The Virginia Register OF  REGULATIONS is an official state publication issued every other week  throughout the year. Indexes are published quarterly, and are cumulative for  the year. The Virginia Register has several functions. The new and  amended sections of regulations, both as proposed and as finally adopted, are  required by law to be published in the Virginia Register. In addition,  the Virginia Register is a source of other information about state  government, including petitions for rulemaking, emergency regulations,  executive orders issued by the Governor, the Virginia Tax Bulletin issued  periodically by the Department of Taxation, and notices of public hearings and  open meetings of state agencies.
    ADOPTION,  AMENDMENT, AND REPEAL OF REGULATIONS
    An  agency wishing to adopt, amend, or repeal regulations must first publish in the  Virginia Register a notice of intended regulatory action; a basis,  purpose, substance and issues statement; an economic impact analysis prepared  by the Department of Planning and Budget; the agency’s response to the economic  impact analysis; a summary; a notice giving the public an opportunity to  comment on the proposal; and the text of the proposed regulation.
    Following  publication of the proposal in the Virginia Register, the promulgating agency  receives public comments for a minimum of 60 days. The Governor reviews the  proposed regulation to determine if it is necessary to protect the public  health, safety and welfare, and if it is clearly written and easily  understandable. If the Governor chooses to comment on the proposed regulation,  his comments must be transmitted to the agency and the Registrar no later than  15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment period. The  Governor’s comments, if any, will be published in the Virginia Register.  Not less than 15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment  period, the agency may adopt the proposed regulation.
    The  Joint Commission on Administrative Rules (JCAR) or the appropriate standing  committee of each house of the General Assembly may meet during the  promulgation or final adoption process and file an objection with the Registrar  and the promulgating agency. The objection will be published in the Virginia  Register. Within 21 days after receipt by the agency of a legislative  objection, the agency shall file a response with the Registrar, the objecting  legislative body, and the Governor.
    When  final action is taken, the agency again publishes the text of the regulation as  adopted, highlighting all changes made to the proposed regulation and  explaining any substantial changes made since publication of the proposal. A  30-day final adoption period begins upon final publication in the Virginia  Register.
    The  Governor may review the final regulation during this time and, if he objects,  forward his objection to the Registrar and the agency. In addition to or in  lieu of filing a formal objection, the Governor may suspend the effective date  of a portion or all of a regulation until the end of the next regular General  Assembly session by issuing a directive signed by a majority of the members of  the appropriate legislative body and the Governor. The Governor’s objection or  suspension of the regulation, or both, will be published in the Virginia  Register. If the Governor finds that changes made to the proposed  regulation have substantial impact, he may require the agency to provide an  additional 30-day public comment period on the changes. Notice of the  additional public comment period required by the Governor will be published in  the Virginia Register.
    The  agency shall suspend the regulatory process for 30 days when it receives  requests from 25 or more individuals to solicit additional public comment,  unless the agency determines that the changes have minor or inconsequential  impact.
    A  regulation becomes effective at the conclusion of the 30-day final adoption  period, or at any other later date specified by the promulgating agency, unless  (i) a legislative objection has been filed, in which event the regulation,  unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after  the expiration of the 21-day objection period; (ii) the Governor exercises his  authority to require the agency to provide for additional public comment, in  which event the regulation, unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date  specified, which shall be after the expiration of the period for which the  Governor has provided for additional public comment; (iii) the Governor and the  General Assembly exercise their authority to suspend the effective date of a  regulation until the end of the next regular legislative session; or (iv) the  agency suspends the regulatory process, in which event the regulation, unless  withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after the  expiration of the 30-day public comment period and no earlier than 15 days from  publication of the readopted action.
    Proposed  regulatory action may be withdrawn by the promulgating agency at any time  before the regulation becomes final.
    FAST-TRACK  RULEMAKING PROCESS
    Section 2.2-4012.1 of the Code of Virginia provides an exemption from certain  provisions of the Administrative Process Act for agency regulations deemed by  the Governor to be noncontroversial.  To use this process, Governor's  concurrence is required and advance notice must be provided to certain  legislative committees.  Fast-track regulations will become effective on the  date noted in the regulatory action if no objections to using the process are  filed in accordance with § 2.2-4012.1.
    EMERGENCY  REGULATIONS
    Pursuant  to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of Virginia, an agency, upon consultation  with the Attorney General, and at the discretion of the Governor, may adopt  emergency regulations that are necessitated by an emergency situation. An  agency may also adopt an emergency regulation when Virginia statutory law or  the appropriation act or federal law or federal regulation requires that a  regulation be effective in 280 days or less from its enactment. The emergency  regulation becomes operative upon its adoption and filing with the Registrar of  Regulations, unless a later date is specified. Emergency regulations are  limited to no more than 12 months in duration; however, may be extended for six  months under certain circumstances as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D.  Emergency regulations are published as soon as possible in the Register.
    During  the time the emergency status is in effect, the agency may proceed with the  adoption of permanent regulations through the usual procedures. To begin  promulgating the replacement regulation, the agency must (i) file the Notice of  Intended Regulatory Action with the Registrar within 60 days of the effective  date of the emergency regulation and (ii) file the proposed regulation with the  Registrar within 180 days of the effective date of the emergency regulation. If  the agency chooses not to adopt the regulations, the emergency status ends when  the prescribed time limit expires.
    STATEMENT
    The  foregoing constitutes a generalized statement of the procedures to be followed.  For specific statutory language, it is suggested that Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006  et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia be examined  carefully.
    CITATION  TO THE VIRGINIA REGISTER
    The Virginia  Register is cited by volume, issue, page number, and date. 23:7 VA.R. 1023-1140  December 11, 2006, refers to Volume 23, Issue 7, pages 1023 through 1140 of  the Virginia Register issued on December 11, 2006.
    The  Virginia Register of Regulations is  published pursuant to Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2  of the Code of Virginia. 
    Members  of the Virginia Code Commission: R.  Steven Landes, Chairman; John S. Edwards, Vice Chairman; Ryan T.  McDougle; Robert Hurt; Robert L. Calhoun; Frank S. Ferguson; E.M.  Miller, Jr.; Thomas M. Moncure, Jr.; James F. Almand; Jane M. Roush.
    Staff  of the Virginia Register: Jane  D. Chaffin, Registrar of Regulations; June T. Chandler, Assistant  Registrar.
         
       
                                                        PUBLICATION SCHEDULE AND DEADLINES
Vol. 25 Iss. 2 - September 29, 2008
September 2008 through June 2009
 
  | Volume: Issue | Material Submitted By Noon* | Will Be Published On | 
 
  | FINAL INDEX Volume 24 |   | October 2008 | 
 
  | 25:2 | September 10, 2008 | September 29, 2008 | 
 
  | 25:3 | September 24, 2008 | October 13, 2008 | 
 
  | 25:4 | October 8, 2008 | October 27, 2008 | 
 
  | 25:5 | October 22, 2008 | November 10, 2008 | 
 
  | 25:6 | November 5, 2008 | November 24, 2008 | 
 
  | 25:7 | November 18, 2008 (Tuesday) | December 8, 2008 | 
 
  | INDEX 1 Volume 25 |   | January 2009 | 
 
  | 25:8 | December 3, 2008 | December 22, 2008 | 
 
  | 25:9 | December 16, 2008 (Tuesday) | January 5, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:10 | December 30, 2008 (Tuesday) | January 19, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:11 | January 14, 2009 | February 2, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:12 | January 28, 2009 | February 16, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:13 | February 11, 2009 | March 2, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:14 | February 25, 2009 | March 16, 2009 | 
 
  | INDEX 2 Volume 25 |   | April 2009 | 
 
  | 25:15 | March 11, 2009 | March 30, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:16 | March 25, 2009 | April 13, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:17 | April 8, 2009 | April 27, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:18 | April 22, 2009 | May 11, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:19 | May 6, 2009 | May 25, 2009 | 
 
  | 25:20 | May 20, 2009 | June 8, 2009 | 
 
  | INDEX 3 Volume 25 |   | July 2009 | 
 
  | 25:21 | June 3, 2009 | June 22, 2009 | 
*Filing deadlines are Wednesdays
unless otherwise specified.
 
   
                                                        PETITIONS FOR RULEMAKING
Vol. 25 Iss. 2 - September 29, 2008
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
    STATE AIR POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
    Initial Agency Notice
    Titles of Regulations:  9VAC5-40. Existing Stationary Sources.
    9VAC5-50. New and Modified  Stationary Sources.
    Statutory Authority: §§ 10.1-1307 and 10.1-1308 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Name of Petitioner: Metropolitan Washington Air Quality  Committee (MWAQC).
    Nature of Petitioner's Request: MWAQC is concerned that  the opacity standards for new and existing facilities in Virginia are set at a  level that is too high to be sufficiently protective of human health. On March  7, 2008, MWAQC adopted a resolution to petition the State Air Pollution Control  Board to revise the opacity standard. The District of Columbia and Maryland  have much stricter opacity standards (0-10%) for emissions from point sources  in the metropolitan Washington, D.C. nonattainment area. In contrast,  Virginia's opacity standard at 20% is the least stringent of the three  jurisdictions. MWAQC requests that the State Air Pollution Control Board lower  the Virginia opacity standard from 20% to 10%, at least in the Northern  Virginia region, to be more consistent with those of the District of Columbia  and Maryland. MWAQC believes that such action could help to improve air quality  in the metropolitan Washington, D.C. area.
    Agency's Plan for Disposition of Request: Receive  comments on the petition for 21 days and present petition and comments to State  Air Pollution Control Board for a decision on whether or not to initiate a  rulemaking.
    Comments may be submitted until October 20, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Doris A. McLeod,  Department of Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,  telephone (804) 698-4197, or email damcleod@deq.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-03; Filed September 10, 2008, 11:46 a.m.
     
         
       
                                                        
                                                        
                                                        REGULATIONS
Vol. 25 Iss. 2 - September 29, 2008
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
COMMISSION ON LOCAL GOVERNMENT
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 1VAC50-10. Public Participation  Guidelines (repealing 1VAC50-10-60 through  1VAC50-10-150).
    1VAC50-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 1VAC50-11-10 through 1VAC50-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 15.2-2903 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Susan Williams, Department of Housing  and Community Development, 501 North Second Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 786-6508, FAX (804) 371-7090, or email  susan.williams@dhcd.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated rulemaking  panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and (vi)  providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    1VAC50-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Commission on Local Government. This chapter does not apply to regulations,  guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the  Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    1VAC50-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Commission on Local  Government, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    1VAC50-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    1VAC50-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 1VAC50-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    1VAC50-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    1VAC50-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    1VAC50-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    1VAC50-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    1VAC50-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    1VAC50-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    1VAC50-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1418; Filed September 9, 2008, 3:17 p.m. 
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
COMMISSION ON LOCAL GOVERNMENT
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 1VAC50-10. Public Participation  Guidelines (repealing 1VAC50-10-60 through  1VAC50-10-150).
    1VAC50-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 1VAC50-11-10 through 1VAC50-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 15.2-2903 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Susan Williams, Department of Housing  and Community Development, 501 North Second Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 786-6508, FAX (804) 371-7090, or email  susan.williams@dhcd.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated rulemaking  panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and (vi)  providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    1VAC50-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Commission on Local Government. This chapter does not apply to regulations,  guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the  Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    1VAC50-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Commission on Local  Government, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    1VAC50-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    1VAC50-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 1VAC50-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    1VAC50-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    1VAC50-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    1VAC50-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    1VAC50-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    1VAC50-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    1VAC50-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    1VAC50-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1418; Filed September 9, 2008, 3:17 p.m. 
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 1VAC55-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 1VAC55-10-10 through 1VAC55-10-50).
    1VAC55-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 1VAC55-11-10 through 1VAC55-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-1201 and 2.2-4007.02 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Charles Reed, Associate Director,  Department of Human Resource Management, James Monroe Bldg., 13th Floor, 101 N.  14th St., Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-3124, FAX (804) 371-2505, or  email charles.reed@dhrm.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    1VAC55-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Department of Human Resource Management. This chapter does not apply to regulations,  guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the  Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    1VAC55-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Department of Human Resource  Management, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed regulatory  action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    1VAC55-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    1VAC55-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 1VAC55-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    1VAC55-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    1VAC55-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    1VAC55-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    1VAC55-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    1VAC55-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    1VAC55-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    1VAC55-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1419; Filed August 28, 2008, 9:59 a.m. 
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 1VAC55-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 1VAC55-10-10 through 1VAC55-10-50).
    1VAC55-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 1VAC55-11-10 through 1VAC55-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-1201 and 2.2-4007.02 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Charles Reed, Associate Director,  Department of Human Resource Management, James Monroe Bldg., 13th Floor, 101 N.  14th St., Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-3124, FAX (804) 371-2505, or  email charles.reed@dhrm.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    1VAC55-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Department of Human Resource Management. This chapter does not apply to regulations,  guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the  Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    1VAC55-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Department of Human Resource  Management, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed regulatory  action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    1VAC55-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    1VAC55-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 1VAC55-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    1VAC55-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    1VAC55-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    1VAC55-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    1VAC55-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    1VAC55-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    1VAC55-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    1VAC55-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1419; Filed August 28, 2008, 9:59 a.m. 
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services is exempt from the  Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 3.2-703, which exempts  quarantine to prevent or retard the spread of a pest into, within, or from the  Commonwealth.
         Title of Regulation: 2VAC5-330. Rules and Regulations  for Enforcement of the Virginia Pest Law-Virginia Gypsy Moth Quarantine (amending 2VAC5-330-30).
    Statutory Authority: §§3.2-701 and 3.2-704 of the Code  of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 15, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Larry M. Nichols, Program Manager,  Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, P. O. Box 1163, Richmond, VA  23218, telephone (804) 786-3515, FAX (804) 371-7793, TTY (800) 828-1120, or  email larry.nichols@vdacs.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendment extends the regulated areas under the  Virginia Gypsy Moth Quarantine due to the detection of larvae or other life  stages of the gypsy moth in areas not currently under regulation. The current  regulated area is changed by the addition of the counties of Floyd and  Franklin. All other parts of the Virginia Gypsy Moth Quarantine will remain  unchanged.
    2VAC5-330-30. Regulated areas. 
    A. Any area of another state or the District of Columbia,  whether designated high risk or low risk, in which gypsy moth is known to occur  and is so geographically described and regulated by the United States  Department of Agriculture under the Gypsy Moth and Browntail Moth Quarantine  No. 45, (7 USC §§1520dd, 150ee, 162) or under a state gypsy moth quarantine or  other state legislation.
    B. The following areas in Virginia:
    1. The entire counties of: Accomack, Albemarle, Allleghany,  Amelia, Amherst, Appomattox, Arlington, Augusta, Bath, Bedford, Botetourt,  Brunswick, Buckingham, Campbell, Caroline, Charles City, Charlotte,  Chesterfield, Clarke, Craig, Culpeper, Cumberland, Dinwiddie, Essex, Fairfax,  Fauquier, Floyd, Fluvanna, Franklin, Frederick, Giles,  Gloucester, Goochland, Greene, Greensville, Halifax, Hanover, Henrico,  Highland, Isle of Wight, James City, King George, King and Queen, King William,  Lancaster, Loudoun, Louisa, Lunenburg, Madison, Mathews, Mecklenburg,  Middlesex, Montgomery, Nelson, New Kent, Northampton, Northumberland, Nottoway,  Orange, Page, Pittsylvania, Powhatan, Prince Edward, Prince George, Prince  William, Rappahannock, Richmond, Roanoke, Rockbridge, Rockingham, Shenandoah,  Southampton, Spotsylvania, Stafford, Surry, Sussex, Warren, Westmoreland, and  York.
    2. The entire independent cities of: Alexandria, Bedford,  Buena Vista, Charlottesville, Chesapeake, Clifton Forge, Colonial Heights,  Covington, Danville, Emporia, Fairfax City, Falls Church, Franklin,  Fredericksburg, Hampton, Harrisonburg, Hopewell, Lexington, Lynchburg,  Manassas, Manassas Park, Newport News, Norfolk, Petersburg, Poquoson,  Portsmouth, Richmond, Roanoke, Salem, Staunton, Suffolk, Virginia Beach,  Waynesboro, Williamsburg, and Winchester.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1267; Filed September 9, 2008, 3:31 p.m. 
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services is exempt from the  Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 3.2-703 of the Code of  Virginia, which exempts quarantine to prevent or retard the spread of a pest  into, within, or from the Commonwealth.
         Title of Regulation: 2VAC5-335. Virginia Emerald Ash  Borer Quarantine for Enforcement of the Virginia Pest Law (adding 2VAC5-335-10, 2VAC5-335-20,  2VAC5-335-30, 2VAC5-335-40, 2VAC5-335-50, 2VAC5-335-60, 2VAC5-335-70,  2VAC5-335-80, 2VAC5-335-90, 2VAC5-335-100, 2VAC5-335-110, 2VAC5-335-120,  2VAC5-335-130).
    Statutory Authority: §3.2-703 of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 15, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Larry M. Nichols, Program Manager,  Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, P.O. Box 1163, Richmond, VA  23218, telephone (804) 371-3515, FAX (804) 371-7793, or email  larry.nichols@vdacs.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    This regulation will restrict the intrastate movement of  ash products and hardwood firewood from regulated to nonregulated areas of  Virginia. This quarantine will include the counties of Arlington, Fairfax,  Fauquier, Loudoun and Prince William and the cities of Alexandria, Fairfax  City, Falls Church, Manassas and Manassas Park as regulated areas in Virginia.  Tree removal services, landscape nurseries, and shippers of ash logs or mulch  in regulated areas of Virginia, as in other quarantined states, must obtain  special inspections and certifications prior to selling their ash trees, green  (nonheat treated) ash lumber and ash wood products, as well as hardwood  firewood, into any nonregulated counties. This state quarantine parallels a  federal quarantine issued by USDA/APHIS/Plant Protection and Quarantine  governing the interstate movement of ash products and hardwood firewood from  regulated areas of Virginia.
    CHAPTER 335 
  VIRGINIA EMERALD ASH BORER QUARANTINE FOR ENFORCEMENT OF THE VIRGINIA PEST  LAW 
    2VAC5-335-10. Declaration of quarantine.
    A quarantine is hereby established to regulate the  movement of certain articles capable of transporting the highly destructive  pest of ash (Fraxinus spp.) known as the emerald ash borer, Agrilus planipennis  (Fairemaire) into uninfested or unregulated areas of the state unless such  articles comply with the conditions specified herein.
    2VAC5-335-20. Purpose of quarantine.
    The emerald ash borer is an introduced beetle that  specifically attacks and kills ash trees. It has become established in Fairfax  County, Virginia, and has the potential to spread to uninfested counties by  both natural means and humans moving infested articles. The purpose of this  quarantine is to prevent the artificial spread of the emerald ash borer to  uninfested areas of the state by regulating the movement of those articles that  pose a significant threat of transporting the emerald ash borer.
    2VAC5-335-30. Definitions.
    The following words and terms shall have the following  meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Certificate" means a document issued by an  inspector or any other person operating in accordance with a compliance  agreement to allow the movement of regulated articles to any destination.
    "Compliance agreement" means a written agreement  between a person engaged in growing, handling, receiving or moving regulated  articles and the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, the  United States Department of Agriculture, or both, wherein the former agrees to  comply with the requirements of the compliance agreement. 
    "Emerald ash borer" means the live insect known  as the emerald ash borer, Agrilus planipennis (Fairemaire), in any life stage  (egg, larva, pupa, adult).
    "Infestation" means the presence of the emerald  ash borer or the existence of circumstances that make it reasonable to believe  that the emerald ash borer is present.
    "Inspector" means any employee of the Virginia  Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, or other person authorized by  the commissioner to enforce the provisions of the quarantine or regulation. 
    "Limited permit (permit)" means a document  issued by an inspector or other person operating in accordance with a  compliance agreement to allow the movement of regulated articles to a specific  destination.
    "Moved (move, movement)" means shipped, offered  for shipment, received for transportation, transported, carried, or allowed to  be moved, shipped, transported, or carried.
    "Person" means any association, company,  corporation, firm, individual, joint stock company, partnership, society, or other  entity. 
    "Virginia Pest Law" means the statute set forth  in Chapter 7 (§3.2-700 et seq. of Title 3.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    2VAC5-335-40. Regulated articles.
    The following articles are regulated under the provisions  of this quarantine, and shall not be moved out of any regulated area within  Virginia, except in compliance with the conditions prescribed in this  quarantine:
    1. The emerald ash borer in any life stage.
    2. Firewood of all hardwood (nonconiferous) species.
    3. Ash (Fraxinus spp.) nursery stock. 
    4. Green (nonheat treated) ash lumber.
    5. Other living, dead, cut, or fallen material of the genus  Fraxinus, including logs, stumps, roots, branches, and composted and  uncomposted wood chips.
    2VAC5-335-50. Regulated areas.
    The following areas in Virginia:
    The entire counties of:
    Arlington 
    Fairfax
    Fauquier
    Loudoun
    Prince William 
    The entire independent cities of:  
    Alexandria 
    Fairfax City
    Falls Church
    Manassas
    Manassas Park 
    2VAC5-335-60. Conditions governing the intrastate movement  of regulated articles.
    A. Movement of a regulated article solely within the  regulated area is allowed without restriction.
    B. Any regulated article may be moved intrastate from a  regulated area only if moved under the following conditions:
    1. With a certificate or limited permit issued and attached  in accordance with 2VAC5-335-70 and 2VAC5-335-100 of this quarantine.
    2. Without a certificate or limited permit, if:
    a. The points of origin and destination are indicated on a  waybill accompanying the regulated article; 
    b. The regulated article, if moved through the regulated  area during the period of April 1 through September 30, is moved in an enclosed  vehicle or is completely covered to prevent access by the emerald ash borer; 
    c. The regulated article is moved directly through the  regulated area without stopping (except for refueling or for traffic  conditions, such as traffic lights or stop signs), or has been stored, packed,  or handled at locations approved by an inspector as not posing a risk of  infestation by the emerald ash borer; and
    d. The regulated article has not been combined or  commingled with other articles so as to lose its individual identity.
    3. With a limited permit issued by the Commonwealth if the  regulated article is moved:
    a. By a state or federal agency for experimental or  scientific purposes;
    b. Under conditions, specified on the permit, which the  commissioner has found to be adequate to prevent the spread of the emerald ash  borer; and
    c. With a tag or label bearing the number of the permit  issued for the regulated article attached to the outside of the container of  the regulated article or attached to the regulated article itself if the  regulated article is not in a container.
    2VAC5-335-70. Issuance and cancellation of certificates and  limited permits.
    A. Certificates may be issued by an inspector or any  person operating under a compliance agreement for the movement of regulated  articles to any destination within Virginia when:
    1. The articles have been examined by the inspector and  found to be apparently free of the emerald ash borer;
    2. The articles have been grown, produced, manufactured,  stored or handled in such a manner that, in the judgment of the inspector,  their movement does not present a risk of spreading the emerald ash borer;
    3. The regulated article is to be moved in compliance with  any additional conditions deemed necessary under the Virginia Pest Law to  prevent the spread of the emerald ash borer; and
    4. The regulated article is eligible for unrestricted  movement under all other state or federal domestic plant quarantines and  regulations applicable to the regulated articles.
    B. Limited permits may be issued by an inspector for the  movement of regulated articles to specific destinations within Virginia if:
    1. The regulated article is apparently free of emerald ash  borer, based on inspection; or the article has been grown, produced,  manufactured, stored, or handled in a manner that, in the judgment of the  Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, prevents the article from  presenting a risk of spreading the emerald ash borer; or
    2. The regulated article is to be moved intrastate to a  specified destination under conditions that specify the limited handling,  utilization, processing or treatment of the articles, when the inspector  determines that such movement will not result in the spread of the emerald ash  borer because the life stage(s) of the insect will be destroyed by such  specified handling, utilization, processing or treatment; and 
    3. The regulated article is to be moved in compliance with  any additional conditions deemed necessary under the Virginia Pest Law to  prevent the spread of the emerald ash borer; and
    4. The regulated article is eligible for interstate  movement under all other state or federal domestic plant quarantines and  regulations applicable to the regulated article.
    C. Certificates and limited permits for use for intrastate  movement of regulated articles may be issued by an inspector or person  operating under a compliance agreement. A person operating under a compliance  agreement may issue a certificate for the intrastate movement of a regulated  article if an inspector has determined that the regulated article is otherwise  eligible for a certificate in accordance with subsection A of this section. A  person operating under a compliance agreement may issue a limited permit for  intrastate movement of a regulated article when an inspector has determined  that the regulated article is eligible for a limited permit in accordance with  subsection  B of this section.
    D. Any certificate or limited permit that has been issued  or authorized may be withdrawn by the inspector orally, or in writing, if he  determines that the holder of the certificate or limited permit has not  complied with all conditions for the use of the certificate or limited permit  or with any applicable compliance agreement. If the withdrawal is oral, the  withdrawal and the reasons for the withdrawal shall be confirmed in writing as  promptly as circumstances allow. 
    2VAC5-335-80. Compliance agreements and cancellation.
    A. Any person engaged in growing, handling, or moving  regulated articles may enter into a compliance agreement when an inspector  determines that the person understands this quarantine. The agreement shall  stipulate that safeguards will be maintained against the establishment and  spread of infestation, and will comply with the conditions governing the  maintenance of identity, handling, and subsequent movement of such articles,  and the cleaning and treatment of means of conveyance and containers.
    B. Any compliance agreement may be canceled orally or in  writing by an inspector whenever the inspector finds that the person who has  entered into the compliance agreement has failed to comply with this  quarantine. If the cancellation is oral, the cancellation and the reasons for  the cancellation shall be confirmed in writing as promptly as circumstances  allow. 
    2VAC5-335-90. Assembly and inspection of regulated articles.
    A. Any person (other than a person authorized to issue  certificates or limited permits under 2VAC5-335-70) who desires to move a  regulated article intrastate accompanied by a certificate or limited permit  shall apply for inspection as far in advance as possible, but at least five  business days before the services are needed. 
    B. The regulated article must be assembled at the place  and in the manner the inspector designates as necessary to facilitate  inspection and comply with this quarantine. The regulated article shall be  safeguarded from infestation.
    2VAC5-335-100. Attachment and disposition of certificates  and limited permits.
    A.  A certificate or limited permit required for the  intrastate movement of a regulated article must be attached at all times during  the intrastate movement to the outside of the container containing the regulated  article or to the regulated article itself if not in a container. The  requirements of this section may also be met by attaching the certificate or  limited permit to the consignee's copy of the waybill, provided the regulated  article is sufficiently described on the certificate or limited permit and on  the waybill to identify the regulated article.
    B. The certificate or limited permit for the intrastate  movement of a regulated article must be furnished by the carrier to the  consignee at the destination of the regulated article. A copy of the  certificate and/or limited permit must be retained by the sender of the  article(s) at the place of origin.
    2VAC5-335-110. Inspection and disposal of regulated articles  and pests.
    Any properly identified inspector is authorized to stop  and inspect, and to seize, destroy, or otherwise dispose of, or require  disposal of regulated articles and emerald ash borers as provided in the  Virginia Pest Law under which this quarantine is issued. 
    2VAC5-335-120. Nonliability of the department.
    The Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer  Services shall not be liable for any costs incident to inspections required  under the provisions of the quarantine and regulations other than for the  services of the inspector.
    2VAC5-335-130. Revocation of this regulation.
    This regulation may be revoked by the board when such  party is satisfied that the need for this quarantine no longer exists.   Such revocation shall take place upon the date specified by the board in the  order that revokes this regulation.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1555; Filed September 9, 2008, 3:32 p.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF CONSERVATION AND RECREATION
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE: The following model public participation guidelines are exempt from  Article 2 (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of  Virginia pursuant to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations:  4VAC3-10. Regulatory Public Participation Procedures (repealing 4VAC3-10-10, 4VAC3-10-20, 4VAC3-10-30).
    4VAC3-11. Public  Participation Guidelines (adding 4VAC3-11-10 through 4VAC3-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 10.1-107 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: David C. Dowling, Policy, Planning, and  Budget Director, Department of Conservation and Recreation, 203 Governor  Street, Suite 302, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-2291, FAX (804)  786-6141, or email david.dowling@dcr.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    4VAC3-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Board of Conservation and Recreation. This chapter does not apply to  regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the  provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia).
    4VAC3-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Board of Conservation and  Recreation, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed regulatory  action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    4VAC3-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification list  by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to the  agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall elect  to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    4VAC3-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 4VAC3-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    4VAC3-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    4VAC3-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    4VAC3-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    4VAC3-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the development  of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    4VAC3-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    4VAC3-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    4VAC3-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1426; Filed September 3, 2008, 1:30 p.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF CONSERVATION AND RECREATION
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE: The following model public participation guidelines are exempt from  Article 2 (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of  Virginia pursuant to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations:  4VAC3-10. Regulatory Public Participation Procedures (repealing 4VAC3-10-10, 4VAC3-10-20, 4VAC3-10-30).
    4VAC3-11. Public  Participation Guidelines (adding 4VAC3-11-10 through 4VAC3-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 10.1-107 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: David C. Dowling, Policy, Planning, and  Budget Director, Department of Conservation and Recreation, 203 Governor  Street, Suite 302, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-2291, FAX (804)  786-6141, or email david.dowling@dcr.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    4VAC3-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Board of Conservation and Recreation. This chapter does not apply to  regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the  provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia).
    4VAC3-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Board of Conservation and  Recreation, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed regulatory  action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    4VAC3-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification list  by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to the  agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall elect  to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    4VAC3-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 4VAC3-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    4VAC3-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    4VAC3-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    4VAC3-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    4VAC3-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the development  of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    4VAC3-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    4VAC3-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    4VAC3-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1426; Filed September 3, 2008, 1:30 p.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF CONSERVATION AND RECREATION
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 4VAC5-10. Regulatory Public  Participation Procedures (repealing 4VAC5-10-10, 4VAC5-10-20,  4VAC5-10-30).
    4VAC5-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 4VAC5-11-10 through 4VAC5-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 10.1-104 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: David C. Dowling, Policy, Planning, and  Budget Director, Department of Conservation and Recreation, 203 Governor  Street, Suite 302, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-2291, FAX (804)  786-6141, or email david.dowling@dcr.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with  the legislative mandate (Chapter 321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies  adopt model public participation guidelines issued by the Department of  Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008. Public participation guidelines exist  to promote public involvement in the development, amendment, or repeal of an  agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    4VAC5-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Department of Conservation and Recreation. This chapter does not apply to  regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the  provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia).
    4VAC5-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Department of Conservation  and Recreation, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    4VAC5-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    4VAC5-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 4VAC5-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    4VAC5-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit data,  views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    4VAC5-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and published  in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    4VAC5-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working with  the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is either  exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process Act.
    4VAC5-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    4VAC5-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    4VAC5-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    4VAC5-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1427; Filed September 3, 2008, 1:32 p.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF CONSERVATION AND RECREATION
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 4VAC5-10. Regulatory Public  Participation Procedures (repealing 4VAC5-10-10, 4VAC5-10-20,  4VAC5-10-30).
    4VAC5-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 4VAC5-11-10 through 4VAC5-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 10.1-104 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: David C. Dowling, Policy, Planning, and  Budget Director, Department of Conservation and Recreation, 203 Governor  Street, Suite 302, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-2291, FAX (804)  786-6141, or email david.dowling@dcr.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with  the legislative mandate (Chapter 321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies  adopt model public participation guidelines issued by the Department of  Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008. Public participation guidelines exist  to promote public involvement in the development, amendment, or repeal of an  agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    4VAC5-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Department of Conservation and Recreation. This chapter does not apply to  regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the  provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia).
    4VAC5-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Department of Conservation  and Recreation, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    4VAC5-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    4VAC5-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 4VAC5-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    4VAC5-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit data,  views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    4VAC5-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and published  in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    4VAC5-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working with  the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is either  exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process Act.
    4VAC5-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    4VAC5-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    4VAC5-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    4VAC5-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1427; Filed September 3, 2008, 1:32 p.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF GAME AND INLAND FISHERIES
Proposed Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Board of Game and Inland Fisheries is exempt from the Administrative Process  Act pursuant to § 29.1-701 E of the Code of Virginia, which provides that  proposal and adoption of regulations implementing Chapter 7 (§29.1-700 et seq.)  of Title 29.1 shall take place as described in Article 1 (§29.1-500 et seq.) of  Chapter 5 of Title 29.1 of the Code of Virginia. The department is required by  § 2.2-4031 of the Code of Virginia to publish all proposed and final  regulations.
         Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-450. Watercraft:  Commercial Parasail Operations (adding 4VAC15-450-10 through 4VAC15-450-40).
    Statutory Authority: §§29.1-501, 29.1-502, 29.1-701, and 29.1-735.3 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: 
    October 23, 2008 - 9 a.m. - Department of Game and Inland  Fisheries, 4000 W. Broad Street, Richmond, VA
    Public Comments: Public comments may be submitted until  5 p.m. on October 6, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Phil Smith, Regulatory Coordinator,  Department of Game and Inland Fisheries, 4016 W. Broad Street, Richmond, VA  23230, telephone (804) 367-8341 or email phil.smith@dgif.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    The board has proposed a new boating regulation regarding  commercial parasail operations. The proposed regulation will not have any  effect on general boating activities by the recreational boating public, but  will apply only to the commercial operations of parasail operators on the  waters of the Commonwealth. The proposal defines "commercial parasail  operation" and "parasailing;" and establishes provisions to  which commercial parasailing operators must comply for lawful operation,  including a requirement that all commercial parasail operators shall have a  valid Coast Guard license for carrying passengers for hire, and other  provisions addressing the safety of persons taking part in the parasailing  activity.
    CHAPTER 450 
  WATERCRAFT: COMMERCIAL PARASAIL OPERATIONS 
    4VAC15-450-10. Application.
    This chapter applies to all commercial parasail operations  on waters of the Commonwealth.
    4VAC15-450-20. Definitions.
    As used in this chapter unless the context clearly  requires a different meaning the following words and terms shall have the  following meanings:
    "Commercial parasail operation" means all  parasail activities engaged in or caused to be engaged in by any person or  legal entity with the object of making a profit or obtaining an economic  benefit either directly or indirectly.
    "Operate" means to navigate or otherwise control  the movement of a vessel.
    "Parasailing" means the activity in which an  individual is transported or carried aloft by a parachute, sail, or other  material attached to a towline that is towed by a vessel where the rider  ascends into the air by the towline being extended from the vessel and remains  suspended in the air as the vessel runs its course.
    "Vessel" means every description of watercraft,  other than a seaplane on the water, used or capable of being used as a means of  transportation on water.
    "Waters of the Commonwealth" means any public  waters within the territorial limits of the Commonwealth, the adjacent marginal  sea and the high seas when navigated as a part of a journey or ride to or from  the Virginia shore.
    4VAC15-450-30. Commercial parasailing activities.
    Commercial parasailing operators shall comply with the  following provisions:
    1. All commercial parasail operators shall have a valid  Coast Guard License for carrying passengers for hire.
    2. Vessels engaged in parasailing operations must be  equipped with a rear launchplatform and direct launch and recovery hydraulic  winch system used to pay out and reel in the towline.
    3. Prior to leaving the dock, all passengers and parasail  participants shall be required to view a parasail safety briefing video and/or  be given a written parasail safety briefing handout. Briefing materials shall  be consistent with information approved or provided by the Professional  Association of Parasail Operators (PAPO).
    4. Parasailing shall only be conducted from one-half hour  before sunrise to one-half hour after sunset.
    5. All parasail riders, when attached to the harness of a  parasail canopy, shall wear a United States Coast Guard approved Type I, II, or  III inherently buoyant noninflatable personal flotation device that is in  serviceable condition and of the proper size. The rider must be secured in a  seat harness attached to an ascending type of parachute that is connected to  the towline. 
    6. All parasailing operations shall include, in addition to  the operator of the vessel, an observer 18 years or older at all times to  monitor the progress of an airborne parasail rider and parachute.
    7. All parasailing towing vessels when operating more than  1,000 feet from shore shall be equipped with a VHF radio that is in working  order and tuned to Channel 16.
    8. Parasailing shall be prohibited when there are sustained  winds in excess of 20 mph/17.5 knots and/or seas in excess of six feet in the  area of operation.
    9. Parasail operation towlines shall not exceed 1,200 feet  in total length on the vessel’s winch drum or exceed 1,000 feet of towline from  boat to canopy yoke while conducting parasail flight operations. All commercial  towlines must have a minimum diameter of 3/8 inches, be a maximum length of  1,200 feet, and have a minimum tensile strength of 4,800 lbs. An in-service  date shall be logged whenever new line is installed.
    10. Parasail operators shall inspect the towline in its  entirety daily for damage and/or wear and, if necessary, shall immediately  replace the line. A minimum of two feet shall be trimmed from the towline  bitter end within a maximum period of seven days or every 400 flights or as may  become necessary. The towline shall be kept clean and well maintained in  accordance with manufacturers’ specifications, requirements, and/or recommendations.  A written log of such inspections and maintenance shall be kept at all times.
    11. Parasail vessel operators shall at all times maintain a  safe parasail chute distance from any surf-zone, shoreline, or fixed object  when engaged in actual parasail operations. This includes all of the following:  (i) the canopy shall not be allowed to pass within three times the length of  the towline from shore or any structure, (ii) when the wind has an onshore  component, the canopy’s minimum distance from shore is a function of wind speed  as follows: either 1,000 feet or a sliding distance based on wind speed (0-5  mph – 600 feet, 6-10 mph – 1,000 feet, 11-15 mph – 1,800 feet, 16-20 mph –  2,400 feet).
    12. Parasail operators shall only launch and land riders  from the flight deck of the vessel. Spectators shall not be permitted on the  launch/landing deck area while the vessel is engaged in actual parasail  operations. At no time shall there be more than three passengers in any canopy.  Multipassenger flights shall only be conducted after the vessel operator has  made reasonable judgment regarding the flight safety prior to each flight and  then only under the following conditions: (i) wind conditions must be adequate,  stable and persistent, (ii) sea conditions must be conducive to such  activities, (iii) commercial equipment specifically designed and professionally  manufactured for multipassenger flight operations must be utilized, (iv) all  equipment manufacturers’ specifications, requirements and/or recommendations  must be adhered to, and (v) the vessel’s winch system must be equipped with a  functional level-winder during all multipassenger flights.
    13. A person may not operate or manipulate any vessel by  which the direction or location of a parasail may be affected or controlled in  such a way as to cause the parasail or any person thereon to collide or strike  against or be likely to collide or strike against any vessel, bridge, wharf,  pier, dock, buoy, platform, piling, channel marker, or other object.
    14. The deliberate lowering of any person attached to the  parasail to be in contact with the water’s surface (toe dipping) shall only be  conducted after the vessel operator has made reasonable judgment regarding the  safety of the activity and his ability to control such an activity and then  only when wind and sea conditions are conducive to such activity. Deliberate  dipping above the ankles or allowing a participant to touch the water during  his flight within 200 feet of another vessel or object or within 50 feet of the  stern of the tow vessel is prohibited.
    15. Commercial parasail operators shall notify the  department’s law-enforcement division dispatch office at least 14 days in  advance of the commencement of annual operations. 
    4VAC15-450-40. Penalties.
    Except as otherwise provided by statute, any person who  violates any provision of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 4 misdemeanor  for each such violation as provided by § 29.1-746 of the Code of Virginia.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1618; Filed September 10, 2008, 10:42 a.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
VIRGINIA SOIL AND WATER CONSERVATION BOARD
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 4VAC50-10. Regulatory Public Participation  Procedures (repealing 4VAC50-10-10, 4VAC50-10-20,  4VAC50-10-30).
    4VAC50-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 4VAC50-11-10 through 4VAC50-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 10.1-502 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008. 
    Agency Contact: David C. Dowling, Policy, Planning, and  Budget Director, Department of Conservation and Recreation, 203 Governor  Street, Suite 302, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-2291, FAX (804)  786-6141, or email david.dowling@dcr.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    4VAC50-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Virginia Soil and Water Conservation Board. This chapter does not apply to  regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the  provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia).
    4VAC50-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Virginia Soil and Water  Conservation Board, which is the unit of state government empowered by the  agency's basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in  this chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed regulatory  action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    4VAC50-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    4VAC50-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 4VAC50-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    4VAC50-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    4VAC50-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    4VAC50-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    4VAC50-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    4VAC50-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    4VAC50-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    4VAC50-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1432; Filed September 3, 2008, 1:29 p.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
VIRGINIA SOIL AND WATER CONSERVATION BOARD
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 4VAC50-10. Regulatory Public Participation  Procedures (repealing 4VAC50-10-10, 4VAC50-10-20,  4VAC50-10-30).
    4VAC50-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 4VAC50-11-10 through 4VAC50-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 10.1-502 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008. 
    Agency Contact: David C. Dowling, Policy, Planning, and  Budget Director, Department of Conservation and Recreation, 203 Governor  Street, Suite 302, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-2291, FAX (804)  786-6141, or email david.dowling@dcr.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    4VAC50-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Virginia Soil and Water Conservation Board. This chapter does not apply to  regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the  provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia).
    4VAC50-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Virginia Soil and Water  Conservation Board, which is the unit of state government empowered by the  agency's basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in  this chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed regulatory  action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    4VAC50-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    4VAC50-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 4VAC50-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    4VAC50-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    4VAC50-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    4VAC50-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    4VAC50-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    4VAC50-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    4VAC50-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    4VAC50-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1432; Filed September 3, 2008, 1:29 p.m. 
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SERVICES BOARD
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 6VAC20-160. Rules Relating to  the Court-Appointed Special Advocate Program (CASA) (amending 6VAC20-160-10, 6VAC20-160-20,  6VAC20-160-30, 6VAC20-160-40, 6VAC20-160-60, 6VAC20-160-70, 6VAC20-160-80,  6VAC20-160-100, 6VAC20-160-120). 
    Statutory Authority: §9.1-151 of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008. 
    Agency Contact: Judith Kirkendall, Regulatory  Coordinator, Department of Criminal Justice Services, 202 North 9th Street,  10th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 225-4086, FAX (804) 786-0588,  or email leon.baker@dcjs.virginia.gov, judith.kirkendall@dcjs.virginia.gov, or  lisa.mcgee@dcjs.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments (i) change the staff-to-volunteer ratio that  the court-appointed special advocate (CASA) programs must maintain, (ii) reduce  from three to two the number of children/sibling groups for whom a CASA  volunteer may advocate at any one time, (iii) allow volunteer training obtained  before application to a local CASA program to count toward required training  hours so long as that training meets National Court Appointed Special Advocate  Association (NCASAA) standards, (iv) specify the topics that must be covered in  training for new CASA governing board members, and (v) require a central  registry background check for all volunteer applicants who have lived outside  of Virginia any time in the last five years.
    Changes to the regulations since publication of the  proposed (i) require advisory councils to have defined roles and guidelines  that do not conflict with their governing organization, (ii) clarify the  composition of CASA governing boards and specify the content of training  required for CASA board and advisory council members, (iii) require CASA  programs to maintain records using an automated data system prescribed by the  Department of Criminal Justice Services that allows for flexibility in  reporting, and (iv) add clarifying language to provide guidance on CASA report  dissemination.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A  summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    [ CHAPTER 160 
  RULES REGULATIONS RELATING TO THE COURT-APPOINTED SPECIAL  ADVOCATE PROGRAM (CASA) ] 
    Part I 
  General Definitions 
    6VAC20-160-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms [ , ] when  used in this chapter [ , ] shall apply unless the context  clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Active case" means a case that is assigned by  the director to a CASA volunteer.
    "Advisory [ Council council" ]  means a locally appointed body with a specific purpose to advise the  governing [ body board ] of a local CASA  program.
    "Board" means the Criminal Justice Services  Board.
    "CASA" means court-appointed special advocate.
    "CASA program" means any locally operated  court-appointed special advocate program which utilizes court-appointed  volunteers to assist in judicial proceedings involving allegations that a child  is abused, neglected, in need of services, or in need of supervision and for  whom [ the a ] Juvenile and Domestic Relations  District Court judge determines such services are appropriate.
    "Case" means a child referred to the CASA  program [ on for ] whom a Juvenile and  Domestic Relations District Court [ Judge judge ]  has entered an order of appointment for a CASA [ Volunteer  volunteer ]. 
    "Closed case" means a case in which the court  has released the CASA volunteer or the director has notified the court of their  intent to release the case or there has been no volunteer activity for more  than 90 days. 
    "DCJS" means the Department of Criminal Justice  Services.
    "Director" means the director or coordinator of a  local CASA program responsible for the day-to-day operations of the local CASA  program.
    "Governing board" means the oversight body  responsible for the local CASA program. [ This may be a city council,  county board of supervisors or the board of directors of a nonprofit  organization. ] 
    "Referred case" means a case that is referred by  the court but is not assigned by the director to a CASA volunteer.
    "Staff advocate" means an employee of the CASA  program who serves, [ in lieu of a CASA volunteer, ] as  the assigned advocate for a case.
    "Volunteer" means [ the a ]  court-appointed special advocate.
    Part II 
  Program Administration 
    6VAC20-160-20. Boards CASA program governance.
    A. If a local CASA program does not have a board of  directors, it shall have an advisory board. A CASA program shall have a  governing board responsible for overseeing the program's operations.
    B. [ A governing board may choose to establish  an advisory council to support the CASA program operations. The governing board  shall articulate in writing a clearly defined purpose for the advisory council,  criteria for selection of members, a defined relationship between the council  and the CASA program staff and a clear process for reporting to the governing  board. ] 
    [ The C. If the governing board is not a city  council or county board of supervisors, the ] composition of [ a ]  local CASA [ boards governing board and any established advisory  council ] should include representatives of each geographic area  served by the program [ having . Members should represent  diverse cultures, professional disciplines, public and private sectors, and  have ] knowledge of or an interest in court matters, child welfare  and juvenile justice issues [ the CASA program from both  public and private sectors matters including, but not limited to, the  courts, child welfare and juvenile justice ].
    [ C. D. ] All new [ governing ]  board members [ and advisory council members ] shall receive  [ board training an orientation ] within six months of  their [ appointment selection ]. [ Training  for new board members The orientation ] shall include  education about Virginia's CASA [ programs programs’ ]   mission, goals and objectives with emphasis on [ governing ]  board member [ and advisory council ] roles,  fiduciary responsibilities and fundraising.
    [ D. A governing board may choose to establish an  advisory council to support the CASA program operations. The governing board  shall articulate in writing a clearly defined purpose for the advisory council,  criteria for selection of members, a defined relationship between the council  and the CASA program staff and a clear process for reporting to the governing  board. ] 
    6VAC20-160-30. Recordkeeping and monitoring.
    A. CASA programs [ are required to shall ]  maintain records of the activities of the CASA program by using [ CASA  Outcomes Management and Evaluation Tool (COMET) an automated data  system prescribed by DCJS ]. 
    B. CASA programs shall provide quarterly [ annual  and other ] reports on the operation of the CASA program to the  Department of Criminal Justice Services DCJS in a format provided  prescribed by [ the department. DCJS ]. The  CASA quarterly reports shall cover the following periods: July-September;  October-December; January-March; April-June. These reports are due on according  to a timeline [ as ] established by DCJS.
    C. The quarterly reports shall include the following:
    1. The number of volunteers who completed training during  the quarter, the number currently assigned to cases, the number currently  inactive, and the number currently unassigned;
    2. The number of volunteer hours and a dollar equivalency  for volunteer services for the quarter as prescribed by DCJS;
    3. The number of cases served during the quarter including cases  opened, closed and continued from previous quarters to ensure unduplicated  numbers;
    4. Average number of cases per volunteer; if this number  exceeds three cases a rationale must be submitted to and approved by DCJS;
    5. Breakdown of the types of cases handled during the  quarter;
    6. Breakdown of the age, sex and race of children served at  the time of case assignment;
    7. For cases closed during the quarter, the average length  of time each case was assigned to the program;
    8. For cases closed during the quarter, the average length  of time each child was in out-of-home placement while assigned to the program;  and
    9. The number of new cases referred during the quarter  awaiting assignment of a CASA volunteer or denied service due to lack of a CASA  volunteer.
    D. An annual report (Forms B, C, D and E) shall be due on  [ C. CASA programs shall provide an annual report on the operation  of the program in a format prescribed by the department according to a  timeline as established by DCJS. ] The annual report shall include,  but not be limited to, the following:
    1. An annual statistical summary;
    2. A program budget which contains expenditure and income  projections and the sources and amounts of income from each source;
    3. A narrative detailing the program's accomplishments,  major changes in program policy or operation during the past year;
    4. A letter from the CASA program's fiscal agent or  accountant identifying who is responsible for maintaining the fiscal records,  and stating where the fiscal records are routinely kept; and
    5. A year-end fiscal statement prepared in accordance with  generally accepted accounting practices showing the total cash receipts and  disbursements for the CASA program from the past year.
    6VAC20-160-40. Program and personnel policies. 
    A. CASA [ Programs programs ]  shall be in compliance with Standards for National CASA Association (NCASAA)  Member Programs. 
    A. Programs B. CASA programs shall ensure that  an attorney is available for CASA directors and [ governing ]  boards to provide legal consultation in matters pertaining to administration of  the programs.
    B. Programs C. CASA [ programs  shall not employ as paid staff any individual who program employees  shall not ] concurrently [ supervises supervise ]  children-in-need children in need of services, children in  need of supervision, or juvenile offender cases, either for the courts or  any child serving agencies.
    C. Programs D. CASA programs shall write  policies on the following and make those written policies available to the  respective [ court courts ]:
    1. The maximum [ number of cases caseload ]  to which a volunteer may be assigned at any one time. If that number is larger  than three two children or two sibling groups, a rationale must  be submitted to and approved by DCJS.
    2. Assignment of CASA staff as an advocate. In the event a  CASA supervisor or staff member is required to serve as an advocate, that staff  member will serve no more than two children or two sibling groups. If that  number is larger than two children or two sibling groups, a rationale must be  submitted to and approved by DCJS.
    2. 3. The maximum number of volunteers to be  supervised by each staff person. The staff-to-volunteer ratio calculated and  reported each quarter shall not exceed [ 1 one ]  full-time equivalent staff to 25 30 volunteers who are assigned  to active cases. This ratio is reduced according to the number of hours the  volunteer supervisor may be assigned to administrative or other  responsibilities. A request shall be submitted to and approved by  DCJS for approval should that ratio exceed 1:25 1:30. 
    3. 4. The review, investigation and handling of  any complaints that may be received concerning CASA volunteers, including  procedures for the removal of CASA volunteers should dismissal become  necessary.
    4. 5. The specific factors to be used by the  CASA program to accept and prioritize cases for assignment to CASA volunteers.
    5. 6. The confidentiality of the records and  information to which CASA volunteers will have access, and training volunteers  on the importance of confidentiality.
    6. 7. The objectives, standards, and conduct for  CASA volunteers and the procedures that the CASA program [ has  implemented will use ] to evaluate the performance of its  volunteers in order to ensure that volunteers are meeting CASA's objectives and  standards of conduct.
    7. 8. The CASA volunteers' responsibility to  report incidents of suspected child abuse and neglect.
    8. 9. Concerning CASA investigations, CASA's  role and responsibility in assisting the guardian ad litem, and monitoring court  order compliance.
    9. 10. Compliance with federal laws, including  Equal Opportunity Employment, Drug-Free [ workplace Workplace ],  Smoke-Free [ workplace Workplace ], and political  activity statements.
    D. E. CASA programs shall [ provide  employ ] staff capable of managing effective and efficient program  operations. The following job descriptions provide for essential CASA program  management:
    1. [ Director. ] The director is responsible  for accomplishing organizational goals and all managerial functions. This staff  position requires a degree or equivalent experience in child welfare, public  administration, counseling, human services, juvenile justice or law. [ It  is also important that this The ] person [ should ]  have an understanding of and experience with community organization and  volunteer program management. Generally the duties and responsibilities of the  director [ include are as follows ]:
    a. [ Conducting Conduct ] or [ overseeing  oversee ] the recruitment, screening, training, supervision and  evaluation of the program volunteers and staff;
    b. [ Developing Develop ] and [ maintaining  maintain ] procedures for case recordkeeping; [ supervising  supervise ] staff and volunteers in completing recordkeeping tasks;
    c. [ Serving Serve ] as a liaison to  the court, [ to their the ] local [ governing ]  board, [ and if applicable, advisory council, ] to local  agencies serving children, to DCJS [ personnel ], [ and ]  to the Virginia CASA Network, to the Virginia CASA Association, and to  the National CASA Association;
    d. [ Planning Plan ] for and [ managing  manage ] program growth, development and evaluation, including  special projects, budgets, annual workplans, and analysis of trends in program  services;
    e. [ Representing Represent ] the  program to networks of service providers [ , ] and community  coalitions dealing with child welfare issues; and
    f. [ Supervising Supervise ] program  operations including financial management, risk management, and resource  development.
    2. [ Program/volunteer coordinator Program/Volunteer  Coordinator ]. Depending on program size, it may be necessary to  designate a staff person having knowledge of [ , ] or [ interest  in willingness to learn about, ] court matters, child welfare  and juvenile justice issues who will focus on volunteer recruitment, screening,  training, case assignment, and supervision. Generally, the duties and  responsibilities of the program/volunteer coordinator [ include are  as follows ]:
    a. [ Developing Develop ] and [ distributing  distribute ] volunteer recruitment materials, and [ conducting  conduct ] presentations on the CASA program for the purpose of  recruiting volunteers and increasing community awareness;
    b. [ Screening Screen ] volunteer  applications and [ conducting conduct ] interviews to  determine [ the ] suitability of the applicant for the CASA  program;
    c. [ Arranging Arrange ] training for  CASA volunteers;
    d. [ Recommending Recommend ] trained  volunteers for acceptance into the CASA program;
    e. [ Assigning Assign ] cases and  [ supervising supervise ] volunteers;
    f. [ Planning Plan ] and [ implementing  implement ] volunteer recognition events;
    g. [ Evaluating Evaluate ]  effectiveness of volunteer recruitment, training, and case assignment; and
    h. [ Conducting Conduct ] annual  written evaluations of each CASA volunteer.
    [ F. CASA programs are responsible for disseminating  CASA reports according to § 16.1-274 of the Code of Virginia. ] 
    [ 6VAC20-160-60. CASA volunteer duties and  responsibilities. 
    A. Volunteers shall follow specific policies regarding the  nature of assistance: 
    1. Provided to the guardian ad litem; 
    2. Relating to their investigative role; 
    3. Relating to monitoring compliance with court orders; and 
    4. Relating to the submission to the court of written reports.  
    B. The CASA's CASA volunteer's investigation  involves fact-finding via interviews, professional reports, observation of  family and social interactions, and observation of the child's environment. 
    C. The CASA's CASA volunteer's investigation  involves the observation of the child's circumstances. CASAs CASA  volunteers may conduct interviews of children; however, CASAs CASA  volunteers are specifically prohibited from questioning or inquiring of the  child information regarding a precipitating incident or allegation involving  child abuse and neglect. 
    D. The CASA volunteer should encourage interdisciplinary  coordination and cooperation, whenever possible, in an effort to develop a plan  of action in conjunction with other local agencies and professionals. 
    6VAC20-160-70. Confidentiality. 
    A. All CASA volunteers shall follow specific policies  regarding the following: 
    1. Reporting suspected child abuse and neglect, and the  procedure for making such reports.; 
    2. Confidentiality of records and information; and 
    3. Contacting, interviewing and responding to persons involved  in the case. 
    B. To the extent permitted by state and federal  confidentiality regulations laws, CASA volunteers should share  information gathered with other involved professionals whenever possible and  practicable. ] 
    6VAC20-160-80. Code of ethics.
    A. CASA volunteers should conduct themselves in a  professional manner, adhering to a code of ethics which that is  consistent with ethical principles established by local, state or national  guidelines.
    B. [ A ] CASA [ volunteer volunteers ]  should not become inappropriately involved in the case by providing direct  service delivery to any parties that could (i) lead to conflict of interest or  liability or (ii) cause a child or family to become dependent on the CASA  volunteer for services which that should be provided by other  agencies or organizations.
    [ C. CASA volunteers should develop a general  understanding of the code of ethics of other professionals with whom the CASA  volunteer will be working. ] 
    6VAC20-160-100. Screening.
    A. Prior to being sworn in, CASA volunteers shall  successfully complete screening procedures, which, at a minimum, shall include  a written application and personal interview.
    B. Pursuant to §9-173.8 §9.1-153 of the Code of  Virginia, the director shall obtain, with the approval of the court,  a copy of each applicant's criminal history record or certification that no  conviction data is maintained on him, in accordance with § 19.2-389 of the Code  of Virginia; [ and ] a copy of information from the central  registry, maintained pursuant to §63.1-248.8 §63.2-1515 of the  Code of Virginia, on any investigation of child abuse or neglect undertaken on  him or certification that no such record is maintained on him. If the volunteer  applicant has lived in another state within the past three five  years, the CASA volunteer program director shall also provide  a copy obtain [ copies a copy ] of  his criminal history record and a copy of information from the central  registry from that area. An applicant should shall be  rejected if he refuses to sign a release of information for appropriate  law-enforcement checks.
    C. [ CASA volunteers shall provide The CASA  program shall contact and obtain a response from ] three references  [ who provided by the CASA volunteer. References ] will  speak to [ their the ] character, judgment and  suitability for the position of CASA volunteer. 
    D. Before the volunteer is sworn in, the director shall  determine that the CASA volunteer is qualified under 6VAC20-160-90 and  6VAC20-160-120.
    E. CASA volunteers shall successfully complete required  training as set forth in 6VAC20-160-120.
    Part V 
  Training Guidelines for Volunteers 
    6VAC20-160-120. Training.
    A. To ensure that volunteers are fully prepared to perform  their role as a CASA [ volunteer ] and to assume the  accompanying responsibilities, each volunteer shall participate in a minimum of  30 hours of training prior to being accepted as a CASA volunteer and assigned  cases. Credit may [ not ] be given towards [ this the ]  30 hours of training for any previous training obtained by a volunteer prior to  application to a local CASA program if that program uses the NCASAA Training  Curriculum and documentation of completion of the training is provided.
    B. The initial training curriculum for a CASA [ volunteer ]  should, at a minimum, include [ instructions on ]:
    1. The delineation of the roles and responsibilities of a CASA  [ volunteer ] focusing on the rationale for family  preservation/permanency planning, discussion of the basic principles of  advocacy, distinction between the appropriate and inappropriate activities for  a CASA [ volunteer ], level of commitment required of a CASA  [ volunteer ] involved in a case and the performance  expectations, review of the case assignment process and procedures,  differentiation between the role of the CASA [ volunteer ] and  other [ child welfare ] system personnel, and a comprehensive  list of resources available and when and how to utilize these resources;
    2. The obligation of confidentiality in CASA-related matters,  proper recordkeeping techniques, and the scope of state and federal statutes on  the confidentiality of records;
    3. The dynamics of cultural diversity and the development of  cultural sensitivity by the CASA [ volunteer ];
    4. The nature of child abuse and neglect, the impact of drugs  and alcohol on the incidence of abuse, identification of the family conditions  and patterns which lead to and perpetuate abuse and neglect, and instruction on  how local departments of social services respond to and assess reports  of abuse and neglect;
    5. The general principles and concepts of child and family  development;
    6. Concepts of separation and loss, the role of foster care  and permanency planning in the context of state law with consideration of the  state's position on family preservation, family reunification and alternative  permanent plans for a child who cannot be returned to the home;
    7. Basic communication and interview skills, with guidelines  for dealing with sensitive issues and the interaction between the CASA [ volunteer ]  and parties to a case, and practice in conducting interviews and writing  reports;
    8. The juvenile court process which should include an outline  of the various types of court proceedings, what transpires at each proceeding,  the [ CASA's CASA volunteer's ] role, who to contact  when there is a question about the court process, a glossary of legal  terminology, how to prepare for a hearing, and how to prepare a report for the  court; [ and ] 
    9. The development of advocacy skills, such as negotiation and  conflict management, and how they may be used by the CASA [ volunteer ]  to improve the conditions for a child [ ; and ] 
    10. The development of a general understanding of the  [ code codes ] of ethics of other  professionals with whom the CASA volunteer will be working.
    C. The initial training program shall provide an opportunity  for the volunteer to observe actual court proceedings similar to those in which  he would be involved as a CASA volunteer. This observation is above and beyond  the hours included in the initial training.
    D. CASA volunteers in training [ should shall ]  be provided an opportunity to visit community agencies and institutions  relevant to their work as a volunteer.
    E. The CASA program should shall provide  volunteers in training with the following written materials:
    1. Copies of pertinent laws, regulations, and policies;
    2. A statement of commitment form clearly stating the minimum  expectations of the volunteer once trained; and 
    3. A training manual which is easy to update and revise.
    F. Trainers and faculty for the initial training program and  any ongoing training or continuing education should shall be  persons with substantial knowledge, training and experience in the subject  matter which they present and should also be competent in the provision of  technical training to lay persons.
    G. CASA program staff and others responsible for the initial  training program should be attentive to the participation and progress of each  trainee and be able to objectively evaluate his abilities according to criteria  developed by the CASA program for that purpose. CASA directors should use the  Comprehensive Training Curriculum for CASA from the National CASA  Association NCASAA and training curricula developed within the state  as a reference in designing and developing their training program.
    H. The CASA program shall make available a minimum of 12  hours of in-service training annually for volunteers who are accepted into the  program. These in-service programs should be designed and presented to maintain  and improve the volunteer's level of knowledge and skill. Special attention  shall be given to informing volunteers of changes in the law, local court  procedures, the practices of other agencies involved, CASA program policies and  developments in the fields of child development, child abuse and child advocacy.
    I. CASA volunteers shall participate in complete  12 hours of continuing education annually as approved by the director. This  continuing education may be in-service programs provided directly by the CASA  program, or in conjunction with another agency or agencies, or may be through  an outside agency, through print or electronic media, or from other sources.  All training not conducted or sponsored by the CASA program must [ have  been be ] reviewed and approved by the CASA director for its  suitability for the continuing education of CASA volunteers, and the amount of  continuing education credit that is appropriate.
    FORMS  (Repealed.)
    CASA  Quarterly Case Summary, Form A, rev. 8/1/97.
    CASA  Annual Case Summary, Form B, rev. 5/97.
    CASA  Annual Case Summary Narrative, Form C, rev. 5/97.
    CASA  Annual Financial Status, Form D, rev. 5/97.
    CASA  Annual Projected Program Budget, Form E, rev. 5/97.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R07-02; Filed September 4, 2008, 2:35 p.m. 
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
FORENSIC SCIENCE BOARD
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 6VAC40-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 6VAC40-10-10 through 6VAC40-10-90).
    6VAC40-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 6VAC40-11-10 through 6VAC40-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 9.1-1110 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 30, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Michele M. Gowdy, Department Counsel,  Department of Forensic Science, 700 North Fifth Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 786-6848, or email michele.gowdy@dfs.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public meeting  shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v) providing  for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to provide  professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated rulemaking  panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and (vi)  providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    6VAC40-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public involvement  in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the Forensic  Science Board or the Department of Forensic Science. This chapter does not  apply to regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from  the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code  of Virginia).
    6VAC40-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Forensic Science Board or the  Department of Forensic Science, which is the unit of state government empowered  by the agency's basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions  specified in this chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by  the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint venture,  government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial entity and  any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    6VAC40-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    6VAC40-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 6VAC40-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    6VAC40-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    6VAC40-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    6VAC40-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    6VAC40-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    6VAC40-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    6VAC40-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    6VAC40-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1437; Filed September 3, 2008, 12:03 p.m. 
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
FORENSIC SCIENCE BOARD
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 6VAC40-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 6VAC40-10-10 through 6VAC40-10-90).
    6VAC40-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 6VAC40-11-10 through 6VAC40-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 9.1-1110 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 30, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Michele M. Gowdy, Department Counsel,  Department of Forensic Science, 700 North Fifth Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 786-6848, or email michele.gowdy@dfs.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public meeting  shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v) providing  for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to provide  professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated rulemaking  panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and (vi)  providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    6VAC40-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public involvement  in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the Forensic  Science Board or the Department of Forensic Science. This chapter does not  apply to regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from  the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code  of Virginia).
    6VAC40-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Forensic Science Board or the  Department of Forensic Science, which is the unit of state government empowered  by the agency's basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions  specified in this chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by  the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint venture,  government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial entity and  any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    6VAC40-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    6VAC40-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 6VAC40-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    6VAC40-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    6VAC40-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    6VAC40-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    6VAC40-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    6VAC40-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    6VAC40-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    6VAC40-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1437; Filed September 3, 2008, 12:03 p.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-80. Solid Waste  Management Regulations (amending 9VAC20-80-10, 9VAC20-80-60,  9VAC20-80-250, 9VAC20-80-260, 9VAC20-80-270, 9VAC20-80-280, 9VAC20-80-485,  9VAC20-80-500, 9VAC20-80-510).
    Statutory  Authority:  § 10.1-1402 of the Code of Virginia; 42 USC §6941 et seq.; 40 CFR Part 258.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Leslie D. Beckwith, Department of  Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 10009, Richmond, VA 23240, telephone (804)  698-4123, FAX (804) 698-4327, or email ldbeckwith@deq.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments (i) clarify the closure definition and  procedure with particular reference to § 10.1-1413.2 of the Code of Virginia  landfills; (ii) address plans and actions related to the management of landfill  gas and odors; (iii) provide an option for facilities to apply for research,  design, and development; and (iv) streamline public participation requirements  by deleting automatic public hearings for certain permit or amendment issuance  process. Secondly, the proposed amendments broaden the definition of airport to  include military airfields and are intended to ensure consistent wording in  sections concerning safety plans and permitting timeframes. Finally, the  amendments incorporate citations referencing two new statutory provisions for a  landfill location that is protective with respect to water supplies and  wetlands and certification of permit application consistency with local  government waste management plans.
    Minor changes have been made since the publication of the  proposed regulation. The amendments include changes in wording identified by  commenters and other minor text changes.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A  summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    Part I 
  Definitions 
    9VAC20-80-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Abandoned facility" means any inactive solid waste  management facility that has not met closure and post-closure requirements.
    "Active life" means the period of operation  beginning with the initial receipt of solid waste and ending at completion of  closure activities required by this chapter.
    "Active portion" means that part of a facility or  unit that has received or is receiving wastes and that has not been closed in  accordance with this chapter.
    "Agricultural waste" means all solid waste produced  from farming operations.
    "Airport" means, for the purpose of this chapter, a  military airfield or a public-use airport open to the public without prior  permission and without restrictions within the physical capacities of available  facilities.
    "Anaerobic digestion" means the decomposition of  organic materials in the absence of oxygen or under low oxygen concentration.  Anaerobic conditions occur when gaseous oxygen is depleted during respiration.  Anaerobic decomposition is not considered composting.
    "Applicant" means any and all persons seeking or  holding a permit under this chapter.
    "Aquifer" means a geologic formation, group of  formations, or a portion of a formation capable of yielding significant  quantities of ground water to wells or springs.
    "Areas susceptible to mass movement" means those  areas of influence (i.e., areas characterized as having an active or  substantial possibility of mass movement) where the movement of earth material  at, beneath, or adjacent to the solid waste management unit, because of natural  or man-induced events, results in the downslope transport of soil and rock  material by means of gravitational influence. Areas of mass movement include,  but are not limited to, landslides, avalanches, debris slides and flows, soil  fluction, block sliding, and rock fall.
    "Ash" means the fly ash or bottom ash residual  waste material produced from incineration or burning of solid waste or from any  fuel combustion.
    "Base flood" see "Hundred-year flood."
    "Bedrock" means the rock that underlies soil or  other unconsolidated, superficial material at a site.
    "Benchmark" means a permanent monument constructed  of concrete and set in the ground surface below the frostline with identifying  information clearly affixed to it. Identifying information will include the  designation of the benchmark as well as the elevation and coordinates on the  local or Virginia state grid system.
    "Beneficial use" means a use which is of benefit as  a substitute for natural or commercial products and does not contribute to  adverse effects on health or environment.
    "Bioremediation" means remediation of contaminated  media by the manipulation of biological organisms to enhance the degradation of  contaminants.
    "Bird hazard" means an increase in the likelihood  of bird/aircraft collisions that may cause damage to the aircraft or injury to  its occupants.
    "Board" means the Virginia Waste Management Board.
    "Bottom ash" means ash or slag that has been  discharged from the bottom of the combustion unit after combustion.
    "By-product material" means a material that is not  one of the primary products of a production process and is not solely or  separately produced by the production process. By-product does not include a  co-product that is produced for the general public's use and is ordinarily used  in the form that is produced by the process.
    "Captive industrial landfill" means an industrial  landfill that is located on property owned or controlled by the generator of  the waste disposed of in that landfill.
    "Clean wood" means uncontaminated natural or  untreated wood. Clean wood includes but is not limited to by-products of  harvesting activities conducted for forest management or commercial logging, or  mill residues consisting of bark, chips, edgings, sawdust, shavings or slabs.  It does not include wood that has been treated, adulterated, or chemically  changed in some way; treated with glues, binders, or resins; or painted,  stained or coated.
    "Closed facility" means a solid waste management  facility which has been properly secured in accordance with the requirements of  this chapter.
    "Closure" means the act of securing a solid  waste management facility pursuant to the requirements of this chapter that  point in time when a [ waste ] unit of a  permitted landfill is filled, capped, certified as final covered by a  professional engineer, inspected, and [ the closure activities  are accepted closure notification is performed ] by the  [ Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) department in  accordance with 9VAC20-80-250 E 6, 9VAC20-80-260 E 5, or 9VAC20-80-270 E 5 ].  
    "Coal combustion by-products" means residuals,  including fly ash, bottom ash, boiler slag, and flue gas emission control waste  produced by coal-fired electrical or steam generating units.
    "Combustion unit" means an incinerator, waste heat  recovery unit or boiler.
    "Commercial chemical product" means a chemical  substance which is manufactured or formulated for commercial, agricultural or manufacturing  use. This term includes a manufacturing chemical intermediate,  off-specification chemical product, which, if it met specification, would have  been a chemical product or intermediate. It includes any residues remaining in  the container or the inner liner removed from the container that has been used  to hold any of the above which have not been removed using the practices  commonly employed to remove materials from that type of container and has more  than one inch of residue remaining.
    "Commercial waste" means all solid waste generated  by establishments engaged in business operations other than manufacturing or  construction. This category includes, but is not limited to, solid waste  resulting from the operation of stores, markets, office buildings, restaurants  and shopping centers.
    "Community activity" means the normal activities  taking place within a local community to include residential, site preparation  and construction, government, commercial, institutional, and industrial  activities.
    "Compliance schedule" means a time schedule for  measures to be employed on a solid waste management facility which will  ultimately upgrade it to conform to this chapter.
    "Composite liner system" means a system designed  and constructed to meet the requirements of 9VAC20-80-250 B 9.
    "Compost" means a stabilized organic product  produced by a controlled aerobic decomposition process in such a manner that  the product can be handled, stored, and/or applied to the land without  adversely affecting public health or the environment. Composted sludge shall be  as specified in 12VAC5-581-630.
    "Composting" means the manipulation of the natural  aerobic process of decomposition of organic materials to increase the rate of  decomposition.
    "Conditionally exempt small quantity generator"  means a generator of hazardous waste who has been so defined in 40 CFR  261.5. That section applies to the persons who generate in that calendar month  no more than 100 kilograms of hazardous waste or 1 kilogram of acutely  hazardous waste.
    "Confined composting system" means a composting  process that takes place inside an enclosed container.
    "Construction/Demolition/Debris landfill" or  "CDD landfill" means a land burial facility engineered, constructed  and operated to contain and isolate construction waste, demolition waste,  debris waste, or combinations of the above solid wastes.
    "Construction waste" means solid waste which is  produced or generated during construction, remodeling, or repair of pavements,  houses, commercial buildings, and other structures. Construction wastes  include, but are not limited to lumber, wire, sheetrock, broken brick,  shingles, glass, pipes, concrete, paving materials, and metal and plastics if  the metal or plastics are a part of the materials of construction or empty  containers for such materials. Paints, coatings, solvents, asbestos, any  liquid, compressed gases or semi-liquids and garbage are not construction  wastes.
    "Contaminated soil" means, for the purposes of this  chapter, a soil that, as a result of a release or human usage, has absorbed or  adsorbed physical, chemical, or radiological substances at concentrations above  those consistent with nearby undisturbed soil or natural earth materials.
    "Container" means any portable device in which a  material is stored, transported, treated, or otherwise handled and includes  transport vehicles that are containers themselves (e.g., tank trucks) and  containers placed on or in a transport vehicle.
    "Containment structure" means a closed vessel such  as a tank or cylinder.
    "Convenience center" means a collection point for  the temporary storage of solid waste provided for individual solid waste  generators who choose to transport solid waste generated on their own premises  to an established centralized point, rather than directly to a disposal  facility. To be classified as a convenience center, the collection point may  not receive waste from collection vehicles that have collected waste from more  than one real property owner. A convenience center shall be on a system of  regularly scheduled collections.
    "Cover material" means compactable soil or other  approved material which is used to blanket solid waste in a landfill.
    "Debris waste" means wastes resulting from land  clearing operations. Debris wastes include, but are not limited to stumps, wood,  brush, leaves, soil, and road spoils.
    "Demolition waste" means that solid waste which is  produced by the destruction of structures and their foundations and includes  the same materials as construction wastes.
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Environmental Quality.
    "Director" means the Director of the Department of  Environmental Quality. For purposes of submissions to the director as specified  in the Waste Management Act, submissions may be made to the department.
    "Discard" means to abandon, dispose of, burn,  incinerate, accumulate, store or treat before or instead of being abandoned,  disposed of, burned or incinerated.
    "Discarded material" means a material which is:
    A. Abandoned by being:
    1. Disposed of;
    2. Burned or incinerated; or
    3. Accumulated, stored or treated (but not used, reused, or  reclaimed) before or in lieu of being abandoned by being disposed of, burned or  incinerated;
    B. Recycled used, reused, or reclaimed material as defined in  this part; or
    C. Considered inherently waste-like as described in  9VAC20-80-140 C.
    "Discharge of dredged material" means any release  of material that is excavated or dredged from the waters of the U.S. or state  waters and returned to the waters of the U.S. or state waters.
    "Disclosure statement" means a sworn statement or  affirmation, in such form as may be required by the director (see DEQ Form  DISC-01 and 02 (Disclosure Statement), which includes:
    1. The full name, business address, and social security number  of all key personnel;
    2. The full name and business address of any entity, other  than natural person, that collects, transports, treats, stores, or disposes of  solid waste or hazardous waste in which any key personnel holds an equity  interest of five percent or more;
    3. A description of the business experience of all key  personnel listed in the disclosure statement;
    4. A listing of all permits or licenses required for the  collection, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of solid waste or  hazardous waste issued to or held by any key personnel within the past 10  years;
    5. A listing and explanation of any notices of violation,  prosecution, administrative orders (whether by consent or otherwise), license  or permit suspensions or revocations, or enforcement actions of any sort by any  state, federal or local authority, within the past ten years, which are pending  or have concluded with a finding of violation or entry of a consent agreement,  regarding an allegation of civil or criminal violation of any law, regulation  or requirement relating to the collection, transportation, treatment, storage  or disposal of solid waste or hazardous waste by any key personnel, and an  itemized list of all convictions within ten years of key personnel of any of  the following crimes punishable as felonies under the laws of the Commonwealth  or the equivalent thereof under the laws of any other jurisdiction: murder;  kidnapping; gambling; robbery; bribery; extortion; criminal usury; arson;  burglary; theft and related crimes; forgery and fraudulent practices; fraud in  the offering, sale, or purchase of securities; alteration of motor vehicle  identification numbers; unlawful manufacture, purchase, use or transfer of  firearms; unlawful possession or use of destructive devices or explosives;  violation of the Drug Control Act, Chapter 34 (§54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title  54.1 of the Code of Virginia; racketeering; or violation of antitrust laws;
    6. A listing of all agencies outside the Commonwealth which  have regulatory responsibility over the applicant or have issued any  environmental permit or license to the applicant within the past ten years, in  connection with the applicant's collection, transportation, treatment, storage  or disposal of solid waste or hazardous waste;
    7. Any other information about the applicant and the key  personnel that the director may require that reasonably relates to the  qualifications and ability of the key personnel or the applicant to lawfully  and competently operate a solid waste management facility in Virginia; and
    8. The full name and business address of any member of the  local governing body or planning commission in which the solid waste management  facility is located or proposed to be located, who holds an equity interest in  the facility.
    "Displacement" means the relative movement of any  two sides of a fault measured in any direction.
    "Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection,  dumping, spilling, leaking or placing of any solid waste into or on any land or  water so that such solid waste or any constituent of it may enter the  environment or be emitted into the air or discharged into any waters.
    "EPA" means the United States Environmental  Protection Agency.
    "Existing unit" means any permitted solid waste  management unit that is receiving or has received solid waste and has not been  closed in accordance with the regulations in effect at the time of closure.  Waste placement in existing units shall be consistent with past operating  practices, the permit, or modified practices to ensure good management.
    "Facility" means solid waste management facility unless  the context clearly indicates otherwise.
    "Facility boundary" means the boundary of the solid  waste management facility approved to manage solid waste as defined in Part A  of the permit application. For unpermitted solid waste management facilities as  defined in 9VAC20-80-200, the facility boundary is the boundary of the property  where the solid waste is located. For facilities with a permit-by-rule (PBR)  the facility boundary is the boundary of the property where the permit-by-rule  activity occurs.
    "Facility structure" means any building, shed, or  utility or drainage line on the facility.
    "Fault" means a fracture or a zone of fractures in  any material along which strata on one side have been displaced with respect to  that on the other side.
    "Floodplain" means the lowland and relatively flat  areas adjoining inland and coastal waters, including lowlying areas of offshore  islands where flooding occurs.
    "Fly ash" means ash particulate collected from air  pollution attenuation devices on combustion units.
    "Food chain crops" means crops grown for human  consumption, tobacco, and crops grown for pasture and forage or feed for  animals whose products are consumed by humans.
    "Fossil fuel combustion products" means coal  combustion byproducts as defined in this regulation, coal combustion byproducts  generated at facilities with fluidized bed combustion technology, petroleum  coke combustion byproducts, byproducts from the combustion of oil, byproducts  from the combustion of natural gas, and byproducts from the combustion of  mixtures of coal and "other fuels" (i.e., co-burning of coal with  "other fuels" where coal is at least 50% of the total fuel). For  purposes of this definition, "other fuels" means waste-derived fuel  product, auto shredder fluff, wood wastes, coal mill rejects, peat, tall oil,  tire-derived fuel, deionizer resins, and used oil.
    "Free liquids" means liquids which readily separate  from the solid portion of a waste under ambient temperature and pressure as  determined by the Paint Filter Liquids Test, Method 9095, U.S. Environmental  Protection Agency, Publication SW-846.
    "Garbage" means readily putrescible discarded  materials composed of animal, vegetable or other organic matter.
    "Gas condensate" means the liquid generated as a  result of gas control or recovery processes at the solid waste management unit.
    "Ground water" means water below the land surface  in a zone of saturation.
    "Hazardous constituent" means a constituent of  solid waste listed in Part V, Table 5.1.
    "Hazardous waste" means a "hazardous  waste" as described by the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations  (9VAC20-60).
    "Holocene" means the most recent epoch of the  Quaternary period, extending from the end of the Pleistocene Epoch to the  present.
    "Home use" means the use of compost for growing  plants which is produced and used on a privately owned residential site.
    "Host agreement" means any lease, contract,  agreement or land use permit entered into or issued by the locality in which  the landfill is situated that includes terms or conditions governing the  operation of the landfill.
    "Household hazardous waste" means any waste  material derived from households (including single and multiple residences,  hotels, motels, bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic  grounds and day-use recreation areas) which, except for the fact that it is  derived from a household, would otherwise be classified as a hazardous waste in  accordance with 9VAC20-60.
    "Household waste" means any waste material,  including garbage, trash and refuse, derived from households. Households  include single and multiple residences, hotels and motels, bunkhouses, ranger  stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds and day-use recreation  areas. Household wastes do not include sanitary waste in septic tanks (septage)  which is regulated by other state agencies.
    "Hundred-year flood" means a flood that has a 1.0%  or greater chance of recurring in any given year or a flood of magnitude  equaled or exceeded on the average only once in a hundred years on the average over  a significantly long period.
    "Ignitable waste" means: (i) Liquids having a flash  point of less than 140°F (60°C) as determined by the methods specified in the  Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-60); (ii) nonliquids  liable to cause fires through friction, absorption of moisture, spontaneous  chemical change or retained heat from manufacturing or liable, when ignited, to  burn so vigorously and persistently as to create a hazard; (iii) ignitable  compressed gases, oxidizers, or both.
    "Incineration" means the controlled combustion of  solid waste for disposal.
    "Incinerator" means a facility or device designed  for the treatment of solid waste by combustion.
    "Industrial waste" means any solid waste generated  by manufacturing or industrial process that is not a regulated hazardous waste.  Such waste may include, but is not limited to, waste resulting from the  following manufacturing processes: Electric power generation;  fertilizer/agricultural chemicals; food and related products/by-products; inorganic  chemicals; iron and steel manufacturing; leather and leather products;  nonferrous metals manufacturing/foundries; organic chemicals; plastics and  resins manufacturing; pulp and paper industry; rubber and miscellaneous plastic  products; stone, glass, clay, and concrete products; textile manufacturing;  transportation equipment; and water treatment. This term does not include  mining waste or oil and gas waste.
    "Industrial waste landfill" means a solid waste  landfill used primarily for the disposal of a specific industrial waste or a  waste which is a by-product of a production process.
    "Inert waste" means solid waste which is  physically, chemically and biologically stable from further degradation and  considered to be nonreactive. Inert wastes include rubble, concrete, broken  bricks, bricks, and blocks.
    "Injection well" means, for the purposes of this  chapter, a well or bore hole into which fluids are injected into selected  geological horizons.
    "Institutional waste" means all solid waste  emanating from institutions such as, but not limited to, hospitals, nursing  homes, orphanages, and public or private schools. It can include regulated  medical waste from health care facilities and research facilities that must be  managed as a regulated medical waste.
    "Karst terranes" means areas where karst  topography, with its characteristic surface and subterranean features, is  developed as the result of dissolution of limestone, dolomite, or other soluble  rock. Characteristic physiographic features present in karst terranes include,  but are not limited to, sinkholes, sinking streams, caves, large springs, and  blind valleys.
    "Key personnel" means the applicant itself and any  person employed by the applicant in a managerial capacity, or empowered to make  discretionary decisions, with respect to the solid waste or hazardous waste  operations of the applicant in Virginia, but shall not include employees  exclusively engaged in the physical or mechanical collection, transportation,  treatment, storage, or disposal of solid or hazardous waste and such other  employees as the director may designate by regulation. If the applicant has not  previously conducted solid waste or hazardous waste operations in Virginia, the  term also includes any officer, director, partner of the applicant, or any  holder of five percent or more of the equity or debt of the applicant. If any  holder of five percent or more of the equity or debt of the applicant or of any  key personnel is not a natural person, the term includes all key personnel of  that entity, provided that where such entity is a chartered lending institution  or a reporting company under the Federal Security and Exchange Act of 1934, the  term does not include key personnel of such entity. Provided further that the  term means the chief executive officer of any agency of the United States or of  any agency or political subdivision of the Commonwealth, and all key personnel  of any person, other than a natural person, that operates a landfill or other  facility for the disposal, treatment, or storage of nonhazardous solid waste  under contract with or for one of those governmental entities.
    "Lagoon" means a body of water or surface  impoundment designed to manage or treat waste water.
    "Land application unit" means an area where solid  or liquid wastes are applied onto or incorporated into the soil surface  (excluding manure spreading operations) for agricultural purposes or for  treatment or disposal.
    "Landfill" means a sanitary landfill, an industrial  waste landfill, or a construction/demolition/debris landfill.
    "Landfill disposal area" means the area within the  facility boundary of a landfill in which solid waste is buried or permitted for  actual burial.
    "Landfill gas" means gas generated as a byproduct  of the decomposition of organic materials in a landfill. Landfill gas consists  primarily of methane and carbon dioxide.
    "Lateral expansion" means a horizontal expansion of  the waste management unit boundary.
    "Leachate" means a liquid that has passed through  or emerged from solid waste and contains soluble, suspended or miscible  materials from such waste. Leachate and any material with which it is mixed is  solid waste; except that leachate that is pumped from a collection tank for  transportation to disposal in an off-site facility is regulated as septage,  leachate discharged into a waste water collection system is regulated as  industrial waste water and leachate that has contaminated ground water is  regulated as contaminated ground water.
    "Lead acid battery" means, for the purposes of this  chapter, any wet cell battery.
    "Lift" means the daily landfill layer of compacted  solid waste plus the cover material.
    "Liquid waste" means any waste material that is  determined to contain "free liquids" as defined by this chapter.
    "Lithified earth material" means all rock, including  all naturally occurring and naturally formed aggregates or masses of minerals  or small particles of older rock that formed by crystallization of magma or by  induration of loose sediments. This term does not include man-made materials,  such as fill, concrete, and asphalt, or unconsolidated earth materials, soil,  or regolith lying at or near the earth's surface.
    "Litter" means, for purposes of this chapter, any  solid waste that is discarded or scattered about a solid waste management  facility outside the immediate working area.
    "Lower explosive limit" means the lowest  concentration by volume of a mixture of explosive gases in air that will  propagate a flame at 25°C and at atmospheric pressure.
    "Manufacturing or mining by-product" means a  material that is not one of the primary products of a particular manufacturing  or mining operation, but is a secondary and incidental product of the  particular operation and would not be solely and separately manufactured or  mined by the particular manufacturing or mining operation. The term does not  include an intermediate manufacturing or mining product which results from one  of the steps in a manufacturing or mining process and is typically processed  through the next process step within a short time.
    "Materials recovery facility" means a solid waste  management facility for the collection, processing and recovery of material  such as metals from solid waste or for the production of a fuel from solid  waste. This does not include the production of a waste-derived fuel product.
    "Maximum horizontal acceleration in lithified earth  material" means the maximum expected horizontal acceleration depicted on a  seismic hazard map, with a 90% or greater probability that the acceleration  will not be exceeded in 250 years, or the maximum expected horizontal  acceleration based on a site-specific seismic risk assessment.
    "Monitoring" means all methods, procedures and  techniques used to systematically analyze, inspect and collect data on  operational parameters of the facility or on the quality of air, ground water,  surface water, and soils.
    "Monitoring wells" means a well point below the  ground surface for the purpose of obtaining periodic water samples from ground  water for quantitative and qualitative analysis.
    "Mulch" means woody waste consisting of stumps,  trees, limbs, branches, bark, leaves and other clean wood waste which has  undergone size reduction by grinding, shredding, or chipping, and is  distributed to the general public for landscaping purposes or other  horticultural uses except composting as defined and regulated under this  chapter or the Vegetative Waste Management and Yard Waste Composting  Regulations (9VAC20-101).
    "Municipal solid waste" means that waste which is  normally composed of residential, commercial, and institutional solid waste and  residues derived from combustion of these wastes.
    "New solid waste management facility" means a  facility or a portion of a facility that was not included in a previous  determination of site suitability (Part A approval).
    "Nonsudden events" mean those events continuing for  an extended time period or for long term releases of contaminants into the  environment which take place over time such as leachate contamination of ground  water.
    "Nuisance" means an activity which unreasonably  interferes with an individual's or the public's comfort, convenience or  enjoyment such that it interferes with the rights of others by causing damage,  annoyance, or inconvenience.
    "Off-site" means any site that does not meet the  definition of on-site as defined in this part.
    "On-site" means the same or geographically  contiguous property, which may be divided by public or private right-of-way,  provided the entrance and exit to the facility are controlled by the owner or  the operator of the facility. Noncontiguous properties owned by the same  person, but connected by a right-of-way which he controls and to which the  public does not have access, are also considered on-site property.
    "Open burning" means the combustion of solid waste  without:
    A. 1. Control of combustion air to maintain  adequate temperature for efficient combustion;
    B. 2. Containment of the combustion reaction in  an enclosed device to provide sufficient residence time and mixing for complete  combustion; and
    C. 3. Control of the combustion products'  emission.
    "Open dump" means a site on which any solid waste  is placed, discharged, deposited, injected, dumped or spilled so as to present  a threat of a release of harmful substances into the environment or present a  hazard to human health. Such a site is subject to the Open Dump Criteria in  9VAC20-80-180.
    "Operating Record" means records required to be  maintained in accordance with the facility permit or this part (see  9VAC20-80-570).
    "Operator" means the person responsible for the  overall operation and site management of a solid waste management facility.
    "Owner" means the person who owns a solid waste  management facility or part of a solid waste management facility.
    "Permit" means the written permission of the  director to own, operate or construct a solid waste management facility.
    "PCB" means any chemical substance that is limited  to the biphenyl molecule that has been chlorinated to varying degrees or any  combination of substances which contain such substance (see 40 CFR 761.3).
    "Person" means an individual, corporation,  partnership, association, a governmental body, a municipal corporation or any  other legal entity.
    "Point source" means any discernible, confined and  discrete conveyance, including but not limited to any pipe, ditch, channel,  tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure, container, rolling stock, vessel or  other floating craft, from which pollutants are or may be discharged. Return  flows from irrigated agriculture are not included.
    "Pollutant" means any substance which causes or  contributes to, or may cause or contribute to, environmental degradation when  discharged into the environment.
    "Poor foundation conditions" means those areas  where features exist which indicate that a natural or man-induced event may  result in inadequate foundation support for the structural components of a  solid waste management unit.
    "Post-closure" means the requirements placed upon  solid waste disposal facilities after closure to ensure environmental and  public health safety for a specified number of years after closure.
    "Private solid waste disposal facility" means any  solid waste disposal facility including, without limitations, all solid waste  disposal facilities other than facilities owned or operated by a local  government, combination of local governments or public service authority.
    "Processing" means preparation, treatment, or  conversion of waste by a series of actions, changes, or functions that bring  about a desired end result.
    "Progressive cover" means cover material placed  over the working face of a solid waste disposal facility advancing over the  deposited waste as new wastes are added keeping the exposed area to a minimum.
    "Public land" means any land, used for any purpose,  that is leased or owned by a governmental entity.
    "Putrescible waste" means solid waste which contains  organic material capable of being decomposed by micro-organisms and cause  odors.
    "Qualified ground water scientist" means a  scientist or engineer who has received a baccalaureate or post-graduate degree  in the natural sciences or engineering and has sufficient training and  experience in ground water hydrology and related fields as may be demonstrated  by state registration, professional certifications, or completion of accredited  university programs that enable that individual to make sound professional  judgements regarding ground water monitoring, contaminant fate and transport,  and corrective action.
    "RCRA" means the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as  amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (42 USC §6901 et  seq.), the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, and any other  applicable amendments to these laws.
    "RDF (Refuse Derived Fuel)" means solid waste that  is processed to be used as fuel to produce energy.
    "Reclaimed material" means a material that is  processed or reprocessed to recover a usable product or is regenerated to a  usable form.
    "Refuse" means all solid waste products having the  character of solids rather than liquids and which are composed wholly or  partially of materials such as garbage, trash, rubbish, litter, residues from  clean up of spills or contamination, or other discarded materials.
    "Registered professional engineer" means an  engineer licensed to practice engineering in the Commonwealth as defined by the  rules and regulations set forth by the Board of Architects, Professional  Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Landscape Architects (18VAC10-20).
    "Regulated hazardous waste" means a solid waste  that is a hazardous waste, as defined in the Virginia Hazardous Waste  Management Regulations (9VAC20-60), that is not excluded from those regulations  as a hazardous waste.
    "Regulated medical waste" means solid wastes so  defined by the Regulated Medical Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-120) as  promulgated by the Virginia Waste Management Board.
    "Release" means, for the purpose of this chapter,  any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, discharging,  injection, escaping, leaching, dumping, or disposing into the environment solid  wastes or hazardous constituents of solid wastes (including the abandonment or  discarding of barrels, containers, and other closed receptacles containing  solid waste). This definition does not include: any release which results in  exposure to persons solely within a workplace; release of source, by-product or  special nuclear material from a nuclear incident, as those terms are defined in  the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 923); and the normal application of  fertilizer. For the purpose of this chapter, release also means substantial  threat of release.
    "Remediation waste" means all solid waste,  including all media (ground water, surface water, soils and sediments) and  debris, that are managed for the purpose of remediating a site under Part IV  (9VAC20-80-170 et seq.) or Part V (9VAC20-80-240 et seq.) of this  chapter or under the Voluntary Remediation Regulations (9VAC20-160). For a  given facility, remediation wastes may originate only from within the boundary  of that facility, and may include wastes managed as a result of remediation  beyond the boundary of the facility. Hazardous wastes as defined in 9VAC20-60,  as well as "new" or "as generated" wastes, are excluded  from this definition.
    "Remediation waste management unit" or  "RWMU" means an area within a facility that is designated by the  director for the purpose of implementing remedial activities required under  Part IV or V of this chapter or under the Voluntary Remediation Regulations  (9VAC20-160). An RWMU shall only be used for the management of remediation  wastes pursuant to implementing such remedial activities at the facility.
    "Residential waste" means household waste.
    "Resource recovery system" means a solid waste  management system which provides for collection, separation, use, reuse, or  reclamation of solid wastes, recovery of energy and disposal of non-recoverable  waste residues.
    "Rubbish" means combustible or slowly putrescible  discarded materials which include but are not limited to trees, wood, leaves,  trimmings from shrubs or trees, printed matter, plastic and paper products,  grass, rags and other combustible or slowly putrescible materials not included  under the term "garbage."
    "Runoff" means any rainwater, leachate, or other  liquid that drains over land from any part of a solid waste management  facility.
    "Runon" means any rainwater, wastewater, leachate,  or other liquid that drains over land onto any part of the solid waste  management facility.
    "Salvage" means the authorized, controlled removal  of waste materials from a solid waste management facility.
    "Sanitary landfill" means an engineered land burial  facility for the disposal of household waste which is so located, designed,  constructed and operated to contain and isolate the waste so that it does not  pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the  environment. A sanitary landfill also may receive other types of solid wastes,  such as commercial solid waste, nonhazardous sludge, hazardous waste from  conditionally exempt small quantity generators, construction demolition debris,  and nonhazardous industrial solid waste.
    "Saturated zone" means that part of the earth's  crust in which all voids are filled with water.
    "Scavenging" means the unauthorized or uncontrolled  removal of waste materials from a solid waste management facility.
    "Scrap metal" means bits and pieces of metal parts  such as bars, rods, wire, empty containers, or metal pieces that may be  combined together with bolts or soldering which are discarded material and can  be used, reused, or reclaimed.
    "Secondary containment" means an enclosure into  which a container or tank is placed for the purpose of preventing discharge of  wastes to the environment.
    "Seismic impact zone" means an area with a 10% or  greater probability that the maximum horizontal acceleration in lithified earth  material, expressed as a percentage of the earth's gravitational pull (g), will  exceed 0.10g in 250 years.
    "Semiannual" means an interval corresponding to  approximately 180 days. For the purposes of scheduling monitoring activities,  sampling within 30 days of the 180-day interval will be considered semiannual.
    "Site" means all land and structures, other  appurtenances, and improvements on them used for treating, storing, and  disposing of solid waste. This term includes adjacent land within the facility  boundary used for the utility systems such as repair, storage, shipping or processing  areas, or other areas incident to the management of solid waste.
    (Note: This term includes all sites whether they are planned  and managed facilities or are open dumps.)
    "Sludge" means any solid, semi-solid or liquid  waste generated from a municipal, commercial or industrial wastewater treatment  plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility  exclusive of treated effluent from a wastewater treatment plant.
    "Small landfill" means a landfill that disposed of  100 tons/day or less of solid waste during a representative period prior to  October 9, 1993, and did not dispose of more than an average of 100 tons/day of  solid waste each month between October 9, 1993, and April 9, 1994.
    "Solid waste" means any of those materials defined  as 'solid waste' in Part III (9VAC20-80-140 et seq.) of this chapter.
    "Solid waste boundary" means the outermost  perimeter of the solid waste (vertical projection on a horizontal plane) as it  would exist at completion of the disposal activity within the facility  boundary.
    "Solid waste disposal area" means the area within  the facility boundary of a landfill facility in which solid waste is buried.
    "Solid waste disposal facility" means a solid waste  management facility at which solid waste will remain after closure.
    "Solid waste management facility  ("SWMF")" means a site used for planned treating, storing, or  disposing of solid waste. A facility may consist of several treatment, storage,  or disposal units.
    "Source separation" means separation of recyclable  materials by the waste generator of materials that are collected for use, reuse  or reclamation.
    "Special wastes" mean solid wastes that are  difficult to handle, require special precautions because of hazardous  properties or the nature of the waste creates waste management problems in  normal operations. (See Part VIII (9VAC20-80-630 et seq.) of this chapter.)
    "Speculatively accumulated material" means any  material that is accumulated before being used, reused, or reclaimed or in  anticipation of potential use, reuse, or reclamation. Materials are not being  accumulated speculatively when they can be used, reused or reclaimed, have a  feasible means of use, reuse, or reclamation available and 75% of the materials  accumulated are being removed from the facility annually.
    "Stabilized compost" means a compost that has  passed the stability criteria outlined in 9VAC20-80-330 D 2 a.
    "State solid waste management plan ("State  Plan" or "Plan")" means the plan of the Virginia Waste  Management Board that sets forth solid waste management goals and objectives  and describes planning and regulatory concepts to be employed by the  Commonwealth.
    "State waters" means all water, on the surface and  under the ground, wholly or partially within, or bordering the Commonwealth, or  within its jurisdiction.
    "Storage" means the holding of waste, at the end of  which the waste is treated, disposed, or stored elsewhere.
    "Structural components of a solid waste disposal  unit" means liners, leachate collection systems, final covers,  run-on/run-off systems, and any other component used in the construction and  operation of the solid waste disposal facility that is necessary for protection  of human health and the environment.
    "Structural fill" means an engineered fill with a  projected beneficial end use, constructed using soil or coal combustion  by-products spread and compacted with proper equipment and covered with a  vegetated soil cap.
    "Sudden event" means a one time, single event such  as a sudden collapse or a sudden, quick release of contaminants to the  environment. An example would be the sudden loss of leachate from an  impoundment into a surface stream caused by failure of a containment structure.
    "Surface impoundment or impoundment" means a  facility or part of a facility that is a natural topographic depression,  man-made excavation, or diked area formed primarily of earthen materials  (although it may be lined with man-made materials), that is designed to hold an  accumulation of liquid wastes or wastes containing free liquids and that is not  an injection well.
    "SW-846" means Test Methods for Evaluating Solid  Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods, EPA Publication SW-846, Second Edition, 1982  as amended by Update I (April, 1984), and Update II (April, 1985) and the third  edition, November, 1986, as amended.
    "Tank" means a stationary device, designed to  contain an accumulation of liquid or semi-liquid components of solid waste that  is constructed primarily of non-earthen materials that provide structural  support.
    "TEF" or "Toxicity Equivalency Factor"  means a factor developed to account for different toxicities of structural  isomers of polychlorinated dibenzodioxins and dibenzofurans and to relate them  to the toxicity of 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro dibenzo-p-dioxin.
    "Terminal" means the location of transportation  facilities such as classification yards, docks, airports, management offices,  storage sheds, and freight or passenger stations, where solid waste that is  being transported may be loaded, unloaded, transferred, or temporarily stored.
    "Thermal treatment" means the treatment of solid  waste in a device which uses elevated temperature as the primary means to  change the chemical, physical, or biological character, or composition of the  solid waste.
    "Tire chip" means a material processed from waste  tires that is a nominal two square inches in size, and ranges from 1/4 inches  to 4 inches in any dimension. Tire chips contain no wire protruding more than  1/4 inch.
    "Tire shred" means a material processed from waste  tires that is a nominal 40 square inches in size, and ranges from 4 inches to  10 inches in any dimension.
    "Transfer station" means any solid waste storage or  collection facility at which solid waste is transferred from collection  vehicles to haulage vehicles for transportation to a central solid waste  management facility for disposal, incineration or resource recovery.
    "Trash" means combustible and noncombustible  discarded materials and is used interchangeably with the term rubbish.
    "Treatment" means, for the purpose of this chapter,  any method, technique or process, including but not limited to incineration,  designed to change the physical, chemical or biological character or  composition of any waste to render it more stable, safer for transport, or more  amenable to use, reuse, reclamation or recovery.
    "Unadulterated wood" means wood that is not  painted, nor treated with chemicals such as preservatives nor mixed with other  wastes.
    "Underground source of drinking water" means an  aquifer or its portion:
    A. Which contains water suitable for human consumption; or
    B. In which the ground water contains less than 10,000  mg/liter total dissolved solids.
    "Unit" means a discrete area of land used for the  management of solid waste.
    "Unstable area" means a location that is  susceptible to natural or human-induced events or forces capable of impairing  the integrity of some or all of the landfill structural components responsible  for preventing releases from a landfill. Unstable areas can include poor  foundation conditions, areas susceptible to mass movements, and Karst terranes.
    "Uppermost aquifer" means the geologic formation  nearest the natural ground surface that is an aquifer, as well as, lower  aquifers that are hydraulically interconnected with this aquifer within the  facility boundary.
    "Used or reused material" means a material which is  either:
    A. Employed as an ingredient (including use as an  intermediate) in a process to make a product, excepting those materials  possessing distinct components that are recovered as separate end products; or
    B. Employed in a particular function or application as an  effective substitute for a commercial product or natural resources.
    "Vector" means a living animal, insect or other  arthropod which transmits an infectious disease from one organism to another.
    "Vegetative waste" means decomposable materials  generated by yard and lawn care or land clearing activities and includes, but  is not limited to, leaves, grass trimmings, woody wastes such as shrub and tree  prunings, bark, limbs, roots, and stumps. For more detail see 9VAC20-101.
    "Vertical design capacity" means the maximum design  elevation specified in the facility's permit or if none is specified in the  permit, the maximum elevation based on a 3:1 slope from the waste management  unit boundary.
    "VPDES ("Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination  System")" means the Virginia system for the issuance of permits  pursuant to the Permit Regulation (9VAC25-31), the State Water Control Law, and  §402 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. USC §1251 et seq.).
    "Washout" means carrying away of solid waste by  waters of the base flood.
    "Waste derived fuel product" means a solid waste or  combination of solid wastes that have been treated (altered physically,  chemically, or biologically) to produce a fuel product with a minimum heating  value of 5,000 BTU/lb. Solid wastes used to produce a waste derived fuel  product must have a heating value, or act as binders, and may not be added to  the fuel for the purpose of disposal. Waste ingredients may not be listed or  characteristic hazardous wastes. The fuel product must be stable at ambient  temperature, and not degraded by exposure to the elements. This material may  not be "Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF)" as defined in 9VAC5-40-890.
    "Waste management unit boundary" means the vertical  surface located at the boundary line of the unit. This vertical surface extends  down into the uppermost aquifer.
    "Waste needing special handling (special waste)"  means any solid waste which requires extra or unusual management when  introduced into a solid waste management facility to insure protection of human  health or the environment.
    "Waste pile" means any non-containerized  accumulation of nonflowing, solid waste that is used for treatment or storage.
    "Waste tire" means a tire that has been discarded  because it is no longer suitable for its original intended purpose because of  wear, damage or defect. (See 9VAC20-150 for other definitions dealing with the  waste tire program.)
    "Wastewaters" are, for the purpose of this chapter,  wastes that contain less than 1.0% by weight total organic carbon (TOC) and  less than 1.0% by weight total suspended solids (TSS).
    "Water pollution" means such alteration of the  physical, chemical, or biological properties of any state water as will or is  likely to create a nuisance or render such waters:
    A. Harmful or detrimental or injurious to the public health,  safety, or welfare, or to the health of animals, fish, or aquatic life or  plants;
    B. Unsuitable, with reasonable treatment, for use as present  or possible future sources of public water supply; or
    C. Unsuitable for recreational, commercial, industrial,  agricultural, or other reasonable uses, provided that:
    1. An alteration of the physical, chemical, or biological  properties of state waters or a discharge or deposit of sewage, industrial  wastes, or other wastes to state waters by any owner which by itself is not  sufficient to cause pollution but which in combination with such alteration or  discharge or deposit to state waters by other persons is sufficient to cause  pollution;
    2. The discharge of untreated sewage by any person into state  waters; and
    3. The contribution to the degradation of water quality  standards duly established by the State Water Control Board;
    are "pollution" for the terms and purposes of this  chapter.
    "Water table" means the upper surface of the zone  of saturation in ground waters in which the hydrostatic pressure is equal to  the atmospheric pressure.
    "Waters of the United States or waters of the U.S."  means:
    A. All waters which are currently used, were used in the past,  or may be susceptible to use in interstate or foreign commerce, including all  waters which are subject to the ebb and flow of the tide;
    B. All interstate waters, including interstate  "wetlands";
    C. All other waters such as intrastate lakes, rivers, streams  (including intermittent streams), mud flats, sand flats, "wetlands,"  sloughs, prairie potholes, wet meadows, playa lakes, or natural ponds the use,  degradation, or destruction of which would affect or could affect interstate or  foreign commerce including:
    1. Any such waters which are or could be used by interstate or  foreign travelers for recreational or other purposes;
    2. Any such waters from which fish or shellfish are or could  be taken and sold in interstate or foreign commerce;
    3. Any such waters which are used or could be used for industrial  purposes by industries in interstate commerce;
    4. All impoundments of waters otherwise defined as waters of  the United States under this definition;
    5. Tributaries of waters identified in subdivisions 1 through  4 of this definition;
    6. The territorial sea; and
    7. Wetlands adjacent to waters (other than waters that are  themselves wetlands) identified in subdivisions 1 through 6 of this definition.
    "Wetlands" mean those areas that are defined by the  federal regulations under 33 CFR Part 328.
    "White goods" means any stoves, washers, hot water  heaters, and other large appliances.
    "Working face" means that area within a landfill  which is actively receiving solid waste for compaction and cover.
    "Yard waste" means decomposable waste materials  generated by yard and lawn care and includes leaves, grass trimmings, brush,  wood chips, and shrub and tree trimmings. Yard waste shall not include roots or  stumps that exceed six inches in diameter.
    9VAC20-80-60. Applicability of chapter.
    A. This chapter applies to all persons who manage or dispose  of solid wastes as defined in Part III (9VAC20-80-140 et seq.) of this chapter.
    B. All facilities that were permitted prior to March 15,  1993, and upon which solid waste has been disposed of prior to October 9, 1993,  may continue to receive solid waste until they have reached their vertical  design capacity or until the closure date established pursuant to § 10.1-1413.2  of the Code of Virginia, in [ Tables Table ]  2.1 [ and 2.2, ] provided:
    Note: Municipal solid waste landfills (sanitary landfills)  are subject to prioritization and a schedule for closure pursuant to  § 10.1-1413.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    1. The facility is in compliance with the requirements for  liners and leachate control in effect at the time of permit issuance.
    2. On or before October 9, 1993, the owner or operator of the  solid waste management facility has submitted to the director:
    a. An acknowledgment that the owner or operator is familiar  with state and federal law and regulations pertaining to solid waste management  facilities operating after October 9, 1993, including post-closure care,  corrective action and financial responsibility requirements;
    b. A statement signed by a registered professional engineer  that he has reviewed the regulations established by the department for solid  waste management facilities, including the open dump criteria contained  therein, that he has inspected the facility and examined the monitoring data  compiled for the facility in accordance with applicable regulations and that,  on the basis of his inspection and review, he has concluded:
    (1) That the facility is not an open dump;
    (2) That the facility does not pose a substantial present or  potential hazard to human health and the environment; and
    (3) That the leachate or residues from the facility do not  pose a threat of contamination or pollution of the air, surface water or ground  water in a manner constituting an open dump or resulting in a substantial  present or potential hazard to human health or the environment; and
    c. A statement signed by the owner or operator:
    (1) That the facility complies with applicable financial  assurance regulations; and
    (2) Estimating when the facility will reach its vertical  design capacity.
    3. Enlargement or closure of [ these ]  facilities [ . shall conform with the following  subconditions: ] 
    a. The facility may not be enlarged prematurely to  avoid compliance with this chapter when such enlargement is not consistent with  past operating practices, the permit or modified operating practices to ensure  good management.
    b. The facility shall not dispose of solid waste in any  portion of a disposal area that has received final cover or has not received  waste for a period of one year, in accordance with 9VAC20-80-250 E. The  facility shall notify the department in writing within 30 days when an area has  received final cover or has not received waste for a one-year period, in  accordance with 9VAC20-80-250 E. [ c. A However, a ]  facility may apply for a permit, and if approved, can construct and operate  a new cell that overlays ("piggybacks") over a closed area in  accordance with the permit requirements of 9VAC20-80-250.
    [ d. c. ] The facilities  subject to the restrictions in 9VAC20-80-60 B are listed in [ Tables  Table ] 2.1 [ and 2.2 ]. The  closure dates have already been established in: Final Prioritization and  Closure Schedule for HB 1205 Disposal Areas (DEQ, September 2001). The  publication of these tables is for the convenience of the regulated community  and does not change established dates. Any facility including, but not limited  to, those listed in Table [ 2.2 2.1 ],  must cease operation if that facility meets any of the open dump criteria  listed in 9VAC20-80-180.
    [ e. d. ] Those facilities  assigned a closure date in accordance with § 10.1-1413.2 of the Code of Virginia  shall designate on a map, plat, diagram or other engineered drawing, areas in  which waste will be disposed [ until the latest cessation of  waste acceptance date as listed in Table 2.2 is achieved in  accordance with Table 2.1 ]. This map or plat shall be placed in  the operating record and a copy shall be submitted [ upon request ]  to the department [ for its records in order to  track the progress of closure of these facilities. If the facility already has  provided this information under 9VAC20-80-250, then the facility may refer to  that information ].
     
         
                 | [ TABLE 2.1 House Bill (HB) 1205 Landfills in Postclosure Care
 | 
       | Solid Waste Permit Number
 | Site Name
 | Location
 | Department Regional Office1
 | Date Postclosure Care Commenced
 | 
       | 21
 | Jolivue Landfill
 | Augusta County 
 | VRO
 | 12/16/05
 | 
       | 62
 | Rockingham County Sanitary Landfill
 | Rockingham County
 | VRO
 | 06/24/05
 | 
       | 125
 | Ivy Sanitary Landfill
 | Albemarle County
 | VRO
 | 08/06/04
 | 
       | 314
 | Hanover County – 301 Solid Waste Facility
 | Hanover County
 | PRO
 | 01/12/04
 | 
       | 397
 | Montgomery Regional Solid Waste Authority Sanitary    Landfill
 | Montgomery County
 | WCRO
 | 04/22/02
 | 
       | 469
 | Shenandoah County Sanitary Landfill
 | Shenandoah County
 | VRO
 | 01/07/05
 | 
       | 5893
 (formerly #74)
 | R-Board Sanitary Landfill
 | Stafford County
 | NVRO
 | 08/29/02]
 | 
  
         
          
                 | TABLE [ 2.22.1 ]Final Prioritization and Closure Schedule for House Bill (HB) 1205 Disposal    Areas
 | 
       | Solid Waste Permit Number    and Site Name | Location | Department Regional Office1 | Latest Cessation of Waste    Acceptance Date2 | 
       | 429 - Fluvanna County    Sanitary Landfill | Fluvanna County | VRO | 12/31/07 | 
       | 92 - Halifax County    Sanitary Landfill3 | Halifax County | SCRO | 12/31/2007 | 
       | 49 - Martinsville Landfill | City of Martinsville | WCRO | 12/31/2007 | 
       | 14 - Mecklenburg County    Landfill | Mecklenburg County | SCRO | 12/31/2007 | 
       | 228 - Petersburg City    Landfill3 | City of Petersburg | PRO | 12/31/2007 | 
       | 31 - South Boston Sanitary    Landfill | Town of South Boston | SCRO | 12/31/2007 | 
       | 204 - Waynesboro City    Landfill | City of Waynesboro | VRO | 12/31/2007 | 
       | 91 - Accomack County    Landfill – Bobtown South | Accomack County | TRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 580 - Big Bethel Landfill | City of Hampton | TRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 182 - Caroline County Landfill | Caroline County | NVRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 149 - Fauquier County    Landfill | Fauquier County | NVRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 405 - Greensville County    Landfill | Greensville County | PRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 29 - Independent Hill Landfill3 | Prince William County | NVRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 1 - Loudoun County Sanitary    Landfill | Loudoun County | NVRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 194 - Louisa County    Sanitary Landfill | Louisa County | NVRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 227 - Lunenburg County    Sanitary Landfill | Lunenburg County | SCRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 507 - Northampton County    Landfill | Northampton County | TRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 90 - Orange County Landfill | Orange County | NVRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 75 - Rockbridge County    Sanitary Landfill | Rockbridge County | VRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 23 - Scott County Landfill | Scott County | SWRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 587 - Shoosmith Sanitary Landfill3 | Chesterfield County | PRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 417 - Southeastern Public Service Authority [ Landfill Landfill3 ]     | City of Suffolk | TRO | 12/31/2012 | 
       | 461 - Accomack County    Landfill #2 | Accomack County | TRO | 12/31/2020 | 
       | 86 - Appomattox County Sanitary Landfill | Appomattox County | SCRO | 12/31/2020 | 
       | 582 - Botetourt County    Landfill3 | Botetourt County | WCRO | 12/31/2020 | 
       | 498 - Bristol City Landfill | City of Bristol | SWRO | 12/31/2020 | 
       | 72 - Franklin County    Landfill | Franklin County | WCRO | 12/31/2020 | 
       | 398 - Virginia Beach    Landfill #2 – Mount Trashmore II3 | City of Virginia Beach | TRO | 12/31/2020 | 
  
    1Department  of Environmental Quality Regional Offices:
           |   | NVRO | Northern Virginia Regional Office | 
       |   | PRO | Piedmont Regional Office | 
       |   | SCRO | South Central Regional Office | 
       |   | SWRO | Southwest Regional Office | 
       |   | TRO | Tidewater Regional Office | 
       |   | VRO | Valley Regional Office | 
       |   | WCRO | West Central Regional Office | 
  
    2This date  means the latest date that the disposal area must cease accepting waste.
    3A portion  of these facilities operated under HB 1205 and another portion currently is  compliant with Subtitle D requirements.
    C. Facilities are authorized to expand laterally beyond the  waste boundaries existing on October 9, 1993, as follows:
    1. Existing captive industrial landfills.
    a. Existing nonhazardous industrial waste facilities that are  located on property owned or controlled by the generator of the waste disposed  of in the facility shall comply with all the provisions of this chapter except  as shown in subdivision 1 of this subsection.
    b. Facility owners or operators shall not be required to amend  their facility permit in order to expand a captive industrial landfill beyond  the waste boundaries existing on October 9, 1993. Liners and leachate collection  systems constructed beyond the waste boundaries existing on October 9, 1993  shall be constructed in accordance with the requirements in effect at the time  of permit issuance.
    c. Owners or operators of facilities which are authorized  under subdivision 1 of this subsection to accept waste for 
    disposal beyond the waste boundaries existing on October 9,  1993, shall ensure that such expanded disposal areas maintain setback distances  applicable to such facilities in 9VAC20-80-270 A.
    d. Facilities authorized for expansion in accordance with  subdivision 1 of this subsection are limited to expansion to the limits of the  permitted disposal area existing on October 9, 1993, or the facility boundary  existing on October 9, 1993, if no discrete disposal area is defined in the  facility permit.
    2. Other existing industrial waste landfills.
    a. Existing nonhazardous industrial waste facilities that are  not located on property owned or controlled by the generator of the waste  disposed of in the facility shall comply with all the provisions of this  chapter except as shown in subdivision 2 of this subsection.
    b. Facility owners or operators shall not be required to amend  their facility permit in order to expand an industrial landfill beyond the  waste boundaries existing on October 9, 1993. Liners and leachate collection  systems constructed beyond the waste boundaries existing on October 9, 1993,  shall be constructed in accordance with the requirements of 9VAC20-80-270 B.
    c. Prior to the expansion of any such facility, the owner or  operator submits to the department a written notice of the proposed expansion  at least 60 days prior to commencement of construction. The notice shall  include recent ground water monitoring data sufficient to determine that the  facility does not pose a threat of contamination of ground water in a manner  constituting an open dump or creating a substantial present or potential hazard  to human health or the environment (see 9VAC20-80-180 B 4). The director shall  evaluate the data included with the notification and may advise the owner or  operator of any additional requirements that may be necessary to ensure  compliance with applicable laws and prevent a substantial present or potential  hazard to health or the environment.
    d. Owners or operators of facilities which are authorized  under subdivision 2 of this subsection to accept waste for disposal beyond the  waste boundaries existing on October 9, 1993, shall ensure that such expanded  disposal areas maintain setback distances applicable to such facilities in  9VAC20-80-270 A.
    e. Facilities authorized for expansion in accordance with this  subsection are limited to expansion to the limits of the permitted disposal  area existing on October 9, 1993, or the facility boundary existing on October  9, 1993, if no discrete disposal area is defined in the facility permit.
    3. Existing construction/demolition/debris landfills.
    a. Existing facilities that accept only  construction/demolition/debris waste shall comply with all the provisions of  this chapter except as shown in subdivision 3 of this subsection.
    b. Facility owners or operators shall not be required to amend  their facility permit in order to expand a construction/demolition/debris  landfill beyond the waste boundaries existing on October 9, 1993. Liners and leachate  collection systems constructed beyond the waste boundaries existing on October  9, 1993, shall be constructed in accordance with the requirements of  9VAC20-80-260 B.
    c. Prior to the expansion of any such facility, the owner or  operator submits to the department a written notice of the proposed expansion  at least sixty days prior to commencement of construction. The notice shall  include recent ground water monitoring data sufficient to determine that the  facility does not pose a threat of contamination of ground water in a manner  constituting an open dump or creating a substantial present or potential hazard  to human health or the environment (see 9VAC20-80-180 B 4). The director shall  evaluate the data included with the notification and may advise the owner or  operator of any additional requirements that may be necessary to ensure  compliance with applicable laws and prevent a substantial present or potential  hazard to health or the environment.
    d. Owners or operators of facilities which are authorized  under this subdivision 3 to accept waste for disposal beyond the active portion  of the landfill existing on October 9, 1993, shall ensure that such expanded  disposal areas maintain setback distances applicable to such facilities in  9VAC20-80-260 A and B.
    e. Facilities, or portions thereof, which have reached their  vertical design capacity shall be closed in compliance with 9VAC20-80-260 E.
    f. Facilities authorized for expansion in accordance with  subdivision 2 c of this subsection are limited to expansion to the permitted  disposal area existing on October 9, 1993, or the facility boundary existing on  October 9, 1993, if no discrete disposal area is defined in the facility  permit.
    4. Facilities or units undergoing expansion in accordance with  the partial exemptions created by subdivision 1 b, 2 b, or 3 b of this  subsection may not receive hazardous wastes generated by the exempt small  quantity generators as defined by the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management  Regulations (9VAC20-60), wastes containing free liquids for disposal on the  expanded portions of the facility. Other wastes that require special handling  in accordance with the requirements of Part VIII (9VAC20-80-630 et seq.) of  this chapter or which contain hazardous constituents which would pose a risk to  health or environment, may only be accepted with specific approval by the  director.
    5. Nothing in subdivisions 1 b, 2 b, and 3 b of this  subsection shall alter any requirement for ground water monitoring, financial  responsibility, operator certification, closure, post-closure care, operation,  maintenance or corrective action imposed under this chapter, or impair the  powers of the director to revoke or amend a permit pursuant to § 10.1-1409 of  the Virginia Waste Management Act or Part VII (9VAC20-80-480 et seq.) of this  chapter.
    D. An owner or operator of a previously unpermitted facility  that managed materials previously exempt from this chapter shall submit a  complete application for a solid waste management facility permit or a permit  amendment in accordance with Part VII of this chapter within six months after  these materials have been defined or identified as solid wastes. If the  director finds that the application is complete, the owner or operator may  continue to manage the newly defined or identified waste until a permit or  permit amendment decision has been rendered or until a date two years after the  change in definition whichever occurs sooner, provided however, that in so  doing he shall not operate or maintain an open dump, a hazard, or a nuisance.
    The owner or operator of an existing solid waste management  facility shall comply with this regulation beginning September 24, 2003. Where  necessary conflicts exist between the existing facility permit and the new  requirements of the regulations, the regulations shall supersede the permit  except where the standards in the permit are more stringent than the  regulation. Language in an existing permit shall not act as a shield to  compliance with the regulation, unless a variance to the regulations has been approved  by the director in accordance with the provisions of Part IX (9VAC20-80-730 et  seq.) of this chapter. Existing facility permits will not be required to be  updated to eliminate requirements conflicting with the regulation, except at  the request of the director or if a permit is amended for another reason.  However, all sanitary landfills and incinerators that accept waste from  jurisdictions outside of Virginia must submit the materials required under  9VAC20-80-113 D by March 22, 2004.
    E. Conditional exemptions. The following solid waste  management practices are exempt from this chapter provided no open dump,  hazard, or public nuisance is created:
    1. Composting of sewage sludge at the sewage treatment plant  of generation without addition of other types of solid wastes.
    2. Composting of household waste generated at a single-family  residence at the site of generation.
    3. Composting activities performed for educational purposes as  long as no more than five tons of materials are on site at any time. Greater quantities  will be allowed with suitable justification presented to the department. For  quantities greater than five tons approval from the director will be required  prior to composting.
    4. Management of wastes regulated by the State Board of  Health, the State Water Control Board, or any other state agency with such  authority.
    5. On-site management of soil contaminated with petroleum  products required as part of an ongoing corrective action by the department  under Article 9 (§62.1-44.34:8 et seq.) or Article 11 (§62.1-44.34:14 et seq.)  of Chapter 3.1 of Title 62.1 of the Code of Virginia. Management of the  contaminated soils away from the site of generation is subject to this chapter  unless specifically provided for in the approved corrective action plan.
    6. Management of solid waste in appropriate containers at the  site of its generation, provided that:
    a. Putrescible waste is not stored more than seven days  between time of collection and time of removal for disposal; and
    b. All nonputrescible wastes that are on a system of regularly  scheduled collection for disposal with collections occurring at intervals of  less than 90 days.
    7. Landfilling of solid waste which includes only rocks,  brick, block, dirt, broken concrete and road pavement and which contains no paper,  yard, or wood wastes.
    8. On-site management of solid wastes generated by the  wastewater treatment facilities provided such management is subject to a  regulation promulgated by the State Water Control Board.
    9. Placing of stumps and other land clearing debris from  agricultural or forestal activities on site of the clearing where no debris is  accepted from off-site. This does not include the burial of these materials.
    10. Placing of solid wastes including large tires from mining  equipment from mineral mining activities on a mineral mining site in compliance  with a permit issued by the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy where no  such waste is accepted from off-site and does not contain any municipal solid  wastes or other special wastes. Placement of such solid wastes shall be  accomplished in an environmentally sound manner.
    11. Storage of less than 100 waste tires at the site of  generation provided that no waste tires are accepted from off-site and that the  storage will not present a hazard or a nuisance.
    12. The storage of land clearing debris including stumps and  brush, clean wood wastes, log yard scrapings consisting of a mixture of soil  and wood, cotton gin trash, peanut hulls and similar organic wastes that do not  readily decompose, in piles are exempt from this chapter if they meet the  following conditions at a minimum:
    a. The wastes are managed in the following manner:
    (1) They do not cause discharges of leachate, or attract  vectors.
    (2) They cannot be dispersed by wind and rain.
    (3) Combustion and fire are prevented.
    (4) They do not become putrescent.
    b. Any facility storing waste materials under the provisions  of this section obtains a storm water discharge permit if they are considered a  significant source under the provisions of 9VAC25-31-120 A 1 e.
    c. No more than an total of 1/3 acre of waste material is  stored on-site and the waste pile does not exceed 15 feet in height above base  grade.
    d. Siting provisions.
    (1) All waste materials are stored at the site of the  industrial activity that produces them.
    (2) A 50-foot fire break is maintained between the wastepile  and any structure or treeline.
    (3) The slope of the ground within the area of the pile and  within 50 feet of the pile does not exceed 4:1.
    (4) No waste material may be stored closer than 50 feet to any  regularly flowing surface water body or river, floodplain, or wetland.
    (5) No stored waste materials shall extend closer than 50 feet  to any property line.
    e. If the industrial activities at the site cease, any waste  stored at the site must be properly disposed in a permitted solid waste  management facility within 90 days. The director can approve longer time frames  with appropriate justification. Justification must be provided in writing no  more than 30 days after ceasing industrial activity at the site.
    f. Waste piles that do not meet these provisions are required  to obtain a permit in accordance with the provisions in 9VAC20-80-480 and meet  all of the requirements in 9VAC20-80-400. Facilities that do not comply with  the provisions of this subdivision and fail to obtain a permit are subject to  the provisions of 9VAC20-80-90 for unpermitted facilities.
    F. This chapter is not applicable to units or facilities  closed in accordance with regulations or permits in effect prior to December  21, 1988, unless releases, as defined in Part I (9VAC20-80-10 et seq.) of this  chapter, from such closed facilities cause the site to be classified as an open  dump, a hazard or a nuisance under § 10.1-1402(21) of the Code of Virginia, or a  site where improper waste management has occurred under § 10.1-1402(19) of the  Code of Virginia.
    9VAC20-80-250. Sanitary landfill. 
    The provisions of this section shall apply to the siting,  design, construction, operation, monitoring, and closure of a sanitary  landfill. 
    A. Siting. 
    1. Airport safety. 
    a. Owners or operators of all sanitary landfills that are  located within 10,000 feet of any airport runway end used by turbojet aircraft  or within 5,000 feet of any airport runway end used by only piston-type  aircraft shall demonstrate that the units are designed and operated so that the  facility does not pose a bird hazard to aircraft. 
    b. Owners or operators proposing to site new sanitary landfill  and lateral expansions of an existing facility within a five mile radius of any  airport runway end used by turbojet or piston-type aircraft shall notify the  affected airport and the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA). Owners and  operators should also be aware that effective April 5, 2000, 49 USC §44718 (d),  restricts the establishment of landfills within six miles of public airports  under certain conditions. Provisions for exemptions from this law also exist. 
    c. The owner or operator of an existing facility shall submit  the demonstration in subdivision 1 a of this subsection to the director by  October 9, 1993. 
    2. Floodplains. Owners or operators of all sanitary landfills  located in 100-year floodplains shall demonstrate that the facility will not  restrict the flow of the 100-year flood, reduce the temporary water storage  capacity of the floodplain, or result in washout of solid waste so as to pose a  hazard to human health and the environment. The owner or operator of an  existing facility shall submit the demonstration to the director by October 9,  1993. No new sanitary landfill after July 1, 1999 shall be constructed in a  100-year flood plain. 
    3. Unstable areas. 
    a. Owners or operators of all sanitary landfills located in an  unstable area shall demonstrate that engineering measures have been  incorporated into the facility's design to ensure that the integrity of the  structural components of the facility will not be disrupted. He shall consider  the following factors, at a minimum, when determining whether an area is  unstable: 
    (1) On-site or local soil conditions that may result in differential  settling and subsequent failure of structural components; 
    (2) On-site or local geologic or geomorphologic features that  may result in sudden or non-sudden events and subsequent failure of structural  components; and 
    (3) On-site or local man-made features or events (both surface  and subsurface) that may result in sudden or non-sudden events and subsequent  failure of structural components. 
    b. The owner or operator of an existing facility shall submit  the demonstration to the director by October 9, 1993. 
    4. Wetlands. 
    a. After July 1, 1999, new sanitary landfills and lateral  expansions of existing facilities, except those impacting less than 1.25 acres  of nontidal wetlands, shall not be constructed in any tidal wetland or nontidal  wetland contiguous to any surface water body. 
    b. Construction allowed under the provisions of § 10.1-1408.5  will be allowed only with appropriate approvals under the provisions of  9VAC25-210. In addition, the following additional demonstrations must be made  to the director: 
    (1) Where applicable under §404 of the Clean Water Act or  §62.1-44.15:5 of the Virginia wetlands laws, the presumption that a practicable  alternative to the proposed landfill is available that does not involve  wetlands is clearly rebutted; 
    (2) The construction and operation of the facility will not: 
    (a) Cause or contribute to violations of any applicable water  quality standard; 
    (b) Violate any applicable toxic effluent standard or  prohibition under §307 of the Clean Water Act; 
    (c) Jeopardize the continued existence of endangered or  threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of a  critical habitat, protected under the Endangered Species Act of 1973; and 
    (d) Violate any requirement under the Marine Protection,  Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972 for the protection of a marine sanctuary;  
    (3) The facility will not cause or contribute to significant  degradation of wetlands. The owner or operator shall demonstrate the integrity  of the facility and its ability to protect ecological resources by addressing  the following factors: 
    (a) Erosion, stability, and migration potential of native  wetland soils, muds and deposits used to support the facility; 
    (b) Erosion, stability, and migration potential of dredged and  fill materials used to support the facility; 
    (c) The volume and chemical nature of the waste managed in the  facility; 
    (d) Impacts on fish, wildlife, and other aquatic resources and  their habitat from release of the solid waste; 
    (e) The potential effects of catastrophic release of waste to  the wetland and the resulting impacts on the environment; and 
    (f) Any additional factors, as necessary, to demonstrate that  ecological resources in the wetland are sufficiently protected. 
    (4) To the extent required under §404 of the Clean Water Act  or applicable Virginia wetlands laws, steps have been taken to attempt to  achieve no net loss of wetlands (as defined by acreage and function) by first  avoiding impacts to wetlands to the maximum extent practicable as required by  subdivision 4 b (1) of this subsection, then minimizing unavoidable impacts to  the maximum extent practicable, and finally offsetting remaining unavoidable  wetland impacts through all appropriate and practicable compensatory mitigation  actions (e.g., restoration of existing degraded wetlands or creation of  man-made wetlands); and 
    (5) Sufficient other information is available to enable the  department to make a reasonable determination with respect to these  demonstrations. 
    5. Fault areas. New sanitary landfills and lateral expansions  of existing facilities shall not be located within 200 feet of a fault that has  had displacement in Holocene time unless the owner or operator demonstrates to  the director that an alternative setback distance of less than 200 feet will  prevent damage to the structural integrity of the facility and will be  protective of human health and the environment. 
    6. Seismic impact zones. New sanitary landfills and lateral  expansions of existing facilities shall not be located in seismic impact zones,  unless the owner or operator demonstrates to the director that all containment  structures, including liners, leachate collection systems, and surface water  control systems, are designed to resist the maximum horizontal acceleration in  lithified earth material for the site. 
    7. No sanitary landfill disposal unit or leachate storage unit  shall extend closer than: 
    a. 100 feet of any regularly flowing surface water body or  river; 
    b. 50 feet from the facility boundary; 
    c. 500 feet of any well, spring or other ground water source of  drinking water in existence at the time of application; 
    d. One thousand feet from the nearest edge of the right-of-way  of any interstate or primary highway or 500 feet from the nearest edge of the  right-of-way of any other highway or city street except the following: 
    (1) Units which are screened by natural objects, plantings,  fences, or other appropriate means so as to minimize the visibility from the  main-traveled way of the highway or city street, or otherwise removed from  sight; 
    (2) Units which are located in areas which are zoned for  industrial use under authority of state law or in unzoned industrial areas as  determined by the Commonwealth Transportation Board; 
    (3) Units which are not visible from the main-traveled way of  the highway or city street. 
    NOTE: This requirement is based on § 33.1-348 of the Code of  Virginia. The regulatory responsibility for this standard rests with the  Virginia Department of Transportation. 
    e. 200 feet from the active filling areas to any residence,  school, hospital, nursing home or recreational park area in existence at the  time of application. 
    NOTE: All distances are to be measured in the horizontal  plane. 
    8. No new facility shall be located in areas where ground  water monitoring cannot be conducted in accordance with subsection D of this  section unless this requirement is suspended by the director pursuant to  subdivision 1 c of this subsection. 
    9. No new sanitary landfill shall be constructed: 
    a. Within five miles upgradient of any existing surface or  ground water public water supply intake or reservoir except as allowed under  the provisions of § 10.1-1408.4 B 3 of the Code of Virginia; 
    b. In any area vulnerable to flooding resulting from dam  failures; 
    c. Over a sinkhole or less than 100 feet over a solution  cavern associated with karst topography; 
    d. In any park or recreational area, wildlife management area  or area designated by the federal or state agency as the critical habitat of any  endangered species; or 
    e. Over an active fault. 
    10. Certain site characteristics may also prevent approval or  require substantial limitations on the site use or require incorporation of  sound engineering controls. Examples include but are not limited to: 
    a. Excessive slopes (greater than 33%); 
    b. Lack of daily cover materials; 
    c. Springs, seeps, or other ground water intrusion into the  site; 
    d. The presence of gas, water, sewage, or electrical or other  transmission lines under the site; or 
    e. The prior existence on the site of an open dump,  unpermitted landfill, lagoon, or similar unit, even if such a unit is closed,  will be considered a defect in the site unless the proposed unit can be  isolated from the defect by the nature of the unit design and the ground water  for the proposed unit can be effectively monitored. 
    11. Specific site conditions may be considered in approving an  exemption of a site from the siting restrictions of subdivision 10 of this  subsection. 
    12. Facilities unable to furnish the demonstration required  under subdivision 1 c, 2, or 3 b of this subsection shall close in accordance  with the requirements of subsection E of this section and initiate post-closure  care as required by subsection F of this section by October 9, 1996. 
    13. The deadline for closure required by subdivision 12 of  this subsection may be extended by the director up to two years if the owner or  operator demonstrates that: 
    a. There is no alternate disposal capacity; and 
    b. There is no immediate threat to human health and the  environment. 
    B. Design/construction. The following design and construction  requirements apply to all sanitary landfills: 
    1. All facilities shall be surrounded by a means of  controlling vehicular access and preventing illegal disposal. All access will  be limited by gates, and such gates shall be securable and equipped with locks.  
    2. Access roads extending from the public road to the entrance  of a facility or site and any public access area shall be all-weather, and  shall be provided with a base capable of withstanding anticipated heavy vehicle  loads. 
    3. Each solid waste disposal facility should be provided with  an adequately lighted and heated shelter where operating personnel can exercise  site control and have access to essential sanitation facilities. Lighting, heat  and sanitation facilities may be provided by portable equipment as necessary. 
    4. Aesthetics shall be considered in the design of a facility  or site. Use of artificial or natural screens shall be incorporated into the  design for site screening and noise attenuation to less than 80 dBA at the  facility boundary. The design should reflect those requirements, if any, that  are determined from the long-range plan for the future use of the site. 
    5. All sanitary landfills shall be equipped with permanent or  mobile telephone or radio communications. 
    6. All facilities shall be designed to provide and maintain: 
    a. A run-on control system to prevent flow onto the active  portion of the landfill during the peak discharge from a 25-year storm; 
    b. A run-off control system from the active portion of the  landfill to collect and control at least the water volume resulting from a  24-hour, 25-year storm. Run-off from the active portion of the landfill unit  shall be handled in a manner that will not cause the discharge of: 
    (1) Pollutants into waters of the United States, including  wetlands, that violates any requirements of the Clean Water Act, including,  but-not limited to, the Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination system (VPDES)  requirements; and 
    (2) Cause the discharge of a nonpoint source of pollution to  waters of the United States, including wetlands, that violates any requirement  of an area-wide or state-wide water quality management plan that has been  approved under section §208 or 319 of the Clean Water Act, as  amended. 
    c. Drainage structures to prevent ponding and erosion, and to  minimize infiltration of water into solid waste cells. 
    7. A ground water monitoring system shall be installed at all  sanitary landfills in accordance with 9VAC20-80-300. 
    8. Each site design shall include a gas management system to  control decomposition gases generated within a sanitary landfill in accordance  with 9VAC20-80-280. 
    9. All sanitary landfills shall be underlain by a composite  liner system as follows: 
    a. Base preparation to protect the liner by preventing liner  failure through subsidence or structural failure of the liner system. 
    b. A lower liner consisting of at least a two-foot layer of  compacted soil with a hydraulic conductivity of no more than 1x10-7  cm/sec. 
    c. An upper component consisting of a minimum 30-mil flexible  membrane liner (FML). If high density polyethylene (HDPE) is used as an FML, it  shall be at least 60-mil thick. The FML component shall be: 
    (1) Installed in direct and uniform contact with the compacted  soil liner; 
    (2) Placed in accordance with an approved construction quality  control/quality assurance program submitted with the design plans; and 
    (3) Placed with a minimum of two percent slope for leachate  drainage. 
    10. The applicant may submit a petition in accordance with  9VAC20-80-780 to allow for an alternate design of the liner system. 
    11. The design shall provide for leachate management which  shall include its collection, treatment, storage, and disposal. Leachate  control and monitoring systems are subject to the requirements in  9VAC20-80-290. 
    12. Landfill site designs shall provide sufficient area to  allow for management of leachate. Leachate from a solid waste disposal facility  shall not be permitted to drain or discharge into surface waters except when  authorized under a VPDES permit issued by the State Water Control Board or  otherwise approved by that agency. 
    13. Compacted lifts of deposited waste shall be designed for a  height compatible with daily waste volumes keeping work face areas to a minimum  and allowing for a daily compacted cover. Lift height is not recommended to  exceed 10 feet for maximum compaction. 
    14. Final contours of the finished landfill shall be  specified. Design of final contours shall consider subsequent site uses,  existing natural contours, surface water management requirements, and the  nature of the surrounding area. The final elevation of the landfill shall be  limited by the structural capacity of the liner and leachate collection and  removal system and by stability of foundation and slopes. The final contour  shall not cause structural damage or collapse of the leachate collection  system. 
    15. Finished side slopes shall be stable and be configured to  adequately control erosion and runoff. Slopes of 33% will be allowed provided  that adequate runoff controls are established. Steeper slopes may be considered  if supported by necessary stability calculations and appropriate erosion and  runoff control features. All finished slopes and runoff management facilities  shall be supported by necessary calculations and included in the design manual.  The top slope shall be at least two percent after allowance for settlement to  prevent ponding of water. 
    16. Two survey bench marks shall be established and maintained  on the landfill site, and their location identified or recorded on drawings and  maps of the facility. 
    17. Each sanitary landfill shall be constructed in accordance  with approved plans, which shall not be subsequently modified without approval  by the department. 
    18. Construction quality assurance program. 
    a. General. 
    (1) A construction quality assurance (CQA) program is required  for all landfill units. The program shall ensure that the constructed unit  meets or exceeds all design criteria and specifications in the permit. The  program shall be developed and implemented under the direction of a CQA officer  who is a registered professional engineer. 
    (2) The CQA program shall address the following physical  components, where applicable: 
    (a) Foundations; 
    (b) Low-hydraulic conductivity soil liners; 
    (c) Synthetic membrane liners; 
    (d) Leachate collection and removal systems; 
    (e) Gas management components; and 
    (f) Final cover systems. 
    b. Written CQA plan. The owner or operator shall develop and  implement a written CQA plan. The plan shall identify steps that will be used  to monitor and document the quality of materials and the condition and manner  of their installation. The CQA plan shall include: 
    (1) Identification of applicable units, and a description of  how they will be constructed. 
    (2) Identification of key personnel in the development and  implementation of the CQA plan, and CQA officer qualifications. 
    (3) A description of inspection and sampling activities for  all unit components identified in subdivision 18 a (2) of this subsection  including observations and tests that will be used before, during, and after  construction to ensure that the construction materials and the installed unit  components meet the design specifications. The description shall cover:  sampling size and locations; frequency of testing; data evaluation procedures;  acceptance and rejection criteria for construction materials; plans for  implementing corrective measures; and data or other information to be recorded.  
    c. Contents of program. The CQA program shall include  observations, inspections, tests, and measurements sufficient to ensure: 
    (1) Structural stability and integrity of all components of  the unit identified in subdivision 18 a (2) of this subsection; 
    (2) Proper construction of all components of the liners,  leachate collection and removal system, gas management system, and final cover  system, according to permit specifications and good engineering practices, and  proper installation of all components (e.g., pipes) according to design  specifications; 
    (3) Conformity of all materials used with design and other  material specifications. 
    (4) The permeability of the liner soil. Soil liner  construction will be demonstrated on a test pad where permeability will be  confirmed using an in situ testing method. 
    d. Certification. Waste shall not be received in a landfill  unit until the owner or operator has submitted to the department by certified  mail or hand delivery a certification signed by the CQA officer that the  approved CQA plan has been successfully carried out and that the unit meets the  requirements of this section. Documentation supporting the CQA officer's  certification shall be submitted to the department upon request. An additional  engineer's certification is required under the provisions of 9VAC20-80-550 A 1.  
    C. Operation. 
    1. No hazardous wastes as defined by the Virginia Hazardous  Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-60) other wastes listed in 9VAC20-80-250 C  17, PCB waste or regulated medical waste shall be accepted at the landfill  except as specifically authorized by the facility permit or by the director.  The owner or operator shall implement an inspection program to be conducted by  landfill personnel to detect and prevent disposal of such wastes. In addition  to implementing the requirements of the control program for unauthorized waste  in 9VAC20-80-113, the program shall include, at a minimum: 
    a. The procedures for the routine monitoring and observation  of incoming waste at the working face of the landfill; 
    b. The procedures for random inspections of incoming loads to  detect whether incoming loads contain regulated hazardous wastes, PCB wastes,  regulated medical waste, or other unauthorized solid waste and ensure that such  wastes are not accepted at the facility. The owner or operator shall inspect a  minimum of 1.0% of the incoming loads of waste. In addition, if the facility  receives waste generated outside of Virginia and the regulatory structure in  that jurisdiction allows for the disposal or incineration of wastes as  municipal solid waste that Virginia's laws and regulations prohibit or  restrict, the facility shall inspect a minimum of 10% of the incoming loads of  waste from that jurisdiction. All facilities receiving waste generated outside  of Virginia shall submit an evaluation consistent with 9VAC20-80-113 D; 
    c. Records of all inspections, to include at a minimum time  and date of the inspection, the personnel involved, the hauler, the type of waste  observed, the identity of the generator of the waste if it can be determined,  the location of the facility where the waste was handled prior to being sent to  the landfill and the results of the inspection. All records associated with  unauthorized waste monitoring and incidents shall be retained on-site for a  minimum of three years and shall be available for inspection by the department;  
    d. Training of facility personnel to recognize and manage  regulated hazardous waste, PCB wastes, regulated medical waste, and other  unauthorized solid wastes; 
    e. Notification of the department if a regulated hazardous  waste, PCB waste, regulated medical waste or other unauthorized waste is  discovered at the facility. This notification will be made orally as soon as possible,  but no later than 24 hours after the occurrence and shall be followed within 10  days by a written report that includes a description of the event, the cause of  the event, the time and date of the event and the actions taken to respond to  the event; and 
    f. All regulated medical waste, PCB waste or other  unauthorized solid waste that are detected at a facility shall be isolated from  the incoming waste and properly contained until arrangements can be made for  proper transportation for treatment or disposal at an approved facility. 
    2. Compaction and cover requirements. 
    a. Unless provided otherwise in the permit, solid waste shall  be spread into two-foot layers or less and compacted at the working face, which  shall be confined to the smallest area practicable. 
    b. Lift heights shall be sized in accordance with daily waste  volumes. Lift height is not recommended to exceed 10 feet. 
    c. Daily cover consisting of six inches of compacted soil or  other approved material shall be placed upon and maintained on all  exposed solid waste prior to the end of each operating day, or at more frequent  intervals if necessary, to control disease vectors, fires, odors, blowing  litter, and scavenging. Alternate materials of an alternate thickness may be  approved by the director if the owner or operator demonstrates that the  alternate material and thickness control disease vectors, fires, odors, blowing  litter, and scavenging without presenting a threat to human health and the  environment. At least three days of acceptable cover soil or approved material  at the average usage rate should be maintained at the landfill or readily  available at all times. 
    d. Intermediate cover of at least six inches of additional  compacted soil shall be applied and maintained whenever an additional  lift of refuse is not to be applied within 30 days. Further, all areas with  intermediate cover exposed shall be inspected as needed, but not less than  weekly. Additional cover material shall be placed on all cracked, eroded, and  uneven areas as required to maintain the integrity of the intermediate cover  system. 
    e. Final cover construction will be initiated and  maintained in accordance with the requirements of subdivision E 1 b of this  section when the following pertain: 
    (1) An additional lift of solid waste is not to be applied  within one year. 
    (2) Any area of a landfill attains final elevation and within  90 days after such elevation is reached. The director may approve alternate  timeframes if they are specified in the facility's closure plan. 
    (3) An entire landfill's permit is terminated for any reason,  and within 90 days of such denial or termination. 
    f. Vegetative cover with proper support layers shall be  established and maintained on all exposed final cover material within four  months after placement, or as specified by the department when seasonal  conditions do not permit. Mowing will be conducted a minimum of twice a year or  at a frequency suitable for the species of vegetative cover as specified in the  facility permit. 
    g. Areas where waste has been disposed that have not received  waste within 30 days will not have slopes exceeding the final cover slopes  specified in the permit or 33%, whichever is least. 
    3. Access to a solid waste disposal facility shall be  permitted only when an attendant is on duty and only during daylight hours,  unless otherwise specified in the facility permit. 
    4. Disease vectors shall be controlled using techniques  appropriate for the protection of human health and the environment. 
    5. Safety hazards to operating personnel shall be controlled  through an active safety program consistent with the requirements of 29 CFR  Part 1910. 
    6. Adequate numbers and types of properly maintained equipment  shall be available to a facility for operation. Provision shall be made for substitute  equipment to be available within 24 hours should the former become inoperable  or unavailable. Operators with training appropriate to the tasks they are  expected to perform and in sufficient numbers for the complexity of the site  shall be on the site whenever it is in operation. Equipment and operators  provided will not be satisfactory unless they ensure that the site is managed  with a high degree of safety and effectiveness. 
    7. Owners or operators shall implement a gas management plan  in accordance with 9VAC20-80-280 that will ensure that: 
    a. The concentration of methane gas generated by the facility  does not exceed 25 percent of the lower explosive limit for methane in facility  structures (excluding gas control or recovery system components); and 
    b. The concentration of methane gas does not exceed the lower  explosive limit for methane at the facility boundary. 
    8. Burning waste. 
    a. Owners or operators shall ensure that the units do not  violate any applicable requirements developed by the State Air Pollution  Control Board or promulgated by the EPA administrator pursuant to §110 of the  Clean Air Act, as amended (42 USC §§7401 to 7671q). 
    b. Open burning of solid waste, except for infrequent burning  of agricultural wastes, silvicultural wastes, landclearing debris, diseased  trees, or debris from emergency cleanup operations is prohibited. There shall  be no open burning permitted on areas where solid waste has been disposed or is  being used for active disposal. 
    9. The owner or operator shall be responsible for  extinguishing any fires that may occur at the facility. A fire control plan  will be developed which outlines the response of facility personnel to fires.  The fire control plan will be provided as an attachment to the emergency  contingency plan required under the provisions of 9VAC20-80-520 C 2 k. The fire  control plan will be available for review upon request by the public. 
    10. Solid waste shall not be deposited in, nor shall it be  permitted to enter any surface waters or ground waters. 
    11. Owners or operators shall maintain the run-on/runoff  control systems designed and constructed in accordance with subdivision B 6 of  this section. 
    12. Sanitary landfills shall not: 
    a. Cause a discharge of pollutants into waters of the United  States, including wetlands, that violates any requirements of the Clean Water  Act (33 USC §1251 et seq.), including, but not limited to, the Virginia  Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) requirements and Virginia Water  Quality Standards (9VAC25-260). 
    b. Cause the discharge of a nonpoint source of pollution to  waters of the United States, including wetlands, that violates any requirement  of an area-wide or state-wide water quality management plan that has been  approved under §208 or 319 of the Clean Water Act (33 USC §1251 et seq.), as  amended or violates any requirement of the Virginia Water Quality Standards  (9VAC25-260). 
    13. Housekeeping. 
    a. Litter and blowing paper shall be confined to refuse  holding and operating areas by fencing or other suitable control means. 
    b. Dust and odors shall be controlled so they do not  constitute nuisances or hazards. 
    c. Salvaging may be permitted by a solid waste disposal  facility operator, but shall be controlled within a designated salvage area to  preclude interference with operation of the facility and to avoid the creation  of hazards or nuisances. 
    d. Fugitive dust and mud deposits on main off-site roads and  access roads shall be minimized at all times to limit nuisances. 
    e. Internal roads in the landfill shall be maintained to be  passable in all weather by ordinary vehicles. All operation areas and units  shall be accessible; gravel or other finish materials are usually required to  accomplish this. Provisions shall be made to prevent tracking of mud onto  public roads by vehicles leaving the site. 
    f. The open working face of a landfill shall be kept as small  as practicable, determined by the tipping demand for unloading. 
    g. A sanitary landfill which is located within 10,000 feet of  any airport runway used for turbojet aircraft or 5,000 feet of any airport  runway used by only piston type aircraft, shall operate in such a manner that  the facility does not increase or pose additional bird hazards to aircraft. 
    h. All facility appurtenances listed in subsection B of this  section shall be properly maintained. These appurtenances include, but are not  limited to, access controls, shelters, communications equipment, run-on and  run-off controls, gas and ground water systems, liner systems, leachate  collection control systems and the landfill cap. 
    14. Ground water monitoring program meeting the requirements  of subsection D of this section shall be implemented. 
    15. A corrective action program meeting the requirements of  9VAC20-80-310 is required whenever the ground water protection standard is  exceeded. 
    16. Sanitary landfills may receive the following types of  solid wastes subject to specific limitations in the permit: 
    a. Agricultural waste. 
    b. Ashes and air pollution control residues that are not  classified as hazardous waste. Incinerator and air pollution control residues  should be incorporated into the working face and covered at such intervals as  necessary to prevent them from becoming airborne. 
    c. Commercial waste. 
    d. Compost. 
    e. Construction waste. 
    f. Debris waste. 
    g. Demolition waste. 
    h. Discarded material. 
    i. Garbage. 
    j. Household waste. 
    k. Industrial waste meeting all criteria contained herein. 
    l. Inert waste. 
    m. Institutional waste except regulated medical waste as  specified in the Regulated Medical Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-120). 
    n. Municipal solid waste. 
    o. Putrescible waste. Occasional animal carcasses may be  disposed of within a sanitary landfill. Large numbers (over 20 cy) of animal  carcasses may be received with prior notification of the department. When large  numbers of carcasses are received, they shall be placed in a separate area  within the disposal unit and provided with a cover of compacted soil or other  suitable material. 
    p. Refuse. 
    q. Residential waste. 
    r. Rubbish. 
    s. Scrap metal. 
    t. Sludges. Water treatment plant sludges containing no free  liquid and stabilized, digested or heat treated wastewater treatment plant  sludges containing no free liquid may be placed on the working face along with  municipal solid wastes and covered with soil or municipal solid wastes. The  quantities accepted should be determined by operational conditions encountered  at the working face. For existing facilities without an adequate leachate collection  system, only a limited quantity of sludge may be accepted. A maximum ratio of  one ton of sludge per five tons of solid waste per day will be considered.  Generation of leachate will be a basis for restriction of sludge disposal at  such existing facilities. 
    u. Trash. 
    v. White goods. Provided that all white goods are free of  chlorofluorocarbons and PCBs prior to placement on the working face. 
    w. Nonregulated hazardous wastes and treated wastes rendered  nonhazardous by specific approval only. 
    x. Special wastes as approved by the director. 
    y. Waste oil that has been adequately adsorbed in the course  of a site cleanup. 
    z. Vegetative waste. 
    aa. Yard waste. 
    17. Sanitary landfills may not receive the following wastes: 
    a. Free liquids. 
    (1) Bulk or noncontainerized liquid waste, unless: 
    (a) The waste is household waste; or 
    (b) The waste is leachate or gas condensate derived from that  landfill and the facility is designed with a composite liner and leachate  collection system as described in subdivision B 9 of this section and  9VAC20-80-290 B; or 
    (2) Containers holding liquid waste, unless: 
    (a) The container is a small container similar in size to that  normally found in household waste; 
    (b) The container is designed to hold liquids for use other  than storage; or 
    (c) The waste is household waste. 
    b. Regulated hazardous wastes. 
    c. Solid wastes, residues, or soils containing more than 1.0  ppb (parts per billion) TEF (dioxins). 
    d. Solid wastes, residues, or soils containing 50.0 ppm (parts  per million) or more of PCB's except as allowed under the provisions of  9VAC20-80-650. 
    e. Unstabilized sewage sludge as defined by the Department of  Health or sludges that have not been dewatered. 
    f. Pesticide containers that have not been triple rinsed and  crushed. 
    g. Drums that are not empty, properly cleaned and opened. 
    h. Contaminated soil unless approved by the director in  accordance with the requirements of 9VAC20-80-630 or 9VAC20-80-700. 
    18. Reasonable records to include date, quantity by weight or  volume, and origin shall be maintained on solid waste received and processed to  fulfill the requirements of the Solid Waste Information and Assessment Program,  the Control Program for Unauthorized Waste. Such information shall be made  available to the department for examination or use when requested. 
    D. Ground water monitoring. Ground water monitoring program  shall be instituted at all sanitary landfills in accordance with the  requirements contained in 9VAC20-80-300. 
    E. Closure. 
    1. Closure criteria. All sanitary landfills shall be closed in  accordance with the procedures set forth as follows: 
    a. The owner or operator shall close his facility in a manner  that minimizes the need for further maintenance, and controls, minimizes or  eliminates, to the extent necessary to protect human health and the  environment, the post-closure escape of uncontrolled leachate, surface runoff,  or waste decomposition products to the ground water, surface water,  decomposition gas migration, or to the atmosphere. 
    b. Final cover system. Owner or operator of all sanitary  landfills shall install a final cover system that is designed to achieve the  performance requirements of subdivision 1 a of this subsection. 
    (1) The final cover system shall be designed and constructed  to: 
    (a) Have an 18-inch infiltration layer with a hydraulic  conductivity less than or equal to the hydraulic conductivity of any bottom  liner system or natural subsoils present, or a hydraulic conductivity no  greater than 1x10-5 cm/sec, whichever is less; and 
    (b) Minimize infiltration through the closed disposal unit by  the use of an infiltration layer that is constructed of earthen material; and 
    (c) Minimize erosion of the final cover by the use of an  erosion layer that contains a minimum of 6 inches of earthen material that is  capable of sustaining native plant growth, and provide for protection of the  infiltration layer from the effects of erosion, frost, and wind. 
    (2) Finished side slopes shall be stable and be configured to  adequately control erosion and runoff. Slopes of 33% will be allowed provided  that adequate runoff controls are established. Steeper slopes may be considered  if supported by necessary stability calculations and appropriate erosion and  runoff control features. All finished slopes and runoff management facilities  shall be supported by necessary calculations and included in the design manual.  To prevent ponding of water, the top slope shall be at least two percent after  allowance for settlement. 
    2. The director may approve an alternate final cover design  that includes: 
    a. An infiltration layer that achieves an equivalent reduction  in infiltration as the infiltration layer specified in subdivision 1 b (1) (a)  of this subsection; and 
    b. An erosion layer that provides equivalent protection from  wind and water erosion as the erosion layer specified in subdivision 1 b (1)  (c) of this subsection. 
    3. Closure plan and amendment of plan. 
    a. The owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility  shall have a written closure plan. This plan shall identify the steps necessary  to completely close the facility at the point of the permit period when the  operation will be the most extensive and at the end of its intended life. The  closure plan shall include, at least: 
    (1) A description of those measures to be taken and procedures  to be employed to comply with this subsection. 
    (2) An estimate of the largest area ever requiring a final  cover as required at any time during the active life; 
    (3) An estimate of the maximum inventory of wastes ever  on-site over the active life of the landfill facility; and 
    (4) A schedule for final closure which shall include, at a  minimum, the anticipated date when wastes will no longer be received, the date  when completion of final closure is anticipated, and intervening milestone  dates which will allow tracking of the progress of closure. 
    b. The owner or operator may amend his closure plan at any  time during the active life of the facility. The owner or operator shall so  amend his plan any time changes in operating plans or facility design affects  the closure plan. The amended closure plan shall be placed in the operating  record. 
    c. The owner or operator shall notify the department whenever  an amended closure plan has been prepared and placed in the operating record. 
    d. At least 180 days prior to beginning closure of each solid  waste disposal unit, the owner or operator shall notify the department of the  intent to close. 
    e. If the owner or operator intends to use an alternate final  cover design, he shall submit a proposed design meeting the requirements of  subdivision 2 of this subsection to the department at least 180 days before the  date he expects to begin closure. The director will approve or disapprove the  plan within 90 days of receipt. 
    f. Closure plans, and amended closure plans not previously  approved by the director shall be submitted to the department at least 180 days  before the date the owner or operator expects to begin construction activities  related to closure. The director will approve or disapprove the plan within 90  days of receipt. 
    4. Time allowed for closure. 
    a. The owner or operator shall begin closure activities of  each unit no later than 30 days after the date on which the unit receives the  known final receipt of wastes or, if the unit has remaining capacity and there  is a reasonable likelihood that the unit will receive additional wastes, no  later than one year after the most recent receipt of wastes. Extensions beyond  the one-year deadline for beginning closure may be granted by the director if  the owner or operator demonstrates that the unit has the capacity to receive  additional wastes and the owner or operator has taken and will continue to take  all steps necessary to prevent threats to human health and the environment from  the unclosed unit. 
    b. The owner or operator shall complete closure activities of  each unit within six months following the beginning of closure. The director  may approve a longer closure period if the owner or operator can demonstrate  that the required or planned closure activities will, of necessity, take longer  than six months to complete; and that the owner or operator has taken all steps  to eliminate any significant threat to human health and the environment from  the unclosed but inactive unit. 
    5. Closure implementation. 
    a. The owner or operator shall close each unit with a final  cover as specified in subdivision 1 b of this subsection, grade the fill area  to prevent ponding, and provide a suitable vegetative cover. Vegetation shall  be deemed properly established when there are no large areas void of vegetation  and it is sufficient to control erosion. 
    b. Following construction of the final cover system for each  unit, the owner or operator shall submit to the department a certification,  signed by a registered professional engineer verifying that closure has been  completed in accordance with the requirements of this part. This certification  shall include the results of the CQA/QC requirements under subdivision B 18 a  (2) (e) of this section. 
    c. The owner or operator shall properly bait the site for  rodent and vector control before final closure is initiated. 
    d. Following the closure of all units the owner or operator  shall: 
    (1) Post one sign at the entrance of the facility notifying  all persons of the closing, and providing a notice prohibiting further receipt  of waste materials. Further, suitable barriers shall be installed at former  accesses to prevent new waste from being deposited. 
    (2) Within 90 days, submit to the local land recording  authority a survey plat prepared by a professional land surveyor registered by  the Commonwealth or a person qualified in accordance with Title 54.1 of the  Code of Virginia indicating the location and dimensions of landfill disposal  areas. Monitoring well locations should be included and identified by the  number on the survey plat. The plat filed with the local land recording  authority shall contain a note, prominently displayed, which states the owner's  or operator's future obligation to restrict disturbance of the site as  specified. 
    (3) Record a notation on the deed to the facility property, or  on some other instrument which is normally examined during title searches,  notifying any potential purchaser of the property that the land has been used  to manage solid waste and its use is restricted under subdivision F 4 c of this  section. A copy of the deed notation as recorded shall be filed with the  department. 
    (4) Submit to the department a certification, signed by a  registered professional engineer, verifying that closure has been completed in  accordance with the requirements of subdivision 5 d (1) through 5 d (3) of this  section and the facility closure plan. 
    6. Inspection. The department shall inspect all solid waste  management units at the time of closure to confirm that the closing is complete  and adequate. It shall notify the owner of a closed facility, in writing, if  the closure is satisfactory, and shall require any construction or such other  steps necessary to bring unsatisfactory sites into compliance with these  regulations. Notification by the department that the closure is satisfactory  does not relieve the operator of responsibility for corrective action to  prevent or abate problems caused by the facility. 
    7. Post-closure period. The post-closure care period begins on  the date of the certification signed by a registered professional engineer as  required in subdivision 5 d (4) of this subsection. Unless a facility completes  all provisions of subdivision 5 of this subsection, the department will not  consider the facility closed, and the beginning of the post-closure care period  will be postponed until all provisions have been completed. If the department's  inspection required by subdivision 6 of this subsection reveals that the  facility has not been properly closed in accordance with this part, post  closure will begin on the date that the department acknowledges proper closure  has been completed. 
    F. Post-closure care requirements. 
    1. Following closure of all disposal units, the owner or  operator shall conduct post-closure care of the facility. Post-closure care  shall consist of at least the following: 
    a. Maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of any final  cover, including making repairs to the cover as necessary to correct the  effects of settlement, subsidence, erosion, or other events, and preventing  run-on and run-off from eroding or otherwise damaging the final cover; 
    b. Maintaining and operating the leachate collection system in  accordance with the requirements in 9VAC20-80-290 and 9VAC20-80-300. The  director may allow the owner or operator to stop managing leachate if the owner  or operator demonstrates that leachate no longer poses a threat to human health  and the environment; 
    c. Monitoring the ground water in accordance with the  requirements of subsection D of this section and maintaining the ground water  monitoring system, if applicable; and 
    d. Maintaining and operating the gas monitoring system in  accordance with the requirements of 9VAC20-80-280. 
    2. The post-closure care shall be conducted: 
    a. For 10 years in case of facilities that ceased to accept  wastes before October 9, 1993; or 
    b. For 30 years in case of facilities that received wastes on  or after October 9, 1993; or 
    c. As provided in subdivision 3 of this subsection. 
    3. The length of the post-closure care period may be: 
    a. Decreased by the director if the owner or operator  demonstrates that the reduced period is sufficient to protect human health and  the environment and this demonstration is approved by the director; or 
    b. Increased by the director if the director determines that  the lengthened period is necessary to complete the corrective measures or to  protect human health and the environment. If the post-closure period is  increased, the owner or operator shall submit a revised post-closure plan for  review and approval, and continue post-closure monitoring and maintenance in  accordance with the approved plan. 
    4. The owner or operator shall prepare a written post-closure  plan that includes, at a minimum, the following information: 
    a. A description of the monitoring and maintenance activities  required in subdivision 1 of this subsection for each disposal unit, and the  frequency at which these activities will be performed; 
    b. Name, address, and telephone number of the person or office  to contact about the facility during the post-closure period; and 
    c. A description of the planned uses of the property during  the post-closure period. Post-closure use of the property shall not disturb the  integrity of the final cover, liners, or any other components of the  containment system, or the function of the monitoring systems unless necessary  to comply with the requirements of this chapter. The director may approve any  other disturbance if the owner or operator demonstrates that disturbance of the  final cover, liner or other component of the containment system, including any  removal of waste, will not increase the potential threat to human health or the  environment. 
    5. The owner or operator shall submit a post-closure care plan  for review and approval by the director whenever a post-closure care plan has  been prepared or amended. Those post-closure care plans that have been placed  in a facility's operating record must be reviewed and approved by the director  prior to implementation. 
    6. Following completion of the post-closure care period for  each disposal unit, the owner or operator shall submit to the department a  certificate, signed by a registered professional engineer, verifying that  post-closure care has been completed in accordance with the post-closure plan.  The certificate shall be accompanied by an evaluation, prepared by a  professional engineer licensed in the Commonwealth and signed by the owner or  operator, assessing and evaluating the landfill's potential for harm to human  health and the environment in the event that post-closure monitoring and  maintenance are discontinued. 
    9VAC20-80-260. Construction/demolition/debris (CDD) landfills. 
    Construction/demolition/debris landfills may only receive  demolition waste, construction waste, debris waste, land clearing debris, split  tires, and white goods. No other wastes are authorized for the CDD landfill.  Chloroflourocarbons and PCBs must be removed from white goods prior to  placement on the working face. 
    A. Siting. The following criteria apply to all CDD landfills:  
    1. CDD landfills shall not be sited or constructed in areas  subject to base floods unless it can be shown that the facility can be  protected from inundation or washout and that the flow of water is not  restricted. 
    2. CDD landfills shall not be sited in geologically unstable  areas where inadequate foundation support for the structural components of the  landfill exists. Factors to be considered when determining unstable areas shall  include: 
    a. Soil conditions that may result in differential settling  and subsequent failure of containment structures; 
    b. Geologic or geomorphologic features that may result in  sudden or non-sudden events and subsequent failure of containment structures; 
    c. Man-made features or events (both surface and subsurface)  that may result in sudden or non-sudden events and subsequent failure of  containment structures; 
    d. Presence of sink holes within the disposal area. 
    3. Acceptable CDD landfill sites shall allow for adequate area  and terrain for management of leachate if generated. 
    4. CDD landfill disposal area shall not be closer than 200  feet to any residence, school, hospital, nursing home or recreational park  area. 
    5. CDD disposal or leachate storage unit may not be located  closer than: 
    a. 100 feet of any regularly flowing surface water body or  river; 
    b. 200 feet of any well, spring or other ground water source  of drinking water; or 
    c. One thousand feet from the nearest edge of the right-of-way  of any interstate or primary highway or 500 feet from the nearest edge of the  right-of-way of any other highway or city street, except the following: 
    (1) Units which are screened by natural objects, plantings,  fences, or other appropriate means so as to minimize the visibility from the  main-traveled way of the highway or city street, or otherwise removed from  sight; 
    (2) Units which are located in areas which are zoned for  industrial use under authority of state law or in unzoned industrial areas as  determined by the Commonwealth Transportation Board; or 
    (3) Units which are not visible from the main-traveled way of  the highway or city street. 
    NOTE: This requirement is based on § 33.1-348 of the Code of  Virginia, which should be consulted for detail. The regulatory responsibility  for this standard rests with the Virginia Department of Transportation. 
    6. Wetlands. New CDD landfills and lateral expansions of  existing facilities shall not be located in wetlands, unless the owner or  operator can make the following demonstrations to the director: 
    a. Where applicable under §404 of the Clean Water Act or  applicable Virginia wetlands laws, the presumption is clearly rebutted that a  practicable alternative to the proposed landfill exists that does not involve  wetlands; 
    b. The construction and operation of the facility will not: 
    (1) Cause or contribute to violations of any applicable water  quality standard; 
    (2) Violate any applicable toxic effluent standard or  prohibition under §307 of the Clean Water Act; 
    (3) Jeopardize the continued existence of endangered or  threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of a  critical habitat, protected under the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (87 Stat.  884); and 
    (4) Violate any requirement under the Marine Protection,  Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972 (86 Stat. 1052) for the protection of a  marine sanctuary; 
    c. The facility will not cause or contribute to significant  degradation of wetlands. The owner or operator shall demonstrate the integrity  of the facility and its ability to protect ecological resources by addressing  the following factors: 
    (1) Erosion, stability, and migration potential of native  wetland soils, muds and deposits used to support the facility; 
    (2) Erosion, stability, and migration potential of dredged and  fill materials used to support the facility; 
    (3) The volume and chemical nature of the waste managed in the  facility; 
    (4) Impacts on fish, wildlife, and other aquatic resources and  their habitat from release of the solid waste; 
    (5) The potential effects of catastrophic release of waste to  the wetland and the resulting impacts on the environment; and 
    (6) Any additional factors, as necessary, to demonstrate that  ecological resources in the wetland are sufficiently protected; 
    d. To the extent required under §404 of the Clean Water Act or  applicable Virginia wetlands laws, steps have been taken to attempt to achieve  no net loss of wetlands (as defined by acreage and function) by first avoiding  impacts to wetlands to the maximum extent practicable as required by  subdivision 6 a of this subsection, then minimizing unavoidable impacts to the  maximum extent practicable, and finally offsetting remaining unavoidable  wetland impacts through all appropriate and practicable compensatory mitigation  actions (e.g., restoration of existing degraded wetlands or creation of  man-made wetlands); 
    e. Furnish a copy of final determinations on subdivision 6 a  through d of this subsection, obtained from the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers  pertaining to federal jurisdictional wetlands; and 
    f. Sufficient other information to enable the department to  make a reasonable determination with respect to these demonstrations. 
    7. No new facility shall be located in areas where ground  water monitoring cannot be conducted in accordance with subsection D of this  section. Factors to be considered in determining whether or not a site can be  monitored shall include: 
    a. Ability to characterize the direction of ground water flow  within the uppermost aquifer; 
    b. Ability to characterize and define any releases from the  landfill so as to determine what corrective actions are necessary; 
    c. Ability to perform corrective action as necessary; and 
    d. Ability to install a double liner system with a leachate  collection system above the top liner and a monitoring collection system  between the two liners. 
    8. The following site characteristics may also prevent  approval or require substantial limitations on the site use or require  incorporation of sound engineering controls: 
    a. Excessive slopes (greater than 33%); 
    b. Lack of readily available cover materials on site, or lack  of a firm commitment for adequate cover material from a borrow site; 
    c. Springs, seeps, or other ground water intrusion into the  site; 
    d. The presence of gas, water, sewage, or electrical or other  transmission lines under the site; or 
    e. The prior existence on the site of an open dump,  unpermitted landfill, lagoon, or similar unit, even if such a unit is closed,  will be considered a defect in the site unless the proposed unit can be  isolated from the defect by the nature of the unit design and the ground water for  the proposed unit can be effectively monitored. 
    9. In strip mine pits, all coal seams and coal outcrops shall  be isolated from solid waste materials by a minimum of five feet of natural or  compacted soils with a hydraulic conductivity equal to or less than 1x10-7  cm/sec. 
    10. Specific site conditions may be considered in approving an  exemption of a site from the siting restrictions of subdivisions 7 and 8 of  this subsection. 
    B. Design/construction. 
    1. All CDD landfill facilities shall be surrounded on all  sides by natural barriers, fencing, or an equivalent means of controlling  vehicular access. All access will be limited to gates, and such gates shall be  securable and equipped with locks. 
    2. Access roads extending from the public road to the entrance  of a facility or site shall be all weather, and shall be provided with a base  capable of withstanding anticipated heavy vehicle loads. 
    3. CDD landfill facilities should be provided with an  adequately lighted and heated shelter where operating personnel have access to  essential sanitation facilities. Lighting, sanitation facilities and heat may  be provided by portable equipment as necessary. 
    4. Aesthetics shall be considered in the design of a facility  or site. Use of artificial or natural screens shall be incorporated into the  design for site screening and noise attenuation. The design should reflect  those requirements, if any, that are determined from the long-range plan for  the future use of the site. 
    5. All CDD landfill facilities shall be equipped with  permanent or mobile telephone or radio communications. 
    6. All CDD landfills shall be designed to divert surface water  runoff from a 25-year, 24-hour storm away from disposal areas. The design shall  provide that any surface water runoff is managed so that erosion is well  controlled and environmental damage is prevented. 
    7. Each CDD landfill facility shall be constructed in  accordance with approved plans, which shall not be subsequently modified  without approval by the department. 
    8. A leachate collection system and removal system and  leachate monitoring program shall be required as detailed in 9VAC20-80-290.  Surface impoundments or other leachate storage structures shall be so  constructed that discharge to ground water will not occur. Leachate derived from  the CDD landfill may be recirculated provided the CDD disposal unit is designed  with a composite liner as required by 9VAC20-80-250 B 9 and a leachate  collection system as required by 9VAC20-80-290. 
    9. A decomposition gas venting system or gas monitoring  program is required unless the owner or operator can demonstrate to the  department that gas formation is not a problem at the permitted landfill. A  venting system will be essential at any time the concentration of methane  generated exceeds 25% of the lower explosive limit within any structure or at  the facility boundary. When required, the control of the decomposition gases  shall be carried out in accordance with 9VAC20-80-280. 
    10. Final contours of the finished landfill shall be  specified. Design of final contours shall consider subsequent site uses,  existing natural contours, surface water management requirements, and the  nature of the surrounding area. The final elevation of the landfill shall be  limited by the structural capacity of the liner and leachate collection and  removal system. The final contour shall not cause structural damage or collapse  of the leachate collection system. Two survey bench marks shall be established  and maintained on the landfill site, and their locations identified or recorded  on drawings and maps of the facility. 
    11. A ground water monitoring system shall be installed at all  new and existing CDD landfills in accordance with the requirements of  9VAC20-80-300. 
    12. Finished side slopes shall be stable and be configured to adequately  control erosion and runoff. Slopes of 33% will be allowed provided that  adequate runoff controls are established. Steeper slopes may be considered if  supported by necessary stability calculations and appropriate erosion and  runoff control features. All finished slopes and runoff management facilities  shall be supported by necessary calculations and included in the design manual.  
    13. Solid waste disposal shall be at least 50 feet from the  facility boundary. 
    14. All CDD landfills shall be underlain by a liner system as  follows: 
    a. Compacted clay: 
    (1) A liner consisting of at least one-foot layer of compacted  soil with a hydraulic conductivity of no more than 1x10-7 cm/sec. 
    (2) The liner shall be placed with a minimum of 2.0% slope for  leachate drainage. 
    (3) The liner shall be covered with a minimum one-foot thick  drainage layer composed of material having a hydraulic conductivity of 1x10-3  cm/sec or greater (lab tested). 
    b. Synthetic liners: 
    (1) Synthetic liner consisting of a minimum 30-mil thick  flexible membrane. If high density polyethylene is used, it shall be at least  60-mil thick. Synthetic liners shall be proven to be compatible with the solid  waste and its leachate. 
    (2) The liner shall be placed in accordance with an approved  construction quality control/quality assurance program submitted with the  design plans. 
    (3) The base under the liner shall be a smooth rock-free base  or otherwise prepared to prevent causing liner failure. 
    (4) The liner shall be placed with a minimum of 2.0% slope for  leachate drainage. 
    (5) The liner shall be covered with a 12-inch thick drainage  layer and a 6-inch thick protective layer, placed above the drainage layer,  both materials having a hydraulic conductivity of 1x10-3 cm/sec or  greater (lab tested). 
    c. Other liners: 
    (1) Other augmented compacted clays or soils may be used as a  liner provided the thickness is equivalent and the hydraulic conductivity will  be equal to or less than that for compacted clay alone. 
    (2) The effectiveness of the proposed augmented soil liner  shall be documented by using appropriate laboratory tests. 
    (3) Shall be placed with a minimum of 2.0% slope for leachate  drainage. 
    d. In-place soil: 
    (1) Where the landfill will be separated from the ground water  by low hydraulic conductivity soil as indicated by appropriate laboratory  tests, which is natural and undisturbed, and provides equal or better  performance in protecting ground water from leachate contamination, a liner can  be developed by manipulation of the soil to form a liner with equivalent  thickness and hydraulic conductivity equal to or less than that of the clay  liner. 
    (2) Shall be prepared with a minimum of 2.0% slope for  leachate drainage. 
    e. Double liners required or used in lieu of ground water  monitoring shall include: 
    (1) Base preparation to protect the liner. 
    (2) A bottom or secondary liner which is soil, synthetic or  augmented soil as indicated in subdivisions 14 a, b, and c of this subsection. 
    (3) A witness or monitoring zone placed above the bottom or  secondary liner consisting of a minimum of 12-inch thick drainage layer  composed of material with a hydraulic conductivity of 1x10-3cm/sec  or greater with a network or perforated pipe, or an equivalent design. 
    (4) The primary liner as indicated in subdivision 14 a, b, and  c of this subsection. 
    (5) The primary liner shall be covered with a minimum 12-inch  thick drainage layer for leachate removal and a 6-inch thick protective layer  placed above the drainage layer both materials having a hydraulic conductivity  of 1x10-3 cm/sec or greater (lab tested). 
    15. If five-foot separation from seasonal high ground water  can be demonstrated, a separate area may be established to receive only stumps,  brush, leaves and land clearing debris. Such an area may be constructed without  a liner or a leachate collection system, but may not receive any other solid  waste. 
    16. A fire break of 50 feet shall be designed around the  disposal area and all tree lines. 
    17. Construction quality assurance program. 
    a. General. 
    (1) A construction quality assurance (CQA) program is required  for all landfill units. The program shall ensure that the constructed unit  meets or exceeds all design criteria and specifications in the permit. The  program shall be developed and implemented under the direction of a CQA officer  who is a registered professional engineer. 
    (2) The CQA program shall address the following physical  components, where applicable: 
    (a) Foundations; 
    (b) Low-hydraulic conductivity soil liners; 
    (c) Synthetic membrane liners; 
    (d) Leachate collection and removal systems; and 
    (e) Final cover systems. 
    b. Written CQA plan. The owner or operator shall develop and  implement a written CQA plan. The plan shall identify steps that will be used  to monitor and document the quality of materials and the condition and manner  of their installation. The CQA plan shall include: 
    (1) Identification of applicable units, and a description of  how they will be constructed. 
    (2) Identification of key personnel in the development and  implementation of the CQA plan, and CQA officer qualifications. 
    (3) A description of inspection and sampling activities for  all unit components identified in subdivision 17 a (2) of this subsection  including observations and tests that will be used before, during, and after  construction to ensure that the construction materials and the installed unit  components meet the design specifications. The description shall cover:  sampling size and locations; frequency of testing; data evaluation procedures;  acceptance and rejection criteria for construction materials; plans for  implementing corrective measures; and data or other information to be recorded.  
    c. Contents of program. The CQA program shall include  observations, inspections, tests, and measurements sufficient to ensure: 
    (1) Structural stability and integrity of all components of  the unit identified in subdivision 17 a (2) of this subsection; 
    (2) Proper construction of all components of the liners,  leachate collection and removal system, gas management system if required under  subdivision 9 of this subsection and final cover system, according to permit  specifications and good engineering practices, and proper installation of all  components (e.g. pipes) according to design specifications; 
    (3) Conformity of all materials used with design and other  material specifications; and 
    (4) The permeability of the liner soil. Soil liner  construction will be demonstrated on a test pad where permeability will be  confirmed using an in situ testing method. 
    d. Certification. Waste shall not be received in a landfill  unit until the owner or operator has submitted to the department by certified  mail or hand delivery a certification signed by the CQA officer that the  approved CQA plan has been successfully carried out and that the unit meets the  requirements of this section. Documentation supporting the CQA officer's  certification shall be submitted to the department upon request. An additional  certification is required under the provisions of 9VAC20-80-550 A 1. 
    C. Operation. 
    1. Access to a facility shall be permitted only when an  attendant is on duty and only during daylight hours, unless otherwise specified  in the permit for the facility. 
    2. Litter shall be confined to refuse holding and operating  areas by fencing or other suitable means. 
    3. Dust, odors, and vectors shall be effectively controlled so  they do not constitute nuisances or hazards. 
    4. Safety hazards to operating personnel shall be prevented  controlled through an active safety program consistent with the  requirements of 29 CFR Part 1910. 
    5. Adequate numbers and types of properly maintained equipment  shall be available to a facility for the performance of operation. Provision  shall be made for substitute equipment to be available within 24 hours should  the former become inoperable or unavailable. 
    6. Open burning shall be prohibited. 
    7. Solid waste shall not be deposited in, nor shall it be  permitted to enter any surface waters or ground waters. 
    8. Salvaging may be permitted by a solid waste disposal  facility operator, but shall be controlled within a designated salvage area to  preclude interference with operation of the facility and to avoid the creation  of hazards or nuisances. 
    9. Reasonable records shall be maintained on the amount of  solid waste received and processed to include date, quantity by weight or  volume, and origin. Such information shall be made available to the department  for examination or use when requested. 
    10. Fire breaks shall be installed in layers periodically as  established in the facility permit. Such fire breaks shall consist of borrow  materials deemed suitable as intermediate cover, and shall be placed on the  top, side slopes, and working faces of the fill to a depth of at least one  foot. The requirements for fire breaks may be waived, however, if the waste  materials are non-combustible. The owner or operator shall be responsible for  extinguishing any fires that may occur at the facility. A fire control plan  will be developed that outlines the response of facility personnel to fires.  The fire control plan will be provided as an attachment to the emergency  contingency plan required under the provisions of 9VAC20-80-520 C 2 k. The fire  control plan will be available for review upon request by the public. 
    11. Compaction and cover requirements. 
    a. Waste materials shall be compacted in shallow layers during  the placement of disposal lifts to minimize differential settlement. 
    b. Compacted soil cover shall be applied as needed for safety  and aesthetic purposes. A minimum one-foot thick progressive cover shall be  maintained weekly such that the top of the lift is fully covered at the end of  the work week. A fire break as specified in subdivision 10 of this subsection  will be installed on the top, side slopes, and on the work face as weekly  progressive cover or as required in the facility permit. The open working face  of a landfill shall be kept as small as practicable, determined by the tipping  demand for unloading. 
    c. When waste deposits have reached final elevations, or  disposal activities are interrupted for 15 days or more, waste deposits shall  receive a one-foot thick intermediate cover unless soil has already been  applied in accordance with subdivision 11 b of this subsection and be graded to  prevent ponding and to accelerate surface run-off. 
    d. Final cover construction will be initiated in accordance  with the requirements of subdivision E 1 b of this section upon the completion  of disposal operations or when the following pertain: 
    (1) When operations are suspended for six months or more. 
    (2) Within 90 days of any area of the landfill reaching final  elevation final cover construction will be initiated in that area. The director  may approve alternate timeframes if they are specified in the facility's  closure plan. 
    (3) If, for any reason, the permit is terminated, cover  construction will be initiated within 90 days of termination. 
    e. Vegetative cover with proper support layers shall be  established and maintained on all exposed final cover material within four  months after placement, or as otherwise specified by the department when  seasonal conditions do not otherwise permit. 
    12. A ground water monitoring program meeting the requirements  of subsection D of this section shall be implemented. 
    13. Corrective Action Program. A corrective action program  meeting the requirements of 9VAC20-80-310 is required whenever the ground water  protection standard is exceeded. 
    14. Leachate from a solid waste disposal facility shall not be  permitted to drain or discharge into surface waters except when authorized  under a VPDES permit issued pursuant to the State Water Control Board  Regulation (9VAC25-31). 
    15. All items designed in accordance with the requirements of  subsection B of this section shall be properly maintained. 
    D. Ground water monitoring program. A ground water monitoring  program shall be instituted at all CDD landfills in accordance with the  requirements contained in 9VAC20-80-300. 
    E. Closure. 
    1. Closure criteria. All CDD landfills shall be closed in  accordance with the procedures set forth in this subdivision. 
    a. The owner or operator shall close his facility in a manner  that minimizes the need for further maintenance, and controls, minimizes or  eliminates the post-closure escape of uncontrolled leachate, surface runoff,  decomposition gas migration, or waste decomposition products to the ground  water, surface water, or to the atmosphere. 
    b. Final cover system. Except as specified in subdivision 1 c  of this subsection, owner or operator of CDD landfills shall install a final  cover system that is designed to achieve the performance requirements of  subdivision 1 a of this subsection. 
    (1) The final cover system shall be designed and constructed  to: 
    (a) Have a hydraulic conductivity less than or equal to the  hydraulic conductivity of any bottom liner system or natural subsoils present,  or a hydraulic conductivity no greater than 1x10-5 cm/sec, whichever  is less; and 
    (b) Minimize infiltration through the closed disposal unit by  the use of an infiltration layer that contains a minimum 18 inches of earthen  material; and 
    (c) Minimize erosion of the final cover by the use of an  erosion layer that contains a minimum of six inches of earthen material that is  capable of sustaining native plant growth, and provide for protection of the  infiltration layer from the effects of erosion, frost, and wind. 
    (2) Finished side slopes shall be stable and be configured to  adequately control erosion and runoff. Slopes of 33% will be allowed provided  that adequate runoff controls are established. Steeper slopes may be considered  if supported by necessary stability calculations and appropriate erosion and  runoff control features. All finished slopes and runoff management facilities shall  be supported by necessary calculations and included in the design manual. To  prevent ponding of water, the top slope shall be at least two percent after  allowance for settlement. 
    (3) The director may approve an alternate final cover design  that includes: 
    (a) An infiltration layer that achieves an equivalent  reduction in infiltration as the infiltration layer specified in subdivisions b  (1) (a) and b (1) (b) of this subsection; and 
    (b) An erosion layer that provides equivalent protection from  wind and water erosion as the erosion layer specified in subdivision 1 b (1)  (c) of this subsection. 
    c. Owners or operators of units used for the disposal of  wastes consisting only of stumps, wood, brush, and leaves from landclearing  operations may apply two feet of compacted soil as final cover material in lieu  of the final cover system specified in subdivision 1 (b) (1) of this  subsection. The provisions of this section shall not be applicable to any  facility with respect to which the director has made a finding that continued  operation of the facility constitutes a threat to the public health or the  environment. 
    2. Closure plan and amendment of plan. 
    a. The owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility  shall have a written closure plan. This plan shall identify the steps necessary  to completely close the facility at the time when the operation will be the  most extensive and at the end of its intended life. The closure plan shall  include, at least: 
    (1) A description of those measures to be taken and procedures  to be employed to comply with this subsection; 
    (2) An estimate of the largest area ever requiring a final  cover as required at any time during the active life; 
    (3) An estimate of the maximum inventory of wastes ever  on-site over the active life of the landfill facility; and 
    (4) A schedule for final closure shall also be provided which  shall include, as a minimum, the anticipated date when wastes will no longer be  received, the date when completion of final closure is anticipated, and  intervening milestone dates which will allow tracking of the progress of  closure. 
    b. The owner or operator may amend his closure plan at any  time during the active life of the facility. The owner or operator shall so  amend his plan any time changes in operating plans or facility design affects  the closure plan. 
    c. The owner or operator shall notify the department whenever  an amended closure plan has been prepared and placed in the operating record. 
    d. Prior to beginning closure of each solid waste disposal  unit, the owner or operator shall notify the department of the intent to close.  
    e. If the owner or operator intends to use an alternate final  cover design, he shall submit a proposed design meeting the requirements of  subdivision 1 b (3) of this subsection to the department at least 180 days  before the date he expects to begin closure. The director will approve or  disapprove the plan within 90 days of receipt. 
    f. Closure plans, and amended closure plans not previously  approved by the director shall be submitted to the department at least 180 days  before the date the owner or operator expects to begin closure. The director  will approve or disapprove the plan within 90 days of receipt. 
    3. Time allowed for closure. 
    a. The owner or operator shall begin closure activities of  each unit no later than 30 days after the date on which the unit receives the  known final receipt of wastes or, if the unit has remaining capacity and there  is a reasonable likelihood that the unit will receive additional wastes, no  later than one year after the most recent receipt of wastes. Extensions beyond  the one-year deadline for beginning closure may be granted by the director if  the owner or operator demonstrates that the unit has the capacity to receive  additional wastes and the owner or operator has taken and will continue to take  all steps necessary to prevent threats to human health and the environment from  the unclosed unit. 
    b. The owner or operator shall complete closure activities in  accordance with the closure plan within six months after receiving the final  volume of wastes. The director may approve a longer closure period if the owner  or operator can demonstrate that the required or planned closure activities  will, of necessity, take longer than six months to complete; and that the owner  or operator has taken all steps to eliminate any significant threat to human  health and the environment from the unclosed but inactive facility. 
    4. Closure implementation. 
    a. The owner or operator shall close each unit with a final  cover as specified in subdivision 1 b of this subsection, grade the fill area  to prevent ponding, and provide a suitable vegetative cover. Vegetation shall  be deemed properly established when there are no large areas void of vegetation  and it is sufficient to control erosion. 
    b. Following construction of the final cover system for each  unit, the owner or operator shall submit to the department a certification, signed  by a registered professional engineer verifying that closure has been completed  in accordance with the closure plan requirements of this part. This  certification shall include the results of the CQA/QC requirements under  subdivision B 17 a (2) (e) of this section. 
    c. Following the closure of all units the owner or operator  shall: 
    (1) Post one sign at the entrance of the facility notifying  all persons of the closing, and the prohibition against further receipt of  waste materials. Further, suitable barriers shall be installed at former  accesses to prevent new waste from being deposited. 
    (2) Within 90 days after closure is completed, the owner or  operator of a landfill shall submit to the local land recording authority a  survey plat prepared by a professional land surveyor registered by the  Commonwealth indicating the location and dimensions of landfill disposal areas.  Monitoring well locations should be included and identified by the number on  the survey plat. The plat filed with the local land recording authority shall  contain a note which states the owner's or operator's future obligation to  restrict disturbance of the site as specified. 
    (3) The owner of the property on which a disposal facility is  located shall record a notation on the deed to the facility property, or on  some other instrument which is normally examined during title search, notifying  any potential purchaser of the property that the land has been used to manage  solid waste. A copy of the deed notation as recorded shall be filed with the  department. 
    (4) Submit to the department a certification, signed by a  registered professional engineer, verifying that closure has been completed in  accordance with the requirements of subdivision 4 d (1) through 4 d (3) of this  subsection and the facility closure plan. 
    5. Inspection. The department shall inspect all solid waste  management units at the time of closure to confirm that the closing is complete  and adequate. It shall notify the owner of a closed facility, in writing, if  the closure is satisfactory, and shall require any construction or such other  steps necessary to bring unsatisfactory sites into compliance with this  chapter. Notification by the department that the closure is satisfactory does  not relieve the operator of responsibility for corrective action to prevent or  abate problems caused by the facility. 
    6. Post-closure period. The post-closure care period begins on  the date of the certification signed by a registered professional engineer as  required in subdivision 4 c (4) of this subsection. Unless a facility completes  all provisions of subdivision 4 of this subsection the department will not  consider the facility closed, and the beginning of the post-closure care period  will be postponed until all provisions have been completed. If the department's  inspection required by subdivision 5 of this subsection reveals that the  facility has not been properly closed in accordance with this part, post  closure will begin on the date that the department acknowledges proper closure  has been completed. 
    F. Post-closure care requirements 
    1. Following closure of all disposal units, the owner or  operator shall conduct post-closure care of the facility. Except as provided  under subdivision 2 of this subsection, post-closure care shall be conducted  for 10 years after the date of completing closure or for as long as leachate is  generated, whichever is later, and shall consist of at least the following: 
    a. Maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of any final  cover, including making repairs to the cover as necessary to correct the  effects of settlement, subsidence, erosion, or other events, and preventing  run-on and run-off from eroding or otherwise damaging the final cover; 
    b. Maintaining and operating the leachate collection system in  accordance with the requirements in 9VAC20-80-290 and 9VAC20-80-300, if  applicable. The director may allow the owner or operator to stop managing  leachate if the owner or operator demonstrates that leachate no longer poses a  threat to human health and the environment; 
    c. Monitoring the ground water in accordance with the  requirements of subsection D of this section and maintaining the ground water  monitoring system, if applicable; and 
    d. If applicable, maintaining and operating the gas monitoring  system in accordance with the requirements of 9VAC20-80-280. 
    2. The length of the post-closure care period may be: 
    a. Decreased by the director if the owner or operator  demonstrates that the reduced period is sufficient to protect human health and  the environment and this demonstration is approved by the director; or 
    b. Increased by the director if the director determines that  the lengthened period is necessary to complete the corrective measures or to  protect human health and the environment. If the post-closure period is increased,  the owner or operator shall submit a revised post-closure plan for review and  approval, and continue post-closure monitoring and maintenance in accordance  with the approved plan. 
    3. The owner or operator shall prepare a written post-closure  plan that includes, at a minimum, the following information: 
    a. A description of the monitoring and maintenance activities  required in subdivision 1 of this subsection for each disposal unit, and the  frequency at which these activities will be performed; 
    b. Name, address, and telephone number of the person or office  to contact about the facility during the post-closure period; and 
    c. A description of the planned uses of the property during  the post-closure period. Post-closure use of the property shall not disturb the  integrity of the final cover, liners, or any other components of the  containment system, or the function of the monitoring systems unless necessary  to comply with the requirements of this chapter. The director may approve any  other disturbance if the owner or operator demonstrates that disturbance of the  final cover, liner or other component of the containment system, including any  removal of waste, will not increase the potential threat to human health or the  environment. 
    4. The owner or operator shall submit a post-closure care plan  for review and approval by the director whenever a post-closure care plan has  been prepared or amended. Those post-closure care plans that have been placed  in a facility's operating record must be reviewed and approved by the director  prior to implementation. 
    5. Following completion of the post-closure care period for  each disposal unit, the owner or operator shall submit to the department a  certificate, signed by a registered professional engineer, verifying that post-closure  care has been completed in accordance with the post-closure plan. The  certificate shall be accompanied by an evaluation, prepared by a professional  engineer licensed in the Commonwealth and signed by the owner or operator,  assessing and evaluating the landfill's potential for harm to human health and  the environment in the event that post-closure monitoring and maintenance are  discontinued. 
    9VAC20-80-270. Industrial waste disposal facilities. 
    Facilities intended primarily for the disposal of nonhazardous  industrial waste shall be subject to design and operational requirements  dependent on the volume and the physical, chemical, and biological nature of  the waste. Household wastes may not be disposed of in industrial waste disposal  facilities. Additional requirements, to include added ground water and  decomposition gas monitoring, may be imposed by the director depending on the  volume and the nature of the waste involved as necessary to protect health or  the environment. 
    A. Siting. 
    1. Landfills shall not be sited or constructed in areas  subject to base floods unless it can be shown that the facility can be  protected from inundation or washout and that flow of water is not restricted. 
    2. Landfills shall not be sited in geologically unstable areas  where inadequate foundation support for the structural components of the  landfill exists. Factors to be considered when determining unstable areas shall  include: 
    a. Soil conditions that may result in differential settling  and subsequent failure of containment structures; 
    b. Geologic or geomorphologic features that may result in  sudden or nonsudden events and subsequent failure of containment structures; 
    c. Man-made features or events (both surface and subsurface)  that may result in sudden or nonsudden events and subsequent failure of  containment structures; 
    3. Acceptable landfill sites shall have sufficient area and  terrain to allow for management of leachate. 
    4. No new industrial waste landfill disposal or leachate  storage unit or expansion of existing units shall extend closer than: 
    a. 100 feet of any regularly flowing surface water body or  river; 
    b. 500 feet of any well, spring or other ground water source  of drinking water; 
    c. One thousand feet from the nearest edge of the right-of-way  of any interstate or primary highway or 500 feet from the nearest edge of the  right-of-way of any other highway or city street, except the following: 
    (1) Units which are screened by natural objects, plantings,  fences, or other appropriate means so as to minimize the visibility from the  main-traveled way of the highway or city street, or otherwise removed from  sight; 
    (2) Units which are located in areas which are zoned for  industrial use under authority of state law or in unzoned industrial areas as  determined by the Commonwealth Transportation Board; 
    (3) Units which are not visible from the main-traveled way of  the highway or city street; 
    NOTE: This requirement is based on § 33.1-348 of the Code of  Virginia, which should be consulted for detail. The regulatory responsibility  for this standard rests with the Virginia Department of Transportation. 
    d. 200 feet from the active filling areas to any residence,  school or recreational park area; or 
    e. 50 feet from the active filling areas to the facility  boundary. 
    5. Wetlands. New industrial landfills and lateral expansions  of existing facilities shall not be located in wetlands, unless the owner or  operator can make the following demonstrations: 
    a. Where applicable under §404 of the Clean Water Act or  applicable Virginia wetlands laws, the presumption is clearly rebutted that a  practicable alternative to the proposed landfill exists that does not involve  wetlands; 
    b. The construction and operation of the facility will not: 
    (1) Cause or contribute to violations of any applicable water  quality standard; 
    (2) Violate any applicable toxic effluent standard or  prohibition under §307 of the Clean Water Act; 
    (3) Jeopardize the continued existence of endangered or  threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of a  critical habitat, protected under the Endangered Species Act of 1973; and 
    (4) Violate any requirement under the Marine Protection,  Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972 for the protection of a marine sanctuary;  
    c. The facility will not cause or contribute to significant  degradation of wetlands. The owner or operator shall demonstrate the integrity  of the facility and its ability to protect ecological resources by addressing  the following factors: 
    (1) Erosion, stability, and migration potential of native  wetland soils, muds and deposits used to support the facility; 
    (2) Erosion, stability, and migration potential of dredged and  fill materials used to support the facility; 
    (3) The volume and chemical nature of the waste managed in the  facility; 
    (4) Impacts on fish, wildlife, and other aquatic resources and  their habitat from release of the solid waste; 
    (5) The potential effects of catastrophic release of waste to  the wetland and the resulting impacts on the environment; and 
    (6) Any additional factors, as necessary, to demonstrate that  ecological resources in the wetland are sufficiently protected; 
    d. To the extent required under §404 of the Clean Water Act or  applicable Virginia wetlands laws, steps have been taken to attempt to achieve  no net loss of wetlands (as defined by acreage and function) by first avoiding  impacts to wetlands to the maximum extent practicable as required by  9VAC20-80-250 A 4, then minimizing unavoidable impacts to the maximum extent  practicable, and finally offsetting remaining unavoidable wetland impacts  through all appropriate and practicable compensatory mitigation actions (e.g.,  restoration of existing degraded wetlands or creation of man-made wetlands);  and 
    e. Sufficient information is available to make a reasonable  determination with respect to these demonstrations. 
    6. No new facility shall be located in areas where ground  water monitoring cannot be conducted in accordance with subsection D of this  section. Factors to be considered in determining whether or not a site can be  monitored shall include: 
    a. Ability to characterize the direction of ground water flow  within the uppermost aquifer; 
    b. Ability to characterize and define any releases from the  landfill so as to determine what corrective actions are necessary; 
    c. Ability to perform corrective action as necessary; and 
    d. Ability to install a double liner system with a leachate  collection system above the top liner and a monitoring collection system  between the two liners. 
    7. The following site characteristics may also prevent  approval or require substantial limitations on the site use or require  incorporation of sound engineering controls: 
    a. Excessive slopes (greater than 33%) over more than half the  site area; 
    b. Lack of readily available cover materials or lack of a firm  commitment for adequate cover material from a borrow site; 
    c. Springs, seeps, or other ground water intrusion into the  site; 
    d. The presence of gas, water, sewage, or electrical or other  transmission lines under the site; or 
    e. The prior existence on the site of a dump, unpermitted  landfill, lagoon, or similar unit, even if such unit is closed, will be  considered a defect in the site unless the proposed unit can be isolated from  the defect by the nature of the unit design and the ground water under the  proposed unit can be effectively monitored. 
    8. Specific site conditions may be considered in approving an  exemption of a site from the siting restrictions of subdivision 5 and 6 of this  subsection. 
    B. Design/construction. The following design and construction  requirements apply to all industrial waste landfills: 
    1. All facilities shall be surrounded on all sides by natural  barriers, fencing, or an equivalent means of controlling public access and  preventing illegal disposal. Except where the solid waste disposal facility is  on site of the industrial facility where access is limited, all access will be  limited to gates, and such gates shall be securable and equipped with locks. 
    2. Access roads to the entrance of a solid waste disposal  facility or site and to the disposal area shall be passable in all weather  conditions, and shall be provided with a base capable of withstanding  anticipated heavy vehicle loads. 
    3. Each off-site solid waste disposal facility should be  provided with an adequately lighted and heated shelter where operating  personnel can exercise site control and have access to essential sanitation  facilities. Lighting, heat and sanitation facilities may be provided by  portable equipment as necessary. 
    4. Aesthetics shall be considered in the design of a solid  waste disposal facility. Use of artificial or natural screens shall be  incorporated into the design for site screening and noise attenuation. The  design should reflect those requirements, if any, that are determined from the  long-range plan for the future use of the site. 
    5. All landfills should be equipped with permanent or mobile  telephone or radio communications except where other on-site resources are  available. 
    6. All facilities shall be designed to divert surface water  runoff from a 25-year, 24-hour storm away from disposal areas. The design shall  provide that any surface water runoff is managed so that erosion is well  controlled and environmental damage is prevented. 
    7. The design shall provide for leachate management which  shall include its collection, treatment, storage, and disposal and a leachate  monitoring program in accordance with 9VAC20-80-290. 
    8. Each landfill shall be constructed in accordance with  approved plans, which shall not be subsequently modified without approval by  the department. 
    9. Two survey bench marks shall be established and maintained  on the landfill site, and its location identified or recorded on drawings and  maps of the facility. 
    10. Compacted lifts of deposited waste shall be of a height  that is compatible with the amount received daily and the specific industrial  waste being managed keeping work face to a minimum. 
    11. Acceptable landfill sites shall have sufficient area and  terrain to allow for management of leachate. 
    12. A ground water monitoring system shall be installed at all  new and existing industrial landfills in accordance with the requirements of  9VAC20-80-300. 
    13. Drainage structures shall be installed and continuously  maintained to prevent ponding and erosion, and to minimize infiltration of  water into solid waste cells. 
    14. All landfills shall be underlain by a liner system as  follows: 
    a. Compacted soil: 
    (1) A liner consisting of at least one-foot layer of compacted  soil with a hydraulic conductivity of no more than 1x10-7 cm/sec. 
    (2) The liner shall be placed with a minimum of 2.0% slope for  leachate drainage. 
    (3) The liner shall be covered with a minimum one-foot thick  drainage layer composed of material having a hydraulic conductivity of 1x10-3  cm/sec or greater (lab tested). 
    b. Synthetic liners: 
    (1) Synthetic liner consisting of a minimum 30-mil thick  flexible membrane. If high density polyethylene is used, it shall be at least  60-mil thick. Synthetic liners shall be proven to be compatible with the solid  waste and its leachate. 
    (2) The liner shall be placed in accordance with an approved  construction quality control/quality assurance program submitted with the  design plans. 
    (3) The base under the liner shall be a smooth rock-free base  or otherwise prepared to prevent causing liner failure. 
    (4) The liner shall be placed with a minimum of 2.0% slope for  leachate drainage. 
    (5) The liner shall be covered with a 12-inch thick drainage  layer for leachate removal and a six -inch thick protective layer placed above  the drainage layer, both composed of materials with a hydraulic conductivity of  1x10-3 cm/sec or greater (lab tested). 
    c. Other liners: 
    (1) Other augmented compacted clays or soils may be used as a  liner provided the thickness is equivalent and the hydraulic conductivity will  be equal to or less than that for compacted clay alone. 
    (2) The effectiveness of the proposed augmented soil liner  shall be documented by using appropriate laboratory tests. 
    (3) The liner shall be placed with a minimum of 2.0% slope for  leachate drainage. 
    d. In-place soil: 
    (1) Where the landfill will be separated from the ground water  by low hydraulic conductivity soil as indicated by appropriate laboratory  tests, which is natural and undisturbed, and provides equal or better  performance in protecting ground water from leachate contamination, a liner can  be developed by manipulation of the soil to form a liner with equivalent  thickness and hydraulic conductivity equal to or less than that of the clay  liner. 
    (2) The liner shall be prepared with a minimum of 2.0% slope  for leachate drainage. 
    e. Double liners required or used in lieu of ground water  monitoring shall include: 
    (1) Base preparation to protect the liner. 
    (2) A bottom or secondary liner which is soil, synthetic or  augmented soil as indicated in subdivision 14 a, b, c, or d of this subsection.  
    (3) A witness or monitoring zone placed above the bottom or secondary  liner consisting of a 12 -inch thick drainage layer composed of material with a  hydraulic conductivity of 1x10-3 cm/sec or greater (lab tested) with  a network of perforated pipe, or an equivalent design. 
    (4) The primary liner as indicated in subdivision 14 a, b, or  c of this subsection. 
    (5) The primary liner will be covered with a minimum 12-inch  thick drainage layer and a six-inch thick protective layer, placed above the  drainage layer, both composed of materials having a hydraulic conductivity of  1x10-3 cm/sec or greater (lab tested). 
    15. The leachate collection system shall be placed above the  top liner in accordance with the requirements of 9VAC20-80-290. Surface  impoundments or other leachate storage structures shall be so constructed that  discharge to ground water will not occur. Leachate derived from the industrial  waste landfill may be recirculated provided the disposal unit is designed with  a composite liner as required by 9VAC20-80-250 B 9 and a leachate collection  system as required by 9VAC20-80-290. 
    16. Final contours of the finished landfill shall be  specified. Design of final contours shall consider subsequent site uses,  existing natural contours, surface water management requirements, and the  nature of the surrounding area. 
    17. Finished side slopes shall be stable and be configured to  adequately control erosion and runoff. Slopes of 33% will be allowed provided  that adequate runoff controls are established. Steeper slopes may be considered  if supported by necessary stability calculations and appropriate erosion and  runoff control features. All finished slopes and runoff management facilities  shall be supported by necessary calculations and included in the design manual.  The top slope shall be at least 2.0% to prevent ponding of water. 
    18. Each design shall include a gas management plan developed  to control decomposition gases, unless the owner or operator can demonstrate  that the chemical composition of wastes disposed clearly shows that no gases  will be generated. The plan shall address the requirements of 9VAC20-80-280. 
    19. Construction quality assurance program. 
    a. General. 
    (1) A construction quality assurance (CQA) program is required  for all landfill units. The program shall ensure that the constructed unit  meets or exceeds all design criteria and specifications in the permit. The  program shall be developed and implemented under the direction of a CQA officer  who is a registered professional engineer. 
    (2) The CQA program shall address the following physical  components, where applicable: 
    (a) Foundations; 
    (b) Low-hydraulic conductivity soil liners; 
    (c) Synthetic membrane liners; 
    (d) Leachate collection and removal systems; and 
    (e) Final cover systems. 
    b. Written CQA plan. The owner or operator shall develop and  implement a written CQA plan. The plan shall identify steps that will be used  to monitor and document the quality of materials and the condition and manner  of their installation. The CQA plan shall include: 
    (1) Identification of applicable units, and a description of how  they will be constructed. 
    (2) Identification of key personnel in the development and  implementation of the CQA plan, and CQA officer qualifications. 
    (3) A description of inspection and sampling activities for  all unit components identified in subdivision 19 a (2) of this subsection  including observations and tests that will be used before, during, and after  construction to ensure that the construction materials and the installed unit  components meet the design specifications. The description shall cover:  sampling size and locations; frequency of testing; data evaluation procedures;  acceptance and rejection criteria for construction materials; plans for implementing  corrective measures; and data or other information to be recorded. 
    c. Contents of program. The CQA program shall include  observations, inspections, tests, and measurements sufficient to ensure: 
    (1) Structural stability and integrity of all components of  the unit identified in subdivision 19 a (2) of this subsection; 
    (2) Proper construction of all components of the liners,  leachate collection and removal system, gas management system if required under  subdivision 18 of this subsection and final cover system, according to permit  specifications and good engineering practices, and proper installation of all  components (e.g., pipes) according to design specifications; 
    (3) Conformity of all materials used with design and other  material specifications; 
    (4) The permeability of the soil liner. Soil liner  construction will be demonstrated on a test pad where permeability will be  confirmed using an in situ testing method. 
    d. Certification. Waste shall not be received in a landfill  unit until the owner or operator has submitted to the department by certified  mail or hand delivery a certification signed by the CQA officer that the  approved CQA plan has been successfully carried out and that the unit meets the  requirements of this section. Documentation supporting the CQA officer's  certification shall be submitted to the department upon request. An additional  certification is required under the provisions of 9VAC20-80-550 A 1 
    C. Operation. 
    1. Access to an off-site solid waste disposal facility shall  be permitted only when an attendant is on duty and during times specified in  the permit for the facility. An on-site solid waste disposal facility may  operate during the normal hours of the industrial facility it directly  supports. 
    2. Dust, odors, and vectors shall be effectively controlled so  they do not constitute nuisances or hazards. 
    3. Safety hazards to operating personnel shall be prevented  controlled through an active safety program consistent with the  requirements of 29 CFR Part 1910. 
    4. Adequate numbers and types of properly maintained equipment  shall be available to a facility for the performance of operation. Provision  shall be made for substitute equipment to be available within 24 hours should  the former become inoperable or unavailable. 
    5. Open burning shall be prohibited except pursuant to the  appropriate conditional exemptions among those listed in 9VAC20-80-180 B 7 b.  The means shall be provided on a facility to promptly extinguish any  non-permitted open burning and to provide adequate fire protection for the  solid waste disposal facility as a whole. There shall be no open burning  permitted on areas where solid waste has been disposed or is being used for  active disposal. 
    6. Solid waste shall not be deposited in, nor shall it be  permitted to enter any surface waters or ground waters. 
    7. Records of waste received from off-site sources shall be  maintained on the amount of solid waste received and processed, type of waste,  and source of waste. Such information shall be made available to the department  on request. 
    8. The ground water monitoring program shall be implemented in  accordance with subsection D of this section. 
    9. Corrective action program. A corrective action program in  accordance with 9VAC20-80-310 is required whenever the ground water protection  levels are exceeded. 
    10. Fugitive dust and mud deposits on main site and access  roads shall be controlled at all times to minimize nuisances. 
    11. Incinerator and air pollution control residues containing  no free liquids should be incorporated into the working face and covered at  such intervals as necessary to minimize them from becoming airborne. 
    12. Compaction and cover requirements. 
    a. Unless provided otherwise in the permit, solid waste shall  be spread and compacted at the working face, which shall be confined to the  smallest area practicable. 
    b. Lift heights shall be sized according to the volume of  waste received daily and the nature of the industrial waste. A lift height is  not required for materials such as fly ash that are not compactable. 
    c. Where it is appropriate for the specific waste, daily cover  consisting of six inches of compacted earth or other suitable material shall be  placed upon all exposed solid waste prior to the end of each operating day. For  wastes such as fly ash and bottom ash from burning of fossil fuels, periodic  cover to minimize exposure to precipitation and control dust or dust control  measures such as surface wetting or crusting agents shall be applied. 
    d. Intermediate cover of at least one foot of compacted soil  shall be applied whenever an additional lift of refuse is not to be applied  within 30 days unless the owner or operator demonstrates to the satisfaction of  the director that an alternate cover material or an alternate schedule will be  protective of public health and the environment. In the case of facilities  where coal combustion by-products are removed for beneficial use, intermediate  cover must be applied in any area where ash has not been placed or removed for  30 days or more. Further, all areas with intermediate cover exposed shall be  inspected as needed but not less than weekly and additional cover material  shall be placed on all cracked, eroded, and uneven areas as required to  maintain the integrity of the intermediate cover system. 
    e. Final cover construction will be initiated in accordance  with the requirements of subsection E of this section shall be applied when the  following pertain: 
    (1) When an additional lift of solid waste is not to be  applied within two years. 
    (2) When any area of a landfill attains final elevation and  within 90 days after such elevation is reached. The director may approve a  longer period in case of inclement weather. The director may approve alternate  timeframes if they are specified in the facility's closure plan. 
    (3) When a landfill's permit is terminated within 90 days of  such denial or termination. 
    13. Vegetative cover with proper support layers shall be  established and maintained on all exposed final cover material within four  months after placement, or as otherwise specified by the department when  seasonal conditions do not otherwise permit. 
    14. No hazardous wastes as defined by the Virginia Hazardous  Waste Management Regulations shall be accepted at the landfill. 
    15. The open working face of a landfill shall be kept as small  as possible. 
    16. At least three days of acceptable cover soil or approved  material at the average usage rate shall be maintained at the fill at all times  at facilities where daily cover is required unless an off-site supply is  readily available on a daily basis. 
    17. Equipment of appropriate size and numbers shall be on site  at all times. Operators with training appropriate to the tasks they are  expected to perform and in sufficient numbers for the complexity of the site  shall be on the site whenever it is in operation. Equipment and operators  provided will not be satisfactory unless they ensure that the site is managed  with a high degree of safety and effectiveness. 
    18. Internal roads in the landfill shall be maintained to be  passable in all weather by ordinary vehicles. All operation areas and units  shall be accessible; gravel or other finish materials are usually required to  accomplish this. Provisions shall be made to prevent tracking of mud onto  public roads by vehicles leaving the site. 
    19. Leachate from a solid waste disposal facility shall not be  permitted to drain or discharge into surface waters except when authorized  under a VPDES Permit issued pursuant to the State Water Control Board  Regulation (9VAC25-31). 
    D. Ground water monitoring program. Ground water monitoring  program shall be instituted at all industrial waste landfills in accordance  with the requirements contained in 9VAC20-80-300. 
    E. Closure. 
    1. Closure criteria. All industrial waste landfills shall be  closed in accordance with the procedures set forth as follows: 
    a. The owner or operator shall close his facility in a manner  that minimizes the need for further maintenance, and controls the post-closure  escape of uncontrolled leachate, surface runoff, or waste decomposition  products to the ground water, surface water, or to the atmosphere. 
    b. Owner or operator of all industrial landfills shall install  a final cover system that is designed to achieve the performance requirements  of subdivision 1 a of this subsection. 
    (1) The final cover system shall be designed and constructed  to: 
    (a) Have a hydraulic conductivity less than or equal to the  hydraulic conductivity of any bottom liner system or natural subsoils present,  or a hydraulic conductivity no greater than 1x10-5 cm/sec, whichever  is less; and 
    (b) Minimize infiltration through the closed disposal unit by  the use of an infiltration layer that contains a minimum 18 inches of earthen  material; and 
    (c) Minimize erosion of the final cover by the use of an  erosion layer that contains a minimum of six inches of earthen material that is  capable of sustaining native plant growth, and provide for protection of the  infiltration layer from the effects of erosion, frost, and wind. 
    (2) Finished side slopes shall be stable and be configured to  adequately control erosion and runoff. Slopes of 33% will be allowed provided  that adequate runoff controls are established. Steeper slopes may be considered  if supported by necessary stability calculations and appropriate erosion and runoff  control features. All finished slopes and runoff management facilities shall be  supported by necessary calculations and included in the design manual. 
    (3) The director may approve an alternate final cover design  that includes: 
    (a) An infiltration layer that achieves an equivalent  reduction in infiltration as the infiltration layer specified in subdivisions 1  b (1) (a) and (b) of this subsection; and 
    (b) An erosion layer that provides equivalent protection from  wind and water erosion as the erosion layer specified in subdivision 1 b (1)  (c) of this subsection. 
    2. Closure plan and amendment of plan. 
    a. The owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility  shall have a written closure plan. This plan shall identify the steps necessary  to completely close the facility at the time when the operation will be the  most extensive and at the end of its intended life. The closure plan shall  include, at least: 
    (1) A description of those measures and procedures to be  employed to comply with this subsection; 
    (2) An estimate of the largest area ever requiring a final  cover as required at any time during the active life; 
    (3) An estimate of the maximum inventory of wastes ever  on-site over the active life of the landfill facility; and 
    (4) A schedule for final closure shall also be provided which  shall include, as a minimum, the anticipated date when wastes will no longer be  received, the date when completion of final closure is anticipated, and  intervening milestone dates which will allow tracking of the progress of  closure. 
    b. The owner or operator may amend his closure plan at any  time during the active life of the facility. The owner or operator shall so  amend his plan any time changes in operating plans or facility design affect  the closure plan. The amended closure plan shall be placed in the operating  record. 
    c. The owner or operator shall notify the department whenever  an amended closure plan has been prepared and placed in the operating record. 
    d. Prior to beginning closure of each solid waste disposal  unit, the owner or operator shall notify the department of the intent to close.  
    e. If the owner or operator intends to use an alternate final  cover design, he shall submit a proposed design meeting the requirements of  subdivision 1 b (3) of this subsection to the department at least 180 days  before the date he expects to begin closure. The director will approve or  disapprove the plan within 90 days of receipt. 
    f. Closure plans, and amended closure plans not previously  approved by the director shall be submitted to the department at least 180 days  before the date the owner or operator expects to begin closure. The director  will approve or disapprove the plan within 90 days of receipt. 
    3. Time allowed for closure. 
    a. The owner or operator shall begin closure activities of  each unit no later than 30 days after the date on which the unit receives the  known final receipt of wastes or, if the unit has remaining capacity and there  is a reasonable likelihood that the unit will receive additional wastes, no  later than one year after the most recent receipt of wastes. Extensions beyond  the one-year deadline for beginning closure may be granted by the director if  the owner or operator demonstrates that the unit has the capacity to receive  additional wastes and the owner or operator has taken and will continue to take  all steps necessary to prevent threats to human health and the environment from  the unclosed unit. 
    b. The owner or operator shall complete closure activities in  accordance with the closure plan and within six months after receiving the  final volume of wastes. The director may approve a longer closure period if the  owner or operator can demonstrate that the required or planned closure  activities will, of necessity, take longer than six months to complete; and  that he has taken all steps to eliminate any significant threat to human health  and the environment from the unclosed but inactive facility. 
    4. Closure implementation. 
    a. The owner or operator shall close each unit with a final  cover as specified in subdivision 1 b of this subsection, grade the fill area  to prevent ponding, and provide a suitable vegetative cover. Vegetation shall  be deemed properly established when there are no large areas void of vegetation  and it is sufficient to control erosion. 
    b. Following construction of the final cover system for each  unit, the owner or operator shall submit to the department a certification,  signed by a registered professional engineer verifying that closure has been  completed in accordance with the closure plan requirements of this part. This  certification shall include the results of the CQA/QC requirements under  subdivision B 19 a (2) (e) of this section. 
    c. Following the closure of all units the owner or operator  shall: 
    (1) Post one sign at the entrance of the facility notifying  all persons of the closing, and providing a notice prohibiting further receipt  of waste materials. Further, suitable barriers shall be installed at former  accesses to prevent new waste from being deposited. 
    (2) Within 90 days after closure is completed, submit to the  local land recording authority a survey plat indicating the location and  dimensions of landfill disposal areas prepared by a professional land surveyor  registered by the Commonwealth. Monitoring well locations should be included  and identified by the number on the survey plat. The plat filed with the local  land recording authority shall contain a note, prominently displayed, which  states the owner's or operator's future obligation to restrict disturbance of  the site as specified. 
    (3) The owner of the property on which a solid waste disposal  facility is located shall record a notation on the deed to the facility  property, or on some other instrument which is normally examined during title  search, notifying any potential purchaser of the property that the land has  been used to manage solid waste. A copy of the deed notation as recorded shall  be filed with the department. 
    (4) Submit to the department a certification, signed by a  registered professional engineer, verifying that closure has been completed in  accordance with the requirements of subdivision 4 c (1) through (3) of this  subsection and the facility closure plan. 
    5. Inspection. The department shall inspect all solid waste  management units at the time of closure to confirm that the closing is complete  and adequate. It shall notify the owner of a closed facility, in writing, if  the closure is satisfactory, and shall require any construction or such other steps  necessary to bring unsatisfactory sites into compliance with these regulations.  Notification by the department that the closure is satisfactory does not  relieve the operator of responsibility for corrective action to prevent or  abate problems caused by the facility. 
    6. Post-closure period. The post-closure care period begins on  the date of the certification signed by a registered professional engineer as  required in subdivision 4 c (4) of this subsection. Unless a facility completes  all provisions of subdivision 4 of this subsection, the department will not  consider the facility closed, and the beginning of the post-closure care period  will be postponed until all provisions have been completed. If the department's  inspection required by subdivision 5 of this subsection reveals that the  facility has not been properly closed in accordance with this part,  post-closure will begin on the date that the department acknowledges proper  closure has been completed. 
    F. Post-closure care requirements. 
    1. Following closure of all disposal units, the owner or  operator shall conduct post-closure care of the facility. Except as provided  under subdivision 2 of this subsection, post-closure care shall be conducted  for 10 years after the date of closure or for as long as leachate is generated,  whichever is later, and shall consist of at least the following: 
    a. Maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of any final  cover, including making repairs to the cover as necessary to correct the  effects of settlement, subsidence, erosion, or other events, and preventing  run-on and run-off from eroding or otherwise damaging the final cover; 
    b. Maintaining and operating the leachate collection system in  accordance with the requirements in 9VAC20-80-290 and 9VAC20-80-300. The  director may allow the owner or operator to stop managing leachate if the owner  or operator demonstrates that leachate no longer poses a threat to human health  and the environment; 
    c. Monitoring the ground water in accordance with the  requirements of subsection D of this section and maintaining the ground water  monitoring system; and 
    d. If applicable, maintaining and operating the gas monitoring  system in accordance with the requirements of 9VAC20-80-280. 
    2. The length of the post-closure care period may be: 
    a. Decreased by the director if the owner or operator  demonstrates that the reduced period is sufficient to protect human health and  the environment and this demonstration is approved by the director; or 
    b. Increased by the director if the director determines that  the lengthened period is necessary to complete the corrective measures or to  protect human health and the environment. If the post-closure period is  increased, the owner or operator shall submit a revised post-closure plan for  review and approval, and continue post-closure monitoring and maintenance in  accordance with the approved plan. 
    3. The owner or operator shall prepare a written post-closure  plan that includes, at a minimum, the following information: 
    a. A description of the monitoring and maintenance activities  required in subdivision 1 of this subsection for each disposal unit, and the  frequency at which these activities will be performed; 
    b. Name, address, and telephone number of the person or office  to contact about the facility during the post-closure period; and 
    c. A description of the planned uses of the property during  the post-closure period. Post-closure use of the property shall not disturb the  integrity of the final cover, liners, or any other components of the  containment system, or the function of the monitoring systems unless necessary  to comply with the requirements of this chapter. The director may approve any  other disturbance if the owner or operator demonstrates that disturbance of the  final cover, liner or other component of the containment system, including any  removal of waste, will not increase the potential threat to human health or the  environment. 
    4. The owner or operator shall submit a post-closure care plan  for review and approval by the director whenever a post-closure care plan has  been prepared or amended. Those post-closure care plans that have been placed  in a facility's operating record must be reviewed and approved by the director  prior to implementation. 
    5. Following completion of the post-closure care period for  each disposal unit, the owner or operator shall submit to the department a  certificate, signed by a registered professional engineer, verifying that  post-closure care has been completed in accordance with the post-closure plan.  The certificate shall be accompanied by an evaluation, prepared by a  professional engineer licensed in the Commonwealth and signed by the owner or  operator, assessing and evaluating the landfill's potential for harm to human  health and the environment in the event that post-closure monitoring and  maintenance are discontinued. 
    9VAC20-80-280. Control of decomposition gases.
    Owners or operators of solid waste disposal facilities shall  develop a gas management plan in accordance with this section. Venting and  control of decomposition gases shall be implemented for all sanitary  landfills under 9VAC20-80-250 B and other landfills where required under 9VAC20-80-250  B 8, 9VAC20-80-260 B 9, or 9VAC20-80-270 B 18 to protect the  facility cap, and to prevent migration into structures or beyond the facility  boundary. The contents of the plan shall also reflect the requirements  contained in 40 CFR 60.33c and 40 CFR 60.750 (Standards of performance for new  and guidelines for control of existing municipal solid waste landfills) and  9VAC5-40-5800, as appropriate.
    A. General requirements.
    1. To provide for the protection of public health and safety,  and the environment, the operator shall ensure that decomposition gases  generated at a facility are controlled during the periods of operation, closure  and post-closure care, in accordance with the following requirements:
    a. The concentration of methane gas generated by the facility  shall not exceed 25% of the lower explosive limit (LEL) for methane in facility  structures (excluding gas control or recovery system components); and
    b. The concentration of methane gas migrating from the  landfill shall not exceed the lower explosive limit for methane at the facility  boundary.
    2. The program implemented pursuant to subsections B through E  of this section shall continue throughout the active life of the facility and  the closure and post-closure care periods or until the operator receives  written authorization to discontinue by the department to discontinue.  Authorization to cease gas monitoring and control shall be based on a  demonstration by the operator that there is no potential for gas migration  beyond the facility boundary or into facility structures.
    3. Gas monitoring and control systems shall be modified,  during the closure and post-closure maintenance period, to reflect changing  on-site and adjacent land uses. Post closure land use at the site shall not  interfere with the function of gas monitoring and control systems.
    4. The operator may request a reduction of monitoring or  control activities based upon the results of collected monitoring data collected.  The request for reduction of monitoring or control activities shall be  submitted in writing to the department.
    B. Monitoring. To ensure that the conditions of this  section are met, Gas monitoring. Subject to the preconditions in  9VAC20-80-250 B, 9VAC20-80-260 B 9, and 9VAC20-80-270 B 18, the operator  shall implement a gas monitoring program at the facility in accordance with the  following requirements:
    1. The gas monitoring network shall be designed to ensure  detection of the presence of decomposition gas migrating beyond the landfill  facility boundary and into facility structures.
    2. The monitoring network shall be designed to account for the  following specific site characteristics, and potential migration pathways or  barriers, including, but not limited to:
    a. Local soil and rock conditions;
    b. Hydrogeological and hydraulic conditions surrounding the  facility;
    c. Locations of buildings and structures relative to the waste  deposit area;
    d. Adjacent land use, and inhabitable structures within 1000  feet of the landfill facility boundary;
    e. Man-made pathways, such as underground construction; and
    f. The nature and age of waste and its potential to generate  decomposition gas.
    3. Owners or operators of certain large sanitary landfills and  landfills located in non-attainment areas may be required to perform additional  monitoring as provided in 40 CFR 60.33c, 40 CFR 60.750, and 9VAC5-40-5800.
    C. Monitoring frequency.
    1. As a minimum, quarterly monitoring is required.
    2. More frequent monitoring may be required by the  department at those locations where results of monitoring indicate that  decomposition gas migration is occurring or is accumulating in structures to  detect migrating gas and ensure compliance with subsection A of this section.
    4. At a minimum, the gas monitoring frequency shall be  quarterly. The department may require more frequent monitoring at locations  where monitoring results indicate gas migration or gas accumulation in devices  or structures designed to detect migrating gas.
    C. Gas remediation.
    1. When the gas monitoring results indicate concentrations  of methane in excess of the action levels, 25% of the lower explosive limit  (LEL) for methane in facility structures (excluding gas control or recovery  system components) or 80% of the LEL for methane at the facility boundary, the  operator shall:
    a. Take all immediate steps necessary to protect public health  and safety including those required by the contingency plan. 
    b. Notify the department in [ writing  a written statement ] within five working days of learning that  action levels have been exceeded, and indicate what has been done or is planned  to be done to resolve the problem. 
    2. When the gas monitoring results indicate concentrations  of methane in excess of the compliance levels, 25% of the LEL for methane in  facility structures (excluding gas control or recovery system components) or  the LEL for methane at the facility boundary, the operator shall, within 60  days of detection, implement a remediation plan for the methane gas releases  and submit it to the department for amendment of the facility permit. The plan  shall describe the nature and extent of the problem and the proposed remedy.  The plan shall include an implementation schedule specifying timeframes for  implementing corrective actions, an evaluation of the effectiveness of such  corrective actions, and milestones for proceeding in implementation of  additional corrective actions, if necessary to reestablish compliance. 
    3. A gas remediation system shall: 
    a. Prevent methane accumulation in onsite structures. 
    b. Reduce methane concentrations at monitored property  boundaries to below compliance levels in the timeframes specified in the gas  remediation plan. 
    c. Provide for the collection and treatment and/or disposal  of decomposition gas condensate produced at the surface. Condensate generated  from gas control systems may be recirculated into the landfill provided the  facility complies with the liner and leachate control systems requirements of  this part. Condensate collected in condensate traps and drained by gravity into  the waste mass will not be considered recirculation. 
    4. Extensive systems to control emissions of nonmethane  organic compounds may be required under the Clean Air Act (40 CFR 60.33c and 40  CFR 60.750) and 9VAC5-40-5800. Facilities that are required to construct and  operate systems designed to comply with those regulations will be considered to  be in compliance with the requirements of subdivisions 3 a and b of this  subsection, unless monitoring data continues to indicate an exceedance of compliance  levels. Gas control systems also may be subject to the Virginia Operating  [ Permit Permits for Stationary Sources ] Program  [ (9VAC5-80-40) (9VAC5-80) ] or other state  air pollution control regulations. 
    5. The facility shall notify the department of an initial  exceedance of the compliance level or unusual condition that may endanger human  health and the environment, in accordance with 9VAC20-80-570 C 3, such as when  an active gas remediation system is no longer operating in such a manner as to  maintain compliance with this section.
    D. Odor management.
    1. When an odor nuisance or hazard is created under normal  operating conditions and upon notification from the department, the permittee  shall within 90 days develop and implement an odor management plan to address  odors that may impact citizens beyond the [ internal property  facility ] boundaries. The permittee shall place the plan in the  operating record and a copy shall be submitted to the department for its  records. Odor management plans developed in accordance with Virginia Air  Regulations (9VAC5-40-140), 9VAC5-50-140 or other state air pollution control  regulations will suffice for the provisions of this subsection.
    2. The plan shall identify a contact at the facility that  citizens can notify about odor concerns.
    3. Facilities shall perform and document an annual review  and update the odor management plan, as necessary, to address ongoing odor  management issues.
    D. E. Recordkeeping. The owner or operator  shall keep the records of the results of gas monitoring and any gas  remediation issues throughout the active life of the facility and the  post-closure care period. The monitoring records shall include:
    1. The concentrations of the methane as measured at each probe  and within each on-site structure;
    2. The documentation of date, time, barometric pressure,  atmospheric temperatures, general weather conditions, and probe pressures;
    3. The names of sampling personnel, apparatus utilized, and a  brief description of the methods used;
    4. A numbering system to correlate monitoring results to a  corresponding probe location;
    5. Monitoring and design records for any gas remediation or  control system.
    E. Control.
    1. When the results of gas monitoring indicate  concentrations of methane in excess of the compliance levels required by  subdivision A 1 of this subsection, the operator shall:
    a. Take all immediate steps necessary to protect public  health and safety including those required by the contingency plan.
    b. Notify the department in writing within five working  days of learning that compliance levels have been exceeded, and indicate what  has been done or is planned to be done to resolve the problem.
    c. Within 60 days of detection, implement a remediation  plan for the methane gas releases and submit it to the department for approval  and amendment of the facility permit. The plan shall describe the nature and  extent of the problem and the proposed remedy.
    2. A gas control system shall be designed to:
    a. Prevent methane accumulation in on-site structures.
    b. Reduce methane concentrations at monitored property  boundaries to below compliance levels in the timeframes specified in the gas  remediation plan.
    c. Provide for the collection and treatment and/or disposal  of decomposition gas condensate produced at the surface. Condensate generated  from gas control systems may be recirculated into the landfill provided the  facility complies with the liner and leachate control systems requirements of  this part. Condensate collected in condensate traps and drained by gravity into  the waste mass will not be considered recirculation.
    3. Extensive systems to control emissions of non-methane  organic compounds may be required under the Clean Air Act (40 CFR 60.33c and 40  CFR 60.750) and 9VAC5-40-5800. Facilities that are required to construct and  operate systems designed to comply with those regulations will be considered to  be in compliance with the requirements of subdivisions 2 a and b of this  subsection. Gas control systems also may be subject to the Virginia Operating  Permit Program 9VAC5-80-40 or other state air pollution control regulations.
    9VAC20-80-485. Permits-by-rule and other special permits.
    A. Permits by rule. Unless the owner or operator of the  following facilities chooses to apply for and receive a full permit, he shall  be deemed to have a solid waste management facility permit notwithstanding any  other provisions of Part VII (9VAC20-80-480 et seq.) of this chapter, except  9VAC20-80-500 B 2 and B 3, if the conditions listed are met:
    1. Transfer stations. The owner or operator of a transfer  station, if he:
    a. Notifies the director of his intent to operate such a  facility and provides to the department documentation required under  9VAC20-80-500 B;
    b. Provides the director with a certification that the  facility meets the siting standards of 9VAC20-80-340 B;
    c. Furnishes to the director a certificate signed by a  registered professional engineer that the facility has been designed and  constructed in accordance with the standards of 9VAC20-80-340 C;
    d. Submits to the director an operational plan describing how  the standards of 9VAC20-80-340 D will be met;
    e. Submits to the director a closure plan describing how the  standards of 9VAC20-80-340 E will be met; and
    f. Submits to the director the proof of financial  responsibility if required by the Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid  Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities (9VAC20-70); and
    g. Submits to the director the results of the public  participation effort conducted in accordance with the requirements contained in  subdivision 6 of this subsection.
    2. Materials recovery facilities. The owner or operator of a  materials recovery facility, if the owner or operator:
    a. Notifies the director of his intent to operate such a  facility and provides the department with documentation required under  9VAC20-80-500 B;
    b. Provides the director with a certification that the  facility meets the siting standards of 9VAC20-80-360 B, as applicable;
    c. Furnishes to the director a certificate signed by a  registered professional engineer that the facility has been designed and  constructed in accordance with the standards of 9VAC20-80-360 C, as applicable;
    d. Submits to the director an operational plan describing how  the standards of 9VAC20-80-360 D, as applicable, will be met;
    e. Submits to the director a closure plan describing how the  standards of 9VAC20-80-360 E, as applicable, will be met;
    f. Submits to the director the proof of financial  responsibility if required by the Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid  Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities (9VAC20-70);
    g. Submits to the director the results of the public  participation effort conducted in accordance with the requirements contained in  subdivision 6 of this subsection; and
    h. In addition to the above, in the case of facilities engaged  in reclamation of petroleum-contaminated materials, submits to the director:
    (1) A copy of the facility permit issued in accordance with  the regulations promulgated by the of Air Pollution Control Board when  applicable; and
    (2) A description how the requirements of 9VAC20-80-700 will  be met.
    Existing soil reclamation facilities which became operational  prior to March 15, 1993, on the basis of written approval from the director,  are considered to be operating under a permit-by-rule.
    3. Energy recovery, thermal treatment, or incineration  facility. The owner or operator of an energy recovery, thermal treatment, or  incineration facility, if he:
    a. Notifies the director of his intent to operate such a  facility and provides to the department documentation required under  9VAC20-80-500 B;
    b. Provides the director with a certification that the  facility meets the siting standards of 9VAC20-80-370 B, as applicable;
    c. Furnishes to the director a certificate signed by a  registered professional engineer that the facility has been designed and  constructed in accordance with the standards of 9VAC20-80-370 C, as applicable;
    d. Submits to the director an operational plan describing how  the standards of 9VAC20-80-370 D, as applicable, will be met;
    e. Submits to the director a closure plan describing how the  standards of 9VAC20-80-370 E, as applicable, will be met;
    f. Submits to the director the proof of financial  responsibility if required by the Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid  Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities (9VAC20-70); and
    g. Furnishes to the director a copy of the facility permit  issued in accordance with the regulations promulgated by the Air Pollution  Control Board.
    In addition to the above, in the case of thermal treatment  facilities engaged in reclamation of petroleum-contaminated materials, submits  to the director a description of how the requirements of 9VAC20-80-700 will be  met.
    4. Composting facilities. The owner or operator of all Type A  or Type B facilities that receive no more than 700 tons per quarter of  compostable materials, if he:
    a. Notifies the director of his intent to operate such a  facility and provides to the department documentation required under  9VAC20-80-500 B;
    b. Provides the director with the description of the type of  facility and the classification of materials that will be composted as  classified under 9VAC20-80-330 A 4;
    c. Provides the director with a certification that the  facility meets the siting standards of 9VAC20-80-330 B;
    d. Furnishes to the director a certificate signed by a  registered professional engineer that the facility has been designed and  constructed in accordance with the standards of 9VAC20-80-330 C;
    e. Submits to the director an operational plan describing how  the standards of 9VAC20-80-330 D will be met;
    f. Submits to the director a closure plan describing how the  standards of 9VAC20-80-330 E will be met;
    g. Submits to the director the proof of financial  responsibility if required by the Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid  Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities (9VAC20-70); and
    h. Submits to the director the results of the public  participation effort conducted in accordance with the requirements contained in  subdivision 6 of this subsection.
    5. Waste piles. The owner or operator of a waste pile, if the  owner or operator:
    a. Notifies the director of his intent to operate such a  facility and provides the department with documentation required under  9VAC20-80-500 B;
    b. Provides the director with a certification that the  facility meets the siting standards of 9VAC20-80-400 B, as applicable;
    c. Furnishes to the director a certificate signed by a  registered professional engineer that the facility has been designed and  constructed in accordance with the standards of 9VAC20-80-400 C, as applicable;
    d. Submits to the director an operational plan, including a  contingency plan, describing how the standards of 9VAC20-80-400 D, as  applicable, will be met;
    e. Submits to the director a closure plan describing how the  standards of 9VAC20-80-400 E, as applicable, will be met;
    f. Submits to the director the proof of financial  responsibility if required by the Financial Assurance Regulations for Solid  Waste Facilities (9VAC20-70);
    g. Submits to the director the results of the public  participation effort conducted in accordance with the requirements contained in  subdivision 6 of this subsection; and
    h. Submits to the director a copy of the facility's VPDES  permit if applicable.
    6. Public participation.
    a. Before the initiation of any construction at the facility  under subdivision 1, 2, 3, or 4 of this subsection, the owner or operator shall  publish a notice once a week for two consecutive weeks in a major local  newspaper of general circulation informing the public that he intends to  construct and operate a facility eligible for a permit-by-rule. The notice  shall include:
    (1) A brief description of the proposed facility and its  location;
    (2) A statement that the purpose of the public participation  is to acquaint the public with the technical aspects of the facility and how  the standards and the requirements of this chapter will be met, to identify  issues of concern, to facilitate communication and to establish a dialogue  between the permittee and persons who may be affected by the facility;
    (3) Announcement of a 30-day comment period, in accordance  with subdivision 6 d of this subsection, and the name, telephone number, and  address of the owner's or operator's representative who can be contacted by the  interested persons to answer questions or where comments shall be sent;
    (4) Announcement of the date, time, and place for a public  meeting held in accordance with subdivision 6 c of this subsection; and
    (5) Location where copies of the documentation to be submitted  to the department in support of the permit-by-rule notification and any  supporting documents can be viewed and copied.
    b. The owner or operator shall place a copy of the  documentation and support documents in a location accessible to the public in  the vicinity of the proposed facility.
    c. The owner or operator shall hold a public meeting not  earlier than 15 days after the publication of the notice required in  subdivision 6 a of this subsection and no later than seven days before the  close of the 30-day comment period. The meeting shall be held to the extent  practicable in the vicinity of the proposed facility.
    d. The public shall be provided 30 days to comment on the  technical and the regulatory aspects of the proposal. The comment period will  begin on the date the owner or operator publishes the notice in the local  newspaper.
    e. The requirements of this section do not apply to the owners  or operators of a material or energy recovery facility, an incinerator or a  thermal treatment unit that has received a permit from the department based on  the regulations promulgated by the State Air Pollution Control Board or State  Water Control Board that required facility-specific public participation  procedures.
    7. Upon receiving the certifications and other required  documents, including the results of the public meeting and the applicant's  response to the comments received, the [ director will acknowledge  their receipt department shall respond ] within 10 working  30 calendar days. If the applicant's submission is administratively  incomplete, the letter will state that the facility will not be considered to  have a permit-by-rule until the missing certifications or other required  documentation is submitted. At the time of the initial receipt or at a later  date, the director may require changes in the documents designed to assure  compliance with the standards of Part VI (9VAC20-80-320 et seq.) and Part VIII  (9VAC20-80-630 et seq.), if applicable. Should such changes not be accomplished  by the facility owner or operator, the director may require the operator to  submit the full permit application and to obtain a regular solid waste  management facility permit.
    8. Change of ownership. A permit by rule may not be  transferred by the permittee to a new owner or operator. However, when the  property transfer takes place without proper closure, the new owner shall  notify the department of the sale and fulfill all the requirements contained in  subdivisions 1 through 4 of this subsection with the exception of those dealing  with the financial assurance. Upon presentation of the financial assurance  proof required by 9VAC20-70 by the new owner, the department will release the  old owner from his closure and financial responsibilities and acknowledge  existence of the new permit by rule in the name of the new owner.
    9. Facility modifications. The owner or operator of a facility  operating under a permit by rule may modify its design and operation by  furnishing the department a new certificate prepared by the professional  engineer and new documentation required under subdivision 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 as  applicable, and 6 of this subsection. Whenever modifications in the design or  operation of the facility affect the provisions of the approved closure plan,  the owner or operator shall also submit an amended closure plan. Should there  be an increase in the closure costs, the owner or operator shall submit a new  proof of financial responsibility as required by the Financial Assurance  Regulations for Solid Waste Disposal, Transfer, and Treatment Facilities  (9VAC20-70).
    10. Loss of permit by rule status. In the event that a  facility operating under a permit by rule violates any applicable siting,  design and construction, or closure provisions of Part VI of this chapter, the  owner or operator of the facility will be considered to be operating an  unpermitted facility as provided for in 9VAC20-80-80 and shall be required to  either obtain a new permit as required by Part VII or close under Part V or VI  of this chapter, as applicable.
    11. Termination. The director shall terminate permit by rule  and shall require closure of the facility whenever he finds that:
    a. As a result of changes in key personnel, the requirements  necessary for a permit by rule are no longer satisfied;
    b. The applicant has knowingly or willfully misrepresented or  failed to disclose a material fact in his disclosure statement, or any other  report or certification required under this chapter, or has knowingly or  willfully failed to notify the director of any material change to the  information in the disclosure statement;
    c. Any key personnel have been convicted of any of the crimes  listed in § 10.1-1409 of the Code of Virginia, punishable as felonies under the  laws of the Commonwealth, or the equivalent of them under the laws of any other  jurisdiction; or has been adjudged by an administrative agency or a court of  competent jurisdiction to have violated the environmental protection laws of  the United States, the Commonwealth or any other state and the director  determines that such conviction or adjudication is sufficiently probative of  the permittee's inability or unwillingness to operate the facility in a lawful  manner; or
    d. The operation of the facility is inconsistent with the  facility's operations manual and the operational requirements of the  regulations.
    B. Emergency permits. Notwithstanding any other provision of  Part VII of this chapter, in the event the director finds an imminent and  substantial endangerment to human health or the environment, the director may  issue a temporary emergency permit to a facility to allow treatment, storage, or  disposal of solid waste for a nonpermitted facility or solid waste not covered  by the permit for a facility with an effective permit. Such permits:
    1. May be oral or written. If oral, it shall be followed  within five days by a written emergency permit;
    2. Shall not exceed 90 days in duration;
    3. Shall clearly specify the solid wastes to be received, and  the manner and location of their treatment, storage, or disposal;
    4. Shall be accompanied by a public notice including:
    a. Name and address of the office granting the emergency  authorization;
    b. Name and location of the facility so permitted;
    c. A brief description of the wastes involved;
    d. A brief description of the action authorized and reasons  for authorizing it;
    e. Duration of the emergency permit; and
    5. Shall incorporate, to the extent possible and not  inconsistent with the emergency situation, all applicable requirements of this  chapter.
    C. Experimental facility permits.
    1. The director may issue an experimental facility permit for  any solid waste treatment facility which proposes to utilize an innovative and  experimental solid waste treatment technology or process for which permit  standards for such experimental activity have not been promulgated under Part  VI of this chapter. Any such permit shall include such terms and conditions as  will assure protection of human health and the environment. Such permits:
    a. Shall provide for the construction of such facilities based  on the standards shown in 9VAC20-80-470, as necessary;
    b. Shall provide for operation of the facility for no longer  than one calendar year unless renewed as provided in subdivision 3 of this  subsection;
    c. Shall provide for the receipt and treatment by the facility  of only those types and quantities of solid waste which the director deems  necessary for purposes of determining the efficiency and performance  capabilities of the technology or process and the effects of such technology or  process on human health and the environment; and
    d. Shall include such requirements as the director deems  necessary to protect human health and the environment (including, but not  limited to, requirements regarding monitoring, operation, closure and remedial  action), and such requirements as the director deems necessary regarding  testing and providing of information to the director with respect to the  operation of the facility.
    2. For the purpose of expediting review and issuance of  permits under this subsection, the director may, consistent with the protection  of human health and the environment, modify or waive permit application and  permit issuance requirements in Part VII of this chapter except that there may  be no modification or waiver of regulations regarding local certification,  disclosure statement requirements, financial responsibility (including insurance)  or of procedures regarding public participation.
    3. Any permit issued under this subsection may be renewed not  more than three times. Each such renewal shall be for a period of not more than  one calendar year.
    D. Research, development and demonstration plans.  Research, development and demonstration (RDD) plans may be submitted for new  sanitary landfills, existing sanitary landfills, or expansions of existing  sanitary landfills.
    1. Requirements.
    a. No landfill owner or operator may commence a RDD plan  without prior approval by the department through either a new permit or major  permit amendment. Major amendments for a RDD plan that do not involve an  increase in the landfill final grades or a lateral expansion of the footprint  will not be subject to the landfill expansion criteria in 9VAC20-80-250 and  9VAC20-80-500.
    b. Operating permitted sanitary landfills that have  exceeded groundwater protection standards at statistically significant levels  in accordance with 9VAC20-80-300 B, from any waste unit on site shall have  implemented a remedy in accordance with 9VAC20-80-310 C prior to the RDD plan  submittal. Operating permitted sanitary landfills that have an exceedance in  gas migration in accordance with 9VAC20-80-280 shall have a gas control system  in place per 9VAC20-80-280 [ E B ] prior  to the RDD plan submittal.
    c. RDD plans may be submitted for items such as the  addition of liquids in addition to leachate and gas condensate from the same  landfill for accelerated decomposition of the waste mass; allowing run-on water  to flow into the landfill waste mass; and allowing testing of the construction  and infiltration performance of alternative final cover systems. An RDD plan  may be proposed for other measures to be taken to enhance stabilization of the  waste mass.
    d. All sanitary landfill units with an approved RDD plan  shall have a leachate collection system designed and constructed to maintain  less than a 30-cm depth of leachate on the liner.
    e. An owner or operator of a sanitary landfill that  disposes of 20 tons of municipal solid waste per day or less, based on annual  average, may not apply for an RDD plan.
    f. No landfill owner or operator may continue to implement  an RDD plan beyond any time limit placed in the initial plan approval or any  renewal without issuance of written prior approval by the department.  Justification for renewals shall be based upon information in annual and final  reports as well as research and findings in technical literature.
    g. RDD plans shall be restricted to permitted sanitary landfills.  Landfills for disposal of wastes, as listed in 9VAC20-80-250 C 16 and other  wastes as approved, shall be designed with a composite liner, as required by  9VAC20-80-250 B 9 or 10. The effectiveness of the liner system and leachate  collection system shall be demonstrated in the plan. The effectiveness of the  liner and leachate collection system shall be assessed at the end of the  testing period, with comparison to the effectiveness of the systems at the  start of the testing period.
    h. RDD plans may not include changes to the approved design  and construction of subgrade preparation, liner system, leachate collection and  removal systems, final cover system, gas and leachate systems outside the  limits of waste, run-off controls, run-on controls, or environmental monitoring  systems exterior to the waste mass.
    i. Implementation of an approved research development and  demonstration plan shall comply with the specific conditions of the RDD plan as  approved in the permit or permit amendment for the initial testing period and  any renewal.
    j. Structures and features exterior to the waste mass or  waste final grades shall be removed at the end of the testing period, unless  otherwise approved by the department in writing. 
    k. The RDD plan may propose an alternate final cover  installation schedule. 
    2. An RDD plan shall include the following details and  specifications. Processes other than adding liquids to the waste mass and  leachate recirculation may be practiced in conjunction with the research,  development and demonstration plan.
    a. Initial applications for RDD plans shall be submitted  for review and approval prior to the initiation of the process to be tested.  These plans shall specify the process that will be tested, describe preparation  and operation of the process, describe waste types and characteristics that the  process will affect, describe desired changes and end points that the process  is intended to achieve, define testing methods and observations of the process  or waste mass that are necessary to assess effectiveness of the process, and  include technical literature references and research that support use of the  process. The plans shall specify the time period for which the process will be  tested. The plans shall specify the additional information, operating  experience, data generation or technical developments that the process to be  tested is expected to generate.
    b. The test period for the initial application shall be  limited to a maximum of three years.
    c. Renewals of testing periods shall be limited to a  maximum of three years each. The maximum number of renewals shall be limited to  three.
    d. Renewals shall require department review and approval of  reports of performance and progress on achievement of goals specified in the  RDD plan.
    e. RDD plans for addition of liquids, in addition to  leachate and gas condensate from the same landfill, for accelerated  decomposition of the waste mass and/or for allowing run-on water to flow into  the landfill waste mass shall demonstrate that there is no increased risk to human  health and the environment. The following minimum performance criteria shall be  demonstrated:
    (1) Risk of contamination to groundwater and/or surface  water will not be greater than the risk without an approved RDD plan. 
    (2) Stability analysis demonstrating the physical stability  of the landfill.
    (3) Landfill gas collection and control in accordance with  applicable Clean Air Act requirements (i.e., Title V, NSPS or EG rule, etc.).
    (4) For RDD plans that include the addition of off-site  nonhazardous waste liquids to the landfill, the following information shall be  submitted with the RDD plan: 
    (a) Demonstration of adequate facility liquid storage  volume to receive the off-site liquid,
    (b) A list of proposed characteristics for screening the  accepted liquids is developed, and
    (c) The quantity and quality of the liquids are compatible  with the RDD plan. 
    If off-site nonhazardous liquids are certified by the  off-site generator as storm water uncontaminated by solid waste, screening is  not required for this liquid.
    f. RDD plans for testing of the construction and  infiltration performance of alternative final cover systems shall demonstrate  that there is no increased risk to human health and the environment. The  proposed final cover system shall be as protective as the final cover system  required by 9VAC20-80-250 E. The following minimum performance criteria shall  be demonstrated:
    (1) No build-up of excess liquid in the waste and on the  landfill liner,
    (2) Stability analysis demonstrating the physical stability  of the landfill,
    (3) No moisture will escape from the landfill to the  surface water and/or groundwater, and
    (4) Sufficient reduction in infiltration so that there will  be no leakage of leachate from the landfill. 
    g. RDD plans that evaluate introduction of liquids in  addition to leachate or gas condensate from the same landfill shall propose  measures to be integrated with any approved leachate recirculation plan and  compliance with requirements for leachate recirculation.
    h. RDD plans shall include a description of warning  symptoms and failure thresholds that will be used to initiate investigation,  stand-by, termination, and changes to the process and any other landfill  systems that might be affected by the process, such as gas extraction and  leachate recirculation. Warning symptoms shall result in a reduction or  suspension of liquids addition, leachate recirculation, investigation and  changes to be implemented before resuming the process being tested. Failure  thresholds shall result in termination of the process being tested,  investigation and changes that will be submitted to the department for review  and approval in writing prior to resumption of the process being tested. 
    i. RDD plans shall include an assessment of the manner in  which the process to be tested might alter the impact that the landfill may  have on human health or environmental quality. The assessment shall include  both beneficial and deleterious effects that could result from the process. 
    j. RDD plans shall include a geotechnical stability  analysis of the waste mass and an assessment of the changes that the  implementation of the plan [ are is ] expected  to achieve. The geotechnical stability analysis and assessment shall be  repeated at the end of testing period, with alteration as needed to include  parameters and parameter values derived from field measurements. The plan shall  define relevant parameters and techniques for field measurement.
    k. RDD plans shall propose monitoring parameters,  frequencies, test methods, instrumentation, record-keeping and reporting to the  department for purposes of tracking and verifying goals of the process selected  for testing.
    l. RDD plans shall propose monitoring techniques and  instrumentation for potential movements of waste mass and settlement of waste mass,  including proposed time intervals and instrumentation, pertinent to the process  selected for testing. 
    m. RDD plans shall propose construction documentation,  construction quality control and construction quality assurance measures, and  recordkeeping for construction and equipment installation that is part of the  process selected for testing. 
    n. RDD plans shall propose operating practices and  controls, staffing, monitoring parameters and equipment needed to support  operations of the process selected for testing. 
    o. RDD plans that include aeration of the waste mass shall  include a temperature monitoring plan, a fire drill and safety program,  instructions for use of liquids for control of temperature and fires in the  waste mass, and instructions for investigation and repair of damage to the  liner and leachate collection system. 
    p. RDD plans may include an alternate interim cover system  and final cover installation schedule. The interim cover system shall be  designed to account for weather conditions, slope stability, and leachate and  gas generation. The interim cover shall also control, at a minimum, disease  vectors, fires, odors, blowing litter, and scavenging.
    3. Reporting. An annual report shall be prepared for each  year of the testing period, including any renewal periods, and a final report  shall be prepared for the end of the testing period. These reports shall assess  the attainment of goals proposed for the process selected for testing,  recommend changes, recommend further work, and summarize problems and their  resolution. Reports shall include a summary of all monitoring data, testing  data and observations of process or effects and shall include recommendations  for continuance or termination of the process selected for testing. Annual  reports shall be submitted to the department within three months after the  anniversary date of the approved permit or permit amendment. Final reports  shall be submitted [ 60 at least 90 ] days  prior to the end of the testing period [ in order ]  for evaluation by the department. [ The department shall review  this report within 90 days. ] If the department's evaluation  indicates that the goals of the project have been met, are reliable and  predictable, the department will provide a minor permit amendment to  incorporate the continued operation of the project with the appropriate  monitoring.
    4. Termination. The department may require modifications to  or immediate termination of the process being tested if any of the following  conditions occur:
    a. Significant and persistent odors;
    b. Significant leachate seeps or surface exposure of  leachate;
    c. Significant leachate head on the liner;
    d. Excessively acidic leachate chemistry or gas production  rates or other monitoring data indicate poor waste decomposition conditions; 
    e. Instability in the waste mass; 
    f. Other persistent and deleterious effects.
    5. The RDD program is an optional participation program,  the applicant must certify that they acknowledge that the program is optional;  and that they are aware the department may provide suspension or termination of  the program for any reasonable cause, without a public hearing. Notice of  suspension or termination will be by letter for a cause related to a technical  problem, nuisance problem, or for protection of human health or the environment  as determined by the department.
    9VAC20-80-500. Permit application procedures.
    A. Any person who proposes to establish a new solid waste  management facility ("SWMF"), or modify an existing SWMF, shall  submit a permit application to the department, using the procedures set forth  in this section and other pertinent sections of this part.
    B. Notice of intent.
    1. To initiate the permit application process, any person who  proposes to establish a new solid waste management facility ("SWMF"),  or modify an existing SWMF, or to amend an existing permit shall file a notice  of intent with the director stating the desired permit or permit amendment, the  precise location of the proposed facility, and the intended use of the  facility. The notice shall be in letter form and be accompanied by area and  site location maps.
    2. No application for a new solid waste management facility  permit or application for an amendment for a non-captive industrial landfill to  expand or increase capacity shall be deemed complete unless it is accompanied  by DEQ Form DISC-01 and 02 (Disclosure Statement) for all key personnel.
    3. No application for a new solid waste management facility  permit or application for an amendment for a non-captive industrial landfill to  expand or increase capacity shall be considered complete unless the notice of  intent is accompanied by a current certification from the governing body of the  county, city, or town in which the facility is to be located stating that the  location and operation of the facility are consistent with all applicable  ordinances. No certification shall be required for the application for an  amendment or modification of an existing permit other than for a non-captive  industrial landfill as outlined above. DEQ Form SW-11-1 (Request for Local  Government Certification) is provided for the use of the regulated community. Permit  and permit-by-rule applicants shall comply with the statutory requirements for  consistency with solid waste management plans as recorded in [ §§10.1-1408.1  B 9, D 1, and R §10.1-1408.1 ] of the Code of Virginia.
    4. If the location and operation of the facility is stated by  the local governing body to be consistent with all its ordinances, without  qualifications, conditions, or reservations, the applicant will be notified  that he may submit his application for a permit. This application shall be  submitted in two parts, identified as Part A and Part B.
    5. If the applicant proposes to operate a new sanitary  landfill or transfer station, the notice of intent shall include a statement  describing the steps taken by the applicant to seek the comments of the  residents of the area where the sanitary landfill or transfer station is  proposed to be located regarding the siting and operation of the proposed  sanitary landfill or transfer station. The public comment steps shall be taken  prior to filing with the department the notice of intent.
    a. The public comment steps shall include publication of a  public notice once a week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general  circulation serving the locality where the sanitary landfill or transfer  station is proposed to be located and holding at least one public meeting  within the locality to identify issues of concern, to facilitate communication  and to establish a dialogue between the applicant and persons who may be  affected by the issuance of a permit for the sanitary landfill or transfer  station.
    b. At a minimum, the public notice shall include:
    (1) A statement of the applicant's intent to apply for a  permit to operate the proposed sanitary landfill or transfer station;
    (2) The proposed sanitary landfill or transfer station site  location;
    (3) The date, time and location of the public meeting the  applicant will hold; and
    (4) The name, address and telephone number of a person employed  by an applicant who can be contacted by interested persons to answer questions  or receive comments on siting and operation of the proposed sanitary landfill  or transfer station.
    c. The first publication of the public notice shall be at  least 14 days prior to the public meeting date.
    6. Disposal capacity guarantee. If the applicant proposes to  construct a new sanitary landfill or expand an existing sanitary landfill, a  signed statement must be submitted by the applicant guaranteeing that  sufficient disposal capacity will be available in the facility to enable  localities within the Commonwealth to comply with their solid waste management  plans developed pursuant to 9VAC20-130 and certifying that such localities will  be allowed to contract for and reserve disposal capacity in the facility. This  provision does not apply to permit applications from one or more political  subdivisions for new or expanded landfills that will only accept municipal  solid waste generated within those jurisdictions or from other jurisdictions  under an interjurisdictional agreement.
    7. Host agreement. If the applicant proposes to construct a  new sanitary landfill or expand an existing sanitary landfill, a certification  from the local governing body must be provided indicating that a host agreement  has been reached between the applicant and the host government or authority.
    a. The host agreement shall include the following provisions  at a minimum:
    (1) The amount of financial compensation the applicant will  provide the host locality;
    (2) The daily travel routes and traffic volumes;
    (3) The daily disposal limit; and
    (4) The anticipated service area of the facility.
    b. The host agreement shall contain a provision that the  applicant will pay the full cost of a least one full-time employee of the host  locality. The employee's responsibilities will include monitoring and  inspecting waste disposal practices in the locality.
    c. The host agreement shall provide that the applicant shall,  when requested by the host locality, split air and water samples so that the  host locality may independently test the samples, with all associated costs  paid for by the applicant. All such sampling results shall be provided to the  department.
    d. No certification or host agreement is required if the owner  and operator of the landfill is a locality or a service authority of which the  local governing body is a member.
    8. If the application is for a locality owned and operated  sanitary landfill, or the expansion of such a landfill, the applicant shall  provide information on:
    a. The daily travel routes and traffic volumes;
    b. The daily disposal limit; and
    c. The service area of the facility.
    9. If the application is for a new solid waste management  facility or an amendment allowing a facility expansion or an increase in  capacity, the director shall evaluate whether there is a need for the  additional capacity in accordance with § 10.1-1408.1 D 1 of the Code of  Virginia. The information in either subdivision 9 a or 9 b must be provided  with the notice of intent to assist the director with the required  investigation and analysis. Based on the information submitted, the owner or  operator will demonstrate how the additional capacity will be utilized over the  life of the facility.
    a. For any solid waste management facility including a  sanitary landfill, information demonstrating that there is a need for the  additional capacity. Such information may include:
    (1) The anticipated area to be served by the facility;
    (2) Similar or related solid waste management facilities that  are in the same service area and could impact the proposed facility, and the  capacity and service life of those facilities;
    (3) The present quantity of waste generated within the  proposed service area;
    (4) The waste disposal needs specified in the local solid  waste plan;
    (5) The projected future waste generation rates for the  anticipated area to be served during the proposed life of the facility;
    (6) The recycling, composting or other waste management  activities within the proposed service area;
    (7) The additional solid waste disposal capacity that the  facility would provide to the proposed area of service; and
    (8) Information demonstrating that the capacity is needed to  enable localities to comply with solid waste plans developed pursuant to  § 10.1-1411 of the Code of Virginia.
    (9) Any additional factors that provide justification for the  additional capacity provided by the facility.
    b. As an alternative, for sanitary landfills, based on current  or projected disposal rates, information demonstrating there is less than 10  years of capacity remaining in the facility and information demonstrating  either of the following:
    (1) The available permitted disposal capacity for the state is  less than 20 years based on the most current reports submitted pursuant to the  Waste Information and Assessment Program in 9VAC20-130-165; or
    (2) The available permitted disposal capacity is less than 20  years in either:
    (a) The planning region, or regions, immediately contiguous to  the planning region of the host community.
    (b) The facilities within a 75 mile radius of the proposed  facility.
    C. Part A application. Part A application provides the  information essential for assessment of the site suitability for the proposed  facility. It contains information on the proposed facility to be able to  determine site suitability for intended uses. It provides information on all  siting criteria applicable to the proposed facility.
    1. The applicant shall complete, sign and submit three copies  of the Part A application containing required information and attachments as  specified in 9VAC20-80-510 to the director.
    2. The Part A application will be reviewed for completeness.  The applicant will be notified within fifteen 30 days whether the  application is administratively complete or incomplete. If complete information  is not provided within thirty 60 days after the applicant is  notified, or an alternate timeframe approved by the department, the  application will be returned to the applicant without further review. Subsequent  resubmittals of the application, submitted after 18 months from the date of the  department’s response letter, shall be considered as a new application.
    3. Upon receipt of a complete Part A application, the  department shall conduct a technical review of the submittal. Additional  information may be required or the site may be visited before the review is  completed. The director shall notify the applicant in writing of approval or  disapproval of the Part A application or provide conditions to be made a part  of the approval.
    4. For sanitary landfills, the director's notification must  indicate that the site on which the landfill will be located is suitable for  the construction and operation of a landfill. In making this determination, the  director will consider the information presented in the site hydrogeologic and  geotechnical report (9VAC20-80-510 F), the landfill impact statement  (9VAC20-80-510 H 1) and the adequacy of transportation facilities  (9VAC20-80-510 G). The director may also consider other factors at his  discretion.
    5. In case of the approval or conditional approval, the  applicant may submit the Part B application provided the required conditions  are addressed in the submission.
    D. Part B application. The Part B application involves the  submission of the detailed engineering design and operating plans for the  proposed facility.
    1. The applicant, after receiving Part A approval, may submit  to the department a Part B application to include the required documentation  for the specific solid waste management facility as provided for in 9VAC20-80-520,  9VAC20-80-530, or 9VAC20-80-540. The Part B application and supporting  documentation shall be submitted in three copies and must include the financial  assurance documentation as required by 9VAC20-70 Until the closure plans are  approved and a draft permit is being prepared, the applicant must provide  evidence of commitment to provide the required financial assurance from a  financial institution or insurance company. If financial assurance is not  provided within 30 days of notice by the director, the permit shall be denied.
    2. The Part B application shall be reviewed for administrative  completeness before technical evaluation is initiated. The applicant shall be  advised in writing within thirty days whether the application is complete or  what additional documentation is required. The Part B application will not be  evaluated until an administratively complete application is received.
    3. The administratively complete application will be  coordinated with other state agencies according to the nature of the facility.  The comments received shall be considered in the permit review by the  department. The application will be evaluated for technical adequacy and  regulatory compliance. In the course of this evaluation, the department may  require the applicant to provide additional information. At the end of the  evaluation, the department will notify the applicant that the application is  technically and regulatorily adequate or that the department intends to deny  the application.
    4. The procedures addressing the denial are contained in  9VAC20-80-580.
    E. Permit issuance.
    1. If the application is found to be technically adequate and  in full compliance with this chapter, a draft permit shall be developed by the  department.
    2. Copies of the draft permit will be available for viewing  at the applicant's place of business or at the regional office of the  department, or both, upon request. A notice of the availability of the proposed  draft permit shall be made in a newspaper with general circulation in the area where  of the facility is to be located. A copy of the notice of  availability will be provided to the chief administrative officer of all cities  and counties that are contiguous to the host community. A public hearing  will be scheduled and the notice shall be published at least 30 days in advance  of the public hearing on the draft permit. Copies of the proposed draft permit  will be available for viewing at the applicant's place of business or at the  regional office of the department, or both, upon request in advance of the  public hearing.
    3. If the application is for a new landfill or an increase  in landfill capacity, then the department shall hold a public hearing and the  notice above will include such information.
    4. For any application (other than for subdivision 3 of  this subsection), the notice will include the opportunity to request a public  hearing. The department shall hold a public hearing on the draft permit  whenever the department finds, on the basis of requests, that:
    a. There is a significant public interest in the issuance,  denial, modification or revocation of the permit in question;
    b. There are substantial, disputed issues relevant to the  issuance, denial, modification or revocation of the permit in question; and
    c. The action requested is not, on its face, inconsistent  with, or in violation of, these regulations, the Waste Management Act, or  federal law or regulations.
    5. The department also may hold a public hearing when it is  believed that such a hearing might clarify one or more issues involved in a  permit decision.
    3. The 6. If a public hearing is to be held the  department shall hold the announced public hearing convene it 30  days or more after the notice is published in the local newspaper. The public  hearing shall be conducted by the department within the local government  jurisdiction where of the facility is to be located. A  comment period shall extend for a 15-day period after the conclusion of the  public hearing.
    4. 7. A [ final ] decision to  permit, to deny a permit or to amend the draft permit shall be rendered by the  director within 30 days of the close of the hearing comment period.
    5. 8. The permit applicant and the persons who  commented during the public participation period shall be notified in writing  of the decision on the draft permit. That decision may include denial of the  permit (see also 9VAC20-80-580), issuance of the permit as drafted, or  amendment of the draft permit and issuance.
    6. 9. No permit for a new solid waste management  facility or an amendment allowing a facility expansion or an increase in  capacity shall be approved by the director unless the facility meets the  provisions of § 10.1-1408.1 D of the Code of Virginia. Before issuing a permit  the director shall make a determination in writing in accordance with the  provisions of § 10.1-1408.1 D of the Code of Virginia. The director may request  updated information during the review of the permit application if the  information on which the director's determination is based is no longer  current. If, based on the analysis of the materials presented in the permit  application, the determination required in §10.2-1408.1 D cannot be made, the  application will be denied in accordance with 9VAC20-80 580 A 6.
    7. 10. Any permit for a new sanitary landfill  and any permit amendment authorizing expansion of an existing sanitary landfill  shall incorporate the conditions required for a disposal capacity guarantee in  § 10.1-1408.1 P of the Code of Virginia. This provision does not apply to permit  applications from one or more political subdivisions that will only accept  waste from within those political subdivisions' jurisdiction or municipal solid  waste generated within other political subdivisions pursuant to an  interjurisdictional agreement.
    9VAC20-80-510. Part A permit application. 
    The following information shall be included in the Part A of  the permit application for all solid waste management facilities unless  otherwise specified in this section. 
    A. The Part A permit application consists of a letter stating  the type of the facility for which the permit application is made and the  certification required in subsection I of this section. All pertinent  information and attachments required by this section are provided on DEQ Form  SW 7-3 (Part A Permit Application). 
    B. A key map of the Part A permit application, delineating  the general location of the proposed facility, shall be prepared and attached  as part of the application. The key map shall be plotted on a seven and  one-half minute United States Geological Survey topographical quadrangle. The quadrangle  shall be the most recent revision available, shall include the name of the  quadrangle and shall delineate a minimum of one mile from the perimeter of the  proposed facility boundaries. One or more maps may be utilized where necessary  to insure clarity of the information submitted. 
    C. A near-vicinity map shall be prepared and attached as part  of the application. The vicinity map shall have a minimum scale of one inch  equals 200 feet (1" = 200'). The vicinity map shall delineate an area of  500 feet from the perimeter of the property line of the proposed facility. The  vicinity maps may be an enlargement of a United States Geological Survey  topographical quadrangle or a recent aerial photograph. The vicinity map shall  depict the following: 
    1. All homes, buildings or structures including the layout of  the buildings which will comprise the proposed facility; 
    2. The facility boundary; 
    3. The limits of the actual disposal operations within the  boundaries of the proposed facility, if applicable; 
    4. Lots and blocks taken from the tax map for the site of the  proposed facility and all contiguous properties; 
    5. The base floodplain, where it passes through the map area;  or, otherwise, a note indicating the expected flood occurrence period for the  area; 
    6. Existing land uses and zoning classification; 
    7. All water supply wells, springs or intakes, both public and  private; 
    8. All utility lines, pipelines or land based facilities  (including mines and wells); and 
    9. All parks, recreation areas, surface water bodies, dams,  historic areas, wetlands areas, monument areas, cemeteries, wildlife refuges,  unique natural areas or similar features. 
    D. Except in the case of a local governing body or a public  service authority possessing a power of eminent domain, copy of lease or deed  (showing page and book location) or certification of ownership of the site, the  department will not consider an application for a permit from any person who  does not demonstrate legal control over the site for a period of the permit life.  A documentation of an option to purchase will be considered as a temporary  substitute for a deed; however, the true deed must be provided to the  department before construction at the site begins. 
    E. For solid waste disposal facilities regulated under Part V  (9VAC20-80-240 et seq.) of this chapter, site hydrogeologic and geotechnical  report by geologist or engineer registered for practice in the Commonwealth. 
    1. The site investigation for a proposed landfill facility  shall provide sufficient information regarding the geotechnical and  hydrogeologic conditions at the site to allow a reasonable determination of the  usefulness of the site for development as a landfill. The geotechnical  exploration efforts shall be designed to provide information regarding the  availability and suitability of onsite soils for use in the various  construction phases of the landfill including liner, cover, drainage material,  and cap. The hydrogeologic information shall be sufficient to determine the  characteristics of the uppermost aquifer underlying the facility. Subsurface  investigation programs conducted shall meet the minimum specifications here. 
    a. Borings shall be located to identify the uppermost aquifer  within the proposed facility boundary, determine the ability to perform ground  water monitoring at the site, and provide data for the evaluation of the  physical properties of soils and soil availability. Borings completed for the  proposed facility shall be sufficient in number and depth to identify the  thickness of the uppermost aquifer and the presence of any significant  underlying impermeable zone. Impermeable zone shall not be fully penetrated  within the anticipated fill areas, whenever possible. The number of borings  shall be at a minimum in accordance with Table 7.1 as follows: 
           |   | Table 7.1  | 
       |   | Acreage | Total Number of Borings | 
       |   | Less than 10 | 4 | 
       |   | 10 ‑ 49 | 8 | 
       |   | 50 ‑ 99 | 14 | 
       |   | 100 ‑ 200 | 20 | 
       |   | More than 200 | 24 + 1 boring for each additional 10 acres | 
  
    b. The department reserves the right to require additional  borings in areas in which the number of borings required by Table 7.1 is not  sufficient to describe the geologic formations and ground water flow patterns  below the proposed solid waste disposal facility. 
    c. In highly uniform geological formations, the number of  borings may be reduced, as approved by the department. 
    d. The borings should employ a grid pattern, wherever  possible, such that there is, at a minimum, one boring in each major geomorphic  feature. The borings pattern shall enable the development of detailed cross  sections through the proposed landfill site. 
    e. Subsurface data obtained by borings shall be collected by  standard soil sampling techniques. Diamond bit coring, air rotary drilling or  other appropriate methods, or a combination of methods shall be used as  appropriate to characterize competent bedrock. The borings shall be logged from  the surface to the lowest elevation (base grade) or to bedrock, whichever is  shallower, according to standard practices and procedures. In addition, the  borings required by Table 7.1 shall be performed on a continuous basis for the  first 20 feet below the lowest elevation of the solid waste disposal facility  or to the bed rock. Additional samples as determined by the registered  geologist or engineer shall be collected at five-foot intervals thereafter. 
    f. Excavations, test pits and geophysical methods may be  employed to supplement the soil boring investigation. 
    g. At a minimum, four of the borings shall be converted to  water level observations wells, well nests, piezometers or piezometer nests to  allow determination of the rate and direction of ground water flow across the  site. All ground water monitoring points or water level measurement points shall  be designed to allow proper abandonment by backfilling with an impermeable  material. The total number of wells or well nests shall be based on the  complexity of the geology of the site. 
    h. Field analyses shall be performed in representative borings  to determine the in situ hydraulic conductivity of the uppermost aquifer. 
    i. All borings not to be utilized as permanent monitoring  wells, and wells within the active disposal area, shall be sealed and  excavations and test pits shall be backfilled and properly compacted to prevent  possible paths of leachate migration. Boring sealing procedures shall be  documented in the hydrogeologic report. 
    2. The geotechnical and hydrogeologic reports shall at least  include the following principal sections: 
    a. Field procedures. Boring records and analyses from properly  spaced borings in the facility portion of the site. Final boring logs shall be  submitted for each boring, recording soils or rock conditions encountered. Each  log shall include the type of drilling and sampling equipment, date the boring  was started, date the boring was finished, a soil or rock description in  accordance with the United Soil Classification System or the Rock Quality  Designation, the method of sampling, the depth of sample collection, the water  levels encountered, and the Standard Penetration Test blow counts, if  applicable. Boring locations and elevations shall be surveyed with a precision  of 0.01 foot. At least one surveyed point shall be indelibly marked by the  surveyor on each well. All depths of soil and rock as described within the  boring log shall be corrected to National Geodetic Vertical Datum, if  available. 
    b. Geotechnical interpretations and report including complete  engineering description of the soil units underlying the site. 
    (1) Soil unit descriptions shall include estimates of soil  unit thickness, continuity across the site, and genesis. Laboratory  determination of the soil unit's physical properties shall be discussed. 
    (2) Soil units that are proposed for use as a drainage layer,  impermeable cap or impermeable liner material shall be supported by laboratory  determinations of the remolded permeability. Remolded hydraulic conductivity  tests require a Proctor compaction test (ASTM D698) soil classification liquid  limit, plastic limit, particle size distribution, specific gravity, percent  compaction of the test sample, remolded density and remolded moisture content,  and the percent saturation of the test sample. Proctor compaction test data and  hydraulic conductivity test sample data should be plotted on standard  moisture-density test graphs. 
    (3) The geotechnical report shall provide an estimate of the  available volume of materials suitable for use as liner, cap, and drainage  layer. It should also discuss the anticipated uses of the on-site materials, if  known. 
    c. Hydrogeologic report. 
    (1) The report shall include water table elevations, direction  and calculated rate of ground water flow and similar information on the  hydrogeology of the site. All raw data shall be submitted with calculations. 
    (2) The report shall contain a discussion of field test  procedures and results, laboratory determinations made on undisturbed samples,  recharge areas, discharge areas, adjacent or areal usage, and typical radii of  influence of pumping wells. 
    (3) The report shall also contain a discussion of the regional  geologic setting, the site geology and a cataloging and description of the  uppermost aquifer from the site investigation and from referenced literature.  The geologic description shall include a discussion of the prevalence and  orientation of fractures, faults, and other structural discontinuities, and  presence of any other significant geologic features. The aquifer description  should address homogeneity, horizontal and vertical extent, isotropy, the  potential for ground water remediation, if required, and the factors  influencing the proper placement of a ground water monitoring network. 
    (4) The report shall include a geologic map of the site  prepared from one of the following sources as available, in order of  preference: 
    (a) Site specific mapping prepared from data collected during  the site investigation; 
    (b) Published geologic mapping at a scale of 1:24,000 or  larger; 
    (c) Published regional geologic mapping at a scale of  1:250,000 or larger; or 
    (d) Other published mapping. 
    (5) At least two generally orthogonal, detailed site specific  cross sections, which shall sufficiently describe the geologic formations  identified by the geologic maps prepared in accordance with subdivision 2 c (4)  of this subsection at a scale which clearly illustrates the geologic  formations, shall be included in the hydrogeologic report. Cross sections shall  show the geologic units, approximate construction of existing landfill cells  base grades, water table, and surficial features along the line of the cross  section. Cross section locations shall be shown on an overall facility map. 
    (6) Potentiometric surface maps for the uppermost aquifer  which sufficiently define the ground water conditions encountered below the  proposed solid waste disposal facility area based upon stabilized ground water  elevations. Potentiometric surface maps shall be prepared for each set of  ground water elevation data available. The applicant shall include a discussion  of the effects of site modifications, seasonal variations in precipitation, and  existing and future land uses of the site on the potentiometric surface. 
    (7) If a geological map or report from either the Department  of Mines, Minerals, and Energy or the U.S. Geological Survey is published, it  shall be included. 
    F. For solid waste management facilities regulated under Part  VI (9VAC20-80-320 et seq.) of this chapter: 
    1. A cataloging and description of aquifers, geological  features or any similar characteristic of the site that might affect the  operation of the facility or be affected by that operation. 
    2. If a geological map or report from either the Department of  Mines, Minerals, and Energy or the U.S. Geological Survey is published, it  shall be included. 
    G. For sanitary landfills, a VDOT adequacy report prepared by  the Virginia Department of Transportation. As required under § 10.1-1408.4 A 1  of the Code of Virginia, the report will address the adequacy of transportation  facilities that will be available to serve the landfill, including the impact  of the landfill on the local traffic volume, road congestion, and highway  safety. 
    H. For sanitary landfills, a Landfill Impact Statement (LIS).  
    1. A report must be provided to the department that addresses  the potential impact of the landfill on parks, recreational areas, wildlife  management areas, critical habitat areas of endangered species as designated by  applicable local, state, or federal agencies, public water supplies, marine  resources, wetlands, historic sites, fish and wildlife, water quality, and  tourism. This report shall comply with the statutory requirements for siting  landfills in the vicinity of public water supplies or wetlands as recorded in  §§ 10.1-1408.4 and 10.1-1408.5 of the Code of Virginia.
    2. The report will include a discussion of the landfill  configuration and how the facility design addresses any impacts identified in  the report required under subdivision 1 of this subsection. 
    3. The report will identify all of the areas identified under  subdivision 1 of this subsection that are within five miles of the facility. 
    I. A signed statement by the applicant that he has sent  written notice to all adjacent property owners or occupants that he intends to  develop a SWMF on the site, a copy of the notice and the names and addresses of  those to whom the notices were sent. 
    J. Information demonstrating that the facility is consistent  with the local solid waste management plan including: 
    1. A discussion of the role of the facility in solid waste  management within the solid waste planning region; 
    2. A description of the additional solid waste disposal  capacity that the facility would provide to the proposed area of service; 
    3. Specific references to local solid waste management plan  where discussions of the facility are provided. 
    K. One or more of the following indicating that the public  interest would be served by a new facility or a facility expansion, which  includes: 
    1. Cost effective waste management for the public within the  service area comparing the costs of a new facility or facility expansion to  waste transfer, or other disposal options; 
    2. The facility provides protection of human health and safety  and the environment; 
    3. The facility provides alternatives to disposal including  reuse or reclamation; 
    4. The facility allows for the increased recycling  opportunities for solid waste; 
    5. The facility provides for energy recovery or the subsequent  use of solid waste, or both, thereby reducing the quantity of solid waste  disposed; 
    6. The facility will support the waste management needs  expressed by the host community; or 
    7. Any additional factors that indicate that the public  interest would be served by the facility. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R06-32; Filed September 10, 2008, 10:58 a.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-640. Aboveground Storage  Tank and Pipeline Facility Financial Responsibility Requirements (amending 9VAC25-640-10, 9VAC25-640-20,  9VAC25-640-30, 9VAC25-640-50, 9VAC25-640-70 through 9VAC25-640-130,  9VAC25-640-150 through 9VAC25-640-250, Appendices I through IX; repealing  9VAC25-640-130).
    Statutory Authority: §§62.1-44.15 and 62.1-44.34:16 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Leslie D. Beckwith, Department of  Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804)  698-4123, or email ldbeckwith@deq.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    The regulation requires operators of regulated petroleum  aboveground storage tanks (ASTs) and pipeline facilities to demonstrate they  have the financial resources available to pay for the costs of containment and  cleanup in the event of a release from their tanks. The amendments eliminate  the standby trust requirement for third-party mechanisms such as letters of  credit and surety bonds, which would have the effect of reducing operators’  cost of compliance without affecting the stringency of the current financial  responsibility requirements. Also, several administrative changes are made to  the regulation that do not affect the regulatory requirements.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A  summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained  from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of  Regulations. 
    9VAC25-640-10. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings [ , ] unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise: 
    "Aboveground storage tank" or "AST" means  any one or combination of tanks, including pipes, used to contain an  accumulation of oil at atmospheric pressure, and the volume of which, including  the volume of the pipes, is more than 90% above the surface of the ground. This  term does not include line pipe and breakout tanks of an interstate pipeline  regulated under the federal Accountable Pipeline Safety and Partnership Act of  1996 (49 USC §60101 et seq.). 
    "Accidental discharge" means any sudden or nonsudden  discharge of oil from a facility that results in a need for containment and  clean up which was neither expected nor intended by the operator. 
    "Annual aggregate" means the maximum financial  responsibility requirement that an owner or operator is required to  demonstrate annually. 
    "Board" means the State Water Control Board. 
    "Change in service" means change in operation,  conditions of the stored product, specific gravity, corrosivity, temperature or  pressure that has occurred from the original that may affect the tank's  suitability for service. 
    "Containment and clean up" means abatement,  containment, removal and disposal of oil and, to the extent possible, the  restoration of the environment to its existing state prior to an oil discharge.  
    "Controlling interest" means direct ownership of at  least 50% of the voting stock of another entity. 
    "Department" or "DEQ" means the  Department of Environmental Quality. 
    "Discharge" means any spilling, leaking, pumping,  pouring, emitting, emptying or dumping. 
    "Facility" means any development or installation  within the Commonwealth that deals in, stores or handles oil, and includes a  pipeline. 
    "Financial reporting year" means the latest  consecutive 12-month period for which any of the following reports used to support  a financial test is prepared: (i) a 10-K report submitted to the U.S.  Securities & Exchange Commission (SEC); (ii) an annual report of tangible  net worth submitted to Dun and Bradstreet; (iii) annual reports submitted to  the Energy Information Administration or the Rural Electrification  Administration Utilities Service; or (iv) a year-end financial  statement authorized under 9VAC25-640-70 B or C. "Financial reporting  year" may thus comprise a fiscal or calendar year period.
    "Group self-insurance pool" or "pool"  means a pool organized by two or more operators of [ aboveground  storage tanks, including pipelines, facilities ] for the  purpose of forming a group self-insurance pool in order to demonstrate  financial responsibility as required by § 62.1-44.34:16 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Legal defense cost" means any expense that an  operator or provider of financial assurance incurs in defending against claims  or actions brought (i) by the federal government or the board to require  containment or clean up or to recover the costs of containment and clean up, or  to collect civil penalties under federal or state law or to assert any claim on  behalf of the Virginia Petroleum Storage Tank Fund; or (ii) by any person to  enforce the terms of a financial assurance mechanism.
    "Local government entity" means a municipality,  county, town, commission, separately chartered and operated special district,  school board, political subdivision of a state or other special purpose  government which provides essential services.
    "Member" means an operator of an aboveground  storage tank or pipeline who has entered into a member agreement and thereby  becomes a member of a group self-insurance pool.
    "Member agreement" means the written agreement  executed between each member and the pool, which sets forth the conditions of  membership in the pool, the obligations, if any, of each member to the other  members, and the terms, coverages, limits, and deductibles of the pool plan.  
    "Occurrence" means an accident, including  continuous or repeated exposure to conditions, that results in a discharge from  an AST. Note: This definition is intended to assist in the understanding of  this chapter and is not intended either to limit the meaning of  "occurrence" in a way that conflicts with standard insurance usage or  to prevent the use of other standard insurance terms in place of  "occurrence." 
    "Oil" means oil of any kind and in any form,  including, but not limited to, petroleum and petroleum byproducts, fuel oil,  lubricating oils, sludge, oil refuse, oil mixed with other wastes, crude oil  and all other liquid hydrocarbons regardless of specific gravity. 
    "Operator" means any person who owns, operates,  charters by demise, rents or otherwise exercises control over or responsibility  for a facility or a vehicle or a vessel.   [ For purposes of  this chapter, the definition of operator is restricted to operators of  facilities. ]  
    "Person" means an individual; trust; firm; joint  stock company; corporation, including a government corporation; partnership;  association; any state or agency thereof; municipality; county; town;  commission; political subdivision of a state; any interstate body; consortium;  joint venture; commercial entity; the government of the United States or any  unit or agency thereof. 
    "Pipeline" means all new and existing pipe, rights  of way, and any equipment, facility, or building used in the transportation of  oil, including, but not limited to, line pipe, valves and other appurtenances  connected to line pipe, pumping units, fabricated assemblies associated with  pumping units, metering and delivery stations and fabricated assemblies  therein, and breakout tanks. 
    "Pool plan" means the plan of self-insurance  offered by the pool to its members as specifically designated in the member  agreement.
    "Provider of financial assurance" means a person  that provides financial assurance to an operator of an aboveground storage tank  through one of the mechanisms listed in 9VAC25-640-70 through 9VAC25-640-120,  including a guarantor, insurer, group self-insurance pool, surety, or issuer of  a letter of credit. 
    "Release" means any spilling, leaking, emitting,  discharging, escaping, leaching, or disposing from an underground storage tank  or facility into groundwater, surface water, or upon lands, subsurface soils or  storm drain systems.
    "Storage capacity" means the total capacity of an  AST or a container, whether filled in whole or in part with oil, a mixture of  oil, or mixtures of oil with nonhazardous substances, or empty. An AST that has  been permanently closed in accordance with the requirements of 9VAC25-91-10  et seq. 9VAC25-91 has no storage capacity. 
    "Substantial business relationship" means the  extent of a business relationship necessary under Virginia law to make a  guarantee contract issued incident to that relationship valid and enforceable.  A guarantee contract is issued "incident to that relationship" if it  arises from and depends on existing economic transactions between the guarantor  and the operator. 
    "Tangible net worth" means the tangible assets that  remain after deducting liabilities; such assets do not include intangibles such  as goodwill and rights to patents or royalties. For purposes of this  definition, "assets" means all existing and all probable future  economic benefits obtained or controlled by a particular entity as a result of  past transactions. 
    "Tank" means a device designed to contain an  accumulation of oil and constructed of nonearthen materials, such as concrete,  steel, or plastic, that provides structural support.  [ This term  does not include flow-through process tanks as defined in 40 CFR Part 280. ]  For purposes of 9VAC25-640-220, a tank means a device, having a liquid  capacity of more than 60 gallons, designed to contain an accumulation of oil  and constructed of nonearthen materials, such as concrete, steel, or plastic,  that provides structural support. [ This term does not include  flow-through process tanks as defined in 40 CFR Part 280. ] 
    "Termination" under Appendix III and Appendix IV  means only those changes that could result in a gap in coverage as where the  insured has not obtained substitute coverage or has obtained substitute  coverage with a different retroactive date than the retroactive date of the  original policy. 
    "Underground storage tank" means any one or  combination of tanks, including connecting pipes, used to contain an  accumulation of regulated substances, and the volume of which, including the  volume of underground connecting pipes, is 10% or more beneath the surface of  the ground. This term does not include any: 
    1. Farm or residential tanks having a capacity of 1,100  gallons or less and used for storing motor fuel for noncommercial purposes; 
    2. Tanks used for storing heating oil for consumption on the  premises where stored; 
    3. Septic tanks; 
    4. Pipeline facilities (including gathering lines) regulated  under: 
    a. The Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act of 1968 (49 USC App.  1671 et seq.); 
    b. The Hazardous Liquid Pipeline Safety Act of 1979 (49 USC  App. 2001 et seq.); or 
    c. Any intrastate pipeline facility regulated under state laws  comparable to the provisions of the law referred to in subdivision 4 a or 4 b  of this definition; 
    5. Surface impoundments, pits, ponds, or lagoons; 
    6. Storm water or wastewater collection systems; 
    7. Flow-through process tanks; 
    8. Liquid traps or associated gathering lines directly related  to oil or gas production and gathering operations; or 
    9. Storage tanks situated in an underground area, such as a  basement, cellar, mineworking, drift, shaft, or tunnel, if the storage tank is  situated upon or above the surface of the floor. 
    The term "underground storage tank" does not  include any pipes connected to any tank which is described in subdivisions 1  through 9 of this definition. 
    "Vehicle" means any motor vehicle, rolling stock,  or other artificial contrivance for transport whether self-propelled or  otherwise, except vessels. 
    "Vessel" means every description of watercraft or  other contrivance used as a means of transporting on water, whether  self-propelled or otherwise, and shall include barges and tugs. 
    9VAC25-640-20. Applicability. 
    A. Unless otherwise exempted in this section or excluded in  9VAC25-640-30, operators of aboveground storage tank facilities having a  maximum storage capacity of 25,000 gallons or greater of oil must demonstrate  financial responsibility in accordance with the requirements of this chapter as  a condition of operation. 
    B. Unless otherwise exempted in this section or excluded in  9VAC25-640-30, operators of pipelines must demonstrate financial responsibility  in accordance with the requirements of this chapter as a condition of  operation. 
    C. State and federal government entities whose debts and  liabilities are the debts and liabilities of the Commonwealth of Virginia or  the United States have the requisite financial strength and stability to  fulfill their financial assurance requirements and are relieved of the  requirements to further demonstrate an ability to provide financial  responsibility under this chapter. 
    D. Local government entities are not required to comply with  the requirements of this chapter. 
    E. If there is more than one operator for a facility, only  one operator is required to demonstrate financial responsibility; however, all  operators are jointly responsible for ensuring compliance with financial  responsibility requirements.
    F. The provisions in 9VAC25-640-220 apply to  [ all ]  operators of  [ all ]  aboveground  storage tank facilities, regardless of storage capacity, unless otherwise  exempted or excluded in 9VAC25-640-30.
    9VAC25-640-30. Exclusions. 
    The requirements of this chapter do not apply to: 
    1. Vessels; 
    2. Licensed motor vehicles, unless used solely for the storage  of oil; 
    3. An AST with a storage capacity of 660 gallons or less of  oil, except  [ for with regard to purposes of ]   the requirements of 9VAC25-640-220; 
    4. An AST containing petroleum, including crude oil or any  fraction thereof, which is liquid at standard temperature and pressure (60°F at  14.7 pounds per square inch absolute) subject to and specifically listed or  designated as a hazardous substance under subparagraphs (A) through (F) of  §101(14) of the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and  Liability Act (CERCLA) (42 USC §9601 et seq.); 
    5. A wastewater treatment tank system that is part of a  wastewater treatment facility regulated under §402 or §307(b) of the federal  Clean Water Act (33 USC §1251 et seq.); 
    6. An AST that is regulated by the Department of Mines,  Minerals and Energy under Chapter 22.1 (§45.1-361.1 et seq.) of the Code of  Virginia; 
    7. An AST used for the storage of products that are regulated  pursuant to the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (21 USC §301 et seq.),  except  [ for with regard to purposes of ]   the requirements of 9VAC25-640-220; 
    8. An AST that is used to store hazardous wastes listed or  identified under Subtitle C of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act  (RCRA) (Solid Waste Disposal Act) (42 USC §6901 et seq.); 
    9. An AST that is used to store propane gas, butane gas or  other liquid petroleum gases; 
    10. An AST used to store nonpetroleum hydrocarbon-based animal  and vegetable oils; 
    11. A liquid trap or associated gathering lines directly  related to oil or gas production, or gathering operations; 
    12. A surface impoundment, pit, pond, or lagoon; 
    13. A storm water or wastewater collection system; 
    14. Equipment or machinery that contains oil for operational  purposes, including but not limited to lubricating systems, hydraulic systems,  and heat transfer systems; 
    15. An AST used to contain oil for less than 120 days when:  (i) used in connection with activities related to the containment and clean up  of oil; (ii) used by a federal, state or local entity in responding to an  emergency; or (iii) used temporarily on site to replace permanent storage capacity,  except [ for with regard to purposes of ] the  requirements of 9VAC25-640-220; 
    16. Oil-filled electrical equipment, including, but not  limited to, transformers, circuit breakers or capacitors; 
    17. A flow-through process tank; 
    18. Oily water separators; 
    19. An AST containing dredge spoils; 
    20. An AST located on a farm or residence used for storing  motor fuel for noncommercial purposes with an aggregated storage capacity of  1,100 gallons or less, except [ for with regard to  purposes of ] the requirements of 9VAC25-640-220; 
    21. Pipes or piping beyond the first valve from the AST that  connects an AST with production process tanks or production process equipment; 
    22. An AST storing asphalt and asphalt compounds which are not  liquid at standard conditions of temperature and pressure (60°F at 14.7 pounds  per square inch absolute); 
    23. Underground storage tanks regulated under a state program;  
    24. An AST with a capacity of 5,000 gallons or less used for  storing heating oil for consumptive use on the premises where stored, except  [ for with regard to purposes of ] the  requirements of 9VAC25-640-220. 
    9VAC25-640-50. Amount and scope of required financial  responsibility. 
    A. Operators shall demonstrate per occurrence and annual  aggregate financial responsibility for containment and clean up of discharges  of oil in an amount equal to (i) five cents per gallon of the aggregate  aboveground storage capacity for ASTs in all Virginia facilities up to a  maximum of $1 million and (ii) $5 million for pipelines. 
    B. If the operator uses separate mechanisms or combinations  of mechanisms to demonstrate financial responsibility for the containment and  clean up of oil, (i) the amount of assurance provided by the combination of  mechanisms shall be in the full amount specified in subsection A of this  section, and (ii) the operator shall demonstrate financial responsibility in  the appropriate amount of annual aggregate assurance specified in subsection A  of this section by the first-occurring effective date anniversary of any one of  the mechanisms combined (other than a financial test or guarantee) to provide  assurance. 
    C. The amounts of assurance required under this section  exclude legal defense costs. 
    D. The required demonstration of financial responsibility  does not in any way limit the liability of the operator under § 62.1-44.34:18 of  the Code of Virginia. 
    E. Operators which demonstrate financial responsibility shall  maintain copies of those records on which the determination is based. The  following documents may be used by operators to support a financial  responsibility requirement determination: 
    1. Copies of the registration form required under 9VAC25-91-10  et seq 9VAC25-91. 
    2. Any other form of documentation that the board may deem to  be acceptable evidence to support the financial responsibility requirement  determination. 
     [ F. For purposes of the financial test of  self-insurance, an operator and/or guarantor shall have a tangible net worth at  least equal to the applicable amount required by subsection A of this section  plus any aggregate amount required to be demonstrated under 9VAC25-590-40 for  which a financial test is used to demonstrate financial responsibility. ]  
    9VAC25-640-70. Financial test of self-insurance. 
    A. An operator and/or guarantor may satisfy the requirements  of 9VAC25-640-50 by passing a financial test as specified in this section. To  pass the financial test of self-insurance, the operator and/or guarantor shall  meet the requirements of subsection B or C and subsection D of this section  based on year-end financial statements for the latest completed financial  reporting year. 
    B. 1. The operator and/or guarantor shall have a tangible net  worth at least equal to the total of the applicable amount required by  9VAC25-640-50 for which a financial test is used to demonstrate financial  responsibility [ and any aggregate amount required to be  demonstrated under 9VAC25-590-40 for which a financial test is used to  demonstrate financial responsibility ] . 
    2. The operator and/or guarantor shall comply with either  subdivision a or b below: 
    a. (1) The financial reporting year-end financial statements  of the operator and/or guarantor shall be examined by an independent certified  public accountant and be accompanied by the accountant's report of the  examination; and 
    (2) The financial reporting year-end financial statements of  the operator and/or guarantor cannot include an adverse auditor's opinion, a  disclaimer of opinion, or a "going concern" qualification. 
    b. (1) (a) File financial statements annually with the U.S.  Securities and Exchange Commission, the Energy Information Administration, or  the Rural Electrification Administration Utilities Service; or 
    (b) Report annually the tangible net worth of the operator  and/or guarantor to Dun and Bradstreet, and Dun and Bradstreet must have  assigned a financial strength rating which at least equals the amount of  financial responsibility required by the operator in 9VAC25-640-50. 
    (2) The financial reporting year-end financial statements of  the operator and/or guarantor, if independently audited, cannot include an  adverse auditor's opinion, a disclaimer of opinion, or a "going  concern" qualification. 
    3. The operator and/or guarantor shall have a letter signed by  the chief financial officer worded identically as specified in Appendix  I/Alternative I. 
    C. 1. The operator and/or guarantor shall have a tangible net  worth at least equal to the total of the applicable amount required by 9VAC25-640-50  for which a financial test is used to demonstrate financial responsibility. 
    2. The financial reporting year-end financial statements of  the operator and/or guarantor shall be examined by an independent certified  public accountant and be accompanied by the accountant's report of the  examination. 
    3. The financial reporting year-end financial statements  cannot include an adverse auditor's opinion, a disclaimer of opinion, or a  "going concern" qualification. 
    4. If the financial statements of the operator and/or  guarantor are not submitted annually to the U.S. Securities and Exchange  Commission, the Energy Information Administration or the Rural Electrification  Administration Utilities Service, the operator and/or guarantor  shall obtain a special report by an independent certified public accountant  stating that: 
    a. The accountant has compared the data that the letter from  the chief financial officer specified as having been derived from the latest  financial reporting year-end financial statements of the operator and/or  guarantor with the amounts in such financial statements; and 
    b. In connection with that comparison, no matters came to the  accountant's attention that caused him to believe that the specified data  should be adjusted. 
    5. The operator and/or guarantor shall have a letter signed by  the chief financial officer, worded identically as specified in Appendix  I/Alternative II. 
    D. To meet the financial demonstration test under subsections  B or C of this section, the chief financial officer of the operator and/or  guarantor shall sign, within 120 days of the close of each financial reporting  year, as defined by the 12-month period for which financial statements used to  support the financial test are prepared, a letter worded identically as specified  in Appendix I with the appropriate alternative, except that the instructions in  brackets are to be replaced by the relevant information and the brackets  deleted. 
    E. If an operator using the test to provide financial  assurance finds that he no longer meets the requirements of the financial test  based on the financial reporting year-end financial statements, the operator  shall obtain alternative coverage and submit to the board the appropriate  original forms listed in 9VAC25-640-170 B within 150 days of the end of the  year for which financial statements have been prepared. 
    F. The board may require reports of financial condition at  any time from the operator and/or guarantor. If the board finds, on the basis  of such reports or other information, that the operator and/or guarantor no  longer meets the financial test requirements of subsection B or C and D of this  section, the operator shall obtain alternate coverage and submit to the board  the appropriate original forms listed in 9VAC25-640-170 B within 30 days after  notification of such finding. 
    G. If the operator fails to obtain alternate assurance within  150 days of finding that he no longer meets the requirements of the financial  test based on the financial reporting year-end financial statements, or within  30 days of notification by the board that he no longer meets the requirements  of the financial test, the operator shall notify the board of such failure  within 10 days. 
    9VAC25-640-80. Guarantee.
    A. An operator may satisfy the requirements of 9VAC25-640-50  by obtaining a guarantee that conforms to the requirements of this section. The  guarantor shall be: 
    1. A firm that: 
    a. Possesses a controlling interest in the operator; 
    b. Possesses a controlling interest in a firm described under  subdivision A 1 a of this section; or 
    c. Is controlled through stock ownership by a common parent  firm that possesses a controlling interest in the operator; or 
    2. A firm engaged in a substantial business relationship with  the operator and issuing the guarantee as an act incident to that business  relationship. 
    B. Within 120 days of the close of each financial reporting  year, the guarantor shall demonstrate that it meets the financial test criteria  of 9VAC25-640-70 B or C and D based on year-end financial statements for the  latest completed financial reporting year by completing the letter from the  chief financial officer described in Appendix I and shall deliver the letter to  the operator. If the guarantor fails to meet the requirements of the financial  test at the end of any financial reporting year, within 120 days of the end of  that financial reporting year the guarantor shall send by certified mail,  before cancellation or nonrenewal of the guarantee, notice to the operator  [ and the board ]. If the board notifies the guarantor that he  no longer meets the requirements of the financial test of 9VAC25-640-70 B or C  and D, the guarantor shall notify the operator within 10 days of receiving such  notification from the board. In both cases, the guarantee will terminate no less  than 120 days after the date the operator receives the notification, as  evidenced by the return receipt. The operator shall obtain alternate coverage  as specified in 9VAC25-640-200. 
    C. The guarantee shall be worded identically as specified in  Appendix II, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the  relevant information and the brackets deleted.
    [ D. ] An operator who uses a guarantee  to satisfy the requirements of 9VAC25-640-50 shall establish a standby trust  fund when the guarantee is obtained. Under the terms of the guarantee, all  amounts paid by the guarantor under the guarantee will be deposited directly  into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the board  under 9VAC25-640-180. This standby trust fund shall meet the requirements  specified in 9VAC25-640-130. [ Under the terms of the guarantee,  all amounts paid by the guarantor under the guarantee will be paid directly to  the board in accordance with instructions from the board under 9VAC25-640-180.   ]
    9VAC25-640-90. Insurance and group self-insurance pool  coverage.
    A. 1. An operator may satisfy the requirements of  9VAC25-640-50 by obtaining liability insurance that conforms to the  requirements of this section from a qualified insurer or entering into a  member agreement with a group self-insurance pool. 
    2. Such liability insurance may be in the form of a  separate insurance policy or an endorsement to an existing insurance policy.
    3. Group self-insurance pools shall comply with § 62.1-44.34:16  of the Code of Virginia and applicable the rules promulgated by the  State Corporation Commission Bureau of Insurance regulations designated  as Chapter 385 of Title 14 of the Virginia Administrative Code and entitled  "Rules Governing Aboveground Storage Tank and Pipeline Operators Group  Self-Insurance Pools" (14VAC5-385).
    B. Each liability insurance policy shall be amended by  an endorsement worded in no respect less favorable than the coverage as  specified in Appendix III, or evidenced by a certificate of insurance worded  identically as specified in Appendix IV, except that instructions in brackets  shall be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
    C. Each liability insurance policy shall be issued by  an insurer or a group self-insurance pool that, at a minimum, is  licensed to transact the business of insurance or eligible to provide insurance  as an excess or approved surplus lines insurer in the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    D. Each group self-insurance pool must be licensed in  accordance with 14VAC5-385, and any coverage provided by such a pool shall be  evidenced by a certificate of group self-insurance worded identically as  specified in Appendix VIII, except that instructions in brackets shall be  replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
    E. Each liability insurance policy or group  self-insurance plan shall provide first dollar coverage. The insurer or  group self-insurance pool shall be liable for the payment of all amounts within  any deductible applicable to the policy to the provider of containment and  clean up as provided in this chapter, with a right of reimbursement by the  insured for any such payment made by the insurer or group self-insurance  pool. This provision does not apply with respect to that amount of any  deductible for which coverage is demonstrated under another mechanism or  combination of mechanisms as specified in 9VAC25-640-70 through 9VAC25-640-120.  
    9VAC25-640-100. Surety bond. 
    A. An operator may satisfy the requirements of 9VAC25-640-50  by obtaining a surety bond that conforms to the requirements of this section.  The surety company issuing the bond shall be licensed to operate as a surety in  the Commonwealth of Virginia and be among those listed as acceptable sureties  on federal bonds in the latest Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the  Treasury. 
    B. The surety bond shall be worded identically as specified  in Appendix V, except that instructions in brackets shall be replaced with the  relevant information and the brackets deleted. 
    C. Under the terms of the bond, the surety will become liable  on the bond obligation when the operator fails to perform as guaranteed by the  bond. In all cases, the surety's liability is limited to the per-occurrence and  annual aggregate penal sums. 
     [ D. ]  The operator who uses a  surety bond to satisfy the requirements of 9VAC25-640-50 shall establish a  standby trust fund when the surety bond is acquired.  [ Under  the terms of the bond, all amounts paid by the surety under the bond will be ]   deposited directly into the standby trust fund   [ paid  directly to the board in accordance with instructions from the board under  9VAC25-640-180. ]  This standby trust fund shall meet the  requirements specified in 9VAC25-640-130. 
    9VAC25-640-110. Letter of credit.
    A. An operator may satisfy the requirements of 9VAC25-640-50  by obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit that conforms to the  requirements of this section. The issuing institution shall be an entity that  has the authority to issue letters of credit in the Commonwealth of Virginia  and whose letter-of-credit operations are regulated and examined by a federal  agency or the State Corporation Commission.
    B. The letter of credit shall be worded identically as  specified in Appendix VI, except that instructions in brackets are to be  replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
    [ C. ] An operator who uses a letter of  credit to satisfy the requirements of 9VAC25-640-50 also shall establish a  standby trust fund when the letter of credit is acquired. [ Under  the terms of the letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft by the  board will be ] deposited by the issuing institution directly into  the standby trust fund [ paid by the issuing institution  directly to the board in accordance with instructions from the board under  9VAC25-640-180. ] This standby trust fund shall meet the  requirements specified in 9VAC25-640-130. 
    D. The letter of credit shall be irrevocable with a term  specified by the issuing institution. The letter of credit shall provide that  credit will be automatically renewed for the same term as the original term,  unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, the issuing  institution notifies the operator and the board by certified mail of its  decision not to renew the letter of credit. Under the terms of the letter of  credit, the 120 days will begin on the date when the operator and the board receives  the notice, as evidenced by the return receipt receipts.
    9VAC25-640-120. Trust fund. 
    A. An operator may satisfy the requirements of 9VAC25-640-50  by establishing an irrevocable trust fund that conforms to the requirements of  this section. The trustee shall be an entity that has the authority to act as a  trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a federal  agency or the State Corporation Commission. 
    B. The trust fund shall be irrevocable and shall continue  until terminated at the written direction of the grantor and the trustee, or by  the trustee and the State Water Control Board, if the grantor ceases to exist.  Upon termination of the trust, all remaining trust property, less final trust  administration expenses, shall be delivered to the operator. The wording of the  trust agreement shall be identical to the wording specified in Appendix VII and  shall be accompanied by a formal certification of acknowledgment as specified  in Appendix VIII. 
    C. The irrevocable trust fund, when established, shall be  funded for the full required amount of coverage, or funded for part of the  required amount of coverage and used in combination with other mechanisms that  provide the remaining required coverage. 
    D. If the value of the trust fund is greater than the  required amount of coverage, the operator may submit a written request to the  board for release of the excess. 
    E. If other financial assurance as specified in this chapter  is substituted for all or part of the trust fund, the operator may submit a  written request to the board for release of the excess. 
    F. Within 60 days after receiving a request from the operator  for release of funds as specified in subsection D or E of this section, the  board will instruct the trustee to release to the operator such funds as the  board specifies in writing. 
    9VAC25-640-130. Standby trust fund. (Repealed.)
    A. An operator using any one of the mechanisms authorized  by 9VAC25-640-80, 9VAC25-640-100, and 9VAC25-640-110 shall establish a standby  trust fund when the mechanism is acquired. The trustee of the standby trust  fund shall be an entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose  trust operations are regulated and examined by a federal agency or the State  Corporation Commission. 
    B. The standby trust agreement or trust agreement shall be  worded identically as specified in Appendix VII, except that instructions in  brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets  deleted, and accompanied by a formal certification of acknowledgment as  specified in Appendix VIII. 
    C. The board will instruct the trustee to refund the  balance of the standby trust fund to the provider of financial assurance if the  board determines that no additional containment and clean up costs will occur  as a result of a discharge covered by the financial assurance mechanism for  which the standby trust fund was established. 
    D. An operator may establish one trust fund as the  depository mechanism for all funds assured in compliance with this rule. 
    9VAC25-640-150. Cancellation or nonrenewal by a provider of  financial assurance.
    A. Except as otherwise provided, a provider of financial  assurance may cancel or fail to renew an assurance mechanism by sending a  notice of termination by certified mail to the operator and the board.
    Termination of a guarantee, a surety bond, or a letter of  credit may not occur until 120 days after the date on which the operator and  the board receives the notice of termination, as evidenced by the return receipt  receipts.
    Termination of insurance or group self-insurance pool  coverage, except for nonpayment or misrepresentation by the insured, may not  occur until 60 days after the date on which the operator and the board  receives the notice of termination, as evidenced by the return receipt receipts.  Termination for nonpayment of premium or misrepresentation by the insured may  not occur until a minimum of 15 days after the date on which the operator and  the board receives the notice of termination, as evidenced by the return receipt  receipts.
    B. If a provider of financial responsibility cancels or fails  to renew for reasons other than incapacity of the provider as specified in  9VAC25-640-200, the operator shall obtain alternate coverage as specified in  this section and shall submit to the board the appropriate original forms  listed in 9VAC25-640-170 B documenting the alternate coverage within 60 days  after receipt of the notice of termination. If the operator fails to obtain  alternate coverage within 60 days after receipt of the notice of termination,  the operator shall immediately notify the board of such failure and submit:
    1. The name and address of the provider of financial  assurance;
    2. The effective date of termination; and
    3. A copy of the financial assurance mechanism subject to the  termination maintained in accordance with 9VAC25-640-170.
    9VAC25-640-160. Reporting by operator.
    A. Except as specified in 9VAC25-640-170 B 7, an operator  of a facility existing as of March 2, 2001, shall comply with the requirements  of this chapter by June 30, 2001. An operator shall submit the  appropriate original forms listed in 9VAC25-640-170 B documenting current  evidence of financial responsibility to the board within 30 days after the  operator identifies or confirms a discharge from an aboveground storage tank or  pipeline required to be reported under [ 9VAC25-90-210  9VAC25-91 ]. For all subsequent discharges within the same period  of time for which the documents submitted according to this subsection are  still effective, the operator shall submit a letter that identifies the  operator’s name and address and the aboveground storage tank’s or pipeline’s  location by site name, street address, board incident designation number and a  statement that the financial responsibility documentation previously provided  to the board is currently in force.
    B. Except as specified in 9VAC25-640-170 B 7, an operator  of a facility which does not exist as of March 2, 2001, shall comply with the  requirements of this chapter at least 30 days before the facility commences  operation or by May 1, 2001, whichever is later. 
    C. B. An operator shall notify the board if the  operator fails to obtain alternate coverage as required by this chapter within  30 days after the operator receives notice of: 
    1. Commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under  Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming a provider of financial assurance as a  debtor. 
    2. Suspension or revocation of the authority of a provider of  financial assurance to issue a financial assurance mechanism. 
    3. Failure of a guarantor to meet the requirements of the  financial test. 
    4. Other incapacity of a provider of financial assurance. 
    D. C. An operator shall submit the appropriate  original forms listed in 9VAC25-640-170 B documenting current evidence of  financial responsibility to the board as required by 9VAC25-640-70 E and F and  9VAC25-640-150 B. 
    E. D. An operator shall submit to the board the  appropriate original forms listed in 9VAC25-640-170 B documenting current  evidence of financial responsibility upon substitution of its financial  assurance mechanisms as provided by 9VAC25-640-140. 
    F. E. The board may require an operator to  submit evidence of financial assurance as described in 9VAC25-640-170 B or  other information relevant to compliance with this chapter at any time. The  board may require submission of originals or copies at its sole discretion. 
    9VAC25-640-170. Recordkeeping.
    A. Operators shall maintain evidence of all financial  assurance mechanisms used to demonstrate financial responsibility under this  chapter for an aboveground storage tank or pipeline, or both, until released  from the requirements of this regulation under 9VAC25-640-190. An operator  shall maintain such evidence at the aboveground storage tank site or the  operator's place of work in this Commonwealth. Records maintained off-site  shall be made available upon request of the board. 
    B. Operators shall maintain the following types of evidence  of financial responsibility: 
    1. An operator using an assurance mechanism specified in  9VAC25-640-70 through 9VAC25-640-120 shall maintain the original instrument  worded as specified. 
    2. An operator using a financial test or guarantee shall  maintain (i) the chief financial officer's letter, and (ii) year-end financial  statements for the most recent completed financial reporting year or the Dun  and Bradstreet rating on which the chief financial officer's letter was based.  Such evidence shall be on file no later than 120 days after the close of the  financial reporting year. 
    3. An operator using a guarantee, surety bond, or letter of  credit shall maintain the signed standby trust fund agreement and any  amendments to the agreement. 
    4. 3. An operator using an insurance policy or  group self-insurance pool coverage shall maintain a copy of the signed  insurance policy or group self-insurance pool coverage policy, with the  endorsement or certificate of insurance and any amendments to the agreements. 
    5. 4. a. An operator using an assurance  mechanism specified in 9VAC25-640-70 through 9VAC25-640-120 shall maintain an  original certification of financial responsibility worded identically as  specified in Appendix IX, except that instructions in brackets are to be  replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted. 
    b. The operator shall maintain a new original certification at  or before the time specified in 9VAC25-640-160 or whenever the financial  assurance mechanisms used to demonstrate financial responsibility changes. 
    6. An operator using a trust agreement or who is required  to prepare a standby trust agreement pursuant to 9VAC25-640-130 shall maintain  a certification of acknowledgment worded identically as specified in Appendix  VIII, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant  information and the brackets deleted.
    7. 5. For [ subsequent annual ]  updates submissions required under 9VAC25-640-160:
    a. The operator [ may maintain must provide ]  an [ insurance ] endorsement [ , a rider or  certificate, ] or a notice of extension from the provider of financial  assurance evidencing continuation of coverage in lieu of a new original surety  bond or letter of credit [ or insurance policy ] , provided  the form of the [ insurance ] endorsement [ , rider or  certificate, ] or notice of extension is approved by the board;
    b. The operator need not [ obtain provide ]  a new original guarantee or trust fund, provided the same mechanism is to  continue to act as the operator's demonstration mechanism for the subsequent  year or years; 
    c. The operator need not obtain a new standby trust  agreement, provided the financial assurance mechanism remains the same; 
    d. c. The operator must [ maintain provide ]  a new original mechanism as specified in subdivision 2 of this subsection; 
    e. d. The operator need not [ obtain  provide ] a new original certification of acknowledgment, provided  the associated trust agreement has not changed;
    f. e. The operator must [ maintain provide ]  a new original certification of financial responsibility.
    9VAC25-640-180. Drawing on financial assurance mechanisms.
    A. The board shall may require the guarantor,  surety, or institution issuing a letter of credit to place the amount of  funds stipulated by the board, pay to the board an amount up to the  limit of funds provided by the financial assurance mechanism, into the  standby trust if:
    1. a. The operator fails to establish alternate financial  assurance within 60 days after receiving notice of cancellation of the  guarantee, surety bond, letter of credit; and
    b. The board determines or suspects that a discharge from an  aboveground storage tank or pipeline covered by the mechanism has occurred and  so notifies the operator, or the operator has notified the board pursuant to 9VAC25-91-10  et seq. 9VAC25-91 of a discharge from an aboveground storage tank or  pipeline covered by the mechanism; or
    2. The conditions of subsection B of this section are  satisfied.
    B. The board shall deposit the financial assurance funds  forfeited pursuant to subsection A of this section into the Virginia Petroleum  Storage Tank Fund. The board may draw on a standby trust fund when the  board use the financial responsibility funds obtained pursuant to  subsection A of this section to conduct containment and cleanup when it  makes a final determination that a discharge has occurred and immediate or  long-term containment and/or clean up for the discharge is needed, and the  operator, after appropriate notice and opportunity to comply, has not conducted  containment and clean up as required under 9VAC25-91-10 et seq 9VAC25-91.
    9VAC25-640-190. Release from the requirements.
    An operator is no longer required to maintain financial  responsibility under this chapter for an aboveground storage tank or pipeline  after the tank or pipeline has been permanently closed pursuant to the  requirements of 9VAC25-91-10 et seq. 9VAC25-91, except when the  board determines clean up of a discharge from the aboveground storage tank or  pipeline is required.
    [ 9VAC25-640-200. Bankruptcy or other incapacity of  operator provider of financial assurance.
    A. Within 10 days after commencement of a voluntary or  involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming an operator  as debtor, the operator shall notify the board by certified mail of such  commencement. 
    B. Within 10 days after commencement of a voluntary or  involuntary proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming a  guarantor providing financial assurance as debtor, such guarantor shall notify  the operator and the board by certified mail of such commencement as  required under the terms of the guarantee specified in 9VAC25-640-80.
    C. An operator who obtains financial assurance by a mechanism  other than the financial test of self-insurance will be deemed to be without  the required financial assurance in the event of a bankruptcy or incapacity of  its provider of financial assurance, or a suspension or revocation of the  authority of the provider of financial assurance to issue a guarantee,  insurance policy, group self-insurance pool coverage policy, surety bond, or  letter of credit. The operator shall obtain alternate financial assurance as  specified in this chapter and submit to the board the appropriate original  forms specified in 9VAC25-640-170 B within 30 days after receiving notice of  such an event. If the operator does not obtain alternate coverage within 30  days after such notification, he shall immediately notify the board in  writing. ]
    9VAC25-640-210. Replenishment of guarantees, letters of credit  or surety bonds. 
    A. If at any time after a standby trust is funded upon the  instruction of the board with funds drawn from a guarantee, letter of  credit, or surety bond, and the amount in the standby trust is reduced below  the full amount of coverage required is drawn upon by instruction of the  board and the board has expended all or part of the funds for containment and  cleanup, the operator shall by the anniversary date of the financial  mechanism from which the funds were drawn shall: 
    1. Replenish the value of financial assurance to equal the  full amount of coverage required; or 
    2. Acquire another financial assurance mechanism for the  amount by which funds in the standby trust have the face value of the  letter of credit, surety bond, or guarantee has been reduced.
    B. For purposes of this section, the full amount of coverage  required is the amount of coverage to be provided by 9VAC25-640-50. If a  combination of mechanisms was used to provide the assurance funds which were  drawn upon, replenishment shall occur by the earliest anniversary date among  the mechanisms. 
    9VAC25-640-220. Virginia Petroleum Storage Tank Fund.
    The fund may be used for all uses authorized by  § 62.1-44.34:11 of the Code of Virginia in accordance with the requirements  specified in 9VAC25-590-210. 
    A. The Virginia Petroleum Storage Tank Fund will be used  for reasonable and necessary costs, in excess of the financial responsibility  amounts specified below, incurred by an operator for containment and cleanup of  a petroleum release from a facility of a product subject to § 62.1-44.34:13 of  the Code of Virginia as follows:
    1. Reasonable and necessary per occurrence containment and  cleanup costs incurred by an operator whose net annual profits from all  facilities in Virginia do not exceed $10 million:
    a. For a release from a facility with a storage capacity  less than 25,000 gallons, per occurrence costs in excess of $2,500 up to $1  million;
    b. For a release from a facility with a storage capacity from  25,000 gallons to 100,000 gallons, per occurrence costs in excess of $5,000 up  to $1 million;
    c. For a release from a facility with a storage capacity  from 100,000 gallons to four million gallons, per occurrence costs in excess of  $.05 per gallon of aboveground storage capacity up to $1 million; and
    d. For a release from a facility with a storage capacity  greater than four million gallons, per occurrence costs in excess of $200,000  up to $1 million.
    e. For purposes of this subdivision, the per occurrence  financial responsibility requirements for an operator shall be based on the  total storage capacity for the facility from which the discharge occurs.
    2. Reasonable and necessary per occurrence containment and  cleanup costs incurred by an operator whose net annual profits from all  facilities in Virginia exceed $10 million:
    a. For a release from a facility with a storage capacity  less than four million gallons, per occurrence costs in excess of $200,000 up  to $1 million; 
    b. For a release from a facility with a storage capacity  from four million gallons to 20 million gallons, per occurrence costs in excess  of $.05 per gallon of aboveground storage capacity of up to $1 million; and
    c. For a release from a facility with a storage capacity  greater than 20 million gallons no access to the fund will be permitted.
    d. For purposes of this subdivision, the financial  responsibility requirements for an operator are based on the total aboveground  storage capacity for all facilities operated in Virginia. 
    B. The Virginia Petroleum Storage Tank Fund will be used  for reasonable and necessary per occurrence costs of containment and cleanup  incurred for releases reported after December 22, 1989, by the operator of a  facility in excess of $500 up to $1 million for any release of petroleum into  the environment from an aboveground storage tank with a capacity of 5,000  gallons or less used for storing heating oil for consumption on the premises  where stored.
    C. The Virginia Petroleum Storage Tank Fund may be used  for all other uses authorized in § 62.1-44.34:11 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. An operator of a facility responding to a release and  conducting board-approved corrective action may proceed to pay for all costs  incurred for such activities. Documentation submitted to the board of all costs  incurred will be reviewed and those documented costs in excess of the financial  responsibility requirements up to $1 million that are reasonable and necessary  and have been approved by the board will be reimbursed from the fund.
    E. Operators shall pay the financial responsibility  requirement specified in this section for each occurrence. 
    F. Section 62.1-44.34:11 A of the Code of Virginia  provides that no person shall receive reimbursement from the fund:
    1. For costs incurred for corrective action taken prior to  December 22, 1989 by an owner or operator of an underground storage tank  exempted in subdivisions 1 and 2 of the definition of an underground storage  tank in § 62.1-44.34:10 of the Code of Virginia, or an owner of an aboveground  storage tank with a capacity of 5,000 gallons or less used for storing heating  oil for consumption on the premises where stored.
    2. For costs incurred prior to January 1, 1992, by an  operator of a facility for containment and cleanup of a release from a facility  of a product subject to § 62.1-44.34:13 of the Code of Virginia.
    3. For containment and cleanup costs that are reimbursed or  are reimbursable from other applicable state or federal programs.
    4. If the operator of a facility has not complied with  applicable statutes or regulations governing reporting, prevention, containment  and cleanup of a discharge of oil.
    5. If the owner or operator of an underground storage tank  or the operator of an aboveground storage tank facility fails to report a  release of petroleum or a discharge of oil to the board as required by  applicable statutes, laws or regulations.
    6. Unless a reimbursement claim has been filed with the  board within two years from the date the board issues a site remediation  closure letter for that release or July 1, 2000, whichever is later.
    G. In addition to the statutory prohibitions quoted in  subsection F of this section, no person shall receive reimbursement from the  fund for containment and cleanup: 
    1. Where the release is caused, in whole or in part, by the  willful misconduct or negligence of the operator, his employee, contractor, or  agent, or anyone within his privity or knowledge; 
    2. Where the claim cost has been reimbursed or is  reimbursable by an insurance policy; 
    3. Where the operator does not demonstrate the  reasonableness and necessity of the claim costs; 
    4. Where the person, his employee, contractor or agent, or  anyone within the privity or knowledge of that person has (i) failed to carry  out the instructions of the board, (ii) committed willful misconduct or been  negligent in carrying out the instructions of the board, or (iii) has violated  applicable federal or state safety, construction or operating laws or  regulations in carrying out the instructions of the board; and 
    5. Where the costs or damages were incurred pursuant to  § 10.1-1232 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations promulgated thereunder.
    H. No disbursements shall be made from the fund for  operators who are federal government entities or whose debts and liabilities  are the debts and liabilities of the United States. 
    I. No funds shall be paid in excess of the minimum  disbursement necessary to contain and cleanup each occurrence to the acceptable  level of risk, as determined by the board. 
    J. The board may perform a detailed review of all  documentation associated with a reimbursement claim up to seven years following  payment of the claim. Based upon the results of the review, the board may take  actions to address any deficiencies found in the claim documentation. Such  actions may include, but are not limited to, publishing a list of audit  concerns associated with the claim, withholding payment of future claims,  and/or recovering costs paid on prior claims.
    K. The board shall seek recovery of all costs and expenses  incurred by the Commonwealth for investigation, containment and cleanup of a  discharge of oil or threat of discharge against any person liable for a  discharge of oil as specified in Article 11 (§62.1-44.34:14 et seq.) of the  State Water Control Law; however, the board shall seek recovery from an  operator of expenditures from the fund only in the amount by which such  expenditures exceed the amount authorized to be disbursed to the operator under  subdivisions A 1 and A 2 of this section. This limitation on recovery shall not  apply if the release was caused, in whole or in part, by the willful misconduct  or negligence of the owner or operator, his employee, contractor, or agent, or  anyone within his privity or knowledge.
    9VAC25-640-230. Notices to the State Water Control Board. 
    All requirements of this chapter for notification to the  State Water Control Board shall be addressed as follows: 
    Director Department of Environmental Quality 629 E. Main  Street P.O. Box 10009 1105 Richmond, Virginia 23240-0009 23218.  
    9VAC25-640-250. Evaluation of chapter.
    A. No later than March 2, 2004, [ Within four  years after the effective date of this chapter By October 31,  2012 ], the department shall perform an analysis on this chapter and  provide the board with a report on the results. The analysis shall include (i)  the purpose and need for the chapter; (ii) alternatives that would achieve the  stated purpose of this chapter in a less burdensome and less intrusive manner;  (iii) an assessment of the effectiveness of this chapter; (iv) the results of a  review of current state and federal statutory and regulatory requirements,  including identification and justification of requirements of this chapter  which are more stringent than federal requirements; and (v) the results of a  review as to whether this chapter is clearly written and easily understandable  by affected entities.
    B. Upon review of the department's analysis, the board shall  confirm the need to (i) continue this chapter without amendments, (ii) repeal  this chapter or (iii) amend this chapter. If the board's decision is to repeal  or amend this chapter, the board shall authorize the department to initiate the  applicable regulatory process to carry out the decision of the board.
    APPENDIX I. LETTER FROM CHIEF FINANCIAL OFFICER. 
    (Note: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the  relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    I am the chief financial officer of [insert: name and address  of the operator or guarantor]. This letter is in support of the use of [insert:  "the financial test of self-insurance," and/or "Guarantee"]  to demonstrate financial responsibility for the containment and clean up of discharges  of oil in the amount of at least [insert: dollar amount] per occurrence and  [insert: dollar amount] annual aggregate arising from operating [insert:  "(an) aboveground storage tank(s)" and/or "(a)  pipeline(s)"]. 
    Aboveground storage tanks at the following facilities and/or  pipelines are assured by this financial test by this [insert:  "operator" and/or "guarantor"]: 
    [List for each facility: the name and address of the facility  where tanks assured by this financial test are located, either the registration  identification number assigned by the Department or the Oil Discharge  Contingency Plan facility identification number, and whether tanks are assured  by this financial test. If separate mechanisms or combinations of mechanisms  are being used to assure any of the tanks at this facility, list each tank  assured by this financial test. 
    List for each pipeline: the home office address and the names  of the cities and counties in the Commonwealth where the pipeline is located.] 
    This [insert: "operator " or "guarantor"]  has not received an adverse opinion, a disclaimer of opinion, or a "going  concern" qualification from an independent auditor on the financial  statements for the latest completed fiscal year. 
    [Fill in the information for Alternative I if the criteria of  9VAC25-640-70 B are being used to demonstrate compliance with the financial  test requirements. Fill in the information for Alternative II if the criteria  of 9VAC25-640-70 C are being used to demonstrate compliance with the financial  test requirements.] 
    ALTERNATIVE I 
           | 1. Amount of AST annual    aggregate coverage being assured by a financial test, and/or guarantee  | $_________ | 
       | 2. Amount of pipeline annual    aggregate coverage covered by a financial test, and/or guarantee  | $_________ | 
       | 3. Amount of annual underground storage tank (UST)    aggregate coverage being assured by a financial test and/or guarantee    pursuant to 9 VAC 25-590  | $_________ | 
       | 4. Total AST/Pipeline/UST financial responsibility    obligations assured by a financial test and/or guarantee (Sum of lines 1,    and 2 and 3) | $_________ | 
       | 4.5. Total tangible assets
 | $_________ | 
       | 5.6. Total liabilities [if any of the amount    reported on line34 is included in total liabilities, you may    deduct that amount from this line or add that amount to line67]
 | $_________ | 
       | 6.7. Tangible net worth [subtract line56 from line45]
 | $_________ | 
       | 7.8. Is line67 at least equal    to line34 above?
 | Yes | No | 
       | ___ | ___ | 
       | 8.9. Have financial statements for the latest    financial reporting year been filed with the Securities and Exchange    Commission?
 | ___ | ___ | 
       | 9.10. Have financial statements for the    latest financial reporting year been filed with the Energy Information    Administration?
 | ___ | ___ | 
       | 10.11. Have financial statements for the    latest financial reporting year been filed with the RuralElectrification    AdministrationUtilities Service?
 | ___ | ___ | 
       | 11.12. Has financial information been    provided to Dun and Bradstreet, and has Dun and Bradstreet provided a    financial strength rating of at least equal to the amount of annual    AST/pipeline aggregate coverage being assured? [Answer Yes only if both    criteria have been met.]
 | ___ | ___ | 
       | 12.13. If you did not answer Yes to one of    lines89 through1112, please attach a report    from an independent certified public accountant certifying that there are no    material differences between the data reported in lines4 5    through78 above and the financial statements for the latest    financial reporting year.
 |   | 
  
    ALTERNATIVE II 
           | 1. Amount of AST annual aggregate coverage being assured by    a financial test, and/or guarantee | $_________ | 
       | 2. Amount of pipeline annual aggregate coverage covered by a    financial test, and/or guarantee | $_________ | 
       | 3. Amount of annual underground storage tank (UST)    aggregate coverage being assured by a financial test and/or guarantee    pursuant to 9VAC25-590 | $_________ | 
       | 4. Total AST/Pipeline?UST financial responsibility    obligations assured by a financial test and/or guarantee (Sum of lines 1,    and2 and 3) | $_________ | 
       | 4.5. Total tangible assets
 | $_________ | 
       | 5.6. Total    liabilities [if any of the amount reported on line3 4 is    included in total liabilities, you may deduct that amount from this line or    add that amount to line]
 | $_________ | 
       | 6.7. Tangible net worth [subtract line56 from line4 5]
 | $_________ | 
       | 7.8. Total assets in the U.S. [required only    if less than 90
 percent of assets are located in the U.S.] | $_________ | 
       | 8.9. Is line67 at least equal    to line34 above?
 | Yes | No | 
       | ___ | ___ | 
       | 9.10. Are at least 90 percent of assets    located in the U.S.? [If No, complete line1011.]
 | ___ | ___ | 
       | 10.11. Is line78 at least    equal to line34?
 | ___ | ___ | 
       | [Fill in either lines 11-14 12-15 or lines15-17    16-18:] |   | 
       | 11.12. Current assets
 | $_________ | 
       | 12.13. Current liabilities
 | $_________ | 
       | 13.14. Net working capital [subtract line12    13 from line11 12]
 | $_________ | 
       | 14.15. Is line1314 at least    equal to line34?
 | Yes | No | 
       | ___ | ___ | 
       | 15.16. Current bond rating of most recent    bond issue
 | __________ | 
       | 16.17. Name of rating service
 | __________ | 
       | 17.18. Date of maturity of bond
 | __________ | 
       | 18.19. Have financial statements for the    latest fiscal year been filed with the SEC, the Energy Information    Administration, or the RuralElectrification AdministrationUtilities    Service?
 | Yes | No | 
       | ___ | ___ | 
  
    [If "No," please attach a report from an  independent certified public accountant certifying that there are no material  differences between the data as reported in lines 4-17 5-18 above  and the financial statements for the latest financial reporting year.] 
    [For Alternatives I and II, complete the certification with  this statement.] 
    I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical  to the wording specified in Appendix I of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq. 9VAC25-640  as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below. 
    [Signature] 
    [Name] 
    [Title] 
    [Date] 
    APPENDIX II. GUARANTEE. 
    (Note: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the  relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    Guarantee made this [date] by [name of guaranteeing entity],  a business entity organized under the laws of the state of [insert name of  state], herein referred to as guarantor, to the State Water Control Board of  the Commonwealth of Virginia and obligees, on behalf of [operator] of [business  address]. 
    Recitals. 
    (1) Guarantor meets or exceeds the financial test criteria of  9VAC25-640-70 B or C and D and agrees to comply with the requirements for  guarantors as specified in 9VAC25-640-80. 
    (2) Operator operates the following aboveground storage  tank(s) and/or pipelines covered by this guarantee: 
    [List for each facility: the name and address of facility  where tanks assured by this financial test are located, either the registration  identification number assigned by the Department or the Oil Discharge Contingency  Plan facility identification number, and whether tanks are assured by this  guarantee. If more than one instrument is used to assure different tanks at any  one facility, list each tank assured by this mechanism. 
    List for each pipeline: the home office address and the names  of the cities and counties in the Commonwealth where the pipeline is located.] 
    This guarantee satisfies the requirements of 9VAC25-640-10  et seq. 9VAC25-640 for assuring funding for taking containment and  clean up measures necessitated by a discharge of oil; [if coverage is different  for different tanks or locations, indicate the type of coverage applicable to  each tank or location] arising from operating the above-identified aboveground  storage tank(s) and/or pipelines in the amount of [insert dollar amount] per  occurrence and [insert dollar amount] annual aggregate. 
    (3) [Insert appropriate phrase: "On behalf of our  subsidiary" (if guarantor is corporate parent of the operator); "On  behalf of our affiliate" (if guarantor is a related firm of the operator);  or "Incident to our business relationship with" (if guarantor is  providing the guarantee as an incident to a substantial business relationship  with operator)] [operator], guarantor guarantees to the State Water Control  Board that: 
    In the event that operator fails to provide alternate  coverage within 60 days after receipt of a notice of cancellation of this  guarantee and the State Water Control Board has determined or suspects that a  discharge has occurred at an aboveground storage tank and/or pipeline covered  by this guarantee, the guarantor, upon instructions from the State Water  Control Board, shall fund a standby trust fund pay the funds to the  State Water Control Board in accordance with the provisions of  9VAC25-640-180, in an amount not to exceed the coverage limits specified above.  
    In the event that the State Water Control Board determines  that operator has failed to perform containment and clean up for discharges  arising out of the operation of the above-identified tank(s) and/or pipelines  in accordance with 9VAC25-91-10 et seq. 9VAC25-91, the guarantor  upon written instructions from the State Water Control Board shall fund a  standby trust pay the funds to the State Water Control Board in  accordance with the provisions of 9VAC25-640-180, in an amount not to exceed  the coverage limits specified above.
    (4) Guarantor agrees that if, at the end of any financial  reporting year before cancellation of this guarantee, the guarantor fails to  meet the financial test criteria of 9VAC25-640-70 B or C and D, guarantor shall  send within 120 days of such failure, by certified mail, notice to operator and  the State Water Control Board. The guarantee will terminate 120 days from  the date of receipt of the notice by operator and the State Water Control  Board, as evidenced by the return receipt. 
    (5) Guarantor agrees to notify operator and the State  Water Control Board by certified mail of a voluntary or involuntary  proceeding under Title 11 (Bankruptcy), U.S. Code, naming the guarantor as  debtor, within 10 days after commencement of the proceeding. 
    (6) Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee  notwithstanding any modification or alteration of any obligation of operator  pursuant to 9VAC25-91-10 et seq. 9VAC25-91 or 9VAC25-640-10 et  seq 9VAC25-640. 
    (7) Guarantor agrees to remain bound under this guarantee for  so long as operator shall comply with the applicable financial responsibility  requirements of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq. 9VAC25-640 for the above-identified  tank(s) and/or pipelines, except that guarantor may cancel this guarantee by  sending notice by certified mail to operator and the State Water Control  Board, such cancellation to become effective no earlier than 120 days after  receipt of such notice by operator and the State Water Control Board ,  as evidenced by the return receipt. 
    (8) The guarantor's obligation does not apply to any of the  following: 
    (a) Any obligation of operator under a workers' compensation,  disability benefits, or unemployment compensation law or other similar law; 
    (b) Bodily injury to an employee of operator arising from, and  in the course of, employment by operator; 
    (c) Bodily injury or property damage arising from the  ownership, maintenance, use, or entrustment to others of any aircraft, motor  vehicle, or watercraft; 
    (d) Property damage to any property owned, rented, loaned to,  in the care, custody, or control of, or occupied by operator that is not the  direct result of a discharge from an aboveground storage tank and/or pipeline; 
    (e) Bodily damage or property damage for which operator is  obligated to pay damages by reason of the assumption of liability in a contract  or agreement other than a contract or agreement entered into to meet the  requirements of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq. 9VAC25-640.
    (9) Guarantor expressly waives notice of acceptance of this  guarantee by the State Water Control Board or by operator. 
    I hereby certify that the wording of this guarantee is  identical to the wording specified in Appendix II of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq.9VAC25-640  as such regulations were constituted on the effective date shown immediately  below. 
    [Name of guarantor] 
    [Authorized signature for guarantor] 
    [Name of person signing] 
    [Title of person signing] 
    Signature of witness or notary: 
    APPENDIX III. ENDORSEMENT. 
    (Note: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the  relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    Name: ______ [name of each covered location] __________ 
    Address: ____ [address of each covered location] ________ 
    Policy Number: _____________ 
    Period of Coverage: ____ [current policy period] _________ 
    Name of [Insurer or Group Self Insurance Pool] Insurer:  
    _____________ 
    _____________ 
    Address of [Insurer or Group Self Insurance Pool] Insurer:  
    _____________ 
    _____________ 
    Name of Insured: _____________ 
    Address of Insured: 
    _____________ 
    _____________ 
    _____________ 
    Endorsement: 
    1. This endorsement certifies that the policy to which the  endorsement is attached provides liability insurance covering the following  aboveground storage tanks and/or pipelines in connection with the insured's  obligation to demonstrate financial responsibility under 9VAC25-640-10 et  seq. 9VAC25-640: 
    [List for each facility: the name and address of the facility  where tanks assured by this mechanism are located, either the registration  identification number assigned by the department or the Oil Discharge  Contingency Plan facility identification number, and whether tanks are assured  by this mechanism. If more than one instrument is used to assure different  tanks at any one facility, list each tank assured by this mechanism. 
    List for each pipeline: the home office address and the names  of the cities and counties in the Commonwealth where the pipeline is located.] 
    for containment and clean up of a discharge of oil in  accordance with and subject to the limits of liability, exclusions, conditions,  and other terms of the policy; [if coverage is different for different tanks or  locations, indicate the type of coverage applicable to each tank or location]  arising from operating the aboveground storage tank(s) and/or pipelines  identified above. 
    The limits of liability are [insert the dollar amount of the  containment and clean up "each occurrence" and "annual  aggregate" limits of the Insurer's or Group's liability; if the amount of  coverage is different for different types of coverage or for different  aboveground storage tanks, pipelines or locations, indicate the amount of  coverage for each type of coverage and/or for each aboveground storage tank,  pipeline or location], exclusive of legal defense costs, which are subject to a  separate limit under the policy. This coverage is provided under [policy  number]. The effective date of said policy is [date]. 
    2. The insurance afforded with respect to such occurrences is  subject to all of the terms and conditions of the policy; provided, however,  that any provisions inconsistent with subsections (a) through (d) for  occurrence policies and (a) through (e) for claims-made policies of this  Paragraph 2 are hereby amended to conform with subsections (a) through (e): 
    a. Bankruptcy or insolvency of the insured shall not relieve  the ["Insurer" or "Pool"] of its obligations  under the policy to which this endorsement is attached. 
    b. The ["Insurer" or "Pool"]  is liable for the payment of amounts within any deductible applicable to the  policy to the provider of containment and clean up, with a right of  reimbursement by the insured for any such payment made by the ["Insurer"  or "Pool"].
    This provision does not apply with respect to that amount of  any deductible for which coverage is demonstrated under another mechanism or  combination of mechanisms as specified in 9VAC25-640-70 through 120 9VAC25-640-120.  
    c. Whenever requested by the State Water Control Board, the ["Insurer"  or "Pool"] agrees to furnish to State Water Control Board a  signed duplicate original of the policy and all endorsements. 
    d. Cancellation or any other termination of the insurance by  the ["Insurer" or "Pool"], except for  on-payment of premium or misrepresentation by the insured, will be effective  only upon written notice and only after the expiration of 60 days after a copy  of such written notice is received by the insured and the State Water  Control Board. Cancellation for non-payment of premium or misrepresentation  by the insured will be effective only upon written notice and only after  expiration of a minimum of 15 days after a copy of such written notice is  received by the insured and the State Water Control Board. 
    [Insert for claims-made policies: 
    e. The insurance covers claims otherwise covered by the policy  that are reported to the ["Insurer" or "Pool"]  within six months of the effective date of cancellation or nonrenewal of the  policy except where the new or renewed policy has the same retroactive date or  a retroactive date earlier than that of the prior policy, and which arise out  of any covered occurrence that commenced after the policy retroactive date, if  applicable, and prior to such policy renewal or termination date. Claims reported  during such extended reporting period are subject to the terms, conditions,  limits, including limits of liability, and exclusions of the policy.] 
    I hereby certify that the wording of this endorsement is in  no respect less favorable than the coverage specified in Appendix III of 9VAC25-640-10  et seq. 9VAC25-640 and has been so certified by the State  Corporation Commission of the Commonwealth of Virginia. I further certify that  the ["Insurer" or "Pool"] is ["licensed  to transact the business of insurance or eligible to provide insurance as an  excess or surplus lines insurer in the Commonwealth of Virginia"]. 
    [Signature of authorized representative of Insurer or Group  Self Insurance Pool] 
    [Name of person signing] 
    [Title of person signing], Authorized Representative of [name  of Insurer or Group Self Insurance Pool] 
    [Address of Representative] 
    APPENDIX IV. CERTIFICATE OF INSURANCE. 
    (Note: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the  relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    Name: _______ [name of each covered location] _________ 
    Address: ____ [address of each covered location] ________ 
    _____________ 
    _____________ 
    Policy Number: _____________ 
    Endorsement (if applicable): _____________ 
    Period of Coverage: ____ [current policy period] _________ 
    Name of [Insurer or Group Self Insurance Pool]:  
    _____________ 
    _____________ 
    Address of [Insurer or Group Self Insurance Pool]:  
    _____________ 
    _____________ 
    Name of Insured: _____________ 
    Address of Insured: _____________ 
    Certification: 
    1. [Name of Insurer or Group Self Insurance Pool], [the  "Insurer" or "Pool"], as identified above,  hereby certifies that it has issued liability insurance covering the following  aboveground storage tank(s) and/or pipelines in connection with the insured's  obligation to demonstrate financial responsibility under 9VAC25-640-10 et  seq. 9VAC25-640: 
    [List for each facility: the name and address of the facility  where tanks assured by this mechanism are located, either the registration  identification number assigned by the Department or the Oil Discharge  Contingency Plan facility identification number, and whether tanks are assured  by this mechanism. If more than one instrument is used to assure different  tanks at any one facility, list each tank assured by this mechanism.
    List for each pipeline: the home office address and the names  of the cities and counties in the Commonwealth where the pipeline is located.] 
    for containment and clean up of discharges of oil; in  accordance with and subject to the limits of liability, exclusions, conditions,  and other terms of the policy; [if coverage is different for different tanks,  pipelines or locations, indicate the type of coverage applicable to each tank,  pipeline or location] arising from operating the aboveground storage tank(s)  and/or pipelines identified above.
    The limits of liability are [insert the dollar amount of the  containment and clean up "each occurrence" and "annual  aggregate" limits of the Insurer's or Group's liability; if the  amount of coverage is different for different types of coverage or for  different aboveground storage tanks or locations, indicate the amount of  coverage for each type of coverage and/or for each aboveground storage tank,  pipeline or location], exclusive of legal defense costs, which are subject to a  separate limit under the policy. This coverage is provided under [policy  number]. The effective date of said policy is [date].
    2. The ["Insurer" or "Pool"]  further certifies the following with respect to the insurance described in  Paragraph 1: 
    a. Bankruptcy or insolvency of the insured shall not relieve  the ["Insurer" or "Pool"] of its obligations  under the policy to which this certificate applies. 
    b. The ["Insurer" or "Pool"]  is liable for the payment of amounts within any deductible applicable to the  policy to the provider of containment and clean up with a right of  reimbursement by the insured for any such payment made by the ["Insurer"  or "Pool"]. 
    This provision does not apply with respect to that amount of  any deductible for which coverage is demonstrated under another mechanism or  combination of mechanisms as specified in 9VAC25-640-70 through 9VAC25-640-120.  
    c. Whenever requested by the State Water Control Board, the ["Insurer"  or "Pool"] agrees to furnish to the State Water Control Board a  signed duplicate original of the policy and all endorsements. 
    d. Cancellation or any other termination of the insurance by  the ["Insurer" or "Pool"], except for  non-payment of premium or misrepresentation by the insured, will be effective  only upon written notice and only after the expiration of 60 days after a copy  of such written notice is received by the insured and the State Water  Control Board. Cancellation for non-payment of premium or misrepresentation  by the insured will be effective only upon written notice and only after  expiration of a minimum of 15 days after a copy of such written notice is  received by the insured and the State Water Control Board.
    [Insert for claims-made policies: 
    e. The insurance covers claims otherwise covered by the policy  that are reported to the ["Insurer" or "Pool"]  within six months of the effective date of cancellation or nonrenewal of the  policy except where the new or renewed policy has the same retroactive date or  a retroactive date earlier than that of the prior policy, and which arise out  of any covered occurrence that commenced after the policy retroactive date, if  applicable, and prior to such policy renewal or termination date. Claims  reported during such extended reporting period are subject to the terms,  conditions, limits, including limits of liability, and exclusions of the  policy.]
    I hereby certify that the wording of this instrument is  identical to the wording in Appendix IV of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq. 9VAC25-640  and that the ["Insurer" or "Pool"] is ["licensed  to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an  excess or approved surplus lines insurer, in the Commonwealth of Virginia"].  
    [Signature of authorized representative of Insurer] 
    [Type name] [Title], Authorized Representative of [name of  Insurer or Group Self Insurance Pool] 
    [Address of Representative] 
    APPENDIX V. PERFORMANCE BOND. 
    (Note: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the  relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    Date bond executed: _____________ 
    Period of coverage Effective date: _____________  
    Principal: [legal name and address of operator] __________ 
    Type of organization: [insert "individual"  "joint venture," "partnership," "corporation," or  appropriate identification of type of organization] _____________ 
    State of incorporation (if applicable): _____________ 
    Surety(ies): [name(s) and business address(es)] __________ 
    Scope of Coverage: 
    [List for each facility: the name and address of the facility  where tanks assured by this mechanism are located, either the registration  identification number assigned by the Department or the Oil Discharge  Contingency Plan facility identification number, and whether tanks are assured  by this mechanism. If more than one instrument is used to assure different  tanks at any one facility, list each tank assured by this mechanism. For  pipelines, list the home office address and the names of the cities and  counties in the Commonwealth where the pipeline is located. 
    List the coverage guaranteed by the bond: containment and  clean up of oil from a discharge arising from operating the aboveground storage  tank and/or pipeline.] 
    Penal sums of bond: 
    Containment and Clean up (per discharge) $ __________ 
    Annual Aggregate $ __________ 
    Surety's bond number: _____________ 
    Know All Persons by These Presents, that we, the Principal  and Surety(ies), hereto are firmly bound to the State Water Control Board of  the Commonwealth of Virginia, in the above penal sums for the payment of which  we bind ourselves, our heirs, executors, administrators, successors, and  assigns jointly and severally; provided that, where the Surety(ies) are  corporations acting as co-sureties, we, the Sureties, bind ourselves in such  sums jointly and severally only for the purpose of allowing a joint action or  actions against any or all of us, and for all other purposes each Surety binds  itself, jointly and severally with the Principal, for the payment of such sums  only as is set forth opposite the name of such Surety, but if no limit of  liability is indicated, the limit of liability shall be the full amount of the  penal sums.
    Whereas said Principal is required under § 62.1-44.34:16 of  the Code of Virginia and under 9VAC25-640-10 et seq. 9VAC25-640  to provide financial assurance for containment and clean up necessitated by  discharges of oil; [if coverage is different for different tanks or locations  or pipelines, indicate the type of coverage applicable to each tank or location  or pipeline] arising from operating the aboveground storage tanks and/or  pipelines identified above; and 
    Whereas said Principal shall establish a standby trust  fund as is required when a surety bond is used to provide such financial  assurance; 
    Now, therefore, the conditions of the obligation are such  that if the Principal shall faithfully contain and clean up, in accordance with  the State Water Control Board's instructions for containment and clean up of  discharges of oil arising from operating the tank(s) identified above, or if  the Principal shall provide alternate financial assurance, as specified in 9VAC25-640-10  et seq. 9VAC25-640, within 120 days after the date the notice of  cancellation is received by the Principal from the Surety(ies), then this  obligation shall be null and void; otherwise it is to remain in full force and  effect. 
    Such obligation does not apply to any of the following: 
    (a) Any obligation of operator under a workers' compensation,  disability benefits, or unemployment compensation law or other similar law; 
    (b) Bodily injury to an employee of operator arising from,  and in the course of, employment by operator; 
    (c) Bodily injury or property damage arising from the  ownership, maintenance, use, or entrustment to others of any aircraft, motor  vehicle, or watercraft; 
    (d) Property damage to any property owned, rented, loaned to,  in the care, custody, or control of, or occupied by operator that is not the  direct result of a discharge from an aboveground storage tank and/or pipeline; 
    (e) Bodily injury or property damage for which operator is  obligated to pay damages by reason of the assumption of liability in a contract  or agreement other than a contract or agreement entered into to meet the  requirements of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq 9VAC25-640.
    The Surety(ies) shall become liable on this bond obligation  only when the Principal has failed to fulfill the conditions described above.
    Upon notification by the State Water Control Board that the  Principal has failed to contain and clean up in accordance with 9VAC25-91-10  et seq. 9VAC25-91 and the State Water Control Board's instructions,  the Surety(ies) shall either perform containment and clean up in  accordance with 9VAC25-91-10 et seq. 9VAC25-91 and the board's  instructions, or place pay funds in an amount up to the annual  aggregate penal sum into to the standby trust fund State  Water Control Board as directed by the State Water Control Board under  9VAC25-640-180. The State Water Control Board in its sole discretion may  elect to require the surety to pay the funds or to perform containment and  cleanup up to the annual aggregate penal sum.
    Upon notification by the State Water Control Board that the  Principal has failed to provide alternate financial assurance within 60 days  after the date the notice of cancellation is received by the Principal from the  Surety(ies) and that the State Water Control Board has determined or suspects  that a discharge has occurred, the Surety(ies) shall place pay  funds in an amount not exceeding the annual aggregate penal sum into to  the standby trust fundState Water Control Board as directed by  the State Water Control Board under 9VAC25-640-180.
    The Surety(ies) submit to the jurisdiction of the Circuit  Court of the City of Richmond to adjudicate any claim against it (them) by the  State Water Control Board and waive any objection to venue in that court.  Interest shall accrue at the judgment rate of interest on the amount due  beginning seven days after the date of notification by the State Water Control  Board. In the event the State Water Control Board shall institute legal action  to compel performance by the Surety under this agreement, the Surety shall be  liable for all costs and legal fees incurred by the board to enforce this  agreement. 
    The Surety(ies) hereby waive(s) notification of amendments to  applicable laws, statutes, rules, and regulations and agrees that no such  amendment shall in any way alleviate its (their) obligation on this bond. The  Surety(ies) hereby agrees that it(they) has been notified of all material facts  regarding this contract of suretyship and waiver(s) any defense founded in  concealment of material facts. The Surety(ies) represents that the person  executing this agreement has full authority to execute the agreement.  Surety(ies) hereby waive(s) any right to notice of breach or default of the  Principal. The State Water Control Board may enforce this agreement against the  Surety(ies) without bringing suit against the Principal. The State Water  Control Board shall not be required to exhaust the assets of the Principal  before demanding performance by the Surety. No lawful act of the State Water  Control Board, including without limitation any extension of time to the  Principal, shall serve to release any surety, whether or not that act may be  construed to alter or vary this agreement. Release of one cosurety shall not  act as the release of another. This agreement shall be construed to affect its  purpose to provide remedial action for discharges of petroleum.
    The liability of the Surety(ies) shall not be discharged by  any payment or succession of payments hereunder, unless and until such payment  or payments shall amount in the annual aggregate to the penal sum shown on the  face of the bond, but in no event shall the obligation of the Surety(ies)  hereunder exceed the amount of said annual aggregate penal sum. 
    The Surety(ies) may cancel the bond by sending notice of  cancellation by certified mail or overnight courier to the Principal and  the State Water Control Board , provided, however, that cancellation shall  not occur during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of  cancellation by the Principal and the State Water Control Board, as  evidenced by the return receipt. 
    The Principal may terminate this bond by sending written  notice to the Surety(ies). 
    In Witness Thereof, the Principal and Surety(ies) have  executed this Bond and have affixed their seals on the date set forth above. 
    The persons whose signatures appear below hereby certify that  they are authorized to execute this surety bond on behalf of the Principal and  Surety(ies) and that the wording of this surety bond is identical to the  wording specified in Appendix V of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq. 9VAC25-640  as such regulations were constituted on the date this bond was executed. 
    PRINCIPAL 
    [Signature(s)] 
    [Name(s)] 
    [Title(s)] 
    [Corporate seal] 
    CORPORATE SURETY(IES) 
    [Name and address] 
    State of Incorporation: 
    Liability limit: $ _______________ 
    [Signature(s)] 
    [Name(s) and title(s)] 
    [Corporate seal] 
    [For every co-surety, provide signature(s), corporate seal,  and other information in the same manner as for Surety above.] 
    Bond premium: $ ______________ 
    APPENDIX VI. IRREVOCABLE STANDBY LETTER OF CREDIT. 
    (Note: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the  relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    [Name and address of issuing institution] 
    [Name and address of the Director] 
    Dear Sir or Madam: We hereby establish our Irrevocable  Standby Letter of Credit No.________ in your favor, at the request and for the  account of [operator name] of [address] up to the aggregate amount of [in  words] U.S. dollars ($[insert dollar amount]), available upon presentation of 
    (1) Your sight draft, bearing reference to this letter of  credit, No._______; and 
    (2) Your signed statement reading as follows: "I certify  that the amount of the draft is payable pursuant to regulations issued under  authority of §62.1- 44.34:16 of the Code of Virginia." 
    This letter of credit may be drawn on to cover containment  and clean up necessitated by discharges of oil arising from operating the  aboveground storage tank(s) and pipelines identified below in the amount of [in  words] $ [insert dollar amount] per occurrence and [in words] $ [insert dollar  amount] annual aggregate: 
    [List for each facility: the name and address of the facility  where tanks assured by this mechanism are located, either the registration  identification number assigned by the Department or the Oil Discharge  Contingency Plan facility identification number, and whether tanks are assured  by this mechanism. If more than one instrument is used to assure different  tanks at any one facility, list each tank covered by this instrument. 
    For pipelines, list: the home office address and the names of  the cities and counties in the Commonwealth where the pipeline is located.] 
    The letter of credit may not be drawn on to cover any of the  following: 
    (a) Any obligation of operator under a workers' compensation,  disability benefits, or unemployment compensation law or other similar law; 
    (b) Bodily injury to an employee of operator arising from,  and in the course of, employment by operator; 
    (c) Bodily injury or property damage arising from the  ownership, maintenance, use, or entrustment to others of any aircraft, motor  vehicle, or watercraft; 
    (d) Property damage to any property owned, rented, loaned to,  in the care, custody, or control of, or occupied by an operator that is not the  direct result of a discharge of oil from an aboveground storage tank and/or  pipeline; 
    (e) Bodily injury or property damage for which an operator is  obligated to pay damages by reason of the assumption of liability in a contract  or agreement other than a contract or agreement entered into to meet the  requirements of 9VAC25-640-50. 
    This letter of credit is effective as of [date] and shall  expire on [date], but such expiration date shall be automatically extended for  a period of [at least the length of the original term] on [expiration date] and  on each successive expiration date, unless, at least 120 days before the  current expiration date, we notify operator and the State Water Control  Board by certified mail or overnight courier that we have decided  not to extend this letter of credit beyond the current expiration date. In the  event that operator is and the State Water Control Board are so  notified, any unused portion of the credit shall be available upon presentation  of your sight draft for 120 days after the date of receipt by operator the  State Water Control Board, as shown on the signed return receipt, or  until the current expiration date, whichever is later. 
    Whenever this letter of credit is drawn on under and in  compliance with the terms of this credit, we shall duly honor such draft upon  presentation to us, and we shall deposit the amount of the draft directly  into the standby trust fund of operator pay to you the amount of the  draft promptly and directly in accordance with your instructions. 
    We certify that the wording of this letter of credit is  identical to the wording specified in Appendix VI of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq.  9VAC25-640 as such regulations were constituted on the date shown  immediately below. 
    [Signature(s) and title(s) of official(s) of issuing  institution] 
    [Date] 
    This credit is subject to [insert "the most recent  edition of the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits, published  by the International Chamber of Commerce" or "the Uniform Commercial  Code"]. 
    APPENDIX VII. TRUST AGREEMENT. 
    (Note: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the  relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    Trust agreement, the "Agreement," entered into as  of [date] by and between [name of the operator], a [name of state] [insert  "corporation," "partnership," "association,"  "proprietorship," or appropriate identification of type of entity],  the "Grantor," and [name of corporate trustee], [insert  "Incorporated in the state of ________" or "a national  bank"], the "Trustee." 
    Whereas, the State Water Control Board of the Commonwealth of  Virginia has established certain regulations applicable to the Grantor,  requiring that an operator of an aboveground storage tank and/or pipeline shall  provide assurance that funds will be available when needed for containment and  clean up of a discharge of oil arising from the operation of the aboveground  storage tank and/or pipeline. The attached Schedule A contains for each  facility the name and address of the facility where tanks covered by this [trust  agreement or standby trust agreement] are located, either the  registration identification number assigned by the Department or the Oil  Discharge Contingency Plan facility identification number and for pipelines the  home office address and names of the cities and counties in the Commonwealth  where the pipeline is located; 
    Whereas, the Grantor has elected to establish [insert  either "a guarantee," "surety bond," or "letter of  credit"] to provide all or part of such financial assurance for the aboveground  storage tanks and/or pipelines identified herein and is required to establish a  standby trust fund able to accept payments from the instrument (This paragraph  is only applicable to the standby trust agreement.); 
    Whereas, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized  officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this agreement, and  the Trustee is willing to act as trustee; 
    Now, therefore, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:  
    Section 1. Definitions. As used in this Agreement: 
    (a) The term "Grantor" means the operator who enters  into this Agreement and any successors or assigns of the Grantor. 
    (b) The term "Trustee" means the Trustee who enters  into this Agreement and any successor Trustee. 
    (c) “9 VAC 25-640” is the Aboveground Storage Tank and  Pipeline Facility Financial Responsibility Requirements Regulation promulgated  by the State Water Control Board for the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    Section 2. Identification of the Financial Assurance  Mechanism. 
    This Agreement pertains to the [identify the financial  assurance mechanism, either a guarantee, surety bond, or letter of credit, from  which the standby trust fund is established to receive payments (This paragraph  is only applicable to the standby trust agreement.)]. 
    Section 3. 2. Establishment of Fund. 
    The Grantor and the Trustee hereby establish a trust fund,  the "Fund," for the benefit of the State Water Control Board of the  Commonwealth of Virginia. The Grantor and the Trustee intend that no third  party have access to the Fund except as herein provided. [The Fund is  established initially as a standby to receive payments and shall not consist of  any property.] Payments made by the provider of financial assurance  pursuant to the State Water Control Board's instruction are transferred to the  Trustee and are referred to as the Fund, together with all earnings and profits  thereon, less any payments or distributions made by the Trustee pursuant to  this Agreement. The Fund shall be held by the Trustee, IN TRUST, as hereinafter  provided. The Trustee shall not be responsible nor shall it undertake any  responsibility for the amount or adequacy of, nor any duty to collect from the  Grantor as provider of financial assurance, any payments necessary to discharge  any liability of the Grantor established by the State Water Control Board. 
    Section 4. 3. Payment for Containment and Clean  up. 
    The Trustee shall make payments from the Fund as the State  Water Control Board shall direct, in writing, to provide for the payment of the  costs of containment and clean up of a discharge of oil arising from operating  the tanks and/or pipelines covered by the financial assurance mechanism  identified in this Agreement. 
    The Fund may not be drawn upon to cover any of the following:  
    (a) Any obligation of operator under a workers' compensation,  disability benefits, or unemployment compensation law or other similar law; 
    (b) Bodily injury to an employee of operator arising from, and  in the course of, employment by operator; 
    (c) Bodily injury or property damage arising from the  ownership, maintenance, use, or entrustment to others of any aircraft, motor  vehicle, or watercraft; 
    (d) Property damage to any property owned, rented, loaned to,  in the care, custody, or control of, or occupied by operator that is not the  direct result of a discharge from an oil aboveground storage tank or pipeline; 
    (e) Bodily injury or property damage for which operator is  obligated to pay damages by reason of the assumption of liability in a contract  or agreement other than a contract or agreement entered into to meet the  requirements of 9VAC25-640-50. 
    The Trustee shall reimburse the Grantor, or other persons as  specified by the State Water Control Board, from the Fund for containment and  clean up in such amounts as the State Water Control Board shall direct in  writing. In addition, the Trustee shall refund to the Grantor such amounts as  the State Water Control Board specifies in writing. Upon refund, such funds  shall no longer constitute part of the Fund as defined herein. 
    Section 5. 4. Payments Comprising the Fund. 
    Payments made to the Trustee for the Fund shall consist of  cash and securities acceptable to the Trustee. 
    Section 6. 5. Trustee Management. 
    The Trustee shall invest and reinvest the principal and  income of the Fund and keep the Fund invested as a single fund, without  distinction between principal and income, in accordance with general investment  policies and guidelines which the Grantor may communicate in writing to the  Trustee from time to time, subject, however, to the provisions of this Section.  In investing, reinvesting, exchanging, selling, and managing the Fund, the  Trustee shall discharge his duties with respect to the trust fund solely in the  interest of the beneficiaries and with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence  under the circumstances then prevailing which persons of prudence, acting in a  like capacity and familiar with such matters, would use in the conduct of an  enterprise of a like character and with like aims; except that: 
    (a) Securities or other obligations of the Grantor, or any  other operator of the tanks, or any of their affiliates as defined in the  Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended, 15 U.S.C. §80a-2(a), shall not be  acquired or held, unless they are securities or other obligations of the federal  or a state government; 
    (b) The Trustee is authorized to invest the Fund in time or  demand deposits of the Trustee, to the extent insured by an agency of the  federal or state government; and 
    (c) The Trustee is authorized to hold cash awaiting investment  or distribution uninvested for a reasonable time and without liability for the  payment of interest thereon. 
    Section 7. 6. Commingling and Investment. 
    The Trustee is expressly authorized in its discretion: 
    (a) To transfer from time to time any or all of the assets of  the Fund to any common, commingled, or collective trust fund created by the  Trustee in which the Fund is eligible to participate, subject to all of the  provisions thereof, to be commingled with the assets of other trusts  participating therein; and 
    (b) To purchase shares in any investment company registered  under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. §80a-1 et seq., including  one which may be created, managed, underwritten, or to which investment advice  is rendered or the shares of which are sold by the Trustee. The Trustee may  vote such shares in its discretion. 
    Section 8. 7. Express Powers of Trustee. 
    Without in any way limiting the powers and discretions  conferred upon the Trustee by the other provisions of this Agreement or by law,  the Trustee is expressly authorized and empowered: 
    (a) To sell, exchange, convey, transfer, or otherwise dispose  of any property held by it, by public or private sale. No person dealing with  the Trustee shall be bound to see to the application of the purchase money or  to inquire into the validity or expediency of any such sale or other  disposition; 
    (b) To make, execute, acknowledge, and deliver any and all  documents of transfer and conveyance and any and all other instruments that may  be necessary or appropriate to carry out the powers herein granted; 
    (c) To register any securities held in the Fund in its own  name or in the name of a nominee and to hold any security in bearer form or in  book entry, or to combine certificates representing such securities with  certificates of the same issue held by the Trustee in other fiduciary  capacities, or to deposit or arrange for the deposit of such securities in a  qualified central depository even though, when so deposited, such securities  may be merged and held in bulk in the name of the nominee of such depository  with other securities deposited therein by another person, or to deposit or  arrange for the deposit of any securities issued by the United States Government,  or any agency or instrumentality thereof, with a Federal Reserve bank, but the  books and records of the Trustee shall at all times show that all such  securities are part of the Fund; 
    (d) To deposit any cash in the Fund in interest-bearing  accounts maintained or savings certificates issued by the Trustee, in its  separate corporate capacity, or in any other banking institution affiliated  with the Trustee, to the extent insured by an agency of the federal or state  government; and 
    (e) To compromise or otherwise adjust all claims in favor of  or against the Fund. 
    Section 9. 8. Taxes and Expenses. 
    All taxes of any kind that may be assessed or levied against  or in respect of the Fund and all brokerage commissions incurred by the Fund  shall be paid from the Fund. All other expenses incurred by the Trustee in  connection with the administration of this Trust, including fees for legal  services rendered to the Trustee, the compensation of the Trustee to the extent  not paid directly by the Grantor, and all other proper charges and  disbursements of the Trustee shall be paid from the Fund. 
    Section 10. 9. Advice of Counsel. 
    The Trustee may from time to time consult with counsel, who  may be counsel to the Grantor, with respect to any questions arising as to the  construction of this Agreement or any action to be taken hereunder. The Trustee  shall be fully protected, to the extent permitted by law, in acting upon the  advice of counsel. 
    Section 11. 10. Trustee Compensation. 
    The Trustee shall be entitled to reasonable compensation for  its services as agreed upon in writing from time to time with the Grantor. 
    Section 12. 11. Successor Trustee. 
    The Trustee may resign or the Grantor may replace the  Trustee, but such resignation or replacement shall not be effective until the Grantor  has appointed a successor trustee and this successor accepts the appointment.  The successor trustee shall have the same powers and duties as those conferred  upon the Trustee hereunder. Upon the successor trustee's acceptance of the  appointment, the Trustee shall assign, transfer, and pay over to the successor  trustee the funds and properties then constituting the Fund. If for any reason  the Grantor cannot or does not act in the event of the resignation of the  Trustee, the Trustee may apply to a court of competent jurisdiction for the  appointment of a successor trustee or for instructions. The successor trustee  shall specify the date on which it assumes administration of the trust in  writing sent to the Grantor and the present Trustee by certified mail 10 days  before such change becomes effective. Any expenses incurred by the Trustee as a  result of any of the acts contemplated by this Section shall be paid as  provided in Section 9 8.
    Section 13. 12. Instructions to the Trustee. 
    All orders, requests, and instructions by the Grantor to the  Trustee shall be in writing, signed by such persons as are designated in the  attached Schedule B or such other designees as the Grantor may designate by  amendment to Schedule B. The trustee shall be fully protected in acting without  inquiry in accordance with the Grantor's orders, requests, and instructions.  All orders, requests and instructions by the State Water Control Board to the  Trustee shall be in writing, signed by the Executive Director of the Department  of Environmental Quality, and the Trustee shall act and shall be fully  protected in acting in accordance with such orders, requests, and instructions.  The Trustee shall have the right to assume, in the absence of written notice to  the contrary, that no event constituting a change or a termination of the  authority of any person to act on behalf of the Grantor or the State Water  Control Board hereunder has occurred. The Trustee shall have no duty to act in  the absence of such orders, requests, and instructions from the Grantor and/or  the State Water Control Board, except as provided for herein. 
    Section 14. 13. Amendment of Agreement. 
    This Agreement may be amended by an instrument in writing  executed by the Grantor and the Trustee, or by the Trustee and the State Water  Control Board if the Grantor ceases to exist. 
    Section 15. 14. Irrevocability and Termination.  
    Subject to the right of the parties to amend this Agreement  as provided in Section 14 13, this Trust shall be irrevocable and  shall continue until terminated at the written direction of the Grantor and the  Trustee, or by the Trustee and the State Water Control Board, if the Grantor  ceases to exist. Upon termination of the Trust, all remaining trust property,  less final trust administration expenses, shall be delivered to the Grantor. 
    Section 16. 15. Immunity and Indemnification. 
    The Trustee shall not incur personal liability of any nature  in connection with any act or omission, made in good faith, in the  administration of this Trust, or in carrying out any directions by the Grantor  or the State Water Control Board issued in accordance with this Agreement. The  Trustee shall be indemnified and saved harmless by the Grantor, from and  against any personal liability to which the Trustee may be subjected by reason  of any act or conduct in its official capacity, including all expenses  reasonably incurred in its defense in the event the Grantor fails to provide  such defense. 
    Section 17. 16. Choice of Law. 
    This Agreement shall be administered, construed, and enforced  according to the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia, or the Comptroller of  the Currency in the case of National Association banks. 
    Section 18. 17. Interpretation. 
    As used in this Agreement, words in the singular include the  plural and words in the plural include the singular. The descriptive headings  for each section of this Agreement shall not affect the interpretation or the  legal efficacy of this Agreement. 
    In Witness whereof the parties have caused this Agreement to  be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate  seals (if applicable) to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date first  above written. The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is  identical to the wording specified in Appendix VII of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq.  9VAC25-640 as such regulations were constituted on the date written  above. 
    [Signature of Grantor] 
    [Name of the Grantor] 
    [Title] 
    Attest: 
    [Signature of Trustee] 
    [Name of the Trustee] 
    [Title] 
    [Seal] 
    [Signature of Witness] 
    [Name of Witness] 
    [Title] 
    [Seal]
    [Signature of notary]
    [Name of notary] [Date] My Commission expires:   _______.
    State of _________________________
    County of _________________________
    Of this [date], before me personally came [operator’s  representative] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say  that she/he resides at [address], that she/he is [title] of [corporation], the  corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that she/he  knows the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is  such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors  of said corporation; and that she/he signed her/his name thereto by like order.
    [Signature of notary public]
    [Name of notary public]
    My Commission expires: _______________________ 
    APPENDIX VIII. CERTIFICATE OF ACKNOWLEDGMENT GROUP  SELF-INSURANCE [POOL MEMBERSHIP].
    (Note: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by  the relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    State of _____________ 
    County of _____________ 
    On this [date], before me personally came [operator's  representative] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say  that she/he resides at [address], that she/he is [title] of [corporation], the  corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that she/he  knows the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is  such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors  of said corporation; and that she/he signed her/his name thereto by like order.  
    [Signature of Notary Public] 
    [Name of Notary Public] 
    My Commission expires: _____________ 
    (NOTE: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by  the relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    Name: [name of each covered location] 
    Address: [address of each covered location]
    Policy number: 
    Endorsement (if applicable): 
    Period of coverage: [current policy period] 
    Name of Group self-insurance pool: 
    Address of Group self-insurance pool:
    Name of Member: 
    Address of Member:
    Certification: 
    1. [Name of Group Self-Insurance Pool], the group  self-insurance pool, "Pool," as identified above, hereby certifies  that it has entered into a Membership Agreement (Agreement) with the member to  provide liability coverage for the following aboveground storage tank(s) and/or  pipelines in connection with the insured's obligation to demonstrate financial  responsibility under the Virginia Petroleum Aboveground Storage Tank and  Pipeline Facility Financial Responsibility Requirements Regulation (9VAC25-590-640)  for [insert: "taking corrective action" and/or "compensating  third parties for bodily injury and property damage containment and cleanup of  discharges of oil"] caused by either sudden accidental releases or  nonsudden accidental releases; in accordance with and subject to the limits of  liability, exclusions, conditions, and other terms of the Pool Plan (Plan) and  Agreement; [if coverage is different for different tanks, pipelines, or  locations, indicate the type of coverage applicable to each tank, pipeline, or  location] arising from operating the aboveground storage tank(s) and/or  pipelines identified above. 
    The limits of liability of the Pool are [insert the dollar  amount] of the containment and cleanup "each occurrence" and  "annual aggregate" limits of the Group's liability; if the amount of  coverage is different for different types of coverage or for different  aboveground storage tanks, pipelines, or locations, indicate the amount of  coverage for each type of coverage and/or for each aboveground storage tank,  pipeline or location insert the dollar amount] corrective action per occurrence  and [insert dollar amount] third party liability per occurrence and [insert  dollar amount] annual aggregate [If the amount of coverage is different for  different types of coverage or for different underground storage tanks or  locations, indicate the amount of coverage for each type of coverage and/or for  each underground storage tank or location], exclusive of legal defense costs,  which are subject to a separate limit under the Plan or Agreement. This  coverage is provided under the Plan dated [insert date] and the Agreement  entered into between [name of member] and [name of Pool]. The effective date of  said Agreement is [date]. 
    2. The Pool further certifies the following with respect to  the coverage described in paragraph 1: 
    a. Bankruptcy or insolvency of the member shall not relieve  the Pool of its obligations under the policy to which this certificate applies.  
    b. The Pool is liable for the payment of amounts within any  deductible applicable to the policy to the provider of corrective action or a  damaged third party, containment and cleanup with a right of reimbursement by  the member for any such payment made by the Pool. This provision does not apply  with respect to that amount of any deductible for which coverage is  demonstrated under another mechanism or combination of mechanisms as specified  in 9VAC25-640-70 through 9VAC25-640-120.
    c. Whenever requested by the State Water Control Board, the  Pool agrees to furnish to the State Water Control Board a signed duplicate  original of the Agreement and Plan and all endorsements. 
    d. Cancellation or any other termination of the coverage by  the Pool, except for nonpayment of premium or misrepresentation by the member,  will be effective only upon written notice and only after the expiration of 60  days after a copy of such written notice is received by the member and the  State Water Control Board. Cancellation for nonpayment of premium or  misrepresentation by the member will be effective only upon written notice and  only after expiration of a minimum of 15 days after a copy of such written  notice is received by the member and the State Water Control Board. 
    e. The Pool covers claims otherwise covered by the  Agreement and Plan that are reported to the Pool within six months of the  effective date of cancellation or nonrenewal of the Agreement except where the  new or renewed Agreement has the same retroactive date or a retroactive date  earlier than that of the prior Agreement and which arise out of any covered  occurrence that commenced after the policy retroactive date, if applicable, and  prior to such Agreement renewal or termination date. Claims reported during  such extended reporting period are subject to the terms, conditions, limits,  including limits of liability, and exclusions of the Agreement and Plan.
    I hereby certify that the wording of this instrument is  identical to the wording in APPENDIX XII of 9VAC25-640 and that the Pool is  licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia's State Corporation Commission  pursuant to 14VAC5-3805.
    [Signature of Authorized Representative of Pool]
    [Type name], [Authorized Representative] of [name of Pool]
    [Address of representative]
    APPENDIX IX. CERTIFICATION OF FINANCIAL RESPONSIBILITY. 
    (Note: The instructions in brackets are to be replaced by the  relevant information and the brackets deleted.) 
    Operator hereby certifies that it is in compliance with the  requirements of 9VAC25-640-10 et seq 9VAC25-640. 
    The financial assurance mechanism[s] used to demonstrate  financial responsibility under 9VAC25-640-10 et seq. 9VAC25-640  is [are] as follows: 
    Indicate type of Mechanism: 
    ____ Letter from Chief Financial Officer 
    ____ Guarantee 
    ____ Insurance Endorsement or Certificate 
    ____ Letter of Credit 
    ____ Surety Bond 
    ____ Trust Fund 
    Name of Issuer: _____________ 
    Mechanism Number (if applicable): _____________ 
    Total number of gallons of aboveground storage capacity for  which demonstration is provided: _____________ 
    Amount of coverage for mechanism: 
    $______________ containment and clean up per occurrence and  annual aggregate 
    Effective period of coverage: _______________ to  _______________ 
    Do(es) mechanism(s) cover(s): containment and clean up caused  by either sudden accidental discharges or nonsudden accidental discharges or  accidental discharges? ____ Yes ____ No 
    If "No," specify in the following space the items  the mechanism covers: 
    [Signature of operator] 
    [Name of operator] 
    [Title] [Date] 
    [Signature of notary] 
    [Name of notary] [Date] My Commission expires:  _______________ 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R07-293; Filed September 10, 2008, 10:58 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following regulatory actions are exempt from the Administrative Process Act in  accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code of Virginia, which excludes  regulations that are necessary to meet the requirements of federal law or  regulations, provided such regulations do not differ materially from those  required by federal law or regulation.  The State Board of Health will  receive, consider and respond to petitions by any interested person at any time  with respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-481. Virginia Radiation  Protection Regulations (amending 12VAC5-481-10, 12VAC5-481-390,  12VAC5-481-400, 12VAC5-481-450, 12VAC5-481-480, 12VAC5-481-2870, 12VAC5-481-3160,  12VAC5-481-3710).
    Statutory Authority: §32.1-229 of the Code of Virginia;  42 USC §2021.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2008. 
    Agency Contact: Mike Welling, Director, Division of  Radiological Materials Program, Department of Health, 109 Governor Street,  Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 864-8168, or email  mike.welling@vdh.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    The purpose of the amendments is to ensure the  compatibility of this regulation with Title 10 (Energy) of the Code of Federal  Regulations thus allowing the Commonwealth of Virginia to enter into an  agreement with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission for the regulation of certain  radioactive material in the Commonwealth.
    Part I 
  General Provisions 
    12VAC5-481-10. Definitions. 
    As used in these regulations, these terms have the  definitions set forth below. 
    "A1" means the maximum activity of  special form radioactive material permitted in a Type A package. This value is  listed in Table 1 of 12VAC5-481-3770.
    "A2" means the maximum activity of  radioactive material, other than special form radioactive material, LSA, and  SCO material, permitted in a Type A package. This value is listed in Table 1 of  12VAC5-481-3770.
    "Absorbed dose" means the energy imparted by  ionizing radiation per unit mass of irradiated material. The units of absorbed  dose are the gray (Gy) and the rad. 
    "Absorbed dose rate" means absorbed dose per unit  time, for machines with timers, or dose monitor unit per unit time for linear  accelerators. 
    "Accelerator" means any machine capable of  accelerating electrons, protons, deuterons, or other charged particles in a  vacuum and of discharging the resultant particulate or other radiation into a  medium at energies usually in excess of one MeV. For purposes of this  definition, "particle accelerator" is an equivalent term. 
    "Accelerator-produced material" means any material  made radioactive by a particle accelerator. 
    "Accessible surface" means the external surface of  the enclosure or housing of the radiation producing machine as provided by the  manufacturer. It also means surface of equipment or of an equipment part that  can be easily or accidentally touched by persons without the use of a tool. 
    "Act" means §§ 32.1-227 through 32.1-238 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    "Active maintenance" means any significant activity  needed during the period of institutional control to maintain a reasonable  assurance that the performance objectives in 12VAC5-481-2490 and  12VAC5-481-2500 are met. Such active maintenance includes ongoing activities  such as the pumping and treatment of water from a disposal unit or one-time  measures such as replacement of a disposal unit cover. Active maintenance does  not include custodial activities such as repair of fencing, repair or  replacement of monitoring equipment, revegetation, minor additions to soil  cover, minor repair of disposal unit covers, and general disposal site upkeep  such as mowing grass. 
    "Activity" means the rate of disintegration or  transformation or decay of radioactive material. The units of activity are the  becquerel (Bq) and the curie (Ci). 
    "Acute" means a single radiation dose or chemical  exposure event or multiple radiation dose or chemical exposure events occurring  within a short time (24 hours or less).
    "Added filtration" means any filtration that is in  addition to the inherent filtration. 
    "Address of use" means the building or buildings  that are identified on the license and where radioactive material may be  produced, prepared, received, used, or stored. 
    "Adult" means an individual 18 or more years of  age. 
    "Agency" means the Radiological Health Program of  the Virginia Department of Health. 
    "Agreement state" means any state with which the  NRC or the Atomic Energy Commission has entered into an effective agreement  under subsection 274b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (73 Stat.  689). 
    "Airborne radioactive material" means any  radioactive material dispersed in the air in the form of dusts, fumes,  particulates, mists, vapors, or gases. 
    "Airborne radioactivity area" means a room,  enclosure, or area in which airborne radioactive materials composed wholly or  partly of licensed material exist in concentrations: 
    1. In excess of the derived air concentrations (DACs)  specified in 12VAC5-481-3690; or 
    2. To such a degree that an individual present in the area  without respiratory protective equipment could exceed, during the hours an  individual is present in a week, an intake of 0.6% of the annual limit on  intake (ALI) or 12 DAC-hours. 
    "Air kerma (K)" means the kinetic energy released  in air by ionizing radiation. Kerma is determined as the quotient of De by Dm,  where De is the sum of the initial kinetic energies of all the charged ionizing  particles liberated by uncharged ionizing particles in air of mass Dm. The SI  unit of air kerma is joule per kilogram and the special name for the unit of  kerma is the gray (Gy). 
    "Air-purifying respirator" means a respirator with  an air-purifying filter, cartridge, or canister that removes specific air  contaminants by passing ambient air through the air-purifying element.
    "Alert" means events may occur, are in progress, or  have occurred that could lead to a release of radioactive material but that the  release is not expected to require a response by offsite response organizations  to protect persons offsite.
    "Aluminum equivalent" means the thickness of type  1100 aluminum alloy affording the same attenuation, under specified conditions,  as the material in question. The nominal chemical composition of type 100  aluminum is 99.00% minimum aluminum, 0.12% copper. 
    "Analytical X-ray equipment" means equipment used  for X-ray diffraction or fluorescence analysis. 
    "Analytical X-ray system" means a group of components  utilizing x- or gamma-rays to determine the elemental composition or to examine  the microstructure of materials. 
    "Annual limit on intake" (ALI) means the derived  limit for the amount of radioactive material taken into the body of an adult  worker by inhalation or ingestion in a year. ALI is the smaller value of intake  of a given radionuclide in a year by the reference man that would result in a  committed effective dose equivalent of 0.05 Sv (5 rem) or a committed dose  equivalent of 0.5 Sv (50 rem) to any individual organ or tissue. ALI values for  intake by ingestion and by inhalation of selected radionuclides are given in  Tables 1 and 2 in 12VAC5-481-3690. 
    "Annual refresher safety training" means a review  conducted or provided by the licensee or registrant for its employees on  radiation safety aspects of industrial radiography. The review shall include,  as a minimum, any results of internal inspections, new procedures or equipment,  new or revised regulations, and accidents or errors that have been observed.  The review shall also provide opportunities for employees to ask safety  questions. 
    "Annually" means at intervals not to exceed one  year. 
    "ANSI" means the American National Standards  Institute. 
    "Area of use" means a portion of a physical structure  that has been set aside for the purpose of producing, preparing, receiving,  using, or storing radioactive material. 
    "Assigned protection factor (APF)" means the  expected workplace level of respiratory protection that would be provided by a  properly functioning respirator or a class of respirators to properly fitted  and trained users. Operationally, the inhaled concentration can be estimated by  dividing the ambient airborne concentration by the APF.
    "As low as is reasonably achievable" (ALARA) means  making every reasonable effort to maintain exposures to radiation as far below  the dose limits in these regulations as is practical, consistent with the  purpose for which the licensed or registered activity is undertaken, taking  into account the state of technology, the economics of improvements in relation  to state of technology, the economics of improvements in relation to benefits  to the public health and safety, and other societal and socioeconomic  considerations, and in relation to utilization of nuclear energy and licensed  or registered sources of radiation in the public interest. 
    "Assembler" means any person engaged in the  business of assembling, replacing, or installing one or more components into an  X-ray system or subsystem. The term includes the owner of an X-ray system or  his or her employee or agent who assembles components into an X-ray system that  is subsequently used to provide professional or commercial services. 
    "Associated equipment" means equipment that is used  in conjunction with a radiographic exposure device to make radiographic  exposures that drive, guide, or come in contact with the source. 
    "Atmosphere-supplying respirator" means a  respirator that supplies the respirator user with breathing air from a source  independent of the ambient atmosphere, and includes supplied-air respirators  (SARs) and self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) units.
    "Attenuation block" means a block or stack, having  dimensions 20 centimeters by 20 centimeters by 3.8 centimeters, of type 1100  aluminum alloy or other materials having equivalent attenuation. The nominal  chemical composition of type 100 aluminum is 99.00% minimum aluminum, 0.12%  copper. 
    "Authorized medical physicist" means an individual  who:
    1. Meets the requirements in 12VAC5-481-1760 and  12VAC5-481-1790; or 
    2. Is identified as an authorized medical physicist or  teletherapy physicist on:
    a. A specific medical use license issued by the NRC or another  agreement state;
    b. A medical use permit issued by an NRC master material  licensee;
    c. A permit issued by an NRC or another agreement state broad  scope medical use licensee; or
    d. A permit issued by an NRC master material license broad  scope medical use permittee.
    "Authorized nuclear pharmacist" means a pharmacist  who:
    1. Meets the requirements in 12VAC5-481-1770 and  12VAC5-481-1790; 
    2. Is identified as an authorized nuclear pharmacist on:
    a. A specific license issued by the NRC or another agreement  state that authorizes medical use or the practice of nuclear pharmacy;
    b. A permit issued by an NRC master material licensee that  authorizes medical use or the practice of nuclear pharmacy;
    c. A permit issued by an NRC or another agreement state broad  scope medical use licensee that authorizes medical use or the practice of  nuclear pharmacy; or
    d. A permit issued by an NRC master material license broad  scope medical use permittee that authorizes medical use or the practice of  nuclear pharmacy; 
    3. Is identified as an authorized nuclear pharmacist by a  commercial nuclear pharmacy that has been authorized to identify authorized  nuclear pharmacists; or
    4. Is designated as an authorized nuclear pharmacist in  accordance with 12VAC5-481-440 I 2.
    "Authorized user" means a practitioner of the  healing arts who:
    1. Meets the requirements in 12VAC5-481-1790 and any of the  following:
    a. 12VAC5-481-1910;
    b. 12VAC5-481-1940;
    c. 12VAC5-481-1980;
    d. 12VAC5-481-1990;
    e. 12VAC5-481-2000;
    f. 12VAC5-481-2010;
    g. 12VAC5-481-2030; 
    h. 12VAC5-481-2040; or
    2. Is identified as an authorized user on:
    a. A specific license issued by the NRC or another agreement  state that authorizes medical use;
    b. A permit issued by an NRC master material licensee that  authorizes medical use;
    c. A permit issued by an NRC or another agreement state broad  scope medical use licensee that authorizes medical use; or
    d. A permit issued by an NRC master material license broad  scope medical use permittee that authorizes medical use.
    "Automatic exposure control (AEC)" means a device that  automatically controls one or more technique factors in order to obtain, at a  preselected location(s), a required quantity of radiation (includes devices  such as phototimers and ion chambers). 
    "Background radiation" means radiation from cosmic  sources, naturally occurring radioactive materials, that have not been  technologically enhanced, including radon, except as a decay product of source  or special nuclear material, and including global fallout as it exists in the  environment from the testing of nuclear explosive devices, or from past nuclear  accidents such as Chernobyl that contribute to background radiation and are not  under the control of the licensee or registrant. "Background  radiation" does not include sources of radiation from radioactive materials  regulated by the agency. 
    "Barrier" (See "Protective barrier"). 
    "Beam axis" means a line from the source through  the centers of the X-ray fields. 
    "Beam-limiting device" means a device that provides  a means to restrict the dimensions of the X-ray field. 
    "Beam monitoring system" means a system designed  and installed in the radiation head to detect and measure the radiation present  in the useful beam. 
    "Beam scattering foil" means a thin piece of  material (usually metallic) placed in the beam to scatter a beam of electrons  in order to provide a more uniform electron distribution in the useful beam. 
    "Becquerel" (Bq) means the SI unit of activity. One  becquerel is equal to one disintegration or transformation per second (dps or  tps). 
    "Beneficial attribute" means, as used in Part XVI  (12VAC5-481-3460 et seq.) of this chapter, the radioactivity of the product  necessary to the use of the product. 
    "Beneficial to the product" see "Beneficial  attribute." 
    "Bent beam linear accelerator" means a linear  accelerator geometry in which the accelerated electron beam must change  direction by passing through a bending magnet. 
    "Bioassay" means the determination of kinds,  quantities or concentrations, and, in some cases, the locations of radioactive  material in the human body, whether by direct measurement, in-vivo counting, or  by analysis and evaluation of materials excreted or removed from the human  body. For purposes of these regulations, "radiobioassay" is an  equivalent term. 
    "Board" means the State Board of Health.
    "Brachytherapy" means a method of radiation therapy  in which sealed sources are utilized to deliver a radiation dose at a distance  of up to a few centimeters, by surface, intracavitary, or interstitial  application. 
    "Buffer zone" means a portion of the disposal site  that is controlled by the licensee and that lies under the disposal units and  between the disposal units and the boundary of the site. 
    "Byproduct material" means: 
    1. Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material)  yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the  process of producing or using special nuclear material; 
    2. The tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or  concentration of uranium or thorium from ore processed primarily for its source  material content, including discrete surface wastes resulting from uranium  solution extraction processes. Underground ore bodies depleted by these  solution extraction operations do not constitute "byproduct material"  within this definition;
    3. a. Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced,  extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005,  for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
    b. Any material that:
    (1) Has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator;  and
    (2) Is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction,  before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or  research activity; and
    4. Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive  material, other than source material, that:
    a. The NRC, in consultation with the Administrator of the  Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of  Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate federal agency,  determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source  of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and  security; and
    b. Before, on, or after August 8, 2005, is extracted or  converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research  activity.
    "C-arm X-ray system" means an X-ray system in which  the image receptor and X-ray tube housing assembly are connected by a common  mechanical support system in order to maintain a desired spatial relationship.  This system is designed to allow a change in the projection of the beam through  the patient without a change in the position of the patient. 
    "Cabinet radiography" means industrial radiography  conducted in an enclosure or cabinet so shielded that every location on the  exterior meets the dose limits for individual members of the public as  specified in 12VAC5-481-720. 
    "Cabinet X-ray system" means an X-ray system with  the X-ray tube installed in an enclosure independent of existing architectural  structures except the floor on which it may be placed. The cabinet X-ray system  is intended to contain at least that portion of a material being irradiated,  provide radiation attenuation, and exclude personnel from its interior during  generation of radiation. Included are all X-ray systems designed primarily for  the inspection of carry-on baggage at airline, railroad, and bus terminals, and  in similar facilities. An X-ray tube used within a shielded part of a building,  or X-ray equipment that may temporarily or occasionally incorporate portable shielding,  is not considered a cabinet X-ray system. 
    "Calendar quarter" means not less than 12  consecutive weeks nor more than 14 consecutive weeks. The first calendar  quarter of each year shall begin in January and subsequent calendar quarters  shall be so arranged such that no day is included in more than one calendar  quarter and no day in any one year is omitted from inclusion within a calendar  quarter. The method observed by the licensee or registrant for determining  calendar quarters shall only be changed at the beginning of a year. 
    "Calibration" means the determination of (i) the  response or reading of an instrument relative to a series of known radiation  values over the range of the instrument or (ii) the strength of a source of  radiation relative to a standard. 
    "Camera" (See "Radiographic exposure  device"). 
    "Carrier" means a person engaged in the  transportation of passengers or property by land or water as a common,  contract, or private carrier, or by civil aircraft. 
    "Cephalometric device" means a device intended for  the radiographic visualization and measurement of the dimensions of the human  head. 
    "Certifiable cabinet X-ray system" means an  existing uncertified X-ray system that has been modified to meet the  certification requirements specified in 21 CFR 1020.40. 
    "Certificate holder" means a person who has been  issued a certificate of compliance or other package approval by the NRC.
    "Certificate of compliance (CoC)" means the  certificate issued by the NRC that approves the design of a package for the  transportation of radioactive material.
    "Certified cabinet X-ray system" means an X-ray  system that has been certified in accordance with 21 CFR 1010.2 as being  manufactured and assembled pursuant to the provisions of 21 CFR 1020.40. 
    "Certified components" means components of X-ray  systems that are subject to regulations promulgated under Pub.L. 90-602, the  Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968 of the Food and Drug  Administration. 
    "Certified system" means any X-ray system which has  one or more certified component(s). 
    "Certifying entity" means an independent certifying  organization meeting the agency's requirements for documenting applicant's  training in topics set forth in 12VAC5-481-1320 or equivalent state or NRC  regulations. 
    "CFR" means Code of Federal Regulations. 
    "Changeable filters" means any filter, exclusive of  inherent filtration, that can be removed from the useful beam through any  electronic, mechanical, or physical process. 
    "Chelating agent" means amine polycarboxylic acids,  hydroxycarboxylic acids, gluconic acid, and polycarboxylic acids. 
    "Chemical description" means a description of  the principal chemical characteristics of a low-level radioactive waste.
    "Class" means a classification scheme for inhaled  material according to its rate of clearance from the pulmonary region of the  lung. Materials are classified as D, W, or Y, which applies to a range of  clearance half-times: for Class D, Days, of less than 10 days; for Class W,  Weeks, from 10 to 100 days; and for Class Y, Years, of greater than 100 days.  For purposes of these regulations, "lung class" and "inhalation  class" are equivalent terms. 
    "Closed transport vehicle" means a transport  vehicle equipped with a securely attached exterior enclosure that during normal  transportation restricts the access of unauthorized persons to the cargo space  containing the radioactive material. The enclosure may be either temporary or  permanent but shall limit access from top, sides, and ends. In the case of  packaged materials, it may be of the "see-through" type. 
    "Coefficient of variation (C)" means the ratio of  the standard deviation to the mean value of a set of observations. It is  estimated using the following equation: 
    
    where:
    s = Standard deviation of the observed values;
     =  Mean value of observations in sample;
 =  Mean value of observations in sample;
    xi = ith observation in sample;
    n = Number of observations in sample.
    "Collective dose" means the sum of the individual  doses received in a given period of time by a specified population from  exposure to a specified source of radiation. 
    "Collimator" means a device used to limit the size,  shape, and direction of the primary radiation beam. For industrial radiography  it means a radiation shield that is placed on the end of the guide tube or  directly onto a radiographic exposure device to restrict the size of the  radiation beam when the sealed source is cranked into position to make a  radiographic exposure. 
    "Commencement of construction" means any clearing  of land, excavation, or other substantial action that would adversely affect  the environment of a land disposal facility. The term does not mean disposal  site exploration, necessary roads for disposal site exploration, borings to  determine foundation conditions, or other preconstruction monitoring or testing  to establish background information related to the suitability of the disposal  site or the protection of environmental values. 
    "Committed dose equivalent" (HT,50)  means the dose equivalent to organs or tissues of reference (T) that will be  received from an intake of radioactive material by an individual during the  50-year period following the intake. 
    "Committed effective dose equivalent" (HE, 50)  is the sum of the products of the weighting factors (wT) applicable  to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated and the committed  dose equivalent to each of these organs or tissues (HE,50 = Σ  (wT HT,50)). 
    "Computed tomography" means the production of a  tomogram by the acquisition and computer processing of X-ray transmission data.  
    "Computed tomography dose index" means the integral  from -7T to +7T of the dose profile along a line perpendicular to the  tomographic plane divided by the product of the nominal tomographic section  thickness and the number of tomograms produced in a single scan, that is: 
    
    where:
    z = Position along a line perpendicular to the tomographic  plane;
    D(z) = Dose at position z;
    T = Nominal tomographic section thickness;
    n = Number of tomograms produced in a single scan.
    This definition assumes that the dose profile is centered  around z = 0 and that, for a multiple tomogram system, the scan increment  between adjacent scans is nT. 
    "Computer-readable medium" means that the  regulatory agency's computer can transfer the information from the medium into  its memory.
    "Consignee" means the designated receiver of the  shipment of low-level radioactive waste.
    "Consignment" means each shipment of a package or  groups of packages or load of radioactive material offered by a shipper for  transport.
    "Consortium" means an association of medical use  licensees and a PET radionuclide production facility in the same geographical  area that jointly own or share in the operation and maintenance cost of the PET  radionuclide production facility that produces PET radionuclides for use in  producing radioactive drugs within the consortium for noncommercial  distributions among its associated members for medical use. The PET  radionuclide production facility within the consortium must be located at an  educational institution or a federal facility or a medical facility.
    "Constraint" means each shipment of a package or  groups of packages or load of radioactive material offered by a shipper for  transport.
    "Constraint (dose constraint)" means a value above  which specified licensee actions are required.
    "Contact therapy system" means a therapeutic  radiation machine with a short target to skin distance (TSD), usually less than  five centimeters. 
    "Contrast scale" means the change in the linear  attenuation coefficient per CTN relative to water, that is: 
    
    where:
     =  Linear attenuation coefficient of the material of interest;
 =  Linear attenuation coefficient of the material of interest;
     =  Linear attenuation coefficient of water;
 =  Linear attenuation coefficient of water;
     =  of the material of interest;
 =  of the material of interest;
     =  of water.
 =  of water.
    "Control (drive) cable" means the cable that is  connected to the source assembly and used to drive the source to and from the  exposure location. 
    "Control drive mechanism" means a device that  enables the source assembly to be moved into and out of the exposure device. 
    "Control panel" means that part of the X-ray  control upon which are mounted the switches, knobs, pushbuttons, and other  hardware necessary for manually setting the technique factors. 
    "Control tube" means a protective sheath for  guiding the control cable. The control tube connects the control drive  mechanism to the radiographic exposure device. 
    "Controlled area" means an area, outside of a  restricted area but inside the site boundary, access to which can be limited by  the licensee for any reason.
    "Conveyance" means:
    1. For transport by public highway or rail any transport  vehicle or large freight container;
    2. For transport by water any vessel, or any hold,  compartment, or defined deck area of a vessel including any transport vehicle  on board the vessel; and
    3. For transport by any aircraft.
    "Cooling curve" means the graphical relationship  between heat units stored and cooling time. 
    "Critical group" means the group of individuals  reasonably expected to receive the greatest exposure to residual radioactivity  for any applicable set of circumstances.
    "Criticality safety index (CSI)" means the  dimensionless number (rounded up to the next tenth) assigned to and placed on  the label of a fissile material package, to designate the degree of control of accumulation  of packages containing fissile material during transportation. Determination of  the criticality safety index is described in Part XIII (12VAC5-481-2950 et  seq.).
    "CS" (See "Contrast scale"). 
    "CT" (See "Computed tomography"). 
    "CT conditions of operation" means all selectable  parameters governing the operation of a CT X-ray system including, but not  limited to, nominal tomographic section thickness, filtration, and the  technique factors as defined in these regulations. 
    "CTDI" (See "Computed tomography dose  index"). 
    "CT gantry" means the tube housing assemblies,  beam-limiting devices, detectors, and the supporting structures and frames  which hold these components. 
    "CTN" (See "CT number"). 
    "CT Number" means the number used to represent the  X-ray attenuation associated with each elemental area of the CT image. 
    
    where:
     =  A constant, a normal value of 1,000 when the Houndsfield scale of CTN is used;
 =  A constant, a normal value of 1,000 when the Houndsfield scale of CTN is used;
     =  Linear attenuation coefficient of the material of interest;
 =  Linear attenuation coefficient of the material of interest;
     =  Linear attenuation coefficient of water.
 =  Linear attenuation coefficient of water.
    "Curie" means a unit of quantity of activity. One  curie (Ci) is that quantity of radioactive material that decays at the rate of  3.7E+10 disintegrations or transformations per second (dps or tps). 
    "Custodial agency" means an agency of the  government designated to act on behalf of the government owner of the disposal  site. 
    "Dead-man switch" means a switch so constructed  that a circuit closing contact can be maintained only by continuous pressure on  the switch by the operator. 
    "Declared pregnant woman" means a woman who has  voluntarily informed the licensee, in writing, of her pregnancy and the  estimated date of conception. The declaration remains in effect until the  declared pregnant woman withdraws the declaration in writing or is no longer  pregnant.
    "Decommission" means to remove a facility or site  safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits  release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license or  release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the  license.
    "Decontamination facility" means a facility  operating under a Commission or Agreement State license whose principal purpose  is decontamination of equipment or materials to accomplish recycle, reuse, or  other waste management objectives, and, for purposes of this part, is not  considered to be a consignee for LLW shipments.
    "Dedicated check source" means a radioactive source  that is used to assure the constant operation of a radiation detection or  measurement device over several months or years. This source may also be used  for other purposes. 
    "Deep dose equivalent" (Hd), which  applies to external whole body exposure, means the dose equivalent at a tissue  depth of one centimeter (1000 mg/cm²). 
    "Demand respirator" means an atmosphere-supplying  respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece only when a negative  pressure is created inside the facepiece by inhalation.
    "Department of Energy" means the Department of Energy  established by Pub. L. 95-91, August 4, 1977, 91 Stat. 565, 42 USC §7101 et  seq., to the extent that the Department exercises functions formerly vested in  the Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers and components  and transferred to the Energy Research and Development Administration and to  the Administrator thereof pursuant to sections 104(b), (c) and (d) of the  Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-438, October 11, 1974, 88 Stat.  1233 at 1237, 42 USC §5814, effective January 19, 1975) and retransferred to  the Secretary of Energy pursuant to section 301(a) of the Department of Energy  Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, August 4, 1977, 91 Stat. 565 at 577-578, 42  USC §7151, effective October 1, 1977.) 
    "Depleted uranium" means the source material  uranium in which the isotope uranium-235 is less than 0.711 weight percentage  of the total uranium present. Depleted uranium does not include special nuclear  material. 
    "Derived air concentration" (DAC) means the  concentration of a given radionuclide in air which, if breathed by the  reference man for a working year of 2,000 hours under conditions of light work,  results in an intake of one ALI. For purposes of these regulations, the  condition of light work is an inhalation rate of 1.2 cubic meters of air per  hour for 2,000 hours in a year. DAC values are given in 12VAC5-481-3690. 
    "Derived air concentration-hour" (DAC-hour) means  the product of the concentration of radioactive material in air, expressed as a  fraction or multiple of the derived air concentration for each radionuclide,  and the time of exposure to that radionuclide, in hours. A licensee or  registrant may take 2,000 DAC-hours to represent one ALI, equivalent to a  committed effective dose equivalent of 0.05 Sv (5 rem). 
    "Detector" (See "Radiation detector"). 
    "Deuterium" means, for the purposes of Part XIII  (12VAC5-481-2950 et seq.) deuterium and any deuterium compounds, including  heavy water, in which the ratio of deuterium atoms to hydrogen atoms exceeds  1:5000.
    "Diagnostic clinical procedures manual" means a  collection of written procedures that describes each method (and other  instructions and precautions) by which the licensee performs diagnostic  clinical procedures, where each diagnostic clinical procedure has been approved  by the authorized user and includes the radiopharmaceutical, dosage, and route  of administration. 
    "Diagnostic source assembly" means the tube housing  assembly with a beam-limiting device attached. 
    "Diagnostic X-ray system" means an X-ray system  designed for irradiation of any part of the human or animal body for the  purpose of diagnosis or visualization. 
    "Diagnostic X-ray imaging system" means an  assemblage of components for the generation, emission and reception of X-rays  and the transformation, storage and visual display of the resultant X-ray  image. 
    "Direct scattered radiation" means that scattered  radiation that has been deviated in direction only by materials irradiated by  the useful beam (See "Scattered radiation"). 
    "Discrete source" means a radionuclide that has  been processed so that its concentration within a material has been purposely  increased for use for commercial, medical, or research activities.
    "Disposable respirator" means a respirator for  which maintenance is not intended and that is designed to be discarded after  excessive breathing resistance, sorbent exhaustion, physical damage, or  end-of-service-life renders it unsuitable for use. Examples of this type of  respirator are a disposable half-mask respirator or a disposable escape-only  self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).
    "Disposal" means the isolation of wastes from the  biosphere inhabited by man and his food chains by emplacement in a land  disposal facility. 
    "Disposal container" means a container  principally used to confine low-level radioactive waste during disposal  operations at a land disposal facility (also see "high integrity  container"). Note that for some shipments, the disposal container may be  the transport package.
    "Disposal site" means that portion of a land  disposal facility that is used for disposal of waste. It consists of disposal  units and a buffer zone. 
    "Disposal unit" means a discrete portion of the  disposal site into which waste is placed for disposal. For near-surface  disposal, the unit is usually a trench. 
    "Distinguishable from background" means that the  detectable concentration of a radionuclide is statistically different from the  background concentration of that radionuclide in the vicinity of the site or,  in the case of structures, in similar materials using adequate measurement  technology, survey, and statistical techniques. 
    "Dose" is a generic term that means absorbed dose,  dose equivalent, effective dose equivalent, committed dose equivalent,  committed effective dose equivalent, total organ dose equivalent, or total  effective dose equivalent. For purposes of these regulations, "radiation  dose" is an equivalent term. 
    "Dose commitment" means the total radiation dose to  a part of the body that will result from retention in the body of radioactive  material. For purposes of estimating the dose commitment, it is assumed that  from the time of intake the period of exposure to retained material will not  exceed 50 years.
    "Dose equivalent (HT)" means the product  of the absorbed dose in tissue, quality factor, and all other necessary  modifying factors at the location of interest. The units of dose equivalent are  the sievert (Sv) and rem. 
    "Dose limits" means the permissible upper bounds of  radiation doses established in accordance with these regulations. For purposes  of these regulations, "limits" is an equivalent term. 
    "Dose monitor unit (DMU)" means a unit response  from the beam monitoring system from which the absorbed dose can be calculated.  
    "Dose profile" means the dose as a function of  position along a line. 
    "Dosimetry processor" means an individual or an  organization that processes and evaluates individual monitoring devices in order  to determine the radiation dose delivered to the monitoring devices. 
    "Doubly encapsulated sealed source" means a sealed  source in which the radioactive material is sealed within an inner capsule and  that capsule is sealed within an outer capsule. 
    "Drive cable" (See "Control cable"). 
    "Effective dose equivalent (HE)" means  the sum of the products of the dose equivalent (HT) to each organ or  tissue and the weighting factor (wT) applicable to each of the body  organs or tissues that are irradiated (HE = Σ wTHT).  
    "Elemental area" means the smallest area within a  tomogram for which the X-ray attenuation properties of a body are depicted.  (See also "Picture element"). 
    "Embryo/fetus" means the developing human organism  from conception until the time of birth. 
    "Energy compensation source (ECS)" means a small  sealed source, with an activity not exceeding 3.7 MBq (100 μCi), used  within a logging tool, or other tool components, to provide a reference  standard to maintain the tool's calibration when in use.
    "Engineered barrier" means a manmade structure or  device that is intended to improve the land disposal facility's ability to meet  the performance objectives in these regulations. 
    "Enriched uranium" (See "Uranium – natural,  depleted, enriched").
    "Entrance exposure rate" means the exposure free in  air per unit time at the point where the center of the useful beam enters the  patient. 
    "Entrance or access point" means any opening  through which an individual or extremity of an individual could gain access to  radiation areas or to licensed or registered radioactive materials. This  includes entry or exit portals of sufficient size to permit human entry,  irrespective of their intended use. 
    "EPA identification number" means the number  received by a transporter following application to the Administrator of EPA as  required by 40 CFR Part 263.
    "Equipment" (See "X-ray equipment"). 
    "Exclusive use" means the sole use by a single  consignor of a conveyance for which all initial, intermediate, and final  loading and unloading are carried out in accordance with the direction of the  consignor or consignee. The consignor and the carrier must ensure that any  loading or unloading is performed by personnel having radiological training and  resources appropriate for safe handling of the consignment. The consignor must  issue specific instructions, in writing, for maintenance of exclusive use  shipment controls, and include them with the shipping paper information  provided to the carrier by the consignor. 
    "Explosive material" means any chemical compound,  mixture, or device that produces a substantial instantaneous release of gas and  heat spontaneously or by contact with sparks or flame. 
    "Exposure" means being exposed to ionizing  radiation or to radioactive material. 
    "Exposure head" means a device that locates the  gamma radiography sealed source in the selected working position. 
    "Exposure rate" means the exposure per unit of  time, such as roentgen per minute and milliroentgen per hour. 
    "External beam radiation therapy" means therapeutic  irradiation in which the source of radiation is at a distance from the body. 
    "External dose" means that portion of the dose  equivalent received from any source of radiation outside the body. 
    "Extremity" means hand, elbow, arm below the elbow,  foot, knee, and leg below the knee. 
    "Facility" means the location, building, vehicle,  or complex under one administrative control, at which one or more radiation  machines are installed, located and/or used. 
    "Fail-safe characteristics" mean a design feature  that causes beam port shutters to close, or otherwise prevents emergence of the  primary beam, upon the failure of a safety or warning device. 
    "Field emission equipment" means equipment that  uses an X-ray tube in which electron emission from the cathode is due solely to  the action of an electric field. 
    "Field-flattening filter" means a filter used to  homogenize the absorbed dose rate over the radiation field. 
    "Field station" means a facility where radioactive  sources may be stored or used and from which equipment is dispatched to  temporary jobsites. 
    "Filter" means material placed in the useful beam  to preferentially absorb selected radiations. It also means material placed in  the useful beam to change beam quality in therapeutic radiation machines  subject to Part XV (12VAC5-481-3380 et seq.) of this chapter. 
    "Filtering facepiece (dusk mask)" means a negative  pressure particulate respirator with a filter as an integral part of the  facepiece or with the entire facepiece composed of the filtering medium, not  equipped with elastomeric sealing surfaces and adjustable straps.
    "Fissile material" means the radionuclides  uranium-233, uranium-235, plutonium-239, and plutonium-241, or any combination  of these radionuclides. "Fissile material" means the fissile nuclides  themselves, not material containing fissile nuclides. Unirradiated natural  uranium and depleted uranium and natural uranium or depleted uranium, that has  been irradiated in thermal reactors only, are not included in this definition.  Certain exclusions from fissile material controls are provided in 10 CFR 71.15.  
    1. Fissile Class I: A package that may be transported in  unlimited numbers and in any arrangement, and that requires no nuclear  criticality safety controls during transportation. A transport index is not  assigned for purposes of nuclear criticality safety but may be required because  of external radiation levels. 
    2. Fissile Class II: A package that may be transported  together with other packages in any arrangement but, for criticality control,  in numbers that do not exceed an aggregate transport index of 50. These  shipments require no other nuclear criticality safety control during  transportation. Individual packages may have a transport index not less than  0.1 and not more than 10. 
    "Fissile material package" means a fissile material  packaging together with its fissile material contents. 
    "Fit factor" means a quantitative estimate of the  fit of a particular respirator to a specific individual, and typically  estimates the ratio of the concentration of a substance in ambient air to its  concentration inside the respirator when worn.
    "Fit test" means the use of a protocol to  qualitatively or quantitatively evaluate the fit of a respirator on an  individual.
    "Fluoroscopic imaging assembly" means a subsystem  in which X-ray photons produce a visible image. It includes the image  receptor(s) such as the image intensifier and spot-film device, electrical  interlocks, if any, and structural material providing linkage between the image  receptor and diagnostic source assembly. 
    "Focal spot (actual)" means the area projected on  the anode of the X-ray tube bombarded by the electrons accelerated from the  cathode and from which the useful beam originates. 
    "Former Atomic Energy Commission or NRC licensed  facilities" means nuclear reactors, nuclear fuel reprocessing plants,  uranium enrichment plants, or critical mass experimental facilities where  Atomic Energy Commission or NRC licenses have been terminated. 
    "Gantry" means that part of a radiation therapy  system supporting and allowing movements of the radiation head about a center  of rotation. 
    "Generally applicable environmental radiation  standards" means standards issued by the Environmental Protection Agency  under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, that impose  limits on radiation exposures or levels, or concentrations or quantities of  radioactive material, in the general environment outside the boundaries of  locations under the control of persons possessing or using radioactive  material. 
    "General environment" means, as used in Part XVI  (12VAC5-481-3460 et seq.) of this chapter, the total terrestrial, atmospheric,  and aquatic environments outside the site boundary within which any activity,  operation, or process authorized by a general or specific license issued under  Part XVI, is performed. 
    "General purpose radiographic X-ray system" means  any radiographic X-ray system which, by design, is not limited to radiographic  examination of specific anatomical regions. 
    "Generator" means a licensee who (i) is a waste  generator as defined in this chapter, or (ii) is the licensee to whom waste can  be attributed within the context of the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy  Amendments Act of 1985 (e.g., waste generated as a result of decontamination or  recycle activities).
    "Gonad shield" means a protective barrier for the  testes or ovaries. 
    "Gray (Gy)" means the SI unit of absorbed dose. One  gray is equal to an absorbed dose of one joule per kilogram (100 rad). 
    "Guide tube (protection sheath)" means a flexible  or rigid tube, or "J" tube, for guiding the source assembly and the  attached control cable from the exposure device to the exposure head. The guide  tube may also include the connections necessary for attachment to the exposure  device and to the exposure head. 
    "Half-value layer (HVL)" means the thickness of a  specified material that attenuates X-radiation or gamma radiation to an extent  such that the air kerma rate, exposure rate or absorbed dose rate is reduced to  one-half of the value measured without the material at the same point. 
    "Hands-on experience" means experience in all of  those areas considered to be directly involved in the radiography process, and  includes taking radiographs, calibration of survey instruments, operational and  performance testing of survey instruments and devices, film development,  posting of radiation areas, transportation of radiography equipment, posting of  records and radiation area surveillance, etc., as applicable. Excessive time  spent in only one or two of these areas, such as film development or radiation  area surveillance, should not be counted toward the 2,000 hours of hands-on  experience required for a radiation safety officer in 12VAC5-481-1310 A 2 or  the hands-on experience for a radiographer as required by 12VAC5-481-1320 A. 
    "Hazardous waste" means those wastes designated as  hazardous by the Environmental Protection Agency regulations in 40 CFR Part  261. 
    "Healing arts" means the art or science or group of  arts or sciences dealing with the prevention and cure or alleviation of  ailments, diseases or infirmities, and has the same meaning as  "medicine" when the latter term is used in its comprehensive sense. 
    "Healing arts screening" means the testing of human  beings using X-ray machines for the detection or evaluation of health  indications when such tests are not specifically and individually ordered by a  licensed practitioner of the healing arts legally authorized to prescribe such  X-ray tests for the purpose of diagnosis or treatment. 
    "Heat unit" means a unit of energy equal to the  product of the peak kilovoltage, milliamperes, and seconds, such as (kVp) times  (mA) times (seconds). 
    "Helmet" means a rigid respiratory inlet  covering that also provides head protection against impact and penetration.
    "High integrity container (HIC)" means a  container commonly designed to meet the structural stability requirements of  12VAC5-481-2572 and to meet Department of Transportation requirements for a  Type A package.
    "High radiation area" means an area, accessible to  individuals, in which radiation levels from radiation sources external to the  body could result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent in excess of one  mSv (0.1 rem) in one hour at 30 centimeters from any source of radiation or 30  centimeters from any surface that the radiation penetrates. 
    "Hood" means a respiratory inlet covering that  completely covers the head and neck and may also cover portions of the  shoulders and torso.
    "Human use" means the internal or external  administration of radiation or radioactive material to human beings. 
    "HVL" (See "Half-value layer"). 
    "Hydrogeologic unit" means any soil or rock unit or  zone which by virtue of its porosity or permeability, or lack thereof, has a  distinct influence on the storage or movement of groundwater. 
    "Image intensifier" means a device, installed in its  housing, that instantaneously converts an X-ray pattern into a corresponding  light image of higher intensity. 
    "Image receptor" means any device, such as a  fluorescent screen or radiographic film, that transforms incident X-ray photons  either into a visible image or into another form that can be made into a  visible image by further transformations. 
    "Image receptor support" means, for mammographic  systems, that part of the system designed to support the image receptor during  mammography. 
    "Inadvertent intruder" means a person who might  occupy the disposal site after closure and engage in normal activities, such as  agriculture, dwelling construction, or other pursuits in which an individual  might be unknowingly exposed to radiation from the waste. 
    "Independent certifying organization" means an  independent organization that meets the agency's criteria for documenting  applicant's training in topics set forth in 12VAC5-481-1320 or equivalent  agreement state or NRC regulations. 
    "Individual" means any human being. 
    "Individual monitoring" means the assessment of: 
    1. Dose equivalent (i) by the use of individual monitoring  devices or (ii) by the use of survey data; or 
    2. Committed effective dose equivalent (i) by bioassay or (ii)  by determination of the time-weighted air concentrations to which an individual  has been exposed, that is, DAC-hours. (See the definition of DAC) 
    "Individual monitoring devices" means devices  designed to be worn by a single individual for the assessment of dose  equivalent. For purposes of these regulations, "personnel dosimeter"  and "dosimeter" are equivalent terms. Examples of individual  monitoring devices are film badges, thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLDs), pocket  ionization chambers, optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters and  personal air sampling devices. 
    "Industrial radiography" means an examination of  the structure of materials by the nondestructive method of utilizing ionizing  radiation to make radiographic images. 
    "Inhalation class" (See "Class"). 
    "Inherent filtration" means the filtration of the  useful beam provided by the permanently installed components of the tube  housing assembly. 
    "Injection tool" means a device used for controlled  subsurface injection of radioactive tracer material. 
    "Inspection" means an official examination or  observation including, but not limited to, tests, surveys, and monitoring to  determine compliance with rules, regulations, orders, requirements, and  conditions of the agency. 
    "Institutional controls" means: (i) permanent  markers placed at a disposal site, (ii) public records and archives, (iii)  government ownership and regulations regarding land or resource use, and (iv)  other methods of preserving knowledge about the location, design, and contents  of a disposal system. 
    "Instrument traceability" (for ionizing radiation  measurements) means the ability to show that an instrument has been calibrated  at specified time intervals using a national standard or a transfer standard.  If a transfer standard is used, the calibration must be at a laboratory  accredited by a program that requires continuing participation in measurement  quality assurance with the National Institute of Standards and Technology or  other equivalent national or international program. 
    "Interlock" means a device arranged or connected  such that the occurrence of an event or condition is required before a second  event or condition can occur or continue to occur. 
    "Internal dose" means that portion of the dose  equivalent received from radioactive material taken into the body. 
    "Interruption of irradiation" means the stopping of  irradiation with the possibility of continuing irradiation without resetting of  operating conditions at the control panel. 
    "Intruder barrier" means a sufficient depth of  cover over the waste that inhibits contact with waste and helps to ensure that  radiation exposures to an inadvertent intruder will meet the performance  objectives set forth in these regulations, or engineered structures that  provide equivalent protection to the inadvertent intruder. 
    "Irradiation" means the exposure of matter to  ionizing radiation. 
    "Irradiator" means a facility that uses radioactive  sealed sources for the irradiation of objects or materials and in which  radiation dose rates exceeding five grays (500 rads) per hour exist at one  meter from the sealed radioactive sources in air or water, as applicable for  the irradiator type, but does not include irradiators in which both the sealed  source and the area subject to irradiation are contained within a device and  are not accessible to personnel. 
    "Irradiator operator" means an individual who has  successfully completed the training and testing described in 12VAC5-481-2830  and is authorized by the terms of the license to operate the irradiator without  a supervisor present. 
    "Irradiator operator supervisor" means an  individual who meets the requirements for an irradiator operator and who  physically oversees operation of the irradiator by an individual who is  currently receiving training and testing described in 12VAC5-481-2830. 
    "Isocenter" means the center of the sphere through  which the useful beam axis passes while the gantry moves through its full range  of motions. 
    "kBq" means kilabecquerels.
    "Kilovolt (kV) (kilo electron volt (keV))" means  the energy equal to that acquired by a particle with one electron charge in  passing through a potential difference of 1,000 volts in a vacuum. Current  convention is to use kV for photons and keV for electrons. 
    "Kilovolts peak" (See "Peak tube  potential"). 
    "kV" means kilovolts. 
    "kVp" (See "Peak tube potential"). 
    "kWs" means kilowatt second. 
    "Land disposal facility" means the land, buildings,  structures and equipment that is intended to be used for the disposal of wastes  into the subsurface of the land. For purposes of this chapter, a "geologic  repository" as defined in 10 CFR Part 60 or 10 CFR Part 63 is not  considered a land disposal facility.
    "Lay-barge radiography" means industrial  radiography performed on any water vessel used for laying pipe. 
    "Lead equivalent" means the thickness of the  material in question affording the same attenuation, under specified  conditions, as lead. 
    "Leakage radiation" means radiation emanating from  the diagnostic source assembly except for: 
    1. The useful beam; and 
    2. Radiation produced when the exposure switch or timer is not  activated. 
    "Leakage technique factors" means the technique  factors associated with the diagnostic source assembly that are used in  measuring leakage radiation. They are defined as follows: 
    1. For diagnostic source assemblies intended for capacitor  energy storage equipment, the maximum-rated peak tube potential and the  maximum-rated number of exposures in an hour for operation at the maximum-rated  peak tube potential with the quantity of charge per exposure being 10  millicoulombs, i.e., 10 milliampere seconds, or the minimum obtainable from the  unit, whichever is larger; 
    2. For diagnostic source assemblies intended for field  emission equipment rated for pulsed operation, the maximum-rated peak tube  potential and the maximum-rated number of X-ray pulses in an hour for operation  at the maximum-rated peak tube potential; 
    3. For all other diagnostic source assemblies, the  maximum-rated peak tube potential and the maximum-rated continuous tube current  for the maximum-rated peak tube potential. 
    "Lens dose equivalent (LDE)" applies to the  external exposure of the lens of the eye and is taken as the dose equivalent at  a tissue depth of 0.3 cm (300 mg/cm2).
    "License" means a license issued by the agency in  accordance with the regulations adopted by the board. 
    "Licensed material" means radioactive material  received, possessed, used, transferred or disposed of under a general or  specific license issued by the agency. 
    "Licensee" means any person who is licensed by the  agency in accordance with these regulations and the Act. 
    "Light field" means that area of the intersection  of the light beam from the beam-limiting device and one of the set of planes  parallel to and including the plane of the image receptor, whose perimeter is  the locus of points at which the illumination is one-fourth of the maximum in  the intersection. 
    "Limits" (See "Dose limits"). 
    "Line-voltage regulation" means the difference  between the no-load and the load line potentials expressed as a percentage of  the load line potential. It is calculated using the following equation: 
    Percent line-voltage regulation = 100 (Vn-Vl)/Vl  
    where: 
    Vn = No-load line potential; and 
    Vl = Load line potential. 
    "Lixiscope" means a portable light-intensified  imaging device using a sealed source. 
    "Local components" mean part of an analytical X-ray  system and include areas that are struck by X-rays such as radiation source  housings, port and shutter assemblies, collimators, sample holders, cameras,  goniometers, detectors, and shielding, but do not include power supplies,  transformers, amplifiers, readout devices, and control panels. 
    "Logging assistant" means any individual who, under  the personal supervision of a logging supervisor, handles sealed sources or  tracers that are not in logging tools or shipping containers or who performs  surveys required by Part XIV (12VAC5-481-3140 et seq.) of this chapter. 
    "Logging supervisor" means the individual who uses sources  of radiation licensed material or provides personal supervision of  the utilization of sources of radiation at the well site in the use of  licensed material at a temporary jobsite and who is responsible to the licensee  for assuring compliance with the requirements of this chapter and the  conditions of the license. 
    "Logging tool" means a device used subsurface to  perform well-logging. 
    "Loose-fitting facepiece" means a respiratory inlet  covering that is designed to form a partial seal with the face.
    "Lost or missing licensed material" means licensed  (or registered) source of radiation whose location is unknown. This definition  includes, but is not limited to, radioactive material that has been shipped but  has not reached its planned destination and whose location cannot be readily  traced in the transportation system. 
    "Lot tolerance percent defective" means, expressed  in percent defective, the poorest quality in an individual inspection lot that  should be accepted.
    "Low specific activity (LSA) material" means radioactive  material with limited specific activity that is nonfissile or is excepted under  12VAC5-481-2970 C, and that satisfies the descriptions and limits set forth  below. Shielding materials surrounding the LSA material may not be considered  in determining the estimated average specific activity of the package contents.  LSA material must be in one of three groups: 
    1. LSA-I 
    a. Uranium and thorium ores, concentrates of uranium and  thorium ores, and other ores containing naturally occurring radioactive radionuclide  that are not intended to be processed for the use of these radionuclides; 
    b. Solid unirradiated natural uranium or depleted uranium or  natural thorium or their solid or liquid compounds or mixtures; 
    c. Radioactive material, for which the A2 value is  unlimited; or 
    d. Other radioactive material in which the activity is  distributed throughout and the estimated average specific activity does not  exceed 30 times the value for exempt material activity concentration determined  in accordance with 12VAC5-481-3720. 
    2. LSA-II 
    a. Water with tritium concentration up to 0.8 terabecquerel  per liter (20.0 Ci/L); or 
    b. Other material in which the activity is distributed  throughout, and the average specific activity does not exceed 1.0 E-04 A2/g  for solids and gases, and 1.0 E-05 A2/g for liquids. 
    3. LSA-III 
    Solids (e.g., consolidated wastes, activated materials),  excluding powders, that satisfy the requirements of 10 CFR 71.77) in which: 
    a. The radioactive material is distributed throughout a solid  or a collection of solid objects, or is essentially uniformly distributed in a  solid compact binding agent (for example: concrete, bitumen, or ceramic); 
    b. The radioactive material is relatively insoluble, or it is  intrinsically contained in a relatively insoluble material, so that, even under  loss of packaging, the loss of radioactive material per package by leaching,  when placed in water for seven days, would not exceed 0.1 A2; and 
    c. The estimated average specific activity of the solid does  not exceed 2.0 E-03 A2/g. 
    "Low toxicity alpha emitters" means natural  uranium, depleted uranium, natural thorium; uranium-235, uranium-238,  thorium-232, thorium-228 or thorium-230 when contained in ores or physical or  chemical concentrates or tailings; or alpha emitters with a half-life of less  than 10 days. 
    "Lung class" (See "Class"). 
    "mA" means milliampere. 
    "mAs" means milliampere second. 
    "Major processor" means a user processing,  handling, or manufacturing radioactive material exceeding Type A quantities as  unsealed sources or material, or exceeding four times Type B quantities as  sealed sources, but does not include nuclear medicine programs, universities,  industrial radiographers, or small industrial programs. Type A and B quantities  are defined in this section. 
    "Maximum line current" means the root-mean-square  current in the supply line of an X-ray machine operating at its maximum rating.  
    "Management" means the chief executive officer or  that individual's designee. 
    "MBq" means megabecquerels.
    "Medical event" means an event that meets the  criteria in 12VAC5-481-2080.
    "Medical institution" means an organization in  which several medical disciplines are practiced. 
    "Medical use" means the intentional internal or  external administration of radioactive material or the radiation from  radioactive material to patients or human research subjects under the  supervision of an authorized user.
    "Megavolt (MV) (mega electron volt (MeV))" means  the energy equal to that acquired by a particle with one electron charge in  passing through a potential difference of one million volts in a vacuum. (Note:  current convention is to use MV for photons and MeV for electrons.) 
    "Member of the public" means an individual except  when that individual is receiving an occupational dose. 
    "Mineral logging" means any logging performed for  the purpose of mineral exploration other than oil or gas. 
    "Minor" means an individual less than 18 years of  age. 
    "Mobile nuclear medicine service" means the  transportation and medical use of radioactive material. 
    "Mobile X-ray equipment" (See "X-ray  equipment"). 
    "Monitor unit (MU)" (See "Dose monitor  unit"). 
    "Monitoring" means the measurement of radiation,  radioactive material concentrations, surface area activities or quantities of  radioactive material and the use of the results of these measurements to  evaluate potential exposures and doses. For purposes of these regulations,  "radiation monitoring" and "radiation protection  monitoring" are equivalent terms. For Part XI (12VAC5-481-2330 et seq.) of  this chapter, it means observing and making measurements to provide data to  evaluate the performance and characteristics of the disposal site. 
    "Moving beam radiation therapy" means radiation  therapy with any planned displacement of radiation field or patient relative to  each other, or with any planned change of absorbed dose distribution. It  includes arc, skip, conformal, intensity modulation and rotational therapy. 
    "Multiple tomogram system" means a computed  tomography X-ray system that obtains X-ray transmission data simultaneously  during a single scan to produce more than one tomogram. 
    "NARM" means any naturally occurring or  accelerator-produced radioactive material. It does not include byproduct,  source, or special nuclear material. 
    "Nationally tracked source" means a sealed source  containing a quantity equal to or greater than Category 1 or Category 2 levels  of any radioactive material listed in 12VAC5-481-3780. In this context a sealed  source is defined as radioactive material that is sealed in a capsule or closely  bonded, in a solid form and that is not exempt from regulatory control. It does  not mean material encapsulated solely for disposal, or nuclear material  contained in any fuel assembly, subassembly, fuel rod, or fuel pellet. Category  1 nationally tracked sources are those containing radioactive material at a  quantity equal to or greater than the Category 1 threshold. Category 2  nationally tracked sources are those containing radioactive material at a  quantity equal to or greater than the Category 2 threshold but less than the  Category 1 threshold.
    "Natural radioactivity" means radioactivity of  naturally occurring nuclides. 
    "Natural thorium" means thorium with the naturally  occurring distribution of thorium isotopes, which is essentially 100 weight  percent thorium-232. 
    "Natural uranium" (See "Uranium – natural,  depleted, enriched").
    "Near-surface disposal facility" means a land  disposal facility in which waste is disposed of within approximately the upper  30 meters of the earth's surface. 
    "Negative pressure respirator (tight fitting)"  means a respirator in which the air pressure inside the facepiece is negative  during inhalation with respect to the ambient air pressure outside the  respirator.
    "Noise" means the standard deviation of the  fluctuations in CTN expressed as a percentage of the attenuation coefficient of  water. Its estimate (Sn) is calculated using the following  expression: 
    
    where:
     =  Linear attenuation coefficient of the material of interest.
 =  Linear attenuation coefficient of the material of interest.
     =  Linear attenuation coefficient of water.
 =  Linear attenuation coefficient of water.
     =  Standard deviation of the CTN of picture elements in a specified area of the CT  image.
 =  Standard deviation of the CTN of picture elements in a specified area of the CT  image.
    "Nominal tomographic section thickness" means the  full width at half-maximum of the sensitivity profile taken at the center of  the cross-sectional volume over which X-ray transmission data are collected. 
    "Nonstochastic effect" means a health effect, the  severity of which varies with the dose and for which a threshold is believed to  exist. Radiation-induced cataract formation is an example of a nonstochastic  effect. For purposes of these regulations, "deterministic effect" is  an equivalent term. 
    "NORM" means any naturally occurring radioactive  material. It does not include accelerator produced, byproduct, source, or  special nuclear material. 
    "Normal form radioactive material" means  radioactive material that has not been demonstrated to qualify as special form  radioactive material. 
    "Normal operating procedures" mean step-by-step  instructions necessary to accomplish the analysis. These procedures shall  include sample insertion and manipulation, equipment alignment, routine  maintenance by the registrant (or licensee), and data recording procedures,  which are related to radiation safety. 
    "Nominal treatment distance" means: 
    1. For electron irradiation, the distance from the scattering  foil, virtual source, or exit window of the electron beam to the entrance  surface of the irradiated object along the central axis of the useful beam. 
    2. For X-ray irradiation, the virtual source or target to  isocenter distance along the central axis of the useful beam. For nonisocentric  equipment, this distance shall be that specified by the manufacturer. 
    "NRC Forms 540, 540A, 541, 541A, 542 and 542"  means official NRC forms referenced in this chapter. Licensees need not use  originals of these NRC Forms as long as any substitute forms are equivalent to  the original documentation in respect to content, clarity, size, and location  of information. Upon agreement between the shipper and consignee, NRC Forms 541  (and 541A) and NRC Forms 542 (and 542A) may be completed, transmitted, and  stored in electronic media. The electronic media must have the capability for  producing legible, accurate, and complete records in the format of the uniform  manifest.
    "Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)" means the NRC  or its duly authorized representatives. 
    "Nuclear waste" means a quantity of source,  byproduct or special nuclear material (the definition of nuclear waste in this  part is used in the same way as in 49 CFR 173.403) required to be in  NRC-approved specification packaging while transported to, through or across a  state boundary to a disposal site, or to a collection point for transport to a  disposal site. 
    "Occupational dose" means the dose received by an  individual in the course of employment in which the individual's assigned  duties for the licensee or registrant involve exposure to sources of radiation,  whether or not the sources of radiation are in the possession of the licensee,  registrant, or other person. Occupational dose does not include doses received  from background radiation, from any medical administration the individual has  received, from exposure to individuals administered radioactive material and  released in accordance with 12VAC5-481-1870, from voluntary participation in  medical research programs, or as a member of the public. 
    "Offshore platform radiography" means industrial  radiography conducted from a platform over a body of water. 
    "Offshore waters" means that area of land and  water, beyond the Commonwealth of Virginia's jurisdiction, on or above the U.S.  Outer Continental Shelf.
    "Open-beam configuration" means an analytical X-ray  system in which an individual could accidentally place some part of his body in  the primary beam path during normal operation. 
    "Output" means the exposure rate, dose rate, or a  quantity related in a known manner to these rates from a teletherapy unit for a  specified set of exposure conditions. 
    "Package" means the packaging together with its  radioactive contents as presented for transport.
    1. Fissile material package or Type AF package, Type BF  package, Type B(U)F package, or Type B(M)F package means a fissile material  packaging together with its fissile material contents.
    2. Type A package means a Type A packaging together with its  radioactive contents. A Type A package is defined and must comply with the DOT  regulations in 49 CFR Part 173.
    3. Type B package means a Type B packaging together with its  radioactive contents. On approval, a Type B package design is designated by NRC  as B(U) unless the package has a maximum normal operating pressure of more than  700 kPa (100 lbs/in2) gauge or a pressure relief device that would  allow the release of radioactive material to the environment under the tests  specified in 10 CFR 71.73 (hypothetical accident conditions), in which case it  will receive a designation B(M). B(U) refers to the need for unilateral  approval of international shipments; B(M) refers to the need for multilateral  approval of international shipments. There is no distinction made in how  packages with these designations may be used in domestic transportation. To  determine their distinction for international transportation, see DOT  regulations in 49 CFR Part 173. A Type B package approved before September 6,  1983, was designated only as Type B. Limitations on its use are specified in 10  CFR 71.19. 
    "Packaging" means the assembly of components  necessary to ensure compliance with the packaging requirements of these  regulations. It may consist of one or more receptacles, absorbent materials,  spacing structures, thermal insulation, radiation shielding, and devices for  cooling or absorbing mechanical shocks. The vehicle, tie-down system, and  auxiliary equipment may be designated as part of the packaging. 
    "Panoramic dry-source-storage irradiator" means an  irradiator in which the irradiations occur in air in areas potentially  accessible to personnel and in which the sources are stored in shields made of  solid materials. The term includes beam-type dry-source-storage irradiators in  which only a narrow beam of radiation is produced for performing irradiations. 
    "Panoramic irradiator" means an irradiator in which  the irradiations are done in air in areas potentially accessible to personnel.  The term includes beam-type irradiators. 
    "Panoramic wet-source-storage irradiator" means an  irradiator in which the irradiations occur in air in areas potentially  accessible to personnel and in which the sources are stored under water in a  storage pool. 
    "Particle accelerator" (See  "Accelerator"). 
    "Patient" means an individual or animal subjected  to healing arts examination, diagnosis, or treatment. 
    "PBL" (See "Positive beam limitation"). 
    "Peak tube potential" means the maximum value of  the potential difference across the X-ray tube during an exposure. 
    "Periodic quality assurance check" means a  procedure that is performed to ensure that a previous calibration continues to  be valid. 
    "Permanent radiographic installation" means an  enclosed shielded room, cell, or vault, not located at a temporary jobsite, in  which radiography is performed. 
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution,  group, department of the Commonwealth other than the Department of Health,  political subdivision of the Commonwealth, any other state or political  subdivision or department thereof, and any legal successor, representative,  agent, or department of the foregoing, but not including federal government  agencies. 
    "Personal supervision" means guidance and instruction  by the supervisor who is physically present at the jobsite and watching the  performance of the operation in such proximity that contact can be maintained  and immediate assistance given as required. In radiography it means guidance  and instruction provided to a radiographer trainee by a radiographer instructor  who is present at the site, in visual contact with the trainee while the  trainee is using sources of radiation, and in such proximity that immediate  assistance can be given if required. 
    "Personnel monitoring equipment" (See  "Individual monitoring devices"). 
    "Phantom" means a volume of material behaving in a  manner similar to tissue with respect to the attenuation and scattering of  radiation. This requires that both the atomic number (Z) and the density of the  material be similar to that of tissue. 
    "Physical description" means the items called  for on NRC Form 541 to describe a low-level radioactive waste.
    "Pool irradiator" means any irradiator at which the  sources are stored or used in a pool of water including panoramic  wet-source-storage irradiators and underwater irradiators. 
    "Pharmacist" means an individual licensed by this  state to compound and dispense drugs, prescriptions, and poisons. 
    "Physician" means an individual licensed by this state  to prescribe drugs in the practice of medicine. 
    "Picture element" means an elemental area of a  tomogram. 
    "PID" (See "Position indicating device").  
    "Pigtail" (See "Source assembly"). 
    "Pill" (See "Sealed source"). 
    "Planned special exposure" means an infrequent  exposure to radiation, separate from and in addition to the annual occupational  dose limits. 
    "Portable X-ray equipment" (See "X-ray  equipment"). 
    "Position indicating device" means a device on  dental X-ray equipment used to indicate the beam position and to establish a  definite source-surface (skin) distance. It may or may not incorporate or serve  as a beam-limiting device. 
    "Positive beam limitation" means the automatic or  semi-automatic adjustment of an X-ray beam to the size of the selected image  receptor, whereby exposures cannot be made without such adjustment. 
    "Positive emission tomography (PET) radionuclide  production facility" means a facility operating a cyclotron or accelerator  for the purpose of producing PET radionuclides.
    "Positive pressure respirator" means a respirator  in which the pressure inside the respiratory inlet covering exceeds the ambient  air pressure outside the respirator.
    "Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)" means an  air-purifying respirator that uses a blower to force the ambient air through  air-purifying elements to the inlet covering.
    "Practical examination" means a demonstration  through application of the safety rules and principles in industrial  radiography including use of all procedures and equipment to be used by  radiographic personnel. 
    "Practical range of electrons" corresponds to  classical electron range where the only remaining contribution to dose is from  bremsstrahlung X-rays. A further explanation may be found in "Clinical  Electron Beam Dosimetry: Report of AAPM Radiation Therapy Committee Task Group  25" (Medical Physics 18(1): 73-109, Jan/Feb. 1991) and ICRU Report 35,  "Radiation Dosimetry: Electron Beams with Energies Between 1 and 50  MeV", International Commission on Radiation Units and Measurements,  September 15, 1984. 
    "Preceptor" means an individual who provides,  directs, or verifies training and experience required for an individual to  become an authorized user, an authorized medical physicist, an authorized  nuclear pharmacist, or a radiation safety officer.
    "Prescribed dosage" means the quantity of  radiopharmaceutical activity as documented: 
    1. In a written directive; or 
    2. Either in the diagnostic clinical procedures manual or in  any appropriate record in accordance with the directions of the authorized user  for diagnostic procedures. 
    "Prescribed dose" means: 
    1. For gamma stereotactic radiosurgery, the total dose as  documented in the written directive; or 
    2. For teletherapy, the total dose and dose per fraction as  documented in the written directive; or 
    3. For brachytherapy, either the total source strength and  exposure time, or the total dose, as documented in the written directive. 
    "Pressure demand respirator" means a positive  pressure atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the  facepiece when the positive pressure is reduced inside the facepiece by  inhalation.
    "Primary beam" means radiation that passes through  an aperture of the source housing by a direct path from the X-ray tube or a  radioactive source located in the radiation source housing. 
    "Primary dose monitoring system" means a system  that will monitor the useful beam during irradiation and that will terminate  irradiation when a preselected number of dose monitor units have been  delivered. 
    "Primary protective barrier" (See "Protective  barrier"). 
    "Principal activities," as used in this chapter,  means activities authorized by the license that are essential to achieving the  purpose(s) for which the license was issued or amended. Storage during which no  licensed material is accessed for use or disposal and activities incidental to  decontamination or decommissioning are not principal activities.
    "Private inspector" means an individual who meets  the requirements set forth in 12VAC5-481-340 and who has demonstrated to the  satisfaction of the agency that such individual possesses the knowledge,  training and experience to measure ionizing radiation, to evaluate safety  techniques, and to advise regarding radiation protection needs. 
    "Product" means, as used in Part XVI  (12VAC5-481-3460 et seq.) of this chapter, something produced, made,  manufactured, refined, or benefited. 
    "Product conveyor system" means a system for moving  the product to be irradiated to, from, and within the area where irradiation  takes place. 
    "Projection sheath" (See "Guide tube"). 
    "Projector" (See "Radiographic exposure  device"). 
    "Protective apron" means an apron made of  radiation-attenuating or absorbing materials used to reduce exposure to  radiation. 
    "Protective barrier" means a barrier of radiation  absorbing material(s) used to reduce radiation exposure. The types of  protective barriers are as follows: 
    1. "Primary protective barrier" means the material,  excluding filters, placed in the useful beam; 
    2. "Secondary protective barrier" means the material  that attenuates stray radiation. 
    "Protective glove" means a glove made of radiation  absorbing materials used to reduce radiation exposure. 
    "Public dose" means the dose received by a member  of the public from exposure to sources of radiation released by the licensee or  registrant, or to any other source of radiation under the control of the  licensee or registrant. Public dose does not include occupational dose, or doses  received from background radiation, from any medical administration the  individual has received, from exposure to individuals administered radioactive  material and released in accordance with 12VAC5-481-1870, or from voluntary  participation in medical research programs. 
    "Pyrophoric material" means any liquid that ignites  spontaneously in dry or moist air at or below 130°F (54.4°C) or any solid  material, other than one classed as an explosive, which under normal conditions  is liable to cause fires through friction, retained heat from manufacturing or  processing, or that can be ignited readily and, when ignited, burns so  vigorously and persistently as to create a serious transportation, handling, or  disposal hazard. Included are spontaneously combustible and water-reactive  materials. 
    "Qualitative fit test (QLFT)" means a pass/fail fit  test to assess the adequacy of respirator fit that relies on the individual's  response to the test agent.
    "Quality factor" (Q) means the modifying factor,  that is referenced in 12VAC5-481-240, that is used to derive dose equivalent  from absorbed dose. 
    "Quantitative fit test (QNFT)" means an assessment  of the adequacy of respirator fit by numerically measuring the amount of  leakage into the respirator.
    "Quarter" means a period of time equal to  one-fourth of the year observed by the licensee, approximately 13 consecutive  weeks, providing that the beginning of the first quarter in a year coincides  with the starting date of the year and that no day is omitted or duplicated in  consecutive quarters. 
    "Rad" means the special unit of absorbed dose. One  rad is equal to an absorbed dose of 100 erg per gram or 0.01 joule per kilogram  (0.01 gray). 
    "Radiation" means alpha particles, beta particles,  gamma rays, X-rays, neutrons, high-speed electrons, high-speed protons, and  other particles capable of producing ions. For purposes of these regulations,  ionizing radiation is an equivalent term. Radiation, as used in these  regulations, does not include nonionizing radiation, such as radiowaves or  microwaves, visible, infrared, or ultraviolet light. 
    "Radiation area" means any area, accessible to  individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving  a dose equivalent in excess of 0.05 mSv (0.005 rem) in one hour at 30 centimeters  from the source of radiation or from any surface that the radiation penetrates.  
    "Radiation dose" (See "Dose"). 
    "Radiation field" (See "Useful beam"). 
    "Radiation head" means the structure from which the  useful beam emerges. 
    "Radiation machine" means any device capable of  producing radiation except those devices with radioactive material as the only  source of radiation. 
    "Radiation room" means a shielded room in which  irradiations take place. Underwater irradiators do not have radiation rooms. 
    "Radiation safety officer (RSO)" means an  individual who has the knowledge and responsibility to apply appropriate  radiation protection regulations and has been assigned such responsibility by  the licensee or registrant. 
    "Radiation safety officer for industrial  radiography" means an individual with the responsibility for the overall  radiation safety program on behalf of the licensee or registrant and who meets  the requirements of 12VAC5-481-1310. 
    "Radiation safety officer for medical" means an  individual who meets the requirements of 12VAC5-481-1750 and 12VAC5-481-1790 and  or is identified as an RSO on: a medical use license issued by the  agency, NRC or another agreement state, or a medical use permit issued by an  NRC masters material licensee.
    "Radiation therapy physicist" means an individual  qualified in accordance with 12VAC5-481-340. 
    "Radiation therapy simulation system" means a  radiographic or fluoroscopic X-ray system intended for localizing the volume to  be exposed during radiation therapy and confirming the position and size of the  therapeutic irradiation field. 
    "Radioactive material" means any solid, liquid, or  gas which emits radiation spontaneously. 
    "Radioactive marker" means radioactive material  placed subsurface or on a structure intended for subsurface use for the purpose  of depth determination or direction orientation.
    "Radioactivity" means the transformation of  unstable atomic nuclei by the emission of radiation. 
    "Radiobioassay" (See "Bioassay"). 
    "Radiograph" means an image receptor on which the  image is created directly or indirectly by an X-ray pattern and results in a  permanent record. 
    "Radiographer" means any individual who performs or  who, in attendance at the site where the sources of radiation are being used,  personally supervises industrial radiographic operations and who is responsible  to the licensee or registrant for assuring compliance with the requirements of  the agency's regulations and the conditions of the license or registration. 
    "Radiographer certification" means written approval  received from a certifying entity stating that an individual has satisfactorily  met the radiation safety, testing, and experience criteria in 12VAC5-481-1320. 
    "Radiographer instructor" means any radiographer  who has been authorized by the agency to provide on-the-job training to  radiographer trainees in accordance with Part V (12VAC5-481-1170 et seq.) of  this chapter.
    "Radiographer trainee" means any individual who,  under the personal supervision of a radiographer instructor, uses sources of  radiation, related handling tools, or radiation survey instruments during the  course of his instruction. 
    "Radiographer's assistant" means any individual who  under the direct supervision of a radiographer, uses radiographic exposure  devices, sources of radiation, related handling tools, or radiation survey  instruments in industrial radiography. 
    "Radiographic exposure device" means any instrument  containing a sealed source fastened or contained therein, in which the sealed  source or shielding thereof may be moved, or otherwise changed, from a shielded  to unshielded position for purposes of making a radiographic exposure. 
    "Radiographic imaging system" means any system  whereby a permanent or semi-permanent image is recorded on an image receptor by  the action of ionizing radiation. 
    "Radiographic operations" means all activities  performed with a radiographic exposure device, or with a radiation machine.  Activities include using, transporting except by common or contract carriers,  or storing at a temporary job site, performing surveys to confirm the adequacy  of boundaries, setting up equipment, and any activity inside restricted area  boundaries. Transporting a radiation machine is not considered a radiographic  operation. 
    "Radiographic personnel" means any radiographer,  radiographer instructor, or radiographer trainee. 
    "Radiography" (See "Industrial  radiography"). 
    "Rating" means the operating limits as specified by  the component manufacturer. 
    "Reasonably maximally exposed individual" means, as  used in Part XVI (12VAC5-481-3460 et seq.) of this chapter, a representative of  a population who is exposed to TENORM at the maximum TENORM concentration  measured in environmental media found at a site along with reasonable maximum  case exposure assumptions. The exposure is determined by using maximum values  for one or more of the most sensitive parameters affecting exposure, based on  cautious but reasonable assumptions, while leaving the others at their mean  value. 
    "Recording" means producing a permanent form of an  image resulting from X-ray photons. 
    "Redundant beam monitoring system" means a  combination of two dose monitoring systems in which each system is designed to  terminate irradiation in accordance with a preselected number of dose monitor  units. 
    "Reference man" means a hypothetical aggregation of  human physical and physiological characteristics determined by international  consensus. These characteristics may be used by researchers and public health  employees to standardize results of experiments and to relate biological insult  to a common base. A description of the reference man is contained in the  International Commission on Radiological Protection report, ICRP Publication  23, "Report of the Task Group on Reference Man." 
    "Reference plane" means a plane that is displaced  from and parallel to the tomographic plane. 
    "Registrant" means any person who is registered  with the agency and is legally obligated to register with the agency pursuant  to these regulations and the Act. 
    "Registration" means registration with the agency  in accordance with the regulations adopted by the agency. 
    "Regulations of the United States Department of  Transportation" means the regulations in 49 CFR Parts 100-189. 
    "Rem" means the special unit of any of the  quantities expressed as dose equivalent. The dose equivalent in rems is equal  to the absorbed dose in rad multiplied by the quality factor (1 rem = 0.01 Sv).  
    "Research and development" means (i) theoretical  analysis, exploration, or experimentation; or (ii) the extension of  investigative findings and theories of a scientific or technical nature into  practical application for experimental and demonstrative purposes, including  the experimental production and testing of models, devices, equipment,  materials, and processes. Research and development does not include the  internal or external administration of radiation or radioactive material to  human beings. 
    "Residential location" means any area where  structures in which people lodge or live are located, and the grounds on which  such structures are located including, but not limited to, houses, apartments,  condominiums, and garages. 
    "Residual radioactive material" means (i) waste  (that the Secretary of Energy determines to be radioactive) in the form of  tailings resulting from the processing of ores for the extraction of uranium  and other valuable constituents of the ores and (ii) other waste (that the  Secretary of Energy determines to be radioactive) at a processing site that  relates to such processing, including any residual stock of unprocessed ores or  low-grade materials. This term is used only with respect to materials at sites  subject to remediation under Title I of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation  Control Act of 1978, as amended.
    "Residual radioactivity" means radioactivity in  structures, materials, soils, groundwater, and other media at a site resulting  from activities under the licensee's control. This includes radioactivity from  all licensed and unlicensed sources used by the licensee, but excludes  background radiation. It also includes radioactive materials remaining at the  site as a result of routine or accidental releases of radioactive materials at  the site and previous burials at the site, even if those burials were made in  accordance with the provisions of Part IV (12VAC5-481-600 et seq.) of this  chapter. 
    "Residual waste" means low-level radioactive  waste resulting from processing or decontamination activities that cannot be  easily separated into distinct batches attributable to specific waste  generators. This waste is attributable to the processor or decontamination  facility, as applicable.
    "Respiratory protective device" means an apparatus,  such as a respirator, used to reduce an individual's intake of airborne  radioactive materials. 
    "Restricted area" means an area, access to which is  limited by the licensee or registrant for the purpose of protecting individuals  against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials.  Restricted area does not include areas used as residential quarters, but separate  rooms in a residential building may be set apart as a restricted area. 
    "Roentgen" means the special unit of exposure. One  roentgen (R) equals 2.58E-4 coulombs per kilogram of air (see  "Exposure" and 12VAC5-481-240). 
    "S-tube" means a tube through which the radioactive  source travels when inside a radiographic exposure device. 
    "Sanitary sewerage" means a system of public sewers  for carrying off waste water and refuse, but excluding sewage treatment  facilities, septic tanks, and leach fields owned or operated by the licensee or  registrant. 
    "Scan" means the complete process of collecting  X-ray transmission data for the production of a tomogram. Data can be collected  simultaneously during a single scan for the production of one or more  tomograms. 
    "Scan increment" means the amount of relative  displacement of the patient with respect to the CT X-ray system between  successive scans measured along the direction of such displacement. 
    "Scan sequence" means a preselected set of two or  more scans performed consecutively under preselected CT conditions of  operation. 
    "Scan time" means the period of time between the  beginning and end of X-ray transmission data accumulation for a single scan. 
    "Scattered radiation" means ionizing radiation  emitted by interaction of ionizing radiation with matter, the interaction being  accompanied by a change in direction of the radiation. Scattered primary  radiation means that scattered radiation which has been deviated in direction  only by materials irradiated by the useful beam. 
    "Sealed source" means any radioactive material that  is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of any  radioactive material. 
    "Sealed Source and Device Registry (SSD)" means the  national registry that contains the registration certificates, maintained by  the NRC, that summarize the radiation safety information for sealed sources and  devices, and describes the licensing and use conditions approved for the  product. 
    "Secondary dose monitoring system" means a system  which will terminate irradiation in the event of failure of the primary dose  monitoring system. 
    "Secondary protective barrier" (See  "Protective barrier"). 
    "Seismic area" means any area where the probability  of a horizontal acceleration in rock of more than 0.3 times the acceleration of  gravity in 250 years is greater than 10%, as designated by the United States  Geological Survey. 
    "Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)" means  an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the breathing air source is  designed to be carried by the user.
    "Shadow tray" means a device attached to the  radiation head to support auxiliary beam blocking material. 
    "Shallow dose equivalent (Hs)," which  applies to the external exposure of the skin or an extremity, means the dose  equivalent at a tissue depth of 0.007 centimeter (7 mg/cm2). 
    "Shielded position" means the location within the  radiographic exposure device or storage container which, by manufacturer's  design, is the proper location for storage of the sealed source. 
    "Shielded-room radiography" means industrial  radiography conducted in a room shielded so that radiation levels at every  location on the exterior meet the limitations specified in 12VAC5-481-640. 
    "Shipper" means the licensed entity (i.e., the  waste generator, waste collector, or waste processor) who offers low-level  radioactive waste for transportation, typically consigning this type of waste  to a licensed waste collector, waste processor, or land disposal facility  operator.
    "Shipping paper" means NRC Form 540 and, if  required, NRC Form 540A, which includes the information required by DOT in 49  CFR Part 172.
    "Shutter" means a device attached to the tube  housing assembly which can intercept the entire cross sectional area of the  useful beam and which has a lead equivalency not less than that of the tube  housing assembly. 
    "SI" means the abbreviation for the International  System of Units. 
    "SID" (See "Source-image receptor  distance"). 
    "Sievert" (Sv) means the SI unit of any of the  quantities expressed as dose equivalent. The dose equivalent in sievert is  equal to the absorbed dose in gray multiplied by the quality factor (1 Sv = 100  rem). 
    "Simulator (radiation therapy simulation system)"  means any X-ray system intended for localizing the volume to be exposed during  radiation therapy and reproducing the position and size of the therapeutic  irradiation field. 
    "Single tomogram system" means a CT X-ray system  that obtains X-ray transmission data during a scan to produce a single  tomogram. 
    "Site area emergency" means events may occur, are  in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a significant release of  radioactive material and that could require a response by offsite response  organizations to protect persons offsite.
    "Site boundary" means that line beyond which the  land or property is not owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by the licensee.
    "Site closure and stabilization" means those  actions that are taken upon completion of operations that prepare the disposal  site for custodial care and that assure that the disposal site will remain  stable and will not need ongoing active maintenance. 
    "Source" means the focal spot of the X-ray tube. 
    "Source assembly" means an assembly that consists  of the sealed source and a connector that attaches the source to the control  cable. The source assembly may include a ballstop to secure the source in the  shielded position. 
    "Source changer" means a device designed and used  for replacement of sealed sources in radiographic exposure devices, including  those source changers also used for transporting and storage of sealed sources.  
    "Source holder" means a housing or assembly into  which a radioactive source is placed for the purpose of facilitating the  handling and use of the source in well-logging operations. 
    "Source-image receptor distance" means the distance  from the source to the center of the input surface of the image receptor. 
    "Source material" means: 
    1. Uranium or thorium, or any combination thereof, in any  physical or chemical form; or 
    2. Ores that contain by weight one-twentieth of 1.0% (0.05%)  or more of uranium, thorium or any combination of uranium and thorium. Source  material does not include special nuclear material. 
    "Source of radiation" means any radioactive  material or any device or equipment emitting, or capable of producing,  radiation. 
    "Source-skin distance (SSD)" means the distance  between the source and the skin entrance plane of the patient. 
    "Source traceability" means the ability to show  that a radioactive source has been calibrated either by the national standards  laboratory of the National Institute of Standards and Technology, or by a  laboratory that participates in a continuing measurement quality assurance  program with National Institute of Standards and Technology or other equivalent  national or international program. 
    "Special form radioactive material" means  radioactive material that satisfies the following conditions: 
    1. It is either a single solid piece or is contained in a  sealed capsule that can be opened only by destroying the capsule; 
    2. The piece or capsule has at least one dimension not less  than five millimeters (0.2 in.); and 
    3. It satisfies the test requirements specified by the NRC. A  special form encapsulation designed in accordance with the NRC requirements in  effect on June 30, 1983, and constructed prior to July 1, 1985, may continue to  be used. A special form encapsulation either designed or constructed after  April 1, 1998, must meet requirements of this definition applicable at the time  of its design or construction. 
    "Special nuclear material" means: 
    1. Plutonium, uranium-233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233  or in the isotope 235, and any other material the NRC, pursuant to the  provisions of section 51 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended,  determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source  material; or 
    2. Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing  but does not include source material. 
    "Special nuclear material in quantities not sufficient  to form a critical mass" means uranium enriched in the isotope U-235 in  quantities not exceeding 350 grams of contained U-235; uranium-233 in  quantities not exceeding 200 grams; plutonium in quantities not exceeding 200  grams; or any combination of them in accordance with the following formula: For  each kind of special nuclear material, determine the ratio between the quantity  of that special nuclear material and the quantity specified above for the same  kind of special nuclear material. The sum of such ratios for all of the kinds  of special nuclear material in combination shall not exceed 1. For example, the  following quantities in combination would not exceed the limitation and are  within the formula: 
    
    "Specific activity" of a radionuclide means the  radioactivity of a radionuclide per unit mass of that nuclide. The specific  activity of a material in which the radionuclide is essentially uniformly  distributed is the radioactivity per unit mass of the material. 
    "Spot film" means a radiograph that is made during  a fluoroscopic examination to permanently record conditions that exist during  that fluoroscopic procedure. 
    "Spot-film device" means a device intended to  transport and/or position a radiographic image receptor between the X-ray  source and fluoroscopic image receptor. It includes a device intended to hold a  cassette over the input end of an image intensifier for the purpose of making a  radiograph. 
    "Stability" means structural stability. 
    "State inspector" means an employee of the Virginia  Department of Health designated to perform those duties or functions assigned  the Radiological Health Program. 
    "Stationary beam radiation therapy" means radiation  therapy without displacement of one or more mechanical axes relative to the  patient during irradiation. 
    "Stationary X-ray equipment" (See "X-ray  equipment"). 
    "Stochastic effect" means a health effect that  occurs randomly and for which the probability of the effect occurring, rather  than its severity, is assumed to be a linear function of dose without  threshold. Hereditary effects and cancer incidence are examples of stochastic  effects. For purposes of these regulations, "probabilistic effect" is  an equivalent term. 
    "Storage" means a condition in which a device or  source is not being used for an extended period of time, and has been made  inoperable. 
    "Storage area" means any location, facility, or  vehicle that is used to store and secure a radiographic exposure device, a  radiation machine, or a storage container when it is not used for radiographic  operations. Storage areas are locked or have a physical barrier to prevent  accidental exposure, tampering, or unauthorized removal of the device, machine,  or container. 
    "Storage container" means a device in which sealed  sources or radiation machines are secured and stored. 
    "Stray radiation" means the sum of leakage and  scattered radiation. 
    "Subsurface tracer study" means the release of a  substance tagged with radioactive material for the purpose of tracing the  movement or position of the tagged substance in the well-bore or adjacent  formation. 
    "Supplied-air respirator (SAR) or airline  respirator" means an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the source  of breathing air is not designed to be carried by the user.
    "Surface contaminated object" (SCO) means a solid  object that is not itself classed as radioactive material, but that has  radioactive material distributed on any of its surfaces. An SCO must be in one  of two groups with surface activity not exceeding the following limits: 
    1. SCO-I: A solid object on which: 
    a. The nonfixed contamination on the accessible surface  averaged over 300 cm², or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm², does  not exceed four becquerel per cm² (1 E-04 μCi/cm²) for beta and gamma and  low toxicity alpha emitters, or 0.4 becquerel per cm² (1 E-05 μCi/cm²) for  all other alpha emitters; 
    b. The fixed contamination on the accessible surface averaged  over 300 cm², or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm², does not exceed  4 E+04 becquerel per cm² (1.0 μCi/cm²) for beta and gamma and low toxicity  alpha emitters, or 4 E+03 becquerel per cm² (0.1 μCi/cm²) for all other  alpha emitters; and 
    c. The nonfixed contamination plus the fixed contamination on  the inaccessible surface averaged over 300 cm², or the area of the surface if  less than 300 cm², does not exceed 4 E+04 becquerel per cm² (1 μCi/cm²)  for beta and gamma and low toxicity alpha emitters, or 4 E+03 Becquerel per cm²  (0.1 μCi/cm²) for all other alpha emitters. 
    2. SCO-II: A solid object on which the limits for SCO-I are  exceeded and on which: 
    a. The nonfixed contamination on the accessible surface  averaged over 300 cm², or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm², does  not exceed 400 becquerel per cm² (1 E-02 μCi/cm²) for beta and gamma and  low toxicity alpha emitters or 40 becquerel per cm² (1 E-03 μCi/cm²) for  all other alpha emitters; 
    b. The fixed contamination on the accessible surface averaged  over 300 cm², or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm², does not exceed  8 E+05 becquerel per cm² (20 μCi/cm²) for beta and gamma and low toxicity alpha  emitters, or 8 E+04 becquerel per cm² (2 μCi/cm²) for all other alpha  emitters; and 
    c. The nonfixed contamination plus the fixed contamination on  the inaccessible surface averaged over 300 cm², or the area of the surface if  less than 300 cm², does not exceed 8 E+05 becquerel per cm² (20 μCi/cm²)  for beta and gamma and low toxicity alpha emitters, or 8 E+04 becquerel per cm²  (2 μCi/cm²) for all other alpha emitters. 
    "Surveillance" means monitoring and observation of  the disposal site for purposes of visual detection of need for maintenance,  custodial care, evidence of intrusion, and compliance with other license and  regulatory requirements. 
    "Survey" means an evaluation of the radiological  conditions and potential hazards incident to the production, use, transfer,  release, disposal, or presence of radioactive material or other sources of  radiation. When appropriate, such an evaluation includes a physical survey of  the location of radioactive material and measurements or calculations of levels  of radiation, or concentrations or quantities of radioactive material present. 
    "Target" means that part of an X-ray tube or  accelerator onto which a beam of accelerated particles is directed to produce  ionizing radiation or other particles. 
    "Technologically Enhanced Naturally Occurring  Radioactive Material (TENORM)" means, as used in Part XVI (12VAC5-481-3460  et seq.) of this chapter, naturally occurring radionuclides whose concentrations  are increased by or as a result of past or present human practices. TENORM does  not include background radiation or the natural radioactivity of rocks or  soils. TENORM does not include uranium or thorium in "source  material" as defined in the AEA and NRC regulations. 
    "Technique factors" means the following conditions  of operation: 
    1. For capacitor energy storage equipment, peak tube potential  in kV and quantity of charge in mAs; 
    2. For field emission equipment rated for pulsed operation,  peak tube potential in kV, and number of X-ray pulses; 
    3. For CT X-ray systems designed for pulsed operation, peak  tube potential in kV, scan time in seconds, and either tube current in Ma,  X-ray pulse width in seconds, and the number of X-ray pulses per scan, or the  product of tube current, X-ray pulse width, and the number of X-ray pulses in  mAs; 
    4. For CT X-ray systems not designed for pulsed operation,  peak tube potential in kV, and either tube current in Ma and scan time in  seconds, or the product of tube current and exposure time in mAs and the scan  time when the scan time and exposure time are equivalent; and 
    5. For all other equipment, peak tube potential in kV, and  either tube current in Ma and exposure time in seconds, or the product of tube  current and exposure time in mAs. 
    "Teletherapy physicist" means an individual  identified as a qualified teletherapy physicist on an agency license. 
    "Teletherapy" means therapeutic irradiation in  which the source of radiation is at a distance from the body. 
    "Temporary job site" means any location where  industrial radiography, wireline service, well-logging, portable gauge or XRF  use is performed and where licensed material may be stored other than those  location(s) of use authorized on the license. 
    "Tenth-value layer (TVL)" means the thickness of a  specified material that attenuates X-radiation or gamma radiation to an extent  such that the air kerma rate, exposure rate, or absorbed dose rate is reduced  to one-tenth of the value measured without the material at the same point. 
    "Termination of irradiation" means the stopping of  irradiation in a fashion that will not permit continuance of irradiation  without the resetting of operating conditions at the control panel. 
    "Test" means the process of verifying compliance with  an applicable regulation. 
    "Therapeutic radiation machine" means X-ray or  electron-producing equipment designed and used for external beam radiation  therapy. 
    "These regulations" mean all parts of these  regulations. 
    "Tight-fitting facepiece" means a respiratory inlet  covering that forms a complete seal with the face.
    "Tomogram" means the depiction of the X-ray  attenuation properties of a section through the body. 
    "Tomographic plane" means that geometric plane  which is identified as corresponding to the output tomogram. 
    "Tomographic section" means the volume of an object  whose X-ray attenuation properties are imaged in a tomogram. 
    "Total effective dose equivalent" (TEDE) means the  sum of the effective dose equivalent for external exposures and the committed  effective dose equivalent for internal exposures. 
    "Total organ dose equivalent" (TODE) means the sum  of the deep dose equivalent and the committed dose equivalent to the organ  receiving the highest dose as described in 12VAC5-481-1040. 
    "Traceable to a National Standard" (See  "Instrument traceability" or "Source traceability"). 
    "Transfer" means, as used in Part XVI  (12VAC5-481-3460 et seq.) of this chapter, the physical relocation of NORM  containing materials not directly associated with commercial distribution  within a business's operation or between general or specific licensees. This  term does not include a change in legal title to NORM containing materials that  does not involve physical movement of those materials. 
    "Transport container" means a package that is  designed to provide radiation safety and security when sealed sources are  transported and which meets all applicable requirements of the United States  Department of Transportation. 
    "Transport index (TI)" means the dimensionless  number, rounded up to the next tenth, placed on the label of a package to  designate the degree of control to be exercised by the carrier during  transportation. The transport index is the number determined by multiplying the  maximum radiation level in millisievert (mSv) per hour at one meter (3.3 feet)  from the external surface of the package by 100 (equivalent to the maximum  radiation level in millirem per hour at one meter (3.3 ft)). 
    "Treatment site" means the correct anatomical  description of the area intended to receive a radiation dose, as described in a  written directive.
    "Tritium neutron generator target source" means a  tritium source used within a neutron generator tube to produce neutrons for use  in well-logging applications.
    "Tube" means an X-ray tube, unless otherwise  specified. 
    "Tube housing assembly" means the tube housing with  tube installed. It includes high-voltage and/or filament transformers and other  appropriate elements when such are contained within the tube housing. 
    "Tube rating chart" means the set of curves which  specify the rated limits of operation of the tube in terms of the technique  factors. 
    "Type A quantity" means a quantity of radioactive  material, the aggregate radioactivity of which does not exceed A1  for special form radioactive material or A2 for normal form  radioactive material, where A1 and A2 are given in Table  A-1 of 12VAC5-481-3770 or may be determined by procedures described in Table  A-1 of 12VAC5-481-3770. 
    "Type B quantity" means a quantity of radioactive  material greater than a Type A quantity. 
    "Underwater irradiator" means an irradiator in  which the sources always remain shielded under water and humans do not have  access to the sealed sources or the space subject to irradiation without  entering the pool. 
    "Underwater radiography" means radiographic  operations performed when the radiographic exposure device or radiation machine  and/or related equipment are beneath the surface of the water. 
    "Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest"  or "uniform manifest" means the combination of NRC Forms 540  and 541, and, if necessary, 542, and their respective continuation sheets as  needed, or equivalent.
    "Unirradiated uranium" means uranium containing not  more than 2 x 103 Bq of plutonium per gram of uranium-235, not more  than 9 x 106 Bq of fission products per gram of uranium-235, and not  more than 5 x 10-3 g of uranium-236 per gram of uranium-235.
    "Unrefined and unprocessed ore" means ore in its  natural form prior to any processing, such as grinding, roasting,  beneficiating, or refining. 
    "Unrestricted area" means an area, access to which  is neither limited nor controlled by the licensee or registrant. For purposes  of these regulations, "uncontrolled area" is an equivalent term. 
    "Uranium—natural, depleted, enriched" 
    1. "Natural uranium" means uranium with the  naturally occurring distribution of uranium isotopes, which is approximately  0.711 weight percent uranium-235, and the remainder by weight essentially  uranium-238. 
    2. "Depleted uranium" means uranium containing less  uranium-235 than the naturally occurring distribution of uranium isotopes. 
    3. "Enriched uranium" means uranium containing more  uranium-235 than the naturally occurring distribution of uranium isotopes. 
    "Uranium sinker bar" means a weight containing  depleted uranium used to pull a logging tool down toward the bottom of a well. 
    "Useful beam" means the radiation emanating from  the tube housing port or the radiation head and passing through the aperture of  the beam limiting device when the exposure controls are in a mode to cause the  system to produce radiation. 
    "User seal check (fit check)" means an action  conducted by the respirator user to determine if the respirator is properly  seated to the face. Examples include negative pressure check, positive pressure  check, irritant smoke check, or isoamyl acetate check.
    "Variable-aperture beam-limiting device" means a  beam-limiting device which has capacity for stepless adjustment of the X-ray  field size at a given SID. 
    "Very high radiation area" means an area,  accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels from radiation sources  external to the body could result in an individual receiving an absorbed dose  in excess of five Gy (500 rad) in one hour at one meter from a source of  radiation or one meter from any surface that the radiation penetrates. 
    "Virtual source" means a point from which radiation  appears to originate. 
    "Visible area" means that portion of the input  surface of the image receptor over which incident X-ray photons are producing a  visible image. 
    "Visiting authorized user" means an authorized user  who is not identified on the license of the licensee being visited. 
    "Waste" means those low-level radioactive wastes  containing source, special nuclear, or byproduct material that are acceptable  for disposal in a land disposal facility. For the purposes of this definition,  low-level radioactive waste means radioactive waste not classified as  high-level radioactive waste, transuranic waste, spent nuclear fuel, or  byproduct material as defined in subdivisions 2, 3, and 4 of the definition of  byproduct material. 
    "Waste collector" means an entity, operating  under a specific license, whose principal purpose is to collect and consolidate  waste generated by others, and to transfer this waste, without processing or  repackaging the collected waste, to another licensed waste collector, licensed  waste processor, or licensed land disposal facility.
    "Waste description" means the physical, chemical  and radiological description of a low-level radioactive waste as called for on  NRC Form 541.
    "Waste generator" means an entity,  operating under a license, who (i) possesses any material or component that  contains radioactivity or is radioactively contaminated for which the licensee  foresees no further use, and (ii) transfers this material or component to a  licensed land disposal facility or to a licensed waste collector or processor  for handling or treatment prior to disposal. A licensee performing processing  or decontamination services may be a "waste generator" if the  transfer of low-level radioactive waste from its facility is defined as  "residual waste."
    "Waste handling licensees" mean persons licensed to  receive and store radioactive wastes prior to disposal and/or persons licensed  to dispose of radioactive waste. 
    "Waste processor" means an entity,  operating under a specific license, whose principal purpose is to process,  repackage, or otherwise treat low-level radioactive material or waste generated  by others prior to eventual transfer of waste to a licensed low-level radioactive  waste land disposal facility.
    "Waste type" means a waste within a  disposal container having a unique physical description (i.e., a specific waste  descriptor code or description; or a waste sorbed on or solidified in a  specifically defined media).
    "Wedge filter" means a filter that effects  continuous change in transmission over all or a part of the useful beam. 
    "Week" means seven consecutive days starting on  Sunday. 
    "Weighting factor (wT)" for an organ or  tissue (T) means the proportion of the risk of stochastic effects resulting  from irradiation of that organ or tissue to the total risk of stochastic  effects when the whole body is irradiated uniformly. For calculating the  effective dose equivalent, the values of wT are: 
           |   | Organ Dose Weighting Factors |   | 
       |   | Organ or Tissue | wT |   | 
       |   | Gonads | 0.25 |   | 
       |   | Breast | 0.15 |   | 
       |   | Red bone marrow | 0.12 |   | 
       |   | Lung | 0.12 |   | 
       |   | Thyroid | 0.03 |   | 
       |   | Bone surfaces | 0.03 |   | 
       |   | Remainder  | 0.30a/ |   | 
       |   | Whole Body | 1.00b/ |   | 
       |   | a/0.30 results from 0.06 for each of five    "remainder" organs, excluding the skin and the lens of the eye,    that receive the highest doses.  | 
       |   | b/For the purpose of weighting the external whole    body dose for adding it to the internal dose, a single weighting factor, wT    = 1.0, has been specified. The use of other weighting factors for external    exposure will be approved on a case-by-case basis until such time as specific    guidance is issued.  | 
  
    "Well-bore" means a drilled hole in which wireline  service operations or subsurface tracer studies are performed. 
    "Well-logging" means all operations involving the  lowering and raising of measuring devices or tools that may contain sources of  radiation into well-bores or cavities for the purpose of obtaining information  about the well or adjacent formations. 
    "Whole body" means, for purposes of external  exposure, head, trunk including male gonads, arms above the elbow, or legs  above the knee. 
    "Wireline" means a cable containing one or more  electrical conductors that is used to lower and raise logging tools in the  well-bore. 
    "Wireline service operation" means any evaluation  or mechanical service that is performed in the well-bore using devices on a  wireline. 
    "Worker" means an individual engaged in work under  a license or registration issued by the agency and controlled by a licensee or  registrant but does not include the licensee or registrant. 
    "Working level (WL)" means any combination of  short-lived radon daughters in one liter of air that will result in the  ultimate emission of 1.3E+5 MeV of potential alpha particle energy. The  short-lived radon daughters of radon-222 are polonium-218, lead-214,  bismuth-214, and polonium-214; and those of radon-220 are polonium-216,  lead-212, bismuth-212, and polonium-212. 
    "Working level month" (WLM) means an exposure to  one working level for 170 hours. Two thousand working hours per year divided by  12 months per year is approximately equal to 170 hours per month. 
    "Written directive" means an order in writing for a  specific patient, dated and signed by an authorized user prior to the  administration of a radiopharmaceutical or radiation, except as specified in  subdivision 6 below, containing the following information: 
    1. For any administration of quantities greater than 1.11  megabecquerels (30 mCi) of sodium iodide I-125 or I-131: the radionuclide, and  dosage; or 
    2. For a therapeutic administration of a radiopharmaceutical  other than sodium iodide I-125 or I-131: the radiopharmaceutical, dosage, and  route of administration; or 
    3. For gamma stereotactic radiosurgery: target coordinates,  collimator size, plug pattern, and total dose; or 
    4. For teletherapy: the total dose, dose per fraction,  treatment site, and overall treatment period; or 
    5. For high-dose-rate remote afterloading brachytherapy: the  radionuclide, treatment site, and total dose; or 
    6. For all other brachytherapy, 
    a. Prior to implantation: the radionuclide, number of sources,  and source strengths; and 
    b. After implantation but prior to completion of the  procedure: the radionuclide, treatment site, and total source strength and  exposure time (or, equivalently, the total dose). 
    "X-ray exposure control" means a device, switch,  button or other similar means by which an operator initiates and/or terminates  the radiation exposure. The X-ray exposure control may include such associated  equipment as timers and back-up timers. 
    "X-ray equipment" means an X-ray system, subsystem,  or component thereof. Types of X-ray equipment are as follows: 
    1. "Mobile X-ray equipment" means X-ray equipment  mounted on a permanent base with wheels and/or casters for moving while  completely assembled. 
    2. "Portable X-ray equipment" means X-ray equipment  designed to be hand-carried. 
    3. "Stationary X-ray equipment" means X-ray  equipment that is installed in a fixed location. 
    "X-ray field" means that area of the intersection  of the useful beam and any one of the sets of planes parallel to and including  the plane of the image receptor, whose perimeter is the locus of points at  which the exposure rate is one-fourth of the maximum in the intersection. 
    "X-ray high-voltage generator" means a device which  transforms electrical energy from the potential supplied by the X-ray control  to the tube operating potential. The device may also include means for  transforming alternating current to direct current, filament transformers for  the X-ray tube(s), high-voltage switches, electrical protective devices, and  other appropriate elements. 
    "X-ray system" means an assemblage of components  for the controlled production of X-rays. It includes minimally an X-ray  high-voltage generator, an X-ray control, a tube housing assembly, a  beam-limiting device, and the necessary supporting structures. Additional components  that function with the system are considered integral parts of the system. 
    "X-ray table" means a patient support device with  its patient support structure (tabletop) interposed between the patient and the  image receptor during radiography and/or fluoroscopy. This includes, but is not  limited to, any stretcher equipped with a radiolucent panel and any table  equipped with a cassette tray (or bucky), cassette tunnel, image intensifier,  or spot-film device beneath the tabletop. 
    "X-ray tube" means any electron tube that is  designed for the conversion of electrical energy into X-ray energy. 
    "Year" means the period of time beginning in  January used to determine compliance with the provisions of these regulations.  The licensee or registrant may change the starting date of the year used to  determine compliance by the licensee or registrant provided that the change is  made at the beginning of the year. If a licensee or registrant changes in a  year, the licensee or registrant shall assure that no day is omitted or  duplicated in consecutive years. 
    Article 2 
  Exemptions from the Regulatory Requirements 
    12VAC5-481-390. Source material. 
    The following regulations, Carriers (10 CFR 40.12 (a))  and Unimportant quantities of source material (10 CFR 40.13) are applicable in  the Commonwealth of Virginia. 
    12VAC5-481-400. Radioactive material other than source  material.
    A. Exempt concentrations. The following regulation, Exempt  concentrations (10 CFR 30.14) is applicable in the Commonwealth of Virginia and  include the regulation of natural occurring and accelerator produced  radioactive materials (NARM). 
    B. Exempt quantities. The following regulation, Exempt  quantities (10 CFR 30.18) is applicable in the Commonwealth of Virginia and  include the regulation of NARM. The exemption stated in paragraph (b) of 10 CFR  30.18 does not apply for radium-226. 
    C. Exempt items. The following regulation, Certain items  containing byproduct material (10 CFR 30.15) is applicable in the Commonwealth  of Virginia and include the regulation of NARM. The following item is  specifically included: 37 kBq (1μCi) of radium-226 per timepiece in timepieces  acquired prior to September 1, 1980. 
    D. Self-luminous products containing radioactive material.  The following regulation, Self-luminous products containing tritium,  krypton-85, or promethium-147 (10 CFR 30.19) is applicable in the Commonwealth  of Virginia and includes the regulation of NARM. In addition, any person is  exempt from these regulations to the extent that such person receives,  possesses, uses, transfers, or owns articles containing less than 3.7 kBq (0.1  μCi) of radium-226 that were acquired prior to September 1, 1980. 
    E. Gas and aerosol detectors containing radioactive material.  
    1. The following regulation, Gas and aerosol detectors  containing byproduct material (10CFR 30.20) is applicable in the Commonwealth  of Virginia and include the regulation of NARM. 
    2. Gas and aerosol detectors previously manufactured and  distributed to general licensees in accordance with a specific license issued  by an agreement state shall be considered exempt under subdivision 1 of this  subsection, provided that the device is labeled in accordance with the specific  license authorizing distribution of the generally licensed device, and provided  further that they meet the requirements of 12VAC5-481-480 C. 
    3. Gas and aerosol detectors containing NARM previously manufactured  and distributed in accordance with a specific license issued by a licensing  state shall be considered exempt under subdivision 1 of this subsection,  provided that the device is labeled in accordance with the specific license  authorizing distribution, and provided further that they meet the requirements  of 12VAC5-481-480 C. 
    F. Resins containing Scandium-46 and designed for sand  consolidation in oil wells. 
    The following regulations, Resins containing Scandium-46  and designed for sand consolidation in oil wells (10 CFR 30.16) is applicable  in the Commonwealth of Virginia. 
    G. F. Radioactive drug: Capsules containing  carbon-14 urea for "in-vivo" diagnostic use for humans. The following  regulation, Capsules containing carbon-14 urea for "in-vivo" diagnostic  use for humans (10 CFR 30.21(a), (b) and (d)) is applicable in the  Commonwealth of Virginia.
    H. G. Special nuclear material. The following regulations  regulation, Carriers (10 CFR 70.12) and Department of Defense (10 CFR  70.13) are is applicable in the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    12VAC5-481-450. General requirements for the issuance of  specific licenses. 
    A. A license application will be approved if the agency  determines that: 
    1. The applicant is qualified by reason of training and  experience to use the material in question for the purpose requested in  accordance with these regulations in such a manner as to minimize danger to  public health and safety or property; 
    2. The applicant's proposed equipment, facilities, and  procedures are adequate to minimize danger to public health and safety or  property; 
    3. The issuance of the license will not be inimical to the  health and safety of the public; 
    4. The applicant has described in the application how facility  design and procedures for operation will minimize, to the extent practicable,  contamination of the facility and the environment, facilitate eventual  decommissioning, and minimize, to the extent practicable, the generation of  radioactive waste; and
    5. The applicant satisfies any applicable special requirements  in 12VAC5-481-460, 12VAC5-481-470, 12VAC5-481-480, Part V (12VAC5-481-1170 et  seq.), Part VII (12VAC5-481-1660 et seq.), Part XI (12VAC5-481-2330 et seq.),  Part XII (12VAC5-481-2660 et seq.), Part XIV (12VAC5-481-3140 et seq.) or Part  XVI (12VAC5-281-3460 et seq.) of this chapter. 
    B. Environmental report, commencement of construction. In the  case of an application for a license to receive and possess radioactive  material for commercial waste disposal by land burial, or for the conduct of  any other activity that the agency determines will significantly affect the  quality of the environment, the agency, before commencement of construction of  the plant or facility in which the activity will be conducted, has concluded,  after weighing the environmental, economic, technical and other benefits  against environmental costs and considering available alternatives, that the  action called for is the issuance of the proposed license, with any appropriate  conditions to protect environmental values. Commencement of construction prior  to such conclusion shall be grounds for denial of a license to receive and  possess radioactive material in such plant or facility. As used in this  subsection the term "commencement of construction" means any clearing  of land, excavation, or other substantial action that would adversely affect  the environment of a site. The term does not mean site exploration, necessary  roads for site exploration, borings to determine foundation conditions, or  other preconstruction monitoring or testing to establish background information  related to the suitability of the site or the protection of environmental  values. 
    C. Financial assurance and records for decommissioning.
    1. A person applying for a specific license authorizing the  possession and use of unsealed radioactive material shall submit a  decommissioning funding plan as described in subdivision 6 of this subsection  with the license application for any of the following types of materials:
    a. Unsealed radioactive material with a half-life greater than  120 days and in quantities greater than 105 times the applicable  quantities listed in 12VAC5-481-3750.
    b. Unsealed radioactive material involving a combination of  isotopes with R divided by 105 being greater than one, where R is  defined as the sum of the ratios of the quantity of each isotope to the  applicable value in 12VAC5-481-3750.
    2. A person applying for a specific license authorizing the  possession and use of radioactive material not covered by subdivision 1 of this  subsection with a half-life greater than 120 days and in quantities specified  in subdivision 5 of this subsection shall do either of the following:
    a. Submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in  subdivision 6 of this subsection.
    b. Submit a written certification, signed by the chief  financial officer or other individual designated by management to represent the  licensee, that financial assurance has been provided in the amount prescribed  in subdivision 5 of this subsection using one of the methods described in  subdivision 6 of this subsection and a signed original of the financial  instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of subdivision 7 of this  subsection. The written certification may state that the appropriate assurance  will be obtained after the application has been approved and the license issued  by the agency but before receipt of radioactive material by the applicant. If  the applicant defers execution of the financial instrument until after the  license has been issued, the applicant shall submit to the agency a signed  original of the financial instrument obtained before receipt of licensed  material.
    3. The following are exempt from the requirements of this  subsection:
    a. A state, local or other government agency, except for a  government agency licensed to handle or process radioactive waste.
    b. A person authorized to possess only radioactive materials  with a half-life of 65 days or less.
    c. Other persons exempted by the agency based on a review of  the license application.
    4. Implementation. 
    a. A person who possesses a specific license authorizing the  possession and use of radioactive material issued on or after the effective  date as stated in 12VAC5-481-160 that is of a type described in subdivision 1  of this subsection, shall provide financial assurance for decommissioning under  this section.
    b. A person who possesses a specific license issued before the  effective date as stated in 12VAC5-481-160 shall do one of the following:
    (1) For a license authorizing the use of radioactive material  meeting the criteria of subdivision 1 of this subsection, submit a  decommissioning funding plan as described in subdivision 6 of this subsection  and a certification of financial assurance for at least $1,125,000, under the  criteria in subdivision 5 of this subsection, with any application for license  renewal.
    (2) For a license authorizing the use of radioactive material  meeting the criteria of subdivision 2 of this subsection, submit a  decommissioning funding plan as described in subdivision 6 of this subsection  or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning according to the  criteria of subdivision 5 of this subsection with any application for license  renewal.
    c. The term of the financial assurance shall be from the  issuance or renewal of the license until the agency terminates the license.
    d. A licensee's financial assurance arrangements may be  reviewed annually by the agency to recognize any increases or decreases  resulting from inflation or deflation, changes in engineering plans, activities  performed or any other condition affecting costs for decommissioning to ensure  that sufficient funding is available to cover liability that remains until  license termination.
    5. Required amounts for financial assurance. 
    a. A licensee shall provide the following minimum amounts of financial  assurance for decommissioning, unless otherwise specified by the agency:
    (1) $1,125,000 if the quantity of material is greater than 104  but less than or equal to 105 times the applicable quantities of  12VAC5-481-3750 in unsealed form. For a combination of isotopes, R divided by  104 is greater than one but R divided by 105 is less than  or equal to one.
    (2) $225,000 if the quantity of material is greater than 103  but less than or equal to 104 times the applicable quantities of  12VAC5-481-3750 in unsealed form. For a combination of isotopes, R divided by  103 is greater than one but R divided by 104 is less than  or equal to one.
    (3) $113,000 if the quantity of material is greater than 1010  times the applicable quantities of 12VAC5-481-3750 in sealed sources or plated  foils. For a combination of isotopes, R divided by 1010 is greater  than one.
    b. The agency may eliminate, reduce or raise the required  amount of financial assurance under subdivision 5 a of this subsection for an  individual applicant or licensee based on the cost estimate for decommissioning  included in the decommissioning funding plan required under subdivision 6 a of  this subsection.
    6. Decommissioning funding plan. 
    a. A decommissioning funding plan shall include all the  following information:
    (1) A cost estimate for decommissioning that considers all of  the following:
    (a) Probable extent of contamination through the use or  possession of radioactive material at the facility or site and the projected  cost of removal of the contamination to a level specified by the agency. The  evaluation shall encompass probable contaminating events associated with the  licensee's or applicant's operation and shall be based on factors such as  quantity, half-life, radiation hazard, toxicity and chemical and physical  forms.
    (b) The extent of possible offsite property damage caused by  operation of the facility or site.
    (c) The cost of removal and disposal of radiation sources that  are or would be generated, stored, processed or otherwise present at the  licensed facility or site.
    (d) The costs involved in reclaiming the property on which the  facility or site is located and all other properties contaminated by  radioactive material authorized under the license.
    (2) A description of the method of assuring funds for decommissioning  according to subdivision 7 of this subsection.
    (3) A description of the method for adjusting cost estimates  and associated funding levels periodically over the life of the facility.
    b. The decommissioning funding plan shall also contain the licensee's  certification that financial assurance has been provided in the amount of the  cost estimate for decommissioning and a signed original of the financial  instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of subdivision 7 of this  subsection.
    7. A licensee may use any of the following methods to provide  financial assurance for decommissioning:
    a. Prepayment. Prepayment is the deposit prior to operation  into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's  administrative control of cash or liquid assets in an amount sufficient to pay  decommissioning costs. Prepayment may be in the form of a trust, escrow  account, government fund, certificate of deposit or deposit of government  securities. 
    b. Surety method, insurance or other guarantee. Payment of  future decommissioning costs shall be guaranteed by a surety method, insurance  or other guarantee. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, letter  of credit or line of credit. Self insurance, or any method that essentially constitutes  self-insurance, may not be used as a method of providing financial assurance.  Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for  decommissioning must meet all of the following criteria:
    (1) The surety method or insurance shall be open-ended or, if  written for a specified term, renewed automatically unless 90 days or more  prior to the renewal date, the issuer notifies the agency, the beneficiary and  the licensee of its intention not to renew. The surety method or insurance shall  also provide that the full face amount be paid to the beneficiary automatically  prior to the expiration without proof of forfeiture if the licensee fails to  provide a replacement acceptable to the agency within 30 days after receipt of  notification of cancellation.
    (2) The surety method or insurance shall be payable to a trust  established for decommissioning costs. The agency shall approve the trustee and  the trust.
    (3) The surety method or insurance shall remain in effect  until the agency terminates the license.
    c. External sinking fund. An external sinking fund may be used  in which deposits are made at least annually, coupled with a surety method or  insurance, the value of which may decrease by the amount being accumulated in  the sinking fund. An external sinking fund may be in the form of a trust,  escrow account, government fund, certificate of deposit or deposit of  government securities. The surety or insurance provisions shall meet the  requirements of subdivision 7 b of this subsection.
    d. Statement of intent. A state or local government licensee  exempt under subdivision 3 of this subsection shall submit a written statement  of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning or an amount based on  subdivision 5 of this subsection. The cost estimate shall indicate that funds  for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary.
    8. A licensee shall keep the following records of information  related to decommissioning of a facility in an identified location until the  site is released for unrestricted use:
    a. Records of spills or other unusual occurrences involving  the spread of radioactive contamination in and around the facility, equipment  or site. The records may be limited to instances where contamination remains  after any cleanup procedures or when there is reasonable likelihood that  radioactive contaminants may have spread to inaccessible areas or into porous  materials such as concrete. The records shall include any known information on  identification of involved nuclides, quantities, forms and concentrations.
    b. As-built drawings and modifications of structures and  equipment in restricted areas where radioactive materials are used or stored,  and of locations of possible inaccessible contamination such as buried pipes  that may contain radioactive contaminants. If required drawings are referenced,  each relevant document does not need to be indexed individually. If drawings  are not available, a licensee shall substitute appropriate records of available  information concerning the areas and locations of inaccessible contamination.
    Note: As-built architectural and engineering drawings need to  reflect the final details of the structures and equipment as they were  constructed.
    c. Except for areas containing only sealed sources that have  not leaked or where no contamination remains after a leak, or byproduct  materials with half-lives of less than 65 days, a list containing all the  following:
    (1) All areas currently and formerly designated as restricted  areas.
    (2) All areas outside of restricted areas that require documentation  under subdivision 8 (c) 1 of this subsection.
    (3) All areas outside of restricted areas where current and  previous wastes have been buried as documented under 12VAC5-481-1060.
    (4) All areas outside of restricted areas that contain  radioactive material such that, if the license expired, the licensee would be  required to either decontaminate the area to meet the criteria for  decommissioning in 12VAC5-481-510 or apply for approval for disposal under  12VAC5-481-920.
    d. Records of the cost estimate performed for the  decommissioning funding plan or the amount certified for decommissioning and  records of the funding method used for assuring funds.
    9. A licensee shall keep the records in subdivision 8 of this  subsection until the site is decommissioned and approved by the agency for  unrestricted use.
    10. Prior to a licensed activity being transferred to another  licensee under 12VAC5-481-500 B, the original licensee shall transfer all  records under subdivision 8 of this subsection to the new licensee. The new  licensee shall be responsible for maintaining the records until their license  is terminated by the agency.
    11. A person applying for a specific license authorizing  the possession and use of more than 100 mCi of source material in a readily  dispersible form shall submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in  subdivision 6 of this subsection.
    12. A person applying for a specific license authorizing  the possession and use of quantities of source material greater than 10 mCi but  less than or equal to 100 mCi in a readily dispersible form shall either:
    a. Submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in  subdivision 6 of this subsection; or
    b. Submit a certification that financial assurance for  decommissioning has been provided in the amount of $225,000 using one of the  methods described in subdivision 7 of this subsection.
    12VAC5-481-480. Special requirements for a specific license to  manufacture, assemble, repair, or distribute commodities, products, or devices  that contain radioactive material. 
    A. Reserved.
    B. Licensing the distribution of radioactive material in  exempt quantities. (Authority to transfer possession or control by the  manufacturer, processor, or producer of any equipment, device, commodity, or  other product containing radioactive material whose subsequent possession, use,  transfer, and disposal by all other persons are exempted from regulatory  requirements may be obtained only from the Nuclear Regulatory Commission,  Washington, D.C. 20555-0001.) 
    C. Licensing the manufacture or initial transfer of devices  to persons generally licensed under 12VAC5-481-430 B. 
    1. An application for a specific license to manufacture or  initially transfer devices containing radioactive material, excluding special  nuclear material, to persons generally licensed under 12VAC5-481-430 B or  equivalent regulations of the NRC, or another agreement state will be approved  if: 
    a. The applicant satisfies the general requirements of  12VAC5-481-450; 
    b. The applicant submits sufficient information relating to  the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control, labels, proposed  uses, installation, servicing, leak testing, operating and safety instructions,  and potential hazards of the device to provide reasonable assurance that: 
    (1) The device can be safely operated by persons not having  training in radiological protection, 
    (2) Under ordinary conditions of handling, storage, and use of  the device, the radioactive material contained in the device will not be  released or inadvertently removed from the device, and it is unlikely that any  person will receive in any period of one calendar quarter a dose in excess of  10% of the limits specified in 12VAC5-481-640, and 
    (3) Under accident conditions such as fire and explosion associated  with handling, storage, and use of the device, it is unlikely that any person  would receive an external radiation dose or dose commitment in excess of the  dose to the appropriate organ as specified in 12VAC5-481-3580, Column IV; and 
    c. Each device bears a durable, legible, clearly visible label  or labels approved by the agency, which contain in a clearly identified and  separate statement: 
    (1) Instructions and precautions necessary to assure safe  installation, operation, and servicing of the device; documents such as  operating and service manuals may be identified in the label and used to  provide this information; 
    (2) The requirement, or lack of requirement, for leak testing,  or for testing any "on-off" mechanism and indicator, including the  maximum time interval for such testing, and the identification of radioactive  material by isotope, quantity of radioactivity, and date of determination of  the quantity, and 
    (3) The information called for in one of the following  statements, as appropriate, in the same or substantially similar form: 
    (a) The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this device,  Model __________, Serial No. __________, are subject to a general license or  the equivalent and the regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or a state  with which the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an agreement for  the exercise of regulatory authority. This label shall be maintained on the  device in a legible condition. Removal of this label is prohibited. 
    CAUTION—RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL 
    ____________________Name of manufacturer or initial transferor  
    (b) The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this device,  Model __________, Serial No. ___________, are subject to a general license or  the equivalent, and the regulations of a licensing state. This label shall be  maintained on the device in a legible condition. Removal of this label is  prohibited. (The model, serial number, and name of the manufacturer or  distributor may be omitted from this label provided the information is  elsewhere specified in labeling affixed to the device.) 
    CAUTION—RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL 
    ____________Name of manufacturer or initial transferor
    2. In the event the applicant desires that the device be  required to be tested at intervals longer than six months, either for proper  operation of the "on-off" mechanism and indicator, if any, or for  leakage of radioactive material or for both, the applicant shall include in the  application sufficient information to demonstrate that such longer interval is  justified by performance characteristics of the device or similar devices and  by design features that have a significant bearing on the probability or  consequences of leakage of radioactive material from the device or failure of  the "on-off" mechanism and indicator. In determining the acceptable  interval for the test for leakage of radioactive material, the agency will  consider information that includes, but is not limited to: 
    a. Primary containment or source capsule; 
    b. Protection of primary containment; 
    c. Method of sealing containment; 
    d. Containment construction materials; 
    e. Form of contained radioactive material; 
    f. Maximum temperature withstood during prototype tests; 
    g. Maximum pressure withstood during prototype tests; 
    h. Maximum quantity of contained radioactive material; 
    i. Radiotoxicity of contained radioactive material; and 
    j. Operating experience with identical devices or similarly  designed and constructed devices. 
    3. In the event the applicant desires that the general  licensee under 12VAC5-481-430 B, or under equivalent regulations of the NRC, or  another agreement state, be authorized to install the device, collect the  sample to be analyzed by a specific licensee for leakage of radioactive  material, service the device, test the "on-off" mechanism and  indicator, or remove the device from installation, the applicant shall include  in the application written instructions to be followed by the general licensee,  estimated calendar quarter doses associated with such activity or activities,  and basis for such estimates. The submitted information shall demonstrate that  performance of such activity or activities by an individual untrained in  radiological protection, in addition to other handling, storage, and use of  devices under the general license, is unlikely to cause that individual to  receive a calendar quarter dose in excess of 10% of the limits specified in  12VAC5-481-640. 
    4. Each person licensed under this subsection to distribute  devices to generally licensed persons shall: 
    a. Furnish a copy of the general license contained in  12VAC5-481-430 B to each person to whom he directly or through an intermediate  person transfers radioactive material in a device for use pursuant to the  general license contained in 12VAC5-481-430 B; 
    b. Furnish a copy of the general license contained in the  NRC's, or another agreement state's, regulation equivalent to 12VAC5-481-430 B,  or alternatively, furnish a copy of the general license contained in  12VAC5-481-430 B to each person to whom he directly or through an intermediate  person transfers radioactive material in a device for use pursuant to the  general license of the NRC, or another agreement state. If a copy of the  general license in 12VAC5-481-430 B is furnished to such a person, it shall be  accompanied by a note explaining that the use of the device is regulated by the  NRC, or another agreement state, under requirements substantially the same as  those in 12VAC5-481-430 B; 
    c. Report to the agency all transfers of such devices to  persons for use under the general license in 12VAC5-481-430 B. Such report  shall identify each general licensee by name and address, an individual by name  and/or position who may constitute a point of contact between the agency and  the general licensee, the type and model number of device transferred, and the  quantity and type of radioactive material contained in the device. If one or  more intermediate persons will temporarily possess the device at the intended place  of use prior to its possession by the user, the report shall include  identification of each intermediate person by name, address, contact, and  relationship to the intended user. If no transfers have been made to persons  generally licensed under 12VAC5-481-430 B during the reporting period, the  report shall so indicate. The report shall cover each calendar quarter and  shall be filed within 30 days thereafter; 
    d. Furnish reports to other agencies. 
    (1) Report to the NRC all transfers of such devices to persons  for use under the NRC's general license in 10 CFR 31.5. 
    (2) Report to the responsible state agency all transfers of  devices manufactured and distributed pursuant to this subsection for use under  a general license in that state's regulations equivalent to 12VAC5-481-430 B. 
    (3) Such reports shall identify each general licensee by name  and address, an individual by name and/or position who may constitute a point  of contact between the agency and the general licensee, the type and model of  the device transferred, and the quantity and type of radioactive material  contained in the device. If one or more intermediate persons will temporarily  possess the device at the intended place of use prior to its possession by the  user, the report shall include identification of each intermediate person by  name, address, contact, and relationship to the intended user. The report shall  be submitted within 30 days after the end of each calendar quarter in which  such a device is transferred to the generally licensed person. 
    (4) If no transfers have been made to NRC general licensees  during the reporting period, this information shall be reported to the NRC. 
    (5) If no transfers have been made to general licensees within  a particular state during the reporting period, this information shall be  reported to the responsible state agency upon request of that agency; and 
    e. Keep records showing the name, address, and the point of  contact for each general licensee to whom he directly or through an  intermediate person transfers radioactive material in devices for use pursuant  to the general license provided in 12VAC5-481-430 B, or equivalent regulations  of the NRC or another agreement state. The records shall show the date of each  transfer, the radionuclide and the quantity of radioactivity in each device  transferred, the identity of any intermediate person, and compliance with the  report requirements of subdivision 4 of this subsection. 
    f. If a notification of bankruptcy has been made under  12VAC5-481-500 E or the license is to be terminated, each person licensed under  this section shall provide, upon request, to the agency, the NRC and to any  appropriate agreement state, records of final disposition required under  subdivision 4 e of this subsection.
    g. The licensee shall maintain all information concerning  transfers and receipts of devices that supports the reports required by this  section. Records required by this section must be maintained for a period of  three years following the date of the recorded event.
    D. Special requirements for the manufacture, initially  transfer, assembly, or repair of luminous safety devices for use in aircraft.  An application for a specific license to manufacture, assemble, or repair  luminous safety devices containing tritium or promethium-147 for use in  aircraft, for distribution to persons generally licensed under 12VAC5-481-430 D  will be approved if: 
    1. The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified  in 12VAC5-481-450; and 
    2. The applicant satisfies the requirements of 10 CFR 32.53,  32.54, 32.55, 32.56, 32.101 and 32.110, or their equivalent. 
    E. Special requirements for license to manufacture or  initially transfer calibration sources containing americium-241, plutonium or  radium-226 for distribution to persons generally licensed under 12VAC5-481-430  F. An application for a specific license to manufacture calibration and  reference sources containing americium-241, plutonium or radium-226 to persons  generally licensed under 12VAC5-481-430 F will be approved if: 
    1. The applicant satisfies the general requirement of  12VAC5-481-450; and 
    2. The applicant satisfies the requirements of 10 CFR 32.57,  32.58, 32.59, 32.102 and 10 CFR 70.39 or their equivalent. 
    F. Reserved. 
    G. Manufacture and distribution of radioactive material for  certain in vitro clinical or laboratory testing under general license. An  application for a specific license to manufacture or distribute radioactive  material for use under the general license of 12VAC5-481-430 G will be approved  if: 
    1. The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified  in 12VAC5-481-450. 
    2. The radioactive material is to be prepared for distribution  in prepackaged units of: 
    a. Carbon-14 in units not exceeding 370 kBq (10 μCi)  each. 
    b. Cobalt-57 in units not exceeding 370 kBq (10 μCi)  each. 
    c. Hydrogen-3 (tritium) in units not exceeding 1.85 MBq (50  μCi) each. 
    d. Iodine-125 in units not exceeding 370 kBq (10 μCi)  each. 
    e. Mock iodine-125 in units not exceeding 1.85 kBq (0.05  μCi) of iodine-129 and 185 Bq (0.005 μCi) of americium-241 each. 
    f. Iodine-131 in units not exceeding 370 kBq (10 μCi)  each. 
    g. Iron-59 in units not exceeding 740 kBq (20 μCi) each. 
    h. Selenium-75 in units not exceeding 370 kBq (10 μCi)  each. 
    3. Each prepackaged unit bears a durable, clearly visible  label: 
    a. Identifying the radioactive contents as to chemical form  and radionuclide, and indicating that the amount of radioactivity does not  exceed 370 kBq (10 μCi) of iodine-125, iodine-131, carbon-14, cobalt-57,  or selenium-75; 1.85 MBq (50 μCi) of hydrogen-3 (tritium); 740 kBq (20  μCi) of iron-59; or mock iodine-125 in units not exceeding 1.85 kBq (0.05  μCi) of iodine-129 and 185 Bq (0.005 μCi) of americium-241 each; and 
    b. Displaying the radiation caution symbol described in  12VAC5-481-850 and the words, "CAUTION, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL," and  "Not for Internal or External Use in Humans or Animals." 
    4. One of the following statements, as appropriate, or a  substantially similar statement that contains the information called for in one  of the following statements, appears on a label affixed to each prepackaged  unit or appears in a leaflet or brochure that accompanies the package: 
    a. This radioactive material may be received, acquired,  possessed, and used only by physicians, veterinarians, clinical laboratories or  hospitals and only for in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving  internal or external administration of the material, or the radiation  therefrom, to human beings or animals. Its receipt, acquisition, possession,  use, and transfer are subject to the regulations and a general license of the  Nuclear Regulatory Commission or of a state with which the Nuclear Regulatory  Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory  authority. 
    ____________________ Name of manufacturer 
    b. This radioactive material may be received, acquired,  possessed, and used only by physicians, veterinarians, clinical laboratories or  hospitals and only for in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving  internal or external administration of the material, or the radiation  therefrom, to human beings or animals. Its receipt, acquisition, possession,  use, and transfer are subject to the regulations and a general license of a  licensing state. 
    ____________________ Name of manufacturer 
    5. The label affixed to the unit, or the leaflet or brochure  which accompanies the package, contains adequate information as to the  precautions to be observed in handling and storing such radioactive material.  In the case of the Mock Iodine-125 reference or calibration source, the information  accompanying the source must also contain directions to the licensee regarding  the waste disposal requirements set out in 12VAC5-481-910. 
    H. Licensing the manufacture and distribution of ice  detection devices. An application for a specific license to manufacture and  distribute ice detection devices to persons generally licensed under  12VAC5-481-430 H will be approved if: 
    1. The applicant satisfies the general requirements of  12VAC5-481-450; and 
    2. The criteria of 10 CFR 32.61, 32.62, 32.103 and 32.110 are  met. 
    I. Manufacture, preparation, or transfer for commercial  distribution of drugs containing radioactive material for medical use under  Part VII (12VAC5-481-1660 et seq.).
    1. An application for a specific license to manufacture,  prepare, or transfer for commercial distribution drugs containing radioactive  material for use by persons authorized pursuant to Part VII (12VAC5-481-1660 et  seq.) will be approved if:
    a. The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified  in 12VAC5-481-450;
    b. The applicant submits evidence that the applicant is at  least one of the following:
    (1) Registered or licensed with the U.S. Food and Drug  Administration (FDA) as a drug manufacturer the owner or operator of  a drug establishment that engages in the manufacture, preparation, propagation,  compounding, or processing of a drug under 21 CFR 207.20(a);
    (2) Registered or licensed with a state agency as a drug  manufacturer;
    (3) Licensed as a pharmacy by the Virginia Board of Pharmacy; 
    (4) Operating as a nuclear pharmacy within a federal medical  institution; or
    (5) A PET drug production facility registered with a state  agency.
    c. The applicant submits information on the radionuclide; the  chemical and physical form; the maximum activity per vial, syringe, generator,  or other container of the radioactive drug; and the shielding provided by the  packaging to show it is appropriate for the safe handling and storage of the  radioactive drugs by medical use licensees; and
    d. The applicant satisfies the following labeling  requirements:
    (1) A label is affixed to each transport radiation shield,  whether it is constructed of lead, glass, plastic, or other material, of a  radioactive drug to be transferred for commercial distribution. The label must  include the radiation symbol and the words "CAUTION, RADIOACTIVE  MATERIAL" or "DANGER, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL"; the name of the  radioactive drug or its abbreviation; and the quantity of radioactivity at a  specified date and time. For radioactive drugs with a half life greater than 100  days, the time may be omitted.
    (2) A label is affixed to each syringe, vial, or other  container used to hold a radioactive drug to be transferred for commercial  distribution. The label must include the radiation symbol and the words  "CAUTION, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL" or "DANGER, RADIOACTIVE  MATERIAL" and an identifier that ensures that the syringe, vial, or other  container can be correlated with the information on the transport radiation  shield label.
    2. A licensee authorized to manufacture, prepare or transfer  for commercial distribution radioactive drugs shall ensure that any individual  preparing the drugs is one of the following:
    a. An authorized nuclear pharmacist (ANP) as defined in  12VAC5-481-10;
    b. An individual that meets the requirements specified in  12VAC5-481-1770 and 12VAC5-481-1790, and the licensee has received an approved  license amendment identifying this individual as an ANP; 
    c. A pharmacist, as defined in 12VAC5-481-10, designated as an  ANP if:
    (1) The individual was a nuclear pharmacist preparing only  radioactive drugs containing accelerator-produced radioactive material, and
    (2) The individual practiced at a pharmacy at a government  agency or federally recognized Indian Tribe before November 30, 2007, or at all  other pharmacies before August 8, 2009, or an earlier date as noticed by the  NRC; or
    d. An individual under the supervision of an ANP as specified  in 12VAC5-481-1710.
    3. Shall provide to the agency no later than 30 days after the  date that the licensee allows, under subdivision 2 a or c in this subsection,  the individual to work as an ANP:
    a. The individual's certification by a specialty board whose  certification process has been recognized by the NRC with the written  attestation signed by a preceptor as required by 12VAC5-481-1770;
    b. An NRC or another agreement state license; 
    c. NRC master materials licensee permit; 
    d. The permit issued by a licensee or NRC master materials  permittee of broad scope or the authorization from a commercial nuclear  pharmacy authorized to list its own authorized nuclear pharmacist; or
    e. Documentation that only accelerator-produced radioactive  materials were used in the practice of nuclear pharmacy at a government agency  or federally recognized Indian Tribe before November 30, 2007, or at all other  locations of use before August 8, 2009, or an earlier date as noticed by the  NRC; and
    f. The Virginia Board of Pharmacy's license.
    4. A licensee shall possess and use instrumentation to measure  the radioactivity of radioactive drugs. The licensee shall have procedures for  use of the instrumentation. The licensee shall measure, by direct measurement  or by combination of measurements and calculations, the amount of radioactivity  in dosages of alpha, beta, or photon-emitting radioactive drugs prior to transfer  for commercial distribution. In addition, the licensee shall:
    a. Perform tests before initial use, periodically, and  following repair, on each instrument for accuracy, linearity, and geometry  dependence, as appropriate for the use of the instrument; and make adjustments  when necessary; and
    b. Check each instrument for constancy and proper operation at  the beginning of each day of use.
    5. Nothing in this subsection relieves the licensee from  complying with applicable FDA, other federal, and state requirements governing  radioactive drugs.
    6. Each licensee preparing technetium-99m radiopharmaceuticals  from molybdenum-99/technetium-99m generators or rubidium-82 from  strontium-82/ryubidium-82 generators shall test the generator eluates for  molybdenum-99 breakthrough or strontium-82 and strontium-85 contamination in  accordance with 12VAC5-481-1930. The licensee shall record the results of each  test and retain each record for three years after the record is made.
    J. Manufacture and distribution of sources or devices  containing radioactive material for medical use. An application for a specific  license to manufacture and distribute sources and devices containing  radioactive material to persons licensed pursuant to Part VII (12VAC5-481-1660  et seq.) of this chapter for use as a calibration, transmission or  reference source or for the uses listed in 12VAC5-481-2010, 12VAC5-481-2020,  12VAC5-481-2040 and 12VAC5-481-2060 will be approved if: 
    1. The applicant satisfies the general requirements in  12VAC5-481-450; 
    2. The applicant submits sufficient information regarding each  type of source or device pertinent to an evaluation of its radiation safety,  including: 
    a. The radioactive material contained, its chemical and  physical form, and amount, 
    b. Details of design and construction of the source or device,  
    c. Procedures for, and results of, prototype tests to  demonstrate that the source or device will maintain its integrity under  stresses likely to be encountered in normal use and accidents, 
    d. For devices containing radioactive material, the radiation  profile of a prototype device, 
    e. Details of quality control procedures to assure that  production sources and devices meet the standards of the design and prototype  tests, 
    f. Procedures and standards for calibrating sources and  devices, 
    g. Legend and methods for labeling sources and devices as to  their radioactive content, and 
    h. Instructions for handling and storing the source or device  from the radiation safety standpoint; these instructions are to be included on  a durable label attached to the source or device or attached to a permanent  storage container for the source or device provided, that instructions that are  too lengthy for such label may be summarized on the label and printed in detail  on a brochure that is referenced on the label; 
    3. The label affixed to the source or device, or to the  permanent storage container for the source or device, contains information on  the radionuclide, quantity, and date of assay, and a statement that the source  or device is licensed by the agency for distribution to persons licensed  pursuant to 12VAC5-481-1830, 12VAC5-481-2010, 12VAC5-481-2020 and  12VAC5-481-2040 or under equivalent licenses of the NRC, or another agreement  state, provided that such labeling for sources that do not require long term  storage may be on a leaflet or brochure that accompanies the source; 
    4. In the event the applicant desires that the source or  device be required to be tested for leakage of radioactive material at  intervals longer than six months, the applicant shall include sufficient  information to demonstrate that such longer interval is justified by  performance characteristics of the source or device or similar sources or  devices and by design features that have a significant bearing on the  probability or consequences of leakage of radioactive material from the source;  and 
    5. In determining the acceptable interval for test of leakage  of radioactive material, the agency will consider information that includes,  but is not limited to: 
    a. Primary containment or source capsule, 
    b. Protection of primary containment, 
    c. Method of sealing containment, 
    d. Containment construction materials, 
    e. Form of contained radioactive material, 
    f. Maximum temperature withstood during prototype tests, 
    g. Maximum pressure withstood during prototype tests, 
    h. Maximum quantity of contained radioactive material, 
    i. Radiotoxicity of contained radioactive material, and 
    j. Operating experience with identical sources or devices or  similarly designed and constructed sources or devices. 
    K. Requirements for license to manufacture and distribute  industrial products containing depleted uranium for mass-volume applications. 
    1. An application for a specific license to manufacture industrial  products and devices containing depleted uranium for use pursuant to  12VAC5-481-420 C or equivalent regulations of the NRC or another agreement  state will be approved if: 
    a. The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified  in 12VAC5-481-450; 
    b. The applicant submits sufficient information relating to  the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control procedures,  labeling or marking, proposed uses, and potential hazards of the industrial  product or device to provide reasonable assurance that possession, use, or  transfer of the depleted uranium in the product or device is not likely to  cause any individual to receive in any period of one calendar quarter a  radiation dose in excess of 10% of the limits specified in 12VAC5-481-640; and 
    c. The applicant submits sufficient information regarding the  industrial product or device and the presence of depleted uranium for a  mass-volume application in the product or device to provide reasonable  assurance that unique benefits will accrue to the public because of the  usefulness of the product or device. 
    2. In the case of an industrial product or device whose unique  benefits are questionable, the agency will approve an application for a  specific license under this subsection only if the product or device is found  to combine a high degree of utility and low probability of uncontrolled  disposal and dispersal of significant quantities of depleted uranium into the  environment. 
    3. The agency may deny any application for a specific license  under this subsection if the end use(s) of the industrial product or device  cannot be reasonably foreseen. 
    4. Each person licensed pursuant to subdivision 1 of this  subsection shall: 
    a. Maintain the level of quality control required by the  license in the manufacture of the industrial product or device, and in the  installation of the depleted uranium into the product or device; 
    b. Label or mark each unit to: 
    (1) Identify the manufacturer or initial transferor of the  product or device and the number of the license under which the product or  device was manufactured or initially transferred, the fact that the product or  device contains depleted uranium, and the quantity of depleted uranium in each  product or device; and 
    (2) State that the receipt, possession, use, and transfer of  the product or device are subject to a general license or the equivalent and  the regulations of the NRC or another agreement state; 
    c. Assure that the depleted uranium before being installed in  each product or device has been impressed with the following legend clearly  legible through any plating or other covering: "Depleted Uranium"; 
    d. Do the following: 
    (1) Furnish a copy of the general license contained in  12VAC5-481-420 C and a copy of agency form "Certificate - Use of Depleted  Uranium under a General License" to each person to whom depleted uranium  in a product or device for use pursuant to the general license contained in  12VAC5-481-420 C is transferred, or 
    (2) Furnish a copy of the general license contained in the  NRC's or another agreement state's regulation equivalent to 12VAC5-481-420 B  and a copy of the NRC's or another agreement state's certificate, or  alternatively, furnish a copy of the general license contained in  12VAC5-481-420 C and a copy of agency form "Certificate - Use of Depleted  Uranium under a General License" to each person to whom depleted uranium  in a product or device for use pursuant to the general license of the NRC or  another agreement state is transferred, with a note explaining that use of the  product or device is regulated by the NRC or another agreement state under  requirements substantially the same as those in 12VAC5-481-420 C; 
    e. Report to the agency all transfers of industrial products  or devices to persons for use under the general license in 12VAC5-481-420 C.  Such report shall identify each general licensee by name and address, an  individual by name and/or position who may constitute a point of contact  between the agency and the general licensee, the type and model number of  device transferred, and the quantity of depleted uranium contained in the  product or device. The report shall be submitted within 30 days after the end  of each calendar quarter in which such a product or device is transferred to  the generally licensed person. If no transfers have been made to persons  generally licensed under 12VAC5-481-420 C during the reporting period, the  report shall so indicate; 
    f. Do the following: 
    (1) Report to the NRC all transfers of industrial products or  devices to persons for use under the NRC general license in 10 CFR 40.25, 
    (2) For devices transferred to another agreement state, report  to the responsible state agency all transfers of devices manufactured and  distributed pursuant to this subsection for use under a general license in that  state's regulations equivalent to 12VAC5-481-420 C, 
    (3) Such report shall identify each general licensee by name  and address, an individual by name and/or position who may constitute a point  of contact between the agency and the general licensee, the type and model  number of the device transferred, and the quantity of depleted uranium  contained in the product or device. The report shall be submitted within 30 days  after the end of each calendar quarter in which such product or device is  transferred to the generally licensed person, 
    (4) If no transfers have been made to NRC licensees during the  reporting period, this information shall be reported to the NRC, and 
    (5) If no transfers have been made to general licensees within  another agreement state during the reporting period, this information shall be  reported to the responsible state agency upon the request of that agency; and  keep records showing the name, address, and point of contact for each general  licensee to whom he transfers depleted uranium in industrial products or  devices for use pursuant to the general license provided in 12VAC5-481-420 C or  equivalent regulations of the NRC or another agreement state. The records shall  be maintained for a period of two years and shall show the date of each  transfer, the quantity of depleted uranium in each product or device  transferred, and compliance with the report requirements of this section. 
    L. An application for a specific license to manufacture,  or initially transfer for sale or distribution, synthetic plastic resins  containing scandium-46 for use pursuant to 12VAC5-481-400 F will be approved  if: 
    1. The applicant satisfies the general requirements  specified in 12VAC5-481-450 of this chapter;
    2. The product is designed to be used only for  sand-consolidation in oil wells;
    3. The applicant submits the following information:
    a. The general description of the product to be  manufactured or initially transferred.
    b. A description of control procedures to be used to assure  that the concentration of scandium-46 in the final product at the time of  distribution will not exceed 1.4 x 10-3 μCi/ml.
    4. Each container of such product will bear a durable,  legible label approved by the agency, which contains the following information:
    a. The product name;
    b. A statement that the product contains radioactive  scandium and is designed and manufactured only for sand-consolidation in oil  wells;
    c. Instructions necessary for proper use; and
    d. The manufacturer's name.
    M. L. Serialization of nationally tracked  sources. Each licensee who manufactures a nationally tracked source shall  assign a unique serial number to each nationally tracked source. Serial numbers  must be composed only of alpha-numeric characters.
    12VAC5-481-2870. Detection of leaking sources. 
    The following regulation, Detection of leaking sources (10  CFR 36.58) (10 CFR 36.59) is applicable in the Commonwealth of  Virginia. 
    Article 2 
  Prohibition 
    12VAC5-481-3160. Agreement with well owner.
    A. No licensee shall perform wireline service  operations with a sealed source(s) unless, prior to commencement of the  operation, the licensee has a written agreement with the well operator, well  owner, drilling contractor, or land owner that: 
    1. In the event a sealed source is lodged downhole, a  reasonable effort at recovery will be made; 
    2. No person may attempt to recover a sealed source in a  manner which, in the licensee's opinion, could result in its rupture; and
    3. In the event a decision is made to abandon the sealed  source downhole, the requirements of 12VAC5-481-3370 C shall be met;
    4. The radiation monitoring required in 12VAC5-481-3340  will be performed; and
    5. If the environment, any equipment, or personnel are  contaminated with licensed material, they must be decontaminated before release  from the site or release for unrestricted use.
    B. The licensee shall retain a copy of the written  agreement for three years after the completion of the well logging operation.
    12VAC5-481-3710. Requirements for transfers of low-level  radioactive waste intended for disposal at licensed land disposal facilities  and manifests.
    A. Manifest. 
    1. A waste generator, waste collector, or waste processor that  transports, or offers for transportation, low-level radioactive waste intended  for ultimate disposal at a licensed low-level radioactive waste land disposal  facility must prepare a manifest reflecting information requested on applicable  NRC Forms 540 (Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest (Shipping Paper))  and 541 (Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest (Container and Waste  Description)) and, if necessary, on an applicable NRC Form 542 (Uniform  Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest (Manifest Index and Regional Compact  Tabulation)). NRC Forms 540 and 540A must be completed and must physically  accompany the pertinent low-level waste shipment. 
    2. Upon agreement between shipper and consignee, NRC Forms  541, 541A, 542, and 542A may be completed, transmitted, and stored in  electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and  complete records on the respective forms. 
    3. Licensees are not required by the agency, the NRC, or  another agreement state to comply with the manifesting requirements of this  subpart when they ship: 
    a. Low-level radioactive waste for processing and expect its  return, such as for storage under their license, prior to disposal at a  licensed land disposal facility; 
    b. Low-level radioactive waste that is being returned to the  licensee that is the waste generator or generator; or 
    c. Radioactively contaminated material to a waste processor  that becomes the processor's residual waste. 
    4. For guidance in completing the forms required under  subdivision 1 of this subsection, refer to the instructions that accompany the  forms. Copies of manifests required by this subpart may be legible carbon  copies, photocopies, or computer printouts that reproduce the data in the  format of the uniform manifest. 
    5. NRC Forms 540, 540A, 541, 541A, 542, and 542A, and the  accompanying instructions, in hard copy, may be obtained from the Information  and Records Management Branch, Office of Information Resources Management, by  writing or calling the Office of Information Services, U.S. Nuclear  Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (800) 368-5642, or  by visiting the NRC’s website at www.nrc.gov. The forms are available  online at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms. 
    6. This section includes information requirements of the DOT,  as codified in 49 CFR Part 172. Information on hazardous, medical, or other  waste, required to meet Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulations, as  codified in 40 CFR Part 259, 261 or elsewhere, is not addressed in this section  and must be provided on the required EPA forms. However, the required EPA forms  must accompany the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest required by  this section. 
    B. General information. The shipper of the radioactive waste  must provide the following information on the uniform manifest: 
    1. The name, facility address, and telephone number of the  licensee shipping the waste; 
    2. An explicit declaration indicating whether the shipper is  acting as a waste generator, waste collector, waste processor, or a combination  of these identifiers for purposes of the manifested shipment; and 
    3. The name, address, and telephone number, or the name and  EPA identification number for the carrier transporting the waste. 
    C. Shipment information. The shipper of the radioactive waste  must provide the following information regarding the waste shipment on the  uniform manifest: 
    1. The date of the waste shipment; 
    2. The total number of packages or disposal containers; 
    3. The total disposal volume and disposal weight in the  shipment; 
    4. The total radionuclide activity in the shipment; 
    5. The activity of each of the radionuclides H-3, C-14, Tc-99,  and I-129 contained in the shipment; and 
    6. The total masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special  nuclear material and the total mass of uranium and thorium in source material. 
    D. Disposal container and waste information. The shipper of  the radioactive waste must provide the following information on the uniform  manifest regarding the waste and each disposal container of waste in the shipment:  
    1. An alphabetic or numeric identification that uniquely  identifies each disposal container in the shipment; 
    2. A physical description of the disposal container, including  the manufacturer and model of any high integrity container; 
    3. The volume displaced by the disposal container; 
    4. The gross weight of the disposal container, including the  waste; 
    5. For waste consigned to a disposal facility, the maximum  radiation level at the surface of each disposal container; 
    6. A physical and chemical description of the waste; 
    7. The total weight percentage of chelating agent for any  waste containing more than 0.1% chelating agent by weight, plus the identity of  the principal chelating agent; 
    8. The approximate volume of waste within a container; 
    9. The sorbing or solidification media, if any, and the  identity of the solidification media vendor and brand name; 
    10. The identities and activities of individual radionuclides  contained in each container, the masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in  special nuclear material, and the masses of uranium and thorium in source  material. For discrete waste types, such as activated materials, contaminated  equipment, mechanical filters, sealed source or devices, and wastes in  solidification or stabilization media, the identities and activities of  individual radionuclides associated with or contained on these waste types  within a disposal container must be reported; and 
    11. The total radioactivity within each container. 
    E. Uncontainerized waste information. The shipper of the  radioactive waste must provide the following information on the uniform  manifest regarding a waste shipment delivered without a disposal container: 
    1. The approximate volume and weight of the waste; 
    2. A physical and chemical description of the waste; 
    3. The total weight percentage of chelating agent if the  chelating agent exceeds 0.1% by weight, plus the identity of the principal  chelating agent; 
    4. For waste consigned to a disposal facility, the  classification of the waste according to 12VAC5-481-2571. Waste not meeting the  structural stability requirements of 12VAC5-481-2572 must be identified; 
    5. The identities and activities of individual radionuclides  contained in the waste, the masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special  nuclear material, and the masses of uranium and thorium in source material; and  
    6. For wastes consigned to a disposal facility, the maximum  radiation levels at the surface of the waste. 
    F. Multigenerator disposal container information. 
    1. This subsection applies to disposal containers enclosing  mixtures of waste originating from different generators. The origin of the  low-level radioactive waste resulting from a waste processor's activities may  be attributable to one or more generators, including waste generators. This  subsection also applies to mixtures of wastes shipped in an uncontainerized  form, for which portions of the mixture within the shipment originate from  different generators. 
    2. For homogeneous mixtures of waste, such as incinerator ash,  the shipper must provide the waste description applicable to the mixture and  the volume of the waste attributed to each generator. 
    3. For heterogeneous mixtures of waste, such as the combined  products from a large compactor, the shipper must identify each generator contributing  waste to the disposal container and for discrete waste types, such as activated  materials, contaminated equipment, mechanical filters, sealed source or  devices, and wastes in solidification or stabilization media, the identities  and activities of individual radionuclides contained on these waste types  within the disposal container. For each generator, the shipper must provide the  following: 
    a. The volume of waste within the disposal container; 
    b. A physical and chemical description of the waste, including  the solidification agent, if any; 
    c. The total weight percentage of chelating agents for any  disposal container containing more than 0.1 percent chelating agent by weight,  plus the identity of the principal chelating agent; 
    d. The sorbing or solidification media, if any, and the  identity of the solidification media vendor and brand name if the media is  claimed to meet stability requirements in 12VAC5-481-2572; and 
    e. Radionuclide identities and activities contained in the waste,  the masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special nuclear material, and the  masses of uranium and thorium in source material, if contained in the waste. 
    G. Certification. An authorized representative of the waste  generator, waste processor, or waste collector must certify by signing and  dating the shipment manifest that the transported materials are properly  classified, described, packaged, marked, and labeled and are in proper  condition for transportation according to the applicable regulations of the DOT  and the agency, NRC or another agreement state. A waste collector, in signing  the certification, is certifying that nothing has been done to the collected  waste that would invalidate the waste generator's certification. 
    H. Control and tracking; transfers. A licensee that transfers  radioactive waste to a land disposal facility or a licensed waste collector  must comply with subdivisions 1 through 9 of this subsection. A licensee that  transfers waste to a licensed waste processor for waste treatment or  repackaging must comply with subdivisions 4 through 9 of this subsection. A  licensee shall: 
    1. Prepare all wastes so that the waste is classified  according to 12VAC5-481-2571, and meets the waste characteristics requirements  in 12VAC5-481-2572; 
    2. Label each disposal container of waste, or transport  package if potential radiation hazards preclude labeling of the individual  disposal container, to identify whether it is Class A waste, Class B waste,  Class C waste, or greater than Class C waste, according to 12VAC5-481-2571; 
    3. Conduct a quality assurance program to ensure compliance  with 12VAC5-481-2571 and 12VAC5-481-2572. The program must include management  evaluation of audits; 
    4. Prepare the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest as  required by this part; 
    5. Forward a copy or electronically transfer the uniform  low-level radioactive waste manifest to the intended consignee so that receipt  of the manifest precedes the low-level radioactive waste shipment or the  manifest is delivered to the consignee with the waste at the time the waste is  transferred to the consignee, or both; 
    6. Include NRC Form 540, and Form 540A if required, with the  shipment regardless of the option chosen in subdivision 5 of this subsection; 
    7. Receive acknowledgment of the receipt of the shipment in  the form of a signed copy of NRC Form 540; 
    8. Retain a copy of or electronically store the uniform  low-level radioactive waste manifest and documentation of acknowledgment of  receipt as the record of transfer of licensed material as required by Part I  (12VAC5-481-10 et seq.), Part III (12VAC5-481-380 et seq.), Part IV  (12VAC5-481-600 et seq.) and Part X (12VAC5-481-2250 et seq.); and 
    9. For any shipment or any part of a shipment for which  acknowledgment of receipt has not been received within the times set forth in  this part, conduct an investigation according to subsection L of this section. 
    I. Control and tracking; prepackaged waste. A waste collector  licensee that handles only prepackaged waste must: 
    1. Acknowledge receipt of the waste from the shipper within  one week of receipt by returning a signed copy of NRC Form 540; 
    2. Prepare a new manifest to reflect consolidated shipments  that meet the requirements of this section. The waste collector must ensure  that, for each container of waste in the shipment, the manifest identifies the  generator of that container of waste; 
    3. Forward a copy or electronically transfer the uniform  low-level radioactive waste manifest to the intended consignee so that receipt  of the manifest precedes the low-level radioactive waste shipment or the  manifest is delivered to the consignee with the waste at the time the waste is  transferred to the consignee, or both; 
    4. Include NRC Form 540, and 540A if required, with the  shipment regardless of the option chosen in subdivision 4 of this subsection; 
    5. Receive acknowledgment of the receipt of the shipment in  the form of a signed copy of NRC Form 540; 
    6. Retain a copy of or electronically store the uniform  low-level radioactive waste manifest and documentation of acknowledgment of  receipt as the record of transfer of licensed material as required under Part I  (12VAC5-481-10 et seq.), Part III (12VAC5-481-380 et seq.), Part IV  (12VAC5-481-600 et seq.) and Part X (12VAC5-481-2250 et seq.);
    7. For any shipment or any part of a shipment for which  acknowledgment of receipt has not been received within the times set forth in  this section, conduct an investigation according to subsection L of this  section; and 
    8. Notify the shipper and the agency when any shipment, or  part of a shipment, has not arrived within 60 days after receipt of an advance  manifest, unless notified by the shipper that the shipment has been canceled. 
    J. Control and tracking; treatment or repackaging. A licensed  waste processor that treats or repackages waste must: 
    1. Acknowledge receipt of the waste from the shipper within  one week of receipt by returning a signed copy of NRC Form 540; 
    2. Prepare a new manifest that meets the requirements of this  section. Preparation of the new manifest reflects that the waste processor is  responsible for meeting these requirements. For each container of waste in the  shipment, the manifest must identify the waste generators, the preprocessed  waste volume, and the other information as required under subsection F of this  section; 
    3. Prepare all wastes so that the waste is classified  according to 12VAC5-481-2571, and meets the waste characteristics requirements  in 12VAC5-481-2572; 
    4. Label each package of waste to identify whether it is Class  A waste, Class B waste, or Class C waste, in accordance with 12VAC5-481-2571  and 12VAC5-481-2572; 
    5. Conduct a quality assurance program to ensure compliance  with 12VAC5-481-2571 and 12VAC5-481-2572. The program must include management  evaluation of audits; 
    6. Forward a copy or electronically transfer the uniform  low-level radioactive waste manifest to the intended consignee so that receipt  of the manifest precedes the low-level radioactive waste shipment or the  manifest is delivered to the consignee with the waste at the time the waste is  transferred to the consignee, or both; 
    7. Include NRC Form 540, and Form 540A if required, with the  shipment regardless of the option chosen in subdivision 6 of this subsection; 
    8. Receive acknowledgment of the receipt of the shipment in  the form of a signed copy of NRC Form 540; 
    9. Retain a copy of or electronically store the uniform  low-level radioactive waste manifest and documentation of acknowledgment of  receipt as the record of transfer of licensed material as required by Part I  (12VAC5-481-10 et seq.), Part III (12VAC5-481-380 et seq.), Part IV  (12VAC5-481-600 et seq.) and Part X (12VAC5-481-2250 et seq.);
    10. For any shipment or any part of a shipment for which  acknowledgment of receipt has not been received within the times set forth in  this part, conduct an investigation according to subsection L; and 
    11. Notify the shipper and the agency when any shipment, or  part of a shipment, has not arrived within 60 days after receipt of an advance  manifest, unless notified by the shipper that the shipment has been canceled. 
    K. Control and tracking; land disposal facility. A land  disposal facility operator shall: 
    1. Acknowledge receipt of the waste within one week of receipt  by returning, as a minimum, a signed copy of NRC Form 540 to the shipper. The  shipper to be notified is the licensee that last possessed the waste and  transferred the waste to the operator. If any discrepancy exists between  materials listed on the uniform low-level radioactive waste manifest and materials  received, copies or electronic transfer of the affected forms must be returned  indicating the discrepancy; 
    2. Maintain copies of all completed manifests and  electronically store the information required by 12VAC5-481-2630, until the  agency terminates the license; and 
    3. Notify the shipper and the agency when any shipment, or  part of a shipment, has not arrived within 60 days after receipt of an advance  manifest, unless notified by the shipper that the shipment has been canceled. 
    L. Investigation. A shipment or part of a shipment for which  acknowledgment is not received within the times set forth in this part must: 
    1. Be investigated by the shipper if the shipper has not  received notification or receipt within 20 days after transfer; and 
    2. Be traced and reported. The investigation must include  tracing the shipment and filing a report with the agency. A licensee that  conducts a trace investigation must file a written report with the agency  within two weeks of completing the investigation. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1577; Filed September 8, 2008, 12:29 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE MENTAL HEALTH, MENTAL RETARDATION AND SUBSTANCE ABUSE SERVICES BOARD
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 12VAC35-11. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 12VAC35-11-10 through  12VAC35-11-110).
    12VAC35-12. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 12VAC35-12-10 through 12VAC35-12-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 37.2-203 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008. 
    Agency Contact: Wendy V. Brown, Policy Analyst,  Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services,  Jefferson Bldg., 1220 Bank St., 12th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)  225-2252, FAX (804) 371-0092, or email wendy.brown@co.dmhmrsas.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 12 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    12VAC35-12-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  State Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Board.  This chapter does not apply to regulations, guidelines, or other documents  exempted or excluded from the provisions of the Administrative Process Act  (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    12VAC35-12-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the State Mental Health, Mental  Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Board, which is the unit of state  government empowered by the agency's basic law to make regulations or decide  cases. Actions specified in this chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as  delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make regulations  or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or repealing a  regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public comment  on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    12VAC35-12-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    12VAC35-12-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 12VAC35-12-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    12VAC35-12-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    12VAC35-12-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    12VAC35-12-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel (RAP)  to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the agency  determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific regulatory  issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working with the  agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    12VAC35-12-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    12VAC35-12-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    12VAC35-12-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    12VAC35-12-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1452; Filed September 4, 2008, 11:17 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE MENTAL HEALTH, MENTAL RETARDATION AND SUBSTANCE ABUSE SERVICES BOARD
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 12VAC35-11. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 12VAC35-11-10 through  12VAC35-11-110).
    12VAC35-12. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 12VAC35-12-10 through 12VAC35-12-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 37.2-203 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008. 
    Agency Contact: Wendy V. Brown, Policy Analyst,  Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services,  Jefferson Bldg., 1220 Bank St., 12th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)  225-2252, FAX (804) 371-0092, or email wendy.brown@co.dmhmrsas.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 12 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    12VAC35-12-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  State Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Board.  This chapter does not apply to regulations, guidelines, or other documents  exempted or excluded from the provisions of the Administrative Process Act  (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    12VAC35-12-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the State Mental Health, Mental  Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Board, which is the unit of state  government empowered by the agency's basic law to make regulations or decide  cases. Actions specified in this chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as  delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make regulations  or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or repealing a  regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public comment  on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    12VAC35-12-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    12VAC35-12-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 12VAC35-12-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    12VAC35-12-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    12VAC35-12-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    12VAC35-12-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel (RAP)  to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the agency  determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific regulatory  issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working with the  agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    12VAC35-12-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    12VAC35-12-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    12VAC35-12-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    12VAC35-12-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1452; Filed September 4, 2008, 11:17 a.m. 
TITLE 16. LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT
SAFETY AND HEALTH CODES BOARD
Extension of Public Comment Period
    Titles of Regulations: 16VAC25-90. Federal Identical  General Industry Standards (29 CFR Part 1910) (repealing 16VAC25-90-1910.269 (p)(1)(ii)).
    16VAC25-97. Reverse Signal Operation Safety Requirements for  Motor Vehicles, Machinery and Equipment in General Industry and the  Construction Industry (adding 16VAC25-97-10 through 16VAC25-97-70).
    16VAC25-175. Federal Identical Construction Industry  Standards (29 CFR Part 1926) (repealing 16VAC25-175-1926.601 (b)(4),  16VAC25-175-602 (a)(9)(ii), 16VAC25-175-1926.952 (a)(3).
    Statutory Authority: §40.1-22 of the Code of Virginia.
    The Safety and Health Codes Board noticed an initial   public comment period on the above-referenced proposed regulations  (16VAC25-97) in the August 20, 2007, issue of the Virginia Register of  Regulations (23:25 VA.R. 4347-4351 August 20, 2007). However, a number  of comments were received after the close of the initial comment period and the  board noticed a second public comment period on this regulation in the April  14, 2008, issue of the Virginia Register (24:16 VA.R. 2291 April 14, 2008).
    Following the close of the second comment period, extensive  changes were made to the text of the proposed regulation.  Therefore, the  board has issued a third 30-day comment period that will begin on September 29,  2008, and end on October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Jay Withrow, Department of Labor and  Industry, Powers Taylor Building, 13 South 13th Street, Richmond, VA 23219, or  email jay.withrow@doli.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R06-314; Filed September 2, 2007, 5:22 p.m. 
TITLE 16. LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT
SAFETY AND HEALTH CODES BOARD
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 16VAC25-90. Federal Identical  General Industry Standards (repealing 16VAC25-90-1910.151).
    16VAC25-95. Medical Services and First Aid Standards for General  Industry (adding 16VAC25-95-10).
    16VAC25-175. Federal Identical Construction Industry  Standards (repealing 16VAC25-175-1926.50).
    16VAC25-177. Medical Services and First Aid Standards for  the Construction Industry (adding 16VAC25-177-10).
    Statutory Authority: §40.1-22 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comments: Public comments may be submitted until  5 p.m. on November 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Regina P. Cobb, Agency Management  Analyst Senior, Department of Labor and Industry, Powers-Taylor Building, 13 S.  13th St., Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-0610, FAX (804) 786-8418, TTY  (804) 786-2376, or email regina.cobb@doli.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The Safety and Health Codes Board is authorized to  regulate occupational safety and health under § 40.1-22(5) of the Code of  Virginia to:
    "... adopt, alter, amend, or repeal rules and regulations  to further, protect and promote the safety and health of employees in places of  employment over which it has jurisdiction and to effect compliance with the  federal OSH Act of 1970...as may be necessary to carry out its functions  established under this title".
    In this same statutory section, the board is further  mandated:
    "In making such rules and regulations to protect the  occupational safety and health of employees, the Board shall adopt the standard  which most adequately assures, to the extent feasible, on the basis of the best  available evidence that no employee will suffer material impairment of health  or functional capacity".
    "However, such standards shall be at least as stringent  as the standards promulgated by the federal OSH Act of 1970 (P.L.91-596).   In addition to the attainment of the highest degree of health and safety  protection for the employee, other considerations shall be the latest available  scientific data in the field, the feasibility of the standards, and experiences  gained under this and other health and safety laws."
    Purpose: The purpose of the proposed changes is to  ensure that construction and general industry employers on worksites containing  job classifications or workplace hazards that could expose employees to serious  physical harm or death, designate and train a person or persons to render first  aid and CPR during all workshifts. The changes are also designed to provide  employers with some flexibility to make arrangements for the provision of first  aid and CPR services on individual work sites. In addition, the proposed  changes clarify requirements for employers of mobile crews and individual  mobile employees.
    Current Regulatory Framework: The Existing Regulations are  Confusing and Difficult for Employers to Comply With and Difficult for the  Department to Enforce
    The current first aid regulations, which are identical to  their federal OSHA counterparts and are the subject of this rulemaking, apply  to all general industry and construction employers:
    16 VAC 25-90-1910.151(b) of the General Industry Regulation  for Medical and First Aid provides that "In the absence of an infirmary,  clinic, or hospital in near proximity to the workplace which is used for the  treatment of all injured employees, a person or persons shall be adequately  trained to render first aid…." (Emphasis added).
    16 VAC 25-175-1926.50(c) of the Construction Regulation for  Medical Services and First Aid provides: "In the absence of an infirmary,  clinic, hospital or physician, that is reasonably accessible in terms of  time and distance to the worksite, which is available for the treatment of  injured employees, a person who has a valid certificate in first aid  training…." (Emphasis added).
    Both existing regulations lack clarity and are difficult for  employers to comply with and for the VOSH Program to enforce. For instance, the  existing regulations do not define the terms "near proximity" and  "reasonably accessible." These phrases have been interpreted by  federal OSHA to mean that all general industry and construction employers must  have either an employee trained in first aid, or:
    their worksite must be located within a three to four minute  response time of a hospital, clinic or 
    infirmary if the worksite contains workplace hazards that  could cause life threatening injuries; or 
    their worksite must be located within a 15-minute response  time of a hospital, clinic, or
    infirmary if the worksite does not contain workplace hazards  that could cause life threatening injuries.
    According to statistics for 2003 from the Department of  Emergency Medical Services (EMS) website, EMS providers arrived at the scene of  522,345 calls with an average response time of approximately 12 minutes.   Approximately 72% of all reported calls were provided in less than 10 minutes,  and approximately 87% of all reported calls were provided in less than 15  minutes.
    The department requested more recent data from EMS for  statewide response times for all calls as well as calls for industrial sites  specifically for the years 2004 through 2006 ("Industrial premises"  includes "building under construction, dockyard, dry dock, factory  building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial yard, loading platform  in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard, shop (place of work),  warehouse and workhouse." Source:  PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element  Dictionary):
           | Statewide Response Time    Statistics by Year | 
       | "Response time"    defined as "Arrived at Scene" minus "Dispatched"
 | 
       |   | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 | 
       | All Cases:  Response    Time |   | 
       |  1-3 minutes | 13.0% | 12.9% | 12.5% | 
       |  4-15 minutes | 74.6% | 74.7% | 75.1% | 
       |  15-100 minutes | 12.4% | 12.5% | 12.5% | 
       | Mean (Average) in minutes | 8.89 | 8.94 | 8.96 | 
       | Industrial Sites Only:     Response Time |   | 
       |  1-3 minutes | 19.2% | 19.3% | 20.9% | 
       |  4-15 minutes | 75.1% | 73.9% | 72.2% | 
       |  15-100 minutes | 5.7% | 6.8% | 6.9% | 
       | Mean (Average) in minutes | 7.10 | 7.58 | 7.34 | 
  
    NOTE  1: Calculation of the above response times is from the time  "dispatched" to the time of "arrived at scene."   Although the PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element Dictionary indicates that there is  a data field called "Time of Call" defined as "Time call is first  received by Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) or other designated  entity," VOSH was informed by EMS that "Time of Call" data is  not regularly available to the local EMS responders to enter into the reporting  system. Therefore, the 2004-2006 data supplied by EMS under reports the average  response times because it does not include the time it takes for the 911 call  to be received and then referred to the local EMS provider.
    NOTE 2: Calculation of the above  response times is limited to data where a response time of between one minute  and 100 minutes was reported. EMS personnel indicated that this approach was  used to eliminate some obviously inaccurate data in the system (e.g., response  times in the negatives, response times that were several days, etc.).
    As the more recent statistics above indicate, the average EMS  response time for all cases statewide has been approximately nine minutes for  the last three years (more than twice the three to four minute response time  required by OSHA for life threatening injuries), while the average response  time to industrial sites falls between 7 and 7.5 minutes, which is 75% above  the three to four minute requirement. Furthermore, the chart demonstrates that  for all cases statewide, only 12.5 to 13% of the responses occur within the  three to four minute requirement for life threatening injuries, while from 19  to 21% of the responses occur to industrial sites within the three to four  minute requirement.
    The above statistics graphically demonstrate that the large  majority of employers in Virginia fail to meet the three to four minute  exemption contained in the interpretations for the current VOSH first aid  regulations for construction and general industry that would allow them to  avoid having a trained first aid provider on site (the OSHA 3-4 minute  interpretation applies to worksites with hazards that could cause life  threatening injuries).
    Another difficulty with the current first aid regulations is  that neither the current regulations nor federal OSHA interpretations provide  clear guidance to employers of mobile work crews who are exposed to hazards  that could cause death or serious physical harm. The proposed changes  specifically provide compliance options for such covered employers.
    Finally, to assure compliance with the current regulations,  both employers and the VOSH Program are often faced with having to document  whether an infirmary, clinic or hospital would be accessible within three to  four minutes or 15 minutes. This may include going to such lengths as having to  drive from the inspection site to the facility, or by contacting the nearest  rescue squad to determine what the normal response time would be to the  specific worksite. Even in such cases where response time information may be  readily available, the response time for emergency responders to a particular  site can vary widely from day to day depending on such factors as whether the  worksite is in an urban or rural location (see discussion below on geographic  differences in EMS response times around the state), whether the  medical/emergency response facility is staffed 24 hours a day or not, and such  vagaries as traffic congestion, road construction and weather. For these  reasons under the current regulations, the vast majority of injured employees  cannot receive timely, reliable and consistent first aid response to injuries  suffered on the job if there is no trained first aid responder on site.
    Existing Regulations Do Not Provide Adequate First Aid and CPR  Protections for Employees
    The existing general industry and construction first aid  regulations do not assure that adequate first aid attention for employees will  be provided in certain hazardous situations. For instance, current regulations  do not require CPR training for designated first aid providers, nor do they  clearly state that designated first aid providers will be available at each  hazardous work location and each work shift. The proposed changes correct these  oversights. 
    In addition, the current regulations allow an employer to  physically move an employee who had suffered a head/spinal injury or other  serious injury by transporting them to a medical facility that is within three  to four minutes driving distance, in lieu of having a trained first aid  responder on site to administer first aid and CPR while emergency response  personnel are in route.
    Existing Regulations Do Not Provide Equal First Aid/CPR  Treatment Opportunities for Similarly Exposed Employees
    The current regulations do not provide the same level of  first aid and CPR protection for employees in different general industry and  construction settings who are exposed to similar kinds of serious and life  threatening workplace hazards. For instance, a number of current industry  specific regulations require general industry and construction employers to  assure that one or more employees trained in first aid and CPR are present at  each worksite and workshift:
    General Industry
    Logging Industry employers must assure that all logging  employees receive first aid and CPR training - 16VAC25-90-1910.266(i)(7); 
    Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution  Industry employers must assure that trained first aid and CPR providers are  present for field work and fixed work locations - 16VAC25-90-1910.269(b)(1);
    Employers engaged in Welding, Cutting and Brazing must assure  that first aid can be rendered to an injured employee until medical attention  can be provided - 16VAC25-90-1910.252(c)(13);
    Telecommunications Industry employers must assure that  employees are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-90-1910.268(c)(3);
    Employers with a Temporary Labor Camp must assure that a  trained first aid and CPR provider is present at the camp -  16VAC25-90-1910.142(k)(2);
    Commercial Dive Operation employers must assure that all dive  team members are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-90-1910.410(a)(3).
    Construction Industry
    Power Generation and Distribution employers must assure that  employees are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-175-1926.950(e)(1)(ii);
    Employers involved in Underground Construction, Caissons,  Cofferdams and Compressed Air must provide a first aid station at each project  (see 16VAC25-175-1926.803(b)(7);
    Employees in the above industries benefit from greater first  aid and CPR protections than employees who, for instance, work in construction around  but not on overhead high voltage lines (contact with overhead high voltage  lines is regularly one of the top four causes of occupationally related VOSH  fatalities). The proposed changes assure that all construction and general  industry employees exposed to hazards that could cause death or serious  physical harm are provided an equal level of first aid and CPR protection.
    The Department also requested recent data from EMS for  statewide response times for calls for industrial sites broken down by  geographic region for the years 2004 through 2006 ("Industrial  premises" includes "building under construction, dockyard, dry dock,  factory building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial yard, loading  platform in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard, shop (place of  work), warehouse and workhouse." Source: PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element  Dictionary):
     
     
         
                 | Statewide Response Time    Statistics by Year for Industrial Sites Only"Response time" defined as "Arrived at Scene" minus    "Dispatched"
 | 
       |   | 2004Response Times
 | 2005 Response Times
 | 2006Response Times
 | 
       | Industrial Sites |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg | 
       | No Region Listed | 22.3% | 69.2% | 7.7 | 26.5% | 63.6% | 8.2 | 52.4% | 44.6% | 4.7 | 
       | BLUE RIDGE | 6.0% | 67.8% | 12.1 | 8.9% | 64.2% | 13.0 | 9.5% | 73.6% | 10.5 | 
       | CENTRAL SHENANDOAH | 11.1% | 82.9% | 8.1 | 16.3% | 79.2% | 7.6 | 18.9% | 73.2% | 7.8 | 
       | LORD FAIRFAX | 7.8% | 85.4% | 8.6 | 10.1% | 82.6% | 8.5 | 8.9% | 81.8% | 8.7 | 
       | NORTHERN VIRGINIA | 18.3% | 78.3% | 6.4 | 13.2% | 81.6% | 7.7 | 12.1% | 84.1% | 7.2 | 
       | OLD DOMINION | 17.2% | 77.7% | 7.2 | 15.4% | 79.0% | 7.2 | 15.7% | 79.3% | 6.9 | 
       | PENINSULAS | 44.1% | 53.1% | 4.8 | 41.1% | 56.4% | 4.9 | 46.1% | 51.5% | 4.9 | 
       | RAPPAHANNOCK | 13.1% | 77.2% | 8.5 | 10.9% | 80.2% | 8.8 | 13.5% | 74.3% | 9.2 | 
       | SOUTHWEST VIRGINIA | 9.5% | 73.1% | 10.4 | 12.6% | 67.0% | 10.5 | 13.2% | 69.1% | 10.0 | 
       | THOMAS JEFFERSON | 9.9% | 67.3% | 11.3 | 10.7% | 76.2% | 10.0 | 7.1% | 66.9% | 12.0 | 
       | TIDEWATER | 15.1% | 79.1% | 7.6 | 12.3% | 82.7% | 7.8 | 11.4% | 83.1% | 7.6 | 
       | WESTERN VIRGINIA | 25.9% | 66.9% | 7.2 | 26.2% | 69.1% | 6.8 | 22.5% | 72.7% | 6.9 | 
       | Total | 19.1% | 75.1% | 7.1 | 19.1% | 74.0% | 7.6 | 20.7% | 72.3% | 7.3 | 
  
         
          NOTE 1:  Calculation of the above response times is from the time "dispatched"  to the time of "arrived at scene."  Although the PPCR/PPDR  Program Data Element Dictionary indicates that there is a data field called  "Time of Call" defined as "Time call is first received by Public  Safety Answering Point (PSAP) or other designated entity," VOSH was  informed by EMS that "Time of Call" data is not regularly available  to the local EMS responders to enter into the reporting system. Therefore, the  2004-2006 data supplied by EMS under reports the average response times because  it does not include the time it takes for the 911 call to be received and then  referred to the local EMS provider.
    NOTE 2: Calculation of the above response times is  limited to data where a response time of between one minute and 100 minutes was  reported. EMS personnel indicated that this approach was used to eliminate some  obviously inaccurate data in the system (e.g. response times in the negatives,  response times that were several days, etc.).
    As the above statistics indicate, there is a wide disparity  in EMS response times across the state based on geographic region. For instance  in 2006 there is a range of a low of 7.1% of EMS responses occurring within one  to three minutes in the Thomas Jefferson region to a high of 46.1% within one  to three minutes in the Peninsulas region; while the average response times  range from 4.9 minutes in the Peninsulas' region to 12 minutes in the Thomas  Jefferson region.
    Again, the above statistics graphically demonstrate that the  large majority of employers in Virginia cannot meet the three to four minute  exemption contained in the interpretations for the exemption contained in the  current VOSH first aid regulations for construction and general industry that  would allow them to avoid having a trained first aid provider on site (the  three to four minute interpretation applies to worksites with hazards that  could cause life threatening injuries). In addition, the geographic disparities  in response time demonstrate that the current regulations do not provide equal  access to adequate first aid and CPR protections for employees.
    The Existing General Industry First Aid Regulation is  Overreaching
    The current general industry  regulation is overreaching in that it applies to all general industry  employers, even when there are no workplace hazards present that could pose a  threat of serious physical harm or death, such as in office settings (it should  be noted that, with rare exceptions, construction worksites are universally  acknowledged to contain both job classifications and workplace hazards that
  are likely to cause death or serious physical harm). The proposed regulations  will exclude worksites that do not contain such serious hazards from the  requirement to provide designated employees with first aid and CPR training.
    Substance: The VOSH Program seeks the amendment of  medical services and first aid regulations for general industry §1910.151(b),  and the construction industry, §1926.50(c) to require  construction and general industry employers to train and designate a person or  persons to render first aid and CPR during all workshifts on worksites  containing job classifications or workplace hazards that could expose employees  to serious physical harm or death; and to provide employers with some  flexibility to make arrangements for first aid and CPR services on individual  work sites. The proposed regulations will also exclude certain low hazard  industries and employers from the requirement to provide first aid and CPR  training. In addition, the proposed changes also clarify requirements for  employers of mobile crews and individual mobile employees.
    Issues: A primary advantage of the proposed regulation  is that employers covered by the proposed regulation would be required to have  at each job site and for each work shift at least one employee trained in first  aid and CPR, thereby increasing protection of their employees.
    The proposed changes eliminate inequities contained in the  existing regulations by assuring all construction and general industry  employees exposed to hazards that could cause death or serious physical harm  equal access to first aid and CPR services, regardless of their specific  industrial or construction setting, or the geographical location of their work.  As noted in the "Purpose" section above, only employees engaged in  the following industries benefit from regulations requiring the immediate  presence of first aid/CPR trained providers at their worksite:
    Logging
    Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution  (General Industry)
    Power Generation and Distribution (Construction Industry)
    Welding, Cutting and Brazing
    Telecommunications
    Temporary Labor Camp (Migrant Labor)
    Commercial Dive Operation
    Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams and Compressed  Air
    A disadvantage is that some employers would have to incur the  additional cost of securing such training, although many employers currently  already assure that some employees are trained in first aid and CPR.
    Another advantage to employers would be that costs associated  with compliance with the proposed regulation will be lessened by the specific  language in the proposal that allows an employer to make written arrangements  with other contractors/employers on the same job site to provide designated  employees to serve as first aid and CPR responders.
    Also, costs associated with the current regulation will be  eliminated for employers on worksites where there are no hazards that could  result in serious physical harm or death, by excluding such worksites from  coverage.
    Additionally, the proposed changes eliminate confusion and  clarify requirements for employers of mobile crews and individual mobile  employees.
    Finally, to assure compliance with the current regulations,  both employers and the VOSH Program are often faced with having to document whether  an infirmary, clinic or hospital would be accessible within three to four  minutes by going to such lengths as having to drive from the inspection site to  the facility, or by contacting the nearest rescue squad to determine what there  normal response time would be to the specific worksite (see above discussion of  federal OSHA interpretations in the “Purpose” section). The proposed changes  eliminate the three to four minute and 15 minute interpretation requirements.
    The Department of Planning  and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed  Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia Department of Labor and Industry  (Department) proposes to amend the medical services and first aid regulations  for general industry and for the construction industry such that in high hazard  industries and on worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards  that could potentially expose employees to serious physical harm or death,  employers must designate and train at least one employee during all work shifts  to render immediate first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).   The person or persons would have to have a valid, current certificate in  first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red  Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary evidence.  Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make written arrangements with  and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the same job site to  provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. The proposed amendment would not  apply to worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards that do  not expose employees to serious physical harm or death (e.g., office settings).
    Result of Analysis. There is insufficient data to accurately  compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs. Detailed analysis of  the benefits and costs can be found in the next section.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Under the current regulation,  employers in general industry must only train a person or persons to render  first aid if there is no infirmary, clinic, or hospital which is used for the  treatment of all injured employees in near proximity to the workplace.  The following industries that fall under the general industry category have  more stringent rules: (1) logging, (2) electric power generation, transmission,  and distribution, (3) telecommunications, (4) temporary labor camps, (5)  commercial diver operations, and (6) welding, cutting, and brazing. In the  first five categories, regulations require employers to train at least one  person—if not all employees—in first aid and CPR. The welding, cutting, and  brazing requirements state that "All injuries shall be reported a soon as  possible for medical attention. First aid shall be rendered until medical  attention can be provided." For the remainder of this document, it will be  assumed that the current regulation implies that employers in welding, cutting,  and brazing are required to ensure that a first aid-trained employee be on the  worksite at all time either by training employees herself or by contracting  with another employer onsite.
    Under the current regulation, the requirements for first aid  treatment in the construction industry differ only slightly from those in  general industry. In the construction industry, employers must only train a  person or persons to render first aid if there is no infirmary, clinic,  hospital, or physician, which is available for the treatment of injured  employees that is reasonably accessible in terms of time and distance to the  worksite. In addition to specific requirements for first aid supplies, the  regulation for the construction industry also specifies that the person trained  to render first aid must have a valid certificate in first-aid training from  the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that  can be verified by documentary evidence; provisions shall be made prior to  commencement of the project for prompt medical attention in case of serious  injury; proper equipment for prompt transportation of the injured person to a  physician or hospital, or a communication system for contacting necessary  ambulance service shall be provided; and in areas where 911 is not available,  the telephone numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be  conspicuously posted. The categories in the construction industry with more  stringent first aid requirements are: (1) electric power generation,  transmission, and distribution, for which the Department requires the training  of employees in first aid and CPR, and (2) underground construction, caissons,  cofferdams, and compressed air, which must have a first aid station and  ambulance at each project.
    In sum, under the current regulations, most firms or  organizations in general and construction industry are required to have a  first-aid-trained employee on site only if medical attention in the form of  infirmaries, clinics, or hospitals is not in near proximity or reasonably  accessible. These regulations are identical to those required by the U.S.  Department of Labor Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA  interprets near proximity and reasonably accessible to mean that emergency  medical services must be available within 3-4 minutes in workplaces where  "serious accidents such as those involving falls, suffocation,  electrocution, or amputation are possible" and up to 15 minutes in  workplaces, such as offices, where the possibility of such serious work-related  injuries is more remote.1
    The proposed amendments aim to make the first-aid requirements  for high-hazard general and construction industry employers more stringent than  those required by the federal government. Under the proposed amendments,  employers will be required to designate and train at least one employee during  all work shifts to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary  resuscitation (CPR). The person or persons would have to have a valid, current  certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the  American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary  evidence. Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site to provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. As under the  current regulation, if an employer does not comply with the regulation, the  Department will issue a citation and may assess a penalty and the employer must  change his practices to comply with the regulation. The penalty will depend  upon the nature and circumstances of the violation.
    With the exception of welding, cutting, and brazing, the  categories of general and construction industry discussed above that already  require first aid and CPR training of employees will not be affected by the  proposed amendment, since their first aid requirements are already more  stringent. (Employers whose work sites engage in welding, cutting, and brazing  will be required to train an employee in CPR and first aid; under current  regulations they are required only to train an employee in first aid.) In  addition, the proposed amendment for general and construction industry  "does not apply to worksites containing job classifications or workplace  hazards that do not expose employees to serious physical harm or death (e.g.,  office settings)". In other words, the proposed amendments will affect in  the same way all firms/organizations (construction and general industry) with  job classifications or workplace hazards that could potentially expose  employees to serious physical harm or death. Therefore, the remainder of this  document will look at the costs and benefits of changing the requirements for  the general and construction industries simultaneously.
    As mentioned above, the proposed amendments do also change the  requirements for low-hazard worksites. Under current regulations, these  worksites are required to have medical services available within 15 minutes or  have a first aid-trained person on site at all times. Under the proposed  amendments, employers at these worksites will no longer have any requirements with  regards to the immediate provision of first aid or CPR. Finally, the proposed  amendments explicitly state the requirements for employers of mobile work crews  and individual mobile employees that are not explicitly stated in the current  regulation.
    The proposed amendments will affect all employers in Virginia.  The Department estimates that of the 215,201 employers in Virginia, this  amendment will make the first aid/CPR requirements more stringent for around  150,000 employers since the Department estimates that around 17,000  establishments are already in compliance with the proposed regulations (or have  more stringent current regulations), around 59,000 establishments do not have  job classifications or work site hazards that could result in serious physical  harm or death, and around 300 establishments do not fall within Department  jurisdiction. It is important to note, however, that these numbers are  estimates. Within a particular industry that is normally considered to be low  hazard, there may be some specific work sites or portions of the establishments  that have job classifications or workplace hazards that would fall under the  more stringent requirements of the proposed regulation. For example, a large  department store that has service personnel who deal directly with customers  who would not be exposed to serious or life-threatening hazards may also have  warehouse personnel who operate forklifts and are therefore exposed to such  hazards. As another example, a supermarket may have retail clerks who are not  exposed to serious hazards, but may also have personnel using potentially  dangerous equipment, such as a meat slicing machine. Therefore, although some  businesses in the areas of Retail or Wholesale Trade may only have office  workers, the section could not be considered exempt from the proposed  regulation.
    It is also unclear how the proposed amendments will change the  work practices of those 150,000 employers with job classifications or work site  hazards that could result in serious physical harm or death. First, the current  regulation requires employers to have a first aid-trained employee on site at  all times if they cannot meet the "near proximity" or  "reasonable access" requirements. The only change that this amendment  will impose on the employers who comply with current regulation by having a  first aid-trained person on site is to require that the person be trained in  CPR as well. Since it is unknown how many employers currently have a first  aid-trained person on site, and how many of those employees are also trained in  CPR, the statewide cost of the proposed amendment on employers is not clear.  Second, the cost to employers depends upon the number of employees that they  will need to train and employee turnover rates. For example, a small butcher shop  with low staff turnover that uses a meat-slicing machine might need to train at  most one employee every year. On the other hand, a small contractor might have  to train 2-3 employees per month if she has a total of 20 employees at any  given time who work at varying job sites, but also has a high turnover in  employees. Of course, employers who send employees onto job sites can provide  first aid and CPR through a contract with another organization at the job site,  but that contract process could be costly or infeasible, depending upon  circumstances.
    The table below gives an example of the time and monetary cost  of first aid and CPR training provided by Virginia chapters of the American Red  Cross.
           | Course | Cost | Certification | 
       | Greater Richmond Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 5 hours, $55 | One-year Adult CPR certification | 
       | Adult CPR review | 4 hours, $45 | Renewal of one-year certification in Adult CPR | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 8 hours, $65 | One year Adult CPR certification, three year first aid    certification | 
       | Central Virginia Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $41 | One year Adult CPR certification | 
       | Adult CPR review | 4 hours, $31 | Renewal of one-year certification in Adult CPR | 
       | First aid | 4 hours, $38 | Three year first aid certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 8.5 hours, $62 | One year Adult CPR certification, three year first aid    certification | 
       | Hampton Roads Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $35 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | First aid | 3-4 hours, $35 | Three year first aid    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7-8 hours, $45 | One year Adult CPR certification,    three year first aid certification | 
       | Alexandria Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4.5 - 5 hours, $45 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | First aid | 4.5 hours, $40 | Three year first aid    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7.5 hours, $60 | One year Adult CPR certification,    three year first aid certification | 
       | Mountain Empire Chapter,    Bristol | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $29 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7-8 hours, $37 | One year Adult CPR    certification, three year first aid certification | 
  
    Source: American Red Cross,  http://www.redcross.org/where/chapts.asp#VA
    Say, then, that a butcher shop in central Virginia needs to  have two trained employees in order to have someone on staff at all times who  is first aid/CPR-trained. Assume that one trained person is the owner, who will  be trained the first year, but needs only the refresher courses the following  years. The owner also has to train a new employee every year. The first year of  courses will cost the shop $62+$62=$124 for the course and $246.50 for the  time, since 17 hours will have to be reallocated from normal activities to  training and butchers make, on average, $14.50/hour2 in Virginia.  This makes for a total cost of around $370.50 for the first year. The second  and third years will cost the shop around $274.253 since the owner  will only need a renewal in the CPR training. (The cost of the fourth year,  however, will be the same as the first year since there is no renewal course in  first aid training.) Therefore, the proposed amendment will cost the butcher,  on average, $306.33 annually4. The construction firm, on the other  hand, that needs to train two employees per month, however, will spend a total  of $124 for classes and $295.80 for the lost 17 hours of work5 per  month, for a total of $5037.60 annually6. These figures do not  include, of course, the lost work time should something unplanned happen to the  first aid/CPR-trained employee, making it impossible for that worker to be on  site (such as illness, death in the family, etc.) and, therefore, against  regulations for the other workers to continue to work until a trained  replacement can be found or the employee can return to work.
    Ideally, we would then take some weighted average of $306.33  and $5037.60 and multiply it by the total number of affected firms to get a  total cost of the proposed amendment. However, some firms—particularly small  construction firms that regularly move employees from site to site—might choose  to satisfy the requirements by contracting with another firm to provide the first  aid. Those contractual costs could be small if the firm has an existing  contract with the other firm on site, or they could be large if the firm needs  to hire a lawyer to draw up a contract "sharing" the  first-aid/CPR-trained employee. The lack of information on how many firms are  currently in compliance with the proposed regulation and how firms would choose  to satisfy the proposed regulation makes it difficult to estimate a total cost  of the proposed amendments to Virginia firms.
    The benefits of the proposed amendments for citizens and  organizations are equally difficult to quantify. In 2005, there were 163 fatal  injuries (including 22 due to assaults and violent acts)7 and  approximately 126 non-fatal injuries8 in non-agricultural industry  in Virginia.9 Below is a graph of the fatal injuries in Virginia  from 1992 through 2005. As the graph illustrates, although the number of fatal  injuries in 2005 is high, the numbers do not necessarily indicate an increasing  trend in the data. The number of non-fatal injuries does not show an increasing  trend either.
    
    Source: Department of Labor and Industry, http://www.doli.virginia.gov/whatwedo/coop_prog/research_p1.html  
    It is difficult to estimate the number of fatalities that would  have been avoided had first aid been available on site. There have been two  deaths in the past five years where Virginia Occupational Safety and Health  Compliance Program (VOSH) inspectors recommended issuing a fatality-related  violation for lack of first aid training. Based on this information, the  Department estimates that these proposed amendments would save about 1-2 lives  every five years.
    The Department cites OSHA’s 2006 adoption of its Hexavalent  Chromium Standard to apply a value of $6.8 million to each premature fatality  avoided.10 If 1-2 lives are saved every five years, this amendment  will result in an annual savings of approximately $1.36-$2.72 million.  According to the OSHA document, this $6.8 million figure came from EPA, which  used studies on individuals’ willingness-to-pay (WTP) to reduce the risk of  premature death. These contingent valuation studies normally present  respondents with hypothetical fatality risk situations and ask how much they  would pay for a particular risk reduction. There are other ways to estimate the  value of a statistical life (VSL) and over the past few decades, researchers  have developed numerous methodologies for determining the VSL. For a discussion  of these analyses, see Viscusi (2006) or Viscusi and Aldy (2003). For the  purposes of this analysis, however, we will simply note that $6.8 million is an  average figure in the range of determined VSL values, almost all of which fall  between $1 million to $20 million.
    According to one study, most severely injured patients who die  in the first few hours after injury succumb to airway compromise, respiratory  failure, or uncontrolled hemorrhage, all of which can be treated using basic  first aid measures.11 (Injuries that could cause these problems are  crushing injuries, injuries caused by falls from heights such as in  construction, injuries caused by machinery in manufacturing, and electric  shock.) Of course, under the current regulation, patients will be treated  within minutes, but the Department is concerned with the number of minutes it  takes to receive treatment. In justifying its 3-4 minute response time  interpretation of reasonable accessibility of medical care, OSHA writes that:
    Medical literature establishes that, for serious injuries such  as those involving stopped breathing, cardiac arrest, or uncontrolled bleeding,  first aid treatment must be provided within the first few minutes to avoid  permanent medical impairment or death. Accordingly, in workplaces where serious  accidents such as those involving falls, suffocation, electrocution, or  amputation are possible, emergency medical services must be available within  3-4 minutes, if there is no employee on the site who is trained to render first  aid.
    In fact, it seems to be widely accepted that medical attention  within a few minutes of a serious injury can significantly improve the  individual’s probability of avoiding death or long-term health consequences  such as amputation or permanent damage.
    There are also studies that indicate that having a first aid  person readily available reduces the risk of serious injury or death. According  to the Canadian Red Cross and SMARTRISK, a non-profit organization dedicated to  preventing injuries and saving lives, getting trained in first aid can reduce  your risk of injury by more than 40 percent.12 Research conducted by  St. John Ambulance found that the number of work-related injuries is reduced by  between 20 and 30 percent when workers are trained in first aid.13  According to the International Labor Organization Encyclopedia of Occupational  Health and Safety, defibrillation administered within four minutes of cardiac  arrest yields survival rates of 40 to 50%, versus less than 5% if given later.  For chemical eye injuries, immediate flushing with water can save eyesight. For  spinal cord injuries, correct immobilization can make the difference between  full recovery and paralysis. For hemorrhages, the simple application of a  fingertip to a bleeding vessel can stop life-threatening blood loss.14
    The Department argues that most  employers are not providing medical care as quickly as they should. The  Department of Emergency Medical Services (EMS) statistics indicate that many  employers in Virginia are not providing care within four minutes of injury. In  2004, 2005, and 2006 the average EMS response time for all calls was 8.89 minutes,  8.94 minutes, and 8.96 minutes, respectively. The table below provides response  time for industrial sites:
     
           | Statewide Industrial Site*    Response time ("Arrived at Scene" minus "Dispatched")15 | 
       |   | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 | 
       | 1-3 minutes | 19.2% | 19.3% | 20.9% | 
       | 4-15 minutes | 75.1% | 73.9% | 72.2% | 
       | 15-100 minutes | 5.7% | 6.8% | 6.9% | 
       | Average time in minutes | 7.10 | 7.58 | 7.34 | 
       | *    "Industrial sites" includes building under construction, dockyard,    dry dock, factory building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial    yard, loading platform in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard,    shop (place of work), warehouse and workhouse) | 
  
    It is important to note that we do not know how many of these  worksites were high-hazard (although according to the Department, most  industrial sites are high-hazard) and we do not know how many of these  worksites had a first-aid person on staff. In other words, although these  numbers give an indication of unacceptably high response times, we do not know  for sure that these job sites are out of compliance with the current  regulation.
    The Department argues, however, that this is not just a  compliance issue. They feel that satisfying the 3-4 minute rule from injury to  medical care is a near-impossible task for employers, no matter how close the  site is to the hospital. Many employers, it argues, believe that they are in  compliance with the regulation but in reality, even without the concerns of  road congestion or unusually high numbers of accidents in the area, it takes  longer to actually get to medical care than employers estimate. Emergency rooms  are often crowded and communication with hospital or clinic staff takes  additional time.
    If it is true that lives will be saved, or that a potentially  serious injury could be prevented by passing these amendments, then the  amendment does provide significant benefits. These benefits include, but are  not limited to, the lives that will be saved. Employers will not only save an  experienced worker by reducing the chance of death or serious injury, they will  also save financially by reducing their workers’ compensation premiums,  reducing workers’ compensation payments, and reducing short-term disability  payments. In addition, it is easy to imagine a loss in productivity due to  reduced morale in workers with the death or serious injury of one of their  colleagues. If workers lose enough confidence in the speed of medical  attention, they might even leave the job, which will require an employer to  train a new person for the job. Given that those with job alternatives are  often the more skilled or experienced workers, this loss could add a  significant cost to an employer.
    Another benefit of the proposed amendments is a reduction in  enforcement time. To evaluate if a worksite is in compliance, an enforcement  officer has to evaluate the time it would take response teams to get to the  worksite, which could include driving to the hospital or clinic, perhaps more  than once if road congestion or emergency facility staffing at a particular  time of day is a concern. The Department estimates that this will save at least  200 man-hours annually, since there are on average 400 first aid violations  cited per year and it takes around 30 minutes to verify that there was no  rescue squad or other medical attention within 3-4 minute response time. These  200 man-hours do not, of course, include the time it took to verify when the  inspector was able to determine that there was medical attention available  within 3-4 minutes. Since construction inspectors make approximately $20.00 per  hour16, this offers a total benefit to taxpayers of $4000 annually. 
    In addition, the ambiguity of the three-to-four minute  requirement reduces employers' likelihood of compliance and gives employers the  opportunity to argue with inspectors about their compliance. The proposed  amendments would make compliance easier to evaluate and easier to enforce. By  reducing the time it takes an enforcement officer to evaluate compliance, the  proposed amendments will allow officers to evaluate more sites. If officers can  evaluate more sites, compliance will improve not only because more  non-compliant employers can be caught, but also because it will increase the  concern among employers of being evaluated. In addition, the Department argues  that employers are more likely to comply when the regulation is unambiguous. 
    Finally, the proposed amendments change the requirements for  worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards that do not  expose employees to serious physical harm or death, such as office settings.  One benefit of this amendment is that employers in office settings can save  money by not having to be within fifteen minutes of a hospital or have a first  aid person on staff. Under the proposed amendment, those employers with  low-hazard worksites that are not currently within fifteen minutes of a  hospital or clinic will save the costs of training the requisite number of  employees in first aid/CPR, which would be somewhere around the $306.33 or  $5037.60 estimated earlier in this document. (As previously noted, the lack of  data on current compliance rates makes it impossible to quantify total  savings.) Another benefit is that enforcement officers no longer need to ensure  compliance in non-hazardous work settings, which will save further enforcement  time. The cost is that workers in those settings might not have immediate  access to necessary health care; however, because fifteen minutes is not likely  to mitigate the effects of a serious injury, and these workers are not exposed  to workplace hazards and not likely to need medical care often, these costs are  also not likely to be significant.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. According to the Virginia  Employment Commission (VEC) fourth quarter data, there were 215,201 employers  in Virginia. 17 All of these employers would be potentially affected  by the proposed amendments. The Department estimates that for about 65,000 of  these employers, the regulation would become less stringent under the proposed  amendments, but for about 150,000 of these employers, the regulation would  become more stringent.
    Localities Particularly Affected. All Virginia localities may  have individuals or organizations that would be affected by these amendments.
    Projected Impact on Employment. These amendments could reduce  employment if employers choose not to hire because of the cost of ensuring that  a first-aid-trained person is on staff at all times. This is particularly  relevant if an employer hires and sends out mobile work groups. In this case,  the cost of training someone in first aid could be too much to merit hiring the  other people who would be sent out on the job with the first-aid-trained  employee.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. If the cost  of training the requisite number of employees in first aid and CPR is onerous  to a small business owner, then these amendments could reduce the value of  his/her business. In addition, if employers pass the cost onto their consumers  (such as the owner of a construction company passing the cost onto homebuyers),  then these amendments could moderately increase the cost of some products and  services. 
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. According to the  Virginia Employment Commission (VEC) 2006 fourth quarter data, 214,568 of the  215,201 employers in Virginia have less than 500 employees, so 99.7% of  Virginia employers qualify as small businesses.18 This means that  approximately 150,000 small businesses will be affected by the proposed  amendments. The cost to small businesses will be the same costs as listed  above: the course fee and the opportunity (time) cost of training as many  employees in first aid and/or CPR as necessary to ensure that one trained  employee is on site at all times, or the cost of developing a contract with a  different on-site employer.
    On the other hand, the costs above will only apply to small  business owners who do not currently have a first aid/CPR-trained person on  site and part of those costs could be offset by the money saved from not having  to pay workers’ compensation or short-term disability if the effects of an  accident can be mitigated by faster care. In addition, costs will be reduced if  an experienced worker who might have died is saved by faster care and can  return to work. For those small businesses with only low-hazard job sites, such  as sites devoted solely to office work, costs will be reduced by not having to  be concerned with first aid or CPR care at all. (This cost decrease will affect  only those sites that are more than 15 minutes away from a hospital, clinic, or  infirmary.) 
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. If the only way to ensure workers’ access to immediate health care in  the case of emergency is to mandate that a first aid/CPR-trained person be on  site, then there is no alternative method that minimizes adverse impact.
    If a 3-4 minute response time is sufficient, however, and if it  is possible to get care from a medical facility within 3-4 minutes, then the  problem is not the current regulation, but the fact that employers are not  meeting the 3-4 minute requirement of the regulation. One alternative would be  to ensure that all employers of workers on high-hazard worksites know that they  must be able to provide treatment within four minutes no matter the area  of the state or the time of day, and that if they cannot meet that standard,  they must have a first aid/CPR-trained person on site or suffer the  consequences of non-compliance. Currently, employers have a choice. If they are  not within the prescribed time/distance from medical care, then they must have  a first aid-trained person on site anyway. If no one is currently within the  prescribed time/distance from medical care, and work sites are in compliance,  then the only effect of the amendment is to require CPR-training in addition to  first-aid training. If, however, there is even one small business that actually  is within 3-4 minutes of medical care, and 3-4 minutes is what workers need to  be safe, then this amendment imposes a cost to business overall with no benefit  except for the additional CPR requirement. In this case, an alternative to the  proposed amendment would be simply to add the CPR training requirement to the  first aid training requirement if the worksite is not within 3-4 minutes of  medical attention. The Department could also put language into the regulation  that strongly encourages firms to have a first aid person on site, given the  difficulties in providing care within four minutes discussed above. 
    This alternative will probably increase, not decrease,  enforcement time, but it could provide a less costly option to the proposed  amendments. 
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments will  directly increase costs for those real estate developers who are employers and  who were using the near proximity or reasonable access clause in order  to comply with current regulations. The cost to real estate developers will be  the same costs as listed above: the course fees and the opportunity (time) cost  of training as many employees in first aid and/or CPR as necessary to ensure  that one trained employee is on site at all times, or the cost of developing a  contract with a different on-site employer.
    Those costs could be partially offset by the money saved from  not having to pay workers’ compensation or short-term disability if the effects  of an accident can be mitigated by faster care. In addition, costs will be  reduced if an experienced worker who might have died is saved by faster care  and can return to work. If real estate developers have low-hazard job sites,  such as sites devoted solely to office work, then their costs on those sites  will be reduced by not having to be concerned with first aid or CPR care at  all. (This cost decrease will affect only those sites that are more than 15  minutes away from a hospital, clinic, or infirmary.) Therefore, the cost of the  proposed amendments to real estate development is ambiguous.
    References
    International Labor Organization, Encyclopedia,  http://www.ilo.org/encyclopaedia/?d&nd=857400218&prevDoc=857400218&spack=000listid%3D010000000400%26listpos%3D0%26lsz%3D1%26nd%3D857000071%26nh%3D2%26
    Northern News Service, "Learning to Stay Safe: First Aid  courses give workers essential information," May 1998.  http://www.nnsl.com//frames/newspapers/1998-05/may18_98safe5.html
    Sasser, Scott M. et al, "Preventing death and  disability through the timely provision of prehospital trauma care," World  Health Organization Bulletin. July 2006. 84(7): 507.
    SMARTRISK, "First Aid Training Reduces Risk of  Injury," September 2004,  http://www.smartrisk.ca/ContentDirector.aspx?tp=1547
    Viscusi, W. Kip, "Monetizing the Benefits of Risk and  Environmental Regulation," April 2006. AEI-Brookings Joint Center for  Regulatory Studies Working Paper 06-09.  http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=979335
    Viscusi, W. Kip and Joseph Aldy, "The Value of a  Statistical Life: A Critical Review of Market Estimates Throughout the  World," The Journal of Risk and Uncertainty, 2003. 27(1): 5-76.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number 36  (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include,  but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or other  entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any localities and  types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the projected  number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the projected costs  to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation,  and the impact on the use and value of private property. Further, if the  proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses, Section 2.2-4007.04  requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an identification and  estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the regulation; (ii) the  projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for  small businesses to comply with the regulation, including the type of  professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other  documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on  affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less  costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The  analysis presented above represents DPB’s best estimate of these economic  impacts.
    ______________________________________________
                                                                            Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Labor and Industry has no additional comment in response to the  economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments change the medical services and  first aid regulations for general industry and for the construction industry  such that in high hazard industries and on worksites containing job classifications  or workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to serious  physical harm or death, employers must designate and train at least one  employee during all work shifts to render immediate first aid and  cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The person or persons would have to have a  valid, current certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau  of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified  by documentary evidence. Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make  written arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer  on the same job site to provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. The  proposed amendment would not apply to worksites containing job classifications  or workplace hazards that do not expose employees to serious physical harm or  death (e.g., office settings).
    16VAC25-90-1910.151. Medical services and first aid. (Repealed.)
    (a) The employer shall ensure the ready availability of  medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of plant health.
    (b) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, or hospital in  near proximity to the workplace which is used for the treatment of all injured  employees, a person or persons shall be adequately trained to render first aid.  Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    (c) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    Appendix A to §1910.151—First aid kits (Non-Mandatory)
    First aid supplies are required to be readily available  under paragraph §1910.151(b). An example of the minimal contents of a generic  first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1–1998  “Minimum Requirements for Workplace First-aid Kits.” The contents of the kit  listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small worksites. When larger  operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same location,  employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at the  worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and additional  quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid kits.
    In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or  changing first-aid needs in their workplace may need to enhance their first-aid  kits. The employer can use the OSHA 200 log, OSHA 101's or other reports to  identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local fire/rescue  department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency room may be  helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the specific needs of  their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably anticipated supplies are  available. Employers should assess the specific needs of their worksite  periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
    If it is reasonably anticipated that employees will be  exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first aid  supplies, employers are required to provide appropriate personal protective  equipment (PPE) in compliance with the provisions of the Occupational Exposure  to Blood borne Pathogens standard, §1910.1030(d)(3) (56 FR 64175). This  standard lists appropriate PPE for this type of exposure, such as gloves,  gowns, face shields, masks, and eye protection.
    CHAPTER 95
  MEDICAL SERVICES AND FIRST AID STANDARDS FOR GENERAL INDUSTRY
    16VAC25-95-10. Medical services and first aid standards for  general industry.
    A. The employer shall ensure the ready availability of  medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of plant health.
    B. A person or persons shall be designated by the employer  and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary resuscitation  (CPR) during all workshifts on worksites containing job classifications or  workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to serious physical  harm or death. The designated person or persons shall have a valid, current  certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the  American Red Cross, or the National Safety Council, or equivalent training that  can be verified by documentary evidence, and shall be available at the worksite  to render first aid and CPR to injured or ill employees.
    C. Covered employers are permitted to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site or establishment to provide designated employees to serve as  first aid and CPR responders for employees of the covered employer.
    D. Employers of mobile work crews (i.e., crews that travel  to more than one worksite per day) of two or more employees that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that at least one employee on the mobile crew is  designated and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and CPR during  all workshifts; or
    2. Comply with subsection C of this section.
    E. Employers of individual mobile employees (i.e., an  employee who travels alone to more than one worksite per day) that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that the mobile employee is adequately trained to  self-administer first aid;
    2. Comply with subsection C of this section; or
    3. Assure that their employee has access to a communication  system that will allow them to immediately request medical assistance through a  911 emergency call or comparable communication system.
    F. Subsections A through E of this section do not apply to  worksites that do not contain job classifications or workplace hazards that expose  employees to serious physical harm or death.
    G. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    H. Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    16VAC25-175-1926.50. Medical services and first aid. (Repealed.)
    (a) The employer shall insure the availability of medical  personnel for advice and consultation on matters of occupational health.
    (b) Provisions shall be made prior to commencement of the  project for prompt medical attention in case of serious injury.
    (c) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, hospital, or  physician, that is reasonably accessible in terms of time and distance to the  worksite, which is available for the treatment of injured employees, a person  who has a valid certificate in first-aid training from the U.S. Bureau of  Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary  evidence, shall be available at the worksite to render first aid.
    (d)(1) First aid supplies shall be easily accessible when  required.
    (2) The contents of the first aid kit shall be placed in a  weatherproof container with individual sealed packages for each type of item,  and shall be checked by the employer before being sent out on each job and at  least weekly on each job to ensure that the expended items are replaced.
    (e) Proper equipment for prompt transportation of the  injured person to a physician or hospital, or a communication system for  contacting necessary ambulance service, shall be provided.
    (f) In areas where 911 is not available, the telephone  numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously  posted.
    (g) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    Appendix A to §1926.50—First aid Kits (Non-Mandatory)
    First aid supplies are required to be easily accessible  under paragraph §1926.50(d)(1). An example of the minimal contents of a generic  first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1–1978  “Minimum Requirements for Industrial Unit-Type First-aid Kits”. The contents of  the kit listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small work sites.  When larger operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same  location, employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at  the worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and  additional quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid  kits.
    In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or  changing first-aid needs in their workplace, may need to enhance their  first-aid kits. The employer can use the OSHA 200 log, OSHA 101's or other  reports to identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local  Fire/Rescue Department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency  room may be helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the  specific needs of their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably  anticipated supplies are available. Employers should assess the specific needs  of their worksite periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
    If it is reasonably anticipated employees will be exposed  to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first-aid  supplies, employers should provide personal protective equipment (PPE).  Appropriate PPE includes gloves, gowns, face shields, masks and eye protection  (see “Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens”, 29 CFR 1910.1030(d)(3))  (56 FR 64175).
    CHAPTER 177
  MEDICAL SERVICES AND FIRST AID STANDARDS FOR THE CONSTRUCTION INDUSTRY
    16VAC25-177-10. Medical services and first aid standards for  the construction industry.
    A. The employer shall ensure the availability of medical  personnel for advice and consultation on matters of occupational health.
    B. Provisions shall be made prior to commencement of the  project for prompt medical attention in case of serious injury.
    C. A person or persons shall be designated by the employer  and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary  resuscitation (CPR) during all workshifts on worksites containing job  classifications or workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to  serious physical harm or death. The designated person or persons shall have a  valid, current certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau  of Mines, the American Red Cross, or the National Safety Council, or equivalent  training that can be verified by documentary evidence, and shall be available  at the worksite to render first aid and CPR to injured or ill employees.
    D. Covered employers are permitted to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site or establishment to provide designated employees to serve as  first aid and CPR responders for employees of the covered employer.
    E. Employers of mobile work crews (i.e., crews that travel  to more than one worksite per day) of two or more employees that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that at least one employee on the mobile crew is  designated and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and CPR during  all workshifts; or
    2. Comply with subsection D of this section. 
    F. Employers of individual mobile employees (i.e., an  employee who travels alone to more than one worksite per day) that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that the mobile employee is adequately trained to  self-administer first aid;
    2. Comply with subsection D of this section; or
    3. Assure that their employee has access to a communication  system that will allow them to immediately request medical assistance through a  911 emergency call or comparable communication system. 
    G. Subsections A through F of this section do not apply to  worksites that do not contain job classifications or workplace hazards that  expose employees to serious physical harm or death. 
    H. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    I. The contents of the first aid kit shall be placed in a  weatherproof container with individual sealed packages for each type of item  and shall be checked by the employer before being sent out on each job and at  least weekly on each job to ensure that the expended items are replaced.
    J. A communication system for contacting necessary  ambulance service shall be provided.
    K. In areas where 911 is not available, the telephone  numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously  posted.
    L. Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R07-05; Filed September 9, 2008, 2:09 p.m. 
TITLE 16. LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT
SAFETY AND HEALTH CODES BOARD
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 16VAC25-90. Federal Identical  General Industry Standards (repealing 16VAC25-90-1910.151).
    16VAC25-95. Medical Services and First Aid Standards for General  Industry (adding 16VAC25-95-10).
    16VAC25-175. Federal Identical Construction Industry  Standards (repealing 16VAC25-175-1926.50).
    16VAC25-177. Medical Services and First Aid Standards for  the Construction Industry (adding 16VAC25-177-10).
    Statutory Authority: §40.1-22 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comments: Public comments may be submitted until  5 p.m. on November 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Regina P. Cobb, Agency Management  Analyst Senior, Department of Labor and Industry, Powers-Taylor Building, 13 S.  13th St., Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-0610, FAX (804) 786-8418, TTY  (804) 786-2376, or email regina.cobb@doli.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The Safety and Health Codes Board is authorized to  regulate occupational safety and health under § 40.1-22(5) of the Code of  Virginia to:
    "... adopt, alter, amend, or repeal rules and regulations  to further, protect and promote the safety and health of employees in places of  employment over which it has jurisdiction and to effect compliance with the  federal OSH Act of 1970...as may be necessary to carry out its functions  established under this title".
    In this same statutory section, the board is further  mandated:
    "In making such rules and regulations to protect the  occupational safety and health of employees, the Board shall adopt the standard  which most adequately assures, to the extent feasible, on the basis of the best  available evidence that no employee will suffer material impairment of health  or functional capacity".
    "However, such standards shall be at least as stringent  as the standards promulgated by the federal OSH Act of 1970 (P.L.91-596).   In addition to the attainment of the highest degree of health and safety  protection for the employee, other considerations shall be the latest available  scientific data in the field, the feasibility of the standards, and experiences  gained under this and other health and safety laws."
    Purpose: The purpose of the proposed changes is to  ensure that construction and general industry employers on worksites containing  job classifications or workplace hazards that could expose employees to serious  physical harm or death, designate and train a person or persons to render first  aid and CPR during all workshifts. The changes are also designed to provide  employers with some flexibility to make arrangements for the provision of first  aid and CPR services on individual work sites. In addition, the proposed  changes clarify requirements for employers of mobile crews and individual  mobile employees.
    Current Regulatory Framework: The Existing Regulations are  Confusing and Difficult for Employers to Comply With and Difficult for the  Department to Enforce
    The current first aid regulations, which are identical to  their federal OSHA counterparts and are the subject of this rulemaking, apply  to all general industry and construction employers:
    16 VAC 25-90-1910.151(b) of the General Industry Regulation  for Medical and First Aid provides that "In the absence of an infirmary,  clinic, or hospital in near proximity to the workplace which is used for the  treatment of all injured employees, a person or persons shall be adequately  trained to render first aid…." (Emphasis added).
    16 VAC 25-175-1926.50(c) of the Construction Regulation for  Medical Services and First Aid provides: "In the absence of an infirmary,  clinic, hospital or physician, that is reasonably accessible in terms of  time and distance to the worksite, which is available for the treatment of  injured employees, a person who has a valid certificate in first aid  training…." (Emphasis added).
    Both existing regulations lack clarity and are difficult for  employers to comply with and for the VOSH Program to enforce. For instance, the  existing regulations do not define the terms "near proximity" and  "reasonably accessible." These phrases have been interpreted by  federal OSHA to mean that all general industry and construction employers must  have either an employee trained in first aid, or:
    their worksite must be located within a three to four minute  response time of a hospital, clinic or 
    infirmary if the worksite contains workplace hazards that  could cause life threatening injuries; or 
    their worksite must be located within a 15-minute response  time of a hospital, clinic, or
    infirmary if the worksite does not contain workplace hazards  that could cause life threatening injuries.
    According to statistics for 2003 from the Department of  Emergency Medical Services (EMS) website, EMS providers arrived at the scene of  522,345 calls with an average response time of approximately 12 minutes.   Approximately 72% of all reported calls were provided in less than 10 minutes,  and approximately 87% of all reported calls were provided in less than 15  minutes.
    The department requested more recent data from EMS for  statewide response times for all calls as well as calls for industrial sites  specifically for the years 2004 through 2006 ("Industrial premises"  includes "building under construction, dockyard, dry dock, factory  building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial yard, loading platform  in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard, shop (place of work),  warehouse and workhouse." Source:  PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element  Dictionary):
           | Statewide Response Time    Statistics by Year | 
       | "Response time"    defined as "Arrived at Scene" minus "Dispatched"
 | 
       |   | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 | 
       | All Cases:  Response    Time |   | 
       |  1-3 minutes | 13.0% | 12.9% | 12.5% | 
       |  4-15 minutes | 74.6% | 74.7% | 75.1% | 
       |  15-100 minutes | 12.4% | 12.5% | 12.5% | 
       | Mean (Average) in minutes | 8.89 | 8.94 | 8.96 | 
       | Industrial Sites Only:     Response Time |   | 
       |  1-3 minutes | 19.2% | 19.3% | 20.9% | 
       |  4-15 minutes | 75.1% | 73.9% | 72.2% | 
       |  15-100 minutes | 5.7% | 6.8% | 6.9% | 
       | Mean (Average) in minutes | 7.10 | 7.58 | 7.34 | 
  
    NOTE  1: Calculation of the above response times is from the time  "dispatched" to the time of "arrived at scene."   Although the PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element Dictionary indicates that there is  a data field called "Time of Call" defined as "Time call is first  received by Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) or other designated  entity," VOSH was informed by EMS that "Time of Call" data is  not regularly available to the local EMS responders to enter into the reporting  system. Therefore, the 2004-2006 data supplied by EMS under reports the average  response times because it does not include the time it takes for the 911 call  to be received and then referred to the local EMS provider.
    NOTE 2: Calculation of the above  response times is limited to data where a response time of between one minute  and 100 minutes was reported. EMS personnel indicated that this approach was  used to eliminate some obviously inaccurate data in the system (e.g., response  times in the negatives, response times that were several days, etc.).
    As the more recent statistics above indicate, the average EMS  response time for all cases statewide has been approximately nine minutes for  the last three years (more than twice the three to four minute response time  required by OSHA for life threatening injuries), while the average response  time to industrial sites falls between 7 and 7.5 minutes, which is 75% above  the three to four minute requirement. Furthermore, the chart demonstrates that  for all cases statewide, only 12.5 to 13% of the responses occur within the  three to four minute requirement for life threatening injuries, while from 19  to 21% of the responses occur to industrial sites within the three to four  minute requirement.
    The above statistics graphically demonstrate that the large  majority of employers in Virginia fail to meet the three to four minute  exemption contained in the interpretations for the current VOSH first aid  regulations for construction and general industry that would allow them to  avoid having a trained first aid provider on site (the OSHA 3-4 minute  interpretation applies to worksites with hazards that could cause life  threatening injuries).
    Another difficulty with the current first aid regulations is  that neither the current regulations nor federal OSHA interpretations provide  clear guidance to employers of mobile work crews who are exposed to hazards  that could cause death or serious physical harm. The proposed changes  specifically provide compliance options for such covered employers.
    Finally, to assure compliance with the current regulations,  both employers and the VOSH Program are often faced with having to document  whether an infirmary, clinic or hospital would be accessible within three to  four minutes or 15 minutes. This may include going to such lengths as having to  drive from the inspection site to the facility, or by contacting the nearest  rescue squad to determine what the normal response time would be to the  specific worksite. Even in such cases where response time information may be  readily available, the response time for emergency responders to a particular  site can vary widely from day to day depending on such factors as whether the  worksite is in an urban or rural location (see discussion below on geographic  differences in EMS response times around the state), whether the  medical/emergency response facility is staffed 24 hours a day or not, and such  vagaries as traffic congestion, road construction and weather. For these  reasons under the current regulations, the vast majority of injured employees  cannot receive timely, reliable and consistent first aid response to injuries  suffered on the job if there is no trained first aid responder on site.
    Existing Regulations Do Not Provide Adequate First Aid and CPR  Protections for Employees
    The existing general industry and construction first aid  regulations do not assure that adequate first aid attention for employees will  be provided in certain hazardous situations. For instance, current regulations  do not require CPR training for designated first aid providers, nor do they  clearly state that designated first aid providers will be available at each  hazardous work location and each work shift. The proposed changes correct these  oversights. 
    In addition, the current regulations allow an employer to  physically move an employee who had suffered a head/spinal injury or other  serious injury by transporting them to a medical facility that is within three  to four minutes driving distance, in lieu of having a trained first aid  responder on site to administer first aid and CPR while emergency response  personnel are in route.
    Existing Regulations Do Not Provide Equal First Aid/CPR  Treatment Opportunities for Similarly Exposed Employees
    The current regulations do not provide the same level of  first aid and CPR protection for employees in different general industry and  construction settings who are exposed to similar kinds of serious and life  threatening workplace hazards. For instance, a number of current industry  specific regulations require general industry and construction employers to  assure that one or more employees trained in first aid and CPR are present at  each worksite and workshift:
    General Industry
    Logging Industry employers must assure that all logging  employees receive first aid and CPR training - 16VAC25-90-1910.266(i)(7); 
    Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution  Industry employers must assure that trained first aid and CPR providers are  present for field work and fixed work locations - 16VAC25-90-1910.269(b)(1);
    Employers engaged in Welding, Cutting and Brazing must assure  that first aid can be rendered to an injured employee until medical attention  can be provided - 16VAC25-90-1910.252(c)(13);
    Telecommunications Industry employers must assure that  employees are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-90-1910.268(c)(3);
    Employers with a Temporary Labor Camp must assure that a  trained first aid and CPR provider is present at the camp -  16VAC25-90-1910.142(k)(2);
    Commercial Dive Operation employers must assure that all dive  team members are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-90-1910.410(a)(3).
    Construction Industry
    Power Generation and Distribution employers must assure that  employees are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-175-1926.950(e)(1)(ii);
    Employers involved in Underground Construction, Caissons,  Cofferdams and Compressed Air must provide a first aid station at each project  (see 16VAC25-175-1926.803(b)(7);
    Employees in the above industries benefit from greater first  aid and CPR protections than employees who, for instance, work in construction around  but not on overhead high voltage lines (contact with overhead high voltage  lines is regularly one of the top four causes of occupationally related VOSH  fatalities). The proposed changes assure that all construction and general  industry employees exposed to hazards that could cause death or serious  physical harm are provided an equal level of first aid and CPR protection.
    The Department also requested recent data from EMS for  statewide response times for calls for industrial sites broken down by  geographic region for the years 2004 through 2006 ("Industrial  premises" includes "building under construction, dockyard, dry dock,  factory building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial yard, loading  platform in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard, shop (place of  work), warehouse and workhouse." Source: PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element  Dictionary):
     
     
         
                 | Statewide Response Time    Statistics by Year for Industrial Sites Only"Response time" defined as "Arrived at Scene" minus    "Dispatched"
 | 
       |   | 2004Response Times
 | 2005 Response Times
 | 2006Response Times
 | 
       | Industrial Sites |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg | 
       | No Region Listed | 22.3% | 69.2% | 7.7 | 26.5% | 63.6% | 8.2 | 52.4% | 44.6% | 4.7 | 
       | BLUE RIDGE | 6.0% | 67.8% | 12.1 | 8.9% | 64.2% | 13.0 | 9.5% | 73.6% | 10.5 | 
       | CENTRAL SHENANDOAH | 11.1% | 82.9% | 8.1 | 16.3% | 79.2% | 7.6 | 18.9% | 73.2% | 7.8 | 
       | LORD FAIRFAX | 7.8% | 85.4% | 8.6 | 10.1% | 82.6% | 8.5 | 8.9% | 81.8% | 8.7 | 
       | NORTHERN VIRGINIA | 18.3% | 78.3% | 6.4 | 13.2% | 81.6% | 7.7 | 12.1% | 84.1% | 7.2 | 
       | OLD DOMINION | 17.2% | 77.7% | 7.2 | 15.4% | 79.0% | 7.2 | 15.7% | 79.3% | 6.9 | 
       | PENINSULAS | 44.1% | 53.1% | 4.8 | 41.1% | 56.4% | 4.9 | 46.1% | 51.5% | 4.9 | 
       | RAPPAHANNOCK | 13.1% | 77.2% | 8.5 | 10.9% | 80.2% | 8.8 | 13.5% | 74.3% | 9.2 | 
       | SOUTHWEST VIRGINIA | 9.5% | 73.1% | 10.4 | 12.6% | 67.0% | 10.5 | 13.2% | 69.1% | 10.0 | 
       | THOMAS JEFFERSON | 9.9% | 67.3% | 11.3 | 10.7% | 76.2% | 10.0 | 7.1% | 66.9% | 12.0 | 
       | TIDEWATER | 15.1% | 79.1% | 7.6 | 12.3% | 82.7% | 7.8 | 11.4% | 83.1% | 7.6 | 
       | WESTERN VIRGINIA | 25.9% | 66.9% | 7.2 | 26.2% | 69.1% | 6.8 | 22.5% | 72.7% | 6.9 | 
       | Total | 19.1% | 75.1% | 7.1 | 19.1% | 74.0% | 7.6 | 20.7% | 72.3% | 7.3 | 
  
         
          NOTE 1:  Calculation of the above response times is from the time "dispatched"  to the time of "arrived at scene."  Although the PPCR/PPDR  Program Data Element Dictionary indicates that there is a data field called  "Time of Call" defined as "Time call is first received by Public  Safety Answering Point (PSAP) or other designated entity," VOSH was  informed by EMS that "Time of Call" data is not regularly available  to the local EMS responders to enter into the reporting system. Therefore, the  2004-2006 data supplied by EMS under reports the average response times because  it does not include the time it takes for the 911 call to be received and then  referred to the local EMS provider.
    NOTE 2: Calculation of the above response times is  limited to data where a response time of between one minute and 100 minutes was  reported. EMS personnel indicated that this approach was used to eliminate some  obviously inaccurate data in the system (e.g. response times in the negatives,  response times that were several days, etc.).
    As the above statistics indicate, there is a wide disparity  in EMS response times across the state based on geographic region. For instance  in 2006 there is a range of a low of 7.1% of EMS responses occurring within one  to three minutes in the Thomas Jefferson region to a high of 46.1% within one  to three minutes in the Peninsulas region; while the average response times  range from 4.9 minutes in the Peninsulas' region to 12 minutes in the Thomas  Jefferson region.
    Again, the above statistics graphically demonstrate that the  large majority of employers in Virginia cannot meet the three to four minute  exemption contained in the interpretations for the exemption contained in the  current VOSH first aid regulations for construction and general industry that  would allow them to avoid having a trained first aid provider on site (the  three to four minute interpretation applies to worksites with hazards that  could cause life threatening injuries). In addition, the geographic disparities  in response time demonstrate that the current regulations do not provide equal  access to adequate first aid and CPR protections for employees.
    The Existing General Industry First Aid Regulation is  Overreaching
    The current general industry  regulation is overreaching in that it applies to all general industry  employers, even when there are no workplace hazards present that could pose a  threat of serious physical harm or death, such as in office settings (it should  be noted that, with rare exceptions, construction worksites are universally  acknowledged to contain both job classifications and workplace hazards that
  are likely to cause death or serious physical harm). The proposed regulations  will exclude worksites that do not contain such serious hazards from the  requirement to provide designated employees with first aid and CPR training.
    Substance: The VOSH Program seeks the amendment of  medical services and first aid regulations for general industry §1910.151(b),  and the construction industry, §1926.50(c) to require  construction and general industry employers to train and designate a person or  persons to render first aid and CPR during all workshifts on worksites  containing job classifications or workplace hazards that could expose employees  to serious physical harm or death; and to provide employers with some  flexibility to make arrangements for first aid and CPR services on individual  work sites. The proposed regulations will also exclude certain low hazard  industries and employers from the requirement to provide first aid and CPR  training. In addition, the proposed changes also clarify requirements for  employers of mobile crews and individual mobile employees.
    Issues: A primary advantage of the proposed regulation  is that employers covered by the proposed regulation would be required to have  at each job site and for each work shift at least one employee trained in first  aid and CPR, thereby increasing protection of their employees.
    The proposed changes eliminate inequities contained in the  existing regulations by assuring all construction and general industry  employees exposed to hazards that could cause death or serious physical harm  equal access to first aid and CPR services, regardless of their specific  industrial or construction setting, or the geographical location of their work.  As noted in the "Purpose" section above, only employees engaged in  the following industries benefit from regulations requiring the immediate  presence of first aid/CPR trained providers at their worksite:
    Logging
    Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution  (General Industry)
    Power Generation and Distribution (Construction Industry)
    Welding, Cutting and Brazing
    Telecommunications
    Temporary Labor Camp (Migrant Labor)
    Commercial Dive Operation
    Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams and Compressed  Air
    A disadvantage is that some employers would have to incur the  additional cost of securing such training, although many employers currently  already assure that some employees are trained in first aid and CPR.
    Another advantage to employers would be that costs associated  with compliance with the proposed regulation will be lessened by the specific  language in the proposal that allows an employer to make written arrangements  with other contractors/employers on the same job site to provide designated  employees to serve as first aid and CPR responders.
    Also, costs associated with the current regulation will be  eliminated for employers on worksites where there are no hazards that could  result in serious physical harm or death, by excluding such worksites from  coverage.
    Additionally, the proposed changes eliminate confusion and  clarify requirements for employers of mobile crews and individual mobile  employees.
    Finally, to assure compliance with the current regulations,  both employers and the VOSH Program are often faced with having to document whether  an infirmary, clinic or hospital would be accessible within three to four  minutes by going to such lengths as having to drive from the inspection site to  the facility, or by contacting the nearest rescue squad to determine what there  normal response time would be to the specific worksite (see above discussion of  federal OSHA interpretations in the “Purpose” section). The proposed changes  eliminate the three to four minute and 15 minute interpretation requirements.
    The Department of Planning  and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed  Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia Department of Labor and Industry  (Department) proposes to amend the medical services and first aid regulations  for general industry and for the construction industry such that in high hazard  industries and on worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards  that could potentially expose employees to serious physical harm or death,  employers must designate and train at least one employee during all work shifts  to render immediate first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).   The person or persons would have to have a valid, current certificate in  first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red  Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary evidence.  Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make written arrangements with  and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the same job site to  provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. The proposed amendment would not  apply to worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards that do  not expose employees to serious physical harm or death (e.g., office settings).
    Result of Analysis. There is insufficient data to accurately  compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs. Detailed analysis of  the benefits and costs can be found in the next section.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Under the current regulation,  employers in general industry must only train a person or persons to render  first aid if there is no infirmary, clinic, or hospital which is used for the  treatment of all injured employees in near proximity to the workplace.  The following industries that fall under the general industry category have  more stringent rules: (1) logging, (2) electric power generation, transmission,  and distribution, (3) telecommunications, (4) temporary labor camps, (5)  commercial diver operations, and (6) welding, cutting, and brazing. In the  first five categories, regulations require employers to train at least one  person—if not all employees—in first aid and CPR. The welding, cutting, and  brazing requirements state that "All injuries shall be reported a soon as  possible for medical attention. First aid shall be rendered until medical  attention can be provided." For the remainder of this document, it will be  assumed that the current regulation implies that employers in welding, cutting,  and brazing are required to ensure that a first aid-trained employee be on the  worksite at all time either by training employees herself or by contracting  with another employer onsite.
    Under the current regulation, the requirements for first aid  treatment in the construction industry differ only slightly from those in  general industry. In the construction industry, employers must only train a  person or persons to render first aid if there is no infirmary, clinic,  hospital, or physician, which is available for the treatment of injured  employees that is reasonably accessible in terms of time and distance to the  worksite. In addition to specific requirements for first aid supplies, the  regulation for the construction industry also specifies that the person trained  to render first aid must have a valid certificate in first-aid training from  the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that  can be verified by documentary evidence; provisions shall be made prior to  commencement of the project for prompt medical attention in case of serious  injury; proper equipment for prompt transportation of the injured person to a  physician or hospital, or a communication system for contacting necessary  ambulance service shall be provided; and in areas where 911 is not available,  the telephone numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be  conspicuously posted. The categories in the construction industry with more  stringent first aid requirements are: (1) electric power generation,  transmission, and distribution, for which the Department requires the training  of employees in first aid and CPR, and (2) underground construction, caissons,  cofferdams, and compressed air, which must have a first aid station and  ambulance at each project.
    In sum, under the current regulations, most firms or  organizations in general and construction industry are required to have a  first-aid-trained employee on site only if medical attention in the form of  infirmaries, clinics, or hospitals is not in near proximity or reasonably  accessible. These regulations are identical to those required by the U.S.  Department of Labor Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA  interprets near proximity and reasonably accessible to mean that emergency  medical services must be available within 3-4 minutes in workplaces where  "serious accidents such as those involving falls, suffocation,  electrocution, or amputation are possible" and up to 15 minutes in  workplaces, such as offices, where the possibility of such serious work-related  injuries is more remote.1
    The proposed amendments aim to make the first-aid requirements  for high-hazard general and construction industry employers more stringent than  those required by the federal government. Under the proposed amendments,  employers will be required to designate and train at least one employee during  all work shifts to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary  resuscitation (CPR). The person or persons would have to have a valid, current  certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the  American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary  evidence. Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site to provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. As under the  current regulation, if an employer does not comply with the regulation, the  Department will issue a citation and may assess a penalty and the employer must  change his practices to comply with the regulation. The penalty will depend  upon the nature and circumstances of the violation.
    With the exception of welding, cutting, and brazing, the  categories of general and construction industry discussed above that already  require first aid and CPR training of employees will not be affected by the  proposed amendment, since their first aid requirements are already more  stringent. (Employers whose work sites engage in welding, cutting, and brazing  will be required to train an employee in CPR and first aid; under current  regulations they are required only to train an employee in first aid.) In  addition, the proposed amendment for general and construction industry  "does not apply to worksites containing job classifications or workplace  hazards that do not expose employees to serious physical harm or death (e.g.,  office settings)". In other words, the proposed amendments will affect in  the same way all firms/organizations (construction and general industry) with  job classifications or workplace hazards that could potentially expose  employees to serious physical harm or death. Therefore, the remainder of this  document will look at the costs and benefits of changing the requirements for  the general and construction industries simultaneously.
    As mentioned above, the proposed amendments do also change the  requirements for low-hazard worksites. Under current regulations, these  worksites are required to have medical services available within 15 minutes or  have a first aid-trained person on site at all times. Under the proposed  amendments, employers at these worksites will no longer have any requirements with  regards to the immediate provision of first aid or CPR. Finally, the proposed  amendments explicitly state the requirements for employers of mobile work crews  and individual mobile employees that are not explicitly stated in the current  regulation.
    The proposed amendments will affect all employers in Virginia.  The Department estimates that of the 215,201 employers in Virginia, this  amendment will make the first aid/CPR requirements more stringent for around  150,000 employers since the Department estimates that around 17,000  establishments are already in compliance with the proposed regulations (or have  more stringent current regulations), around 59,000 establishments do not have  job classifications or work site hazards that could result in serious physical  harm or death, and around 300 establishments do not fall within Department  jurisdiction. It is important to note, however, that these numbers are  estimates. Within a particular industry that is normally considered to be low  hazard, there may be some specific work sites or portions of the establishments  that have job classifications or workplace hazards that would fall under the  more stringent requirements of the proposed regulation. For example, a large  department store that has service personnel who deal directly with customers  who would not be exposed to serious or life-threatening hazards may also have  warehouse personnel who operate forklifts and are therefore exposed to such  hazards. As another example, a supermarket may have retail clerks who are not  exposed to serious hazards, but may also have personnel using potentially  dangerous equipment, such as a meat slicing machine. Therefore, although some  businesses in the areas of Retail or Wholesale Trade may only have office  workers, the section could not be considered exempt from the proposed  regulation.
    It is also unclear how the proposed amendments will change the  work practices of those 150,000 employers with job classifications or work site  hazards that could result in serious physical harm or death. First, the current  regulation requires employers to have a first aid-trained employee on site at  all times if they cannot meet the "near proximity" or  "reasonable access" requirements. The only change that this amendment  will impose on the employers who comply with current regulation by having a  first aid-trained person on site is to require that the person be trained in  CPR as well. Since it is unknown how many employers currently have a first  aid-trained person on site, and how many of those employees are also trained in  CPR, the statewide cost of the proposed amendment on employers is not clear.  Second, the cost to employers depends upon the number of employees that they  will need to train and employee turnover rates. For example, a small butcher shop  with low staff turnover that uses a meat-slicing machine might need to train at  most one employee every year. On the other hand, a small contractor might have  to train 2-3 employees per month if she has a total of 20 employees at any  given time who work at varying job sites, but also has a high turnover in  employees. Of course, employers who send employees onto job sites can provide  first aid and CPR through a contract with another organization at the job site,  but that contract process could be costly or infeasible, depending upon  circumstances.
    The table below gives an example of the time and monetary cost  of first aid and CPR training provided by Virginia chapters of the American Red  Cross.
           | Course | Cost | Certification | 
       | Greater Richmond Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 5 hours, $55 | One-year Adult CPR certification | 
       | Adult CPR review | 4 hours, $45 | Renewal of one-year certification in Adult CPR | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 8 hours, $65 | One year Adult CPR certification, three year first aid    certification | 
       | Central Virginia Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $41 | One year Adult CPR certification | 
       | Adult CPR review | 4 hours, $31 | Renewal of one-year certification in Adult CPR | 
       | First aid | 4 hours, $38 | Three year first aid certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 8.5 hours, $62 | One year Adult CPR certification, three year first aid    certification | 
       | Hampton Roads Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $35 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | First aid | 3-4 hours, $35 | Three year first aid    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7-8 hours, $45 | One year Adult CPR certification,    three year first aid certification | 
       | Alexandria Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4.5 - 5 hours, $45 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | First aid | 4.5 hours, $40 | Three year first aid    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7.5 hours, $60 | One year Adult CPR certification,    three year first aid certification | 
       | Mountain Empire Chapter,    Bristol | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $29 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7-8 hours, $37 | One year Adult CPR    certification, three year first aid certification | 
  
    Source: American Red Cross,  http://www.redcross.org/where/chapts.asp#VA
    Say, then, that a butcher shop in central Virginia needs to  have two trained employees in order to have someone on staff at all times who  is first aid/CPR-trained. Assume that one trained person is the owner, who will  be trained the first year, but needs only the refresher courses the following  years. The owner also has to train a new employee every year. The first year of  courses will cost the shop $62+$62=$124 for the course and $246.50 for the  time, since 17 hours will have to be reallocated from normal activities to  training and butchers make, on average, $14.50/hour2 in Virginia.  This makes for a total cost of around $370.50 for the first year. The second  and third years will cost the shop around $274.253 since the owner  will only need a renewal in the CPR training. (The cost of the fourth year,  however, will be the same as the first year since there is no renewal course in  first aid training.) Therefore, the proposed amendment will cost the butcher,  on average, $306.33 annually4. The construction firm, on the other  hand, that needs to train two employees per month, however, will spend a total  of $124 for classes and $295.80 for the lost 17 hours of work5 per  month, for a total of $5037.60 annually6. These figures do not  include, of course, the lost work time should something unplanned happen to the  first aid/CPR-trained employee, making it impossible for that worker to be on  site (such as illness, death in the family, etc.) and, therefore, against  regulations for the other workers to continue to work until a trained  replacement can be found or the employee can return to work.
    Ideally, we would then take some weighted average of $306.33  and $5037.60 and multiply it by the total number of affected firms to get a  total cost of the proposed amendment. However, some firms—particularly small  construction firms that regularly move employees from site to site—might choose  to satisfy the requirements by contracting with another firm to provide the first  aid. Those contractual costs could be small if the firm has an existing  contract with the other firm on site, or they could be large if the firm needs  to hire a lawyer to draw up a contract "sharing" the  first-aid/CPR-trained employee. The lack of information on how many firms are  currently in compliance with the proposed regulation and how firms would choose  to satisfy the proposed regulation makes it difficult to estimate a total cost  of the proposed amendments to Virginia firms.
    The benefits of the proposed amendments for citizens and  organizations are equally difficult to quantify. In 2005, there were 163 fatal  injuries (including 22 due to assaults and violent acts)7 and  approximately 126 non-fatal injuries8 in non-agricultural industry  in Virginia.9 Below is a graph of the fatal injuries in Virginia  from 1992 through 2005. As the graph illustrates, although the number of fatal  injuries in 2005 is high, the numbers do not necessarily indicate an increasing  trend in the data. The number of non-fatal injuries does not show an increasing  trend either.
    
    Source: Department of Labor and Industry, http://www.doli.virginia.gov/whatwedo/coop_prog/research_p1.html  
    It is difficult to estimate the number of fatalities that would  have been avoided had first aid been available on site. There have been two  deaths in the past five years where Virginia Occupational Safety and Health  Compliance Program (VOSH) inspectors recommended issuing a fatality-related  violation for lack of first aid training. Based on this information, the  Department estimates that these proposed amendments would save about 1-2 lives  every five years.
    The Department cites OSHA’s 2006 adoption of its Hexavalent  Chromium Standard to apply a value of $6.8 million to each premature fatality  avoided.10 If 1-2 lives are saved every five years, this amendment  will result in an annual savings of approximately $1.36-$2.72 million.  According to the OSHA document, this $6.8 million figure came from EPA, which  used studies on individuals’ willingness-to-pay (WTP) to reduce the risk of  premature death. These contingent valuation studies normally present  respondents with hypothetical fatality risk situations and ask how much they  would pay for a particular risk reduction. There are other ways to estimate the  value of a statistical life (VSL) and over the past few decades, researchers  have developed numerous methodologies for determining the VSL. For a discussion  of these analyses, see Viscusi (2006) or Viscusi and Aldy (2003). For the  purposes of this analysis, however, we will simply note that $6.8 million is an  average figure in the range of determined VSL values, almost all of which fall  between $1 million to $20 million.
    According to one study, most severely injured patients who die  in the first few hours after injury succumb to airway compromise, respiratory  failure, or uncontrolled hemorrhage, all of which can be treated using basic  first aid measures.11 (Injuries that could cause these problems are  crushing injuries, injuries caused by falls from heights such as in  construction, injuries caused by machinery in manufacturing, and electric  shock.) Of course, under the current regulation, patients will be treated  within minutes, but the Department is concerned with the number of minutes it  takes to receive treatment. In justifying its 3-4 minute response time  interpretation of reasonable accessibility of medical care, OSHA writes that:
    Medical literature establishes that, for serious injuries such  as those involving stopped breathing, cardiac arrest, or uncontrolled bleeding,  first aid treatment must be provided within the first few minutes to avoid  permanent medical impairment or death. Accordingly, in workplaces where serious  accidents such as those involving falls, suffocation, electrocution, or  amputation are possible, emergency medical services must be available within  3-4 minutes, if there is no employee on the site who is trained to render first  aid.
    In fact, it seems to be widely accepted that medical attention  within a few minutes of a serious injury can significantly improve the  individual’s probability of avoiding death or long-term health consequences  such as amputation or permanent damage.
    There are also studies that indicate that having a first aid  person readily available reduces the risk of serious injury or death. According  to the Canadian Red Cross and SMARTRISK, a non-profit organization dedicated to  preventing injuries and saving lives, getting trained in first aid can reduce  your risk of injury by more than 40 percent.12 Research conducted by  St. John Ambulance found that the number of work-related injuries is reduced by  between 20 and 30 percent when workers are trained in first aid.13  According to the International Labor Organization Encyclopedia of Occupational  Health and Safety, defibrillation administered within four minutes of cardiac  arrest yields survival rates of 40 to 50%, versus less than 5% if given later.  For chemical eye injuries, immediate flushing with water can save eyesight. For  spinal cord injuries, correct immobilization can make the difference between  full recovery and paralysis. For hemorrhages, the simple application of a  fingertip to a bleeding vessel can stop life-threatening blood loss.14
    The Department argues that most  employers are not providing medical care as quickly as they should. The  Department of Emergency Medical Services (EMS) statistics indicate that many  employers in Virginia are not providing care within four minutes of injury. In  2004, 2005, and 2006 the average EMS response time for all calls was 8.89 minutes,  8.94 minutes, and 8.96 minutes, respectively. The table below provides response  time for industrial sites:
     
           | Statewide Industrial Site*    Response time ("Arrived at Scene" minus "Dispatched")15 | 
       |   | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 | 
       | 1-3 minutes | 19.2% | 19.3% | 20.9% | 
       | 4-15 minutes | 75.1% | 73.9% | 72.2% | 
       | 15-100 minutes | 5.7% | 6.8% | 6.9% | 
       | Average time in minutes | 7.10 | 7.58 | 7.34 | 
       | *    "Industrial sites" includes building under construction, dockyard,    dry dock, factory building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial    yard, loading platform in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard,    shop (place of work), warehouse and workhouse) | 
  
    It is important to note that we do not know how many of these  worksites were high-hazard (although according to the Department, most  industrial sites are high-hazard) and we do not know how many of these  worksites had a first-aid person on staff. In other words, although these  numbers give an indication of unacceptably high response times, we do not know  for sure that these job sites are out of compliance with the current  regulation.
    The Department argues, however, that this is not just a  compliance issue. They feel that satisfying the 3-4 minute rule from injury to  medical care is a near-impossible task for employers, no matter how close the  site is to the hospital. Many employers, it argues, believe that they are in  compliance with the regulation but in reality, even without the concerns of  road congestion or unusually high numbers of accidents in the area, it takes  longer to actually get to medical care than employers estimate. Emergency rooms  are often crowded and communication with hospital or clinic staff takes  additional time.
    If it is true that lives will be saved, or that a potentially  serious injury could be prevented by passing these amendments, then the  amendment does provide significant benefits. These benefits include, but are  not limited to, the lives that will be saved. Employers will not only save an  experienced worker by reducing the chance of death or serious injury, they will  also save financially by reducing their workers’ compensation premiums,  reducing workers’ compensation payments, and reducing short-term disability  payments. In addition, it is easy to imagine a loss in productivity due to  reduced morale in workers with the death or serious injury of one of their  colleagues. If workers lose enough confidence in the speed of medical  attention, they might even leave the job, which will require an employer to  train a new person for the job. Given that those with job alternatives are  often the more skilled or experienced workers, this loss could add a  significant cost to an employer.
    Another benefit of the proposed amendments is a reduction in  enforcement time. To evaluate if a worksite is in compliance, an enforcement  officer has to evaluate the time it would take response teams to get to the  worksite, which could include driving to the hospital or clinic, perhaps more  than once if road congestion or emergency facility staffing at a particular  time of day is a concern. The Department estimates that this will save at least  200 man-hours annually, since there are on average 400 first aid violations  cited per year and it takes around 30 minutes to verify that there was no  rescue squad or other medical attention within 3-4 minute response time. These  200 man-hours do not, of course, include the time it took to verify when the  inspector was able to determine that there was medical attention available  within 3-4 minutes. Since construction inspectors make approximately $20.00 per  hour16, this offers a total benefit to taxpayers of $4000 annually. 
    In addition, the ambiguity of the three-to-four minute  requirement reduces employers' likelihood of compliance and gives employers the  opportunity to argue with inspectors about their compliance. The proposed  amendments would make compliance easier to evaluate and easier to enforce. By  reducing the time it takes an enforcement officer to evaluate compliance, the  proposed amendments will allow officers to evaluate more sites. If officers can  evaluate more sites, compliance will improve not only because more  non-compliant employers can be caught, but also because it will increase the  concern among employers of being evaluated. In addition, the Department argues  that employers are more likely to comply when the regulation is unambiguous. 
    Finally, the proposed amendments change the requirements for  worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards that do not  expose employees to serious physical harm or death, such as office settings.  One benefit of this amendment is that employers in office settings can save  money by not having to be within fifteen minutes of a hospital or have a first  aid person on staff. Under the proposed amendment, those employers with  low-hazard worksites that are not currently within fifteen minutes of a  hospital or clinic will save the costs of training the requisite number of  employees in first aid/CPR, which would be somewhere around the $306.33 or  $5037.60 estimated earlier in this document. (As previously noted, the lack of  data on current compliance rates makes it impossible to quantify total  savings.) Another benefit is that enforcement officers no longer need to ensure  compliance in non-hazardous work settings, which will save further enforcement  time. The cost is that workers in those settings might not have immediate  access to necessary health care; however, because fifteen minutes is not likely  to mitigate the effects of a serious injury, and these workers are not exposed  to workplace hazards and not likely to need medical care often, these costs are  also not likely to be significant.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. According to the Virginia  Employment Commission (VEC) fourth quarter data, there were 215,201 employers  in Virginia. 17 All of these employers would be potentially affected  by the proposed amendments. The Department estimates that for about 65,000 of  these employers, the regulation would become less stringent under the proposed  amendments, but for about 150,000 of these employers, the regulation would  become more stringent.
    Localities Particularly Affected. All Virginia localities may  have individuals or organizations that would be affected by these amendments.
    Projected Impact on Employment. These amendments could reduce  employment if employers choose not to hire because of the cost of ensuring that  a first-aid-trained person is on staff at all times. This is particularly  relevant if an employer hires and sends out mobile work groups. In this case,  the cost of training someone in first aid could be too much to merit hiring the  other people who would be sent out on the job with the first-aid-trained  employee.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. If the cost  of training the requisite number of employees in first aid and CPR is onerous  to a small business owner, then these amendments could reduce the value of  his/her business. In addition, if employers pass the cost onto their consumers  (such as the owner of a construction company passing the cost onto homebuyers),  then these amendments could moderately increase the cost of some products and  services. 
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. According to the  Virginia Employment Commission (VEC) 2006 fourth quarter data, 214,568 of the  215,201 employers in Virginia have less than 500 employees, so 99.7% of  Virginia employers qualify as small businesses.18 This means that  approximately 150,000 small businesses will be affected by the proposed  amendments. The cost to small businesses will be the same costs as listed  above: the course fee and the opportunity (time) cost of training as many  employees in first aid and/or CPR as necessary to ensure that one trained  employee is on site at all times, or the cost of developing a contract with a  different on-site employer.
    On the other hand, the costs above will only apply to small  business owners who do not currently have a first aid/CPR-trained person on  site and part of those costs could be offset by the money saved from not having  to pay workers’ compensation or short-term disability if the effects of an  accident can be mitigated by faster care. In addition, costs will be reduced if  an experienced worker who might have died is saved by faster care and can  return to work. For those small businesses with only low-hazard job sites, such  as sites devoted solely to office work, costs will be reduced by not having to  be concerned with first aid or CPR care at all. (This cost decrease will affect  only those sites that are more than 15 minutes away from a hospital, clinic, or  infirmary.) 
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. If the only way to ensure workers’ access to immediate health care in  the case of emergency is to mandate that a first aid/CPR-trained person be on  site, then there is no alternative method that minimizes adverse impact.
    If a 3-4 minute response time is sufficient, however, and if it  is possible to get care from a medical facility within 3-4 minutes, then the  problem is not the current regulation, but the fact that employers are not  meeting the 3-4 minute requirement of the regulation. One alternative would be  to ensure that all employers of workers on high-hazard worksites know that they  must be able to provide treatment within four minutes no matter the area  of the state or the time of day, and that if they cannot meet that standard,  they must have a first aid/CPR-trained person on site or suffer the  consequences of non-compliance. Currently, employers have a choice. If they are  not within the prescribed time/distance from medical care, then they must have  a first aid-trained person on site anyway. If no one is currently within the  prescribed time/distance from medical care, and work sites are in compliance,  then the only effect of the amendment is to require CPR-training in addition to  first-aid training. If, however, there is even one small business that actually  is within 3-4 minutes of medical care, and 3-4 minutes is what workers need to  be safe, then this amendment imposes a cost to business overall with no benefit  except for the additional CPR requirement. In this case, an alternative to the  proposed amendment would be simply to add the CPR training requirement to the  first aid training requirement if the worksite is not within 3-4 minutes of  medical attention. The Department could also put language into the regulation  that strongly encourages firms to have a first aid person on site, given the  difficulties in providing care within four minutes discussed above. 
    This alternative will probably increase, not decrease,  enforcement time, but it could provide a less costly option to the proposed  amendments. 
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments will  directly increase costs for those real estate developers who are employers and  who were using the near proximity or reasonable access clause in order  to comply with current regulations. The cost to real estate developers will be  the same costs as listed above: the course fees and the opportunity (time) cost  of training as many employees in first aid and/or CPR as necessary to ensure  that one trained employee is on site at all times, or the cost of developing a  contract with a different on-site employer.
    Those costs could be partially offset by the money saved from  not having to pay workers’ compensation or short-term disability if the effects  of an accident can be mitigated by faster care. In addition, costs will be  reduced if an experienced worker who might have died is saved by faster care  and can return to work. If real estate developers have low-hazard job sites,  such as sites devoted solely to office work, then their costs on those sites  will be reduced by not having to be concerned with first aid or CPR care at  all. (This cost decrease will affect only those sites that are more than 15  minutes away from a hospital, clinic, or infirmary.) Therefore, the cost of the  proposed amendments to real estate development is ambiguous.
    References
    International Labor Organization, Encyclopedia,  http://www.ilo.org/encyclopaedia/?d&nd=857400218&prevDoc=857400218&spack=000listid%3D010000000400%26listpos%3D0%26lsz%3D1%26nd%3D857000071%26nh%3D2%26
    Northern News Service, "Learning to Stay Safe: First Aid  courses give workers essential information," May 1998.  http://www.nnsl.com//frames/newspapers/1998-05/may18_98safe5.html
    Sasser, Scott M. et al, "Preventing death and  disability through the timely provision of prehospital trauma care," World  Health Organization Bulletin. July 2006. 84(7): 507.
    SMARTRISK, "First Aid Training Reduces Risk of  Injury," September 2004,  http://www.smartrisk.ca/ContentDirector.aspx?tp=1547
    Viscusi, W. Kip, "Monetizing the Benefits of Risk and  Environmental Regulation," April 2006. AEI-Brookings Joint Center for  Regulatory Studies Working Paper 06-09.  http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=979335
    Viscusi, W. Kip and Joseph Aldy, "The Value of a  Statistical Life: A Critical Review of Market Estimates Throughout the  World," The Journal of Risk and Uncertainty, 2003. 27(1): 5-76.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number 36  (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include,  but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or other  entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any localities and  types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the projected  number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the projected costs  to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation,  and the impact on the use and value of private property. Further, if the  proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses, Section 2.2-4007.04  requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an identification and  estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the regulation; (ii) the  projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for  small businesses to comply with the regulation, including the type of  professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other  documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on  affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less  costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The  analysis presented above represents DPB’s best estimate of these economic  impacts.
    ______________________________________________
                                                                            Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Labor and Industry has no additional comment in response to the  economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments change the medical services and  first aid regulations for general industry and for the construction industry  such that in high hazard industries and on worksites containing job classifications  or workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to serious  physical harm or death, employers must designate and train at least one  employee during all work shifts to render immediate first aid and  cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The person or persons would have to have a  valid, current certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau  of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified  by documentary evidence. Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make  written arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer  on the same job site to provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. The  proposed amendment would not apply to worksites containing job classifications  or workplace hazards that do not expose employees to serious physical harm or  death (e.g., office settings).
    16VAC25-90-1910.151. Medical services and first aid. (Repealed.)
    (a) The employer shall ensure the ready availability of  medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of plant health.
    (b) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, or hospital in  near proximity to the workplace which is used for the treatment of all injured  employees, a person or persons shall be adequately trained to render first aid.  Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    (c) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    Appendix A to §1910.151—First aid kits (Non-Mandatory)
    First aid supplies are required to be readily available  under paragraph §1910.151(b). An example of the minimal contents of a generic  first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1–1998  “Minimum Requirements for Workplace First-aid Kits.” The contents of the kit  listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small worksites. When larger  operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same location,  employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at the  worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and additional  quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid kits.
    In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or  changing first-aid needs in their workplace may need to enhance their first-aid  kits. The employer can use the OSHA 200 log, OSHA 101's or other reports to  identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local fire/rescue  department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency room may be  helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the specific needs of  their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably anticipated supplies are  available. Employers should assess the specific needs of their worksite  periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
    If it is reasonably anticipated that employees will be  exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first aid  supplies, employers are required to provide appropriate personal protective  equipment (PPE) in compliance with the provisions of the Occupational Exposure  to Blood borne Pathogens standard, §1910.1030(d)(3) (56 FR 64175). This  standard lists appropriate PPE for this type of exposure, such as gloves,  gowns, face shields, masks, and eye protection.
    CHAPTER 95
  MEDICAL SERVICES AND FIRST AID STANDARDS FOR GENERAL INDUSTRY
    16VAC25-95-10. Medical services and first aid standards for  general industry.
    A. The employer shall ensure the ready availability of  medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of plant health.
    B. A person or persons shall be designated by the employer  and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary resuscitation  (CPR) during all workshifts on worksites containing job classifications or  workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to serious physical  harm or death. The designated person or persons shall have a valid, current  certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the  American Red Cross, or the National Safety Council, or equivalent training that  can be verified by documentary evidence, and shall be available at the worksite  to render first aid and CPR to injured or ill employees.
    C. Covered employers are permitted to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site or establishment to provide designated employees to serve as  first aid and CPR responders for employees of the covered employer.
    D. Employers of mobile work crews (i.e., crews that travel  to more than one worksite per day) of two or more employees that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that at least one employee on the mobile crew is  designated and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and CPR during  all workshifts; or
    2. Comply with subsection C of this section.
    E. Employers of individual mobile employees (i.e., an  employee who travels alone to more than one worksite per day) that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that the mobile employee is adequately trained to  self-administer first aid;
    2. Comply with subsection C of this section; or
    3. Assure that their employee has access to a communication  system that will allow them to immediately request medical assistance through a  911 emergency call or comparable communication system.
    F. Subsections A through E of this section do not apply to  worksites that do not contain job classifications or workplace hazards that expose  employees to serious physical harm or death.
    G. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    H. Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    16VAC25-175-1926.50. Medical services and first aid. (Repealed.)
    (a) The employer shall insure the availability of medical  personnel for advice and consultation on matters of occupational health.
    (b) Provisions shall be made prior to commencement of the  project for prompt medical attention in case of serious injury.
    (c) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, hospital, or  physician, that is reasonably accessible in terms of time and distance to the  worksite, which is available for the treatment of injured employees, a person  who has a valid certificate in first-aid training from the U.S. Bureau of  Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary  evidence, shall be available at the worksite to render first aid.
    (d)(1) First aid supplies shall be easily accessible when  required.
    (2) The contents of the first aid kit shall be placed in a  weatherproof container with individual sealed packages for each type of item,  and shall be checked by the employer before being sent out on each job and at  least weekly on each job to ensure that the expended items are replaced.
    (e) Proper equipment for prompt transportation of the  injured person to a physician or hospital, or a communication system for  contacting necessary ambulance service, shall be provided.
    (f) In areas where 911 is not available, the telephone  numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously  posted.
    (g) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    Appendix A to §1926.50—First aid Kits (Non-Mandatory)
    First aid supplies are required to be easily accessible  under paragraph §1926.50(d)(1). An example of the minimal contents of a generic  first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1–1978  “Minimum Requirements for Industrial Unit-Type First-aid Kits”. The contents of  the kit listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small work sites.  When larger operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same  location, employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at  the worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and  additional quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid  kits.
    In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or  changing first-aid needs in their workplace, may need to enhance their  first-aid kits. The employer can use the OSHA 200 log, OSHA 101's or other  reports to identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local  Fire/Rescue Department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency  room may be helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the  specific needs of their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably  anticipated supplies are available. Employers should assess the specific needs  of their worksite periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
    If it is reasonably anticipated employees will be exposed  to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first-aid  supplies, employers should provide personal protective equipment (PPE).  Appropriate PPE includes gloves, gowns, face shields, masks and eye protection  (see “Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens”, 29 CFR 1910.1030(d)(3))  (56 FR 64175).
    CHAPTER 177
  MEDICAL SERVICES AND FIRST AID STANDARDS FOR THE CONSTRUCTION INDUSTRY
    16VAC25-177-10. Medical services and first aid standards for  the construction industry.
    A. The employer shall ensure the availability of medical  personnel for advice and consultation on matters of occupational health.
    B. Provisions shall be made prior to commencement of the  project for prompt medical attention in case of serious injury.
    C. A person or persons shall be designated by the employer  and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary  resuscitation (CPR) during all workshifts on worksites containing job  classifications or workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to  serious physical harm or death. The designated person or persons shall have a  valid, current certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau  of Mines, the American Red Cross, or the National Safety Council, or equivalent  training that can be verified by documentary evidence, and shall be available  at the worksite to render first aid and CPR to injured or ill employees.
    D. Covered employers are permitted to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site or establishment to provide designated employees to serve as  first aid and CPR responders for employees of the covered employer.
    E. Employers of mobile work crews (i.e., crews that travel  to more than one worksite per day) of two or more employees that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that at least one employee on the mobile crew is  designated and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and CPR during  all workshifts; or
    2. Comply with subsection D of this section. 
    F. Employers of individual mobile employees (i.e., an  employee who travels alone to more than one worksite per day) that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that the mobile employee is adequately trained to  self-administer first aid;
    2. Comply with subsection D of this section; or
    3. Assure that their employee has access to a communication  system that will allow them to immediately request medical assistance through a  911 emergency call or comparable communication system. 
    G. Subsections A through F of this section do not apply to  worksites that do not contain job classifications or workplace hazards that  expose employees to serious physical harm or death. 
    H. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    I. The contents of the first aid kit shall be placed in a  weatherproof container with individual sealed packages for each type of item  and shall be checked by the employer before being sent out on each job and at  least weekly on each job to ensure that the expended items are replaced.
    J. A communication system for contacting necessary  ambulance service shall be provided.
    K. In areas where 911 is not available, the telephone  numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously  posted.
    L. Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R07-05; Filed September 9, 2008, 2:09 p.m. 
TITLE 16. LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT
SAFETY AND HEALTH CODES BOARD
Extension of Public Comment Period
    Titles of Regulations: 16VAC25-90. Federal Identical  General Industry Standards (29 CFR Part 1910) (repealing 16VAC25-90-1910.269 (p)(1)(ii)).
    16VAC25-97. Reverse Signal Operation Safety Requirements for  Motor Vehicles, Machinery and Equipment in General Industry and the  Construction Industry (adding 16VAC25-97-10 through 16VAC25-97-70).
    16VAC25-175. Federal Identical Construction Industry  Standards (29 CFR Part 1926) (repealing 16VAC25-175-1926.601 (b)(4),  16VAC25-175-602 (a)(9)(ii), 16VAC25-175-1926.952 (a)(3).
    Statutory Authority: §40.1-22 of the Code of Virginia.
    The Safety and Health Codes Board noticed an initial   public comment period on the above-referenced proposed regulations  (16VAC25-97) in the August 20, 2007, issue of the Virginia Register of  Regulations (23:25 VA.R. 4347-4351 August 20, 2007). However, a number  of comments were received after the close of the initial comment period and the  board noticed a second public comment period on this regulation in the April  14, 2008, issue of the Virginia Register (24:16 VA.R. 2291 April 14, 2008).
    Following the close of the second comment period, extensive  changes were made to the text of the proposed regulation.  Therefore, the  board has issued a third 30-day comment period that will begin on September 29,  2008, and end on October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Jay Withrow, Department of Labor and  Industry, Powers Taylor Building, 13 South 13th Street, Richmond, VA 23219, or  email jay.withrow@doli.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R06-314; Filed September 2, 2007, 5:22 p.m. 
TITLE 16. LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT
SAFETY AND HEALTH CODES BOARD
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 16VAC25-90. Federal Identical  General Industry Standards (repealing 16VAC25-90-1910.151).
    16VAC25-95. Medical Services and First Aid Standards for General  Industry (adding 16VAC25-95-10).
    16VAC25-175. Federal Identical Construction Industry  Standards (repealing 16VAC25-175-1926.50).
    16VAC25-177. Medical Services and First Aid Standards for  the Construction Industry (adding 16VAC25-177-10).
    Statutory Authority: §40.1-22 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comments: Public comments may be submitted until  5 p.m. on November 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Regina P. Cobb, Agency Management  Analyst Senior, Department of Labor and Industry, Powers-Taylor Building, 13 S.  13th St., Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-0610, FAX (804) 786-8418, TTY  (804) 786-2376, or email regina.cobb@doli.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The Safety and Health Codes Board is authorized to  regulate occupational safety and health under § 40.1-22(5) of the Code of  Virginia to:
    "... adopt, alter, amend, or repeal rules and regulations  to further, protect and promote the safety and health of employees in places of  employment over which it has jurisdiction and to effect compliance with the  federal OSH Act of 1970...as may be necessary to carry out its functions  established under this title".
    In this same statutory section, the board is further  mandated:
    "In making such rules and regulations to protect the  occupational safety and health of employees, the Board shall adopt the standard  which most adequately assures, to the extent feasible, on the basis of the best  available evidence that no employee will suffer material impairment of health  or functional capacity".
    "However, such standards shall be at least as stringent  as the standards promulgated by the federal OSH Act of 1970 (P.L.91-596).   In addition to the attainment of the highest degree of health and safety  protection for the employee, other considerations shall be the latest available  scientific data in the field, the feasibility of the standards, and experiences  gained under this and other health and safety laws."
    Purpose: The purpose of the proposed changes is to  ensure that construction and general industry employers on worksites containing  job classifications or workplace hazards that could expose employees to serious  physical harm or death, designate and train a person or persons to render first  aid and CPR during all workshifts. The changes are also designed to provide  employers with some flexibility to make arrangements for the provision of first  aid and CPR services on individual work sites. In addition, the proposed  changes clarify requirements for employers of mobile crews and individual  mobile employees.
    Current Regulatory Framework: The Existing Regulations are  Confusing and Difficult for Employers to Comply With and Difficult for the  Department to Enforce
    The current first aid regulations, which are identical to  their federal OSHA counterparts and are the subject of this rulemaking, apply  to all general industry and construction employers:
    16 VAC 25-90-1910.151(b) of the General Industry Regulation  for Medical and First Aid provides that "In the absence of an infirmary,  clinic, or hospital in near proximity to the workplace which is used for the  treatment of all injured employees, a person or persons shall be adequately  trained to render first aid…." (Emphasis added).
    16 VAC 25-175-1926.50(c) of the Construction Regulation for  Medical Services and First Aid provides: "In the absence of an infirmary,  clinic, hospital or physician, that is reasonably accessible in terms of  time and distance to the worksite, which is available for the treatment of  injured employees, a person who has a valid certificate in first aid  training…." (Emphasis added).
    Both existing regulations lack clarity and are difficult for  employers to comply with and for the VOSH Program to enforce. For instance, the  existing regulations do not define the terms "near proximity" and  "reasonably accessible." These phrases have been interpreted by  federal OSHA to mean that all general industry and construction employers must  have either an employee trained in first aid, or:
    their worksite must be located within a three to four minute  response time of a hospital, clinic or 
    infirmary if the worksite contains workplace hazards that  could cause life threatening injuries; or 
    their worksite must be located within a 15-minute response  time of a hospital, clinic, or
    infirmary if the worksite does not contain workplace hazards  that could cause life threatening injuries.
    According to statistics for 2003 from the Department of  Emergency Medical Services (EMS) website, EMS providers arrived at the scene of  522,345 calls with an average response time of approximately 12 minutes.   Approximately 72% of all reported calls were provided in less than 10 minutes,  and approximately 87% of all reported calls were provided in less than 15  minutes.
    The department requested more recent data from EMS for  statewide response times for all calls as well as calls for industrial sites  specifically for the years 2004 through 2006 ("Industrial premises"  includes "building under construction, dockyard, dry dock, factory  building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial yard, loading platform  in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard, shop (place of work),  warehouse and workhouse." Source:  PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element  Dictionary):
           | Statewide Response Time    Statistics by Year | 
       | "Response time"    defined as "Arrived at Scene" minus "Dispatched"
 | 
       |   | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 | 
       | All Cases:  Response    Time |   | 
       |  1-3 minutes | 13.0% | 12.9% | 12.5% | 
       |  4-15 minutes | 74.6% | 74.7% | 75.1% | 
       |  15-100 minutes | 12.4% | 12.5% | 12.5% | 
       | Mean (Average) in minutes | 8.89 | 8.94 | 8.96 | 
       | Industrial Sites Only:     Response Time |   | 
       |  1-3 minutes | 19.2% | 19.3% | 20.9% | 
       |  4-15 minutes | 75.1% | 73.9% | 72.2% | 
       |  15-100 minutes | 5.7% | 6.8% | 6.9% | 
       | Mean (Average) in minutes | 7.10 | 7.58 | 7.34 | 
  
    NOTE  1: Calculation of the above response times is from the time  "dispatched" to the time of "arrived at scene."   Although the PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element Dictionary indicates that there is  a data field called "Time of Call" defined as "Time call is first  received by Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) or other designated  entity," VOSH was informed by EMS that "Time of Call" data is  not regularly available to the local EMS responders to enter into the reporting  system. Therefore, the 2004-2006 data supplied by EMS under reports the average  response times because it does not include the time it takes for the 911 call  to be received and then referred to the local EMS provider.
    NOTE 2: Calculation of the above  response times is limited to data where a response time of between one minute  and 100 minutes was reported. EMS personnel indicated that this approach was  used to eliminate some obviously inaccurate data in the system (e.g., response  times in the negatives, response times that were several days, etc.).
    As the more recent statistics above indicate, the average EMS  response time for all cases statewide has been approximately nine minutes for  the last three years (more than twice the three to four minute response time  required by OSHA for life threatening injuries), while the average response  time to industrial sites falls between 7 and 7.5 minutes, which is 75% above  the three to four minute requirement. Furthermore, the chart demonstrates that  for all cases statewide, only 12.5 to 13% of the responses occur within the  three to four minute requirement for life threatening injuries, while from 19  to 21% of the responses occur to industrial sites within the three to four  minute requirement.
    The above statistics graphically demonstrate that the large  majority of employers in Virginia fail to meet the three to four minute  exemption contained in the interpretations for the current VOSH first aid  regulations for construction and general industry that would allow them to  avoid having a trained first aid provider on site (the OSHA 3-4 minute  interpretation applies to worksites with hazards that could cause life  threatening injuries).
    Another difficulty with the current first aid regulations is  that neither the current regulations nor federal OSHA interpretations provide  clear guidance to employers of mobile work crews who are exposed to hazards  that could cause death or serious physical harm. The proposed changes  specifically provide compliance options for such covered employers.
    Finally, to assure compliance with the current regulations,  both employers and the VOSH Program are often faced with having to document  whether an infirmary, clinic or hospital would be accessible within three to  four minutes or 15 minutes. This may include going to such lengths as having to  drive from the inspection site to the facility, or by contacting the nearest  rescue squad to determine what the normal response time would be to the  specific worksite. Even in such cases where response time information may be  readily available, the response time for emergency responders to a particular  site can vary widely from day to day depending on such factors as whether the  worksite is in an urban or rural location (see discussion below on geographic  differences in EMS response times around the state), whether the  medical/emergency response facility is staffed 24 hours a day or not, and such  vagaries as traffic congestion, road construction and weather. For these  reasons under the current regulations, the vast majority of injured employees  cannot receive timely, reliable and consistent first aid response to injuries  suffered on the job if there is no trained first aid responder on site.
    Existing Regulations Do Not Provide Adequate First Aid and CPR  Protections for Employees
    The existing general industry and construction first aid  regulations do not assure that adequate first aid attention for employees will  be provided in certain hazardous situations. For instance, current regulations  do not require CPR training for designated first aid providers, nor do they  clearly state that designated first aid providers will be available at each  hazardous work location and each work shift. The proposed changes correct these  oversights. 
    In addition, the current regulations allow an employer to  physically move an employee who had suffered a head/spinal injury or other  serious injury by transporting them to a medical facility that is within three  to four minutes driving distance, in lieu of having a trained first aid  responder on site to administer first aid and CPR while emergency response  personnel are in route.
    Existing Regulations Do Not Provide Equal First Aid/CPR  Treatment Opportunities for Similarly Exposed Employees
    The current regulations do not provide the same level of  first aid and CPR protection for employees in different general industry and  construction settings who are exposed to similar kinds of serious and life  threatening workplace hazards. For instance, a number of current industry  specific regulations require general industry and construction employers to  assure that one or more employees trained in first aid and CPR are present at  each worksite and workshift:
    General Industry
    Logging Industry employers must assure that all logging  employees receive first aid and CPR training - 16VAC25-90-1910.266(i)(7); 
    Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution  Industry employers must assure that trained first aid and CPR providers are  present for field work and fixed work locations - 16VAC25-90-1910.269(b)(1);
    Employers engaged in Welding, Cutting and Brazing must assure  that first aid can be rendered to an injured employee until medical attention  can be provided - 16VAC25-90-1910.252(c)(13);
    Telecommunications Industry employers must assure that  employees are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-90-1910.268(c)(3);
    Employers with a Temporary Labor Camp must assure that a  trained first aid and CPR provider is present at the camp -  16VAC25-90-1910.142(k)(2);
    Commercial Dive Operation employers must assure that all dive  team members are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-90-1910.410(a)(3).
    Construction Industry
    Power Generation and Distribution employers must assure that  employees are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-175-1926.950(e)(1)(ii);
    Employers involved in Underground Construction, Caissons,  Cofferdams and Compressed Air must provide a first aid station at each project  (see 16VAC25-175-1926.803(b)(7);
    Employees in the above industries benefit from greater first  aid and CPR protections than employees who, for instance, work in construction around  but not on overhead high voltage lines (contact with overhead high voltage  lines is regularly one of the top four causes of occupationally related VOSH  fatalities). The proposed changes assure that all construction and general  industry employees exposed to hazards that could cause death or serious  physical harm are provided an equal level of first aid and CPR protection.
    The Department also requested recent data from EMS for  statewide response times for calls for industrial sites broken down by  geographic region for the years 2004 through 2006 ("Industrial  premises" includes "building under construction, dockyard, dry dock,  factory building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial yard, loading  platform in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard, shop (place of  work), warehouse and workhouse." Source: PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element  Dictionary):
     
     
         
                 | Statewide Response Time    Statistics by Year for Industrial Sites Only"Response time" defined as "Arrived at Scene" minus    "Dispatched"
 | 
       |   | 2004Response Times
 | 2005 Response Times
 | 2006Response Times
 | 
       | Industrial Sites |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg | 
       | No Region Listed | 22.3% | 69.2% | 7.7 | 26.5% | 63.6% | 8.2 | 52.4% | 44.6% | 4.7 | 
       | BLUE RIDGE | 6.0% | 67.8% | 12.1 | 8.9% | 64.2% | 13.0 | 9.5% | 73.6% | 10.5 | 
       | CENTRAL SHENANDOAH | 11.1% | 82.9% | 8.1 | 16.3% | 79.2% | 7.6 | 18.9% | 73.2% | 7.8 | 
       | LORD FAIRFAX | 7.8% | 85.4% | 8.6 | 10.1% | 82.6% | 8.5 | 8.9% | 81.8% | 8.7 | 
       | NORTHERN VIRGINIA | 18.3% | 78.3% | 6.4 | 13.2% | 81.6% | 7.7 | 12.1% | 84.1% | 7.2 | 
       | OLD DOMINION | 17.2% | 77.7% | 7.2 | 15.4% | 79.0% | 7.2 | 15.7% | 79.3% | 6.9 | 
       | PENINSULAS | 44.1% | 53.1% | 4.8 | 41.1% | 56.4% | 4.9 | 46.1% | 51.5% | 4.9 | 
       | RAPPAHANNOCK | 13.1% | 77.2% | 8.5 | 10.9% | 80.2% | 8.8 | 13.5% | 74.3% | 9.2 | 
       | SOUTHWEST VIRGINIA | 9.5% | 73.1% | 10.4 | 12.6% | 67.0% | 10.5 | 13.2% | 69.1% | 10.0 | 
       | THOMAS JEFFERSON | 9.9% | 67.3% | 11.3 | 10.7% | 76.2% | 10.0 | 7.1% | 66.9% | 12.0 | 
       | TIDEWATER | 15.1% | 79.1% | 7.6 | 12.3% | 82.7% | 7.8 | 11.4% | 83.1% | 7.6 | 
       | WESTERN VIRGINIA | 25.9% | 66.9% | 7.2 | 26.2% | 69.1% | 6.8 | 22.5% | 72.7% | 6.9 | 
       | Total | 19.1% | 75.1% | 7.1 | 19.1% | 74.0% | 7.6 | 20.7% | 72.3% | 7.3 | 
  
         
          NOTE 1:  Calculation of the above response times is from the time "dispatched"  to the time of "arrived at scene."  Although the PPCR/PPDR  Program Data Element Dictionary indicates that there is a data field called  "Time of Call" defined as "Time call is first received by Public  Safety Answering Point (PSAP) or other designated entity," VOSH was  informed by EMS that "Time of Call" data is not regularly available  to the local EMS responders to enter into the reporting system. Therefore, the  2004-2006 data supplied by EMS under reports the average response times because  it does not include the time it takes for the 911 call to be received and then  referred to the local EMS provider.
    NOTE 2: Calculation of the above response times is  limited to data where a response time of between one minute and 100 minutes was  reported. EMS personnel indicated that this approach was used to eliminate some  obviously inaccurate data in the system (e.g. response times in the negatives,  response times that were several days, etc.).
    As the above statistics indicate, there is a wide disparity  in EMS response times across the state based on geographic region. For instance  in 2006 there is a range of a low of 7.1% of EMS responses occurring within one  to three minutes in the Thomas Jefferson region to a high of 46.1% within one  to three minutes in the Peninsulas region; while the average response times  range from 4.9 minutes in the Peninsulas' region to 12 minutes in the Thomas  Jefferson region.
    Again, the above statistics graphically demonstrate that the  large majority of employers in Virginia cannot meet the three to four minute  exemption contained in the interpretations for the exemption contained in the  current VOSH first aid regulations for construction and general industry that  would allow them to avoid having a trained first aid provider on site (the  three to four minute interpretation applies to worksites with hazards that  could cause life threatening injuries). In addition, the geographic disparities  in response time demonstrate that the current regulations do not provide equal  access to adequate first aid and CPR protections for employees.
    The Existing General Industry First Aid Regulation is  Overreaching
    The current general industry  regulation is overreaching in that it applies to all general industry  employers, even when there are no workplace hazards present that could pose a  threat of serious physical harm or death, such as in office settings (it should  be noted that, with rare exceptions, construction worksites are universally  acknowledged to contain both job classifications and workplace hazards that
  are likely to cause death or serious physical harm). The proposed regulations  will exclude worksites that do not contain such serious hazards from the  requirement to provide designated employees with first aid and CPR training.
    Substance: The VOSH Program seeks the amendment of  medical services and first aid regulations for general industry §1910.151(b),  and the construction industry, §1926.50(c) to require  construction and general industry employers to train and designate a person or  persons to render first aid and CPR during all workshifts on worksites  containing job classifications or workplace hazards that could expose employees  to serious physical harm or death; and to provide employers with some  flexibility to make arrangements for first aid and CPR services on individual  work sites. The proposed regulations will also exclude certain low hazard  industries and employers from the requirement to provide first aid and CPR  training. In addition, the proposed changes also clarify requirements for  employers of mobile crews and individual mobile employees.
    Issues: A primary advantage of the proposed regulation  is that employers covered by the proposed regulation would be required to have  at each job site and for each work shift at least one employee trained in first  aid and CPR, thereby increasing protection of their employees.
    The proposed changes eliminate inequities contained in the  existing regulations by assuring all construction and general industry  employees exposed to hazards that could cause death or serious physical harm  equal access to first aid and CPR services, regardless of their specific  industrial or construction setting, or the geographical location of their work.  As noted in the "Purpose" section above, only employees engaged in  the following industries benefit from regulations requiring the immediate  presence of first aid/CPR trained providers at their worksite:
    Logging
    Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution  (General Industry)
    Power Generation and Distribution (Construction Industry)
    Welding, Cutting and Brazing
    Telecommunications
    Temporary Labor Camp (Migrant Labor)
    Commercial Dive Operation
    Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams and Compressed  Air
    A disadvantage is that some employers would have to incur the  additional cost of securing such training, although many employers currently  already assure that some employees are trained in first aid and CPR.
    Another advantage to employers would be that costs associated  with compliance with the proposed regulation will be lessened by the specific  language in the proposal that allows an employer to make written arrangements  with other contractors/employers on the same job site to provide designated  employees to serve as first aid and CPR responders.
    Also, costs associated with the current regulation will be  eliminated for employers on worksites where there are no hazards that could  result in serious physical harm or death, by excluding such worksites from  coverage.
    Additionally, the proposed changes eliminate confusion and  clarify requirements for employers of mobile crews and individual mobile  employees.
    Finally, to assure compliance with the current regulations,  both employers and the VOSH Program are often faced with having to document whether  an infirmary, clinic or hospital would be accessible within three to four  minutes by going to such lengths as having to drive from the inspection site to  the facility, or by contacting the nearest rescue squad to determine what there  normal response time would be to the specific worksite (see above discussion of  federal OSHA interpretations in the “Purpose” section). The proposed changes  eliminate the three to four minute and 15 minute interpretation requirements.
    The Department of Planning  and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed  Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia Department of Labor and Industry  (Department) proposes to amend the medical services and first aid regulations  for general industry and for the construction industry such that in high hazard  industries and on worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards  that could potentially expose employees to serious physical harm or death,  employers must designate and train at least one employee during all work shifts  to render immediate first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).   The person or persons would have to have a valid, current certificate in  first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red  Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary evidence.  Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make written arrangements with  and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the same job site to  provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. The proposed amendment would not  apply to worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards that do  not expose employees to serious physical harm or death (e.g., office settings).
    Result of Analysis. There is insufficient data to accurately  compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs. Detailed analysis of  the benefits and costs can be found in the next section.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Under the current regulation,  employers in general industry must only train a person or persons to render  first aid if there is no infirmary, clinic, or hospital which is used for the  treatment of all injured employees in near proximity to the workplace.  The following industries that fall under the general industry category have  more stringent rules: (1) logging, (2) electric power generation, transmission,  and distribution, (3) telecommunications, (4) temporary labor camps, (5)  commercial diver operations, and (6) welding, cutting, and brazing. In the  first five categories, regulations require employers to train at least one  person—if not all employees—in first aid and CPR. The welding, cutting, and  brazing requirements state that "All injuries shall be reported a soon as  possible for medical attention. First aid shall be rendered until medical  attention can be provided." For the remainder of this document, it will be  assumed that the current regulation implies that employers in welding, cutting,  and brazing are required to ensure that a first aid-trained employee be on the  worksite at all time either by training employees herself or by contracting  with another employer onsite.
    Under the current regulation, the requirements for first aid  treatment in the construction industry differ only slightly from those in  general industry. In the construction industry, employers must only train a  person or persons to render first aid if there is no infirmary, clinic,  hospital, or physician, which is available for the treatment of injured  employees that is reasonably accessible in terms of time and distance to the  worksite. In addition to specific requirements for first aid supplies, the  regulation for the construction industry also specifies that the person trained  to render first aid must have a valid certificate in first-aid training from  the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that  can be verified by documentary evidence; provisions shall be made prior to  commencement of the project for prompt medical attention in case of serious  injury; proper equipment for prompt transportation of the injured person to a  physician or hospital, or a communication system for contacting necessary  ambulance service shall be provided; and in areas where 911 is not available,  the telephone numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be  conspicuously posted. The categories in the construction industry with more  stringent first aid requirements are: (1) electric power generation,  transmission, and distribution, for which the Department requires the training  of employees in first aid and CPR, and (2) underground construction, caissons,  cofferdams, and compressed air, which must have a first aid station and  ambulance at each project.
    In sum, under the current regulations, most firms or  organizations in general and construction industry are required to have a  first-aid-trained employee on site only if medical attention in the form of  infirmaries, clinics, or hospitals is not in near proximity or reasonably  accessible. These regulations are identical to those required by the U.S.  Department of Labor Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA  interprets near proximity and reasonably accessible to mean that emergency  medical services must be available within 3-4 minutes in workplaces where  "serious accidents such as those involving falls, suffocation,  electrocution, or amputation are possible" and up to 15 minutes in  workplaces, such as offices, where the possibility of such serious work-related  injuries is more remote.1
    The proposed amendments aim to make the first-aid requirements  for high-hazard general and construction industry employers more stringent than  those required by the federal government. Under the proposed amendments,  employers will be required to designate and train at least one employee during  all work shifts to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary  resuscitation (CPR). The person or persons would have to have a valid, current  certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the  American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary  evidence. Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site to provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. As under the  current regulation, if an employer does not comply with the regulation, the  Department will issue a citation and may assess a penalty and the employer must  change his practices to comply with the regulation. The penalty will depend  upon the nature and circumstances of the violation.
    With the exception of welding, cutting, and brazing, the  categories of general and construction industry discussed above that already  require first aid and CPR training of employees will not be affected by the  proposed amendment, since their first aid requirements are already more  stringent. (Employers whose work sites engage in welding, cutting, and brazing  will be required to train an employee in CPR and first aid; under current  regulations they are required only to train an employee in first aid.) In  addition, the proposed amendment for general and construction industry  "does not apply to worksites containing job classifications or workplace  hazards that do not expose employees to serious physical harm or death (e.g.,  office settings)". In other words, the proposed amendments will affect in  the same way all firms/organizations (construction and general industry) with  job classifications or workplace hazards that could potentially expose  employees to serious physical harm or death. Therefore, the remainder of this  document will look at the costs and benefits of changing the requirements for  the general and construction industries simultaneously.
    As mentioned above, the proposed amendments do also change the  requirements for low-hazard worksites. Under current regulations, these  worksites are required to have medical services available within 15 minutes or  have a first aid-trained person on site at all times. Under the proposed  amendments, employers at these worksites will no longer have any requirements with  regards to the immediate provision of first aid or CPR. Finally, the proposed  amendments explicitly state the requirements for employers of mobile work crews  and individual mobile employees that are not explicitly stated in the current  regulation.
    The proposed amendments will affect all employers in Virginia.  The Department estimates that of the 215,201 employers in Virginia, this  amendment will make the first aid/CPR requirements more stringent for around  150,000 employers since the Department estimates that around 17,000  establishments are already in compliance with the proposed regulations (or have  more stringent current regulations), around 59,000 establishments do not have  job classifications or work site hazards that could result in serious physical  harm or death, and around 300 establishments do not fall within Department  jurisdiction. It is important to note, however, that these numbers are  estimates. Within a particular industry that is normally considered to be low  hazard, there may be some specific work sites or portions of the establishments  that have job classifications or workplace hazards that would fall under the  more stringent requirements of the proposed regulation. For example, a large  department store that has service personnel who deal directly with customers  who would not be exposed to serious or life-threatening hazards may also have  warehouse personnel who operate forklifts and are therefore exposed to such  hazards. As another example, a supermarket may have retail clerks who are not  exposed to serious hazards, but may also have personnel using potentially  dangerous equipment, such as a meat slicing machine. Therefore, although some  businesses in the areas of Retail or Wholesale Trade may only have office  workers, the section could not be considered exempt from the proposed  regulation.
    It is also unclear how the proposed amendments will change the  work practices of those 150,000 employers with job classifications or work site  hazards that could result in serious physical harm or death. First, the current  regulation requires employers to have a first aid-trained employee on site at  all times if they cannot meet the "near proximity" or  "reasonable access" requirements. The only change that this amendment  will impose on the employers who comply with current regulation by having a  first aid-trained person on site is to require that the person be trained in  CPR as well. Since it is unknown how many employers currently have a first  aid-trained person on site, and how many of those employees are also trained in  CPR, the statewide cost of the proposed amendment on employers is not clear.  Second, the cost to employers depends upon the number of employees that they  will need to train and employee turnover rates. For example, a small butcher shop  with low staff turnover that uses a meat-slicing machine might need to train at  most one employee every year. On the other hand, a small contractor might have  to train 2-3 employees per month if she has a total of 20 employees at any  given time who work at varying job sites, but also has a high turnover in  employees. Of course, employers who send employees onto job sites can provide  first aid and CPR through a contract with another organization at the job site,  but that contract process could be costly or infeasible, depending upon  circumstances.
    The table below gives an example of the time and monetary cost  of first aid and CPR training provided by Virginia chapters of the American Red  Cross.
           | Course | Cost | Certification | 
       | Greater Richmond Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 5 hours, $55 | One-year Adult CPR certification | 
       | Adult CPR review | 4 hours, $45 | Renewal of one-year certification in Adult CPR | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 8 hours, $65 | One year Adult CPR certification, three year first aid    certification | 
       | Central Virginia Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $41 | One year Adult CPR certification | 
       | Adult CPR review | 4 hours, $31 | Renewal of one-year certification in Adult CPR | 
       | First aid | 4 hours, $38 | Three year first aid certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 8.5 hours, $62 | One year Adult CPR certification, three year first aid    certification | 
       | Hampton Roads Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $35 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | First aid | 3-4 hours, $35 | Three year first aid    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7-8 hours, $45 | One year Adult CPR certification,    three year first aid certification | 
       | Alexandria Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4.5 - 5 hours, $45 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | First aid | 4.5 hours, $40 | Three year first aid    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7.5 hours, $60 | One year Adult CPR certification,    three year first aid certification | 
       | Mountain Empire Chapter,    Bristol | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $29 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7-8 hours, $37 | One year Adult CPR    certification, three year first aid certification | 
  
    Source: American Red Cross,  http://www.redcross.org/where/chapts.asp#VA
    Say, then, that a butcher shop in central Virginia needs to  have two trained employees in order to have someone on staff at all times who  is first aid/CPR-trained. Assume that one trained person is the owner, who will  be trained the first year, but needs only the refresher courses the following  years. The owner also has to train a new employee every year. The first year of  courses will cost the shop $62+$62=$124 for the course and $246.50 for the  time, since 17 hours will have to be reallocated from normal activities to  training and butchers make, on average, $14.50/hour2 in Virginia.  This makes for a total cost of around $370.50 for the first year. The second  and third years will cost the shop around $274.253 since the owner  will only need a renewal in the CPR training. (The cost of the fourth year,  however, will be the same as the first year since there is no renewal course in  first aid training.) Therefore, the proposed amendment will cost the butcher,  on average, $306.33 annually4. The construction firm, on the other  hand, that needs to train two employees per month, however, will spend a total  of $124 for classes and $295.80 for the lost 17 hours of work5 per  month, for a total of $5037.60 annually6. These figures do not  include, of course, the lost work time should something unplanned happen to the  first aid/CPR-trained employee, making it impossible for that worker to be on  site (such as illness, death in the family, etc.) and, therefore, against  regulations for the other workers to continue to work until a trained  replacement can be found or the employee can return to work.
    Ideally, we would then take some weighted average of $306.33  and $5037.60 and multiply it by the total number of affected firms to get a  total cost of the proposed amendment. However, some firms—particularly small  construction firms that regularly move employees from site to site—might choose  to satisfy the requirements by contracting with another firm to provide the first  aid. Those contractual costs could be small if the firm has an existing  contract with the other firm on site, or they could be large if the firm needs  to hire a lawyer to draw up a contract "sharing" the  first-aid/CPR-trained employee. The lack of information on how many firms are  currently in compliance with the proposed regulation and how firms would choose  to satisfy the proposed regulation makes it difficult to estimate a total cost  of the proposed amendments to Virginia firms.
    The benefits of the proposed amendments for citizens and  organizations are equally difficult to quantify. In 2005, there were 163 fatal  injuries (including 22 due to assaults and violent acts)7 and  approximately 126 non-fatal injuries8 in non-agricultural industry  in Virginia.9 Below is a graph of the fatal injuries in Virginia  from 1992 through 2005. As the graph illustrates, although the number of fatal  injuries in 2005 is high, the numbers do not necessarily indicate an increasing  trend in the data. The number of non-fatal injuries does not show an increasing  trend either.
    
    Source: Department of Labor and Industry, http://www.doli.virginia.gov/whatwedo/coop_prog/research_p1.html  
    It is difficult to estimate the number of fatalities that would  have been avoided had first aid been available on site. There have been two  deaths in the past five years where Virginia Occupational Safety and Health  Compliance Program (VOSH) inspectors recommended issuing a fatality-related  violation for lack of first aid training. Based on this information, the  Department estimates that these proposed amendments would save about 1-2 lives  every five years.
    The Department cites OSHA’s 2006 adoption of its Hexavalent  Chromium Standard to apply a value of $6.8 million to each premature fatality  avoided.10 If 1-2 lives are saved every five years, this amendment  will result in an annual savings of approximately $1.36-$2.72 million.  According to the OSHA document, this $6.8 million figure came from EPA, which  used studies on individuals’ willingness-to-pay (WTP) to reduce the risk of  premature death. These contingent valuation studies normally present  respondents with hypothetical fatality risk situations and ask how much they  would pay for a particular risk reduction. There are other ways to estimate the  value of a statistical life (VSL) and over the past few decades, researchers  have developed numerous methodologies for determining the VSL. For a discussion  of these analyses, see Viscusi (2006) or Viscusi and Aldy (2003). For the  purposes of this analysis, however, we will simply note that $6.8 million is an  average figure in the range of determined VSL values, almost all of which fall  between $1 million to $20 million.
    According to one study, most severely injured patients who die  in the first few hours after injury succumb to airway compromise, respiratory  failure, or uncontrolled hemorrhage, all of which can be treated using basic  first aid measures.11 (Injuries that could cause these problems are  crushing injuries, injuries caused by falls from heights such as in  construction, injuries caused by machinery in manufacturing, and electric  shock.) Of course, under the current regulation, patients will be treated  within minutes, but the Department is concerned with the number of minutes it  takes to receive treatment. In justifying its 3-4 minute response time  interpretation of reasonable accessibility of medical care, OSHA writes that:
    Medical literature establishes that, for serious injuries such  as those involving stopped breathing, cardiac arrest, or uncontrolled bleeding,  first aid treatment must be provided within the first few minutes to avoid  permanent medical impairment or death. Accordingly, in workplaces where serious  accidents such as those involving falls, suffocation, electrocution, or  amputation are possible, emergency medical services must be available within  3-4 minutes, if there is no employee on the site who is trained to render first  aid.
    In fact, it seems to be widely accepted that medical attention  within a few minutes of a serious injury can significantly improve the  individual’s probability of avoiding death or long-term health consequences  such as amputation or permanent damage.
    There are also studies that indicate that having a first aid  person readily available reduces the risk of serious injury or death. According  to the Canadian Red Cross and SMARTRISK, a non-profit organization dedicated to  preventing injuries and saving lives, getting trained in first aid can reduce  your risk of injury by more than 40 percent.12 Research conducted by  St. John Ambulance found that the number of work-related injuries is reduced by  between 20 and 30 percent when workers are trained in first aid.13  According to the International Labor Organization Encyclopedia of Occupational  Health and Safety, defibrillation administered within four minutes of cardiac  arrest yields survival rates of 40 to 50%, versus less than 5% if given later.  For chemical eye injuries, immediate flushing with water can save eyesight. For  spinal cord injuries, correct immobilization can make the difference between  full recovery and paralysis. For hemorrhages, the simple application of a  fingertip to a bleeding vessel can stop life-threatening blood loss.14
    The Department argues that most  employers are not providing medical care as quickly as they should. The  Department of Emergency Medical Services (EMS) statistics indicate that many  employers in Virginia are not providing care within four minutes of injury. In  2004, 2005, and 2006 the average EMS response time for all calls was 8.89 minutes,  8.94 minutes, and 8.96 minutes, respectively. The table below provides response  time for industrial sites:
     
           | Statewide Industrial Site*    Response time ("Arrived at Scene" minus "Dispatched")15 | 
       |   | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 | 
       | 1-3 minutes | 19.2% | 19.3% | 20.9% | 
       | 4-15 minutes | 75.1% | 73.9% | 72.2% | 
       | 15-100 minutes | 5.7% | 6.8% | 6.9% | 
       | Average time in minutes | 7.10 | 7.58 | 7.34 | 
       | *    "Industrial sites" includes building under construction, dockyard,    dry dock, factory building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial    yard, loading platform in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard,    shop (place of work), warehouse and workhouse) | 
  
    It is important to note that we do not know how many of these  worksites were high-hazard (although according to the Department, most  industrial sites are high-hazard) and we do not know how many of these  worksites had a first-aid person on staff. In other words, although these  numbers give an indication of unacceptably high response times, we do not know  for sure that these job sites are out of compliance with the current  regulation.
    The Department argues, however, that this is not just a  compliance issue. They feel that satisfying the 3-4 minute rule from injury to  medical care is a near-impossible task for employers, no matter how close the  site is to the hospital. Many employers, it argues, believe that they are in  compliance with the regulation but in reality, even without the concerns of  road congestion or unusually high numbers of accidents in the area, it takes  longer to actually get to medical care than employers estimate. Emergency rooms  are often crowded and communication with hospital or clinic staff takes  additional time.
    If it is true that lives will be saved, or that a potentially  serious injury could be prevented by passing these amendments, then the  amendment does provide significant benefits. These benefits include, but are  not limited to, the lives that will be saved. Employers will not only save an  experienced worker by reducing the chance of death or serious injury, they will  also save financially by reducing their workers’ compensation premiums,  reducing workers’ compensation payments, and reducing short-term disability  payments. In addition, it is easy to imagine a loss in productivity due to  reduced morale in workers with the death or serious injury of one of their  colleagues. If workers lose enough confidence in the speed of medical  attention, they might even leave the job, which will require an employer to  train a new person for the job. Given that those with job alternatives are  often the more skilled or experienced workers, this loss could add a  significant cost to an employer.
    Another benefit of the proposed amendments is a reduction in  enforcement time. To evaluate if a worksite is in compliance, an enforcement  officer has to evaluate the time it would take response teams to get to the  worksite, which could include driving to the hospital or clinic, perhaps more  than once if road congestion or emergency facility staffing at a particular  time of day is a concern. The Department estimates that this will save at least  200 man-hours annually, since there are on average 400 first aid violations  cited per year and it takes around 30 minutes to verify that there was no  rescue squad or other medical attention within 3-4 minute response time. These  200 man-hours do not, of course, include the time it took to verify when the  inspector was able to determine that there was medical attention available  within 3-4 minutes. Since construction inspectors make approximately $20.00 per  hour16, this offers a total benefit to taxpayers of $4000 annually. 
    In addition, the ambiguity of the three-to-four minute  requirement reduces employers' likelihood of compliance and gives employers the  opportunity to argue with inspectors about their compliance. The proposed  amendments would make compliance easier to evaluate and easier to enforce. By  reducing the time it takes an enforcement officer to evaluate compliance, the  proposed amendments will allow officers to evaluate more sites. If officers can  evaluate more sites, compliance will improve not only because more  non-compliant employers can be caught, but also because it will increase the  concern among employers of being evaluated. In addition, the Department argues  that employers are more likely to comply when the regulation is unambiguous. 
    Finally, the proposed amendments change the requirements for  worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards that do not  expose employees to serious physical harm or death, such as office settings.  One benefit of this amendment is that employers in office settings can save  money by not having to be within fifteen minutes of a hospital or have a first  aid person on staff. Under the proposed amendment, those employers with  low-hazard worksites that are not currently within fifteen minutes of a  hospital or clinic will save the costs of training the requisite number of  employees in first aid/CPR, which would be somewhere around the $306.33 or  $5037.60 estimated earlier in this document. (As previously noted, the lack of  data on current compliance rates makes it impossible to quantify total  savings.) Another benefit is that enforcement officers no longer need to ensure  compliance in non-hazardous work settings, which will save further enforcement  time. The cost is that workers in those settings might not have immediate  access to necessary health care; however, because fifteen minutes is not likely  to mitigate the effects of a serious injury, and these workers are not exposed  to workplace hazards and not likely to need medical care often, these costs are  also not likely to be significant.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. According to the Virginia  Employment Commission (VEC) fourth quarter data, there were 215,201 employers  in Virginia. 17 All of these employers would be potentially affected  by the proposed amendments. The Department estimates that for about 65,000 of  these employers, the regulation would become less stringent under the proposed  amendments, but for about 150,000 of these employers, the regulation would  become more stringent.
    Localities Particularly Affected. All Virginia localities may  have individuals or organizations that would be affected by these amendments.
    Projected Impact on Employment. These amendments could reduce  employment if employers choose not to hire because of the cost of ensuring that  a first-aid-trained person is on staff at all times. This is particularly  relevant if an employer hires and sends out mobile work groups. In this case,  the cost of training someone in first aid could be too much to merit hiring the  other people who would be sent out on the job with the first-aid-trained  employee.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. If the cost  of training the requisite number of employees in first aid and CPR is onerous  to a small business owner, then these amendments could reduce the value of  his/her business. In addition, if employers pass the cost onto their consumers  (such as the owner of a construction company passing the cost onto homebuyers),  then these amendments could moderately increase the cost of some products and  services. 
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. According to the  Virginia Employment Commission (VEC) 2006 fourth quarter data, 214,568 of the  215,201 employers in Virginia have less than 500 employees, so 99.7% of  Virginia employers qualify as small businesses.18 This means that  approximately 150,000 small businesses will be affected by the proposed  amendments. The cost to small businesses will be the same costs as listed  above: the course fee and the opportunity (time) cost of training as many  employees in first aid and/or CPR as necessary to ensure that one trained  employee is on site at all times, or the cost of developing a contract with a  different on-site employer.
    On the other hand, the costs above will only apply to small  business owners who do not currently have a first aid/CPR-trained person on  site and part of those costs could be offset by the money saved from not having  to pay workers’ compensation or short-term disability if the effects of an  accident can be mitigated by faster care. In addition, costs will be reduced if  an experienced worker who might have died is saved by faster care and can  return to work. For those small businesses with only low-hazard job sites, such  as sites devoted solely to office work, costs will be reduced by not having to  be concerned with first aid or CPR care at all. (This cost decrease will affect  only those sites that are more than 15 minutes away from a hospital, clinic, or  infirmary.) 
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. If the only way to ensure workers’ access to immediate health care in  the case of emergency is to mandate that a first aid/CPR-trained person be on  site, then there is no alternative method that minimizes adverse impact.
    If a 3-4 minute response time is sufficient, however, and if it  is possible to get care from a medical facility within 3-4 minutes, then the  problem is not the current regulation, but the fact that employers are not  meeting the 3-4 minute requirement of the regulation. One alternative would be  to ensure that all employers of workers on high-hazard worksites know that they  must be able to provide treatment within four minutes no matter the area  of the state or the time of day, and that if they cannot meet that standard,  they must have a first aid/CPR-trained person on site or suffer the  consequences of non-compliance. Currently, employers have a choice. If they are  not within the prescribed time/distance from medical care, then they must have  a first aid-trained person on site anyway. If no one is currently within the  prescribed time/distance from medical care, and work sites are in compliance,  then the only effect of the amendment is to require CPR-training in addition to  first-aid training. If, however, there is even one small business that actually  is within 3-4 minutes of medical care, and 3-4 minutes is what workers need to  be safe, then this amendment imposes a cost to business overall with no benefit  except for the additional CPR requirement. In this case, an alternative to the  proposed amendment would be simply to add the CPR training requirement to the  first aid training requirement if the worksite is not within 3-4 minutes of  medical attention. The Department could also put language into the regulation  that strongly encourages firms to have a first aid person on site, given the  difficulties in providing care within four minutes discussed above. 
    This alternative will probably increase, not decrease,  enforcement time, but it could provide a less costly option to the proposed  amendments. 
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments will  directly increase costs for those real estate developers who are employers and  who were using the near proximity or reasonable access clause in order  to comply with current regulations. The cost to real estate developers will be  the same costs as listed above: the course fees and the opportunity (time) cost  of training as many employees in first aid and/or CPR as necessary to ensure  that one trained employee is on site at all times, or the cost of developing a  contract with a different on-site employer.
    Those costs could be partially offset by the money saved from  not having to pay workers’ compensation or short-term disability if the effects  of an accident can be mitigated by faster care. In addition, costs will be  reduced if an experienced worker who might have died is saved by faster care  and can return to work. If real estate developers have low-hazard job sites,  such as sites devoted solely to office work, then their costs on those sites  will be reduced by not having to be concerned with first aid or CPR care at  all. (This cost decrease will affect only those sites that are more than 15  minutes away from a hospital, clinic, or infirmary.) Therefore, the cost of the  proposed amendments to real estate development is ambiguous.
    References
    International Labor Organization, Encyclopedia,  http://www.ilo.org/encyclopaedia/?d&nd=857400218&prevDoc=857400218&spack=000listid%3D010000000400%26listpos%3D0%26lsz%3D1%26nd%3D857000071%26nh%3D2%26
    Northern News Service, "Learning to Stay Safe: First Aid  courses give workers essential information," May 1998.  http://www.nnsl.com//frames/newspapers/1998-05/may18_98safe5.html
    Sasser, Scott M. et al, "Preventing death and  disability through the timely provision of prehospital trauma care," World  Health Organization Bulletin. July 2006. 84(7): 507.
    SMARTRISK, "First Aid Training Reduces Risk of  Injury," September 2004,  http://www.smartrisk.ca/ContentDirector.aspx?tp=1547
    Viscusi, W. Kip, "Monetizing the Benefits of Risk and  Environmental Regulation," April 2006. AEI-Brookings Joint Center for  Regulatory Studies Working Paper 06-09.  http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=979335
    Viscusi, W. Kip and Joseph Aldy, "The Value of a  Statistical Life: A Critical Review of Market Estimates Throughout the  World," The Journal of Risk and Uncertainty, 2003. 27(1): 5-76.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number 36  (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include,  but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or other  entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any localities and  types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the projected  number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the projected costs  to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation,  and the impact on the use and value of private property. Further, if the  proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses, Section 2.2-4007.04  requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an identification and  estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the regulation; (ii) the  projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for  small businesses to comply with the regulation, including the type of  professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other  documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on  affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less  costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The  analysis presented above represents DPB’s best estimate of these economic  impacts.
    ______________________________________________
                                                                            Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Labor and Industry has no additional comment in response to the  economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments change the medical services and  first aid regulations for general industry and for the construction industry  such that in high hazard industries and on worksites containing job classifications  or workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to serious  physical harm or death, employers must designate and train at least one  employee during all work shifts to render immediate first aid and  cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The person or persons would have to have a  valid, current certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau  of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified  by documentary evidence. Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make  written arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer  on the same job site to provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. The  proposed amendment would not apply to worksites containing job classifications  or workplace hazards that do not expose employees to serious physical harm or  death (e.g., office settings).
    16VAC25-90-1910.151. Medical services and first aid. (Repealed.)
    (a) The employer shall ensure the ready availability of  medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of plant health.
    (b) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, or hospital in  near proximity to the workplace which is used for the treatment of all injured  employees, a person or persons shall be adequately trained to render first aid.  Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    (c) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    Appendix A to §1910.151—First aid kits (Non-Mandatory)
    First aid supplies are required to be readily available  under paragraph §1910.151(b). An example of the minimal contents of a generic  first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1–1998  “Minimum Requirements for Workplace First-aid Kits.” The contents of the kit  listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small worksites. When larger  operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same location,  employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at the  worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and additional  quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid kits.
    In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or  changing first-aid needs in their workplace may need to enhance their first-aid  kits. The employer can use the OSHA 200 log, OSHA 101's or other reports to  identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local fire/rescue  department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency room may be  helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the specific needs of  their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably anticipated supplies are  available. Employers should assess the specific needs of their worksite  periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
    If it is reasonably anticipated that employees will be  exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first aid  supplies, employers are required to provide appropriate personal protective  equipment (PPE) in compliance with the provisions of the Occupational Exposure  to Blood borne Pathogens standard, §1910.1030(d)(3) (56 FR 64175). This  standard lists appropriate PPE for this type of exposure, such as gloves,  gowns, face shields, masks, and eye protection.
    CHAPTER 95
  MEDICAL SERVICES AND FIRST AID STANDARDS FOR GENERAL INDUSTRY
    16VAC25-95-10. Medical services and first aid standards for  general industry.
    A. The employer shall ensure the ready availability of  medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of plant health.
    B. A person or persons shall be designated by the employer  and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary resuscitation  (CPR) during all workshifts on worksites containing job classifications or  workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to serious physical  harm or death. The designated person or persons shall have a valid, current  certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the  American Red Cross, or the National Safety Council, or equivalent training that  can be verified by documentary evidence, and shall be available at the worksite  to render first aid and CPR to injured or ill employees.
    C. Covered employers are permitted to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site or establishment to provide designated employees to serve as  first aid and CPR responders for employees of the covered employer.
    D. Employers of mobile work crews (i.e., crews that travel  to more than one worksite per day) of two or more employees that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that at least one employee on the mobile crew is  designated and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and CPR during  all workshifts; or
    2. Comply with subsection C of this section.
    E. Employers of individual mobile employees (i.e., an  employee who travels alone to more than one worksite per day) that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that the mobile employee is adequately trained to  self-administer first aid;
    2. Comply with subsection C of this section; or
    3. Assure that their employee has access to a communication  system that will allow them to immediately request medical assistance through a  911 emergency call or comparable communication system.
    F. Subsections A through E of this section do not apply to  worksites that do not contain job classifications or workplace hazards that expose  employees to serious physical harm or death.
    G. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    H. Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    16VAC25-175-1926.50. Medical services and first aid. (Repealed.)
    (a) The employer shall insure the availability of medical  personnel for advice and consultation on matters of occupational health.
    (b) Provisions shall be made prior to commencement of the  project for prompt medical attention in case of serious injury.
    (c) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, hospital, or  physician, that is reasonably accessible in terms of time and distance to the  worksite, which is available for the treatment of injured employees, a person  who has a valid certificate in first-aid training from the U.S. Bureau of  Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary  evidence, shall be available at the worksite to render first aid.
    (d)(1) First aid supplies shall be easily accessible when  required.
    (2) The contents of the first aid kit shall be placed in a  weatherproof container with individual sealed packages for each type of item,  and shall be checked by the employer before being sent out on each job and at  least weekly on each job to ensure that the expended items are replaced.
    (e) Proper equipment for prompt transportation of the  injured person to a physician or hospital, or a communication system for  contacting necessary ambulance service, shall be provided.
    (f) In areas where 911 is not available, the telephone  numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously  posted.
    (g) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    Appendix A to §1926.50—First aid Kits (Non-Mandatory)
    First aid supplies are required to be easily accessible  under paragraph §1926.50(d)(1). An example of the minimal contents of a generic  first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1–1978  “Minimum Requirements for Industrial Unit-Type First-aid Kits”. The contents of  the kit listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small work sites.  When larger operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same  location, employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at  the worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and  additional quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid  kits.
    In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or  changing first-aid needs in their workplace, may need to enhance their  first-aid kits. The employer can use the OSHA 200 log, OSHA 101's or other  reports to identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local  Fire/Rescue Department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency  room may be helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the  specific needs of their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably  anticipated supplies are available. Employers should assess the specific needs  of their worksite periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
    If it is reasonably anticipated employees will be exposed  to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first-aid  supplies, employers should provide personal protective equipment (PPE).  Appropriate PPE includes gloves, gowns, face shields, masks and eye protection  (see “Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens”, 29 CFR 1910.1030(d)(3))  (56 FR 64175).
    CHAPTER 177
  MEDICAL SERVICES AND FIRST AID STANDARDS FOR THE CONSTRUCTION INDUSTRY
    16VAC25-177-10. Medical services and first aid standards for  the construction industry.
    A. The employer shall ensure the availability of medical  personnel for advice and consultation on matters of occupational health.
    B. Provisions shall be made prior to commencement of the  project for prompt medical attention in case of serious injury.
    C. A person or persons shall be designated by the employer  and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary  resuscitation (CPR) during all workshifts on worksites containing job  classifications or workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to  serious physical harm or death. The designated person or persons shall have a  valid, current certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau  of Mines, the American Red Cross, or the National Safety Council, or equivalent  training that can be verified by documentary evidence, and shall be available  at the worksite to render first aid and CPR to injured or ill employees.
    D. Covered employers are permitted to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site or establishment to provide designated employees to serve as  first aid and CPR responders for employees of the covered employer.
    E. Employers of mobile work crews (i.e., crews that travel  to more than one worksite per day) of two or more employees that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that at least one employee on the mobile crew is  designated and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and CPR during  all workshifts; or
    2. Comply with subsection D of this section. 
    F. Employers of individual mobile employees (i.e., an  employee who travels alone to more than one worksite per day) that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that the mobile employee is adequately trained to  self-administer first aid;
    2. Comply with subsection D of this section; or
    3. Assure that their employee has access to a communication  system that will allow them to immediately request medical assistance through a  911 emergency call or comparable communication system. 
    G. Subsections A through F of this section do not apply to  worksites that do not contain job classifications or workplace hazards that  expose employees to serious physical harm or death. 
    H. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    I. The contents of the first aid kit shall be placed in a  weatherproof container with individual sealed packages for each type of item  and shall be checked by the employer before being sent out on each job and at  least weekly on each job to ensure that the expended items are replaced.
    J. A communication system for contacting necessary  ambulance service shall be provided.
    K. In areas where 911 is not available, the telephone  numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously  posted.
    L. Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R07-05; Filed September 9, 2008, 2:09 p.m. 
TITLE 16. LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT
SAFETY AND HEALTH CODES BOARD
Extension of Public Comment Period
    Titles of Regulations: 16VAC25-90. Federal Identical  General Industry Standards (29 CFR Part 1910) (repealing 16VAC25-90-1910.269 (p)(1)(ii)).
    16VAC25-97. Reverse Signal Operation Safety Requirements for  Motor Vehicles, Machinery and Equipment in General Industry and the  Construction Industry (adding 16VAC25-97-10 through 16VAC25-97-70).
    16VAC25-175. Federal Identical Construction Industry  Standards (29 CFR Part 1926) (repealing 16VAC25-175-1926.601 (b)(4),  16VAC25-175-602 (a)(9)(ii), 16VAC25-175-1926.952 (a)(3).
    Statutory Authority: §40.1-22 of the Code of Virginia.
    The Safety and Health Codes Board noticed an initial   public comment period on the above-referenced proposed regulations  (16VAC25-97) in the August 20, 2007, issue of the Virginia Register of  Regulations (23:25 VA.R. 4347-4351 August 20, 2007). However, a number  of comments were received after the close of the initial comment period and the  board noticed a second public comment period on this regulation in the April  14, 2008, issue of the Virginia Register (24:16 VA.R. 2291 April 14, 2008).
    Following the close of the second comment period, extensive  changes were made to the text of the proposed regulation.  Therefore, the  board has issued a third 30-day comment period that will begin on September 29,  2008, and end on October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Jay Withrow, Department of Labor and  Industry, Powers Taylor Building, 13 South 13th Street, Richmond, VA 23219, or  email jay.withrow@doli.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R06-314; Filed September 2, 2007, 5:22 p.m. 
TITLE 16. LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT
SAFETY AND HEALTH CODES BOARD
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 16VAC25-90. Federal Identical  General Industry Standards (repealing 16VAC25-90-1910.151).
    16VAC25-95. Medical Services and First Aid Standards for General  Industry (adding 16VAC25-95-10).
    16VAC25-175. Federal Identical Construction Industry  Standards (repealing 16VAC25-175-1926.50).
    16VAC25-177. Medical Services and First Aid Standards for  the Construction Industry (adding 16VAC25-177-10).
    Statutory Authority: §40.1-22 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comments: Public comments may be submitted until  5 p.m. on November 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Regina P. Cobb, Agency Management  Analyst Senior, Department of Labor and Industry, Powers-Taylor Building, 13 S.  13th St., Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-0610, FAX (804) 786-8418, TTY  (804) 786-2376, or email regina.cobb@doli.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The Safety and Health Codes Board is authorized to  regulate occupational safety and health under § 40.1-22(5) of the Code of  Virginia to:
    "... adopt, alter, amend, or repeal rules and regulations  to further, protect and promote the safety and health of employees in places of  employment over which it has jurisdiction and to effect compliance with the  federal OSH Act of 1970...as may be necessary to carry out its functions  established under this title".
    In this same statutory section, the board is further  mandated:
    "In making such rules and regulations to protect the  occupational safety and health of employees, the Board shall adopt the standard  which most adequately assures, to the extent feasible, on the basis of the best  available evidence that no employee will suffer material impairment of health  or functional capacity".
    "However, such standards shall be at least as stringent  as the standards promulgated by the federal OSH Act of 1970 (P.L.91-596).   In addition to the attainment of the highest degree of health and safety  protection for the employee, other considerations shall be the latest available  scientific data in the field, the feasibility of the standards, and experiences  gained under this and other health and safety laws."
    Purpose: The purpose of the proposed changes is to  ensure that construction and general industry employers on worksites containing  job classifications or workplace hazards that could expose employees to serious  physical harm or death, designate and train a person or persons to render first  aid and CPR during all workshifts. The changes are also designed to provide  employers with some flexibility to make arrangements for the provision of first  aid and CPR services on individual work sites. In addition, the proposed  changes clarify requirements for employers of mobile crews and individual  mobile employees.
    Current Regulatory Framework: The Existing Regulations are  Confusing and Difficult for Employers to Comply With and Difficult for the  Department to Enforce
    The current first aid regulations, which are identical to  their federal OSHA counterparts and are the subject of this rulemaking, apply  to all general industry and construction employers:
    16 VAC 25-90-1910.151(b) of the General Industry Regulation  for Medical and First Aid provides that "In the absence of an infirmary,  clinic, or hospital in near proximity to the workplace which is used for the  treatment of all injured employees, a person or persons shall be adequately  trained to render first aid…." (Emphasis added).
    16 VAC 25-175-1926.50(c) of the Construction Regulation for  Medical Services and First Aid provides: "In the absence of an infirmary,  clinic, hospital or physician, that is reasonably accessible in terms of  time and distance to the worksite, which is available for the treatment of  injured employees, a person who has a valid certificate in first aid  training…." (Emphasis added).
    Both existing regulations lack clarity and are difficult for  employers to comply with and for the VOSH Program to enforce. For instance, the  existing regulations do not define the terms "near proximity" and  "reasonably accessible." These phrases have been interpreted by  federal OSHA to mean that all general industry and construction employers must  have either an employee trained in first aid, or:
    their worksite must be located within a three to four minute  response time of a hospital, clinic or 
    infirmary if the worksite contains workplace hazards that  could cause life threatening injuries; or 
    their worksite must be located within a 15-minute response  time of a hospital, clinic, or
    infirmary if the worksite does not contain workplace hazards  that could cause life threatening injuries.
    According to statistics for 2003 from the Department of  Emergency Medical Services (EMS) website, EMS providers arrived at the scene of  522,345 calls with an average response time of approximately 12 minutes.   Approximately 72% of all reported calls were provided in less than 10 minutes,  and approximately 87% of all reported calls were provided in less than 15  minutes.
    The department requested more recent data from EMS for  statewide response times for all calls as well as calls for industrial sites  specifically for the years 2004 through 2006 ("Industrial premises"  includes "building under construction, dockyard, dry dock, factory  building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial yard, loading platform  in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard, shop (place of work),  warehouse and workhouse." Source:  PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element  Dictionary):
           | Statewide Response Time    Statistics by Year | 
       | "Response time"    defined as "Arrived at Scene" minus "Dispatched"
 | 
       |   | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 | 
       | All Cases:  Response    Time |   | 
       |  1-3 minutes | 13.0% | 12.9% | 12.5% | 
       |  4-15 minutes | 74.6% | 74.7% | 75.1% | 
       |  15-100 minutes | 12.4% | 12.5% | 12.5% | 
       | Mean (Average) in minutes | 8.89 | 8.94 | 8.96 | 
       | Industrial Sites Only:     Response Time |   | 
       |  1-3 minutes | 19.2% | 19.3% | 20.9% | 
       |  4-15 minutes | 75.1% | 73.9% | 72.2% | 
       |  15-100 minutes | 5.7% | 6.8% | 6.9% | 
       | Mean (Average) in minutes | 7.10 | 7.58 | 7.34 | 
  
    NOTE  1: Calculation of the above response times is from the time  "dispatched" to the time of "arrived at scene."   Although the PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element Dictionary indicates that there is  a data field called "Time of Call" defined as "Time call is first  received by Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) or other designated  entity," VOSH was informed by EMS that "Time of Call" data is  not regularly available to the local EMS responders to enter into the reporting  system. Therefore, the 2004-2006 data supplied by EMS under reports the average  response times because it does not include the time it takes for the 911 call  to be received and then referred to the local EMS provider.
    NOTE 2: Calculation of the above  response times is limited to data where a response time of between one minute  and 100 minutes was reported. EMS personnel indicated that this approach was  used to eliminate some obviously inaccurate data in the system (e.g., response  times in the negatives, response times that were several days, etc.).
    As the more recent statistics above indicate, the average EMS  response time for all cases statewide has been approximately nine minutes for  the last three years (more than twice the three to four minute response time  required by OSHA for life threatening injuries), while the average response  time to industrial sites falls between 7 and 7.5 minutes, which is 75% above  the three to four minute requirement. Furthermore, the chart demonstrates that  for all cases statewide, only 12.5 to 13% of the responses occur within the  three to four minute requirement for life threatening injuries, while from 19  to 21% of the responses occur to industrial sites within the three to four  minute requirement.
    The above statistics graphically demonstrate that the large  majority of employers in Virginia fail to meet the three to four minute  exemption contained in the interpretations for the current VOSH first aid  regulations for construction and general industry that would allow them to  avoid having a trained first aid provider on site (the OSHA 3-4 minute  interpretation applies to worksites with hazards that could cause life  threatening injuries).
    Another difficulty with the current first aid regulations is  that neither the current regulations nor federal OSHA interpretations provide  clear guidance to employers of mobile work crews who are exposed to hazards  that could cause death or serious physical harm. The proposed changes  specifically provide compliance options for such covered employers.
    Finally, to assure compliance with the current regulations,  both employers and the VOSH Program are often faced with having to document  whether an infirmary, clinic or hospital would be accessible within three to  four minutes or 15 minutes. This may include going to such lengths as having to  drive from the inspection site to the facility, or by contacting the nearest  rescue squad to determine what the normal response time would be to the  specific worksite. Even in such cases where response time information may be  readily available, the response time for emergency responders to a particular  site can vary widely from day to day depending on such factors as whether the  worksite is in an urban or rural location (see discussion below on geographic  differences in EMS response times around the state), whether the  medical/emergency response facility is staffed 24 hours a day or not, and such  vagaries as traffic congestion, road construction and weather. For these  reasons under the current regulations, the vast majority of injured employees  cannot receive timely, reliable and consistent first aid response to injuries  suffered on the job if there is no trained first aid responder on site.
    Existing Regulations Do Not Provide Adequate First Aid and CPR  Protections for Employees
    The existing general industry and construction first aid  regulations do not assure that adequate first aid attention for employees will  be provided in certain hazardous situations. For instance, current regulations  do not require CPR training for designated first aid providers, nor do they  clearly state that designated first aid providers will be available at each  hazardous work location and each work shift. The proposed changes correct these  oversights. 
    In addition, the current regulations allow an employer to  physically move an employee who had suffered a head/spinal injury or other  serious injury by transporting them to a medical facility that is within three  to four minutes driving distance, in lieu of having a trained first aid  responder on site to administer first aid and CPR while emergency response  personnel are in route.
    Existing Regulations Do Not Provide Equal First Aid/CPR  Treatment Opportunities for Similarly Exposed Employees
    The current regulations do not provide the same level of  first aid and CPR protection for employees in different general industry and  construction settings who are exposed to similar kinds of serious and life  threatening workplace hazards. For instance, a number of current industry  specific regulations require general industry and construction employers to  assure that one or more employees trained in first aid and CPR are present at  each worksite and workshift:
    General Industry
    Logging Industry employers must assure that all logging  employees receive first aid and CPR training - 16VAC25-90-1910.266(i)(7); 
    Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution  Industry employers must assure that trained first aid and CPR providers are  present for field work and fixed work locations - 16VAC25-90-1910.269(b)(1);
    Employers engaged in Welding, Cutting and Brazing must assure  that first aid can be rendered to an injured employee until medical attention  can be provided - 16VAC25-90-1910.252(c)(13);
    Telecommunications Industry employers must assure that  employees are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-90-1910.268(c)(3);
    Employers with a Temporary Labor Camp must assure that a  trained first aid and CPR provider is present at the camp -  16VAC25-90-1910.142(k)(2);
    Commercial Dive Operation employers must assure that all dive  team members are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-90-1910.410(a)(3).
    Construction Industry
    Power Generation and Distribution employers must assure that  employees are trained in first aid and CPR - 16VAC25-175-1926.950(e)(1)(ii);
    Employers involved in Underground Construction, Caissons,  Cofferdams and Compressed Air must provide a first aid station at each project  (see 16VAC25-175-1926.803(b)(7);
    Employees in the above industries benefit from greater first  aid and CPR protections than employees who, for instance, work in construction around  but not on overhead high voltage lines (contact with overhead high voltage  lines is regularly one of the top four causes of occupationally related VOSH  fatalities). The proposed changes assure that all construction and general  industry employees exposed to hazards that could cause death or serious  physical harm are provided an equal level of first aid and CPR protection.
    The Department also requested recent data from EMS for  statewide response times for calls for industrial sites broken down by  geographic region for the years 2004 through 2006 ("Industrial  premises" includes "building under construction, dockyard, dry dock,  factory building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial yard, loading  platform in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard, shop (place of  work), warehouse and workhouse." Source: PPCR/PPDR Program Data Element  Dictionary):
     
     
         
                 | Statewide Response Time    Statistics by Year for Industrial Sites Only"Response time" defined as "Arrived at Scene" minus    "Dispatched"
 | 
       |   | 2004Response Times
 | 2005 Response Times
 | 2006Response Times
 | 
       | Industrial Sites |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg |  1-3 |   4-15 | Avg | 
       | No Region Listed | 22.3% | 69.2% | 7.7 | 26.5% | 63.6% | 8.2 | 52.4% | 44.6% | 4.7 | 
       | BLUE RIDGE | 6.0% | 67.8% | 12.1 | 8.9% | 64.2% | 13.0 | 9.5% | 73.6% | 10.5 | 
       | CENTRAL SHENANDOAH | 11.1% | 82.9% | 8.1 | 16.3% | 79.2% | 7.6 | 18.9% | 73.2% | 7.8 | 
       | LORD FAIRFAX | 7.8% | 85.4% | 8.6 | 10.1% | 82.6% | 8.5 | 8.9% | 81.8% | 8.7 | 
       | NORTHERN VIRGINIA | 18.3% | 78.3% | 6.4 | 13.2% | 81.6% | 7.7 | 12.1% | 84.1% | 7.2 | 
       | OLD DOMINION | 17.2% | 77.7% | 7.2 | 15.4% | 79.0% | 7.2 | 15.7% | 79.3% | 6.9 | 
       | PENINSULAS | 44.1% | 53.1% | 4.8 | 41.1% | 56.4% | 4.9 | 46.1% | 51.5% | 4.9 | 
       | RAPPAHANNOCK | 13.1% | 77.2% | 8.5 | 10.9% | 80.2% | 8.8 | 13.5% | 74.3% | 9.2 | 
       | SOUTHWEST VIRGINIA | 9.5% | 73.1% | 10.4 | 12.6% | 67.0% | 10.5 | 13.2% | 69.1% | 10.0 | 
       | THOMAS JEFFERSON | 9.9% | 67.3% | 11.3 | 10.7% | 76.2% | 10.0 | 7.1% | 66.9% | 12.0 | 
       | TIDEWATER | 15.1% | 79.1% | 7.6 | 12.3% | 82.7% | 7.8 | 11.4% | 83.1% | 7.6 | 
       | WESTERN VIRGINIA | 25.9% | 66.9% | 7.2 | 26.2% | 69.1% | 6.8 | 22.5% | 72.7% | 6.9 | 
       | Total | 19.1% | 75.1% | 7.1 | 19.1% | 74.0% | 7.6 | 20.7% | 72.3% | 7.3 | 
  
         
          NOTE 1:  Calculation of the above response times is from the time "dispatched"  to the time of "arrived at scene."  Although the PPCR/PPDR  Program Data Element Dictionary indicates that there is a data field called  "Time of Call" defined as "Time call is first received by Public  Safety Answering Point (PSAP) or other designated entity," VOSH was  informed by EMS that "Time of Call" data is not regularly available  to the local EMS responders to enter into the reporting system. Therefore, the  2004-2006 data supplied by EMS under reports the average response times because  it does not include the time it takes for the 911 call to be received and then  referred to the local EMS provider.
    NOTE 2: Calculation of the above response times is  limited to data where a response time of between one minute and 100 minutes was  reported. EMS personnel indicated that this approach was used to eliminate some  obviously inaccurate data in the system (e.g. response times in the negatives,  response times that were several days, etc.).
    As the above statistics indicate, there is a wide disparity  in EMS response times across the state based on geographic region. For instance  in 2006 there is a range of a low of 7.1% of EMS responses occurring within one  to three minutes in the Thomas Jefferson region to a high of 46.1% within one  to three minutes in the Peninsulas region; while the average response times  range from 4.9 minutes in the Peninsulas' region to 12 minutes in the Thomas  Jefferson region.
    Again, the above statistics graphically demonstrate that the  large majority of employers in Virginia cannot meet the three to four minute  exemption contained in the interpretations for the exemption contained in the  current VOSH first aid regulations for construction and general industry that  would allow them to avoid having a trained first aid provider on site (the  three to four minute interpretation applies to worksites with hazards that  could cause life threatening injuries). In addition, the geographic disparities  in response time demonstrate that the current regulations do not provide equal  access to adequate first aid and CPR protections for employees.
    The Existing General Industry First Aid Regulation is  Overreaching
    The current general industry  regulation is overreaching in that it applies to all general industry  employers, even when there are no workplace hazards present that could pose a  threat of serious physical harm or death, such as in office settings (it should  be noted that, with rare exceptions, construction worksites are universally  acknowledged to contain both job classifications and workplace hazards that
  are likely to cause death or serious physical harm). The proposed regulations  will exclude worksites that do not contain such serious hazards from the  requirement to provide designated employees with first aid and CPR training.
    Substance: The VOSH Program seeks the amendment of  medical services and first aid regulations for general industry §1910.151(b),  and the construction industry, §1926.50(c) to require  construction and general industry employers to train and designate a person or  persons to render first aid and CPR during all workshifts on worksites  containing job classifications or workplace hazards that could expose employees  to serious physical harm or death; and to provide employers with some  flexibility to make arrangements for first aid and CPR services on individual  work sites. The proposed regulations will also exclude certain low hazard  industries and employers from the requirement to provide first aid and CPR  training. In addition, the proposed changes also clarify requirements for  employers of mobile crews and individual mobile employees.
    Issues: A primary advantage of the proposed regulation  is that employers covered by the proposed regulation would be required to have  at each job site and for each work shift at least one employee trained in first  aid and CPR, thereby increasing protection of their employees.
    The proposed changes eliminate inequities contained in the  existing regulations by assuring all construction and general industry  employees exposed to hazards that could cause death or serious physical harm  equal access to first aid and CPR services, regardless of their specific  industrial or construction setting, or the geographical location of their work.  As noted in the "Purpose" section above, only employees engaged in  the following industries benefit from regulations requiring the immediate  presence of first aid/CPR trained providers at their worksite:
    Logging
    Electric Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution  (General Industry)
    Power Generation and Distribution (Construction Industry)
    Welding, Cutting and Brazing
    Telecommunications
    Temporary Labor Camp (Migrant Labor)
    Commercial Dive Operation
    Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams and Compressed  Air
    A disadvantage is that some employers would have to incur the  additional cost of securing such training, although many employers currently  already assure that some employees are trained in first aid and CPR.
    Another advantage to employers would be that costs associated  with compliance with the proposed regulation will be lessened by the specific  language in the proposal that allows an employer to make written arrangements  with other contractors/employers on the same job site to provide designated  employees to serve as first aid and CPR responders.
    Also, costs associated with the current regulation will be  eliminated for employers on worksites where there are no hazards that could  result in serious physical harm or death, by excluding such worksites from  coverage.
    Additionally, the proposed changes eliminate confusion and  clarify requirements for employers of mobile crews and individual mobile  employees.
    Finally, to assure compliance with the current regulations,  both employers and the VOSH Program are often faced with having to document whether  an infirmary, clinic or hospital would be accessible within three to four  minutes by going to such lengths as having to drive from the inspection site to  the facility, or by contacting the nearest rescue squad to determine what there  normal response time would be to the specific worksite (see above discussion of  federal OSHA interpretations in the “Purpose” section). The proposed changes  eliminate the three to four minute and 15 minute interpretation requirements.
    The Department of Planning  and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed  Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia Department of Labor and Industry  (Department) proposes to amend the medical services and first aid regulations  for general industry and for the construction industry such that in high hazard  industries and on worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards  that could potentially expose employees to serious physical harm or death,  employers must designate and train at least one employee during all work shifts  to render immediate first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).   The person or persons would have to have a valid, current certificate in  first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red  Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary evidence.  Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make written arrangements with  and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the same job site to  provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. The proposed amendment would not  apply to worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards that do  not expose employees to serious physical harm or death (e.g., office settings).
    Result of Analysis. There is insufficient data to accurately  compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs. Detailed analysis of  the benefits and costs can be found in the next section.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Under the current regulation,  employers in general industry must only train a person or persons to render  first aid if there is no infirmary, clinic, or hospital which is used for the  treatment of all injured employees in near proximity to the workplace.  The following industries that fall under the general industry category have  more stringent rules: (1) logging, (2) electric power generation, transmission,  and distribution, (3) telecommunications, (4) temporary labor camps, (5)  commercial diver operations, and (6) welding, cutting, and brazing. In the  first five categories, regulations require employers to train at least one  person—if not all employees—in first aid and CPR. The welding, cutting, and  brazing requirements state that "All injuries shall be reported a soon as  possible for medical attention. First aid shall be rendered until medical  attention can be provided." For the remainder of this document, it will be  assumed that the current regulation implies that employers in welding, cutting,  and brazing are required to ensure that a first aid-trained employee be on the  worksite at all time either by training employees herself or by contracting  with another employer onsite.
    Under the current regulation, the requirements for first aid  treatment in the construction industry differ only slightly from those in  general industry. In the construction industry, employers must only train a  person or persons to render first aid if there is no infirmary, clinic,  hospital, or physician, which is available for the treatment of injured  employees that is reasonably accessible in terms of time and distance to the  worksite. In addition to specific requirements for first aid supplies, the  regulation for the construction industry also specifies that the person trained  to render first aid must have a valid certificate in first-aid training from  the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that  can be verified by documentary evidence; provisions shall be made prior to  commencement of the project for prompt medical attention in case of serious  injury; proper equipment for prompt transportation of the injured person to a  physician or hospital, or a communication system for contacting necessary  ambulance service shall be provided; and in areas where 911 is not available,  the telephone numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be  conspicuously posted. The categories in the construction industry with more  stringent first aid requirements are: (1) electric power generation,  transmission, and distribution, for which the Department requires the training  of employees in first aid and CPR, and (2) underground construction, caissons,  cofferdams, and compressed air, which must have a first aid station and  ambulance at each project.
    In sum, under the current regulations, most firms or  organizations in general and construction industry are required to have a  first-aid-trained employee on site only if medical attention in the form of  infirmaries, clinics, or hospitals is not in near proximity or reasonably  accessible. These regulations are identical to those required by the U.S.  Department of Labor Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA  interprets near proximity and reasonably accessible to mean that emergency  medical services must be available within 3-4 minutes in workplaces where  "serious accidents such as those involving falls, suffocation,  electrocution, or amputation are possible" and up to 15 minutes in  workplaces, such as offices, where the possibility of such serious work-related  injuries is more remote.1
    The proposed amendments aim to make the first-aid requirements  for high-hazard general and construction industry employers more stringent than  those required by the federal government. Under the proposed amendments,  employers will be required to designate and train at least one employee during  all work shifts to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary  resuscitation (CPR). The person or persons would have to have a valid, current  certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the  American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary  evidence. Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site to provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. As under the  current regulation, if an employer does not comply with the regulation, the  Department will issue a citation and may assess a penalty and the employer must  change his practices to comply with the regulation. The penalty will depend  upon the nature and circumstances of the violation.
    With the exception of welding, cutting, and brazing, the  categories of general and construction industry discussed above that already  require first aid and CPR training of employees will not be affected by the  proposed amendment, since their first aid requirements are already more  stringent. (Employers whose work sites engage in welding, cutting, and brazing  will be required to train an employee in CPR and first aid; under current  regulations they are required only to train an employee in first aid.) In  addition, the proposed amendment for general and construction industry  "does not apply to worksites containing job classifications or workplace  hazards that do not expose employees to serious physical harm or death (e.g.,  office settings)". In other words, the proposed amendments will affect in  the same way all firms/organizations (construction and general industry) with  job classifications or workplace hazards that could potentially expose  employees to serious physical harm or death. Therefore, the remainder of this  document will look at the costs and benefits of changing the requirements for  the general and construction industries simultaneously.
    As mentioned above, the proposed amendments do also change the  requirements for low-hazard worksites. Under current regulations, these  worksites are required to have medical services available within 15 minutes or  have a first aid-trained person on site at all times. Under the proposed  amendments, employers at these worksites will no longer have any requirements with  regards to the immediate provision of first aid or CPR. Finally, the proposed  amendments explicitly state the requirements for employers of mobile work crews  and individual mobile employees that are not explicitly stated in the current  regulation.
    The proposed amendments will affect all employers in Virginia.  The Department estimates that of the 215,201 employers in Virginia, this  amendment will make the first aid/CPR requirements more stringent for around  150,000 employers since the Department estimates that around 17,000  establishments are already in compliance with the proposed regulations (or have  more stringent current regulations), around 59,000 establishments do not have  job classifications or work site hazards that could result in serious physical  harm or death, and around 300 establishments do not fall within Department  jurisdiction. It is important to note, however, that these numbers are  estimates. Within a particular industry that is normally considered to be low  hazard, there may be some specific work sites or portions of the establishments  that have job classifications or workplace hazards that would fall under the  more stringent requirements of the proposed regulation. For example, a large  department store that has service personnel who deal directly with customers  who would not be exposed to serious or life-threatening hazards may also have  warehouse personnel who operate forklifts and are therefore exposed to such  hazards. As another example, a supermarket may have retail clerks who are not  exposed to serious hazards, but may also have personnel using potentially  dangerous equipment, such as a meat slicing machine. Therefore, although some  businesses in the areas of Retail or Wholesale Trade may only have office  workers, the section could not be considered exempt from the proposed  regulation.
    It is also unclear how the proposed amendments will change the  work practices of those 150,000 employers with job classifications or work site  hazards that could result in serious physical harm or death. First, the current  regulation requires employers to have a first aid-trained employee on site at  all times if they cannot meet the "near proximity" or  "reasonable access" requirements. The only change that this amendment  will impose on the employers who comply with current regulation by having a  first aid-trained person on site is to require that the person be trained in  CPR as well. Since it is unknown how many employers currently have a first  aid-trained person on site, and how many of those employees are also trained in  CPR, the statewide cost of the proposed amendment on employers is not clear.  Second, the cost to employers depends upon the number of employees that they  will need to train and employee turnover rates. For example, a small butcher shop  with low staff turnover that uses a meat-slicing machine might need to train at  most one employee every year. On the other hand, a small contractor might have  to train 2-3 employees per month if she has a total of 20 employees at any  given time who work at varying job sites, but also has a high turnover in  employees. Of course, employers who send employees onto job sites can provide  first aid and CPR through a contract with another organization at the job site,  but that contract process could be costly or infeasible, depending upon  circumstances.
    The table below gives an example of the time and monetary cost  of first aid and CPR training provided by Virginia chapters of the American Red  Cross.
           | Course | Cost | Certification | 
       | Greater Richmond Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 5 hours, $55 | One-year Adult CPR certification | 
       | Adult CPR review | 4 hours, $45 | Renewal of one-year certification in Adult CPR | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 8 hours, $65 | One year Adult CPR certification, three year first aid    certification | 
       | Central Virginia Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $41 | One year Adult CPR certification | 
       | Adult CPR review | 4 hours, $31 | Renewal of one-year certification in Adult CPR | 
       | First aid | 4 hours, $38 | Three year first aid certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 8.5 hours, $62 | One year Adult CPR certification, three year first aid    certification | 
       | Hampton Roads Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $35 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | First aid | 3-4 hours, $35 | Three year first aid    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7-8 hours, $45 | One year Adult CPR certification,    three year first aid certification | 
       | Alexandria Chapter | 
       | Adult CPR | 4.5 - 5 hours, $45 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | First aid | 4.5 hours, $40 | Three year first aid    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7.5 hours, $60 | One year Adult CPR certification,    three year first aid certification | 
       | Mountain Empire Chapter,    Bristol | 
       | Adult CPR | 4 hours, $29 | One year Adult CPR    certification | 
       | Adult CPR/first aid | 7-8 hours, $37 | One year Adult CPR    certification, three year first aid certification | 
  
    Source: American Red Cross,  http://www.redcross.org/where/chapts.asp#VA
    Say, then, that a butcher shop in central Virginia needs to  have two trained employees in order to have someone on staff at all times who  is first aid/CPR-trained. Assume that one trained person is the owner, who will  be trained the first year, but needs only the refresher courses the following  years. The owner also has to train a new employee every year. The first year of  courses will cost the shop $62+$62=$124 for the course and $246.50 for the  time, since 17 hours will have to be reallocated from normal activities to  training and butchers make, on average, $14.50/hour2 in Virginia.  This makes for a total cost of around $370.50 for the first year. The second  and third years will cost the shop around $274.253 since the owner  will only need a renewal in the CPR training. (The cost of the fourth year,  however, will be the same as the first year since there is no renewal course in  first aid training.) Therefore, the proposed amendment will cost the butcher,  on average, $306.33 annually4. The construction firm, on the other  hand, that needs to train two employees per month, however, will spend a total  of $124 for classes and $295.80 for the lost 17 hours of work5 per  month, for a total of $5037.60 annually6. These figures do not  include, of course, the lost work time should something unplanned happen to the  first aid/CPR-trained employee, making it impossible for that worker to be on  site (such as illness, death in the family, etc.) and, therefore, against  regulations for the other workers to continue to work until a trained  replacement can be found or the employee can return to work.
    Ideally, we would then take some weighted average of $306.33  and $5037.60 and multiply it by the total number of affected firms to get a  total cost of the proposed amendment. However, some firms—particularly small  construction firms that regularly move employees from site to site—might choose  to satisfy the requirements by contracting with another firm to provide the first  aid. Those contractual costs could be small if the firm has an existing  contract with the other firm on site, or they could be large if the firm needs  to hire a lawyer to draw up a contract "sharing" the  first-aid/CPR-trained employee. The lack of information on how many firms are  currently in compliance with the proposed regulation and how firms would choose  to satisfy the proposed regulation makes it difficult to estimate a total cost  of the proposed amendments to Virginia firms.
    The benefits of the proposed amendments for citizens and  organizations are equally difficult to quantify. In 2005, there were 163 fatal  injuries (including 22 due to assaults and violent acts)7 and  approximately 126 non-fatal injuries8 in non-agricultural industry  in Virginia.9 Below is a graph of the fatal injuries in Virginia  from 1992 through 2005. As the graph illustrates, although the number of fatal  injuries in 2005 is high, the numbers do not necessarily indicate an increasing  trend in the data. The number of non-fatal injuries does not show an increasing  trend either.
    
    Source: Department of Labor and Industry, http://www.doli.virginia.gov/whatwedo/coop_prog/research_p1.html  
    It is difficult to estimate the number of fatalities that would  have been avoided had first aid been available on site. There have been two  deaths in the past five years where Virginia Occupational Safety and Health  Compliance Program (VOSH) inspectors recommended issuing a fatality-related  violation for lack of first aid training. Based on this information, the  Department estimates that these proposed amendments would save about 1-2 lives  every five years.
    The Department cites OSHA’s 2006 adoption of its Hexavalent  Chromium Standard to apply a value of $6.8 million to each premature fatality  avoided.10 If 1-2 lives are saved every five years, this amendment  will result in an annual savings of approximately $1.36-$2.72 million.  According to the OSHA document, this $6.8 million figure came from EPA, which  used studies on individuals’ willingness-to-pay (WTP) to reduce the risk of  premature death. These contingent valuation studies normally present  respondents with hypothetical fatality risk situations and ask how much they  would pay for a particular risk reduction. There are other ways to estimate the  value of a statistical life (VSL) and over the past few decades, researchers  have developed numerous methodologies for determining the VSL. For a discussion  of these analyses, see Viscusi (2006) or Viscusi and Aldy (2003). For the  purposes of this analysis, however, we will simply note that $6.8 million is an  average figure in the range of determined VSL values, almost all of which fall  between $1 million to $20 million.
    According to one study, most severely injured patients who die  in the first few hours after injury succumb to airway compromise, respiratory  failure, or uncontrolled hemorrhage, all of which can be treated using basic  first aid measures.11 (Injuries that could cause these problems are  crushing injuries, injuries caused by falls from heights such as in  construction, injuries caused by machinery in manufacturing, and electric  shock.) Of course, under the current regulation, patients will be treated  within minutes, but the Department is concerned with the number of minutes it  takes to receive treatment. In justifying its 3-4 minute response time  interpretation of reasonable accessibility of medical care, OSHA writes that:
    Medical literature establishes that, for serious injuries such  as those involving stopped breathing, cardiac arrest, or uncontrolled bleeding,  first aid treatment must be provided within the first few minutes to avoid  permanent medical impairment or death. Accordingly, in workplaces where serious  accidents such as those involving falls, suffocation, electrocution, or  amputation are possible, emergency medical services must be available within  3-4 minutes, if there is no employee on the site who is trained to render first  aid.
    In fact, it seems to be widely accepted that medical attention  within a few minutes of a serious injury can significantly improve the  individual’s probability of avoiding death or long-term health consequences  such as amputation or permanent damage.
    There are also studies that indicate that having a first aid  person readily available reduces the risk of serious injury or death. According  to the Canadian Red Cross and SMARTRISK, a non-profit organization dedicated to  preventing injuries and saving lives, getting trained in first aid can reduce  your risk of injury by more than 40 percent.12 Research conducted by  St. John Ambulance found that the number of work-related injuries is reduced by  between 20 and 30 percent when workers are trained in first aid.13  According to the International Labor Organization Encyclopedia of Occupational  Health and Safety, defibrillation administered within four minutes of cardiac  arrest yields survival rates of 40 to 50%, versus less than 5% if given later.  For chemical eye injuries, immediate flushing with water can save eyesight. For  spinal cord injuries, correct immobilization can make the difference between  full recovery and paralysis. For hemorrhages, the simple application of a  fingertip to a bleeding vessel can stop life-threatening blood loss.14
    The Department argues that most  employers are not providing medical care as quickly as they should. The  Department of Emergency Medical Services (EMS) statistics indicate that many  employers in Virginia are not providing care within four minutes of injury. In  2004, 2005, and 2006 the average EMS response time for all calls was 8.89 minutes,  8.94 minutes, and 8.96 minutes, respectively. The table below provides response  time for industrial sites:
     
           | Statewide Industrial Site*    Response time ("Arrived at Scene" minus "Dispatched")15 | 
       |   | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 | 
       | 1-3 minutes | 19.2% | 19.3% | 20.9% | 
       | 4-15 minutes | 75.1% | 73.9% | 72.2% | 
       | 15-100 minutes | 5.7% | 6.8% | 6.9% | 
       | Average time in minutes | 7.10 | 7.58 | 7.34 | 
       | *    "Industrial sites" includes building under construction, dockyard,    dry dock, factory building or premises, garage (place of work), industrial    yard, loading platform in factory or store, industrial plant, railway yard,    shop (place of work), warehouse and workhouse) | 
  
    It is important to note that we do not know how many of these  worksites were high-hazard (although according to the Department, most  industrial sites are high-hazard) and we do not know how many of these  worksites had a first-aid person on staff. In other words, although these  numbers give an indication of unacceptably high response times, we do not know  for sure that these job sites are out of compliance with the current  regulation.
    The Department argues, however, that this is not just a  compliance issue. They feel that satisfying the 3-4 minute rule from injury to  medical care is a near-impossible task for employers, no matter how close the  site is to the hospital. Many employers, it argues, believe that they are in  compliance with the regulation but in reality, even without the concerns of  road congestion or unusually high numbers of accidents in the area, it takes  longer to actually get to medical care than employers estimate. Emergency rooms  are often crowded and communication with hospital or clinic staff takes  additional time.
    If it is true that lives will be saved, or that a potentially  serious injury could be prevented by passing these amendments, then the  amendment does provide significant benefits. These benefits include, but are  not limited to, the lives that will be saved. Employers will not only save an  experienced worker by reducing the chance of death or serious injury, they will  also save financially by reducing their workers’ compensation premiums,  reducing workers’ compensation payments, and reducing short-term disability  payments. In addition, it is easy to imagine a loss in productivity due to  reduced morale in workers with the death or serious injury of one of their  colleagues. If workers lose enough confidence in the speed of medical  attention, they might even leave the job, which will require an employer to  train a new person for the job. Given that those with job alternatives are  often the more skilled or experienced workers, this loss could add a  significant cost to an employer.
    Another benefit of the proposed amendments is a reduction in  enforcement time. To evaluate if a worksite is in compliance, an enforcement  officer has to evaluate the time it would take response teams to get to the  worksite, which could include driving to the hospital or clinic, perhaps more  than once if road congestion or emergency facility staffing at a particular  time of day is a concern. The Department estimates that this will save at least  200 man-hours annually, since there are on average 400 first aid violations  cited per year and it takes around 30 minutes to verify that there was no  rescue squad or other medical attention within 3-4 minute response time. These  200 man-hours do not, of course, include the time it took to verify when the  inspector was able to determine that there was medical attention available  within 3-4 minutes. Since construction inspectors make approximately $20.00 per  hour16, this offers a total benefit to taxpayers of $4000 annually. 
    In addition, the ambiguity of the three-to-four minute  requirement reduces employers' likelihood of compliance and gives employers the  opportunity to argue with inspectors about their compliance. The proposed  amendments would make compliance easier to evaluate and easier to enforce. By  reducing the time it takes an enforcement officer to evaluate compliance, the  proposed amendments will allow officers to evaluate more sites. If officers can  evaluate more sites, compliance will improve not only because more  non-compliant employers can be caught, but also because it will increase the  concern among employers of being evaluated. In addition, the Department argues  that employers are more likely to comply when the regulation is unambiguous. 
    Finally, the proposed amendments change the requirements for  worksites containing job classifications or workplace hazards that do not  expose employees to serious physical harm or death, such as office settings.  One benefit of this amendment is that employers in office settings can save  money by not having to be within fifteen minutes of a hospital or have a first  aid person on staff. Under the proposed amendment, those employers with  low-hazard worksites that are not currently within fifteen minutes of a  hospital or clinic will save the costs of training the requisite number of  employees in first aid/CPR, which would be somewhere around the $306.33 or  $5037.60 estimated earlier in this document. (As previously noted, the lack of  data on current compliance rates makes it impossible to quantify total  savings.) Another benefit is that enforcement officers no longer need to ensure  compliance in non-hazardous work settings, which will save further enforcement  time. The cost is that workers in those settings might not have immediate  access to necessary health care; however, because fifteen minutes is not likely  to mitigate the effects of a serious injury, and these workers are not exposed  to workplace hazards and not likely to need medical care often, these costs are  also not likely to be significant.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. According to the Virginia  Employment Commission (VEC) fourth quarter data, there were 215,201 employers  in Virginia. 17 All of these employers would be potentially affected  by the proposed amendments. The Department estimates that for about 65,000 of  these employers, the regulation would become less stringent under the proposed  amendments, but for about 150,000 of these employers, the regulation would  become more stringent.
    Localities Particularly Affected. All Virginia localities may  have individuals or organizations that would be affected by these amendments.
    Projected Impact on Employment. These amendments could reduce  employment if employers choose not to hire because of the cost of ensuring that  a first-aid-trained person is on staff at all times. This is particularly  relevant if an employer hires and sends out mobile work groups. In this case,  the cost of training someone in first aid could be too much to merit hiring the  other people who would be sent out on the job with the first-aid-trained  employee.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. If the cost  of training the requisite number of employees in first aid and CPR is onerous  to a small business owner, then these amendments could reduce the value of  his/her business. In addition, if employers pass the cost onto their consumers  (such as the owner of a construction company passing the cost onto homebuyers),  then these amendments could moderately increase the cost of some products and  services. 
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. According to the  Virginia Employment Commission (VEC) 2006 fourth quarter data, 214,568 of the  215,201 employers in Virginia have less than 500 employees, so 99.7% of  Virginia employers qualify as small businesses.18 This means that  approximately 150,000 small businesses will be affected by the proposed  amendments. The cost to small businesses will be the same costs as listed  above: the course fee and the opportunity (time) cost of training as many  employees in first aid and/or CPR as necessary to ensure that one trained  employee is on site at all times, or the cost of developing a contract with a  different on-site employer.
    On the other hand, the costs above will only apply to small  business owners who do not currently have a first aid/CPR-trained person on  site and part of those costs could be offset by the money saved from not having  to pay workers’ compensation or short-term disability if the effects of an  accident can be mitigated by faster care. In addition, costs will be reduced if  an experienced worker who might have died is saved by faster care and can  return to work. For those small businesses with only low-hazard job sites, such  as sites devoted solely to office work, costs will be reduced by not having to  be concerned with first aid or CPR care at all. (This cost decrease will affect  only those sites that are more than 15 minutes away from a hospital, clinic, or  infirmary.) 
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. If the only way to ensure workers’ access to immediate health care in  the case of emergency is to mandate that a first aid/CPR-trained person be on  site, then there is no alternative method that minimizes adverse impact.
    If a 3-4 minute response time is sufficient, however, and if it  is possible to get care from a medical facility within 3-4 minutes, then the  problem is not the current regulation, but the fact that employers are not  meeting the 3-4 minute requirement of the regulation. One alternative would be  to ensure that all employers of workers on high-hazard worksites know that they  must be able to provide treatment within four minutes no matter the area  of the state or the time of day, and that if they cannot meet that standard,  they must have a first aid/CPR-trained person on site or suffer the  consequences of non-compliance. Currently, employers have a choice. If they are  not within the prescribed time/distance from medical care, then they must have  a first aid-trained person on site anyway. If no one is currently within the  prescribed time/distance from medical care, and work sites are in compliance,  then the only effect of the amendment is to require CPR-training in addition to  first-aid training. If, however, there is even one small business that actually  is within 3-4 minutes of medical care, and 3-4 minutes is what workers need to  be safe, then this amendment imposes a cost to business overall with no benefit  except for the additional CPR requirement. In this case, an alternative to the  proposed amendment would be simply to add the CPR training requirement to the  first aid training requirement if the worksite is not within 3-4 minutes of  medical attention. The Department could also put language into the regulation  that strongly encourages firms to have a first aid person on site, given the  difficulties in providing care within four minutes discussed above. 
    This alternative will probably increase, not decrease,  enforcement time, but it could provide a less costly option to the proposed  amendments. 
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments will  directly increase costs for those real estate developers who are employers and  who were using the near proximity or reasonable access clause in order  to comply with current regulations. The cost to real estate developers will be  the same costs as listed above: the course fees and the opportunity (time) cost  of training as many employees in first aid and/or CPR as necessary to ensure  that one trained employee is on site at all times, or the cost of developing a  contract with a different on-site employer.
    Those costs could be partially offset by the money saved from  not having to pay workers’ compensation or short-term disability if the effects  of an accident can be mitigated by faster care. In addition, costs will be  reduced if an experienced worker who might have died is saved by faster care  and can return to work. If real estate developers have low-hazard job sites,  such as sites devoted solely to office work, then their costs on those sites  will be reduced by not having to be concerned with first aid or CPR care at  all. (This cost decrease will affect only those sites that are more than 15  minutes away from a hospital, clinic, or infirmary.) Therefore, the cost of the  proposed amendments to real estate development is ambiguous.
    References
    International Labor Organization, Encyclopedia,  http://www.ilo.org/encyclopaedia/?d&nd=857400218&prevDoc=857400218&spack=000listid%3D010000000400%26listpos%3D0%26lsz%3D1%26nd%3D857000071%26nh%3D2%26
    Northern News Service, "Learning to Stay Safe: First Aid  courses give workers essential information," May 1998.  http://www.nnsl.com//frames/newspapers/1998-05/may18_98safe5.html
    Sasser, Scott M. et al, "Preventing death and  disability through the timely provision of prehospital trauma care," World  Health Organization Bulletin. July 2006. 84(7): 507.
    SMARTRISK, "First Aid Training Reduces Risk of  Injury," September 2004,  http://www.smartrisk.ca/ContentDirector.aspx?tp=1547
    Viscusi, W. Kip, "Monetizing the Benefits of Risk and  Environmental Regulation," April 2006. AEI-Brookings Joint Center for  Regulatory Studies Working Paper 06-09.  http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=979335
    Viscusi, W. Kip and Joseph Aldy, "The Value of a  Statistical Life: A Critical Review of Market Estimates Throughout the  World," The Journal of Risk and Uncertainty, 2003. 27(1): 5-76.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number 36  (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include,  but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or other  entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any localities and  types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the projected  number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the projected costs  to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation,  and the impact on the use and value of private property. Further, if the  proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses, Section 2.2-4007.04  requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an identification and  estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the regulation; (ii) the  projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for  small businesses to comply with the regulation, including the type of  professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other  documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on  affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less  costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The  analysis presented above represents DPB’s best estimate of these economic  impacts.
    ______________________________________________
                                                                            Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Labor and Industry has no additional comment in response to the  economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments change the medical services and  first aid regulations for general industry and for the construction industry  such that in high hazard industries and on worksites containing job classifications  or workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to serious  physical harm or death, employers must designate and train at least one  employee during all work shifts to render immediate first aid and  cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The person or persons would have to have a  valid, current certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau  of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified  by documentary evidence. Alternatively, an employer would be allowed to make  written arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer  on the same job site to provide the first aid/CPR-trained employees. The  proposed amendment would not apply to worksites containing job classifications  or workplace hazards that do not expose employees to serious physical harm or  death (e.g., office settings).
    16VAC25-90-1910.151. Medical services and first aid. (Repealed.)
    (a) The employer shall ensure the ready availability of  medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of plant health.
    (b) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, or hospital in  near proximity to the workplace which is used for the treatment of all injured  employees, a person or persons shall be adequately trained to render first aid.  Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    (c) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    Appendix A to §1910.151—First aid kits (Non-Mandatory)
    First aid supplies are required to be readily available  under paragraph §1910.151(b). An example of the minimal contents of a generic  first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1–1998  “Minimum Requirements for Workplace First-aid Kits.” The contents of the kit  listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small worksites. When larger  operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same location,  employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at the  worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and additional  quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid kits.
    In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or  changing first-aid needs in their workplace may need to enhance their first-aid  kits. The employer can use the OSHA 200 log, OSHA 101's or other reports to  identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local fire/rescue  department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency room may be  helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the specific needs of  their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably anticipated supplies are  available. Employers should assess the specific needs of their worksite  periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
    If it is reasonably anticipated that employees will be  exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first aid  supplies, employers are required to provide appropriate personal protective  equipment (PPE) in compliance with the provisions of the Occupational Exposure  to Blood borne Pathogens standard, §1910.1030(d)(3) (56 FR 64175). This  standard lists appropriate PPE for this type of exposure, such as gloves,  gowns, face shields, masks, and eye protection.
    CHAPTER 95
  MEDICAL SERVICES AND FIRST AID STANDARDS FOR GENERAL INDUSTRY
    16VAC25-95-10. Medical services and first aid standards for  general industry.
    A. The employer shall ensure the ready availability of  medical personnel for advice and consultation on matters of plant health.
    B. A person or persons shall be designated by the employer  and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary resuscitation  (CPR) during all workshifts on worksites containing job classifications or  workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to serious physical  harm or death. The designated person or persons shall have a valid, current  certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the  American Red Cross, or the National Safety Council, or equivalent training that  can be verified by documentary evidence, and shall be available at the worksite  to render first aid and CPR to injured or ill employees.
    C. Covered employers are permitted to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site or establishment to provide designated employees to serve as  first aid and CPR responders for employees of the covered employer.
    D. Employers of mobile work crews (i.e., crews that travel  to more than one worksite per day) of two or more employees that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that at least one employee on the mobile crew is  designated and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and CPR during  all workshifts; or
    2. Comply with subsection C of this section.
    E. Employers of individual mobile employees (i.e., an  employee who travels alone to more than one worksite per day) that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that the mobile employee is adequately trained to  self-administer first aid;
    2. Comply with subsection C of this section; or
    3. Assure that their employee has access to a communication  system that will allow them to immediately request medical assistance through a  911 emergency call or comparable communication system.
    F. Subsections A through E of this section do not apply to  worksites that do not contain job classifications or workplace hazards that expose  employees to serious physical harm or death.
    G. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    H. Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    16VAC25-175-1926.50. Medical services and first aid. (Repealed.)
    (a) The employer shall insure the availability of medical  personnel for advice and consultation on matters of occupational health.
    (b) Provisions shall be made prior to commencement of the  project for prompt medical attention in case of serious injury.
    (c) In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, hospital, or  physician, that is reasonably accessible in terms of time and distance to the  worksite, which is available for the treatment of injured employees, a person  who has a valid certificate in first-aid training from the U.S. Bureau of  Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training that can be verified by documentary  evidence, shall be available at the worksite to render first aid.
    (d)(1) First aid supplies shall be easily accessible when  required.
    (2) The contents of the first aid kit shall be placed in a  weatherproof container with individual sealed packages for each type of item,  and shall be checked by the employer before being sent out on each job and at  least weekly on each job to ensure that the expended items are replaced.
    (e) Proper equipment for prompt transportation of the  injured person to a physician or hospital, or a communication system for  contacting necessary ambulance service, shall be provided.
    (f) In areas where 911 is not available, the telephone  numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously  posted.
    (g) Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    Appendix A to §1926.50—First aid Kits (Non-Mandatory)
    First aid supplies are required to be easily accessible  under paragraph §1926.50(d)(1). An example of the minimal contents of a generic  first aid kit is described in American National Standard (ANSI) Z308.1–1978  “Minimum Requirements for Industrial Unit-Type First-aid Kits”. The contents of  the kit listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small work sites.  When larger operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same  location, employers should determine the need for additional first aid kits at  the worksite, additional types of first aid equipment and supplies and  additional quantities and types of supplies and equipment in the first aid  kits.
    In a similar fashion, employers who have unique or  changing first-aid needs in their workplace, may need to enhance their  first-aid kits. The employer can use the OSHA 200 log, OSHA 101's or other  reports to identify these unique problems. Consultation from the local  Fire/Rescue Department, appropriate medical professional, or local emergency  room may be helpful to employers in these circumstances. By assessing the  specific needs of their workplace, employers can ensure that reasonably  anticipated supplies are available. Employers should assess the specific needs  of their worksite periodically and augment the first aid kit appropriately.
    If it is reasonably anticipated employees will be exposed  to blood or other potentially infectious materials while using first-aid  supplies, employers should provide personal protective equipment (PPE).  Appropriate PPE includes gloves, gowns, face shields, masks and eye protection  (see “Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens”, 29 CFR 1910.1030(d)(3))  (56 FR 64175).
    CHAPTER 177
  MEDICAL SERVICES AND FIRST AID STANDARDS FOR THE CONSTRUCTION INDUSTRY
    16VAC25-177-10. Medical services and first aid standards for  the construction industry.
    A. The employer shall ensure the availability of medical  personnel for advice and consultation on matters of occupational health.
    B. Provisions shall be made prior to commencement of the  project for prompt medical attention in case of serious injury.
    C. A person or persons shall be designated by the employer  and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and cardio pulmonary  resuscitation (CPR) during all workshifts on worksites containing job  classifications or workplace hazards that could potentially expose employees to  serious physical harm or death. The designated person or persons shall have a  valid, current certificate in first aid and CPR training from the U.S. Bureau  of Mines, the American Red Cross, or the National Safety Council, or equivalent  training that can be verified by documentary evidence, and shall be available  at the worksite to render first aid and CPR to injured or ill employees.
    D. Covered employers are permitted to make written  arrangements with and reasonably rely on another contractor or employer on the  same job site or establishment to provide designated employees to serve as  first aid and CPR responders for employees of the covered employer.
    E. Employers of mobile work crews (i.e., crews that travel  to more than one worksite per day) of two or more employees that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that at least one employee on the mobile crew is  designated and adequately trained to render immediate first aid and CPR during  all workshifts; or
    2. Comply with subsection D of this section. 
    F. Employers of individual mobile employees (i.e., an  employee who travels alone to more than one worksite per day) that assign  employees to travel to worksites or engage in work activities that could  potentially expose those employees to serious physical harm or death shall  either:
    1. Assure that the mobile employee is adequately trained to  self-administer first aid;
    2. Comply with subsection D of this section; or
    3. Assure that their employee has access to a communication  system that will allow them to immediately request medical assistance through a  911 emergency call or comparable communication system. 
    G. Subsections A through F of this section do not apply to  worksites that do not contain job classifications or workplace hazards that  expose employees to serious physical harm or death. 
    H. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.
    I. The contents of the first aid kit shall be placed in a  weatherproof container with individual sealed packages for each type of item  and shall be checked by the employer before being sent out on each job and at  least weekly on each job to ensure that the expended items are replaced.
    J. A communication system for contacting necessary  ambulance service shall be provided.
    K. In areas where 911 is not available, the telephone  numbers of the physicians, hospitals, or ambulances shall be conspicuously  posted.
    L. Where the eyes or body of any person may be exposed to  injurious corrosive materials, suitable facilities for quick drenching or  flushing of the eyes and body shall be provided within the work area for  immediate emergency use.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R07-05; Filed September 9, 2008, 2:09 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF FUNERAL DIRECTORS AND EMBALMERS
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 18VAC65-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 18VAC65-10-10 through  18VAC65-10-120).
    18VAC65-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 18VAC65-11-10 through 18VAC65-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 54.1-2400 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Lisa Russell Hahn, Executive Director,  Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300,  Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-4424, FAX (804) 527-4471, or email  lisa.hahn@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public comments  shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public meeting shall  be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v) providing for the  appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to provide  professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated rulemaking  panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and (vi)  providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    18VAC65-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers. This chapter does not apply to  regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the  provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia).
    18VAC65-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Board of Funeral Directors  and Embalmers, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    18VAC65-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    18VAC65-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 18VAC65-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    18VAC65-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    18VAC65-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    18VAC65-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    18VAC65-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    18VAC65-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    18VAC65-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    18VAC65-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1475; Filed September 9, 2008, 4:22 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF FUNERAL DIRECTORS AND EMBALMERS
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 18VAC65-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 18VAC65-10-10 through  18VAC65-10-120).
    18VAC65-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 18VAC65-11-10 through 18VAC65-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 54.1-2400 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Lisa Russell Hahn, Executive Director,  Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300,  Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-4424, FAX (804) 527-4471, or email  lisa.hahn@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public comments  shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public meeting shall  be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v) providing for the  appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to provide  professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated rulemaking  panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and (vi)  providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    18VAC65-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers. This chapter does not apply to  regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the  provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia).
    18VAC65-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Board of Funeral Directors  and Embalmers, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    18VAC65-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    18VAC65-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 18VAC65-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    18VAC65-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    18VAC65-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    18VAC65-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    18VAC65-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    18VAC65-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    18VAC65-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    18VAC65-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1475; Filed September 9, 2008, 4:22 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF HEALTH PROFESSIONS
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 18VAC75-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 18VAC75-10-10 through  18VAC75-10-120).
    18VAC75-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 18VAC75-11-10 through 18VAC75-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 54.1-2400 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008. 
    Agency Contact: Elizabeth A. Carter, Ph.D., Executive  Director, Board of Health Professions, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond,  VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-4426, FAX (804) 527-4466, or email  elizabeth.carter@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    18VAC75-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Board of Health Professions. This chapter does not apply to regulations,  guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the  Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    18VAC75-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Board of Health Professions,  which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's basic law to  make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this chapter may be  fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    18VAC75-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    18VAC75-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 18VAC75-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    18VAC75-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    18VAC75-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    18VAC75-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    18VAC75-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    18VAC75-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    18VAC75-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    18VAC75-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1477; Filed September 9, 2008, 4:23 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF HEALTH PROFESSIONS
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following model public participation guidelines are exempt from Article 2  (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia pursuant  to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 18VAC75-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 18VAC75-10-10 through  18VAC75-10-120).
    18VAC75-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 18VAC75-11-10 through 18VAC75-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 54.1-2400 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008. 
    Agency Contact: Elizabeth A. Carter, Ph.D., Executive  Director, Board of Health Professions, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond,  VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-4426, FAX (804) 527-4466, or email  elizabeth.carter@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the  development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    18VAC75-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Board of Health Professions. This chapter does not apply to regulations,  guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the  Administrative Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    18VAC75-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Board of Health Professions,  which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's basic law to  make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this chapter may be  fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    18VAC75-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    18VAC75-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 18VAC75-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    18VAC75-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication  of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    18VAC75-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    18VAC75-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    18VAC75-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    18VAC75-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    18VAC75-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    18VAC75-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1477; Filed September 9, 2008, 4:23 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF PHARMACY
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE: The following model public participation guidelines are exempt from  Article 2 (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of  Virginia pursuant to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 18VAC110-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 18VAC110-10-10 through 18VAC110-10-120).
    18VAC110-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 18VAC110-11-10 through 18VAC110-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 54.1-2400 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Elizabeth Scott Russell, RPh, Executive  Director, Board of Pharmacy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233,  telephone (804) 367-4456, FAX (804) 527-4472, or email  scotti.russell@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the development,  amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    18VAC110-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Board of Pharmacy. This chapter does not apply to regulations, guidelines, or  other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the Administrative  Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    18VAC110-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Board of Pharmacy, which is  the unit of state government empowered by the agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this chapter may be fulfilled  by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    18VAC110-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    18VAC110-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 18VAC110-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    18VAC110-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary description  of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed regulation at least  five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant to § 2.2-4012 E of  the Code of Virginia. 
    18VAC110-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    18VAC110-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    18VAC110-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    18VAC110-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The exception  to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707 D of the  Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    18VAC110-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    18VAC110-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1485; Filed September 9, 2008, 4:20 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF PHARMACY
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE: The following model public participation guidelines are exempt from  Article 2 (§2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of  Virginia pursuant to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
         Titles of Regulations: 18VAC110-10. Public  Participation Guidelines (repealing 18VAC110-10-10 through 18VAC110-10-120).
    18VAC110-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 18VAC110-11-10 through 18VAC110-11-110).
    Statutory Authority: §§2.2-4007.02 and 54.1-2400 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 29, 2008.
    Agency Contact: Elizabeth Scott Russell, RPh, Executive  Director, Board of Pharmacy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233,  telephone (804) 367-4456, FAX (804) 527-4472, or email  scotti.russell@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The regulations comply with the legislative mandate (Chapter  321, 2008 Acts of Assembly) that agencies adopt model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget by December 1, 2008.  Public participation guidelines exist to promote public involvement in the development,  amendment, or repeal of an agency's regulations. 
    This regulatory action repeals the current public  participation guidelines and promulgates new public participation guidelines as  required by Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the public  participation guidelines include (i) providing for the establishment and  maintenance of notification lists of interested persons and specifying the  information to be sent to such persons; (ii) providing for public comments on  regulatory action; (iii) establishing the time period during which public  comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that the plan to hold a public  meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended regulatory action; (v)  providing for the appointment, when necessary, of regulatory advisory panels to  provide professional specialization or technical assistance and negotiated  rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial; and  (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    18VAC110-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the regulations of the  Board of Pharmacy. This chapter does not apply to regulations, guidelines, or  other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the Administrative  Process Act (§2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    18VAC110-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Board of Pharmacy, which is  the unit of state government empowered by the agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this chapter may be fulfilled  by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    18VAC110-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    18VAC110-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 18VAC110-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C  of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    18VAC110-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary description  of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed regulation at least  five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant to § 2.2-4012 E of  the Code of Virginia. 
    18VAC110-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    18VAC110-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    18VAC110-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    18VAC110-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The exception  to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707 D of the  Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    18VAC110-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    18VAC110-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1485; Filed September 9, 2008, 4:20 p.m. 
 
                                                        DECLARATION OF A STATE OF EMERGENCY IN SUPPORT OF THE EMERGENCY  MANAGEMENT ASSISTANCE COMPACT TO RESPOND TO THE IMPACT OF HURRICANE GUSTAV IN  THE GULF COAST STATES
    On August 29, 2008, I verbally declared a state of emergency to  exist for the Commonwealth in support of the Emergency Management Assistance  Compact (EMAC), of which the Commonwealth of Virginia is a member, to assist  the Gulf Coast States respond to and recover from the impact of Hurricane  Gustav.   In accordance with § 44-146.28:1, the Commonwealth will provide  assistance to the fullest extent possible to the impacted states that suffer  significant damages from Hurricane Gustav.  Moreover, Hurricane Gustav could  have far ranging effects throughout the nation, including the Commonwealth.
    In order to marshal all public resources and appropriate  preparedness, response and recovery measures to meet this potential threat and  recover from its effects, and in accordance with my authority contained in  § 44-146.17 of the Emergency Services and Disaster Laws, I hereby order the  following measures:
    A. The limited implementation by agencies of the state and  local governments of the Commonwealth of Virginia Emergency Operations Plan  (COVEOP), as amended along with other appropriate state agency plans. 
    B. Limited activation of the Virginia Emergency Operations  Center (VEOC) and Virginia Emergency Response Team (VERT) to coordinate the  provision of assistance to the impacted Gulf states. I am directing that the  VEOC and VERT coordinate state operations in support of the EMAC agreement,  other mission assignments to agencies designated in the Commonwealth of  Virginia Emergency Operations Plan (COVEOP) and other measures that may be  identified by the State Coordinator of Emergency Management, in consultation  with the Secretary of Public Safety, which are needed to provide assistance for  the preservation of life, protection of property, and implementation of  recovery activities.
    C. The activation, implementation and coordination of  appropriate mutual aid agreements and compacts, including the Emergency  Management Assistance Compact (EMAC), and the authorization of the State  Coordinator of Emergency Management to enter into any other supplemental  agreements, pursuant to §§ 44-146.17(5) and 44-146.28:1 of the Code of Virginia  to provide for the exchange of medical, fire, police, National Guard personnel  and equipment, public utility, reconnaissance, welfare, transportation and  communications personnel, and equipment and supplies. The State Coordinator of  Emergency Management is hereby designated as Virginia’s authorized  representative within the meaning of the Emergency Management Assistance  Compact, § 44-146.28:1 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. The authorization of the Departments of State Police,  Transportation and Motor Vehicles to grant temporary overweight, over width,  registration, or license exemptions to all carriers transporting essential  commodities in and through any area of the Commonwealth in order to support the  emergency conditions, regardless of their point of origin or destination.
    The axle and gross weights shown below are the maximum  allowed, unless otherwise posted.
    All over width loads, up to a maximum of 12 feet, must follow  Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles (VDMV) hauling permit and safety  guidelines.
    In addition to described overweight/over width transportation  privileges, carriers are also exempt from registration with the Department of  Motor Vehicles.  This includes the vehicles enroute and returning to their home  base.  The above-cited agencies shall communicate this information to all staff  responsible for permit issuance and truck legalization enforcement.
    This authorization shall apply to hours worked by any carrier  when transporting passengers, property, equipment, food, fuel, construction  materials and other critical supplies to or from any portion of the  Commonwealth for purpose of providing relief or assistance as a result of this  disaster, pursuant to § 52-8.4 of the Code of Virginia.
    The foregoing overweight/over width transportation privileges  as well as the regulatory exemption provided by § 52-8.4 A of the Code of  Virginia, and implemented in 19VAC30-20-40 B of the "Motor Carrier Safety  Regulations," shall remain in effect for 30 days from the onset of the  disaster, or until emergency relief is no longer necessary, as determined by  the Secretary of Public Safety in consultation with the Secretary of Transportation,  whichever is earlier.
    E. This state of emergency constitutes a major medical  emergency under the Rules and Regulations of the Board of Health Governing  Emergency Medical Services, pursuant to Article 3.01 (§ 32.1-111.1 et seq.) of  Chapter 4 of Title 32.1, of the Code of Virginia, Statewide Emergency Medical  Services System and Services, and exemptions specified in the Rules and  Regulations regarding patient transport and provider certification in disasters  apply.
    F. The implementation by public agencies under my supervision  and control of their emergency assignments as directed in the COVEOP without  regard to normal procedures pertaining to performance of public work, entering  into contracts, incurring of obligations, or other logistical and support  measures of the Emergency Services and Disaster Laws, as provided in § 44-146.28  (b) of the Code of Virginia.  Section 44-146.24 of the Code of Virginia also  applies to the disaster activities of state agencies.
    G. Designation of members and personnel of volunteer,  auxiliary and reserve groups including search and rescue (SAR), Virginia  Associations of Volunteer Rescue Squads (VAVRS), Civil Air Patrol (CAP), member  organizations of the Voluntary Organizations Active in Disaster (VOAD), Radio  Amateur Civil Emergency Services (RACES), volunteer fire fighters, and others  identified and tasked by the State Coordinator of Emergency Management for  specific disaster-related mission assignments as representatives of the  Commonwealth engaged in emergency services activities within the meaning of the  immunity provisions of § 44-146.23 (a) of the Code of Virginia, in the  performance of their specific disaster-related mission assignments.
    H. I hereby authorize the Superintendent of Public Instruction  to issue such guidance to local school divisions as may be necessary to  facilitate enrollment of students displaced by Hurricane Gustav.
    I. The temporary waiver, for a period of 90 days, of the  enforcement by the Board of Pharmacy of statutory and regulatory provisions which,  in the judgment of the Director of the Department of Health Professions, impede  the ability of Virginia pharmacies to provide assistance to patients who have  been displaced by the effects of Hurricane Gustav.
    J. The following conditions apply to the deployment of the  Virginia National Guard:
    1. The Adjutant General of Virginia, after consultation with  the State Coordinator of Emergency Management, shall make available on state  active duty such units and members of the Virginia National Guard and such  equipment as may be necessary or desirable to assist in alleviating the human  suffering and damage to property.
    3. In all instances, members of the Virginia National Guard  shall remain subject to military command as prescribed by § 44-78.1 of the Code  of Virginia and not subject to the civilian authorities of county or municipal  governments.  This shall not be deemed to prohibit working in close cooperation  with members of the Virginia Departments of State Police or Emergency  Management or local law enforcement or emergency management authorities or  receiving guidance from them in the performance of their duties.
    4. Should service under this Executive Order result in the  injury or death of any member of the Virginia National Guard, the following  will be provided to the member and the member’s dependents or survivors:
    (a) Workers Compensation benefits provided to members of  the National Guard by the Virginia Workers Compensation Act, subject to the  requirements and limitations thereof; and, in addition, 
    (b) The same benefits, or their equivalent, for injury,  disability and/or death, as would be provided by the federal government if the  member were serving on federal active duty at the time of the injury or death.   Any such federal-type benefits due to a member and his or her dependents or  survivors during any calendar month shall be reduced by any payments due under  the Virginia Workers Compensation Act during the same month.  If and when the  time period for payment of Workers Compensation benefits has elapsed, the  member and his or her dependents or survivors shall thereafter receive full  federal-type benefits for as long as they would have received such benefits if  the member had been serving on federal active duty at the time of injury or  death.  Any federal-type benefits due shall be computed on the basis of  military pay grade E-5 or the member’s military grade at the time of injury or  death, whichever produces the greater benefit amount.  Pursuant to § 44-14 of  the Code of Virginia, and subject to the availability of future appropriations  which may be lawfully applied to this purpose, I now approve of future  expenditures out of appropriations to the Department of Military Affairs for  such federal-type benefits as being manifestly for the benefit of the military  service.
    5. The costs incurred by the Department of Military Affairs in  performing these missions shall be paid from state funds.
    L. I hereby authorize the heads of executive branch agencies,  acting when appropriate on behalf of their regulatory boards, to waive any  state requirement or regulation for which the federal government has issued a  waiver of the corresponding federal or state regulation based on the impact of  Hurricane Gustav.
    M. I hereby authorize the presidents of colleges and  universities in the Commonwealth to waive the requirements of any state law or  regulation for good cause to facilitate enrollment of students displaced by  Hurricane Gustav.
    N. A state of emergency exists for the Commonwealth in support  of the proper management, care and support of persons who may be displaced by  Hurricane Gustav, evacuated from states impacted by Hurricane Gustav, and  relocated to the Commonwealth (Evacuees).  These evacuees will require a  variety of services including, but not limited to health and medical care,  social services, transportation and security services.  I hereby order the  following measures: 
    1. Designation of physicians, nurses, and other licensed and  non-licensed health care providers and other individuals as well as hospitals,  nursing facilities and other licensed and non-licensed health care  organizations and other private entities by agencies of the Commonwealth,  including but not limited to the Department of Health, Department of Mental  Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services, Department of  Emergency Management, Department of Transportation, Department of State Police,  Department of Motor Vehicles, and Department of Social Services, as  representatives of the Commonwealth engaged in emergency services activities,  at sites designated by the Commonwealth, within the meaning of the immunity  provisions of § 44-146.23 (a) of the Code of Virginia, in the performance of their  disaster-related mission assignments.
    2. During the next 120 days, The Director of the Department of  Health Professions shall issue temporary licenses, registrations, and  certifications to practice in the Commonwealth, for a period not to exceed one  year, to qualified health care practitioners who are displaced residents of  Hurricane Gustav affected states, who hold like unrestricted licenses,  registrations, or certifications in their resident states, and who may be  unable to furnish or have furnished on their behalf complete documentation of  their credentials and license status as otherwise required by Virginia law or  regulation.  The Director shall also have authority to defer the payment of  licensing fees.  Any license, registration or certification so issued may be  revoked by for cause without a hearing by the Director.
    O. Upon my approval, the costs incurred by state agencies and  other agents in performing mission assignments through the VEOC of the  Commonwealth as defined herein and in  § 44-146.24 of the Code of Virginia,  other than costs defined in Item 5 of the paragraphs above pertaining to the  Virginia National Guard, in performing these missions shall be paid out of the  sum sufficient appropriation or other funding as approved by DPB for Disaster Planning  and Operations contained in the Appropriation Act.  In addition, up to $25,000  shall be made available to VDEM for Response and Recovery Operations with the  Department of Planning and Budget overseeing the release of these funds.
    This Executive Order shall be effective August 29, 2008, and  shall remain in full force and effect until June 30, 2009, unless sooner  amended or rescinded by further executive order.  Termination of the Executive  Order is not intended to terminate any Federal-type benefits granted or to be  granted due to injury or death as a result of service under this Executive  Order.
    Given under my hand and under the Seal of the Commonwealth of  Virginia, this 4th day of September, 2008.
    /s/ Timothy M. Kaine
    DECLARATION OF A STATE OF EMERGENCY FOR THE COMMONWEALTH OF  VIRGINIA DUE TO THE THREAT OF SIGNIFICANT FLOODING AND WIND DAMAGE CAUSED BY  HURRICANE HANNA
    On September 4, 2008, I verbally declared a state of emergency  to exist for the Commonwealth of Virginia based on current forecasts that  indicate that Hurricane Hanna could cause damaging high winds, flash flooding,  and possible tornadoes throughout the eastern and southeastern portion of the  state.  The National Weather Service forecasts that Hanna will follow a  north-northwest track and affect much of Virginia during the next 48 hours  resulting in the potential for significant rainfall causing river flooding and  high wind damage in Virginia. 
    The health and general welfare of the citizens of the  Commonwealth require that state action be taken to help alleviate the  conditions caused by this situation. The potential effects of Hanna constitute  a natural disaster wherein human life and public and private property were  imperiled, as described in § 44-146.16 of the Code of Virginia.
    In order to marshal all public resources and appropriate  preparedness, response and recovery measures to meet this potential threat and  recover from its effects, and in accordance with my authority contained in  § 44-146.17 of the Emergency Services and Disaster Laws, I hereby order the  following protective and restoration measures:
     A. The full implementation by agencies of the state and local  governments of the Commonwealth of Virginia Emergency Operations Plan (COVEOP),  as amended along with other appropriate state agency plans.
    B. Full activation of the Virginia Emergency Operations Center  (VEOC) and Virginia Emergency Response Team (VERT).  Furthermore, I am  directing that the VEOC and VERT coordinate state operations in support of  potential affected localities and the Commonwealth, to include issuing mission  assignments to agencies designated in the Commonwealth of Virginia Emergency  Operations Plan (COVEOP) and others that may be identified by the State  Coordinator of Emergency Management, in consultation with the Secretary of  Public Safety, which are needed to provide for the preservation of life,  protection of property, and implementation of recovery activities.
    C.  The authorization to assume control over the  Commonwealth’s state-operated telecommunications systems, as required by the  State Coordinator of Emergency Management, in coordination with the Virginia  Information Technology Agency, and with the consultation of the Secretary of  Public Safety, making all systems assets available for use in providing  adequate communications, intelligence and warning capabilities for the event,  pursuant to § 44-146.18 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. The evacuation of areas threatened or stricken by flooding  or other effects of the storm.  Following a declaration of a local emergency  pursuant to § 44-146.21 of the Code of Virginia, if a local governing body  determines that evacuation is deemed necessary for the preservation of life or  other emergency mitigation, response or recovery, pursuant to § 44-146.17 (1) of  the Code of Virginia, I direct the evacuation of all or part of the populace  therein from such areas and upon such timetable as the local governing body, in  coordination with the Virginia Emergency Operations Center (VEOC), acting on  behalf of the State Coordinator of Emergency Management, shall determine.   Notwithstanding the foregoing, I reserve the right to direct and compel  evacuation from the same and different areas and determine a different  timetable both where local governing bodies have made such a determination and  where local governing bodies have not made such a determination.  Violations of  any order to citizens to evacuate shall constitute a violation of this  Executive Order and are punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.
    E. The activation, implementation and coordination of  appropriate mutual aid agreements and compacts, including the Emergency  Management Assistance Compact (EMAC), and the authorization of the State  Coordinator of Emergency Management to enter into any other supplemental  agreements, pursuant to §§ 44-146.17(5) and 44-146.28:1 of the Code of Virginia,  to provide for the evacuation and reception of injured and other persons and  the exchange of medical, fire, police, National Guard personnel and equipment,  public utility, reconnaissance, welfare, transportation and communications  personnel, and equipment and supplies.  The State Coordinator of Emergency  Management is hereby designated as Virginia’s authorized representative within  the meaning of the Emergency Management Assistance Compact, § 44-146.28:1 of the  Code of Virginia.
    F. The authorization of the Departments of State Police,  Transportation and Motor Vehicles to grant temporary overweight, over width,  registration, or license exemptions to all carriers transporting essential  emergency relief supplies or providing restoration of utilities (electricity,  gas, phone, water, wastewater, and cable) in and through any area of the  Commonwealth in order to support the disaster response and recovery, regardless  of their point of origin or destination.
    The axle and gross weights shown below are the maximum  allowed, unless otherwise posted.
    All over width loads, up to a maximum of 12 feet, must follow  Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV) hauling permit and safety  guidelines.
    In addition to described overweight/over width transportation  privileges, carriers are also exempt from registration with the Department of  Motor Vehicles.  This includes the vehicles enroute and returning to their home  base.  The above-cited agencies shall communicate this information to all staff  responsible for permit issuance and truck legalization enforcement.
    This authorization shall apply to hours worked by any carrier  when transporting passengers, property, equipment, food, fuel, construction  materials and other critical supplies to or from any portion of the  Commonwealth for purpose of providing relief or assistance as a result of this  disaster, pursuant to § 52-8.4 of the Code of Virginia.
    The foregoing overweight/over width transportation privileges  as well as the regulatory exemption provided by § 52-8.4 A of the Code of  Virginia, and implemented in 19VAC30-20-40 B of the "Motor Carrier Safety  Regulations," shall remain in effect for 30 days from the onset of the  disaster, or until emergency relief is no longer necessary, as determined by  the Secretary of Public Safety in consultation with the Secretary of  Transportation, whichever is earlier.
    G. The authorization of appropriate oversight boards,  commissions and agencies to ease building code restrictions, and to permit  emergency demolition, hazardous waste disposal, debris removal, emergency  landfill siting and operations and other activities necessary to address  immediate health and safety needs without regard to time-consuming procedures  or formalities and without regard to application or permit fees or royalties.  
    H. This state of emergency constitutes a major medical  emergency under the Rules and Regulations of the Board of Health Governing  Emergency Medical Services, pursuant to Article 3.01 (§ 32.1-111.1 et seq.) of  Chapter 4 of Title 32.1, of the Code of Virginia, Statewide Emergency Medical  Services System and Services, and exemptions specified in the Rules and  Regulations regarding patient transport and provider certification in disasters  apply.
    I. The authorization of a maximum of $100,000 for matching  funds for the Individuals and Household Program, authorized by The Stafford Act  (when presidentially authorized), to be paid from state funds.
    J. The implementation by public agencies under my supervision  and control of their emergency assignments as directed in the COVEOP without  regard to normal procedures pertaining to performance of public work, entering  into contracts, incurring of obligations, or other logistical and support  measures of the Emergency Services and Disaster Laws, as provided in § 44-146.28  (b) of the Code of Virginia.  Section 44-146.24 of the Code of Virginia also  applies to the disaster activities of state agencies.
    K. Upon my approval, the costs incurred by state agencies and  other agencies in performing mission assignments through the VEOC of the  Commonwealth as defined herein and in § 44-146.24 of the Code of Virginia, in  performing these missions shall be paid out of the sum sufficient appropriation  for Disaster Planning and Operations contained in Item 54, Chapter 879, 2008  Acts of Assembly.
    L. Designation of members and personnel of volunteer,  auxiliary and reserve groups including search and rescue (SAR), Virginia  Associations of Volunteer Rescue Squads (VAVRS), Civil Air Patrol (CAP), member  organizations of the Voluntary Organizations Active in Disaster (VOAD), Radio  Amateur Civil Emergency Services (RACES), volunteer fire fighters, and others  identified and tasked by the State Coordinator of Emergency Management for  specific disaster related mission assignments as representatives of the  Commonwealth engaged in emergency services activities within the meaning of the  immunity provisions of § 44-146.23 (a) of the Code of Virginia, in the  performance of their specific disaster-related mission assignments.
    M. The temporary waiver, for a period of 90 days, of the  enforcement by the Board of Pharmacy of statutory and regulatory provisions  which, in the judgment of the Director of the Department of Health Professions,  impede the ability of Virginia pharmacies to provide assistance to patients who  have been displaced by the effects of Hurricane Hanna.
    O. I hereby authorize the heads of executive branch agencies,  acting when appropriate on behalf of their regulatory boards, to waive any  state requirement or regulation for which the federal government has issued a  waiver of the corresponding federal or state regulation based on the impact of  Hurricane Hanna.
    P. The following conditions apply to the deployment of the  Virginia National Guard and the Virginia Defense Force:
    1. The Adjutant General of Virginia, after consultation with  the State Coordinator of Emergency Management, shall make available on state  active duty such units and members of the Virginia National Guard and Virginia  Defense Force and such equipment as may be necessary or desirable to assist in  preparations and in alleviating the human suffering and damage to property.
    3. In all instances, members of the Virginia National Guard and  Virginia Defense Force shall remain subject to military command as prescribed  by § 44-78.1 of the Code of Virginia and not subject to the civilian authorities  of county or municipal governments.  This shall not be deemed to prohibit  working in close cooperation with members of the Virginia Departments of State  Police or Emergency Management or local law enforcement or emergency management  authorities or receiving guidance from them in the performance of their duties.
    4. Should service under this Executive Order result in the  injury or death of any member of the Virginia National Guard, the following  will be provided to the member and the member’s dependents or survivors:
    (a) Workers Compensation benefits provided to members of  the National Guard by the Virginia Workers Compensation Act, subject to the  requirements and limitations thereof; and, in addition,
    (b) The same benefits, or their equivalent, for injury,  disability and/or death, as would be provided by the federal government if the  member were serving on federal active duty at the time of the injury or death.   Any such federal-type benefits due to a member and his or her dependents or  survivors during any calendar month shall be reduced by any payments due under  the Virginia Workers Compensation Act during the same month.  If and when the  time period for payment of Workers Compensation benefits has elapsed, the  member and his or her dependents or survivors shall thereafter receive full  federal-type benefits for as long as they would have received such benefits if  the member had been serving on federal active duty at the time of injury or  death.  Any federal-type benefits due shall be computed on the basis of  military pay grade E-5 or the member’s military grade at the time of injury or  death, whichever produces the greater benefit amount.  Pursuant to § 44-14 of  the Code of Virginia, and subject to the availability of future appropriations  which may be lawfully applied to this purpose, I now approve of future  expenditures out of appropriations to the Department of Military Affairs for  such federal-type benefits as being manifestly for the benefit of the military  service.
    5. The costs incurred by the Department of Military Affairs and  the Virginia Defense Force in performing these missions shall be paid from  state funds.
    Q. The following conditions apply to service by the Virginia  Defense Force:
    1.  Compensation shall be at a daily rate that is equivalent of  base pay only for a National Guard Unit Training Assembly, commensurate with  the grade and years of service of the member, not to exceed 20 years of  service;
    2.  Lodging and meals shall be provided by the Adjutant General  or reimbursed at standard state per diem rates;
    3. All privately owned equipment, including, but not limited  to, vehicles, boats, and aircraft, will be reimbursed for expense of fuel.   Damage or loss of said equipment will be reimbursed, minus reimbursement from  personal insurance, if said equipment was authorized for use by the Adjutant  General in accordance with § 44-54.12 of the Code of Virginia; and
    4.  In the event of death or injury, benefits shall be provided  in accordance with the Virginia Workers Compensation Act, subject to the  requirements and limitations thereof.
     Upon my approval, the costs incurred by state agencies and  other agents in performing mission assignments through the VEOC of the  Commonwealth as defined herein and in § 44-146.28 of the Code of Virginia, other  than costs defined in Item 5 of the paragraphs above pertaining to the Virginia  National Guard and the Virginia Defense Force, in performing these missions  shall be paid from state funds and /or Federal funds.  In addition, up to  $100,000 shall be made available for state response and recovery operations and  incident documentation with the Department of Planning and Budget overseeing  the release of these funds.
    This Executive Order shall be effective September 4, 2008 and  shall remain in full force and effect until June 30, 2010 unless sooner amended  or rescinded by further executive order.  Termination of the Executive Order is  not intended to terminate any Federal-type benefits granted or to be granted  due to injury or death as a result of service under this Executive Order.
    Given under my hand and under the Seal of the Commonwealth of  Virginia, this 4th Day of September, 2008.
    /s/ Timothy M. Kaine