoral degree and a
 physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or 
 
 c. A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
 with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
 mental diseases, and a psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
 psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
 association. 
 
 3. The team must also include one of the following: 
 
 a. A psychiatric social worker; 
 
 b. A registered nurse with specialized training or one
 year's experience in treating mentally ill individuals; 
 
 c. An occupational therapist who is licensed, if required
 by the state, and who has specialized training or one year of experience in
 treating mentally ill individuals; or 
 
 d. A psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
 psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
 association. 
 
 H. The RTC-Level C shall not receive a per diem
 reimbursement for any day that: 
 
 1. The initial or comprehensive written plan of care fails
 to include within three business days of the initiation of the service provided
 under arrangement:
 
 a. The prescribed frequency of treatment of such service,
 or includes a frequency that was exceeded; or
 
 b. All services that the individual needs while residing at
 the RTC-Level C and that will be furnished to the individual through the
 RTC-Level C referral to an employed or contracted provider of services under
 arrangement; 
 
 2. The initial or comprehensive written plan of care fails
 to list the circumstances under which the service provided under arrangement
 shall be sought; 
 
 3. The referral to the service provided under arrangement
 was not present in the individual's RTC-Level C record;
 
 4. The service provided under arrangement was not supported
 in that provider's records by a documented referral from the RTC-Level C; 
 
 5. The medical records from the provider of services under
 arrangement (i.e., admission and discharge documents, treatment plans, progress
 notes, treatment summaries, and documentation of medical results and findings)
 (i) were not present in the individual's RTC-Level C record or had not been
 requested in writing by the RTC-Level C within seven days of discharge from or
 completion of the service or services provided under arrangement or (ii) had
 been requested in writing within seven days of discharge from or completion of
 the service or services provided under arrangement, but not received within 30
 days of the request, and not re-requested; 
 
 6. The RTC-Level C did not have a fully executed contract
 or employee relationship with an independent provider of services under
 arrangement in advance of the provision of such services. For emergency
 services, the RTC-Level C shall have a fully executed contract with the
 emergency services provider prior to submission of the emergency service
 provider's claim for payment;
 
 7. A physician's order for the service under arrangement is
 not present in the record; or
 
 8. The service under arrangement is not included in the
 individual's CIPOC within 30 calendar days of the physician's order. 
 
 I. The provider of services under arrangement shall be
 required to reimburse DMAS for the cost of any such service provided under arrangement
 that was (i) furnished prior to receiving a referral or (ii) in excess of the
 amounts in the referral. Providers of services under arrangement shall be
 required to reimburse DMAS for the cost of any such services provided under
 arrangement that were rendered in the absence of an employment or contractual
 relationship.
 
 J. For therapeutic behavioral services for children and
 adolescents under 21 (Level B), the initial plan of care must be completed at
 admission by the licensed mental health professional (LMHP) and a CIPOC must be
 completed by the LMHP no later than 30 days after admission. The assessment
 must be signed and dated by the LMHP. 
 
 K. For community-based services for children and
 adolescents under 21 (Level A), the initial plan of care must be completed at
 admission by the QMHP and a CIPOC must be completed by the QMHP no later than
 30 days after admission. The individualized plan of care must be signed and
 dated by the program director. 
 
 L. Initial plan of care for Levels A and B must include: 
 
 1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
 indicating the need for admission; 
 
 2. A description of the functional level of the individual;
 
 
 3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
 goals; 
 
 4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
 rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
 special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient; 
 
 5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
 modification to the plan of care; and 
 
 6. Plans for discharge. 
 
 M. The CIPOC for Levels A and B must meet all of the
 following criteria: 
 
 1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
 examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
 developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
 for residential psychiatric care; 
 
 2. The CIPOC for both levels must be based on input from
 school, home, other health care providers, the individual and family (or legal
 guardian); 
 
 3. State treatment objectives that include measurable
 short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
 achievement; 
 
 4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
 activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
 to the diagnosis; and 
 
 5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans with related
 community services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the
 individual's family, school, and community.
 
 N. Review of the CIPOC for Levels A and B. The CIPOC must
 be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30 days by the QMHP for Level A and by the
 LMHP for Level B. The review must include: 
 
 1. The response to services provided; 
 
 2. Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
 individual's overall response to the plan of care interventions; and 
 
 3. Determinations regarding whether the services being
 provided continue to be required. 
 
 Updates must be signed and dated by the service provider. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4495; Filed July 3, 2019, 8:58 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
 following regulatory action is exempt from Article 2 of the Administrative
 Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code of Virginia,
 which excludes regulations that are necessary to meet the requirements of
 federal law or regulations, provided such regulations do not differ materially
 from those required by federal law or regulation. The Department of Medical
 Assistance Services will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any
 interested person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation: 12VAC30-135. Demonstration
 Waiver Services (repealing 12VAC30-135-100 through
 12VAC30-135-360). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-324 and 32.1-325 of the Code
 of Virginia.
 
 Effective Date: August 21, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
 Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad
 Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX
 (804) 786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 This action repeals the regulations for the Medicaid
 Children's Mental Health Waiver, a grant program designed to enable the Centers
 for Medicare and Medicaid Services to develop reliable cost and utilization
 data to evaluate the effectiveness of community-based service delivery models
 for children with serious emotional disturbances who require psychiatric
 residential treatment facility level of care, because of discontinuation of
 federal funding due to loss of federal authority for this program. The
 Department of Medical Assistance Services terminated this waiver effective
 September 30, 2017. 
 
 Part II
 Children's Mental Health Waiver
 
 12VAC30-135-100. Definitions. (Repealed.)
 
 The following words and terms when used in this regulation
 shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates
 otherwise:
 
 "Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"
 means personal care tasks, e.g., bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring,
 and eating/feeding. A client's degree of independence in performing these
 activities is a part of determining appropriate level-of-care and services.
 
 "Agency-directed model" means services provided
 by a participating provider and where the provider is responsible for hiring,
 training, supervising, and firing of the staff.
 
 "Appeal" means the process used to challenge
 adverse actions regarding services, benefits and reimbursement provided by
 Medicaid pursuant to 12VAC30-110 and 12VAC30-20-500 through 12VAC30-20-560.
 
 "Approve" means the Department of Medical
 Assistance Services (DMAS) or a DMAS-contracted entity authorizes a
 participating provider's request for services, on behalf of a client, as
 medically necessary and meeting DMAS criteria for reimbursement.
 
 "Assessment" means a face-to-face meeting
 conducted to identify a client's physical, emotional, behavioral, and social
 strengths, preferences, and needs. Assessments are performed by a
 DMAS-authorized provider prior to the development of the individualized service
 plan (ISP) and comprehensive service plan (CSP).
 
 "Barrier crime" means those crimes as defined at
 § 32.1-162.9:1 or 37.2-416 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 "Behavioral health authority" or "BHA"
 means the local agency, established by a city or county or combination of counties
 or cities or cities and counties under Chapter 1 (§ 37.2-100 et seq.) of
 Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia, that plans, provides, and evaluates mental
 health, mental retardation, and substance abuse services in the locality or
 localities that it serves.
 
 "Case management" means the assessing and
 planning of services; linking the client to services and supports identified in
 the comprehensive service plan (CSP); assisting the client directly for the
 purpose of locating, developing or obtaining needed services and resources;
 coordinating services and service planning with other agencies and providers
 involved with the client; enhancing community integration; making collateral
 contacts to promote the implementation of the CSP and community integration; monitoring
 to assess ongoing progress and ensuring services are delivered; and education
 and counseling that guides the client and develops a supportive relationship
 that promotes the CSP.
 
 "Case manager" means the individual on behalf of
 a DMAS participating provider possessing a combination of work experience and
 relevant education that indicates that the individual possesses the knowledge,
 skills and abilities, at the entry level to provide the services described, at
 12VAC30-50-420 through 12VAC30-50-430 or 12VAC30-50-480 or 12VAC30-50-130 B 5 a
 for case management services. The case manager may be the provider of Intensive
 In-Home Services or the Treatment Foster Care Case Manager or other provider as
 designated by DMAS.
 
 "Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services" or
 "CMS" means the unit of the federal Department of Health and Human
 Services that administers the Medicare and Medicaid programs.
 
 "Child" means, for the purpose of this
 regulation, an individual under the age of 21 years.
 
 "Client" means the person receiving the
 services.
 
 "CMH waiver" means the Children's Mental Health
 § 1915(c) home and community-based services demonstration waiver.
 
 "Community services board" or "CSB"
 means the local agency established by a city or county or combination of cities
 and/or counties under Chapter 5 (§ 37.2-500 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the Code
 of Virginia, that plans, provides, and evaluates mental health, mental
 retardation, and substance abuse services in the jurisdiction or jurisdictions
 it serves.
 
 "Community transition services" means services
 that are provided to individuals who are leaving the PRTF and have chosen to
 receive services in the community. Community transition services include
 assessment of the child and family; assistance with meeting the requirements of
 waiver enrollment; referral for Medicaid eligibility; developing a community
 plan of care in coordination with the family, CSA (if involved), and other
 involved parties; identifying community service providers; and monitoring the
 initial transition to the community.
 
 "Companion" means, for the purpose of these
 regulations, an individual who provides companion services. 
 
 "Companion services" means assistance with skill
 development and with understanding family interaction, behavioral interventions
 for support and safety, nonmedical care, nonmedical transportation, community
 integration, and rewarding appropriate behaviors. This service is available
 through both a consumer-directed (CD) and agency-directed delivery approach and
 shall not exceed eight hours in one day.
 
 "Comprehensive Services Act" or "CSA"
 means a collaborative system of services and funding that is child-centered,
 family-focused, and community-based when addressing the strengths and needs of
 troubled and at-risk youth and their families.
 
 "Comprehensive service plan" or "CSP"
 means the overall service plan that addresses the total needs of the client in
 all life areas. The CSP incorporates the ISPs developed for each individual
 service. The CSP defines and describes the goals, objectives and expected
 outcomes of service(s). The client or family/caregiver, as appropriate, will be
 involved to the maximum extent possible in the development and revision of the
 CSP. The CSP includes, at a minimum: (i) a summary or reference to the
 assessment; (ii) goals and measurable objectives for addressing each identified
 need; (iii) the services, supports, and frequency of service to accomplish the
 goals and objectives; (iv) target dates for accomplishment of goals and
 objectives; (v) estimated duration of service; (vi) the role of other agencies
 if the plan is a shared responsibility; and (vii) the staff responsible for
 coordination and integration of services, including the staff of other agencies
 if the plan is a shared responsibility.
 
 "Consumer-directed model" or "CD"
 means services for which the client or family/caregiver is responsible for
 hiring, training, supervising, and firing of the staff.
 
 "Consumer-directed services facilitator" means
 the DMAS-enrolled provider who is responsible for supporting the client by
 ensuring the development and monitoring of the CD services individualized
 service plan (ISP), and completing ongoing review activities as required by
 DMAS for CD companion services and CD respite services. 
 
 "Deny" means DMAS or a DMAS-contracted entity
 denies a participating provider's request for services, on behalf of a client,
 as not medically necessary or not meeting DMAS criteria for reimbursement.
 
 "DMAS" means the Department of Medical
 Assistance Services or its contractors.
 
 "DMAS staff" means individuals employed by DMAS.
 
 "DMHMRSAS" means the Department of Mental
 Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services. 
 
 "DSM-IV" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
 Manual of Mental Disorders that is the standard classification of mental disorders
 used by mental health professionals. 
 
 "DSM-IV-TR" means the text revision of the
 DSM-IV, published in July 2000, which corrected errors identified in the DSM-IV
 and included numerous changes to the classification (i.e., disorders were
 added, deleted, and reorganized), to the diagnostic criteria sets, and to the
 descriptive text.
 
 "DSS" means the Department of Social Services.
 
 "Enroll" means that a client has been added to
 the CMH waiver after it has been determined that the client meets all of the
 eligibility requirements for the waiver.
 
 "Environmental modifications" means physical
 adaptations to a client's home or primary place of residence or primary
 vehicle, which provide direct medical or remedial benefit to the client. These
 adaptations are necessary to ensure the health, welfare, and safety of the
 client, or enable the client to function with greater independence in the home.
 Without these adaptations, the client would require institutionalization in a
 psychiatric residential treatment facility (PRTF).
 
 "EPSDT" means the "Early Periodic
 Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment" program administered by DMAS for
 children under the age of 21 according to federal guidelines that prescribe
 specific preventive and treatment services for Medicaid-eligible children as
 defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
 
 "Family/caregiver" means the family, legal
 guardian, neighbor, friend, companion or co-worker, or any person who provides
 uncompensated care, training, guidance, companionship or support to a person
 served under this waiver.
 
 "Family/caregiver training" means training and
 counseling services provided to families or caregivers of clients receiving
 services in the CMH waiver. Training includes instruction about treatment
 regimens and behavioral plans specified in the ISP, and shall include updates
 as necessary to safely maintain the client at home. Counseling may be provided
 to the family/caregiver to improve and develop the family's/caregiver's skills
 in dealing with life circumstances of parenting a child with special needs and
 help the client remain at home. All training/counseling will be provided on a
 face-to-face basis.
 
 "Fiscal management service" or "FMS"
 means an agency or organization within DMAS or contracted by DMAS to handle
 employment, payroll, and tax responsibilities on behalf of clients who are
 receiving CD respite and companion services.
 
 "Health, welfare, and safety standard" means
 that a client's right to receive a waiver service is dependent on a finding
 that the client needs the service, based on appropriate assessment criteria and
 a written CSP, and that services can be provided safely in the community.
 
 "Home and community-based waiver services" or
 "waiver services" means a variety of home and community-based
 services reimbursed by DMAS as authorized pursuant to § 1915(c) of the
 Social Security Act designed to offer clients an alternative to
 institutionalization. Clients may be pre-authorized to receive one or more of
 these services either solely or in combination, based on the documented need
 for the service in order to discharge the client from a PRTF.
 
 "Individualized service plan" or "ISP"
 means the specific service plan developed by the service provider related
 solely to the specific tasks required of that service provider. The client will
 be involved to the maximum extent possible in the development and revision of
 the ISP. The ISP helps to comprise the overall CSP. The ISP includes, at a
 minimum: (i) a summary or reference to the assessment; (ii) goals and
 measurable objectives for addressing each identified need; (iii) the services,
 supports, and frequency of service to accomplish the goals and objectives; (iv)
 target dates for accomplishment of goals and objectives; (v) estimated duration
 of service; (vi) the role of other agencies if the plan is a shared responsibility;
 and (vii) the staff responsible for coordination and integration of services,
 including the staff of other agencies if the plan is a shared responsibility.
 
 "In-home residential supports" means
 agency-directed services that increase or maintain personal self sufficiency,
 and facilitate the client's achievement of community inclusion and remaining in
 the home. The supports may be provided in the client's residence or in
 community settings. Community living supports provides assistance to the family
 in the care of their child, while facilitating the client's independence and
 integration into the community. The service also includes communication and
 relationship-building skills, and participation in leisure and community
 activities. These supports must be provided directly to, or on behalf of, the
 client enabling the client to attain or maintain his maximum potential. These
 supports may serve to reinforce skills or lessons taught in school, therapy, or
 other settings.
 
 "Instrumental activities of daily living" or
 "IADLs" means tasks such as meal preparation, shopping, housekeeping,
 laundry, and money management.
 
 "Legal guardian" means a person who has been
 legally authorized to take care of and make decisions for the client in order
 to protect the interests of a minor client or an adult who has been declared by
 the circuit court to be incapable of administering his own affairs. The powers
 and duties of the guardian are defined by the court and are limited to matters
 within the areas where the client has been determined to be incapacitated.
 
 "Level-of-care" means the psychiatric
 residential treatment facility (PRTF) criteria. Review of a client's
 level-of-care requires the case manager to assure that the client continues to
 meet the PRTF criteria.
 
 "Licensed mental health professional" or
 "LMHP" means a clinician in the human services field as defined at
 12VAC30-50-226.
 
 "Participating provider" means a person,
 institution, facility, agency, partnership, corporation, or association that
 meets the standards and requirements set forth by DMAS, and has a current,
 signed provider participation agreement with DMAS.
 
 "Pend" means delaying the consideration of a
 provider's request, on behalf of a client, for services until all required
 information is received by the preauthorization entity.
 
 "Person-centered planning" means a process,
 directed by the client or family/caregiver, as appropriate, with assistance as
 needed from others involved in the care of the child. Person-centered planning
 shall be intended to identify the strengths, capacities, preferences, needs and
 desired outcomes of the client.
 
 "Personal care agency" means a participating
 provider that renders services designed to prevent or reduce institutional care
 by providing eligible clients with companions and assistants who provide
 companion or respite services.
 
 "Preauthorization" means the process to approve
 specific services for a client by a Medicaid-enrolled provider prior to service
 delivery and reimbursement.
 
 "Preauthorized" means that an individual's
 comprehensive service plan has been approved by DMAS or a DMAS-approved entity
 prior to commencement of the service by the service provider for provision and
 reimbursement of services.
 
 "Primary caregiver" means the primary person who
 consistently assumes the role of providing direct care and support of the
 client to live successfully in the community without compensation for providing
 such care.
 
 "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" or
 "PRTF" means a facility that provides 24-hour-per-day specialized,
 highly organized, intensive, and planned therapeutic interventions to children
 that are utilized to treat severe mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders.
 
 "Qualified mental health professional" or
 "QMHP" means a clinician in the human services field as defined at
 12VAC30-50-226.
 
 "Respite care agency" means a participating
 provider that renders services designed to prevent or reduce inappropriate
 institutional care by providing respite services to eligible clients for their
 caregivers.
 
 "Respite services" means services provided to
 clients and their families to offer relief to unpaid caregivers. Respite
 services will be provided in the client's home or place of residence, in the
 community, or a licensed respite facility, such as a group home. This service
 is available through both a CD and agency-directed delivery approach. 
 
 "Screening" means the process to evaluate the
 medical, emotional, psychiatric, and social needs of clients referred for
 screening to determine client's eligibility to be discharged from a PRTF, and
 to authorize Medicaid-funded community-based care for those clients who meet
 the CMH waiver eligibility criteria.
 
 "Screener" means the entity or entities
 identified by DMAS that is responsible for performing screening for the CMH
 waiver.
 
 "Serious emotional disturbance" or
 "SED" means a serious mental health problem in children ages birth
 through 21 that can be diagnosed under the DSM-IV-TR, or exhibited by all of
 the following: (i) problems in personality development and social functioning
 that have been exhibited over at least one year's time; and (ii) problems that
 are significantly disabling based upon the social functioning of most children
 that age; and (iii) problems that have become more disabling over time; and
 (iv) service needs that require significant intervention by more than one
 agency.
 
 "Service provider" means the entity providing
 direct services to the client.
 
 "Services facilitator" means the participating
 provider who is responsible for supporting the client by ensuring the development
 and monitoring of the CD Services ISP, providing employee management training,
 and completing ongoing review activities as required by DMAS for services with
 an option of a CD model. These services include companion and respite services.
 
 "State Plan for Medical Assistance" or "the
 Plan" means the Commonwealth's legal document approved by CMS identifying
 the covered groups, covered services and their limitations, and provider
 reimbursement methodologies as provided for under Title XIX of the Social Security
 Act.
 
 "Therapeutic consultation" means services that
 provide expertise, training, and technical assistance by licensed professionals
 to assist family members, caregivers, and other service providers in supporting
 the client. This service includes the assessment of the client and family
 strengths, observation, and developing, with the family, a culturally sensitive
 ISP.
 
 "Uniform Assessment Instrument" means the
 uniform assessment instrument, as designated by DMAS, used to measure
 functional outcomes for children. This tool is used by the screener as one
 component of its assessment and is used to inform but not dictate a
 level-of-care. The completion of this tool is required for children who
 participate in the CMH waiver. This tool is separate from the UAI used for
 long-term care services in other home and community-based services waivers.
 
 12VAC30-135-110. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-120. General coverage and requirements for
 Children's Mental Health Waiver services. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Waiver service populations. Home and community-based
 waiver services shall be available through a § 1915(c) of the Social Security
 Act waiver for clients under the age of 21 who have resided in a PRTF for at
 least 90 days and have been determined to continue to meet PRTF level-of-care,
 but with additional supports could reside in the community.
 
 B. Required documentation, as identified by DMAS, for
 admission to the CMH waiver must be submitted to DMAS in order for the client
 to be enrolled. Upon determination by DMAS or a DMAS-contracted entity that the
 client is appropriate for admission to the waiver, the case manager or screener
 will work with the client family/caregiver, the facility currently housing the
 client, and client/family/caregiver-selected providers of community-based
 services to determine an appropriate transfer date.
 
 C. Covered services.
 
 1. Covered services shall include respite services (both CD
 and agency-directed), in-home residential supports, companion services (both CD
 and agency-directed), family/caregiver training, environmental modifications,
 community transition services and therapeutic consultation.
 
 2. These services shall be medically appropriate and
 necessary to maintain the client in the community. Federal waiver requirements
 provide that the overall costs of community care shall be no more than the
 overall costs that would have been incurred at the same level of service in the
 PRTF.
 
 3. Waiver services shall not be furnished to clients who
 are inpatients of a hospital, nursing facility, intermediate care facility for
 persons with mental retardation, inpatient rehabilitation facility, or a PRTF
 consistent with federal waiver limitations.
 
 4. Under this § 1915(c) waiver, DMAS waives § 1902(a)(10)(B)
 of the Social Security Act related to comparability.
 
 D. Requests for services. All requests for waiver services
 by CMH waiver clients will be reviewed under the health, welfare, and safety
 standard. This standard assures that a client's right to receive a waiver
 service is dependent on a finding that the client needs the service, based on
 appropriate assessment criteria and a written CSP and that services can safely
 be provided in the community. If the determination is made that these services
 cannot be safely provided to a client, then such clients shall not be approved
 for this waiver.
 
 E. Medicaid reimbursement is available only for services
 provided when the client is present and when a qualified provider is providing
 the services. If the client is absent, such as in a hospitalization, no
 reimbursement will be provided for these waiver services.
 
 F. Appeals. Individual appeals shall be considered
 pursuant to 12VAC30-110-10 through 12VAC30-110-380. Provider appeals shall be
 considered pursuant to 12VAC30-10-1000 and 12VAC30-20-500 through
 12VAC30-20-560.
 
 G. Reevaluation of service need and utilization review.
 Reviews and updates of the CSP and level-of-care must meet the requirements as
 specified by DMAS. Providers shall meet the documentation requirements as
 specified by DMAS and DMAS will conduct quality management reviews for services
 rendered. Services failing to meet DMAS' quality management standards shall not
 be reimbursed or shall be subject to payment recoveries.
 
 12VAC30-135-130. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-140. Client eligibility requirements and intake
 process. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Virginia will evaluate clients for the CMH waiver as a
 separate assistance unit of one regardless of whether the child is living in
 the home with a parent or guardian, or siblings. Under this waiver, clients
 must meet the financial and nonfinancial Medicaid eligibility criteria and meet
 the PRTF institutional level-of-care criteria. DMAS shall be the single state
 agency authority responsible for the supervision and administration of the CMH
 waiver.
 
 B. The following three criteria shall apply to all CMH
 waiver services:
 
 1. Clients qualifying for CMH waiver services must have a
 demonstrated need for the service resulting in significant functional
 limitations. The need for the service must arise from the client having a SED and
 meeting the level-of-care for admission to a PRTF;
 
 2. The services described in the ISP, and services as
 delivered, must be consistent with the Medicaid definition of each service; and
 
 3. Services must be recommended based on a current
 assessment using a DMAS-approved assessment instrument and a client's
 demonstrated need for each specific service.
 
 C. Assessment, screening, authorization and enrollment in
 home and community-based care services.
 
 1. To ensure that Virginia's CMH waiver serves only clients
 who would otherwise remain in a PRTF, home and community-based care services
 shall be considered only for clients who have resided in a PRTF for at least 90
 days to ensure that the client's condition has been stabilized. Home and
 community-based care services shall be the critical service that enables the
 client to be discharged home rather than remaining in a PRTF. Clients must
 receive at least one CMH waiver service to remain in the waiver.
 
 2. CMH waiver services must be determined by DMAS or a
 DMAS-contracted entity to be an appropriate service alternative as defined in
 these regulations to remaining in a PRTF.
 
 3. The client shall be recommended for CMH waiver services
 after completion of a comprehensive assessment of the client's needs and
 available supports. The completion of an assessment is mandatory before the
 client can be enrolled in the CMH waiver and Medicaid assumes payment
 responsibility for the waiver services.
 
 4. The CMH waiver screener shall gather relevant medical,
 social, and psychological data and identify services to meet the client's needs
 in the community.
 
 5. The client or family/caregiver, as appropriate, must be
 offered the choice of CMH waiver services or to remain in the PRTF. If the
 client chooses CMH waiver services, the client must also be offered the choice
 of waiver providers.
 
 6. The screener shall explore alternative settings and
 services to provide the care needed by the client.
 
 7. Medicaid will not pay for any home and community-based
 care services delivered prior to the authorization date approved by DMAS or a
 DMAS-contracted entity. Any CSP for home and community-based care services must
 be preapproved by DMAS prior to Medicaid reimbursement for waiver services.
 
 D. Screening for the CMH waiver.
 
 1. Clients requesting CMH waiver services will be screened
 and will receive services on a first-come, first-served basis based on the
 availability of services in the community to support the client. 
 
 2. To be eligible for CMH waiver services, the client must:
 
 
 a. Have been a resident of a PRTF for at least 90 days
 prior to applying for the CMH waiver; 
 
 b. Continue to meet the PRTF criteria described in
 12VAC30-50-130;
 
 c. Have services identified in the community to meet the
 client's needs; 
 
 d. Have a case manager assigned; and 
 
 e. Continue to meet Medicaid eligibility criteria.
 
 E. Waiver approval process: authorizing and accessing
 services.
 
 1. The screener is the entity responsible for assessing the
 client to determine if the client meets the criteria for admission to the CMH
 waiver.
 
 2. If a client is a CSA client, the screener shall be the
 CSA representative. If the client is not a CSA client, the screener shall be
 the mental health or treatment foster care case manager.
 
 3. Once the screener has determined that a client meets the
 eligibility criteria for CMH waiver services and the client or
 family/caregiver, as appropriate, has chosen this program, the client or
 family/caregiver will be provided with a list of available service providers.
 The client or family/caregiver, as appropriate, must be given a choice of
 providers if there is more than one provider available that can meet the
 client's needs. The client or family/caregiver, as appropriate, must also be
 given a choice of CD or agency-directed respite and companion services, if the
 client is eligible for these services.
 
 4. When all required information has been submitted to DMAS
 or its contractor for preauthorization, DMAS or the contractor will have 10
 business days to review preauthorization requests. If the request is approved,
 the client will be sent written notification of enrollment in the CMH waiver
 and services may begin.
 
 5. Only CMH waiver services authorized on the CSP by the
 screening entity according to DMAS policies may be reimbursed by DMAS.
 
 6. All CSPs are subject to approval by DMAS.
 
 F. Reevaluation of service need.
 
 1. The comprehensive service plan (CSP).
 
 a. The CSP shall be reviewed at intervals as determined by
 DMAS with the case manager, client, family/caregiver, service providers,
 consultants, and others involved in the care of the client based on relevant,
 current assessment data.
 
 b. The case manager is responsible for continuous
 monitoring of the appropriateness of the client's services and revisions to the
 CSP as indicated by the changing needs of the client. The case manager must
 review the CSP at least every three months to determine whether service goals
 and objectives are being met and whether any modifications to the CSP are
 necessary.
 
 c. Any modification to the amount or type of services in
 the CSP must be approved by the client or family/caregiver, as appropriate, and
 be pre-authorized by DMAS.
 
 2. Review of level-of-care.
 
 a. The case manager shall complete a reassessment annually,
 in coordination with the client, family/caregiver, service providers,
 consultants, and others involved in the care of the client, to ensure that the
 client continues to meet the PRTF criteria. The reassessment shall include the
 completion of the assessment instrument and any other appropriate assessment
 data. If warranted, the case manager shall coordinate a medical examination and
 a mental health assessment for the client. The CSP shall be revised as
 appropriate.
 
 b. A new mental health assessment shall be required
 whenever the current mental health assessment is no longer reflective of the
 client's current condition.
 
 3. The case manager will monitor the service providers'
 ISPs to ensure that all providers are working toward the identified goals of
 the client.
 
 4. Case managers will be required to conduct a minimum of
 quarterly face-to-face visits for all CMH waiver clients.
 
 12VAC30-135-150. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-160. Participation standards for home and
 community-based waiver services participating providers. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Requests for participation. Requests for participation
 from providers will be evaluated to determine whether the provider applicant
 meets the basic requirements for participation.
 
 B. Providers approved for participation shall, at a
 minimum, perform the following activities:
 
 1. For services that require licensure and/or
 certification, the provider must meet all licensure and/or certification
 requirements pursuant to 42 CFR 440.50 and 42 CFR 440.60 and any other
 applicable state or federal requirements;
 
 2. The ability to document and maintain client case records
 in accordance with state and federal requirements;
 
 3. Immediately notify DMAS in writing of any change in the
 information that the provider previously submitted to DMAS;
 
 4. Assure freedom of choice to the client or
 family/caregiver, as appropriate, in seeking services from any institution,
 pharmacy, practitioner, or other provider qualified to perform the service or
 services required and participating in the Medicaid program at the time the
 service or services are performed;
 
 5. Assure the freedom of the client or family/caregiver, as
 appropriate, to refuse medical care, treatment and services;
 
 6. Accept referrals for services only when staff is
 available to initiate services and perform such services on an ongoing basis;
 
 7. Provide services and supplies to clients in full
 compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 USC §
 2000d et seq.), which prohibits discrimination on the grounds of race, color,
 or national origin; the Virginians with Disabilities Act (§ 51.5-1 et seq. of the
 Code of Virginia); § 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 USC
 § 794), which prohibits discrimination on the basis of a disability; and the
 Americans with Disabilities Act, as amended (42 USC § 12101 et seq.),
 which provides comprehensive civil rights protections to clients with
 disabilities in the areas of employment, public accommodations, state and local
 government services, and telecommunications;
 
 8. Provide services and supplies to clients of the same
 quality and in the same mode of delivery as are provided to the general public;
 
 9. Submit charges to DMAS for the provision of services and
 supplies to clients in amounts not to exceed the provider's usual and customary
 charges to the general public and accept as payment in full the amount
 established by DMAS' payment methodology beginning with the onset of the
 client's authorization date for the waiver services;
 
 10. Use program-designated billing forms for submission of
 charges;
 
 11. Maintain and retain business and professional records
 sufficient to document fully and accurately the nature, scope, and details of
 the services provided;
 
 a. In general, such records shall be retained for at least
 six years from the last date of service or as provided by applicable state or
 federal laws, whichever period is longer. However, if an audit is initiated
 within the required retention period, the records shall be retained until the
 audit is completed and every exception resolved. Records of minors shall be
 kept for at least six years after such minor has reached the age of 18 years.
 
 b. Policies regarding retention of records shall apply even
 if the provider discontinues operation. DMAS shall be notified in writing of
 storage location and procedures for obtaining records for review should the
 need arise. The location and agent, or trustee shall be within the Commonwealth
 of Virginia.
 
 c. Documentation must be maintained that indicates the
 date, type of services rendered, and the number of hours/units provided,
 including the specific time frames.
 
 12. Agree to furnish information on request and in the form
 requested by DMAS, the Attorney General of Virginia or his authorized
 representatives, federal personnel, and the state Medicaid Fraud Control Unit.
 The Commonwealth's right of access to provider agencies and records shall
 survive any termination of the provider agreement;
 
 13. Disclose, as requested by DMAS, all financial,
 beneficial, ownership, equity, surety, or other interests in any and all firms,
 corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures,
 agencies, institutions, or other legal entities providing any form of health
 care services to recipients of Medicaid;
 
 14. Pursuant to 42 CFR Part 431, Subpart F, 12VAC30-20-90,
 and any other applicable state or federal law, hold confidential and use for
 authorized DMAS' purposes only all medical assistance information regarding
 clients served. A provider shall disclose information in his possession only
 when the information is used in conjunction with a claim for health benefits or
 the data is necessary for the functioning of DMAS in conjunction with the cited
 laws. DMAS shall not disclose medical information to the public;
 
 15. Notify DMAS of change of ownership, as defined in 42 CFR
 489.18. When ownership of the provider changes, DMAS shall be notified at least
 15 calendar days before the date of change;
 
 16. For all facilities covered by § 1616(e) of the Social
 Security Act in which home and community-based waiver services will be
 provided, be in compliance with applicable standards that meet the requirements
 for board and care facilities;
 
 17. Suspected abuse or neglect. Pursuant to §§ 63.2-1509
 and 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia, if a participating provider knows or
 suspects that a home and community-based waiver service client is being abused,
 neglected, or exploited, the party having knowledge or suspicion of the abuse,
 neglect, or exploitation shall report this immediately from first knowledge to
 the local DSS protective services worker, to DMAS, and to DMHMRSAS Offices of
 Licensing and Human Rights as applicable;
 
 18. Adhere to the provider participation agreement and the
 DMAS provider service manual. In addition to compliance with the general
 conditions and requirements, all providers enrolled by DMAS shall adhere to the
 conditions of participation outlined in their individual provider participation
 agreements and in the DMAS provider manual.
 
 D. Recipient choice of providers. The case manager must
 inform the client and family/caregiver of all available waiver providers in the
 community in which he desires services. The client and family/caregiver shall
 have the option of selecting the provider of his choice from among those
 providers who are able to meet his needs. A client's case manager shall not be
 the direct staff person or immediate supervisor of a staff person who provides
 CMH waiver services for the client.
 
 E. Review of provider participation standards and renewal
 of contracts. DMAS is responsible for assuring continued adherence to provider
 participation standards. DMAS shall conduct ongoing monitoring of compliance
 with provider participation standards and DMAS policies and periodically
 recertify each provider for participation agreement renewal with DMAS to
 provide home and community-based waiver services. A provider's noncompliance
 with DMAS policies and procedures, as required in the provider's participation
 agreement, may result in a written request from DMAS for a corrective action
 plan that details the steps the provider must take and the length of time
 permitted to achieve full compliance with the plan to correct the deficiencies
 that have been cited.
 
 F. Termination of provider participation. A participating
 provider may voluntarily terminate his participation in Medicaid by providing
 30 days' written notification. DMAS may terminate at-will a provider's
 participation agreement on 30 days' written notice as specified in the DMAS
 participation agreement. DMAS may also immediately terminate a provider's
 participation agreement in the event of a breach of the contract by the
 provider as specified in the DMAS participation agreement and also if the
 provider is no longer eligible to participate in the program. Such action
 precludes further payment by DMAS for services provided to clients subsequent
 to the date of termination.
 
 G. Reconsideration of adverse actions. A provider shall
 have the right to appeal adverse action taken by DMAS to the extent such action
 is appealable under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the
 Code of Virginia). Unless otherwise provided by law, adverse action includes,
 but shall not be limited to, termination of the provider participation
 agreement by DMAS and retraction of payments from the provider by DMAS for
 noncompliance with applicable law, regulation, policy, or procedure. All disputes
 regarding provider reimbursement or termination of the agreement by DMAS for
 any reason shall be resolved through administrative proceedings conducted at
 the office of DMAS in Richmond, Virginia, unless otherwise provided by law.
 These administrative proceedings and judicial review of such administrative
 proceedings shall be conducted pursuant to the Virginia Administrative Process
 Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia), the State Plan for Medical
 Assistance provided for in § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia, and duly
 promulgated regulations. Court review of final agency determinations concerning
 provider reimbursement shall be made in accordance with the Administrative
 Process Act.
 
 H. Provider appeals shall be considered pursuant to
 12VAC30-10-1000 and 12VAC30-20-500 through 12VAC30-20-560.
 
 I. It is the responsibility of the case management
 provider to notify DMAS, in writing, when any of the following circumstances or
 events occurs:
 
 1. Home and community-based waiver services are implemented;
 
 2. A client dies;
 
 3. A client is discharged from all waiver services;
 
 4. Any other circumstances (including hospitalization) that
 cause home and community-based waiver services to cease or be interrupted for
 more than 30 days; or 
 
 5. A selection by the client of a different provider of
 case management services. 
 
 J. Changes or termination of services. The case manager
 shall authorize changes to a client's CSP based on the recommendations of the
 service provider and approval by the client or family/caregiver, as
 appropriate. Providers of direct service are responsible for modifying their
 ISP with the involvement of the client and family/caregiver and submitting ISPs
 to the case manager any time there is a change in the client's condition or
 circumstances that may warrant a change in the amount or type of service
 rendered. The case manager will review the need for a change and may recommend
 a change to the CSP and submit this change to the DMAS-contracted
 preauthorization entity. The preauthorization entity will review and approve,
 deny, or pend for additional information the requested change to the client's
 CSP, and communicate this to the case manager.
 
 K. In the case of reduction, termination, suspension or
 denial of home and community-based waiver services by the preauthorization
 contractor or DMAS staff, clients shall be notified in writing of their appeal
 rights by the case manager pursuant to 12VAC30-110. The case manager shall have
 the responsibility to identify those clients who no longer meet the level-of-care
 criteria or for whom home and community-based waiver services are no longer an
 appropriate alternative to residential placement. All CSPs are subject to
 approval by the Medicaid agency.
 
 L. Termination of a provider participation agreement upon
 conviction of a felony. Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia mandates that
 "any such Medicaid agreement or contract shall terminate upon conviction
 of the provider of a felony." A provider convicted of a felony in Virginia
 or in any other of the 50 states or Washington, D.C., must, within 30 days,
 notify the Medicaid Program of this conviction and relinquish its provider
 participation agreement. Reinstatement will be contingent upon provisions of
 state law. In addition, termination of a provider participation agreement will
 occur as may be required for federal financial participation.
 
 M. Changes or termination of care. It is the DMAS staff's
 responsibility to authorize any changes to a client's CSP based on the
 recommendations of the case manager. Participating providers providing direct
 service are responsible for modifying the ISP if the client/family/caregiver
 agrees. The provider must submit the ISP to the case manager any time there is
 a change in the client's condition or circumstances that may warrant a change
 in the amount or type of service rendered. The case manager must review the
 need for a change and will sign the ISP if he agrees to the changes. The case
 manager must submit the revised CSP to the DMAS staff to receive approval for
 that change. DMAS staff has the final authority to approve or deny the
 requested change.
 
 1. Nonemergency termination of home and community-based
 care services by the participating provider. The participating provider must
 give the client and case manager 10 business days' written notification of the
 intent to terminate services. The letter must provide the reasons for and the
 effective date of the termination. The effective date of services termination
 must be at least 10 days from the date of the termination notification letter.
 The client is not eligible for appeal rights in this situation and may pursue
 services from another provider.
 
 2. Emergency termination of home and community-based care
 services by the participating provider. In an emergency situation when the health
 and safety of the client or provider agency personnel is endangered, the case
 manager, DMAS and the DMHMRSAS Offices of Licensing and Human Rights must be
 notified prior to termination of services. The 10-business day written
 notification period shall not be required. If appropriate, the local DSS
 protective services unit must be notified immediately.
 
 3. DMAS termination of eligibility to receive home and
 community-based care services. DMAS has the ultimate responsibility for
 assuring appropriate placement of the client in home and community-based care
 services and the authority to terminate such services to the client for the
 following reasons:
 
 a. The client no longer meets the institutional
 level-of-care criteria;
 
 b. The client's environment does not provide for his
 health, safety, and welfare; or
 
 c. An appropriate and cost-effective CSP cannot be
 developed.
 
 N. Documentation requirements.
 
 1. Records of minors shall be kept for at least six years
 after such minor has reached the age of 18 years. The case manager must retain
 the following documentation for quality management review by DMAS for a period
 of not less than six years from each client's last date of service or as
 provided by applicable state or federal laws, whichever period is longer.
 
 a. The comprehensive assessment and all CSPs completed for
 the client;
 
 b. All ISPs from every provider rendering waiver services
 to the client;
 
 c. All supporting documentation related to any change in
 the ISP;
 
 d. All related communication with the client, family/caregiver,
 consultants, providers, the screening entity, DMAS, DMHMRSAS, CSA, DSS and
 others involved in the care of the client; and
 
 e. An ongoing log that documents all contacts made by the
 case manager related to the client.
 
 2. Quality management review of client-specific
 documentation must be conducted by DMAS staff. This documentation must contain,
 up to and including the last date of service, all of the following:
 
 a. All assessments and reassessments;
 
 b. All ISP's developed for that client and the written
 reviews;
 
 c. Documentation of the date services were rendered and the
 amount and type of services rendered;
 
 d. Appropriate data, contact notes or progress notes
 reflecting a client's status and, as appropriate, progress or lack of progress
 toward the goals on the ISP; and
 
 e. Any documentation to support that services provided are
 appropriate and necessary to maintain the client in the home and in the
 community.
 
 12VAC30-135-170. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-180. Agency-directed companion services. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Service description. Companion services provide
 assistance with skill development and with understanding family interaction,
 behavioral interventions for support and safety, nonmedical care, nonmedical
 transportation, community integration, and rewarding appropriate behaviors.
 These include, but are not limited to, nonmedical care, socialization, or
 support to a client. Companions may assist or support the individual with such
 tasks as meal preparation, community access and activities, laundry and
 shopping, but companions do not perform these activities as discrete services.
 This service is provided in accordance with a therapeutic goal in the ISP and
 is not purely diversional in nature.
 
 B. Criteria. In order to qualify for companion services, the
 client shall have demonstrated a need for assistance with IADLs, light
 housekeeping, community access, reminders for medication self-administration,
 or support to assure safety.
 
 1. The inclusion of companion services in the ISP is
 appropriate only when the client cannot be left alone at any time due to the
 SED. The provision of companion services does not entail hands-on care.
 
 2. Companion services shall not be covered if required only
 because the client does not have a telephone in the home or because the client
 does not speak English.
 
 3. There must be a clear and present danger to the client
 as a result of being left unsupervised. Companion services cannot be authorized
 for clients whose only need for such services is for assistance exiting the
 home in the event of an emergency.
 
 C. Service units and
 service limitations.
 
 1. The amount of companion services time included in the
 ISP must be no more than is necessary to prevent the deterioration or injury to
 the client. In no event may the amount of time relegated solely to companion
 care on the ISP exceed eight hours per day, either separately or in any
 combination of CD and agency-directed companion services.
 
 2. The hours authorized are based on individual need. No
 more than three unrelated clients who are receiving waiver services and live in
 the same home are permitted to share the authorized work hours of the same
 companion.
 
 3. Companion care will be authorized for family
 members/caregivers to sleep either during the day or during the night when the
 client cannot be left alone at any time due to his condition. Companion
 services must be necessary to ensure the client's safety if he cannot be left
 unsupervised due to health and safety concerns.
 
 4. Companion services can be authorized when no one else is
 in the home who is competent to monitor the client for safety.
 
 D. Provider requirements. In addition to meeting the
 general conditions and requirements for home and community-based participating
 providers as specified in 12VAC30-135-120 and 12VAC30-135-160, companion
 service providers must meet the following qualifications:
 
 1. Providers must either be licensed by DMHMRSAS as (i) a
 residential service provider, (ii) supportive in-home residential service
 provider; (iii) day support service provider; or (iv) respite service provider;
 or meet the DMAS criteria to be a personal care/respite services provider.
 
 2. Companions will be employees of providers that have
 provider participation agreements with DMAS to provide companion services.
 Providers are required to have a companion services supervisor to monitor
 companion services. The supervisor must be at least a QMHP.
 
 3. The supervisor must conduct an initial home visit prior
 to initiating companion services to document the efficacy and appropriateness
 of services and to establish an ISP for the client. The supervisor must provide
 follow-up home visits to monitor the provision of services at a minimum of
 every three months or as often as needed. The client must be reassessed for
 services annually.
 
 4. Required documentation in the client's record. The
 provider must maintain a record of each client receiving companion services. At
 a minimum these records must contain:
 
 a. An initial assessment completed prior to the date
 services are initiated and subsequent reassessments and changes to the ISP;
 
 b. An ISP containing the following elements:
 
 (1) The client's strengths, desired outcomes, required or
 desired supports, or both;
 
 (2) The services to be rendered and the schedule of
 services to accomplish the desired outcomes;
 
 c. Documentation that the ISP goals, objectives, and
 activities have been reviewed by the provider quarterly, annually, and more
 often as needed, modified as appropriate, and the results of these reviews
 submitted to the case manager. For the annual review and in cases where the ISP
 is modified, the ISP must be reviewed with the client and family/caregiver.
 
 d. All correspondence to the client, family/caregiver, case
 manager, DMAS, and DMHMRSAS; 
 
 e. Contacts made with family/caregiver, physicians, formal
 and informal service providers, and others involved in the care of the child;
 
 f. The companion services supervisor must document in the
 client's record in a summary note following significant contacts with the
 companion and home visits with the client that occur at least quarterly:
 
 (1) Whether companion services continue to be appropriate;
 
 (2) Whether the plan is adequate to meet the client's needs
 or changes are indicated in the plan;
 
 (3) The client and family/caregiver's satisfaction with the
 service;
 
 (4) The presence or absence of the companion during the
 supervisor's visit;
 
 (5) Any suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation and to
 whom it was reported; and
 
 (6) Any hospitalization or change in medical condition,
 functioning, or cognitive status.
 
 g. In addition to the above requirements, the companion
 record must contain:
 
 (1) The specific services delivered to the client by the
 companion, dated the day of service delivery, and the client's responses;
 
 (2) The companion's arrival and departure times;
 
 (3) The companion's weekly comments or observations about
 the client to include observations of the client's physical and emotional
 condition, daily activities, and responses to services rendered; and
 
 (4) The weekly signature of the companion, or
 parent/caregiver, as appropriate, recorded and dated on the last day of service
 delivery for any given week to verify that companion services during that week
 have been rendered.
 
 12VAC30-135-190. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-200. Agency-directed respite services. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Service description.
 
 1. Respite services means services specifically designed to
 provide a temporary but periodic or routine relief to the primary unpaid
 caregiver of a client who is in need of specialized supervision due to a SED.
 Respite services include assistance with or monitoring of personal hygiene,
 nutritional support, safety, and environmental maintenance authorized as either
 episodic, temporary relief, or as a routine periodic relief of the caregiver.
 
 2. Respite services do not include either practical or
 professional nursing services or those practices regulated in Chapters 30 (§
 54.1-3000 et seq.) and 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of
 Virginia, as appropriate. This service does not include skilled nursing
 services with the exception of skilled nursing tasks that may be delegated
 pursuant to 18VAC90-20-420 through 18VAC90-20-460.
 
 B. Criteria.
 
 1. Respite services may only be offered to clients who have
 an unpaid primary caregiver living in the home who requires temporary relief to
 avoid institutionalization of the client. Respite services are designed to
 focus on the need of the caregiver for temporary relief.
 
 2. Respite services are supports for the family or other
 unpaid primary caregiver of a client. These services are furnished on a
 short-term basis because of the absence or need for relief of those unpaid
 caregivers normally providing the care for the clients.
 
 C. Service units and service limitations.
 
 1. Effective July 1, 2011, respite services shall be
 limited to a maximum of 480 hours per year. Clients who are receiving services
 through both the agency-directed and CD models shall not exceed 480 hours per
 year combined.
 
 2. The unit of service is one hour.
 
 D. Provider requirements. In addition to meeting the
 general conditions and requirements for home and community-based participating
 providers as specified in 12VAC30-135-120 and 12VAC30-135-160, respite services
 providers must meet additional provider requirements:
 
 1. Services shall be provided by:
 
 a. A DMAS respite services provider; a DMHMRSAS-licensed
 residential services provider; or by a DMHMRSAS-licensed respite services
 provider or a DSS-approved foster care home-for-children provider.
 
 b. For DMAS-enrolled respite services providers, the
 provider must employ or subcontract with a QMHP or LMHP to supervise all
 assistants. The supervisor must meet DMAS qualifications.
 
 2. The QMHP/LMHP supervisor must make a home visit to
 conduct an initial assessment prior to the start of services for all clients
 requesting respite services. The supervisor must also perform any subsequent
 reassessments or changes to the ISP.
 
 3. The QMHP/LMHP supervisor must make supervisory home
 visits as often as needed to ensure both quality and appropriateness of
 services. The minimum frequency of these visits is every 30 to 90 days.
 
 a. When respite services are received on a routine basis,
 the minimum acceptable frequency of these supervisory visits shall be every 30
 to 90 days, depending on the needs of the client.
 
 b. When respite services are not received on a routine
 basis, but are episodic in nature, the supervisor is not required to conduct a
 supervisory visit every 30 to 90 days. Instead, the QMHP/LMHP supervisor must
 conduct the initial home visit with the respite care assistant immediately preceding
 the start of services and make a second home visit within the respite services
 period.
 
 4. Based on continuing evaluations of the assistant's
 performance and client's needs, the QMHP/LMHP supervisor shall identify any
 gaps in the assistant's ability to function competently and shall provide
 training as indicated.
 
 5 The QMHP/LMHP supervisor must document in a summary note:
 
 a. Whether respite services continue to be appropriate;
 
 b. Whether the ISP is adequate to meet the client's needs
 or if changes need to be made;
 
 c. The client's and family/caregiver's satisfaction with
 the service;
 
 d. Any hospitalization or change in medical condition or
 functioning status;
 
 e. Other services received and the amount; and
 
 f. The presence or absence of the assistant in the home
 during the visit.
 
 6. Qualification of assistants. The assistant must complete
 a training curriculum consistent with DMAS requirements. Prior to assigning an
 assistant to a client, the provider must obtain documentation that the
 assistant has satisfactorily completed a training program consistent with DMAS'
 requirements. DMAS requirements may be met in one of two ways:
 
 a. Registration as a certified nurse aide; or
 
 b. Graduation from an approved educational curriculum that
 offers certificates qualifying the student as a nursing assistant, home health
 aide, or meeting the paraprofessional criteria as established by
 12VAC30-50-226.
 
 E. Required documentation for the client's records. The
 provider must maintain all records of each client receiving services. These
 records must be separated from those of other nonwaiver services, such as home
 health services. These records will be reviewed periodically by DMAS staff. At
 a minimum these records must contain:
 
 1. An initial assessment completed by the QMHP/LMHP
 supervisor prior to or on the date services are initiated.
 
 2. Reassessments and any changes to the ISP made during the
 provision of services by the supervisor.
 
 3. The most recent ISP and supporting documentaion that
 contains, at a minimum, the following elements:
 
 a. The client's strengths, desired outcomes, and required
 or desired supports;
 
 b. The client's and family's/caregiver's goals and
 objectives to meet the identified outcomes;
 
 c. Services to be rendered and the frequency of services to
 accomplish the goals and objectives; and 
 
 d. The provider staff responsible for the overall
 coordination and integration of the services specified in the ISP.
 
 4. The ISP goals, objectives, and activities must be
 reviewed by the supervisor quarterly, annually, and more often as needed and
 modified as appropriate. The results of these reviews must be submitted to the
 case manager. For the annual review and in cases where the ISP is modified, the
 ISP must be reviewed with the client and family/caregiver.
 
 5. The QMHP/LMHP supervisor's notes recorded and dated
 during significant contacts with the respite services assistant and during
 supervisory visits to the client's home. The written summary of the supervision
 visits must include:
 
 a. Whether services continue to be appropriate and whether
 the ISP is adequate to meet the needs or if changes are indicated in the ISP;
 
 b. Any suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation and to
 whom it was reported;
 
 c. Any special tasks performed by the assistant and the
 assistant's qualifications to perform these tasks;
 
 d. The client's and family/caregiver's satisfaction with
 the service;
 
 e. Any hospitalization or change in medical condition or
 functioning status;
 
 f. Other services received and their amount; and
 
 g. The presence or absence of the assistant in the home
 during the supervisor's visit.
 
 6. All correspondence to the client, family/caregiver, case
 manager, DMAS, DMHMRSAS, and CSA;
 
 7. Significant contacts made with the client,
 family/caregivers, physicians, DMAS and others involved in the care of the
 client;
 
 8. The assistant record must contain:
 
 a. The specific services delivered to the client by the
 assistant, dated the day of service delivery, and the client's responses;
 
 b. The assistant's arrival and departure times;
 
 c. The assistant's weekly comments or observations about
 the client to include observations of the client's physical and emotional
 condition, daily activities, and responses to services rendered; and
 
 d. The assistant's, client's and family/caregiver's weekly
 signatures with dates recorded on the last day of service delivery for any
 given week to verify that services during that week have been rendered.
 
 e. Signatures, times, and dates shall not be placed on the
 assistant record prior to the last date of the week that the services are
 delivered.
 
 9. All DMAS quality management review forms.
 
 12VAC30-135-210. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-220. Consumer-directed companion and respite
 services. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Companion services.
 
 1. Service description. Companion services provide assistance
 with skill development and with understanding family interaction, behavioral
 interventions for support and safety, nonmedical care, nonmedical
 transportation, community integration, and rewarding appropriate behaviors.
 This service is available through both a consumer-directed (CD) and
 agency-directed delivery approach and shall not exceed eight hours in one day.
 These services include, but are not limited to, nonmedical care, socialization,
 or support to a client as well as supervision or monitoring to those clients
 who require the physical presence of an aide to ensure their safety during
 times when no other supportive individuals are available. This service is
 provided in accordance with a therapeutic goal in the ISP and is not purely
 diversional in nature.
 
 2. Criteria.
 
 a. The inclusion of companion services in the ISP is
 appropriate only when the client cannot be left alone at any time due to the
 SED. The provision of companion services does not entail hands-on care.
 
 b. Companion services shall not be covered if required only
 because the client does not have a telephone in the home or because the client
 does not speak English.
 
 c. There must be a clear and present danger to the client
 as a result of being left unsupervised. Companion services cannot be authorized
 for clients whose only need for companion services is for assistance exiting
 the home in the event of an emergency.
 
 3. Service units and service limitations.
 
 a. The amount of companion service time included in the ISP
 must be no more than eight hours per day, either separately or in any
 combination of CD or agency-directed companion services.
 
 b. The hours authorized are based on individual need. No
 more than three unrelated individuals who are receiving waiver services and
 live in the same home are permitted to share the authorized work hours of the
 same companion.
 
 c. Companion services may be authorized for
 family/caregivers to sleep either during the day or during the night when the
 client cannot be left alone at any time due to the client's condition.
 Companion aide services must be necessary to ensure the client's safety if the
 client cannot be left unsupervised due to health and safety concerns.
 
 d. Companion services can be authorized when no one else is
 in the home who is competent to monitor the client for safety.
 
 4. Provider requirements. In addition to meeting the
 general conditions and requirements for home and community-based participating
 providers as specified in 12VAC30-135-120 and 12VAC30-135-160, companion
 service providers must meet the following qualifications:
 
 a. General companion qualifications. Companions must meet
 the following requirements:
 
 (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
 
 (2) Have the required skills to perform CD services as
 specified in the client's ISP;
 
 (3) Possess basic reading, writing, and math skills; 
 
 (4) Be capable of following a care plan with minimal
 supervision;
 
 (5) Submit to a criminal history record check within 15
 days from the date of employment and, if the client is a minor, the Child
 Protective Services Central Registry. The companion will not be compensated for
 services provided to the client if the records check verifies the companion has
 been convicted of crimes described in § 32.1-162.9:1 or 37.2-416 of the
 Code of Virginia; or if the companion has a complaint confirmed by the DSS
 Child Protective Services Central Registry;
 
 (6) Possess a valid social security number;
 
 (7) Be willing to attend training at the client's and
 family/caregiver's request;
 
 (8) Receive an annual tuberculosis (TB) screening; and
 
 (9) Understand and agree to comply with the DMAS CMH waiver
 requirements as described in DMAS guidance documents.
 
 b. Companions shall not be spouses, parents or caregivers.
 Payment will not be made for services furnished by other family members unless
 there is objective written documentation as to why there are no other providers
 available to provide the care. Medicaid-reimbursed companion services shall not
 be provided by adult foster care providers or any other paid (regardless of the
 payment source) caregivers for a client residing in that home.
 
 c. Family/caregivers who are reimbursed to provide
 companion services must meet the companion qualifications stated above.
 
 d. Retention, hiring, and substitution of companions. Upon
 the client's request, the CD services facilitator shall provide the client or
 family/caregiver with a list of persons on the assistant registry who can
 provide temporary assistance until the assistant returns or the client is able
 to select and hire a new assistant. If a client or family/legal guardian is
 consistently unable to hire and retain the employment of an assistant to
 provide CD companion services, the services facilitator must contact the case
 manager and DMAS to transfer the client, at the client's choice, to a provider
 that provides Medicaid-funded agency-directed companion services. The CD
 services facilitator will make arrangements with the case manager to have the
 client transferred.
 
 B. Respite services.
 
 1. Service description. Respite services include assistance
 with or monitoring of personal hygiene, nutritional support, safety, and
 environmental maintenance authorized as either episodic, temporary relief, or
 as a routine periodic relief of the caregiver. For the purposes of this
 section, an assistant refers to the individual providing CD respite.
 
 2. Criteria.
 
 a. CD respite services may only be offered to clients who
 have a primary unpaid caregiver living in the home who requires temporary
 relief to avoid institutionalization of the client, and it is designed to focus
 on the need of the caregiver for temporary relief.
 
 b. The inclusion of respite services in the ISP is
 appropriate only when the client cannot be left unsupervised due to the mental
 health condition at any time.
 
 3. Service units and service limitations.
 
 a. Effective July 1, 2011, CD respite services are limited
 to a maximum of 480 hours per year. Clients who are receiving services through
 both the agency-directed and CD models shall not exceed 480 hours per year
 combined.
 
 b. Clients can receive CD respite services and in-home
 residential support services in their CSPs but cannot receive these services
 simultaneously.
 
 c. For CD respite services, clients and family/legal
 guardian, as appropriate, will hire their own assistants and manage and
 supervise the assistant's performance.
 
 4. Provider requirements.
 
 a. The assistant must meet the following requirements: 
 
 (1) Be at least 18 years of age; 
 
 (2) Have the required skills to perform CD services as
 specified in the client's ISP;
 
 (3) Possess basic reading, writing and math skills; 
 
 (4) Be capable of following a care plan with minimal
 supervision;
 
 (5) Submit to a criminal history record check within 15
 days from the date of employment, and if the client is a minor, the Child
 Protective Services Central Registry. The assistant will not be compensated for
 services provided to the client if the records check verifies the assistant has
 been convicted of crimes described in § 32.1-162.9:1 or 37.2-416 of the
 Code of Virginia or if the assistant has a complaint confirmed by the DSS Child
 Protective Services Central Registry;
 
 (6) Possess a valid social security number;
 
 (7) Be willing to attend training at the client's and
 family/caregiver's request;
 
 (8) Receive periodic TB screening; and
 
 (9) Understand and agree to comply with the DMAS CMH waiver
 requirements.
 
 b. Assistants cannot be spouses, parents of minor children,
 or legally responsible relatives. Payment will not be made for services
 furnished by other family members unless there is objective written
 documentation as to why there are no other providers available to provide the
 care.
 
 c. Family/caregivers who are reimbursed to provide respite
 services must meet the assistant qualifications.
 
 d. Retention, hiring, and substitution of assistants. Upon
 the client's request, the CD services facilitation provider shall provide the
 client or family/legal guardian with a list of persons on the assistant
 registry who can provide temporary assistance until the assistant returns or
 the client is able to select and hire a new assistant. If a client is
 consistently unable to hire and retain the employment of an assistant to
 provide CD respite services, the CD services facilitator must contact the case
 manager and DMAS to transfer the client, at the client's choice, to a provider
 that provides Medicaid-funded agency-directed respite services. The CD services
 facilitator will make arrangements with the case manager to have the client
 transferred.
 
 C. Service facilitation.
 
 1. Clients choosing the CD option must receive support from
 a CD services facilitator and meet requirements for consumer direction as
 described in these regulations.
 
 2. DMAS shall contract for the services of a Fiscal
 Management Service agent for CD companion and respite services. The FMS agent
 will be reimbursed by DMAS to perform certain tasks as an agent for the
 client/family/caregiver/employer who is receiving CD services. The FMS agent
 will handle the responsibilities for the client/family/caregiver/employer for
 employment taxes. The FMS agent will seek and obtain all necessary
 authorizations and approvals of the Internal Revenue Services in order to
 fulfill all of these duties.
 
 3. If a client is unable to direct his own care or is under
 18 years of age, a family/legal guardian may serve as the employer on behalf of
 the client. Specific employer duties include checking of references of
 assistants/companions, determining that assistants/companions meet basic
 qualifications, training assistants/companions, supervising the
 assistant's/companion's performance, and submitting timesheets to the FMS agent
 on a consistent and timely basis. There must be a back-up plan in case the
 assistant/companion does not show up for work as expected or terminates
 employment without prior notice. This is the responsibility of the client or
 family/legal guardian to establish.
 
 4. Clients or family/legal guardians, as appropriate,
 choosing the CD model of service delivery must receive support from a CD
 services facilitator. This is not a separate waiver service, but is required in
 conjunction with CD respite and companion services. The CD services facilitator
 is responsible for assessing the client's particular needs for a requested CD
 service, assisting in the development of the ISP, providing training to the
 family/legal guardian on his responsibilities as an employer, and providing
 ongoing support of the CD model of services. The CD services facilitator cannot
 be the client, the client's case manager, direct service provider, spouse,
 parent or legally responsible party of the client who is a minor child, or a
 family/legal guardian employing the assistant/companion. If a client enrolled
 in CD services has a lapse in services for more than 90 consecutive days, DMAS
 must be notified and the CD services will be discontinued.
 
 5. Either DMAS or its contractor shall provide the FMS for
 CD companion and respite services. The FMS agent will be reimbursed by DMAS to
 perform certain tasks as an agent for the client/employer who is receiving CD
 services. The FMS agent will handle the responsibilities of employment taxes
 for the client. The FMS agent will seek and obtain all necessary authorizations
 and approvals of the Internal Revenue Services in order to fulfill all of these
 duties.
 
 6. CD services facilitator qualifications. In addition to
 meeting the general conditions and requirements for home and community-based
 services participating providers as specified in 12VAC30-135-120 and
 12VAC30-135-160, the CD services facilitator must meet the following
 qualifications:
 
 a. To be enrolled as a Medicaid CD services facilitator and
 maintain provider status, the CD services facilitator must operate from a
 physical business office and employ sufficient qualified staff to perform the
 needed ISP development and monitoring, reassessments, service coordination, and
 support activities as required. In addition, the CD services facilitator must
 have the ability to maintain and retain business and professional records
 sufficient to document fully and accurately the nature, scope, and details of
 the services provided.
 
 b. It is preferred that employees of the CD services
 facilitator possess a minimum of an undergraduate degree in a human services
 field or be a QMHP. In addition, it is preferable that the CD services
 facilitator have two years of satisfactory experience in the human services
 field working with persons with SED. The CD services facilitator must possess a
 combination of work experience and relevant education that indicates possession
 of the following knowledge, skills, and abilities. Such knowledge, skills and
 abilities must be documented on the application form, found in supporting
 documentation, or be observed during the job interview. Observations during the
 interview must be documented. The knowledge, skills, and abilities include:
 
 (1) Knowledge of:
 
 (a) Types of functional limitations and health problems
 that may occur in clients with SED, or clients with other disabilities, as well
 as strategies to reduce limitations and health problems;
 
 (b) Equipment and environmental modifications that may be
 required by clients with SED that reduce the need for human help and improve
 safety;
 
 (c) Community-based and other services, including PRTF
 placement criteria, Medicaid waiver services, and other federal, state, and
 local resources that provide respite and companion services;
 
 (d) CMH Waiver requirements, as well as the administrative
 duties for which the services facilitator will be responsible;
 
 (e) CMH Waiver requirements, as well as the administrative
 duties for which the client and family/caregiver will be responsible;
 
 (f) Conducting assessments (including environmental,
 psychosocial, health, and functional factors) and their uses in care planning;
 
 (g) Interviewing techniques;
 
 (h) The client's and family/legal guardian's right to make
 decisions about, direct the provisions of, and control his CD respite and
 companion services, including hiring, training, managing, approving time
 sheets, and firing an assistant/companion;
 
 (i) The principles of human behavior and interpersonal
 relationships; and
 
 (j) General principles of record documentation.
 
 (2) Skills in:
 
 (a) Negotiating with clients, family/caregivers and service
 providers;
 
 (b) Assessing, supporting, observing, recording, and
 reporting behaviors;
 
 (c) Identifying, developing, or providing services to
 clients with SED; and
 
 (d) Identifying services within the established services
 system to meet the client's needs.
 
 (3) Abilities to:
 
 (a) Report findings of the assessment or onsite visit,
 either in writing or an alternative format for clients who have visual
 impairments;
 
 (b) Demonstrate a positive regard for clients and their
 families;
 
 (c) Be persistent and remain objective;
 
 (d) Work independently, performing position duties under
 general supervision;
 
 (e) Communicate effectively, orally and in writing; and
 
 (f) Develop a rapport and communicate with persons from
 diverse cultural backgrounds.
 
 c. If the CD services facilitator is not a QMHP, the CD
 services facilitator must have QMHP consulting services available, either by a
 staffing arrangement or through a contracted consulting arrangement. The QMHP
 consultant is to be available as needed to consult with clients and CD services
 facilitators on issues related to the needs of the client.
 
 7. Initiation of services and service monitoring.
 
 a. The CD services facilitator must make an initial
 comprehensive home visit to collaborate with the client and family/caregiver to
 identify needs, assist in the development of the ISP with the client and
 provide employee management training. The initial comprehensive home visit is
 done only once upon the client's entry into the CD model of service regardless
 of the number or type of CD services that a client chooses to receive. If a
 client changes CD services facilitators, the new CD services facilitator must
 complete and bill for a reassessment visit in lieu of an initial comprehensive
 visit.
 
 b. After the initial visit, the CD services facilitator
 will periodically review the utilization of companion services at a minimum of
 every six months or, for respite services, either every six months or upon the
 use of 300 respite service hours, whichever comes first.
 
 c. A reassessment of the client's level-of-care will occur
 six months after initial entry into the program, and subsequent reevaluations
 will occur at a minimum of every six months. During visits to the client's
 home, the CD services facilitator must observe, evaluate, and consult with the
 client and family/caregiver and document the adequacy and appropriateness of CD
 services with regard to the client's current functioning and cognitive status,
 medical, and social needs. The CD services facilitator's summary must include,
 but not necessarily be limited to:
 
 (1) Whether CD respite services continue to be appropriate
 and medically necessary to prevent institutionalization;
 
 (2) Whether the service is adequate to meet the client's
 needs;
 
 (3) Any special tasks performed by the assistant/companion
 and the assistant's/companion's qualifications to perform these tasks;
 
 (4) Client's or family/caregiver's satisfaction with the
 service;
 
 (5) Hospitalization or change in medical condition,
 functioning, or cognitive status;
 
 (6) Other services received and their amount; and
 
 (7) The presence or absence of the companion/assistant in
 the home during the CD services facilitator's visit.
 
 d. A face-to-face meeting with the client must be conducted
 at least every six months to reassess the client's needs and to ensure
 appropriateness of any CD services received by the client.
 
 e. The CD services facilitator must be available to the
 client and family/caregiver by telephone.
 
 f. The CD services facilitator must submit a criminal
 record check pertaining to the assistant/companion on behalf of the client and
 report findings of the criminal record check to the client and the program's
 FMS agent. If the client is a minor, the assistant/companion must also be
 screened through the DSS Child Protective Services Central Registry.
 Assistants/companions will not be reimbursed for services provided to the
 client effective the date that the criminal record check confirms an
 assistant/companion was convicted of a barrier crime or if the
 assistant/companion has a founded complaint on record in the DSS Child
 Protective Services Central Registry. The criminal record check and DSS Child
 Protective Services Central Registry finding must be requested by the CD services
 facilitator within 15 calendar days of employment. The services facilitator
 must maintain evidence that a criminal record check was obtained and must make
 such evidence available for DMAS review.
 
 g. The CD services facilitator shall review and verify
 bi-weekly timesheets signed by the family/caregiver and the assistant/companion
 during the face-to-face visits or more often as needed to ensure that the
 number of ISP-approved hours is not exceeded. If discrepancies are identified,
 the CD services facilitator must discuss these with the client to resolve
 discrepancies and must notify the FMS agent. If the client is consistently
 identified as having discrepancies in his timesheets, the CD services
 facilitator must contact the case manager to resolve the situation. The CD
 services facilitator cannot verify timesheets for assistants/companions who
 have been convicted of a barrier crime or who have a founded complaint on
 record in the DSS Child Protective Services Registry and must notify the FMS
 agent.
 
 h. The CD services facilitator must maintain records of
 each client as described in 12VAC30-135-120 and 12VAC30-135-160.
 
 i. If a client/family/legal guardian is consistently unable
 to hire and retain the employment of an assistant/companion to provide CD
 respite or companion services, the CD services facilitator will make
 arrangements with the case manager to have the services transferred to an
 agency-directed services provider or to discuss with the
 client/family/caregiver other service options.
 
 j. The family/legal guardian or client, as appropriate,
 must hire and train the assistants or companions and supervise the assistant's
 or companion's performance. The hours authorized are based on individual need.
 
 8. Responsibilities as employer. The client or family/legal
 guardian, as appropriate, shall be the employer in this service and responsible
 for hiring, training, supervising, and firing assistants and companions.
 Specific duties include checking references of assistants/companions,
 determining that assistants/companions meet basic qualifications, training
 assistants/companions, supervising the assistant's/companion's performance, and
 submitting timesheets to the CD services facilitator and FMS agent on a
 consistent and timely basis. The client must have an emergency back-up plan in
 case the assistant/companion does not show up for work as expected or
 terminates employment without prior notice.
 
 9. Required documentation in client's records. The CD
 services facilitator must maintain all records of each client. At a minimum
 these records must contain:
 
 a. All copies of the ISP and all supporting documentation.
 
 b. All DMAS quality management review forms.
 
 c. CD services facilitator's notes contemporaneously
 recorded and dated during any contacts with the client and family/caregiver and
 during visits to the client's home.
 
 d. All correspondence to the client, family/caregiver and
 to DMAS.
 
 e. Reassessments made during the provision of services.
 
 f. Records of contacts made with family/caregivers,
 physicians, DMAS, formal and informal service providers, and others involved in
 the care of the child.
 
 g. All training provided to the assistant/companion or
 assistants/companions on behalf of the client.
 
 h. All management training provided to the client or
 family/caregiver including the client's or family/caregiver's responsibility
 for the accuracy of the timesheets.
 
 i. All documents signed by the client or family/caregiver
 that acknowledge the responsibilities of the services.
 
 12VAC30-135-230. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-240. Community transition services. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Service description.
 
 Community transition services are provided to individuals
 who are leaving the PRTF and have chosen to receive services in the community.
 Community transition services include assessment of the child and family;
 assistance with meeting the requirements of waiver enrollment; referral for
 Medicaid eligibility; developing a community plan of care in coordination with
 the family, CSA (if involved), and other involved parties; identifying community
 service providers; and monitoring the initial transition to the community.
 Community transition services do not include monthly rental or mortgage
 expense; food, regular utility charges; and/or household appliances or items
 that are intended for purely diversional/recreational purposes.
 
 Community transition services ensure the development,
 coordination, implementation, monitoring, and modification of comprehensive
 service plans; link recipients with appropriate community resources and
 supports; coordinate service providers; and monitor quality of care.
 
 Community transition services may be provided in the PRTF,
 in the home, school or other community locations.
 
 Community transition services may be provided up to three
 months prior to discharge from the PRTF and one month after discharge. The cost
 of community transition services is considered to be incurred and billable when
 the client leaves the PRTF and enters the Children's Mental Health Waiver.
 
 B. Criteria. In order to qualify for these services, the
 client must be a resident of the PRTF and also have been identified as a
 possible participant in the Children's Mental Health Waiver.
 
 C. Service units and service limitations. The unit of
 service shall be 15 minutes with a maximum of 80 units for each admission to
 the Children's Mental Health Waiver.
 
 Services provided must be documented in records maintained
 by the community transition services provider. Documentation may be required to
 be submitted to DMAS.
 
 D. Provider requirements. In addition to meeting the
 general conditions and requirements for home and community-based participating
 providers as specified in 12VAC30-135-120 and 12VAC30-135-160, professionals
 rendering community transition services must be DMAS-enrolled providers of
 treatment foster care case management, DMAS-enrolled providers of mental health
 case management services or be local CSA coordinators or FAPT members who meet
 the knowledge, skills, and abilities established for mental health case
 managers.
 
 E. The following documentation is required:
 
 1. A comprehensive services plan that contains at a
 minimum, the following elements:
 
 a. Identifying information: client's name and Medicaid
 number; provider name and provider number; responsible person and telephone
 number; effective dates for supporting documentation; and semi-annual review
 dates, if applicable;
 
 b. Identified services, provider names and individual
 service plans;
 
 c. Targeted objectives, time frames, and expected outcomes.
 
 2. Ongoing documentation of all contacts. All notes must
 include:
 
 a. Specific details of the activities conducted;
 
 b. Dates, locations, and times of service delivery;
 
 c. CSP objectives addressed;
 
 d. Services delivered as planned or modified;
 
 e. Effectiveness of the strategies and client's and
 family/caregiver's satisfaction with service;
 
 f. Client status; and
 
 g. Outcomes and effectiveness of the comprehensive services
 plan.
 
 F. When transition coordination services are completed, a
 final CSP must be discussed and forwarded to the ongoing case manager before
 the end of transition coordination. The transition services coordination
 provider must include:
 
 1. Strategies utilized;
 
 2. Objectives met;
 
 3. Unresolved issues; and
 
 4. Consultant recommendations.
 
 12VAC30-135-250. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-260. Environmental modifications. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Service description. Environmental modifications shall
 be defined as those physical adaptations to the home or to a vehicle, included
 in the client's ISP, that are necessary to ensure the health, welfare, and
 safety of the client, or that enable the client to function with greater
 independence in the home and without which the client would require continued
 institutionalization. Such adaptations include items to ensure the safety of
 the client, family/caregiver and the community. Modifications can be made to an
 automotive vehicle only if it is the primary vehicle being used by the client.
 
 B. Service units and service limitations. Environmental
 modifications shall be available to clients who are receiving at least one
 other waiver service. A maximum limit of $5,000 may be reimbursed per ISP year.
 Costs for environmental modifications shall not be carried over from ISP year
 to ISP year and must be pre-authorized by DMAS or the contracted
 preauthorization entity for each ISP year. Excluded from this service shall be
 those adaptations or improvements to the home that are of general utility and
 are not of direct medical or remedial benefit to the client, such as carpeting,
 roof repairs, central air conditioning, etc. Adaptations that add to the total
 square footage of the home are also excluded from this benefit. Modifications
 may not be used to bring a substandard dwelling up to minimum habitation
 standards. Also excluded are modifications that are reasonable accommodation
 requirements of the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Virginians with
 Disabilities Act, and the Rehabilitation Act. All services shall be provided in
 accordance with applicable state or local building codes.
 
 C. Criteria. In order to qualify for these services, the client
 must have a demonstrated need for equipment or modifications of a remedial or
 medical benefit offered primarily in a client's primary home, primary vehicle
 used by the client or for the client by the family/caregiver, to specifically
 improve the client's personal functioning. This service shall encompass those
 items not otherwise covered in the State Plan for Medical Assistance or through
 another program.
 
 D. Provider requirements. In addition to meeting the
 general conditions and requirements for home and community-based participating
 providers as specified in 12VAC30-135-120 and 12VAC30-135-160, environmental
 modifications must be provided in accordance with all applicable federal, state
 or local building codes and laws by providers who have a provider participation
 agreement with DMAS. The provider must submit information regarding
 environmental modifications to the case manager. The following are provider
 documentation requirements that must be included in the client's record:
 
 1. Supporting documentation that documents the need for the
 service, the process to obtain the service, and the time frame during which the
 services are to be provided;
 
 2. Documentation of the time frame involved to complete the
 modification and the amount of services and supplies;
 
 3. Any other relevant information regarding the
 modification;
 
 4. Documentation of notification by the client and
 family/caregiver of satisfactory completion of the service; and
 
 5. Instructions regarding any warranty, repairs,
 complaints, and servicing that may be needed.
 
 12VAC30-135-270. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-280. Family/caregiver training. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Service description. Family or caregiver training is
 the provision of identified training and education related to SED, community
 integration, family dynamics, stress management, behavioral interventions, and
 mental health to the family/caregiver. For purposes of this service,
 "family" is defined as the persons who live with, provide care to or
 support a waiver client, and may include a spouse, children, relatives, a legal
 guardian, foster family, or in-laws. "Family" does not include
 individuals who are employed to care for the client. All family/caregiver
 training must be included in the client's ISP.
 
 B. Criteria. The need for the training and the content of
 the training in order to assist the family or caregivers with maintaining the
 client at home must be documented in the client's ISP. The training must be
 necessary in order to improve the family or caregiver's ability to provide care
 and support.
 
 C. Service units and service limitations. Services are
 billed hourly and must be pre- authorized. Clients may receive up to 80 hours
 of family/caregiver training per ISP treatment year.
 
 D. Provider requirements. In addition to meeting the general
 conditions and requirements for home and community-based care participating
 providers as specified in 12VAC30-135-120 and 12VAC30-135-160, providers must
 meet the following qualifications:
 
 1. Family/caregiver training must be provided on an
 individual basis, in small groups or through seminars and conferences provided
 by Medicaid-approved or enrolled family and caregiver training providers;
 
 2. Family/caregiver training must be provided by
 individuals with expertise who work for an agency with experience in or
 demonstrated knowledge of the training topic and who work for an agency or
 organization that has a provider participation agreement with DMAS to provide
 these services. Individuals must also have the appropriate licensure or
 certification as required for the specific professional field associated with
 the training area. Licensed professional counselors, licensed clinical social
 workers, licensed psychologists, licensed marriage and family therapists, and
 psychiatric clinical nurse specialists may enroll as individual practitioners
 with DMAS to provide family/caregiver training;
 
 3. The family/caregiver training provider must submit
 documentation of all training to the case manager quarterly. This documentation
 must include:
 
 a. All assessments and reassessments;
 
 b. All supporting documentation developed for the client
 and the written reviews;
 
 c. Documentation of the date services were rendered and the
 amount and type of services rendered; and
 
 d. Any documentation to support that services provided are
 appropriate and necessary to maintain the client in the home and in the
 community.
 
 12VAC30-135-290. (Reserved.) (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-300. In-home residential support services. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Service description.
 
 1. The service shall be designed to enable clients
 qualifying for the CMH Waiver to live in their homes and shall include (i)
 training and assistance in or reinforcement of functional skills and
 appropriate behavior related to a client's health and safety, personal care,
 ADLs, and use of community resources; (ii) assistance with medication
 management and monitoring the client's health, nutrition, and physical
 condition; (iii) life skills training; and (iv) cognitive rehabilitation.
 
 2. This service provides assistance or specialized
 supervision provided primarily in a client's home or foster home to enable a
 client to acquire, retain, or improve the self-help, socialization, behaviors
 and adaptive skills necessary to reside successfully in home and
 community-based settings.
 
 3. This service must be provided on a client-specific basis
 according to the ISP, supporting documentation, and service setting
 requirements.
 
 4. Room and board and general supervision shall not be
 components of this service.
 
 5. This service shall not be used solely to provide routine
 or emergency respite care for the family or caregivers with whom the client
 lives.
 
 6. Medicaid reimbursement is available only for in-home
 residential support services provided when the client is present and when a
 qualified provider is providing the services. 
 
 B. Criteria.
 
 1. All clients must meet the CMH Waiver criteria in order
 for Medicaid to reimburse for in-home residential support services. The client
 shall have a demonstrated need for supports to be provided by staff who are
 paid by the in-home residential support provider.
 
 2. A functional assessment must be conducted to evaluate
 each client in his home environment and community settings.
 
 3. The supporting documentation must indicate the necessary
 amount and type of activities required by the client, the schedule of
 residential support services, and the total number of projected hours per week
 of waiver reimbursed residential support.
 
 4. Routine supervision/oversight of direct care staff. To
 provide additional assurance for the protection or preservation of a client's
 health and safety, there are specific requirements for the supervision and
 oversight of direct care staff providing residential support as outlined below.
 All in-home residential support services must be provided under a DMHMRSAS
 license and include the following requirements:
 
 a. An employee of the agency, typically by position, must
 be formally designated as the supervisor of each direct care staff person who
 is providing in-home residential support services.
 
 b. The supervisor must have and document at least one
 supervisory contact per month with each staff person regarding service delivery
 and staff performance.
 
 c. The supervisor must observe each staff person delivering
 services at least semi-annually. Staff performance and service delivery
 according to the ISP should be documented, along with evaluation and evidence
 of the client's and family/caregiver's satisfaction with service delivery by
 staff.
 
 d. Providers of in-home residential supports must also have
 and document at least one monthly contact with the client and family/caregiver
 regarding satisfaction with services delivered by each staff person.
 
 C. Service units and service limitations. In-home
 residential supports shall be reimbursed on an hourly basis for time the
 in-home residential support staff is working directly with the client. Total
 monthly billing cannot exceed the authorized amount in the ISP. The provider
 must maintain documentation of the date and times that services are provided,
 the specific services provided, and specific circumstances that prevented
 provision of all of the scheduled services, if applicable.
 
 Service providers shall be reimbursed only for the amount
 and type of in-home residential support services included in the client's
 approved ISP. Services will not be reimbursed for a continuous 24-hour period.
 
 D. Provider requirements. In addition to meeting the
 general conditions and requirements for home and community-based care
 participating providers as specified in 12VAC30-135-120 and 12VAC30-135-160,
 each in-home residential support service provider must be licensed by DMHMRSAS
 as a provider of supportive residential services. The provider must also have
 training in mental health and appropriate interventions, strategies, and
 support methods for persons with SED.
 
 1. The ISP and ongoing documentation must be consistent
 with licensing regulations.
 
 2. Documentation must confirm attendance and the amount of
 time services were provided and provide specific information regarding the
 client's response to various settings and supports as agreed to in the ISP
 objectives. Assessment results must be available in at least a daily note or a
 weekly summary. Data must be collected as described in the ISP, analyzed,
 summarized, and then clearly addressed in the CSP.
 
 3. In addition to licensing requirements, persons providing
 residential support services are required to participate in training specified
 by DMAS in the characteristics of SED. The training shall include appropriate
 interventions, training strategies, and support methods for individuals with
 SED.
 
 4. The ISP must be reviewed by the provider with the client
 or family/caregiver, as appropriate, and this review submitted to the case
 manager, at least semi-annually, with goals, objectives, and activities
 modified as appropriate.
 
 5. Documentation must be maintained for supervision and
 oversight of all in-home residential support staff. All significant contacts
 must be documented.
 
 6. Required documentation in the client's record. The
 provider agency must maintain records of each client receiving residential
 support services. Documentation must be completed and signed by the staff
 person designated to perform the supervision and oversight. At a minimum, these
 records must contain the following:
 
 a. Date of contact or observation and the amount of time
 spent;
 
 b. Person or persons contacted or observed;
 
 c. A note regarding staff performance and ISP service
 delivery for monthly contact and semi-annual home visits;
 
 d. Semi-annual observation documentation must also address
 client's and family/caregiver's satisfaction with service provision;
 
 e. Any action planned or taken to correct problems
 identified during supervision and oversight;
 
 f. A functional assessment conducted by the provider to
 evaluate each client in the residential environment and community settings; and
 
 g. An ISP that must contain the following elements:
 
 (1) The client's strengths, desired outcomes, required or
 desired supports, or both, and training needs;
 
 (2) The client's or family/caregiver's goals and measurable
 objectives to meet the identified outcomes;
 
 (3) The services to be rendered and the schedule of
 services to accomplish the goals, objectives, and desired outcomes;
 
 (4) A timetable for the accomplishment of the client's
 goals and objectives;
 
 (5) The estimated duration of the client's needs for
 services; and
 
 (6) The provider staff responsible for the overall
 coordination and integration of the services specified in the ISP.
 
 h. The ISP goals, objectives, and activities must be
 reviewed by the provider quarterly, annually, and more often as needed,
 modified as appropriate, and results of these reviews submitted to the case
 manager. For the annual review and in cases where the ISP is modified, the ISP
 must be reviewed with and approved by the client and family/caregiver.
 
 12VAC30-135-310. (Reserved.)
 (Repealed.)
 
 12VAC30-135-320. Therapeutic consultation. (Repealed.)
 
 A. Service description.
 
 1. Therapeutic consultation is available through the CMH
 Waiver for Virginia-licensed or certified practitioners in psychology, social
 work, occupational therapy, therapeutic recreation, rehabilitation,
 speech/language therapy, professional counseling, marriage and family therapy,
 medicine, psychiatric clinical nurse specialists, and psychiatric nurse
 practitioners. Behavioral consultation performed by these individuals may also
 be a covered waiver service. These services may be provided, based on the
 client's ISP, for those clients for whom specialized consultation is clinically
 necessary to enable their utilization of waiver services.
 
 2. Therapeutic consultation provides expertise, training
 and technical assistance for any of the specialty providers listed above to
 assist family members, caregivers, and other service providers in supporting
 the client. The specialty areas are (i) psychology, (ii) behavioral
 consultation, (iii) therapeutic recreation, (iv) speech and language pathology,
 and (v) occupational therapy. The need for any of these services is based on
 the client's ISP and provided to those clients for whom specialized consultation
 is clinically necessary and who have additional challenges restricting their
 ability to function in the community. Therapeutic consultation services may be
 provided in the client's home, and in appropriate community settings and are
 intended to facilitate implementation of the individual's and
 family/caregiver's desired outcomes as identified in his ISP.
 
 3. Therapeutic consultation services may be provided in
 in-home residential or treatment support settings or in office settings in
 conjunction with another service. Behavioral consultation may be offered in the
 absence of any other waiver service when the consultation provided to informal
 caregivers is determined to be necessary to prevent institutionalization.
 Therapeutic consultation service providers are reimbursed according to the
 amount and type of service authorized in the ISP based on an hourly
 fee-for-service rate.
 
 B. Criteria. In order to qualify for these services, the
 client shall have a demonstrated need for consultation in any of these services.
 Documented need must indicate that the ISP cannot be implemented effectively
 and efficiently without such consultation from this service.
 
 1. The client's therapeutic consultation supporting
 documentation must clearly reflect the client's needs, as documented in the
 assessment, for specialized consultation provided to family/caregivers and
 providers in order to implement the ISP effectively.
 
 2. Therapeutic consultation services may not include direct
 therapy provided to waiver clients or monitoring activities, and may not
 duplicate the activities of other services that are available to the client
 through the State Plan for Medical Assistance.
 
 C. Service units and service limitations. The unit of
 service shall equal one hour. The services must be explicitly detailed in the
 ISP or supporting documentation. Travel time, written preparation, and
 telephone communication are not billable as separate items. Therapeutic
 consultation may not be billed solely for purposes of monitoring.
 
 D. Provider requirements. In addition to meeting the
 general conditions and requirements for home and community-based participating
 providers as specified in 12VAC30-135-120 and 12VAC30-135-160, professionals
 rendering therapeutic consultation services, including behavioral consultation
 services, shall meet all applicable state or national licensure, endorsement or
 certification requirements. Behavioral consultation may be performed by
 professionals based on the professionals' work experience, education, and
 demonstrated knowledge, skills, and abilities.
 
 The following documentation is required for therapeutic
 consultation:
 
 1. ISP, that contains at a minimum, the following elements:
 
 a. Identifying information: client's name and Medicaid
 number; provider name and provider number; responsible person and telephone
 number; effective dates for supporting documentation; and semi-annual review
 dates, if applicable;
 
 b. Targeted objectives, time frames, and expected outcomes;
 
 c. Specific consultation activities; and
 
 d. The expected outcomes.
 
 2. A written support plan detailing the recommended
 interventions or support strategies for providers and family/caregivers to use
 to better support the client in the service.
 
 3. Ongoing documentation of consultative services rendered
 in the form of contact-by-contact or monthly notes that identify each contact.
 All monthly, quarterly, semi-annual and annual notes must include:
 
 a. Specific details of the activities conducted;
 
 b. Dates, locations, and times of service delivery;
 
 c. Supporting documentation objectives addressed;
 
 d. Services delivered as planned or modified;
 
 e. Effectiveness of the strategies and client's and
 family/caregiver's satisfaction with service;
 
 f. Client status; and
 
 g. Consultation outcomes and effectiveness of support plan.
 
 4. If consultation services extend less than three months,
 the provider must forward monthly contact notes or a summary of them to the
 case manager.
 
 5. If the consultation services extend three months or
 longer, written quarterly reviews must be completed by the service provider and
 are to be forwarded to the case manager. Any changes to the ISP must be
 reviewed with the client and family/caregiver.
 
 6. Semi-annual reviews are required by the service provider
 if consultation extends three months or longer and are to be forwarded to the
 case manager.
 
 7. If the consultation service extends beyond one year, the
 ISP must be reviewed by the provider with the client and family/caregiver and
 the case manager. The written review must be submitted to the case manager, at
 least annually, or more often as needed.
 
 8. A written support plan, detailing the interventions and
 strategies for staff, family, or caregivers to use to better support the client
 in the service.
 
 9. A final disposition summary must be forwarded to the
 case manager within 30 days following the end of this service and must include:
 
 a. Strategies utilized;
 
 b. Objectives met;
 
 c. Unresolved issues; and
 
 d. Consultant recommendations.
 
 12VAC30-135-340. Reevaluation of service need and quality
 management review. (Repealed.)
 
 A. The comprehensive service plan (CSP).
 
 1. The CSP shall be developed by the case manager in
 coordination with others involved in the care of the client based on relevant,
 current assessment data. The CSP process determines the services to be rendered
 to clients, the frequency of services, the type of service provider, and a
 description of the services to be offered. All CSPs developed by the case
 manager are subject to approval by DMAS.
 
 2. The case manager shall be responsible for continuous
 monitoring of the appropriateness of the client's CSP and revisions to the CSP
 as indicated by the changing needs of the client. At a minimum, the case
 manager must review the CSP every three months to determine whether service
 goals and objectives are being met and whether any modifications to the CSP are
 necessary.
 
 3. The DMAS staff will review the CSP every 12 months or
 more frequently as required to assure proper utilization of services. Any
 modification to the amount or type of services in the CSP must be authorized by
 DMAS.
 
 B. Review of level-of-care.
 
 1. The case manager must complete an annual comprehensive
 reassessment, in coordination with the individual, family/caregivers and
 service providers. If warranted, the case manager will coordinate a medical
 examination and a mental health evaluation for each waiver client. The
 reassessment must include an update of the assessment instrument and any other
 appropriate assessment data.
 
 2. Medical examinations must be completed according to the
 recommended frequency and periodicity of the EPSDT program.
 
 3. The mental health assessment for clients must reflect
 the current psychological status (diagnosis) and adaptive level of functioning.
 A new mental health assessment shall be required whenever the current mental
 health assessment is no longer reflective of the child's current condition.
 
 C. Documentation required.
 
 The case management agency must maintain the following
 documentation for review by the DMAS staff for each waiver client:
 
 1. All CSPs, assessment summaries, and supporting
 documentation completed for the client and retained for a period of not less
 than six years from each client's last date of service or as provided by
 applicable state or federal laws; whichever period is longer. Records of minors
 shall be kept for at least six years after such minor has reached the age of 18
 years;
 
 2. All individual providers' ISPs from any provider
 rendering waiver services to the client and all supporting documentation
 related to any change in the ISPs;
 
 3. All supporting documentation related to any change in
 the CSP;
 
 4. All related communication with the providers, client,
 consultants, DMHMRSAS, CSA, DMAS, DSS, DRS; and others involved in the care of
 the child; and
 
 5. An ongoing log that documents all contacts made by the
 case manager related to the waiver client.
 
 6. All supporting documentation developed for the client
 and retained for a period of not less than six years from each client's last
 date of service or as provided by applicable state or federal laws, whichever
 period is longer. Records of minors shall be kept for at least six years after
 such minor has reached the age of 18 years;
 
 7. An attendance log that documents the date services were
 rendered and the amount and type of services rendered; and
 
 8. Appropriate progress notes reflecting client's status
 and, as appropriate, progress toward the goals on the CSP.
 
 12VAC30-135-360. Sunset provision. (Repealed.)
 
 Consistent with federal requirements applicable to this § 1915(c)
 demonstration waiver, these regulations shall expire effective with the
 termination of the federally approved waiver.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5695; Filed June 26, 2019, 3:46 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR BARBERS AND COSMETOLOGY
Proposed Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC41-50. Tattooing Regulations (amending 18VAC41-50-10 through 18VAC41-50-40, 18VAC41-50-80, 18VAC41-50-100 through 18VAC41-50-130, 18VAC41-50-150, 18VAC41-50-160, 18VAC41-50-180, 18VAC41-50-230, 18VAC41-50-250, 18VAC41-50-280, 18VAC41-50-290, 18VAC41-50-360, 18VAC41-50-400, 18VAC41-50-420; adding 18VAC41-50-91, 18VAC41-50-92, 18VAC41-50-93; repealing 18VAC41-50-50, 18VAC41-50-60, 18VAC41-50-90, 18VAC41-50-240, 18VAC41-50-260, 18VAC41-50-270, 18VAC41-50-320, 18VAC41-50-340, 18VAC41-50-350). 
18VAC41-60. Body-Piercing Regulations (amending 18VAC41-60-10 through 18VAC41-60-40, 18VAC41-60-80, 18VAC41-60-110, 18VAC41-60-120, 18VAC41-60-140, 18VAC41-60-190, 18VAC41-60-220; repealing 18VAC41-60-50, 18VAC41-60-60). 
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information:
August 12, 2019 - 1 p.m. - Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 200, Board Room 4, Richmond, Virginia 23233
Public Comment Deadline: September 20, 2019.
Agency Contact: Stephen Kirschner, Regulatory Operations Administrator, Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8590, FAX (866) 245-9693, or email barbercosmo@dpor.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the board to promulgate regulations. The section states, in part, that the board has the power and duty to promulgate regulations that are necessary to assure continued competency, to prevent deceptive or misleading practices by practitioners, and to effectively administer the regulatory system administered by the board.
Sections 54.1-703, 54.1-704.1, and 54.1-704.2 of the Code of Virginia require board-issued licenses for tattooists and body piercers, tattoo parlors and body-piercing salons, and tattooing and body-piercing schools. 
Purpose: The board seeks to amend its current regulations to ensure they are as minimally invasive and burdensome as possible in order to assist in providing an environment with the least restrictive regulations necessary to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public. The proposed amendments are intended to ensure the regulations are clearly written, easily understandable, and representative of the current advancements and standards of the industries.
Substance: 
Tattooing:
18VAC41-50-10. Definitions. The proposed amendments (i) add definitions for business entity, convention tattooer, firm, guest tattooer, guest tattooer sponsor, responsible management, sole proprietor, post-secondary education level, and tattoo convention; (ii) amend definitions of licensee and master permanent cosmetic tattooer for clarification, and (iii) eliminate the definitions of limited term tattooer.
18VAC41-50-20. General requirements for tattooer, convention tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer. The proposed amendments update, clarify, and standardize entry requirements. The proposed amendments (i) require an applicant disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime and certain misdemeanors within the last two years, (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant having prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession, and (iii) incorporate registered apprenticeship as a means for qualifying for the exam.
18VAC41-50-30. License by endorsement. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify endorsement requirements.
18VAC41-50-40. Examination requirements and fees. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and consolidate examination requirements. The proposed amendments add requirements that if an applicant does not apply for licensure within five years of passing both exams, he must reapply, and that the board will only retain examination records for nonapplicants for a maximum of five years.
18VAC41-50-50. Reexamination requirements. The proposed amendments repeal this section and incorporate the content into 18VAC41-50-40.
18VAC41-50-60. Examination administration. The proposed amendments repeal this section and incorporate the content into 18VAC41-50-40.
18VAC41-50-80. Tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations. The proposed amendments (i) add the requirement that the applicant's license be in good standing and require applicants and any member of responsible management to disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime, certain misdemeanors within the last two years, and any prior discipline by a licensing entity; (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant who has prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession; (iii) require disclosure of the applicant's physical address and the firm's responsible management and certification that the applicant has read applicable laws and regulations; (iv) add the requirement that voided licenses be returned to the board within 30 days and set forth what events void a license; (v) require any change in responsible management be reported to the board within 30 days of the change; and (vi) add the requirement that parlors and salons that host guest tattooers must identify themselves as the sponsor and that parlors and salons provide direct supervision of the guest tattooer.
18VAC41-50-90. Limited term tattooer license. The proposed amendments repeal this section.
18VAC41-50-91. Convention tattooer license. The proposed amendments create a one-year convention tattooer license and set the requirements for licensure, including the requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4, out-of-state residency, and health education in certain areas.
18VAC41-50-92. Guest tattooer license. The proposed amendments create a two-week guest tattooer license and set the requirements for licensure, including the requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4, out-of-state residency, and health education in certain areas. Up to three guest tattooers licenses may be obtained per calendar year.
18VAC41-50-93. Guest tattooer sponsor. The proposed amendments create requirements for parlor and salons to sponsor guest tattooers, including direct supervision by a licensee.
18VAC41-50-100. School license. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations. The proposed amendments (i) add the requirement that the applicant's license be in good standing and requires applicants and any member of responsible management to disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime, certain misdemeanors within the last two years, and any prior discipline by a licensing entity; (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant having prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession; (iii) require disclosure of the applicant's physical address and the firm's responsible management and certification that the applicant has read applicable laws and regulations; (iv) add the requirement that voided licenses be returned to the board within 30 days and set forth what events void a license; and (v) require any change in responsible management be reported to the board within 30 days of the change. 
18VAC41-50-110. Tattooer instructor certificate. The proposed amendments update this section to add a requirement that instructors pass a course in teaching techniques at the post-secondary education level. 
18VAC41-50-120. Permanent cosmetic tattooer instructor certificate. The proposed amendments update this section to add the additional requirement that instructors pass a course in teaching techniques at the post-secondary education level. 
18VAC41-50-130. Fees. The proposed amendments remove the fee for tattoo instructor endorsement, as the regulations do not allow for instructor endorsement. 
18VAC41-50-150. License renewal required. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the requirements. Additionally, the amendments identify the expiration for the convention and guest tattooer licenses.
18VAC41-50-180. Failure to renew. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the requirements, including the addition of reinstatement requirements for tattoo schools that are consistent with other schools licensed under the board.
18VAC41-50-230. General requirements. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations. The proposed amendments also require schools to hold tattoo parlor licenses as required under § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia. 
18VAC41-50-240. School identification. The proposed amendments repeal this regulation.
18VAC41-50-250. Records. The proposed amendments add a requirement that schools provide certain documentation to students within specified time periods.
18VAC41-50-260. Hours reported. The proposed amendments repeal this section.
18VAC41-50-270. Health education. The proposed amendments repeal this section and move its requirement to 18VAC41-50-280.
18VAC41-50-280. Tattooing school curriculum requirements. The proposed amendments update this section for consistency and add the requirement for health education from 18VAC41-50-270. 
18VAC41-50-290. Hours of instruction and performances. The proposed amendments change the hours of instruction for tattooing schools from 750 to 1,000.
18VAC41-50-320. School identification. The proposed amendments repeal this section.
18VAC41-50-340. Hours reported. The proposed amendments repeal this section.
18VAC41-50-350. Health education. The proposed amendments repeal this section and move its requirement to18VAC41-50-280.
18VAC41-50-360. Permanent cosmetic tattooing school curriculum requirements. The proposed amendments update this section for consistency and add the requirement for health education from 18VAC41-50-350.
18VAC41-50-420. Grounds for license revocation or suspension; denial of application, renewal, or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and simplify the requirements. The proposed amendments (i) provide grounds for discipline for failing to teach the approved curriculum, bribery, failing to respond or providing false or misleading information to the board or its agents, and refusing to allow inspection of any parlor, salon, or school; (ii) clarify and refine grounds for discipline for certain criminal convictions and failing to report convictions within a certain time period; and (iii) provide grounds for discipline for allowing unlicensed activity, failing to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable disease, and failing to comply with all procedures with regard to conduct at the examination.
Body Piercing:
18VAC41-60-10. Definitions. The proposed amendments add definitions for business entity, firm, responsible management, and sole proprietor. The definition of licensee has been amended to further clarify terms used in this chapter.
18VAC41-60-20. General requirements. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize entry requirements. The proposed amendments (i) require an applicant disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime and certain misdemeanors within the last two years; (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant having prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession; and (iii) incorporate registered apprenticeship as the means for qualifying for the exam.
18VAC41-60-30. License by endorsement. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify endorsement requirements.
18VAC41-60-40. Examination requirements and fees. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and consolidate examination requirements. The proposed amendments also add requirements that if an applicant does not apply for licensure within five years of passing both exams, he must reapply, and that the board will only retain examination records for nonapplicants for a maximum of five years.
18VAC41-60-50. Reexamination requirements. The proposed amendments repeal this section and incorporate the content into 18VAC41-60-40.
18VAC41-60-60. Examination administration. The proposed amendments repeal this section and incorporate the content into 18VAC41-60-40.
18VAC41-60-80. Salon license. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations. The proposed amendments (i) add the requirement that the applicant's license be in good standing and require applicants and any member of responsible management to disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime, certain misdemeanors within the last two years, and any prior discipline by a licensing entity; (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant who has prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession; (iii) require disclosure of the applicant's physical address and the firm's responsible management and certification that the applicant has read applicable laws and regulations; (iv) add the requirement that voided licenses be returned to the board within 30 days and set forth what events void a license; and (v) require any change in responsible management be reported to the board within 30 days of the change.
18VAC41-60-110. License renewal required. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations.
18VAC41-60-120. Continuing education requirement. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations.
18VAC41-60-140. Failure to renew. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the requirements.
18VAC41-60-190. Physical facilities. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations.  
18VAC41-60-220. Grounds for license revocation or suspension; denial of application, renewal or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and simplify the requirements. The proposed amendments (i) provide grounds for discipline for failing to teach the approved curriculum, bribery, failing to respond or providing false or misleading information to the board or its agents, and refusing to allow inspection of any salon; (ii) clarify and refine grounds for discipline for certain criminal convictions and failing to report convictions within a certain time period; and (iii) provide grounds for discipline for allowing unlicensed activity, failing to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable disease, and failing to comply with all procedures with regard to conduct at the examination.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is the addition of the responsible management system for tracking ownership of tattooing and body-piercing businesses. This system allows the board to better identify when individuals previously disciplined by the board are attempting to re-enter the profession. The addition of a one-year convention license and two-week guest tattooer license will facilitate businesses providing better services to the public and out-of-state tattooers working as guests in Virginia and contributing to Virginia's economy, all without diminishing health and safety protections for the public. The board will continue to approve applicants and license professionals for which it has safeguards to ensure proper competency and standards of conduct as required by statute. The addition of prohibited acts will reduce fraud and better ensure the regulant population is minimally competent. Further, regulants and applicants within these professions will be able to read the board's requirements with greater clarity and understanding. The added clarity of the language in the proposed regulations will facilitate a quicker and more efficient process for applicants and regulants by enhancing their understanding of their individual requirements. Consumers in the public, as well as regulators from related agencies, will have a better understanding of the board's requirements, which will also allow them to conduct their business with greater efficiency and ultimately lead to a more protected public.
The primary advantage to the Commonwealth will be the continued successful regulation of tattooers and body piercers who meet the minimum entry standards as required by statute. The proposed amendments strengthen the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation's ability to investigate and discipline regulants who disregard the health, safety, and welfare of the public. The primary disadvantage to the department is that by adding the responsible management systems, as well as turning the limited-term license into two separate licenses, there is more complexity added to the administration of the regulations.
The clarification of the proposed language will facilitate greater understanding of the board's requirements for all involved.  Several changes, including teaching techniques training for tattoo instructors, guest and convention licenses, and increasing the hours of training were included at the request of the regulated community.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board for Barbers and Cosmetology (Board) proposes to: 1) add the responsible management system for tracking ownership of tattooing and body piercing businesses, 2) significantly alter the limited-term tattooer license structure, 3) amend training requirements for tattooing schools and tattoo instructors, 4) address the release of tattoo school records, and 5) make other amendments for improved clarity.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for the majority of proposed changes. For other proposed amendments it is uncertain.
Estimated Economic Impact:
Responsible Management. The Board proposes to add the requirement that applicants for tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, permanent cosmetic tattoo salon, body piercing salon, or body piercing ear only salon, disclose the names of the firm's responsible management. The proposed regulation defines responsible management as: 
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship;
2. The partners of a general partnership;
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership;
4. The officers of a corporation;
5. The managers of a limited liability company;
6. The officers or directors of an association or both; and
7. Individuals in other business entities recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth as having a fiduciary responsibility to the firm.
The applicant and all members of the responsible management would be required to be in good standing as a licensed shop or salon in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed and disclose any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions. This would allow the Board to better identify when individuals previously disciplined by the Board are attempting to re-enter the profession.
Limited-term Tattooer License. The current regulation contains a limited term tattooer license that is effective for five consecutive days prior to the expiration date. A person may obtain a maximum of five limited term tattooer licenses within a calendar year and a maximum of two limited term tattooer licenses within 30 consecutive days. 
According to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation (DPOR), out-of-state tattooers coming to Virginia for tattoo conventions and the licensee hosts of the convention have found the need to reapply for licensure and pay the licensing fee multiple times each year to be onerous. Also according to the agency, potential guest tattooers from out-of-state and the potential hosts of the guest tattooers have often found the five-day licensing period inadequate to sufficiently justify traveling to Virginia. Parlor owners at times find having guest tattooers to be good for business. The Board proposes to eliminate the current five-day limited-term tattooer license and replace it with a one-year convention tattooer license and a two-week guest tattooer license.
For both the one-year convention tattooer license and the two-week guest tattooer license, the applicant would need to: 1) present documentation showing out-of-state residency, 2) provide documentation of health education knowledge to include but not limited to bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing, and first aid and CPR that is acceptable to the Board, 3) disclose any disciplinary action taken in Virginia or any other jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's practice, 4) disclose criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions, and 5) sign a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and regulation. The guest tattooer license applicant would also need to show guest tattooer sponsorship, including signature of the sponsor parlor's responsible management. An out of state resident would be able to obtain up to three guest tattooer licenses per calendar year. The proposed requirements help ensure the same level of health, safety and welfare protections as under the current regulation.
Both the existing and proposed regulation contain a $75 fee for all individual licenses.1 The one-year convention license reduces administrative hassle and fees expended for applicants who intend to participate in more than one Virginia convention per year. Under the current regulation, licensure for participating at two conventions (that are not entirely within the same five-day period) would cost $150 in fees, and licensure for participating at three conventions would cost $225 in fees. With the proposed one-year convention license, the tattooer would only need to apply for one license a year and pay only $75 in fees. This may encourage greater participation at Virginia tattoo conventions, helping ensure the success and continuation of such conventions. 
As mentioned above, the limited term tattooer license that is effective for only five consecutive days has discouraged Virginia tattoo parlors from having out-of-state guest tattooers. The proposed two-week guest tattooer license would likely greatly alleviate that problem by providing sufficient time for the guest tattoo artist to practice and make the trip worthwhile. As some parlor owners may find having guest tattooers to be good for business, this proposal would be beneficial for the Commonwealth.
Training Requirements. DPOR reports that there have been numerous complaints concerning tattoo instructor teaching ability. Consequently, the Board proposes to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level. There is presumably variation in the effectiveness of such courses. Thus it is not known whether the benefits would exceed the costs of this proposed requirement. As for cost, DPOR has indicated that it would accept online courses that may cost about $150 in fees and 24 hours (spread over six weeks) in time.2
The regulation includes an extensive list of topics to be addressed within tattooing school instruction. It currently states that the curriculum requirements shall be taught over a minimum of 750 hours. According to DPOR, there is a consensus that the curriculum requirements cannot be adequately taught within that time. Thus, the Board proposes to increase the minimum hours to 1,000. DPOR does not anticipate any objection to this change.
Tattooing School Records. DPOR has heard frequent complaints that tattooing schools are withholding progress documentation from their students. In response, the Board proposes to require that schools, within 21 days of a student's request, produce documentation and performances completed by that student. This provision would assist students in obtaining their records, which are needed for licensure applications. 
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments potentially affect the 642 tattooers, 242 tattoo parlors, 9 tattooing instructors, 5 tattoo schools, 355 permanent cosmetic tattooers, 7 master permanent cosmetic tattooers, 24 permanent cosmetic tattoo instructors, 105 permanent cosmetic tattooing salons, 14 permanent cosmetic tattooing schools, 127 body piercers, 97 body piercing salons, 304 "ear-only" body piercers, and 62 body piercer ear only salons licensed by the Board. The Board received 191 limited-term tattooer license applications in 2017, which would be replaced by an estimated 100 to 150 convention and guest tattooer applications under the proposed regulatory change.3 Most, if not all, of the parlors and salons would qualify as small businesses. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level would also affect providers of such courses.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level may moderately increase employment at private providers of such courses.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level would increase demand for and perhaps increase the value of private providers of such courses. To the extent that the proposed one-year convention license encourages greater participation at Virginia tattoo conventions and the proposed two-week guest tattooer license increases the profitable use of such tattoo artists at Virginia parlors, the use and value of Virginia tattoo conventions and tattoo parlors may be positively affected.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses: 
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level increases costs for these individuals. This would likely add cost for tattooing schools, as they may pay for all or part of the instructor's cost, or find it more difficult to find qualified instructors. The tattooing schools are likely all small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The adverse impact stems from increased cost associated with trying to improve teaching quality at tattooing schools. There is no clear alternative that would achieve this goal at lower cost.
Adverse Impacts: 
Businesses. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level increases costs for these individuals. This would likely add cost for tattooing schools, as they may pay for all or part of the instructor's cost, or find it more difficult to find qualified instructors.
Localities. The proposed amendments do not adversely affect localities.
Other Entities. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level increases costs for these individuals. 
___________________________
1The existing and proposed regulations specify a $75 fee through August 31, 2020, and a $105 fee for September 1, 2020, and after.
2For example, as of August 24, 2018, the URL the ed2go course Teaching Adult Learners indicated a $149 fee and 24 hours of course time over 6 weeks. https://www.ed2go.com/courses/teacher-professional-development/child-development/ilc/teaching-adult-learners
3Data source: Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The agency concurs with the economic impact analysis.
Summary:
The proposed amendments (i) add the responsible management system for tracking ownership of tattooing and body-piercing businesses; (ii) significantly alter the limited term tattooer license structure by eliminating the current five-day limited term tattooer license and replacing it with a one-year tattooer license and a two-week guest tattooer license; (iii) update training requirements for tattoo schools and tattoo instructors; (iv) address the release of tattoo school records; and (v) make other changes to clarify, update, and standardize the regulations.
Part I 
 General 
18VAC41-50-10. Definitions. 
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. All terms defined in Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia are incorporated in this chapter. 
"Apprenticeship program" means an approved tattooing training program conducted by an approved apprenticeship sponsor.
"Apprenticeship sponsor" means an individual approved to conduct tattooing apprenticeship training who meets the qualifications in 18VAC41-50-70. 
"Aseptic technique" means a hygienic practice that prevents and hinders the direct transfer of microorganisms, regardless of pathogenicity, from one person or place to another person or place. 
"Business entity" means a sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law. 
"Convention tattooer" means a tattooer residing outside Virginia who is licensed to work only at a tattoo convention located in Virginia.
"Direct supervision" means (i)  that a Virginia licensed tattooer shall be present in the tattoo parlor at all times when services are being performed by an apprentice, (ii) that a Virginia licensed tattooing instructor shall be present in the tattooing school at all times when services are being performed by a student, or (iii) that a Virginia licensed permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor shall be present in the permanent cosmetic tattooing school at all times when services are being performed by a student. 
"Endorsement" means a method of obtaining a license by a person who is currently licensed in another state. 
"Firm" means any business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Gratuitous services" as used in § 54.1-701.5 of the Code Virginia means providing tattooing services without receiving compensation or reward, or obligation. Gratuitous services do not include services provided at no charge when goods are purchased. 
"Guest tattooer" means a tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer residing outside of Virginia who is licensed only to work for a two-week period at a specified tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon.
"Guest tattooer sponsor" means a licensed tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattooing salon that is sponsoring and providing direct supervision of a guest tattooer.
"Licensee" means any person, sole proprietorship, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, or corporation limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law holding a license issued by the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia. 
"Limited term tattooer" means a tattooer licensed to perform tattooing for a maximum of five consecutive days in an organized event or in a Virginia licensed tattoo parlor. 
"Limited term tattoo parlor" means a tattoo parlor temporary location licensed to operate for a maximum of five consecutive days. 
"Master permanent cosmetic tattooer" means any person who for compensation practices permanent cosmetic tattooing known in the industry as advanced permanent cosmetic tattooing, including but not limited to cheek blush, eye shadow, and breast and scar repigmentation or camouflage. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattoo salon" means any place in which permanent cosmetic tattooing is offered or practiced for compensation. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattooer" means any person who for compensation practices permanent cosmetic tattooing known in the industry as basic permanent cosmetic tattooing, including but not limited to eyebrows, eyeliners, lip coloring, lip liners, or full lips. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattooing" means placing marks upon or under the skin of any person with ink or any other substance, resulting in the permanent coloration of the skin on the face, including but not limited to eyebrows, eyeliners, lip coloring, lip liners, full lips, cheek blush, eye shadow, and on the body for breast and scar repigmentation or camouflage;, also known as permanent make-up makeup or micropigmentation. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor" means a person who has been certified by the board who meets the competency standards of the board as an instructor of permanent cosmetic tattooing. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattooing school" means a place or establishment licensed by the board to accept and train students and offers a permanent cosmetic tattooing curriculum approved by the board. 
"Post-secondary educational level" means an accredited college or university that is approved or accredited by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Department of Education.
"Reinstatement" means having a license restored to effectiveness after the expiration date has passed. 
"Renewal" means continuing the effectiveness of a license for another period of time. 
"Responsible management" means the following individuals:
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship;
2. The partners of a general partnership;
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership;
4. The officers of a corporation;
5. The managers of a limited liability company;
6. The officers or directors of an association or both; and
7. Individuals in other business entities recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth as having a fiduciary responsibility to the firm.
"Sole proprietor" means any individual, not a corporation, who is trading under his own name or under an assumed or fictitious name pursuant to the provisions of §§ 59.1-69 through 59.1-76 of the Code of Virginia. 
"Sterilization area" means a separate room or area separate from workstations with restricted client access in which tattooing instruments are cleaned, disinfected, and sterilized. 
"Tattoo convention" means an event where Virginia and out-of-state tattooers gather for no more than five consecutive days to offer tattooing services to the public.
"Tattooing instructor" means a person who has been certified by the board who meets the competency standards of the board as an instructor of tattooing. 
"Temporary location" means a fixed location at which tattooing is performed for a specified length of time of not more than five days in conjunction with a single event or celebration. 
Part II 
 Entry 
18VAC41-50-20. General requirements for tattooer, limited term convention tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer. 
A. In order to receive a license as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer in compliance with § 54.1-703 of the Code of Virginia, an applicant must Any individual wishing to engage in tattooing, limited term tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing shall obtain a license in compliance with § 54.1-703 of the Code of Virginia and meet the following qualifications: 
1. The applicant must be in good standing as a tattooer, limited term convention tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in another Virginia or any other jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's practice as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure whether if he has been previously licensed in Virginia as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer. 
Upon review of the applicant's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein the board deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in tattooing, convention tattooing, guest tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable. 
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and the board's tattooing regulations this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, the each applicant must not have been convicted in any jurisdiction of a misdemeanor or felony that directly relates to the profession of tattooing. The board shall have the authority to determine, based upon all the information available, including the applicant's record of prior convictions, if the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the profession of tattooing. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this section. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction. This record shall be forwarded by the applicant to the board within 10 days after all appeal rights have expired. shall disclose the following information regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has passed the board approved examination, administered either by the board or by a designated testing service. 
6. Persons who (i) make application for licensure between October 1, 2006, and September 30, 2007; (ii) have completed three years of documented work experience within the preceding five years as a tattooer; and (iii) have completed a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing and first aid and CPR that is acceptable to the board are not required to complete subdivision 5 of this subsection. 
B. Eligibility to sit for board-approved examination. 
1. Training in the Commonwealth of Virginia. 
a. Any person completing an approved tattooing apprenticeship program in a Virginia licensed tattoo parlor or completing an approved tattooing training program in a Virginia licensed school of tattooing, or completing a permanent cosmetic tattooing training program in a Virginia licensed permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall be eligible to sit for the applicable examination. 
b. Any person completing master permanent cosmetic tattooing training that is acceptable to the board shall be eligible to sit for the examination. Training should be conducted in a permanent facility. 
2. Training outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia, but within the United States and its territories. 
a. Any person completing a tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing training or tattooing apprenticeship program that is substantially equivalent to the Virginia program but is outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia must submit to the board documentation of the successful completion of training or apprenticeship to be eligible for examination. If less than the required hours of tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing training or tattooing apprenticeship was completed, an applicant must submit (i) documentation acceptable to the board verifying the completion of a substantially equivalent tattooing training or tattooing apprenticeship or permanent cosmetic tattooing training or documentation of three years of work experience within the preceding five years as a tattooer, and (ii) documentation of completion of a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to blood-borne disease (a) bloodborne pathogens, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing and; (b) first aid; and (c) CPR that is acceptable to the board in order to be eligible for examination. 
b. Any person completing master permanent cosmetic tattooing training that is acceptable to the board shall be eligible to sit for the examination. Training should be conducted in a permanent facility. 
18VAC41-50-30. License by endorsement. 
Upon proper application to the board, any person currently licensed to practice as a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer in any other state or jurisdiction of the United States and who has completed a training or apprenticeship program and an examination that is substantially equivalent to that required by this chapter may be issued a tattooer license, permanent cosmetic tattooer license, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license, respectively, without an examination. The applicant must also meet the requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4. 
18VAC41-50-40. Examination requirements and fees. 
A. Applicants for initial licensure shall pass an examination approved by the board. The examinations may be administered by the board or by a designated testing service. 
B. Any candidate failing to appear as scheduled for examination shall forfeit the examination fee. 
C. The applicant shall follow all procedures established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such procedures shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of application.
D. Any applicant who does not pass a reexamination within one year of the initial examination date shall be required to submit a new application.
E. The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted charges to the board by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with these contracts. The fee shall not exceed $225 per candidate. 
F. Any candidate failing to apply for initial licensure within five years of passing the written examination shall be required to retake the examination. Records of examinations shall be maintained for a maximum of five years. 
18VAC41-50-50. Reexamination requirements. (Repealed.) 
Any applicant who does not pass a reexamination within one year of the initial examination date shall be required to submit a new application and examination fee. 
18VAC41-50-60. Examination administration. (Repealed.) 
A. The examinations may be administered by the board or the designated testing service. 
B. The applicant shall follow all procedures established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such procedures shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of application. 
C. The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted charges to the board by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with these contracts. The fee shall not exceed $225 per candidate. 
18VAC41-50-80. Tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license. 
A. Any individual firm wishing to operate a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon shall obtain a tattoo parlor license, limited term tattoo parlor license, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license in compliance with § 54.1-704.1 of the Code of Virginia. and shall meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license: 
1. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall be in good standing as a licensed parlor or salon in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon or practice of the profession. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of the responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon. 
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein it deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable.
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall disclose the firm's responsible management.
B. A tattoo parlor license, limited term tattoo parlor license, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license shall not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address of the business. Any changes in the name, or address, or ownership of the parlor or salon shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such changes. New owners shall be responsible for reporting such changes in writing to the board applying for a new license within 30 days of the changes. 
C. In the event of a closing of a tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon, the board must be notified by the owners in writing within 30 days of the closing, and the license must be returned by the owners to the board. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the firm shall apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the business entity. Such changes include:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, an association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
E. Any tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon wishing to host a guest tattooer must identify itself as the guest tattooer sponsor and must provide direct supervision of any tattooing by the guest tattooer.
D. F. Any individual firm wishing to operate a tattoo parlor in a temporary location must have a tattoo parlor license or limited term tattoo parlor license issued by the board. 
E. G. A limited term tattoo parlor license is effective for five consecutive days prior to the expiration date. 
F. H. A person or entity firm may obtain a maximum of five limited term tattoo parlor licenses within a calendar year. 
G. I. A person or entity firm may obtain a maximum of two limited term tattoo parlor licenses within a 30 consecutive days time period. 
18VAC41-50-90. Limited term tattooer license. (Repealed.) 
A. A limited term tattooer license is effective for five consecutive days prior to the expiration date. 
B. A person may obtain a maximum of five limited term tattooer licenses within a calendar year. 
C. A person may obtain a maximum of two limited term tattooer licenses within a 30 consecutive days time period. 
D. A limited term tattooer applicant must meet the following qualifications: 
1. Requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4. 
2. Documentation of health education knowledge to include but not limited to blood-borne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing, and first aid and CPR that is acceptable to the board. 
E. A limited term tattooer applicant is not required to complete 18VAC41-50-20 A 5. 
18VAC41-50-91. Convention tattooer license.
A. A convention tattooer license shall expire one year from the last day of the month in which it was issued. 
B. A convention tattooer applicant must meet the following qualifications: 
1. Requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4. 
2. Present documentation showing out-of-state residency.
3. Documentation of health education knowledge to include (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR that is acceptable to the board. 
C. A convention tattooer applicant is not required to complete 18VAC41-50-20 A 5. 
18VAC41-50-92. Guest tattooer license.
A. A guest tattooer license is effective for 14 days prior to the expiration date.
B. An out-of-state resident may obtain up to three guest tattooer licenses per calendar year.
C. A guest tattooer applicant must meet the following qualifications: 
1. Requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4. 
2. Present documentation showing out-of-state residency.
3. Documentation of health education knowledge to include (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR that is acceptable to the board. 
4. Documentation showing guest tattooer sponsor including signature of sponsor parlor's responsible management.
D. A guest tattooer applicant is not required to complete 18VAC41-50-20 A 5. 
18VAC41-50-93. Guest tattooer sponsor.
A. The licensed tattoo parlor that agrees to sponsor a guest tattooer shall ensure that the guest tattooer:
1. Has a valid, current guest tattooer license for the entire duration of his tattooing at the parlor.
2. Is directly supervised by a licensed tattooer.
3. Complies with all Virginia regulations relating to health, sanitation, client qualifications, and standards of practice.
B. The licensed permanent cosmetic tattooing salon that agrees to sponsor a guest tattooer shall ensure that the guest tattooer:
1. Has a valid, current guest tattooer licensed for the entire duration of his tattooing at the salon.
2. Is directly supervised by a licensed tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer.
3. Complies with all Virginia regulations relating to health, sanitation, client qualifications, and standards of practice.
C. The guest tattooer sponsor's responsible management must sign the guest tattooer application certifying the sponsor will ensure the requirements of subsections A and B of this section.
D. The guest tattooer sponsor shall be responsible for the acts or omissions of the guest tattooer in the performance of tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing.
18VAC41-50-100. School license. 
A. Any individual firm wishing to operate a tattooing school or permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall obtain a school license in compliance with § 54.1-704.2 of the Code of Virginia. and shall meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license: 
1. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall be in good standing as a licensed parlor or salon in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon or practice of the profession. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of the responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon. 
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein it deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable.
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall disclose the firm's responsible management.
B. A tattooing school license or permanent cosmetic tattooing school license shall not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address as the school. Any changes in the name or address of the school shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such change. The name of the school must indicate that it is an educational institution. All signs or other advertisements must reflect the name as indicated on the license issued by the board and contain language indicating it is an educational institution. 
C. In the event of a change of ownership of a school, the new owners shall be responsible for reporting such changes in writing to the board within 30 days of the changes. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the firm shall apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the business entity. Such changes include: 
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, an association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. In the event of a school closing, the board must be notified by the owners in writing within 30 days of the closing, and the license must be returned. Within 30 days of the closing, the school shall return the license to the board and provide a written report to the board on performances and hours of each student who has not completed the program.
E. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
18VAC41-50-110. Tattooing instructor certificate. 
A. Upon filing an application with the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, any person meeting the qualifications set forth in this section shall be eligible for a tattooing instructor certificate if the person: 
1. Holds a current Virginia tattooer license; and 
2. Provides documentation of three years of work experience within the past five years; and 
3. Passes a course on teaching techniques in a post-secondary education level.
B. Tattooing instructors shall be required to maintain a tattooer license. 
18VAC41-50-120. Permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor certificate. 
A. Upon filing an application with the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, any person meeting the qualifications set forth in this section shall be eligible for a permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor certificate if the person: 
1. Holds a current Virginia permanent cosmetic tattooer license or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license; and 
2. Provides documentation of three years of work experience within the past five years; and
3. Passes a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary education level.
B. Permanent cosmetic tattooing instructors shall be required to maintain a permanent cosmetic tattooer license or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license. 
Part III 
Fees 
18VAC41-50-130. Fees. 
The following fees apply: 
| FEE TYPE | AMOUNT DUESeptember 1, 2016, through August 31, 2020
 | AMOUNT DUESeptember 1, 2020, and after
 | WHEN DUE | 
| Individuals: | 
|   | Application | $75 | $105 | With application | 
|   | License by Endorsement | $75 | $105 | With application | 
|   | Renewal | $75 | $105 | With renewal card prior to expiration date | 
|   | Reinstatement | $150**includes $75 renewal fee and $75 reinstatement fee
 | $210**includes $105 renewal fee and $105 reinstatement fee
 | With reinstatement application | 
| Instructors: | 
|   | Application | $100 | $125 | With application | 
|   | License by Endorsement
 | $100
 | $125
 | With application
 | 
|   | Renewal | $100 | $150 | With renewal card prior to expiration date | 
|   | Reinstatement | $200**includes $100 renewal fee and $100 reinstatement fee
 | $300**includes $150 renewal fee and $150 reinstatement fee
 | With reinstatement application | 
| Parlors or salons: | 
|   | Application | $130 | $190 | With application | 
|   | Renewal | $130 | $190 | With renewal card prior to expiration date | 
|   | Reinstatement | $260**includes $130 renewal fee and $130 reinstatement fee
 | $380**includes $190 renewal fee and $190 reinstatement fee
 | With reinstatement application | 
| Schools: | 
|   | Application | $140 | $220 | With application | 
|   | Renewal | $140 | $220 | With renewal card prior to expiration date | 
|   | Reinstatement | $280**includes $140 renewal fee and $140 reinstatement fee
 | $440**includes $220 renewal fee and $220 reinstatement fee
 | With reinstatement application | 
|   |   |   |   |   | 
Part IV 
 Renewal/Reinstatement Renewal and Reinstatement 
18VAC41-50-150. License renewal required. 
All tattooer 1. Tattooer licenses, tattoo parlor licenses, tattooing instructors licenses, tattooing schools licenses, permanent cosmetic tattooer licenses, master permanent cosmetic tattooer licenses, permanent cosmetic tattoo salon licenses, and permanent cosmetic tattooing schools licenses shall expire two years from the last day of the month in which they were issued. 
2. Convention tattooer licenses shall expire one year from the last day of the month in which it was issued.
3. Guest tattooer licenses will expire 14 days after the effective date of the license and may not be renewed.
18VAC41-50-160. Continuing education requirement. 
All licensed tattooers, permanent cosmetic tattooers, and master permanent cosmetic tattooers shall be required to satisfactorily complete a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing, (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR during their licensed term. Documentation of training completion shall be provided at the time of renewal along with the required fee. 
18VAC41-50-180. Failure to renew. 
A. When a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer licensed or certified individual or business entity fails to renew his its license within 30 days following its the expiration date of the license, the licensee shall meet the renewal requirements as prescribed in 18VAC41-50-170 and apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
B. When a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer licensed or certified individual or business entity fails to renew his its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant, shall meet all current application requirements, shall pass the board's current examination, and shall receive a new license. 
C. When a tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon fails to renew its license within 30 days following the expiration date, it shall be required to apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
D. When a tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon fails to renew its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant and shall meet all current application requirements. 
E. When a tattooing school or permanent cosmetic tattooing school fails to renew its license within 30 days following the expiration date, the licensee shall be required to apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
F. When a tattooing school or permanent cosmetic tattooing school fails to renew its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant and shall meet all current application requirements. 
C. The application for reinstatement for a school shall provide (i) the reasons for failing to renew prior to the expiration date, and (ii) a notarized statement that all students currently enrolled or seeking to enroll at the school have been notified in writing that the school's license has expired. All of these materials shall be called the application package. Reinstatement will be considered by the board if the school consents to and satisfactorily passes an inspection of the school and if the school's records are maintained in accordance with 18VAC41-50-250 and 18VAC41-50-330. Pursuant to 18VAC41-50-100, 18VAC41-50-230, and 18VAC41-50-310 upon receipt of the reinstatement fee, application package, and inspection results, the board may reinstate the school's license or require requalification or both. If the reinstatement application package and reinstatement fee are not received by the board within six months following the expiration date of the school's license, the board will notify the testing service that prospective graduates of the unlicensed school are not acceptable candidates for the examination. Such notification will be sent to the school and must be displayed in a conspicuous manner by the school in an area that is accessible to the public. No student shall be disqualified from taking the examination because the school was not licensed for a portion of the time the student attended if the school license is reinstated by the board.
G. D. The date a renewal fee is received by the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, or its agent, will be used to determine whether the requirement for reinstatement of a license is applicable and an additional fee is required. 
H. E. When a license is reinstated, the licensee shall have the same license number and shall be assigned an expiration date two years from the previous expiration date of the license date of the last day of the month of reinstatement. 
I. F. A licensee who that reinstates his its license shall be regarded as having been continuously licensed without interruption. Therefore, a licensee shall be subject to the authority of the board for activities performed prior to reinstatement. 
J. G. A licensee who that fails to reinstate his its license shall be regarded as unlicensed from the expiration date of the license forward. Nothing in this chapter shall divest the board of its authority to discipline a licensee for a violation of the law or regulations during the period of time for which the individual was licensed. 
18VAC41-50-230. General requirements. 
A tattooing school shall: 
1. Hold a tattooing school license for each and every location. 
2. Hold a tattoo parlor license if the school receives compensation for services provided in the area where practical instruction is conducted and services are provided. 
3. Employ a staff of certified tattooing instructors. 
4. Develop individuals for entry-level competency in tattooing. 
5. Submit its curricula for board approval. All changes to curricula must be resubmitted and approved by the board.
6. Inform the public that all services are performed by students if the tattooing school receives compensation for services provided in its clinic by posting a notice in the reception area of the shop or salon in plain view of the public. 
7. Conduct classroom instruction in an area separate from the area where practical instruction is conducted and services are provided. 
8. Conduct all instruction and training of tattooers under the direct supervision of a certified tattooing instructor. 
18VAC41-50-240. School identification. (Repealed.) 
Each tattooing school approved by the board shall identify itself to the public as a teaching institution. 
18VAC41-50-250. Records. 
A. Schools are required to keep upon graduation, termination, or withdrawal, written records of hours and performances showing what instruction a student has received for a period of five years after the student terminates or completes the curriculum of the school. These records shall be available for inspection by the department. All records must be kept on the premises of each school. 
B. For a period of five years after a student completes the curriculum, terminates, or withdraws from the school, schools are required to provide documentation of hours and performances completed by a student upon receipt of a written request from the student. 
C. Schools shall within 21 days upon receipt of a written request from a student provide documentation of hours and performances completed by the student as required to be maintained by subsection A of this section.
C. D. Prior to a school changing ownership or a school closing, the schools are required to provide to current students documentation of hours and performances completed. 
D. E. For a period of one year after a school changes ownership, schools are required to provide documentation of hours and performances completed by a current student upon receipt of a written request from the student. 
18VAC41-50-260. Hours reported. (Repealed.) 
Within 30 days of the closing of a licensed tattooing school for any reason, the school shall provide a written report to the board on performances and hours of each of its students who has not completed the program. 
18VAC41-50-270. Health education. (Repealed.) 
Any person desiring to enroll in the tattooing school shall be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to blood-borne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing, and first aid and CPR. 
18VAC41-50-280. Tattooing school curriculum requirements. 
A. Any person desiring to enroll in the tattooing school shall be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of a minimum of five hours of health education to include (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR. 
B. Tattooing school curriculum requirements are as follows: 
1. Microbiology. 
a. Microorganisms, viruses, bacteria, fungus; 
b. Transmission cycle of infectious diseases; and 
c. Characteristics of antimicrobial agents. 
2. Immunization. 
a. Types of immunizations; 
b. Hepatitis A—G A through G transmission and immunization; 
c. HIV/AIDS; 
d. Tetanus, streptococcal, zoonotic, tuberculosis, pneumococcal, and influenza; 
e. Measles, mumps, and rubella; 
f. Vaccines and immunization; and 
g. General preventative measures to be taken to protect the tattooer and client. 
3. Sanitation and disinfection. 
a. Definition of terms: 
(1) Sterilization; 
(2) Disinfection and disinfectant; 
(3) Sterilizer or sterilant; 
(4) Antiseptic; 
(5) Germicide; 
(6) Decontamination; and 
(7) Sanitation. 
b. The use of steam sterilization equipment and techniques; 
c. The use of chemical agents, antiseptics, disinfectants, and fumigants; 
d. The use of sanitation equipment; 
e. Preservice sanitation procedure; and 
f. Postservice sanitation procedure. 
4. Safety. 
a. Proper needle handling and disposal; 
b. How to avoid overexposure to chemicals; 
c. The use of Material Safety Data Sheets; 
d. Blood spill procedures; 
e. Equipment and instrument storage; and 
f. First aid and CPR. 
5. Blood-borne Bloodborne pathogen standards. 
a. OSHA and CDC blood-borne bloodborne pathogen standards; 
b. Control plan for blood-borne bloodborne pathogens; 
c. Exposure control plan for tattooers; 
d. Overview of compliance requirements; and 
e. Disorders and when not to service a client. 
6. Professional standards. 
a. History of tattooing;. 
b. Ethics;. 
c. Recordkeeping: 
(1) Client health history; 
(2) Consent forms; and 
(3) HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Privacy Rule) Standards. 
d. Preparing station, making appointments, parlor ethics: 
(1) Maintaining professional appearance, notifying clients of schedule changes; and 
(2) Promoting services of the parlor and establishing clientele. 
e. Parlor management. 
(1) Licensing requirements; and 
(2) Taxes. 
f. Supplies. 
(1) Usages; 
(2) Ordering; and 
(3) Storage. 
7. Tattooing. 
a. Client consultation; 
b. Client health form; 
c. Client disclosure form; 
d. Client preparation; 
e. Sanitation and safety precautions; 
f. Implement selection and use; 
g. Proper use of equipment; 
h. Material selection and use; 
i. Needles; 
j. Ink; 
k. Machine: 
(1) Construction; 
(2) Adjustment; and 
(3) Power supply; 
l. Art, drawing; and 
m. Portfolio. 
8. Anatomy. 
a. Understanding of skin; and 
b. Parts and functions of skin. 
9. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations. 
18VAC41-50-290. Hours of instruction and performances. 
A. Curriculum requirements specified in 18VAC41-50-280 shall be taught over a minimum of 750 1,000 hours as follows: 
1. 350 hours shall be devoted to theory pertaining to subdivisions 18VAC41-50-280 B 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, and 9 of 18VAC41-50-280; 
2. 150 hours shall be devoted to theory pertaining to subdivision 3 of 18VAC41-50-280; and 
3. The remaining 250 500 hours shall be devoted to practical training to include but not limited to tattooing curriculum requirements and a total of 100 performances pertaining to subdivision 7 of 18VAC41-50-280 B 7. 
B. An approved tattooing school may conduct an assessment of a student's competence in the theory and practical requirements for tattooing and, based on the assessment, give a maximum of 350 hours of credit towards toward the requirements in subdivisions A 1 and A 3 of this section. No credit shall be allowed for the 150 hours required in subdivision A 2 of this section. 
18VAC41-50-320. School identification. (Repealed.) 
Each permanent cosmetic tattooing school approved by the board shall identify itself to the public as a teaching institution. 
18VAC41-50-340. Hours reported. (Repealed.) 
Within 30 days of the closing of a licensed permanent cosmetic tattooing school for any reason, the school shall provide a written report to the board on performances and hours of each of its students who have not completed the program. 
18VAC41-50-350. Health education. (Repealed.) 
Any person desiring to enroll in the permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of health education on blood-borne disease. 
18VAC41-50-360. Permanent cosmetic tattooing school curriculum requirements. 
A. Any person desiring to enroll in the permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of health education on bloodborne disease. 
B. Permanent cosmetic tattooing school curriculum requirements are as follows: 
1. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations. 
2. Machines and devices. 
a. Coil machine; 
b. Hand device; and 
c. Others devices. 
3. Needles. 
a. Types; 
b. Uses; and 
c. Application. 
4. Anatomy. 
a. Layers of skin; 
b. Parts and functions of skin; and 
c. Diseases. 
5. Color theory. 
a. Skin and pigment color; and 
b. Handling and storage of pigments. 
6. Transmission cycle of infectious diseases. 
7. Immunization. 
a. Types of immunizations; and 
b. General preventative measures to be taken to protect the tattooer and client. 
8. Sanitation and disinfection. 
a. Definition of terms: 
(1) Sterilization; 
(2) Disinfection and disinfectant; 
(3) Sterilizer or sterilant; 
(4) Antiseptic; 
(5) Germicide; 
(6) Decontamination; and 
(7) Sanitation.; 
b. The use of steam sterilization equipment and techniques; 
c. The use of chemical agents, antiseptics, and disinfectants; 
d. The use of sanitation equipment; 
e. Preservice sanitation procedure; and 
f. Postservice sanitation procedure. 
9. Safety. 
a. Proper needle handling and disposal; 
b. Blood spill procedures; 
c. Equipment and instrument storage; and 
d. First aid. 
10. Blood-borne Bloodborne pathogen standards. 
a. OSHA and CDC blood-borne bloodborne pathogen standards; 
b. Overview of compliance requirements; and 
c. Disorders and when not to service a client. 
11. Anesthetics. 
a. Use; 
b. Types; 
c. Application; and 
d. Removal. 
12. Equipment. 
a. Gloves; 
b. Masks; 
c. Apron; 
d. Chair; 
e. Lighting; and 
f. Work table. 
13. Professional standards. 
a. History of permanent cosmetic tattooing;. 
b. Ethics;. 
c. Recordkeeping: 
(1) Client health history; and 
(2) Consent forms. 
d. Preparing station, making appointments, salon ethics: 
(1) Maintaining professional appearance, notifying clients of schedule changes; and 
(2) Promoting services of the salon and establishing clientele. 
e. Salon management: 
(1) Licensing requirements; and 
(2) Taxes. 
14. Permanent cosmetic tattooing. 
a. Client consultation; 
b. Client health form; 
c. Client disclosure form; 
d. Client preparation; 
e. Sanitation and safety precautions; 
f. Implement selection and use; 
g. Proper use of equipment; 
h. Material selection and use.; 
i. Eyebrows; 
j. Eyeliner; 
k. Lip coloring; and 
l. Lip liners. 
18VAC41-50-400. Tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer or master permanent cosmetic tattooer responsibilities. 
A. All tattooers shall provide to the owner one of the following: 
1. Proof of completion of the full series of Hepatitis B vaccine; 
2. Proof of immunity by blood titer; or 
3. Written declaration of refusal of the owner's offer of a full series of Hepatitis B vaccine. 
B. All tattooers shall wear clean outer garments, maintain a high degree of personal cleanliness, and conform to hygienic practices while on duty. 
C. All tattooers shall clean their hands thoroughly using hot or tempered water with a liquid germicidal soap or use sanitizing solution to clean hands before and after tattooing and as necessary to remove contaminants. 
D. All tattooers must wear single-use examination gloves while assembling tattooing instruments and while tattooing. 
E. Each time there is an interruption in the service, each time the gloves become torn or perforated, or whenever the ability of the gloves to function as a barrier is compromised: 
1. Gloves shall be removed and disposed of; and 
2. Hands shall be cleaned and a fresh pair of gloves used. 
F. Tattooers shall use standard precautions while tattooing. A tattooer diagnosed with a communicable disease shall provide to the department a written statement from a health care practitioner that the tattooer's condition no longer poses a threat to public health. 
G. Tattooers with draining lesions on their hands or face will not be permitted to work until cleared by a health-care health care professional. 
H. The area of the client's skin to be tattooed shall be cleaned with an approved germicidal soap according to label directions. 
I. Tattooing inks and dyes shall be placed in a single-use disposable container for each client. Following the procedure, the unused contents and container will be properly disposed of. 
J. If shaving is required, razors shall be single-use and disposed of in a puncture resistant container. 
K. Each tattooer performing any tattooing procedures in the parlor or salon shall have the education, training, and experience, or any combination thereof, to practice aseptic technique and prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens. All procedures shall be performed using aseptic technique. 
L. A set of individual, sterilized needles shall be used for each client. Single-use disposable instruments shall be disposed of in a puncture resistant container. 
M. Used, nondisposable instruments shall be kept in a separate, puncture resistant container until brush scrubbed in hot water soap and then sterilized by autoclaving. Contaminated instruments shall be handled with disposable gloves. 
N. Used instruments that are ultrasonically cleaned shall be rinsed under running hot water prior to being placed in the used instrument container; 
O. Used instruments that are not ultrasonically cleaned prior to being placed in the used instrument container shall be kept in a germicidal or soap solution until brush scrubbed in hot water and soap and sterilized by autoclaving. 
P. The ultrasonic unit shall be sanitized daily with a germicidal solution. 
Q. Nondisposable instruments shall be sterilized and shall be handled and stored in a manner to prevent contamination. Instruments to be sterilized shall be sealed in bags made specifically for the purpose of autoclave sterilization and shall include the date of sterilization. If nontransparent bags are utilized, the bag shall also list the contents. 
R. Autoclave sterilization bags with a color code indicator that changes color upon proper sterilization shall be utilized during the autoclave sterilization process. 
S. Instruments shall be placed in the autoclave in a manner to allow live steam to circulate around them. 
T. Contaminated disposable and single-use items shall be disposed of in accordance with federal and state regulations regarding disposal of biological hazardous materials. 
U. The manufacturer's written instructions of the autoclave shall be followed. 
18VAC41-50-420. Grounds for license or certificate revocation, suspension or probation; denial of application, renewal, or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty. 
A. The board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, fine any licensee or certificate holder and suspend, place on probation, or revoke or refuse to renew or reinstate any license or certificate, or deny any application issued under the provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations of the board this chapter if the board it finds that the licensee, certificate holder, or applicant: 
1. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant is Is incompetent, or negligent in practice tattooing, or incapable mentally or physically, as those terms are generally understood in the profession, to (i) practice as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, tattooer apprentice, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer or (ii) operate a parlor, permanent cosmetic tattooing salon, or school; 
2. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant is Is convicted of fraud or deceit in the practice of tattooing or fails to teach the curriculum as provided for in this chapter; 
3. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant obtained Obtained, attempted to obtain, renewed, or reinstated a license by false or fraudulent representation; 
4. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant violates Violates or induces others to violate, or cooperates with others in violating, any of the provisions of this chapter or Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any local ordinance or regulation governing standards of health and sanitation of the establishment in which tattooers may practice or offer to practice; 
5. Offers, gives, or promises anything of value or benefit to any federal, state, or local employee for the purpose of influencing that employee to circumvent, in the performance of his duties, any federal, state, or local law, regulation, or ordinance governing tattooing as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia;
6. Fails to respond to the board or any of its agents or provides false, misleading, or incomplete information to an inquiry by the board or any of its agents;
7. Fails or refuses to allow the board or any of its agents to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed parlor, salon, or school for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) or this chapter;
5. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant fails 8. Fails to produce, upon request or demand of the board or any of its agents, any document, book, record, or copy thereof in a licensee's or owner's possession or maintained in accordance with this chapter; 
6. A licensee or certificate holder fails 9. Fails to notify the board of a change of name or address in writing within 30 days of the change for each and every license. The board shall not be responsible for the licensee's or certificate holder's failure to receive notices, communications and correspondence caused by the licensees' or certificate holder's failure to promptly notify the board in writing of any change of name or address or for any other reason beyond the control of the board; 
7. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant 10. Makes any misrepresentation or publishes or causes to be published any advertisement that is false, deceptive, or misleading; 
8. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant fails 11. Fails to notify the board in writing within 30 days of the suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license or certificate in connection with a disciplinary action in any other jurisdiction or of any license or certificate that has been the subject of disciplinary action in any other jurisdiction; or 
9. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, the licensee or certificate holder has been convicted in any jurisdiction of a misdemeanor or felony that directly relates to the profession of tattooing. The board shall have the authority to determine, based upon all the information available, including the regulant's record of prior convictions, if the regulant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the profession of tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this section. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction. This record shall be forwarded by the applicant to the board within 10 days after all appeal rights have expired. 
B. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that: 
1. The owner or operator of the tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon fails to comply with the facility requirements of tattoo parlors, limited term tattoo parlors, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salons provided for in this chapter or in any local ordinances; or 
2. The owner or operator allows a person who has not obtained a license to practice as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer unless the person is duly enrolled as an apprentice. 
C. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation, or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any school or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that: 
1. An instructor of the approved school fails to teach the curriculum as provided for in this chapter; 
2. The owner or director of the approved school permits or allows a person to teach in the school without a current tattooing instructor certificate; or 
3. The instructor, owner or director is guilty of fraud or deceit in the teaching of tattooing. 
D. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation, or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any licensee or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that the licensee fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with any local, state or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practice of tattooing. 
12. Has been convicted or found guilty, regardless of the manner of adjudication in Virginia or any other jurisdiction of the United States, of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury or any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or guilt;
13. Fails to inform the board in writing within 30 days of pleading guilty or nolo contendere or being convicted or found guilty regardless of adjudication of any convictions as stated in subdivision 12 of this section;
14. Allows, as responsible management of a parlor, salon, or school, a person who has not obtained a license or guest tattooer license to practice as a tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer unless the person is duly enrolled as an apprentice;
15. Allows, as responsible management of a school, a person who has not obtained an instructor certificate to practice as a tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor;
16. Fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with sanitary requirements provided for in this chapter or any local, state, or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practice of tattooing, or the operation of tattoo parlors or permanent cosmetic tattooing salons; or
17. Fails to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at any board examination.
NOTICE: Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
FORMS (18VAC41-50) 
Tattooer Examination & License Application, A425-1231EXLIC (eff. 9/2011) 
Tattoo Training & Experience Verification Form, A425-12TATTREXP (eff. 9/2011)
Tattooing Apprenticeship Sponsor Application, A425-12TATSPON (eff. 9/2011)
Tattooer Apprenticeship Certification Application, A425-1234TAC (eff. 9/2011)
Tattoo Apprenticeship Completion Form, A425-12TAC (eff. 9/2011)
Tattoo Client Disclosure Form, A425-12DIS, A425-12TDIS (eff. 9/2011)
Limited Term Tattooer License Application, A450-1233LIC-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
Limited Term Tattoo Parlor License Application, A450-1235LIC-v5 (rev. 9/2016)
Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination & License Application, A425-1236EXLIC (eff. 9/2011)
Master Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination & License Application, A425-1237EXLIC (eff. 9/2011)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v9 (rev. 9/2016)
Training & Experience Verification Form, A425-1213TREXP (eff. 9/2011)
Salon, Shop, Spa & Parlor License/Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v6 (rev. 9/2016)
Instructor Certification Application, A450-1213INST-v7 (rev. 9/2016)
Individuals - Reinstatement Application, A450-1213REI-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
School License Application, A450-1213SCHL-v9 (rev. 9/2016)
School Reinstatement Application, A450-1213SCH-REIN-v2 (rev. 9/2016)
Tattooer Examination & License Application, A450-1231EXLIC (rev. 7/2019)
Tattoo Client Disclosure Form, A450-12TDIS (rev. 4/2013)
Limited Term Tattoo Parlor License Application, A450-1235LIC-v6 (rev. 7/2019)
Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination & License Application, A450-1236EXLIC-v13 (rev. 7/2019)
Master Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination & License Application, A450-1237EXLIC-v11 (rev. 7/2019)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v10 (rev. 2/2017)
Training & Experience Verification Form, A450-1213TREXP-v6 (eff. 2/2017)
Salon, Shop, Spa & Parlor License/Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v12 (rev. 7/2019)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v7 (rev. 4/2017)
Instructor Certification Application, A450-1213INST-v11 (rev. 7/2019)
Individuals - Reinstatement Application, A450-1213REI-v9 (rev. 2/2017)
School License Application, A450-1213SCHL-v11 (rev. 2/2017)
School Reinstatement Application, A450-1213SCH-REIN-v5 (rev. 3/2017)
Convention Tattooer License Application, A450-1233COVLIC-v1 (eff. 7/2019)
Guest Tattooer License Application, A450-1233GLIC-v1 (eff. 7/2019)
Part I 
 General 
18VAC41-60-10. Definitions. 
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. All terms defined in Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia are incorporated in this chapter. 
"Apprenticeship program" means an approved body-piercing training program conducted by an approved apprenticeship sponsor. 
"Apprenticeship sponsor" means an individual approved to conduct body-piercing apprenticeship training who meets the qualifications in 18VAC41-60-70. 
"Aseptic technique" means a hygienic practice that prevents and hinders the direct transfer of microorganisms, regardless of pathogenicity, from one person or place to another person or place. 
"Body piercer ear only" means any person who uses only a mechanized, presterilized ear-piercing system that penetrates the outer perimeter or lobe of the ear or both for compensation. 
"Body piercing ear only" means the use of a mechanized, presterilized ear-piercing system that penetrates the outer perimeter or lobe of the ear or both. 
"Body-piercing ear only salon" means any place in which a fee is charged for the act of using a mechanized, presterilized ear-piercing system that penetrates the outer perimeter or lobe of the ear or both. 
"Business entity" means a sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law. 
"Endorsement" means a method of obtaining a license by a person who is currently licensed in another state. 
"Firm" means any business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Gratuitous services" as used in § 54.1-701.5 of the Code Virginia means providing body-piercing services without receiving compensation or reward, or obligation. Gratuitous services do not include services provided at no charge when goods are purchased. 
"Licensee" means any person, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, or corporation sole proprietorship, limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law holding a license issued by the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia. 
"Reinstatement" means having a license restored to effectiveness after the expiration date has passed. 
"Renewal" means continuing the effectiveness of a license for another period of time. 
"Responsible management" means the following individuals:
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship;
2. The partners of a general partnership;
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership;
4. The officers of a corporation;
5. The managers of a limited liability company;
6. The officers or directors of an association or both; and
7. Individuals in other business entities recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth as having a fiduciary responsibility to the firm.
"Sole proprietor" means any individual, not a corporation, who is trading under his own name or under an assumed or fictitious name pursuant to the provisions of §§ 59.1-69 through 59.1-76 of the Code of Virginia. 
"Sterilization area" means a separate room or area separate from workstations with restricted client access in which body-piercing instruments are cleaned, disinfected, and sterilized. 
"Temporary location" means a fixed location at which body piercing is performed for a specified length of time of not more than seven days in conjunction with a single event or celebration. 
Part II 
 Entry 
18VAC41-60-20. General requirements. 
A. In order to receive a license as a body piercer in compliance with § 54.1-703 of the Code of Virginia, an applicant must Any individual wishing to engage in body piercing shall obtain a license in compliance with § 54.1-703 of the Code of Virginia and meet the following qualifications: 
1. The applicant shall be in good standing as a body piercer in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in another Virginia or any other jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's practice as a body piercer. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure whether if he has been previously licensed in Virginia as a body piercer. 
Upon review of the applicant's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein the board deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in body piercing and body piercing ear only. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable. 
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia body-piercing license laws and the board's body-piercing regulations this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose a conviction, in any jurisdiction, of any misdemeanor or felony. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for this purpose of this section. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such guilt. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure or certification to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. the following information regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has passed the board-approved examination, administered either by the board or by a designated testing service. 
6. Persons who (i) make application between April 1, 2007, and March 31, 2008; (ii) have completed three years of documented work experience within the preceding five years as a body piercer; and (iii) have completed a minimum of five hours of health education including but not limited to blood borne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to body piercing and first aid and CPR that is acceptable to the board are not required to complete subdivision 5 of this subsection. 
B. Eligibility to sit for board-approved body-piercer examination. 
1. Training in the Commonwealth of Virginia. Any person completing an approved body-piercing apprenticeship program in a Virginia licensed body-piercing salon shall be eligible to sit for the examination. 
2. Training outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia, but within the United States and its territories. Any person completing a body-piercing training or apprenticeship program that is substantially equivalent to the Virginia program but is outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia must submit to the board documentation of the successful completion of training or apprenticeship to be eligible for examination. If less than required hours of body-piercing training or body-piercing apprenticeship was completed, an applicant must submit (i) documentation acceptable to the board verifying the completion of a substantially equivalent body-piercing training or body-piercing apprenticeship or documentation of three years of work experience within the preceding five years as a body piercer and (ii) documentation of completion of a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to blood borne (a) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to body piercing and; (b) first aid; and (c) CPR that is acceptable to the board in order to be eligible for examination. 
C. In order to receive a license as a body piercer ear only, an applicant must meet the following qualifications: 
1. The applicant shall have completed a minimum of three hours of health education to include but not limited to blood borne bloodborne disease and first aid that is acceptable to the board and provide verification of training on a mechanized, presterilized ear-piercing system that penetrates the outer perimeter or lobe of the ear or both and aftercare of piercing. 
2. The applicant shall be in good standing in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in another jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's licensed, certified, or registered practice. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure whether he has been previously licensed in Virginia in any profession regulated by the board. 
3. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable. 
4. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia body-piercing license laws and the board's body-piercing regulations. 
5. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose a conviction, in any jurisdiction, of any misdemeanor or felony. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for this purpose of this section. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such guilt. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure or certification to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. the following information regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC41-60-30. License by endorsement. 
Upon proper application to the board, any person currently licensed to practice as a body piercer in any other state or jurisdiction of the United States and who has completed a training or apprenticeship program and an examination that is substantially equivalent to that required by this chapter may be issued a body-piercer body piercer license without an examination. The applicant must also meet the requirements set forth in 18VAC41-60-20 A 1 through A 4. 
18VAC41-60-40. Examination requirements and fees. 
A. Applicants for initial licensure shall pass an examination approved by the board. The examinations may be administered by the board or by a designated testing service. 
B. Any candidate failing to appear as scheduled for examination shall forfeit the examination fee. 
C. The applicant shall follow all procedures established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such procedures shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of application.
D. Any applicant who does not pass a reexamination within one year of the initial examination date shall be required to submit a new application.
E. The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted charges to the board by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with these contracts. The fee shall not exceed $225 per candidate. 
F. Any candidate failing to apply for initial licensure within five years of passing the written examination shall be required to retake the examination. Records of examinations shall be maintained for a maximum of five years.
18VAC41-60-50. Reexamination requirements. (Repealed.) 
Any applicant who does not pass a reexamination within one year of the initial examination date shall be required to submit a new application and examination fee. 
18VAC41-60-60. Examination administration. (Repealed.) 
A. The examinations may be administered by the board or the designated testing service. 
B. The applicant shall follow all procedures established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such procedures shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of application. 
C. The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted charges to the board by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with these contracts. The fee shall not exceed $225 per candidate. 
18VAC41-60-80. Salon license. 
A. Any individual firm wishing to operate a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon shall obtain a salon license in compliance with § 54.1-704.1 of the Code of Virginia. and shall meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license: 
1. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall be in good standing as a licensed salon in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon or practice of the profession. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of the responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon. 
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein it deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable.
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia body-piercing license laws and this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subsection. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall disclose the firm's responsible management. 
B. A body-piercing salon license or body-piercing ear only salon license shall not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address of the business. Any changes in the name, or address, or ownership of the salon shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such changes. New owners shall be responsible for reporting such changes in writing to the board applying for a new license within 30 days of the changes. 
C. In the event of a closing of a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon, the board must be notified by the owners in writing within 30 days of the closing, and the license must be returned by the owners to the board. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the firm shall apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the business entity. Such changes include: 
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, an association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
D. E. Any individual firm wishing to operate a body-piercing salon in a temporary location must have a body-piercing salon license issued by the board. 
Part IV 
 Renewal/Reinstatement Renewal and Reinstatement 
18VAC41-60-110. License renewal required. 
All body-piercer body piercer, body-piercer body piercer ear only, body-piercing salon, and body-piercing ear only salon licenses shall expire two years from the last day of the month in which they were issued. 
18VAC41-60-120. Continuing education requirement. 
All licensed body piercers shall be required to satisfactorily complete a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to blood borne (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to body piercing and; (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR during their licensed term. All licensed body piercers ear only shall be required to satisfactorily complete a minimum of three hours of health education to include but not limited to blood borne bloodborne disease and first aid during their licensed term. Documentation of training completion shall be provided at the time of renewal along with the required fee. 
18VAC41-60-140. Failure to renew. 
A. When a body piercer an individual or body piercer ear only business entity fails to renew their license within 30 days following its expiration date, the licensee shall meet the renewal requirements prescribed in 18VAC41-60-120 and 18VAC41-60-130 and apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
B. When a body piercer or body piercer ear only an individual or business entity fails to renew his its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former body-piercer licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant, shall meet all current application requirements, shall pass the board's current examination if applicable, and shall receive a new license. To resume practice, the former body-piercer ear only licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant, shall meet all current application requirements, and shall receive a new license. 
C. When a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon fails to renew its license within 30 days following the expiration date, it shall be required to apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
D. When a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon fails to renew its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant and shall meet all current application requirements. 
E. C. The date a renewal fee is received by the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, or its agent, will be used to determine whether the requirement for reinstatement of a license is applicable and an additional fee is required. 
F. D. When a license is reinstated, the licensee shall have the same license number and shall be assigned an expiration date two years from the previous expiration date of the license date of the last day of the month of reinstatement. 
G. E. A licensee who that reinstates his its license shall be regarded as having been continuously licensed without interruption. Therefore, a licensee shall be subject to the authority of the board for activities performed prior to reinstatement. 
H. F. A licensee who that fails to reinstate his its license shall be regarded as unlicensed from the expiration date of the license forward. Nothing in this chapter shall divest the board of its authority to discipline a licensee for a violation of the law or regulations during the period of time for which the individual was licensed. 
18VAC41-60-190. Physical facilities. 
A. A body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon must be in a permanent building, which must be in a location permissible under local zoning codes, if any. If applicable, the body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon shall be separated from any living quarters by complete floor to ceiling partitioning and shall contain no access to living quarters. 
B. The body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall be maintained in a clean and orderly manner. 
C. A body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall have a blood spill clean-up kit in the work area. 
D. Work surfaces in a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall be cleaned with an EPA-registered, hospital grade disinfectant. Surfaces that come in contact with blood or other body fluids shall be immediately disinfected with an EPA-registered germicide solution. Appropriate personal protective equipment shall be worn during cleaning and disinfecting procedures. 
E. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, cabinets or containers for the storage of instruments, single-use articles, and other utensils shall be provided for each operator and shall be maintained in a sanitary manner. 
F. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, bulk single-use articles shall be commercially packaged and handled in such a way as to protect them the articles from contamination. 
G. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, all materials applied to the human skin shall be from single-use articles or transferred from bulk containers to single use containers and shall be disposed of after each use. 
H. In a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon, the walls, ceilings, and floors shall be kept in good repair. The body-piercing area shall be constructed of smooth, hard, surfaces that are nonporous, free of open holes or cracks, light colored, and easily cleaned. New physical facilities shall not include any dark-colored surfaces in the body-piercing area. Existing physical facilities with dark-colored surfaces in the body-piercing area shall replace the dark-colored surfaces with light-colored surfaces whenever the facilities are extensively remodeled or upon relocation of the business. 
I. A body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall have adequate lighting of at least 50 foot-candles of illumination in the body-piercing and sterilization areas. 
J. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, adequate mechanical ventilation shall be provided. 
K. A body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall be equipped with hand-cleaning facilities for its personnel with unobstructed access to the body-piercing area or body-piercing ear only area such that the body piercer or body piercer ear only can return to the area without having to touch anything with his hands. Hand-cleaning facilities shall be equipped either with hot and cold or tempered running water under pressure and liquid germicidal soap or with a sanitizing solution to clean hands. Hand-cleaning facilities shall be equipped with single-use towels or mechanical hand drying devices and a covered refuse container. Such facilities shall be kept clean and in good repair. All facilities must have running water and soap accessible for cleaning of hands contaminated by body fluids. 
L. Animals are not permitted in the body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location except for guide or service animals accompanying persons with disabilities or nonmammalian animals in enclosed glass containers such as fish aquariums, which shall be outside of the body-piercing area or sterilization areas area. No animals are allowed in the body-piercing area, body-piercing ear only area, or sterilization areas area. 
M. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, the use of tobacco products and consumption of alcoholic beverages shall be prohibited in the body-piercing area, body-piercing ear only area, or sterilization areas area. 
N. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, no food or drink will be stored or consumed in the body-piercing area, body-piercing ear only area, or sterilization areas area. 
O. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, if body-piercing or body-piercing ear only is performed where cosmetology services are provided, it shall be performed in an area that is separate and enclosed. 
P. All steam sterilizers shall be biological spore tested at least monthly. 
Q. Biological spore tests shall be verified through an independent laboratory. 
R. Biological spore test records shall be retained for a period of three years and made available upon request. 
S. Steam sterilizers shall be used only for instruments used by the salon's employees. 
18VAC41-60-220. Grounds for license revocation or suspension or probation; denial of application, renewal, or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty. 
A. The board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, fine any licensee and suspend, place on probation, or revoke or refuse to renew or reinstate any license, or deny any application issued under the provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations of the board this chapter if the board it finds that the licensee or applicant: 
1. The licensee is Is incompetent or negligent in practice, or incapable mentally or physically, as those terms are generally understood in the profession, to (i) practice as a body piercer or body piercer ear only, or (ii) operate a body piercing salon; 
2. The licensee or applicant is Is convicted of fraud or deceit in the practice body piercing or body piercing ear only; 
3. The licensee or applicant attempted Attempted to obtain, obtained, renewed, or reinstated a license by false or fraudulent representation; 
4. The licensee or applicant violates Violates or induces others to violate, or cooperates with others in violating, any of the provisions of this chapter or Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any local ordinance or regulation governing standards of health and sanitation of the establishment in which body piercers or body piercers ear only may practice or offer to practice; 
5. Offers, gives, or promises anything of value or benefit to any federal, state, or local employee for the purpose of influencing that employee to circumvent in the performance of his duties any federal, state, or local law, regulation, or ordinance governing body piercing as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia;
6. Fails to respond to the board or any of its agents or provides false, misleading, or incomplete information to an inquiry by the board or any of its agents;
7. Fails or refuses to allow the board or any of its agents to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed salon for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) or this chapter;
5. The licensee or applicant fails 8. Fails to produce, upon request or demand of the board or any of its agents, any document, book, record, or copy thereof in a licensee's or owner's possession or maintained in accordance with this chapter; 
6. A licensee fails 9. Fails to notify the board of a change of name or address in writing within 30 days of the change for each and every license. The board shall not be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices, communications and correspondence caused by the licensee's failure to promptly notify the board in writing of any change of name or address or for any other reason beyond the control of the board; 
7. The licensee or applicant 10. Makes any misrepresentation or publishes or causes to be published any advertisement that is false, deceptive, or misleading; 
8. The licensee or applicant fails 11. Fails to notify the board in writing within 30 days of the suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certificate, or permit in connection with a disciplinary action in any other jurisdiction or of any license, certificate, or permit which has been the subject of disciplinary action in any other jurisdiction; 
9. The licensee or applicant has been convicted or found guilty in any jurisdiction of any misdemeanor or felony. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this section. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such guilt; or 
10. The licensee, certificate holder, temporary license holder, or applicant fails to notify the board in writing within 30 days that the licensee, certificate holder, temporary license holder, or applicant has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere or was convicted and found guilty of any misdemeanor or felony. 
B. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that: 
1. The owner or operator of the body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon fails to comply with the facility requirements of body-piercing salons or body-piercing ear only salons provided for in this chapter or in any local ordinances; or 
2. The owner or operator allows a person who has not obtained a license to practice as a body piercer or body piercer ear only unless the person is duly enrolled as an apprentice. 
C. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any licensee or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that the licensee fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with any local, state or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practice of body piercing or body piercing ear only. 
12. Has been convicted or found guilty, regardless of the manner of adjudication in Virginia or any other jurisdiction of the United States, of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury or any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or guilt;
13. Fails to inform the board in writing within 30 days of pleading guilty or nolo contendere or being convicted or found guilty regardless of adjudication of any convictions as stated in subdivision 12 of this section;
14. Allows, as responsible management of a salon, a person who has not obtained a license to practice as a body piercer or body piercer ear only unless the person is duly enrolled as an apprentice;
15. Fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with sanitary requirements provided for in this chapter or any local, state, or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practice of body piercing, or the operation of body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon; or
16. Fails to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at any board examination.
NOTICE: Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
FORMS (18VAC41-60) 
Body Piercer Examination & License Application, A425-1241EXLIC (eff. 9/2011) 
Body-Piercing Training & Experience Verification Form, A425-12BPTREXP (eff. 9/2011)
Body-Piercing Apprenticeship Sponsor Application, A425-12BPSPON (eff. 9/2011)
Body-Piercing Apprentice Certification Application, A425-1244BPAC (eff. 9/2011)
Body-Piercing Apprenticeship Completion Form, A425-12BPAC (eff. 9/2011)
Body-Piercing Client Disclosure Form, A425-12BPDIS (eff. 9/2011)
Body Piercer Ear Only License Application, A450-1245LIC-v6 (rev. 9/2016)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v9 (rev. 9/2016)
Training & Experience Verification Form, A425-1213TREXP (eff. 9/2011)
Salon, Shop, Spa & Parlor License/Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v6 (rev. 9/2016)
Individuals - Reinstatement Application, A450-1213REI-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
Body Piercer Examination & License Application, A450-1241EXLIC-v13 (rev. 7/2019)
Body-Piercing Client Disclosure Form, A450-12BPDIS-v2 (rev. 4/2013)
Body Piercer Ear Only License Application, A450-1245LIC-v7 (rev. 7/2019)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v10 (rev. 2/2017)
Training & Experience Verification Form, A450-1213TREXP-v6 (eff. 2/2017)
Salon, Shop, Spa & Parlor License/Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v12 (rev. 7/2019)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v7 (rev. 4/2017)
Individuals - Reinstatement Application, A450-1213REI-v9 (rev. 2/2017)
VA.R. Doc. No. R18-5125; Filed July 2, 2019, 10:38 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR BARBERS AND COSMETOLOGY
Proposed Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC41-50. Tattooing Regulations (amending 18VAC41-50-10 through 18VAC41-50-40, 18VAC41-50-80, 18VAC41-50-100 through 18VAC41-50-130, 18VAC41-50-150, 18VAC41-50-160, 18VAC41-50-180, 18VAC41-50-230, 18VAC41-50-250, 18VAC41-50-280, 18VAC41-50-290, 18VAC41-50-360, 18VAC41-50-400, 18VAC41-50-420; adding 18VAC41-50-91, 18VAC41-50-92, 18VAC41-50-93; repealing 18VAC41-50-50, 18VAC41-50-60, 18VAC41-50-90, 18VAC41-50-240, 18VAC41-50-260, 18VAC41-50-270, 18VAC41-50-320, 18VAC41-50-340, 18VAC41-50-350). 
18VAC41-60. Body-Piercing Regulations (amending 18VAC41-60-10 through 18VAC41-60-40, 18VAC41-60-80, 18VAC41-60-110, 18VAC41-60-120, 18VAC41-60-140, 18VAC41-60-190, 18VAC41-60-220; repealing 18VAC41-60-50, 18VAC41-60-60). 
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information:
August 12, 2019 - 1 p.m. - Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 200, Board Room 4, Richmond, Virginia 23233
Public Comment Deadline: September 20, 2019.
Agency Contact: Stephen Kirschner, Regulatory Operations Administrator, Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8590, FAX (866) 245-9693, or email barbercosmo@dpor.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the board to promulgate regulations. The section states, in part, that the board has the power and duty to promulgate regulations that are necessary to assure continued competency, to prevent deceptive or misleading practices by practitioners, and to effectively administer the regulatory system administered by the board.
Sections 54.1-703, 54.1-704.1, and 54.1-704.2 of the Code of Virginia require board-issued licenses for tattooists and body piercers, tattoo parlors and body-piercing salons, and tattooing and body-piercing schools. 
Purpose: The board seeks to amend its current regulations to ensure they are as minimally invasive and burdensome as possible in order to assist in providing an environment with the least restrictive regulations necessary to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public. The proposed amendments are intended to ensure the regulations are clearly written, easily understandable, and representative of the current advancements and standards of the industries.
Substance: 
Tattooing:
18VAC41-50-10. Definitions. The proposed amendments (i) add definitions for business entity, convention tattooer, firm, guest tattooer, guest tattooer sponsor, responsible management, sole proprietor, post-secondary education level, and tattoo convention; (ii) amend definitions of licensee and master permanent cosmetic tattooer for clarification, and (iii) eliminate the definitions of limited term tattooer.
18VAC41-50-20. General requirements for tattooer, convention tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer. The proposed amendments update, clarify, and standardize entry requirements. The proposed amendments (i) require an applicant disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime and certain misdemeanors within the last two years, (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant having prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession, and (iii) incorporate registered apprenticeship as a means for qualifying for the exam.
18VAC41-50-30. License by endorsement. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify endorsement requirements.
18VAC41-50-40. Examination requirements and fees. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and consolidate examination requirements. The proposed amendments add requirements that if an applicant does not apply for licensure within five years of passing both exams, he must reapply, and that the board will only retain examination records for nonapplicants for a maximum of five years.
18VAC41-50-50. Reexamination requirements. The proposed amendments repeal this section and incorporate the content into 18VAC41-50-40.
18VAC41-50-60. Examination administration. The proposed amendments repeal this section and incorporate the content into 18VAC41-50-40.
18VAC41-50-80. Tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations. The proposed amendments (i) add the requirement that the applicant's license be in good standing and require applicants and any member of responsible management to disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime, certain misdemeanors within the last two years, and any prior discipline by a licensing entity; (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant who has prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession; (iii) require disclosure of the applicant's physical address and the firm's responsible management and certification that the applicant has read applicable laws and regulations; (iv) add the requirement that voided licenses be returned to the board within 30 days and set forth what events void a license; (v) require any change in responsible management be reported to the board within 30 days of the change; and (vi) add the requirement that parlors and salons that host guest tattooers must identify themselves as the sponsor and that parlors and salons provide direct supervision of the guest tattooer.
18VAC41-50-90. Limited term tattooer license. The proposed amendments repeal this section.
18VAC41-50-91. Convention tattooer license. The proposed amendments create a one-year convention tattooer license and set the requirements for licensure, including the requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4, out-of-state residency, and health education in certain areas.
18VAC41-50-92. Guest tattooer license. The proposed amendments create a two-week guest tattooer license and set the requirements for licensure, including the requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4, out-of-state residency, and health education in certain areas. Up to three guest tattooers licenses may be obtained per calendar year.
18VAC41-50-93. Guest tattooer sponsor. The proposed amendments create requirements for parlor and salons to sponsor guest tattooers, including direct supervision by a licensee.
18VAC41-50-100. School license. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations. The proposed amendments (i) add the requirement that the applicant's license be in good standing and requires applicants and any member of responsible management to disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime, certain misdemeanors within the last two years, and any prior discipline by a licensing entity; (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant having prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession; (iii) require disclosure of the applicant's physical address and the firm's responsible management and certification that the applicant has read applicable laws and regulations; (iv) add the requirement that voided licenses be returned to the board within 30 days and set forth what events void a license; and (v) require any change in responsible management be reported to the board within 30 days of the change. 
18VAC41-50-110. Tattooer instructor certificate. The proposed amendments update this section to add a requirement that instructors pass a course in teaching techniques at the post-secondary education level. 
18VAC41-50-120. Permanent cosmetic tattooer instructor certificate. The proposed amendments update this section to add the additional requirement that instructors pass a course in teaching techniques at the post-secondary education level. 
18VAC41-50-130. Fees. The proposed amendments remove the fee for tattoo instructor endorsement, as the regulations do not allow for instructor endorsement. 
18VAC41-50-150. License renewal required. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the requirements. Additionally, the amendments identify the expiration for the convention and guest tattooer licenses.
18VAC41-50-180. Failure to renew. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the requirements, including the addition of reinstatement requirements for tattoo schools that are consistent with other schools licensed under the board.
18VAC41-50-230. General requirements. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations. The proposed amendments also require schools to hold tattoo parlor licenses as required under § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia. 
18VAC41-50-240. School identification. The proposed amendments repeal this regulation.
18VAC41-50-250. Records. The proposed amendments add a requirement that schools provide certain documentation to students within specified time periods.
18VAC41-50-260. Hours reported. The proposed amendments repeal this section.
18VAC41-50-270. Health education. The proposed amendments repeal this section and move its requirement to 18VAC41-50-280.
18VAC41-50-280. Tattooing school curriculum requirements. The proposed amendments update this section for consistency and add the requirement for health education from 18VAC41-50-270. 
18VAC41-50-290. Hours of instruction and performances. The proposed amendments change the hours of instruction for tattooing schools from 750 to 1,000.
18VAC41-50-320. School identification. The proposed amendments repeal this section.
18VAC41-50-340. Hours reported. The proposed amendments repeal this section.
18VAC41-50-350. Health education. The proposed amendments repeal this section and move its requirement to18VAC41-50-280.
18VAC41-50-360. Permanent cosmetic tattooing school curriculum requirements. The proposed amendments update this section for consistency and add the requirement for health education from 18VAC41-50-350.
18VAC41-50-420. Grounds for license revocation or suspension; denial of application, renewal, or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and simplify the requirements. The proposed amendments (i) provide grounds for discipline for failing to teach the approved curriculum, bribery, failing to respond or providing false or misleading information to the board or its agents, and refusing to allow inspection of any parlor, salon, or school; (ii) clarify and refine grounds for discipline for certain criminal convictions and failing to report convictions within a certain time period; and (iii) provide grounds for discipline for allowing unlicensed activity, failing to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable disease, and failing to comply with all procedures with regard to conduct at the examination.
Body Piercing:
18VAC41-60-10. Definitions. The proposed amendments add definitions for business entity, firm, responsible management, and sole proprietor. The definition of licensee has been amended to further clarify terms used in this chapter.
18VAC41-60-20. General requirements. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize entry requirements. The proposed amendments (i) require an applicant disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime and certain misdemeanors within the last two years; (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant having prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession; and (iii) incorporate registered apprenticeship as the means for qualifying for the exam.
18VAC41-60-30. License by endorsement. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify endorsement requirements.
18VAC41-60-40. Examination requirements and fees. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and consolidate examination requirements. The proposed amendments also add requirements that if an applicant does not apply for licensure within five years of passing both exams, he must reapply, and that the board will only retain examination records for nonapplicants for a maximum of five years.
18VAC41-60-50. Reexamination requirements. The proposed amendments repeal this section and incorporate the content into 18VAC41-60-40.
18VAC41-60-60. Examination administration. The proposed amendments repeal this section and incorporate the content into 18VAC41-60-40.
18VAC41-60-80. Salon license. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations. The proposed amendments (i) add the requirement that the applicant's license be in good standing and require applicants and any member of responsible management to disclose all felony convictions during his lifetime, certain misdemeanors within the last two years, and any prior discipline by a licensing entity; (ii) add that the board may deny licensure to any applicant who has prior disciplinary violations for which the board deems the applicant unfit to engage in the profession; (iii) require disclosure of the applicant's physical address and the firm's responsible management and certification that the applicant has read applicable laws and regulations; (iv) add the requirement that voided licenses be returned to the board within 30 days and set forth what events void a license; and (v) require any change in responsible management be reported to the board within 30 days of the change.
18VAC41-60-110. License renewal required. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations.
18VAC41-60-120. Continuing education requirement. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations.
18VAC41-60-140. Failure to renew. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the requirements.
18VAC41-60-190. Physical facilities. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and standardize the regulations.  
18VAC41-60-220. Grounds for license revocation or suspension; denial of application, renewal or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty. The proposed amendments update this section to further clarify and simplify the requirements. The proposed amendments (i) provide grounds for discipline for failing to teach the approved curriculum, bribery, failing to respond or providing false or misleading information to the board or its agents, and refusing to allow inspection of any salon; (ii) clarify and refine grounds for discipline for certain criminal convictions and failing to report convictions within a certain time period; and (iii) provide grounds for discipline for allowing unlicensed activity, failing to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable disease, and failing to comply with all procedures with regard to conduct at the examination.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is the addition of the responsible management system for tracking ownership of tattooing and body-piercing businesses. This system allows the board to better identify when individuals previously disciplined by the board are attempting to re-enter the profession. The addition of a one-year convention license and two-week guest tattooer license will facilitate businesses providing better services to the public and out-of-state tattooers working as guests in Virginia and contributing to Virginia's economy, all without diminishing health and safety protections for the public. The board will continue to approve applicants and license professionals for which it has safeguards to ensure proper competency and standards of conduct as required by statute. The addition of prohibited acts will reduce fraud and better ensure the regulant population is minimally competent. Further, regulants and applicants within these professions will be able to read the board's requirements with greater clarity and understanding. The added clarity of the language in the proposed regulations will facilitate a quicker and more efficient process for applicants and regulants by enhancing their understanding of their individual requirements. Consumers in the public, as well as regulators from related agencies, will have a better understanding of the board's requirements, which will also allow them to conduct their business with greater efficiency and ultimately lead to a more protected public.
The primary advantage to the Commonwealth will be the continued successful regulation of tattooers and body piercers who meet the minimum entry standards as required by statute. The proposed amendments strengthen the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation's ability to investigate and discipline regulants who disregard the health, safety, and welfare of the public. The primary disadvantage to the department is that by adding the responsible management systems, as well as turning the limited-term license into two separate licenses, there is more complexity added to the administration of the regulations.
The clarification of the proposed language will facilitate greater understanding of the board's requirements for all involved.  Several changes, including teaching techniques training for tattoo instructors, guest and convention licenses, and increasing the hours of training were included at the request of the regulated community.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board for Barbers and Cosmetology (Board) proposes to: 1) add the responsible management system for tracking ownership of tattooing and body piercing businesses, 2) significantly alter the limited-term tattooer license structure, 3) amend training requirements for tattooing schools and tattoo instructors, 4) address the release of tattoo school records, and 5) make other amendments for improved clarity.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for the majority of proposed changes. For other proposed amendments it is uncertain.
Estimated Economic Impact:
Responsible Management. The Board proposes to add the requirement that applicants for tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, permanent cosmetic tattoo salon, body piercing salon, or body piercing ear only salon, disclose the names of the firm's responsible management. The proposed regulation defines responsible management as: 
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship;
2. The partners of a general partnership;
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership;
4. The officers of a corporation;
5. The managers of a limited liability company;
6. The officers or directors of an association or both; and
7. Individuals in other business entities recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth as having a fiduciary responsibility to the firm.
The applicant and all members of the responsible management would be required to be in good standing as a licensed shop or salon in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed and disclose any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions. This would allow the Board to better identify when individuals previously disciplined by the Board are attempting to re-enter the profession.
Limited-term Tattooer License. The current regulation contains a limited term tattooer license that is effective for five consecutive days prior to the expiration date. A person may obtain a maximum of five limited term tattooer licenses within a calendar year and a maximum of two limited term tattooer licenses within 30 consecutive days. 
According to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation (DPOR), out-of-state tattooers coming to Virginia for tattoo conventions and the licensee hosts of the convention have found the need to reapply for licensure and pay the licensing fee multiple times each year to be onerous. Also according to the agency, potential guest tattooers from out-of-state and the potential hosts of the guest tattooers have often found the five-day licensing period inadequate to sufficiently justify traveling to Virginia. Parlor owners at times find having guest tattooers to be good for business. The Board proposes to eliminate the current five-day limited-term tattooer license and replace it with a one-year convention tattooer license and a two-week guest tattooer license.
For both the one-year convention tattooer license and the two-week guest tattooer license, the applicant would need to: 1) present documentation showing out-of-state residency, 2) provide documentation of health education knowledge to include but not limited to bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing, and first aid and CPR that is acceptable to the Board, 3) disclose any disciplinary action taken in Virginia or any other jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's practice, 4) disclose criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions, and 5) sign a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and regulation. The guest tattooer license applicant would also need to show guest tattooer sponsorship, including signature of the sponsor parlor's responsible management. An out of state resident would be able to obtain up to three guest tattooer licenses per calendar year. The proposed requirements help ensure the same level of health, safety and welfare protections as under the current regulation.
Both the existing and proposed regulation contain a $75 fee for all individual licenses.1 The one-year convention license reduces administrative hassle and fees expended for applicants who intend to participate in more than one Virginia convention per year. Under the current regulation, licensure for participating at two conventions (that are not entirely within the same five-day period) would cost $150 in fees, and licensure for participating at three conventions would cost $225 in fees. With the proposed one-year convention license, the tattooer would only need to apply for one license a year and pay only $75 in fees. This may encourage greater participation at Virginia tattoo conventions, helping ensure the success and continuation of such conventions. 
As mentioned above, the limited term tattooer license that is effective for only five consecutive days has discouraged Virginia tattoo parlors from having out-of-state guest tattooers. The proposed two-week guest tattooer license would likely greatly alleviate that problem by providing sufficient time for the guest tattoo artist to practice and make the trip worthwhile. As some parlor owners may find having guest tattooers to be good for business, this proposal would be beneficial for the Commonwealth.
Training Requirements. DPOR reports that there have been numerous complaints concerning tattoo instructor teaching ability. Consequently, the Board proposes to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level. There is presumably variation in the effectiveness of such courses. Thus it is not known whether the benefits would exceed the costs of this proposed requirement. As for cost, DPOR has indicated that it would accept online courses that may cost about $150 in fees and 24 hours (spread over six weeks) in time.2
The regulation includes an extensive list of topics to be addressed within tattooing school instruction. It currently states that the curriculum requirements shall be taught over a minimum of 750 hours. According to DPOR, there is a consensus that the curriculum requirements cannot be adequately taught within that time. Thus, the Board proposes to increase the minimum hours to 1,000. DPOR does not anticipate any objection to this change.
Tattooing School Records. DPOR has heard frequent complaints that tattooing schools are withholding progress documentation from their students. In response, the Board proposes to require that schools, within 21 days of a student's request, produce documentation and performances completed by that student. This provision would assist students in obtaining their records, which are needed for licensure applications. 
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments potentially affect the 642 tattooers, 242 tattoo parlors, 9 tattooing instructors, 5 tattoo schools, 355 permanent cosmetic tattooers, 7 master permanent cosmetic tattooers, 24 permanent cosmetic tattoo instructors, 105 permanent cosmetic tattooing salons, 14 permanent cosmetic tattooing schools, 127 body piercers, 97 body piercing salons, 304 "ear-only" body piercers, and 62 body piercer ear only salons licensed by the Board. The Board received 191 limited-term tattooer license applications in 2017, which would be replaced by an estimated 100 to 150 convention and guest tattooer applications under the proposed regulatory change.3 Most, if not all, of the parlors and salons would qualify as small businesses. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level would also affect providers of such courses.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level may moderately increase employment at private providers of such courses.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level would increase demand for and perhaps increase the value of private providers of such courses. To the extent that the proposed one-year convention license encourages greater participation at Virginia tattoo conventions and the proposed two-week guest tattooer license increases the profitable use of such tattoo artists at Virginia parlors, the use and value of Virginia tattoo conventions and tattoo parlors may be positively affected.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses: 
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level increases costs for these individuals. This would likely add cost for tattooing schools, as they may pay for all or part of the instructor's cost, or find it more difficult to find qualified instructors. The tattooing schools are likely all small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The adverse impact stems from increased cost associated with trying to improve teaching quality at tattooing schools. There is no clear alternative that would achieve this goal at lower cost.
Adverse Impacts: 
Businesses. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level increases costs for these individuals. This would likely add cost for tattooing schools, as they may pay for all or part of the instructor's cost, or find it more difficult to find qualified instructors.
Localities. The proposed amendments do not adversely affect localities.
Other Entities. The proposal to require that tattoo instructor applicants and permanent cosmetic tattoo instructor applicants pass a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary level increases costs for these individuals. 
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1The existing and proposed regulations specify a $75 fee through August 31, 2020, and a $105 fee for September 1, 2020, and after.
2For example, as of August 24, 2018, the URL the ed2go course Teaching Adult Learners indicated a $149 fee and 24 hours of course time over 6 weeks. https://www.ed2go.com/courses/teacher-professional-development/child-development/ilc/teaching-adult-learners
3Data source: Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The agency concurs with the economic impact analysis.
Summary:
The proposed amendments (i) add the responsible management system for tracking ownership of tattooing and body-piercing businesses; (ii) significantly alter the limited term tattooer license structure by eliminating the current five-day limited term tattooer license and replacing it with a one-year tattooer license and a two-week guest tattooer license; (iii) update training requirements for tattoo schools and tattoo instructors; (iv) address the release of tattoo school records; and (v) make other changes to clarify, update, and standardize the regulations.
Part I 
 General 
18VAC41-50-10. Definitions. 
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. All terms defined in Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia are incorporated in this chapter. 
"Apprenticeship program" means an approved tattooing training program conducted by an approved apprenticeship sponsor.
"Apprenticeship sponsor" means an individual approved to conduct tattooing apprenticeship training who meets the qualifications in 18VAC41-50-70. 
"Aseptic technique" means a hygienic practice that prevents and hinders the direct transfer of microorganisms, regardless of pathogenicity, from one person or place to another person or place. 
"Business entity" means a sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law. 
"Convention tattooer" means a tattooer residing outside Virginia who is licensed to work only at a tattoo convention located in Virginia.
"Direct supervision" means (i)  that a Virginia licensed tattooer shall be present in the tattoo parlor at all times when services are being performed by an apprentice, (ii) that a Virginia licensed tattooing instructor shall be present in the tattooing school at all times when services are being performed by a student, or (iii) that a Virginia licensed permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor shall be present in the permanent cosmetic tattooing school at all times when services are being performed by a student. 
"Endorsement" means a method of obtaining a license by a person who is currently licensed in another state. 
"Firm" means any business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Gratuitous services" as used in § 54.1-701.5 of the Code Virginia means providing tattooing services without receiving compensation or reward, or obligation. Gratuitous services do not include services provided at no charge when goods are purchased. 
"Guest tattooer" means a tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer residing outside of Virginia who is licensed only to work for a two-week period at a specified tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon.
"Guest tattooer sponsor" means a licensed tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattooing salon that is sponsoring and providing direct supervision of a guest tattooer.
"Licensee" means any person, sole proprietorship, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, or corporation limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law holding a license issued by the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia. 
"Limited term tattooer" means a tattooer licensed to perform tattooing for a maximum of five consecutive days in an organized event or in a Virginia licensed tattoo parlor. 
"Limited term tattoo parlor" means a tattoo parlor temporary location licensed to operate for a maximum of five consecutive days. 
"Master permanent cosmetic tattooer" means any person who for compensation practices permanent cosmetic tattooing known in the industry as advanced permanent cosmetic tattooing, including but not limited to cheek blush, eye shadow, and breast and scar repigmentation or camouflage. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattoo salon" means any place in which permanent cosmetic tattooing is offered or practiced for compensation. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattooer" means any person who for compensation practices permanent cosmetic tattooing known in the industry as basic permanent cosmetic tattooing, including but not limited to eyebrows, eyeliners, lip coloring, lip liners, or full lips. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattooing" means placing marks upon or under the skin of any person with ink or any other substance, resulting in the permanent coloration of the skin on the face, including but not limited to eyebrows, eyeliners, lip coloring, lip liners, full lips, cheek blush, eye shadow, and on the body for breast and scar repigmentation or camouflage;, also known as permanent make-up makeup or micropigmentation. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor" means a person who has been certified by the board who meets the competency standards of the board as an instructor of permanent cosmetic tattooing. 
"Permanent cosmetic tattooing school" means a place or establishment licensed by the board to accept and train students and offers a permanent cosmetic tattooing curriculum approved by the board. 
"Post-secondary educational level" means an accredited college or university that is approved or accredited by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Department of Education.
"Reinstatement" means having a license restored to effectiveness after the expiration date has passed. 
"Renewal" means continuing the effectiveness of a license for another period of time. 
"Responsible management" means the following individuals:
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship;
2. The partners of a general partnership;
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership;
4. The officers of a corporation;
5. The managers of a limited liability company;
6. The officers or directors of an association or both; and
7. Individuals in other business entities recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth as having a fiduciary responsibility to the firm.
"Sole proprietor" means any individual, not a corporation, who is trading under his own name or under an assumed or fictitious name pursuant to the provisions of §§ 59.1-69 through 59.1-76 of the Code of Virginia. 
"Sterilization area" means a separate room or area separate from workstations with restricted client access in which tattooing instruments are cleaned, disinfected, and sterilized. 
"Tattoo convention" means an event where Virginia and out-of-state tattooers gather for no more than five consecutive days to offer tattooing services to the public.
"Tattooing instructor" means a person who has been certified by the board who meets the competency standards of the board as an instructor of tattooing. 
"Temporary location" means a fixed location at which tattooing is performed for a specified length of time of not more than five days in conjunction with a single event or celebration. 
Part II 
 Entry 
18VAC41-50-20. General requirements for tattooer, limited term convention tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer. 
A. In order to receive a license as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer in compliance with § 54.1-703 of the Code of Virginia, an applicant must Any individual wishing to engage in tattooing, limited term tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing shall obtain a license in compliance with § 54.1-703 of the Code of Virginia and meet the following qualifications: 
1. The applicant must be in good standing as a tattooer, limited term convention tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in another Virginia or any other jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's practice as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure whether if he has been previously licensed in Virginia as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer. 
Upon review of the applicant's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein the board deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in tattooing, convention tattooing, guest tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable. 
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and the board's tattooing regulations this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, the each applicant must not have been convicted in any jurisdiction of a misdemeanor or felony that directly relates to the profession of tattooing. The board shall have the authority to determine, based upon all the information available, including the applicant's record of prior convictions, if the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the profession of tattooing. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this section. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction. This record shall be forwarded by the applicant to the board within 10 days after all appeal rights have expired. shall disclose the following information regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has passed the board approved examination, administered either by the board or by a designated testing service. 
6. Persons who (i) make application for licensure between October 1, 2006, and September 30, 2007; (ii) have completed three years of documented work experience within the preceding five years as a tattooer; and (iii) have completed a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing and first aid and CPR that is acceptable to the board are not required to complete subdivision 5 of this subsection. 
B. Eligibility to sit for board-approved examination. 
1. Training in the Commonwealth of Virginia. 
a. Any person completing an approved tattooing apprenticeship program in a Virginia licensed tattoo parlor or completing an approved tattooing training program in a Virginia licensed school of tattooing, or completing a permanent cosmetic tattooing training program in a Virginia licensed permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall be eligible to sit for the applicable examination. 
b. Any person completing master permanent cosmetic tattooing training that is acceptable to the board shall be eligible to sit for the examination. Training should be conducted in a permanent facility. 
2. Training outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia, but within the United States and its territories. 
a. Any person completing a tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing training or tattooing apprenticeship program that is substantially equivalent to the Virginia program but is outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia must submit to the board documentation of the successful completion of training or apprenticeship to be eligible for examination. If less than the required hours of tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing training or tattooing apprenticeship was completed, an applicant must submit (i) documentation acceptable to the board verifying the completion of a substantially equivalent tattooing training or tattooing apprenticeship or permanent cosmetic tattooing training or documentation of three years of work experience within the preceding five years as a tattooer, and (ii) documentation of completion of a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to blood-borne disease (a) bloodborne pathogens, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing and; (b) first aid; and (c) CPR that is acceptable to the board in order to be eligible for examination. 
b. Any person completing master permanent cosmetic tattooing training that is acceptable to the board shall be eligible to sit for the examination. Training should be conducted in a permanent facility. 
18VAC41-50-30. License by endorsement. 
Upon proper application to the board, any person currently licensed to practice as a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer in any other state or jurisdiction of the United States and who has completed a training or apprenticeship program and an examination that is substantially equivalent to that required by this chapter may be issued a tattooer license, permanent cosmetic tattooer license, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license, respectively, without an examination. The applicant must also meet the requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4. 
18VAC41-50-40. Examination requirements and fees. 
A. Applicants for initial licensure shall pass an examination approved by the board. The examinations may be administered by the board or by a designated testing service. 
B. Any candidate failing to appear as scheduled for examination shall forfeit the examination fee. 
C. The applicant shall follow all procedures established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such procedures shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of application.
D. Any applicant who does not pass a reexamination within one year of the initial examination date shall be required to submit a new application.
E. The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted charges to the board by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with these contracts. The fee shall not exceed $225 per candidate. 
F. Any candidate failing to apply for initial licensure within five years of passing the written examination shall be required to retake the examination. Records of examinations shall be maintained for a maximum of five years. 
18VAC41-50-50. Reexamination requirements. (Repealed.) 
Any applicant who does not pass a reexamination within one year of the initial examination date shall be required to submit a new application and examination fee. 
18VAC41-50-60. Examination administration. (Repealed.) 
A. The examinations may be administered by the board or the designated testing service. 
B. The applicant shall follow all procedures established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such procedures shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of application. 
C. The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted charges to the board by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with these contracts. The fee shall not exceed $225 per candidate. 
18VAC41-50-80. Tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license. 
A. Any individual firm wishing to operate a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon shall obtain a tattoo parlor license, limited term tattoo parlor license, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license in compliance with § 54.1-704.1 of the Code of Virginia. and shall meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license: 
1. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall be in good standing as a licensed parlor or salon in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon or practice of the profession. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of the responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon. 
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein it deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable.
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall disclose the firm's responsible management.
B. A tattoo parlor license, limited term tattoo parlor license, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license shall not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address of the business. Any changes in the name, or address, or ownership of the parlor or salon shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such changes. New owners shall be responsible for reporting such changes in writing to the board applying for a new license within 30 days of the changes. 
C. In the event of a closing of a tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon, the board must be notified by the owners in writing within 30 days of the closing, and the license must be returned by the owners to the board. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the firm shall apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the business entity. Such changes include:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, an association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
E. Any tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon wishing to host a guest tattooer must identify itself as the guest tattooer sponsor and must provide direct supervision of any tattooing by the guest tattooer.
D. F. Any individual firm wishing to operate a tattoo parlor in a temporary location must have a tattoo parlor license or limited term tattoo parlor license issued by the board. 
E. G. A limited term tattoo parlor license is effective for five consecutive days prior to the expiration date. 
F. H. A person or entity firm may obtain a maximum of five limited term tattoo parlor licenses within a calendar year. 
G. I. A person or entity firm may obtain a maximum of two limited term tattoo parlor licenses within a 30 consecutive days time period. 
18VAC41-50-90. Limited term tattooer license. (Repealed.) 
A. A limited term tattooer license is effective for five consecutive days prior to the expiration date. 
B. A person may obtain a maximum of five limited term tattooer licenses within a calendar year. 
C. A person may obtain a maximum of two limited term tattooer licenses within a 30 consecutive days time period. 
D. A limited term tattooer applicant must meet the following qualifications: 
1. Requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4. 
2. Documentation of health education knowledge to include but not limited to blood-borne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing, and first aid and CPR that is acceptable to the board. 
E. A limited term tattooer applicant is not required to complete 18VAC41-50-20 A 5. 
18VAC41-50-91. Convention tattooer license.
A. A convention tattooer license shall expire one year from the last day of the month in which it was issued. 
B. A convention tattooer applicant must meet the following qualifications: 
1. Requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4. 
2. Present documentation showing out-of-state residency.
3. Documentation of health education knowledge to include (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR that is acceptable to the board. 
C. A convention tattooer applicant is not required to complete 18VAC41-50-20 A 5. 
18VAC41-50-92. Guest tattooer license.
A. A guest tattooer license is effective for 14 days prior to the expiration date.
B. An out-of-state resident may obtain up to three guest tattooer licenses per calendar year.
C. A guest tattooer applicant must meet the following qualifications: 
1. Requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4. 
2. Present documentation showing out-of-state residency.
3. Documentation of health education knowledge to include (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR that is acceptable to the board. 
4. Documentation showing guest tattooer sponsor including signature of sponsor parlor's responsible management.
D. A guest tattooer applicant is not required to complete 18VAC41-50-20 A 5. 
18VAC41-50-93. Guest tattooer sponsor.
A. The licensed tattoo parlor that agrees to sponsor a guest tattooer shall ensure that the guest tattooer:
1. Has a valid, current guest tattooer license for the entire duration of his tattooing at the parlor.
2. Is directly supervised by a licensed tattooer.
3. Complies with all Virginia regulations relating to health, sanitation, client qualifications, and standards of practice.
B. The licensed permanent cosmetic tattooing salon that agrees to sponsor a guest tattooer shall ensure that the guest tattooer:
1. Has a valid, current guest tattooer licensed for the entire duration of his tattooing at the salon.
2. Is directly supervised by a licensed tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer.
3. Complies with all Virginia regulations relating to health, sanitation, client qualifications, and standards of practice.
C. The guest tattooer sponsor's responsible management must sign the guest tattooer application certifying the sponsor will ensure the requirements of subsections A and B of this section.
D. The guest tattooer sponsor shall be responsible for the acts or omissions of the guest tattooer in the performance of tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing.
18VAC41-50-100. School license. 
A. Any individual firm wishing to operate a tattooing school or permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall obtain a school license in compliance with § 54.1-704.2 of the Code of Virginia. and shall meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license: 
1. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall be in good standing as a licensed parlor or salon in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon or practice of the profession. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of the responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon. 
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein it deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of a tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable.
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall disclose the firm's responsible management.
B. A tattooing school license or permanent cosmetic tattooing school license shall not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address as the school. Any changes in the name or address of the school shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such change. The name of the school must indicate that it is an educational institution. All signs or other advertisements must reflect the name as indicated on the license issued by the board and contain language indicating it is an educational institution. 
C. In the event of a change of ownership of a school, the new owners shall be responsible for reporting such changes in writing to the board within 30 days of the changes. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the firm shall apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the business entity. Such changes include: 
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, an association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. In the event of a school closing, the board must be notified by the owners in writing within 30 days of the closing, and the license must be returned. Within 30 days of the closing, the school shall return the license to the board and provide a written report to the board on performances and hours of each student who has not completed the program.
E. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
18VAC41-50-110. Tattooing instructor certificate. 
A. Upon filing an application with the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, any person meeting the qualifications set forth in this section shall be eligible for a tattooing instructor certificate if the person: 
1. Holds a current Virginia tattooer license; and 
2. Provides documentation of three years of work experience within the past five years; and 
3. Passes a course on teaching techniques in a post-secondary education level.
B. Tattooing instructors shall be required to maintain a tattooer license. 
18VAC41-50-120. Permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor certificate. 
A. Upon filing an application with the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, any person meeting the qualifications set forth in this section shall be eligible for a permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor certificate if the person: 
1. Holds a current Virginia permanent cosmetic tattooer license or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license; and 
2. Provides documentation of three years of work experience within the past five years; and
3. Passes a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary education level.
B. Permanent cosmetic tattooing instructors shall be required to maintain a permanent cosmetic tattooer license or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license. 
Part III 
Fees 
18VAC41-50-130. Fees. 
The following fees apply: 
| FEE TYPE | AMOUNT DUESeptember 1, 2016, through August 31, 2020
 | AMOUNT DUESeptember 1, 2020, and after
 | WHEN DUE | 
| Individuals: | 
|   | Application | $75 | $105 | With application | 
|   | License by Endorsement | $75 | $105 | With application | 
|   | Renewal | $75 | $105 | With renewal card prior to expiration date | 
|   | Reinstatement | $150**includes $75 renewal fee and $75 reinstatement fee
 | $210**includes $105 renewal fee and $105 reinstatement fee
 | With reinstatement application | 
| Instructors: | 
|   | Application | $100 | $125 | With application | 
|   | License by Endorsement
 | $100
 | $125
 | With application
 | 
|   | Renewal | $100 | $150 | With renewal card prior to expiration date | 
|   | Reinstatement | $200**includes $100 renewal fee and $100 reinstatement fee
 | $300**includes $150 renewal fee and $150 reinstatement fee
 | With reinstatement application | 
| Parlors or salons: | 
|   | Application | $130 | $190 | With application | 
|   | Renewal | $130 | $190 | With renewal card prior to expiration date | 
|   | Reinstatement | $260**includes $130 renewal fee and $130 reinstatement fee
 | $380**includes $190 renewal fee and $190 reinstatement fee
 | With reinstatement application | 
| Schools: | 
|   | Application | $140 | $220 | With application | 
|   | Renewal | $140 | $220 | With renewal card prior to expiration date | 
|   | Reinstatement | $280**includes $140 renewal fee and $140 reinstatement fee
 | $440**includes $220 renewal fee and $220 reinstatement fee
 | With reinstatement application | 
|   |   |   |   |   | 
Part IV 
 Renewal/Reinstatement Renewal and Reinstatement 
18VAC41-50-150. License renewal required. 
All tattooer 1. Tattooer licenses, tattoo parlor licenses, tattooing instructors licenses, tattooing schools licenses, permanent cosmetic tattooer licenses, master permanent cosmetic tattooer licenses, permanent cosmetic tattoo salon licenses, and permanent cosmetic tattooing schools licenses shall expire two years from the last day of the month in which they were issued. 
2. Convention tattooer licenses shall expire one year from the last day of the month in which it was issued.
3. Guest tattooer licenses will expire 14 days after the effective date of the license and may not be renewed.
18VAC41-50-160. Continuing education requirement. 
All licensed tattooers, permanent cosmetic tattooers, and master permanent cosmetic tattooers shall be required to satisfactorily complete a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing, (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR during their licensed term. Documentation of training completion shall be provided at the time of renewal along with the required fee. 
18VAC41-50-180. Failure to renew. 
A. When a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer licensed or certified individual or business entity fails to renew his its license within 30 days following its the expiration date of the license, the licensee shall meet the renewal requirements as prescribed in 18VAC41-50-170 and apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
B. When a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer licensed or certified individual or business entity fails to renew his its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant, shall meet all current application requirements, shall pass the board's current examination, and shall receive a new license. 
C. When a tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon fails to renew its license within 30 days following the expiration date, it shall be required to apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
D. When a tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon fails to renew its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant and shall meet all current application requirements. 
E. When a tattooing school or permanent cosmetic tattooing school fails to renew its license within 30 days following the expiration date, the licensee shall be required to apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
F. When a tattooing school or permanent cosmetic tattooing school fails to renew its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant and shall meet all current application requirements. 
C. The application for reinstatement for a school shall provide (i) the reasons for failing to renew prior to the expiration date, and (ii) a notarized statement that all students currently enrolled or seeking to enroll at the school have been notified in writing that the school's license has expired. All of these materials shall be called the application package. Reinstatement will be considered by the board if the school consents to and satisfactorily passes an inspection of the school and if the school's records are maintained in accordance with 18VAC41-50-250 and 18VAC41-50-330. Pursuant to 18VAC41-50-100, 18VAC41-50-230, and 18VAC41-50-310 upon receipt of the reinstatement fee, application package, and inspection results, the board may reinstate the school's license or require requalification or both. If the reinstatement application package and reinstatement fee are not received by the board within six months following the expiration date of the school's license, the board will notify the testing service that prospective graduates of the unlicensed school are not acceptable candidates for the examination. Such notification will be sent to the school and must be displayed in a conspicuous manner by the school in an area that is accessible to the public. No student shall be disqualified from taking the examination because the school was not licensed for a portion of the time the student attended if the school license is reinstated by the board.
G. D. The date a renewal fee is received by the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, or its agent, will be used to determine whether the requirement for reinstatement of a license is applicable and an additional fee is required. 
H. E. When a license is reinstated, the licensee shall have the same license number and shall be assigned an expiration date two years from the previous expiration date of the license date of the last day of the month of reinstatement. 
I. F. A licensee who that reinstates his its license shall be regarded as having been continuously licensed without interruption. Therefore, a licensee shall be subject to the authority of the board for activities performed prior to reinstatement. 
J. G. A licensee who that fails to reinstate his its license shall be regarded as unlicensed from the expiration date of the license forward. Nothing in this chapter shall divest the board of its authority to discipline a licensee for a violation of the law or regulations during the period of time for which the individual was licensed. 
18VAC41-50-230. General requirements. 
A tattooing school shall: 
1. Hold a tattooing school license for each and every location. 
2. Hold a tattoo parlor license if the school receives compensation for services provided in the area where practical instruction is conducted and services are provided. 
3. Employ a staff of certified tattooing instructors. 
4. Develop individuals for entry-level competency in tattooing. 
5. Submit its curricula for board approval. All changes to curricula must be resubmitted and approved by the board.
6. Inform the public that all services are performed by students if the tattooing school receives compensation for services provided in its clinic by posting a notice in the reception area of the shop or salon in plain view of the public. 
7. Conduct classroom instruction in an area separate from the area where practical instruction is conducted and services are provided. 
8. Conduct all instruction and training of tattooers under the direct supervision of a certified tattooing instructor. 
18VAC41-50-240. School identification. (Repealed.) 
Each tattooing school approved by the board shall identify itself to the public as a teaching institution. 
18VAC41-50-250. Records. 
A. Schools are required to keep upon graduation, termination, or withdrawal, written records of hours and performances showing what instruction a student has received for a period of five years after the student terminates or completes the curriculum of the school. These records shall be available for inspection by the department. All records must be kept on the premises of each school. 
B. For a period of five years after a student completes the curriculum, terminates, or withdraws from the school, schools are required to provide documentation of hours and performances completed by a student upon receipt of a written request from the student. 
C. Schools shall within 21 days upon receipt of a written request from a student provide documentation of hours and performances completed by the student as required to be maintained by subsection A of this section.
C. D. Prior to a school changing ownership or a school closing, the schools are required to provide to current students documentation of hours and performances completed. 
D. E. For a period of one year after a school changes ownership, schools are required to provide documentation of hours and performances completed by a current student upon receipt of a written request from the student. 
18VAC41-50-260. Hours reported. (Repealed.) 
Within 30 days of the closing of a licensed tattooing school for any reason, the school shall provide a written report to the board on performances and hours of each of its students who has not completed the program. 
18VAC41-50-270. Health education. (Repealed.) 
Any person desiring to enroll in the tattooing school shall be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to blood-borne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing, and first aid and CPR. 
18VAC41-50-280. Tattooing school curriculum requirements. 
A. Any person desiring to enroll in the tattooing school shall be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of a minimum of five hours of health education to include (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR. 
B. Tattooing school curriculum requirements are as follows: 
1. Microbiology. 
a. Microorganisms, viruses, bacteria, fungus; 
b. Transmission cycle of infectious diseases; and 
c. Characteristics of antimicrobial agents. 
2. Immunization. 
a. Types of immunizations; 
b. Hepatitis A—G A through G transmission and immunization; 
c. HIV/AIDS; 
d. Tetanus, streptococcal, zoonotic, tuberculosis, pneumococcal, and influenza; 
e. Measles, mumps, and rubella; 
f. Vaccines and immunization; and 
g. General preventative measures to be taken to protect the tattooer and client. 
3. Sanitation and disinfection. 
a. Definition of terms: 
(1) Sterilization; 
(2) Disinfection and disinfectant; 
(3) Sterilizer or sterilant; 
(4) Antiseptic; 
(5) Germicide; 
(6) Decontamination; and 
(7) Sanitation. 
b. The use of steam sterilization equipment and techniques; 
c. The use of chemical agents, antiseptics, disinfectants, and fumigants; 
d. The use of sanitation equipment; 
e. Preservice sanitation procedure; and 
f. Postservice sanitation procedure. 
4. Safety. 
a. Proper needle handling and disposal; 
b. How to avoid overexposure to chemicals; 
c. The use of Material Safety Data Sheets; 
d. Blood spill procedures; 
e. Equipment and instrument storage; and 
f. First aid and CPR. 
5. Blood-borne Bloodborne pathogen standards. 
a. OSHA and CDC blood-borne bloodborne pathogen standards; 
b. Control plan for blood-borne bloodborne pathogens; 
c. Exposure control plan for tattooers; 
d. Overview of compliance requirements; and 
e. Disorders and when not to service a client. 
6. Professional standards. 
a. History of tattooing;. 
b. Ethics;. 
c. Recordkeeping: 
(1) Client health history; 
(2) Consent forms; and 
(3) HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Privacy Rule) Standards. 
d. Preparing station, making appointments, parlor ethics: 
(1) Maintaining professional appearance, notifying clients of schedule changes; and 
(2) Promoting services of the parlor and establishing clientele. 
e. Parlor management. 
(1) Licensing requirements; and 
(2) Taxes. 
f. Supplies. 
(1) Usages; 
(2) Ordering; and 
(3) Storage. 
7. Tattooing. 
a. Client consultation; 
b. Client health form; 
c. Client disclosure form; 
d. Client preparation; 
e. Sanitation and safety precautions; 
f. Implement selection and use; 
g. Proper use of equipment; 
h. Material selection and use; 
i. Needles; 
j. Ink; 
k. Machine: 
(1) Construction; 
(2) Adjustment; and 
(3) Power supply; 
l. Art, drawing; and 
m. Portfolio. 
8. Anatomy. 
a. Understanding of skin; and 
b. Parts and functions of skin. 
9. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations. 
18VAC41-50-290. Hours of instruction and performances. 
A. Curriculum requirements specified in 18VAC41-50-280 shall be taught over a minimum of 750 1,000 hours as follows: 
1. 350 hours shall be devoted to theory pertaining to subdivisions 18VAC41-50-280 B 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, and 9 of 18VAC41-50-280; 
2. 150 hours shall be devoted to theory pertaining to subdivision 3 of 18VAC41-50-280; and 
3. The remaining 250 500 hours shall be devoted to practical training to include but not limited to tattooing curriculum requirements and a total of 100 performances pertaining to subdivision 7 of 18VAC41-50-280 B 7. 
B. An approved tattooing school may conduct an assessment of a student's competence in the theory and practical requirements for tattooing and, based on the assessment, give a maximum of 350 hours of credit towards toward the requirements in subdivisions A 1 and A 3 of this section. No credit shall be allowed for the 150 hours required in subdivision A 2 of this section. 
18VAC41-50-320. School identification. (Repealed.) 
Each permanent cosmetic tattooing school approved by the board shall identify itself to the public as a teaching institution. 
18VAC41-50-340. Hours reported. (Repealed.) 
Within 30 days of the closing of a licensed permanent cosmetic tattooing school for any reason, the school shall provide a written report to the board on performances and hours of each of its students who have not completed the program. 
18VAC41-50-350. Health education. (Repealed.) 
Any person desiring to enroll in the permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of health education on blood-borne disease. 
18VAC41-50-360. Permanent cosmetic tattooing school curriculum requirements. 
A. Any person desiring to enroll in the permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of health education on bloodborne disease. 
B. Permanent cosmetic tattooing school curriculum requirements are as follows: 
1. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations. 
2. Machines and devices. 
a. Coil machine; 
b. Hand device; and 
c. Others devices. 
3. Needles. 
a. Types; 
b. Uses; and 
c. Application. 
4. Anatomy. 
a. Layers of skin; 
b. Parts and functions of skin; and 
c. Diseases. 
5. Color theory. 
a. Skin and pigment color; and 
b. Handling and storage of pigments. 
6. Transmission cycle of infectious diseases. 
7. Immunization. 
a. Types of immunizations; and 
b. General preventative measures to be taken to protect the tattooer and client. 
8. Sanitation and disinfection. 
a. Definition of terms: 
(1) Sterilization; 
(2) Disinfection and disinfectant; 
(3) Sterilizer or sterilant; 
(4) Antiseptic; 
(5) Germicide; 
(6) Decontamination; and 
(7) Sanitation.; 
b. The use of steam sterilization equipment and techniques; 
c. The use of chemical agents, antiseptics, and disinfectants; 
d. The use of sanitation equipment; 
e. Preservice sanitation procedure; and 
f. Postservice sanitation procedure. 
9. Safety. 
a. Proper needle handling and disposal; 
b. Blood spill procedures; 
c. Equipment and instrument storage; and 
d. First aid. 
10. Blood-borne Bloodborne pathogen standards. 
a. OSHA and CDC blood-borne bloodborne pathogen standards; 
b. Overview of compliance requirements; and 
c. Disorders and when not to service a client. 
11. Anesthetics. 
a. Use; 
b. Types; 
c. Application; and 
d. Removal. 
12. Equipment. 
a. Gloves; 
b. Masks; 
c. Apron; 
d. Chair; 
e. Lighting; and 
f. Work table. 
13. Professional standards. 
a. History of permanent cosmetic tattooing;. 
b. Ethics;. 
c. Recordkeeping: 
(1) Client health history; and 
(2) Consent forms. 
d. Preparing station, making appointments, salon ethics: 
(1) Maintaining professional appearance, notifying clients of schedule changes; and 
(2) Promoting services of the salon and establishing clientele. 
e. Salon management: 
(1) Licensing requirements; and 
(2) Taxes. 
14. Permanent cosmetic tattooing. 
a. Client consultation; 
b. Client health form; 
c. Client disclosure form; 
d. Client preparation; 
e. Sanitation and safety precautions; 
f. Implement selection and use; 
g. Proper use of equipment; 
h. Material selection and use.; 
i. Eyebrows; 
j. Eyeliner; 
k. Lip coloring; and 
l. Lip liners. 
18VAC41-50-400. Tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer or master permanent cosmetic tattooer responsibilities. 
A. All tattooers shall provide to the owner one of the following: 
1. Proof of completion of the full series of Hepatitis B vaccine; 
2. Proof of immunity by blood titer; or 
3. Written declaration of refusal of the owner's offer of a full series of Hepatitis B vaccine. 
B. All tattooers shall wear clean outer garments, maintain a high degree of personal cleanliness, and conform to hygienic practices while on duty. 
C. All tattooers shall clean their hands thoroughly using hot or tempered water with a liquid germicidal soap or use sanitizing solution to clean hands before and after tattooing and as necessary to remove contaminants. 
D. All tattooers must wear single-use examination gloves while assembling tattooing instruments and while tattooing. 
E. Each time there is an interruption in the service, each time the gloves become torn or perforated, or whenever the ability of the gloves to function as a barrier is compromised: 
1. Gloves shall be removed and disposed of; and 
2. Hands shall be cleaned and a fresh pair of gloves used. 
F. Tattooers shall use standard precautions while tattooing. A tattooer diagnosed with a communicable disease shall provide to the department a written statement from a health care practitioner that the tattooer's condition no longer poses a threat to public health. 
G. Tattooers with draining lesions on their hands or face will not be permitted to work until cleared by a health-care health care professional. 
H. The area of the client's skin to be tattooed shall be cleaned with an approved germicidal soap according to label directions. 
I. Tattooing inks and dyes shall be placed in a single-use disposable container for each client. Following the procedure, the unused contents and container will be properly disposed of. 
J. If shaving is required, razors shall be single-use and disposed of in a puncture resistant container. 
K. Each tattooer performing any tattooing procedures in the parlor or salon shall have the education, training, and experience, or any combination thereof, to practice aseptic technique and prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens. All procedures shall be performed using aseptic technique. 
L. A set of individual, sterilized needles shall be used for each client. Single-use disposable instruments shall be disposed of in a puncture resistant container. 
M. Used, nondisposable instruments shall be kept in a separate, puncture resistant container until brush scrubbed in hot water soap and then sterilized by autoclaving. Contaminated instruments shall be handled with disposable gloves. 
N. Used instruments that are ultrasonically cleaned shall be rinsed under running hot water prior to being placed in the used instrument container; 
O. Used instruments that are not ultrasonically cleaned prior to being placed in the used instrument container shall be kept in a germicidal or soap solution until brush scrubbed in hot water and soap and sterilized by autoclaving. 
P. The ultrasonic unit shall be sanitized daily with a germicidal solution. 
Q. Nondisposable instruments shall be sterilized and shall be handled and stored in a manner to prevent contamination. Instruments to be sterilized shall be sealed in bags made specifically for the purpose of autoclave sterilization and shall include the date of sterilization. If nontransparent bags are utilized, the bag shall also list the contents. 
R. Autoclave sterilization bags with a color code indicator that changes color upon proper sterilization shall be utilized during the autoclave sterilization process. 
S. Instruments shall be placed in the autoclave in a manner to allow live steam to circulate around them. 
T. Contaminated disposable and single-use items shall be disposed of in accordance with federal and state regulations regarding disposal of biological hazardous materials. 
U. The manufacturer's written instructions of the autoclave shall be followed. 
18VAC41-50-420. Grounds for license or certificate revocation, suspension or probation; denial of application, renewal, or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty. 
A. The board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, fine any licensee or certificate holder and suspend, place on probation, or revoke or refuse to renew or reinstate any license or certificate, or deny any application issued under the provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations of the board this chapter if the board it finds that the licensee, certificate holder, or applicant: 
1. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant is Is incompetent, or negligent in practice tattooing, or incapable mentally or physically, as those terms are generally understood in the profession, to (i) practice as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, tattooer apprentice, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer or (ii) operate a parlor, permanent cosmetic tattooing salon, or school; 
2. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant is Is convicted of fraud or deceit in the practice of tattooing or fails to teach the curriculum as provided for in this chapter; 
3. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant obtained Obtained, attempted to obtain, renewed, or reinstated a license by false or fraudulent representation; 
4. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant violates Violates or induces others to violate, or cooperates with others in violating, any of the provisions of this chapter or Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any local ordinance or regulation governing standards of health and sanitation of the establishment in which tattooers may practice or offer to practice; 
5. Offers, gives, or promises anything of value or benefit to any federal, state, or local employee for the purpose of influencing that employee to circumvent, in the performance of his duties, any federal, state, or local law, regulation, or ordinance governing tattooing as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia;
6. Fails to respond to the board or any of its agents or provides false, misleading, or incomplete information to an inquiry by the board or any of its agents;
7. Fails or refuses to allow the board or any of its agents to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed parlor, salon, or school for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) or this chapter;
5. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant fails 8. Fails to produce, upon request or demand of the board or any of its agents, any document, book, record, or copy thereof in a licensee's or owner's possession or maintained in accordance with this chapter; 
6. A licensee or certificate holder fails 9. Fails to notify the board of a change of name or address in writing within 30 days of the change for each and every license. The board shall not be responsible for the licensee's or certificate holder's failure to receive notices, communications and correspondence caused by the licensees' or certificate holder's failure to promptly notify the board in writing of any change of name or address or for any other reason beyond the control of the board; 
7. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant 10. Makes any misrepresentation or publishes or causes to be published any advertisement that is false, deceptive, or misleading; 
8. The licensee, certificate holder, or applicant fails 11. Fails to notify the board in writing within 30 days of the suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license or certificate in connection with a disciplinary action in any other jurisdiction or of any license or certificate that has been the subject of disciplinary action in any other jurisdiction; or 
9. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, the licensee or certificate holder has been convicted in any jurisdiction of a misdemeanor or felony that directly relates to the profession of tattooing. The board shall have the authority to determine, based upon all the information available, including the regulant's record of prior convictions, if the regulant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the profession of tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this section. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction. This record shall be forwarded by the applicant to the board within 10 days after all appeal rights have expired. 
B. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that: 
1. The owner or operator of the tattoo parlor, limited term tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon fails to comply with the facility requirements of tattoo parlors, limited term tattoo parlors, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salons provided for in this chapter or in any local ordinances; or 
2. The owner or operator allows a person who has not obtained a license to practice as a tattooer, limited term tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer unless the person is duly enrolled as an apprentice. 
C. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation, or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any school or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that: 
1. An instructor of the approved school fails to teach the curriculum as provided for in this chapter; 
2. The owner or director of the approved school permits or allows a person to teach in the school without a current tattooing instructor certificate; or 
3. The instructor, owner or director is guilty of fraud or deceit in the teaching of tattooing. 
D. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation, or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any licensee or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that the licensee fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with any local, state or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practice of tattooing. 
12. Has been convicted or found guilty, regardless of the manner of adjudication in Virginia or any other jurisdiction of the United States, of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury or any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or guilt;
13. Fails to inform the board in writing within 30 days of pleading guilty or nolo contendere or being convicted or found guilty regardless of adjudication of any convictions as stated in subdivision 12 of this section;
14. Allows, as responsible management of a parlor, salon, or school, a person who has not obtained a license or guest tattooer license to practice as a tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer unless the person is duly enrolled as an apprentice;
15. Allows, as responsible management of a school, a person who has not obtained an instructor certificate to practice as a tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor;
16. Fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with sanitary requirements provided for in this chapter or any local, state, or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practice of tattooing, or the operation of tattoo parlors or permanent cosmetic tattooing salons; or
17. Fails to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at any board examination.
NOTICE: Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
FORMS (18VAC41-50) 
Tattooer Examination & License Application, A425-1231EXLIC (eff. 9/2011) 
Tattoo Training & Experience Verification Form, A425-12TATTREXP (eff. 9/2011)
Tattooing Apprenticeship Sponsor Application, A425-12TATSPON (eff. 9/2011)
Tattooer Apprenticeship Certification Application, A425-1234TAC (eff. 9/2011)
Tattoo Apprenticeship Completion Form, A425-12TAC (eff. 9/2011)
Tattoo Client Disclosure Form, A425-12DIS, A425-12TDIS (eff. 9/2011)
Limited Term Tattooer License Application, A450-1233LIC-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
Limited Term Tattoo Parlor License Application, A450-1235LIC-v5 (rev. 9/2016)
Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination & License Application, A425-1236EXLIC (eff. 9/2011)
Master Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination & License Application, A425-1237EXLIC (eff. 9/2011)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v9 (rev. 9/2016)
Training & Experience Verification Form, A425-1213TREXP (eff. 9/2011)
Salon, Shop, Spa & Parlor License/Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v6 (rev. 9/2016)
Instructor Certification Application, A450-1213INST-v7 (rev. 9/2016)
Individuals - Reinstatement Application, A450-1213REI-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
School License Application, A450-1213SCHL-v9 (rev. 9/2016)
School Reinstatement Application, A450-1213SCH-REIN-v2 (rev. 9/2016)
Tattooer Examination & License Application, A450-1231EXLIC (rev. 7/2019)
Tattoo Client Disclosure Form, A450-12TDIS (rev. 4/2013)
Limited Term Tattoo Parlor License Application, A450-1235LIC-v6 (rev. 7/2019)
Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination & License Application, A450-1236EXLIC-v13 (rev. 7/2019)
Master Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination & License Application, A450-1237EXLIC-v11 (rev. 7/2019)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v10 (rev. 2/2017)
Training & Experience Verification Form, A450-1213TREXP-v6 (eff. 2/2017)
Salon, Shop, Spa & Parlor License/Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v12 (rev. 7/2019)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v7 (rev. 4/2017)
Instructor Certification Application, A450-1213INST-v11 (rev. 7/2019)
Individuals - Reinstatement Application, A450-1213REI-v9 (rev. 2/2017)
School License Application, A450-1213SCHL-v11 (rev. 2/2017)
School Reinstatement Application, A450-1213SCH-REIN-v5 (rev. 3/2017)
Convention Tattooer License Application, A450-1233COVLIC-v1 (eff. 7/2019)
Guest Tattooer License Application, A450-1233GLIC-v1 (eff. 7/2019)
Part I 
 General 
18VAC41-60-10. Definitions. 
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. All terms defined in Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia are incorporated in this chapter. 
"Apprenticeship program" means an approved body-piercing training program conducted by an approved apprenticeship sponsor. 
"Apprenticeship sponsor" means an individual approved to conduct body-piercing apprenticeship training who meets the qualifications in 18VAC41-60-70. 
"Aseptic technique" means a hygienic practice that prevents and hinders the direct transfer of microorganisms, regardless of pathogenicity, from one person or place to another person or place. 
"Body piercer ear only" means any person who uses only a mechanized, presterilized ear-piercing system that penetrates the outer perimeter or lobe of the ear or both for compensation. 
"Body piercing ear only" means the use of a mechanized, presterilized ear-piercing system that penetrates the outer perimeter or lobe of the ear or both. 
"Body-piercing ear only salon" means any place in which a fee is charged for the act of using a mechanized, presterilized ear-piercing system that penetrates the outer perimeter or lobe of the ear or both. 
"Business entity" means a sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law. 
"Endorsement" means a method of obtaining a license by a person who is currently licensed in another state. 
"Firm" means any business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Gratuitous services" as used in § 54.1-701.5 of the Code Virginia means providing body-piercing services without receiving compensation or reward, or obligation. Gratuitous services do not include services provided at no charge when goods are purchased. 
"Licensee" means any person, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, or corporation sole proprietorship, limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law holding a license issued by the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia. 
"Reinstatement" means having a license restored to effectiveness after the expiration date has passed. 
"Renewal" means continuing the effectiveness of a license for another period of time. 
"Responsible management" means the following individuals:
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship;
2. The partners of a general partnership;
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership;
4. The officers of a corporation;
5. The managers of a limited liability company;
6. The officers or directors of an association or both; and
7. Individuals in other business entities recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth as having a fiduciary responsibility to the firm.
"Sole proprietor" means any individual, not a corporation, who is trading under his own name or under an assumed or fictitious name pursuant to the provisions of §§ 59.1-69 through 59.1-76 of the Code of Virginia. 
"Sterilization area" means a separate room or area separate from workstations with restricted client access in which body-piercing instruments are cleaned, disinfected, and sterilized. 
"Temporary location" means a fixed location at which body piercing is performed for a specified length of time of not more than seven days in conjunction with a single event or celebration. 
Part II 
 Entry 
18VAC41-60-20. General requirements. 
A. In order to receive a license as a body piercer in compliance with § 54.1-703 of the Code of Virginia, an applicant must Any individual wishing to engage in body piercing shall obtain a license in compliance with § 54.1-703 of the Code of Virginia and meet the following qualifications: 
1. The applicant shall be in good standing as a body piercer in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in another Virginia or any other jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's practice as a body piercer. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure whether if he has been previously licensed in Virginia as a body piercer. 
Upon review of the applicant's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein the board deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in body piercing and body piercing ear only. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable. 
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia body-piercing license laws and the board's body-piercing regulations this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose a conviction, in any jurisdiction, of any misdemeanor or felony. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for this purpose of this section. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such guilt. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure or certification to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. the following information regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has passed the board-approved examination, administered either by the board or by a designated testing service. 
6. Persons who (i) make application between April 1, 2007, and March 31, 2008; (ii) have completed three years of documented work experience within the preceding five years as a body piercer; and (iii) have completed a minimum of five hours of health education including but not limited to blood borne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to body piercing and first aid and CPR that is acceptable to the board are not required to complete subdivision 5 of this subsection. 
B. Eligibility to sit for board-approved body-piercer examination. 
1. Training in the Commonwealth of Virginia. Any person completing an approved body-piercing apprenticeship program in a Virginia licensed body-piercing salon shall be eligible to sit for the examination. 
2. Training outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia, but within the United States and its territories. Any person completing a body-piercing training or apprenticeship program that is substantially equivalent to the Virginia program but is outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia must submit to the board documentation of the successful completion of training or apprenticeship to be eligible for examination. If less than required hours of body-piercing training or body-piercing apprenticeship was completed, an applicant must submit (i) documentation acceptable to the board verifying the completion of a substantially equivalent body-piercing training or body-piercing apprenticeship or documentation of three years of work experience within the preceding five years as a body piercer and (ii) documentation of completion of a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to blood borne (a) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to body piercing and; (b) first aid; and (c) CPR that is acceptable to the board in order to be eligible for examination. 
C. In order to receive a license as a body piercer ear only, an applicant must meet the following qualifications: 
1. The applicant shall have completed a minimum of three hours of health education to include but not limited to blood borne bloodborne disease and first aid that is acceptable to the board and provide verification of training on a mechanized, presterilized ear-piercing system that penetrates the outer perimeter or lobe of the ear or both and aftercare of piercing. 
2. The applicant shall be in good standing in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in another jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's licensed, certified, or registered practice. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure whether he has been previously licensed in Virginia in any profession regulated by the board. 
3. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable. 
4. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia body-piercing license laws and the board's body-piercing regulations. 
5. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose a conviction, in any jurisdiction, of any misdemeanor or felony. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for this purpose of this section. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such guilt. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure or certification to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. the following information regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC41-60-30. License by endorsement. 
Upon proper application to the board, any person currently licensed to practice as a body piercer in any other state or jurisdiction of the United States and who has completed a training or apprenticeship program and an examination that is substantially equivalent to that required by this chapter may be issued a body-piercer body piercer license without an examination. The applicant must also meet the requirements set forth in 18VAC41-60-20 A 1 through A 4. 
18VAC41-60-40. Examination requirements and fees. 
A. Applicants for initial licensure shall pass an examination approved by the board. The examinations may be administered by the board or by a designated testing service. 
B. Any candidate failing to appear as scheduled for examination shall forfeit the examination fee. 
C. The applicant shall follow all procedures established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such procedures shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of application.
D. Any applicant who does not pass a reexamination within one year of the initial examination date shall be required to submit a new application.
E. The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted charges to the board by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with these contracts. The fee shall not exceed $225 per candidate. 
F. Any candidate failing to apply for initial licensure within five years of passing the written examination shall be required to retake the examination. Records of examinations shall be maintained for a maximum of five years.
18VAC41-60-50. Reexamination requirements. (Repealed.) 
Any applicant who does not pass a reexamination within one year of the initial examination date shall be required to submit a new application and examination fee. 
18VAC41-60-60. Examination administration. (Repealed.) 
A. The examinations may be administered by the board or the designated testing service. 
B. The applicant shall follow all procedures established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such procedures shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of application. 
C. The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted charges to the board by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with these contracts. The fee shall not exceed $225 per candidate. 
18VAC41-60-80. Salon license. 
A. Any individual firm wishing to operate a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon shall obtain a salon license in compliance with § 54.1-704.1 of the Code of Virginia. and shall meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license: 
1. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall be in good standing as a licensed salon in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon or practice of the profession. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of the responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon. 
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein it deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action. 
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable.
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia body-piercing license laws and this chapter. 
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subsection. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall disclose the firm's responsible management. 
B. A body-piercing salon license or body-piercing ear only salon license shall not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address of the business. Any changes in the name, or address, or ownership of the salon shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such changes. New owners shall be responsible for reporting such changes in writing to the board applying for a new license within 30 days of the changes. 
C. In the event of a closing of a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon, the board must be notified by the owners in writing within 30 days of the closing, and the license must be returned by the owners to the board. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the firm shall apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the business entity. Such changes include: 
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, an association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
D. E. Any individual firm wishing to operate a body-piercing salon in a temporary location must have a body-piercing salon license issued by the board. 
Part IV 
 Renewal/Reinstatement Renewal and Reinstatement 
18VAC41-60-110. License renewal required. 
All body-piercer body piercer, body-piercer body piercer ear only, body-piercing salon, and body-piercing ear only salon licenses shall expire two years from the last day of the month in which they were issued. 
18VAC41-60-120. Continuing education requirement. 
All licensed body piercers shall be required to satisfactorily complete a minimum of five hours of health education to include but not limited to blood borne (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to body piercing and; (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR during their licensed term. All licensed body piercers ear only shall be required to satisfactorily complete a minimum of three hours of health education to include but not limited to blood borne bloodborne disease and first aid during their licensed term. Documentation of training completion shall be provided at the time of renewal along with the required fee. 
18VAC41-60-140. Failure to renew. 
A. When a body piercer an individual or body piercer ear only business entity fails to renew their license within 30 days following its expiration date, the licensee shall meet the renewal requirements prescribed in 18VAC41-60-120 and 18VAC41-60-130 and apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
B. When a body piercer or body piercer ear only an individual or business entity fails to renew his its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former body-piercer licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant, shall meet all current application requirements, shall pass the board's current examination if applicable, and shall receive a new license. To resume practice, the former body-piercer ear only licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant, shall meet all current application requirements, and shall receive a new license. 
C. When a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon fails to renew its license within 30 days following the expiration date, it shall be required to apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and reinstatement fees. 
D. When a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon fails to renew its license within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice, the former licensee shall apply for licensure as a new applicant and shall meet all current application requirements. 
E. C. The date a renewal fee is received by the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, or its agent, will be used to determine whether the requirement for reinstatement of a license is applicable and an additional fee is required. 
F. D. When a license is reinstated, the licensee shall have the same license number and shall be assigned an expiration date two years from the previous expiration date of the license date of the last day of the month of reinstatement. 
G. E. A licensee who that reinstates his its license shall be regarded as having been continuously licensed without interruption. Therefore, a licensee shall be subject to the authority of the board for activities performed prior to reinstatement. 
H. F. A licensee who that fails to reinstate his its license shall be regarded as unlicensed from the expiration date of the license forward. Nothing in this chapter shall divest the board of its authority to discipline a licensee for a violation of the law or regulations during the period of time for which the individual was licensed. 
18VAC41-60-190. Physical facilities. 
A. A body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon must be in a permanent building, which must be in a location permissible under local zoning codes, if any. If applicable, the body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon shall be separated from any living quarters by complete floor to ceiling partitioning and shall contain no access to living quarters. 
B. The body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall be maintained in a clean and orderly manner. 
C. A body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall have a blood spill clean-up kit in the work area. 
D. Work surfaces in a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall be cleaned with an EPA-registered, hospital grade disinfectant. Surfaces that come in contact with blood or other body fluids shall be immediately disinfected with an EPA-registered germicide solution. Appropriate personal protective equipment shall be worn during cleaning and disinfecting procedures. 
E. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, cabinets or containers for the storage of instruments, single-use articles, and other utensils shall be provided for each operator and shall be maintained in a sanitary manner. 
F. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, bulk single-use articles shall be commercially packaged and handled in such a way as to protect them the articles from contamination. 
G. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, all materials applied to the human skin shall be from single-use articles or transferred from bulk containers to single use containers and shall be disposed of after each use. 
H. In a body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon, the walls, ceilings, and floors shall be kept in good repair. The body-piercing area shall be constructed of smooth, hard, surfaces that are nonporous, free of open holes or cracks, light colored, and easily cleaned. New physical facilities shall not include any dark-colored surfaces in the body-piercing area. Existing physical facilities with dark-colored surfaces in the body-piercing area shall replace the dark-colored surfaces with light-colored surfaces whenever the facilities are extensively remodeled or upon relocation of the business. 
I. A body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall have adequate lighting of at least 50 foot-candles of illumination in the body-piercing and sterilization areas. 
J. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, adequate mechanical ventilation shall be provided. 
K. A body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location shall be equipped with hand-cleaning facilities for its personnel with unobstructed access to the body-piercing area or body-piercing ear only area such that the body piercer or body piercer ear only can return to the area without having to touch anything with his hands. Hand-cleaning facilities shall be equipped either with hot and cold or tempered running water under pressure and liquid germicidal soap or with a sanitizing solution to clean hands. Hand-cleaning facilities shall be equipped with single-use towels or mechanical hand drying devices and a covered refuse container. Such facilities shall be kept clean and in good repair. All facilities must have running water and soap accessible for cleaning of hands contaminated by body fluids. 
L. Animals are not permitted in the body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location except for guide or service animals accompanying persons with disabilities or nonmammalian animals in enclosed glass containers such as fish aquariums, which shall be outside of the body-piercing area or sterilization areas area. No animals are allowed in the body-piercing area, body-piercing ear only area, or sterilization areas area. 
M. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, the use of tobacco products and consumption of alcoholic beverages shall be prohibited in the body-piercing area, body-piercing ear only area, or sterilization areas area. 
N. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, no food or drink will be stored or consumed in the body-piercing area, body-piercing ear only area, or sterilization areas area. 
O. In a body-piercing salon, body-piercing ear only salon, or temporary location, if body-piercing or body-piercing ear only is performed where cosmetology services are provided, it shall be performed in an area that is separate and enclosed. 
P. All steam sterilizers shall be biological spore tested at least monthly. 
Q. Biological spore tests shall be verified through an independent laboratory. 
R. Biological spore test records shall be retained for a period of three years and made available upon request. 
S. Steam sterilizers shall be used only for instruments used by the salon's employees. 
18VAC41-60-220. Grounds for license revocation or suspension or probation; denial of application, renewal, or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty. 
A. The board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, fine any licensee and suspend, place on probation, or revoke or refuse to renew or reinstate any license, or deny any application issued under the provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations of the board this chapter if the board it finds that the licensee or applicant: 
1. The licensee is Is incompetent or negligent in practice, or incapable mentally or physically, as those terms are generally understood in the profession, to (i) practice as a body piercer or body piercer ear only, or (ii) operate a body piercing salon; 
2. The licensee or applicant is Is convicted of fraud or deceit in the practice body piercing or body piercing ear only; 
3. The licensee or applicant attempted Attempted to obtain, obtained, renewed, or reinstated a license by false or fraudulent representation; 
4. The licensee or applicant violates Violates or induces others to violate, or cooperates with others in violating, any of the provisions of this chapter or Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any local ordinance or regulation governing standards of health and sanitation of the establishment in which body piercers or body piercers ear only may practice or offer to practice; 
5. Offers, gives, or promises anything of value or benefit to any federal, state, or local employee for the purpose of influencing that employee to circumvent in the performance of his duties any federal, state, or local law, regulation, or ordinance governing body piercing as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia;
6. Fails to respond to the board or any of its agents or provides false, misleading, or incomplete information to an inquiry by the board or any of its agents;
7. Fails or refuses to allow the board or any of its agents to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed salon for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) or this chapter;
5. The licensee or applicant fails 8. Fails to produce, upon request or demand of the board or any of its agents, any document, book, record, or copy thereof in a licensee's or owner's possession or maintained in accordance with this chapter; 
6. A licensee fails 9. Fails to notify the board of a change of name or address in writing within 30 days of the change for each and every license. The board shall not be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices, communications and correspondence caused by the licensee's failure to promptly notify the board in writing of any change of name or address or for any other reason beyond the control of the board; 
7. The licensee or applicant 10. Makes any misrepresentation or publishes or causes to be published any advertisement that is false, deceptive, or misleading; 
8. The licensee or applicant fails 11. Fails to notify the board in writing within 30 days of the suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certificate, or permit in connection with a disciplinary action in any other jurisdiction or of any license, certificate, or permit which has been the subject of disciplinary action in any other jurisdiction; 
9. The licensee or applicant has been convicted or found guilty in any jurisdiction of any misdemeanor or felony. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this section. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such guilt; or 
10. The licensee, certificate holder, temporary license holder, or applicant fails to notify the board in writing within 30 days that the licensee, certificate holder, temporary license holder, or applicant has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere or was convicted and found guilty of any misdemeanor or felony. 
B. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that: 
1. The owner or operator of the body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon fails to comply with the facility requirements of body-piercing salons or body-piercing ear only salons provided for in this chapter or in any local ordinances; or 
2. The owner or operator allows a person who has not obtained a license to practice as a body piercer or body piercer ear only unless the person is duly enrolled as an apprentice. 
C. In addition to subsection A of this section, the board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, revoke, suspend, place on probation or refuse to renew or reinstate the license of any licensee or impose a fine as permitted by law, or both, if the board finds that the licensee fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with any local, state or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practice of body piercing or body piercing ear only. 
12. Has been convicted or found guilty, regardless of the manner of adjudication in Virginia or any other jurisdiction of the United States, of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury or any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or guilt;
13. Fails to inform the board in writing within 30 days of pleading guilty or nolo contendere or being convicted or found guilty regardless of adjudication of any convictions as stated in subdivision 12 of this section;
14. Allows, as responsible management of a salon, a person who has not obtained a license to practice as a body piercer or body piercer ear only unless the person is duly enrolled as an apprentice;
15. Fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with sanitary requirements provided for in this chapter or any local, state, or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practice of body piercing, or the operation of body-piercing salon or body-piercing ear only salon; or
16. Fails to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at any board examination.
NOTICE: Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
FORMS (18VAC41-60) 
Body Piercer Examination & License Application, A425-1241EXLIC (eff. 9/2011) 
Body-Piercing Training & Experience Verification Form, A425-12BPTREXP (eff. 9/2011)
Body-Piercing Apprenticeship Sponsor Application, A425-12BPSPON (eff. 9/2011)
Body-Piercing Apprentice Certification Application, A425-1244BPAC (eff. 9/2011)
Body-Piercing Apprenticeship Completion Form, A425-12BPAC (eff. 9/2011)
Body-Piercing Client Disclosure Form, A425-12BPDIS (eff. 9/2011)
Body Piercer Ear Only License Application, A450-1245LIC-v6 (rev. 9/2016)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v9 (rev. 9/2016)
Training & Experience Verification Form, A425-1213TREXP (eff. 9/2011)
Salon, Shop, Spa & Parlor License/Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v6 (rev. 9/2016)
Individuals - Reinstatement Application, A450-1213REI-v8 (rev. 9/2016)
Body Piercer Examination & License Application, A450-1241EXLIC-v13 (rev. 7/2019)
Body-Piercing Client Disclosure Form, A450-12BPDIS-v2 (rev. 4/2013)
Body Piercer Ear Only License Application, A450-1245LIC-v7 (rev. 7/2019)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v10 (rev. 2/2017)
Training & Experience Verification Form, A450-1213TREXP-v6 (eff. 2/2017)
Salon, Shop, Spa & Parlor License/Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v12 (rev. 7/2019)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v7 (rev. 4/2017)
Individuals - Reinstatement Application, A450-1213REI-v9 (rev. 2/2017)
VA.R. Doc. No. R18-5125; Filed July 2, 2019, 10:38 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF MEDICINE
Fast-Track Regulation
 
 Title of Regulation: 18VAC85-20. Regulations
 Governing the Practice of Medicine, Osteopathic Medicine, Podiatry, and
 Chiropractic (amending 18VAC85-20-26, 18VAC85-20-29,
 18VAC85-20-90, 18VAC85-20-121, 18VAC85-20-122, 18VAC85-20-140, 18VAC85-20-220,
 18VAC85-20-225, 18VAC85-20-235, 18VAC85-20-410). 
 
 Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
 scheduled. 
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 21, 2019.
 
 Effective Date: September 16, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: William L. Harp, M.D., Executive
 Director, Board of Medicine, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA
 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4621, FAX (804) 527-4429, or email
 william.harp@dhp.virginia.gov.
 
 Basis: Regulations are promulgated under the authority
 of § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia, which provides the Board of Medicine
 the authority to promulgate regulations to administer the regulatory system.
 
 Purpose: 18VAC85-20 needs to be retained because its
 provisions protect the health and safety of patients who received medical care
 from a doctor licensed under the chapter. The regulatory changes are consistent
 with the principle that regulations should be clearly written and easily
 understandable.
 
 Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: As
 required by Executive Order 14 (2018), the Board of Medicine conducted a periodic
 review of this chapter. The amendments are clarifying or intended for
 consistency with current practice. There are no substantive changes, so the
 amendments are not expected to be controversial.
 
 Substance: Pursuant to its periodic review of 18VAC85-20,
 the board amended the regulation to delete outdated provisions and clarify
 others consistent with current practice.
 
 Issues: There are no substantive changes to the
 regulation, so there are no real advantages or disadvantages to the public.
 Most of the amendments are technical and clarifying.
 
 There are no advantages or disadvantages to the agency or the
 Commonwealth, except clearer regulations may result in fewer inquiries to
 staff.
 
 Department
 of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
 
 Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to a
 periodic review,1 the Board of Medicine (Board) proposes to delete
 outdated provisions and clarify several others consistent with current
 practice.
 
 Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
 all proposed changes.
 
 Estimated Economic Impact. The Board proposes to delete
 outdated provisions such as dates that are no longer necessary, update
 terminology, update names of an accrediting body, clarify that teaching in a
 health care professional field qualifies for continuing education credits, and
 clarify that a single interaction that interferes with patient care or could
 reasonably be expected to adversely impact the quality of care rendered to a
 patient might be grounds for disciplinary action, etc. The proposed changes are
 not expected to create any economic impact beyond improving the accuracy and
 clarity of existing requirements.
 
 Businesses and Entities Affected. There are 38,014 doctors of
 medicine, 3,473 doctors of osteopathic medicine, 541 doctors of podiatry, and
 1,729 doctors of chiropractic regulated by the Board.
 
 Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments would
 not disproportionately affect particular localities.
 
 Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments would
 not affect employment.
 
 Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
 amendments would not affect the use and value of private property.
 
 Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments would
 not affect real estate development costs.
 
 Small Businesses:
 
 Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
 small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
 that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
 
 Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments would not have
 costs on other effects on small businesses.
 
 Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
 amendments would not impose adverse impacts on small businesses.
 
 Adverse Impacts:
 
 Businesses. The proposed amendments would not impose adverse
 impacts on businesses.
 
 Localities. The proposed amendments would not adversely affect
 localities.
 
 Other Entities. The proposed amendments would not adversely
 affect other entities.
 
 ___________________________
 
 1http://townhall.virginia.gov/L/ViewPReview.cfm?PRid=1647
 
 Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
 of Medicine concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget.
 
 Summary:
 
 The amendments remove outdated provisions, make a number of
 technical changes, and clarify for consistency with current practice.
 
 18VAC85-20-26. Patient records. 
 
 A. Practitioners shall comply with the provisions of §
 32.1-127.1:03 of the Code of Virginia related to the confidentiality and
 disclosure of patient records. 
 
 B. Practitioners shall provide patient records to another
 practitioner or to the patient or his the patient's personal
 representative in a timely manner in accordance with provisions of §
 32.1-127.1:03 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 C. Practitioners shall properly manage patient records and
 shall maintain timely, accurate, legible, and complete patient records. 
 
 D. Practitioners shall maintain a patient record for a
 minimum of six years following the last patient encounter with the following
 exceptions: 
 
 1. Records of a minor child, including immunizations, shall be
 maintained until the child reaches the age of 18 or becomes emancipated, with a
 minimum time for record retention of six years from the last patient encounter
 regardless of the age of the child; 
 
 2. Records that have previously been transferred to another
 practitioner or health care provider or provided to the patient or his the
 patient's personal representative; or 
 
 3. Records that are required by contractual obligation or
 federal law to be maintained for a longer period of time. 
 
 E. From October 19, 2005, practitioners Practitioners
 shall post information or in some manner inform all patients concerning the time
 frame timeframe for record retention and destruction. Patient
 records shall only be destroyed in a manner that protects patient
 confidentiality, such as by incineration or shredding. 
 
 F. When a practitioner is closing, selling, or
 relocating his practice, he shall meet the requirements of § 54.1-2405 of
 the Code of Virginia for giving notice that copies of records can be sent to
 any like-regulated provider of the patient's choice or provided to the patient.
 
 
 18VAC85-20-29. Practitioner responsibility. 
 
 A. A practitioner shall not: 
 
 1. Knowingly allow subordinates to jeopardize patient safety
 or provide patient care outside of the subordinate's scope of practice or area
 of responsibility. Practitioners shall delegate patient care only to
 subordinates who are properly trained and supervised; 
 
 2. Engage in an egregious pattern of disruptive behavior or an
 interaction in a health care setting that interferes with patient care or could
 reasonably be expected to adversely impact the quality of care rendered to a
 patient; or 
 
 3. Exploit the practitioner/patient practitioner and
 patient relationship for personal gain. 
 
 B. Advocating for patient safety or improvement in patient
 care within a health care entity shall not constitute disruptive behavior
 provided the practitioner does not engage in behavior prohibited in subdivision
 A 2 of this section. 
 
 18VAC85-20-90. Pharmacotherapy for weight loss. 
 
 A. A practitioner shall not prescribe amphetamine, Schedule
 II, for the purpose of weight reduction or control. 
 
 B. A practitioner shall not prescribe controlled substances,
 Schedules III through VI, for the purpose of weight reduction or control in the
 treatment of obesity, unless the following conditions are met: 
 
 1. An appropriate history and physical examination are
 performed and recorded at the time of initiation of pharmacotherapy for obesity
 by the prescribing physician, and the physician reviews the results of
 laboratory work, as indicated, including testing for thyroid function; 
 
 2. If the drug to be prescribed could adversely affect cardiac
 function, the physician shall review the results of an electrocardiogram
 performed and interpreted within 90 days of initial prescribing for treatment
 of obesity; 
 
 3. A diet and exercise program for weight loss is prescribed
 and recorded; 
 
 4. The patient is seen within the first 30 days following
 initiation of pharmacotherapy for weight loss by the prescribing physician or a
 licensed practitioner with prescriptive authority working under the supervision
 of the prescribing physician, at which time a recording shall be made of blood
 pressure, pulse, and any other tests as may be necessary for monitoring
 potential adverse effects of drug therapy; 
 
 5. The treating physician shall direct the follow-up care,
 including the intervals for patient visits and the continuation of or any
 subsequent changes in pharmacotherapy. Continuation of prescribing for
 treatment of obesity shall occur only if the patient has continued progress toward
 achieving or maintaining a target weight and has no significant adverse effects
 from the prescribed program. 
 
 C. If specifically authorized in his practice agreement with
 a supervising or collaborating patient care team physician, a
 physician assistant or nurse practitioner may perform the physical examination,
 review tests, and prescribe Schedules III through VI controlled substances for
 treatment of obesity, as specified in subsection B of this section.
 
 18VAC85-20-121. Educational requirements: graduates of approved
 institutions. 
 
 A. Such an applicant shall be a graduate of an institution
 that meets the criteria appropriate to the profession in which he seeks to be
 licensed, which are as follows: 
 
 1. For licensure in medicine. The institution shall be
 approved or accredited by the Liaison Committee on Medical Education or other
 official accrediting body recognized by the American Medical Association, or by
 the Committee for the Accreditation of Canadian Medical Schools or its
 appropriate subsidiary agencies or any other organization approved by the
 board. 
 
 2. For licensure in osteopathic medicine. The institution
 shall be approved or accredited by the Bureau of Professional Education of
 the American Osteopathic Association Committee on Osteopathic College
 Accreditation or any other organization approved by the board. 
 
 3. For licensure in podiatry. The institution shall be
 approved and recommended by the Council on Podiatric Medical Education of the
 American Podiatric Medical Association or any other organization approved by
 the board. 
 
 B. Such an applicant for licensure in medicine, osteopathic
 medicine, or podiatry shall provide evidence of having completed 12 months of
 satisfactory postgraduate training as an intern or resident in one program or
 institution when such a program or institution is approved by an accrediting
 agency recognized by the board for internship and residency training. 
 
 C. For licensure in chiropractic. 
 
 1. If the applicant matriculated in a chiropractic college
 prior to July 1, 1975, he shall be a graduate of a chiropractic college
 accredited by the American Chiropractic Association or the International
 Chiropractic Association or any other organization approved by the board.
 
 2. If the applicant matriculated in a chiropractic
 college on or after July 1, 1975, he shall be a graduate of a chiropractic
 college accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of the Council of
 Chiropractic Education or any other organization approved by the board. 
 
 2. If the applicant matriculated in a chiropractic college
 prior to July 1, 1975, he shall be a graduate of a chiropractic college
 accredited by the American Chiropractic Association or the International
 Chiropractic Association or any other organization approved by the board. 
 
 18VAC85-20-122. Educational requirements: graduates and former
 students of institutions not approved by an accrediting agency recognized by
 the board. 
 
 A. A graduate of an institution not approved by an
 accrediting agency recognized by the board shall present documentary evidence
 that he: 
 
 1. Was enrolled and physically in attendance at the
 institution's principal site for a minimum of two consecutive years and
 fulfilled at least half of the degree requirements while enrolled two
 consecutive academic years at the institution's principal site. 
 
 2. Has received a degree from the institution.
 
 3. Has fulfilled the applicable requirements of §
 54.1-2930 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 3. 4. Has obtained a certificate from the
 Educational Council of Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG), or its equivalent.
 Proof of licensure by the board of another state or territory of the United
 States or a province of Canada may be accepted in lieu of ECFMG certification. 
 
 4. 5. Has had supervised clinical training as a
 part of his curriculum in an approved hospital, institution, or school
 of medicine offering an approved residency program in the specialty area for
 the clinical training received or in a program acceptable to the board and
 deemed a substantially equivalent experience, if such training was received in
 the United States. 
 
 5. 6. Has completed one year of satisfactory
 postgraduate training as an intern, resident, or clinical fellow. The one year
 shall include at least 12 months in one program or institution approved by an
 accrediting agency recognized by the board for internship or residency training
 or in a clinical fellowship acceptable to the board in the same or a related
 field.
 
 The board may substitute continuous full-time practice of five
 years or more with a limited professorial license in Virginia and one year of
 postgraduate training in a foreign country in lieu of one year of postgraduate
 training. 
 
 6. Has received a degree from the institution. 
 
 B. A former student who has completed all degree requirements
 except social services and postgraduate internship at a school not approved by
 an accrediting agency recognized by the board shall be considered for licensure
 provided that he: 
 
 1. Has fulfilled the requirements of subdivisions A 1 and A
 3 through 5 A 6 of this section; 
 
 2. Has qualified for and completed an appropriate supervised
 clinical training program as established by the American Medical Association;
 and 
 
 3. Presents a document issued by the school certifying that he
 has met all the formal requirements of the institution for a degree except
 social services and postgraduate internship. 
 
 Part IV 
 Licensure: Examination Requirements 
 
 18VAC85-20-140. Examinations, general.
 
 A. The Executive Director of the Board of Medicine or his
 designee shall review each application for licensure and in no case shall an
 applicant be licensed unless there is evidence that the applicant has passed an
 examination equivalent to the Virginia Board of Medicine examination required
 at the time he was examined and meets all requirements of Part III (18VAC85-20-120
 et seq.) of this chapter. If the executive director or his designee is not
 fully satisfied that the applicant meets all applicable requirements of Part
 III of this chapter and this part, he the executive director or his
 designee shall refer the application to the Credentials Committee for a
 determination on licensure.
 
 B. A Doctor doctor of Medicine medicine
 or Osteopathic Medicine osteopathic medicine who has passed the
 examination of the National Board of Medical Examiners or of the National Board
 of Osteopathic Medical Examiners, Federation Licensing Examination, or the
 United States Medical Licensing Examination, or the examination of the
 Licensing Medical Council of Canada or other such examinations as prescribed in
 § 54.1-2913.1 of the Code of Virginia may be accepted for licensure.
 
 C. A Doctor doctor of Podiatry podiatry
 who has passed the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners examination
 and has passed a clinical competence examination acceptable to the board may be
 accepted for licensure.
 
 D. A Doctor doctor of Chiropractic chiropractic
 who has met the requirements of one of the following may be accepted for
 licensure:
 
 1. An applicant who graduated after January 31, 1996, shall
 document successful completion of Parts I, II, III, and IV of the National
 Board of Chiropractic Examiners examination (NBCE).
 
 2. An applicant who graduated from January 31, 1991, to
 January 31, 1996, shall document successful completion of Parts I, II, and III
 of the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners examination (NBCE).
 
 3. An applicant who graduated from July 1, 1965, to January
 31, 1991, shall document successful completion of Parts I, II, and III of the
 NBCE, or Parts I and II of the NBCE and the Special Purpose Examination for
 Chiropractic (SPEC), and document evidence of licensure in another state for at
 least two years immediately preceding his application.
 
 4. An applicant who graduated prior to July 1, 1965, shall
 document successful completion of the SPEC, and document evidence of licensure
 in another state for at least two years immediately preceding his application.
 
 E. The following provisions shall apply for applicants
 taking Step 3 of the United States Medical Licensing Examination or the
 Podiatric Medical Licensing Examination: 1. Applicants for licensure in
 medicine and osteopathic medicine may be eligible to sit for Step 3 of the
 United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) upon evidence of having
 passed Steps 1 and 2 of the United States Medical Licensing Examination
 (USMLE). 2. Applicants who sat for the United States Medical Licensing
 Examination (USMLE) or the Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensure
 Examination (COMLEX-USA) shall provide evidence of passing Steps 1, 2,
 and 3 all steps within a 10-year period unless the applicant is board
 certified in a specialty approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties
 or the Bureau of Osteopathic Specialists of the American Osteopathic
 Association. 3. Applicants shall have completed the required training or be
 engaged in their final year of required postgraduate training.
 
 4. F. Applicants for licensure in podiatry
 shall provide evidence of having passed the National Board of Podiatric Medical
 Examiners Examination to be eligible to sit for the Podiatric Medical Licensing
 Examination (PMLEXIS) in Virginia.
 
 18VAC85-20-220. Temporary licenses to interns and residents. 
 
 A. An intern or resident applying for a temporary license to
 practice in Virginia shall: 
 
 1. Successfully complete the preliminary academic education
 required for admission to examinations given by the board in his particular
 field of practice, and submit a letter of confirmation from the registrar of
 the school or college conferring the professional degree, or official
 transcripts confirming the professional degree and date the degree was
 received. 
 
 2. Submit a recommendation from the applicant's chief or
 director of graduate medical education of the approved internship or residency
 program specifying acceptance. The beginning and ending dates of the internship
 or residency shall be specified. 
 
 3. Submit evidence of a standard Educational Commission for
 Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) certificate or its equivalent if the
 candidate graduated from a school not approved by an accrediting agency
 recognized by the board. 
 
 B. The intern or resident license applies only to the
 practice in the hospital or outpatient clinics where the internship or
 residency is served. Outpatient clinics in a hospital or other facility must be
 a recognized part of an internship or residency program. 
 
 C. The intern or resident license shall be renewed annually
 upon the recommendation of the chief or director of graduate medical education
 of the internship or residency program. 
 
 A residency program transfer request shall be submitted to
 the board in lieu of a full application. 
 
 D. The extent and scope of the duties and professional
 services rendered by the intern or resident shall be confined to persons who
 are bona fide patients within the hospital or who receive treatment and advice
 in an outpatient department of the hospital or outpatient clinic where the
 internship or residency is served. 
 
 E. The intern and resident shall be responsible and
 accountable at all times to a fully licensed member of the staff faculty
 where the internship or residency is served. The intern and resident is
 prohibited from employment outside of the graduate medical educational program
 where a full license is required. 
 
 F. The intern or resident shall abide by the respective
 accrediting requirements of the internship or residency as approved by the
 Liaison Council on Graduate Education of the American Medical Association,
 American Osteopathic Association, American Podiatric Medical Association, or
 Council on Chiropractic Education. 
 
 18VAC85-20-225. Registration for voluntary practice by
 out-of-state licenses. 
 
 Any doctor of medicine, osteopathic medicine, podiatry,
 or chiropractic who does not hold a license to practice in Virginia and who
 seeks registration to practice under subdivision A 27 of § 54.1-2901 of
 the Code of Virginia on a voluntary basis under the auspices of a publicly
 supported, all volunteer, nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of
 health care to populations of underserved people shall: 
 
 1. File a complete application for registration on a form
 provided by the board at least five business days prior to engaging in such
 practice. An incomplete application will not be considered; 
 
 2. Provide a complete record of professional licensure in each
 state in which he has held a license and a copy of any current license; 
 
 3. Provide the name of the nonprofit organization, the dates,
 and the location of the voluntary provision of services; 
 
 4. Pay a registration fee of $10; and 
 
 5. Provide a notarized statement from a representative of the
 nonprofit organization attesting to its compliance with provisions of
 subdivision A 27 of § 54.1-2901 of the Code of Virginia. 
 
 18VAC85-20-235. Continued competency requirements for renewal
 of an active license. 
 
 A. In order to renew an active license biennially, a
 practitioner shall attest to completion of at least 60 hours of continuing
 learning activities within the two years immediately preceding renewal as
 follows: 
 
 1. A minimum of 30 of the 60 hours shall be in Type 1
 activities or courses offered by an accredited sponsor or organization
 sanctioned by the profession. 
 
 a. Type 1 hours in chiropractic shall be clinical hours that
 are approved by a college or university accredited by the Council on
 Chiropractic Education or any other organization approved by the board. 
 
 b. Type 1 hours in podiatry shall be accredited by the
 American Podiatric Medical Association, the American Council of Certified
 Podiatric Physicians and Surgeons or any other organization approved by the
 board. 
 
 2. No more than 30 of the 60 hours may be Type 2 activities or
 courses, which may or may not be approved by an accredited sponsor or
 organization but which shall be chosen by the licensee to address such areas as
 ethics, standards of care, patient safety, new medical technology, and patient
 communication. 
 
 a. Up to 15 of the Type 2 continuing education hours
 may be satisfied through delivery of services, without compensation, to
 low-income individuals receiving services through a local health department or
 a free clinic organized in whole or primarily for the delivery of health
 services. One hour of continuing education may be credited for one hour of
 providing such volunteer services. For the purpose of continuing education
 credit for voluntary service, documentation by the health department or free
 clinic shall be acceptable. 
 
 b. Type 2 hours may include teaching in a health care
 profession field.
 
 B. A practitioner shall be exempt from the continuing
 competency requirements for the first biennial renewal following the date of
 initial licensure in Virginia. 
 
 C. The practitioner shall retain in his records all
 supporting documentation for a period of six years following the renewal of an
 active license. 
 
 D. The board shall periodically conduct a random audit of its
 active licensees to determine compliance. The practitioners selected for the
 audit shall provide all supporting documentation within 30 days of receiving
 notification of the audit. 
 
 E. Failure to comply with these requirements may subject the
 licensee to disciplinary action by the board. 
 
 F. The board may grant an extension of the deadline for
 continuing competency requirements for up to one year for good cause shown upon
 a written request from the licensee prior to the renewal date. 
 
 G. The board may grant an exemption for all or part of the
 requirements for circumstances beyond the control of the licensee, such as
 temporary disability, mandatory military service, or officially declared
 disasters. 
 
 H. The board may grant an exemption for all or part of the
 requirements for a licensee who:
 
 1. Is practicing solely in an uncompensated position, provided
 his practice is under the direction of a physician fully licensed by the board;
 or
 
 2. Is practicing solely as a medical examiner, provided the
 licensee obtains six hours of medical examiner training per year provided by
 the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.
 
 18VAC85-20-410. Requirements for low-risk, medium-risk,
 or high-risk sterile mixing, diluting, or reconstituting.
 
 A. Any mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of sterile
 products that does not meet the criteria for immediate-use as set forth in
 18VAC85-20-400 A shall be defined as low-risk, medium-risk, or
 high-risk compounding under the definitions of Chapter 797 of the U.S.
 Pharmacopeia (USP).
 
 B. Until July 1, 2007, all low-, medium-, or high-risk
 mixing, diluting or reconstituting of sterile products shall comply with the
 standards for immediate-use mixing, diluting or reconstituting as specified in
 18VAC85-20-400. Beginning July 1, 2007, doctors Doctors of medicine
 or osteopathic medicine who engage in low-risk, medium-risk, or
 high-risk mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of sterile products shall
 comply with all applicable requirements of the USP Chapter 797. Subsequent
 changes to the USP Chapter 797 shall apply within one year of the official
 announcement by USP.
 
 C. A current copy, in any published format, of USP Chapter
 797 shall be maintained at the location where low-risk, medium-risk,
 or high-risk mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of sterile products is
 performed.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5663; Filed July 1, 2019, 8:11 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF NURSING
Proposed Regulation
 
 Title of Regulation: 18VAC90-40. Regulations for
 Prescriptive Authority for Nurse Practitioners (amending 18VAC90-40-20, 18VAC90-40-55,
 18VAC90-40-70, 18VAC90-40-110; repealing 18VAC90-40-50, 18VAC90-40-60). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-2957.1
 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information:
 
 August 27, 2019 - 8:30 a.m. - Department of Health
 Professions, Perimeter Center, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 201, Training Room 2,
 Henrico, VA 23233
 
 Public Comment Deadline: September 20, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Jay P. Douglas, R.N., Executive
 Director, Board of Nursing, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA
 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4520, FAX (804) 527-4455, or email
 jay.douglas@dhp.virginia.gov.
 
 Basis: Regulations are promulgated under the general
 authority of § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia, which provides the
 Boards of Nursing and Medicine the authority to promulgate regulations to
 administer the regulatory system. Section 54.1-2957.01 of the Code of Virginia
 provides requirements for prescription of certain controlled substances and
 devices by licensed nurse practitioners.
 
 Purpose: The purpose of the proposed regulatory action
 is to eliminate unnecessary regulations and costs for nurse practitioners. The
 Code of Virginia specifies certain requirements for prescriptive authority for
 nurse practitioners but does not require maintenance of a separate license,
 which is required by regulation. Therefore, the boards propose to retain the
 requirements for prescriptive authority and for continuing education, but
 eliminate the requirement to renew the license. Requirements for continuing
 competency and disclosure to patients in accordance with § 54.1-2957.1 will
 remain in effect to protect the health and safety of patients.
 
 Substance: This regulatory action eliminates the
 requirement for renewal of prescriptive authority for nurse practitioners and
 reduces the fee for an application for prescriptive from $75 to $35.
 Requirements for continuing competency and disclosure to patients remain in
 effect, as mandated by the Code of Virginia.
 
 Issues: There are no advantages or disadvantages to the
 public. The amendments will benefit nurse practitioners and make their practice
 less costly. There are no advantages or disadvantages to the agency or the
 Commonwealth. The loss of revenue can be absorbed in the budget of the Board of
 Nursing without necessitating any increase in fees.
 
 Department of Planning and
 Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
 
 Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Boards of
 Nursing and Medicine (Boards) propose to eliminate the requirement for renewal
 of prescriptive authority for a nurse practitioner and reduce the fee for
 initial application for prescriptive authority from $75 to $35.
 
 Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
 all proposed changes.
 
 Estimated Economic Impact. The current regulation includes a
 $35 biennial fee for renewal of prescriptive authority for nurse practitioners.
 The proposal to eliminate the requirement for renewal of prescriptive authority
 would save nurse practitioners $35 every other year, as well as the time
 associated with applying for renewal. The Boards do not believe eliminating
 this requirement would affect health and safety. 
 
 The Boards' proposal to reduce the fee for initial application
 for prescriptive authority from $75 to $35 would save nurse practitioners $40
 when they first apply for the authority. The proposed reduction of the fee for
 initial application for prescriptive authority, and the proposed elimination of
 the requirement for renewal of prescriptive authority, would both reduce
 revenue received by the Board of Nursing (Board). According to the Department
 of Health Professions, the Board would continue to have sufficient resources
 with the reduction of revenue. Given the benefits for nurse practitioners and
 lack of impact on health and safety and the Board's ability to operate, both
 proposals should produce net benefits.
 
 Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments
 affect the 7,417 licensed nurse practitioners with prescriptive authority, as
 well as future applicants for nurse practitioners prescriptive authority
 
 Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do
 not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
 
 Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not
 significantly affect employment.
 
 Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
 amendments are unlikely to significantly affect the use and value of private
 property.
 
 Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not
 affect real estate development costs.
 
 Small Businesses: 
 
 Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
 small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
 that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
 
 Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments are unlikely
 to significantly affect costs for small businesses.
 
 Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
 amendments do not adversely affect small businesses.
 
 Adverse Impacts:
 
 Businesses. The proposed amendments do not adversely affect
 businesses.
 
 Localities. The proposed amendments do not adversely affect
 localities.
 
 Other Entities. The proposed amendments do not adversely affect
 other entities
 
 Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
 Boards of Nursing and Medicine concur with the analysis of the Department of
 Planning and Budget.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendments eliminate the requirement for
 renewal of prescriptive authority for a nurse practitioner and reduce the fee
 for an application for prescriptive authority to $35. 
 
 18VAC90-40-20. Authority and administration of regulations.
 
 A. The statutory authority for this chapter is found in §§ 54.1-2957.01,
 54.1-3303, 54.1-3401, and 54.1-3408 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 B. Joint boards of nursing and medicine.
 
 1. The Committee of the Joint Boards of Nursing and Medicine
 shall be appointed to administer this chapter governing prescriptive authority.
 
 2. The boards hereby delegate to the Executive Director of the
 Virginia Board of Nursing the authority to issue the initial authorization and
 biennial renewal to those persons who meet the requirements set forth in
 this chapter and to grant extensions or exemptions for compliance with
 continuing competency requirements as set forth in subsection E of
 18VAC90-40-55. Questions of eligibility shall be referred to the committee.
 
 3. All records and files related to prescriptive authority for
 nurse practitioners shall be maintained in the office of the Board of Nursing.
 
 18VAC90-40-50. Renewal of prescriptive authority. (Repealed.)
 
 
 An applicant for renewal of prescriptive authority shall: 
 
 1. Renew biennially at the same time as the renewal of
 licensure to practice as a nurse practitioner in Virginia. 
 
 2. Submit a completed renewal form attesting to compliance
 with continuing competency requirements set forth in 18VAC90-40-55 and the
 renewal fee as prescribed in 18VAC90-40-70. 
 
 18VAC90-40-55. Continuing competency requirements.
 
 A. In order to renew prescriptive authority, a A
 licensee with prescriptive authority shall meet continuing competency
 requirements for biennial renewal as a licensed nurse practitioner. Such
 requirements shall address issues such as ethical practice, an appropriate
 standard of care, patient safety, and appropriate communication with patients.
 
 B. A nurse practitioner with prescriptive authority shall
 obtain a total of eight hours of continuing education in pharmacology or
 pharmacotherapeutics for each biennium in addition to the minimal requirements
 for compliance with subsection B of 18VAC90-30-105.
 
 C. The nurse practitioner with prescriptive authority shall
 retain evidence of compliance and all supporting documentation for a period of
 four years following the renewal period for which the records apply.
 
 D. The boards shall periodically conduct a random audit of its
 their licensees to determine compliance. The nurse practitioners
 selected for the audit shall provide the evidence of compliance and supporting
 documentation within 30 days of receiving notification of the audit.
 
 E. The boards may delegate to the committee the authority to
 grant an extension or an exemption for all or part of the requirements for
 circumstances beyond the control of the licensee, such as temporary disability,
 mandatory military service, or officially declared disasters.
 
 18VAC90-40-60. Reinstatement of prescriptive authority. (Repealed.)
 
 A. A nurse practitioner whose prescriptive authority has
 lapsed may reinstate within one renewal period by payment of the current
 renewal fee and the late renewal fee. 
 
 B. A nurse practitioner who is applying for reinstatement
 of lapsed prescriptive authority after one renewal period shall: 
 
 1. File the required application; 
 
 2. Provide evidence of a current, unrestricted license to
 practice as a nurse practitioner in Virginia; 
 
 3. Pay the fee required for reinstatement of a lapsed
 authorization as prescribed in 18VAC90-40-70; and 
 
 4. If the authorization has lapsed for a period of two or
 more years, the applicant shall provide proof of: 
 
 a. Continued practice as a licensed nurse practitioner with
 prescriptive authority in another state; or 
 
 b. Continuing education, in addition to the minimal
 requirements for current professional certification, consisting of four contact
 hours in pharmacology or pharmacotherapeutics for each year in which the
 prescriptive authority has been lapsed in the Commonwealth, not to exceed a
 total of 16 hours. 
 
 C. An applicant for reinstatement of suspended or revoked
 authorization shall: 
 
 1. Petition for reinstatement and pay the fee for
 reinstatement of a suspended or revoked authorization as prescribed in
 18VAC90-40-70; 
 
 2. Present evidence of competence to resume practice as a
 nurse practitioner with prescriptive authority; and
 
 3. Meet the qualifications and resubmit the application required
 for initial authorization in 18VAC90-40-40. 
 
 18VAC90-40-70. Fees for prescriptive authority.
 
 A. The following fees have been established by the
 boards: 
 
 
  
   | 1. Initial issuance of prescriptive authority | $75$35
 | 
  
   | 2. Biennial renewal
 | $35
 | 
  
   | 3. Late renewal
 | $15
 | 
  
   | 4. Reinstatement of lapsed authorization
 | $90
 | 
  
   | 5. Reinstatement of suspended or revoked authorization
 | $85 
 | 
  
   | 6. Duplicate of authorization
 | $15
 | 
  
   | 7.2. Return check charge
 | $35 | 
 
 
 B. For renewal of licensure from July 1, 2017, through
 June 30, 2019, the following fee shall be in effect:
 
 
 
 18VAC90-40-110. Disclosure. 
 
 A. The nurse practitioner shall include on each prescription written
 issued or dispensed his signature and the Drug Enforcement
 Administration (DEA) number, when applicable. If his the nurse
 practitioner's practice agreement authorizes prescribing of only Schedule
 VI drugs and the nurse practitioner does not have a DEA number, he shall
 include the prescriptive authority number as issued by the boards.
 
 B. The nurse practitioner shall disclose to patients at the
 initial encounter that he is a licensed nurse practitioner. Such disclosure may
 be included on a prescription pad or may be given in writing to the patient. 
 
 C. The nurse practitioner shall disclose, upon request of a patient
 or a patient's legal representative, the name of the patient care team
 physician and information regarding how to contact the patient care team
 physician. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R18-5352; Filed June 27, 2019, 11:57 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Proposed Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 18VAC115-20. Regulations
 Governing the Practice of Professional Counseling (amending 18VAC115-20-49).
 
 18VAC115-50. Regulations Governing the Practice of Marriage
 and Family Therapy (amending 18VAC115-50-50).
 
 18VAC115-60. Regulations Governing the Practice of Licensed
 Substance Abuse Treatment Practitioners (amending 18VAC115-60-60). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400, 54.1-3503, and 54.1-3506
 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information:
 
 August 16, 2019 - 9:05 a.m. - Department of Health
 Professions, 9960 Mayland Drive, 2nd Floor, Richmond, VA 23233.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: September 20, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
 of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
 (804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
 
 Basis: Regulations are promulgated under the authority
 of § 54.1-2400, which provides the Board of Counseling the authority to
 promulgate regulations to administer the regulatory system. Specific authority
 for regulation of the profession of counseling is found in § 54.1-3503 of the
 Code of Virginia, which requires that the Board of Counseling regulate the
 practice of counseling, substance abuse treatment, and marriage and family
 therapy and in § 54.1-3506, which provides that in order to engage in the
 practice of counseling or marriage and family therapy or in the independent
 practice of substance abuse treatment, as defined in the statute, it is
 necessary to hold a license.
 
 Purpose: The proposed regulatory action will allow
 persons who graduated from foreign educational programs in counseling to
 qualify for licensure by providing documentation from a credentialing service
 of the equivalency of the foreign education and experience to that required of
 applicants who trained in the United States. To the extent some applicants may
 be able to qualify for licensure, the public may benefit from an increased
 supply of mental health providers. Such credentialing services already evaluate
 the qualifications of other health and mental health providers, so there is
 assurance of minimal competency to practice counseling safely for the health
 and welfare of clients.
 
 Substance: 18VAC115-20-49 sets out the degree program
 requirements for licensure as a professional counselor, with which graduates of
 foreign programs cannot comply. 18VAC115-20-51 sets out the coursework
 requirements that must be met.  Foreign-trained graduates find it very
 difficult to meet those requirements because board staff does not have adequate
 information to review credentials from a foreign country. Consequently, the
 amendment would add language similar to psychology regulations, which provide
 that graduates of programs that are not within the United States or Canada can
 qualify for licensure if the graduates can provide documentation from an
 acceptable credential evaluation service that allows the board to determine if
 the program meets the requirements set forth in the regulation.
 
 There are similar provisions in 18VAC115-50-50 for marriage and
 family therapists and in 18VAC115-60-60 for substance abuse treatment
 practitioners.
 
 Issues: There are no advantages or disadvantages to the
 public; the amendments will benefit a small number of applicants who are now
 unable to be initially licensed in Virginia.
 
 There are no advantages or disadvantages to the agency or the
 Commonwealth, other than the amendment may facilitate licensure for a small number
 of counselors who can provide mental health services in the Commonwealth.
 
 Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
 Analysis:
 
 Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of
 Counseling (Board) proposes to establish a pathway for individuals who
 graduated from foreign schools to obtain licensure as a professional counselor,
 marriage and family therapist, or a substance abuse treatment practitioner.
 
 Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
 all proposed changes.
 
 Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, this regulation requires
 graduation from a college or university accredited by a regional accrediting
 agency. Since degree programs in foreign countries are not regionally
 accredited, there is no pathway in Virginia for individuals with degrees from
 countries other than the United States or Canada to be initially licensed as a
 professional counselor, marriage and family therapist, or a substance abuse
 treatment practitioner.1
 
 The Board proposes to allow foreign graduates to obtain
 licensure if they can provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information to enable the Board to determine
 equivalency of the foreign program. According to the Department of Health
 Professions (DHP), the Board accepts credentialing evaluations from more than
 one source. Such credentialing services already evaluate the qualifications of
 other health and mental health providers such as psychology. Psychology foreign
 graduates can get an evaluation for a fee of $85, which includes an analysis,
 equivalency, certification, notarization, and mailing to one address. For a fee
 of $149, a more detailed (e.g., course-by-course analysis, credit, GPA
 calculation, and courses studied in addition to the basic evaluation) is also
 offered. DHP believes the Board may find it necessary to require the more
 detailed evaluation and expects no more than 10 to 20 foreign-trained graduates
 to apply per year.
 
 The proposed amendments would benefit foreign-trained graduates
 who have an equivalent degree to those in the United States. This new pathway
 has the potential to add to the supply of professional counselors, marriage and
 family therapists, or substance abuse treatment practitioners. For a fee of
 $149, qualifying individuals would be able to obtain a license to practice as a
 professional mental health provider. In addition, this change would add
 slightly to the demand for services of the credential evaluation service
 businesses.
 
 Businesses and Entities Affected. DHP expects no more than 10
 to 20 foreign-trained graduates per year to apply under the proposed pathway to
 licensure. According to DHP, there are several credential evaluation service
 providers, all of which are likely small businesses.
 
 Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments would
 not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
 
 Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments would
 have a positive impact on the supply and employment of professional health care
 providers and demand for credential evaluation services.
 
 Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
 amendments should have a positive but likely small impact on the asset values
 of credential evaluation services.
 
 Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments would
 not affect real estate development costs.
 
 Small Businesses: 
 
 Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
 small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
 that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
 
 Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments would not
 impose costs on small businesses. However, small businesses that hire affected
 professions would benefit from increased supply of such professionals. The
 expected impact on demand for credential evaluation services is also positive.
 
 Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact
 
 The proposed amendments would not impose adverse impacts on
 small businesses.
 
 Adverse Impacts:
 
 Businesses. The proposed amendments would not impose adverse
 impacts on businesses.
 
 Localities. The proposed amendments would not adversely affect
 localities.
 
 Other Entities. The proposed amendments would not adversely
 affect other entities. 
 
 ______________________
 
 1If a foreign graduate is initially licensed in another
 state and has at least 24 out of the past 60 months of active clinical practice
 without discipline, he or she may qualify for licensure by endorsement in
 Virginia.
 
 Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
 of Counseling concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and
 Budget.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendments provide a pathway for a
 foreign-trained graduate in counseling to obtain licensure as a professional
 counselor, a marriage and family therapist, or a substance abuse treatment
 practitioner in the Commonwealth. The proposed amendments provide that
 graduates of programs that are not within the United States or Canada can
 qualify for licensure if the graduates can provide documentation from an
 acceptable credential evaluation service that allows the board to determine if
 the program meets the requirements set forth in the regulation.
 
 18VAC115-20-49. Degree program requirements. 
 
 A. The applicant shall have completed a graduate degree from
 a program that prepares individuals to practice counseling, as defined
 in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia, which is offered by a college or
 university accredited by a regional accrediting agency, and which
 meets the following criteria: 
 
 1. There must be a sequence of academic study with the
 expressed intent to prepare counselors as documented by the institution; 
 
 2. There must be an identifiable counselor training faculty
 and an identifiable body of students who complete that sequence of academic
 study; and 
 
 3. The academic unit must have clear authority and primary
 responsibility for the core and specialty areas. 
 
 B. Programs that are approved by CACREP or CORE are
 recognized as meeting the requirements of subsection A of this section. 
 
 C. Graduates of programs that are not within the United
 States or Canada shall provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information that allows the board to determine
 if the program meets the requirements set forth in this chapter.
 
 18VAC115-50-50. Degree program requirements. 
 
 A. The applicant shall have completed a graduate degree from
 a program that prepares individuals to practice marriage and family therapy as
 defined in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia from a college or
 university which that is accredited by a regional accrediting
 agency and which that meets the following criteria: 
 
 1. There must be a sequence of academic study with the
 expressed intent to prepare students to practice marriage and family therapy as
 documented by the institution; 
 
 2. There must be an identifiable marriage and family therapy
 training faculty and an identifiable body of students who complete that
 sequence of academic study; and 
 
 3. The academic unit must have clear authority and primary
 responsibility for the core and specialty areas. 
 
 B. Programs that are approved by CACREP as programs in
 marriage and family counseling/therapy counseling or therapy or
 by COAMFTE are recognized as meeting the requirements of subsection A of this
 section.
 
 C. Graduates of programs that are not within the United
 States or Canada shall provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information that allows the board to determine
 if the program meets the requirements set forth in this chapter.
 
 18VAC115-60-60. Degree program requirements. 
 
 A. The applicant shall have completed a graduate degree from
 a program that prepares individuals to practice substance abuse treatment or a
 related counseling discipline as defined in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia
 from a college or university accredited by a regional accrediting agency that
 meets the following criteria: 
 
 1. There must be a sequence of academic study with the
 expressed intent to prepare counselors as documented by the institution; 
 
 2. There must be an identifiable counselor training faculty
 and an identifiable body of students who complete that sequence of academic
 study; and 
 
 3. The academic unit must have clear authority and primary
 responsibility for the core and specialty areas. 
 
 B. Programs that are approved by CACREP as programs in
 addictions counseling are recognized as meeting the requirements of subsection
 A of this section.
 
 C. Graduates of programs that are not within the United
 States or Canada shall provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information that allows the board to determine
 if the program meets the requirements set forth in this chapter.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5643; Filed July 1, 2019, 8:09 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Proposed Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 18VAC115-20. Regulations
 Governing the Practice of Professional Counseling (amending 18VAC115-20-49).
 
 18VAC115-50. Regulations Governing the Practice of Marriage
 and Family Therapy (amending 18VAC115-50-50).
 
 18VAC115-60. Regulations Governing the Practice of Licensed
 Substance Abuse Treatment Practitioners (amending 18VAC115-60-60). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400, 54.1-3503, and 54.1-3506
 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information:
 
 August 16, 2019 - 9:05 a.m. - Department of Health
 Professions, 9960 Mayland Drive, 2nd Floor, Richmond, VA 23233.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: September 20, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
 of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
 (804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
 
 Basis: Regulations are promulgated under the authority
 of § 54.1-2400, which provides the Board of Counseling the authority to
 promulgate regulations to administer the regulatory system. Specific authority
 for regulation of the profession of counseling is found in § 54.1-3503 of the
 Code of Virginia, which requires that the Board of Counseling regulate the
 practice of counseling, substance abuse treatment, and marriage and family
 therapy and in § 54.1-3506, which provides that in order to engage in the
 practice of counseling or marriage and family therapy or in the independent
 practice of substance abuse treatment, as defined in the statute, it is
 necessary to hold a license.
 
 Purpose: The proposed regulatory action will allow
 persons who graduated from foreign educational programs in counseling to
 qualify for licensure by providing documentation from a credentialing service
 of the equivalency of the foreign education and experience to that required of
 applicants who trained in the United States. To the extent some applicants may
 be able to qualify for licensure, the public may benefit from an increased
 supply of mental health providers. Such credentialing services already evaluate
 the qualifications of other health and mental health providers, so there is
 assurance of minimal competency to practice counseling safely for the health
 and welfare of clients.
 
 Substance: 18VAC115-20-49 sets out the degree program
 requirements for licensure as a professional counselor, with which graduates of
 foreign programs cannot comply. 18VAC115-20-51 sets out the coursework
 requirements that must be met.  Foreign-trained graduates find it very
 difficult to meet those requirements because board staff does not have adequate
 information to review credentials from a foreign country. Consequently, the
 amendment would add language similar to psychology regulations, which provide
 that graduates of programs that are not within the United States or Canada can
 qualify for licensure if the graduates can provide documentation from an
 acceptable credential evaluation service that allows the board to determine if
 the program meets the requirements set forth in the regulation.
 
 There are similar provisions in 18VAC115-50-50 for marriage and
 family therapists and in 18VAC115-60-60 for substance abuse treatment
 practitioners.
 
 Issues: There are no advantages or disadvantages to the
 public; the amendments will benefit a small number of applicants who are now
 unable to be initially licensed in Virginia.
 
 There are no advantages or disadvantages to the agency or the
 Commonwealth, other than the amendment may facilitate licensure for a small number
 of counselors who can provide mental health services in the Commonwealth.
 
 Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
 Analysis:
 
 Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of
 Counseling (Board) proposes to establish a pathway for individuals who
 graduated from foreign schools to obtain licensure as a professional counselor,
 marriage and family therapist, or a substance abuse treatment practitioner.
 
 Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
 all proposed changes.
 
 Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, this regulation requires
 graduation from a college or university accredited by a regional accrediting
 agency. Since degree programs in foreign countries are not regionally
 accredited, there is no pathway in Virginia for individuals with degrees from
 countries other than the United States or Canada to be initially licensed as a
 professional counselor, marriage and family therapist, or a substance abuse
 treatment practitioner.1
 
 The Board proposes to allow foreign graduates to obtain
 licensure if they can provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information to enable the Board to determine
 equivalency of the foreign program. According to the Department of Health
 Professions (DHP), the Board accepts credentialing evaluations from more than
 one source. Such credentialing services already evaluate the qualifications of
 other health and mental health providers such as psychology. Psychology foreign
 graduates can get an evaluation for a fee of $85, which includes an analysis,
 equivalency, certification, notarization, and mailing to one address. For a fee
 of $149, a more detailed (e.g., course-by-course analysis, credit, GPA
 calculation, and courses studied in addition to the basic evaluation) is also
 offered. DHP believes the Board may find it necessary to require the more
 detailed evaluation and expects no more than 10 to 20 foreign-trained graduates
 to apply per year.
 
 The proposed amendments would benefit foreign-trained graduates
 who have an equivalent degree to those in the United States. This new pathway
 has the potential to add to the supply of professional counselors, marriage and
 family therapists, or substance abuse treatment practitioners. For a fee of
 $149, qualifying individuals would be able to obtain a license to practice as a
 professional mental health provider. In addition, this change would add
 slightly to the demand for services of the credential evaluation service
 businesses.
 
 Businesses and Entities Affected. DHP expects no more than 10
 to 20 foreign-trained graduates per year to apply under the proposed pathway to
 licensure. According to DHP, there are several credential evaluation service
 providers, all of which are likely small businesses.
 
 Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments would
 not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
 
 Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments would
 have a positive impact on the supply and employment of professional health care
 providers and demand for credential evaluation services.
 
 Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
 amendments should have a positive but likely small impact on the asset values
 of credential evaluation services.
 
 Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments would
 not affect real estate development costs.
 
 Small Businesses: 
 
 Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
 small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
 that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
 
 Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments would not
 impose costs on small businesses. However, small businesses that hire affected
 professions would benefit from increased supply of such professionals. The
 expected impact on demand for credential evaluation services is also positive.
 
 Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact
 
 The proposed amendments would not impose adverse impacts on
 small businesses.
 
 Adverse Impacts:
 
 Businesses. The proposed amendments would not impose adverse
 impacts on businesses.
 
 Localities. The proposed amendments would not adversely affect
 localities.
 
 Other Entities. The proposed amendments would not adversely
 affect other entities. 
 
 ______________________
 
 1If a foreign graduate is initially licensed in another
 state and has at least 24 out of the past 60 months of active clinical practice
 without discipline, he or she may qualify for licensure by endorsement in
 Virginia.
 
 Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
 of Counseling concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and
 Budget.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendments provide a pathway for a
 foreign-trained graduate in counseling to obtain licensure as a professional
 counselor, a marriage and family therapist, or a substance abuse treatment
 practitioner in the Commonwealth. The proposed amendments provide that
 graduates of programs that are not within the United States or Canada can
 qualify for licensure if the graduates can provide documentation from an
 acceptable credential evaluation service that allows the board to determine if
 the program meets the requirements set forth in the regulation.
 
 18VAC115-20-49. Degree program requirements. 
 
 A. The applicant shall have completed a graduate degree from
 a program that prepares individuals to practice counseling, as defined
 in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia, which is offered by a college or
 university accredited by a regional accrediting agency, and which
 meets the following criteria: 
 
 1. There must be a sequence of academic study with the
 expressed intent to prepare counselors as documented by the institution; 
 
 2. There must be an identifiable counselor training faculty
 and an identifiable body of students who complete that sequence of academic
 study; and 
 
 3. The academic unit must have clear authority and primary
 responsibility for the core and specialty areas. 
 
 B. Programs that are approved by CACREP or CORE are
 recognized as meeting the requirements of subsection A of this section. 
 
 C. Graduates of programs that are not within the United
 States or Canada shall provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information that allows the board to determine
 if the program meets the requirements set forth in this chapter.
 
 18VAC115-50-50. Degree program requirements. 
 
 A. The applicant shall have completed a graduate degree from
 a program that prepares individuals to practice marriage and family therapy as
 defined in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia from a college or
 university which that is accredited by a regional accrediting
 agency and which that meets the following criteria: 
 
 1. There must be a sequence of academic study with the
 expressed intent to prepare students to practice marriage and family therapy as
 documented by the institution; 
 
 2. There must be an identifiable marriage and family therapy
 training faculty and an identifiable body of students who complete that
 sequence of academic study; and 
 
 3. The academic unit must have clear authority and primary
 responsibility for the core and specialty areas. 
 
 B. Programs that are approved by CACREP as programs in
 marriage and family counseling/therapy counseling or therapy or
 by COAMFTE are recognized as meeting the requirements of subsection A of this
 section.
 
 C. Graduates of programs that are not within the United
 States or Canada shall provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information that allows the board to determine
 if the program meets the requirements set forth in this chapter.
 
 18VAC115-60-60. Degree program requirements. 
 
 A. The applicant shall have completed a graduate degree from
 a program that prepares individuals to practice substance abuse treatment or a
 related counseling discipline as defined in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia
 from a college or university accredited by a regional accrediting agency that
 meets the following criteria: 
 
 1. There must be a sequence of academic study with the
 expressed intent to prepare counselors as documented by the institution; 
 
 2. There must be an identifiable counselor training faculty
 and an identifiable body of students who complete that sequence of academic
 study; and 
 
 3. The academic unit must have clear authority and primary
 responsibility for the core and specialty areas. 
 
 B. Programs that are approved by CACREP as programs in
 addictions counseling are recognized as meeting the requirements of subsection
 A of this section.
 
 C. Graduates of programs that are not within the United
 States or Canada shall provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information that allows the board to determine
 if the program meets the requirements set forth in this chapter.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5643; Filed July 1, 2019, 8:09 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Fast-Track Regulation
 
 Title of Regulation: 18VAC115-50. Regulations
 Governing the Practice of Marriage and Family Therapy (amending 18VAC115-50-60). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3506 of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
 scheduled. 
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 21, 2019.
 
 Effective Date: September 6, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
 of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
 (804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
 
 Basis: Regulations are promulgated under the general authority
 of § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia, which provides the Board of
 Counseling the authority to promulgate regulations to administer the regulatory
 system.
 
 Specific authority for regulation of the profession of
 counseling is found in §§ 54.1-3503 and 54.1-3506 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 Purpose: The proposed regulatory action will allow
 persons who have obtained a doctoral degree in counseling to become licensed
 with a smaller number of postgraduate hours in a supervised residency. The
 proposal accelerates the licensure process for those candidates and allows them
 to provide counseling services in independent practice more quickly. Since the
 practicum and internship hours are within a Commission on Accreditation for
 Marriage and Family Education (COAMFTE) or Council for Accreditation of
 Counseling and Related Educational Programs (CACREP) program and under the
 supervision of credentialed faculty, the board is assured of appropriate
 oversight to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public.
 
 Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: In
 response to a petition for rulemaking, the board has adopted the amendment by
 fast-track rulemaking process because a similar change at the final stage of
 adoption requested for persons in residencies for professional counseling was
 fully supported by public comment.
 
 Substance: An amendment to section 18VAC115-50-60 allows
 the acceptance of supervised internship or practicum hours of up to 900 direct
 or indirect hours and up to 100 supervision hours to residency requirements if
 (i) the hours are obtained in a COAMFTE or CACREP accredited doctoral program
 and (ii) the supervisor has an active professional counselor license.
 
 Issues: The primary advantage of the amendment to the
 public is the ability of a supervisee with a doctoral degree to qualify for
 licensure with fewer hours in a residency. There are no disadvantages to the
 public. There are no advantages or disadvantages to the Commonwealth.
 
 Department of Planning and
 Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
 
 Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. In response
 to a 2017 petition for rulemaking,1 the Board of Counseling (Board)
 proposes to accept supervised practicum and internship hours in a Commission on
 Accreditation for Marriage and Family Education (COAMFTE) or Council for
 Accreditation of Counseling and Related Educational Programs (CACREP)
 accredited doctoral program to count as required hours for a residency in
 marriage and family therapy.
 
 Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
 all proposed changes.
 
 Estimated Economic Impact. An individual must complete a total
 of 3,400 hours in a supervised residency prior to becoming licensed as a
 professional marriage and family therapist. The residency must include a
 minimum of 200 hours of in-person supervision between the supervisor and the
 resident in the consultation and review of marriage and family therapy services
 provided by the resident.
 
 The Board proposes to amend 18VAC115-50 to allow up to 900
 hours of the residency requirement and up to 100 of the required hours of
 in-person supervision to be satisfied by supervised practicum and internship
 hours in a COAMFTE or CACREP-accredited doctoral
 marriage and family therapy program. Assuming a workweek is 40 hours, the
 Board's proposal to accept up to 900 hours for the residency requirement could
 allow the fulfillment of the residency requirement to be completed by up to
 22.5 weeks sooner.2 This would be beneficial for individuals who
 have obtained such supervised practicum and internship hours in a COAMFTE or
 CACREP-accredited doctoral counseling program in that they may start practicing
 as a fully licensed professional marriage and family therapist sooner, and
 commensurately earn greater income. Given that the Board does not believe this proposal
 would permit unqualified individuals to become licensed, the proposal likely
 produces a net benefit.
 
 Businesses and Entities Affected. There are one COAMFTE and
 four CACREP-accredited doctoral programs in the Commonwealth. However,
 currently only one of them (Virginia Tech) has a focus on marriage and family
 therapy. Students at that institution would also be affected.
 
 Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do
 not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
 
 Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not
 significantly affect total employment. The proposals would allow some
 individuals to become employed as a fully licensed marriage and family
 therapist sooner.
 
 Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
 amendments do not affect the use and value of private property.
 
 Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not
 affect real estate development costs.
 
 Small Businesses: 
 
 Definition. Pursuant to §
 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia, small business is defined as "a
 business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and
 operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross
 annual sales of less than $6 million."
 
 Costs and Other Effects. The proposed
 amendments do not significantly affect costs for small businesses.
 
 Alternative Method that Minimizes
 Adverse Impact. The proposed amendments do not adversely affect small
 businesses.
 
 Adverse Impacts:
 
 Businesses. The proposed
 amendments do not adversely affect businesses.
 
 Localities. The proposed
 amendments do not adversely affect localities.
 
 Other Entities. The proposed
 amendments do not adversely affect other entities.
 
 ______________________________
 
 1See https://townhall.virginia.gov/l/viewpetition.cfm?petitionid=286
 
 2900/40 = 22.5
 
 Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
 of Counseling concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and
 Budget.
 
 Summary: 
 
 The amendment recognizes hours acquired in an internship or
 practicum in doctoral programs accredited by Commission on Accreditation for
 Marriage and Family Education or Council for Accreditation of Counseling and
 Related Educational Programs as meeting a portion of the hours of supervised
 residency required for licensure.
 
 18VAC115-50-60. Residency requirements.
 
 A. Registration. Applicants who render marriage and family
 therapy services shall: 
 
 1. With their supervisor, register their supervisory contract
 on the appropriate forms for board approval before starting to practice under
 supervision; 
 
 2. Have submitted an official transcript documenting a
 graduate degree as specified in 18VAC115-50-50 to include completion of the
 coursework and internship requirement specified in 18VAC115-50-55; and 
 
 3. Pay the registration fee. 
 
 B. Residency requirements. 
 
 1. The applicant shall have completed no fewer than 3,400
 hours of supervised residency in the role of a marriage and family therapist,
 to include 200 hours of in-person supervision with the supervisor in the
 consultation and review of marriage and family services provided by the
 resident. For the purpose of meeting the 200 hours of supervision required for
 a residency, in-person may also include the use of technology that maintains
 client confidentiality and provides real-time, visual contact between the
 supervisor and the resident. At least one-half of the 200 hours of supervision
 shall be rendered by a licensed marriage and family therapist.
 
 a. Residents shall receive a minimum of one hour and a maximum
 of four hours of supervision for every 40 hours of supervised work experience. 
 
 b. No more than 100 hours of the supervision may be acquired
 through group supervision, with the group consisting of no more than six
 residents. One hour of group supervision will be deemed equivalent to one hour
 of individual supervision. 
 
 c. Up to 20 hours of the supervision received during the
 supervised internship may be counted towards the 200 hours of in-person
 supervision if the supervision was provided by a licensed marriage and family
 therapist or a licensed professional counselor. 
 
 2. The residency shall include documentation of at least 2,000
 hours in clinical marriage and family services of which 1,000 hours shall be
 face-to-face client contact with couples or families or both. The remaining
 hours may be spent in the performance of ancillary counseling services. For
 applicants who hold current, unrestricted licensure as a professional
 counselor, clinical psychologist, or clinical social worker, the remaining
 hours may be waived.
 
 3. The residency shall consist of practice in the core areas
 set forth in 18VAC115-50-55. 
 
 4. The residency shall begin after the completion of a
 master's degree in marriage and family therapy or a related discipline as set
 forth in 18VAC115-50-50. 
 
 5. A graduate-level internship in excess of 600 hours, which
 was completed in a program that meets the requirements set forth in
 18VAC115-50-50, may count for up to an additional 300 hours towards the
 requirements of a residency. 
 
 6. Supervised practicum and internship hours in a
 COAMFTE-accredited or a CACREP-accredited doctoral program in marriage and
 family therapy or counseling may be accepted for up to 900 hours of the
 residency requirement and up to 100 of the required hours of supervision
 provided the supervisor holds a current, unrestricted license as a marriage and
 family therapist or professional counselor. 
 
 6. 7. The board may consider special requests in
 the event that the regulations create an undue burden in regard to geography or
 disability which limits the resident's access to qualified supervision. 
 
 7. 8. Residents shall not call themselves
 marriage and family therapists, directly bill for services rendered, or in any
 way represent themselves as marriage and family therapists. During the
 residency, they residents may use their names, the initials of
 their degree, and the title "Resident in Marriage and Family
 Therapy." Clients shall be informed in writing of the resident's status,
 along with the name, address, and telephone number of the resident's
 supervisor. 
 
 8. 9. Residents shall not engage in practice
 under supervision in any areas for which they do not have appropriate
 education. 
 
 9. 10. The residency shall be completed in not
 less than 21 months or more than four years. Residents who began a residency
 before August 24, 2016, shall complete the residency by August 24, 2020. An
 individual who does not complete the residency after four years shall submit
 evidence to the board showing why the supervised experience should be allowed
 to continue.
 
 10. 11. Residency hours that are approved by the
 licensing board in another United States jurisdiction and that meet the
 requirements of this section shall be accepted.
 
 C. Supervisory qualifications. A person who provides
 supervision for a resident in marriage and family therapy shall:
 
 1. Hold an active, unrestricted license as a marriage and
 family therapist or professional counselor in the jurisdiction where the
 supervision is being provided;
 
 2. Document two years post-licensure marriage and family
 therapy experience; and
 
 3. Have received professional training in supervision,
 consisting of three credit hours or 4.0 quarter hours in graduate-level
 coursework in supervision or at least 20 hours of continuing education in
 supervision offered by a provider approved under 18VAC115-50-96. At least
 one-half of the 200 hours of supervision shall be rendered by a licensed
 marriage and family therapist. Supervisors who are clinical psychologists,
 clinical social workers, or psychiatrists and have been approved to provide
 supervision may continue to do so until August 24, 2017. 
 
 D. Supervisory responsibilities.
 
 1. The supervisor shall complete evaluation forms to be given
 to the resident at the end of each three-month period. The supervisor shall
 report the total hours of residency and evaluate the applicant's competency to
 the board. 
 
 2. Supervision by an individual whose relationship to the
 resident is deemed by the board to compromise the objectivity of the supervisor
 is prohibited. 
 
 3. The supervisor shall provide supervision as defined in
 18VAC115-50-10 and shall assume full responsibility for the clinical activities
 of residents as specified within the supervisory contract, for the duration of
 the residency.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-17; Filed July 1, 2019, 8:10 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Proposed Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 18VAC115-20. Regulations
 Governing the Practice of Professional Counseling (amending 18VAC115-20-49).
 
 18VAC115-50. Regulations Governing the Practice of Marriage
 and Family Therapy (amending 18VAC115-50-50).
 
 18VAC115-60. Regulations Governing the Practice of Licensed
 Substance Abuse Treatment Practitioners (amending 18VAC115-60-60). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400, 54.1-3503, and 54.1-3506
 of the Code of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information:
 
 August 16, 2019 - 9:05 a.m. - Department of Health
 Professions, 9960 Mayland Drive, 2nd Floor, Richmond, VA 23233.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: September 20, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
 of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
 (804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
 
 Basis: Regulations are promulgated under the authority
 of § 54.1-2400, which provides the Board of Counseling the authority to
 promulgate regulations to administer the regulatory system. Specific authority
 for regulation of the profession of counseling is found in § 54.1-3503 of the
 Code of Virginia, which requires that the Board of Counseling regulate the
 practice of counseling, substance abuse treatment, and marriage and family
 therapy and in § 54.1-3506, which provides that in order to engage in the
 practice of counseling or marriage and family therapy or in the independent
 practice of substance abuse treatment, as defined in the statute, it is
 necessary to hold a license.
 
 Purpose: The proposed regulatory action will allow
 persons who graduated from foreign educational programs in counseling to
 qualify for licensure by providing documentation from a credentialing service
 of the equivalency of the foreign education and experience to that required of
 applicants who trained in the United States. To the extent some applicants may
 be able to qualify for licensure, the public may benefit from an increased
 supply of mental health providers. Such credentialing services already evaluate
 the qualifications of other health and mental health providers, so there is
 assurance of minimal competency to practice counseling safely for the health
 and welfare of clients.
 
 Substance: 18VAC115-20-49 sets out the degree program
 requirements for licensure as a professional counselor, with which graduates of
 foreign programs cannot comply. 18VAC115-20-51 sets out the coursework
 requirements that must be met.  Foreign-trained graduates find it very
 difficult to meet those requirements because board staff does not have adequate
 information to review credentials from a foreign country. Consequently, the
 amendment would add language similar to psychology regulations, which provide
 that graduates of programs that are not within the United States or Canada can
 qualify for licensure if the graduates can provide documentation from an
 acceptable credential evaluation service that allows the board to determine if
 the program meets the requirements set forth in the regulation.
 
 There are similar provisions in 18VAC115-50-50 for marriage and
 family therapists and in 18VAC115-60-60 for substance abuse treatment
 practitioners.
 
 Issues: There are no advantages or disadvantages to the
 public; the amendments will benefit a small number of applicants who are now
 unable to be initially licensed in Virginia.
 
 There are no advantages or disadvantages to the agency or the
 Commonwealth, other than the amendment may facilitate licensure for a small number
 of counselors who can provide mental health services in the Commonwealth.
 
 Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
 Analysis:
 
 Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of
 Counseling (Board) proposes to establish a pathway for individuals who
 graduated from foreign schools to obtain licensure as a professional counselor,
 marriage and family therapist, or a substance abuse treatment practitioner.
 
 Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
 all proposed changes.
 
 Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, this regulation requires
 graduation from a college or university accredited by a regional accrediting
 agency. Since degree programs in foreign countries are not regionally
 accredited, there is no pathway in Virginia for individuals with degrees from
 countries other than the United States or Canada to be initially licensed as a
 professional counselor, marriage and family therapist, or a substance abuse
 treatment practitioner.1
 
 The Board proposes to allow foreign graduates to obtain
 licensure if they can provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information to enable the Board to determine
 equivalency of the foreign program. According to the Department of Health
 Professions (DHP), the Board accepts credentialing evaluations from more than
 one source. Such credentialing services already evaluate the qualifications of
 other health and mental health providers such as psychology. Psychology foreign
 graduates can get an evaluation for a fee of $85, which includes an analysis,
 equivalency, certification, notarization, and mailing to one address. For a fee
 of $149, a more detailed (e.g., course-by-course analysis, credit, GPA
 calculation, and courses studied in addition to the basic evaluation) is also
 offered. DHP believes the Board may find it necessary to require the more
 detailed evaluation and expects no more than 10 to 20 foreign-trained graduates
 to apply per year.
 
 The proposed amendments would benefit foreign-trained graduates
 who have an equivalent degree to those in the United States. This new pathway
 has the potential to add to the supply of professional counselors, marriage and
 family therapists, or substance abuse treatment practitioners. For a fee of
 $149, qualifying individuals would be able to obtain a license to practice as a
 professional mental health provider. In addition, this change would add
 slightly to the demand for services of the credential evaluation service
 businesses.
 
 Businesses and Entities Affected. DHP expects no more than 10
 to 20 foreign-trained graduates per year to apply under the proposed pathway to
 licensure. According to DHP, there are several credential evaluation service
 providers, all of which are likely small businesses.
 
 Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments would
 not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
 
 Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments would
 have a positive impact on the supply and employment of professional health care
 providers and demand for credential evaluation services.
 
 Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
 amendments should have a positive but likely small impact on the asset values
 of credential evaluation services.
 
 Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments would
 not affect real estate development costs.
 
 Small Businesses: 
 
 Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
 small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
 that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
 
 Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments would not
 impose costs on small businesses. However, small businesses that hire affected
 professions would benefit from increased supply of such professionals. The
 expected impact on demand for credential evaluation services is also positive.
 
 Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact
 
 The proposed amendments would not impose adverse impacts on
 small businesses.
 
 Adverse Impacts:
 
 Businesses. The proposed amendments would not impose adverse
 impacts on businesses.
 
 Localities. The proposed amendments would not adversely affect
 localities.
 
 Other Entities. The proposed amendments would not adversely
 affect other entities. 
 
 ______________________
 
 1If a foreign graduate is initially licensed in another
 state and has at least 24 out of the past 60 months of active clinical practice
 without discipline, he or she may qualify for licensure by endorsement in
 Virginia.
 
 Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
 of Counseling concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and
 Budget.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendments provide a pathway for a
 foreign-trained graduate in counseling to obtain licensure as a professional
 counselor, a marriage and family therapist, or a substance abuse treatment
 practitioner in the Commonwealth. The proposed amendments provide that
 graduates of programs that are not within the United States or Canada can
 qualify for licensure if the graduates can provide documentation from an
 acceptable credential evaluation service that allows the board to determine if
 the program meets the requirements set forth in the regulation.
 
 18VAC115-20-49. Degree program requirements. 
 
 A. The applicant shall have completed a graduate degree from
 a program that prepares individuals to practice counseling, as defined
 in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia, which is offered by a college or
 university accredited by a regional accrediting agency, and which
 meets the following criteria: 
 
 1. There must be a sequence of academic study with the
 expressed intent to prepare counselors as documented by the institution; 
 
 2. There must be an identifiable counselor training faculty
 and an identifiable body of students who complete that sequence of academic
 study; and 
 
 3. The academic unit must have clear authority and primary
 responsibility for the core and specialty areas. 
 
 B. Programs that are approved by CACREP or CORE are
 recognized as meeting the requirements of subsection A of this section. 
 
 C. Graduates of programs that are not within the United
 States or Canada shall provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information that allows the board to determine
 if the program meets the requirements set forth in this chapter.
 
 18VAC115-50-50. Degree program requirements. 
 
 A. The applicant shall have completed a graduate degree from
 a program that prepares individuals to practice marriage and family therapy as
 defined in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia from a college or
 university which that is accredited by a regional accrediting
 agency and which that meets the following criteria: 
 
 1. There must be a sequence of academic study with the
 expressed intent to prepare students to practice marriage and family therapy as
 documented by the institution; 
 
 2. There must be an identifiable marriage and family therapy
 training faculty and an identifiable body of students who complete that
 sequence of academic study; and 
 
 3. The academic unit must have clear authority and primary
 responsibility for the core and specialty areas. 
 
 B. Programs that are approved by CACREP as programs in
 marriage and family counseling/therapy counseling or therapy or
 by COAMFTE are recognized as meeting the requirements of subsection A of this
 section.
 
 C. Graduates of programs that are not within the United
 States or Canada shall provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information that allows the board to determine
 if the program meets the requirements set forth in this chapter.
 
 18VAC115-60-60. Degree program requirements. 
 
 A. The applicant shall have completed a graduate degree from
 a program that prepares individuals to practice substance abuse treatment or a
 related counseling discipline as defined in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia
 from a college or university accredited by a regional accrediting agency that
 meets the following criteria: 
 
 1. There must be a sequence of academic study with the
 expressed intent to prepare counselors as documented by the institution; 
 
 2. There must be an identifiable counselor training faculty
 and an identifiable body of students who complete that sequence of academic
 study; and 
 
 3. The academic unit must have clear authority and primary
 responsibility for the core and specialty areas. 
 
 B. Programs that are approved by CACREP as programs in
 addictions counseling are recognized as meeting the requirements of subsection
 A of this section.
 
 C. Graduates of programs that are not within the United
 States or Canada shall provide documentation from an acceptable credential
 evaluation service that provides information that allows the board to determine
 if the program meets the requirements set forth in this chapter.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5643; Filed July 1, 2019, 8:09 p.m. 
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Proposed Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 21VAC5-20. Broker-Dealers,
 Broker-Dealer Agents and Agents of the Issuer (amending 21VAC5-20-280).
 
 21VAC5-30. Securities Registration (amending 21VAC5-30-80).
 
 21VAC5-45. Federal Covered Securities (amending 21VAC5-45-20).
 
 21VAC5-80. Investment Advisors (amending 21VAC5-80-10, 21VAC5-80-160, 21VAC5-80-200; adding
 21VAC5-80-260). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 13.1-523 of the Code
 of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information: Public hearing available
 upon request.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 9, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Hazel Stewart, Manager, Securities
 Retail Franchising, State Corporation Commission, Tyler Building, 9th Floor,
 P.O. Box 1197, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9685, FAX (804)
 371-9911, or email hazel.stewart@scc.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-20 (i) allow
 broker-dealers to delay or refuse transactions and disbursements of funds from
 the accounts of vulnerable adults where the financial institution suspects
 financial exploitation and (ii) update three documents incorporated by
 reference that pertain to continuing education adopted by federal
 self-regulatory organizations. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-30 (i) update a number of
 the statements of policy that apply to the registration of securities,
 including underwriting expenses, unsound financial condition, corporate
 securities definitions, and loans and other material transactions and (iii)
 incorporate by reference all statements of policy previously adopted by the
 State Corporation Commission. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-45 remove the date of
 adoption of Form D, which is the filing form for notices under federal Rule 506
 of Regulation D. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-80 (i) allow investment
 advisors to delay or refuse to place orders or disburse funds that may involve
 or result in financial exploitation of an individual; (ii) prohibit mandatory
 arbitration clauses in investment advisory contracts; (iii) based on the North
 American Securities Administrators Association May 18, 2019 Model Rule, add a
 new section that establishes the minimum policies and procedures to protect
 client information and privacy, including both physical and cybersecurity
 measures; (iv) add these information and cybersecurity policy and procedures to
 the list of required documents to be filed by investment advisor applicants and
 to the list of required records for investment advisors; (v) conform the
 regulation to the new model rule and remove the reference to the Securities and
 Exchange Commission and self-regulatory organizations; and (vi) make it a
 dishonest or unethical practice for an investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative to fail to report unauthorized access to a client's information
 to the commission and client within three business days of discovery. 
 
 AT RICHMOND, JUNE 27, 2019
 
 COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
 
 STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
 
 CASE NO. SEC-2019-00024
 
 Ex Parte: In the matter of
 Adopting a Revision to the Rules
 Governing the Virginia Securities Act
 
 ORDER TO TAKE NOTICE
 
 Section 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia ("Code")
 provides that the State Corporation Commission ("Commission") shall
 have the power to promulgate rules and regulations in the enforcement and
 administration of all laws within its jurisdiction. Section 13.1-523 of the Virginia
 Securities Act ("Act"), § 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code provides that
 the Commission may issue any rules and regulations necessary or appropriate for
 the administration and enforcement of the Act.
 
 The rules and regulations issued by the Commission pursuant
 to the Act are set forth in Title 21 of the Virginia Administrative Code. A
 copy also may be found at the Commission’s website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
 
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 20. Broker-Dealers, Broker-Dealer
 Agents and Agents of the Issuer. Prohibited Business Conduct
 
 Under certain provisions of Chapter 20, a broker-dealer is
 required to make securities trades and disburse funds from customer accounts
 within a prescribed period of time. The proposed amendment to Chapter 20
 provides for an exception to these provisions to allow broker-dealers to
 protect vulnerable customers from potential financial exploitation by
 permitting the broker-dealer to delay or refuse such transactions and
 disbursements.
 
 Financial exploitation is the fastest growing category of
 elder abuse in many states. It is estimated that one in every five older adults
 have been victimized by financial fraud. These frauds can be perpetrated by
 strangers, con artists, or even family members and caregivers in whom these
 adults place their trust. During the 2019 General Assembly, the legislature
 addressed the growing issue of financial exploitation of vulnerable adults by
 passing a new subsection L to § 63.2-1606 of the Code for the Protection
 of Aged or Incapacitated Adults.
 
 This new subsection allows financial institutions to delay
 transactions and refuse disbursements from the accounts of vulnerable adults
 where the financial institution suspects financial exploitation. With this new
 subsection a broker-dealer’s staff can report any information or records to the
 appropriate authorities if the staff has a good faith belief that the
 transaction or disbursement may involve financial exploitation of such adults.
 If the broker-dealer staff follows the requirements of the new subsection, they
 will be immune from civil or criminal liability, absent gross negligence or
 willful misconduct. 
 
 To effectuate the new statute subsection, the Division of
 Securities and Retail Franchising ("Division") proposes to add a
 subsection E to Commission Rule 21 VAC 5-20-280. The new subsection would allow
 a broker-dealer to delay distributions or refuse transactions if the
 broker-dealer complies with § 63.2-1606 L of the Code.
 
 In addition, Documents Incorporated by Reference in Chapter
 21 VAC 5-20-280 contain revisions to certain rules pertaining to continuing
 education adopted by federal self-regulatory organizations, including rule
 revisions for: (1) one revised effective October 1, 2018, by the Financial
 Industry Regulatory Authority ("FINRA"); (2) one revised effective
 October 1, 2018. by the New York Stock Exchange (superseded by new FINRA rule);
 and (3) one revised by the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 80. Investment Advisors.
 
 A. Dishonest or Unethical Practices.
 
 I. Proposed New Subsection E. Just as with the
 broker-dealers, the new legislation protecting vulnerable adults from financial
 exploitation, the Division proposes that new § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code apply to the practices of investment advisors. Investment advisors are
 charged with acting in the best interests of their clients and should do all
 they can to protect them from financial exploitation. The Division proposes to
 add a subsection under the Dishonest or Unethical Practices of Chapter 80 to
 the provide investment advisors the same relief under § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code as the Division proposes for broker-dealers.
 
 II. Proposed New Subsection F. Over twenty years ago,
 investors had a choice of investing with a firm that required arbitration or
 one that recognized a judicial forum for disputes. Today, almost all financial
 services contracts offered by broker-dealers includes a mandatory predispute
 arbitration provision that forces public investors to submit all disputes that
 they may have to mandatory arbitration. Many investors are not aware of this
 provision, nor do they have a choice, as all disputes are conducted through a
 single securities arbitration forum maintained by the securities industry.
 
 In 1996, the United States ("U.S.") Congress
 ("Congress") passed legislation entitled the National Securities
 Markets Improvement Act ("NSMIA").1 NSMIA effectively
 divided the regulation of investment advisors between the U.S. Securities and
 Exchange Commission ("SEC") and the states. In general, primary
 jurisdiction of investment advisors (known as state-covered advisors) with less
 than $100 million in assets under management fall under state regulation. 
 
 However, the state-covered investment advisors are now
 including boilerplate mandatory arbitration provisions in their clients'
 contracts. The Division believes, as do many other states, that these
 "take-it-or-leave-it" clauses in client contracts is inherently
 unfair to investors. It is particularly unfair when an investment advisor is
 required by law to act in the best interests of their clients. An investment
 advisor should not be allowed to force clients to bring any disputes to a forum
 of the investment advisor's choosing by contract.
 
 Therefore, the Division proposes to add a new subsection F to
 the Dishonest or Unethical Practices section of Chapter 80 to prohibit
 mandatory arbitration clauses in investment advisory contracts. There is
 nothing to prevent the investment advisor and their client from agreeing to
 arbitrated disputes after negotiation and discussion between each. To require
 mandatory arbitration in standard investment advisor contracts is contrary to
 the investment advisors mandate to act in the best interest of their clients.
 
 B. Proposed Investment Advisor Information Security and Privacy
 Rule. 
 
 In recent years, both state and federal regulators have been
 concerned about data privacy and security in the financial markets. By a vote
 of its members on May 18, 2019, the North American Securities Administrators
 Association ("NASAA"),2 adopted a model rule to address
 the basic structure for how state-registered investment advisors may design
 their information security policies and procedures. The new Model Rule requires
 investment advisors to adopt policies and procedures regarding information
 security and to deliver its privacy policy annually to clients. The Model Rule
 was adopted to create uniformity in both state regulation and state-registered
 investment advisors.
 
 I. Proposed New Section 260. Information Security and Privacy.
 This new section will be added to the rules for investment advisors to
 establish the minimum policies and procedures to protect client information and
 provide information privacy. The current Commission rules require the delivery
 of the investment advisor's privacy policy on a yearly basis, but the proposed
 new rule would further refine that requirement. In addition, the model rule
 adds the new requirements for client information security.
 
 II. Proposed Amendments to Section 10. Application for Registration
 as an Investment Advisor and Notice Filing as a Federal Covered Advisor. The
 proposed amendments add the information and cyber security policy and
 procedures to the list of required documents to be filed by investment advisor
 applicants. In addition, the proposed amendment requires the investment advisor
 to file a copy of their privacy policy, as required for the proposed new rule.
 
 III. Proposed Amendment to Section 160 A. Recordkeeping
 Requirements for Investment Advisors. Under section 160, investment advisors
 are required to keep certain records. These records are used by the Division
 staff to determine compliance with the securities laws and regulations. This
 amendment will add a new subsection 25 which will add the requirement that
 investment advisors keep a copy of the policies and procedures required by the
 proposed new section 260.
 
 IV. Proposed Amendments to Section 200. Dishonest or
 Unethical Practices
 
 (a) Prohibited conduct regarding privacy of information.
 Currently, subsection 14 of 200 A requires investment advisors to protect their
 client’s information and makes it a violation for the investment advisor to
 fail to comply with any applicable privacy provision or standard promulgated by
 the SEC or any self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC. Now that the
 NASAA membership has adopted similar requirements in the Model Rule, the
 Division proposes to amend this section to conform it to the new Model Rule.
 The proposed amendment removes the reference to the SEC and self-regulatory
 organizations since the state-covered advisors will be governed by the
 new section 260, if adopted.
 
 (b) Prohibited conduct regarding an investment advisor's
 failure to report an unauthorized access of a client's information to the
 Division and the client. The consequences of unauthorized access to a client's
 information could be devastating to the client. To address that, the Division
 proposes a new subsection G to section 200. The proposed new subsection makes
 it a dishonest or unethical practice for an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative to fail to report such unauthorized access to the
 Division and the client within three business days of discovery. If properly
 reported, the Division can work with the investment advisor and investment advisor
 representative to take the appropriate measures to limit the damage and prevent
 further unauthorized access.
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 30. Adoption of NASAA.
 Statements of Policy.
 
 The Division is a member of NASAA, the association of state
 securities regulatory agencies. As a part of its mission to provide a uniform
 approach to the state regulation of securities, the Division, along with the
 member states, develops and adopts statements of policy that apply to the
 registration of securities. From time-to-time, NASAA amends these statements of
 policy to keep them current and address changes in the types of products
 offered by industry members, as well the changing norms for the standards that
 will apply to those registrations.
 
 The proposed amendment updates a number of these statements
 of policy, including (1) underwriting expenses; (2) unsound financial
 condition; (3) corporate securities definitions; and (4) loans and other
 material transactions. NASAA vetted the proposed amendments by providing public
 notice and opportunity to comment. Following the expiration of the comment
 period, the revisions were adopted in May of 2018 by a vote of the NASAA
 members.
 
 In addition, Documents Incorporated by Reference in Chapter
 21 VAC5-30, will be updated to include all Statements of Policy previously
 adopted by the Commission in Section 8.
 
 Proposed Revisions to Chapter 45. Offerings conducted
 pursuant to Rule 506 of Regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): Filing Requirements and
 issuer-agent exemption.
 
 Many securities offerings today are made through a federal
 exemption known as Rule 506, which allows an issuer of securities who meets the
 requirements of the exemption to offer and sell securities in every state
 without registration. As a part of the adoption of this federal regulation,
 Congress provided a means for states to monitor these offerings in their state
 by allowing the states to accept notice filings made under the federal
 regulation.
 
 To make such notices uniform among the states, the Division
 adopted this rule to provide for the notice filing through the use of the
 filing form developed by the SEC, known as Form D.  Over the years since
 Form D was adopted, the SEC has amended the form.  In order to make it
 easier to keep up with the changes to Form D, and to allow the securities
 industry to use the appropriate form, the Division proposes to drop the date of
 adoption of Form D from the body of the regulation and instead update its form
 list (attached hereto to this Order), as necessary.
 
 The Division recommended to the Commission that the proposed
 revisions should be considered for adoption. The Division also has recommended
 to the Commission that a hearing should be held only if requested by those
 interested parties who specifically indicate that a hearing is necessary and
 the reasons therefore.
 
 A copy of the proposed revisions may be requested by
 interested parties from the Division by telephone, mail, or e-mail request and
 also can be found at the Division's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/division/srf. Any comments to the
 proposed rules must be received by August 9, 2019. 
 
 Accordingly, IT IS THEREFORE ORDERED THAT:
 
 (1) The proposed revisions are appended hereto and made a
 part of the record herein.
 
 (2) On or before August 9, 2019, comments or request for
 hearing on the proposed revisions must be submitted in writing to Joel H. Peck,
 Clerk of the Commission, c/o Document Control Center, P.O. Box 2118, Richmond,
 Virginia 23218. A request for hearing shall state why a hearing is necessary
 and why the issues cannot be adequately addressed in written comments. All
 correspondence shall contain reference to Case No. SEC-2019-00024. Interested
 persons desiring to submit comments electronically may do so by following the
 instructions available at the Commission's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
 
 (3) The proposed revisions shall be posted on the
 Commission's website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case and on
 the Division’s website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/srf.
 Interested persons also may request a copy of the proposed revisions from the
 Division by telephone, mail or e-mail.
 
 AN ATTESTED COPY HEREOF, together with a copy of the proposed
 revisions, shall be sent to the Registrar of Regulations for publication in the
 Virginia Register of Regulations.
 
 AN ATTESTED COPY HEREOF shall be sent to the Director of the
 Division of Securities and Retail Franchising who shall forthwith mail a copy
 of this Order to any interested persons as he may designate.
 
 _________________________________
 
 1Pub.L. No. 104-290, 110 Stat. 3415 (codified
 through various parts of 15 USC 2006).
 
 2NASAA is the membership organization of state
 securities regulators.
 
 21VAC5-20-280. Prohibited business conduct.
 
 A. Every broker-dealer is required to observe high standards
 of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct
 of its business. The acts and practices described in this subsection are
 considered contrary to such standards and may constitute grounds for denial,
 suspension, or revocation of registration or such other action authorized by
 the Act. No broker-dealer who is registered or required to be registered shall:
 
 1. Engage in a pattern of unreasonable and unjustifiable
 delays in the delivery of securities purchased by any of its customers or in
 the payment upon request of free credit balances reflecting completed transactions
 of any of its customers, or take any action that directly or indirectly
 interferes with a customer's ability to transfer his account; provided that the
 account is not subject to any lien for moneys owed by the customer or other
 bona fide claim, including, but not limited to, seeking a judicial order
 or decree that would bar or restrict the submission, delivery or acceptance of
 a written request from a customer to transfer his account;
 
 2. Induce trading in a customer's account which is excessive
 in size or frequency in view of the financial resources and character of the
 account;
 
 3. Recommend to a customer the purchase, sale or exchange of
 any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation is
 suitable for the customer. The reasonable basis to recommend any such
 transaction to a customer shall be based upon the risks associated with a
 particular security, and the information obtained through the diligence and
 inquiry of the broker-dealer to ascertain the customer's investment profile. A
 customer's investment profile includes, but is not limited to, the
 customer's investment objectives, financial situation, risk tolerance and
 needs, tax status, age, other investments, investment experience, investment
 time horizon, liquidity needs, and any other relevant information known by the
 broker-dealer or of which the broker-dealer is otherwise made aware in
 connection with such recommendation;
 
 4. Execute a transaction on behalf of a customer without
 authority to do so or, when securities are held in a customer's account, fail
 to execute a sell transaction involving those securities as instructed by a
 customer, without reasonable cause;
 
 5. Exercise any discretionary power in effecting a transaction
 for a customer's account without first obtaining written discretionary
 authority from the customer, unless the discretionary power relates solely to
 the time or price for the execution of orders;
 
 6. Execute any transaction in a margin account without
 securing from the customer a properly executed written margin agreement
 promptly after the initial transaction in the account, or fail, prior to or at
 the opening of a margin account, to disclose to a noninstitutional customer the
 operation of a margin account and the risks associated with trading on margin at
 least as comprehensively as required by FINRA Rule 2264;
 
 7. Fail to segregate customers' free securities or securities
 held in safekeeping;
 
 8. Hypothecate a customer's securities without having a lien
 thereon unless the broker-dealer secures from the customer a properly executed
 written consent promptly after the initial transaction, except as permitted by
 Rules of the SEC;
 
 9. Enter into a transaction with or for a customer at a price
 not reasonably related to the current market price of a security or receiving
 an unreasonable commission or profit;
 
 10. Fail to furnish to a customer purchasing securities in an
 offering, no later than the date of confirmation of the transaction, either a
 final prospectus or a preliminary prospectus and an additional document, which
 together include all information set forth in the final prospectus, either by
 (i) hard copy prospectus delivery or (ii) electronic prospectus delivery;
 
 11. Introduce customer transactions on a "fully
 disclosed" basis to another broker-dealer that is not exempt under § 13.1-514
 B 6 of the Act;
 
 12. a. Charge unreasonable and inequitable fees for services
 performed, including miscellaneous services such as collection of moneys due
 for principal, dividends or interest, exchange or transfer of securities,
 appraisals, safekeeping, or custody of securities and other services related to
 its securities business;
 
 b. Charge a fee based on the activity, value or contents (or
 lack thereof) of a customer account unless written disclosure pertaining to the
 fee, which shall include information about the amount of the fee, how
 imposition of the fee can be avoided and any consequence of late payment or
 nonpayment of the fee, was provided no later than the date the account was
 established or, with respect to an existing account, at least 60 days prior to
 the effective date of the fee;
 
 13. Offer to buy from or sell to any person any security at a
 stated price unless the broker-dealer is prepared to purchase or sell at the
 price and under such conditions as are stated at the time of the offer to buy
 or sell;
 
 14. Represent that a security is being offered to a customer
 "at a market" or a price relevant to the market price unless the
 broker-dealer knows or has reasonable grounds to believe that a market for the
 security exists other than that made, created or controlled by the
 broker-dealer, or by any person for whom he is acting or with whom he is
 associated in the distribution, or any person controlled by, controlling or
 under common control with the broker-dealer;
 
 15. Effect any transaction in, or induce the purchase or sale
 of, any security by means of any manipulative, deceptive or fraudulent device,
 practice, plan, program, design or contrivance, which may include but not be
 limited to:
 
 a. Effecting any transaction in a security which involves no
 change in the beneficial ownership thereof;
 
 b. Entering an order or orders for the purchase or sale
 of any security with the knowledge that an order or orders of
 substantially the same size, at substantially the same time and substantially
 the same price, for the sale of any security, has been or will be entered by or
 for the same or different parties for the purpose of creating a false or
 misleading appearance of active trading in the security or a false or
 misleading appearance with respect to the market for the security; however,
 nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit a broker-dealer from entering bona
 fide agency cross transactions for its customers; or
 
 c. Effecting, alone or with one or more other persons, a
 series of transactions in any security creating actual or apparent active
 trading in the security or raising or depressing the price of the security, for
 the purpose of inducing the purchase or sale of the security by others;
 
 16. Guarantee a customer against loss in any securities
 account of the customer carried by the broker-dealer or in any securities
 transaction effected by the broker-dealer with or for the customer;
 
 17. Publish or circulate, or cause to be published or
 circulated, any notice, circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment
 service, or communication of any kind which purports to report any transaction
 as a purchase or sale of any security unless the broker-dealer believes that
 the transaction was a bona fide purchase or sale of the security; or which
 purports to quote the bid price or asked price for any security, unless the
 broker-dealer believes that the quotation represents a bona fide bid for, or
 offer of, the security;
 
 18. Use any advertising or sales presentation in such a
 fashion as to be deceptive or misleading. An example of such practice would be
 a distribution of any nonfactual data, material or presentation based on
 conjecture, unfounded or unrealistic claims or assertions in any brochure,
 flyer, or display by words, pictures, graphs or otherwise designed to
 supplement, detract from, supersede or defeat the purpose or effect of any
 prospectus or disclosure;
 
 19. Fail to make reasonably available upon request to any
 person expressing an interest in a solicited transaction in a security, not
 listed on a registered securities exchange or quoted on an automated quotation
 system operated by a national securities association approved by regulation of
 the commission, a balance sheet of the issuer as of a date within 18 months of
 the offer or sale of the issuer's securities and a profit and loss statement
 for either the fiscal year preceding that date or the most recent year of
 operations, the names of the issuer's proprietor, partners or officers, the
 nature of the enterprises of the issuer and any available information
 reasonably necessary for evaluating the desirability or lack of desirability of
 investing in the securities of an issuer. All transactions in securities
 described in this subdivision shall comply with the provisions of § 13.1-507 of
 the Act;
 
 20. Fail to disclose that the broker-dealer is controlled by,
 controlling, affiliated with or under common control with the issuer of any
 security before entering into any contract with or for a customer for the
 purchase or sale of the security, the existence of control to the customer, and
 if disclosure is not made in writing, it shall be supplemented by the giving or
 sending of written disclosure at or before the completion of the transaction;
 
 21. Fail to make a bona fide public offering of all of the
 securities allotted to a broker-dealer for distribution, whether acquired as an
 underwriter, a selling group member, or from a member participating in the
 distribution as an underwriter or selling group member;
 
 22. Fail or refuse to furnish a customer, upon reasonable
 request, information to which the customer is entitled, or to respond to a
 formal written request or complaint; 
 
 23. Fail to clearly and separately disclose to its customer,
 prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for compensation
 or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or securities
 will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted custodian, in a
 manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection Corporation
 protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's assets;
 
 24. Market broker-dealer services that are associated with
 financial institutions in a manner that is misleading or confusing to customers
 as to the nature of securities products or risks; 
 
 25. In transactions subject to breakpoints, fail to:
 
 a. Utilize advantageous breakpoints without reasonable basis
 for their exclusion;
 
 b. Determine information that should be recorded on the books
 and records of a member or its clearing firm, which is necessary to determine
 the availability and appropriateness of breakpoint opportunities; or
 
 c. Inquire whether the customer has positions or transactions
 away from the member that should be considered in connection with the pending
 transaction and apprise the customer of the breakpoint opportunities; 
 
 26. Use a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of securities that indicates or
 implies that the user has special certification or training in advising or
 servicing senior citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following:
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation;
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation;
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that:
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing;
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants;
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate.
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 26 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by: 
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute;
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or
 
 (3) An organization that is on the U.S. Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing.
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or
 professional designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization. 
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services
 regulatory agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that
 regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as
 defined under § 3 (a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC
 § 80a-3(a)(1)).
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of law;
 
 27. Represent that securities will be listed or that
 application for listing will be made on a securities exchange or the National
 Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations (NASDAQ) system or other
 quotation system without reasonable basis in fact for the representation;
 
 28. Falsify or alter so as to make false or misleading any
 record or document or any information provided to the commission;
 
 29. Negotiate, facilitate, or otherwise execute a transaction
 on behalf of an investor involving securities issued by a third party pursuant
 to a claim for exemption under subsection B of § 13.1-514 of the Act
 unless the broker-dealer intends to report the securities owned and the value
 of such securities on at least a quarterly basis to the investor;
 
 30. Offer or sell securities pursuant to a claim for exemption
 under subsection B of § 13.1-514 of the Act without having first verified the
 information relating to the securities offered or sold, which shall include,
 but not be limited to, ascertaining the risks associated with investing in
 the respective security;
 
 31. Allow any person to represent or utilize its name as a
 trading platform without conspicuously disclosing the name of the registered
 broker-dealer in effecting or attempting to effect purchases and sales of
 securities; or
 
 32. Engage in any conduct that constitutes a dishonest or
 unethical practice including, but not limited to, forgery, embezzlement,
 nondisclosure, incomplete disclosure or material omissions or untrue statements
 of material facts, manipulative or deceptive practices, or fraudulent course of
 business.
 
 B. Every agent is required to observe high standards of
 commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct of
 his business. The acts and practices described in this subsection are
 considered contrary to such standards and may constitute grounds for denial,
 suspension, or revocation of registration or such other action authorized by
 the Act. No agent who is registered or required to be registered shall:
 
 1. Engage in the practice of lending or borrowing money or
 securities from a customer, or acting as a custodian for money, securities or
 an executed stock power of a customer;
 
 2. Effect any securities transaction not recorded on the
 regular books or records of the broker-dealer which the agent represents,
 unless the transaction is authorized in writing by the broker-dealer prior to
 execution of the transaction;
 
 3. Establish or maintain an account containing fictitious
 information in order to execute a transaction which would otherwise be unlawful
 or prohibited;
 
 4. Share directly or indirectly in profits or losses in the
 account of any customer without the written authorization of the customer and
 the broker-dealer which the agent represents;
 
 5. Divide or otherwise split the agent's commissions, profits
 or other compensation from the purchase or sale of securities in this
 Commonwealth with any person not also registered as an agent for the same
 broker-dealer, or for a broker-dealer under direct or indirect common control;
 
 6. Engage in conduct specified in subdivision A 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
 10, 15, 16, 17, 18, 23, 24, 25, 26, 28, 30, 31, or 32 of this section;
 
 7. Fail to comply with the continuing education requirements
 under 21VAC5-20-150 C; or
 
 8. Hold oneself out as representing any person other than the
 broker-dealer with whom the agent is registered and, in the case of an agent
 whose normal place of business is not on the premises of the broker-dealer,
 failing to conspicuously disclose the name of the broker-dealer for whom the
 agent is registered when representing the dealer in effecting or attempting to
 effect the purchases or sales of securities.
 
 C. No person shall publish, give publicity to, or circulate
 any notice, circular, advertisement, newspaper article, letter, investment
 service or communication which, though not purporting to offer a security for
 sale, describes the security, for a consideration received or to be received,
 directly or indirectly, from an issuer, underwriter, or dealer, without fully
 disclosing the receipt, whether past or prospective, of such consideration and
 the amount thereof.
 
 D. The purpose of this subsection is to identify practices in
 the securities business that are generally associated with schemes to
 manipulate and to identify prohibited business conduct of broker-dealers or
 sales agents who are registered or required to be registered.
 
 1. Entering into a transaction with a customer in any security
 at an unreasonable price or at a price not reasonably related to the current
 market price of the security or receiving an unreasonable commission or profit.
 
 2. Contradicting or negating the importance of any information
 contained in a prospectus or other offering materials with intent to deceive or
 mislead or using any advertising or sales presentation in a deceptive or
 misleading manner.
 
 3. In connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of a
 security, falsely leading a customer to believe that the broker-dealer or agent
 is in possession of material, nonpublic information that would affect the value
 of the security.
 
 4. In connection with the solicitation of a sale or purchase
 of a security, engaging in a pattern or practice of making contradictory
 recommendations to different investors of similar investment objective for some
 to sell and others to purchase the same security, at or about the same time,
 when not justified by the particular circumstances of each investor.
 
 5. Failing to make a bona fide public offering of all the
 securities allotted to a broker-dealer for distribution by, among other things,
 (i) transferring securities to a customer, another broker-dealer, or a
 fictitious account with the understanding that those securities will be
 returned to the broker-dealer or its nominees or (ii) parking or withholding
 securities.
 
 6. a. In addition to the application of the general anti-fraud
 provisions against anyone in connection with practices similar in nature to the
 practices discussed in this subdivision 6, the following subdivisions (1)
 through (6) specifically apply only in connection with the solicitation of a
 purchase or sale of over the counter (OTC) unlisted non-NASDAQ equity
 securities except those exempt from registration under 21VAC5-40-50:
 
 (1) Failing to advise the customer, both at the time of
 solicitation and on the confirmation, of any and all compensation related to a
 specific securities transaction to be paid to the agent including commissions,
 sales charges, or concessions.
 
 (2) In connection with a principal transaction, failing to
 disclose, both at the time of solicitation and on the confirmation, a short
 inventory position in the firm's account of more than 3.0% of the issued and
 outstanding shares of that class of securities of the issuer; however, this
 subdivision 6 of this subsection shall apply only if the firm is a market maker
 at the time of the solicitation.
 
 (3) Conducting sales contests in a particular security.
 
 (4) After a solicited purchase
 by a customer, failing or refusing, in connection with a principal transaction,
 to promptly execute sell orders.
 
 (5) Soliciting a secondary
 market transaction when there has not been a bona fide distribution in the
 primary market.
 
 (6) Engaging in a pattern of
 compensating an agent in different amounts for effecting sales and purchases in
 the same security.
 
 b. Although subdivisions D 6 a (1) through (6) of this section
 do not apply to OTC unlisted non-NASDAQ equity securities exempt from
 registration under 21VAC5-40-50, nothing in this subsection precludes
 application of the general anti-fraud provisions against anyone in connection
 with practices similar in nature to the practices discussed in subdivisions D 6
 a (1) through (6) of this section. 
 
 7. Effecting any transaction in, or inducing the purchase or
 sale of, any security by means of any manipulative, deceptive, or other
 fraudulent device or contrivance including but not limited to the use of
 boiler room tactics or use of fictitious or nominee accounts.
 
 8. Failing to comply with any prospectus delivery requirements
 promulgated under federal law or the Act.
 
 9. In connection with the solicitation of a sale or purchase
 of an OTC unlisted non-NASDAQ security, failing to promptly provide the most
 current prospectus or the most recently filed periodic report filed under § 13
 of the Securities Exchange Act when requested to do so by a customer.
 
 10. Marking any order tickets or confirmations as unsolicited
 when in fact the transaction was solicited.
 
 11. For any month in which activity has occurred in a
 customer's account, but in no event less than every three months, failing to
 provide each customer with a statement of account with respect to all OTC
 non-NASDAQ equity securities in the account, containing a value for each such
 security based on the closing market bid on a date certain; however, this
 subdivision shall apply only if the firm has been a market maker in the
 security at any time during the month in which the monthly or quarterly
 statement is issued.
 
 12. Failing to comply with any applicable provision of the
 FINRA Rules or any applicable fair practice, privacy, or ethical standard promulgated
 by the SEC or by a self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC.
 
 13. In connection with the solicitation of a purchase or sale
 of a designated security:
 
 a. Failing to disclose to the customer the bid and ask price,
 at which the broker-dealer effects transactions with individual, retail
 customers, of the designated security as well as its spread in both percentage
 and dollar amounts at the time of solicitation and on the trade confirmation
 documents; or
 
 b. Failing to include with the confirmation, the notice
 disclosure contained under 21VAC5-20-285, except the following shall be exempt
 from this requirement:
 
 (1) Transactions in which the price of the designated security
 is $5.00 or more, exclusive of costs or charges; however, if the designated security
 is a unit composed of one or more securities, the unit price divided by the
 number of components of the unit other than warrants, options, rights, or
 similar securities must be $5.00 or more, and any component of the unit that is
 a warrant, option, right, or similar securities, or a convertible security must
 have an exercise price or conversion price of $5.00 or more.
 
 (2) Transactions that are not recommended by the broker-dealer
 or agent.
 
 (3) Transactions by a broker-dealer (i) whose commissions, commission
 equivalents, and mark-ups from transactions in designated securities during
 each of the preceding three months, and during 11 or more of the preceding 12
 months, did not exceed 5.0% of its total commissions, commission-equivalents,
 and mark-ups from transactions in securities during those months; and (ii) who
 has not executed principal transactions in connection with the solicitation to
 purchase the designated security that is the subject of the transaction in the
 preceding 12 months.
 
 (4) Any transaction or transactions that, upon prior written
 request or upon its own motion, the commission conditionally or unconditionally
 exempts as not encompassed within the purposes of this section.
 
 c. For purposes of this section, the term "designated
 security" means any equity security other than a security:
 
 (1) Registered, or approved for registration upon notice of
 issuance, on a national securities exchange and makes transaction reports
 available pursuant to 17 CFR 11Aa3-1 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
 
 (2) Authorized, or approved for authorization upon notice of
 issuance, for quotation in the NASDAQ system;
 
 (3) Issued by an investment company registered under the
 Investment Company Act of 1940;
 
 (4) That is a put option or call option issued by The Options
 Clearing Corporation; or
 
 (5) Whose issuer has net tangible assets in excess of $4
 million as demonstrated by financial statements dated within no less than 15
 months that the broker-dealer has reviewed and has a reasonable basis to
 believe are true and complete in relation to the date of the transaction with
 the person, and
 
 (a) In the event the issuer is other than a foreign private
 issuer, are the most recent financial statements for the issuer that have been
 audited and reported on by an independent public accountant in accordance with
 the provisions of 17 CFR 210.2-02 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or
 
 (b) In the event the issuer is a foreign private issuer, are
 the most recent financial statements for the issuer that have been filed with
 the SEC; furnished to the SEC pursuant to 17 CFR 240.12g3-2(b) under the
 Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or prepared in accordance with generally
 accepted accounting principles in the country of incorporation, audited in
 compliance with the requirements of that jurisdiction, and reported on by an
 accountant duly registered and in good standing in accordance with the
 regulations of that jurisdiction.
 
 E. A broker-dealer or an agent may delay or refuse a
 transaction or a disbursement of funds that may involve or result in the
 financial exploitation of an individual pursuant to § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (21VAC5-20)
 
 Rule 1250 of FINRA By-Laws, Continuing Education
 Requirements, amended by SR-FINRA-2011-013, eff. October 17, 2011, Financial
 Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.
 
 Rule 345 A of the New York Stock Exchange Rules,
 Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995,
 New York Stock Exchange.
 
 Rule G-3(h) of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board,
 Classification of Principals and Representatives; Numerical Requirements;
 Testing; Continuing Education Requirements, effective as existed July 1, 1995,
 Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
 
 Rule
 1240 of FINRA By-Laws, Continuing Education Requirements, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2017-007, eff. October 1, 2018, Financial Industry Regulatory
 Authority, Inc.
 
 Rule
 345 A of the New York Stock Exchange Rules, Continuing Education for Registered
 Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995, New York Stock Exchange, superseded
 by Financial Industry Regulation Authority, Inc. Rule 1200 Series - Rule, 1240,
 eff. October 1, 2018
 
 Rule
 G-3(i) of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board, Classification of
 Principals and Representatives; Numerical Requirements; Testing; Continuing
 Education Requirements, effective as existed July 1, 1995, Municipal Securities
 Rulemaking Board
 
 Rule 341A of the New York Stock Exchange Market Rules,
 Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed May 14, 2012,
 New York Stock Exchange. 
 
 Rule 9.3A of the Chicago Board Options Exchange, Continuing
 Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995, Chicago
 Board Options Exchange.
 
 Article VI, Rule 11 of the Rules of the Chicago Stock
 Exchange, Inc., Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as
 existed July 1, 1995, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.
 
 FINRA, Rule 2264, Margin Disclosure Statement, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2011-065, eff. December 5, 2011.
 
 Article I, Paragraph u of FINRA By-Laws, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2008-0026, eff. December 15, 2008.
 
 21VAC5-30-80. Adoption of North American Securities
 Administration Association, Inc. statements of policy.
 
 The commission adopts the following North American Securities
 Administration Association, Inc. (NASAA) statements of policy that shall apply
 to the registration of securities in the Commonwealth. It will be considered a
 basis for denial of an application if an offering fails to comply with an
 applicable statement of policy. While applications not conforming to a
 statement of policy shall be looked upon with disfavor, where good cause is
 shown, certain provisions may be modified or waived by the commission.
 
 1. Options and Warrants, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 2. Underwriting Expenses, Underwriter's Warrants, Selling
 Expenses and Selling Security Holders, as amended March 31, 2008 May
 6, 2018.
 
 3. Real Estate Programs, as amended May 7, 2007.
 
 4. Oil and Gas Programs, as amended May 6, 2012.
 
 5. Cattle-Feeding Programs, as adopted September 17, 1980.
 
 6. Unsound Financial Condition, as amended March 31, 2008
 May 6, 2018.
 
 7. Real Estate Investment Trusts, as amended May 7, 2007.
 
 8. Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981.
 
 9. Small Company Offering Registrations, as adopted April 28,
 1996.
 
 10. NASAA Guidelines Regarding Viatical Investment, as adopted
 October 1, 2002.
 
 11. Corporate Securities Definitions, as amended March 31,
 2008 May 6, 2018.
 
 12. Church Extension Fund Securities, as amended April 18,
 2004.
 
 13. Promotional Shares, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 14. Loans and Other Material Transactions, as amended March
 31, 2008 May 6, 2018.
 
 15. Impoundment of Proceeds, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 16. Electronic Offering Documents and Electronic Signatures,
 as adopted May 8, 2017.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (21VAC5-30)
 
 Statement of Policy Regarding Church Extension Fund
 Securities, adopted April 17, 1994, amended April 18, 2004, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Extension Fund Securities as amended April 18, 2004,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Options and Warrants, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Underwriting Expenses, Underwriter's Warrants, Selling
 Expenses and Selling Security Holders, as amended May 6, 2018, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Unsound Financial Condition, as amended May 6, 2018, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Real Estate Programs, as amended May 7, 2007, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Oil and Gas Programs, as amended May 6, 2012, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Small Company Offering Registrations, as adopted April 28,
 1996, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 NASAA
 Guidelines Regarding Viatical Investment, as adopted October 1, 2002, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Corporate Securities Definitions, as amended May 6, 2018,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Promotional Shares, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Loans and Other Material Transactions, as amended May 6,
 2018, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Impoundment of Proceeds, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Electronic Offering Documents and Electronic Signatures, as
 adopted May 8, 2017, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Cattle-Feeding Programs, as adopted September 17, 1980,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 21VAC5-45-20. Offerings conducted pursuant to Rule 506 of
 federal Regulation regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): Filing filing
 requirements and issuer-agent exemption.
 
 A. An issuer offering a security that is a covered security
 under § 18 (b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77r(b)(4)(D))
 shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale of
 such federal covered security in this Commonwealth: 
 
 1. A notice on SEC Form D (17 CFR 239.500), as filed with the
 SEC. 
 
 2. A filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. 
 
 B. An amendment filing shall contain a copy of the amended
 SEC Form D. No fee is required for an amendment. 
 
 C. For the purpose of this chapter, SEC "Form D" is
 the document, as adopted by the SEC, and in effect on September 23, 2013,
 entitled "Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities."
 
 D. Pursuant to § 13.1-514 B 13 of the Act, an agent of an
 issuer who effects transactions in a security exempt from registration under
 the Securities Act of 1933 pursuant to rules and regulations promulgated under
 § 4(2) thereof (15 USC § 77d(2)) is exempt from the agent registration
 requirements of the Act. 
 
 
 
 NOTICE: Forms used in
 administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The forms are not
 being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia Register
 of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to access it.
 The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the
 Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main Street, 11th Floor,
 Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
 
  
 
 FORMS (21VAC5-45) 
 
 Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities, U.S.
 Securities and Exchange Commission, SEC1972 (rev. 2/2012) 
 
 Form
 D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities, U.S. Securities and Exchange
 Commission, SEC1972 (rev. 5/2017)
 
 Uniform Consent to Service of Process, Form U-2
 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 Uniform Notice of Regulation A - Tier 2 Offering
 (undated, filed 10/2016)
 
 Form NF - Uniform Investment Company Notice Filing
 (4/1997)
 
 Uniform Notice of Federal Crowdfunding Offering,
 Form U-CF (undated, filed 9/2017)
 
 Part I 
 Investment Advisor Registration, Notice Filing for Federal Covered Advisors,
 Expiration, Renewal, Updates and Amendments, Terminations and Merger or
 Consolidation
 
 21VAC5-80-10. Application for registration as an investment
 advisor and notice filing as a federal covered advisor.
 
 A. Application for registration as an investment advisor
 shall be filed in compliance with all requirements of IARD and in full
 compliance with forms and regulations prescribed by the commission and shall
 include all information required by such forms.
 
 B. An application shall be deemed incomplete for registration
 as an investment advisor unless the applicant submits the following executed
 forms, fee, and information: 
 
 1. Form ADV Parts 1 and 2 submitted to IARD.
 
 2. The statutory fee made payable to FINRA in the amount of
 $200 submitted to IARD pursuant to § 13.1-505 F of the Act.
 
 3. A copy of the client agreement. 
 
 4. A copy of the firm's supervisory and procedures manual as
 required by 21VAC5-80-170. 
 
 5. Copies of all advertising materials. 
 
 6. Copies of all stationery and business cards. 
 
 7. A signed affidavit stating that an investment advisor
 domiciled in Virginia has not conducted investment advisory business prior to
 registration, and for investment advisors domiciled outside of Virginia an
 affidavit stating that the advisor has fewer than six clients in the prior
 12-month period. 
 
 8. An audited or certified balance sheet prepared in
 accordance with generally accepted accounting practices reflecting the
 financial condition of the investment advisor not more than 90 days prior to
 the date of such filing.
 
 9. A copy of the firm's disaster recovery plan as required by
 21VAC5-80-160 F.
 
 10. Evidence of at least one qualified individual with an
 investment advisor representative registration pending on IARD on behalf of the
 investment advisor. 
 
 11. A copy of the firm’s physical security and
 cybersecurity policies and procedures as required by 21VAC5-80-260 A.
 
 12. A copy of the firm’s privacy policy as required by
 21VAC5-80-260 B.
 
 13. Any other information the commission may require.
 
 For purposes of this section, the term "net worth"
 means an excess of assets over liabilities, as determined by generally accepted
 accounting principles. Net worth shall not include: prepaid expenses (except as
 to items properly classified as assets under generally accepted accounting
 principles), deferred charges such as deferred income tax charges, goodwill,
 franchise rights, organizational expenses, patents, copyrights, marketing
 rights, unamortized debt discount and expense, all other assets of intangible
 nature, home furnishings, automobiles, and any other personal items not readily
 marketable in the case of an individual; advances or loans to stockholders and
 officers in the case of a corporation; and advances or loans to partners in the
 case of a partnership.
 
 C. The commission shall either grant or deny each application
 for registration within 30 days after it is filed. However, if additional time
 is needed to obtain or verify information regarding the application, the
 commission may extend such period as much as 90 days by giving written notice
 to the applicant. No more than three such extensions may be made by the
 commission on any one application. An extension of the initial 30-day period,
 not to exceed 90 days, shall be granted upon written request of the applicant. 
 
 D. Every person who transacts business in this Commonwealth
 as a federal covered advisor shall file a notice as prescribed in subsection E
 of this section in compliance with all requirements of the IARD. 
 
 E. A notice filing for a federal covered advisor shall be
 deemed incomplete unless the federal covered advisor submits the following executed
 forms, fee, and information: 
 
 1. Form ADV Parts 1 and 2. 
 
 2. A fee made payable to FINRA in the amount of $200. 
 
 21VAC5-80-160. Recordkeeping requirements for investment
 advisors.
 
 A. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered under the Act shall make and keep true, accurate and current the
 following books, ledgers and records, except an investment advisor having its
 principal place of business outside this Commonwealth and registered or
 licensed, and in compliance with the applicable books and records requirements,
 in the state where its principal place of business is located, shall only be
 required to make, keep current, maintain and preserve such of the following
 required books, ledgers and records as are not in addition to those required
 under the laws of the state in which it maintains its principal place of
 business:
 
 1. A journal or journals, including cash receipts and
 disbursements records, and any other records of original entry forming the
 basis of entries in any ledger.
 
 2. General and auxiliary ledgers (or other comparable records)
 reflecting asset, liability, reserve, capital, income and expense accounts.
 
 3. A memorandum of each order given by the investment advisor
 for the purchase or sale of any security, of any instruction received by the
 investment advisor from the client concerning the purchase, sale, receipt or
 delivery of a particular security, and of any modification or cancellation of
 any such order or instruction. The memoranda shall show the terms and conditions
 of the order, instruction, modification or cancellation; shall identify the
 person connected with the investment advisor who recommended the transaction to
 the client and the person who placed the order; and shall show the account for
 which entered, the date of entry, and the bank, broker or dealer by or through
 whom executed where appropriate. Orders entered pursuant to the exercise of
 discretionary power shall be so designated.
 
 4. All check books, bank statements, canceled checks and cash
 reconciliations of the investment advisor.
 
 5. All bills or statements (or copies of), paid or unpaid,
 relating to the business as an investment advisor.
 
 6. All trial balances, financial statements prepared in
 accordance with generally accepted accounting principles which shall include a
 balance sheet, income statement and such other statements as may be required
 pursuant to 21VAC5-80-180, and internal audit working papers relating to the
 investment advisor's business as an investment advisor.
 
 7. Originals of all written communications received and copies
 of all written communications sent by the investment advisor relating to (i)
 any recommendation made or proposed to be made and any advice given or proposed
 to be given; (ii) any receipt, disbursement or delivery of funds or securities;
 and (iii) the placing or execution of any order to purchase or sell any
 security; however, (a) the investment advisor shall not be required to keep any
 unsolicited market letters and other similar communications of general public
 distribution not prepared by or for the investment advisor, and (b) if the
 investment advisor sends any notice, circular or other advertisement offering
 any report, analysis, publication or other investment advisory service to more
 than 10 persons, the investment advisor shall not be required to keep a record
 of the names and addresses of the persons to whom it was sent; except that if
 the notice, circular or advertisement is distributed to persons named on any
 list, the investment advisor shall retain with a copy of the notice, circular
 or advertisement a memorandum describing the list and the source thereof.
 
 8. A list or other record of all accounts which list
 identifies the accounts in which the investment advisor is vested with any
 discretionary power with respect to the funds, securities or transactions of
 any client.
 
 9. All powers of attorney and other evidences of the granting
 of any discretionary authority by any client to the investment advisor, or
 copies thereof.
 
 10. All written agreements (or copies thereof) entered into by
 the investment advisor with any client, and all other written agreements
 otherwise related to the investment advisor's business as an investment
 advisor.
 
 11. A file containing a copy of each notice, circular,
 advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or other
 communication including by electronic media that the investment advisor
 circulates or distributes, directly or indirectly, to two or more persons
 (other than persons connected with the investment advisor), and if the notice,
 circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or
 other communication including by electronic media recommends the purchase or
 sale of a specific security and does not state the reasons for the
 recommendation, a memorandum of the investment adviser indicating the reasons
 for the recommendation.
 
 12. a. A record of every transaction in a security in which
 the investment advisor or any investment advisory representative of the
 investment advisor has, or by reason of any transaction acquires, any direct or
 indirect beneficial ownership, except (i) transactions effected in any account
 over which neither the investment advisor nor any investment advisory
 representative of the investment advisor has any direct or indirect influence
 or control; and (ii) transactions in securities which are direct obligations of
 the United States. The record shall state the title and amount of the security
 involved; the date and nature of the transaction (i.e., purchase, sale or other
 acquisition or disposition); the price at which it was effected; and the name
 of the broker, dealer or bank with or through whom the transaction was
 effected. The record may also contain a statement declaring that the reporting
 or recording of any such transaction shall not be construed as an admission
 that the investment advisor or investment advisory representative has any
 direct or indirect beneficial ownership in the security. A transaction shall be
 recorded not later than 10 days after the end of the calendar quarter in which
 the transaction was effected.
 
 b. For purposes of this subdivision 12, the following
 definitions will apply. The term "advisory representative" means any
 partner, officer or director of the investment advisor; any employee who
 participates in any way in the determination of which recommendations shall be
 made; any employee who, in connection with his duties, obtains any information
 concerning which securities are being recommended prior to the effective
 dissemination of the recommendations; and any of the following persons who
 obtain information concerning securities recommendations being made by the
 investment advisor prior to the effective dissemination of the recommendations:
 
 (1) Any person in a control relationship to the investment
 adviser;
 
 (2) Any affiliated person of a controlling person; and
 
 (3) Any affiliated person of an affiliated person.
 
 "Control" means the power to exercise a controlling
 influence over the management or policies of a company, unless such power is
 solely the result of an official position with the company. Any person who owns
 beneficially, either directly or through one or more controlled companies, more
 than 25% of the ownership interest of a company shall be presumed to control
 the company.
 
 c. An investment advisor shall not be deemed to have violated
 the provisions of this subdivision 12 because of his failure to record
 securities transactions of any investment advisor representative if the
 investment advisor establishes that it instituted adequate procedures and used
 reasonable diligence to obtain promptly reports of all transactions required to
 be recorded.
 
 13. a. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 12 of
 this subsection, where the investment advisor is primarily engaged in a
 business or businesses other than advising investment advisory clients,
 a record must be maintained of every transaction in a security in which the
 investment advisor or any investment advisory representative of such investment
 advisor has, or by reason of such transaction acquires, any direct or indirect
 beneficial ownership, except (i) transactions effected in any account over
 which neither the investment advisor nor any investment advisory representative
 of the investment advisor has any direct or indirect influence or control; and
 (ii) transactions in securities which are direct obligations of the United
 States. The record shall state the title and amount of the security involved;
 the date and nature of the transaction (i.e., purchase, sale or other
 acquisition or disposition); the price at which it was effected; and the name
 of the broker, dealer or bank with or through whom the transaction was
 effected. The record may also contain a statement declaring that the reporting
 or recording of any such transaction shall not be construed as an admission
 that the investment advisor or investment advisory representative has any
 direct or indirect beneficial ownership in the security. A transaction shall be
 recorded not later than 10 days after the end of the calendar quarter in which
 the transaction was effected.
 
 b. An investment advisor is "primarily engaged in a
 business or businesses other than advising investment advisory clients"
 when, for each of its most recent three fiscal years or for the period of time
 since organization, whichever is less, the investment advisor derived, on an
 unconsolidated basis, more than 50% of (i) its total sales and revenues, and
 (ii) its income (or loss) before income taxes and extraordinary items, from
 such other business or businesses.
 
 c. For purposes of this subdivision 13, the following
 definitions will apply. The term "advisory representative," when used
 in connection with a company primarily engaged in a business or businesses
 other than advising investment advisory clients, means any partner, officer,
 director or employee of the investment advisor who participates in any way in
 the determination of which recommendation shall be made, or whose functions or
 duties relate to the determination of which securities are being recommended
 prior to the effective dissemination of the recommendations; and any of the
 following persons, who obtain information concerning securities recommendations
 being made by the investment advisor prior to the effective dissemination of
 the recommendations or of the information concerning the recommendations:
 
 (1) Any person in a control relationship to the investment
 advisor;
 
 (2) Any affiliated person of a controlling person; and
 
 (3) Any affiliated person of an affiliated person.
 
 d. An investment advisor shall not be deemed to have violated
 the provisions of this subdivision 13 because of his failure to record
 securities transactions of any investment advisor representative if he
 establishes that he instituted adequate procedures and used reasonable
 diligence to obtain promptly reports of all transactions required to be
 recorded.
 
 14. A copy of each written statement and each amendment or
 revision, given or sent to any client or prospective client of such investment
 advisor in accordance with the provisions of 21VAC5-80-190 and a record of the
 dates that each written statement, and each amendment or revision, was given,
 or offered to be given, to any client or prospective client who subsequently
 becomes a client.
 
 15. For each client that was obtained by the advisor by means
 of a solicitor to whom a cash fee was paid by the advisor, the following:
 
 a. Evidence of a written agreement to which the advisor is a
 party related to the payment of such fee;
 
 b. A signed and dated acknowledgement of receipt from the
 client evidencing the client's receipt of the investment advisor's disclosure
 statement and a written disclosure statement of the solicitor; and 
 
 c. A copy of the solicitor's written disclosure statement. The
 written agreement, acknowledgement and solicitor disclosure statement will be
 considered to be in compliance if such documents are in compliance with Rule
 275.206(4)-3 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
 
 For purposes of this regulation, the term
 "solicitor" means any person or entity who, for compensation, acts as
 an agent of an investment advisor in referring potential clients.
 
 16. All accounts, books, internal working papers, and any
 other records or documents that are necessary to form the basis for or
 demonstrate the calculation of the performance or rate of return of all managed
 accounts or securities recommendations in any notice, circular, advertisement,
 newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or other communication
 including but not limited to electronic media that the investment
 advisor circulates or distributes directly or indirectly, to two or more
 persons (other than persons connected with the investment advisor); however,
 with respect to the performance of managed accounts, the retention of all
 account statements, if they reflect all debits, credits, and other transactions
 in a client's account for the period of the statement, and all worksheets
 necessary to demonstrate the calculation of the performance or rate of return
 of all managed accounts shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this
 subdivision.
 
 17. A file containing a copy of all written communications
 received or sent regarding any litigation involving the investment advisor or
 any investment advisor representative or employee, and regarding any written
 customer or client complaint.
 
 18. Written information about each investment advisory client
 that is the basis for making any recommendation or providing any investment
 advice to the client.
 
 19. Written procedures to supervise the activities of
 employees and investment advisor representatives that are reasonably designed
 to achieve compliance with applicable securities laws and regulations.
 
 20. A file containing a copy of each document (other than any
 notices of general dissemination) that was filed with or received from any
 state or federal agency or self regulatory organization and that pertains to
 the registrant or its investment advisor representatives, which file should
 contain, but is not limited to, all applications, amendments, renewal filings,
 and correspondence.
 
 21. Any records documenting dates, locations and findings of
 the investment advisor's annual review of these policies and procedures
 conducted pursuant to subdivision F of 21VAC5-80-170.
 
 22. Copies, with original signatures of the investment
 advisor's appropriate signatory and the investment advisor representative, of
 each initial Form U4 and each amendment to Disclosure Reporting Pages (DRPs U4)
 must be retained by the investment advisor (filing on behalf of the investment
 advisor representative) and must be made available for inspection upon
 regulatory request. 
 
 23. Where the advisor inadvertently held or obtained a
 client's securities or funds and returned them to the client within three
 business days or has forwarded third party checks within three business days of
 receipt, the advisor will be considered as not having custody but shall keep
 the following record to identify all securities or funds held or obtained
 relating to the inadvertent custody:
 
 A ledger or other listing of all securities or funds held or
 obtained, including the following information: 
 
 a. Issuer; 
 
 b. Type of security and series;
 
 c. Date of issue;
 
 d. For debt instruments, the denomination, interest rate and
 maturity date; 
 
 e. Certificate number, including alphabetical prefix or
 suffix; 
 
 f. Name in which registered; 
 
 g. Date given to the advisor; 
 
 h. Date sent to client or sender; 
 
 i. Form of delivery to client or sender, or copy of the form
 of delivery to client or sender; and 
 
 j. Mail confirmation number, if applicable, or confirmation by
 client or sender of the fund's or security's return. 
 
 24. If an investment advisor obtains possession of securities
 that are acquired from the issuer in a transaction or chain of transactions not
 involving any public offering that comply with the exception from custody under
 subdivision C 2 of 21VAC5-80-146, the advisor shall keep the following records:
 
 
 a. A record showing the issuer or current transfer agent's
 name address, phone number, and other applicable contract information
 pertaining to the party responsible for recording client interests in the
 securities; and 
 
 b. A copy of any legend, shareholder agreement, or other
 agreement showing that those securities that are transferable only with prior
 consent of the issuer or holders of the outstanding securities of the issuer. 
 
 25. Any records required pursuant to 21VAC5-80-260.
 
 B. 1. If an investment advisor subject to subsection A of
 this section has custody or possession of securities or funds of any client,
 the records required to be made and kept under subsection A of this section shall
 also include:
 
 a. A journal or other record showing all purchases, sales,
 receipts and deliveries of securities (including certificate numbers) for such
 accounts and all other debits and credits to the accounts.
 
 b. A separate ledger account for each client showing all
 purchases, sales, receipts and deliveries of securities, the date and price of
 each purchase and sale, and all debits and credits.
 
 c. Copies of confirmations of all transactions effected by or
 for the account of any client.
 
 d. A record for each security in which any client has a
 position, which record shall show the name of each client having any interest
 in each security, the amount or interest of each client, and the location of
 each security.
 
 e. A copy of any records required to be made and kept under
 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 f. A copy of any and all documents executed by the client
 (including a limited power of attorney) under which the advisor is authorized
 or permitted to withdraw a client's funds or securities maintained with a
 custodian upon the advisor's instruction to the custodian. 
 
 g. A copy of each of the client's quarterly account statements
 as generated and delivered by the qualified custodian. If the advisor also
 generates a statement that is delivered to the client, the advisor shall also
 maintain copies of such statements along with the date such statements were
 sent to the clients.
 
 h. If applicable to the advisor's situation, a copy of the
 special examination report verifying the completion of the examination by an
 independent certified public accountant and describing the nature and extent of
 the examination. 
 
 i. A record of any finding by the independent certified public
 accountant of any material discrepancies found during the examination. 
 
 j. If applicable, evidence of the client's designation of an
 independent representative.
 
 2. If an investment advisor has custody because it advises a
 pooled investment vehicle, as defined in 21VAC5-80-146 A in the definition of
 custody in clause subdivision 1 c, the advisor shall also keep
 the following records: 
 
 a. True, accurate, and current account statements; 
 
 b. Where the advisor complies with 21VAC5-80-146 C 4, the
 records required to be made and kept shall include: 
 
 (1) The date or dates of the audit; 
 
 (2) A copy of the audited financial statements; and 
 
 (3) Evidence of the mailing of the audited financial to all
 limited partners, members, or other beneficial owners within 120 days of the
 end of its fiscal year. 
 
 c. Where the advisor complies with 21VAC5-80-146 B 5, the
 records required to be made and kept shall include: 
 
 (1) A copy of the written agreement with the independent party
 reviewing all fees and expenses, indicating the responsibilities of the
 independent third party. 
 
 (2) Copies of all invoices and receipts showing approval by
 the independent party for payment through the qualified custodian.
 
 C. Every investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section who renders any investment advisory or management service to any client
 shall, with respect to the portfolio being supervised or managed and to the
 extent that the information is reasonably available to or obtainable by the
 investment advisor, make and keep true, accurate and current:
 
 1. Records showing separately for each client the securities
 purchased and sold, and the date, amount and price of each purchase and sale.
 
 2. For each security in which any client has a current
 position, information from which the investment advisor can promptly furnish
 the name of each client and the current amount or interest of the client.
 
 D. Any books or records required by this section may be
 maintained by the investment advisor in such manner that the identity of any
 client to whom the investment advisor renders investment advisory services is
 indicated by numerical or alphabetical code or some similar designation.
 
 E. Every investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section shall preserve the following records in the manner prescribed:
 
 1. All books and records required to be made under the
 provisions of subsection A through subdivision C 1, inclusive, of this section,
 except for books and records required to be made under the provisions of
 subdivisions A 11 and A 16 of this section, shall be maintained in an easily
 accessible place for a period of not less than five years from the end of the
 fiscal year during which the last entry was made on record, the first two years
 of which shall be maintained in the principal office of the investment advisor.
 
 2. Partnership articles and any amendments, articles of
 incorporation, charters, minute books, and stock certificate books of the
 investment advisor and of any predecessor, shall be maintained in the principal
 office of the investment advisor and preserved until at least three years after
 termination of the enterprise.
 
 3. Books and records required to be made under the provisions
 of subdivisions A 11 and A 16 of this section shall be maintained in an easily
 accessible place for a period of not less than five years, the first two years
 of which shall be maintained in the principal office of the investment advisor,
 from the end of the fiscal year during which the investment advisor last
 published or otherwise disseminated, directly or indirectly, the notice,
 circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or
 other communication including by electronic media.
 
 4. Books and records required to be made under the provisions
 of subdivisions A 17 through A 22, inclusive, of this section shall be
 maintained and preserved in an easily accessible place for a period of not less
 than five years, from the end of the fiscal year during which the last entry
 was made on such record, the first two years in the principal office of the
 investment advisor, or for the time period during which the investment advisor
 was registered or required to be registered in the state, if less.
 
 5. Notwithstanding other record preservation requirements of
 this subsection, the following records or copies shall be required to be
 maintained at the business location of the investment advisor from which the
 customer or client is being provided or has been provided with investment
 advisory services: (i) records required to be preserved under subdivisions A 3,
 A 7 through A 10, A 14 and A 15, A 17 through A 19, subsections B and C,
 and (ii) the records or copies required under the provision of subdivisions A
 11 and A 16 of this section which records or related records identify the name
 of the investment advisor representative providing investment advice from that
 business location, or which identify the business locations' physical address,
 mailing address, electronic mailing address, or telephone number. The records
 will be maintained for the period described in this subsection.
 
 F. Every investment advisor shall establish and maintain a
 written disaster recovery plan that shall address at a minimum:
 
 1. The identity of individuals that will conduct or wind down
 business on behalf of the investment advisor in the event of death or
 incapacity of key persons;
 
 2. Means to provide notification to clients of the investment
 advisor and to those states in which the advisor is registered of the death or
 incapacity of key persons;
 
 a. Notification shall be provided to the Division of
 Securities and Retail Franchising via IARD/CRD within 24 hours of the
 death or incapacity of key persons.
 
 b. Notification shall be given to clients within five business
 days from the death or incapacity of key persons.
 
 3. Means for clients' accounts to continue to be monitored
 until an orderly liquidation, distribution or transfer of the clients'
 portfolio to another advisor can be achieved or until an actual notice to the
 client of investment advisor death or incapacity and client control of their
 assets occurs;
 
 4. Means for the credit demands of the investment advisor to
 be met; and
 
 5. Data backups sufficient to allow rapid resumption of the
 investment advisor's activities.
 
 G. An investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section, before ceasing to conduct or discontinuing business as an investment
 advisor, shall arrange for and be responsible for the preservation of the books
 and records required to be maintained and preserved under this section for the
 remainder of the period specified in this section, and shall notify the
 commission in writing of the exact address where the books and records will be
 maintained during such period.
 
 H. 1. The records required to be maintained pursuant to this
 section may be immediately produced or reproduced by photograph on film or, as
 provided in subdivision 2 of this subsection, on magnetic disk, tape or other
 computer storage medium, and be maintained for the required time in that form.
 If records are preserved or reproduced by photographic film or computer storage
 medium, the investment advisor shall:
 
 a. Arrange the records and index the films or computer storage
 medium so as to permit the immediate location of any particular record;
 
 b. Be ready at all times to promptly provide any facsimile
 enlargement of film or computer printout or copy of the computer storage medium
 which the commission by its examiners or other representatives may request;
 
 c. Store separately from the original one other copy of the
 film or computer storage medium for the time required;
 
 d. With respect to records stored on computer storage medium,
 maintain procedures for maintenance of, and access to, records so as to
 reasonably safeguard records from loss, alteration, or destruction; and
 
 e. With respect to records stored on photographic film, at all
 times have available, for the commission's examination of its records,
 facilities for immediate, easily readable projection of the film and for
 producing easily readable facsimile enlargements.
 
 2. Pursuant to subdivision 1 of this subsection, an advisor
 may maintain and preserve on computer tape or disk or other computer storage
 medium records which, in the ordinary course of the advisor's business, are
 created by the advisor on electronic media or are received by the advisor
 solely on electronic media or by electronic transmission.
 
 I. Any book or record made, kept, maintained, and preserved
 in compliance with SEC Rules 17a-3 (17 CFR 240.17a-3) and 17a-4 (17 CFR
 240.17a-4) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, which is substantially
 the same as the book, or other record required to be made, kept, maintained,
 and preserved under this section shall be deemed to be made, kept, maintained,
 and preserved in compliance with this section.
 
 J. For purposes of this section, "investment supervisory
 services" means the giving of continuous advice as to the investment of
 funds on the basis of the individual needs of each client; and
 "discretionary power" shall not include discretion as to the price at
 which or the time when a transaction is or is to be effected if, before the
 order is given by the investment advisor, the client has directed or approved the
 purchase or sale of a definite amount of the particular security.
 
 K. For purposes of this section, "principal place of
 business" and "principal office" mean the executive office of
 the investment advisor from which the officers, partners, or managers of the
 investment advisor direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the
 investment advisor.
 
 L. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered in this Commonwealth and has its principal place of business in a
 state other than the Commonwealth shall be exempt from the requirements of this
 section to the extent provided by the National Securities Markets Improvement
 Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290), provided the investment advisor is licensed
 in such state and is in compliance with such state's recordkeeping
 requirements.
 
 21VAC5-80-200. Dishonest or unethical practices.
 
 A. An investment advisor or federal covered advisor is a
 fiduciary and has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his clients. While
 the extent and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the
 relationship between an investment advisor or federal covered advisor and his
 clients and the circumstances of each case, an investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor who is registered or required to be registered shall not engage
 in unethical practices, including the following:
 
 1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory,
 management or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale or exchange
 of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation
 is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client
 after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives,
 financial situation, risk tolerance and needs, and any other information known
 or acquired by the investment advisor or federal covered advisor after
 reasonable examination of the client's financial records.
 
 2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client without written authority to do so.
 
 3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having
 obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.
 
 4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for
 the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written
 discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date
 of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority,
 unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the
 time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall
 be executed, or both.
 
 5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in
 size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives and
 character of the account.
 
 6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the
 client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning funds
 or securities.
 
 7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor or
 federal covered advisor is a financial institution engaged in the business of
 loaning funds or the client is an affiliate of the investment advisor or
 federal covered advisor.
 
 8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective
 advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor, or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being
 offered or fees to be charged for the services, or omission to state a material
 fact necessary to make the statements made regarding qualifications services or
 fees, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
 
 9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client
 prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered
 advisor without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a
 situation where the advisor uses published research reports or statistical
 analyses to render advice or where an advisor orders such a report in the
 normal course of providing service.
 
 10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of
 the fees charged by other investment advisors or federal covered advisors
 providing essentially the same services.
 
 11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any
 advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment
 advisor or federal covered advisor or any of his employees which could
 reasonably be expected to impair the rendering of unbiased and objective advice
 including:
 
 a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services
 to clients which are in addition to compensation from such clients for such
 services; or
 
 b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when
 a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will
 be received by the advisor or his employees.
 
 12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be
 achieved as a result of the advice which will be rendered.
 
 13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does
 any one of the following:
 
 a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the
 investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any
 advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor
 or investment advisor representative;
 
 b. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment
 advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been
 profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all
 recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one
 year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:
 
 (1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature
 of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the
 recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market
 price of each security; and
 
 (2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that
 states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the
 future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in
 the list;
 
 c. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device
 being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when
 to buy or sell them; or which represents, directly or indirectly, that any
 graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in
 making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or
 when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement
 the limitations thereof and the risks associated to its use;
 
 d. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will
 be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other
 service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct
 or indirect condition or obligation;
 
 e. Represents that the commission has approved any
 advertisement; or
 
 f. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that
 is otherwise false or misleading. 
 
 For the purposes of this section, the term
 "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other
 written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other
 announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or
 by any medium, that offers any one of the following:
 
 (i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning
 securities;
 
 (ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used
 in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which
 security to buy or sell;
 
 (iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in
 making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which
 security to buy or sell; or
 
 (iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to
 securities.
 
 14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any
 client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a
 regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client, or failing
 to comply with any applicable privacy provision or standard promulgated by the
 SEC or by a self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC.
 
 15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to
 those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest,
 where the investment advisor has custody or possession of such securities or
 funds, when the investment advisor's action is subject to and does not comply
 with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 16. Entering into, extending or renewing any investment
 advisory contract unless the contract is in writing and discloses, in
 substance, the services to be provided, the term of the contract, the advisory
 fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount of prepaid fee to be
 returned in the event of contract termination or nonperformance, whether the
 contract grants discretionary power to the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor and that no assignment of such contract shall be made by the
 investment advisor or federal covered advisor without the consent of the other
 party to the contract.
 
 17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its
 customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for
 compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or
 securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted
 custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection
 Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's
 assets.
 
 18. Using a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability
 of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or
 indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating
 analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the
 user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior
 citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following: 
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation; 
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation; 
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or 
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that: 
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing; 
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants; 
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or 
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate. 
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute; 
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or 
 
 (3) An organization that is on the United States Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing. 
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional
 designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency, when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization. 
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services regulatory
 agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that regulates
 broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as defined under § 3
 (a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC § 80a-3(a)(1)). 
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of the law.
 
 B. An investment advisor representative is a fiduciary and
 has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his clients. While the extent
 and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the relationship
 between an investment advisor representative and his clients and the
 circumstances of each case, an investment advisor representative who is
 registered or required to be registered shall not engage in unethical practices,
 including the following:
 
 1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory,
 management or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale or exchange
 of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation
 is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client
 after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives,
 financial situation and needs, and any other information known or acquired by
 the investment advisor representative after reasonable examination of the
 client's financial records.
 
 2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client without written authority to do so.
 
 3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having
 obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.
 
 4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for
 the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written
 discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date
 of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority,
 unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the
 time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall
 be executed, or both.
 
 5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in
 size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives and
 character of the account.
 
 6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the
 client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor
 representative, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning
 funds or securities.
 
 7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor
 representative is engaged in the business of loaning funds or the client is an
 affiliate of the investment advisor representative.
 
 8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective
 advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor representative,
 or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being offered or fees to
 be charged for the services, or omission to state a material fact necessary to
 make the statements made regarding qualifications, services or fees, in light
 of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
 
 9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client
 prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered
 advisor who the investment advisor representative is employed by or associated
 with without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a
 situation where the investment advisor or federal covered advisor uses
 published research reports or statistical analyses to render advice or where an
 investment advisor or federal covered advisor orders such a report in the
 normal course of providing service.
 
 10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of
 the fees charged by other investment advisor representatives providing
 essentially the same services.
 
 11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any
 advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment
 advisor representative which could reasonably be expected to impair the
 rendering of unbiased and objective advice including:
 
 a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services
 to clients which are in addition to compensation from such clients for such
 services; or
 
 b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when
 a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will
 be received by the investment advisor representative.
 
 12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be
 achieved as a result of the advice which will be rendered.
 
 13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does
 any one of the following:
 
 a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the
 investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any
 advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor
 or investment advisor representative;
 
 b. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment
 advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been
 profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all
 recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one
 year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:
 
 (1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature
 of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the
 recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market
 price of each security; and
 
 (2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that
 states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the
 future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in
 the list;
 
 c. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device
 being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when
 to buy or sell them; or which represents, directly or indirectly, that any
 graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in
 making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or
 when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement
 the limitations thereof and the risks associated with its use;
 
 d. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will
 be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other
 service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct
 or indirect condition or obligation;
 
 e. Represents that the commission has approved any
 advertisement; or
 
 f. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that
 is otherwise false or misleading. 
 
 For the purposes of this section, the term
 "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other
 written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other
 announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or
 by any medium, that offers any one of the following:
 
 (i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning
 securities;
 
 (ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used
 in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which
 security to buy or sell;
 
 (iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in
 making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which
 security to buy or sell; or
 
 (iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to
 securities.
 
 14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any
 client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a
 regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client.
 
 15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to
 those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest, where
 the investment advisor representative other than a person associated with a
 federal covered advisor has custody or possession of such securities or funds,
 when the investment advisor representative's action is subject to and does not
 comply with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 16. Entering into, extending or renewing any investment
 advisory or federal covered advisory contract unless such contract is in
 writing and discloses, in substance, the services to be provided, the term of
 the contract, the advisory fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount
 of prepaid fee to be returned in the event of contract termination or
 nonperformance, whether the contract grants discretionary power to the
 investment advisor representative and that no assignment of such contract shall
 be made by the investment advisor representative without the consent of the
 other party to the contract.
 
 17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its
 customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for
 compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or
 securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted
 custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection
 Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's
 assets.
 
 18. Using a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability
 of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or
 indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating
 analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the
 user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior
 citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following: 
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation; 
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation; 
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or 
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that: 
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing; 
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants; 
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or 
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate. 
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute;
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or
 
 (3) An organization that is on the United States Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing.
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional
 designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency, when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization.
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services
 regulatory agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that
 regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as
 defined under § 3(a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC
 § 80a-3(a)(1).
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of law.
 
 C. The conduct set forth in subsections A and B of this
 section is not all inclusive. Engaging in other conduct such as nondisclosure,
 incomplete disclosure, or deceptive practices may be deemed an unethical
 business practice except to the extent permitted by the National Securities
 Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).
 
 D. The provisions of this section shall apply to federal
 covered advisors to the extent that fraud or deceit is involved, or as
 otherwise permitted by the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996
 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).
 
 E. An investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative may delay or refuse to place an order or to disburse funds that
 may involve or result in the financial exploitation of an individual pursuant
 to § 63.2-1606 L of the Code of Virginia.
 
 F. For purposes of the section, any mandatory arbitration
 provision in an advisory contract shall be prohibited.
 
 G. The investment advisor and investment advisor
 representative shall notify the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising,
 State Corporation Commission and the client of an unauthorized access to
 records that may expose a client's identity or investments to a third party
 within three business days of the discovery of the unauthorized access.
 
 21VAC5-80-260. Information security and privacy.
 
 A. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered shall establish, implement, update, and enforce written physical
 security and cybersecurity policies and procedures reasonably designed to
 ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of physical and
 electronic records and information. The policies and procedures shall be
 tailored to the investment advisor's business model, taking into account the
 size of the firm, type of services provided, and the number of locations of the
 investment advisor.
 
 1. The physical security and cybersecurity policies and
 procedures shall:
 
 a. Protect against reasonably anticipated threats or
 hazards to the security or integrity of client records and information;
 
 b. Ensure that the investment advisor safeguards
 confidential client records and information; and
 
 c. Protect any records and information the release of which
 could result in harm or inconvenience to any client.
 
 2. The physical security and cybersecurity policies and
 procedures shall cover at least five functions:
 
 a. The organizational understanding to manage information
 security risk to systems, assets, data, and capabilities;
 
 b. The appropriate safeguards to ensure delivery of critical
 infrastructure services;
 
 c. The appropriate activities to identify the occurrence of
 an information security event;
 
 d. The appropriate activities to take action regarding a
 detected information security event; and
 
 e. The appropriate activities to maintain plans for
 resilience and to restore any capabilities or services that were impaired due
 to an information security event.
 
 3. The investment advisor shall review, no less frequently
 than annually, and modify, as needed, these policies and procedures to ensure
 the adequacy of the security measures and the effectiveness of their
 implementation.
 
 B. The investment advisor shall deliver upon the
 investment advisor's engagement by a client, and on an annual basis thereafter,
 a privacy policy to each client that is reasonably designed to aid in the
 client's understanding of how the investment advisor collects and shares, to
 the extent permitted by state and federal law, nonpublic personal information.
 The investment advisor shall promptly update and deliver to each client an
 amended privacy policy if any of the information in the policy becomes
 inaccurate. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5907; Filed June 28, 2019, 12:01 p.m. 
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Proposed Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 21VAC5-20. Broker-Dealers,
 Broker-Dealer Agents and Agents of the Issuer (amending 21VAC5-20-280).
 
 21VAC5-30. Securities Registration (amending 21VAC5-30-80).
 
 21VAC5-45. Federal Covered Securities (amending 21VAC5-45-20).
 
 21VAC5-80. Investment Advisors (amending 21VAC5-80-10, 21VAC5-80-160, 21VAC5-80-200; adding
 21VAC5-80-260). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 13.1-523 of the Code
 of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information: Public hearing available
 upon request.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 9, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Hazel Stewart, Manager, Securities
 Retail Franchising, State Corporation Commission, Tyler Building, 9th Floor,
 P.O. Box 1197, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9685, FAX (804)
 371-9911, or email hazel.stewart@scc.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-20 (i) allow
 broker-dealers to delay or refuse transactions and disbursements of funds from
 the accounts of vulnerable adults where the financial institution suspects
 financial exploitation and (ii) update three documents incorporated by
 reference that pertain to continuing education adopted by federal
 self-regulatory organizations. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-30 (i) update a number of
 the statements of policy that apply to the registration of securities,
 including underwriting expenses, unsound financial condition, corporate
 securities definitions, and loans and other material transactions and (iii)
 incorporate by reference all statements of policy previously adopted by the
 State Corporation Commission. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-45 remove the date of
 adoption of Form D, which is the filing form for notices under federal Rule 506
 of Regulation D. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-80 (i) allow investment
 advisors to delay or refuse to place orders or disburse funds that may involve
 or result in financial exploitation of an individual; (ii) prohibit mandatory
 arbitration clauses in investment advisory contracts; (iii) based on the North
 American Securities Administrators Association May 18, 2019 Model Rule, add a
 new section that establishes the minimum policies and procedures to protect
 client information and privacy, including both physical and cybersecurity
 measures; (iv) add these information and cybersecurity policy and procedures to
 the list of required documents to be filed by investment advisor applicants and
 to the list of required records for investment advisors; (v) conform the
 regulation to the new model rule and remove the reference to the Securities and
 Exchange Commission and self-regulatory organizations; and (vi) make it a
 dishonest or unethical practice for an investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative to fail to report unauthorized access to a client's information
 to the commission and client within three business days of discovery. 
 
 AT RICHMOND, JUNE 27, 2019
 
 COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
 
 STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
 
 CASE NO. SEC-2019-00024
 
 Ex Parte: In the matter of
 Adopting a Revision to the Rules
 Governing the Virginia Securities Act
 
 ORDER TO TAKE NOTICE
 
 Section 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia ("Code")
 provides that the State Corporation Commission ("Commission") shall
 have the power to promulgate rules and regulations in the enforcement and
 administration of all laws within its jurisdiction. Section 13.1-523 of the Virginia
 Securities Act ("Act"), § 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code provides that
 the Commission may issue any rules and regulations necessary or appropriate for
 the administration and enforcement of the Act.
 
 The rules and regulations issued by the Commission pursuant
 to the Act are set forth in Title 21 of the Virginia Administrative Code. A
 copy also may be found at the Commission’s website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
 
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 20. Broker-Dealers, Broker-Dealer
 Agents and Agents of the Issuer. Prohibited Business Conduct
 
 Under certain provisions of Chapter 20, a broker-dealer is
 required to make securities trades and disburse funds from customer accounts
 within a prescribed period of time. The proposed amendment to Chapter 20
 provides for an exception to these provisions to allow broker-dealers to
 protect vulnerable customers from potential financial exploitation by
 permitting the broker-dealer to delay or refuse such transactions and
 disbursements.
 
 Financial exploitation is the fastest growing category of
 elder abuse in many states. It is estimated that one in every five older adults
 have been victimized by financial fraud. These frauds can be perpetrated by
 strangers, con artists, or even family members and caregivers in whom these
 adults place their trust. During the 2019 General Assembly, the legislature
 addressed the growing issue of financial exploitation of vulnerable adults by
 passing a new subsection L to § 63.2-1606 of the Code for the Protection
 of Aged or Incapacitated Adults.
 
 This new subsection allows financial institutions to delay
 transactions and refuse disbursements from the accounts of vulnerable adults
 where the financial institution suspects financial exploitation. With this new
 subsection a broker-dealer’s staff can report any information or records to the
 appropriate authorities if the staff has a good faith belief that the
 transaction or disbursement may involve financial exploitation of such adults.
 If the broker-dealer staff follows the requirements of the new subsection, they
 will be immune from civil or criminal liability, absent gross negligence or
 willful misconduct. 
 
 To effectuate the new statute subsection, the Division of
 Securities and Retail Franchising ("Division") proposes to add a
 subsection E to Commission Rule 21 VAC 5-20-280. The new subsection would allow
 a broker-dealer to delay distributions or refuse transactions if the
 broker-dealer complies with § 63.2-1606 L of the Code.
 
 In addition, Documents Incorporated by Reference in Chapter
 21 VAC 5-20-280 contain revisions to certain rules pertaining to continuing
 education adopted by federal self-regulatory organizations, including rule
 revisions for: (1) one revised effective October 1, 2018, by the Financial
 Industry Regulatory Authority ("FINRA"); (2) one revised effective
 October 1, 2018. by the New York Stock Exchange (superseded by new FINRA rule);
 and (3) one revised by the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 80. Investment Advisors.
 
 A. Dishonest or Unethical Practices.
 
 I. Proposed New Subsection E. Just as with the
 broker-dealers, the new legislation protecting vulnerable adults from financial
 exploitation, the Division proposes that new § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code apply to the practices of investment advisors. Investment advisors are
 charged with acting in the best interests of their clients and should do all
 they can to protect them from financial exploitation. The Division proposes to
 add a subsection under the Dishonest or Unethical Practices of Chapter 80 to
 the provide investment advisors the same relief under § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code as the Division proposes for broker-dealers.
 
 II. Proposed New Subsection F. Over twenty years ago,
 investors had a choice of investing with a firm that required arbitration or
 one that recognized a judicial forum for disputes. Today, almost all financial
 services contracts offered by broker-dealers includes a mandatory predispute
 arbitration provision that forces public investors to submit all disputes that
 they may have to mandatory arbitration. Many investors are not aware of this
 provision, nor do they have a choice, as all disputes are conducted through a
 single securities arbitration forum maintained by the securities industry.
 
 In 1996, the United States ("U.S.") Congress
 ("Congress") passed legislation entitled the National Securities
 Markets Improvement Act ("NSMIA").1 NSMIA effectively
 divided the regulation of investment advisors between the U.S. Securities and
 Exchange Commission ("SEC") and the states. In general, primary
 jurisdiction of investment advisors (known as state-covered advisors) with less
 than $100 million in assets under management fall under state regulation. 
 
 However, the state-covered investment advisors are now
 including boilerplate mandatory arbitration provisions in their clients'
 contracts. The Division believes, as do many other states, that these
 "take-it-or-leave-it" clauses in client contracts is inherently
 unfair to investors. It is particularly unfair when an investment advisor is
 required by law to act in the best interests of their clients. An investment
 advisor should not be allowed to force clients to bring any disputes to a forum
 of the investment advisor's choosing by contract.
 
 Therefore, the Division proposes to add a new subsection F to
 the Dishonest or Unethical Practices section of Chapter 80 to prohibit
 mandatory arbitration clauses in investment advisory contracts. There is
 nothing to prevent the investment advisor and their client from agreeing to
 arbitrated disputes after negotiation and discussion between each. To require
 mandatory arbitration in standard investment advisor contracts is contrary to
 the investment advisors mandate to act in the best interest of their clients.
 
 B. Proposed Investment Advisor Information Security and Privacy
 Rule. 
 
 In recent years, both state and federal regulators have been
 concerned about data privacy and security in the financial markets. By a vote
 of its members on May 18, 2019, the North American Securities Administrators
 Association ("NASAA"),2 adopted a model rule to address
 the basic structure for how state-registered investment advisors may design
 their information security policies and procedures. The new Model Rule requires
 investment advisors to adopt policies and procedures regarding information
 security and to deliver its privacy policy annually to clients. The Model Rule
 was adopted to create uniformity in both state regulation and state-registered
 investment advisors.
 
 I. Proposed New Section 260. Information Security and Privacy.
 This new section will be added to the rules for investment advisors to
 establish the minimum policies and procedures to protect client information and
 provide information privacy. The current Commission rules require the delivery
 of the investment advisor's privacy policy on a yearly basis, but the proposed
 new rule would further refine that requirement. In addition, the model rule
 adds the new requirements for client information security.
 
 II. Proposed Amendments to Section 10. Application for Registration
 as an Investment Advisor and Notice Filing as a Federal Covered Advisor. The
 proposed amendments add the information and cyber security policy and
 procedures to the list of required documents to be filed by investment advisor
 applicants. In addition, the proposed amendment requires the investment advisor
 to file a copy of their privacy policy, as required for the proposed new rule.
 
 III. Proposed Amendment to Section 160 A. Recordkeeping
 Requirements for Investment Advisors. Under section 160, investment advisors
 are required to keep certain records. These records are used by the Division
 staff to determine compliance with the securities laws and regulations. This
 amendment will add a new subsection 25 which will add the requirement that
 investment advisors keep a copy of the policies and procedures required by the
 proposed new section 260.
 
 IV. Proposed Amendments to Section 200. Dishonest or
 Unethical Practices
 
 (a) Prohibited conduct regarding privacy of information.
 Currently, subsection 14 of 200 A requires investment advisors to protect their
 client’s information and makes it a violation for the investment advisor to
 fail to comply with any applicable privacy provision or standard promulgated by
 the SEC or any self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC. Now that the
 NASAA membership has adopted similar requirements in the Model Rule, the
 Division proposes to amend this section to conform it to the new Model Rule.
 The proposed amendment removes the reference to the SEC and self-regulatory
 organizations since the state-covered advisors will be governed by the
 new section 260, if adopted.
 
 (b) Prohibited conduct regarding an investment advisor's
 failure to report an unauthorized access of a client's information to the
 Division and the client. The consequences of unauthorized access to a client's
 information could be devastating to the client. To address that, the Division
 proposes a new subsection G to section 200. The proposed new subsection makes
 it a dishonest or unethical practice for an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative to fail to report such unauthorized access to the
 Division and the client within three business days of discovery. If properly
 reported, the Division can work with the investment advisor and investment advisor
 representative to take the appropriate measures to limit the damage and prevent
 further unauthorized access.
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 30. Adoption of NASAA.
 Statements of Policy.
 
 The Division is a member of NASAA, the association of state
 securities regulatory agencies. As a part of its mission to provide a uniform
 approach to the state regulation of securities, the Division, along with the
 member states, develops and adopts statements of policy that apply to the
 registration of securities. From time-to-time, NASAA amends these statements of
 policy to keep them current and address changes in the types of products
 offered by industry members, as well the changing norms for the standards that
 will apply to those registrations.
 
 The proposed amendment updates a number of these statements
 of policy, including (1) underwriting expenses; (2) unsound financial
 condition; (3) corporate securities definitions; and (4) loans and other
 material transactions. NASAA vetted the proposed amendments by providing public
 notice and opportunity to comment. Following the expiration of the comment
 period, the revisions were adopted in May of 2018 by a vote of the NASAA
 members.
 
 In addition, Documents Incorporated by Reference in Chapter
 21 VAC5-30, will be updated to include all Statements of Policy previously
 adopted by the Commission in Section 8.
 
 Proposed Revisions to Chapter 45. Offerings conducted
 pursuant to Rule 506 of Regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): Filing Requirements and
 issuer-agent exemption.
 
 Many securities offerings today are made through a federal
 exemption known as Rule 506, which allows an issuer of securities who meets the
 requirements of the exemption to offer and sell securities in every state
 without registration. As a part of the adoption of this federal regulation,
 Congress provided a means for states to monitor these offerings in their state
 by allowing the states to accept notice filings made under the federal
 regulation.
 
 To make such notices uniform among the states, the Division
 adopted this rule to provide for the notice filing through the use of the
 filing form developed by the SEC, known as Form D.  Over the years since
 Form D was adopted, the SEC has amended the form.  In order to make it
 easier to keep up with the changes to Form D, and to allow the securities
 industry to use the appropriate form, the Division proposes to drop the date of
 adoption of Form D from the body of the regulation and instead update its form
 list (attached hereto to this Order), as necessary.
 
 The Division recommended to the Commission that the proposed
 revisions should be considered for adoption. The Division also has recommended
 to the Commission that a hearing should be held only if requested by those
 interested parties who specifically indicate that a hearing is necessary and
 the reasons therefore.
 
 A copy of the proposed revisions may be requested by
 interested parties from the Division by telephone, mail, or e-mail request and
 also can be found at the Division's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/division/srf. Any comments to the
 proposed rules must be received by August 9, 2019. 
 
 Accordingly, IT IS THEREFORE ORDERED THAT:
 
 (1) The proposed revisions are appended hereto and made a
 part of the record herein.
 
 (2) On or before August 9, 2019, comments or request for
 hearing on the proposed revisions must be submitted in writing to Joel H. Peck,
 Clerk of the Commission, c/o Document Control Center, P.O. Box 2118, Richmond,
 Virginia 23218. A request for hearing shall state why a hearing is necessary
 and why the issues cannot be adequately addressed in written comments. All
 correspondence shall contain reference to Case No. SEC-2019-00024. Interested
 persons desiring to submit comments electronically may do so by following the
 instructions available at the Commission's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
 
 (3) The proposed revisions shall be posted on the
 Commission's website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case and on
 the Division’s website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/srf.
 Interested persons also may request a copy of the proposed revisions from the
 Division by telephone, mail or e-mail.
 
 AN ATTESTED COPY HEREOF, together with a copy of the proposed
 revisions, shall be sent to the Registrar of Regulations for publication in the
 Virginia Register of Regulations.
 
 AN ATTESTED COPY HEREOF shall be sent to the Director of the
 Division of Securities and Retail Franchising who shall forthwith mail a copy
 of this Order to any interested persons as he may designate.
 
 _________________________________
 
 1Pub.L. No. 104-290, 110 Stat. 3415 (codified
 through various parts of 15 USC 2006).
 
 2NASAA is the membership organization of state
 securities regulators.
 
 21VAC5-20-280. Prohibited business conduct.
 
 A. Every broker-dealer is required to observe high standards
 of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct
 of its business. The acts and practices described in this subsection are
 considered contrary to such standards and may constitute grounds for denial,
 suspension, or revocation of registration or such other action authorized by
 the Act. No broker-dealer who is registered or required to be registered shall:
 
 1. Engage in a pattern of unreasonable and unjustifiable
 delays in the delivery of securities purchased by any of its customers or in
 the payment upon request of free credit balances reflecting completed transactions
 of any of its customers, or take any action that directly or indirectly
 interferes with a customer's ability to transfer his account; provided that the
 account is not subject to any lien for moneys owed by the customer or other
 bona fide claim, including, but not limited to, seeking a judicial order
 or decree that would bar or restrict the submission, delivery or acceptance of
 a written request from a customer to transfer his account;
 
 2. Induce trading in a customer's account which is excessive
 in size or frequency in view of the financial resources and character of the
 account;
 
 3. Recommend to a customer the purchase, sale or exchange of
 any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation is
 suitable for the customer. The reasonable basis to recommend any such
 transaction to a customer shall be based upon the risks associated with a
 particular security, and the information obtained through the diligence and
 inquiry of the broker-dealer to ascertain the customer's investment profile. A
 customer's investment profile includes, but is not limited to, the
 customer's investment objectives, financial situation, risk tolerance and
 needs, tax status, age, other investments, investment experience, investment
 time horizon, liquidity needs, and any other relevant information known by the
 broker-dealer or of which the broker-dealer is otherwise made aware in
 connection with such recommendation;
 
 4. Execute a transaction on behalf of a customer without
 authority to do so or, when securities are held in a customer's account, fail
 to execute a sell transaction involving those securities as instructed by a
 customer, without reasonable cause;
 
 5. Exercise any discretionary power in effecting a transaction
 for a customer's account without first obtaining written discretionary
 authority from the customer, unless the discretionary power relates solely to
 the time or price for the execution of orders;
 
 6. Execute any transaction in a margin account without
 securing from the customer a properly executed written margin agreement
 promptly after the initial transaction in the account, or fail, prior to or at
 the opening of a margin account, to disclose to a noninstitutional customer the
 operation of a margin account and the risks associated with trading on margin at
 least as comprehensively as required by FINRA Rule 2264;
 
 7. Fail to segregate customers' free securities or securities
 held in safekeeping;
 
 8. Hypothecate a customer's securities without having a lien
 thereon unless the broker-dealer secures from the customer a properly executed
 written consent promptly after the initial transaction, except as permitted by
 Rules of the SEC;
 
 9. Enter into a transaction with or for a customer at a price
 not reasonably related to the current market price of a security or receiving
 an unreasonable commission or profit;
 
 10. Fail to furnish to a customer purchasing securities in an
 offering, no later than the date of confirmation of the transaction, either a
 final prospectus or a preliminary prospectus and an additional document, which
 together include all information set forth in the final prospectus, either by
 (i) hard copy prospectus delivery or (ii) electronic prospectus delivery;
 
 11. Introduce customer transactions on a "fully
 disclosed" basis to another broker-dealer that is not exempt under § 13.1-514
 B 6 of the Act;
 
 12. a. Charge unreasonable and inequitable fees for services
 performed, including miscellaneous services such as collection of moneys due
 for principal, dividends or interest, exchange or transfer of securities,
 appraisals, safekeeping, or custody of securities and other services related to
 its securities business;
 
 b. Charge a fee based on the activity, value or contents (or
 lack thereof) of a customer account unless written disclosure pertaining to the
 fee, which shall include information about the amount of the fee, how
 imposition of the fee can be avoided and any consequence of late payment or
 nonpayment of the fee, was provided no later than the date the account was
 established or, with respect to an existing account, at least 60 days prior to
 the effective date of the fee;
 
 13. Offer to buy from or sell to any person any security at a
 stated price unless the broker-dealer is prepared to purchase or sell at the
 price and under such conditions as are stated at the time of the offer to buy
 or sell;
 
 14. Represent that a security is being offered to a customer
 "at a market" or a price relevant to the market price unless the
 broker-dealer knows or has reasonable grounds to believe that a market for the
 security exists other than that made, created or controlled by the
 broker-dealer, or by any person for whom he is acting or with whom he is
 associated in the distribution, or any person controlled by, controlling or
 under common control with the broker-dealer;
 
 15. Effect any transaction in, or induce the purchase or sale
 of, any security by means of any manipulative, deceptive or fraudulent device,
 practice, plan, program, design or contrivance, which may include but not be
 limited to:
 
 a. Effecting any transaction in a security which involves no
 change in the beneficial ownership thereof;
 
 b. Entering an order or orders for the purchase or sale
 of any security with the knowledge that an order or orders of
 substantially the same size, at substantially the same time and substantially
 the same price, for the sale of any security, has been or will be entered by or
 for the same or different parties for the purpose of creating a false or
 misleading appearance of active trading in the security or a false or
 misleading appearance with respect to the market for the security; however,
 nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit a broker-dealer from entering bona
 fide agency cross transactions for its customers; or
 
 c. Effecting, alone or with one or more other persons, a
 series of transactions in any security creating actual or apparent active
 trading in the security or raising or depressing the price of the security, for
 the purpose of inducing the purchase or sale of the security by others;
 
 16. Guarantee a customer against loss in any securities
 account of the customer carried by the broker-dealer or in any securities
 transaction effected by the broker-dealer with or for the customer;
 
 17. Publish or circulate, or cause to be published or
 circulated, any notice, circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment
 service, or communication of any kind which purports to report any transaction
 as a purchase or sale of any security unless the broker-dealer believes that
 the transaction was a bona fide purchase or sale of the security; or which
 purports to quote the bid price or asked price for any security, unless the
 broker-dealer believes that the quotation represents a bona fide bid for, or
 offer of, the security;
 
 18. Use any advertising or sales presentation in such a
 fashion as to be deceptive or misleading. An example of such practice would be
 a distribution of any nonfactual data, material or presentation based on
 conjecture, unfounded or unrealistic claims or assertions in any brochure,
 flyer, or display by words, pictures, graphs or otherwise designed to
 supplement, detract from, supersede or defeat the purpose or effect of any
 prospectus or disclosure;
 
 19. Fail to make reasonably available upon request to any
 person expressing an interest in a solicited transaction in a security, not
 listed on a registered securities exchange or quoted on an automated quotation
 system operated by a national securities association approved by regulation of
 the commission, a balance sheet of the issuer as of a date within 18 months of
 the offer or sale of the issuer's securities and a profit and loss statement
 for either the fiscal year preceding that date or the most recent year of
 operations, the names of the issuer's proprietor, partners or officers, the
 nature of the enterprises of the issuer and any available information
 reasonably necessary for evaluating the desirability or lack of desirability of
 investing in the securities of an issuer. All transactions in securities
 described in this subdivision shall comply with the provisions of § 13.1-507 of
 the Act;
 
 20. Fail to disclose that the broker-dealer is controlled by,
 controlling, affiliated with or under common control with the issuer of any
 security before entering into any contract with or for a customer for the
 purchase or sale of the security, the existence of control to the customer, and
 if disclosure is not made in writing, it shall be supplemented by the giving or
 sending of written disclosure at or before the completion of the transaction;
 
 21. Fail to make a bona fide public offering of all of the
 securities allotted to a broker-dealer for distribution, whether acquired as an
 underwriter, a selling group member, or from a member participating in the
 distribution as an underwriter or selling group member;
 
 22. Fail or refuse to furnish a customer, upon reasonable
 request, information to which the customer is entitled, or to respond to a
 formal written request or complaint; 
 
 23. Fail to clearly and separately disclose to its customer,
 prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for compensation
 or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or securities
 will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted custodian, in a
 manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection Corporation
 protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's assets;
 
 24. Market broker-dealer services that are associated with
 financial institutions in a manner that is misleading or confusing to customers
 as to the nature of securities products or risks; 
 
 25. In transactions subject to breakpoints, fail to:
 
 a. Utilize advantageous breakpoints without reasonable basis
 for their exclusion;
 
 b. Determine information that should be recorded on the books
 and records of a member or its clearing firm, which is necessary to determine
 the availability and appropriateness of breakpoint opportunities; or
 
 c. Inquire whether the customer has positions or transactions
 away from the member that should be considered in connection with the pending
 transaction and apprise the customer of the breakpoint opportunities; 
 
 26. Use a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of securities that indicates or
 implies that the user has special certification or training in advising or
 servicing senior citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following:
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation;
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation;
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that:
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing;
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants;
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate.
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 26 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by: 
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute;
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or
 
 (3) An organization that is on the U.S. Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing.
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or
 professional designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization. 
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services
 regulatory agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that
 regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as
 defined under § 3 (a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC
 § 80a-3(a)(1)).
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of law;
 
 27. Represent that securities will be listed or that
 application for listing will be made on a securities exchange or the National
 Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations (NASDAQ) system or other
 quotation system without reasonable basis in fact for the representation;
 
 28. Falsify or alter so as to make false or misleading any
 record or document or any information provided to the commission;
 
 29. Negotiate, facilitate, or otherwise execute a transaction
 on behalf of an investor involving securities issued by a third party pursuant
 to a claim for exemption under subsection B of § 13.1-514 of the Act
 unless the broker-dealer intends to report the securities owned and the value
 of such securities on at least a quarterly basis to the investor;
 
 30. Offer or sell securities pursuant to a claim for exemption
 under subsection B of § 13.1-514 of the Act without having first verified the
 information relating to the securities offered or sold, which shall include,
 but not be limited to, ascertaining the risks associated with investing in
 the respective security;
 
 31. Allow any person to represent or utilize its name as a
 trading platform without conspicuously disclosing the name of the registered
 broker-dealer in effecting or attempting to effect purchases and sales of
 securities; or
 
 32. Engage in any conduct that constitutes a dishonest or
 unethical practice including, but not limited to, forgery, embezzlement,
 nondisclosure, incomplete disclosure or material omissions or untrue statements
 of material facts, manipulative or deceptive practices, or fraudulent course of
 business.
 
 B. Every agent is required to observe high standards of
 commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct of
 his business. The acts and practices described in this subsection are
 considered contrary to such standards and may constitute grounds for denial,
 suspension, or revocation of registration or such other action authorized by
 the Act. No agent who is registered or required to be registered shall:
 
 1. Engage in the practice of lending or borrowing money or
 securities from a customer, or acting as a custodian for money, securities or
 an executed stock power of a customer;
 
 2. Effect any securities transaction not recorded on the
 regular books or records of the broker-dealer which the agent represents,
 unless the transaction is authorized in writing by the broker-dealer prior to
 execution of the transaction;
 
 3. Establish or maintain an account containing fictitious
 information in order to execute a transaction which would otherwise be unlawful
 or prohibited;
 
 4. Share directly or indirectly in profits or losses in the
 account of any customer without the written authorization of the customer and
 the broker-dealer which the agent represents;
 
 5. Divide or otherwise split the agent's commissions, profits
 or other compensation from the purchase or sale of securities in this
 Commonwealth with any person not also registered as an agent for the same
 broker-dealer, or for a broker-dealer under direct or indirect common control;
 
 6. Engage in conduct specified in subdivision A 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
 10, 15, 16, 17, 18, 23, 24, 25, 26, 28, 30, 31, or 32 of this section;
 
 7. Fail to comply with the continuing education requirements
 under 21VAC5-20-150 C; or
 
 8. Hold oneself out as representing any person other than the
 broker-dealer with whom the agent is registered and, in the case of an agent
 whose normal place of business is not on the premises of the broker-dealer,
 failing to conspicuously disclose the name of the broker-dealer for whom the
 agent is registered when representing the dealer in effecting or attempting to
 effect the purchases or sales of securities.
 
 C. No person shall publish, give publicity to, or circulate
 any notice, circular, advertisement, newspaper article, letter, investment
 service or communication which, though not purporting to offer a security for
 sale, describes the security, for a consideration received or to be received,
 directly or indirectly, from an issuer, underwriter, or dealer, without fully
 disclosing the receipt, whether past or prospective, of such consideration and
 the amount thereof.
 
 D. The purpose of this subsection is to identify practices in
 the securities business that are generally associated with schemes to
 manipulate and to identify prohibited business conduct of broker-dealers or
 sales agents who are registered or required to be registered.
 
 1. Entering into a transaction with a customer in any security
 at an unreasonable price or at a price not reasonably related to the current
 market price of the security or receiving an unreasonable commission or profit.
 
 2. Contradicting or negating the importance of any information
 contained in a prospectus or other offering materials with intent to deceive or
 mislead or using any advertising or sales presentation in a deceptive or
 misleading manner.
 
 3. In connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of a
 security, falsely leading a customer to believe that the broker-dealer or agent
 is in possession of material, nonpublic information that would affect the value
 of the security.
 
 4. In connection with the solicitation of a sale or purchase
 of a security, engaging in a pattern or practice of making contradictory
 recommendations to different investors of similar investment objective for some
 to sell and others to purchase the same security, at or about the same time,
 when not justified by the particular circumstances of each investor.
 
 5. Failing to make a bona fide public offering of all the
 securities allotted to a broker-dealer for distribution by, among other things,
 (i) transferring securities to a customer, another broker-dealer, or a
 fictitious account with the understanding that those securities will be
 returned to the broker-dealer or its nominees or (ii) parking or withholding
 securities.
 
 6. a. In addition to the application of the general anti-fraud
 provisions against anyone in connection with practices similar in nature to the
 practices discussed in this subdivision 6, the following subdivisions (1)
 through (6) specifically apply only in connection with the solicitation of a
 purchase or sale of over the counter (OTC) unlisted non-NASDAQ equity
 securities except those exempt from registration under 21VAC5-40-50:
 
 (1) Failing to advise the customer, both at the time of
 solicitation and on the confirmation, of any and all compensation related to a
 specific securities transaction to be paid to the agent including commissions,
 sales charges, or concessions.
 
 (2) In connection with a principal transaction, failing to
 disclose, both at the time of solicitation and on the confirmation, a short
 inventory position in the firm's account of more than 3.0% of the issued and
 outstanding shares of that class of securities of the issuer; however, this
 subdivision 6 of this subsection shall apply only if the firm is a market maker
 at the time of the solicitation.
 
 (3) Conducting sales contests in a particular security.
 
 (4) After a solicited purchase
 by a customer, failing or refusing, in connection with a principal transaction,
 to promptly execute sell orders.
 
 (5) Soliciting a secondary
 market transaction when there has not been a bona fide distribution in the
 primary market.
 
 (6) Engaging in a pattern of
 compensating an agent in different amounts for effecting sales and purchases in
 the same security.
 
 b. Although subdivisions D 6 a (1) through (6) of this section
 do not apply to OTC unlisted non-NASDAQ equity securities exempt from
 registration under 21VAC5-40-50, nothing in this subsection precludes
 application of the general anti-fraud provisions against anyone in connection
 with practices similar in nature to the practices discussed in subdivisions D 6
 a (1) through (6) of this section. 
 
 7. Effecting any transaction in, or inducing the purchase or
 sale of, any security by means of any manipulative, deceptive, or other
 fraudulent device or contrivance including but not limited to the use of
 boiler room tactics or use of fictitious or nominee accounts.
 
 8. Failing to comply with any prospectus delivery requirements
 promulgated under federal law or the Act.
 
 9. In connection with the solicitation of a sale or purchase
 of an OTC unlisted non-NASDAQ security, failing to promptly provide the most
 current prospectus or the most recently filed periodic report filed under § 13
 of the Securities Exchange Act when requested to do so by a customer.
 
 10. Marking any order tickets or confirmations as unsolicited
 when in fact the transaction was solicited.
 
 11. For any month in which activity has occurred in a
 customer's account, but in no event less than every three months, failing to
 provide each customer with a statement of account with respect to all OTC
 non-NASDAQ equity securities in the account, containing a value for each such
 security based on the closing market bid on a date certain; however, this
 subdivision shall apply only if the firm has been a market maker in the
 security at any time during the month in which the monthly or quarterly
 statement is issued.
 
 12. Failing to comply with any applicable provision of the
 FINRA Rules or any applicable fair practice, privacy, or ethical standard promulgated
 by the SEC or by a self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC.
 
 13. In connection with the solicitation of a purchase or sale
 of a designated security:
 
 a. Failing to disclose to the customer the bid and ask price,
 at which the broker-dealer effects transactions with individual, retail
 customers, of the designated security as well as its spread in both percentage
 and dollar amounts at the time of solicitation and on the trade confirmation
 documents; or
 
 b. Failing to include with the confirmation, the notice
 disclosure contained under 21VAC5-20-285, except the following shall be exempt
 from this requirement:
 
 (1) Transactions in which the price of the designated security
 is $5.00 or more, exclusive of costs or charges; however, if the designated security
 is a unit composed of one or more securities, the unit price divided by the
 number of components of the unit other than warrants, options, rights, or
 similar securities must be $5.00 or more, and any component of the unit that is
 a warrant, option, right, or similar securities, or a convertible security must
 have an exercise price or conversion price of $5.00 or more.
 
 (2) Transactions that are not recommended by the broker-dealer
 or agent.
 
 (3) Transactions by a broker-dealer (i) whose commissions, commission
 equivalents, and mark-ups from transactions in designated securities during
 each of the preceding three months, and during 11 or more of the preceding 12
 months, did not exceed 5.0% of its total commissions, commission-equivalents,
 and mark-ups from transactions in securities during those months; and (ii) who
 has not executed principal transactions in connection with the solicitation to
 purchase the designated security that is the subject of the transaction in the
 preceding 12 months.
 
 (4) Any transaction or transactions that, upon prior written
 request or upon its own motion, the commission conditionally or unconditionally
 exempts as not encompassed within the purposes of this section.
 
 c. For purposes of this section, the term "designated
 security" means any equity security other than a security:
 
 (1) Registered, or approved for registration upon notice of
 issuance, on a national securities exchange and makes transaction reports
 available pursuant to 17 CFR 11Aa3-1 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
 
 (2) Authorized, or approved for authorization upon notice of
 issuance, for quotation in the NASDAQ system;
 
 (3) Issued by an investment company registered under the
 Investment Company Act of 1940;
 
 (4) That is a put option or call option issued by The Options
 Clearing Corporation; or
 
 (5) Whose issuer has net tangible assets in excess of $4
 million as demonstrated by financial statements dated within no less than 15
 months that the broker-dealer has reviewed and has a reasonable basis to
 believe are true and complete in relation to the date of the transaction with
 the person, and
 
 (a) In the event the issuer is other than a foreign private
 issuer, are the most recent financial statements for the issuer that have been
 audited and reported on by an independent public accountant in accordance with
 the provisions of 17 CFR 210.2-02 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or
 
 (b) In the event the issuer is a foreign private issuer, are
 the most recent financial statements for the issuer that have been filed with
 the SEC; furnished to the SEC pursuant to 17 CFR 240.12g3-2(b) under the
 Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or prepared in accordance with generally
 accepted accounting principles in the country of incorporation, audited in
 compliance with the requirements of that jurisdiction, and reported on by an
 accountant duly registered and in good standing in accordance with the
 regulations of that jurisdiction.
 
 E. A broker-dealer or an agent may delay or refuse a
 transaction or a disbursement of funds that may involve or result in the
 financial exploitation of an individual pursuant to § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (21VAC5-20)
 
 Rule 1250 of FINRA By-Laws, Continuing Education
 Requirements, amended by SR-FINRA-2011-013, eff. October 17, 2011, Financial
 Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.
 
 Rule 345 A of the New York Stock Exchange Rules,
 Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995,
 New York Stock Exchange.
 
 Rule G-3(h) of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board,
 Classification of Principals and Representatives; Numerical Requirements;
 Testing; Continuing Education Requirements, effective as existed July 1, 1995,
 Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
 
 Rule
 1240 of FINRA By-Laws, Continuing Education Requirements, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2017-007, eff. October 1, 2018, Financial Industry Regulatory
 Authority, Inc.
 
 Rule
 345 A of the New York Stock Exchange Rules, Continuing Education for Registered
 Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995, New York Stock Exchange, superseded
 by Financial Industry Regulation Authority, Inc. Rule 1200 Series - Rule, 1240,
 eff. October 1, 2018
 
 Rule
 G-3(i) of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board, Classification of
 Principals and Representatives; Numerical Requirements; Testing; Continuing
 Education Requirements, effective as existed July 1, 1995, Municipal Securities
 Rulemaking Board
 
 Rule 341A of the New York Stock Exchange Market Rules,
 Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed May 14, 2012,
 New York Stock Exchange. 
 
 Rule 9.3A of the Chicago Board Options Exchange, Continuing
 Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995, Chicago
 Board Options Exchange.
 
 Article VI, Rule 11 of the Rules of the Chicago Stock
 Exchange, Inc., Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as
 existed July 1, 1995, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.
 
 FINRA, Rule 2264, Margin Disclosure Statement, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2011-065, eff. December 5, 2011.
 
 Article I, Paragraph u of FINRA By-Laws, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2008-0026, eff. December 15, 2008.
 
 21VAC5-30-80. Adoption of North American Securities
 Administration Association, Inc. statements of policy.
 
 The commission adopts the following North American Securities
 Administration Association, Inc. (NASAA) statements of policy that shall apply
 to the registration of securities in the Commonwealth. It will be considered a
 basis for denial of an application if an offering fails to comply with an
 applicable statement of policy. While applications not conforming to a
 statement of policy shall be looked upon with disfavor, where good cause is
 shown, certain provisions may be modified or waived by the commission.
 
 1. Options and Warrants, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 2. Underwriting Expenses, Underwriter's Warrants, Selling
 Expenses and Selling Security Holders, as amended March 31, 2008 May
 6, 2018.
 
 3. Real Estate Programs, as amended May 7, 2007.
 
 4. Oil and Gas Programs, as amended May 6, 2012.
 
 5. Cattle-Feeding Programs, as adopted September 17, 1980.
 
 6. Unsound Financial Condition, as amended March 31, 2008
 May 6, 2018.
 
 7. Real Estate Investment Trusts, as amended May 7, 2007.
 
 8. Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981.
 
 9. Small Company Offering Registrations, as adopted April 28,
 1996.
 
 10. NASAA Guidelines Regarding Viatical Investment, as adopted
 October 1, 2002.
 
 11. Corporate Securities Definitions, as amended March 31,
 2008 May 6, 2018.
 
 12. Church Extension Fund Securities, as amended April 18,
 2004.
 
 13. Promotional Shares, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 14. Loans and Other Material Transactions, as amended March
 31, 2008 May 6, 2018.
 
 15. Impoundment of Proceeds, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 16. Electronic Offering Documents and Electronic Signatures,
 as adopted May 8, 2017.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (21VAC5-30)
 
 Statement of Policy Regarding Church Extension Fund
 Securities, adopted April 17, 1994, amended April 18, 2004, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Extension Fund Securities as amended April 18, 2004,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Options and Warrants, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Underwriting Expenses, Underwriter's Warrants, Selling
 Expenses and Selling Security Holders, as amended May 6, 2018, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Unsound Financial Condition, as amended May 6, 2018, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Real Estate Programs, as amended May 7, 2007, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Oil and Gas Programs, as amended May 6, 2012, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Small Company Offering Registrations, as adopted April 28,
 1996, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 NASAA
 Guidelines Regarding Viatical Investment, as adopted October 1, 2002, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Corporate Securities Definitions, as amended May 6, 2018,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Promotional Shares, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Loans and Other Material Transactions, as amended May 6,
 2018, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Impoundment of Proceeds, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Electronic Offering Documents and Electronic Signatures, as
 adopted May 8, 2017, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Cattle-Feeding Programs, as adopted September 17, 1980,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 21VAC5-45-20. Offerings conducted pursuant to Rule 506 of
 federal Regulation regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): Filing filing
 requirements and issuer-agent exemption.
 
 A. An issuer offering a security that is a covered security
 under § 18 (b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77r(b)(4)(D))
 shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale of
 such federal covered security in this Commonwealth: 
 
 1. A notice on SEC Form D (17 CFR 239.500), as filed with the
 SEC. 
 
 2. A filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. 
 
 B. An amendment filing shall contain a copy of the amended
 SEC Form D. No fee is required for an amendment. 
 
 C. For the purpose of this chapter, SEC "Form D" is
 the document, as adopted by the SEC, and in effect on September 23, 2013,
 entitled "Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities."
 
 D. Pursuant to § 13.1-514 B 13 of the Act, an agent of an
 issuer who effects transactions in a security exempt from registration under
 the Securities Act of 1933 pursuant to rules and regulations promulgated under
 § 4(2) thereof (15 USC § 77d(2)) is exempt from the agent registration
 requirements of the Act. 
 
 
 
 NOTICE: Forms used in
 administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The forms are not
 being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia Register
 of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to access it.
 The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the
 Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main Street, 11th Floor,
 Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
 
  
 
 FORMS (21VAC5-45) 
 
 Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities, U.S.
 Securities and Exchange Commission, SEC1972 (rev. 2/2012) 
 
 Form
 D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities, U.S. Securities and Exchange
 Commission, SEC1972 (rev. 5/2017)
 
 Uniform Consent to Service of Process, Form U-2
 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 Uniform Notice of Regulation A - Tier 2 Offering
 (undated, filed 10/2016)
 
 Form NF - Uniform Investment Company Notice Filing
 (4/1997)
 
 Uniform Notice of Federal Crowdfunding Offering,
 Form U-CF (undated, filed 9/2017)
 
 Part I 
 Investment Advisor Registration, Notice Filing for Federal Covered Advisors,
 Expiration, Renewal, Updates and Amendments, Terminations and Merger or
 Consolidation
 
 21VAC5-80-10. Application for registration as an investment
 advisor and notice filing as a federal covered advisor.
 
 A. Application for registration as an investment advisor
 shall be filed in compliance with all requirements of IARD and in full
 compliance with forms and regulations prescribed by the commission and shall
 include all information required by such forms.
 
 B. An application shall be deemed incomplete for registration
 as an investment advisor unless the applicant submits the following executed
 forms, fee, and information: 
 
 1. Form ADV Parts 1 and 2 submitted to IARD.
 
 2. The statutory fee made payable to FINRA in the amount of
 $200 submitted to IARD pursuant to § 13.1-505 F of the Act.
 
 3. A copy of the client agreement. 
 
 4. A copy of the firm's supervisory and procedures manual as
 required by 21VAC5-80-170. 
 
 5. Copies of all advertising materials. 
 
 6. Copies of all stationery and business cards. 
 
 7. A signed affidavit stating that an investment advisor
 domiciled in Virginia has not conducted investment advisory business prior to
 registration, and for investment advisors domiciled outside of Virginia an
 affidavit stating that the advisor has fewer than six clients in the prior
 12-month period. 
 
 8. An audited or certified balance sheet prepared in
 accordance with generally accepted accounting practices reflecting the
 financial condition of the investment advisor not more than 90 days prior to
 the date of such filing.
 
 9. A copy of the firm's disaster recovery plan as required by
 21VAC5-80-160 F.
 
 10. Evidence of at least one qualified individual with an
 investment advisor representative registration pending on IARD on behalf of the
 investment advisor. 
 
 11. A copy of the firm’s physical security and
 cybersecurity policies and procedures as required by 21VAC5-80-260 A.
 
 12. A copy of the firm’s privacy policy as required by
 21VAC5-80-260 B.
 
 13. Any other information the commission may require.
 
 For purposes of this section, the term "net worth"
 means an excess of assets over liabilities, as determined by generally accepted
 accounting principles. Net worth shall not include: prepaid expenses (except as
 to items properly classified as assets under generally accepted accounting
 principles), deferred charges such as deferred income tax charges, goodwill,
 franchise rights, organizational expenses, patents, copyrights, marketing
 rights, unamortized debt discount and expense, all other assets of intangible
 nature, home furnishings, automobiles, and any other personal items not readily
 marketable in the case of an individual; advances or loans to stockholders and
 officers in the case of a corporation; and advances or loans to partners in the
 case of a partnership.
 
 C. The commission shall either grant or deny each application
 for registration within 30 days after it is filed. However, if additional time
 is needed to obtain or verify information regarding the application, the
 commission may extend such period as much as 90 days by giving written notice
 to the applicant. No more than three such extensions may be made by the
 commission on any one application. An extension of the initial 30-day period,
 not to exceed 90 days, shall be granted upon written request of the applicant. 
 
 D. Every person who transacts business in this Commonwealth
 as a federal covered advisor shall file a notice as prescribed in subsection E
 of this section in compliance with all requirements of the IARD. 
 
 E. A notice filing for a federal covered advisor shall be
 deemed incomplete unless the federal covered advisor submits the following executed
 forms, fee, and information: 
 
 1. Form ADV Parts 1 and 2. 
 
 2. A fee made payable to FINRA in the amount of $200. 
 
 21VAC5-80-160. Recordkeeping requirements for investment
 advisors.
 
 A. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered under the Act shall make and keep true, accurate and current the
 following books, ledgers and records, except an investment advisor having its
 principal place of business outside this Commonwealth and registered or
 licensed, and in compliance with the applicable books and records requirements,
 in the state where its principal place of business is located, shall only be
 required to make, keep current, maintain and preserve such of the following
 required books, ledgers and records as are not in addition to those required
 under the laws of the state in which it maintains its principal place of
 business:
 
 1. A journal or journals, including cash receipts and
 disbursements records, and any other records of original entry forming the
 basis of entries in any ledger.
 
 2. General and auxiliary ledgers (or other comparable records)
 reflecting asset, liability, reserve, capital, income and expense accounts.
 
 3. A memorandum of each order given by the investment advisor
 for the purchase or sale of any security, of any instruction received by the
 investment advisor from the client concerning the purchase, sale, receipt or
 delivery of a particular security, and of any modification or cancellation of
 any such order or instruction. The memoranda shall show the terms and conditions
 of the order, instruction, modification or cancellation; shall identify the
 person connected with the investment advisor who recommended the transaction to
 the client and the person who placed the order; and shall show the account for
 which entered, the date of entry, and the bank, broker or dealer by or through
 whom executed where appropriate. Orders entered pursuant to the exercise of
 discretionary power shall be so designated.
 
 4. All check books, bank statements, canceled checks and cash
 reconciliations of the investment advisor.
 
 5. All bills or statements (or copies of), paid or unpaid,
 relating to the business as an investment advisor.
 
 6. All trial balances, financial statements prepared in
 accordance with generally accepted accounting principles which shall include a
 balance sheet, income statement and such other statements as may be required
 pursuant to 21VAC5-80-180, and internal audit working papers relating to the
 investment advisor's business as an investment advisor.
 
 7. Originals of all written communications received and copies
 of all written communications sent by the investment advisor relating to (i)
 any recommendation made or proposed to be made and any advice given or proposed
 to be given; (ii) any receipt, disbursement or delivery of funds or securities;
 and (iii) the placing or execution of any order to purchase or sell any
 security; however, (a) the investment advisor shall not be required to keep any
 unsolicited market letters and other similar communications of general public
 distribution not prepared by or for the investment advisor, and (b) if the
 investment advisor sends any notice, circular or other advertisement offering
 any report, analysis, publication or other investment advisory service to more
 than 10 persons, the investment advisor shall not be required to keep a record
 of the names and addresses of the persons to whom it was sent; except that if
 the notice, circular or advertisement is distributed to persons named on any
 list, the investment advisor shall retain with a copy of the notice, circular
 or advertisement a memorandum describing the list and the source thereof.
 
 8. A list or other record of all accounts which list
 identifies the accounts in which the investment advisor is vested with any
 discretionary power with respect to the funds, securities or transactions of
 any client.
 
 9. All powers of attorney and other evidences of the granting
 of any discretionary authority by any client to the investment advisor, or
 copies thereof.
 
 10. All written agreements (or copies thereof) entered into by
 the investment advisor with any client, and all other written agreements
 otherwise related to the investment advisor's business as an investment
 advisor.
 
 11. A file containing a copy of each notice, circular,
 advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or other
 communication including by electronic media that the investment advisor
 circulates or distributes, directly or indirectly, to two or more persons
 (other than persons connected with the investment advisor), and if the notice,
 circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or
 other communication including by electronic media recommends the purchase or
 sale of a specific security and does not state the reasons for the
 recommendation, a memorandum of the investment adviser indicating the reasons
 for the recommendation.
 
 12. a. A record of every transaction in a security in which
 the investment advisor or any investment advisory representative of the
 investment advisor has, or by reason of any transaction acquires, any direct or
 indirect beneficial ownership, except (i) transactions effected in any account
 over which neither the investment advisor nor any investment advisory
 representative of the investment advisor has any direct or indirect influence
 or control; and (ii) transactions in securities which are direct obligations of
 the United States. The record shall state the title and amount of the security
 involved; the date and nature of the transaction (i.e., purchase, sale or other
 acquisition or disposition); the price at which it was effected; and the name
 of the broker, dealer or bank with or through whom the transaction was
 effected. The record may also contain a statement declaring that the reporting
 or recording of any such transaction shall not be construed as an admission
 that the investment advisor or investment advisory representative has any
 direct or indirect beneficial ownership in the security. A transaction shall be
 recorded not later than 10 days after the end of the calendar quarter in which
 the transaction was effected.
 
 b. For purposes of this subdivision 12, the following
 definitions will apply. The term "advisory representative" means any
 partner, officer or director of the investment advisor; any employee who
 participates in any way in the determination of which recommendations shall be
 made; any employee who, in connection with his duties, obtains any information
 concerning which securities are being recommended prior to the effective
 dissemination of the recommendations; and any of the following persons who
 obtain information concerning securities recommendations being made by the
 investment advisor prior to the effective dissemination of the recommendations:
 
 (1) Any person in a control relationship to the investment
 adviser;
 
 (2) Any affiliated person of a controlling person; and
 
 (3) Any affiliated person of an affiliated person.
 
 "Control" means the power to exercise a controlling
 influence over the management or policies of a company, unless such power is
 solely the result of an official position with the company. Any person who owns
 beneficially, either directly or through one or more controlled companies, more
 than 25% of the ownership interest of a company shall be presumed to control
 the company.
 
 c. An investment advisor shall not be deemed to have violated
 the provisions of this subdivision 12 because of his failure to record
 securities transactions of any investment advisor representative if the
 investment advisor establishes that it instituted adequate procedures and used
 reasonable diligence to obtain promptly reports of all transactions required to
 be recorded.
 
 13. a. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 12 of
 this subsection, where the investment advisor is primarily engaged in a
 business or businesses other than advising investment advisory clients,
 a record must be maintained of every transaction in a security in which the
 investment advisor or any investment advisory representative of such investment
 advisor has, or by reason of such transaction acquires, any direct or indirect
 beneficial ownership, except (i) transactions effected in any account over
 which neither the investment advisor nor any investment advisory representative
 of the investment advisor has any direct or indirect influence or control; and
 (ii) transactions in securities which are direct obligations of the United
 States. The record shall state the title and amount of the security involved;
 the date and nature of the transaction (i.e., purchase, sale or other
 acquisition or disposition); the price at which it was effected; and the name
 of the broker, dealer or bank with or through whom the transaction was
 effected. The record may also contain a statement declaring that the reporting
 or recording of any such transaction shall not be construed as an admission
 that the investment advisor or investment advisory representative has any
 direct or indirect beneficial ownership in the security. A transaction shall be
 recorded not later than 10 days after the end of the calendar quarter in which
 the transaction was effected.
 
 b. An investment advisor is "primarily engaged in a
 business or businesses other than advising investment advisory clients"
 when, for each of its most recent three fiscal years or for the period of time
 since organization, whichever is less, the investment advisor derived, on an
 unconsolidated basis, more than 50% of (i) its total sales and revenues, and
 (ii) its income (or loss) before income taxes and extraordinary items, from
 such other business or businesses.
 
 c. For purposes of this subdivision 13, the following
 definitions will apply. The term "advisory representative," when used
 in connection with a company primarily engaged in a business or businesses
 other than advising investment advisory clients, means any partner, officer,
 director or employee of the investment advisor who participates in any way in
 the determination of which recommendation shall be made, or whose functions or
 duties relate to the determination of which securities are being recommended
 prior to the effective dissemination of the recommendations; and any of the
 following persons, who obtain information concerning securities recommendations
 being made by the investment advisor prior to the effective dissemination of
 the recommendations or of the information concerning the recommendations:
 
 (1) Any person in a control relationship to the investment
 advisor;
 
 (2) Any affiliated person of a controlling person; and
 
 (3) Any affiliated person of an affiliated person.
 
 d. An investment advisor shall not be deemed to have violated
 the provisions of this subdivision 13 because of his failure to record
 securities transactions of any investment advisor representative if he
 establishes that he instituted adequate procedures and used reasonable
 diligence to obtain promptly reports of all transactions required to be
 recorded.
 
 14. A copy of each written statement and each amendment or
 revision, given or sent to any client or prospective client of such investment
 advisor in accordance with the provisions of 21VAC5-80-190 and a record of the
 dates that each written statement, and each amendment or revision, was given,
 or offered to be given, to any client or prospective client who subsequently
 becomes a client.
 
 15. For each client that was obtained by the advisor by means
 of a solicitor to whom a cash fee was paid by the advisor, the following:
 
 a. Evidence of a written agreement to which the advisor is a
 party related to the payment of such fee;
 
 b. A signed and dated acknowledgement of receipt from the
 client evidencing the client's receipt of the investment advisor's disclosure
 statement and a written disclosure statement of the solicitor; and 
 
 c. A copy of the solicitor's written disclosure statement. The
 written agreement, acknowledgement and solicitor disclosure statement will be
 considered to be in compliance if such documents are in compliance with Rule
 275.206(4)-3 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
 
 For purposes of this regulation, the term
 "solicitor" means any person or entity who, for compensation, acts as
 an agent of an investment advisor in referring potential clients.
 
 16. All accounts, books, internal working papers, and any
 other records or documents that are necessary to form the basis for or
 demonstrate the calculation of the performance or rate of return of all managed
 accounts or securities recommendations in any notice, circular, advertisement,
 newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or other communication
 including but not limited to electronic media that the investment
 advisor circulates or distributes directly or indirectly, to two or more
 persons (other than persons connected with the investment advisor); however,
 with respect to the performance of managed accounts, the retention of all
 account statements, if they reflect all debits, credits, and other transactions
 in a client's account for the period of the statement, and all worksheets
 necessary to demonstrate the calculation of the performance or rate of return
 of all managed accounts shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this
 subdivision.
 
 17. A file containing a copy of all written communications
 received or sent regarding any litigation involving the investment advisor or
 any investment advisor representative or employee, and regarding any written
 customer or client complaint.
 
 18. Written information about each investment advisory client
 that is the basis for making any recommendation or providing any investment
 advice to the client.
 
 19. Written procedures to supervise the activities of
 employees and investment advisor representatives that are reasonably designed
 to achieve compliance with applicable securities laws and regulations.
 
 20. A file containing a copy of each document (other than any
 notices of general dissemination) that was filed with or received from any
 state or federal agency or self regulatory organization and that pertains to
 the registrant or its investment advisor representatives, which file should
 contain, but is not limited to, all applications, amendments, renewal filings,
 and correspondence.
 
 21. Any records documenting dates, locations and findings of
 the investment advisor's annual review of these policies and procedures
 conducted pursuant to subdivision F of 21VAC5-80-170.
 
 22. Copies, with original signatures of the investment
 advisor's appropriate signatory and the investment advisor representative, of
 each initial Form U4 and each amendment to Disclosure Reporting Pages (DRPs U4)
 must be retained by the investment advisor (filing on behalf of the investment
 advisor representative) and must be made available for inspection upon
 regulatory request. 
 
 23. Where the advisor inadvertently held or obtained a
 client's securities or funds and returned them to the client within three
 business days or has forwarded third party checks within three business days of
 receipt, the advisor will be considered as not having custody but shall keep
 the following record to identify all securities or funds held or obtained
 relating to the inadvertent custody:
 
 A ledger or other listing of all securities or funds held or
 obtained, including the following information: 
 
 a. Issuer; 
 
 b. Type of security and series;
 
 c. Date of issue;
 
 d. For debt instruments, the denomination, interest rate and
 maturity date; 
 
 e. Certificate number, including alphabetical prefix or
 suffix; 
 
 f. Name in which registered; 
 
 g. Date given to the advisor; 
 
 h. Date sent to client or sender; 
 
 i. Form of delivery to client or sender, or copy of the form
 of delivery to client or sender; and 
 
 j. Mail confirmation number, if applicable, or confirmation by
 client or sender of the fund's or security's return. 
 
 24. If an investment advisor obtains possession of securities
 that are acquired from the issuer in a transaction or chain of transactions not
 involving any public offering that comply with the exception from custody under
 subdivision C 2 of 21VAC5-80-146, the advisor shall keep the following records:
 
 
 a. A record showing the issuer or current transfer agent's
 name address, phone number, and other applicable contract information
 pertaining to the party responsible for recording client interests in the
 securities; and 
 
 b. A copy of any legend, shareholder agreement, or other
 agreement showing that those securities that are transferable only with prior
 consent of the issuer or holders of the outstanding securities of the issuer. 
 
 25. Any records required pursuant to 21VAC5-80-260.
 
 B. 1. If an investment advisor subject to subsection A of
 this section has custody or possession of securities or funds of any client,
 the records required to be made and kept under subsection A of this section shall
 also include:
 
 a. A journal or other record showing all purchases, sales,
 receipts and deliveries of securities (including certificate numbers) for such
 accounts and all other debits and credits to the accounts.
 
 b. A separate ledger account for each client showing all
 purchases, sales, receipts and deliveries of securities, the date and price of
 each purchase and sale, and all debits and credits.
 
 c. Copies of confirmations of all transactions effected by or
 for the account of any client.
 
 d. A record for each security in which any client has a
 position, which record shall show the name of each client having any interest
 in each security, the amount or interest of each client, and the location of
 each security.
 
 e. A copy of any records required to be made and kept under
 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 f. A copy of any and all documents executed by the client
 (including a limited power of attorney) under which the advisor is authorized
 or permitted to withdraw a client's funds or securities maintained with a
 custodian upon the advisor's instruction to the custodian. 
 
 g. A copy of each of the client's quarterly account statements
 as generated and delivered by the qualified custodian. If the advisor also
 generates a statement that is delivered to the client, the advisor shall also
 maintain copies of such statements along with the date such statements were
 sent to the clients.
 
 h. If applicable to the advisor's situation, a copy of the
 special examination report verifying the completion of the examination by an
 independent certified public accountant and describing the nature and extent of
 the examination. 
 
 i. A record of any finding by the independent certified public
 accountant of any material discrepancies found during the examination. 
 
 j. If applicable, evidence of the client's designation of an
 independent representative.
 
 2. If an investment advisor has custody because it advises a
 pooled investment vehicle, as defined in 21VAC5-80-146 A in the definition of
 custody in clause subdivision 1 c, the advisor shall also keep
 the following records: 
 
 a. True, accurate, and current account statements; 
 
 b. Where the advisor complies with 21VAC5-80-146 C 4, the
 records required to be made and kept shall include: 
 
 (1) The date or dates of the audit; 
 
 (2) A copy of the audited financial statements; and 
 
 (3) Evidence of the mailing of the audited financial to all
 limited partners, members, or other beneficial owners within 120 days of the
 end of its fiscal year. 
 
 c. Where the advisor complies with 21VAC5-80-146 B 5, the
 records required to be made and kept shall include: 
 
 (1) A copy of the written agreement with the independent party
 reviewing all fees and expenses, indicating the responsibilities of the
 independent third party. 
 
 (2) Copies of all invoices and receipts showing approval by
 the independent party for payment through the qualified custodian.
 
 C. Every investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section who renders any investment advisory or management service to any client
 shall, with respect to the portfolio being supervised or managed and to the
 extent that the information is reasonably available to or obtainable by the
 investment advisor, make and keep true, accurate and current:
 
 1. Records showing separately for each client the securities
 purchased and sold, and the date, amount and price of each purchase and sale.
 
 2. For each security in which any client has a current
 position, information from which the investment advisor can promptly furnish
 the name of each client and the current amount or interest of the client.
 
 D. Any books or records required by this section may be
 maintained by the investment advisor in such manner that the identity of any
 client to whom the investment advisor renders investment advisory services is
 indicated by numerical or alphabetical code or some similar designation.
 
 E. Every investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section shall preserve the following records in the manner prescribed:
 
 1. All books and records required to be made under the
 provisions of subsection A through subdivision C 1, inclusive, of this section,
 except for books and records required to be made under the provisions of
 subdivisions A 11 and A 16 of this section, shall be maintained in an easily
 accessible place for a period of not less than five years from the end of the
 fiscal year during which the last entry was made on record, the first two years
 of which shall be maintained in the principal office of the investment advisor.
 
 2. Partnership articles and any amendments, articles of
 incorporation, charters, minute books, and stock certificate books of the
 investment advisor and of any predecessor, shall be maintained in the principal
 office of the investment advisor and preserved until at least three years after
 termination of the enterprise.
 
 3. Books and records required to be made under the provisions
 of subdivisions A 11 and A 16 of this section shall be maintained in an easily
 accessible place for a period of not less than five years, the first two years
 of which shall be maintained in the principal office of the investment advisor,
 from the end of the fiscal year during which the investment advisor last
 published or otherwise disseminated, directly or indirectly, the notice,
 circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or
 other communication including by electronic media.
 
 4. Books and records required to be made under the provisions
 of subdivisions A 17 through A 22, inclusive, of this section shall be
 maintained and preserved in an easily accessible place for a period of not less
 than five years, from the end of the fiscal year during which the last entry
 was made on such record, the first two years in the principal office of the
 investment advisor, or for the time period during which the investment advisor
 was registered or required to be registered in the state, if less.
 
 5. Notwithstanding other record preservation requirements of
 this subsection, the following records or copies shall be required to be
 maintained at the business location of the investment advisor from which the
 customer or client is being provided or has been provided with investment
 advisory services: (i) records required to be preserved under subdivisions A 3,
 A 7 through A 10, A 14 and A 15, A 17 through A 19, subsections B and C,
 and (ii) the records or copies required under the provision of subdivisions A
 11 and A 16 of this section which records or related records identify the name
 of the investment advisor representative providing investment advice from that
 business location, or which identify the business locations' physical address,
 mailing address, electronic mailing address, or telephone number. The records
 will be maintained for the period described in this subsection.
 
 F. Every investment advisor shall establish and maintain a
 written disaster recovery plan that shall address at a minimum:
 
 1. The identity of individuals that will conduct or wind down
 business on behalf of the investment advisor in the event of death or
 incapacity of key persons;
 
 2. Means to provide notification to clients of the investment
 advisor and to those states in which the advisor is registered of the death or
 incapacity of key persons;
 
 a. Notification shall be provided to the Division of
 Securities and Retail Franchising via IARD/CRD within 24 hours of the
 death or incapacity of key persons.
 
 b. Notification shall be given to clients within five business
 days from the death or incapacity of key persons.
 
 3. Means for clients' accounts to continue to be monitored
 until an orderly liquidation, distribution or transfer of the clients'
 portfolio to another advisor can be achieved or until an actual notice to the
 client of investment advisor death or incapacity and client control of their
 assets occurs;
 
 4. Means for the credit demands of the investment advisor to
 be met; and
 
 5. Data backups sufficient to allow rapid resumption of the
 investment advisor's activities.
 
 G. An investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section, before ceasing to conduct or discontinuing business as an investment
 advisor, shall arrange for and be responsible for the preservation of the books
 and records required to be maintained and preserved under this section for the
 remainder of the period specified in this section, and shall notify the
 commission in writing of the exact address where the books and records will be
 maintained during such period.
 
 H. 1. The records required to be maintained pursuant to this
 section may be immediately produced or reproduced by photograph on film or, as
 provided in subdivision 2 of this subsection, on magnetic disk, tape or other
 computer storage medium, and be maintained for the required time in that form.
 If records are preserved or reproduced by photographic film or computer storage
 medium, the investment advisor shall:
 
 a. Arrange the records and index the films or computer storage
 medium so as to permit the immediate location of any particular record;
 
 b. Be ready at all times to promptly provide any facsimile
 enlargement of film or computer printout or copy of the computer storage medium
 which the commission by its examiners or other representatives may request;
 
 c. Store separately from the original one other copy of the
 film or computer storage medium for the time required;
 
 d. With respect to records stored on computer storage medium,
 maintain procedures for maintenance of, and access to, records so as to
 reasonably safeguard records from loss, alteration, or destruction; and
 
 e. With respect to records stored on photographic film, at all
 times have available, for the commission's examination of its records,
 facilities for immediate, easily readable projection of the film and for
 producing easily readable facsimile enlargements.
 
 2. Pursuant to subdivision 1 of this subsection, an advisor
 may maintain and preserve on computer tape or disk or other computer storage
 medium records which, in the ordinary course of the advisor's business, are
 created by the advisor on electronic media or are received by the advisor
 solely on electronic media or by electronic transmission.
 
 I. Any book or record made, kept, maintained, and preserved
 in compliance with SEC Rules 17a-3 (17 CFR 240.17a-3) and 17a-4 (17 CFR
 240.17a-4) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, which is substantially
 the same as the book, or other record required to be made, kept, maintained,
 and preserved under this section shall be deemed to be made, kept, maintained,
 and preserved in compliance with this section.
 
 J. For purposes of this section, "investment supervisory
 services" means the giving of continuous advice as to the investment of
 funds on the basis of the individual needs of each client; and
 "discretionary power" shall not include discretion as to the price at
 which or the time when a transaction is or is to be effected if, before the
 order is given by the investment advisor, the client has directed or approved the
 purchase or sale of a definite amount of the particular security.
 
 K. For purposes of this section, "principal place of
 business" and "principal office" mean the executive office of
 the investment advisor from which the officers, partners, or managers of the
 investment advisor direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the
 investment advisor.
 
 L. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered in this Commonwealth and has its principal place of business in a
 state other than the Commonwealth shall be exempt from the requirements of this
 section to the extent provided by the National Securities Markets Improvement
 Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290), provided the investment advisor is licensed
 in such state and is in compliance with such state's recordkeeping
 requirements.
 
 21VAC5-80-200. Dishonest or unethical practices.
 
 A. An investment advisor or federal covered advisor is a
 fiduciary and has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his clients. While
 the extent and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the
 relationship between an investment advisor or federal covered advisor and his
 clients and the circumstances of each case, an investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor who is registered or required to be registered shall not engage
 in unethical practices, including the following:
 
 1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory,
 management or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale or exchange
 of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation
 is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client
 after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives,
 financial situation, risk tolerance and needs, and any other information known
 or acquired by the investment advisor or federal covered advisor after
 reasonable examination of the client's financial records.
 
 2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client without written authority to do so.
 
 3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having
 obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.
 
 4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for
 the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written
 discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date
 of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority,
 unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the
 time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall
 be executed, or both.
 
 5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in
 size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives and
 character of the account.
 
 6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the
 client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning funds
 or securities.
 
 7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor or
 federal covered advisor is a financial institution engaged in the business of
 loaning funds or the client is an affiliate of the investment advisor or
 federal covered advisor.
 
 8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective
 advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor, or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being
 offered or fees to be charged for the services, or omission to state a material
 fact necessary to make the statements made regarding qualifications services or
 fees, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
 
 9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client
 prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered
 advisor without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a
 situation where the advisor uses published research reports or statistical
 analyses to render advice or where an advisor orders such a report in the
 normal course of providing service.
 
 10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of
 the fees charged by other investment advisors or federal covered advisors
 providing essentially the same services.
 
 11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any
 advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment
 advisor or federal covered advisor or any of his employees which could
 reasonably be expected to impair the rendering of unbiased and objective advice
 including:
 
 a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services
 to clients which are in addition to compensation from such clients for such
 services; or
 
 b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when
 a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will
 be received by the advisor or his employees.
 
 12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be
 achieved as a result of the advice which will be rendered.
 
 13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does
 any one of the following:
 
 a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the
 investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any
 advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor
 or investment advisor representative;
 
 b. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment
 advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been
 profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all
 recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one
 year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:
 
 (1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature
 of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the
 recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market
 price of each security; and
 
 (2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that
 states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the
 future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in
 the list;
 
 c. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device
 being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when
 to buy or sell them; or which represents, directly or indirectly, that any
 graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in
 making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or
 when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement
 the limitations thereof and the risks associated to its use;
 
 d. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will
 be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other
 service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct
 or indirect condition or obligation;
 
 e. Represents that the commission has approved any
 advertisement; or
 
 f. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that
 is otherwise false or misleading. 
 
 For the purposes of this section, the term
 "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other
 written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other
 announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or
 by any medium, that offers any one of the following:
 
 (i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning
 securities;
 
 (ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used
 in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which
 security to buy or sell;
 
 (iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in
 making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which
 security to buy or sell; or
 
 (iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to
 securities.
 
 14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any
 client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a
 regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client, or failing
 to comply with any applicable privacy provision or standard promulgated by the
 SEC or by a self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC.
 
 15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to
 those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest,
 where the investment advisor has custody or possession of such securities or
 funds, when the investment advisor's action is subject to and does not comply
 with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 16. Entering into, extending or renewing any investment
 advisory contract unless the contract is in writing and discloses, in
 substance, the services to be provided, the term of the contract, the advisory
 fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount of prepaid fee to be
 returned in the event of contract termination or nonperformance, whether the
 contract grants discretionary power to the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor and that no assignment of such contract shall be made by the
 investment advisor or federal covered advisor without the consent of the other
 party to the contract.
 
 17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its
 customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for
 compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or
 securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted
 custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection
 Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's
 assets.
 
 18. Using a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability
 of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or
 indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating
 analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the
 user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior
 citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following: 
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation; 
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation; 
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or 
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that: 
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing; 
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants; 
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or 
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate. 
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute; 
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or 
 
 (3) An organization that is on the United States Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing. 
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional
 designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency, when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization. 
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services regulatory
 agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that regulates
 broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as defined under § 3
 (a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC § 80a-3(a)(1)). 
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of the law.
 
 B. An investment advisor representative is a fiduciary and
 has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his clients. While the extent
 and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the relationship
 between an investment advisor representative and his clients and the
 circumstances of each case, an investment advisor representative who is
 registered or required to be registered shall not engage in unethical practices,
 including the following:
 
 1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory,
 management or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale or exchange
 of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation
 is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client
 after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives,
 financial situation and needs, and any other information known or acquired by
 the investment advisor representative after reasonable examination of the
 client's financial records.
 
 2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client without written authority to do so.
 
 3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having
 obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.
 
 4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for
 the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written
 discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date
 of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority,
 unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the
 time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall
 be executed, or both.
 
 5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in
 size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives and
 character of the account.
 
 6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the
 client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor
 representative, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning
 funds or securities.
 
 7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor
 representative is engaged in the business of loaning funds or the client is an
 affiliate of the investment advisor representative.
 
 8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective
 advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor representative,
 or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being offered or fees to
 be charged for the services, or omission to state a material fact necessary to
 make the statements made regarding qualifications, services or fees, in light
 of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
 
 9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client
 prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered
 advisor who the investment advisor representative is employed by or associated
 with without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a
 situation where the investment advisor or federal covered advisor uses
 published research reports or statistical analyses to render advice or where an
 investment advisor or federal covered advisor orders such a report in the
 normal course of providing service.
 
 10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of
 the fees charged by other investment advisor representatives providing
 essentially the same services.
 
 11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any
 advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment
 advisor representative which could reasonably be expected to impair the
 rendering of unbiased and objective advice including:
 
 a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services
 to clients which are in addition to compensation from such clients for such
 services; or
 
 b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when
 a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will
 be received by the investment advisor representative.
 
 12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be
 achieved as a result of the advice which will be rendered.
 
 13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does
 any one of the following:
 
 a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the
 investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any
 advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor
 or investment advisor representative;
 
 b. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment
 advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been
 profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all
 recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one
 year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:
 
 (1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature
 of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the
 recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market
 price of each security; and
 
 (2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that
 states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the
 future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in
 the list;
 
 c. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device
 being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when
 to buy or sell them; or which represents, directly or indirectly, that any
 graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in
 making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or
 when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement
 the limitations thereof and the risks associated with its use;
 
 d. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will
 be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other
 service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct
 or indirect condition or obligation;
 
 e. Represents that the commission has approved any
 advertisement; or
 
 f. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that
 is otherwise false or misleading. 
 
 For the purposes of this section, the term
 "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other
 written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other
 announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or
 by any medium, that offers any one of the following:
 
 (i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning
 securities;
 
 (ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used
 in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which
 security to buy or sell;
 
 (iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in
 making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which
 security to buy or sell; or
 
 (iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to
 securities.
 
 14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any
 client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a
 regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client.
 
 15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to
 those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest, where
 the investment advisor representative other than a person associated with a
 federal covered advisor has custody or possession of such securities or funds,
 when the investment advisor representative's action is subject to and does not
 comply with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 16. Entering into, extending or renewing any investment
 advisory or federal covered advisory contract unless such contract is in
 writing and discloses, in substance, the services to be provided, the term of
 the contract, the advisory fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount
 of prepaid fee to be returned in the event of contract termination or
 nonperformance, whether the contract grants discretionary power to the
 investment advisor representative and that no assignment of such contract shall
 be made by the investment advisor representative without the consent of the
 other party to the contract.
 
 17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its
 customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for
 compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or
 securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted
 custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection
 Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's
 assets.
 
 18. Using a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability
 of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or
 indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating
 analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the
 user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior
 citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following: 
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation; 
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation; 
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or 
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that: 
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing; 
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants; 
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or 
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate. 
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute;
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or
 
 (3) An organization that is on the United States Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing.
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional
 designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency, when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization.
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services
 regulatory agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that
 regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as
 defined under § 3(a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC
 § 80a-3(a)(1).
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of law.
 
 C. The conduct set forth in subsections A and B of this
 section is not all inclusive. Engaging in other conduct such as nondisclosure,
 incomplete disclosure, or deceptive practices may be deemed an unethical
 business practice except to the extent permitted by the National Securities
 Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).
 
 D. The provisions of this section shall apply to federal
 covered advisors to the extent that fraud or deceit is involved, or as
 otherwise permitted by the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996
 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).
 
 E. An investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative may delay or refuse to place an order or to disburse funds that
 may involve or result in the financial exploitation of an individual pursuant
 to § 63.2-1606 L of the Code of Virginia.
 
 F. For purposes of the section, any mandatory arbitration
 provision in an advisory contract shall be prohibited.
 
 G. The investment advisor and investment advisor
 representative shall notify the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising,
 State Corporation Commission and the client of an unauthorized access to
 records that may expose a client's identity or investments to a third party
 within three business days of the discovery of the unauthorized access.
 
 21VAC5-80-260. Information security and privacy.
 
 A. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered shall establish, implement, update, and enforce written physical
 security and cybersecurity policies and procedures reasonably designed to
 ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of physical and
 electronic records and information. The policies and procedures shall be
 tailored to the investment advisor's business model, taking into account the
 size of the firm, type of services provided, and the number of locations of the
 investment advisor.
 
 1. The physical security and cybersecurity policies and
 procedures shall:
 
 a. Protect against reasonably anticipated threats or
 hazards to the security or integrity of client records and information;
 
 b. Ensure that the investment advisor safeguards
 confidential client records and information; and
 
 c. Protect any records and information the release of which
 could result in harm or inconvenience to any client.
 
 2. The physical security and cybersecurity policies and
 procedures shall cover at least five functions:
 
 a. The organizational understanding to manage information
 security risk to systems, assets, data, and capabilities;
 
 b. The appropriate safeguards to ensure delivery of critical
 infrastructure services;
 
 c. The appropriate activities to identify the occurrence of
 an information security event;
 
 d. The appropriate activities to take action regarding a
 detected information security event; and
 
 e. The appropriate activities to maintain plans for
 resilience and to restore any capabilities or services that were impaired due
 to an information security event.
 
 3. The investment advisor shall review, no less frequently
 than annually, and modify, as needed, these policies and procedures to ensure
 the adequacy of the security measures and the effectiveness of their
 implementation.
 
 B. The investment advisor shall deliver upon the
 investment advisor's engagement by a client, and on an annual basis thereafter,
 a privacy policy to each client that is reasonably designed to aid in the
 client's understanding of how the investment advisor collects and shares, to
 the extent permitted by state and federal law, nonpublic personal information.
 The investment advisor shall promptly update and deliver to each client an
 amended privacy policy if any of the information in the policy becomes
 inaccurate. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5907; Filed June 28, 2019, 12:01 p.m. 
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Proposed Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 21VAC5-20. Broker-Dealers,
 Broker-Dealer Agents and Agents of the Issuer (amending 21VAC5-20-280).
 
 21VAC5-30. Securities Registration (amending 21VAC5-30-80).
 
 21VAC5-45. Federal Covered Securities (amending 21VAC5-45-20).
 
 21VAC5-80. Investment Advisors (amending 21VAC5-80-10, 21VAC5-80-160, 21VAC5-80-200; adding
 21VAC5-80-260). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 13.1-523 of the Code
 of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information: Public hearing available
 upon request.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 9, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Hazel Stewart, Manager, Securities
 Retail Franchising, State Corporation Commission, Tyler Building, 9th Floor,
 P.O. Box 1197, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9685, FAX (804)
 371-9911, or email hazel.stewart@scc.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-20 (i) allow
 broker-dealers to delay or refuse transactions and disbursements of funds from
 the accounts of vulnerable adults where the financial institution suspects
 financial exploitation and (ii) update three documents incorporated by
 reference that pertain to continuing education adopted by federal
 self-regulatory organizations. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-30 (i) update a number of
 the statements of policy that apply to the registration of securities,
 including underwriting expenses, unsound financial condition, corporate
 securities definitions, and loans and other material transactions and (iii)
 incorporate by reference all statements of policy previously adopted by the
 State Corporation Commission. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-45 remove the date of
 adoption of Form D, which is the filing form for notices under federal Rule 506
 of Regulation D. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-80 (i) allow investment
 advisors to delay or refuse to place orders or disburse funds that may involve
 or result in financial exploitation of an individual; (ii) prohibit mandatory
 arbitration clauses in investment advisory contracts; (iii) based on the North
 American Securities Administrators Association May 18, 2019 Model Rule, add a
 new section that establishes the minimum policies and procedures to protect
 client information and privacy, including both physical and cybersecurity
 measures; (iv) add these information and cybersecurity policy and procedures to
 the list of required documents to be filed by investment advisor applicants and
 to the list of required records for investment advisors; (v) conform the
 regulation to the new model rule and remove the reference to the Securities and
 Exchange Commission and self-regulatory organizations; and (vi) make it a
 dishonest or unethical practice for an investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative to fail to report unauthorized access to a client's information
 to the commission and client within three business days of discovery. 
 
 AT RICHMOND, JUNE 27, 2019
 
 COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
 
 STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
 
 CASE NO. SEC-2019-00024
 
 Ex Parte: In the matter of
 Adopting a Revision to the Rules
 Governing the Virginia Securities Act
 
 ORDER TO TAKE NOTICE
 
 Section 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia ("Code")
 provides that the State Corporation Commission ("Commission") shall
 have the power to promulgate rules and regulations in the enforcement and
 administration of all laws within its jurisdiction. Section 13.1-523 of the Virginia
 Securities Act ("Act"), § 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code provides that
 the Commission may issue any rules and regulations necessary or appropriate for
 the administration and enforcement of the Act.
 
 The rules and regulations issued by the Commission pursuant
 to the Act are set forth in Title 21 of the Virginia Administrative Code. A
 copy also may be found at the Commission’s website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
 
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 20. Broker-Dealers, Broker-Dealer
 Agents and Agents of the Issuer. Prohibited Business Conduct
 
 Under certain provisions of Chapter 20, a broker-dealer is
 required to make securities trades and disburse funds from customer accounts
 within a prescribed period of time. The proposed amendment to Chapter 20
 provides for an exception to these provisions to allow broker-dealers to
 protect vulnerable customers from potential financial exploitation by
 permitting the broker-dealer to delay or refuse such transactions and
 disbursements.
 
 Financial exploitation is the fastest growing category of
 elder abuse in many states. It is estimated that one in every five older adults
 have been victimized by financial fraud. These frauds can be perpetrated by
 strangers, con artists, or even family members and caregivers in whom these
 adults place their trust. During the 2019 General Assembly, the legislature
 addressed the growing issue of financial exploitation of vulnerable adults by
 passing a new subsection L to § 63.2-1606 of the Code for the Protection
 of Aged or Incapacitated Adults.
 
 This new subsection allows financial institutions to delay
 transactions and refuse disbursements from the accounts of vulnerable adults
 where the financial institution suspects financial exploitation. With this new
 subsection a broker-dealer’s staff can report any information or records to the
 appropriate authorities if the staff has a good faith belief that the
 transaction or disbursement may involve financial exploitation of such adults.
 If the broker-dealer staff follows the requirements of the new subsection, they
 will be immune from civil or criminal liability, absent gross negligence or
 willful misconduct. 
 
 To effectuate the new statute subsection, the Division of
 Securities and Retail Franchising ("Division") proposes to add a
 subsection E to Commission Rule 21 VAC 5-20-280. The new subsection would allow
 a broker-dealer to delay distributions or refuse transactions if the
 broker-dealer complies with § 63.2-1606 L of the Code.
 
 In addition, Documents Incorporated by Reference in Chapter
 21 VAC 5-20-280 contain revisions to certain rules pertaining to continuing
 education adopted by federal self-regulatory organizations, including rule
 revisions for: (1) one revised effective October 1, 2018, by the Financial
 Industry Regulatory Authority ("FINRA"); (2) one revised effective
 October 1, 2018. by the New York Stock Exchange (superseded by new FINRA rule);
 and (3) one revised by the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 80. Investment Advisors.
 
 A. Dishonest or Unethical Practices.
 
 I. Proposed New Subsection E. Just as with the
 broker-dealers, the new legislation protecting vulnerable adults from financial
 exploitation, the Division proposes that new § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code apply to the practices of investment advisors. Investment advisors are
 charged with acting in the best interests of their clients and should do all
 they can to protect them from financial exploitation. The Division proposes to
 add a subsection under the Dishonest or Unethical Practices of Chapter 80 to
 the provide investment advisors the same relief under § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code as the Division proposes for broker-dealers.
 
 II. Proposed New Subsection F. Over twenty years ago,
 investors had a choice of investing with a firm that required arbitration or
 one that recognized a judicial forum for disputes. Today, almost all financial
 services contracts offered by broker-dealers includes a mandatory predispute
 arbitration provision that forces public investors to submit all disputes that
 they may have to mandatory arbitration. Many investors are not aware of this
 provision, nor do they have a choice, as all disputes are conducted through a
 single securities arbitration forum maintained by the securities industry.
 
 In 1996, the United States ("U.S.") Congress
 ("Congress") passed legislation entitled the National Securities
 Markets Improvement Act ("NSMIA").1 NSMIA effectively
 divided the regulation of investment advisors between the U.S. Securities and
 Exchange Commission ("SEC") and the states. In general, primary
 jurisdiction of investment advisors (known as state-covered advisors) with less
 than $100 million in assets under management fall under state regulation. 
 
 However, the state-covered investment advisors are now
 including boilerplate mandatory arbitration provisions in their clients'
 contracts. The Division believes, as do many other states, that these
 "take-it-or-leave-it" clauses in client contracts is inherently
 unfair to investors. It is particularly unfair when an investment advisor is
 required by law to act in the best interests of their clients. An investment
 advisor should not be allowed to force clients to bring any disputes to a forum
 of the investment advisor's choosing by contract.
 
 Therefore, the Division proposes to add a new subsection F to
 the Dishonest or Unethical Practices section of Chapter 80 to prohibit
 mandatory arbitration clauses in investment advisory contracts. There is
 nothing to prevent the investment advisor and their client from agreeing to
 arbitrated disputes after negotiation and discussion between each. To require
 mandatory arbitration in standard investment advisor contracts is contrary to
 the investment advisors mandate to act in the best interest of their clients.
 
 B. Proposed Investment Advisor Information Security and Privacy
 Rule. 
 
 In recent years, both state and federal regulators have been
 concerned about data privacy and security in the financial markets. By a vote
 of its members on May 18, 2019, the North American Securities Administrators
 Association ("NASAA"),2 adopted a model rule to address
 the basic structure for how state-registered investment advisors may design
 their information security policies and procedures. The new Model Rule requires
 investment advisors to adopt policies and procedures regarding information
 security and to deliver its privacy policy annually to clients. The Model Rule
 was adopted to create uniformity in both state regulation and state-registered
 investment advisors.
 
 I. Proposed New Section 260. Information Security and Privacy.
 This new section will be added to the rules for investment advisors to
 establish the minimum policies and procedures to protect client information and
 provide information privacy. The current Commission rules require the delivery
 of the investment advisor's privacy policy on a yearly basis, but the proposed
 new rule would further refine that requirement. In addition, the model rule
 adds the new requirements for client information security.
 
 II. Proposed Amendments to Section 10. Application for Registration
 as an Investment Advisor and Notice Filing as a Federal Covered Advisor. The
 proposed amendments add the information and cyber security policy and
 procedures to the list of required documents to be filed by investment advisor
 applicants. In addition, the proposed amendment requires the investment advisor
 to file a copy of their privacy policy, as required for the proposed new rule.
 
 III. Proposed Amendment to Section 160 A. Recordkeeping
 Requirements for Investment Advisors. Under section 160, investment advisors
 are required to keep certain records. These records are used by the Division
 staff to determine compliance with the securities laws and regulations. This
 amendment will add a new subsection 25 which will add the requirement that
 investment advisors keep a copy of the policies and procedures required by the
 proposed new section 260.
 
 IV. Proposed Amendments to Section 200. Dishonest or
 Unethical Practices
 
 (a) Prohibited conduct regarding privacy of information.
 Currently, subsection 14 of 200 A requires investment advisors to protect their
 client’s information and makes it a violation for the investment advisor to
 fail to comply with any applicable privacy provision or standard promulgated by
 the SEC or any self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC. Now that the
 NASAA membership has adopted similar requirements in the Model Rule, the
 Division proposes to amend this section to conform it to the new Model Rule.
 The proposed amendment removes the reference to the SEC and self-regulatory
 organizations since the state-covered advisors will be governed by the
 new section 260, if adopted.
 
 (b) Prohibited conduct regarding an investment advisor's
 failure to report an unauthorized access of a client's information to the
 Division and the client. The consequences of unauthorized access to a client's
 information could be devastating to the client. To address that, the Division
 proposes a new subsection G to section 200. The proposed new subsection makes
 it a dishonest or unethical practice for an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative to fail to report such unauthorized access to the
 Division and the client within three business days of discovery. If properly
 reported, the Division can work with the investment advisor and investment advisor
 representative to take the appropriate measures to limit the damage and prevent
 further unauthorized access.
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 30. Adoption of NASAA.
 Statements of Policy.
 
 The Division is a member of NASAA, the association of state
 securities regulatory agencies. As a part of its mission to provide a uniform
 approach to the state regulation of securities, the Division, along with the
 member states, develops and adopts statements of policy that apply to the
 registration of securities. From time-to-time, NASAA amends these statements of
 policy to keep them current and address changes in the types of products
 offered by industry members, as well the changing norms for the standards that
 will apply to those registrations.
 
 The proposed amendment updates a number of these statements
 of policy, including (1) underwriting expenses; (2) unsound financial
 condition; (3) corporate securities definitions; and (4) loans and other
 material transactions. NASAA vetted the proposed amendments by providing public
 notice and opportunity to comment. Following the expiration of the comment
 period, the revisions were adopted in May of 2018 by a vote of the NASAA
 members.
 
 In addition, Documents Incorporated by Reference in Chapter
 21 VAC5-30, will be updated to include all Statements of Policy previously
 adopted by the Commission in Section 8.
 
 Proposed Revisions to Chapter 45. Offerings conducted
 pursuant to Rule 506 of Regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): Filing Requirements and
 issuer-agent exemption.
 
 Many securities offerings today are made through a federal
 exemption known as Rule 506, which allows an issuer of securities who meets the
 requirements of the exemption to offer and sell securities in every state
 without registration. As a part of the adoption of this federal regulation,
 Congress provided a means for states to monitor these offerings in their state
 by allowing the states to accept notice filings made under the federal
 regulation.
 
 To make such notices uniform among the states, the Division
 adopted this rule to provide for the notice filing through the use of the
 filing form developed by the SEC, known as Form D.  Over the years since
 Form D was adopted, the SEC has amended the form.  In order to make it
 easier to keep up with the changes to Form D, and to allow the securities
 industry to use the appropriate form, the Division proposes to drop the date of
 adoption of Form D from the body of the regulation and instead update its form
 list (attached hereto to this Order), as necessary.
 
 The Division recommended to the Commission that the proposed
 revisions should be considered for adoption. The Division also has recommended
 to the Commission that a hearing should be held only if requested by those
 interested parties who specifically indicate that a hearing is necessary and
 the reasons therefore.
 
 A copy of the proposed revisions may be requested by
 interested parties from the Division by telephone, mail, or e-mail request and
 also can be found at the Division's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/division/srf. Any comments to the
 proposed rules must be received by August 9, 2019. 
 
 Accordingly, IT IS THEREFORE ORDERED THAT:
 
 (1) The proposed revisions are appended hereto and made a
 part of the record herein.
 
 (2) On or before August 9, 2019, comments or request for
 hearing on the proposed revisions must be submitted in writing to Joel H. Peck,
 Clerk of the Commission, c/o Document Control Center, P.O. Box 2118, Richmond,
 Virginia 23218. A request for hearing shall state why a hearing is necessary
 and why the issues cannot be adequately addressed in written comments. All
 correspondence shall contain reference to Case No. SEC-2019-00024. Interested
 persons desiring to submit comments electronically may do so by following the
 instructions available at the Commission's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
 
 (3) The proposed revisions shall be posted on the
 Commission's website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case and on
 the Division’s website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/srf.
 Interested persons also may request a copy of the proposed revisions from the
 Division by telephone, mail or e-mail.
 
 AN ATTESTED COPY HEREOF, together with a copy of the proposed
 revisions, shall be sent to the Registrar of Regulations for publication in the
 Virginia Register of Regulations.
 
 AN ATTESTED COPY HEREOF shall be sent to the Director of the
 Division of Securities and Retail Franchising who shall forthwith mail a copy
 of this Order to any interested persons as he may designate.
 
 _________________________________
 
 1Pub.L. No. 104-290, 110 Stat. 3415 (codified
 through various parts of 15 USC 2006).
 
 2NASAA is the membership organization of state
 securities regulators.
 
 21VAC5-20-280. Prohibited business conduct.
 
 A. Every broker-dealer is required to observe high standards
 of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct
 of its business. The acts and practices described in this subsection are
 considered contrary to such standards and may constitute grounds for denial,
 suspension, or revocation of registration or such other action authorized by
 the Act. No broker-dealer who is registered or required to be registered shall:
 
 1. Engage in a pattern of unreasonable and unjustifiable
 delays in the delivery of securities purchased by any of its customers or in
 the payment upon request of free credit balances reflecting completed transactions
 of any of its customers, or take any action that directly or indirectly
 interferes with a customer's ability to transfer his account; provided that the
 account is not subject to any lien for moneys owed by the customer or other
 bona fide claim, including, but not limited to, seeking a judicial order
 or decree that would bar or restrict the submission, delivery or acceptance of
 a written request from a customer to transfer his account;
 
 2. Induce trading in a customer's account which is excessive
 in size or frequency in view of the financial resources and character of the
 account;
 
 3. Recommend to a customer the purchase, sale or exchange of
 any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation is
 suitable for the customer. The reasonable basis to recommend any such
 transaction to a customer shall be based upon the risks associated with a
 particular security, and the information obtained through the diligence and
 inquiry of the broker-dealer to ascertain the customer's investment profile. A
 customer's investment profile includes, but is not limited to, the
 customer's investment objectives, financial situation, risk tolerance and
 needs, tax status, age, other investments, investment experience, investment
 time horizon, liquidity needs, and any other relevant information known by the
 broker-dealer or of which the broker-dealer is otherwise made aware in
 connection with such recommendation;
 
 4. Execute a transaction on behalf of a customer without
 authority to do so or, when securities are held in a customer's account, fail
 to execute a sell transaction involving those securities as instructed by a
 customer, without reasonable cause;
 
 5. Exercise any discretionary power in effecting a transaction
 for a customer's account without first obtaining written discretionary
 authority from the customer, unless the discretionary power relates solely to
 the time or price for the execution of orders;
 
 6. Execute any transaction in a margin account without
 securing from the customer a properly executed written margin agreement
 promptly after the initial transaction in the account, or fail, prior to or at
 the opening of a margin account, to disclose to a noninstitutional customer the
 operation of a margin account and the risks associated with trading on margin at
 least as comprehensively as required by FINRA Rule 2264;
 
 7. Fail to segregate customers' free securities or securities
 held in safekeeping;
 
 8. Hypothecate a customer's securities without having a lien
 thereon unless the broker-dealer secures from the customer a properly executed
 written consent promptly after the initial transaction, except as permitted by
 Rules of the SEC;
 
 9. Enter into a transaction with or for a customer at a price
 not reasonably related to the current market price of a security or receiving
 an unreasonable commission or profit;
 
 10. Fail to furnish to a customer purchasing securities in an
 offering, no later than the date of confirmation of the transaction, either a
 final prospectus or a preliminary prospectus and an additional document, which
 together include all information set forth in the final prospectus, either by
 (i) hard copy prospectus delivery or (ii) electronic prospectus delivery;
 
 11. Introduce customer transactions on a "fully
 disclosed" basis to another broker-dealer that is not exempt under § 13.1-514
 B 6 of the Act;
 
 12. a. Charge unreasonable and inequitable fees for services
 performed, including miscellaneous services such as collection of moneys due
 for principal, dividends or interest, exchange or transfer of securities,
 appraisals, safekeeping, or custody of securities and other services related to
 its securities business;
 
 b. Charge a fee based on the activity, value or contents (or
 lack thereof) of a customer account unless written disclosure pertaining to the
 fee, which shall include information about the amount of the fee, how
 imposition of the fee can be avoided and any consequence of late payment or
 nonpayment of the fee, was provided no later than the date the account was
 established or, with respect to an existing account, at least 60 days prior to
 the effective date of the fee;
 
 13. Offer to buy from or sell to any person any security at a
 stated price unless the broker-dealer is prepared to purchase or sell at the
 price and under such conditions as are stated at the time of the offer to buy
 or sell;
 
 14. Represent that a security is being offered to a customer
 "at a market" or a price relevant to the market price unless the
 broker-dealer knows or has reasonable grounds to believe that a market for the
 security exists other than that made, created or controlled by the
 broker-dealer, or by any person for whom he is acting or with whom he is
 associated in the distribution, or any person controlled by, controlling or
 under common control with the broker-dealer;
 
 15. Effect any transaction in, or induce the purchase or sale
 of, any security by means of any manipulative, deceptive or fraudulent device,
 practice, plan, program, design or contrivance, which may include but not be
 limited to:
 
 a. Effecting any transaction in a security which involves no
 change in the beneficial ownership thereof;
 
 b. Entering an order or orders for the purchase or sale
 of any security with the knowledge that an order or orders of
 substantially the same size, at substantially the same time and substantially
 the same price, for the sale of any security, has been or will be entered by or
 for the same or different parties for the purpose of creating a false or
 misleading appearance of active trading in the security or a false or
 misleading appearance with respect to the market for the security; however,
 nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit a broker-dealer from entering bona
 fide agency cross transactions for its customers; or
 
 c. Effecting, alone or with one or more other persons, a
 series of transactions in any security creating actual or apparent active
 trading in the security or raising or depressing the price of the security, for
 the purpose of inducing the purchase or sale of the security by others;
 
 16. Guarantee a customer against loss in any securities
 account of the customer carried by the broker-dealer or in any securities
 transaction effected by the broker-dealer with or for the customer;
 
 17. Publish or circulate, or cause to be published or
 circulated, any notice, circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment
 service, or communication of any kind which purports to report any transaction
 as a purchase or sale of any security unless the broker-dealer believes that
 the transaction was a bona fide purchase or sale of the security; or which
 purports to quote the bid price or asked price for any security, unless the
 broker-dealer believes that the quotation represents a bona fide bid for, or
 offer of, the security;
 
 18. Use any advertising or sales presentation in such a
 fashion as to be deceptive or misleading. An example of such practice would be
 a distribution of any nonfactual data, material or presentation based on
 conjecture, unfounded or unrealistic claims or assertions in any brochure,
 flyer, or display by words, pictures, graphs or otherwise designed to
 supplement, detract from, supersede or defeat the purpose or effect of any
 prospectus or disclosure;
 
 19. Fail to make reasonably available upon request to any
 person expressing an interest in a solicited transaction in a security, not
 listed on a registered securities exchange or quoted on an automated quotation
 system operated by a national securities association approved by regulation of
 the commission, a balance sheet of the issuer as of a date within 18 months of
 the offer or sale of the issuer's securities and a profit and loss statement
 for either the fiscal year preceding that date or the most recent year of
 operations, the names of the issuer's proprietor, partners or officers, the
 nature of the enterprises of the issuer and any available information
 reasonably necessary for evaluating the desirability or lack of desirability of
 investing in the securities of an issuer. All transactions in securities
 described in this subdivision shall comply with the provisions of § 13.1-507 of
 the Act;
 
 20. Fail to disclose that the broker-dealer is controlled by,
 controlling, affiliated with or under common control with the issuer of any
 security before entering into any contract with or for a customer for the
 purchase or sale of the security, the existence of control to the customer, and
 if disclosure is not made in writing, it shall be supplemented by the giving or
 sending of written disclosure at or before the completion of the transaction;
 
 21. Fail to make a bona fide public offering of all of the
 securities allotted to a broker-dealer for distribution, whether acquired as an
 underwriter, a selling group member, or from a member participating in the
 distribution as an underwriter or selling group member;
 
 22. Fail or refuse to furnish a customer, upon reasonable
 request, information to which the customer is entitled, or to respond to a
 formal written request or complaint; 
 
 23. Fail to clearly and separately disclose to its customer,
 prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for compensation
 or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or securities
 will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted custodian, in a
 manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection Corporation
 protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's assets;
 
 24. Market broker-dealer services that are associated with
 financial institutions in a manner that is misleading or confusing to customers
 as to the nature of securities products or risks; 
 
 25. In transactions subject to breakpoints, fail to:
 
 a. Utilize advantageous breakpoints without reasonable basis
 for their exclusion;
 
 b. Determine information that should be recorded on the books
 and records of a member or its clearing firm, which is necessary to determine
 the availability and appropriateness of breakpoint opportunities; or
 
 c. Inquire whether the customer has positions or transactions
 away from the member that should be considered in connection with the pending
 transaction and apprise the customer of the breakpoint opportunities; 
 
 26. Use a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of securities that indicates or
 implies that the user has special certification or training in advising or
 servicing senior citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following:
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation;
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation;
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that:
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing;
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants;
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate.
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 26 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by: 
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute;
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or
 
 (3) An organization that is on the U.S. Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing.
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or
 professional designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization. 
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services
 regulatory agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that
 regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as
 defined under § 3 (a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC
 § 80a-3(a)(1)).
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of law;
 
 27. Represent that securities will be listed or that
 application for listing will be made on a securities exchange or the National
 Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations (NASDAQ) system or other
 quotation system without reasonable basis in fact for the representation;
 
 28. Falsify or alter so as to make false or misleading any
 record or document or any information provided to the commission;
 
 29. Negotiate, facilitate, or otherwise execute a transaction
 on behalf of an investor involving securities issued by a third party pursuant
 to a claim for exemption under subsection B of § 13.1-514 of the Act
 unless the broker-dealer intends to report the securities owned and the value
 of such securities on at least a quarterly basis to the investor;
 
 30. Offer or sell securities pursuant to a claim for exemption
 under subsection B of § 13.1-514 of the Act without having first verified the
 information relating to the securities offered or sold, which shall include,
 but not be limited to, ascertaining the risks associated with investing in
 the respective security;
 
 31. Allow any person to represent or utilize its name as a
 trading platform without conspicuously disclosing the name of the registered
 broker-dealer in effecting or attempting to effect purchases and sales of
 securities; or
 
 32. Engage in any conduct that constitutes a dishonest or
 unethical practice including, but not limited to, forgery, embezzlement,
 nondisclosure, incomplete disclosure or material omissions or untrue statements
 of material facts, manipulative or deceptive practices, or fraudulent course of
 business.
 
 B. Every agent is required to observe high standards of
 commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct of
 his business. The acts and practices described in this subsection are
 considered contrary to such standards and may constitute grounds for denial,
 suspension, or revocation of registration or such other action authorized by
 the Act. No agent who is registered or required to be registered shall:
 
 1. Engage in the practice of lending or borrowing money or
 securities from a customer, or acting as a custodian for money, securities or
 an executed stock power of a customer;
 
 2. Effect any securities transaction not recorded on the
 regular books or records of the broker-dealer which the agent represents,
 unless the transaction is authorized in writing by the broker-dealer prior to
 execution of the transaction;
 
 3. Establish or maintain an account containing fictitious
 information in order to execute a transaction which would otherwise be unlawful
 or prohibited;
 
 4. Share directly or indirectly in profits or losses in the
 account of any customer without the written authorization of the customer and
 the broker-dealer which the agent represents;
 
 5. Divide or otherwise split the agent's commissions, profits
 or other compensation from the purchase or sale of securities in this
 Commonwealth with any person not also registered as an agent for the same
 broker-dealer, or for a broker-dealer under direct or indirect common control;
 
 6. Engage in conduct specified in subdivision A 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
 10, 15, 16, 17, 18, 23, 24, 25, 26, 28, 30, 31, or 32 of this section;
 
 7. Fail to comply with the continuing education requirements
 under 21VAC5-20-150 C; or
 
 8. Hold oneself out as representing any person other than the
 broker-dealer with whom the agent is registered and, in the case of an agent
 whose normal place of business is not on the premises of the broker-dealer,
 failing to conspicuously disclose the name of the broker-dealer for whom the
 agent is registered when representing the dealer in effecting or attempting to
 effect the purchases or sales of securities.
 
 C. No person shall publish, give publicity to, or circulate
 any notice, circular, advertisement, newspaper article, letter, investment
 service or communication which, though not purporting to offer a security for
 sale, describes the security, for a consideration received or to be received,
 directly or indirectly, from an issuer, underwriter, or dealer, without fully
 disclosing the receipt, whether past or prospective, of such consideration and
 the amount thereof.
 
 D. The purpose of this subsection is to identify practices in
 the securities business that are generally associated with schemes to
 manipulate and to identify prohibited business conduct of broker-dealers or
 sales agents who are registered or required to be registered.
 
 1. Entering into a transaction with a customer in any security
 at an unreasonable price or at a price not reasonably related to the current
 market price of the security or receiving an unreasonable commission or profit.
 
 2. Contradicting or negating the importance of any information
 contained in a prospectus or other offering materials with intent to deceive or
 mislead or using any advertising or sales presentation in a deceptive or
 misleading manner.
 
 3. In connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of a
 security, falsely leading a customer to believe that the broker-dealer or agent
 is in possession of material, nonpublic information that would affect the value
 of the security.
 
 4. In connection with the solicitation of a sale or purchase
 of a security, engaging in a pattern or practice of making contradictory
 recommendations to different investors of similar investment objective for some
 to sell and others to purchase the same security, at or about the same time,
 when not justified by the particular circumstances of each investor.
 
 5. Failing to make a bona fide public offering of all the
 securities allotted to a broker-dealer for distribution by, among other things,
 (i) transferring securities to a customer, another broker-dealer, or a
 fictitious account with the understanding that those securities will be
 returned to the broker-dealer or its nominees or (ii) parking or withholding
 securities.
 
 6. a. In addition to the application of the general anti-fraud
 provisions against anyone in connection with practices similar in nature to the
 practices discussed in this subdivision 6, the following subdivisions (1)
 through (6) specifically apply only in connection with the solicitation of a
 purchase or sale of over the counter (OTC) unlisted non-NASDAQ equity
 securities except those exempt from registration under 21VAC5-40-50:
 
 (1) Failing to advise the customer, both at the time of
 solicitation and on the confirmation, of any and all compensation related to a
 specific securities transaction to be paid to the agent including commissions,
 sales charges, or concessions.
 
 (2) In connection with a principal transaction, failing to
 disclose, both at the time of solicitation and on the confirmation, a short
 inventory position in the firm's account of more than 3.0% of the issued and
 outstanding shares of that class of securities of the issuer; however, this
 subdivision 6 of this subsection shall apply only if the firm is a market maker
 at the time of the solicitation.
 
 (3) Conducting sales contests in a particular security.
 
 (4) After a solicited purchase
 by a customer, failing or refusing, in connection with a principal transaction,
 to promptly execute sell orders.
 
 (5) Soliciting a secondary
 market transaction when there has not been a bona fide distribution in the
 primary market.
 
 (6) Engaging in a pattern of
 compensating an agent in different amounts for effecting sales and purchases in
 the same security.
 
 b. Although subdivisions D 6 a (1) through (6) of this section
 do not apply to OTC unlisted non-NASDAQ equity securities exempt from
 registration under 21VAC5-40-50, nothing in this subsection precludes
 application of the general anti-fraud provisions against anyone in connection
 with practices similar in nature to the practices discussed in subdivisions D 6
 a (1) through (6) of this section. 
 
 7. Effecting any transaction in, or inducing the purchase or
 sale of, any security by means of any manipulative, deceptive, or other
 fraudulent device or contrivance including but not limited to the use of
 boiler room tactics or use of fictitious or nominee accounts.
 
 8. Failing to comply with any prospectus delivery requirements
 promulgated under federal law or the Act.
 
 9. In connection with the solicitation of a sale or purchase
 of an OTC unlisted non-NASDAQ security, failing to promptly provide the most
 current prospectus or the most recently filed periodic report filed under § 13
 of the Securities Exchange Act when requested to do so by a customer.
 
 10. Marking any order tickets or confirmations as unsolicited
 when in fact the transaction was solicited.
 
 11. For any month in which activity has occurred in a
 customer's account, but in no event less than every three months, failing to
 provide each customer with a statement of account with respect to all OTC
 non-NASDAQ equity securities in the account, containing a value for each such
 security based on the closing market bid on a date certain; however, this
 subdivision shall apply only if the firm has been a market maker in the
 security at any time during the month in which the monthly or quarterly
 statement is issued.
 
 12. Failing to comply with any applicable provision of the
 FINRA Rules or any applicable fair practice, privacy, or ethical standard promulgated
 by the SEC or by a self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC.
 
 13. In connection with the solicitation of a purchase or sale
 of a designated security:
 
 a. Failing to disclose to the customer the bid and ask price,
 at which the broker-dealer effects transactions with individual, retail
 customers, of the designated security as well as its spread in both percentage
 and dollar amounts at the time of solicitation and on the trade confirmation
 documents; or
 
 b. Failing to include with the confirmation, the notice
 disclosure contained under 21VAC5-20-285, except the following shall be exempt
 from this requirement:
 
 (1) Transactions in which the price of the designated security
 is $5.00 or more, exclusive of costs or charges; however, if the designated security
 is a unit composed of one or more securities, the unit price divided by the
 number of components of the unit other than warrants, options, rights, or
 similar securities must be $5.00 or more, and any component of the unit that is
 a warrant, option, right, or similar securities, or a convertible security must
 have an exercise price or conversion price of $5.00 or more.
 
 (2) Transactions that are not recommended by the broker-dealer
 or agent.
 
 (3) Transactions by a broker-dealer (i) whose commissions, commission
 equivalents, and mark-ups from transactions in designated securities during
 each of the preceding three months, and during 11 or more of the preceding 12
 months, did not exceed 5.0% of its total commissions, commission-equivalents,
 and mark-ups from transactions in securities during those months; and (ii) who
 has not executed principal transactions in connection with the solicitation to
 purchase the designated security that is the subject of the transaction in the
 preceding 12 months.
 
 (4) Any transaction or transactions that, upon prior written
 request or upon its own motion, the commission conditionally or unconditionally
 exempts as not encompassed within the purposes of this section.
 
 c. For purposes of this section, the term "designated
 security" means any equity security other than a security:
 
 (1) Registered, or approved for registration upon notice of
 issuance, on a national securities exchange and makes transaction reports
 available pursuant to 17 CFR 11Aa3-1 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
 
 (2) Authorized, or approved for authorization upon notice of
 issuance, for quotation in the NASDAQ system;
 
 (3) Issued by an investment company registered under the
 Investment Company Act of 1940;
 
 (4) That is a put option or call option issued by The Options
 Clearing Corporation; or
 
 (5) Whose issuer has net tangible assets in excess of $4
 million as demonstrated by financial statements dated within no less than 15
 months that the broker-dealer has reviewed and has a reasonable basis to
 believe are true and complete in relation to the date of the transaction with
 the person, and
 
 (a) In the event the issuer is other than a foreign private
 issuer, are the most recent financial statements for the issuer that have been
 audited and reported on by an independent public accountant in accordance with
 the provisions of 17 CFR 210.2-02 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or
 
 (b) In the event the issuer is a foreign private issuer, are
 the most recent financial statements for the issuer that have been filed with
 the SEC; furnished to the SEC pursuant to 17 CFR 240.12g3-2(b) under the
 Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or prepared in accordance with generally
 accepted accounting principles in the country of incorporation, audited in
 compliance with the requirements of that jurisdiction, and reported on by an
 accountant duly registered and in good standing in accordance with the
 regulations of that jurisdiction.
 
 E. A broker-dealer or an agent may delay or refuse a
 transaction or a disbursement of funds that may involve or result in the
 financial exploitation of an individual pursuant to § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (21VAC5-20)
 
 Rule 1250 of FINRA By-Laws, Continuing Education
 Requirements, amended by SR-FINRA-2011-013, eff. October 17, 2011, Financial
 Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.
 
 Rule 345 A of the New York Stock Exchange Rules,
 Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995,
 New York Stock Exchange.
 
 Rule G-3(h) of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board,
 Classification of Principals and Representatives; Numerical Requirements;
 Testing; Continuing Education Requirements, effective as existed July 1, 1995,
 Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
 
 Rule
 1240 of FINRA By-Laws, Continuing Education Requirements, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2017-007, eff. October 1, 2018, Financial Industry Regulatory
 Authority, Inc.
 
 Rule
 345 A of the New York Stock Exchange Rules, Continuing Education for Registered
 Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995, New York Stock Exchange, superseded
 by Financial Industry Regulation Authority, Inc. Rule 1200 Series - Rule, 1240,
 eff. October 1, 2018
 
 Rule
 G-3(i) of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board, Classification of
 Principals and Representatives; Numerical Requirements; Testing; Continuing
 Education Requirements, effective as existed July 1, 1995, Municipal Securities
 Rulemaking Board
 
 Rule 341A of the New York Stock Exchange Market Rules,
 Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed May 14, 2012,
 New York Stock Exchange. 
 
 Rule 9.3A of the Chicago Board Options Exchange, Continuing
 Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995, Chicago
 Board Options Exchange.
 
 Article VI, Rule 11 of the Rules of the Chicago Stock
 Exchange, Inc., Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as
 existed July 1, 1995, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.
 
 FINRA, Rule 2264, Margin Disclosure Statement, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2011-065, eff. December 5, 2011.
 
 Article I, Paragraph u of FINRA By-Laws, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2008-0026, eff. December 15, 2008.
 
 21VAC5-30-80. Adoption of North American Securities
 Administration Association, Inc. statements of policy.
 
 The commission adopts the following North American Securities
 Administration Association, Inc. (NASAA) statements of policy that shall apply
 to the registration of securities in the Commonwealth. It will be considered a
 basis for denial of an application if an offering fails to comply with an
 applicable statement of policy. While applications not conforming to a
 statement of policy shall be looked upon with disfavor, where good cause is
 shown, certain provisions may be modified or waived by the commission.
 
 1. Options and Warrants, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 2. Underwriting Expenses, Underwriter's Warrants, Selling
 Expenses and Selling Security Holders, as amended March 31, 2008 May
 6, 2018.
 
 3. Real Estate Programs, as amended May 7, 2007.
 
 4. Oil and Gas Programs, as amended May 6, 2012.
 
 5. Cattle-Feeding Programs, as adopted September 17, 1980.
 
 6. Unsound Financial Condition, as amended March 31, 2008
 May 6, 2018.
 
 7. Real Estate Investment Trusts, as amended May 7, 2007.
 
 8. Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981.
 
 9. Small Company Offering Registrations, as adopted April 28,
 1996.
 
 10. NASAA Guidelines Regarding Viatical Investment, as adopted
 October 1, 2002.
 
 11. Corporate Securities Definitions, as amended March 31,
 2008 May 6, 2018.
 
 12. Church Extension Fund Securities, as amended April 18,
 2004.
 
 13. Promotional Shares, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 14. Loans and Other Material Transactions, as amended March
 31, 2008 May 6, 2018.
 
 15. Impoundment of Proceeds, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 16. Electronic Offering Documents and Electronic Signatures,
 as adopted May 8, 2017.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (21VAC5-30)
 
 Statement of Policy Regarding Church Extension Fund
 Securities, adopted April 17, 1994, amended April 18, 2004, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Extension Fund Securities as amended April 18, 2004,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Options and Warrants, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Underwriting Expenses, Underwriter's Warrants, Selling
 Expenses and Selling Security Holders, as amended May 6, 2018, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Unsound Financial Condition, as amended May 6, 2018, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Real Estate Programs, as amended May 7, 2007, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Oil and Gas Programs, as amended May 6, 2012, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Small Company Offering Registrations, as adopted April 28,
 1996, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 NASAA
 Guidelines Regarding Viatical Investment, as adopted October 1, 2002, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Corporate Securities Definitions, as amended May 6, 2018,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Promotional Shares, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Loans and Other Material Transactions, as amended May 6,
 2018, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Impoundment of Proceeds, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Electronic Offering Documents and Electronic Signatures, as
 adopted May 8, 2017, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Cattle-Feeding Programs, as adopted September 17, 1980,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 21VAC5-45-20. Offerings conducted pursuant to Rule 506 of
 federal Regulation regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): Filing filing
 requirements and issuer-agent exemption.
 
 A. An issuer offering a security that is a covered security
 under § 18 (b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77r(b)(4)(D))
 shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale of
 such federal covered security in this Commonwealth: 
 
 1. A notice on SEC Form D (17 CFR 239.500), as filed with the
 SEC. 
 
 2. A filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. 
 
 B. An amendment filing shall contain a copy of the amended
 SEC Form D. No fee is required for an amendment. 
 
 C. For the purpose of this chapter, SEC "Form D" is
 the document, as adopted by the SEC, and in effect on September 23, 2013,
 entitled "Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities."
 
 D. Pursuant to § 13.1-514 B 13 of the Act, an agent of an
 issuer who effects transactions in a security exempt from registration under
 the Securities Act of 1933 pursuant to rules and regulations promulgated under
 § 4(2) thereof (15 USC § 77d(2)) is exempt from the agent registration
 requirements of the Act. 
 
 
 
 NOTICE: Forms used in
 administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The forms are not
 being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia Register
 of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to access it.
 The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the
 Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main Street, 11th Floor,
 Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
 
  
 
 FORMS (21VAC5-45) 
 
 Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities, U.S.
 Securities and Exchange Commission, SEC1972 (rev. 2/2012) 
 
 Form
 D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities, U.S. Securities and Exchange
 Commission, SEC1972 (rev. 5/2017)
 
 Uniform Consent to Service of Process, Form U-2
 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 Uniform Notice of Regulation A - Tier 2 Offering
 (undated, filed 10/2016)
 
 Form NF - Uniform Investment Company Notice Filing
 (4/1997)
 
 Uniform Notice of Federal Crowdfunding Offering,
 Form U-CF (undated, filed 9/2017)
 
 Part I 
 Investment Advisor Registration, Notice Filing for Federal Covered Advisors,
 Expiration, Renewal, Updates and Amendments, Terminations and Merger or
 Consolidation
 
 21VAC5-80-10. Application for registration as an investment
 advisor and notice filing as a federal covered advisor.
 
 A. Application for registration as an investment advisor
 shall be filed in compliance with all requirements of IARD and in full
 compliance with forms and regulations prescribed by the commission and shall
 include all information required by such forms.
 
 B. An application shall be deemed incomplete for registration
 as an investment advisor unless the applicant submits the following executed
 forms, fee, and information: 
 
 1. Form ADV Parts 1 and 2 submitted to IARD.
 
 2. The statutory fee made payable to FINRA in the amount of
 $200 submitted to IARD pursuant to § 13.1-505 F of the Act.
 
 3. A copy of the client agreement. 
 
 4. A copy of the firm's supervisory and procedures manual as
 required by 21VAC5-80-170. 
 
 5. Copies of all advertising materials. 
 
 6. Copies of all stationery and business cards. 
 
 7. A signed affidavit stating that an investment advisor
 domiciled in Virginia has not conducted investment advisory business prior to
 registration, and for investment advisors domiciled outside of Virginia an
 affidavit stating that the advisor has fewer than six clients in the prior
 12-month period. 
 
 8. An audited or certified balance sheet prepared in
 accordance with generally accepted accounting practices reflecting the
 financial condition of the investment advisor not more than 90 days prior to
 the date of such filing.
 
 9. A copy of the firm's disaster recovery plan as required by
 21VAC5-80-160 F.
 
 10. Evidence of at least one qualified individual with an
 investment advisor representative registration pending on IARD on behalf of the
 investment advisor. 
 
 11. A copy of the firm’s physical security and
 cybersecurity policies and procedures as required by 21VAC5-80-260 A.
 
 12. A copy of the firm’s privacy policy as required by
 21VAC5-80-260 B.
 
 13. Any other information the commission may require.
 
 For purposes of this section, the term "net worth"
 means an excess of assets over liabilities, as determined by generally accepted
 accounting principles. Net worth shall not include: prepaid expenses (except as
 to items properly classified as assets under generally accepted accounting
 principles), deferred charges such as deferred income tax charges, goodwill,
 franchise rights, organizational expenses, patents, copyrights, marketing
 rights, unamortized debt discount and expense, all other assets of intangible
 nature, home furnishings, automobiles, and any other personal items not readily
 marketable in the case of an individual; advances or loans to stockholders and
 officers in the case of a corporation; and advances or loans to partners in the
 case of a partnership.
 
 C. The commission shall either grant or deny each application
 for registration within 30 days after it is filed. However, if additional time
 is needed to obtain or verify information regarding the application, the
 commission may extend such period as much as 90 days by giving written notice
 to the applicant. No more than three such extensions may be made by the
 commission on any one application. An extension of the initial 30-day period,
 not to exceed 90 days, shall be granted upon written request of the applicant. 
 
 D. Every person who transacts business in this Commonwealth
 as a federal covered advisor shall file a notice as prescribed in subsection E
 of this section in compliance with all requirements of the IARD. 
 
 E. A notice filing for a federal covered advisor shall be
 deemed incomplete unless the federal covered advisor submits the following executed
 forms, fee, and information: 
 
 1. Form ADV Parts 1 and 2. 
 
 2. A fee made payable to FINRA in the amount of $200. 
 
 21VAC5-80-160. Recordkeeping requirements for investment
 advisors.
 
 A. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered under the Act shall make and keep true, accurate and current the
 following books, ledgers and records, except an investment advisor having its
 principal place of business outside this Commonwealth and registered or
 licensed, and in compliance with the applicable books and records requirements,
 in the state where its principal place of business is located, shall only be
 required to make, keep current, maintain and preserve such of the following
 required books, ledgers and records as are not in addition to those required
 under the laws of the state in which it maintains its principal place of
 business:
 
 1. A journal or journals, including cash receipts and
 disbursements records, and any other records of original entry forming the
 basis of entries in any ledger.
 
 2. General and auxiliary ledgers (or other comparable records)
 reflecting asset, liability, reserve, capital, income and expense accounts.
 
 3. A memorandum of each order given by the investment advisor
 for the purchase or sale of any security, of any instruction received by the
 investment advisor from the client concerning the purchase, sale, receipt or
 delivery of a particular security, and of any modification or cancellation of
 any such order or instruction. The memoranda shall show the terms and conditions
 of the order, instruction, modification or cancellation; shall identify the
 person connected with the investment advisor who recommended the transaction to
 the client and the person who placed the order; and shall show the account for
 which entered, the date of entry, and the bank, broker or dealer by or through
 whom executed where appropriate. Orders entered pursuant to the exercise of
 discretionary power shall be so designated.
 
 4. All check books, bank statements, canceled checks and cash
 reconciliations of the investment advisor.
 
 5. All bills or statements (or copies of), paid or unpaid,
 relating to the business as an investment advisor.
 
 6. All trial balances, financial statements prepared in
 accordance with generally accepted accounting principles which shall include a
 balance sheet, income statement and such other statements as may be required
 pursuant to 21VAC5-80-180, and internal audit working papers relating to the
 investment advisor's business as an investment advisor.
 
 7. Originals of all written communications received and copies
 of all written communications sent by the investment advisor relating to (i)
 any recommendation made or proposed to be made and any advice given or proposed
 to be given; (ii) any receipt, disbursement or delivery of funds or securities;
 and (iii) the placing or execution of any order to purchase or sell any
 security; however, (a) the investment advisor shall not be required to keep any
 unsolicited market letters and other similar communications of general public
 distribution not prepared by or for the investment advisor, and (b) if the
 investment advisor sends any notice, circular or other advertisement offering
 any report, analysis, publication or other investment advisory service to more
 than 10 persons, the investment advisor shall not be required to keep a record
 of the names and addresses of the persons to whom it was sent; except that if
 the notice, circular or advertisement is distributed to persons named on any
 list, the investment advisor shall retain with a copy of the notice, circular
 or advertisement a memorandum describing the list and the source thereof.
 
 8. A list or other record of all accounts which list
 identifies the accounts in which the investment advisor is vested with any
 discretionary power with respect to the funds, securities or transactions of
 any client.
 
 9. All powers of attorney and other evidences of the granting
 of any discretionary authority by any client to the investment advisor, or
 copies thereof.
 
 10. All written agreements (or copies thereof) entered into by
 the investment advisor with any client, and all other written agreements
 otherwise related to the investment advisor's business as an investment
 advisor.
 
 11. A file containing a copy of each notice, circular,
 advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or other
 communication including by electronic media that the investment advisor
 circulates or distributes, directly or indirectly, to two or more persons
 (other than persons connected with the investment advisor), and if the notice,
 circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or
 other communication including by electronic media recommends the purchase or
 sale of a specific security and does not state the reasons for the
 recommendation, a memorandum of the investment adviser indicating the reasons
 for the recommendation.
 
 12. a. A record of every transaction in a security in which
 the investment advisor or any investment advisory representative of the
 investment advisor has, or by reason of any transaction acquires, any direct or
 indirect beneficial ownership, except (i) transactions effected in any account
 over which neither the investment advisor nor any investment advisory
 representative of the investment advisor has any direct or indirect influence
 or control; and (ii) transactions in securities which are direct obligations of
 the United States. The record shall state the title and amount of the security
 involved; the date and nature of the transaction (i.e., purchase, sale or other
 acquisition or disposition); the price at which it was effected; and the name
 of the broker, dealer or bank with or through whom the transaction was
 effected. The record may also contain a statement declaring that the reporting
 or recording of any such transaction shall not be construed as an admission
 that the investment advisor or investment advisory representative has any
 direct or indirect beneficial ownership in the security. A transaction shall be
 recorded not later than 10 days after the end of the calendar quarter in which
 the transaction was effected.
 
 b. For purposes of this subdivision 12, the following
 definitions will apply. The term "advisory representative" means any
 partner, officer or director of the investment advisor; any employee who
 participates in any way in the determination of which recommendations shall be
 made; any employee who, in connection with his duties, obtains any information
 concerning which securities are being recommended prior to the effective
 dissemination of the recommendations; and any of the following persons who
 obtain information concerning securities recommendations being made by the
 investment advisor prior to the effective dissemination of the recommendations:
 
 (1) Any person in a control relationship to the investment
 adviser;
 
 (2) Any affiliated person of a controlling person; and
 
 (3) Any affiliated person of an affiliated person.
 
 "Control" means the power to exercise a controlling
 influence over the management or policies of a company, unless such power is
 solely the result of an official position with the company. Any person who owns
 beneficially, either directly or through one or more controlled companies, more
 than 25% of the ownership interest of a company shall be presumed to control
 the company.
 
 c. An investment advisor shall not be deemed to have violated
 the provisions of this subdivision 12 because of his failure to record
 securities transactions of any investment advisor representative if the
 investment advisor establishes that it instituted adequate procedures and used
 reasonable diligence to obtain promptly reports of all transactions required to
 be recorded.
 
 13. a. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 12 of
 this subsection, where the investment advisor is primarily engaged in a
 business or businesses other than advising investment advisory clients,
 a record must be maintained of every transaction in a security in which the
 investment advisor or any investment advisory representative of such investment
 advisor has, or by reason of such transaction acquires, any direct or indirect
 beneficial ownership, except (i) transactions effected in any account over
 which neither the investment advisor nor any investment advisory representative
 of the investment advisor has any direct or indirect influence or control; and
 (ii) transactions in securities which are direct obligations of the United
 States. The record shall state the title and amount of the security involved;
 the date and nature of the transaction (i.e., purchase, sale or other
 acquisition or disposition); the price at which it was effected; and the name
 of the broker, dealer or bank with or through whom the transaction was
 effected. The record may also contain a statement declaring that the reporting
 or recording of any such transaction shall not be construed as an admission
 that the investment advisor or investment advisory representative has any
 direct or indirect beneficial ownership in the security. A transaction shall be
 recorded not later than 10 days after the end of the calendar quarter in which
 the transaction was effected.
 
 b. An investment advisor is "primarily engaged in a
 business or businesses other than advising investment advisory clients"
 when, for each of its most recent three fiscal years or for the period of time
 since organization, whichever is less, the investment advisor derived, on an
 unconsolidated basis, more than 50% of (i) its total sales and revenues, and
 (ii) its income (or loss) before income taxes and extraordinary items, from
 such other business or businesses.
 
 c. For purposes of this subdivision 13, the following
 definitions will apply. The term "advisory representative," when used
 in connection with a company primarily engaged in a business or businesses
 other than advising investment advisory clients, means any partner, officer,
 director or employee of the investment advisor who participates in any way in
 the determination of which recommendation shall be made, or whose functions or
 duties relate to the determination of which securities are being recommended
 prior to the effective dissemination of the recommendations; and any of the
 following persons, who obtain information concerning securities recommendations
 being made by the investment advisor prior to the effective dissemination of
 the recommendations or of the information concerning the recommendations:
 
 (1) Any person in a control relationship to the investment
 advisor;
 
 (2) Any affiliated person of a controlling person; and
 
 (3) Any affiliated person of an affiliated person.
 
 d. An investment advisor shall not be deemed to have violated
 the provisions of this subdivision 13 because of his failure to record
 securities transactions of any investment advisor representative if he
 establishes that he instituted adequate procedures and used reasonable
 diligence to obtain promptly reports of all transactions required to be
 recorded.
 
 14. A copy of each written statement and each amendment or
 revision, given or sent to any client or prospective client of such investment
 advisor in accordance with the provisions of 21VAC5-80-190 and a record of the
 dates that each written statement, and each amendment or revision, was given,
 or offered to be given, to any client or prospective client who subsequently
 becomes a client.
 
 15. For each client that was obtained by the advisor by means
 of a solicitor to whom a cash fee was paid by the advisor, the following:
 
 a. Evidence of a written agreement to which the advisor is a
 party related to the payment of such fee;
 
 b. A signed and dated acknowledgement of receipt from the
 client evidencing the client's receipt of the investment advisor's disclosure
 statement and a written disclosure statement of the solicitor; and 
 
 c. A copy of the solicitor's written disclosure statement. The
 written agreement, acknowledgement and solicitor disclosure statement will be
 considered to be in compliance if such documents are in compliance with Rule
 275.206(4)-3 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
 
 For purposes of this regulation, the term
 "solicitor" means any person or entity who, for compensation, acts as
 an agent of an investment advisor in referring potential clients.
 
 16. All accounts, books, internal working papers, and any
 other records or documents that are necessary to form the basis for or
 demonstrate the calculation of the performance or rate of return of all managed
 accounts or securities recommendations in any notice, circular, advertisement,
 newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or other communication
 including but not limited to electronic media that the investment
 advisor circulates or distributes directly or indirectly, to two or more
 persons (other than persons connected with the investment advisor); however,
 with respect to the performance of managed accounts, the retention of all
 account statements, if they reflect all debits, credits, and other transactions
 in a client's account for the period of the statement, and all worksheets
 necessary to demonstrate the calculation of the performance or rate of return
 of all managed accounts shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this
 subdivision.
 
 17. A file containing a copy of all written communications
 received or sent regarding any litigation involving the investment advisor or
 any investment advisor representative or employee, and regarding any written
 customer or client complaint.
 
 18. Written information about each investment advisory client
 that is the basis for making any recommendation or providing any investment
 advice to the client.
 
 19. Written procedures to supervise the activities of
 employees and investment advisor representatives that are reasonably designed
 to achieve compliance with applicable securities laws and regulations.
 
 20. A file containing a copy of each document (other than any
 notices of general dissemination) that was filed with or received from any
 state or federal agency or self regulatory organization and that pertains to
 the registrant or its investment advisor representatives, which file should
 contain, but is not limited to, all applications, amendments, renewal filings,
 and correspondence.
 
 21. Any records documenting dates, locations and findings of
 the investment advisor's annual review of these policies and procedures
 conducted pursuant to subdivision F of 21VAC5-80-170.
 
 22. Copies, with original signatures of the investment
 advisor's appropriate signatory and the investment advisor representative, of
 each initial Form U4 and each amendment to Disclosure Reporting Pages (DRPs U4)
 must be retained by the investment advisor (filing on behalf of the investment
 advisor representative) and must be made available for inspection upon
 regulatory request. 
 
 23. Where the advisor inadvertently held or obtained a
 client's securities or funds and returned them to the client within three
 business days or has forwarded third party checks within three business days of
 receipt, the advisor will be considered as not having custody but shall keep
 the following record to identify all securities or funds held or obtained
 relating to the inadvertent custody:
 
 A ledger or other listing of all securities or funds held or
 obtained, including the following information: 
 
 a. Issuer; 
 
 b. Type of security and series;
 
 c. Date of issue;
 
 d. For debt instruments, the denomination, interest rate and
 maturity date; 
 
 e. Certificate number, including alphabetical prefix or
 suffix; 
 
 f. Name in which registered; 
 
 g. Date given to the advisor; 
 
 h. Date sent to client or sender; 
 
 i. Form of delivery to client or sender, or copy of the form
 of delivery to client or sender; and 
 
 j. Mail confirmation number, if applicable, or confirmation by
 client or sender of the fund's or security's return. 
 
 24. If an investment advisor obtains possession of securities
 that are acquired from the issuer in a transaction or chain of transactions not
 involving any public offering that comply with the exception from custody under
 subdivision C 2 of 21VAC5-80-146, the advisor shall keep the following records:
 
 
 a. A record showing the issuer or current transfer agent's
 name address, phone number, and other applicable contract information
 pertaining to the party responsible for recording client interests in the
 securities; and 
 
 b. A copy of any legend, shareholder agreement, or other
 agreement showing that those securities that are transferable only with prior
 consent of the issuer or holders of the outstanding securities of the issuer. 
 
 25. Any records required pursuant to 21VAC5-80-260.
 
 B. 1. If an investment advisor subject to subsection A of
 this section has custody or possession of securities or funds of any client,
 the records required to be made and kept under subsection A of this section shall
 also include:
 
 a. A journal or other record showing all purchases, sales,
 receipts and deliveries of securities (including certificate numbers) for such
 accounts and all other debits and credits to the accounts.
 
 b. A separate ledger account for each client showing all
 purchases, sales, receipts and deliveries of securities, the date and price of
 each purchase and sale, and all debits and credits.
 
 c. Copies of confirmations of all transactions effected by or
 for the account of any client.
 
 d. A record for each security in which any client has a
 position, which record shall show the name of each client having any interest
 in each security, the amount or interest of each client, and the location of
 each security.
 
 e. A copy of any records required to be made and kept under
 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 f. A copy of any and all documents executed by the client
 (including a limited power of attorney) under which the advisor is authorized
 or permitted to withdraw a client's funds or securities maintained with a
 custodian upon the advisor's instruction to the custodian. 
 
 g. A copy of each of the client's quarterly account statements
 as generated and delivered by the qualified custodian. If the advisor also
 generates a statement that is delivered to the client, the advisor shall also
 maintain copies of such statements along with the date such statements were
 sent to the clients.
 
 h. If applicable to the advisor's situation, a copy of the
 special examination report verifying the completion of the examination by an
 independent certified public accountant and describing the nature and extent of
 the examination. 
 
 i. A record of any finding by the independent certified public
 accountant of any material discrepancies found during the examination. 
 
 j. If applicable, evidence of the client's designation of an
 independent representative.
 
 2. If an investment advisor has custody because it advises a
 pooled investment vehicle, as defined in 21VAC5-80-146 A in the definition of
 custody in clause subdivision 1 c, the advisor shall also keep
 the following records: 
 
 a. True, accurate, and current account statements; 
 
 b. Where the advisor complies with 21VAC5-80-146 C 4, the
 records required to be made and kept shall include: 
 
 (1) The date or dates of the audit; 
 
 (2) A copy of the audited financial statements; and 
 
 (3) Evidence of the mailing of the audited financial to all
 limited partners, members, or other beneficial owners within 120 days of the
 end of its fiscal year. 
 
 c. Where the advisor complies with 21VAC5-80-146 B 5, the
 records required to be made and kept shall include: 
 
 (1) A copy of the written agreement with the independent party
 reviewing all fees and expenses, indicating the responsibilities of the
 independent third party. 
 
 (2) Copies of all invoices and receipts showing approval by
 the independent party for payment through the qualified custodian.
 
 C. Every investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section who renders any investment advisory or management service to any client
 shall, with respect to the portfolio being supervised or managed and to the
 extent that the information is reasonably available to or obtainable by the
 investment advisor, make and keep true, accurate and current:
 
 1. Records showing separately for each client the securities
 purchased and sold, and the date, amount and price of each purchase and sale.
 
 2. For each security in which any client has a current
 position, information from which the investment advisor can promptly furnish
 the name of each client and the current amount or interest of the client.
 
 D. Any books or records required by this section may be
 maintained by the investment advisor in such manner that the identity of any
 client to whom the investment advisor renders investment advisory services is
 indicated by numerical or alphabetical code or some similar designation.
 
 E. Every investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section shall preserve the following records in the manner prescribed:
 
 1. All books and records required to be made under the
 provisions of subsection A through subdivision C 1, inclusive, of this section,
 except for books and records required to be made under the provisions of
 subdivisions A 11 and A 16 of this section, shall be maintained in an easily
 accessible place for a period of not less than five years from the end of the
 fiscal year during which the last entry was made on record, the first two years
 of which shall be maintained in the principal office of the investment advisor.
 
 2. Partnership articles and any amendments, articles of
 incorporation, charters, minute books, and stock certificate books of the
 investment advisor and of any predecessor, shall be maintained in the principal
 office of the investment advisor and preserved until at least three years after
 termination of the enterprise.
 
 3. Books and records required to be made under the provisions
 of subdivisions A 11 and A 16 of this section shall be maintained in an easily
 accessible place for a period of not less than five years, the first two years
 of which shall be maintained in the principal office of the investment advisor,
 from the end of the fiscal year during which the investment advisor last
 published or otherwise disseminated, directly or indirectly, the notice,
 circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or
 other communication including by electronic media.
 
 4. Books and records required to be made under the provisions
 of subdivisions A 17 through A 22, inclusive, of this section shall be
 maintained and preserved in an easily accessible place for a period of not less
 than five years, from the end of the fiscal year during which the last entry
 was made on such record, the first two years in the principal office of the
 investment advisor, or for the time period during which the investment advisor
 was registered or required to be registered in the state, if less.
 
 5. Notwithstanding other record preservation requirements of
 this subsection, the following records or copies shall be required to be
 maintained at the business location of the investment advisor from which the
 customer or client is being provided or has been provided with investment
 advisory services: (i) records required to be preserved under subdivisions A 3,
 A 7 through A 10, A 14 and A 15, A 17 through A 19, subsections B and C,
 and (ii) the records or copies required under the provision of subdivisions A
 11 and A 16 of this section which records or related records identify the name
 of the investment advisor representative providing investment advice from that
 business location, or which identify the business locations' physical address,
 mailing address, electronic mailing address, or telephone number. The records
 will be maintained for the period described in this subsection.
 
 F. Every investment advisor shall establish and maintain a
 written disaster recovery plan that shall address at a minimum:
 
 1. The identity of individuals that will conduct or wind down
 business on behalf of the investment advisor in the event of death or
 incapacity of key persons;
 
 2. Means to provide notification to clients of the investment
 advisor and to those states in which the advisor is registered of the death or
 incapacity of key persons;
 
 a. Notification shall be provided to the Division of
 Securities and Retail Franchising via IARD/CRD within 24 hours of the
 death or incapacity of key persons.
 
 b. Notification shall be given to clients within five business
 days from the death or incapacity of key persons.
 
 3. Means for clients' accounts to continue to be monitored
 until an orderly liquidation, distribution or transfer of the clients'
 portfolio to another advisor can be achieved or until an actual notice to the
 client of investment advisor death or incapacity and client control of their
 assets occurs;
 
 4. Means for the credit demands of the investment advisor to
 be met; and
 
 5. Data backups sufficient to allow rapid resumption of the
 investment advisor's activities.
 
 G. An investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section, before ceasing to conduct or discontinuing business as an investment
 advisor, shall arrange for and be responsible for the preservation of the books
 and records required to be maintained and preserved under this section for the
 remainder of the period specified in this section, and shall notify the
 commission in writing of the exact address where the books and records will be
 maintained during such period.
 
 H. 1. The records required to be maintained pursuant to this
 section may be immediately produced or reproduced by photograph on film or, as
 provided in subdivision 2 of this subsection, on magnetic disk, tape or other
 computer storage medium, and be maintained for the required time in that form.
 If records are preserved or reproduced by photographic film or computer storage
 medium, the investment advisor shall:
 
 a. Arrange the records and index the films or computer storage
 medium so as to permit the immediate location of any particular record;
 
 b. Be ready at all times to promptly provide any facsimile
 enlargement of film or computer printout or copy of the computer storage medium
 which the commission by its examiners or other representatives may request;
 
 c. Store separately from the original one other copy of the
 film or computer storage medium for the time required;
 
 d. With respect to records stored on computer storage medium,
 maintain procedures for maintenance of, and access to, records so as to
 reasonably safeguard records from loss, alteration, or destruction; and
 
 e. With respect to records stored on photographic film, at all
 times have available, for the commission's examination of its records,
 facilities for immediate, easily readable projection of the film and for
 producing easily readable facsimile enlargements.
 
 2. Pursuant to subdivision 1 of this subsection, an advisor
 may maintain and preserve on computer tape or disk or other computer storage
 medium records which, in the ordinary course of the advisor's business, are
 created by the advisor on electronic media or are received by the advisor
 solely on electronic media or by electronic transmission.
 
 I. Any book or record made, kept, maintained, and preserved
 in compliance with SEC Rules 17a-3 (17 CFR 240.17a-3) and 17a-4 (17 CFR
 240.17a-4) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, which is substantially
 the same as the book, or other record required to be made, kept, maintained,
 and preserved under this section shall be deemed to be made, kept, maintained,
 and preserved in compliance with this section.
 
 J. For purposes of this section, "investment supervisory
 services" means the giving of continuous advice as to the investment of
 funds on the basis of the individual needs of each client; and
 "discretionary power" shall not include discretion as to the price at
 which or the time when a transaction is or is to be effected if, before the
 order is given by the investment advisor, the client has directed or approved the
 purchase or sale of a definite amount of the particular security.
 
 K. For purposes of this section, "principal place of
 business" and "principal office" mean the executive office of
 the investment advisor from which the officers, partners, or managers of the
 investment advisor direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the
 investment advisor.
 
 L. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered in this Commonwealth and has its principal place of business in a
 state other than the Commonwealth shall be exempt from the requirements of this
 section to the extent provided by the National Securities Markets Improvement
 Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290), provided the investment advisor is licensed
 in such state and is in compliance with such state's recordkeeping
 requirements.
 
 21VAC5-80-200. Dishonest or unethical practices.
 
 A. An investment advisor or federal covered advisor is a
 fiduciary and has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his clients. While
 the extent and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the
 relationship between an investment advisor or federal covered advisor and his
 clients and the circumstances of each case, an investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor who is registered or required to be registered shall not engage
 in unethical practices, including the following:
 
 1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory,
 management or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale or exchange
 of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation
 is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client
 after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives,
 financial situation, risk tolerance and needs, and any other information known
 or acquired by the investment advisor or federal covered advisor after
 reasonable examination of the client's financial records.
 
 2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client without written authority to do so.
 
 3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having
 obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.
 
 4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for
 the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written
 discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date
 of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority,
 unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the
 time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall
 be executed, or both.
 
 5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in
 size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives and
 character of the account.
 
 6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the
 client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning funds
 or securities.
 
 7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor or
 federal covered advisor is a financial institution engaged in the business of
 loaning funds or the client is an affiliate of the investment advisor or
 federal covered advisor.
 
 8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective
 advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor, or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being
 offered or fees to be charged for the services, or omission to state a material
 fact necessary to make the statements made regarding qualifications services or
 fees, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
 
 9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client
 prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered
 advisor without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a
 situation where the advisor uses published research reports or statistical
 analyses to render advice or where an advisor orders such a report in the
 normal course of providing service.
 
 10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of
 the fees charged by other investment advisors or federal covered advisors
 providing essentially the same services.
 
 11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any
 advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment
 advisor or federal covered advisor or any of his employees which could
 reasonably be expected to impair the rendering of unbiased and objective advice
 including:
 
 a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services
 to clients which are in addition to compensation from such clients for such
 services; or
 
 b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when
 a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will
 be received by the advisor or his employees.
 
 12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be
 achieved as a result of the advice which will be rendered.
 
 13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does
 any one of the following:
 
 a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the
 investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any
 advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor
 or investment advisor representative;
 
 b. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment
 advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been
 profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all
 recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one
 year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:
 
 (1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature
 of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the
 recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market
 price of each security; and
 
 (2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that
 states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the
 future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in
 the list;
 
 c. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device
 being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when
 to buy or sell them; or which represents, directly or indirectly, that any
 graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in
 making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or
 when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement
 the limitations thereof and the risks associated to its use;
 
 d. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will
 be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other
 service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct
 or indirect condition or obligation;
 
 e. Represents that the commission has approved any
 advertisement; or
 
 f. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that
 is otherwise false or misleading. 
 
 For the purposes of this section, the term
 "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other
 written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other
 announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or
 by any medium, that offers any one of the following:
 
 (i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning
 securities;
 
 (ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used
 in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which
 security to buy or sell;
 
 (iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in
 making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which
 security to buy or sell; or
 
 (iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to
 securities.
 
 14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any
 client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a
 regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client, or failing
 to comply with any applicable privacy provision or standard promulgated by the
 SEC or by a self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC.
 
 15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to
 those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest,
 where the investment advisor has custody or possession of such securities or
 funds, when the investment advisor's action is subject to and does not comply
 with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 16. Entering into, extending or renewing any investment
 advisory contract unless the contract is in writing and discloses, in
 substance, the services to be provided, the term of the contract, the advisory
 fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount of prepaid fee to be
 returned in the event of contract termination or nonperformance, whether the
 contract grants discretionary power to the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor and that no assignment of such contract shall be made by the
 investment advisor or federal covered advisor without the consent of the other
 party to the contract.
 
 17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its
 customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for
 compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or
 securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted
 custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection
 Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's
 assets.
 
 18. Using a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability
 of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or
 indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating
 analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the
 user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior
 citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following: 
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation; 
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation; 
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or 
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that: 
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing; 
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants; 
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or 
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate. 
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute; 
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or 
 
 (3) An organization that is on the United States Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing. 
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional
 designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency, when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization. 
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services regulatory
 agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that regulates
 broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as defined under § 3
 (a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC § 80a-3(a)(1)). 
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of the law.
 
 B. An investment advisor representative is a fiduciary and
 has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his clients. While the extent
 and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the relationship
 between an investment advisor representative and his clients and the
 circumstances of each case, an investment advisor representative who is
 registered or required to be registered shall not engage in unethical practices,
 including the following:
 
 1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory,
 management or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale or exchange
 of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation
 is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client
 after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives,
 financial situation and needs, and any other information known or acquired by
 the investment advisor representative after reasonable examination of the
 client's financial records.
 
 2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client without written authority to do so.
 
 3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having
 obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.
 
 4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for
 the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written
 discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date
 of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority,
 unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the
 time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall
 be executed, or both.
 
 5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in
 size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives and
 character of the account.
 
 6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the
 client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor
 representative, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning
 funds or securities.
 
 7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor
 representative is engaged in the business of loaning funds or the client is an
 affiliate of the investment advisor representative.
 
 8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective
 advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor representative,
 or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being offered or fees to
 be charged for the services, or omission to state a material fact necessary to
 make the statements made regarding qualifications, services or fees, in light
 of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
 
 9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client
 prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered
 advisor who the investment advisor representative is employed by or associated
 with without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a
 situation where the investment advisor or federal covered advisor uses
 published research reports or statistical analyses to render advice or where an
 investment advisor or federal covered advisor orders such a report in the
 normal course of providing service.
 
 10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of
 the fees charged by other investment advisor representatives providing
 essentially the same services.
 
 11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any
 advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment
 advisor representative which could reasonably be expected to impair the
 rendering of unbiased and objective advice including:
 
 a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services
 to clients which are in addition to compensation from such clients for such
 services; or
 
 b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when
 a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will
 be received by the investment advisor representative.
 
 12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be
 achieved as a result of the advice which will be rendered.
 
 13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does
 any one of the following:
 
 a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the
 investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any
 advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor
 or investment advisor representative;
 
 b. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment
 advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been
 profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all
 recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one
 year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:
 
 (1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature
 of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the
 recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market
 price of each security; and
 
 (2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that
 states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the
 future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in
 the list;
 
 c. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device
 being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when
 to buy or sell them; or which represents, directly or indirectly, that any
 graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in
 making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or
 when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement
 the limitations thereof and the risks associated with its use;
 
 d. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will
 be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other
 service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct
 or indirect condition or obligation;
 
 e. Represents that the commission has approved any
 advertisement; or
 
 f. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that
 is otherwise false or misleading. 
 
 For the purposes of this section, the term
 "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other
 written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other
 announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or
 by any medium, that offers any one of the following:
 
 (i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning
 securities;
 
 (ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used
 in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which
 security to buy or sell;
 
 (iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in
 making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which
 security to buy or sell; or
 
 (iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to
 securities.
 
 14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any
 client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a
 regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client.
 
 15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to
 those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest, where
 the investment advisor representative other than a person associated with a
 federal covered advisor has custody or possession of such securities or funds,
 when the investment advisor representative's action is subject to and does not
 comply with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 16. Entering into, extending or renewing any investment
 advisory or federal covered advisory contract unless such contract is in
 writing and discloses, in substance, the services to be provided, the term of
 the contract, the advisory fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount
 of prepaid fee to be returned in the event of contract termination or
 nonperformance, whether the contract grants discretionary power to the
 investment advisor representative and that no assignment of such contract shall
 be made by the investment advisor representative without the consent of the
 other party to the contract.
 
 17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its
 customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for
 compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or
 securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted
 custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection
 Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's
 assets.
 
 18. Using a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability
 of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or
 indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating
 analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the
 user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior
 citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following: 
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation; 
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation; 
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or 
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that: 
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing; 
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants; 
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or 
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate. 
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute;
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or
 
 (3) An organization that is on the United States Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing.
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional
 designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency, when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization.
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services
 regulatory agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that
 regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as
 defined under § 3(a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC
 § 80a-3(a)(1).
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of law.
 
 C. The conduct set forth in subsections A and B of this
 section is not all inclusive. Engaging in other conduct such as nondisclosure,
 incomplete disclosure, or deceptive practices may be deemed an unethical
 business practice except to the extent permitted by the National Securities
 Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).
 
 D. The provisions of this section shall apply to federal
 covered advisors to the extent that fraud or deceit is involved, or as
 otherwise permitted by the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996
 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).
 
 E. An investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative may delay or refuse to place an order or to disburse funds that
 may involve or result in the financial exploitation of an individual pursuant
 to § 63.2-1606 L of the Code of Virginia.
 
 F. For purposes of the section, any mandatory arbitration
 provision in an advisory contract shall be prohibited.
 
 G. The investment advisor and investment advisor
 representative shall notify the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising,
 State Corporation Commission and the client of an unauthorized access to
 records that may expose a client's identity or investments to a third party
 within three business days of the discovery of the unauthorized access.
 
 21VAC5-80-260. Information security and privacy.
 
 A. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered shall establish, implement, update, and enforce written physical
 security and cybersecurity policies and procedures reasonably designed to
 ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of physical and
 electronic records and information. The policies and procedures shall be
 tailored to the investment advisor's business model, taking into account the
 size of the firm, type of services provided, and the number of locations of the
 investment advisor.
 
 1. The physical security and cybersecurity policies and
 procedures shall:
 
 a. Protect against reasonably anticipated threats or
 hazards to the security or integrity of client records and information;
 
 b. Ensure that the investment advisor safeguards
 confidential client records and information; and
 
 c. Protect any records and information the release of which
 could result in harm or inconvenience to any client.
 
 2. The physical security and cybersecurity policies and
 procedures shall cover at least five functions:
 
 a. The organizational understanding to manage information
 security risk to systems, assets, data, and capabilities;
 
 b. The appropriate safeguards to ensure delivery of critical
 infrastructure services;
 
 c. The appropriate activities to identify the occurrence of
 an information security event;
 
 d. The appropriate activities to take action regarding a
 detected information security event; and
 
 e. The appropriate activities to maintain plans for
 resilience and to restore any capabilities or services that were impaired due
 to an information security event.
 
 3. The investment advisor shall review, no less frequently
 than annually, and modify, as needed, these policies and procedures to ensure
 the adequacy of the security measures and the effectiveness of their
 implementation.
 
 B. The investment advisor shall deliver upon the
 investment advisor's engagement by a client, and on an annual basis thereafter,
 a privacy policy to each client that is reasonably designed to aid in the
 client's understanding of how the investment advisor collects and shares, to
 the extent permitted by state and federal law, nonpublic personal information.
 The investment advisor shall promptly update and deliver to each client an
 amended privacy policy if any of the information in the policy becomes
 inaccurate. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5907; Filed June 28, 2019, 12:01 p.m. 
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Proposed Regulation
 
 Titles of Regulations: 21VAC5-20. Broker-Dealers,
 Broker-Dealer Agents and Agents of the Issuer (amending 21VAC5-20-280).
 
 21VAC5-30. Securities Registration (amending 21VAC5-30-80).
 
 21VAC5-45. Federal Covered Securities (amending 21VAC5-45-20).
 
 21VAC5-80. Investment Advisors (amending 21VAC5-80-10, 21VAC5-80-160, 21VAC5-80-200; adding
 21VAC5-80-260). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 13.1-523 of the Code
 of Virginia.
 
 Public Hearing Information: Public hearing available
 upon request.
 
 Public Comment Deadline: August 9, 2019.
 
 Agency Contact: Hazel Stewart, Manager, Securities
 Retail Franchising, State Corporation Commission, Tyler Building, 9th Floor,
 P.O. Box 1197, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9685, FAX (804)
 371-9911, or email hazel.stewart@scc.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-20 (i) allow
 broker-dealers to delay or refuse transactions and disbursements of funds from
 the accounts of vulnerable adults where the financial institution suspects
 financial exploitation and (ii) update three documents incorporated by
 reference that pertain to continuing education adopted by federal
 self-regulatory organizations. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-30 (i) update a number of
 the statements of policy that apply to the registration of securities,
 including underwriting expenses, unsound financial condition, corporate
 securities definitions, and loans and other material transactions and (iii)
 incorporate by reference all statements of policy previously adopted by the
 State Corporation Commission. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-45 remove the date of
 adoption of Form D, which is the filing form for notices under federal Rule 506
 of Regulation D. 
 
 The proposed amendments to 21VAC5-80 (i) allow investment
 advisors to delay or refuse to place orders or disburse funds that may involve
 or result in financial exploitation of an individual; (ii) prohibit mandatory
 arbitration clauses in investment advisory contracts; (iii) based on the North
 American Securities Administrators Association May 18, 2019 Model Rule, add a
 new section that establishes the minimum policies and procedures to protect
 client information and privacy, including both physical and cybersecurity
 measures; (iv) add these information and cybersecurity policy and procedures to
 the list of required documents to be filed by investment advisor applicants and
 to the list of required records for investment advisors; (v) conform the
 regulation to the new model rule and remove the reference to the Securities and
 Exchange Commission and self-regulatory organizations; and (vi) make it a
 dishonest or unethical practice for an investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative to fail to report unauthorized access to a client's information
 to the commission and client within three business days of discovery. 
 
 AT RICHMOND, JUNE 27, 2019
 
 COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
 
 STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
 
 CASE NO. SEC-2019-00024
 
 Ex Parte: In the matter of
 Adopting a Revision to the Rules
 Governing the Virginia Securities Act
 
 ORDER TO TAKE NOTICE
 
 Section 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia ("Code")
 provides that the State Corporation Commission ("Commission") shall
 have the power to promulgate rules and regulations in the enforcement and
 administration of all laws within its jurisdiction. Section 13.1-523 of the Virginia
 Securities Act ("Act"), § 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code provides that
 the Commission may issue any rules and regulations necessary or appropriate for
 the administration and enforcement of the Act.
 
 The rules and regulations issued by the Commission pursuant
 to the Act are set forth in Title 21 of the Virginia Administrative Code. A
 copy also may be found at the Commission’s website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
 
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 20. Broker-Dealers, Broker-Dealer
 Agents and Agents of the Issuer. Prohibited Business Conduct
 
 Under certain provisions of Chapter 20, a broker-dealer is
 required to make securities trades and disburse funds from customer accounts
 within a prescribed period of time. The proposed amendment to Chapter 20
 provides for an exception to these provisions to allow broker-dealers to
 protect vulnerable customers from potential financial exploitation by
 permitting the broker-dealer to delay or refuse such transactions and
 disbursements.
 
 Financial exploitation is the fastest growing category of
 elder abuse in many states. It is estimated that one in every five older adults
 have been victimized by financial fraud. These frauds can be perpetrated by
 strangers, con artists, or even family members and caregivers in whom these
 adults place their trust. During the 2019 General Assembly, the legislature
 addressed the growing issue of financial exploitation of vulnerable adults by
 passing a new subsection L to § 63.2-1606 of the Code for the Protection
 of Aged or Incapacitated Adults.
 
 This new subsection allows financial institutions to delay
 transactions and refuse disbursements from the accounts of vulnerable adults
 where the financial institution suspects financial exploitation. With this new
 subsection a broker-dealer’s staff can report any information or records to the
 appropriate authorities if the staff has a good faith belief that the
 transaction or disbursement may involve financial exploitation of such adults.
 If the broker-dealer staff follows the requirements of the new subsection, they
 will be immune from civil or criminal liability, absent gross negligence or
 willful misconduct. 
 
 To effectuate the new statute subsection, the Division of
 Securities and Retail Franchising ("Division") proposes to add a
 subsection E to Commission Rule 21 VAC 5-20-280. The new subsection would allow
 a broker-dealer to delay distributions or refuse transactions if the
 broker-dealer complies with § 63.2-1606 L of the Code.
 
 In addition, Documents Incorporated by Reference in Chapter
 21 VAC 5-20-280 contain revisions to certain rules pertaining to continuing
 education adopted by federal self-regulatory organizations, including rule
 revisions for: (1) one revised effective October 1, 2018, by the Financial
 Industry Regulatory Authority ("FINRA"); (2) one revised effective
 October 1, 2018. by the New York Stock Exchange (superseded by new FINRA rule);
 and (3) one revised by the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 80. Investment Advisors.
 
 A. Dishonest or Unethical Practices.
 
 I. Proposed New Subsection E. Just as with the
 broker-dealers, the new legislation protecting vulnerable adults from financial
 exploitation, the Division proposes that new § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code apply to the practices of investment advisors. Investment advisors are
 charged with acting in the best interests of their clients and should do all
 they can to protect them from financial exploitation. The Division proposes to
 add a subsection under the Dishonest or Unethical Practices of Chapter 80 to
 the provide investment advisors the same relief under § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code as the Division proposes for broker-dealers.
 
 II. Proposed New Subsection F. Over twenty years ago,
 investors had a choice of investing with a firm that required arbitration or
 one that recognized a judicial forum for disputes. Today, almost all financial
 services contracts offered by broker-dealers includes a mandatory predispute
 arbitration provision that forces public investors to submit all disputes that
 they may have to mandatory arbitration. Many investors are not aware of this
 provision, nor do they have a choice, as all disputes are conducted through a
 single securities arbitration forum maintained by the securities industry.
 
 In 1996, the United States ("U.S.") Congress
 ("Congress") passed legislation entitled the National Securities
 Markets Improvement Act ("NSMIA").1 NSMIA effectively
 divided the regulation of investment advisors between the U.S. Securities and
 Exchange Commission ("SEC") and the states. In general, primary
 jurisdiction of investment advisors (known as state-covered advisors) with less
 than $100 million in assets under management fall under state regulation. 
 
 However, the state-covered investment advisors are now
 including boilerplate mandatory arbitration provisions in their clients'
 contracts. The Division believes, as do many other states, that these
 "take-it-or-leave-it" clauses in client contracts is inherently
 unfair to investors. It is particularly unfair when an investment advisor is
 required by law to act in the best interests of their clients. An investment
 advisor should not be allowed to force clients to bring any disputes to a forum
 of the investment advisor's choosing by contract.
 
 Therefore, the Division proposes to add a new subsection F to
 the Dishonest or Unethical Practices section of Chapter 80 to prohibit
 mandatory arbitration clauses in investment advisory contracts. There is
 nothing to prevent the investment advisor and their client from agreeing to
 arbitrated disputes after negotiation and discussion between each. To require
 mandatory arbitration in standard investment advisor contracts is contrary to
 the investment advisors mandate to act in the best interest of their clients.
 
 B. Proposed Investment Advisor Information Security and Privacy
 Rule. 
 
 In recent years, both state and federal regulators have been
 concerned about data privacy and security in the financial markets. By a vote
 of its members on May 18, 2019, the North American Securities Administrators
 Association ("NASAA"),2 adopted a model rule to address
 the basic structure for how state-registered investment advisors may design
 their information security policies and procedures. The new Model Rule requires
 investment advisors to adopt policies and procedures regarding information
 security and to deliver its privacy policy annually to clients. The Model Rule
 was adopted to create uniformity in both state regulation and state-registered
 investment advisors.
 
 I. Proposed New Section 260. Information Security and Privacy.
 This new section will be added to the rules for investment advisors to
 establish the minimum policies and procedures to protect client information and
 provide information privacy. The current Commission rules require the delivery
 of the investment advisor's privacy policy on a yearly basis, but the proposed
 new rule would further refine that requirement. In addition, the model rule
 adds the new requirements for client information security.
 
 II. Proposed Amendments to Section 10. Application for Registration
 as an Investment Advisor and Notice Filing as a Federal Covered Advisor. The
 proposed amendments add the information and cyber security policy and
 procedures to the list of required documents to be filed by investment advisor
 applicants. In addition, the proposed amendment requires the investment advisor
 to file a copy of their privacy policy, as required for the proposed new rule.
 
 III. Proposed Amendment to Section 160 A. Recordkeeping
 Requirements for Investment Advisors. Under section 160, investment advisors
 are required to keep certain records. These records are used by the Division
 staff to determine compliance with the securities laws and regulations. This
 amendment will add a new subsection 25 which will add the requirement that
 investment advisors keep a copy of the policies and procedures required by the
 proposed new section 260.
 
 IV. Proposed Amendments to Section 200. Dishonest or
 Unethical Practices
 
 (a) Prohibited conduct regarding privacy of information.
 Currently, subsection 14 of 200 A requires investment advisors to protect their
 client’s information and makes it a violation for the investment advisor to
 fail to comply with any applicable privacy provision or standard promulgated by
 the SEC or any self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC. Now that the
 NASAA membership has adopted similar requirements in the Model Rule, the
 Division proposes to amend this section to conform it to the new Model Rule.
 The proposed amendment removes the reference to the SEC and self-regulatory
 organizations since the state-covered advisors will be governed by the
 new section 260, if adopted.
 
 (b) Prohibited conduct regarding an investment advisor's
 failure to report an unauthorized access of a client's information to the
 Division and the client. The consequences of unauthorized access to a client's
 information could be devastating to the client. To address that, the Division
 proposes a new subsection G to section 200. The proposed new subsection makes
 it a dishonest or unethical practice for an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative to fail to report such unauthorized access to the
 Division and the client within three business days of discovery. If properly
 reported, the Division can work with the investment advisor and investment advisor
 representative to take the appropriate measures to limit the damage and prevent
 further unauthorized access.
 
 Proposed Revision to Chapter 30. Adoption of NASAA.
 Statements of Policy.
 
 The Division is a member of NASAA, the association of state
 securities regulatory agencies. As a part of its mission to provide a uniform
 approach to the state regulation of securities, the Division, along with the
 member states, develops and adopts statements of policy that apply to the
 registration of securities. From time-to-time, NASAA amends these statements of
 policy to keep them current and address changes in the types of products
 offered by industry members, as well the changing norms for the standards that
 will apply to those registrations.
 
 The proposed amendment updates a number of these statements
 of policy, including (1) underwriting expenses; (2) unsound financial
 condition; (3) corporate securities definitions; and (4) loans and other
 material transactions. NASAA vetted the proposed amendments by providing public
 notice and opportunity to comment. Following the expiration of the comment
 period, the revisions were adopted in May of 2018 by a vote of the NASAA
 members.
 
 In addition, Documents Incorporated by Reference in Chapter
 21 VAC5-30, will be updated to include all Statements of Policy previously
 adopted by the Commission in Section 8.
 
 Proposed Revisions to Chapter 45. Offerings conducted
 pursuant to Rule 506 of Regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): Filing Requirements and
 issuer-agent exemption.
 
 Many securities offerings today are made through a federal
 exemption known as Rule 506, which allows an issuer of securities who meets the
 requirements of the exemption to offer and sell securities in every state
 without registration. As a part of the adoption of this federal regulation,
 Congress provided a means for states to monitor these offerings in their state
 by allowing the states to accept notice filings made under the federal
 regulation.
 
 To make such notices uniform among the states, the Division
 adopted this rule to provide for the notice filing through the use of the
 filing form developed by the SEC, known as Form D.  Over the years since
 Form D was adopted, the SEC has amended the form.  In order to make it
 easier to keep up with the changes to Form D, and to allow the securities
 industry to use the appropriate form, the Division proposes to drop the date of
 adoption of Form D from the body of the regulation and instead update its form
 list (attached hereto to this Order), as necessary.
 
 The Division recommended to the Commission that the proposed
 revisions should be considered for adoption. The Division also has recommended
 to the Commission that a hearing should be held only if requested by those
 interested parties who specifically indicate that a hearing is necessary and
 the reasons therefore.
 
 A copy of the proposed revisions may be requested by
 interested parties from the Division by telephone, mail, or e-mail request and
 also can be found at the Division's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/division/srf. Any comments to the
 proposed rules must be received by August 9, 2019. 
 
 Accordingly, IT IS THEREFORE ORDERED THAT:
 
 (1) The proposed revisions are appended hereto and made a
 part of the record herein.
 
 (2) On or before August 9, 2019, comments or request for
 hearing on the proposed revisions must be submitted in writing to Joel H. Peck,
 Clerk of the Commission, c/o Document Control Center, P.O. Box 2118, Richmond,
 Virginia 23218. A request for hearing shall state why a hearing is necessary
 and why the issues cannot be adequately addressed in written comments. All
 correspondence shall contain reference to Case No. SEC-2019-00024. Interested
 persons desiring to submit comments electronically may do so by following the
 instructions available at the Commission's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
 
 (3) The proposed revisions shall be posted on the
 Commission's website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case and on
 the Division’s website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/srf.
 Interested persons also may request a copy of the proposed revisions from the
 Division by telephone, mail or e-mail.
 
 AN ATTESTED COPY HEREOF, together with a copy of the proposed
 revisions, shall be sent to the Registrar of Regulations for publication in the
 Virginia Register of Regulations.
 
 AN ATTESTED COPY HEREOF shall be sent to the Director of the
 Division of Securities and Retail Franchising who shall forthwith mail a copy
 of this Order to any interested persons as he may designate.
 
 _________________________________
 
 1Pub.L. No. 104-290, 110 Stat. 3415 (codified
 through various parts of 15 USC 2006).
 
 2NASAA is the membership organization of state
 securities regulators.
 
 21VAC5-20-280. Prohibited business conduct.
 
 A. Every broker-dealer is required to observe high standards
 of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct
 of its business. The acts and practices described in this subsection are
 considered contrary to such standards and may constitute grounds for denial,
 suspension, or revocation of registration or such other action authorized by
 the Act. No broker-dealer who is registered or required to be registered shall:
 
 1. Engage in a pattern of unreasonable and unjustifiable
 delays in the delivery of securities purchased by any of its customers or in
 the payment upon request of free credit balances reflecting completed transactions
 of any of its customers, or take any action that directly or indirectly
 interferes with a customer's ability to transfer his account; provided that the
 account is not subject to any lien for moneys owed by the customer or other
 bona fide claim, including, but not limited to, seeking a judicial order
 or decree that would bar or restrict the submission, delivery or acceptance of
 a written request from a customer to transfer his account;
 
 2. Induce trading in a customer's account which is excessive
 in size or frequency in view of the financial resources and character of the
 account;
 
 3. Recommend to a customer the purchase, sale or exchange of
 any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation is
 suitable for the customer. The reasonable basis to recommend any such
 transaction to a customer shall be based upon the risks associated with a
 particular security, and the information obtained through the diligence and
 inquiry of the broker-dealer to ascertain the customer's investment profile. A
 customer's investment profile includes, but is not limited to, the
 customer's investment objectives, financial situation, risk tolerance and
 needs, tax status, age, other investments, investment experience, investment
 time horizon, liquidity needs, and any other relevant information known by the
 broker-dealer or of which the broker-dealer is otherwise made aware in
 connection with such recommendation;
 
 4. Execute a transaction on behalf of a customer without
 authority to do so or, when securities are held in a customer's account, fail
 to execute a sell transaction involving those securities as instructed by a
 customer, without reasonable cause;
 
 5. Exercise any discretionary power in effecting a transaction
 for a customer's account without first obtaining written discretionary
 authority from the customer, unless the discretionary power relates solely to
 the time or price for the execution of orders;
 
 6. Execute any transaction in a margin account without
 securing from the customer a properly executed written margin agreement
 promptly after the initial transaction in the account, or fail, prior to or at
 the opening of a margin account, to disclose to a noninstitutional customer the
 operation of a margin account and the risks associated with trading on margin at
 least as comprehensively as required by FINRA Rule 2264;
 
 7. Fail to segregate customers' free securities or securities
 held in safekeeping;
 
 8. Hypothecate a customer's securities without having a lien
 thereon unless the broker-dealer secures from the customer a properly executed
 written consent promptly after the initial transaction, except as permitted by
 Rules of the SEC;
 
 9. Enter into a transaction with or for a customer at a price
 not reasonably related to the current market price of a security or receiving
 an unreasonable commission or profit;
 
 10. Fail to furnish to a customer purchasing securities in an
 offering, no later than the date of confirmation of the transaction, either a
 final prospectus or a preliminary prospectus and an additional document, which
 together include all information set forth in the final prospectus, either by
 (i) hard copy prospectus delivery or (ii) electronic prospectus delivery;
 
 11. Introduce customer transactions on a "fully
 disclosed" basis to another broker-dealer that is not exempt under § 13.1-514
 B 6 of the Act;
 
 12. a. Charge unreasonable and inequitable fees for services
 performed, including miscellaneous services such as collection of moneys due
 for principal, dividends or interest, exchange or transfer of securities,
 appraisals, safekeeping, or custody of securities and other services related to
 its securities business;
 
 b. Charge a fee based on the activity, value or contents (or
 lack thereof) of a customer account unless written disclosure pertaining to the
 fee, which shall include information about the amount of the fee, how
 imposition of the fee can be avoided and any consequence of late payment or
 nonpayment of the fee, was provided no later than the date the account was
 established or, with respect to an existing account, at least 60 days prior to
 the effective date of the fee;
 
 13. Offer to buy from or sell to any person any security at a
 stated price unless the broker-dealer is prepared to purchase or sell at the
 price and under such conditions as are stated at the time of the offer to buy
 or sell;
 
 14. Represent that a security is being offered to a customer
 "at a market" or a price relevant to the market price unless the
 broker-dealer knows or has reasonable grounds to believe that a market for the
 security exists other than that made, created or controlled by the
 broker-dealer, or by any person for whom he is acting or with whom he is
 associated in the distribution, or any person controlled by, controlling or
 under common control with the broker-dealer;
 
 15. Effect any transaction in, or induce the purchase or sale
 of, any security by means of any manipulative, deceptive or fraudulent device,
 practice, plan, program, design or contrivance, which may include but not be
 limited to:
 
 a. Effecting any transaction in a security which involves no
 change in the beneficial ownership thereof;
 
 b. Entering an order or orders for the purchase or sale
 of any security with the knowledge that an order or orders of
 substantially the same size, at substantially the same time and substantially
 the same price, for the sale of any security, has been or will be entered by or
 for the same or different parties for the purpose of creating a false or
 misleading appearance of active trading in the security or a false or
 misleading appearance with respect to the market for the security; however,
 nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit a broker-dealer from entering bona
 fide agency cross transactions for its customers; or
 
 c. Effecting, alone or with one or more other persons, a
 series of transactions in any security creating actual or apparent active
 trading in the security or raising or depressing the price of the security, for
 the purpose of inducing the purchase or sale of the security by others;
 
 16. Guarantee a customer against loss in any securities
 account of the customer carried by the broker-dealer or in any securities
 transaction effected by the broker-dealer with or for the customer;
 
 17. Publish or circulate, or cause to be published or
 circulated, any notice, circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment
 service, or communication of any kind which purports to report any transaction
 as a purchase or sale of any security unless the broker-dealer believes that
 the transaction was a bona fide purchase or sale of the security; or which
 purports to quote the bid price or asked price for any security, unless the
 broker-dealer believes that the quotation represents a bona fide bid for, or
 offer of, the security;
 
 18. Use any advertising or sales presentation in such a
 fashion as to be deceptive or misleading. An example of such practice would be
 a distribution of any nonfactual data, material or presentation based on
 conjecture, unfounded or unrealistic claims or assertions in any brochure,
 flyer, or display by words, pictures, graphs or otherwise designed to
 supplement, detract from, supersede or defeat the purpose or effect of any
 prospectus or disclosure;
 
 19. Fail to make reasonably available upon request to any
 person expressing an interest in a solicited transaction in a security, not
 listed on a registered securities exchange or quoted on an automated quotation
 system operated by a national securities association approved by regulation of
 the commission, a balance sheet of the issuer as of a date within 18 months of
 the offer or sale of the issuer's securities and a profit and loss statement
 for either the fiscal year preceding that date or the most recent year of
 operations, the names of the issuer's proprietor, partners or officers, the
 nature of the enterprises of the issuer and any available information
 reasonably necessary for evaluating the desirability or lack of desirability of
 investing in the securities of an issuer. All transactions in securities
 described in this subdivision shall comply with the provisions of § 13.1-507 of
 the Act;
 
 20. Fail to disclose that the broker-dealer is controlled by,
 controlling, affiliated with or under common control with the issuer of any
 security before entering into any contract with or for a customer for the
 purchase or sale of the security, the existence of control to the customer, and
 if disclosure is not made in writing, it shall be supplemented by the giving or
 sending of written disclosure at or before the completion of the transaction;
 
 21. Fail to make a bona fide public offering of all of the
 securities allotted to a broker-dealer for distribution, whether acquired as an
 underwriter, a selling group member, or from a member participating in the
 distribution as an underwriter or selling group member;
 
 22. Fail or refuse to furnish a customer, upon reasonable
 request, information to which the customer is entitled, or to respond to a
 formal written request or complaint; 
 
 23. Fail to clearly and separately disclose to its customer,
 prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for compensation
 or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or securities
 will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted custodian, in a
 manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection Corporation
 protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's assets;
 
 24. Market broker-dealer services that are associated with
 financial institutions in a manner that is misleading or confusing to customers
 as to the nature of securities products or risks; 
 
 25. In transactions subject to breakpoints, fail to:
 
 a. Utilize advantageous breakpoints without reasonable basis
 for their exclusion;
 
 b. Determine information that should be recorded on the books
 and records of a member or its clearing firm, which is necessary to determine
 the availability and appropriateness of breakpoint opportunities; or
 
 c. Inquire whether the customer has positions or transactions
 away from the member that should be considered in connection with the pending
 transaction and apprise the customer of the breakpoint opportunities; 
 
 26. Use a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of securities that indicates or
 implies that the user has special certification or training in advising or
 servicing senior citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following:
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation;
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation;
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that:
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing;
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants;
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate.
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 26 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by: 
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute;
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or
 
 (3) An organization that is on the U.S. Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing.
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or
 professional designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization. 
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services
 regulatory agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that
 regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as
 defined under § 3 (a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC
 § 80a-3(a)(1)).
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of law;
 
 27. Represent that securities will be listed or that
 application for listing will be made on a securities exchange or the National
 Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations (NASDAQ) system or other
 quotation system without reasonable basis in fact for the representation;
 
 28. Falsify or alter so as to make false or misleading any
 record or document or any information provided to the commission;
 
 29. Negotiate, facilitate, or otherwise execute a transaction
 on behalf of an investor involving securities issued by a third party pursuant
 to a claim for exemption under subsection B of § 13.1-514 of the Act
 unless the broker-dealer intends to report the securities owned and the value
 of such securities on at least a quarterly basis to the investor;
 
 30. Offer or sell securities pursuant to a claim for exemption
 under subsection B of § 13.1-514 of the Act without having first verified the
 information relating to the securities offered or sold, which shall include,
 but not be limited to, ascertaining the risks associated with investing in
 the respective security;
 
 31. Allow any person to represent or utilize its name as a
 trading platform without conspicuously disclosing the name of the registered
 broker-dealer in effecting or attempting to effect purchases and sales of
 securities; or
 
 32. Engage in any conduct that constitutes a dishonest or
 unethical practice including, but not limited to, forgery, embezzlement,
 nondisclosure, incomplete disclosure or material omissions or untrue statements
 of material facts, manipulative or deceptive practices, or fraudulent course of
 business.
 
 B. Every agent is required to observe high standards of
 commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct of
 his business. The acts and practices described in this subsection are
 considered contrary to such standards and may constitute grounds for denial,
 suspension, or revocation of registration or such other action authorized by
 the Act. No agent who is registered or required to be registered shall:
 
 1. Engage in the practice of lending or borrowing money or
 securities from a customer, or acting as a custodian for money, securities or
 an executed stock power of a customer;
 
 2. Effect any securities transaction not recorded on the
 regular books or records of the broker-dealer which the agent represents,
 unless the transaction is authorized in writing by the broker-dealer prior to
 execution of the transaction;
 
 3. Establish or maintain an account containing fictitious
 information in order to execute a transaction which would otherwise be unlawful
 or prohibited;
 
 4. Share directly or indirectly in profits or losses in the
 account of any customer without the written authorization of the customer and
 the broker-dealer which the agent represents;
 
 5. Divide or otherwise split the agent's commissions, profits
 or other compensation from the purchase or sale of securities in this
 Commonwealth with any person not also registered as an agent for the same
 broker-dealer, or for a broker-dealer under direct or indirect common control;
 
 6. Engage in conduct specified in subdivision A 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
 10, 15, 16, 17, 18, 23, 24, 25, 26, 28, 30, 31, or 32 of this section;
 
 7. Fail to comply with the continuing education requirements
 under 21VAC5-20-150 C; or
 
 8. Hold oneself out as representing any person other than the
 broker-dealer with whom the agent is registered and, in the case of an agent
 whose normal place of business is not on the premises of the broker-dealer,
 failing to conspicuously disclose the name of the broker-dealer for whom the
 agent is registered when representing the dealer in effecting or attempting to
 effect the purchases or sales of securities.
 
 C. No person shall publish, give publicity to, or circulate
 any notice, circular, advertisement, newspaper article, letter, investment
 service or communication which, though not purporting to offer a security for
 sale, describes the security, for a consideration received or to be received,
 directly or indirectly, from an issuer, underwriter, or dealer, without fully
 disclosing the receipt, whether past or prospective, of such consideration and
 the amount thereof.
 
 D. The purpose of this subsection is to identify practices in
 the securities business that are generally associated with schemes to
 manipulate and to identify prohibited business conduct of broker-dealers or
 sales agents who are registered or required to be registered.
 
 1. Entering into a transaction with a customer in any security
 at an unreasonable price or at a price not reasonably related to the current
 market price of the security or receiving an unreasonable commission or profit.
 
 2. Contradicting or negating the importance of any information
 contained in a prospectus or other offering materials with intent to deceive or
 mislead or using any advertising or sales presentation in a deceptive or
 misleading manner.
 
 3. In connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of a
 security, falsely leading a customer to believe that the broker-dealer or agent
 is in possession of material, nonpublic information that would affect the value
 of the security.
 
 4. In connection with the solicitation of a sale or purchase
 of a security, engaging in a pattern or practice of making contradictory
 recommendations to different investors of similar investment objective for some
 to sell and others to purchase the same security, at or about the same time,
 when not justified by the particular circumstances of each investor.
 
 5. Failing to make a bona fide public offering of all the
 securities allotted to a broker-dealer for distribution by, among other things,
 (i) transferring securities to a customer, another broker-dealer, or a
 fictitious account with the understanding that those securities will be
 returned to the broker-dealer or its nominees or (ii) parking or withholding
 securities.
 
 6. a. In addition to the application of the general anti-fraud
 provisions against anyone in connection with practices similar in nature to the
 practices discussed in this subdivision 6, the following subdivisions (1)
 through (6) specifically apply only in connection with the solicitation of a
 purchase or sale of over the counter (OTC) unlisted non-NASDAQ equity
 securities except those exempt from registration under 21VAC5-40-50:
 
 (1) Failing to advise the customer, both at the time of
 solicitation and on the confirmation, of any and all compensation related to a
 specific securities transaction to be paid to the agent including commissions,
 sales charges, or concessions.
 
 (2) In connection with a principal transaction, failing to
 disclose, both at the time of solicitation and on the confirmation, a short
 inventory position in the firm's account of more than 3.0% of the issued and
 outstanding shares of that class of securities of the issuer; however, this
 subdivision 6 of this subsection shall apply only if the firm is a market maker
 at the time of the solicitation.
 
 (3) Conducting sales contests in a particular security.
 
 (4) After a solicited purchase
 by a customer, failing or refusing, in connection with a principal transaction,
 to promptly execute sell orders.
 
 (5) Soliciting a secondary
 market transaction when there has not been a bona fide distribution in the
 primary market.
 
 (6) Engaging in a pattern of
 compensating an agent in different amounts for effecting sales and purchases in
 the same security.
 
 b. Although subdivisions D 6 a (1) through (6) of this section
 do not apply to OTC unlisted non-NASDAQ equity securities exempt from
 registration under 21VAC5-40-50, nothing in this subsection precludes
 application of the general anti-fraud provisions against anyone in connection
 with practices similar in nature to the practices discussed in subdivisions D 6
 a (1) through (6) of this section. 
 
 7. Effecting any transaction in, or inducing the purchase or
 sale of, any security by means of any manipulative, deceptive, or other
 fraudulent device or contrivance including but not limited to the use of
 boiler room tactics or use of fictitious or nominee accounts.
 
 8. Failing to comply with any prospectus delivery requirements
 promulgated under federal law or the Act.
 
 9. In connection with the solicitation of a sale or purchase
 of an OTC unlisted non-NASDAQ security, failing to promptly provide the most
 current prospectus or the most recently filed periodic report filed under § 13
 of the Securities Exchange Act when requested to do so by a customer.
 
 10. Marking any order tickets or confirmations as unsolicited
 when in fact the transaction was solicited.
 
 11. For any month in which activity has occurred in a
 customer's account, but in no event less than every three months, failing to
 provide each customer with a statement of account with respect to all OTC
 non-NASDAQ equity securities in the account, containing a value for each such
 security based on the closing market bid on a date certain; however, this
 subdivision shall apply only if the firm has been a market maker in the
 security at any time during the month in which the monthly or quarterly
 statement is issued.
 
 12. Failing to comply with any applicable provision of the
 FINRA Rules or any applicable fair practice, privacy, or ethical standard promulgated
 by the SEC or by a self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC.
 
 13. In connection with the solicitation of a purchase or sale
 of a designated security:
 
 a. Failing to disclose to the customer the bid and ask price,
 at which the broker-dealer effects transactions with individual, retail
 customers, of the designated security as well as its spread in both percentage
 and dollar amounts at the time of solicitation and on the trade confirmation
 documents; or
 
 b. Failing to include with the confirmation, the notice
 disclosure contained under 21VAC5-20-285, except the following shall be exempt
 from this requirement:
 
 (1) Transactions in which the price of the designated security
 is $5.00 or more, exclusive of costs or charges; however, if the designated security
 is a unit composed of one or more securities, the unit price divided by the
 number of components of the unit other than warrants, options, rights, or
 similar securities must be $5.00 or more, and any component of the unit that is
 a warrant, option, right, or similar securities, or a convertible security must
 have an exercise price or conversion price of $5.00 or more.
 
 (2) Transactions that are not recommended by the broker-dealer
 or agent.
 
 (3) Transactions by a broker-dealer (i) whose commissions, commission
 equivalents, and mark-ups from transactions in designated securities during
 each of the preceding three months, and during 11 or more of the preceding 12
 months, did not exceed 5.0% of its total commissions, commission-equivalents,
 and mark-ups from transactions in securities during those months; and (ii) who
 has not executed principal transactions in connection with the solicitation to
 purchase the designated security that is the subject of the transaction in the
 preceding 12 months.
 
 (4) Any transaction or transactions that, upon prior written
 request or upon its own motion, the commission conditionally or unconditionally
 exempts as not encompassed within the purposes of this section.
 
 c. For purposes of this section, the term "designated
 security" means any equity security other than a security:
 
 (1) Registered, or approved for registration upon notice of
 issuance, on a national securities exchange and makes transaction reports
 available pursuant to 17 CFR 11Aa3-1 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
 
 (2) Authorized, or approved for authorization upon notice of
 issuance, for quotation in the NASDAQ system;
 
 (3) Issued by an investment company registered under the
 Investment Company Act of 1940;
 
 (4) That is a put option or call option issued by The Options
 Clearing Corporation; or
 
 (5) Whose issuer has net tangible assets in excess of $4
 million as demonstrated by financial statements dated within no less than 15
 months that the broker-dealer has reviewed and has a reasonable basis to
 believe are true and complete in relation to the date of the transaction with
 the person, and
 
 (a) In the event the issuer is other than a foreign private
 issuer, are the most recent financial statements for the issuer that have been
 audited and reported on by an independent public accountant in accordance with
 the provisions of 17 CFR 210.2-02 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or
 
 (b) In the event the issuer is a foreign private issuer, are
 the most recent financial statements for the issuer that have been filed with
 the SEC; furnished to the SEC pursuant to 17 CFR 240.12g3-2(b) under the
 Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or prepared in accordance with generally
 accepted accounting principles in the country of incorporation, audited in
 compliance with the requirements of that jurisdiction, and reported on by an
 accountant duly registered and in good standing in accordance with the
 regulations of that jurisdiction.
 
 E. A broker-dealer or an agent may delay or refuse a
 transaction or a disbursement of funds that may involve or result in the
 financial exploitation of an individual pursuant to § 63.2-1606 L of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (21VAC5-20)
 
 Rule 1250 of FINRA By-Laws, Continuing Education
 Requirements, amended by SR-FINRA-2011-013, eff. October 17, 2011, Financial
 Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.
 
 Rule 345 A of the New York Stock Exchange Rules,
 Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995,
 New York Stock Exchange.
 
 Rule G-3(h) of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board,
 Classification of Principals and Representatives; Numerical Requirements;
 Testing; Continuing Education Requirements, effective as existed July 1, 1995,
 Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
 
 Rule
 1240 of FINRA By-Laws, Continuing Education Requirements, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2017-007, eff. October 1, 2018, Financial Industry Regulatory
 Authority, Inc.
 
 Rule
 345 A of the New York Stock Exchange Rules, Continuing Education for Registered
 Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995, New York Stock Exchange, superseded
 by Financial Industry Regulation Authority, Inc. Rule 1200 Series - Rule, 1240,
 eff. October 1, 2018
 
 Rule
 G-3(i) of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board, Classification of
 Principals and Representatives; Numerical Requirements; Testing; Continuing
 Education Requirements, effective as existed July 1, 1995, Municipal Securities
 Rulemaking Board
 
 Rule 341A of the New York Stock Exchange Market Rules,
 Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed May 14, 2012,
 New York Stock Exchange. 
 
 Rule 9.3A of the Chicago Board Options Exchange, Continuing
 Education for Registered Persons, effective as existed July 1, 1995, Chicago
 Board Options Exchange.
 
 Article VI, Rule 11 of the Rules of the Chicago Stock
 Exchange, Inc., Continuing Education for Registered Persons, effective as
 existed July 1, 1995, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.
 
 FINRA, Rule 2264, Margin Disclosure Statement, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2011-065, eff. December 5, 2011.
 
 Article I, Paragraph u of FINRA By-Laws, amended by
 SR-FINRA-2008-0026, eff. December 15, 2008.
 
 21VAC5-30-80. Adoption of North American Securities
 Administration Association, Inc. statements of policy.
 
 The commission adopts the following North American Securities
 Administration Association, Inc. (NASAA) statements of policy that shall apply
 to the registration of securities in the Commonwealth. It will be considered a
 basis for denial of an application if an offering fails to comply with an
 applicable statement of policy. While applications not conforming to a
 statement of policy shall be looked upon with disfavor, where good cause is
 shown, certain provisions may be modified or waived by the commission.
 
 1. Options and Warrants, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 2. Underwriting Expenses, Underwriter's Warrants, Selling
 Expenses and Selling Security Holders, as amended March 31, 2008 May
 6, 2018.
 
 3. Real Estate Programs, as amended May 7, 2007.
 
 4. Oil and Gas Programs, as amended May 6, 2012.
 
 5. Cattle-Feeding Programs, as adopted September 17, 1980.
 
 6. Unsound Financial Condition, as amended March 31, 2008
 May 6, 2018.
 
 7. Real Estate Investment Trusts, as amended May 7, 2007.
 
 8. Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981.
 
 9. Small Company Offering Registrations, as adopted April 28,
 1996.
 
 10. NASAA Guidelines Regarding Viatical Investment, as adopted
 October 1, 2002.
 
 11. Corporate Securities Definitions, as amended March 31,
 2008 May 6, 2018.
 
 12. Church Extension Fund Securities, as amended April 18,
 2004.
 
 13. Promotional Shares, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 14. Loans and Other Material Transactions, as amended March
 31, 2008 May 6, 2018.
 
 15. Impoundment of Proceeds, as amended March 31, 2008.
 
 16. Electronic Offering Documents and Electronic Signatures,
 as adopted May 8, 2017.
 
 DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (21VAC5-30)
 
 Statement of Policy Regarding Church Extension Fund
 Securities, adopted April 17, 1994, amended April 18, 2004, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Extension Fund Securities as amended April 18, 2004,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Options and Warrants, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Underwriting Expenses, Underwriter's Warrants, Selling
 Expenses and Selling Security Holders, as amended May 6, 2018, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Unsound Financial Condition, as amended May 6, 2018, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Real Estate Programs, as amended May 7, 2007, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Oil and Gas Programs, as amended May 6, 2012, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Church Bonds, as adopted April 29, 1981, North American
 Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Small Company Offering Registrations, as adopted April 28,
 1996, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 NASAA
 Guidelines Regarding Viatical Investment, as adopted October 1, 2002, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Corporate Securities Definitions, as amended May 6, 2018,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Promotional Shares, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Loans and Other Material Transactions, as amended May 6,
 2018, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Impoundment of Proceeds, as amended March 31, 2008, North
 American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Electronic Offering Documents and Electronic Signatures, as
 adopted May 8, 2017, North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 Statement
 of Policy Regarding Cattle-Feeding Programs, as adopted September 17, 1980,
 North American Securities Administrators Association, Inc.
 
 21VAC5-45-20. Offerings conducted pursuant to Rule 506 of
 federal Regulation regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): Filing filing
 requirements and issuer-agent exemption.
 
 A. An issuer offering a security that is a covered security
 under § 18 (b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77r(b)(4)(D))
 shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale of
 such federal covered security in this Commonwealth: 
 
 1. A notice on SEC Form D (17 CFR 239.500), as filed with the
 SEC. 
 
 2. A filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. 
 
 B. An amendment filing shall contain a copy of the amended
 SEC Form D. No fee is required for an amendment. 
 
 C. For the purpose of this chapter, SEC "Form D" is
 the document, as adopted by the SEC, and in effect on September 23, 2013,
 entitled "Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities."
 
 D. Pursuant to § 13.1-514 B 13 of the Act, an agent of an
 issuer who effects transactions in a security exempt from registration under
 the Securities Act of 1933 pursuant to rules and regulations promulgated under
 § 4(2) thereof (15 USC § 77d(2)) is exempt from the agent registration
 requirements of the Act. 
 
 
 
 NOTICE: Forms used in
 administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The forms are not
 being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia Register
 of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to access it.
 The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the
 Office of the Registrar of Regulations, 900 East Main Street, 11th Floor,
 Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
 
  
 
 FORMS (21VAC5-45) 
 
 Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities, U.S.
 Securities and Exchange Commission, SEC1972 (rev. 2/2012) 
 
 Form
 D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities, U.S. Securities and Exchange
 Commission, SEC1972 (rev. 5/2017)
 
 Uniform Consent to Service of Process, Form U-2
 (rev. 7/2017)
 
 Uniform Notice of Regulation A - Tier 2 Offering
 (undated, filed 10/2016)
 
 Form NF - Uniform Investment Company Notice Filing
 (4/1997)
 
 Uniform Notice of Federal Crowdfunding Offering,
 Form U-CF (undated, filed 9/2017)
 
 Part I 
 Investment Advisor Registration, Notice Filing for Federal Covered Advisors,
 Expiration, Renewal, Updates and Amendments, Terminations and Merger or
 Consolidation
 
 21VAC5-80-10. Application for registration as an investment
 advisor and notice filing as a federal covered advisor.
 
 A. Application for registration as an investment advisor
 shall be filed in compliance with all requirements of IARD and in full
 compliance with forms and regulations prescribed by the commission and shall
 include all information required by such forms.
 
 B. An application shall be deemed incomplete for registration
 as an investment advisor unless the applicant submits the following executed
 forms, fee, and information: 
 
 1. Form ADV Parts 1 and 2 submitted to IARD.
 
 2. The statutory fee made payable to FINRA in the amount of
 $200 submitted to IARD pursuant to § 13.1-505 F of the Act.
 
 3. A copy of the client agreement. 
 
 4. A copy of the firm's supervisory and procedures manual as
 required by 21VAC5-80-170. 
 
 5. Copies of all advertising materials. 
 
 6. Copies of all stationery and business cards. 
 
 7. A signed affidavit stating that an investment advisor
 domiciled in Virginia has not conducted investment advisory business prior to
 registration, and for investment advisors domiciled outside of Virginia an
 affidavit stating that the advisor has fewer than six clients in the prior
 12-month period. 
 
 8. An audited or certified balance sheet prepared in
 accordance with generally accepted accounting practices reflecting the
 financial condition of the investment advisor not more than 90 days prior to
 the date of such filing.
 
 9. A copy of the firm's disaster recovery plan as required by
 21VAC5-80-160 F.
 
 10. Evidence of at least one qualified individual with an
 investment advisor representative registration pending on IARD on behalf of the
 investment advisor. 
 
 11. A copy of the firm’s physical security and
 cybersecurity policies and procedures as required by 21VAC5-80-260 A.
 
 12. A copy of the firm’s privacy policy as required by
 21VAC5-80-260 B.
 
 13. Any other information the commission may require.
 
 For purposes of this section, the term "net worth"
 means an excess of assets over liabilities, as determined by generally accepted
 accounting principles. Net worth shall not include: prepaid expenses (except as
 to items properly classified as assets under generally accepted accounting
 principles), deferred charges such as deferred income tax charges, goodwill,
 franchise rights, organizational expenses, patents, copyrights, marketing
 rights, unamortized debt discount and expense, all other assets of intangible
 nature, home furnishings, automobiles, and any other personal items not readily
 marketable in the case of an individual; advances or loans to stockholders and
 officers in the case of a corporation; and advances or loans to partners in the
 case of a partnership.
 
 C. The commission shall either grant or deny each application
 for registration within 30 days after it is filed. However, if additional time
 is needed to obtain or verify information regarding the application, the
 commission may extend such period as much as 90 days by giving written notice
 to the applicant. No more than three such extensions may be made by the
 commission on any one application. An extension of the initial 30-day period,
 not to exceed 90 days, shall be granted upon written request of the applicant. 
 
 D. Every person who transacts business in this Commonwealth
 as a federal covered advisor shall file a notice as prescribed in subsection E
 of this section in compliance with all requirements of the IARD. 
 
 E. A notice filing for a federal covered advisor shall be
 deemed incomplete unless the federal covered advisor submits the following executed
 forms, fee, and information: 
 
 1. Form ADV Parts 1 and 2. 
 
 2. A fee made payable to FINRA in the amount of $200. 
 
 21VAC5-80-160. Recordkeeping requirements for investment
 advisors.
 
 A. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered under the Act shall make and keep true, accurate and current the
 following books, ledgers and records, except an investment advisor having its
 principal place of business outside this Commonwealth and registered or
 licensed, and in compliance with the applicable books and records requirements,
 in the state where its principal place of business is located, shall only be
 required to make, keep current, maintain and preserve such of the following
 required books, ledgers and records as are not in addition to those required
 under the laws of the state in which it maintains its principal place of
 business:
 
 1. A journal or journals, including cash receipts and
 disbursements records, and any other records of original entry forming the
 basis of entries in any ledger.
 
 2. General and auxiliary ledgers (or other comparable records)
 reflecting asset, liability, reserve, capital, income and expense accounts.
 
 3. A memorandum of each order given by the investment advisor
 for the purchase or sale of any security, of any instruction received by the
 investment advisor from the client concerning the purchase, sale, receipt or
 delivery of a particular security, and of any modification or cancellation of
 any such order or instruction. The memoranda shall show the terms and conditions
 of the order, instruction, modification or cancellation; shall identify the
 person connected with the investment advisor who recommended the transaction to
 the client and the person who placed the order; and shall show the account for
 which entered, the date of entry, and the bank, broker or dealer by or through
 whom executed where appropriate. Orders entered pursuant to the exercise of
 discretionary power shall be so designated.
 
 4. All check books, bank statements, canceled checks and cash
 reconciliations of the investment advisor.
 
 5. All bills or statements (or copies of), paid or unpaid,
 relating to the business as an investment advisor.
 
 6. All trial balances, financial statements prepared in
 accordance with generally accepted accounting principles which shall include a
 balance sheet, income statement and such other statements as may be required
 pursuant to 21VAC5-80-180, and internal audit working papers relating to the
 investment advisor's business as an investment advisor.
 
 7. Originals of all written communications received and copies
 of all written communications sent by the investment advisor relating to (i)
 any recommendation made or proposed to be made and any advice given or proposed
 to be given; (ii) any receipt, disbursement or delivery of funds or securities;
 and (iii) the placing or execution of any order to purchase or sell any
 security; however, (a) the investment advisor shall not be required to keep any
 unsolicited market letters and other similar communications of general public
 distribution not prepared by or for the investment advisor, and (b) if the
 investment advisor sends any notice, circular or other advertisement offering
 any report, analysis, publication or other investment advisory service to more
 than 10 persons, the investment advisor shall not be required to keep a record
 of the names and addresses of the persons to whom it was sent; except that if
 the notice, circular or advertisement is distributed to persons named on any
 list, the investment advisor shall retain with a copy of the notice, circular
 or advertisement a memorandum describing the list and the source thereof.
 
 8. A list or other record of all accounts which list
 identifies the accounts in which the investment advisor is vested with any
 discretionary power with respect to the funds, securities or transactions of
 any client.
 
 9. All powers of attorney and other evidences of the granting
 of any discretionary authority by any client to the investment advisor, or
 copies thereof.
 
 10. All written agreements (or copies thereof) entered into by
 the investment advisor with any client, and all other written agreements
 otherwise related to the investment advisor's business as an investment
 advisor.
 
 11. A file containing a copy of each notice, circular,
 advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or other
 communication including by electronic media that the investment advisor
 circulates or distributes, directly or indirectly, to two or more persons
 (other than persons connected with the investment advisor), and if the notice,
 circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or
 other communication including by electronic media recommends the purchase or
 sale of a specific security and does not state the reasons for the
 recommendation, a memorandum of the investment adviser indicating the reasons
 for the recommendation.
 
 12. a. A record of every transaction in a security in which
 the investment advisor or any investment advisory representative of the
 investment advisor has, or by reason of any transaction acquires, any direct or
 indirect beneficial ownership, except (i) transactions effected in any account
 over which neither the investment advisor nor any investment advisory
 representative of the investment advisor has any direct or indirect influence
 or control; and (ii) transactions in securities which are direct obligations of
 the United States. The record shall state the title and amount of the security
 involved; the date and nature of the transaction (i.e., purchase, sale or other
 acquisition or disposition); the price at which it was effected; and the name
 of the broker, dealer or bank with or through whom the transaction was
 effected. The record may also contain a statement declaring that the reporting
 or recording of any such transaction shall not be construed as an admission
 that the investment advisor or investment advisory representative has any
 direct or indirect beneficial ownership in the security. A transaction shall be
 recorded not later than 10 days after the end of the calendar quarter in which
 the transaction was effected.
 
 b. For purposes of this subdivision 12, the following
 definitions will apply. The term "advisory representative" means any
 partner, officer or director of the investment advisor; any employee who
 participates in any way in the determination of which recommendations shall be
 made; any employee who, in connection with his duties, obtains any information
 concerning which securities are being recommended prior to the effective
 dissemination of the recommendations; and any of the following persons who
 obtain information concerning securities recommendations being made by the
 investment advisor prior to the effective dissemination of the recommendations:
 
 (1) Any person in a control relationship to the investment
 adviser;
 
 (2) Any affiliated person of a controlling person; and
 
 (3) Any affiliated person of an affiliated person.
 
 "Control" means the power to exercise a controlling
 influence over the management or policies of a company, unless such power is
 solely the result of an official position with the company. Any person who owns
 beneficially, either directly or through one or more controlled companies, more
 than 25% of the ownership interest of a company shall be presumed to control
 the company.
 
 c. An investment advisor shall not be deemed to have violated
 the provisions of this subdivision 12 because of his failure to record
 securities transactions of any investment advisor representative if the
 investment advisor establishes that it instituted adequate procedures and used
 reasonable diligence to obtain promptly reports of all transactions required to
 be recorded.
 
 13. a. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 12 of
 this subsection, where the investment advisor is primarily engaged in a
 business or businesses other than advising investment advisory clients,
 a record must be maintained of every transaction in a security in which the
 investment advisor or any investment advisory representative of such investment
 advisor has, or by reason of such transaction acquires, any direct or indirect
 beneficial ownership, except (i) transactions effected in any account over
 which neither the investment advisor nor any investment advisory representative
 of the investment advisor has any direct or indirect influence or control; and
 (ii) transactions in securities which are direct obligations of the United
 States. The record shall state the title and amount of the security involved;
 the date and nature of the transaction (i.e., purchase, sale or other
 acquisition or disposition); the price at which it was effected; and the name
 of the broker, dealer or bank with or through whom the transaction was
 effected. The record may also contain a statement declaring that the reporting
 or recording of any such transaction shall not be construed as an admission
 that the investment advisor or investment advisory representative has any
 direct or indirect beneficial ownership in the security. A transaction shall be
 recorded not later than 10 days after the end of the calendar quarter in which
 the transaction was effected.
 
 b. An investment advisor is "primarily engaged in a
 business or businesses other than advising investment advisory clients"
 when, for each of its most recent three fiscal years or for the period of time
 since organization, whichever is less, the investment advisor derived, on an
 unconsolidated basis, more than 50% of (i) its total sales and revenues, and
 (ii) its income (or loss) before income taxes and extraordinary items, from
 such other business or businesses.
 
 c. For purposes of this subdivision 13, the following
 definitions will apply. The term "advisory representative," when used
 in connection with a company primarily engaged in a business or businesses
 other than advising investment advisory clients, means any partner, officer,
 director or employee of the investment advisor who participates in any way in
 the determination of which recommendation shall be made, or whose functions or
 duties relate to the determination of which securities are being recommended
 prior to the effective dissemination of the recommendations; and any of the
 following persons, who obtain information concerning securities recommendations
 being made by the investment advisor prior to the effective dissemination of
 the recommendations or of the information concerning the recommendations:
 
 (1) Any person in a control relationship to the investment
 advisor;
 
 (2) Any affiliated person of a controlling person; and
 
 (3) Any affiliated person of an affiliated person.
 
 d. An investment advisor shall not be deemed to have violated
 the provisions of this subdivision 13 because of his failure to record
 securities transactions of any investment advisor representative if he
 establishes that he instituted adequate procedures and used reasonable
 diligence to obtain promptly reports of all transactions required to be
 recorded.
 
 14. A copy of each written statement and each amendment or
 revision, given or sent to any client or prospective client of such investment
 advisor in accordance with the provisions of 21VAC5-80-190 and a record of the
 dates that each written statement, and each amendment or revision, was given,
 or offered to be given, to any client or prospective client who subsequently
 becomes a client.
 
 15. For each client that was obtained by the advisor by means
 of a solicitor to whom a cash fee was paid by the advisor, the following:
 
 a. Evidence of a written agreement to which the advisor is a
 party related to the payment of such fee;
 
 b. A signed and dated acknowledgement of receipt from the
 client evidencing the client's receipt of the investment advisor's disclosure
 statement and a written disclosure statement of the solicitor; and 
 
 c. A copy of the solicitor's written disclosure statement. The
 written agreement, acknowledgement and solicitor disclosure statement will be
 considered to be in compliance if such documents are in compliance with Rule
 275.206(4)-3 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
 
 For purposes of this regulation, the term
 "solicitor" means any person or entity who, for compensation, acts as
 an agent of an investment advisor in referring potential clients.
 
 16. All accounts, books, internal working papers, and any
 other records or documents that are necessary to form the basis for or
 demonstrate the calculation of the performance or rate of return of all managed
 accounts or securities recommendations in any notice, circular, advertisement,
 newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or other communication
 including but not limited to electronic media that the investment
 advisor circulates or distributes directly or indirectly, to two or more
 persons (other than persons connected with the investment advisor); however,
 with respect to the performance of managed accounts, the retention of all
 account statements, if they reflect all debits, credits, and other transactions
 in a client's account for the period of the statement, and all worksheets
 necessary to demonstrate the calculation of the performance or rate of return
 of all managed accounts shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this
 subdivision.
 
 17. A file containing a copy of all written communications
 received or sent regarding any litigation involving the investment advisor or
 any investment advisor representative or employee, and regarding any written
 customer or client complaint.
 
 18. Written information about each investment advisory client
 that is the basis for making any recommendation or providing any investment
 advice to the client.
 
 19. Written procedures to supervise the activities of
 employees and investment advisor representatives that are reasonably designed
 to achieve compliance with applicable securities laws and regulations.
 
 20. A file containing a copy of each document (other than any
 notices of general dissemination) that was filed with or received from any
 state or federal agency or self regulatory organization and that pertains to
 the registrant or its investment advisor representatives, which file should
 contain, but is not limited to, all applications, amendments, renewal filings,
 and correspondence.
 
 21. Any records documenting dates, locations and findings of
 the investment advisor's annual review of these policies and procedures
 conducted pursuant to subdivision F of 21VAC5-80-170.
 
 22. Copies, with original signatures of the investment
 advisor's appropriate signatory and the investment advisor representative, of
 each initial Form U4 and each amendment to Disclosure Reporting Pages (DRPs U4)
 must be retained by the investment advisor (filing on behalf of the investment
 advisor representative) and must be made available for inspection upon
 regulatory request. 
 
 23. Where the advisor inadvertently held or obtained a
 client's securities or funds and returned them to the client within three
 business days or has forwarded third party checks within three business days of
 receipt, the advisor will be considered as not having custody but shall keep
 the following record to identify all securities or funds held or obtained
 relating to the inadvertent custody:
 
 A ledger or other listing of all securities or funds held or
 obtained, including the following information: 
 
 a. Issuer; 
 
 b. Type of security and series;
 
 c. Date of issue;
 
 d. For debt instruments, the denomination, interest rate and
 maturity date; 
 
 e. Certificate number, including alphabetical prefix or
 suffix; 
 
 f. Name in which registered; 
 
 g. Date given to the advisor; 
 
 h. Date sent to client or sender; 
 
 i. Form of delivery to client or sender, or copy of the form
 of delivery to client or sender; and 
 
 j. Mail confirmation number, if applicable, or confirmation by
 client or sender of the fund's or security's return. 
 
 24. If an investment advisor obtains possession of securities
 that are acquired from the issuer in a transaction or chain of transactions not
 involving any public offering that comply with the exception from custody under
 subdivision C 2 of 21VAC5-80-146, the advisor shall keep the following records:
 
 
 a. A record showing the issuer or current transfer agent's
 name address, phone number, and other applicable contract information
 pertaining to the party responsible for recording client interests in the
 securities; and 
 
 b. A copy of any legend, shareholder agreement, or other
 agreement showing that those securities that are transferable only with prior
 consent of the issuer or holders of the outstanding securities of the issuer. 
 
 25. Any records required pursuant to 21VAC5-80-260.
 
 B. 1. If an investment advisor subject to subsection A of
 this section has custody or possession of securities or funds of any client,
 the records required to be made and kept under subsection A of this section shall
 also include:
 
 a. A journal or other record showing all purchases, sales,
 receipts and deliveries of securities (including certificate numbers) for such
 accounts and all other debits and credits to the accounts.
 
 b. A separate ledger account for each client showing all
 purchases, sales, receipts and deliveries of securities, the date and price of
 each purchase and sale, and all debits and credits.
 
 c. Copies of confirmations of all transactions effected by or
 for the account of any client.
 
 d. A record for each security in which any client has a
 position, which record shall show the name of each client having any interest
 in each security, the amount or interest of each client, and the location of
 each security.
 
 e. A copy of any records required to be made and kept under
 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 f. A copy of any and all documents executed by the client
 (including a limited power of attorney) under which the advisor is authorized
 or permitted to withdraw a client's funds or securities maintained with a
 custodian upon the advisor's instruction to the custodian. 
 
 g. A copy of each of the client's quarterly account statements
 as generated and delivered by the qualified custodian. If the advisor also
 generates a statement that is delivered to the client, the advisor shall also
 maintain copies of such statements along with the date such statements were
 sent to the clients.
 
 h. If applicable to the advisor's situation, a copy of the
 special examination report verifying the completion of the examination by an
 independent certified public accountant and describing the nature and extent of
 the examination. 
 
 i. A record of any finding by the independent certified public
 accountant of any material discrepancies found during the examination. 
 
 j. If applicable, evidence of the client's designation of an
 independent representative.
 
 2. If an investment advisor has custody because it advises a
 pooled investment vehicle, as defined in 21VAC5-80-146 A in the definition of
 custody in clause subdivision 1 c, the advisor shall also keep
 the following records: 
 
 a. True, accurate, and current account statements; 
 
 b. Where the advisor complies with 21VAC5-80-146 C 4, the
 records required to be made and kept shall include: 
 
 (1) The date or dates of the audit; 
 
 (2) A copy of the audited financial statements; and 
 
 (3) Evidence of the mailing of the audited financial to all
 limited partners, members, or other beneficial owners within 120 days of the
 end of its fiscal year. 
 
 c. Where the advisor complies with 21VAC5-80-146 B 5, the
 records required to be made and kept shall include: 
 
 (1) A copy of the written agreement with the independent party
 reviewing all fees and expenses, indicating the responsibilities of the
 independent third party. 
 
 (2) Copies of all invoices and receipts showing approval by
 the independent party for payment through the qualified custodian.
 
 C. Every investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section who renders any investment advisory or management service to any client
 shall, with respect to the portfolio being supervised or managed and to the
 extent that the information is reasonably available to or obtainable by the
 investment advisor, make and keep true, accurate and current:
 
 1. Records showing separately for each client the securities
 purchased and sold, and the date, amount and price of each purchase and sale.
 
 2. For each security in which any client has a current
 position, information from which the investment advisor can promptly furnish
 the name of each client and the current amount or interest of the client.
 
 D. Any books or records required by this section may be
 maintained by the investment advisor in such manner that the identity of any
 client to whom the investment advisor renders investment advisory services is
 indicated by numerical or alphabetical code or some similar designation.
 
 E. Every investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section shall preserve the following records in the manner prescribed:
 
 1. All books and records required to be made under the
 provisions of subsection A through subdivision C 1, inclusive, of this section,
 except for books and records required to be made under the provisions of
 subdivisions A 11 and A 16 of this section, shall be maintained in an easily
 accessible place for a period of not less than five years from the end of the
 fiscal year during which the last entry was made on record, the first two years
 of which shall be maintained in the principal office of the investment advisor.
 
 2. Partnership articles and any amendments, articles of
 incorporation, charters, minute books, and stock certificate books of the
 investment advisor and of any predecessor, shall be maintained in the principal
 office of the investment advisor and preserved until at least three years after
 termination of the enterprise.
 
 3. Books and records required to be made under the provisions
 of subdivisions A 11 and A 16 of this section shall be maintained in an easily
 accessible place for a period of not less than five years, the first two years
 of which shall be maintained in the principal office of the investment advisor,
 from the end of the fiscal year during which the investment advisor last
 published or otherwise disseminated, directly or indirectly, the notice,
 circular, advertisement, newspaper article, investment letter, bulletin, or
 other communication including by electronic media.
 
 4. Books and records required to be made under the provisions
 of subdivisions A 17 through A 22, inclusive, of this section shall be
 maintained and preserved in an easily accessible place for a period of not less
 than five years, from the end of the fiscal year during which the last entry
 was made on such record, the first two years in the principal office of the
 investment advisor, or for the time period during which the investment advisor
 was registered or required to be registered in the state, if less.
 
 5. Notwithstanding other record preservation requirements of
 this subsection, the following records or copies shall be required to be
 maintained at the business location of the investment advisor from which the
 customer or client is being provided or has been provided with investment
 advisory services: (i) records required to be preserved under subdivisions A 3,
 A 7 through A 10, A 14 and A 15, A 17 through A 19, subsections B and C,
 and (ii) the records or copies required under the provision of subdivisions A
 11 and A 16 of this section which records or related records identify the name
 of the investment advisor representative providing investment advice from that
 business location, or which identify the business locations' physical address,
 mailing address, electronic mailing address, or telephone number. The records
 will be maintained for the period described in this subsection.
 
 F. Every investment advisor shall establish and maintain a
 written disaster recovery plan that shall address at a minimum:
 
 1. The identity of individuals that will conduct or wind down
 business on behalf of the investment advisor in the event of death or
 incapacity of key persons;
 
 2. Means to provide notification to clients of the investment
 advisor and to those states in which the advisor is registered of the death or
 incapacity of key persons;
 
 a. Notification shall be provided to the Division of
 Securities and Retail Franchising via IARD/CRD within 24 hours of the
 death or incapacity of key persons.
 
 b. Notification shall be given to clients within five business
 days from the death or incapacity of key persons.
 
 3. Means for clients' accounts to continue to be monitored
 until an orderly liquidation, distribution or transfer of the clients'
 portfolio to another advisor can be achieved or until an actual notice to the
 client of investment advisor death or incapacity and client control of their
 assets occurs;
 
 4. Means for the credit demands of the investment advisor to
 be met; and
 
 5. Data backups sufficient to allow rapid resumption of the
 investment advisor's activities.
 
 G. An investment advisor subject to subsection A of this
 section, before ceasing to conduct or discontinuing business as an investment
 advisor, shall arrange for and be responsible for the preservation of the books
 and records required to be maintained and preserved under this section for the
 remainder of the period specified in this section, and shall notify the
 commission in writing of the exact address where the books and records will be
 maintained during such period.
 
 H. 1. The records required to be maintained pursuant to this
 section may be immediately produced or reproduced by photograph on film or, as
 provided in subdivision 2 of this subsection, on magnetic disk, tape or other
 computer storage medium, and be maintained for the required time in that form.
 If records are preserved or reproduced by photographic film or computer storage
 medium, the investment advisor shall:
 
 a. Arrange the records and index the films or computer storage
 medium so as to permit the immediate location of any particular record;
 
 b. Be ready at all times to promptly provide any facsimile
 enlargement of film or computer printout or copy of the computer storage medium
 which the commission by its examiners or other representatives may request;
 
 c. Store separately from the original one other copy of the
 film or computer storage medium for the time required;
 
 d. With respect to records stored on computer storage medium,
 maintain procedures for maintenance of, and access to, records so as to
 reasonably safeguard records from loss, alteration, or destruction; and
 
 e. With respect to records stored on photographic film, at all
 times have available, for the commission's examination of its records,
 facilities for immediate, easily readable projection of the film and for
 producing easily readable facsimile enlargements.
 
 2. Pursuant to subdivision 1 of this subsection, an advisor
 may maintain and preserve on computer tape or disk or other computer storage
 medium records which, in the ordinary course of the advisor's business, are
 created by the advisor on electronic media or are received by the advisor
 solely on electronic media or by electronic transmission.
 
 I. Any book or record made, kept, maintained, and preserved
 in compliance with SEC Rules 17a-3 (17 CFR 240.17a-3) and 17a-4 (17 CFR
 240.17a-4) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, which is substantially
 the same as the book, or other record required to be made, kept, maintained,
 and preserved under this section shall be deemed to be made, kept, maintained,
 and preserved in compliance with this section.
 
 J. For purposes of this section, "investment supervisory
 services" means the giving of continuous advice as to the investment of
 funds on the basis of the individual needs of each client; and
 "discretionary power" shall not include discretion as to the price at
 which or the time when a transaction is or is to be effected if, before the
 order is given by the investment advisor, the client has directed or approved the
 purchase or sale of a definite amount of the particular security.
 
 K. For purposes of this section, "principal place of
 business" and "principal office" mean the executive office of
 the investment advisor from which the officers, partners, or managers of the
 investment advisor direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the
 investment advisor.
 
 L. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered in this Commonwealth and has its principal place of business in a
 state other than the Commonwealth shall be exempt from the requirements of this
 section to the extent provided by the National Securities Markets Improvement
 Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290), provided the investment advisor is licensed
 in such state and is in compliance with such state's recordkeeping
 requirements.
 
 21VAC5-80-200. Dishonest or unethical practices.
 
 A. An investment advisor or federal covered advisor is a
 fiduciary and has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his clients. While
 the extent and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the
 relationship between an investment advisor or federal covered advisor and his
 clients and the circumstances of each case, an investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor who is registered or required to be registered shall not engage
 in unethical practices, including the following:
 
 1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory,
 management or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale or exchange
 of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation
 is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client
 after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives,
 financial situation, risk tolerance and needs, and any other information known
 or acquired by the investment advisor or federal covered advisor after
 reasonable examination of the client's financial records.
 
 2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client without written authority to do so.
 
 3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having
 obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.
 
 4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for
 the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written
 discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date
 of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority,
 unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the
 time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall
 be executed, or both.
 
 5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in
 size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives and
 character of the account.
 
 6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the
 client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning funds
 or securities.
 
 7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor or
 federal covered advisor is a financial institution engaged in the business of
 loaning funds or the client is an affiliate of the investment advisor or
 federal covered advisor.
 
 8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective
 advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor, or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being
 offered or fees to be charged for the services, or omission to state a material
 fact necessary to make the statements made regarding qualifications services or
 fees, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
 
 9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client
 prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered
 advisor without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a
 situation where the advisor uses published research reports or statistical
 analyses to render advice or where an advisor orders such a report in the
 normal course of providing service.
 
 10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of
 the fees charged by other investment advisors or federal covered advisors
 providing essentially the same services.
 
 11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any
 advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment
 advisor or federal covered advisor or any of his employees which could
 reasonably be expected to impair the rendering of unbiased and objective advice
 including:
 
 a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services
 to clients which are in addition to compensation from such clients for such
 services; or
 
 b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when
 a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will
 be received by the advisor or his employees.
 
 12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be
 achieved as a result of the advice which will be rendered.
 
 13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does
 any one of the following:
 
 a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the
 investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any
 advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor
 or investment advisor representative;
 
 b. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment
 advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been
 profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all
 recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one
 year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:
 
 (1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature
 of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the
 recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market
 price of each security; and
 
 (2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that
 states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the
 future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in
 the list;
 
 c. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device
 being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when
 to buy or sell them; or which represents, directly or indirectly, that any
 graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in
 making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or
 when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement
 the limitations thereof and the risks associated to its use;
 
 d. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will
 be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other
 service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct
 or indirect condition or obligation;
 
 e. Represents that the commission has approved any
 advertisement; or
 
 f. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that
 is otherwise false or misleading. 
 
 For the purposes of this section, the term
 "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other
 written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other
 announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or
 by any medium, that offers any one of the following:
 
 (i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning
 securities;
 
 (ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used
 in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which
 security to buy or sell;
 
 (iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in
 making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which
 security to buy or sell; or
 
 (iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to
 securities.
 
 14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any
 client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a
 regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client, or failing
 to comply with any applicable privacy provision or standard promulgated by the
 SEC or by a self-regulatory organization approved by the SEC.
 
 15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to
 those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest,
 where the investment advisor has custody or possession of such securities or
 funds, when the investment advisor's action is subject to and does not comply
 with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 16. Entering into, extending or renewing any investment
 advisory contract unless the contract is in writing and discloses, in
 substance, the services to be provided, the term of the contract, the advisory
 fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount of prepaid fee to be
 returned in the event of contract termination or nonperformance, whether the
 contract grants discretionary power to the investment advisor or federal
 covered advisor and that no assignment of such contract shall be made by the
 investment advisor or federal covered advisor without the consent of the other
 party to the contract.
 
 17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its
 customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for
 compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or
 securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted
 custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection
 Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's
 assets.
 
 18. Using a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability
 of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or
 indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating
 analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the
 user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior
 citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following: 
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation; 
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation; 
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or 
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that: 
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing; 
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants; 
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or 
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate. 
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute; 
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or 
 
 (3) An organization that is on the United States Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing. 
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional
 designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency, when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization. 
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services regulatory
 agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that regulates
 broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as defined under § 3
 (a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC § 80a-3(a)(1)). 
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of the law.
 
 B. An investment advisor representative is a fiduciary and
 has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his clients. While the extent
 and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the relationship
 between an investment advisor representative and his clients and the
 circumstances of each case, an investment advisor representative who is
 registered or required to be registered shall not engage in unethical practices,
 including the following:
 
 1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory,
 management or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale or exchange
 of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation
 is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client
 after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives,
 financial situation and needs, and any other information known or acquired by
 the investment advisor representative after reasonable examination of the
 client's financial records.
 
 2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client without written authority to do so.
 
 3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the
 account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having
 obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.
 
 4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for
 the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written
 discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date
 of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority,
 unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the
 time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall
 be executed, or both.
 
 5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in
 size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives and
 character of the account.
 
 6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the
 client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor
 representative, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning
 funds or securities.
 
 7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor
 representative is engaged in the business of loaning funds or the client is an
 affiliate of the investment advisor representative.
 
 8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective
 advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor representative,
 or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being offered or fees to
 be charged for the services, or omission to state a material fact necessary to
 make the statements made regarding qualifications, services or fees, in light
 of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
 
 9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client
 prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered
 advisor who the investment advisor representative is employed by or associated
 with without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a
 situation where the investment advisor or federal covered advisor uses
 published research reports or statistical analyses to render advice or where an
 investment advisor or federal covered advisor orders such a report in the
 normal course of providing service.
 
 10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of
 the fees charged by other investment advisor representatives providing
 essentially the same services.
 
 11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any
 advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment
 advisor representative which could reasonably be expected to impair the
 rendering of unbiased and objective advice including:
 
 a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services
 to clients which are in addition to compensation from such clients for such
 services; or
 
 b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when
 a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will
 be received by the investment advisor representative.
 
 12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be
 achieved as a result of the advice which will be rendered.
 
 13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does
 any one of the following:
 
 a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the
 investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any
 advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor
 or investment advisor representative;
 
 b. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment
 advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been
 profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment
 advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all
 recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one
 year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:
 
 (1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature
 of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the
 recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market
 price of each security; and
 
 (2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that
 states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the
 future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in
 the list;
 
 c. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device
 being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when
 to buy or sell them; or which represents, directly or indirectly, that any
 graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in
 making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or
 when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement
 the limitations thereof and the risks associated with its use;
 
 d. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will
 be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other
 service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct
 or indirect condition or obligation;
 
 e. Represents that the commission has approved any
 advertisement; or
 
 f. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that
 is otherwise false or misleading. 
 
 For the purposes of this section, the term
 "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other
 written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other
 announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or
 by any medium, that offers any one of the following:
 
 (i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning
 securities;
 
 (ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used
 in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which
 security to buy or sell;
 
 (iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in
 making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which
 security to buy or sell; or
 
 (iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to
 securities.
 
 14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any
 client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a
 regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client.
 
 15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to
 those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest, where
 the investment advisor representative other than a person associated with a
 federal covered advisor has custody or possession of such securities or funds,
 when the investment advisor representative's action is subject to and does not
 comply with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.
 
 16. Entering into, extending or renewing any investment
 advisory or federal covered advisory contract unless such contract is in
 writing and discloses, in substance, the services to be provided, the term of
 the contract, the advisory fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount
 of prepaid fee to be returned in the event of contract termination or
 nonperformance, whether the contract grants discretionary power to the
 investment advisor representative and that no assignment of such contract shall
 be made by the investment advisor representative without the consent of the
 other party to the contract.
 
 17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its
 customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for
 compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or
 securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted
 custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection
 Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's
 assets.
 
 18. Using a certification or professional designation in
 connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability
 of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or
 indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating
 analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the
 user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior
 citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.
 
 a. The use of such certification or professional designation
 includes, but is not limited to, the following: 
 
 (1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has
 not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or
 designation; 
 
 (2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or
 professional designation; 
 
 (3) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through
 education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or
 professional designation does not have; or 
 
 (4) Use of a certification or professional designation that
 was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that: 
 
 (a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in
 sales or marketing; 
 
 (b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 assuring the competency of its designees or certificants; 
 
 (c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for
 monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or
 unethical conduct; or 
 
 (d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements
 for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or
 certificate. 
 
 b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or
 certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision
 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:
 
 (1) The American National Standards Institute;
 
 (2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the
 National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or
 
 (3) An organization that is on the United States Department of
 Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV
 Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not
 primarily apply to sales or marketing.
 
 c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an
 acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or
 professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special
 certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees,
 factors to be considered shall include: 
 
 (1) Use of one or more words such as "senior,"
 "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or
 more words such as "certified," "chartered,"
 "adviser," "specialist," "consultant,"
 "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional
 designation; and 
 
 (2) The manner in which those words are combined. 
 
 d. For purposes of this section, a certification or
 professional designation does not include a job title within an organization
 that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services
 regulatory agency, when that job title: 
 
 (1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or 
 
 (2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within
 the organization.
 
 For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services
 regulatory agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that
 regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as
 defined under § 3(a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC
 § 80a-3(a)(1).
 
 e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's
 authority to enforce existing provisions of law.
 
 C. The conduct set forth in subsections A and B of this
 section is not all inclusive. Engaging in other conduct such as nondisclosure,
 incomplete disclosure, or deceptive practices may be deemed an unethical
 business practice except to the extent permitted by the National Securities
 Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).
 
 D. The provisions of this section shall apply to federal
 covered advisors to the extent that fraud or deceit is involved, or as
 otherwise permitted by the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996
 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).
 
 E. An investment advisor or investment advisor
 representative may delay or refuse to place an order or to disburse funds that
 may involve or result in the financial exploitation of an individual pursuant
 to § 63.2-1606 L of the Code of Virginia.
 
 F. For purposes of the section, any mandatory arbitration
 provision in an advisory contract shall be prohibited.
 
 G. The investment advisor and investment advisor
 representative shall notify the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising,
 State Corporation Commission and the client of an unauthorized access to
 records that may expose a client's identity or investments to a third party
 within three business days of the discovery of the unauthorized access.
 
 21VAC5-80-260. Information security and privacy.
 
 A. Every investment advisor registered or required to be
 registered shall establish, implement, update, and enforce written physical
 security and cybersecurity policies and procedures reasonably designed to
 ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of physical and
 electronic records and information. The policies and procedures shall be
 tailored to the investment advisor's business model, taking into account the
 size of the firm, type of services provided, and the number of locations of the
 investment advisor.
 
 1. The physical security and cybersecurity policies and
 procedures shall:
 
 a. Protect against reasonably anticipated threats or
 hazards to the security or integrity of client records and information;
 
 b. Ensure that the investment advisor safeguards
 confidential client records and information; and
 
 c. Protect any records and information the release of which
 could result in harm or inconvenience to any client.
 
 2. The physical security and cybersecurity policies and
 procedures shall cover at least five functions:
 
 a. The organizational understanding to manage information
 security risk to systems, assets, data, and capabilities;
 
 b. The appropriate safeguards to ensure delivery of critical
 infrastructure services;
 
 c. The appropriate activities to identify the occurrence of
 an information security event;
 
 d. The appropriate activities to take action regarding a
 detected information security event; and
 
 e. The appropriate activities to maintain plans for
 resilience and to restore any capabilities or services that were impaired due
 to an information security event.
 
 3. The investment advisor shall review, no less frequently
 than annually, and modify, as needed, these policies and procedures to ensure
 the adequacy of the security measures and the effectiveness of their
 implementation.
 
 B. The investment advisor shall deliver upon the
 investment advisor's engagement by a client, and on an annual basis thereafter,
 a privacy policy to each client that is reasonably designed to aid in the
 client's understanding of how the investment advisor collects and shares, to
 the extent permitted by state and federal law, nonpublic personal information.
 The investment advisor shall promptly update and deliver to each client an
 amended privacy policy if any of the information in the policy becomes
 inaccurate. 
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5907; Filed June 28, 2019, 12:01 p.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
DEPARTMENT FOR AGING AND REHABILITATIVE SERVICES
Final Regulation
 
 
 
 REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
 Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services is claiming an exemption from
 Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006
 A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to
 conform to changes in Virginia statutory law or the appropriation act where no
 agency discretion is involved. The Department for Aging and Rehabilitative
 Services will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any interested
 person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
 
  
 
 Title of Regulation: 22VAC30-80. Auxiliary Grants
 Program (amending 22VAC30-80-20). 
 
 Statutory Authority: §§ 51.5-131 and 51.5-160 of the
 Code of Virginia.
 
 Effective Date: August 22, 2019. 
 
 Agency Contact: Tishaun Harris-Ugworji, Program
 Consultant, Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services, 8004 Franklin
 Farms Drive, Richmond, VA 23229, telephone (804) 662-7531, or email tishaun.harrisugworji@dars.virginia.gov.
 
 Summary:
 
 Pursuant to Chapters 657 and 658 of the 2019 Acts of
 Assembly, the amendment allows individuals receiving auxiliary grants to select
 supportive housing without any requirement that such individuals wait until
 their first or any subsequent annual reassessment to make such selection.
 
 22VAC30-80-20. Assessment. 
 
 A. In order to receive payment from the AG for care in an ALF
 or an AFC home, an individual applying for AG shall have been assessed by a
 qualified assessor using the UAI in accordance with 22VAC30-110 and determined
 to need residential or assisted living care or AFC. 
 
 B. As a condition of eligibility for the AG, a UAI shall be
 completed on an individual prior to admission, except for an emergency
 placement as documented and approved by a Virginia adult protective services
 worker; at least once annually; and whenever there is a significant change in
 the individual's level of care, and a determination is made that the individual
 needs residential or assisted living care in an ALF or, AFC home,
 or SH setting.
 
 C. The ALF or, AFC, or SH provider is
 prohibited from charging a security deposit or any other form of compensation
 for providing a room and services to the individual. The collection or receipt
 of money, gift, donation or other consideration from or on behalf of an
 individual for any services provided is prohibited.
 
 D. In order to receive payment from the AG for care in the SH
 setting, an individual shall be evaluated by a qualified assessor in accordance
 with § 51.5-160 E of the Code of Virginia. Eligible individuals shall be
 notified of the SH setting option and the availability of approved SH providers
 at the time of their first assessment and annual level of care
 assessment. The individual may select, subject to availability, SH or
 ALF at any time after the first assessment or any subsequent annual
 reassessment as long as the individual meets the criteria for residential or
 assisted living level of care and subject to the availability of the
 selected housing option.
 
 VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5897; Filed June 25, 2019, 10:25 a.m.