The Virginia Register OF  REGULATIONS is an official state publication issued every other week  throughout the year. Indexes are published quarterly, and are cumulative for  the year. The Virginia Register has several functions. The new and  amended sections of regulations, both as proposed and as finally adopted, are  required by law to be published in the Virginia Register. In addition,  the Virginia Register is a source of other information about state  government, including petitions for rulemaking, emergency regulations,  executive orders issued by the Governor, the Virginia Tax Bulletin issued  periodically by the Department of Taxation, and notices of public hearings and  open meetings of state agencies.
    ADOPTION,  AMENDMENT, AND REPEAL OF REGULATIONS
    An  agency wishing to adopt, amend, or repeal regulations must first publish in the  Virginia Register a notice of intended regulatory action; a basis,  purpose, substance and issues statement; an economic impact analysis prepared  by the Department of Planning and Budget; the agency’s response to the economic  impact analysis; a summary; a notice giving the public an opportunity to  comment on the proposal; and the text of the proposed regulation.
    Following  publication of the proposal in the Virginia Register, the promulgating agency  receives public comments for a minimum of 60 days. The Governor reviews the  proposed regulation to determine if it is necessary to protect the public  health, safety and welfare, and if it is clearly written and easily  understandable. If the Governor chooses to comment on the proposed regulation,  his comments must be transmitted to the agency and the Registrar no later than  15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment period. The  Governor’s comments, if any, will be published in the Virginia Register.  Not less than 15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment  period, the agency may adopt the proposed regulation.
    The  Joint Commission on Administrative Rules (JCAR) or the appropriate standing  committee of each house of the General Assembly may meet during the  promulgation or final adoption process and file an objection with the Registrar  and the promulgating agency. The objection will be published in the Virginia  Register. Within 21 days after receipt by the agency of a legislative  objection, the agency shall file a response with the Registrar, the objecting  legislative body, and the Governor.
    When  final action is taken, the agency again publishes the text of the regulation as  adopted, highlighting all changes made to the proposed regulation and  explaining any substantial changes made since publication of the proposal. A  30-day final adoption period begins upon final publication in the Virginia  Register.
    The  Governor may review the final regulation during this time and, if he objects,  forward his objection to the Registrar and the agency. In addition to or in  lieu of filing a formal objection, the Governor may suspend the effective date  of a portion or all of a regulation until the end of the next regular General  Assembly session by issuing a directive signed by a majority of the members of  the appropriate legislative body and the Governor. The Governor’s objection or  suspension of the regulation, or both, will be published in the Virginia  Register. If the Governor finds that changes made to the proposed  regulation have substantial impact, he may require the agency to provide an  additional 30-day public comment period on the changes. Notice of the  additional public comment period required by the Governor will be published in  the Virginia Register.
    The  agency shall suspend the regulatory process for 30 days when it receives  requests from 25 or more individuals to solicit additional public comment,  unless the agency determines that the changes have minor or inconsequential  impact.
    A  regulation becomes effective at the conclusion of the 30-day final adoption  period, or at any other later date specified by the promulgating agency, unless  (i) a legislative objection has been filed, in which event the regulation,  unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after  the expiration of the 21-day objection period; (ii) the Governor exercises his  authority to require the agency to provide for additional public comment, in  which event the regulation, unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date  specified, which shall be after the expiration of the period for which the  Governor has provided for additional public comment; (iii) the Governor and the  General Assembly exercise their authority to suspend the effective date of a  regulation until the end of the next regular legislative session; or (iv) the  agency suspends the regulatory process, in which event the regulation, unless  withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after the  expiration of the 30-day public comment period and no earlier than 15 days from  publication of the readopted action.
    Proposed  regulatory action may be withdrawn by the promulgating agency at any time  before the regulation becomes final.
    FAST-TRACK  RULEMAKING PROCESS
    Section 2.2-4012.1 of the Code of Virginia provides an exemption from certain  provisions of the Administrative Process Act for agency regulations deemed by  the Governor to be noncontroversial.  To use this process, Governor's  concurrence is required and advance notice must be provided to certain  legislative committees.  Fast-track regulations will become effective on the  date noted in the regulatory action if no objections to using the process are  filed in accordance with § 2.2-4012.1.
    EMERGENCY  REGULATIONS
    Pursuant  to § 2.2-4011 of the Code  of Virginia, an agency, upon consultation with the Attorney General, and at the  discretion of the Governor, may adopt emergency regulations that are  necessitated by an emergency situation. An agency may also adopt an emergency  regulation when Virginia statutory law or the appropriation act or federal law  or federal regulation requires that a regulation be effective in 280 days or less  from its enactment. The emergency  regulation becomes operative upon its adoption and filing with the Registrar of  Regulations, unless a later date is specified. Emergency regulations are  limited to no more than 12 months in duration; however, may be extended for six  months under certain circumstances as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D.  Emergency regulations are published as soon as possible in the Register.
    During  the time the emergency status is in effect, the agency may proceed with the  adoption of permanent regulations through the usual procedures. To begin  promulgating the replacement regulation, the agency must (i) file the Notice of  Intended Regulatory Action with the Registrar within 60 days of the effective  date of the emergency regulation and (ii) file the proposed regulation with the  Registrar within 180 days of the effective date of the emergency regulation. If  the agency chooses not to adopt the regulations, the emergency status ends when  the prescribed time limit expires.
    STATEMENT
    The  foregoing constitutes a generalized statement of the procedures to be followed.  For specific statutory language, it is suggested that Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006  et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia be examined  carefully.
    CITATION  TO THE VIRGINIA REGISTER
    The Virginia  Register is cited by volume, issue, page number, and date. 23:7 VA.R. 1023-1140  December 11, 2006, refers to Volume 23, Issue 7, pages 1023 through 1140 of  the Virginia Register issued on December 11, 2006.
    The  Virginia Register of Regulations is  published pursuant to Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2  of the Code of Virginia. 
    Members  of the Virginia Code Commission: R.  Steven Landes, Chairman; John S. Edwards, Vice Chairman; Ryan T.  McDougle; Robert Hurt; Robert L. Calhoun; Frank S. Ferguson; E.M.  Miller, Jr.; Thomas M. Moncure, Jr.; James F. Almand; Jane M. Roush.
    Staff  of the Virginia Register: Jane  D. Chaffin, Registrar of Regulations; June T. Chandler, Assistant  Registrar.
         
       
                                                        PUBLICATION SCHEDULE AND DEADLINES
Vol. 25 Iss. 26 - August 31, 2009
August 2009 through April 2010
 
  | Volume: Issue | Material Submitted By Noon* | Will Be Published On | 
 
  | INDEX 3 Volume 25 |   | July 2009 | 
 
  | 25:26 | August 12, 2009 | August 31, 2009 | 
 
  | FINAL INDEX Volume 25 |   | October 2009 | 
 
  | 26:1 | August 26, 2009 | September 14, 2009 | 
 
  | 26:2 | September 9, 2009 | September 28, 2009 | 
 
  | 26:3 | September 23, 2009 | October 12, 2009 | 
 
  | 26:4 | October 7, 2009 | October 26, 2009 | 
 
  | 26:5 | October 21, 2009 | November 9, 2009 | 
 
  | 26:6 | November 4, 2009 | November 23, 2009 | 
 
  | 26:7 | November 17, 2009 (Tuesday) | December 7, 2009 | 
 
  | INDEX 1 Volume 26 |   | January 2010 | 
 
  | 26:8 | December 2, 2009 | December 21, 2009 | 
 
  | 26:9 | December 15, 2009 (Tuesday) | January 4, 2010 | 
 
  | 26:10 | December 29, 2009 (Tuesday) | January 18, 2010 | 
 
  | 26:11 | January 13, 2010 | February 1, 2010 | 
 
  | 26:12 | January 27, 2010 | February 15, 2010 | 
 
  | 26:13 | February 10, 2010 | March 1, 2010 | 
 
  | 26:14 | February 24, 2010 | March 15, 2010 | 
 
  | INDEX 2 Volume 26 |   | April 2010 | 
 
  | 26:15 | March 10, 2010 | March 29, 2010 | 
 
  | 26:16 | March 24, 2010 | April 12, 2010 | 
 
  | 26:17 | April 7, 2010 | April 26, 2010 | 
*Filing deadlines are Wednesdays
unless otherwise specified.
 
   
                                                        
                                                        
                                                        NOTICES OF INTENDED REGULATORY ACTION
Vol. 25 Iss. 26 - August 31, 2009
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
 Rules and Regulations Pertaining to Carbonated and Still Water Bottling Plants and Beverages
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the Board of Agriculture and Consumer  Services intends to consider repealing the following regulations: 2VAC5-540,  Rules and Regulations Pertaining to Carbonated and Still Water Bottling Plants  and Beverages. The purpose of the proposed action is to repeal the regulation  as the essential elements of the regulation have already been incorporated into  the Virginia Food Laws (Chapter 52 (§ 3.2-5200 et seq.) of Title 3.2 of the  Code of Virginia).
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 3.2-5101 and 3.2-5121 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: James A.  Morano, Review and Compliance Officer, Department of Agriculture and Consumer  Services, P.O. Box 1163, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 786-3520, FAX  (804) 371-7792, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email james.morano@vdacs.virginia.gov.
270
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
Small Renewable Energy Projects (Wind) Permit Regulation
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the Department of Environmental  Quality intends to consider promulgating the following regulations: 9VAC15-40,  Small Renewable Energy Projects (Wind) Permit Regulation. The purpose of  the proposed action is to implement new state legislation requiring the  Department of Environmental Quality to develop one or more permits-by-rule for  wind-energy projects with rated capacity not exceeding 100 megawatts. By means  of this legislation, the General Assembly moved permitting authority for these  projects from the State Corporation Commission to the Department of Environmental  Quality. By requiring a "permit-by-rule," the legislature is  mandating that permit requirements be set forth "up front" within  this regulation, rather than being developed on a case-by-case basis. The  legislature mandates that the permit-by-rule include conditions and standards  necessary to protect the Commonwealth's natural resources.
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1197.6  of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Carol C.  Wampler, Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box  1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4579, FAX (804) 698-4346, or  email carol.wampler.renewable.energy@gmail.com.
270
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
Water Quality Management Planning Regulation
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the State Water Control Board intends  to consider amending the following regulations: 9VAC25-720, Water Quality  Management Planning Regulation. The purpose of the proposed action is to  amend the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation to include the concept  of regulating flow or other qualities of a point source that cause or  contribute to pollutants or pollution downstream of point sources.
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of  the Code of Virginia; 33 USC § 1313(e) of the Clean Water Act.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 9, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Arthur Butt,  Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105,  Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4314, FAX (804) 698-4116, or email  arthur.butt@deq.virginia.gov.
270
TITLE 11. GAMING
Supplier Regulations
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the Charitable Gaming Board intends to  consider amending the following regulations: 11VAC15-31, Supplier Regulations.  The purpose of the proposed action is to amend the regulation as it is impacted  by the implementation of electronic games of chance systems. This action is  pursuant to Chapter 264 of the 2007 Acts of Assembly.
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 2.2-2456, 18.2-340.19, and 18.2-340.34 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Betty Bowman,  Division Director, Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, James  Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, 17th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 786-3015, FAX (804) 786-1079, or email  betty.bowman@dcg.virginia.gov.
270
TITLE 12. HEALTH
Virginia Immunization Information System Regulations
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Health intends to  consider promulgating the following regulations: 12VAC5-115, Virginia  Immunization Information System Regulations. The purpose of the proposed  action is to establish a system that will contain birth to death immunization  histories of participants.
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing  on the proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-46.01 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: James Farrell,  Department of Health, 109 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)  864-8055, or email james.farrell@vdh.virginia.gov.
270
TITLE 12. HEALTH
Rules and Regulations to Assure the Rights of Individuals Receiving Services from Providers Licensed, Funded, or Operated by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Behavioral Health  and Developmental Services intends to consider amending the following  regulations: 12VAC35-115, Rules and Regulations to Assure the Rights of  Individuals Receiving Services from Providers Licensed, Funded, or Operated by  the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse  Services. The purpose of the proposed action is to clarify that individuals  receiving services have the right and opportunity to notify a person of his  choice of his (i) location, (ii) general condition, and (iii) transfer to  another facility.
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 37.2-203 and 37.2-400 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Margaret Walsh,  Director, Office of Human Rights, Department of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services, Jefferson Building, 1220 Bank Street, 13th Floor,  Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-2008, FAX (804) 371-2308, or email  margaret.walsh@co.dmhmrsas.virginia.gov.
270
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
Regulations of the Virginia Auctioneers Board
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the Auctioneers Board intends to  consider amending the following regulations: 18VAC25-21, Regulations of the  Virginia Auctioneers Board. The purpose of the proposed action is to amend  the existing regulations dealing with disciplinary actions and the compliance  of such actions and for further clarification of the regulation.
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201  and 54.1-602 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Marian H.  Brooks, Regulatory Board Administrator, Auctioneers Board, 9960 Mayland Drive,  Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8514, FAX (804) 527-4294, or  email auctioneers@dpor.virginia.gov.
270
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the Child Day-Care Council intends to  consider repealing 22VAC15-30, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers  and promulgating 22VAC15-31, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers.  The purpose of the proposed action is to adopt a new regulation to improve  clarity and consistency, relieve intrusive and burdensome language, and provide  greater protection for children in care.
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-1734  and 63.2-1735 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Debra O'Neill,  Children's Program Licensing Consultant, Department of Social Services,  Division of Licensing Programs, 7 North 8th Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 726-7648, FAX (804) 726-7132, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email  debra.oneill@dss.virginia.gov.
270
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the Child Day-Care Council intends to  consider repealing 22VAC15-30, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers  and promulgating 22VAC15-31, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers.  The purpose of the proposed action is to adopt a new regulation to improve  clarity and consistency, relieve intrusive and burdensome language, and provide  greater protection for children in care.
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-1734  and 63.2-1735 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Debra O'Neill,  Children's Program Licensing Consultant, Department of Social Services,  Division of Licensing Programs, 7 North 8th Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 726-7648, FAX (804) 726-7132, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email  debra.oneill@dss.virginia.gov.
270
 
                                                        REGULATIONS
Vol. 25 Iss. 26 - August 31, 2009
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
BOARD OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Final Regulation
    REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE:  The Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services is claiming an exemption from  the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 3.2-703 of the Code of  Virginia, which exempts quarantine to prevent or retard the spread of a pest  into, within, or from the Commonwealth, and § 3.2-704 of the Code of Virginia,  which provides that the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall  prohibit the importation of any regulated article from any locality of other  states, territories, or countries, into the Commonwealth.
         Title of Regulation: 2VAC5-315. Virginia Imported  Fire Ant Quarantine for Enforcement of the Virginia Pest Law (adding 2VAC5-315-10, 2VAC5-315-20,  2VAC5-315-30, 2VAC5-315-40, 2VAC5-315-50, 2VAC5-315-60, 2VAC5-315-70,  2VAC5-315-80, 2VAC5-315-90, 2VAC5-315-100, 2VAC5-315-110, 2VAC5-315-120,  2VAC5-315-130). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 3.2-703  and 3.2-704 of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: August 31,  2009. 
    Agency Contact: Frank Fulgham,  Program Manager, Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, P.O. Box  1163, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 786-0440, FAX (804) 371-7793, TTY  (800) 828-1120, or email frank.fulgham@vdacs.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    This action establishes regulated areas  under the Virginia Imported Fire Ant Quarantine due to the detection of  permanently established and naturally spreading colonies of imported fire ants  in the cities of Chesapeake, Hampton, Newport News, Norfolk, Poquoson,  Portsmouth, Suffolk, Virginia Beach, and Williamsburg, as well as the counties  of James City and York. The quarantine restricts the movement of regulated  articles from regulated localities to nonregulated localities. The regulated  articles, which include soil, plants with roots and soil attached, grass sod,  used farm equipment and soil-moving equipment, honey bee hives and logs,  pulpwood, and stumpwood with soil attached, as well as hay, straw, and pine  straw that has been stored on the ground, pose a significant risk of  transporting imported fire ants. These regulated articles may move freely  within the regulated areas. The state quarantine is necessary to prevent the  United States Department of Agriculture from imposing a federal quarantine  regulating the entire state of Virginia. It is currently anticipated that a  federal quarantine covering only Virginia's regulated localities will be  implemented to prevent the spread of this pest from Virginia to noninfested  states.
    CHAPTER  315 
  VIRGINIA IMPORTED FIRE ANT QUARANTINE FOR ENFORCEMENT OF THE VIRGINIA PEST  LAW 
    2VAC5-315-10.  Declaration of quarantine.
    A quarantine is  hereby established to restrict the movement of certain articles capable of  transporting the imported fire ant into unregulated areas of the state unless  such articles comply with the conditions specified herein.
    2VAC5-315-20.  Purpose of quarantine.
    The imported  fire ant is an introduced species that is notorious for its aggressive  behavior, ferocious sting, and the damage it causes to several agricultural  commodities.  The imported fire ant has become established in portions of  the Commonwealth, and has the potential to spread to uninfested areas by  natural means or through the movement of infested articles. The purpose of this  quarantine is to prevent the artificial spread of the imported fire ant to  uninfested areas of the state by regulating the movement of those articles that  pose a significant threat of transporting the imported fire ant. 
    2VAC5-315-30.  Definitions.
    The following  words and terms shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise:
    "Board"  means the Virginia Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services.
    "Certificate"  means a document issued by an inspector or person operating in accordance with  a compliance agreement to allow the movement of regulated articles to any  destination.
    "Commissioner"  means the Commissioner of the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer  Services.
    "Compliance  agreement" means a written agreement between a person engaged in growing,  handling, receiving, or moving regulated articles and the Virginia Department  of Agriculture and Consumer Services, the United States Department of  Agriculture, or both, wherein the former agrees to comply with the requirements  of the compliance agreement and comply with the provisions of this regulation. 
    "Department"  means the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.
    "Imported  fire ant" means the live insect, in any life stage, known as the imported  fire ant, Solenopsis invicta Buren (commonly known as Red Imported Fire  Ant) and Solenopsis richteri Forel (commonly known as Black Imported  Fire Ant), and hybrids of these species.
    "Infestation"  means the presence of the imported fire ant or the existence of circumstances  that make it reasonable to believe that the imported fire ant is present.
    "Inspector"  means an employee of the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer  Services or other person authorized by the Commissioner of the Virginia  Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services to enforce the provisions of  this quarantine or regulation. 
    "Limited  permit" or "permit" means a document issued by an inspector to  allow the movement of regulated articles to a specific destination.
    "Moved,"  "move," or "movement" means shipped, offered for shipment,  received for transportation, transported, carried, or allowed to be moved,  shipped, transported, or carried.
    "Noncompacted  soil" means soil that can be removed from an article by brisk brushing or  washing.
    "Person"  means the term as defined in § 1-230 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Regulated  area" means the locality or area listed in 2VAC5-315-50 of this  quarantine.
    "Soil"  means, for the purpose of this regulation, any nonliquid combination of organic  or inorganic material, or both, in which plants can grow.
    "Soil-moving  equipment" means any equipment used for moving or transporting soil,  including, but not limited to, bulldozers, backhoes, dump trucks, or road  scrapers.
    "Virginia  Pest Law" means the statute set forth in Chapter 7 (§ 3.2-700 et seq.) of  Title 3.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    2VAC5-315-40.  Regulated articles.
    The following  articles are regulated under the provisions of this quarantine and shall not be  moved out of any regulated area in Virginia, except in compliance with the  conditions prescribed in this quarantine:
    1. Any life stage of imported fire ant.
    2. Soil, except potting soil that is  shipped in original containers after commercial preparation, and soil samples  shipped to approved laboratories.
    3. Plants with roots with soil attached,  or roots and rhizomes of plants with soil attached, except plants maintained  indoors in a home or office environment and not for sale.
    4. Grass sod.
    5. Used soil-moving equipment unless  free of all noncompacted soil.
    6. Used farm equipment unless free of  all noncompacted soil.
    7. Hay and straw, including pine straw,  that has been stored in direct contact with the ground.
    8. Honey bee hives that have been in  direct contact with the ground, including hive stands containing soil.
    9. Logs, pulpwood and stump wood with  soil attached.
    10. Any other article or means of  conveyance when it is determined by an inspector that it presents a risk of  spread of the imported fire ant.
    2VAC5-315-50.  Regulated areas.
    The following  areas in Virginia are quarantined for imported fire ant:
    The entire counties of:
    James City
    York
    The entire cities of: 
    Chesapeake
    Hampton
    Newport News 
    Norfolk
    Poquoson
    Portsmouth
    Suffolk
    Virginia Beach
    Williamsburg 
    2VAC5-315-60.  Conditions governing the intrastate movement of regulated articles.
    A. Movement  within regulated areas - movement of a regulated article solely within the  quarantined areas is allowed without restriction.
    B. Movement from  regulated areas to nonregulated areas - movement of a regulated article that  originates from within the quarantined areas to an area outside of the  quarantined areas is allowed only if the regulated article is accompanied by a  certificate or limited permit issued in accordance with 2VAC5-315-70 and  attached in accordance with 2VAC5-315-100.
    C. Movement from  nonregulated areas through regulated areas - regulated articles that originate  outside of the quarantined areas may move through the quarantined areas under  the following conditions:
    1. With a certificate or limited permit  issued in accordance with 2VAC5-315-70 and attached in accordance with  2VAC5-315-100, or
    2. Without a certificate or limited  permit if:
    a. Accompanied by a waybill that  indicates the point of origin of the regulated article;
    b. The regulated article is moved  directly through the regulated area without stopping, except for refueling or  due to traffic conditions; or has been stored, packed, or handled at locations  approved by an inspector as not posing a risk of infestation by the imported  fire ant; and 
    c. The regulated article has not been  combined or commingled with other articles so as to lose its individual  identity.
    D. Movement from  regulated areas through nonregulated areas - regulated articles that originate  from within the quarantined areas may travel through the nonquarantined areas  to a destination that is quarantined under the following conditions:
    1. With a certificate or limited permit  issued in accordance with 2VAC5-315-70 and attached in accordance with  2VAC5-315-100, or
    2. Without a certificate or limited  permit if:
    a. Accompanied by a waybill that  indicates the point of origin of the regulated article;
    b. The regulated article is moved  directly through the nonregulated area without stopping, except for refueling  or due to traffic conditions; or has been stored, packed, or handled at  locations approved by an inspector as not posing a risk of infestation by the  imported fire ant; and 
    c. The regulated article has not been  combined or commingled with other articles so as to lose its individual  identity.
    2VAC5-315-70.  Issuance and cancellation of certificates and limited permits.
    A. Certificates  and limited permits may be issued by an inspector for the movement of regulated  articles to any destination within Virginia when:
    1. The regulated articles have been  examined by the inspector and found to be apparently free of the imported fire  ant;
    2. The regulated articles have been  grown, produced, manufactured, stored, or handled in such a manner that, in the  judgment of the inspector, would prevent an infestation or destroy all life  stages of imported fire ant;
    3. The regulated articles are to be  moved in compliance with any additional conditions deemed necessary under the  Virginia Pest Law to prevent the spread of the imported fire ant; and
    4. The regulated articles are eligible  for unrestricted movement under all other domestic plant quarantines and  regulations applicable to the regulated articles.
    B. Certificates  may be issued by any person operating under a compliance agreement for the  movement of regulated articles to any destination within Virginia when:
    1. The regulated articles have been  examined by any person operating under a compliance agreement and found to be  apparently free of the imported fire ant;
    2. The regulated articles have been  grown, produced, manufactured, stored, or handled in such a manner, and  following all requirements of the compliance agreement, that would prevent an  infestation or destroy all life stages of imported fire ant;
    3. The regulated articles are to be  moved in compliance with any additional conditions deemed necessary under the  Virginia Pest Law to prevent the spread of the imported fire ant; and
    4. The regulated articles are eligible  for unrestricted movement under all other domestic plant quarantines and  regulations applicable to the regulated articles.
    C. Any certificate  or limited permit that has been issued or authorized may be withdrawn by the  inspector orally or in writing if the inspector determines that the holder of  the certificate or limited permit has not complied with all conditions for the  use of the certificate or limited permit or with any applicable compliance  agreement. If the withdrawal is oral, the withdrawal and the reasons for the  withdrawal shall be confirmed in writing and communicated to the certificate or  limited permit holder as promptly as circumstances allow. 
    2VAC5-315-80.  Compliance agreements and cancellation.
    A. Any person  engaged in growing, handling, or moving regulated articles may enter into a  compliance agreement when an inspector determines that the person understands  that person's requirements and obligations under this quarantine. The agreement  shall stipulate safeguards that must be maintained against the establishment  and spread of imported fire ants and the conditions governing the movement of  regulated articles.
    B. Any compliance  agreement may be canceled orally or in writing by an inspector whenever the  inspector finds that the person who has entered into the compliance agreement  has failed to comply with this quarantine. If the cancellation is oral, the  cancellation and the reasons for the cancellation shall be confirmed in writing  and communicated to the person who entered into such compliance agreement as  promptly as circumstances allow. 
    2VAC5-315-90.  Assembly and inspection of regulated articles.
    A. Any person,  other than a person authorized to issue certificates under 2VAC5-315-70, who  desires to move a regulated article intrastate and is seeking a certificate or  limited permit shall apply for inspection of the regulated article as far in  advance as practical, but no less than five business days before the regulated  articles are to be moved. 
    B. The regulated  articles must be assembled at the place and in the manner the inspector  designates as necessary to facilitate inspection and shall be safeguarded from  infestation. 
    2VAC5-315-100.  Attachment and disposition of certificates and limited permits.
    A. During the  intrastate movement, a certificate or limited permit must be attached at all  times to the outside of the container that contains the regulated article or to  the regulated article itself. The requirements of this section may also be met  by attaching the certificate or limited permit to the consignee's copy of the  waybill, provided the regulated article is sufficiently described on the  certificate or limited permit and on the waybill to facilitate the  identification of the regulated article.
    B. The  certificate or the limited permit for the intrastate movement of a regulated  article must be furnished by the carrier to the consignee at the destination of  the regulated article. A copy of the certificate or the limited permit must be  retained by the sender of the regulated article at the place of shipment. 
    2VAC5-315-110.  Inspection and disposal of regulated articles and pests.
    Upon  presentation of official credentials, an inspector is authorized to stop and  inspect, and to seize, destroy, or otherwise dispose of or require disposal of  regulated articles as provided in the Virginia Pest Law. 
    2VAC5-315-120.  Nonliability of the department.
    The department  shall not be liable for any costs incurred by third parties whose costs result  from, or are incidental to, inspections required under the provisions of the  quarantine. 
    2VAC5-315-130.  Revocation of this regulation.
    This regulation  may be revoked by the board when such party is satisfied that the need for this  quarantine no longer exists. Such revocation shall take place upon the date  specified by the board in the order that revokes this regulation. 
270
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
BOARD OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Forms
    NOTICE: The following  forms have been filed by the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services. The  forms are available for public inspection at the Department of Agriculture and  Consumer Services, 102 Governor Street, Room 321, Richmond, VA 23219, or at the  Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor,  Richmond, Virginia 23219. Copies of the forms may be obtained from Richard D.  Saunders, Deputy Director, Division of Animal and Food Industry Services,  telephone (804) 692-0601, or email doug.saunders@vdacs.virginia.gov.
         Title of Regulation: 2VAC5-620. Regulations  Pertaining to the Establishment of the Dangerous Dog Registry.
    FORMS (2VAC5-620)
    Dangerous Dog Verification of  Compliance and Registration Form, VDACS-DDR-01 (eff. 07/07) (eff.  07/09).
    Dangerous Dog Verification of  Compliance and Registration Supplemental Owner Information Form, VDACS-DDR-02 (eff.  07/07) (eff. 07/09).
    Dangerous Dog Renewal  Registration Form, VDACS-DDR-03 (eff. 07/07) (eff. 07/09).
    Dangerous Dog Registration Change  of Address Form, VDACS-DDR-04 (eff. 07/07) (eff. 07/09).
    Dangerous Dog Registration Change  of Address Supplemental Owner Information Form, VDACS-DDR-05 (eff. 07/07)  (eff. 07/09).
    Dangerous Dog Registration  Remittance Form, VDACS-DDR-06 (eff. 07/07) (eff. 07/09).
270
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF MINES, MINERALS AND ENERGY
Proposed Regulation
Title of  Regulation:  4VAC25-150. Virginia Gas and Oil Regulation (amending  4VAC25-150-10, 4VAC25-150-60, 4VAC25-150-80, 4VAC25-150-90, 4VAC25-150-100,  4VAC25-150-110, 4VAC25-150-120, 4VAC25-150-135, 4VAC25-150-140, 4VAC25-150-150,  4VAC25-150-160, 4VAC25-150-180, 4VAC25-150-190, 4VAC25-150-200, 4VAC25-150-210,  4VAC25-150-220, 4VAC25-150-230, 4VAC25-150-240, 4VAC25-150-250, 4VAC25-150-260,  4VAC25-150-280, 4VAC25-150-300, 4VAC25-150-310, 4VAC25-150-340, 4VAC25-150-360,  4VAC25-150-380, 4VAC25-150-390, 4VAC25-150-420, 4VAC25-150-460, 4VAC25-150-490,  4VAC25-150-500, 4VAC25-150-510, 4VAC25-150-520, 4VAC25-150-530, 4VAC25-150-550,  4VAC25-150-560, 4VAC25-150-590, 4VAC25-150-600, 4VAC25-150-610, 4VAC25-150-620,  4VAC25-150-630, 4VAC25-150-650, 4VAC25-150-660, 4VAC25-150-670, 4VAC25-150-680,  4VAC25-150-690, 4VAC25-150-700, 4VAC25-150-711, 4VAC25-150-720, 4VAC25-150-730,  4VAC25-150-740, 4VAC25-150-750).
    Statutory Authority:  §§ 45.1-161.3 and 45.1-361.27 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: 
    October 23, 2009 - 1 p.m. - Department of Mines, Minerals and  Energy, 3405 Mountain Empire Road, Buchanan-Smith Building, Conference Room  219, Big Stone Gap, VA
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Tabitha  Hibbitts Peace, Policy Analyst, Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, 3405  Mountain Empire Road, P.O. Drawer 900, Big Stone Gap, VA 24219, telephone (276)  523-8212, FAX (276) 523-8148, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email  tabitha.peace@dmme.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The Department of Mines,  Minerals and Energy (DMME) has authority to promulgate this regulation under  the authority found in §§ 45.1-161.3 and 45.1-361.27 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Section 45.1-161.3 of the Code of Virginia empowers  DMME, with the approval of the director, to promulgate regulations necessary or  incidental to the performance of duties or execution of powers under Title 45.1  of the Code of Virginia.
    Section 45.1-361.27 of the Code of Virginia empowers  the director to promulgate and enforce rules, regulations, and orders necessary  to ensure the safe and efficient development and production of gas and oil  resources located in the Commonwealth.
    Purpose: The Department  of Mines, Minerals and Energy has determined the proposed regulatory amendments  to various sections of 4VAC25-150 are necessary to protect the health, welfare,  and safety of citizens, reduce workload, and increase efficiency for permit  applicants. Technical corrections are necessary for accuracy and to provide  clear language consistent with state law. These amendments will aid the gas and  oil industry and the Virginia Gas and Oil Board in the approval and regulation  of gas and oil permits.
    Substance: As a result of  periodic review, the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy is amending  4VAC25-150, Virginia Gas and Oil Regulation. Sections of 4VAC25-150 will be  amended to correct technical areas for accuracy, improve worker safety, and  provide clarity. These amendments will aid the gas and oil industry and the Gas  and Oil Board in the review and regulation of gas and oil permits.
    Amending parts of 4VAC25-150-150 will reduce  workload and increase efficiency for applicants by providing flexibility and  economy to the permit process. 4VAC25-150-90 will be updated to include symbols  that are consistent with current industry usage and available CAD technology.
    Amendments to 4VAC25-150-80, 4VAC25-150-260,  4VAC25-150-300, 4VAC25-150-380, and 4VAC25-150-630 will protect the safety and  health of oil and gas industry employees.
    An amendment to 4VAC25-150-90 is being made to bring  consistency to data submission requirements for the Division of Gas and Oil.  The use of latitude and longitude and the Virginia Coordinate System of 1927  have been replaced by the Virginia Coordinate System of 1983 in other Division  of Gas and Oil regulations. Current industry practice to use the more modern  1983 coordinate system for describing the locations of wells and core holes.  Applicants for permits under this chapter must currently convert their  coordinates back to the 1927 system, as required by the regulation, in order to  submit them to the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy’s Division of Gas  and Oil. The amendment will allow applicants to use the updated 1983 coordinate  system.
    Issues: These  regulatory actions are expected to provide technical corrections, improve  clarity, increase efficiency, and to restore consistency with other chapters of  regulation. These amendments regarding process will aid the gas and oil  industry, as well as the Gas and Oil Board in the review and regulation of gas  and oil permits. Reduced workload and increased efficiency for applicants will  occur by providing flexibility and economy in the permit process.
    The Department of Planning and Budget's  Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. As  a result of periodic review, the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy  (DMME) proposes numerous amendments to the Virginia Gas & Oil Regulations,  including: 1) adding a definition for "red zone," 2) updating  required symbols to the current industry standard CAD template, 3) adding a  requirement that operations plan specify "red zone" areas, 4)  increasing the application fee for transfer of permit rights from $65 to $75,  5) eliminating the requirement to mail pemit approvals to all persons given  notice of the hearing, but maintaining the requirement to mail pemit denials to  all persons given notice of the hearing, 6) extending reporting deadlines from  30 or 45 days to 90 days, 7) changing required notification of  ground-disturbing activity from at least two working days prior to commencing  ground-disturbing activity to at least 48 hours prior, 8) adding requirement  for posting red zone signs, 9) reduce specificity of topsoil requirement so  that any soil suitable for stabilizing the site with vegetation can be used,  10) allowing any form of variance request, 11) changing the specific  circumstances under which an inclination survey must be performed, 12) adding a  requirement that all pits be reclaimed within 90 days unless a variance is  granted by the field inspector, and 13) adding a new section defining the  length of time wells can remain shut in without a requirement for plugging.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits exceed the costs  for one or more proposed changes. There is insufficient data to accurately  compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs for other changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. DMME proposes several  amendments to these regulations merely reflect modern usage such as GPS,  electronic communication, and the use of the current industry standard CAD  template. Virginia’s gas and oil industry through the representation of the Virginia  Gas and Oil Association (VGOA) has expressed approval of these changes and  generally agrees that these types of changes are beneficial.
    The proposed regulations define "red zone"  as a zone in or contiguous to a permitted area that could have potential  hazards to workers or to the public. Further, the proposed regulations require  that operation plans identify red zone areas and that red zone signs be posted  to alert the public and workers of the hazards in the area. VGOA estimates that  this proposed requirement will add $1,000 to $2,000 of cost per plan and  approximately $100 per sign, but agrees that it will potentially significantly  reduce safety risks. Thus, these proposed changes likely produce a net benefit.
    DMME proposes to increase the application fee for  transfer of permit rights from $65 to $75. According to the agency even the  proposed higher fee falls far short of covering their regulating expenses. VGOA  does not oppose the fee increase.
    Under the current regulations, in hearings on  objections to permit applications the DMME director must mail his decision to  all parties given notice of the hearing. DMME proposes to eliminate the  requirement to mail pemit approvals to all persons given notice of the hearing,  but to continue to require that pemit denials be sent to all persons given  notice of the hearing. Parties directly involved would still be notified of  permit approvals of course. The proposed change would reduce some small costs  in time for DMME staff, but it is unclear whether the small reduction in time  cost exceeds the reduced benefit in informing interested members of the public.
    The current regulations include various reporting  deadlines of either 30 days or 45 days which DMME proposes to extend to 90  days. The extra time will be beneficial for firms and DMME states that the  extra time for reporting is unlikely to significantly affect health and safety.  Thus, these proposed longer deadlines will likely produce a net benefit.
    The agency proposes to change the required  notification of ground-disturbing activity from at least two working days prior  to commencing ground-disturbing activity to at least 48 hours prior. According  to DMME, staff is available to receive notification on the weekends and 48  hours notice is sufficient to ensure safety. This proposed change allows firms  to not have to proceed with work one or two days sooner at times without  negatively affected safety. Consequently, this proposed change produces a net  benefit for the Commonwealth.
    DMME also proposes some additional options for  satisfying requirements that will reduce costs for firms without compromising  safety or the environment. Under the current regulations during construction  topsoil sufficient to provide a suitable growth medium for permanent  stabilization with vegetation must be used to stabilize the site. The agency  proposes to permit the use of soil that is not necessarily topsoil, but which  still can provide a suitable growth medium for permanent stabilization with  vegetation. Also the timing for acceptance of variances is less restrictive  under the proposed regulations.
    The current regulations require that an inclination  survey be performed prior to drilling into a coal seam where active mining is  being conducted. DMME proposes to instead require that an inclination survey be  performed prior to drilling within 500 feet of a coal seam where workers are  assigned travel, etc. According to DMME their definition of active mining  includes where coal workers are not currently working; and thus under the  proposed language there will be fewer instances where inclination surveys are  required. VGOA estimates that inclination surveys cost $2,000 to $3,000 per  well. Since only instances where coal workers are not present will be  eliminated from when an inclination survey is required, the proposed change  should not negatively affect safety while saving $2,000 to $3,000 per instance  where the inclination survey is no longer required.
    The regulations state that "Pits are to be  temporary in nature and are to be reclaimed when the operations using the pit  are complete. DMME proposes to add that "All pits shall be reclaimed  within 90 days unless a variance is granted by the field inspector."  Reclamation concerns meeting water quality standards. According to VGOA,  mandatory reclamation within 90 days can significantly add to costs. VGOA  states that drought conditions can cause pits to not meet water quality  standards that would meet the standards under non-drought conditions, causing  firms to spend thousands of dollars which they could have avoided if they were  not required to act within 90 days. The counter argument would be that there  are environmental costs to the pits not meeting water quality standards and  perhaps the benefits of improved environment are worth those costs.
    Abandoned wells are required to be plugged to  prevent environmental damage and safety risks from leaks. DMME proposes to  require that permittees submit either a well plugging plan or a future well  production plan for wells that have been in non-producing status for two years.  Further, the agency proposes that "In no circumstance shall a  non-producing well remain un-plugged for more than a three year period unless  approved by the director (of DMME)." The intent of this proposal is to  limit the existence of non-producing wells that may be producing environmental  damage through leaks.
    The proposed plugging requirement may produce large  costs and could discourage natural gas production. According to VGOA it costs  approximately $20,000 to plug a well, and from $350,000 to $500,000 to drill a  new well. VGOA states that it is essentially not feasible to unplug a plugged  well, and thus would cost another $350,000 to $500,000 to re-drill a well at  the site of a plugged well. The proposed plugging requirement would discourage  some natural gas production (according to VGOA) in that the time frame that a  well could be used would be reduced and thus the potential benefits of drilling  in new locations would be reduced. Thus it is not clear that the potential  environmental benefits of requiring plugging within three years would exceed  the costs.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. According to the  Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, four companies drill most oil and gas  wells in Virginia and an unknown number of other companies may also undertake  such activities from time to time. None of these would be defined as small  businesses.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed  regulations particularly affect the City of Norton and the following counties:  Buchanan, Dickenson, Lee, Russell, Scott, Tazewell, Washington and Wise.
    Projected Impact on Employment. Most of the proposed  amendments would not significantly affect employment. The proposal to require  plugging for wells not used for three years might discourage some natural gas  drilling and might have some negative impact on employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property.  Several of the proposed amendments add moderate costs for oil and gas firms in  order to improve public safety and the environment. These changes may have some  moderate positive affect on the value of neighboring properties. Some of the  proposed amendments reduce costs foe firms without compromising safety or the  environment. These changes will provide some counterbalance to the  aforementioned increased costs. The proposal to requiring plugging for wells  not in use for three years may produce larger costs for private firms.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. According  to DMME, none of the firms directly affected by the proposed regulations are small  businesses. Small businesses that serve the large firms may be indirectly  affected.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes  Adverse Impact. According to DMME, none of the firms directly affected by the  proposed regulations are small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. This regulation  concerns the use of land for gas and oil acquisition. Several proposed changes  that increase public safety or reduce environmental risk, such as requiring red  zone signs, add moderate costs. Some proposed changes, such as permitting the  use of soil that is not necessarily topsoil, but which still can provide a  suitable growth medium for permanent stabilization with vegetation, moderately  reduce land use costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget  (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in  accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and  Executive Order Number 36 (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic  impact analyses include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of  businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity  of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly  affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be  affected, the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement  or comply with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private  property. Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small  businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include (i) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses  subject to the regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and  other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB’s best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    Agency's Response to the Department of  Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis: The agency  concurs with Department of Planning and Budget's economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    As a result of periodic review, the  Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy is amending 4VAC25-150, Virginia Gas  and Oil Regulation. Sections within 4VAC25-150 will be amended to correct  technical areas for accuracy, improve worker safety, and provide clarity. These  amendments will aid the gas and oil industry and the Gas and Oil Board in the  review and regulation of gas and oil permits. Amending 4VAC25-150-150 will  reduce workload and increase efficiency for applicants by providing flexibility  and economy to the permit process. 4VAC25-150-90 will be updated to include  symbols that are consistent with current industry usage and available CAD technology.  Amendments to 4VAC25-150-80, 4VAC25-150-260, 4VAC25-150-300, 4VAC25-150-380,  and 4VAC25-150-630 will protect the safety and health of oil and gas industry  employees. An amendment to 4VAC25-150-90 is being made to bring consistency to  data submission requirements for the Division of Gas and Oil.
    Part  I 
  Standards of General Applicability 
    Article  1 
  General Information 
    4VAC25-150-10.  Definitions.
    The following words and terms,  when used in this chapter, shall have the following meaning unless the  context clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Act" means the  Virginia Gas and Oil Act of 1990, Chapter 22.1 (§ 45.1-361.1 et seq.) of Title  45.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Adequate channel"  means a watercourse that will convey the designated frequency storm event  without overtopping its banks or causing erosive damage to the bed, banks and  overbank sections. 
    "Applicant"  means any person or business who files an application with the Division of Gas  and Oil.
    "Approved" means  accepted as suitable for its intended purpose when included in a permit issued  by the director or determined to be suitable in writing by the director.
    "Berm" means a ridge of  soil or other material constructed along an active earthen fill to divert  runoff away from the unprotected slope of the fill to a stabilized outlet or  sediment trapping facility. 
    "Board"  means the Virginia Gas and Oil Board.
    "Bridge plug"  means an obstruction intentionally placed in a well at a specified depth. 
    "Cased completion"  means a technique used to make a well capable of production in which production  casing is set through the productive zones. 
    "Cased/open hole  completion" means a technique used to make a well capable of production in  which at least one zone is completed through casing and at least one zone is completed  open hole. 
    "Casing" means all pipe  set in wells except conductor pipe and tubing. 
    "Causeway" means a  temporary structural span constructed across a flowing watercourse or wetland  to allow construction traffic to access the area without causing erosion  damage. 
    "Cement" means  hydraulic cement properly mixed with water. 
    "Channel" means a  natural stream or man-made waterway. 
    "Chief" means the Chief  of the Division of Mines of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy. 
    "Coal-protection  string" means a casing designed to protect a coal seam by excluding all  fluids, oil, gas or gas pressure from the seam, except such as may be found in  the coal seam itself. 
    "Cofferdam" means a  temporary structure in a river, lake or other waterway for keeping the water  from an enclosed area that has been pumped dry so that bridge foundations,  pipelines, etc., may be constructed. 
    "Completion" means the  process which results in a well being capable of producing gas or oil. 
    "Conductor pipe" means  the short, large diameter string used primarily to control caving and washing  out of unconsolidated surface formations. 
    "Corehole" means any shaft  or hole sunk, drilled, bored or dug, that breaks or disturbs the  surface of the earth as part of a geophysical operation solely for  the purpose of obtaining rock samples or other information to be used in the  exploration for coal, gas, or oil. The term shall not include a  borehole used solely for the placement of an explosive charge or other energy  source for generating seismic waves. 
    "Days" means calendar  days. 
    "Denuded area" means  land that has been cleared of vegetative cover. 
    "Department" means the  Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy. 
    "Detention basin" means  a stormwater management facility which temporarily impounds and discharges  runoff through an outlet to a downstream channel. Infiltration is negligible  when compared to the outlet structure discharge rates. The facility is normally  dry during periods of no rainfall. 
    "Dike" means an earthen  embankment constructed to confine or control fluids. 
    "Directional survey"  means a well survey that measures the degree of deviation of a hole, or  distance from the vertical and the direction of deviation from true  vertical, and the distance and direction of points in the hole from vertical.
    "Director" means the  Director of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy or his authorized  agent. 
    "Diversion" means a  channel constructed for the purpose of intercepting surface runoff. 
    "Diverter" or  "diverter system" means an assembly of valves and piping attached to  a gas or oil well's casing for controlling flow and pressure from a well. 
    "Division" means the  Division of Gas and Oil of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy. 
    "Erosion and sediment  control plan" means a document containing a description of materials and  methods to be used for the conservation of soil and the protection of water  resources in or on a unit or group of units of land. It may include appropriate  maps, an appropriate soil and water plan inventory and management information  with needed interpretations, and a record of decisions contributing to  conservation treatment. The plan shall contain a record of all major  conservation decisions to ensure that the entire unit or units of land will be  so treated to achieve the conservation objectives. 
    "Expanding cement"  means any cement approved by the director which expands during the hardening  process, including but not limited to regular oil field cements with the proper  additives. 
    "Form prescribed by the  director" means a form issued by the division, or an equivalent facsimile,  for use in meeting the requirements of the Act or this chapter. 
    "Firewall" means an  earthen dike or fire resistant structure built around a tank or tank battery to  contain the oil in the event a tank ruptures or catches fire. 
    "Flume" means a  constructed device lined with erosion-resistant materials intended to convey  water on steep grades. 
    "Flyrock" means any  material propelled by a blast that would be actually or potentially hazardous  to persons or property. 
    "Gas well" means any  well which produces or appears capable of producing a ratio of 6,000 cubic feet  (6 Mcf) of gas or more to each barrel of oil, on the basis of a gas-oil ratio  test. 
    "Gob well" means a  coalbed methane gas well which is capable of producing coalbed methane gas from  the de-stressed zone associated with any full-seam extraction of coal that  extends above and below the mined-out coal seam. 
    "Groundwater" means all  water under the ground, wholly or partially within or bordering the  Commonwealth or within its jurisdiction, which has the potential for being used  for domestic, industrial, commercial or agricultural use or otherwise affects  the public welfare. 
    "Highway" means any  public street, public alley, or public road. 
    "Inclination survey"  means a well or corehole survey, using the surface location of the well or  corehole as the apex, to determine the deviation of the well or corehole from  the true vertical beneath the apex on the same horizontal subsurface plane survey  taken inside a wellbore that measures the degree of deviation of the point of  the survey from true vertical. 
    "Inhabited building"  means a building, regularly occupied in whole or in part by human beings,  including, but not limited to, a private residence, church, school, store,  public building or other structure where people are accustomed to assemble  except for a building being used on a temporary basis, on a permitted site, for  gas, oil, or geophysical operations. 
    "Intermediate string"  means a string of casing that prevents caving, shuts off connate water in  strata below the water-protection string, and protects strata from exposure to  lower zone pressures. 
    "Live watercourse"  means a definite channel with bed and banks within which water flows continuously.  
    "Mcf" means, when used  with reference to natural gas, 1,000 cubic feet of gas at a pressure base of  14.73 pounds per square inch gauge and a temperature base of 60°F. 
    "Mud" means any  mixture of water and clay or other material as the term is commonly used in the  industry a mixture of materials that creates a weighted fluid to be  circulated down hole during drilling operations for the purpose of lubricating  and cooling the bit, removing cuttings, and controlling formation pressures and  fluid. 
    "Natural channel" or  "natural stream" means nontidal waterways that are part of the  natural topography. They usually maintain a continuous or seasonal flow during  the year, and are characterized as being irregular in cross section with a  meandering course. 
    "Nonerodible" means a  material such as riprap, concrete or plastic that will not experience surface  wear due to natural forces. 
    "Oil well" means any  well which produces or appears capable of producing a ratio of less than 6,000  cubic feet (6 Mcf) of gas to each barrel of oil, on the basis of a gas-oil  ratio test. 
    "Open hole completion"  means a technique used to make a well capable of production in which no  production casing is set through the productive zones. 
    "Person" means any  individual, corporation, partnership, association, company, business, trust,  joint venture or other legal entity. 
    "Petitioner"  means any person or business who files a petition, appeal, or other request for  action with the Division of Gas and Oil or the Virginia Gas and Oil Board.
    "Plug" means the stopping  sealing of, or a device or material used for the stopping sealing  of, the flow of water, a gas or oil wellbore or casing to  prevent the migration of water, gas, or oil from one stratum to another. 
    "Pre-development" means  the land use and site conditions that exist at the time that the operations  plan is submitted to the division. 
    "Produced waters" means  water or fluids produced from a gas well, oil well, coalbed methane gas well or  gob well as a byproduct of producing gas, oil or coalbed methane gas. 
    "Producer" means a  permittee operating a well in Virginia that is producing or is capable of  producing gas or oil. 
    "Production string"  means a string of casing or tubing through which the well is completed and may  be produced and controlled. 
    "Red shales" means the  undifferentiated shaley portion of the bluestone Bluestone  formation normally found above the Pride Shale Member of the formation, and  extending upward to the base of the Pennsylvanian strata, which red shales are  predominantly red and green in color but may occasionally be gray, grayish  green and grayish red. 
    "Red  zone" is a zone in or contiguous to a permitted area that could have  potential hazards to workers or to the public.
    "Retention basin" means  a stormwater management facility which, similar to a detention basin,  temporarily impounds runoff and discharges its outflow through an outlet to a  downstream channel. A retention basin is a permanent impoundment. 
    "Sediment basin" means  a depression formed from the construction of a barrier or dam built to retain  sediment and debris. 
    "Sheet flow," also  called overland flow, means shallow, unconcentrated and irregular flow down a  slope. The length of strip for sheet flow usually does not exceed 200 feet  under natural conditions. 
    "Slope drain" means  tubing or conduit made of nonerosive material extending from the top to the  bottom of a cut or fill slope. 
    "Special diligence"  means the activity and skill exercised by a good businessman businessperson  in his a particular specialty, which must be commensurate with  the duty to be performed and the individual circumstances of the case; not  merely the diligence of an ordinary person or nonspecialist. 
    "Stabilized" means able  to withstand normal exposure to air and water flows without incurring erosion  damage. 
    "Stemming" means the  inert material placed in a borehole after an explosive charge for the purpose  of confining the explosion gases in the borehole or the inert material used to  separate the explosive charges (decks) in decked holes. 
    "Storm sewer inlet"  means any structure through which stormwater is introduced into an underground  conveyance system. 
    "Stormwater management  facility" means a device that controls stormwater runoff and changes the  characteristics of that runoff, including but not limited to, the quantity,  quality, the period of release or the velocity of flow. 
    "String of pipe" or  "string" means the total footage of pipe of uniform size set in a  well. The term embraces conductor pipe, casing and tubing. When the casing  consists of segments of different size, each segment constitutes a separate  string. A string may serve more than one purpose. 
    "Sulfide stress  cracking" means embrittlement of the steel grain structure to reduce  ductility and cause extreme brittleness or cracking by hydrogen sulfide. 
    "Surface mine" means an  area containing an open pit excavation, surface operations incident to an  underground mine, or associated activities adjacent to the excavation or  surface operations, from which coal or other minerals are produced for sale,  exchange, or commercial use; and includes all buildings and equipment above the  surface of the ground used in connection with such mining. 
    "Target formation"  means the geologic gas or oil formation identified by the well operator in his  application for a gas, oil or geophysical drilling permit. 
    "Temporary stream  crossing" means a temporary span installed across a flowing watercourse  for use by construction traffic. Structures may include bridges, round pipes or  pipe arches constructed on or through nonerodible material. 
    "Ten-year storm" means  a storm that is capable of producing rainfall expected to be equaled or  exceeded on the average of once in 10 years. It may also be expressed as an  exceedance probability with a 10% chance of being equaled or exceeded in any  given year. 
    "Tubing" means the  small diameter string set after the well has been drilled from the surface to  the total depth and through which the gas or oil or other substance is produced  or injected. 
    "Two-year storm" means  a storm that is capable of producing rainfall expected to be equaled or  exceeded on the average of once in two years. It may also be expressed as an  exceedance probability with a 50% chance of being equaled or exceeded in any  given year. 
    "Vertical ventilation  hole" means any hole drilled from the surface to the coal seam used only  for the safety purpose of removing gas from the underlying coal seam and the  adjacent strata, thus, removing the gas that would normally be in the mine  ventilation system. 
    "Water bar" means a  small obstruction constructed across the surface of a road, pipeline  right-of-way, or other area of ground disturbance in order to interrupt and  divert the flow of water down the on a grade of the road  and divert the water to provide for sediment control for the purpose of  controlling erosion and sediment migration. 
    "Water-protection  string" means a string of casing designed to protect groundwater-bearing  strata. 
    4VAC25-150-60.  Due dates for reports and decisions. 
    A. Where the last day fixed for (i)  submitting a request for a hearing, holding a hearing or issuing a decision  in an enforcement action under Article 3 (4VAC25-150-170 et seq.) of this part,  (ii) submitting a monthly or annual report under Article 4 (4VAC25-150-210 et  seq.) of this part, (iii) submitting a report of commencement of activity under  4VAC25-150-230, (iv) submitting a drilling report, a completion report or other  report under 4VAC25-150-360, or (v) submitting a plugging affidavit under  4VAC25-150-460 or any required report falls on a Saturday, Sunday,  or any day on which the Division of Gas and Oil office is closed as authorized  by the Code of Virginia or the Governor, the required action may be done on the  next day that the office is open. 
    B. All submittals to or notifications  of the Division of Gas and Oil identified in subsection A of this section shall  be made to the division office no later than 5 p.m. on the day required by the  Act or by this chapter. 
    Article  2 
  Permitting 
    4VAC25-150-80.  Application for a permit.
    A. Applicability. 
    1. Persons required in § 45.1-361.29 of  the Code of Virginia to obtain a permit or permit modification shall apply to  the division on the forms prescribed by the director. All lands on which gas,  oil or geophysical operations are to be conducted shall be included in a permit  application. 
    2. In addition to specific requirements  for variances in other sections of this chapter, any applicant for a variance  shall, in writing, document the need for the variance and describe the  alternate measures or practices to be used. 
    B. The application for a permit  shall, as applicable, be accompanied by the fee in accordance with § 45.1-361.29 of the Code of Virginia, the bond in accordance with § 45.1-361.31  of the Code of Virginia, and the fee for the Orphaned Well Fund in accordance  with § 45.1-361.40 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. Each application for a permit  shall include information on all activities, including those involving  associated facilities, to be conducted on the permitted site. This shall  include the following: 
    1. The name and address of: 
    a. The gas, oil or geophysical  applicant; 
    b. The agent required to be designated  under § 45.1-361.37 of the Code of Virginia; and 
    c. Each person whom the applicant must  notify under § 45.1-361.30 of the Code of Virginia; 
    2. The certifications required in § 45.1-361.29 E of the Code of Virginia; 
    3. The proof of notice to affected  parties required in § 45.1-361.29 E of the Code of Virginia, which shall  be: 
    a. A copy of a signed receipt or  electronic return receipt of delivery of notice by certified mail; 
    b. A copy of a signed receipt  acknowledging delivery of notice by hand; or 
    c. If all copies of receipt of delivery  of notice by certified mail have not been signed and returned within 15 days of  mailing, a copy of the mailing log or other proof of the date the notice was  sent by certified mail, return receipt requested; 
    4. If the application is for a permit  modification, proof of notice to affected parties, as specified in subdivision  C 3 of this section;
    4. 5. Identification of the type  of well or other gas, oil or geophysical operation being proposed; 
    5. 6. The plat in accordance with  4VAC25-150-90; 
    6. 7. The operations plan in  accordance with 4VAC25-150-100; 
    7. 8. The information required for  operations involving hydrogen sulfide in accordance with 4VAC25-150-350; 
    8. 9. The location where the  Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasure (SPCC) plan is available, if one is  required; 
    9. 10. The Department of  Mines, Minerals and Energy, Division of Mined Land Reclamation's permit number  for any area included in a Division of Mined Land Reclamation permit on which a  proposed gas, oil or geophysical operation is to be located; 
    10. 11. For an application  for a conventional well, the information required in 4VAC25-150-500; 
    11. 12. For an application  for a coalbed methane gas well, the information required in 4VAC25-150-560; 
    12. 13. For an application  for a geophysical operation, the information required in 4VAC25-150-670; and 
    13. 14. For an application  for a permit to drill for gas or oil in Tidewater Virginia, the environmental  impact assessment meeting the requirements of § 62.1-195.1 B of the Code of  Virginia. 
    D. After July 1,  2009, all permit applications and plats submitted to the division shall be in  electronic form or a format prescribed by the director.
    4VAC25-150-90.  Plats.
    A. When filing an application for  a permit for a well or corehole, the applicant also shall file an accurate plat  certified by a licensed professional engineer or licensed land surveyor on a  scale, to be stated thereon, of 1 inch equals 400 feet (1:4800). The scope of  the plat shall be large enough to show the board approved unit and all  areas within the greater of 750 feet or one half of the distance specified in § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia from the proposed well or corehole, or  within a unit established by the board for the subject well. The plat shall  be submitted on a form prescribed by the director. 
    B. The known courses and  distances of all property lines and lines connecting the permanent points,  landmarks or corners within the scope of the plat shall be shown thereon. All  lines actually surveyed shall be shown as solid lines. Lines taken from deed or  chain of title descriptions only shall be shown by broken lines. All  property lines shown on a plat shall agree with surveys, deed descriptions, or  acreages used in county records for tax assessment purposes.
    C. A north and south line shall  be given and shown on the plat, and point to the top of the plat.
    D. Wells or coreholes shall be  located on the plat as follows:
    1. The proposed or actual surface  elevation of the subject well or corehole shall be shown on the plat, within an  accuracy of one vertical foot. The surface elevation shall be tied to either a  government benchmark or other point of proven elevation by differential or  aerial survey, or by trigonometric leveling, or by Global  Positioning System (GPS) survey. The location of the government benchmark  or the point of proven elevation and the method used to determine the surface  elevation of the subject well or corehole shall be noted and described on the  plat.
    2. The proposed or actual horizontal  location of the subject well or corehole determined by survey shall be shown on  the plat. The proposed or actual well or corehole location shall be shown in  accordance with the Virginia Coordinate System of 1983, as defined in Chapter  17 (§ 55-287 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia, also known as the  State Plane Coordinate System.
    3. The courses and distances of the well  or corehole location from two permanent points or landmarks on the tract shall  be shown; such landmarks shall be set stones, iron pipes, T-rails or other  manufactured monuments, including mine coordinate monuments, and operating or  abandoned wells which are platted to the accuracy standards of this section and  on file with the division. If temporary points are to be used to locate the  actual well or corehole location as provided for in 4VAC25-150-290, the courses  and distances of the well or corehole location from the two temporary points  shall be shown. 
    4. Any other well, permitted or drilled,  within the distance specified in § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia or the  distance to the nearest well completed in the same pool, whichever is less, or  within the boundaries of a drilling unit established by the board around the  subject well shall be shown on the plat or located by notation. The type of  each well shall be designated by the following symbols as described in the  Federal Geographic Data Committee (FGDC) Digital Cartographic Standard for  Geologic Map Symbolization: 
     
    
           
     
     
    
         
          Symbols for  additional features as required in 4VAC25-150-510, 4VAC25-150-590, and  4VAC25-150-680 should be taken from the FDGC standard where applicable.
    E. Plats shall also contain: 
    1. For a conventional gas and oil or  injection well, the information required in 4VAC25-150-510;
    2. For a coalbed methane gas well, the  information required in 4VAC25-150-590; or
    3. For a corehole, the information  required in 4VAC25-150-680.
    F. Any subsequent application for  a new permit or permit modification shall include an accurate copy of the well  plat, updated as necessary to reflect any changes on the site, newly discovered  data or additional data required since the last plat was submitted. Any revised  plat shall be certified as required in subsection A of this section.
    4VAC25-150-100.  Operations plans.
    A. Each application for a permit  or permit modification shall include an operations plan, in a format approved  by or on a form prescribed by the director. The operations plan and  accompanying maps or drawings shall become part of the terms and conditions of  any permit which is issued.
    B. The applicant shall indicate  how risks to the public safety or to the site and adjacent lands are to be  managed, consistent with the requirements of § 45.1-361.27 B of the Code of  Virginia, and shall provide a short narrative, if pertinent. The operations  plan shall identify "red zone" areas.
    4VAC25-150-110.  Permit supplements and permit modifications.
    A. Permit supplements. 
    1. Standard permit supplements. A  permittee shall be allowed to submit a permit supplement when work being  performed either: 
    a. Does not change the disturbance area  as described in the original permit; or and
    b. Involves activities previously  permitted. 
    The permittee shall submit written  documentation of the changes made to the permitted area within seven working  no later than 30 days after completing the change. All other changes to  the permit shall require a permit modification in accordance with § 45.1-361.29  of the Code of Virginia. 
    2. Emergency permit supplements. If a  change must be implemented immediately for an area off the disturbance area  as described in the original permit, or for an activity not previously  permitted due to actual or threatened imminent danger to the public safety  or to the environment, the permittee shall: 
    a. Take immediate action to minimize the  danger to the public or to the environment; 
    b. Orally notify Notify  the director as soon as possible of actions taken to minimize the danger and,  if the director determines an emergency still exists and grants oral approval,  commence additional changes if necessary; and 
    c. Submit a written supplement to  the permit within seven working days of notifying the director with a  written description of the emergency and action taken. The supplement  shall contain a description of the activity which was changed, a description of  the new activity, and any amended data, maps, plats, or other information  required by the director. An incident report may also be required as  provided for in 4VAC25-150-380.
    Any changes to the permit are to be  temporary and restricted to those that are absolutely necessary to minimize  danger. Any permanent changes to the permit shall require a permit modification  as provided for in subsection B of this section.
    B. Permit modifications. 
    1. Applicability. All changes to the  permit which do not fit the description contained in subsection A of this  section shall require a permit modification in accordance with § 45.1-361.29 of  the Code of Virginia. 
    2. Notice and fees. Notice of a permit  modification shall be given in accordance with § 45.1-361.30 of the Code of  Virginia. The application for a permit modification shall be accompanied, as  applicable, by the fee in accordance with § 45.1-361.29 of the Code of Virginia  and the bond in accordance with § 45.1-361.31 of the Code of Virginia. 
    3. Waiver of right to object. Upon  receipt of notice, any person may, on a form approved by the director, waive  the time requirements and their right to object to a proposed permit  modification. The department shall be entitled to rely upon the waiver to  approve the permit modification. 
    4. Permit modification. The permittee  shall submit a written application for a permit modification on a form prescribed  by the director. The permittee may not undertake the proposed work until the  permit modification has been issued. The As appropriate, the  application shall include, but not be limited to: 
    a. The name and address of: 
    (1) The permittee; and 
    (2) Each person whom the applicant must  notify under § 45.1-361.30 of the Code of Virginia; 
    b. The certifications required in § 45.1-361.29 E of the Code of Virginia; 
    c. The proof of notice required in § 45.1-361.29 E of the Code of Virginia, as provided for in 4VAC25-150-80 C 3; 
    d. Identification of the type of work  for which a permit modification is requested; 
    e. The plat in accordance with  4VAC25-150-90; 
    f. All data, maps, plats and plans in  accordance with 4VAC25-150-100 necessary to describe the activity proposed to  be undertaken; 
    g. When the permit modification includes  abandoning a gas or oil well as a water well, a description of the plugging to  be completed up to the water-bearing formation and a copy of the permit issued  for the water well by the Virginia Department of Health; 
    h. The information required for  operations involving hydrogen sulfide in accordance with 4VAC25-150-350 if  applicable to the proposed operations; 
    i. The location where the Spill  Prevention Control and Countermeasure (SPCC) plan is available, if one has been  developed for the site of the proposed operations; 
    j. The Department of Mines, Minerals and  Energy, Division of Mined Land Reclamation's permit number for any area  included in a Division of Mined Land Reclamation permit; and 
    k. The information, as appropriate,  required in 4VAC25-150-500, 4VAC25-150-560, or 4VAC25-150-670, or  4VAC25-150-720. 
    4VAC25-150-120.  Transfer of permit rights.
    A. Applicability.
    1. No transfer of rights granted by a  permit shall be made without prior approval from the director. 
    2. Any approval granted by the director  of a transfer of permit rights shall be conditioned upon the proposed new  operator complying with all requirements of the Act, this chapter and the  permit. 
    B. Application. Any person requesting  a transfer of rights granted by a permit shall submit a written application on  a form prescribed by the director. The application shall be accompanied by a  fee of $65 $75 and bond, in the name of the person requesting the  transfer, in accordance with § 45.1-361.31 of the Code of Virginia. The  application shall contain, but is not limited to: 
    1. The name and address of the current  permittee, the current permit number and the name of the current operation; 
    2. The name and address of the proposed new  operator and the proposed new operations name; 
    3. Documentation of approval of the  transfer by the current permittee; 
    4. If the permit was issued on or before  September 25, 1991, an updated operations plan, in accordance with  4VAC25-150-100, showing how all permitted activities to be conducted by the  proposed new permittee will comply with the standards of this chapter; 
    5. If the permit was issued on or before  September 25, 1991, for a well, a plat meeting the requirements of  4VAC25-150-90 updated to reflect any changes on the site, newly discovered data  or additional data required since the last plat was submitted, including the  change in ownership of the well; and 
    6. If the permit was issued on or before  September 25, 1991, if applicable, the docket number and date of recordation of  any order issued by the board for a pooled unit, pertaining to the current  permit. 
    C. Standards for approval. The  director shall not approve the transfer of permit rights unless when  the proposed new permittee: 
    1. Has registered with the department in  accordance with § 45.1-361.37 of the Code of Virginia; 
    2. Has posted acceptable bond in  accordance with § 45.1-361.31 of the Code of Virginia; and 
    3. Has no outstanding debt pursuant to § 45.1-361.32 of the Code of Virginia. 
    D. The new permittee shall be  responsible for any violations of or penalties under the Act, this chapter, or  conditions of the permit after the director has approved the transfer of permit  rights. 
    4VAC25-150-135.  Waiver of right to object to permit applications. 
    Upon receipt of notice, any  person may, on a form approved by the director, waive the time requirements and  their right to object to a proposed permit application. The department division  shall be entitled to rely upon the waiver to approve the permit application. 
    4VAC25-150-140.  Objections to permit applications.
    A. Objections shall be filed in  writing, at the office of the Division division, in accordance  with § 45.1-361.35 of the Code of Virginia. The director shall notify  affected parties of an objection as soon as practicable.
    B. If after the director has  considered notice to be given under 4VAC25-150-130 B of this chapter, a person  submits an objection with proof of receipt of actual notice within 15 days  prior to submitting the objection, then the director shall treat the objection  as timely. 
    C. Objections to an application  for a new or modified permit shall contain: 
    1. The name of the person objecting to  the permit; 
    2. The date the person objecting to the  permit received notice of the permit application; 
    3. Identification of the proposed  activity being objected to; 
    4. A statement of the specific reason  for the objection; 
    5. A request for a stay to the permit,  if any, together with justification for granting a stay; and 
    6. Any other information the person  objecting to the permit wishes to provide. 
    D. When deciding to convene a  hearing pursuant to § 45.1-361.35 of the Code of Virginia, the director shall  consider the following: 
    1. Whether the person objecting to the  permit has standing to object as provided in § 45.1-361.30 of the Code of  Virginia; 
    2. Whether the objection is timely; and 
    3. Whether the objection meets the  applicable standards for objections as provided in § 45.1-361.35 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    E. If the director decides not to  hear the objection, then he shall notify the person who objects and the permit  applicant in writing, indicating his reasons for not hearing the objection, and  shall advise the objecting person of his right to appeal the decision. 
    4VAC25-150-150.  Hearing and decision on objections to permit applications. 
    A. In any hearing on objections  to a permit application: 
    1. The hearing shall be an informal fact  finding hearing in accordance with the Administrative Process Act, § 9-6.14:11  2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia. 
    2. The permit applicant and any person  with standing in accordance with § 45.1-361.30 of the Code of Virginia may be  heard. 
    3. Any valid issue in accordance with § 45.1-361.35 of the Code of Virginia may be raised at the hearing. The director  shall determine the validity of objections raised during the hearing. 
    B. The director shall, as soon  after the hearing as practicable, issue his decision in writing and hand  deliver or send the decision by certified mail to all parties to the hearing. The  director shall mail the decision, or a summary of the decision, to all other  persons given notice of the hearing. The decision shall include: 
    1. The subject, date, time and location  of the hearing; 
    2. The names of the persons objecting to  the permit; 
    3. A summary of issues and objections  raised at the hearing; 
    4. Findings of fact and conclusions of  law; 
    5. The text of the decision, including  any voluntary agreement; and 
    6. Appeal rights. 
    C. Should the  director deny the permit issuance and allow the objection, a written notice of  the decision shall be sent to any person receiving notice of the permit.
    4VAC25-150-160.  Approval of permits and permit modifications. 
    A. Permits, permit modifications,  permit renewals, and transfer of permit rights shall be granted in writing  by the director. 
    B. The director may not issue a  permit, permit renewal, or permit modification prior to the end of the  time period for filing objections pursuant to § 45.1-361.35 of the Code of  Virginia unless, upon receipt of notice, any person may, on a form approved by  the director, waive the time requirements and their right to object to a  proposed permit application or permit modification application. The department  division shall be entitled to rely upon the waiver to approve the permit  application or permit modification. 
    C. The director may not issue a  permit to drill for gas or oil in Tidewater Virginia until he has considered  the findings and recommendations of the Department of Environmental Quality, as  provided for in § 62.1-195.1 of the Code of Virginia and, where appropriate,  has required changes in the permitted activity based on the Department of  Environmental Quality's recommendations. 
    D. The provisions of any order of  the Virginia Gas and Oil Board that govern a gas or oil well permitted by the  director shall become conditions of the permit. 
    4VAC25-150-180.  Notices of violation. 
    A. The director may issue a  notice of violation if he finds a violation of any of the following: 
    1. Chapter 22.1 (§ 45.1-361.1 et seq.)  of Title 45.1 of the Code of Virginia; 
    2. This chapter; 
    3. 4VAC25 Chapter 160 (4VAC25-160-10  et seq.) entitled "The Virginia Gas and Oil Board Regulation"; 
    4. Any board order; or 
    5. Any condition of a permit, which does  not create an imminent danger or harm for which a closure order must be issued  under 4VAC5-150-190. 
    B. A notice of violation shall be  in writing, signed, and set forth with reasonable specificity: 
    1. The nature of the violation,  including a reference to the section or sections of the Act, applicable  regulation, order or permit condition which has been violated; 
    2. A reasonable description of the  portion of the operation to which the violation applies, including an  explanation of the condition or circumstance that caused the portion of the  operation to be in violation, if it is not self-evident in the type of  violation itself; 
    3. The remedial action required, which  may include interim steps; and 
    4. A reasonable deadline for abatement,  which may include a deadline for accomplishment of interim steps. 
    C. The director may extend the  deadline for abatement or for accomplishment of an interim step, if the failure  to meet the deadline previously set was not caused by the permittee's lack of  diligence. An extension of the deadline for abatement may not be granted when  the permittee's failure to abate has been caused by a lack of diligence or  intentional delay by the permittee in completing the remedial action required. 
    D. If the permittee fails to meet  the deadline for abatement or for completion of any interim steps, the director  shall issue a closure order under 4VAC25-150-190. 
    E. The director shall terminate a  notice of violation by written notice to the permittee when he determines that  all violations listed in the notice of violation have been abated. 
    F. A permittee issued a notice of  violation may request, in writing to the director, an informal fact-finding  hearing to review the issuance of the notice. This written request should  shall be made within 10 days of receipt of the notice. The permittee may  request, in writing to the director, an expedited hearing. 
    G. A permittee is not relieved of  the duty to abate any violation under a notice of violation during an appeal of  the notice. A permittee may apply for an extension of the deadline for  abatement during an appeal of the notice. 
    H. The director shall issue a  decision on any request for an extension of the deadline for abatement under a  notice of violation within five days of receipt of such request. The director  shall conduct an informal fact-finding hearing, in accordance with the  Administrative Process Act, § 9-6.14:11 2.2-4019 of the Code of  Virginia, no later than 10 days after receipt of the hearing request. 
    I. The director shall affirm,  modify, or vacate the notice in writing to the permittee within five days of  the date of the hearing. 
    4VAC25-150-190.  Closure orders. 
    A. The director shall immediately  order a cessation of operations or of the relevant portion thereof, when he  finds any condition or practice which: 
    1. Creates or can be reasonably expected  to create an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, including  miners; or 
    2. Causes or can reasonably be expected  to cause significant, imminent, environmental harm to land, air or water  resources. 
    B. The director may order a  cessation of operations or of the relevant portion thereof, when: 
    1. A permittee fails to meet the  deadline for abatement or for completion of any interim step under a notice of  violation; 
    2. Repeated notices of violations have been  issued for the same condition or practice; or 
    3. Gas, oil or geophysical operations  are being conducted by any person without a valid permit from the Division of  Gas and Oil. 
    C. A closure order shall be in  writing, signed and shall set forth with reasonable specificity: 
    1. The nature of the condition, practice  or violation; 
    2. A reasonable description of the  portion of the operation to which the closure order applies; 
    3. The remedial action required, if any,  which may include interim steps; and 
    4. A reasonable deadline for abatement,  which may include deadline for accomplishment of interim steps. 
    D. A closure order shall require  the person subject to the order to take all steps the director deems necessary  to abate the violations covered by the order in the most expeditious manner  physically possible. 
    E. If a permittee fails to abate  a condition or practice or complete any interim step as required in a closure  order, the director shall issue a show cause order under 4VAC25-150-200. 
    F. The director shall terminate a  closure order by written notice to the person subject to the order when he  determines that all conditions, practices or violations listed in the order  have been abated. 
    G. A person issued a closure  order may request, in writing to the director, an informal fact-finding hearing  to review the issuance of the order within 10 days of receipt of the order. The  person may request, in writing to the director, an expedited hearing within  three days of receipt of the order. 
    H. A person is not relieved of  the duty to abate any condition under, or comply with, any requirement of a  closure order during an appeal of the order. 
    I. The director shall conduct an  informal fact-finding hearing, in accordance with the Administrative Process  Act, § 9-6.14:11 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia, no later  than 15 days after the order was issued, or in the case of an expedited  hearing, no later than five days after the order was issued. 
    J. The director shall affirm,  modify, or vacate the closure order in writing to the person the order was  issued to no later than five days after the date of the hearing. 
    4VAC25-150-200.  Show cause orders. 
    A. The director may issue a show  cause order to a permittee requiring justification for why his permit should  not be suspended or revoked whenever: 
    1. A permittee fails to abate a  condition or practice or complete any interim step as required in a closure  order; 
    2. A permittee fails to comply with the  provisions of 4VAC25 Chapter 160 (4VAC25-160-10 et seq.) entitled  "The Virginia Gas and Oil Board Regulation"; or 
    3. A permittee fails to comply with the  provisions of an order issued by the Virginia Gas and Oil Board. 
    B. A show cause order shall be in  writing, signed, and set forth with reasonable specificity: 
    1. The permit number of the operation  subject to suspension or revocation; and 
    2. The reason for the show cause order. 
    C. The permittee shall have five  days from receipt of the show cause order to request in writing an informal  fact-finding hearing. 
    D. The director shall conduct an  informal fact-finding hearing, in accordance with the Administrative Process  Act, § 9-6.14:11 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia, no later  than five days after receipt of the request for the hearing. 
    E. The director shall issue a  written decision within five days of the date of the hearing. 
    F. If the permit is revoked, the  permittee shall immediately cease operations on the permit area and complete  reclamation within the deadline specified in the order. 
    G. If the permit is suspended,  the permittee shall immediately commence cessation of operations on the permit  area and complete all actions to abate all conditions, practices or violations,  as specified in the order. 
    Article  4 
  Reporting 
    4VAC25-150-210.  Monthly reports. 
    A. Each producer shall submit a  monthly report, on a form prescribed by the director or in a format approved by  the director to the division no later than 45 90 days after the  last day of each month. 
    B. Reports of gas production. 
    1. Every producer of gas shall report in  Mcf the amount of production from each well. 
    2. Reports shall be summarized by county  or city. 
    3. Reports shall provide the date of any  new connection of a well to a gathering pipeline or other marketing system. 
    C. Reports of oil production. 
    1. Every producer of oil shall report in  barrels the amount of oil production, oil on hand and oil delivered from each  well. 
    2. Reports shall be summarized county or  city. 
    3. Reports shall provide the date of any  new connection of a well to a gathering pipeline or other marketing system. 
    D. Reports of shut-in wells. If a  well is shut-in or otherwise not produced during any month, it shall be so  noted on the monthly report. 
    4VAC25-150-220.  Annual reports. 
    A. Each permittee shall submit a  calendar-year annual report to the division by no later than March 31 of the  next year. 
    B. The annual report shall  include as appropriate: 
    1. A confirmation of the accuracy of the  permittee's current registration filed with the division or a report of any  change in the information; 
    2. The name, address and phone number or  numbers of the persons to be contacted at any time in case of an emergency; 
    3. Production of gas or oil on a  well-by-well and county-by-county or city-by-city basis for each permit or as  prescribed by the director and the average price received for each Mcf of gas  and barrel of oil; 
    4. Certification by the permittee that  the permittee has paid all severance taxes for each permit; and 
    5. When required, payment to the Gas and  Oil Plugging and Restoration Fund as required in § 45.1-361.32 of the Code of  Virginia.; and
    6. Certification by the permittee that  bonds on file with the director have not been changed.
    Article  5 
  Technical Standards 
    4VAC25-150-230.  Commencement of activity. 
    A. Gas, oil or geophysical activity  commences with ground-disturbing activity. 
    B. A permittee shall notify the  division at least two working days 48 hours prior to commencing  ground-disturbing activity, drilling a well or corehole, completing or  recompleting a well or plugging a well or corehole. The permittee shall notify  the division, either orally or in writing, of the permit number operation  name and the date and time that the work is scheduled to commence. Should  activities not commence as first noticed, the permittee shall make every effort  to update the division and reschedule the commencement of activity, indicating  the specific date and time the work will be commenced.
    C. For dry holes and in emergency  situations, the operator may shall notify the division, orally  or in writing, within two working days 48 hours of commencing  plugging activities. 
    4VAC25-150-240.  Signs.
    A. Temporary signs. Each  permittee shall keep a sign posted at the point where the access road enters  the permitted area of each well or corehole being drilled or tested, showing  the name of the well or corehole permittee, the well name and the permit  number, the telephone number for the Division of Gas and Oil and a telephone  number to use in case of an emergency or for reporting problems. 
    The sign shall be posted from the  commencement of construction until: 
    1. The well is completed; 
    2. The dry hole or corehole is plugged; 
    3. The site is stabilized; or 
    4. The permanent sign is posted. 
    B. Permanent signs. Each  permittee shall keep a permanent sign posted in a conspicuous place on or near  every producing well or well capable of being placed into production and on  every associated facility. For any well drilled or sign replaced after  September 25, 1991, the sign shall: 
    1. Be a minimum of 18 inches by 14  inches in size; 
    2. Contain, at a minimum, the  permittee's name, the well name and the permit number, the Division of Gas and  Oil phone number and the telephone number to use in case of an emergency or for  reporting problems; 
    3. Contain lettering a minimum of 1 ¼  1-1/4; inches high; and 
    4. For a well, be located on the well or  on a structure such as a meter house or pole located within 50 feet of the well  head. 
    C. Signs  designating "red zone" areas within the permit boundary are to be  maintained in good order, include reflective material or be lighted so to be  visible at night, and located as prescribed by the operator’s "red  zone" safety plan internal to the operations plan.
    C. D. All  signs shall be maintained or replaced as necessary to be kept in a legible condition.  
    4VAC25-150-250.  Blasting and explosives. 
    A. Applicability. This section  governs all blasting on gas, oil or geophysical sites, except for: 
    1. Blasting being conducted as part of  seismic exploration where explosives are placed and shot in a borehole to  generate seismic waves; or 
    2. Use of a device containing explosives  for perforating a well. 
    B. Certification. 
    1. All blasting on gas, oil and  geophysical sites shall be conducted by a person who is certified by the Board  of Mineral Mining Examiners, the Board of Coal Mining Examiners, or by the  Virginia Department of Housing and Community Development. 
    2. The director may accept a certificate  issued by another state in lieu of the certification required in subdivision B  1 of this section, provided the Board of Mineral Mining Examiners, the Board of  Coal Mining Examiners, or the Department of Housing and Community Development  has approved reciprocity with that state. 
    C. Blasting safety. Blasting  shall be conducted in a manner as prescribed by 4VAC25-110, Regulations  Governing Blasting in Surface Mining Operations, designed to prevent injury  to persons, or and damage to features described in the operations  plan under 4VAC25-150-100 B. 
    1. When blasting is conducted within 200  feet of a pipeline or high-voltage transmission line, the blaster shall take  due precautionary measures for the protection of the pipeline or high-voltage  transmission line, and shall notify the owner of the facility or his agent that  such blasting is intended. 
    2. Flyrock shall not be allowed to fall  farther from the blast than one-half the distance between the blast and the  nearest inhabited building, and in no case outside of the permitted area. 
    3. When blasting near a highway, the  blaster must ensure that all traffic is stopped at a safe distance from the  blast. Blasting areas shall be posted with warning signs. 
    4. All blasting shall be conducted  during daylight hours, one-half hour before sunrise to one-half hour after  sunset, unless approved by the director. 
    5. Misfires. 
    a. The handling of a misfired blast  shall be under the direct supervision of a certified blaster. 
    b. When a misfire occurs, the blaster  shall wait for at least 15 minutes or the period of time recommended by the  manufacturer of the explosives and the detonator, whichever is longer, before  allowing anyone to return to the blast site. 
    6. Blasting signals. 
    a. Before a blast is fired, a warning  signal audible to a distance of at least one-half mile shall be given by the  blaster in charge, who shall make certain that all surplus explosives are in a  safe place and that all persons are at a safe distance from the blast site or  under sufficient cover to protect them from the effects of the blast. 
    b. A code of warning signals shall be  established and posted in one or more conspicuous places on the permitted site,  and all employees shall be required to conform to the code. 
    7. Explosives and detonators shall be  placed in substantial, nonconductive, closed containers (such as those  containers meeting standards prescribed by the Institute of Makers of  Explosives) when brought on the permitted site. Explosives and detonators shall  not be kept in the same container. Containers shall be posted with warning  signs. 
    8. Storage of explosives and detonators  on gas, oil or geophysical sites is allowed only with prior approval by the  director. 
    9. The permittee shall report to the  Division of Gas and Oil by the quickest means possible any theft or  unaccounted-for loss of explosives. When reporting such a theft or loss, the  permittee shall indicate other local, state and federal authorities contacted. 
    10. Damaged or deteriorated explosives  and detonators shall be destroyed by a certified blaster in accordance with the  manufacturer's recommendations. 
    D. Ground  vibration. 
    1. The ground-vibration limits in this  subsection shall not apply on surface property owned or leased by the  permittee, or on property for which the surface owner gives a written waiver  specifically releasing the operator from the limits. 
    2. Blasting without seismographic  monitoring. Blasting may be conducted by a certified blaster without  seismographic monitoring provided the maximum charge is determined by the  formula W = (D/Ds)² where W is the maximum weight of explosive in  pounds per delay (eight milliseconds or greater); D is the actual distance in  feet from the blast location to the nearest inhabited building; and Ds  is the scaled distance factor to be applied without seismic monitoring, as  found in Table 1.25.D-1. 
           | TABLE 1.25.D-1: MAXIMUM    ALLOWABLE PEAK VELOCITY
 | 
       | Distance (D) from blasting site    in feet
 | Maximum allowable peak particle    velocity (Vmax) for ground vibration, in inches/second
 | Scaled Distance Factor (Ds)    to be applied without seismic monitoring
 | 
       | 0 to 300
 | 1.25
 | 50
 | 
       | 301 to 5000
 | 1.00
 | 55
 | 
       | 5001 and beyond
 | 0.75
 | 65
 | 
  
    3. Blasting with seismographic  monitoring. 
    a. A permittee may use the  ground-vibration limits in Table 1.25.D-2 to determine the maximum allowable  peak particle velocity. If Table 1.25.D-2 is used, a seismographic record  including both particle velocity and vibration-frequency levels shall be  provided for each blast. The method for the analysis of the predominant  frequency contained in the blasting records shall be approved by the director  before implementation of this alternative blasting level. 
    b. The permittee may choose to record  every blast. As long as the seismographic records indicate particle velocities  have remained within the limits prescribed in Tables 1.25.D-1 or 1.25.D-2, the  permittee shall be considered to be in compliance with this subsection. 
     
         
      
         
          .§§
    c. Ground vibration shall be measured as  the particle velocity. Particle velocity shall be recorded in three mutually  perpendicular directions. The maximum allowable peak particle velocity shall  apply to each of the three measurements. 
    d. All seismic tests carried out for the  purposes of this section shall be analyzed by a qualified seismologist. 
    e. All seismic tests carried out for the  purposes of this section shall be conducted with a seismograph that has an  upper-end flat frequency response of at least 200 Hz. 
    E. Airblast  shall not exceed the maximum limits prescribed in Table 1.25.E-1 at the  location of any inhabited building. The 0.1 Hz or lower, flat response or  C-weighted, slow response shall be used only when approved by the director. 
           | Table    1.25.E-1: AIRBLAST LIMITS
 | 
       | Lower    Frequency Limit of measuring system,in Hz (+3db)
 | Measurement    Level,in db
 | 
       | 0.1 Hz or    Lower
 | Flat Response
 | 134 Peak
 | 
       | 2 Hz or Lower
 | Flat Response
 | 133 Peak
 | 
       | 6 Hz or Lower
 | Flat Response
 | 129 Peak
 | 
       | C-weighted
 | Slow Response
 | 105 Peak
 | 
  
    F. If the  director concludes that blasting on a particular site has potential to create  unsafe conditions, then he may: 
    1. Require the permittee to monitor  ground vibration and airblast for all blasts on the site for a specified period  of time; 
    2. Impose more stringent limits on  ground vibration and airblast levels than those specified in this section. The  director may order the permittee to obtain an evaluation of the blast site by a  vibration consultant or a technical representative of the explosives  manufacturer before imposing a more stringent limit. Blasting may not resume on  the site being evaluated until the evaluation and recommendations are submitted  to the director, and the director has given his approval. 
    G. Records. 
    1. The permittee shall keep records of  all blasts, and these records shall contain the following: 
    a. Name of company or contractor; 
    b. Location, date, and time of the  blast; 
    c. Name, signature, and certification  number of the blaster in charge; 
    d. Type of material blasted; 
    e. Number of holes; their burden and  spacing; 
    f. Diameter and depth of the holes; 
    g. Types of explosives used; 
    h. Total amount of explosives used per  hole; 
    i. Maximum weight of explosives per  delay period; 
    j. Method of firing and the type of  circuit; 
    k. Direction and distance in feet to the  nearest inhabited building; 
    l. Weather conditions (including wind  directions, etc.); 
    m. Height or length of stemming; 
    n. Description of any mats or other  protection used; 
    o. Type of detonators and delay periods  used; and 
    p. Any seismograph reports, including: 
    (1) The name and signature of the person  operating the seismograph; 
    (2) The name of the person analyzing the  seismograph record; 
    (3) The exact location of the  seismograph in relation to the blast; 
    (4) The date and time of the reading;  and 
    (5) The seismograph reading. 
    2. The permittee shall retain all  records of blasting, including seismograph reports, for at least three years.  On request, the permittee shall make these records available for inspection by  the director division. 
    4VAC25-150-260.  Erosion, sediment control and reclamation. 
    A. Applicability. Permittees  shall meet the erosion and sediment control standards of this section whenever  there is a ground disturbance for a gas, oil or geophysical operation.  Permittees shall reclaim the land to the standards of this section after the  ground-disturbing activities are complete and the land will not be used for  further permitted activities. 
    B. Erosion and sediment control  plan. Applicants for a permit shall submit an erosion and sediment control plan  as part of their operations plan. The plan shall describe how erosion and sedimentation  will be controlled and how reclamation will be achieved. 
    C. Erosion and sediment control  standards. Whenever ground is disturbed for a gas, oil or geophysical  operation, the following erosion and sediment control standards shall be met. 
    1. All trees, shrubs and other  vegetation shall be cleared as necessary before any blasting, drilling, or  other site construction, including road construction, begins. 
    a. Cleared vegetation shall be either  removed from the site, properly stacked on the permitted site for later use,  burned, or placed in a brush barrier if needed to control erosion and sediment  control. Only that material necessary for the construction of the permitted  site shall be cleared. When used as a brush barrier, the cleared vegetation shall  be cut and windrowed below a disturbed area so that the brush barrier will  effectively control sediment migration from the disturbed area. The material  shall be placed in a compact and uniform manner within the brush barrier and  not perpendicular to the brush barrier. Brush barriers shall be constructed so  that any concentrated flow created by the barrier is released into adequately  protected outlets and adequate channels. Large diameter trunks, limbs, and  stumps that may render the brush barrier ineffective for sediment control shall  not be placed in the brush barrier. 
    b. During construction of the  project, topsoil, soil sufficient to provide a suitable growth  medium for permanent stabilization with vegetation shall be segregated and  stockpiled. Soil stockpiles shall be stabilized used to stabilize the  site in accordance with the standards of subdivisions C 2 and C 3 of this  section to prevent erosion and sedimentation. 
    2. Except as provided for in  subdivisions C 5 and C 12 c of this section, permanent or temporary  stabilization measures shall be applied to denuded areas within 30 days of  achievement of final grade on the site unless the area will be redisturbed  within 30 days. 
    a. If no activity occurs on a site for a  period of 30 consecutive days then stabilization measures shall be applied to  denuded areas within seven days of the last day of the 30-day period. 
    b. Temporary stabilization measures  shall be applied to denuded areas that may not be at final grade but will be  left inactive for one year or less. 
    c. Permanent stabilization measures  shall be applied to denuded areas that are to be left inactive for more than  one year. 
    3. A permanent vegetative cover shall be  established on denuded areas to achieve permanent stabilization on areas not  otherwise permanently stabilized. Permanent vegetation shall not be considered  established until a ground cover is uniform, mature enough to survive and will  inhibit erosion. 
    4. Temporary sediment control structures  such as basins, traps, berms or sediment barriers shall be constructed prior to  beginning other ground-disturbing activity and shall be maintained until the  site is stabilized. 
    5. Stabilization measures shall be  applied to earthen structures such as sumps, diversions, dikes, berms and  drainage windows within 30 days of installation. 
    6. Sediment basins. 
    a. Surface runoff from disturbed areas  that is composed of flow from drainage areas greater than or equal to three  acres shall be controlled by a sediment basin. The sediment basin shall be  designed and constructed to accommodate the anticipated sediment loading from  the ground-disturbing activity. The spillway or outfall system design shall  take into account the total drainage area flowing through the disturbed area to  be served by the basin. 
    b. If surface runoff that is composed of  flow from other drainage areas is separately controlled by other erosion and  sediment control measures, then the other drainage area is not considered when  determining whether the three-acre limit has been reached and a sediment basin  is required. 
    7. Cut and fill slopes shall be designed  and constructed in a manner that will minimize erosion. No trees, shrubs,  stumps or other woody material shall be placed in fill. 
    8. Concentrated runoff shall not flow  down cut or fill slopes unless contained within an adequate temporary or  permanent channel, flume or slope drain structure. 
    9. Whenever water seeps from a slope  face, adequate drainage or other protection shall be provided. 
    10. All storm sewer inlets that are made  operable during construction shall be protected so that sediment-laden water  cannot enter the conveyance system without first being filtered or otherwise  treated to remove sediment. 
    11. Before newly constructed stormwater  conveyance channels or pipes are made operational, adequate outlet protection  and any required temporary or permanent channel lining shall be installed in  both the conveyance channel and receiving channel. 
    12. Live watercourses. 
    a. When any construction required for  erosion and sediment control, reclamation or stormwater management must be  performed in a live watercourse, precautions shall be taken to minimize  encroachment, control sediment transport and stabilize the work area.  Nonerodible material shall be used for the construction of causeways and  cofferdams. Earthen fill may be used for these structures if armored by  nonerodible cover materials. 
    b. When the same location in a live  watercourse must be crossed by construction vehicles more than twice in any  six-month period, a temporary stream crossing constructed of nonerodible  material shall be provided. 
    c. The bed and banks of a watercourse  shall be stabilized immediately after work in the watercourse is completed. 
    13. If more than 500 linear feet of  trench is to be open at any one time on any continuous slope, ditchline  barriers shall be installed at intervals no more than the distance in the  following table and prior to entering watercourses or other bodies of water. 
           |   | Distance    Barrier Spacing  | 
       |   | Percent of    Grade | Spacing of    Ditchline Barriers in Feet | 
       |   | 3–5 | 135 | 
       |   | 6–10 | 80 | 
       |   | 11–15 | 60 | 
       |   | 16+ | 40 | 
  
    14. Where construction vehicle access  routes intersect a paved or public road, provisions, such as surfacing the  road, shall be made to minimize the transport of sediment by vehicular tracking  onto the paved surface. Where sediment is transported onto a paved or public  road surface, the road surface shall be cleaned by the end of the day. 
    15. The design and construction or  reconstruction of roads shall incorporate appropriate limits for grade, width,  surface materials, surface drainage control, culvert placement, culvert size,  and any other necessary design criteria required by the director to ensure  control of erosion, sedimentation and runoff, and safety appropriate for their  planned duration and use. This shall include, at a minimum, that roads are to  be located, designed, constructed, reconstructed, used, maintained and  reclaimed so as to: 
    a. Control or prevent erosion and  siltation by vegetating or otherwise stabilizing all exposed surfaces in  accordance with current, prudent engineering practices; 
    b. Control runoff to minimize downstream  sedimentation and flooding; and 
    c. Use nonacid or nontoxic substances in  road surfacing. 
    16. Unless approved by the director, all  temporary erosion and sediment control measures shall be removed within 30 days  after final site stabilization or after the temporary measures are no longer  needed. Trapped sediment and the disturbed soil areas resulting from the  disposition of temporary measures shall be permanently stabilized within the  permitted area to prevent further erosion and sedimentation. 
    D. Final reclamation standards. 
    1. All equipment, structures or other  facilities not required for monitoring the site or permanently marking an  abandoned well or corehole shall be removed from the site, unless otherwise  approved by the director. 
    2. Each pipeline abandoned in place  shall be disconnected from all sources of natural gas or produced fluids and  purged. Each gathering line abandoned in place, unless otherwise agreed  to be removed under a right-of-way or lease agreement, shall be disconnected  from all sources and supplies of natural gas and petroleum, purged of liquid  hydrocarbons, depleted to atmospheric pressure, and cut off three feet below  ground surface, or at the depth of the gathering line, whichever is less, and  sealed at the ends. The operator shall provide to the division documentation of  the methods used, the date and time the pipeline was purged and abandoned, and  copies of any right of way or lease agreements that apply to the abandonment or  removal. 
    3. If final stabilization measures are  being applied to access roads or ground-disturbed pipeline rights-of-way, or if  the rights-of-way will not be redisturbed for a period of 30 days, water bars shall  be placed across them at 30-degree angles at the head of all pitched grades and  at intervals no more than the distance in the following table: 
           |   | Percent of    Grade | Spacing of    Water Bars in Feet | 
       |   | 3–5 | 135 | 
       |   | 6–10 | 80 | 
       |   | 11–15 | 60 | 
       |   | 16+ | 40 | 
  
    4. The permittee shall notify the  division when the site has been graded and seeded for final reclamation in  accordance with subdivision C 3 of this section. Notice may be given orally or  in writing. The vegetative cover shall be successfully maintained for a period  of two years after notice has been given before the site is eligible for bond  release. 
    5. If the land disturbed during gas, oil  or geophysical operations will not be reclaimed with permanent vegetative cover  as provided for in subsection C of this section, the permittee or applicant  shall, in the operations plan, request a variance to these reclamation  standards and propose alternate reclamation standards and an alternate schedule  for bond release. 
    E. The director may waive or  modify any of the requirements of this section that are deemed inappropriate or  too restrictive for site conditions. A permittee requesting a variance shall,  in writing, document the need for the variance and describe the alternate  measures or practices to be used. Specific variances allowed by the director  shall become part of the operations plan. The director shall consider variance  requests judiciously, keeping in mind both the need of the applicant to  maximize cost effectiveness and the need to protect off-site properties and resources  from damage. 
    4VAC25-150-280.  Logs and surveys. 
    A. Each permittee drilling a well  or corehole shall complete a driller's log, a gamma ray log or other log  showing the top and bottom points of geologic formations and any other log  required under this section. The driller's log shall state, at a minimum, the  character, depth and thickness of geological formations encountered, including  groundwater-bearing strata, coal seams, mineral beds and gas- or oil-bearing  formations. 
    B. When a permittee or the director  identifies that a well or corehole is to be drilled or deepened in an area of  the Commonwealth which is known to be underlain by coal seams, the following  shall be required: 
    1. The vertical location of coal seams  in the borehole well or corehole shall be determined and shown in  the driller's log and gamma ray or other log. 
    2. The horizontal location of the borehole  well or corehole in coal seams shall be determined through an  inclination survey from the surface to the lowest known coal seam. Each inclination  survey shall be conducted as follows: 
    a. The first survey point shall be taken  at a depth not greater than the most shallow coal seam; and 
    b. Thereafter shot points shall be taken  at each coal seam or at intervals of 200 feet, whichever is less, to the lowest  known coal seam. 
    3. Prior to drilling any borehole  into well or corehole within 500 feet of a coal seam in which  active mining is being conducted within 500 feet of where the borehole will  penetrate the seam where workers are assigned or travel, as well as any  connected sealed or gob areas, or where a mine plan is on file with the  Division of Mines, the permittee shall conduct an inclination survey to  determine whether the deviation of the bore hole well or corehole  exceeds one degree from true vertical. If the borehole well or  corehole is found to exceed one degree from vertical, then the permittee  shall:
    a. Immediately cease operations; 
    b. Immediately notify the coal owner and  the division; 
    c. Conduct a directional survey to  drilled depth to determine both horizontal and vertical location of the borehole  well or corehole; and 
    d. Unless granted a variance by the  director, correct the borehole well or corehole to within one  degree of true vertical. 
    4. Except as provided for in subdivision  B 3 of this section, if the deviation of the borehole well or  corehole exceeds one degree from true vertical at any point between the  surface and the lowest known coal seam, then the permittee shall: 
    a. Correct the borehole well  or corehole to within one degree of true vertical; or 
    b. Conduct a directional survey to the  lowest known coal seam and notify the coal owner of the actual borehole well  or corehole location. 
    5. The director may grant a variance to  the requirements of subdivisions B 3 and B 4 of this section only after the  permittee and coal owners have jointly submitted a written request for a  variance stating that a directional survey or correction to the borehole  well or corehole is not needed to protect the safety of any person  engaged in active coal mining or to the environment. 
    6. If the director finds that the lack  of assurance of the horizontal location of the bore of a well or  corehole to a known coal seam poses a danger to persons engaged in active coal  mining or the lack of assurance poses a risk to the public safety or the  environment, the director may, until 30 days after a permittee has filed the  completion report required in 4VAC25-150-360, require that a directional survey  be conducted by the permittee. 
    7. The driller's log shall be updated on  a daily basis. The driller's log and results of any other required survey shall  be kept at the site until drilling and casing or plugging a dry hole or  corehole are completed. 
    4VAC25-150-300.  Pits. 
    A. General requirements. 
    1. Pits are to be temporary in nature  and are to be reclaimed when the operations using the pit are complete. All  pits shall be reclaimed within 90 days unless a variance is requested and  granted by the field inspector.
    2. Pits may not be used as erosion and  sediment control structures or stormwater management structures, and surface  drainage may not be directed into a pit. 
    3. Pits shall have a properly installed  and maintained liner or liners made of 10 mil or thicker high-density  polyethylene or its equivalent. 
    B. Technical  requirements. 
    1. 4. Pits shall be  constructed of sufficient size and shape to contain all fluids and maintain a  two-foot freeboard. 
    2. Pits shall be lined in accordance  with the requirements for liners in subdivision A 3 of this section. If solids  are not to be disposed of in the pit, the permittee may request a variance to  the liner specifications. 
    C. B.  Operational requirements. 
    1. The integrity of lined pits must be  maintained until the pits are reclaimed or otherwise closed. Upon failure of the  lining or pit, the operation shall be shut down until the liner and pit are  repaired or rebuilt. The permittee shall notify the division, by the quickest  available means, of any pit leak. 
    2. Motor oil and, to the extent  practicable, crude oil shall be kept out of the pit. Oil shall be collected and  disposed of properly. Litter and other solid waste shall be collected and  disposed of properly and not thrown into the pit. 
    3. At the conclusion of drilling and  completion operations or after a dry hole, well or corehole has been plugged,  the pit shall be drained in a controlled manner and the fluids disposed of in  accordance with 4VAC25-150-420. If the pit is to be used for disposal of  solids, then the standards of 4VAC25-150-430 shall be met. 
    4VAC25-150-310.  Tanks.
    A. All tanks installed on or  after September 25, 1991, shall be designed and constructed to contain the  fluids to be stored in the tanks and prevent unauthorized discharge of fluids. 
    B. All tanks shall be maintained  in good condition and repaired as needed to ensure the structural integrity of  the tank. 
    C. Every permanent tank or  battery of tanks shall be surrounded by a have secondary  containment achieved by constructing a dike or firewall with a capacity  of 1½ 1-1/2 times the volume of the single tank, or largest  tank in a battery of tanks largest tank when plumbed at the top, or all  tanks when plumbed at the bottom, utilizing a double wall tank or another  method approved by the division.
    D. Dikes and firewalls shall be  maintained in good condition, and the reservoir shall be kept free from brush,  water, oil or other fluids. 
    E. Permittees shall inspect the  structural integrity of tanks and tank installations, at a minimum, annually.  The report of the annual inspection shall be maintained by the permittee for a  minimum of three years and be submitted to the director upon request. 
    F. Load lines shall be properly  constructed and operated on the permitted area. 
    4VAC25-150-340.  Drilling fluids. 
    A. Operations plan requirements.  Applicants for a permit shall provide, prior to commencing drilling,  documentation that the water meets the requirements of subsection B of this  section, and a general description of the additives and muds to be used in all  stages of drilling. Providing that the requirement in 4VAC25-150-340 C is met,  variations necessary because of field conditions may be made with prior  approval of the director and shall be documented in the driller's log. 
    B. Water quality in drilling. 
    1. Before the water-protection string is  set, permittees shall use one of the following sources of water in drilling: 
    a. Water that is from a water well or  spring located on the drilling site; or 
    b. Conduct an analysis of groundwater  within 500 feet of the drilling location, and use: 
    (1) Water which is of equal or better  quality than the groundwater; or 
    (2) Water which can be treated to be of  equal or better quality than the groundwater. A treatment plan must be included  with the application if water is to be treated. 
    If, after a diligent search, a groundwater  source (such as a well or spring) cannot be found within 500 feet of the  drilling location, the applicant may use water meeting the parameters listed in  the Department of Environmental Quality's "Water Quality Criteria for  Groundwater," 9VAC25-260-230 et seq. The analysis shall include, but is  not limited to, the following items: 
    (1) Chlorides; 
    (2) Total dissolved solids; 
    (3) Hardness; 
    (4) Iron; 
    (5) Manganese; 
    (6) PH; 
    (7) Sodium; and 
    (8) Sulfate. 
    Drilling water analysis shall be taken  within a one-year period preceding the drilling application.
    2. After the water-protection string is  set, permittees may use waters that do not meet the standards of subdivision B  1 of this section. 
    C. Drilling muds. No permittee  may use an oil-based drilling fluid or other fluid which has the potential to  cause acute or chronic adverse health effects on living organisms unless a  variance has been approved by the director. Permittees must explain the need to  use such materials and provide the material data safety sheets. In reviewing  the request for the variance, the director shall consider the concentration of  the material, the measures to be taken to control the risks, and the need to  use the material. Permittees shall also identify what actions will be taken to  ensure use of the additives will not cause a lessening of groundwater quality. 
    4VAC25-150-360.  Drilling, completion and other reports. 
    A. Each permittee conducting  drilling shall file, electronically or on a form prescribed by the  director, a drilling report within 30 90 days after a well  reaches total depth. 
    B. Each permittee drilling a well  shall file, electronically or on a form prescribed by the director, a  completion report within 30 90 days after the well is completed. 
    C. The permittee shall file the  driller's log, the results of any other log or survey required to be run in  accordance with this chapter or by the director, and the plat showing the  actual location of the well with the drilling report, unless they have been  filed earlier. 
    D. The permittee shall, within two  years 90 days of reaching total depth, file with the division the  results of any gamma ray, density, neutron and induction logs, or their  equivalent, that have been conducted on the wellbore in the normal course of  activities that have not previously been required to be filed. 
    4VAC25-150-380. Accidents  Incidents, spills and unpermitted discharges.
    A. Accidents. Incidents.  A permittee shall, by the quickest available means, notify the director division  in the event of any unplanned off-site disturbance, fire, blowout, pit  failure, hydrogen sulfide release, unanticipated loss of drilling fluids, or  other accident incident resulting in serious personal injury  or an actual or potential imminent danger to a worker, the  environment, or public safety or welfare. The permittee shall  take immediate action to abate the actual or potential danger. The permittee  shall submit a written or electronic report within seven days of the  incident containing: 
    1. A description of the incident and its  cause; 
    2. The date, time and duration of the  incident; 
    3. A description of the steps that have  been taken to date; and 
    4. A description of the steps planned to  be taken to prevent a recurrence of the incident. ; and
    5. Other agencies notified.
    B. On-site spills. 
    1. A permittee shall take all reasonable  steps to prevent, minimize, or correct any spill or discharge of fluids on a  permitted site which has a reasonable likelihood of adversely affecting human  health or the environment. All actions shall be consistent with the  requirements of an abatement plan, if any has been set, in a notice of  violation or closure, emergency or other order issued by the director. 
    2. A permittee shall orally report  on-site spills or unpermitted discharges of fluids which are not required to be  reported in subsection A of this section to the division within 24 hours. The  oral report shall provide all available details of the incident, including any  adverse effects on any person or the environment. A written report shall be submitted  within seven days of the spill or unpermitted discharge. The written report  shall contain: 
    a. A description of the incident and its  cause; 
    b. The period of release, including  exact dates and times; 
    c. A description of the steps to date;  and 
    d. A description of the steps to be  taken to prevent a recurrence of the release. 
    C. Off-site spills. Permittees  shall submit a written report of any spill or unpermitted discharge of fluids  that originates off of a permitted site with the monthly report under  4VAC25-150-210. The written report shall contain: 
    1. A listing of all agencies contacted  about the spill or unpermitted discharge; and 
    2. All actions taken to contain, clean  up or mitigate the spill or unpermitted discharge. 
    4VAC25-150-390.  Shut-in wells.
    A. If a well is shut-in or  otherwise not produced for a period of 12 consecutive months, the permittee  shall measure the shut-in pressure on the production string or strings and  report such pressures to the division annually. If the well is producing on  the backside or otherwise through the casing, the permittee shall measure the  shut-in pressure on the annular space. 
    B. A report of the pressure  measurements on the nonproducing well shall be maintained and  reported to the director annually by the permittee for a minimum maximum  period of three two years and be submitted to the director  upon request. 
    C. Should the  well remain in a nonproducing status for a period of two years, the permittee  shall submit either a well plugging plan or a future well production plan to  the director. A nonproducing well shall not remain unplugged for more than a  three-year period unless approved by the director.
    4VAC25-150-420.  Disposal of pit and produced fluids. 
    A. Applicability. All fluids from  a well, pipeline or corehole shall be handled in a properly constructed pit,  tank or other type of container approved by the director. 
    A permittee shall not dispose of  fluids from a well, pipeline or corehole until the director has approved the  permittee's plan for permanent disposal of the fluids. Temporary storage of pit  or produced fluids is allowed with the approval of the director. Other fluids  shall be disposed of in accordance with the operations plan approved by the  director. 
    B. Application and plan. The  permittee shall submit an application for either on-site or off-site permanent  disposal of fluids on a form prescribed by the director. Maps and a narrative  describing the method to be used for permanent disposal of fluids must  accompany the application if the permittee proposes to land apply any fluids on  the permitted site. The application, maps, and narrative shall become part of  the permittee's operations plan. 
    C. Removal of free fluids. Fluids  shall be removed from the pit to the extent practical so as to leave no free  fluids. In the event that there are no free fluids for removal, the permittee  shall report this on the form provided by the director. 
    D. On-site disposal. The  following standards for on-site land application of fluids shall be met: 
    1. Fluids to be land-applied shall meet the parameters listed  in the Department of Environmental Quality's "Water Quality Criteria for  Groundwater" (9VAC25-260-230 et seq.). following criteria: 
    Acidity: <alkalinity 
    Alkalinity: >acidity
    Chlorides: <5,000 mg/l
    Iron: <7 mg/l
    Manganese: <4 mg/l
    Oil and Grease: < 15 mg/l
    pH: 6-9 Standard Units
    Sodium Balance: SAR of 8-12
    Sodium Balance: SAR of 8-12
    2. Land application of fluids shall be confined to the  permitted area. 
    3. Fluids shall be applied in a manner which will not cause erosion  or runoff. The permittee shall take into account site conditions such as slope,  soils and vegetation when determining the rate and volume of land application  on each site. As part of the application narrative, the permittee shall show  the calculations used to determine the maximum rate of application for each  site. 
    4. Fluid application shall not be conducted when the ground is  saturated, snow-covered or frozen. 
    5. The following buffer zones shall be maintained unless a  variance has been granted by the director: 
    a. Fluid shall not be applied closer  than 25 feet from highways or property lines not included in the acreage shown  in the permit. 
    b. Fluid shall not be applied closer  than 50 feet from surface watercourses, wetlands, natural rock outcrops, or  sinkholes. 
    c. Fluid shall not be applied closer  than 100 feet from water supply wells or springs. 
    6. The permittee shall monitor  vegetation for two years after the last fluid has been applied to a site. If  any adverse effects are found, the permittee shall report the adverse effects  in writing to the division. 
    7. The director may require monitoring  of groundwater quality on sites used for land application of fluids to  determine if the groundwater has been degraded. 
    E. Off-site disposal of fluids. 
    1. Each permittee using an off-site  facility for disposal of fluids shall submit: 
    a. A copy of a valid permit for the  disposal facility to be used; and 
    b. Documentation that the facility will  accept the fluids. 
    2. Each permittee using an off-site  facility for disposal of fluids shall use a waste-tracking system to document  the movement of fluids off of a permitted site to their final disposition.  Records compiled by this system shall be reported to the division annually  and available for inspection on request. Such records shall be retained  until such time the injection well is reclaimed and has passed bond release.
    4VAC25-150-460.  Identifying plugged wells and coreholes; plugging affidavit.
    A. Abandoned wells and coreholes  shall be permanently marked in a manner as follows:
    1. The marker shall extend not less than  30 inches above the surface and enough below the surface to make the marker  permanent. 
    2. The marker shall indicate the  permittee's name, the well name, the permit number and date of plugging. 
    B. A permittee may apply for a  variance from the director to use alternate permanent markers. Such alternate  markers shall provide sufficient information for locating the abandoned well or  corehole. Provisions shall also be made to provide for the physical detection  of the abandoned well or corehole from the surface by magnetic or other means including  a certified map with the utilization of current GPS surveys.
    C. When any well or corehole has  been plugged or replugged in accordance with 4VAC25-150-435, two persons,  experienced in plugging wells or coreholes, who participated in the plugging of  a well or corehole, shall complete the plugging affidavit designated by the  director, setting forth the time and manner in which the well or corehole was  plugged and filled, and the permanent marker was placed.
    D. One copy of the plugging  affidavit shall be retained by the permittee, one shall be mailed to any coal  owner or operator on the tract where the well or corehole is located, and one  shall be filed with the division within 30 90 days after the day  the well was plugged. 
    Part  II 
  Conventional Gas and Oil Wells and Class II Injection Wells
    4VAC25-150-490.  Applicability, conventional gas and oil wells and Class II injection wells.
    A. Part II of this chapter sets  forth requirements unique to conventional gas and oil wells and wells  classified as Class II injection wells by the United States, Environmental  Protection Agency under 40 CFR Part 146, Section 146.5. 
    B. Permittees must comply with  the standards of general applicability in Part I of this chapter and with the  standards for conventional gas and oil and Class II injection wells in this  part, except that whenever the Environmental Protection Agency imposes a  requirement under the Underground Injection Control (UIC) Program, 40 CFR Part  146, Sections 146.3, 146.4, 146.5, 146.6, 146.7, 146.8, 146.22 and 146.23 that  governs an activity also governed by this chapter, the Environmental Protection  Agency requirement shall control and become part of the permit issued under  this chapter. 
    C. An application for a permit  for a Class II injection well which has not been previously drilled under a  permit from the director shall be submitted as an application for a new permit.  An application for a permit for conversion of a permitted gas or oil well to a  Class II injection well shall be submitted as an application for a permit  modification. 
    D. The director shall not issue a  permit for a Class II injection well until after the Environmental Protection  Agency has issued its permit for the injection well. 
    4VAC25-150-500.  Application for a permit, conventional well or Class II injection well. 
    A. In addition to the  requirements of 4VAC25-150-80 or 4VAC25-150-110, every application for a permit  or permit modification for a conventional gas or oil well or a Class II  injection well shall contain: 
    1. The approximate depth to which the  well is proposed to be drilled or deepened, or the actual depth to which the  well has been drilled; 
    2. The approximate depth and thickness,  if applicable, of all known coal seams, known groundwater-bearing strata, and  other known gas or oil strata between the surface and the depth to which the  well is proposed to be drilled; 
    3. If casing or tubing is proposed to be  or has been set, a description of the entire casing program, including the size  of each string of pipe, the starting point and depth to which each string is to  be or has been set, and the extent to which each string is to be or has been  cemented; and 
    4. If the proposed work is for a Class  II injection well, a copy of either the permit issued by, or the permit  application filed with the Environmental Protection Agency under the  Underground Injection Control Program. 
    5. An explanation of the procedures to  be followed to protect the safety of persons working in and around an  underground coal mine for any conventional well or Class II injection well to  be drilled within 200 feet of areas where workers are assigned or travel, as  well as any connected sealed or gob areas, or where a one-year mine plan is on  file with the Division of Mines; which shall, at a minimum, require that notice  of such drilling be given by the permittee to the mine operator and the Chief  of the Division of Mines at least 10 working days prior to drilling.
    B. In addition to the  requirements of 4VAC25-150-80 and 4VAC25-150-110, every application for a  permit or permit modification for a conventional gas or oil well or a Class II  injection well may contain, if the proposed work is to drill, redrill or deepen  a well, a plan showing the proposed manner of plugging the well immediately  after drilling if the proposed well work is unsuccessful. 
    4VAC25-150-510.  Plats, conventional wells or Class II injection wells. 
    A. In addition to the  requirements of 4VAC25-150-90, every plat for a conventional gas or oil well  shall show: 
    1. The boundaries of any drilling unit  established by the board around the subject well; 
    2. The boundaries and acreage of the  tract on which the well is located or is to be located; 
    3. The boundaries and acreage of all  other tracts within one-half of the distance specified in § 45.1-361.17 of the  Code of Virginia or within one-half of the distance to the nearest well  completed in the same pool, whichever is less, or within the boundaries of a  drilling unit established by the board around the subject well; 
    4. Surface owners on the tract to be  drilled and on all other tracts within the unit where the surface of the earth  is to be disturbed; 
    5. All gas, oil or royalty owners on any  tract located within one half of the distance specified in § 45.1-361.17 of the  Code of Virginia or within one-half of the distance to the nearest well  completed in the same pool, whichever is less, or within the boundaries of a  drilling unit established by the board around the subject well; 
    6. Coal owners and mineral owners on the  tract to be drilled and on all other tracts located within 500 feet of the  subject well location; 
    7. Coal operators who have registered  operations plans with the department for activities located on the tract to be  drilled, or who have applied for or obtained a coal mine license, coal surface  mine permit or a coal exploration notice or permit from the department with  respect to all tracts within 500 feet of a proposed gas or oil well; 
    8. Any inhabited building, highway,  railroad, stream, permitted surface mine or permitted mine  opening within 500 feet of the proposed well; and 
    9. If the plat is for an enhanced oil  recovery injection well, any other well within 2,500 feet of the proposed or  actual well location, which shall be presumed to embrace the entire area to be  affected by an enhanced oil recovery injection well in the absence of a board  order establishing units in the target pool of a different size or  configuration. 
    B. If the well location is  underlain by known coal seams, or if required by the director, the well plat  shall locate the well and two permanent points or landmarks with reference to  the mine coordinate system if one has been established for the area of the well  location, and shall in any event show all other wells, surface mines and mine  openings within the scope of the plat. 
    4VAC25-150-520.  Setback restrictions, conventional wells or Class II injection wells. 
    No permit shall be issued for any  well to be drilled closer than 200 feet from any inhabited building unless site  conditions as approved by the director warrant the permission of a lesser  distance and there exists a lease or agreement between the operator and the  owner of the inhabited building. A copy of the lease or agreement shall accompany  the application for a permit. 
    4VAC25-150-530.  Casing requirements for conventional gas or oil wells. 
    A. Water-protection string. 
    1. Except as provided in subdivision A 5  of this section, the permittee shall set a water-protection string to a point  at least 300 feet below the surface or 50 feet below the deepest known  groundwater horizon, whichever is deeper, circulated and cemented in to the  surface. If the cement does not return to the surface, every reasonable attempt  shall be made to fill the annular space by introducing cement from the surface.  
    2. The operator shall test or require  the cementing company to test the cement mixing water for pH and temperature  prior to mixing the cement and to record the results on the cementing ticket. 
    3. After the cement is placed, the  operator shall wait a minimum of eight hours and allow the cement to achieve a  calculated compressive strength of 500 psi before drilling, unless the director  approves a shorter period of time. The wait-on-cement (WOC) time shall be  recorded within the records kept at the drilling rig while drilling is taking  place. 
    4. When requested by the director, the  operator shall submit copies of cement tickets or other documents that indicate  the above specifications have been followed. 
    5. A coal-protection string may also  serve as a water-protection string. 
    B. Coal-protection strings. 
    1. When any well penetrates coal seams  that have not been mined out, the permittee shall, except as provided in  subdivisions B 2 and B 3 of this section, set a coal-protection string. The  coal-protection string shall exclude all fluids, oil, gas and gas pressure  except that which is naturally present in each coal seam. The coal-protection  string shall also exclude all injected material or disposed waste from the coal  seams and the wellbore. The string of casing shall be set to a point at least  50 feet below the lowest coal seam, or as provided in subdivision B 3 of this  section, and shall be circulated and cemented from that point to the surface or  to a point not less than 50 feet into the water-protection string or strings  which are cemented to the surface. 
    2. For good cause shown, either before  or after the permit is issued, when the procedure specified in subdivision B 1  is demonstrated by the permittee as not practical, the director may approve a  casing program involving the cementing of a coal-protection string in multiple  stages, or the cementing of two or more coal-protection strings, or the use of  other alternative casing procedures. The director may approve the program  provided he is satisfied that the result will be operationally equivalent to  compliance with the provisions of subdivision B 1 of this section for the  purpose of permitting the subsequent safe mining through of the well or  otherwise protecting the coal seams as required by this section. In the use of  multiple coal-protection strings, each string below the topmost string shall be  cemented at least 50 feet into the next higher string or strings that are  cemented to the surface and be verified by a cement top log. 
    3. Depth of coal-protection strings: 
    a. A coal-protection string shall be set  to the top of the red shales in any area underlain by them unless, on a showing  by the permittee in the permit application, the director has approved the  casing point of the coal-protection string at some depth less than the top of  the red shales. In such event, the permittee shall conduct a gamma ray/density  log survey on an expanded scale to verify whether the well penetrates any coal  seam in the uncased interval between the bottom of the coal-protection string  as approved and the top of the red shales. 
    b. If an unanticipated coal seam or  seams are discovered in the uncased interval, the permittee shall report the  discovery in writing to the director. The permittee shall cement the next  string of casing, whether a part of the intermediate string or the production  string, in the applicable manner provided in this section for coal-protection  strings, from a point at least 50 feet below the lowest coal seam so discovered  to a point at least 50 feet above the highest coal seam so discovered. 
    c. The gamma ray/density log survey  shall be filed with the director at the same time the driller's log is filed  under 4VAC25-150-360. 
    d. When the director believes, after  reviewing documentation submitted by the permittee, that the total drilling in  any particular area has verified the deepest coal seam higher than the red  shales, so that further gamma ray/density logs on an expanded scale are  superfluous for the area, he may waive the constructing of a coal-protection  string or the conducting of such surveys deeper than 100 feet below the  verified depth of the deepest coal seam. 
    C. Coal-protection strings of  wells drilled prior to July 1, 1982. In the case of wells drilled prior to July  1, 1982, through coal seams without coal-protection strings substantially as  prescribed in subsection B of this section, the permittee shall retain such  coal-protection strings as were set. During the life of the well, the permittee  shall, consistent with a plan approved by the director, keep the annular spaces  between the various strings of casing adjacent to coal seams open to the extent  possible, and the top ends of all such strings shall be provided with casing  heads, or such other approved devices as will permit the free passage of gas or  oil and prevent filling of the annular spaces with dirt or debris. 
    D. Producing from more than one  stratum. The casing program for any well designed or completed to produce from  more than one stratum shall be designed in accordance with the appropriate  standard practices of the industry. 
    E. Casing through voids. 
    1. When a well is drilled through a  void, the hole shall be drilled at least 30 feet below the void, the annular  space shall be cemented from the base of the casing up to the void and to  the surface from the top of the void, and every reasonable attempt shall  be made to fill the annular space from the top of the void to the surface,  or it shall be cemented at least 50 feet into the next higher string or strings  of casing that are cemented to the surface and be verified by a cement top log.  
    2. For good cause shown, the director  may approve alternative casing procedures proposed by the permittee, provided  that the director is satisfied that the alternative casing procedures are  operationally equivalent to the requirements imposed by subdivision E 1 of this  section. 
    3. For good cause shown, the director  may impose special requirements on the permittee to prevent communication  between two or more voids. 
    F. A well penetrating a mine  other than a coal mine. In the event that a permittee has requested to drill a  well in such a location that it would penetrate any active mine other than a  coal mine, the director shall approve the safety precautions to be followed by  the permittee prior to the commencement of activity. 
    G. Reporting of lost circulation  zones. The permittee shall report to the director as soon as possible when an  unanticipated void or groundwater horizon is encountered that results in lost  circulation during drilling. The permittee shall take every necessary action to  protect the lost circulation zone. 
    Part  III 
  Coalbed Methane Gas Wells 
    4VAC25-150-550.  Applicability, coalbed methane wells. 
    Part III of this chapter sets  forth requirements unique to coalbed methane gas wells. Permittees must comply  with the standards of general applicability in Part I of this chapter and with  the standards for coalbed methane gas wells in this part. 
    4VAC25-150-560.  Application for a permit, coalbed methane well operations. 
    A. In addition to the  requirements of 4VAC25-150-80 or 4VAC25-150-110, every application for a permit  or permit modification for a coalbed methane gas well shall contain: 
    1. An identification of the category of  owner or operator, as listed in § 45.1-361.30 A of the Code of Virginia, that  each person notified of the application belongs to; 
    2. The signed consent required in § 45.1-361.29 of the Code of Virginia; 
    3. Proof of conformance with any mine  development plan in the vicinity of the proposed coalbed methane gas well, when  the Virginia Gas and Oil Board has ordered such conformance; 
    4. The approximate depth to which the  well is proposed to be drilled or deepened, or the actual depth if the well has  been drilled; 
    5. The approximate depth and thickness,  if applicable, of all known coal seams, known groundwater-bearing strata, and  other known gas or oil strata between the surface and the depth to which the  well is proposed to be drilled; 
    6. If casing or tubing is proposed to be  or has been set, a description of the entire casing program, including the size  of each string of pipe, the starting point and depth to which each string is to  be or has been set, and the extent to which each string is to be or has been  cemented together with any request for a variance under 4VAC25-150-580; 
    7. An explanation of the procedures to  be followed to protect the safety of persons working in and around an  underground coal mine for any coalbed methane gas well to be drilled within 200  feet of or into any area of an active underground coal mine areas  where workers are assigned or travel, as well as any connected sealed or gob  areas, or where a one-year mine plan is on file with the Division of Mines;  which shall, at a minimum, require that notice of such drilling be given by the  permittee to the mine operator and the Chief of the Division of Mines at  least two 10 working days prior to drilling within 200 feet of  or into the mine; and 
    8. If the proposed work is for a Class  II injection well, a copy of the Environmental Protection Agency permit, or a  copy of the application filed with the Environmental Protection Agency under  the Underground Injection Control Program. 
    B. In addition to the  requirements of 4VAC25-150-80 or 4VAC25-150-110, every application for a permit  or permit modification for a coalbed methane well or a Class II injection well  may contain, if the proposed work is to drill, redrill or deepen a well, a plan  showing the proposed manner of plugging the well immediately after drilling if the  proposed well work is unsuccessful so that the well must be plugged and  abandoned. 
    4VAC25-150-590.  Plats, coalbed methane wells.
    A. In addition to the  requirements of 4VAC25-150-90, every plat for a coalbed methane gas well shall  show: 
    1. Boundaries and acreage of any  drilling unit established by the board around the subject well; 
    2. Boundaries and acreage of the tract  on which the well is located or is to be located; 
    3. Boundaries and acreage of all other  tracts within one-half of the distance specified in § 45.1-361.17 of the Code  of Virginia or within one-half of the distance to the nearest well completed in  the same pool, whichever is less, or within the boundaries of a drilling unit  established by the board around the subject well; 
    4. Surface owners on the tract to be  drilled and on all other tracts within the unit where the surface of the earth  is to be disturbed; 
    5. All gas, oil or royalty owners on any  tract located within one-half of the distance specified in § 45.1-361.17 of the  Code of Virginia or within one-half of the distance to the nearest well  completed in the same pool, whichever is less, or within the boundaries of a  drilling unit established by the board around the subject well; 
    6. Coal owners and mineral owners on the  tract to be drilled and on all other tracts located within 750 feet of the  subject well location; 
    7. Coal operators who have registered  operations plans with the department for activities located on the tract to be  drilled, or who have applied for or obtained a coal mine license, coal surface  mine permit or a coal exploration notice or permit from the department with  respect to all tracts within 750 feet of a proposed gas or oil well; and 
    8. Any inhabited building, highway,  railroad, stream, permitted surface mine or permitted mine  opening within 500 feet of the proposed well. 
    B. The well plat shall locate the  well and two permanent points or landmarks with reference to the mine  coordinate system if one has been established for the area of the well  location, and shall show all other wells within the scope of the plat. 
    4VAC25-150-600.  Setback restrictions, coalbed methane wells. 
    No permit shall be issued for any  well to be drilled closer than 200 feet from any inhabited building, unless  site conditions as approved by the director warrant the permission of a lesser  distance, and there exists a lease or agreement between the operator and the  owner of the inhabited building. A copy of the lease or agreement shall  accompany the application for a permit. 
    4VAC25-150-610. Casing  requirements for coalbed methane gas wells. 
    A. Water protection string. 
    1. Except as provided in subdivision A 5  of this section, the permittee shall set a water-protection string set to a  point at least 300 feet below the surface or 50 feet below the lowest deepest  known groundwater horizon, whichever is deeper, circulated and cemented to  the surface. If cement does not return to the surface, every reasonable effort  shall be made to fill the annular space by introducing cement from the surface.  
    2. The operator shall test or require  the cementing company to test the cement mixing water for pH and temperature  prior to mixing the cement and to record the results on the cementing ticket. 
    3. After the cement is placed, the  operator shall wait a minimum of eight hours and allow the cement to achieve a  calculated compressive strength of 500 psi before drilling, unless the director  approves a shorter period of time. The wait-on-cement (WOC) time shall be  recorded within the records kept at the drilling rig while drilling is taking  place. 
    4. When requested by the director, the  operator shall submit copies of cement tickets or other documents that indicate  the above specifications have been followed. 
    5. A coal-protection string may also  serve as a water protection string. 
    B. Coal protection strings. 
    1. When any well penetrates coal seams  that have not been mined out, the permittee shall, except as provided in  subdivisions B 2 and B 3 of this section, set a coal-protection string. The  coal-protection string shall exclude all fluids, oil, gas, and gas pressure,  except that which is naturally present in each coal seam. The coal-protection  string shall also exclude all injected material or disposed waste from the coal  seams or the wellbore. The string of casing shall be set to a point at least 50  feet below the lowest coal seam, or as provided in subdivision B 3 of this  section, and shall be circulated and cemented from that point to the surface,  or to a point not less than 50 feet into the water-protection string or strings  which are cemented to the surface. 
    2. For good cause shown, either before  or after the permit is issued, when the procedure specified in subdivision B 1  is demonstrated by the permittee as not practical, the director may approve a  casing program involving: 
    a. The cementing of a coal-protection  string in multiple stages; 
    b. The cementing of two or more  coal-protection strings; or 
    c. The use of other alternative casing  procedures. 
    3. The director may approve the program,  provided he is satisfied that the result will be operationally equivalent to  compliance with the provisions of subdivision B 1 of this section for the  purpose of permitting the subsequent safe mining through the well or otherwise  protecting the coal seams as required by this section. In the use of multiple  coal-protection strings, each string below the topmost string shall be cemented  at least 50 feet into the next higher string or strings that are cemented to  the surface and be verified by a cement top log. 
    4. Depth of coal-protection strings. 
    a. A coal-protection string shall be set  to the top of the red shales in any area underlain by them unless, on a showing  by the permittee in the permit application, the director has approved the  casing point of the coal-protection string at some depth less than the top of  the red shales. In such event, the permittee shall conduct a gamma-ray/density  log survey on an expanded scale to verify whether the well penetrates any coal  seam in the uncased interval between the bottom of the coal-protection  string as approved and the top of the red shales. 
    b. If an unanticipated coal seam or  seams are discovered in the uncased interval, the permittee shall report the  discovery in writing to the director. The permittee shall cement the next string  of casing, whether a part of the intermediate string or the production string,  in the applicable manner provided in this section for coal-protection strings,  from a point at least 50 feet below the lowest coal seam so discovered to a  point at least 50 feet above the highest coal seam so discovered. 
    c. The gamma-ray/density log survey  shall be filed with the director at the same time the driller's log is filed  under 4VAC25-150-360. 
    d. When the director believes, after  reviewing documentation submitted by the permittee, that the total drilling in  any particular area has verified the deepest coal seam higher than the red  shales, so that further gamma-ray/density logs on an expanded scale are  superfluous for the area, he may waive the constructing of a coal-protection  string or the conducting of such surveys deeper than 100 feet below the  verified depth of the deepest coal seam. 
    C. Coal-protection strings of  wells drilled prior to July 1, 1982. In the case of wells drilled prior to July  1, 1982, through coal seams without coal-protection strings as prescribed in  subsection B of this section, the permittee shall retain such coal-protection  strings as were set. During the life of the well, the permittee shall,  consistent with a plan approved by the director, keep the annular spaces  between the various strings of casing adjacent to coal seams open to the extent  possible, and the top ends of all such strings shall be provided with casing  heads, or such other approved devices as will permit the free passage of gas or  oil and prevent filling of the annular spaces with dirt or debris. 
    D. Producing from more than one  stratum. The casing program for any well designed or completed to produce from  more than one stratum shall be designed in accordance with the appropriate  standard practices of the industry. 
    E. Casing through voids. 
    1. When a well is drilled through a  void, the hole shall be drilled at least 30 feet below the void. The annular  space shall be cemented from the base of the casing up to the void, and to  the surface from the top of the void every reasonable attempt shall be  made to fill up the annular space from the top of the void to the surface;  or it shall be cemented at least 50 feet into the next higher string or strings  of casing that are cemented to the surface, and shall be verified by a cement  top log. 
    2. For good cause shown, the director  may approve alternate casing procedures proposed by the permittee, provided  that the director is satisfied that the alternative casing procedures are  operationally equivalent to the requirements imposed by subdivision E 1 of this  section. 
    3. For good cause shown, the director  may impose special requirements on the permittee to prevent communication  between two or more voids. 
    F. A well penetrating a mine  other than a coal mine. In the event that a permittee has requested to drill a  well in such a location that it would penetrate any active mine other than a  coal mine, the director shall approve the safety precautions to be followed by  the permittee prior to the commencement of activity. 
    G. Production casing. 
    1. Unless otherwise granted in a  variance from the director: 
    a. For coalbed methane gas wells with  cased completions and cased/open hole completions, production casing shall be  set and cemented from the bottom of the casing to the surface or to a point not  less than 50 feet into the lowest coal-protection or water-protection string or  strings which are cemented to the surface. 
    b. For coalbed methane gas wells with  open hole completions, the base of the casing shall be set to not more than 100  feet above the uppermost coalbed which is to be completed open hole. The casing  shall be cemented from the bottom of the casing to the surface or to a point  not less than 50 feet into the lowest coal-protection or water-protection  string or strings which are cemented to the surface. 
    2. A coal-protection string may also  serve as production casing. 
    H. Reporting of lost circulation  zones. The permittee shall report to the director as soon as possible when an  unanticipated void or groundwater horizon is encountered that results in lost  circulation during drilling. The permittee shall take every necessary action to  protect the lost circulation zone. 
    4VAC25-150-620.  Coalbed methane gas wellhead equipment.
    Wellhead equipment and facilities  installed on any gob well or on any coalbed methane gas well subject to the  requirements of §§ 45.1-161.121 and 45.1-161.292 of the Code of Virginia  addressing mining near or through a well shall include a safety precaution  plan submitted to the director for approval. Such plans shall include, but are  shall not be limited to, flame arrestors, back-pressure systems,  pressure-relief systems, vent systems and fire-fighting equipment. The director  may require additional safety precautions or equipment to be installed  on a case-by-case basis. 
    4VAC25-150-630.  Report of produced waters, coalbed methane wells. 
    All coalbed methane gas well  operators are required to submit monthly reports of total produced waters  withdrawn from coalbed methane gas wells, in barrels, on a well-by-well basis,  with the monthly report submitted under 4VAC25-150-210 of this chapter. The  report shall show monthly produced water withdrawals and cumulative produced  water withdrawals. Such reports shall be available for inspection upon  request and maintained electronically or by hard copy until the well is  abandoned and reclaimed.
    4VAC25-150-650. Abandonment  through conversion Conversion of a coalbed methane well to a  vertical ventilation hole.
    A permittee wishing to abandon  convert a coalbed methane gas well as to a vertical  ventilation hole shall first obtain approval from the Chief of the Division  of Mines and submit an application a written request to the  division for a permit modification which includes approval from the  chief of the Division of Mines release. The director shall  consult with the chief, or his designated agent, before approving permit  release.
    Part  IV 
  Ground-Disturbing Geophysical Exploration 
    4VAC25-150-660.  Applicability, ground-disturbing geophysical activity.
    Part IV (4VAC25-150-660 et seq.)  of this chapter sets forth requirements unique to ground-disturbing geophysical  exploration. 
    4VAC25-150-670.  Application for a permit, geophysical activity or core holes.
    A. In accordance with  4VAC25-150-80 and 4VAC25-150-110, a permit shall be required for  ground-disturbing geophysical exploration. 
    B. In addition to the  requirements of 4VAC25-150-80 or 4VAC25-150-110, every application for a  corehole permit or permit modification under this part shall contain: 
    1. The approximate depth to which the  corehole is proposed to be drilled or deepened, or the actual depth if the  corehole has been drilled; 
    2. The approximate depth and thickness,  if applicable, of all known coal seams, known groundwater-bearing strata, and  other known gas or oil strata between the surface and the depth to which the  corehole is proposed to be drilled; 
    3. If casing is proposed to be set, the  entire casing program, including the diameter of each string of casing, the  starting point and depth to which each string is to be set, whether or not the  casing is to remain in the hole after the completion of drilling, and the  extent to which each string is to be cemented, if applicable; and 
    4. A plan which shows the proposed  manner of plugging or replugging the corehole.; and 
    5. An explanation of the procedures to  be followed to protect the safety of persons working in and around an  underground coal mine for any corehole to be drilled within 200 feet of areas  where workers are assigned or travel, as well as any connected sealed or gob  areas, or where a one-year mine plan is on file with the Division of Mines.  Such procedures shall, at a minimum, require that notice of such drilling be  given by the permittee to the mine operator and the Chief of the Division of  Mines at least 10 working days prior to drilling.
    4VAC25-150-680.  Plats, core holes. 
    A. In addition to the  requirements of 4VAC25-150-90, every plat for a corehole shall show: 
    1. The boundaries of the tract on which  the corehole is located or is to be located; 
    2. Surface owners on the tract to be  drilled and surface owners on the tracts where the surface is to be disturbed; 
    3. Coal owners and mineral owners on the  tract to be drilled; 
    4. Coal operators who have registered  operations plans with the department for activities located on the tract to be  drilled; and 
    5. Any inhabited building, highway,  railroad, stream, permitted surface mine or permitted mine  opening within 500 feet of the proposed corehole. 
    B. If the corehole location is  underlain by known coal seams, the plat shall locate the corehole and two  permanent points or landmarks with reference to the mine coordinate system if  one has been established for the area of the corehole location, and shall in  any event show all other wells within the scope of the plat. 
    4VAC25-150-690.  Operations plans, core holes. 
    In addition to the requirements  of 4VAC25-150-100, every operations plan for a corehole shall describe the  measures to be followed to protect water quality during the drilling, and the  measures to be followed to protect any voids encountered during drilling. 
    4VAC25-150-700.  Setback restrictions, core holes. 
    No permit shall be issued for any  corehole to be drilled closer than 200 feet from an inhabited building, unless  site conditions as approved by the director warrant the permission of a lesser  distance, and there exists a lease or agreement between the operator and the  owner of the inhabited building. A copy of the lease or agreement shall  accompany the application for a permit. 
    4VAC25-150-711.  Voids and lost circular circulation zones. 
    A. Casing through voids. 
    1. When a corehole is drilled through a  void, the hole shall be drilled at least 30 feet below the void. The annular  space shall be cemented from the base of the casing up to the void and to  the surface from the top of the void every reasonable attempt shall be  made to fill the annular space from the top of the void to the surface; or  it shall be cemented at least 50 feet into the next higher string or strings of  casing that are cemented to the surface and be verified by a cement top log. 
    2. For good cause shown, the director  may approve alternate casing procedures proposed by the permittee, provided  that the director is satisfied that the alternative casing procedures are  operationally equivalent to the requirements imposed by this section. 
    3. For good cause shown, the director  may impose special requirements on the permittee to prevent communication  between two or more voids. 
    B. Reporting of lost circulation  zones. The permittee shall report to the director as soon as possible when an  unanticipated void or groundwater horizon is encountered that results in lost  circulation during drilling. The permittee shall take every necessary action to  protect the lost circulation zone. 
    Part  V 
  Gathering Pipelines 
    4VAC25-150-720.  Applicability, gathering pipelines. 
    A. Part V (4VAC25-150-720 et  seq.) of this chapter sets forth requirements unique to gathering pipelines.  Permittees must comply with the standards for gathering pipelines in this part  and the following standards in Part I: 
    1. All of Article 1, "General  Information"; except 4VAC25-150-50, "Gas or oil in holes not  permitted as a gas or oil well"; 
    2. All of Article 2,  "Permitting"; except 4VAC25-150-90, "Plats"; 
    3. All of the sections in Article 3,  "Enforcement"; 
    4. 4VAC25-150-220, "Annual  reports,"; of Article 4, "Reporting"; 
    5. 4VAC25-150-230, 4VAC25-150-240,  4VAC25-150-250, 4VAC25-150-260, 4VAC25-150-270, 4VAC25-150-310, 4VAC25-150-350,  4VAC25-150-380, 4VAC25-150-410, 4VAC25-150-420, and 4VAC25-150-430 of Article  5, "Technical Standards"; and 
    6. 4VAC25-150-470, "Release of  bond,"; of Article 6, "Plugging and Abandonment.";.  
    B. A permit shall be required for  installation and operation of every gathering pipeline and associated  structures for the movement of gas or oil production from the wellhead to a  previously permitted gathering line, a transmission or other line regulated by  the United States Department of Transportation or the State Corporation  Commission, to the first point of sale, or for oil, to a temporary storage  facility for future transportation by a method other than a gathering pipeline.  
    C. Each gathering pipeline or  gathering pipeline system may be permitted separately from gas or oil wells or  may be included in the permit for the well being served by the pipeline. 
    4VAC25-150-730.  General requirements for gathering pipelines. 
    A. Gathering pipelines shall be  installed to be compatible with other uses of the area. 
    B. No permit shall be issued for  a gathering pipeline to be installed closer than 50 100 feet from  any inhabited building or railway, unless site conditions as approved by  the director warrant the use of a lesser distance and there exists a lease or  agreement between the operator, the inhabitants of the building and the  owner of the inhabited building or railway. A copy of the lease or  agreement shall accompany the application for a permit. 
    C. Materials used in gathering  pipelines shall be able to withstand anticipated conditions. At a minimum this  shall include: 
    1. All plastic gathering pipeline  connections shall be fused, not coupled. 
    2. All buried gathering pipelines shall  be detectable by magnetic or other remote means from the surface. 
    D. All new gathering pipelines  shall be tested to maintain a minimum of 110% of anticipated pressure prior to  being placed into service. 
    E. All gathering pipelines shall  be maintained in good operating condition at all times. 
    4VAC25-150-740.  Operations plans for gathering pipelines.
    A. For a gathering pipeline, the  operations plan shall be in a format approved by, or on a form prescribed by,  the director. 
    B. On a form prescribed by the  director, the operator shall indicate how risks to the public safety or to the  site and adjacent lands are to be managed, and shall provide a short narrative,  if pertinent. 
    4VAC25-150-750.  Inspections for gathering pipelines.
    Gathering pipelines shall be  visually inspected annually by the permittee. The results of each annual  inspection shall be maintained by the permittee for a minimum of three years  and be submitted to the director upon request. 
 270
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
VIRGINIA GAS AND OIL BOARD
Proposed Regulation
Title of Regulation: 4VAC25-160. Virginia Gas and Oil  Board Regulations (amending 4VAC25-160-10, 4VAC25-160-30,  4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50, 4VAC25-160-60, 4VAC25-160-70, 4VAC25-160-130,  4VAC25-160-190, 4VAC25-160-200).
    Statutory Authority: § 45.1-361.15  of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: 
    October 23, 2009 - 9 a.m. - Department of Mines, Minerals and  Energy, 3405 Mountain Empire Road, Buchanan-Smith Building, Conference Room  219, Big Stone Gap, VA
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Tabitha  Hibbitts Peace, Policy Analyst, Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, 3405  Mountain Empire Road, P.O. Drawer 900, Big Stone Gap, VA 24219, telephone (276)  523-8212, FAX (276) 523-8148, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email  tabitha.peace@dmme.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The Department of Mines,  Minerals and Energy (DMME) has authority to promulgate this regulation under  authority found in §§ 45.1-161.3, 45.1-361.4, and 45.1-361.15 of the Code  of Virginia.
    Section 45.1-161.3 of the Code of Virginia empowers  DMME, with the approval of the director, to promulgate regulations necessary or  incidental to the performance of duties or execution of powers under Title 45.1  of the Code of Virginia.
    Section 45.1-361.4 of the Code of Virginia empowers  the director with the power and duty to regulate gas, oil, or geophysical  operations, collect fees, and perform other responsibilities as may be  prescribed in regulations promulgated by the Department of Mines, Minerals and  Energy, or the Virginia Gas & Oil Board.
    Section 45.1-361.15 of the Code of Virginia empowers  the Virginia Gas and Oil Board to have the specific authority to issue rules,  regulations, or orders pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Purpose: The Department  of Mines, Minerals and Energy and the Virginia Gas and Oil Board have  determined the proposed regulatory amendments to various sections of 4VAC25-160  (4VAC25-160-30; 4VAC-25-160-40; 4VAC25-160-50; 4VAC25-160-70) are necessary to  protect the health, welfare, and safety of citizens, reduce workload, and  increase efficiency for applicants. The proposed regulatory actions to  4VAC25-160-200 will update references to external technical documents.
    The proposed amendments to various sections of  4VAC25-160 are also essential to protect the health and welfare of citizens by  providing clear language that is consistent with state law and regulation.
    Substance: As a result of  periodic review, the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy and the Virginia  Gas and Oil Board is amending 4VAC25-160, Virginia Gas and Oil Board  Regulations, to make technical corrections, improve clarity, increase  efficiency, and restore consistency with other chapters.
    4VAC25-160-30, 4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50, 4VAC25-160-60,  4VAC25-160-70, and 4VAC25-160-200 will be amended to correct several technical  areas for accuracy, and provide clarity. These amendments regarding process  will aid the gas and oil industry, as well as the Gas and Oil Board in the  approval and regulation of gas and oil permits.
    Amending 4VAC25-160-30 will reduce workload and  increase efficiency for applicants by providing flexibility and economy in the  permit process.
    Amendments to 4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50, and  4VAC25-160-70 are being made to bring consistency to data submission  requirements for the Division of Gas and Oil. The use of latitude and longitude  and the Virginia Coordinate System of 1927 have been replaced by the Virginia  Coordinate System of 1983 in other Division of Gas and Oil regulations. Current  industry practice is to use the more modern 1983 coordinate system for  describing the locations of wells and core holes. Applicants for permits under  this chapter must currently convert their coordinates back to the 1927 system,  as required by the regulation, in order to submit them to the Department of  Mines, Minerals and Energy's Division of Gas and Oil. The amendment will allow  applicants to use the updated 1983 coordinate system.
    Issues: These  regulatory actions are expected to provide technical corrections, improve  clarity, increase efficiency, and restore consistency with other chapters of  regulation. These amendments regarding process will aid the gas and oil  industry, as well as the Gas and Oil Board in the approval and regulation of  gas and oil permits. Reduced workload and increased efficiency for applicants  will occur by providing flexibility and economy in the permit process.
    The Department of Planning and Budget's  Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation.  The Virginia Gas and Oil Board (Board) proposes to make several clarifications  and to update technical language to reflect current conditions. Additionally,  the Board proposes two small changes to paperwork requirements.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the  costs for all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Under the current  regulations applicants must submit 10 sets of each application and accompanying  exhibits. The proposed regulations only require that 8 sets are submitted. This  will result in a small amount of savings in time and resources.
    The current regulations also require that "Each  person offering exhibits into evidence shall also have available a reasonably  sufficient number of exhibits for other persons who are subject to the  provisions of §§ 45.1-361.19 and 45.1-361.23 of the Code of Virginia and are  expected to be in attendance at the hearing." The Board proposes to amend  this to “Each person offering exhibits into evidence shall also have available  a reasonably sufficient number of exhibits for other persons who are subject to  the provisions of §§ 45.1-361.19 and 45.1-361.23 of the Code of Virginia, who  have notified the division by certified mail notice of their request for copies  of exhibits, and are expected to be in attendance at the hearing. This proposed  change will help applicants avoid spending time and resources on producing more  copies than are needed. Similar to above though, the expected savings are  small.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. According to the  Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, four large firms drill most oil and  gas wells in Virginia. An unknown number of other companies may also undertake  such activities from time to time. None of these would be defined as small  businesses.  Interested citizens and localities are also potentially  affected.
    Localities Particularly Affected. Oil and gas wells  in Virginia are predominately located in Buchanan, Dickenson, Lee, Russell,  Scott, Tazewell, & Wise Counties.1
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal  amendments do not significantly affect employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property.  The proposal amendments do not significantly affect the use and value of  private property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  amendments do not significantly affect small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes  Adverse Impact. The proposed amendments do not significantly affect small  businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed  amendments do not significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget  (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in  accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive  Order Number 36 (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact  analyses include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of  businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity  of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly  affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be  affected, the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement  or comply with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private  property. Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small  businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include (i) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses  subject to the regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and  other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    ________________________
    1 Source: Department of Mines,  Minerals and Energy
    Agency's Response to the Department of  Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis: The agency  concurs with Department of Planning and Budget's economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    As a result of periodic review, the  Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy and the Virginia Gas and Oil Board are  amending 4VAC25-160, Virginia Gas and Oil Board Regulations, to make technical  corrections, improve clarity, increase efficiency, and to restore consistency  with other chapters. 4VAC25-160-30, 4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50,  4VAC25-160-60, 4VAC25-160-70, and 4VAC25-160-200 will be amended to correct  several technical areas for accuracy, and provide clarity. Amending  4VAC25-160-30 will reduce workload and increase efficiency for applicants by  providing flexibility and economy in the permit process. Amendments to  4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50, and 4VAC25-160-70 are being made to bring  consistency to data submission requirements for the Division of Gas and Oil.
    4VAC25-160-10.  Definitions.
    The following words and terms,  when used in this chapter, shall have the following meanings,  unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Act" means the  Virginia Gas and Oil Act of 1990, Chapter 22.1 (§ 45.1-361.1 et seq.) of Title  45.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Applicant" or  "petitioner" means a person or business who files an  application, petition, appeal or other request for board action with  the Division of Gas and Oil.
    "Board"  means the Virginia Gas and Oil Board.
    "Complete application"  means all the materials required to be filed by the applicant under this  chapter. 
    "Department" means the  Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy. 
    "Director" means the  Director of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy or his authorized  agent. 
    "Directional survey"  means a well survey that measures the degree of deviation of a hole, or  distance, from the vertical and the direction of departure. 
    "Division" means the  Division of Gas and Oil of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy. 
    "Division  Director" means the Director of the Division of Gas and Oil.
    "Election" means the  performance of an act within the time established or required by statute, order  or regulation. An election required to be made by board order or regulation  must be in writing and (i) be personally delivered to the person or agent of  the person described in the order or regulation by the date established or  required, or (ii) be mailed to the person or agent of the person described in  the order or regulation at the address stated therein and be postmarked by the  United States Postal Service before midnight on the date established or  required. 
    "Field" means the  general area underlain by one or more pools. 
    "Gas/oil ratio" means  the product of the number of Mcf of natural gas produced from a well divided by  the number of barrels of oil produced from the well as determined by a gas/oil  ratio test. 
    "Gas well" means any  well which produces or appears capable of producing a ratio of 6,000 cubic feet  (6 Mcf) of gas or more to each barrel of oil, on the basis of a gas-oil ratio  test. 
    "Inclination survey"  means a well survey to determine the deviation, using the surface location of  the well as the apex, of a well bore from the true vertical beneath the apex on  the same horizontal subsurface plane. 
    "Mcf" means, when used  with reference to natural gas, 1,000 cubic feet of gas at a pressure base of  14.73 pounds per square inch gauge and a temperature base of 60°F. 
    "Mine development plan"  means a permit or license application filed with the Division of Mines or Mined  Land Reclamation for legal permission to engage in extraction of coal  resources. 
    "Oil well" means any  well which produces or appears capable of producing a ratio of less than 6,000  cubic feet (6 Mcf) of gas to each barrel of oil, on the basis of a gas-oil  ratio test. 
    "Petitioner"  means any person or business who files a petition, appeal, or other request for  action with the Division of Gas and Oil or the Virginia Gas and Oil Board.
    "Pooling" means the  combining of all interests or estates in a gas, oil or coalbed methane drilling  unit for the development and operations thereof. Pooling may be accomplished  either through voluntary agreement or through a compulsory order of the board. 
    "Respondent" means a  person named in an application, petition, appeal or other request for board  action and against whom relief is sought by the applicant, or a person who  under the terms of a board order, is required to make an election. 
    "Unit operator" means  the gas or oil owner designated by the board to operate in or on a pooled unit.  
    4VAC25-160-30.  Administrative provisions.
    A. The Virginia Gas and Oil Board  shall meet on the third Tuesday of each calendar month unless no action is  required by the board or unless otherwise scheduled by the board. All hearings  shall be scheduled in accordance with the requirements for notice by  publication in § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia. Except where otherwise  established by the Act, the board may establish deadlines for filing materials  for meetings or hearings scheduled on other than the third Tuesday of each  month. 
    B. Applications to the board must  be filed by the following deadlines: 
    1. All applications, petitions, appeals  or other requests for board action must be received by the division at least 30  calendar days prior to the regularly scheduled meeting of the board. If the  30th day falls on a weekend or a legal holiday, the deadline shall be the prior  business day. 
    2. When required, two copies of the  following material must be filed with the division at least seven calendar days  prior to the regularly scheduled meeting of the board in order for the  application to be considered a complete application: 
    a. The affidavit demonstrating that due  diligence was used to locate and serve persons in accordance with § 45.1-361.19  of the Code of Virginia and 4VAC25-160-40; and 
    b. Proof of notice by publication in  accordance with 4VAC25-160-40 D. 
    C. A complete application that is  not filed by the deadlines of this subsection shall be carried over to the next  scheduled meeting of the board. A submission that does not contain a complete  application shall not be considered by the board until the application is  complete. 
    D. The division shall assign a  docket number to each application or petition at the time of payment receipt  and filing, and. The division shall notify the applicant of  the completed filing and assigned docket number. The docket number shall  be referenced when submitting material regarding the application or petition. 
    E. In addition to the other  requirements of this chapter, applications to the board shall meet the  following standards: 
    1. Each application for a hearing before  the board shall be headed by a caption which shall contain a heading including:  
    a. "Before the Virginia Gas and Oil  board Board";
    b. The name of the applicant; 
    c. The relief sought; and 
    d. The docket number assigned by the  division. 
    2. Each application shall be signed by  the applicant, an authorized agent of the applicant, or an attorney for the  applicant, certifying that, "The foregoing application to the best of my  knowledge, information, and belief is true and correct." 
    3. Exhibits shall be identified by the  docket number and an exhibit number and may be introduced as part of a person's  presentation. 
    4. Persons Applicants  shall submit 10 eight sets of each application and exhibit  exhibits. Each person offering exhibits into evidence shall also have  available a reasonably sufficient number of exhibits for other persons who are  subject to the provisions of §§ 45.1-361.19 and 45.1-361.23 of the Code of  Virginia, who have notified the division by certified mail notice of their  request for copies of exhibits, and are expected to be in attendance at the  hearing. 
    F. Applications for the  establishment and modification of units, spacing or pooling shall be  accompanied by a $130 nonrefundable fee, payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. 
    G. All parties in any proceeding  before the board are entitled to appear in person or be represented by counsel or  other qualified representative, as provided for in the Administrative  Process Act, § 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia. 
    4VAC25-160-40.  Notice of hearings.
    A. Each applicant for a hearing  to establish an exception to statewide spacing under § 45.1-361.17 of the Code  of Virginia shall provide notice by certified mail, return receipt requested,  to all gas, oil, coal or mineral owners having an interest underlying any tract  located within the distances provided in § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia  or the distance to the nearest well completed in the same pool, whichever is  less. Each applicant for a hearing to establish an exception to a well location  provided for in a drilling unit established by an order of the board shall  provide notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to all gas, oil,  coal or mineral owners having an interest underlying the unit where the  exception is requested. 
    B. Each applicant shall include,  in or with the mailed notice of the hearing required under § 45.1-361.19 of the  Code of Virginia, the following information: 
    1. The name and address of the applicant  and the applicant's counsel, if any; 
    2. In the case of an application to  vacate or amend an order, identification of the order to be vacated or amended;  
    3. A statement of the relief sought and  proposed provisions of the order or proposed order; 
    4. Citations of statutes, rules, orders  and decided cases supporting the relief sought; 
    5. A statement of the type of well or wells  (gas, oil or coalbed methane gas); 
    6. a. For a pooling order, the notice  should include: a plat showing the size and shape of the proposed unit and  boundaries of tracts within the unit. The location of the proposed unit shall  be shown in accordance with the Virginia Coordinate System of 1927 1983,  as defined in Chapter 17 (§ 55-287 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of  Virginia, also known as the State Plane Coordinate System. The proposed unit  shall also be located by taking the measured distance in feet from the unit to  the nearest 2.5 minute longitude line to the east and the nearest 2.5 minute  latitude line to the north on the 7.5 minute (1:24,000) topographic map, with a  notation of the 7.5 minute topographic map name and series. The plat containing  shall include property lines taken from (i) deed descriptions and chain of  title, (ii) county courthouse records, or (iii) a physical survey for each land  track in the unit. The location of the well and the percentage of acreage  in each tract in the unit shall be certified by a licensed land surveyor  or a licensed professional engineer and attested by the applicant as to its  conformity to existing orders issued by the board; 
    b. For a field rule, the notice should  include: a description of the pool or pools in the field, the boundaries of the  field, information on the acreage and boundaries of the units proposed to be in  the field and any proposed allowable production rates; or 
    c. For a location exception, the notice  should include: a description of the proposed well location in relation to  other wells within statewide spacing limits or in relation to the allowable  area for drilling within a unit; 
    7. A description of the interest or  claim of the respondent being notified; 
    8. A description of the formation or  formations to be produced; 
    9. An estimate of the amount of reserves  of the unit; 
    10. An estimate of the allowable costs  in accordance with 4VAC25-160-100; and 
    11. How interested persons may obtain  additional information or a complete copy of the application. 
    C. When after a diligent  search the identity or location of any person to whom notice is required to  be given in accordance with subsection A or B of this section is unknown at the  time the applicant applies for a hearing before the board, the applicant for  the hearing shall cause a notice to be published in a newspaper of general  circulation in the county, counties, city, or cities where the land or the  major portion thereof which is the subject of the application is located. The  notice shall include: 
    1. The name and address of the  applicant; 
    2. A description of the action to be  considered by the board; 
    3. A map showing the general location of  the area which that would be affected by the proposed action or  and a description which that clearly describes the  location or boundaries of the area which that would be affected  by the proposed action sufficient to enable local residents to identify the  area; 
    4. The date, time and location of the  hearing at which the application is scheduled to be heard; and 
    5. How interested persons may obtain  additional information or a complete copy of the application. 
    D. Notice of a hearing made in  accordance with § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia or this section shall be  sufficient, and no additional notice is required to be made by the applicant  upon a postponement or continuance of the hearing. 
    E. Each applicant for a hearing  to modify an order established under § 45.1-361.21 or § 45.1-361.22 of the Code  of Virginia shall provide notice in accordance with § 45.1-361.19 of the Code  of Virginia to each person having an interest underlying the tract or tracts to  be affected by the proposed modification. 
    F. An applicant filing a petition  to modify a forced pooling order established under § 45.1-361.21 or § 45.1-361.22  of the Code of Virginia to change the unit operator based on a change in the  corporate name of the unit operator; a change in the corporate structure of the  unit operator; or a transfer of the unit operator's interests to any single  subsidiary, parent or successor by merger or consolidation is not required to  provide notice. Other applicants for a hearing to modify a forced pooling order  shall provide notice in accordance with § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia  to each respondent named in the order to be modified whose interest may be  affected by the proposed modification. 
    4VAC25-160-50.  Applications for field rules. 
    Each application filed under § 45.1-361.20 of the Code of Virginia to establish or modify a field rule, a  drilling unit or drilling units shall contain: 
    1. The name and address of the applicant  and the applicant's counsel, if any; 
    2. In the case of an application to  vacate or amend an order, identification of the order to be vacated or amended;  
    3. A statement of the relief sought and  the proposed provisions of the order or a proposed order; 
    4. Citations of statutes, rules, orders,  and decided cases supporting the relief sought; 
    5. In the case where a field rule is  proposed to be established or modified: 
    a. A statement of the type of field  (gas, oil or coalbed methane gas); 
    b. A description of the proposed  formation or formations subject to the petition; and 
    c. A description of the pool or pools  included in the field, based on geological and technical data, including the  boundaries of the pool or pools and field, shown in accordance with the  Virginia Coordinate System of 1927 1983, as defined in Chapter 17  (§ 55-287 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia, also known as the State  Plane Coordinate System. The boundaries of the pool or pools and field shall  also be located by taking the measured distance in feet from the unit to the  nearest 2.5 minute longitude line to the east and the nearest 2.5 minute  latitude line to the north on the 7.5 minute (1:24,000) topographic map, with a  notation of the 7.5 minute topographic map name and series; 
    6. In the case where a drilling unit or  units are proposed to be established or modified: 
    a. A statement of the acreage to be  embraced within each drilling unit; 
    b. A description of the formation or  formations to be produced by the well or wells in the unit or units; and 
    c. The boundaries of the drilling unit  or units shown in accordance with subdivision 5 c of this section; 
    7. A statement of the amount of acreage  to be included in the order; 
    8. A statement of the proposed allowable  production rate or rates and supporting documentation, if applicable; 
    9. Evidence that any proposal to  establish or modify a unit or units for coalbed methane gas will meet the  requirements of § 45.1-361.20 C of the Code of Virginia; 
    10. An affidavit demonstrating that due  diligence was used to locate and serve persons in accordance with § 45.1-361.19  of the Code of Virginia and 4VAC25-160-40; and 
    11. When required, proof of notice by  publication in accordance with 4VAC25-160-40 D C. 
    4VAC25-160-60.  Applications for exceptions to minimum well spacing requirements. 
    Applications for an exception to  statewide spacing under § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia or under a  field rule issued by the board shall contain the following: 
    1. The name and address of the applicant  and the applicant's counsel, if any; 
    2. In the case of an application for an  exception to spacing established in a field rule, identification of the order  governing spacing in the field; 
    3. A statement of the proposed location  of the well in relation to wells permitted or for which a permit application is  pending before the Division of Gas and Oil at the time of filing within the  distances prescribed in § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia; 
    4. A description of the formation or  formations to be produced by the well proposed for alternative spacing and the  wells identified in subdivision 3 of this section; 
    5. A description of the conditions  justifying the alternative spacing; 
    6. An affidavit demonstrating that due  diligence was used to locate and serve persons in accordance with  4VAC25-160-40; and 
    7. When required, proof of notice by  publication in accordance with 4VAC25-160-40 D C. 
    4VAC25-160-70.  Applications to pool interests in a drilling unit: conventional gas or oil or  no conflicting claims to coalbed methane gas ownership.
    A. Applications filed under § 45.1-361.21 of the Code of Virginia to pool interests in a drilling unit for  conventional gas or oil or for coalbed methane gas where there are no  conflicting claims to ownership of the coalbed methane gas, except as provided  for in subsection B of this section, shall contain the following: 
    1. The name and address of the applicant  and the applicant's counsel, if any; 
    2. In the case of an application to  vacate or amend an order, identification of the order to be vacated or amended;  
    3. A statement of the relief sought and  proposed provisions of the order or a proposed order; 
    4. Citations of statutes, rules, orders,  and decided cases supporting the relief sought; 
    5. A statement of the type of well or  wells (gas, oil or coalbed methane gas); 
    6. The permit number or numbers, if any  have been issued; 
    7. A plat showing the size and shape of  the proposed unit and boundaries of tracts within the unit, shown in accordance  with the Virginia Coordinate System of 1927 1983, as defined in  Chapter 17 (§ 55-287 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia, also known  as the State Plane Coordinate System. The proposed unit shall also be  located by taking the measured distance in feet from the unit to the nearest  2.5 minute longitude line to the east and the nearest 2.5 minute latitude line  to the north on the 7.5 minute (1:24,000) topographic map, with a notation of  the 7.5 minute topographic map name and series. Also included shall be the  names of owners of record of the tracts, and the percentage of acreage in each  tract, certified by a licensed land surveyor or a licensed professional  engineer and attested by the applicant as to its conformity to existing orders  issued by the board; 
    8. A description of the status of  interests to be pooled in the unit at the time the application is filed; 
    9. For an application to pool a coalbed  methane gas unit, a statement of the percentage of the total interest held by  the applicant in the proposed unit at the time the application for the hearing  is filed; 
    10. A statement of the names of owners  and the percentage of interests to be escrowed under § 45.1-361.21 D of the  Code of Virginia for each owner whose location is unknown at the time the  application for the hearing is filed; 
    11. A description of the formation or  formations to be produced; 
    12. An estimate of production over the  life of well or wells, and, if different, an estimate of the recoverable  reserves of the unit; 
    13. An estimate of the allowable costs  in accordance with 4VAC25-160-100; 
    14. An affidavit demonstrating that due  diligence was used to locate and serve persons in accordance with § 45.1-361.19  of the Code of Virginia and 4VAC25-160-40 C; and 
    15. When required, proof of notice by  publication in accordance with 4VAC25-160-40 D C. 
    B. Applications to amend an order  pooling interests in a drilling unit may be filed by written stipulation of all  persons affected. The application is not required to contain the information  specified in subsection A of this section, but shall contain the proposed  amended language to the order, shown by interlineation. 
    C. After Within 45 days  after the time for election provided in any pooling order has expired, the  unit operator shall file an affidavit with the board stating whether or not any  elections were made. If any elections were made, the affidavit shall name each  respondent making an election and describe the election made. The affidavit  shall state if no elections were made or if any response was untimely. The  affidavit shall be accompanied by a proposed supplemental order to be made and  recorded to complete the record regarding elections. The affidavit and proposed  supplemental order shall be filed by the unit operator within 45 days of the  last day on which a timely election could have been delivered or mailed, or  within 45 days of the last date for payment set forth in the pooling order,  whichever occurs last. The applicant shall mail a true and correct copy of any  supplemental order to all persons identified in the supplemental order. 
    4VAC25-160-130.  Appeals of the director's decisions. 
    A. Appeals of the division  director's decisions shall be filed in writing, at the office of the division,  in accordance with §§ 45.1-361.23 and 45.1-361.36 of the Code of Virginia.  
    B. A petition to appeal a  decision of the division director shall contain: 
    1. The name and address of the  petitioner and the petitioner's counsel, if any; 
    2. Identification of the decision being  appealed, and the date the decision was issued; 
    3. A statement identifying the standing  of the petitioner to appeal; 
    4. A statement setting forth the reasons  for the appeal, including errors alleged in the director's decision and the  reasons why the decision is deemed contrary to law or regulation; 
    5. A statement that the issues on appeal  were in fact raised as required by § 45.1-361.36 B of the Code of Virginia; 
    6. A statement setting forth the  specific relief requested; and 
    7. When a stay to any proposed activity  allowed as a result of the director's decision is desired, a request for the  stay and the basis for granting the stay. 
    C. Upon receipt of an appeal  containing a request for a stay, the division director shall decide on  the request in accordance with § 45.1-361.23 D of the Code of Virginia. 
    4VAC25-160-190.  Civil charges. 
    A. Civil charges shall be  provided for in accordance with § 45.1-361.8 C of the Code of Virginia. 
    B. The division director,  after finding any violation of the Act, a regulation promulgated under the Act,  or order of the director or board, or upon direction from the board, may  recommend a civil charge against a gas, oil or geophysical operator and shall  base the recommendation on the Civil Charge Calculation Procedure established  by order of the board. 
    4VAC25-160-200.  Surveys and tests.
    A. Deviation tests. 
    1. An inclination survey shall be made  on all rotary drilled wells located in accordance with a field rule established  by the board. An inclination survey is not required for wells drilled in  accordance with the distance limitations of § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    2. The first shot point shall be at a  depth not greater than the bottom of the surface casing or, for a well drilled  through a coal seam, at a depth not greater than that of the bottom of the coal  protection string. Succeeding shot points shall be no more than 1,000 feet  apart, or as otherwise ordered by the director. 
    3. Inclination surveys conforming to  these requirements may be made either during the normal course of drilling or  after the well has reached total depth. Survey data shall be certified in  writing as being true and correct by the designated agent or person in charge  of a permittee's Virginia operations, or the drilling contractor, and shall  indicate the resultant lateral deviation as the maximum calculated lateral  displacement determined at any inclination survey point in a horizon approved  for production, by an order of the board or a permit approved by the director,  assuming that all displacement occurs in the direction of the nearest boundary  of the unit. The resultant lateral deviation shall be recorded on the drilling  or completion report filed by the permittee. 
    4. If a directional survey determining  the location of the bottom of the hole is filed upon completion of the well, it  shall not be necessary to file the inclination survey data. 
    5. A directional survey shall be made  when: 
    a. A well is directionally controlled  and is thereby intentionally deflected from vertical; 
    b. The resultant lateral deviation of  any well, calculated from inclination survey data, is greater than the distance  from the center of the surface location of the well bore to the nearest  boundary of the area where drilling is allowed in a unit established by the board;  or 
    c. A well is drilled as an exception  location and a directional survey is ordered by the board. 
    6. The board or the director, on their  own initiative or at the request of a gas or oil owner on a contiguous unit or  tract, may require the permittee drilling any well to make a directional survey  of the well if there is reasonable cause therefor. Whenever a survey is  required by the board or the director at the request of a contiguous owner and  the permittee of the well and contiguous owner are unable to agree as to the  terms and conditions for making the directional survey, the permittee shall pay  for the survey if the bottom hole location is found to be outside of the area  approved for drilling, and the contiguous owner shall pay for the survey if the  bottom hole location is found to be inside of the area approved for drilling. 
    7. Directional surveys shall be run from  total depth to the base of the surface casing or coal protection string, unless  otherwise approved by the board or the director. In the event that the proposed  or final location of the producing interval or intervals of any well is not in  accordance with this section or a board order, the unit operator shall apply to  the board for an exception to spacing. However, directional surveys to total  depth shall not be required in cases where the interval below the latest survey  is less than 500 feet, and in such an instance, a projection of the latest  survey shall be deemed to satisfy board requirements. 
    8. The results of each inclination or directional  survey made in accordance with this section shall be filed by the permittee  with the first drilling or completion report required by the department division.  
    B. Flow potential and gas/oil  ratio tests: conventional gas or oil wells. 
    1. If a gas or oil well appears capable  of producing gas or oil, the permittee shall conduct a potential flow test and  a gas/oil ratio test within 10 14 days after the well is  completed and capable of producing gas or oil. The permittee shall file the  test results, electronically or in writing, with the director division.  The director division director shall hold the test results  confidential in accordance with § 45.1-361.6 of the Code of Virginia. 
    2. If a permittee deepens or stimulates  a well after the initial potential flow test and gas/oil ratio test have been  conducted, when determined to be necessary by the permittee or when requested  by the board, the permittee shall conduct another potential flow test and  gas/oil ratio test and, within 30 days after completing the test, file the  results, in writing, with the director division. 
    3. A back-flow method of determining  open flow shall be used, such as provided for in recommended by  the Interstate Oil and Gas Compact Commission, "Manual of Back-Pressure  Testing of Gas Wells," 1979 2000. However, when a back-flow  method is believed not to be feasible, the permittee shall obtain prior  approval from the director division, and test the well in  accordance with, an alternate method approved by the director that does not  entail excessive physical waste of gas. 
    C. Testing of coalbed methane gas  wells. If a permittee cannot test the potential flow of a coalbed methane gas  well by a back-flow method or complete the test within the time period required  in subdivision B 1 of this section, the permittee may request approval from the  director to perform a coalbed methane gas production test. Such a test shall  only be made when the water production and the gas flow rates are stabilized  for a period of not less than 10 14 days prior to the test. The  test shall be conducted for a minimum of 24 hours in the manner approved by the  director. The permittee shall file the test results, electronically or  in writing, with the director division. The director division  director shall hold the test results confidential in accordance with § 45.1-361.6 of the Code of Virginia. 
    D. The board may, by order and  after notice and hearing, require a permittee to complete other tests on any  well. 
270
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-280. Jointly Owned and  Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs (repealing 8VAC20-280-10, 8VAC20-280-20).
    8VAC20-281. Regulations Governing Jointly Owned and Operated  Schools and Jointly Operated Programs (adding 8VAC20-281-10, 8VAC20-281-20,  8VAC20-281-30).
    Statutory Authority: § 22.1-16 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 19,  2009.
    Agency Contact: Dr. Margaret N.  Roberts, Office of Policy & Communications, Department of Education, P.O.  Box 2120, 101 N. 14th St., 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)  225-2540, FAX (804) 225-2524, or email margaret.roberts@doe.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    The Regulations Governing Jointly Owned  and Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs were adopted on or before  September 1, 1980. These regulations have not been amended since then and do  not address changes made in these programs since that time. Joint schools  include academic-year Governor's schools, alternative education centers, career  and technical centers, and special education centers. In a concurrent action,  the Board of Education is repealing the text of the current regulations  (8VAC20-280) and promulgating new regulations (8VAC20-281).
    Significant changes are made to the  original regulations. The first section is deleted because it is primarily  aspirational; the second section is reorganized, revised, and streamlined; and  a definitions section is added for clarity. The regulations also make membership  requirements of the governing board of the joint school less restrictive and,  in response to Chapter 45 of the 2007 Acts of Assembly, specify that the fiscal  agent of the school board can be selected from any of the treasurers of the  participating localities.
    A new section is added to the final  regulation pursuant to Chapter 49 of the 2008 Act of Assembly permitting any  joint school already in operation to request a waiver from any new regulation  requirements promulgated, effective July 1, 2008.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's  Response:  A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    CHAPTER  281 
  REGULATIONS GOVERNING JOINTLY OWNED AND OPERATED SCHOOLS AND JOINTLY  OPERATED PROGRAMS 
    8VAC20-281-10.  Definitions.
    The following  words and terms apply only to these regulations and do not supersede those  definitions used for federal reporting purposes or for the calculation of costs  related to the Standards of Quality (§ 22.1-253.13:1 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia). When used in these regulations, these words shall have the following  meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    [ "Alternative  education program" means any program designed to offer instruction to  students for whom the regular program of instruction may be inappropriate, as  defined in § 22.1-276.01 of the Code of Virginia, and as prescribed in the  Rules Governing Alternative Education (8VAC20-330).
    "Classification  of expenditures" means a system of accounting for all school funds, as  prescribed in § 22.1-115 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Finance  officer" means fiscal agent for the joint school. ] 
    "Fiscal  agent" means the treasurer of a county or city in which a joint school is  physically located or the treasurer from one of the participating localities as  selected by agreement of the participating local school boards with approval of  the participating local governing bodies. (See [ also  "finance officer" or ] "treasurer.")
    "Joint  board" means the governing board of the joint school. The joint board is  composed of at least one member from each participating local school board.
    "Joint  school" means a  [ program or school established by two or more local school boards,  including a regional public charter school, as defined in § 22.1-212.5 of the  Code of Virginia, or a comprehensive school offering part- or full-day programs  joint or regional school or program established by two or more local school  boards, pursuant to § 22.1-26 of the Code of Virginia, which may include but is  not limited to a regional public charter school, a regional residential charter  school, a regional academic year Governor's school, a regional career and  technical center, a regional special education program, or a regional  alternative education program as defined in § 22.1-209.1:2 of the Code of  Virginia ].
    "Operation  and maintenance" means budget preparation, contracts for services,  personnel matters, use of or construction of a school building and grounds and  the operation and maintenance thereof, and the provision of any services,  activity, or undertaking that the joint school is required to perform in order  to carry out its educational program.
    "Regional  public charter school" means a public charter school operated by two or  more school boards and chartered directly by the participating school boards,  as defined in § 22.1-212.5 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Treasurer"  means the fiscal agent of the joint school, in accordance with § 58.1-3123 of  the Code of Virginia.
    8VAC20-281-20.  Organization and operating procedures.
    Two or more  school boards, by individual resolution, may establish a joint board to manage  and control schools or programs jointly owned and operated in accordance with  the following requirements:
    1. Membership. The membership of the  joint board shall be composed of at least one member of each of the local  school boards participating in the joint program. Each school board shall fill  any vacancies in its membership on the joint board. If a member of the joint  board ceases to be a member of the school board that elected him, the local  school board shall appoint his successor to the joint board. If at any time the  number of members of the joint board shall fall below a quorum, the local board  shall appoint a member to fill the vacancy or vacancies within 30 calendar  days.
    Members of the joint board may receive  compensation fixed by each of the participating school boards. This  compensation shall be paid by the local boards and shall not exceed the amount  paid for service on the local school boards.
    The joint board shall adopt bylaws or  rules of operation and shall establish the length and beginning dates or terms  of its members and establish committees that might be needed to carry out its responsibilities.  Such bylaws shall address the receipt, custody, and disbursement of funds and  the payment of all claims related to the operation and maintenance of the joint  facility, consistent with the state statutes and regulations of the Board of Education.
    2. Organization. The joint board shall  elect from its membership a chairman who shall preside at its meetings and a  vice-chairman who shall preside in the absence of the chairman.
    The joint board shall elect a clerk and,  if desired, a deputy clerk. Neither the clerk nor the deputy clerk shall be a  member of the joint board but shall keep record of the proceedings. The  compensation of the clerk and the deputy clerk shall be fixed by the joint  board. The clerk and the deputy clerk shall execute bond of at least $10,000,  as provided by § 22.1-76 of the Code of Virginia.
     [ The joint board also  shall elect a finance officer, who shall have custody of its funds, fix the  compensation, and provide for bond. All disbursements shall be by warrant  signed by the clerk of the joint board and countersigned by the finance  officer. Through its finance officer, the joint board shall arrange for the  safe depository of the funds and, where necessary, see that sufficient  collateral is posted to secure such funds. ] 
    3. Authority. The joint board shall be  authorized to employ the staff required to operate the joint school and  programs; purchase supplies; purchase, sell, or dispose of equipment or  appliances; determine policies concerning instruction; approve the curriculum  in keeping with the general laws, and with the regulations and requirements of  the Virginia Board of Education; maintain jointly owned school buildings; and,  in general, manage, operate, and conduct joint schools and programs.
    The title to all property acquired for  joint schools shall vest jointly in the participating school boards in such  respective proportions as the participating school boards may determine, and  the schools or programs shall be managed and controlled by the participating  school boards jointly. With the approval of the participating school boards and  the respective local governing bodies, title to property acquired for a joint  school shall be vested in the governing body of such school.
    Except as otherwise provided, all  meetings and procedures of the joint board shall be in accordance with  provisions of §§ 22.1-72 through 22.1-75 of the Code of Virginia. Any action by  the joint board shall be deemed an action by the school boards jointly owning  such school.
    4. Authority of the division superintendent.  The division superintendents representing the counties or cities of the school  boards that form the joint board shall constitute a Committee of  Superintendents and shall jointly exercise the same authority they have in the  counties or cities for which they are appointed. With the approval of their  respective school boards, the division superintendents may elect one of their  members as executive officer in whom may be vested such authority as the  superintendents may from time to time find advisable.
    The Committee of Superintendents shall  prepare, with the advice and approval of the joint board, an annual program  plan, budget, and plan for financing the operation of the joint school that  would include appropriate state and local funding from each participating  school division. The financing plan shall include an estimate of the amount of  money that will be needed from each participating school system during the next  scholastic year for operation and maintenance of the joint school facility. The  estimate shall clearly show all necessary details and be provided in a timely  manner so that the participating school boards may be well-informed about every  item included in the estimate.
    In case of disagreement, all matters  shall be referred to the joint board for resolution.
    5. Budget and expenditures. Each  participating school board shall review and approve the annual budget presented  by the joint board and provide funds to cover its share of the cost of  operating and maintaining the joint school facility. The amount provided by  each participating school board shall be made available for expenditures by the  joint board as follows:
    a. Funds to be provided by participating  school boards shall be made available to the joint board upon its requests.
    b. Funds to be provided on a fee for  service basis shall be paid to the joint board upon receipt of an appropriate  invoice.
    On a regular monthly basis, the clerk of  the joint board shall transmit to the Committee of Superintendents of the  participating school boards an itemized statement of receipts and disbursements  during the preceding months, with a cumulative statement of all receipts and  disbursements since the beginning of the current fiscal year.
    [ 8VAC20-281-30.  Waiver of regulations' requirements.
    Effective July  1, 2008, a joint school or program in operation prior to October 19, 2009, may  request a waiver of the new requirements of the regulations. This waiver  request shall be submitted to the Board of Education in a manner prescribed by  the board. If the Board of Education grants the waiver request, the approved  school shall continue to operate under the previous version of the regulations. ] 
270
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-280. Jointly Owned and  Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs (repealing 8VAC20-280-10, 8VAC20-280-20).
    8VAC20-281. Regulations Governing Jointly Owned and Operated  Schools and Jointly Operated Programs (adding 8VAC20-281-10, 8VAC20-281-20,  8VAC20-281-30).
    Statutory Authority: § 22.1-16 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 19,  2009.
    Agency Contact: Dr. Margaret N.  Roberts, Office of Policy & Communications, Department of Education, P.O.  Box 2120, 101 N. 14th St., 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)  225-2540, FAX (804) 225-2524, or email margaret.roberts@doe.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    The Regulations Governing Jointly Owned  and Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs were adopted on or before  September 1, 1980. These regulations have not been amended since then and do  not address changes made in these programs since that time. Joint schools  include academic-year Governor's schools, alternative education centers, career  and technical centers, and special education centers. In a concurrent action,  the Board of Education is repealing the text of the current regulations  (8VAC20-280) and promulgating new regulations (8VAC20-281).
    Significant changes are made to the  original regulations. The first section is deleted because it is primarily  aspirational; the second section is reorganized, revised, and streamlined; and  a definitions section is added for clarity. The regulations also make membership  requirements of the governing board of the joint school less restrictive and,  in response to Chapter 45 of the 2007 Acts of Assembly, specify that the fiscal  agent of the school board can be selected from any of the treasurers of the  participating localities.
    A new section is added to the final  regulation pursuant to Chapter 49 of the 2008 Act of Assembly permitting any  joint school already in operation to request a waiver from any new regulation  requirements promulgated, effective July 1, 2008.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's  Response:  A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    CHAPTER  281 
  REGULATIONS GOVERNING JOINTLY OWNED AND OPERATED SCHOOLS AND JOINTLY  OPERATED PROGRAMS 
    8VAC20-281-10.  Definitions.
    The following  words and terms apply only to these regulations and do not supersede those  definitions used for federal reporting purposes or for the calculation of costs  related to the Standards of Quality (§ 22.1-253.13:1 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia). When used in these regulations, these words shall have the following  meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    [ "Alternative  education program" means any program designed to offer instruction to  students for whom the regular program of instruction may be inappropriate, as  defined in § 22.1-276.01 of the Code of Virginia, and as prescribed in the  Rules Governing Alternative Education (8VAC20-330).
    "Classification  of expenditures" means a system of accounting for all school funds, as  prescribed in § 22.1-115 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Finance  officer" means fiscal agent for the joint school. ] 
    "Fiscal  agent" means the treasurer of a county or city in which a joint school is  physically located or the treasurer from one of the participating localities as  selected by agreement of the participating local school boards with approval of  the participating local governing bodies. (See [ also  "finance officer" or ] "treasurer.")
    "Joint  board" means the governing board of the joint school. The joint board is  composed of at least one member from each participating local school board.
    "Joint  school" means a  [ program or school established by two or more local school boards,  including a regional public charter school, as defined in § 22.1-212.5 of the  Code of Virginia, or a comprehensive school offering part- or full-day programs  joint or regional school or program established by two or more local school  boards, pursuant to § 22.1-26 of the Code of Virginia, which may include but is  not limited to a regional public charter school, a regional residential charter  school, a regional academic year Governor's school, a regional career and  technical center, a regional special education program, or a regional  alternative education program as defined in § 22.1-209.1:2 of the Code of  Virginia ].
    "Operation  and maintenance" means budget preparation, contracts for services,  personnel matters, use of or construction of a school building and grounds and  the operation and maintenance thereof, and the provision of any services,  activity, or undertaking that the joint school is required to perform in order  to carry out its educational program.
    "Regional  public charter school" means a public charter school operated by two or  more school boards and chartered directly by the participating school boards,  as defined in § 22.1-212.5 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Treasurer"  means the fiscal agent of the joint school, in accordance with § 58.1-3123 of  the Code of Virginia.
    8VAC20-281-20.  Organization and operating procedures.
    Two or more  school boards, by individual resolution, may establish a joint board to manage  and control schools or programs jointly owned and operated in accordance with  the following requirements:
    1. Membership. The membership of the  joint board shall be composed of at least one member of each of the local  school boards participating in the joint program. Each school board shall fill  any vacancies in its membership on the joint board. If a member of the joint  board ceases to be a member of the school board that elected him, the local  school board shall appoint his successor to the joint board. If at any time the  number of members of the joint board shall fall below a quorum, the local board  shall appoint a member to fill the vacancy or vacancies within 30 calendar  days.
    Members of the joint board may receive  compensation fixed by each of the participating school boards. This  compensation shall be paid by the local boards and shall not exceed the amount  paid for service on the local school boards.
    The joint board shall adopt bylaws or  rules of operation and shall establish the length and beginning dates or terms  of its members and establish committees that might be needed to carry out its responsibilities.  Such bylaws shall address the receipt, custody, and disbursement of funds and  the payment of all claims related to the operation and maintenance of the joint  facility, consistent with the state statutes and regulations of the Board of Education.
    2. Organization. The joint board shall  elect from its membership a chairman who shall preside at its meetings and a  vice-chairman who shall preside in the absence of the chairman.
    The joint board shall elect a clerk and,  if desired, a deputy clerk. Neither the clerk nor the deputy clerk shall be a  member of the joint board but shall keep record of the proceedings. The  compensation of the clerk and the deputy clerk shall be fixed by the joint  board. The clerk and the deputy clerk shall execute bond of at least $10,000,  as provided by § 22.1-76 of the Code of Virginia.
     [ The joint board also  shall elect a finance officer, who shall have custody of its funds, fix the  compensation, and provide for bond. All disbursements shall be by warrant  signed by the clerk of the joint board and countersigned by the finance  officer. Through its finance officer, the joint board shall arrange for the  safe depository of the funds and, where necessary, see that sufficient  collateral is posted to secure such funds. ] 
    3. Authority. The joint board shall be  authorized to employ the staff required to operate the joint school and  programs; purchase supplies; purchase, sell, or dispose of equipment or  appliances; determine policies concerning instruction; approve the curriculum  in keeping with the general laws, and with the regulations and requirements of  the Virginia Board of Education; maintain jointly owned school buildings; and,  in general, manage, operate, and conduct joint schools and programs.
    The title to all property acquired for  joint schools shall vest jointly in the participating school boards in such  respective proportions as the participating school boards may determine, and  the schools or programs shall be managed and controlled by the participating  school boards jointly. With the approval of the participating school boards and  the respective local governing bodies, title to property acquired for a joint  school shall be vested in the governing body of such school.
    Except as otherwise provided, all  meetings and procedures of the joint board shall be in accordance with  provisions of §§ 22.1-72 through 22.1-75 of the Code of Virginia. Any action by  the joint board shall be deemed an action by the school boards jointly owning  such school.
    4. Authority of the division superintendent.  The division superintendents representing the counties or cities of the school  boards that form the joint board shall constitute a Committee of  Superintendents and shall jointly exercise the same authority they have in the  counties or cities for which they are appointed. With the approval of their  respective school boards, the division superintendents may elect one of their  members as executive officer in whom may be vested such authority as the  superintendents may from time to time find advisable.
    The Committee of Superintendents shall  prepare, with the advice and approval of the joint board, an annual program  plan, budget, and plan for financing the operation of the joint school that  would include appropriate state and local funding from each participating  school division. The financing plan shall include an estimate of the amount of  money that will be needed from each participating school system during the next  scholastic year for operation and maintenance of the joint school facility. The  estimate shall clearly show all necessary details and be provided in a timely  manner so that the participating school boards may be well-informed about every  item included in the estimate.
    In case of disagreement, all matters  shall be referred to the joint board for resolution.
    5. Budget and expenditures. Each  participating school board shall review and approve the annual budget presented  by the joint board and provide funds to cover its share of the cost of  operating and maintaining the joint school facility. The amount provided by  each participating school board shall be made available for expenditures by the  joint board as follows:
    a. Funds to be provided by participating  school boards shall be made available to the joint board upon its requests.
    b. Funds to be provided on a fee for  service basis shall be paid to the joint board upon receipt of an appropriate  invoice.
    On a regular monthly basis, the clerk of  the joint board shall transmit to the Committee of Superintendents of the  participating school boards an itemized statement of receipts and disbursements  during the preceding months, with a cumulative statement of all receipts and  disbursements since the beginning of the current fiscal year.
    [ 8VAC20-281-30.  Waiver of regulations' requirements.
    Effective July  1, 2008, a joint school or program in operation prior to October 19, 2009, may  request a waiver of the new requirements of the regulations. This waiver  request shall be submitted to the Board of Education in a manner prescribed by  the board. If the Board of Education grants the waiver request, the approved  school shall continue to operate under the previous version of the regulations. ] 
270
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Final Regulation
    REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE:  The State Water Control Board is claiming an exemption from the Administrative  Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which  excludes regulations that are necessary to conform to changes in Virginia  statutory law where no agency discretion is involved. The State Water Control  Board will receive, consider, and respond to petitions from any interested  person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-31. Virginia Pollutant  Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Permit Regulation (amending 9VAC25-31-100, 9VAC25-31-290).
    Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: September 30,  2009. 
    Agency Contact: William K.  Norris, Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box  1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4022, FAX (804) 698-4347, or  email william.norris@deq.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    This action implements the legislative  changes to the State Water Control Law as a result of Chapter 42 of the 2009  Acts of Assembly. These changes clarify public notice requirements for permit  applications for land application acreage increases of 50% or more and clarify  when a permit for land application is issued in relation to the public meeting  and public comment opportunity on the application. The resulting regulatory  changes provide that an application for any permit amendments to increase the  acreage authorized by the initial permit by 50% or more shall be treated as a  new application for purposes of public notice and public hearings and provide  that the board shall not issue the permit for land disposal until the public  meeting has been held and comment has been received from the local governing  body, or until 30 days have lapsed from the date of the public meeting.
    Part  II 
  Permit Applications and Special VPDES Permit Programs 
    9VAC25-31-100.  Application for a permit. 
    A. Duty to apply. Any person who  discharges or proposes to discharge pollutants or who owns or operates a  sludge-only facility whose sewage sludge use or disposal practice is regulated  by 9VAC25-31-420 through 9VAC25-31-720 and who does not have an effective  permit, except persons covered by general permits, excluded from the  requirement for a permit by this chapter, or a user of a privately owned  treatment works unless the board requires otherwise, shall submit a complete  application to the department in accordance with this section. All concentrated  animal feeding operations have a duty to seek coverage under a VPDES permit. 
    B. Who applies. When a facility  or activity is owned by one person but is operated by another person, it is the  operator's duty to obtain a permit. 
    C. Time to apply. 
    1. Any person proposing a new discharge,  shall submit an application at least 180 days before the date on which the  discharge is to commence, unless permission for a later date has been granted  by the board. Facilities proposing a new discharge of storm water associated  with industrial activity shall submit an application 180 days before that  facility commences industrial activity which may result in a discharge of storm  water associated with that industrial activity. Different submittal dates may  be required under the terms of applicable general permits. Persons proposing a  new discharge are encouraged to submit their applications well in advance of  the 90 or 180 day requirements to avoid delay. New discharges composed entirely  of storm water, other than those dischargers identified in 9VAC25-31-120 A 1,  shall apply for and obtain a permit according to the application requirements  in 9VAC25-31-120 B. 
    2. All TWTDS whose sewage sludge use or  disposal practices are regulated by 9VAC25-31-420 through 9VAC25-31-720 must  submit permit applications according to the applicable schedule in subdivision  2 a or b of this subsection. 
    a. A TWTDS with a currently effective  VPDES permit must submit a permit application at the time of its next VPDES  permit renewal application. Such information must be submitted in accordance  with subsection D of this section. 
    b. Any other TWTDS not addressed under  subdivision 2 a of this subsection must submit the information listed in  subdivisions 2 b (1) through (5) of this subsection to the department within  one year after publication of a standard applicable to its sewage sludge use or  disposal practice(s), using a form provided by the department. The board will  determine when such TWTDS must submit a full permit application. 
    (1) The TWTDS's name, mailing address,  location, and status as federal, state, private, public or other entity; 
    (2) The applicant's name, address,  telephone number, and ownership status; 
    (3) A description of the sewage sludge  use or disposal practices. Unless the sewage sludge meets the requirements of  subdivision P 8 d of this section, the description must include the name and  address of any facility where sewage sludge is sent for treatment or disposal  and the location of any land application sites; 
    (4) Annual amount of sewage sludge  generated, treated, used or disposed (estimated dry weight basis); and 
    (5) The most recent data the TWTDS may  have on the quality of the sewage sludge. 
    c. Notwithstanding subdivision 2 a or b  of this subsection, the board may require permit applications from any TWTDS at  any time if the board determines that a permit is necessary to protect public  health and the environment from any potential adverse effects that may occur  from toxic pollutants in sewage sludge. 
    d. Any TWTDS that commences operations  after promulgation of an applicable standard for sewage sludge use or disposal  shall submit an application to the department at least 180 days prior to the  date proposed for commencing operations. 
    D. Duty to reapply. All  permittees with a currently effective permit shall submit a new application at  least 180 days before the expiration date of the existing permit, unless  permission for a later date has been granted by the board. The board shall not  grant permission for applications to be submitted later than the expiration  date of the existing permit. 
    E. Completeness. 
    1. The board shall not issue a permit  before receiving a complete application for a permit except for VPDES general  permits. An application for a permit is complete when the board receives an  application form and any supplemental information which are completed to its  satisfaction. The completeness of any application for a permit shall be judged  independently of the status of any other permit application or permit for the  same facility or activity. 
    2. No application for a VPDES permit to  discharge sewage into or adjacent to state waters from a privately owned  treatment works serving, or designed to serve, 50 or more residences shall be  considered complete unless the applicant has provided the department with  notification from the State Corporation Commission that the applicant is  incorporated in the Commonwealth and is in compliance with all regulations and  relevant orders of the State Corporation Commission. 
    3. No application for a new individual  VPDES permit authorizing a new discharge of sewage, industrial wastes, or other  wastes shall be considered complete unless it contains notification from the  county, city, or town in which the discharge is to take place that the location  and operation of the discharging facility are consistent with applicable  ordinances adopted pursuant to Chapter 22 (§ 15.2-2200 et seq.) of Title  15.2 of the Code of Virginia. The county, city or town shall inform in writing  the applicant and the board of the discharging facility's compliance or  noncompliance not more than 30 days from receipt by the chief administrative  officer, or his agent, of a request from the applicant. Should the county, city  or town fail to provide such written notification within 30 days, the  requirement for such notification is waived. The provisions of this subsection  shall not apply to any discharge for which a valid VPDES permit had been issued  prior to March 10, 2000. 
    4. A permit application shall not be  considered complete if the board has waived application requirements under  subsection J or P of this section and the EPA has disapproved the waiver  application. If a waiver request has been submitted to the EPA more than 210  days prior to permit expiration and the EPA has not disapproved the waiver  application 181 days prior to permit expiration, the permit application lacking  the information subject to the waiver application shall be considered complete.  
    5. In accordance with § 62.1-44.19:3 A  of the Code of Virginia, no application for a permit or variance to authorize  the storage of sewage sludge shall be complete unless it contains certification  from the governing body of the locality in which the sewage sludge is to be  stored that the storage site is consistent with all applicable ordinances. The  governing body shall confirm or deny consistency within 30 days of receiving a  request for certification. If the governing body does not so respond, the site  shall be deemed consistent.
    F. Information requirements. All  applicants for VPDES permits, other than POTWs and other TWTDS, shall provide  the following information to the department, using the application form  provided by the department (additional information required of applicants is  set forth in subsections G through K of this section). 
    1. The activities conducted by the  applicant which require it to obtain a VPDES permit; 
    2. Name, mailing address, and location  of the facility for which the application is submitted; 
    3. Up to four SIC codes which best  reflect the principal products or services provided by the facility; 
    4. The operator's name, address,  telephone number, ownership status, and status as federal, state, private,  public, or other entity; 
    5. Whether the facility is located on  Indian lands; 
    6. A listing of all permits or  construction approvals received or applied for under any of the following  programs: 
    a. Hazardous Waste Management program  under RCRA (42 USC § 6921); 
    b. UIC program under SDWA (42 USC §  300h); 
    c. VPDES program under the CWA and the  law; 
    d. Prevention of Significant  Deterioration (PSD) program under the Clean Air Act (42 USC § 4701 et seq.); 
    e. Nonattainment program under the Clean  Air Act (42 USC § 4701 et seq.); 
    f. National Emission Standards for  Hazardous Pollutants (NESHAPS) preconstruction approval under the Clean Air Act  (42 USC § 4701 et seq.); 
    g. Ocean dumping permits under the  Marine Protection Research and Sanctuaries Act (33 USC § 14 et seq.); 
    h. Dredge or fill permits under § 404 of  the CWA; and 
    i. Other relevant environmental permits,  including state permits. 
    7. A topographic map (or other map if a  topographic map is unavailable) extending one mile beyond the property  boundaries of the source, depicting the facility and each of its intake and  discharge structures; each of its hazardous waste treatment, storage, or  disposal facilities; each well where fluids from the facility are injected  underground; and those wells, springs, other surface water bodies, and drinking  water wells listed in public records or otherwise known to the applicant in the  map area; and 
    8. A brief description of the nature of  the business. 
    G. Application requirements for  existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers.  Existing manufacturing, commercial mining, and silvicultural dischargers  applying for VPDES permits, except for those facilities subject to the  requirements of 9VAC25-31-100 H, shall provide the following information to the  department, using application forms provided by the department. 
    1. The latitude and longitude of each  outfall to the nearest 15 seconds and the name of the receiving water. 
    2. A line drawing of the water flow  through the facility with a water balance, showing operations contributing  wastewater to the effluent and treatment units. Similar processes, operations,  or production areas may be indicated as a single unit, labeled to correspond to  the more detailed identification under subdivision 3 of this subsection. The  water balance must show approximate average flows at intake and discharge  points and between units, including treatment units. If a water balance cannot  be determined (for example, for certain mining activities), the applicant may  provide instead a pictorial description of the nature and amount of any sources  of water and any collection and treatment measures. 
    3. A narrative identification of each  type of process, operation, or production area which contributes wastewater to  the effluent for each outfall, including process wastewater, cooling water, and  storm water run-off; the average flow which each process contributes; and a  description of the treatment the wastewater receives, including the ultimate  disposal of any solid or fluid wastes other than by discharge. Processes,  operations, or production areas may be described in general terms (for example,  dye-making reactor, distillation tower). For a privately owned treatment works,  this information shall include the identity of each user of the treatment  works. The average flow of point sources composed of storm water may be  estimated. The basis for the rainfall event and the method of estimation must  be indicated. 
    4. If any of the discharges described in  subdivision 3 of this subsection are intermittent or seasonal, a description of  the frequency, duration and flow rate of each discharge occurrence (except for  storm water run-off, spillage or leaks). 
    5. If an effluent guideline promulgated  under § 304 of the CWA applies to the applicant and is expressed in terms of  production (or other measure of operation), a reasonable measure of the  applicant's actual production reported in the units used in the applicable  effluent guideline. The reported measure must reflect the actual production of  the facility. 
    6. If the applicant is subject to any  present requirements or compliance schedules for construction, upgrading or  operation of waste treatment equipment, an identification of the abatement  requirement, a description of the abatement project, and a listing of the  required and projected final compliance dates. 
    7. a. Information on the discharge of  pollutants specified in this subdivision (except information on storm water  discharges which is to be provided as specified in 9VAC25-31-120). When  quantitative data for a pollutant are required, the applicant must collect a  sample of effluent and analyze it for the pollutant in accordance with  analytical methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136 (2005). When no analytical  method is approved the applicant may use any suitable method but must provide a  description of the method. When an applicant has two or more outfalls with  substantially identical effluents, the board may allow the applicant to test  only one outfall and report that the quantitative data also apply to the  substantially identical outfalls. The requirements in e and f of this  subdivision that an applicant must provide quantitative data for certain  pollutants known or believed to be present do not apply to pollutants present  in a discharge solely as the result of their presence in intake water; however,  an applicant must report such pollutants as present. Grab samples must be used  for pH, temperature, cyanide, total phenols, residual chlorine, oil and grease,  fecal coliform, and fecal streptococcus. For all other pollutants, 24-hour  composite samples must be used. However, a minimum of one grab sample may be  taken for effluents from holding ponds or other impoundments with a retention  period greater than 24 hours. In addition, for discharges other than storm  water discharges, the board may waive composite sampling for any outfall for  which the applicant demonstrates that the use of an automatic sampler is  infeasible and that the minimum of four grab samples will be a representative  sample of the effluent being discharged. 
    b. For storm water discharges, all  samples shall be collected from the discharge resulting from a storm event that  is greater than 0.1 inch and at least 72 hours from the previously measurable  (greater than 0.1 inch rainfall) storm event. Where feasible, the variance in  the duration of the event and the total rainfall of the event should not exceed  50% from the average or median rainfall event in that area. For all applicants,  a flow-weighted composite shall be taken for either the entire discharge or for  the first three hours of the discharge. The flow-weighted composite sample for  a storm water discharge may be taken with a continuous sampler or as a  combination of a minimum of three sample aliquots taken in each hour of  discharge for the entire discharge or for the first three hours of the  discharge, with each aliquot being separated by a minimum period of 15 minutes  (applicants submitting permit applications for storm water discharges under  9VAC25-31-120 C may collect flow-weighted composite samples using different  protocols with respect to the time duration between the collection of sample  aliquots, subject to the approval of the board). However, a minimum of one grab  sample may be taken for storm water discharges from holding ponds or other  impoundments with a retention period greater than 24 hours. For a flow-weighted  composite sample, only one analysis of the composite of aliquots is required.  For storm water discharge samples taken from discharges associated with  industrial activities, quantitative data must be reported for the grab sample  taken during the first 30 minutes (or as soon thereafter as practicable) of the  discharge for all pollutants specified in 9VAC25-31-120 B 1. For all storm  water permit applicants taking flow-weighted composites, quantitative data must  be reported for all pollutants specified in 9VAC25-31-120 except pH,  temperature, cyanide, total phenols, residual chlorine, oil and grease, fecal  coliform, and fecal streptococcus. The board may allow or establish appropriate  site-specific sampling procedures or requirements, including sampling  locations, the season in which the sampling takes place, the minimum duration  between the previous measurable storm event and the storm event sampled, the  minimum or maximum level of precipitation required for an appropriate storm  event, the form of precipitation sampled (snow melt or rain fall), protocols  for collecting samples under 40 CFR Part 136 (2005), and additional time for  submitting data on a case-by-case basis. An applicant is expected to know or  have reason to believe that a pollutant is present in an effluent based on an  evaluation of the expected use, production, or storage of the pollutant, or on  any previous analyses for the pollutant. (For example, any pesticide  manufactured by a facility may be expected to be present in contaminated storm  water run-off from the facility.) 
    c. Every applicant must report  quantitative data for every outfall for the following pollutants: 
    Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5)  
    Chemical oxygen demand 
    Total organic carbon 
    Total suspended solids 
    Ammonia (as N) 
    Temperature (both winter and summer) 
    pH 
    d. The board may waive the reporting  requirements for individual point sources or for a particular industry category  for one or more of the pollutants listed in subdivision 7 c of this subsection  if the applicant has demonstrated that such a waiver is appropriate because  information adequate to support issuance of a permit can be obtained with less  stringent requirements. 
    e. Each applicant with processes in one  or more primary industry category (see 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix A (2005))  contributing to a discharge must report quantitative data for the following  pollutants in each outfall containing process wastewater: 
    (1) The organic toxic pollutants in the  fractions designated in Table I of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) for the  applicant's industrial category or categories unless the applicant qualifies as  a small business under subdivision 8 of this subsection. Table II of 40 CFR  Part 122 Appendix D (2005) lists the organic toxic pollutants in each fraction.  The fractions result from the sample preparation required by the analytical  procedure which uses gas chromatography/mass spectrometry. A determination that  an applicant falls within a particular industrial category for the purposes of  selecting fractions for testing is not conclusive as to the applicant's  inclusion in that category for any other purposes; and 
    (2) The pollutants listed in Table III  of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (the toxic metals, cyanide, and total  phenols). 
    f. (1) Each applicant must indicate  whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants in Table  IV of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (certain conventional and  nonconventional pollutants) is discharged from each outfall. If an applicable  effluent limitations guideline either directly limits the pollutant or, by its  express terms, indirectly limits the pollutant through limitations on an  indicator, the applicant must report quantitative data. For every pollutant discharged  which is not so limited in an effluent limitations guideline, the applicant  must either report quantitative data or briefly describe the reasons the  pollutant is expected to be discharged. 
    (2) Each applicant must indicate whether  it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants listed in Table II  or Table III of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (the toxic pollutants and  total phenols) for which quantitative data are not otherwise required under  subdivision 7 e of this subsection, is discharged from each outfall. For every  pollutant expected to be discharged in concentrations of 10 ppb or greater the  applicant must report quantitative data. For acrolein, acrylonitrile, 2,4  dinitrophenol, and 2-methyl-4,6 dinitrophenol, where any of these four  pollutants are expected to be discharged in concentrations of 100 ppb or  greater the applicant must report quantitative data. For every pollutant  expected to be discharged in concentrations less than 10 ppb, or in the case of  acrolein, acrylonitrile, 2,4 dinitrophenol, and 2-methyl-4,6 dinitrophenol, in  concentrations less than 100 ppb, the applicant must either submit quantitative  data or briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be  discharged. An applicant qualifying as a small business under subdivision 8 of  this subsection is not required to analyze for pollutants listed in Table II of  40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (the organic toxic pollutants). 
    g. Each applicant must indicate whether  it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants in Table V of 40  CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (certain hazardous substances and asbestos) are  discharged from each outfall. For every pollutant expected to be discharged,  the applicant must briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be  discharged, and report any quantitative data it has for any pollutant. 
    h. Each applicant must report  qualitative data, generated using a screening procedure not calibrated with  analytical standards, for 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD) if it: 
    (1) Uses or manufactures  2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4,5,-T); 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)  propanoic acid (Silvex, 2,4,5,-TP); 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) ethyl,  2,2-dichloropropionate (Erbon); O,O-dimethyl O-(2,4,5-trichlorophenyl) phosphorothioate  (Ronnel); 2,4,5-trichlorophenol (TCP); or hexachlorophene (HCP); or 
    (2) Knows or has reason to believe that  TCDD is or may be present in an effluent. 
    8. An applicant which qualifies as a  small business under one of the following criteria is exempt from the  requirements in subdivision 7 e (1) or 7 f (1) of this subsection to submit  quantitative data for the pollutants listed in Table II of 40 CFR Part 122  Appendix D (2005) (the organic toxic pollutants): 
    a. For coal mines, a probable total annual  production of less than 100,000 tons per year; or 
    b. For all other applicants, gross total  annual sales averaging less than $100,000 per year (in second quarter 1980  dollars). 
    9. A listing of any toxic pollutant  which the applicant currently uses or manufactures as an intermediate or final  product or by-product. The board may waive or modify this requirement for any  applicant if the applicant demonstrates that it would be unduly burdensome to  identify each toxic pollutant and the board has adequate information to issue  the permit. 
    10. Reserved. 
    11. An identification of any biological  toxicity tests which the applicant knows or has reason to believe have been  made within the last three years on any of the applicant's discharges or on a  receiving water in relation to a discharge. 
    12. If a contract laboratory or  consulting firm performed any of the analyses required by subdivision 7 of this  subsection, the identity of each laboratory or firm and the analyses performed.  
    13. In addition to the information  reported on the application form, applicants shall provide to the board, at its  request, such other information, including pertinent plans, specifications,  maps and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and  details satisfactory to the board, as the board may reasonably require to  assess the discharges of the facility and to determine whether to issue a VPDES  permit. The additional information may include additional quantitative data and  bioassays to assess the relative toxicity of discharges to aquatic life and  requirements to determine the cause of the toxicity. 
    H. Application requirements for  manufacturing, commercial, mining and silvicultural facilities which discharge  only nonprocess wastewater. Except for storm water discharges, all  manufacturing, commercial, mining and silvicultural dischargers applying for  VPDES permits which discharge only nonprocess wastewater not regulated by an  effluent limitations guideline or new source performance standard shall provide  the following information to the department using application forms provided by  the department: 
    1. Outfall number, latitude and  longitude to the nearest 15 seconds, and the name of the receiving water; 
    2. Date of expected commencement of  discharge; 
    3. An identification of the general type  of waste discharged, or expected to be discharged upon commencement of  operations, including sanitary wastes, restaurant or cafeteria wastes, or  noncontact cooling water. An identification of cooling water additives (if any)  that are used or expected to be used upon commencement of operations, along  with their composition if existing composition is available; 
    4. a. Quantitative data for the  pollutants or parameters listed below, unless testing is waived by the board.  The quantitative data may be data collected over the past 365 days, if they  remain representative of current operations, and must include maximum daily  value, average daily value, and number of measurements taken. The applicant  must collect and analyze samples in accordance with 40 CFR Part 136 (2005).  Grab samples must be used for pH, temperature, oil and grease, total residual  chlorine, and fecal coliform. For all other pollutants, 24-hour composite  samples must be used. New dischargers must include estimates for the pollutants  or parameters listed below instead of actual sampling data, along with the  source of each estimate. All levels must be reported or estimated as  concentration and as total mass, except for flow, pH, and temperature. 
    (1) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5).  
    (2) Total suspended solids (TSS). 
    (3) Fecal coliform (if believed present  or if sanitary waste is or will be discharged). 
    (4) Total residual chlorine (if chlorine  is used). 
    (5) Oil and grease. 
    (6) Chemical oxygen demand (COD) (if  noncontact cooling water is or will be discharged). 
    (7) Total organic carbon (TOC) (if  noncontact cooling water is or will be discharged). 
    (8) Ammonia (as N). 
    (9) Discharge flow. 
    (10) pH. 
    (11) Temperature (winter and summer). 
    b. The board may waive the testing and reporting  requirements for any of the pollutants or flow listed in subdivision 4 a of  this subsection if the applicant submits a request for such a waiver before or  with his application which demonstrates that information adequate to support  issuance of a permit can be obtained through less stringent requirements. 
    c. If the applicant is a new discharger,  he must submit the information required in subdivision 4 a of this subsection  by providing quantitative data in accordance with that section no later than  two years after commencement of discharge. However, the applicant need not  submit testing results which he has already performed and reported under the  discharge monitoring requirements of his VPDES permit. 
    d. The requirements of subdivisions 4 a  and 4 c of this subsection that an applicant must provide quantitative data or  estimates of certain pollutants do not apply to pollutants present in a  discharge solely as a result of their presence in intake water. However, an  applicant must report such pollutants as present. Net credit may be provided  for the presence of pollutants in intake water if the requirements of  9VAC25-31-230 G are met; 
    5. A description of the frequency of  flow and duration of any seasonal or intermittent discharge (except for storm  water run-off, leaks, or spills); 
    6. A brief description of any treatment  system used or to be used; 
    7. Any additional information the  applicant wishes to be considered, such as influent data for the purpose of  obtaining net credits pursuant to 9VAC25-31-230 G; 
    8. Signature of certifying official  under 9VAC25-31-110; and 
    9. Pertinent plans, specifications, maps  and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details  satisfactory to the board. 
    I. Application requirements for  new and existing concentrated animal feeding operations and aquatic animal  production facilities. New and existing concentrated animal feeding operations  and concentrated aquatic animal production facilities shall provide the  following information to the department, using the application form provided by  the department: 
    1. For concentrated animal feeding  operations: 
    a. The name of the owner or operator; 
    b. The facility location and mailing  address; 
    c. Latitude and longitude of the  production area (entrance to the production area); 
    d. A topographic map of the geographic  area in which the CAFO is located showing the specific location of the  production area, in lieu of the requirements of subdivision F 7 of this  section; 
    e. Specific information about the number  and type of animals, whether in open confinement or housed under roof (beef  cattle, broilers, layers, swine weighing 55 pounds or more, swine weighing less  than 55 pounds, mature dairy cows, dairy heifers, veal calves, sheep and lambs,  horses, ducks, turkeys, other); 
    f. The type of containment and storage  (anaerobic lagoon, roofed storage shed, storage ponds, underfloor pits, above  ground storage tanks, below ground storage tanks, concrete pad, impervious soil  pad, other) and total capacity for manure, litter, and process wastewater  storage (tons/gallons); 
    g. The total number of acres under  control of the applicant available for land application of manure, litter, or  process wastewater; 
    h. Estimated amounts of manure, litter,  and process wastewater generated per year (tons/gallons); and 
    i. For CAFOs that must seek coverage  under a permit after December 31, 2006, certification that a nutrient  management plan has been completed and will be implemented upon the date of  coverage. 
    2. For concentrated aquatic animal  production facilities: 
    a. The maximum daily and average monthly  flow from each outfall; 
    b. The number of ponds, raceways, and  similar structures; 
    c. The name of the receiving water and  the source of intake water; 
    d. For each species of aquatic animals,  the total yearly and maximum harvestable weight; 
    e. The calendar month of maximum feeding  and the total mass of food fed during that month; and 
    f. Pertinent plans, specifications, maps  and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details  satisfactory to the board. 
    J. Application requirements for  new and existing POTWs and treatment works treating domestic sewage. Unless  otherwise indicated, all POTWs and other dischargers designated by the board  must provide to the department, at a minimum, the information in this  subsection using an application form provided by the department. Permit  applicants must submit all information available at the time of permit  application. The information may be provided by referencing information previously  submitted to the department. The board may waive any requirement of this  subsection if it has access to substantially identical information. The board  may also waive any requirement of this subsection that is not of material  concern for a specific permit, if approved by the regional administrator. The  waiver request to the regional administrator must include the board's  justification for the waiver. A regional administrator's disapproval of the  board's proposed waiver does not constitute final agency action but does  provide notice to the board and permit applicant(s) that the EPA may object to  any board-issued permit issued in the absence of the required information. 
    1. All applicants must provide the  following information: 
    a. Name, mailing address, and location  of the facility for which the application is submitted; 
    b. Name, mailing address, and telephone  number of the applicant and indication as to whether the applicant is the  facility's owner, operator, or both; 
    c. Identification of all environmental  permits or construction approvals received or applied for (including dates)  under any of the following programs: 
    (1) Hazardous Waste Management program  under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), Subpart C; 
    (2) Underground Injection Control  program under the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA); 
    (3) NPDES program under the Clean Water  Act (CWA); 
    (4) Prevention of Significant  Deterioration (PSD) program under the Clean Air Act; 
    (5) Nonattainment program under the  Clean Air Act; 
    (6) National Emission Standards for  Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPS) preconstruction approval under the Clean Air  Act; 
    (7) Ocean dumping permits under the  Marine Protection Research and Sanctuaries Act; 
    (8) Dredge or fill permits under § 404  of the CWA; and 
    (9) Other relevant environmental  permits, including state permits; 
    d. The name and population of each  municipal entity served by the facility, including unincorporated connector  districts. Indicate whether each municipal entity owns or maintains the collection  system and whether the collection system is separate sanitary or combined storm  and sanitary, if known; 
    e. Information concerning whether the  facility is located in Indian country and whether the facility discharges to a  receiving stream that flows through Indian country; 
    f. The facility's design flow rate (the  wastewater flow rate the plant was built to handle), annual average daily flow  rate, and maximum daily flow rate for each of the previous three years; 
    g. Identification of type(s) of  collection system(s) used by the treatment works (i.e., separate sanitary  sewers or combined storm and sanitary sewers) and an estimate of the percent of  sewer line that each type comprises; and 
    h. The following information for  outfalls to surface waters and other discharge or disposal methods: 
    (1) For effluent discharges to surface  waters, the total number and types of outfalls (e.g., treated effluent,  combined sewer overflows, bypasses, constructed emergency overflows); 
    (2) For wastewater discharged to surface  impoundments: 
    (a) The location of each surface  impoundment; 
    (b) The average daily volume discharged  to each surface impoundment; and 
    (c) Whether the discharge is continuous  or intermittent; 
    (3) For wastewater applied to the land: 
    (a) The location of each land  application site; 
    (b) The size of each land application  site, in acres; 
    (c) The average daily volume applied to  each land application site, in gallons per day; and 
    (d) Whether land application is  continuous or intermittent; 
    (4) For effluent sent to another  facility for treatment prior to discharge: 
    (a) The means by which the effluent is  transported; 
    (b) The name, mailing address, contact  person, and phone number of the organization transporting the discharge, if the  transport is provided by a party other than the applicant; 
    (c) The name, mailing address, contact  person, phone number, and VPDES permit number (if any) of the receiving  facility; and 
    (d) The average daily flow rate from  this facility into the receiving facility, in millions of gallons per day; and 
    (5) For wastewater disposed of in a  manner not included in subdivisions 1 h (1) through (4) of this subsection  (e.g., underground percolation, underground injection): 
    (a) A description of the disposal  method, including the location and size of each disposal site, if applicable; 
    (b) The annual average daily volume  disposed of by this method, in gallons per day; and 
    (c) Whether disposal through this method  is continuous or intermittent; 
    2. All applicants with a design flow  greater than or equal to 0.1 mgd must provide the following information: 
    a. The current average daily volume of  inflow and infiltration, in gallons per day, and steps the facility is taking  to minimize inflow and infiltration; 
    b. A topographic map (or other map if a  topographic map is unavailable) extending at least one mile beyond property  boundaries of the treatment plant, including all unit processes, and showing: 
    (1) Treatment plant area and unit  processes; 
    (2) The major pipes or other structures  through which wastewater enters the treatment plant and the pipes or other  structures through which treated wastewater is discharged from the treatment  plant. Include outfalls from bypass piping, if applicable; 
    (3) Each well where fluids from the  treatment plant are injected underground; 
    (4) Wells, springs, and other surface  water bodies listed in public records or otherwise known to the applicant  within 1/4 mile of the treatment works' property boundaries; 
    (5) Sewage sludge management facilities  (including on-site treatment, storage, and disposal sites); and 
    (6) Location at which waste classified  as hazardous under RCRA enters the treatment plant by truck, rail, or dedicated  pipe; 
    c. Process flow diagram or schematic. 
    (1) A diagram showing the processes of  the treatment plant, including all bypass piping and all backup power sources  or redundancy in the system. This includes a water balance showing all  treatment units, including disinfection, and showing daily average flow rates  at influent and discharge points, and approximate daily flow rates between  treatment units; and 
    (2) A narrative description of the  diagram; and 
    d. The following information regarding  scheduled improvements: 
    (1) The outfall number of each outfall  affected; 
    (2) A narrative description of each  required improvement; 
    (3) Scheduled or actual dates of  completion for the following: 
    (a) Commencement of construction; 
    (b) Completion of construction; 
    (c) Commencement of discharge; and 
    (d) Attainment of operational level; and  
    (4) A description of permits and  clearances concerning other federal or state requirements; 
    3. Each applicant must provide the  following information for each outfall, including bypass points, through which  effluent is discharged, as applicable: 
    a. The following information about each  outfall: 
    (1) Outfall number; 
    (2) State, county, and city or town in  which outfall is located; 
    (3) Latitude and longitude, to the  nearest second; 
    (4) Distance from shore and depth below  surface; 
    (5) Average daily flow rate, in million  gallons per day; 
    (6) The following information for each  outfall with a seasonal or periodic discharge: 
    (a) Number of times per year the  discharge occurs; 
    (b) Duration of each discharge; 
    (c) Flow of each discharge; and 
    (d) Months in which discharge occurs; and  
    (7) Whether the outfall is equipped with  a diffuser and the type (e.g., high-rate) of diffuser used. 
    b. The following information, if known,  for each outfall through which effluent is discharged to surface waters: 
    (1) Name of receiving water; 
    (2) Name of watershed/river/stream  system and United States Soil Conservation Service 14-digit watershed code; 
    (3) Name of State Management/River Basin  and United States Geological Survey 8-digit hydrologic cataloging unit code;  and 
    (4) Critical flow of receiving stream  and total hardness of receiving stream at critical low flow (if applicable). 
    c. The following information describing  the treatment provided for discharges from each outfall to surface waters: 
    (1) The highest level of treatment  (e.g., primary, equivalent to secondary, secondary, advanced, other) that is  provided for the discharge for each outfall and: 
    (a) Design biochemical oxygen demand  (BOD5 or CBOD5) removal (percent); 
    (b) Design suspended solids (SS) removal  (percent); and, where applicable; 
    (c) Design phosphorus (P) removal  (percent); 
    (d) Design nitrogen (N) removal  (percent); and 
    (e) Any other removals that an advanced  treatment system is designed to achieve. 
    (2) A description of the type of  disinfection used, and whether the treatment plant dechlorinates (if  disinfection is accomplished through chlorination). 
    4. Effluent monitoring for specific  parameters. 
    a. As provided in subdivisions 4 b  through j of this subsection, all applicants must submit to the department  effluent monitoring information for samples taken from each outfall through  which effluent is discharged to surface waters, except for CSOs. The board may  allow applicants to submit sampling data for only one outfall on a case-by-case  basis, where the applicant has two or more outfalls with substantially  identical effluent. The board may also allow applicants to composite samples  from one or more outfalls that discharge into the same mixing zone. 
    b. All applicants must sample and  analyze for the following pollutants: 
    (1) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5  or CBOD5); 
    (2) Fecal coliform; 
    (3) Design flow rate; 
    (4) pH; 
    (5) Temperature; and 
    (6) Total suspended solids. 
    c. All applicants with a design flow  greater than or equal to 0.1 mgd must sample and analyze for the following  pollutants: 
    (1) Ammonia (as N); 
    (2) Chlorine (total residual, TRC); 
    (3) Dissolved oxygen; 
    (4) Nitrate/Nitrite; 
    (5) Kjeldahl nitrogen; 
    (6) Oil and grease; 
    (7) Phosphorus; and 
    (8) Total dissolved solids. 
    Facilities that do not use chlorine for  disinfection, do not use chlorine elsewhere in the treatment process, and have  no reasonable potential to discharge chlorine in their effluent may delete  chlorine. 
    d. All POTWs with a design flow rate  equal to or greater than one million gallons per day, all POTWs with approved  pretreatment programs or POTWs required to develop a pretreatment program, and  other POTWs, as required by the board must sample and analyze for the  pollutants listed in Table 2 of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix J (2005), and for any  other pollutants for which the board or EPA have established water quality  standards applicable to the receiving waters. 
    e. The board may require sampling for  additional pollutants, as appropriate, on a case-by-case basis. 
    f. Applicants must provide data from a  minimum of three samples taken within 4-1/2 years prior to the date of the  permit application. Samples must be representative of the seasonal variation in  the discharge from each outfall. Existing data may be used, if available, in  lieu of sampling done solely for the purpose of this application. The board may  require additional samples, as appropriate, on a case-by-case basis. 
    g. All existing data for pollutants  specified in subdivisions 4 b through e of this subsection that is collected  within 4-1/2 years of the application must be included in the pollutant data  summary submitted by the applicant. If, however, the applicant samples for a  specific pollutant on a monthly or more frequent basis, it is only necessary,  for such pollutant, to summarize all data collected within one year of the  application. 
    h. Applicants must collect samples of  effluent and analyze such samples for pollutants in accordance with analytical  methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136 (2005) unless an alternative is  specified in the existing VPDES permit. Grab samples must be used for pH,  temperature, cyanide, total phenols, residual chlorine, oil and grease, and  fecal coliform. For all other pollutants, 24-hour composite samples must be  used. For a composite sample, only one analysis of the composite of aliquots is  required. 
    i. The effluent monitoring data provided  must include at least the following information for each parameter: 
    (1) Maximum daily discharge, expressed  as concentration or mass, based upon actual sample values; 
    (2) Average daily discharge for all  samples, expressed as concentration or mass, and the number of samples used to  obtain this value; 
    (3) The analytical method used; and 
    (4) The threshold level (i.e., method  detection limit, minimum level, or other designated method endpoints) for the  analytical method used. 
    j. Unless otherwise required by the  board, metals must be reported as total recoverable. 
    5. Effluent monitoring for whole  effluent toxicity. 
    a. All applicants must provide an  identification of any whole effluent toxicity tests conducted during the 4-1/2  years prior to the date of the application on any of the applicant's discharges  or on any receiving water near the discharge. 
    b. As provided in subdivisions 5 c  through i of this subsection, the following applicants must submit to the  department the results of valid whole effluent toxicity tests for acute or  chronic toxicity for samples taken from each outfall through which effluent is  discharged to surface waters, except for combined sewer overflows: 
    (1) All POTWs with design flow rates  greater than or equal to one million gallons per day; 
    (2) All POTWs with approved pretreatment  programs or POTWs required to develop a pretreatment program; 
    (3) Other POTWs, as required by the  board, based on consideration of the following factors: 
    (a) The variability of the pollutants or  pollutant parameters in the POTW effluent (based on chemical-specific  information, the type of treatment plant, and types of industrial  contributors); 
    (b) The ratio of effluent flow to  receiving stream flow; 
    (c) Existing controls on point or  nonpoint sources, including total maximum daily load calculations for the  receiving stream segment and the relative contribution of the POTW; 
    (d) Receiving stream characteristics,  including possible or known water quality impairment, and whether the POTW  discharges to a coastal water, or a water designated as an outstanding natural  resource water; or 
    (e) Other considerations (including, but  not limited to, the history of toxic impacts and compliance problems at the  POTW) that the board determines could cause or contribute to adverse water  quality impacts. 
    c. Where the POTW has two or more  outfalls with substantially identical effluent discharging to the same  receiving stream segment, the board may allow applicants to submit whole  effluent toxicity data for only one outfall on a case-by-case basis. The board  may also allow applicants to composite samples from one or more outfalls that  discharge into the same mixing zone. 
    d. Each applicant required to perform  whole effluent toxicity testing pursuant to subdivision 5 b of this subsection  must provide: 
    (1) Results of a minimum of four  quarterly tests for a year, from the year preceding the permit application; or 
    (2) Results from four tests performed at  least annually in the 4-1/2 year period prior to the application, provided the  results show no appreciable toxicity using a safety factor determined by the  board. 
    e. Applicants must conduct tests with  multiple species (no less than two species, e.g., fish, invertebrate, plant)  and test for acute or chronic toxicity, depending on the range of receiving  water dilution. The board recommends that applicants conduct acute or chronic  testing based on the following dilutions: (i) acute toxicity testing if the  dilution of the effluent is greater than 100:1 at the edge of the mixing zone  or (ii) chronic toxicity testing if the dilution of the effluent is less than  or equal to 100:1 at the edge of the mixing zone. 
    f. Each applicant required to perform  whole effluent toxicity testing pursuant to subdivision 5 b of this subsection  must provide the number of chronic or acute whole effluent toxicity tests that  have been conducted since the last permit reissuance. 
    g. Applicants must provide the results  using the form provided by the department, or test summaries if available and  comprehensive, for each whole effluent toxicity test conducted pursuant to  subdivision 5 b of this subsection for which such information has not been  reported previously to the department. 
    h. Whole effluent toxicity testing  conducted pursuant to subdivision 5 b of this subsection must be conducted  using methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136 (2005), as directed by the board. 
    i. For whole effluent toxicity data  submitted to the department within 4-1/2 years prior to the date of the  application, applicants must provide the dates on which the data were submitted  and a summary of the results. 
    j. Each POTW required to perform whole  effluent toxicity testing pursuant to subdivision 5 b of this subsection must  provide any information on the cause of toxicity and written details of any  toxicity reduction evaluation conducted, if any whole effluent toxicity test  conducted within the past 4-1/2 years revealed toxicity. 
    6. Applicants must submit the following  information about industrial discharges to the POTW: 
    a. Number of significant industrial  users (SIUs) and categorical industrial users (CIUs) discharging to the POTW;  and 
    b. POTWs with one or more SIUs shall  provide the following information for each SIU, as defined in 9VAC25-31-10,  that discharges to the POTW: 
    (1) Name and mailing address; 
    (2) Description of all industrial  processes that affect or contribute to the SIU's discharge; 
    (3) Principal products and raw materials  of the SIU that affect or contribute to the SIU's discharge; 
    (4) Average daily volume of wastewater  discharged, indicating the amount attributable to process flow and nonprocess  flow; 
    (5) Whether the SIU is subject to local  limits; 
    (6) Whether the SIU is subject to  categorical standards and, if so, under which category and subcategory; and 
    (7) Whether any problems at the POTW  (e.g., upsets, pass through, interference) have been attributed to the SIU in  the past 4-1/2 years. 
    c. The information required in  subdivisions 6 a and b of this subsection may be waived by the board for POTWs  with pretreatment programs if the applicant has submitted either of the  following that contain information substantially identical to that required in  subdivisions 6 a and b of this subsection: 
    (1) An annual report submitted within  one year of the application; or 
    (2) A pretreatment program. 
    7. Discharges from hazardous waste  generators and from waste cleanup or remediation sites. POTWs receiving  Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), Comprehensive Environmental  Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), or RCRA Corrective Action  wastes or wastes generated at another type of cleanup or remediation site must  provide the following information: 
    a. If the POTW receives, or has been  notified that it will receive, by truck, rail, or dedicated pipe any wastes  that are regulated as RCRA hazardous wastes pursuant to 40 CFR Part 261 (2005),  the applicant must report the following: 
    (1) The method by which the waste is  received (i.e., whether by truck, rail, or dedicated pipe); and 
    (2) The hazardous waste number and  amount received annually of each hazardous waste. 
    b. If the POTW receives, or has been  notified that it will receive, wastewaters that originate from remedial  activities, including those undertaken pursuant to CERCLA and § 3004(u) or  3008(h) of RCRA, the applicant must report the following: 
    (1) The identity and description of the  site or facility at which the wastewater originates; 
    (2) The identities of the wastewater's  hazardous constituents, as listed in Appendix VIII of 40 CFR Part 261 (2005),  if known; and 
    (3) The extent of treatment, if any, the  wastewater receives or will receive before entering the POTW. 
    c. Applicants are exempt from the  requirements of subdivision 7 b of this subsection if they receive no more than  15 kilograms per month of hazardous wastes, unless the wastes are acute  hazardous wastes as specified in 40 CFR 261.30(d) and 261.33(e) (2005). 
    8. Each applicant with combined sewer  systems must provide the following information: 
    a. The following information regarding  the combined sewer system: 
    (1) A map indicating the location of the  following: 
    (a) All CSO discharge points; 
    (b) Sensitive use areas potentially  affected by CSOs (e.g., beaches, drinking water supplies, shellfish beds,  sensitive aquatic ecosystems, and outstanding national resource waters); and 
    (c) Waters supporting threatened and  endangered species potentially affected by CSOs; and 
    (2) A diagram of the combined sewer  collection system that includes the following information: 
    (a) The location of major sewer trunk  lines, both combined and separate sanitary; 
    (b) The locations of points where  separate sanitary sewers feed into the combined sewer system; 
    (c) In-line and off-line storage structures;  
    (d) The locations of flow-regulating  devices; and 
    (e) The locations of pump stations. 
    b. The following information for each  CSO discharge point covered by the permit application: 
    (1) The following information on each  outfall: 
    (a) Outfall number; 
    (b) State, county, and city or town in  which outfall is located; 
    (c) Latitude and longitude, to the  nearest second; 
    (d) Distance from shore and depth below  surface; 
    (e) Whether the applicant monitored any  of the following in the past year for this CSO: (i) rainfall, (ii) CSO flow  volume, (iii) CSO pollutant concentrations, (iv) receiving water quality, or  (v) CSO frequency; and 
    (f) The number of storm events monitored  in the past year; 
    (2) The following information about CSO  overflows from each outfall: 
    (a) The number of events in the past  year; 
    (b) The average duration per event, if  available; 
    (c) The average volume per CSO event, if  available; and 
    (d) The minimum rainfall that caused a  CSO event, if available, in the last year; 
    (3) The following information about  receiving waters: 
    (a) Name of receiving water; 
    (b) Name of watershed/stream system and  the United States Soil Conservation Service watershed (14-digit) code, if  known; and 
    (c) Name of State Management/River Basin  and the United States Geological Survey hydrologic cataloging unit (8-digit)  code, if known; and 
    (4) A description of any known water  quality impacts on the receiving water caused by the CSO (e.g., permanent or  intermittent beach closings, permanent or intermittent shellfish bed closings,  fish kills, fish advisories, other recreational loss, or exceedance of any  applicable state water quality standard). 
    9. All applicants must provide the name,  mailing address, telephone number, and responsibilities of all contractors responsible  for any operational or maintenance aspects of the facility. 
    10. All applications must be signed by a  certifying official in compliance with 9VAC25-31-110. 
    11. Pertinent plans, specifications,  maps and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and  details satisfactory to the board. 
    K. Application requirements for  new sources and new discharges. New manufacturing, commercial, mining and  silvicultural dischargers applying for VPDES permits (except for new discharges  of facilities subject to the requirements of subsection H of this section or  new discharges of storm water associated with industrial activity which are  subject to the requirements of 9VAC25-31-120 B 1 and this subsection) shall  provide the following information to the department, using the application  forms provided by the department: 
    1. The expected outfall location in  latitude and longitude to the nearest 15 seconds and the name of the receiving  water; 
    2. The expected date of commencement of  discharge; 
    3. a. Description of the treatment that  the wastewater will receive, along with all operations contributing wastewater  to the effluent, average flow contributed by each operation, and the ultimate  disposal of any solid or liquid wastes not discharged; 
    b. A line drawing of the water flow  through the facility with a water balance as described in subdivision G 2; 
    c. If any of the expected discharges  will be intermittent or seasonal, a description of the frequency, duration and  maximum daily flow rate of each discharge occurrence (except for storm water  run-off, spillage, or leaks); and 
    4. If a new source performance standard  promulgated under § 306 of the CWA or an effluent limitation guideline applies  to the applicant and is expressed in terms of production (or other measure of  operation), a reasonable measure of the applicant's expected actual production  reported in the units used in the applicable effluent guideline or new source  performance standard for each of the first three years. Alternative estimates  may also be submitted if production is likely to vary; 
    5. The requirements in subdivisions H 4  a, b, and c of this section that an applicant must provide estimates of certain  pollutants expected to be present do not apply to pollutants present in a  discharge solely as a result of their presence in intake water; however, an  applicant must report such pollutants as present. Net credits may be provided  for the presence of pollutants in intake water if the requirements of  9VAC25-31-230 G are met. All levels (except for discharge flow, temperature,  and pH) must be estimated as concentration and as total mass. 
    a. Each applicant must report estimated  daily maximum, daily average, and source of information for each outfall for  the following pollutants or parameters. The board may waive the reporting  requirements for any of these pollutants and parameters if the applicant  submits a request for such a waiver before or with his application which  demonstrates that information adequate to support issuance of the permit can be  obtained through less stringent reporting requirements. 
    (1) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD). 
    (2) Chemical oxygen demand (COD). 
    (3) Total organic carbon (TOC). 
    (4) Total suspended solids (TSS). 
    (5) Flow. 
    (6) Ammonia (as N). 
    (7) Temperature (winter and summer). 
    (8) pH. 
    b. Each applicant must report estimated  daily maximum, daily average, and source of information for each outfall for  the following pollutants, if the applicant knows or has reason to believe they  will be present or if they are limited by an effluent limitation guideline or  new source performance standard either directly or indirectly through  limitations on an indicator pollutant: all pollutants in Table IV of 40 CFR  Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (certain conventional and nonconventional pollutants).  
    c. Each applicant must report estimated  daily maximum, daily average and source of information for the following  pollutants if he knows or has reason to believe that they will be present in  the discharges from any outfall: 
    (1) The pollutants listed in Table III  of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (the toxic metals, in the discharge from  any outfall, Total cyanide, and total phenols); 
    (2) The organic toxic pollutants in  Table II of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (except bis (chloromethyl) ether,  dichlorofluoromethane and trichlorofluoromethane). This requirement is waived  for applicants with expected gross sales of less than $100,000 per year for the  next three years, and for coal mines with expected average production of less  than 100,000 tons of coal per year. 
    d. The applicant is required to report  that 2,3,7,8 Tetrachlorodibenzo-P-Dioxin (TCDD) may be discharged if he uses or  manufactures one of the following compounds, or if he knows or has reason to  believe that TCDD will or may be present in an effluent: 
    (1) 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid  (2,4,5-T) (CAS #93-76-5); 
    (2) (2) 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)  propanoic acid (Silvex, 2,4,5-TP) (CAS #93-72-1); 
    (3) 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) ethyl  2,2-dichloropropionate (Erbon) (CAS #136-25-4); 
    (4) 0,0-dimethyl  0-(2,4,5-trichlorophenyl) phosphorothioate (Ronnel) (CAS #299-84-3); 
    (5) 2,4,5-trichlorophenol (TCP) (CAS  #95-95-4); or 
    (6) Hexachlorophene (HCP) (CAS  #70-30-4); 
    e. Each applicant must report any  pollutants listed in Table V of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (certain  hazardous substances) if he believes they will be present in any outfall (no  quantitative estimates are required unless they are already available). 
    f. No later than two years after the  commencement of discharge from the proposed facility, the applicant is required  to submit the information required in subsection G of this section. However,  the applicant need not complete those portions of subsection G of this section  requiring tests which he has already performed and reported under the discharge  monitoring requirements of his VPDES permit; 
    6. Each applicant must report the  existence of any technical evaluation concerning his wastewater treatment,  along with the name and location of similar plants of which he has knowledge; 
    7. Any optional information the  permittee wishes to have considered; 
    8. Signature of certifying official  under 9VAC25-31-110; and 
    9. Pertinent plans, specifications, maps  and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details  satisfactory to the board. 
    L. Variance requests by  non-POTWs. A discharger which is not a publicly owned treatment works (POTW)  may request a variance from otherwise applicable effluent limitations under any  of the following statutory or regulatory provisions within the times specified  in this subsection: 
    1. Fundamentally different factors. 
    a. A request for a variance based on the  presence of fundamentally different factors from those on which the effluent  limitations guideline was based shall be filed as follows: 
    (1) For a request from best practicable  control technology currently available (BPT), by the close of the public  comment period for the draft permit; or 
    (2) For a request from best available  technology economically achievable (BAT) and/or best conventional pollutant  control technology (BCT), by no later than: 
    (a) July 3, 1989, for a request based on  an effluent limitation guideline promulgated before February 4, 1987, to the  extent July 3, 1989, is not later than that provided under previously promulgated  regulations; or 
    (b) 180 days after the date on which an  effluent limitation guideline is published in the Federal Register for a  request based on an effluent limitation guideline promulgated on or after  February 4, 1987. 
    b. The request shall explain how the  requirements of the applicable regulatory or statutory criteria have been met. 
    2. A request for a variance from the BAT  requirements for CWA § 301(b)(2)(F) pollutants (commonly called nonconventional  pollutants) pursuant to § 301(c) of the CWA because of the economic capability  of the owner or operator, or pursuant to § 301(g) of the CWA (provided however  that a § 301(g) variance may only be requested for ammonia; chlorine; color;  iron; total phenols (when determined by the Administrator to be a pollutant  covered by § 301(b)(2)(F) of the CWA) and any other pollutant which the  administrator lists under § 301(g)(4) of the CWA) must be made as follows: 
    a. For those requests for a variance  from an effluent limitation based upon an effluent limitation guideline by: 
    (1) Submitting an initial request to the  regional administrator, as well as to the department, stating the name of the  discharger, the permit number, the outfall number(s), the applicable effluent  guideline, and whether the discharger is requesting a §§ 301(c) or 301(g) of  the CWA modification, or both. This request must have been filed not later than  270 days after promulgation of an applicable effluent limitation guideline; and  
    (2) Submitting a completed request no  later than the close of the public comment period for the draft permit  demonstrating that: (i) all reasonable ascertainable issues have been raised  and all reasonably available arguments and materials supporting their position  have been submitted; and (ii) that the applicable requirements of 40 CFR Part  125 (2005) have been met. Notwithstanding this provision, the complete  application for a request under § 301(g) of the CWA shall be filed 180 days  before EPA must make a decision (unless the Regional Division Director establishes  a shorter or longer period); or 
    b. For those requests for a variance  from effluent limitations not based on effluent limitation guidelines, the  request need only comply with subdivision 2 a (2) of this subsection and need  not be preceded by an initial request under subdivision 2 a (1) of this  subsection. 
    3. A modification under § 302(b)(2) of  the CWA of requirements under § 302(a) of the CWA for achieving water quality  related effluent limitations may be requested no later than the close of the  public comment period for the draft permit on the permit from which the  modification is sought. 
    4. A variance for alternate effluent  limitations for the thermal component of any discharge must be filed with a  timely application for a permit under this section, except that if thermal  effluent limitations are established on a case-by-case basis or are based on  water quality standards the request for a variance may be filed by the close of  the public comment period for the draft permit. A copy of the request shall be  sent simultaneously to the department. 
    M. Variance requests by POTWs. A  discharger which is a publicly owned treatment works (POTW) may request a  variance from otherwise applicable effluent limitations under any of the  following statutory provisions as specified in this paragraph: 
    1. A request for a modification under §  301(h) of the CWA of requirements of § 301(b)(1)(B) of the CWA for discharges  into marine waters must be filed in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR  Part 125, Subpart G (2005). 
    2. A modification under § 302(b)(2) of  the CWA of the requirements under § 302(a) of the CWA for achieving water  quality based effluent limitations shall be requested no later than the close  of the public comment period for the draft permit on the permit from which the  modification is sought. 
    N. Expedited variance procedures  and time extensions. 
    1. Notwithstanding the time requirements  in subsections L and M of this section, the board may notify a permit applicant  before a draft permit is issued that the draft permit will likely contain  limitations which are eligible for variances. In the notice the board may  require the applicant as a condition of consideration of any potential variance  request to submit a request explaining how the requirements of 40 CFR Part 125  (2005) applicable to the variance have been met and may require its submission  within a specified reasonable time after receipt of the notice. The notice may  be sent before the permit application has been submitted. The draft or final  permit may contain the alternative limitations which may become effective upon  final grant of the variance. 
    2. A discharger who cannot file a timely  complete request required under subdivisions L 2 a (2) or L 2 b of this section  may request an extension. The extension may be granted or denied at the  discretion of the board. Extensions shall be no more than six months in  duration. 
    O. Recordkeeping. Except for  information required by subdivision C 2 of this section, which shall be  retained for a period of at least five years from the date the application is  signed (or longer as required by Part VI (9VAC25-31-420 et seq.) of this  chapter), applicants shall keep records of all data used to complete permit  applications and any supplemental information submitted under this section for  a period of at least three years from the date the application is signed. 
    P. Sewage sludge management. All  TWTDS subject to subdivision C 2 a of this section must provide the information  in this subsection to the department using an application form approved by the  department. New applicants must submit all information available at the time of  permit application. The information may be provided by referencing information  previously submitted to the department. The board may waive any requirement of  this subsection if it has access to substantially identical information. The  board may also waive any requirement of this subsection that is not of material  concern for a specific permit, if approved by the regional administrator. The  waiver request to the regional administrator must include the board's  justification for the waiver. A regional administrator's disapproval of the  board's proposed waiver does not constitute final agency action, but does  provide notice to the board and the permit applicant that the EPA may object to  any board issued permit issued in the absence of the required information. 
    1. All applicants must submit the  following information: 
    a. The name, mailing address, and  location of the TWTDS for which the application is submitted; 
    b. Whether the facility is a Class I  Sludge Management Facility; 
    c. The design flow rate (in million  gallons per day); 
    d. The total population served; 
    e. The TWTDS's status as federal, state,  private, public, or other entity; 
    f. The name, mailing address, and  telephone number of the applicant; and 
    g. Indication whether the applicant is  the owner, operator, or both. 
    2. All applicants must submit the  facility's VPDES permit number, if applicable, and a listing of all other  federal, state, and local permits or construction approvals received or applied  for under any of the following programs: 
    a. Hazardous Waste Management program  under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA); 
    b. UIC program under the Safe Drinking  Water Act (SDWA); 
    c. NPDES program under the Clean Water  Act (CWA); 
    d. Prevention of Significant  Deterioration (PSD) program under the Clean Air Act; 
    e. Nonattainment program under the Clean  Air Act; 
    f. National Emission Standards for  Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPS) preconstruction approval under the Clean Air  Act; 
    g. Dredge or fill permits under § 404 of  the CWA; 
    h. Other relevant environmental permits,  including state or local permits. 
    3. All applicants must identify any  generation, treatment, storage, land application, or disposal of sewage sludge  that occurs in Indian country. 
    4. All applicants must submit a  topographic map (or other map if a topographic map is unavailable) extending  one mile beyond property boundaries of the facility and showing the following  information: 
    a. All sewage sludge management  facilities, including on-site treatment, storage, and disposal sites; and 
    b. Wells, springs, and other surface  water bodies that are within 1/4 mile of the property boundaries and listed in  public records or otherwise known to the applicant. 
    5. All applicants must submit a line  drawing and/or a narrative description that identifies all sewage sludge  management practices employed during the term of the permit, including all  units used for collecting, dewatering, storing, or treating sewage sludge; the  destination(s) of all liquids and solids leaving each such unit; and all  processes used for pathogen reduction and vector attraction reduction. 
    6. The applicant must submit sewage  sludge monitoring data for the pollutants for which limits in sewage sludge  have been established in Part VI (9VAC25-31-420 et seq.) of this chapter for  the applicant's use or disposal practices on the date of permit application  with the following conditions: 
    a. The board may require sampling for  additional pollutants, as appropriate, on a case-by-case basis. 
    b. Applicants must provide data from a  minimum of three samples taken within 4-1/2 years prior to the date of the  permit application. Samples must be representative of the sewage sludge and  should be taken at least one month apart. Existing data may be used in lieu of  sampling done solely for the purpose of this application. 
    c. Applicants must collect and analyze  samples in accordance with analytical methods specified in 9VAC25-31-490 unless  an alternative has been specified in an existing sewage sludge permit. 
    d. The monitoring data provided must  include at least the following information for each parameter: 
    (1) Average monthly concentration for  all samples (mg/kg dry weight), based upon actual sample values; 
    (2) The analytical method used; and 
    (3) The method detection level. 
    7. If the applicant is a person who  prepares sewage sludge, as defined in 9VAC25-31-500, the applicant must provide  the following information: 
    a. If the applicant's facility generates  sewage sludge, the total dry metric tons per 365-day period generated at the  facility. 
    b. If the applicant's facility receives  sewage sludge from another facility, the following information for each  facility from which sewage sludge is received: 
    (1) The name, mailing address, and  location of the other facility; 
    (2) The total dry metric tons per  365-day period received from the other facility; and 
    (3) A description of any treatment  processes occurring at the other facility, including blending activities and  treatment to reduce pathogens or vector attraction characteristics. 
    c. If the applicant's facility changes  the quality of sewage sludge through blending, treatment, or other activities,  the following information: 
    (1) Whether the Class A pathogen  reduction requirements in 9VAC25-31-710 A or the Class B pathogen reduction  requirements in 9VAC25-31-710 B are met, and a description of any treatment  processes used to reduce pathogens in sewage sludge; 
    (2) Whether any of the vector attraction  reduction options of 9VAC25-31-720 B 1 through 8 are met, and a description of  any treatment processes used to reduce vector attraction properties in sewage  sludge; and 
    (3) A description of any other blending,  treatment, or other activities that change the quality of sewage sludge. 
    d. If sewage sludge from the applicant's  facility meets the ceiling concentrations in 9VAC25-31-540 B 1, the pollutant  concentrations in 9VAC25-31-540 B 3, the Class A pathogen requirements in  9VAC25-31-710 A, and one of the vector attraction reduction requirements in  9VAC25-31-720 B 1 through 8, and if the sewage sludge is applied to the land,  the applicant must provide the total dry metric tons per 365-day period of  sewage sludge subject to this subsection that is applied to the land. 
    e. If sewage sludge from the applicant's  facility is sold or given away in a bag or other container for application to  the land, and the sewage sludge is not subject to subdivision 7 d of this  subsection, the applicant must provide the following information: 
    (1) The total dry metric tons per  365-day period of sewage sludge subject to this subsection that is sold or  given away in a bag or other container for application to the land; and 
    (2) A copy of all labels or notices that  accompany the sewage sludge being sold or given away. 
    f. If sewage sludge from the applicant's  facility is provided to another person who prepares sewage sludge, as defined  in 9VAC25-31-500, and the sewage sludge is not subject to subdivision 7 d of  this subsection, the applicant must provide the following information for each  facility receiving the sewage sludge: 
    (1) The name and mailing address of the  receiving facility; 
    (2) The total dry metric tons per  365-day period of sewage sludge subject to this subsection that the applicant  provides to the receiving facility; 
    (3) A description of any treatment  processes occurring at the receiving facility, including blending activities  and treatment to reduce pathogens or vector attraction characteristic; 
    (4) A copy of the notice and necessary  information that the applicant is required to provide the receiving facility  under 9VAC25-31-530 G; and 
    (5) If the receiving facility places  sewage sludge in bags or containers for sale or give-away to application to the  land, a copy of any labels or notices that accompany the sewage sludge. 
    8. If sewage sludge from the applicant's  facility is applied to the land in bulk form and is not subject to subdivision  7 d, e or f of this subsection, the applicant must provide the following  information: 
    a. The total dry metric tons per 365-day  period of sewage sludge subject to this subsection that is applied to the land.  
    b. If any land application sites are  located in states other than the state where the sewage sludge is prepared, a  description of how the applicant will notify the permitting authority for the  state(s) where the land application sites are located. 
    c. The following information for each  land application site that has been identified at the time of permit  application: 
    (1) The name (if any), and location for  the land application site; 
    (2) The site's latitude and longitude to  the nearest second, and method of determination; 
    (3) A topographic map (or other map if a  topographic map is unavailable) that shows the site's location; 
    (4) The name, mailing address, and  telephone number of the site owner, if different from the applicant; 
    (5) The name, mailing address, and  telephone number of the person who applies sewage sludge to the site, if  different from the applicant; 
    (6) Whether the site is agricultural  land, forest, a public contact site, or a reclamation site, as such site types  are defined in 9VAC25-31-500; 
    (7) The type of vegetation grown on the  site, if known, and the nitrogen requirement for this vegetation; 
    (8) Whether either of the vector  attraction reduction options of 9VAC25-31-720 B 9 or 10 is met at the site, and  a description of any procedures employed at the time of use to reduce vector  attraction properties in sewage sludge; and 
    (9) Other information that describes how  the site will be managed, as specified by the board. 
    d. The following information for each  land application site that has been identified at the time of permit  application, if the applicant intends to apply bulk sewage sludge subject to  the cumulative pollutant loading rates in 9VAC25-31-540 B 2 to the site: 
    (1) Whether the applicant has contacted  the permitting authority in the state where the bulk sewage sludge subject to  9VAC25-31-540 B 2 will be applied, to ascertain whether bulk sewage sludge  subject to 9VAC25-31-540 B 2 has been applied to the site on or since July 20,  1993, and if so, the name of the permitting authority and the name and phone  number of a contact person at the permitting authority; 
    (2) Identification of facilities other than  the applicant's facility that have sent, or are sending, sewage sludge subject  to the cumulative pollutant loading rates in 9VAC25-31-540 B 2 to the site  since July 20, 1993, if, based on the inquiry in subdivision 8 d (1) of this  subsection, bulk sewage sludge subject to cumulative pollutant loading rates in  9VAC25-31-540 B 2 has been applied to the site since July 20, 1993. 
    e. If not all land application sites  have been identified at the time of permit application, the applicant must  submit a land application plan that, at a minimum: 
    (1) Describes the geographical area  covered by the plan; 
    (2) Identifies the site selection  criteria; 
    (3) Describes how the site(s) will be  managed; 
    (4) Provides for advance notice to the  board of specific land application sites and reasonable time for the board to  object prior to land application of the sewage sludge and to notify persons  residing on property bordering such sites for the purpose of receiving written  comments from those persons for a period not to exceed 30 days. The department  shall, based upon these comments, determine whether additional site-specific  requirements should be included in the authorization for land application at  the site; and 
    (5) Provides for advance public notice  of land application sites in a newspaper of general circulation in the area of  the land application site. 
    A request to increase the acreage  authorized by the initial permit by 50% or more shall be treated as a  new application for purposes of public notice and public hearings.
    9. An applicant for a permit authorizing  the land application of sewage sludge shall provide to the department, and to  each locality in which the applicant proposes to land apply sewage sludge,  written evidence of financial responsibility, including both current liability  and pollution insurance, or such other evidence of financial responsibility as  the board may establish by regulation in an amount not less than $1 million per  occurrence, which shall be available to pay claims for cleanup costs, personal injury,  bodily injury and property damage resulting from the transport, storage and  land application of sewage sludge in Virginia. The aggregate amount of  financial liability to be maintained by the applicant shall be $1 million for  companies with less than $5 million in annual gross revenue and shall be $2  million for companies with $5 million or more in annual gross revenue.
    10. If sewage sludge from the  applicant's facility is placed on a surface disposal site, the applicant must  provide the following information: 
    a. The total dry metric tons of sewage  sludge from the applicant's facility that is placed on surface disposal sites  per 365-day period. 
    b. The following information for each  surface disposal site receiving sewage sludge from the applicant's facility  that the applicant does not own or operate: 
    (1) The site name or number, contact  person, mailing address, and telephone number for the surface disposal site;  and 
    (2) The total dry metric tons from the  applicant's facility per 365-day period placed on the surface disposal site. 
    c. The following information for each  active sewage sludge unit at each surface disposal site that the applicant owns  or operates: 
    (1) The name or number and the location  of the active sewage sludge unit; 
    (2) The unit's latitude and longitude to  the nearest second, and method of determination; 
    (3) If not already provided, a  topographic map (or other map if a topographic map is unavailable) that shows  the unit's location; 
    (4) The total dry metric tons placed on  the active sewage sludge unit per 365-day period; 
    (5) The total dry metric tons placed on  the active sewage sludge unit over the life of the unit; 
    (6) A description of any liner for the  active sewage sludge unit, including whether it has a maximum permeability of 1  X 10-7cm/sec; 
    (7) A description of any leachate  collection system for the active sewage sludge unit, including the method used  for leachate disposal, and any federal, state, and local permit number(s) for  leachate disposal; 
    (8) If the active sewage sludge unit is  less than 150 meters from the property line of the surface disposal site, the  actual distance from the unit boundary to the site property line; 
    (9) The remaining capacity (dry metric  tons) for the active sewage sludge unit; 
    (10) The date on which the active sewage  sludge unit is expected to close, if such a date has been identified; 
    (11) The following information for any  other facility that sends sewage sludge to the active sewage sludge unit: 
    (a) The name, contact person, and  mailing address of the facility; and 
    (b) Available information regarding the  quality of the sewage sludge received from the facility, including any  treatment at the facility to reduce pathogens or vector attraction  characteristics; 
    (12) Whether any of the vector attraction  reduction options of 9VAC25-31-720 B 9 through 11 is met at the active sewage  sludge unit, and a description of any procedures employed at the time of  disposal to reduce vector attraction properties in sewage sludge; 
    (13) The following information, as  applicable to any groundwater monitoring occurring at the active sewage sludge  unit: 
    (a) A description of any groundwater  monitoring occurring at the active sewage sludge unit; 
    (b) Any available groundwater monitoring  data, with a description of the well locations and approximate depth to  groundwater; 
    (c) A copy of any groundwater monitoring  plan that has been prepared for the active sewage sludge unit; 
    (d) A copy of any certification that has  been obtained from a qualified groundwater scientist that the aquifer has not  been contaminated; and 
    (14) If site-specific pollutant limits  are being sought for the sewage sludge placed on this active sewage sludge  unit, information to support such a request. 
    11. If sewage sludge from the  applicant's facility is fired in a sewage sludge incinerator, the applicant  must provide the following information: 
    a. The total dry metric tons of sewage  sludge from the applicant's facility that is fired in sewage sludge  incinerators per 365-day period. 
    b. The following information for each  sewage sludge incinerator firing the applicant's sewage sludge that the  applicant does not own or operate: 
    (1) The name and/or number, contact  person, mailing address, and telephone number of the sewage sludge incinerator;  and 
    (2) The total dry metric tons from the  applicant's facility per 365-day period fired in the sewage sludge incinerator.  
    12. If sewage sludge from the  applicant's facility is sent to a municipal solid waste landfill (MSWLF), the  applicant must provide the following information for each MSWLF to which sewage  sludge is sent: 
    a. The name, contact person, mailing  address, location, and all applicable permit numbers of the MSWLF; 
    b. The total dry metric tons per 365-day  period sent from this facility to the MSWLF; 
    c. A determination of whether the sewage  sludge meets applicable requirements for disposal of sewage sludge in a MSWLF,  including the results of the paint filter liquids test and any additional  requirements that apply on a site-specific basis; and 
    d. Information, if known, indicating  whether the MSWLF complies with criteria set forth in the Virginia Solid Waste  Management Regulations, 9VAC20-80. 
    13. All applicants must provide the  name, mailing address, telephone number, and responsibilities of all contractors  responsible for any operational or maintenance aspects of the facility related  to sewage sludge generation, treatment, use, or disposal. 
    14. At the request of the board, the  applicant must provide any other information necessary to determine the appropriate  standards for permitting under Part VI (9VAC25-31-420 et seq.) of this chapter,  and must provide any other information necessary to assess the sewage sludge  use and disposal practices, determine whether to issue a permit, or identify  appropriate permit requirements; and pertinent plans, specifications, maps and  such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details  satisfactory to the board. 
    15. All applications must be signed by a  certifying official in compliance with 9VAC25-31-110. 
    Q. Applications for facilities  with cooling water intake structures. 
    1. Application requirements. New  facilities with new or modified cooling water intake structures. New facilities  with cooling water intake structures as defined in 9VAC25-31-165 must report  the information required under subdivisions 2, 3, and 4 of this subsection and  under 9VAC25-31-165. Requests for alternative requirements under 9VAC25-31-165  must be submitted with the permit application. 
    2. Source water physical data. These  include: 
    a. A narrative description and scaled  drawings showing the physical configuration of all source water bodies used by  the facility, including area dimensions, depths, salinity and temperature  regimes, and other documentation that supports the determination of the water  body type where each cooling water intake structure is located; 
    b. Identification and characterization  of the source water body's hydrological and geomorphologic features, as well as  the methods used to conduct any physical studies to determine the intake's area  of influence within the water body and the results of such studies; and 
    c. Location maps. 
    3. Cooling water intake structure data.  These include: 
    a. A narrative description of the  configuration of each cooling water intake structure and where it is located in  the water body and in the water column; 
    b. Latitude and longitude in degrees,  minutes, and seconds for each cooling water intake structure; 
    c. A narrative description of the  operation of each cooling water intake structure, including design intake flow,  daily hours of operation, number of days of the year in operation and seasonal  changes, if applicable; 
    d. A flow distribution and water balance  diagram that includes all sources of water to the facility, recirculation flows  and discharges; and 
    e. Engineering drawings of the cooling  water intake structure. 
    4. Source water baseline biological  characterization data. This information is required to characterize the  biological community in the vicinity of the cooling water intake structure and  to characterize the operation of the cooling water intake structures. The  department may also use this information in subsequent permit renewal  proceedings to determine if the design and construction technology plan as  required in 9VAC25-31-165 should be revised. This supporting information must  include existing data if available. Existing data may be supplemented with data  from newly conducted field studies. The information must include: 
    a. A list of the data in subdivisions 4  b through 4 f of this subsection that is not available and efforts made to  identify sources of the data; 
    b. A list of species (or relevant taxa)  for all life stages and their relative abundance in the vicinity of the cooling  water intake structure; 
    c. Identification of the species and  life stages that would be most susceptible to impingement and entrainment.  Species evaluated should include the forage base as well as those most  important in terms of significance to commercial and recreational fisheries; 
    d. Identification and evaluation of the  primary period of reproduction, larval recruitment, and period of peak  abundance for relevant taxa; 
    e. Data representative of the seasonal  and daily activities (e.g., feeding and water column migration) of biological  organisms in the vicinity of the cooling water intake structure; 
    f. Identification of all threatened,  endangered, and other protected species that might be susceptible to  impingement and entrainment at the cooling water intake structures; 
    g. Documentation of any public  participation or consultation with federal or state agencies undertaken in  development of the plan; and 
    h. If information requested in  subdivision 4 of this subsection is supplemented with data collected using  field studies, supporting documentation for the source water baseline  biological characterization must include a description of all methods and  quality assurance procedures for sampling, and data analysis including a  description of the study area; taxonomic identification of sampled and evaluated  biological assemblages (including all life stages of fish and shellfish); and  sampling and data analysis methods. The sampling and/or data analysis methods  used must be appropriate for a quantitative survey and based on consideration  of methods used in other biological studies performed within the same source  water body. The study area should include, at a minimum, the area of influence  of the cooling water intake structure. 
    Note 1: Until further notice subdivision G 7 e (1)  of this section and the corresponding portions of the VPDES application Form 2C  are suspended as they apply to coal mines. 
    Note 2: Until further notice subdivision G 7 e (1)  of this section and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the VPDES  application Form 2C are suspended as they apply to: 
    a. Testing and reporting for all four  organic fractions in the Greige Mills Subcategory of the Textile Mills industry  (subpart C-Low water use processing of 40 CFR Part 410 (2005)), and testing and  reporting for the pesticide fraction in all other subcategories of this  industrial category. 
    b. Testing and reporting for the  volatile, base/neutral and pesticide fractions in the Base and Precious Metals  Subcategory of the Ore Mining and Dressing industry (subpart B of 40 CFR Part  440 (2005)), and testing and reporting for all four fractions in all other  subcategories of this industrial category. 
    c. Testing and reporting for all four  GC/MS fractions in the Porcelain Enameling industry. 
    Note 3: Until further notice subdivision G 7 e (1)  of this section and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the VPDES  application Form 2C are suspended as they apply to: 
    a. Testing and reporting for the  pesticide fraction in the Tall Oil Rosin Subcategory (subpart D) and  Rosin-Based Derivatives Subcategory (subpart F) of the Gum and Wood Chemicals  industry (40 CFR Part 454 (2005)), and testing and reporting for the pesticide  and base-neutral fractions in all other subcategories of this industrial  category. 
    b. Testing and reporting for the  pesticide fraction in the leather tanning and finishing, paint and ink  formulation, and photographic supplies industrial categories. 
    c. Testing and reporting for the acid,  base/neutral and pesticide fractions in the petroleum refining industrial  category. 
    d. Testing and reporting for the  pesticide fraction in the Papergrade Sulfite Subcategories (subparts J and U)  of the Pulp and Paper industry (40 CFR Part 430 (2005)); testing and reporting  for the base/neutral and pesticide fractions in the following subcategories:  Deink (subpart Q), Dissolving Kraft (subpart F), and Paperboard from Waste  Paper (subpart E); testing and reporting for the volatile, base/neutral and  pesticide fractions in the following subcategories: BCT Bleached Kraft (subpart  H), Semi-Chemical (subparts B and C), and Nonintegrated-Fine Papers (subpart  R); and testing and reporting for the acid, base/neutral, and pesticide  fractions in the following subcategories: Fine Bleached Kraft (subpart I),  Dissolving Sulfite Pulp (subpart K), Groundwood-Fine Papers (subpart O), Market  Bleached Kraft (subpart G), Tissue from Wastepaper (subpart T), and  Nonintegrated-Tissue Papers (subpart S). 
    e. Testing and reporting for the  base/neutral fraction in the Once-Through Cooling Water, Fly Ash and Bottom Ash  Transport Water process wastestreams of the Steam Electric Power Plant  industrial category. 
     9VAC25-31-290.  Public notice of permit actions and public comment period. 
    A. Scope. 
    1. The board shall give public notice  that the following actions have occurred: 
    a. A draft permit has been prepared  under 9VAC25-31-260 D; 
    b. A public hearing has been scheduled  under 9VAC25-31-310; or 
    c. A VPDES new source determination has  been made under 9VAC25-31-180. 
    2. No public notice is required when a  request for permit modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination is  denied under 9VAC25-31-370 B. Written notice of that denial shall be given to  the requester and to the permittee. Public notice shall not be required for  submission or approval of plans and specifications or conceptual engineering  reports not required to be submitted as part of the application. 
    3. Public notices may describe more than  one permit or permit actions. 
    B. Timing. 
    1. Public notice of the preparation of a  draft permit required under subsection A of this section shall allow at least  30 days for public comment. 
    2. Public notice of a public hearing  shall be given at least 30 days before the hearing. (Public notice of the  hearing may be given at the same time as public notice of the draft permit and  the two notices may be combined.) 
    C. Methods. Public notice of  activities described in subdivision A 1 of this section shall be given by the  following methods: 
    1. By mailing a copy of a notice to the  following persons (any person otherwise entitled to receive notice under this  subdivision may waive his or her rights to receive notice for any classes and  categories of permits): 
    a. The applicant (except for VPDES  general permits when there is no applicant); 
    b. Any other agency which the board  knows has issued or is required to issue a VPDES, sludge management permit; 
    c. Federal and state agencies with  jurisdiction over fish, shellfish, and wildlife resources and over coastal zone  management plans, the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation, State Historic  Preservation Officers, including any affected states (Indian Tribes); 
    d. Any state agency responsible for plan  development under § 208(b)(2), 208(b)(4) or § 303(e) of the CWA and the U.S.  Army Corps of Engineers, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and the National  Marine Fisheries Service; 
    e. Any user identified in the permit  application of a privately owned treatment works; 
    f. Persons on a mailing list developed  by: 
    (1) Including those who request in  writing to be on the list; 
    (2) Soliciting persons for area lists  from participants in past permit proceedings in that area; and 
    (3) Notifying the public of the  opportunity to be put on the mailing list through periodic publication in the  public press and in such publications as EPA regional and state funded  newsletters, environmental bulletins, or state law journals. (The board may  update the mailing list from time to time by requesting written indication of  continued interest from those listed. The board may delete from the list the  name of any person who fails to respond to such a request.); 
    g. (1) Any unit of local government  having jurisdiction over the area where the facility is proposed to be located;  and 
    (2) Each state agency having any  authority under state law with respect to the construction or operation of such  facility; 
    2. By publication once a week for two  successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the area affected by  the discharge. The cost of public notice shall be paid by the owner; and 
    3. Any other method reasonably calculated  to give actual notice of the action in question to the persons potentially  affected by it, including press releases or any other forum or medium to elicit  public participation. 
    D. Contents. 
    1. All public notices issued under this  part shall contain the following minimum information: 
    a. Name and address of the office  processing the permit action for which notice is being given; 
    b. Name and address of the permittee or  permit applicant and, if different, of the facility or activity regulated by  the permit, except in the case of VPDES draft general permits; 
    c. A brief description of the business  conducted at the facility or activity described in the permit application or  the draft permit, for VPDES general permits when there is no application; 
    d. Name, address and telephone number of  a person from whom interested persons may obtain further information, including  copies of the draft permit or draft general permit, as the case may be,  statement of basis or fact sheet, and the application; 
    e. A brief description of the procedures  for submitting comments and the time and place of any public hearing that will  be held, including a statement of procedures to request a public hearing  (unless a hearing has already been scheduled) and other procedures by which the  public may participate in the final permit decision; 
    f. A general description of the location  of each existing or proposed discharge point and the name of the receiving  water and the sludge use and disposal practice or practices and the location of  each sludge treatment works treating domestic sewage and use or disposal sites  known at the time of permit application. For draft general permits, this  requirement will be satisfied by a map or description of the permit area; 
    g. Requirements applicable to cooling  water intake structures under § 316 of the CWA, in accordance with  9VAC25-31-165; and 
    h. Any additional information considered  necessary or proper. 
    2. In addition to the general public  notice described in subdivision 1 of this subsection, the public notice of a  public hearing under 9VAC25-31-310 shall contain the following information: 
    a. Reference to the date of previous  public notices relating to the permit; 
    b. Date, time, and place of the public  hearing; 
    c. A brief description of the nature and  purpose of the public hearing, including the applicable rules and procedures;  and 
    d. A concise statement of the issues  raised by the persons requesting the public hearing. 
    3. Public notice of a VPDES draft permit  for a discharge where a request for alternate thermal effluent limitations has  been filed shall include: 
    a. A statement that the thermal  component of the discharge is subject to effluent limitations incorporated in  9VAC25-31-30 and a brief description, including a quantitative statement, of  the thermal effluent limitations proposed under § 301 or § 306 of the CWA; 
    b. A statement that an alternate thermal  effluent limitation request has been filed and that alternative less stringent  effluent limitations may be imposed on the thermal component of the discharge  under the law and § 316(a) of the CWA and a brief description, including a  quantitative statement, of the alternative effluent limitations, if any,  included in the request; and 
    c. If the applicant has filed an early  screening request for a CWA § 316(a) variance, a statement that the applicant  has submitted such a plan. 
    E. In addition to the general  public notice described in subdivision D 1 of this section, all persons  identified in subdivisions C 1 a, b, c, and d of this section shall be mailed a  copy of the fact sheet or statement of basis, the permit application (if any)  and the draft permit (if any). 
    F. Upon receipt of an application  for the issuance of a new or modified permit other than those for agricultural  production or aquacultural production activities, the board shall :
    1.  Notify, in writing, the  locality wherein the discharge or, as applicable, the associated land  application of sewage sludge, or land disposal of treated sewage, stabilized  sewage sludge or stabilized septage does or is proposed to take place of, at a  minimum: 
    a. The name of the applicant;
    b. The nature of the application and  proposed discharge;
    c. The availability and timing of any  comment period; and
    d. Upon request, any other information  known to, or in the possession of, the board or the department regarding the  applicant not required to be held confidential by this chapter.
    2. Establish a date for a public meeting  to discuss technical issues relating to proposals for land application of  sewage sludge, or land disposal of treated sewage, stabilized sewage sludge or  stabilized septage. The department shall give notice of the date, time, and  place of the public meeting and a description of the proposal by publication in  a newspaper of general circulation in the city or county where the proposal is  to take place. Public notice of the scheduled meeting shall occur no fewer than  seven or more than 14 days prior to the meeting. The board shall not consider  the application for the proposal to be complete issue the permit  until the public meeting has been held and comment has been received from the  local governing body, or until 30 days have lapsed from the date of the public  meeting. 
    3. Except for land application of sewage  sludge or land disposal of treated sewage, stabilized sewage sludge or  stabilized septage, make a good faith effort to provide this same notice and  information to (i) each locality and riparian property owner to a distance  one-quarter mile downstream and one-quarter mile upstream or to the fall line  whichever is closer on tidal waters and (ii) each locality and riparian  property owner to a distance one-half mile downstream on nontidal waters.  Distances shall be measured from the point, or proposed point, of discharge. If  the receiving river at the point or proposed point of discharge is two miles  wide or greater, the riparian property owners on the opposite shore need not be  notified. Notice to property owners shall be based on names and addresses taken  from local tax rolls. Such names and addresses shall be provided by the  commissioners of the revenue or the tax assessor's office of the affected  jurisdictions upon request by the board. 
    4. For a site that is to be added to an  existing permit authorizing land application of sewage sludge, notify persons  residing on property bordering such site and receive written comments from  those persons for a period not to exceed 30 days. Based upon the written  comments, the department shall determine whether additional site-specific  requirements should be included in the authorization for land application at  the site.
    G. Before issuing any permit, if  the board finds that there are localities particularly affected by the permit,  the board shall: 
    1. Publish, or require the applicant to  publish, a notice in a local paper of general circulation in the localities  affected at least 30 days prior to the close of any public comment period. Such  notice shall contain a statement of the estimated local impact of the proposed  permit, which at a minimum shall include information on the specific pollutants  involved and the total quantity of each which may be discharged; and 
    2. Mail the notice to the chief elected  official and chief administrative officer and planning district commission for  those localities. 
    Written comments shall be  accepted by the board for at least 15 days after any public hearing on the  permit, unless the board votes to shorten the period. For the purposes of this  section, the term "locality particularly affected" means any locality  which bears any identified disproportionate material water quality impact which  would not be experienced by other localities. 
270
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Final Regulation
    REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE:  The State Water Control Board is claiming an exclusion from the Administrative  Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which  excludes regulations that are necessary to conform to changes in Virginia  statutory law where no agency discretion is involved. The State Water Control Board  will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any interested person at  any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-32. Virginia Pollution  Abatement (VPA) Permit Regulation (amending 9VAC25-32-140, 9VAC25-32-240).
    Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: September 30,  2009. 
    Agency Contact: William K.  Norris, Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box  1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4022, FAX (804) 698-4347, or  email william.norris@deq.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    This action implements the 2009  legislative changes to the State Water Control Law as a result of Chapter 42 of  the 2009 Acts of Assembly. These changes clarify public notice requirements for  permit applications for land application acreage increases of 50% or more and  clarify when a permit for land application is issued in relation to the public  meeting and public comment opportunity on the application. The resulting  regulatory changes provide that an application for any permit amendments to  increase the acreage authorized by the initial permit by 50% or more shall be  treated as a new application for purposes of public notice and public hearings  and provide that the board shall not issue the permit for land disposal until  the public meeting has been held and comment has been received from the local  governing body, or until 30 days have lapsed from the date of the public  meeting.
    Part  III 
  Public Involvement 
    9VAC25-32-140.  Public notice of VPA permit action and public comment period. 
    A. Every draft VPA permit shall  be given public notice, paid for by the owner, by publication once a week for  two successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the area affected  by the pollutant management activity. 
    B. Interested persons shall have  a period of at least 30 days following the date of the initial newspaper public  notice to submit written comments on the tentative decision and to request a  public hearing. 
    C. The contents of the public  notice of an application for a VPA permit shall include: 
    1. The name and address of the  applicant. If the location of the pollutant management activity differs from  the address of the applicant the notice shall also state the location of the  pollutant management activity including storage and land application sites; 
    2. A brief description of the business  or activity conducted at the facility; 
    3. A statement of the tentative  determination to issue or deny a VPA permit; 
    4. A brief description of the final  determination procedure; 
    5. The address and phone number of a  specific person at the state office from whom further information may be  obtained; and 
    6. A brief description of how to submit  comments and request a hearing. 
    D. Public notice shall not be  required for submission or approval of plans and specifications or conceptual  engineering reports not required to be submitted as part of the application. 
    E. Upon receipt of an application  for a permit or for a modification of a permit, the board shall :
    1. Cause to be notified, in writing, the  locality wherein the pollutant management activity does or is proposed to take  place. This notification shall, at a minimum, include: 
    a. The name of the applicant; 
    b. The nature of the application and  proposed pollutant management activity; and 
    c. Upon request, any other information  known to, or in the possession of, the board or the department regarding the  application except as restricted by 9VAC25-32-150. 
    2. Establish a date for a public meeting  to discuss technical issues relating to proposals for land application of  biosolids or land disposal of treated sewage, stabilized sewage sludge or  stabilized septage. The department shall give notice of the date, time, and  place of the public meeting and a description of the proposal by publication in  a newspaper of general circulation in the city or county where the proposal is  to take place. Public notice of the scheduled meeting shall occur no fewer than  seven or more than 14 days prior to the meeting. The board shall not consider  the application for the proposal to be complete issue the permit  until the public meeting has been held and comment has been received from the  local governing body or until 30 days have lapsed from the date of the public  meeting.
    F. Before issuing any permit, if  the board finds that there are localities particularly affected by the permit,  the board shall: 
    1. Publish, or require the applicant to  publish, a notice in a local paper of general circulation in the localities  affected at least 30 days prior to the close of any public comment period. Such  notice shall contain a statement of the estimated local impact of the proposed  permit, which at a minimum shall include information on the specific pollutants  involved and the total quantity of each which may be discharged; and 
    2. Mail the notice to the chief elected  official and chief administrative officer and planning district commission for  those localities. 
    Written comments shall be accepted by  the board for at least 15 days after any public hearing on the permit, unless  the board votes to shorten the period. For the purposes of this section, the  term "locality particularly affected" means any locality which bears  any identified disproportionate material water quality impact which would not  be experienced by other localities. 
    G. When a site is to be added to  an existing permit authorizing land application of biosolids, the department  shall notify persons residing on property bordering such site, and shall  receive written comments from those persons for a period not to exceed 30 days.  Based upon the written comments, the department shall determine whether  additional site-specific requirements should be included in the authorization  for land application at the site.
    9VAC25-32-240.  Minor modification. 
    A. Upon request of the permittee,  or upon board initiative with the consent of the permittee, minor modifications  may be made in the VPA permit without following the public involvement  procedures. 
    B. Minor modification may only: 
    1. Correct typographical errors; 
    2. Require reporting by the permittee at  a frequency other than that required in the VPA permit; 
    3. Change an interim compliance date in  a schedule of compliance to no more than 120 days from the original compliance  date and provided it will not interfere with the final compliance date; 
    4. Allow for a change in name, ownership  or operational control when the board determines that no other change in the  VPA permit is necessary, provided that a written agreement containing a  specific date for transfer of VPA permit responsibility, coverage and liability  from the current to the new permittee has been submitted to the department; 
    5. Delete the listing of a land  application site when the pollutant management activity is terminated and does  not result in an increase of pollutants which would exceed VPA permit  limitations; 
    6. Reduce VPA permit limitations to  reflect a reduction in the permitted activity when such reduction results from  a shutdown of processes or pollutant generating activities or from connection  of the permitted activity to a POTW; 
    7. Change plans and specifications where  no other changes in the VPA permit are required; 
    8. Authorize treatment facility  expansions, production increases or process modifications which will not cause  a significant change in the quantity of pollutants being managed or a  significant change in the nature of the pollutant management activity; or 
    9. Delete VPA permit limitation or  monitoring requirements for specific pollutants when the activities generating  these pollutants are terminated. 
    C. An application for a any  permit amendment amendments to increase the acreage authorized by  the initial permit by 50% or more shall be treated as a new application  for purposes of public notice and public hearings.
270
TITLE 10. FINANCE AND FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Proposed Regulation
    REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE:  The State Corporation Commission is exempt from the Administrative Process Act  in accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 2 of the Code of Virginia, which exempts  courts, any agency of the Supreme Court, and any agency that by the Constitution  is expressly granted any of the powers of a court of record.
         Title of Regulation: 10VAC5-200. Payday Lending (amending 10VAC5-200-100). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 6.1-458  and 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: A public  hearing will be scheduled upon request.
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: E. J. Face,  Jr., Commissioner, Bureau of Financial Institutions, State Corporation  Commission, P.O. Box 640, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9659, FAX  (804) 371-9416, or email joe.face@scc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The proposed changes incorporate certain  provisions of Chapters 784 and 860 of the 2009 Acts of Assembly that relate to  the conduct of open-end credit business from payday lending offices. The  proposal also incorporates a provision of § 6.1-439 of the Code of  Virginia by providing that a person registered or required to be registered as  a check casher under Chapter 17 (§ 6.1-432 et seq.) of Title 6.1 of the  Code of Virginia is prohibited from making loans unless the person is licensed  under, and the loans are made in accordance with, the Payday Loan Act.  Subsection B of 10VAC5-200-100 specifies additional findings that the State  Corporation Commission (commission) would need to make before approving an  application to conduct other business in a licensee's payday lending offices.  Subsection E of 10VAC5-200-100 adds a set of uniform conditions that would  generally be applicable to the conduct of other business in payday lending  offices. Subsections F through K of 10VAC5-200-100 prescribe the conditions  that would be attached to specific types of other businesses, such as making  open-end auto title loans, acting as an agent of a money transmitter, and  providing tax preparation services. Under subsection M of 10VAC5-200-100, the  conditions set forth in the regulation would generally supersede the conditions  established in the approval orders that were previously entered by the  commission. Lastly, subsection O of 10VAC5-200-100 is added to expressly  provide that failure to comply with applicable laws or conditions may result in  revocation of a payday lender's other business authority, fines, suspension, or  revocation of a payday lender's license, or other appropriate enforcement  action.
    AT RICHMOND,  AUGUST 4, 2009
    COMMONWEALTH OF  VIRGINIA
    At the relation  of the
    STATE  CORPORATION COMMISSION
    CASE NO.  BFI-2009-00344
    Ex Parte: In the matter of adopting
  rules for the conduct of other business
  in payday lending offices
    ORDER TO TAKE  NOTICE
    Section 12.1-13 of the Code of  Virginia provides that the State Corporation Commission  ("Commission") shall have the power to promulgate rules and  regulations in the enforcement and administration of all laws within its  jurisdiction. Section 6.1-458 of the Code of Virginia provides that the  Commission shall promulgate such rules and regulations as it deems appropriate  to effect the purposes of the Payday Loan Act ("Act"), § 6.1-444  et seq. of the Code of Virginia.  The regulations issued by the Commission  pursuant to the Act are set forth in Title 10 of the Virginia  Administrative Code.
    The Bureau of Financial  Institutions ("Bureau") has submitted to the Commission proposed  amendments to the regulation set forth at 10 VAC 5-200-100 of the  Virginia Administrative Code, entitled "Other business in payday lending  offices." The impetus for the proposed amendments was legislation enacted  during the 2009 session of the Virginia General Assembly. Chapters 784  and 860 of the 2009 Acts of Assembly provide in pertinent part that  licensed payday lenders are generally prohibited from engaging in the extension  of credit under an open-end credit or similar plan described in § 6.1-330.78  of the Code of Virginia, and third parties are generally prohibited from  engaging in the extension of credit under an open-end credit or similar plan  described in § 6.1-330.78 at any office, suite, room, or place of business  where a licensed payday lender conducts the business of making payday loans.  The legislation does not prohibit an extension of credit under an open-end  credit or similar plan if it is secured by a security interest in a motor  vehicle.
    Since the legislation enacted by  the General Assembly impacts § 6.1-463 of the Code of Virginia and  10 VAC 5-200-100, the Bureau is proposing that the Commission modify  its other business regulation by establishing a set of uniform conditions that  would be applicable to licensed payday lenders and third parties making open-end  loans secured by a security interest in a motor vehicle from one or more payday  lending offices. The Bureau is also proposing that the Commission incorporate  into its regulation the conditions that have been attached to other types of  businesses that may be conducted from payday lending offices, such as acting as  an agent of a money transmitter or providing tax preparation services. The  conditions identified in the proposed regulation are derived from Commission  orders approving the conduct of other business in payday lending offices.   If adopted by the Commission, the conditions in the regulation would generally  supersede the conditions set forth in the approval orders that were entered by  the Commission prior to the effective date of the amended regulation.
    Apart from setting forth by  regulation the conditions applicable to the conduct of other business in payday  lending offices, the Bureau is also proposing to amend  10 VAC 5-200-100 by specifying additional findings that the  Commission would need to make before approving an application to conduct other  business in a licensee's payday lending offices. The Bureau is also proposing  to expressly provide that failure to comply with applicable laws or conditions  may result in revocation of a licensee's other business authority, fines,  suspension or revocation of a payday lender's license, or other appropriate  enforcement action.
    While interested persons may  submit comments on any aspect of the proposed regulation, commenters addressing  the provisions relating to open-end loans secured by a security interest in a  motor vehicle are specifically requested to submit comments on (i) whether  a licensee or third party making such loans should be required to record its  security interest with the Department of Motor Vehicles, and (ii) whether  a licensee or third party should be prohibited from entering into an open-end  credit plan secured by a prospective borrower's motor vehicle if the motor  vehicle is already subject to a purchase money security interest or other outstanding  lien.
    The Commission is of the opinion  that the proposed amendments submitted by the Bureau should be considered for  adoption with an effective date of December 1, 2009.
    Accordingly, IT  IS ORDERED THAT:
    (1) The proposed regulation  entitled "Other business in payday lending offices," which amends  10 VAC 5-200-100, be attached hereto and made a part hereof.
    (2) All interested persons  who desire to comment or request a hearing on the proposed regulation shall  file such comments or hearing request on or before October 30, 2009, in  writing with Joel H. Peck, Clerk, State Corporation Commission, c/o  Document Control Center, P.O. Box 2118, Richmond, Virginia 23218-2118 and  shall refer to Case No. BFI-2009-00344. Requests for a hearing shall state why  a hearing is necessary and why the issues cannot be adequately addressed in  written comments. Interested persons desiring to submit comments electronically  may do so by following the instructions available at the Commission's website,  http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
    (3) If no written request  for a hearing on the proposed regulation is filed on or before October 30,  2009, the Commission, upon consideration of any comments submitted in support  of or in opposition to the proposed regulation, may adopt the proposed  regulation as submitted by the Bureau.
    (4) The Commission's  Division of Information Resources shall cause a copy of this Order, together  with the proposed regulation, to be forwarded to the Virginia Registrar of  Regulations for appropriate publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations  and shall make this Order and the attached proposed regulation available on the  Commission's website, http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case. 
    AN ATTESTED COPY hereof, together  with a copy of the proposed regulation, shall be sent by the Clerk of the  Commission to the Commission's Office of General Counsel and the Commissioner  of Financial Institutions, who shall mail a copy of this Order, together with  the proposed regulation, to all licensed payday lenders and other interested  parties designated by the Bureau.
    10VAC5-200-100.  Other business in payday lending offices.
    A. This section governs the  conduct of any business other than payday lending where a licensed payday  lending business is conducted. As used in this section, the term "other  business operator" refers to a licensed payday lender or third party,  including an affiliate of the licensed payday lender, who conducts or wants to  conduct other business from one or more payday lending offices.
    1. Pursuant to § 6.1-463 of the  Code of Virginia, a licensee shall not conduct the business of making payday  loans at any office, suite, room, or place of business where any other business  is solicited or conducted, except a registered check cashing business or such  other business as the commission determines should be permitted, and subject to  such conditions as the commission deems necessary and in the public interest.
    2. Notwithstanding any provision of this  section or order entered by the commission prior to December 1, 2009, the  following other businesses shall not be conducted from any office, suite, room,  or place of business where a licensed payday lending business is conducted:
    a. Selling insurance or enrolling  borrowers under group insurance policies.
    b. Making loans under an open-end credit  or similar plan as described in § 6.1-330.78 of the Code of Virginia  unless the loans are secured by a security interest in a motor vehicle as this  term is defined in § 46.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
    3. Pursuant to § 6.1-439 of the Code of  Virginia, no person registered or required to be registered as a check casher  under Chapter 17 (§ 6.1-432 et seq.) of Title 6.1 of the Code of Virginia shall  make loans from any location, including an office, suite, room, or place of  business where a licensed payday lending business is conducted, unless the  person is licensed under the Act and the loans are made in accordance with the  Act.
    B. Upon the filing of a written  application, provision of any information relating to the application as the  Commissioner of Financial Institutions may require, and payment of the fee  required by law, and subject to approval by the commission and the  imposition of such conditions as the commission deems necessary and in the  public interest, other business may be conducted in a location where a  licensed payday lending business is conducted if the commission determines  finds that such (i) the proposed other business is  financial in nature, except the selling of insurance or the enrolling of  borrowers under group insurance policies; (ii) the proposed other  business is in the public interest; (iii) the other business operator has the  general fitness to warrant belief that the business will be operated in  accordance with law; and (iv) the applicant has been operating its payday  lending business in accordance with the Act and this chapter. The  commission shall in its discretion determine whether a proposed other business  is "financial in nature," and shall not be obliged to consider the  meaning of this term under federal law. A business is financial in nature if it  primarily deals with the offering of debt, money or credit, or services  directly related thereto. 
    C. Nothing contained herein  shall apply to any nonfinancial Nonfinancial other business may  be conducted pursuant to any order of the commission entered on or before  June 15, 2004. However, this subsection shall not be construed to authorize any  person to begin engaging in such other business at payday lending locations  where such other business was not conducted as of June 15, 2004. 
    D. Written evidence of commission  approval of each other business conducted by any payday lender licensee an  other business operator should be maintained at each location where such  other business is conducted. 
    E. Except as  otherwise provided in subsection N of this section, all approved other  businesses in payday lending offices shall be conducted in accordance with the  following conditions:
    1. The licensee shall not make a payday  loan to a borrower to enable the borrower to purchase or pay any amount owed in  connection with the (i) goods or services sold, or (ii) loans offered,  facilitated, or made by the other business operator at the licensee's payday  lending offices.
    2. The other business operator shall  comply with all federal and state laws and regulations applicable to its other  business, including any applicable licensing requirements.
    3. The other business operator shall not  use or cause to be published any advertisement or other information that  contains any false, misleading, or deceptive statement or representation  concerning its other business, including the rates, terms, or conditions of the  products, services, or loans that it offers. The other business operator shall  not make or cause to be made any misrepresentation as to (i) its being licensed  to conduct the other business, or (ii) the extent to which it is subject to  supervision or regulation.
    4. The licensee shall not make a payday  loan or vary the terms of a payday loan on the condition or requirement that a  person also (i) purchase a good or service from, or (ii) obtain a loan from or  through, the other business operator. The other business operator shall not (a)  sell its goods or services, (b) offer, facilitate, or make loans, or (c) vary  the terms of its goods, services, or loans, on the condition or requirement  that a person also obtain a payday loan from the licensee.
    5. The other business operator shall  maintain books and records for its other business separate and apart from the  licensee's payday lending business and in a different location within the  licensee's payday lending offices. The bureau shall be given access to all such  books and records and be furnished with any information and records that it may  require in order to determine compliance with all applicable conditions, laws,  and regulations.
    F. If a licensee  (i) received commission authority for an other business operator to conduct  open-end credit business from the licensee's payday lending offices, or (ii)  receives commission authority for an other business operator to conduct  open-end auto title lending business from the licensee's payday lending  offices, the following additional conditions shall be applicable:
    1. Any loan made by the other business  operator pursuant to an open-end credit agreement shall be secured by a  security interest in a motor vehicle, as defined in § 46.2-100 of the Code  of Virginia.
    2. The licensee shall not make a payday  loan to a person if (i) the person has an outstanding open-end loan from the  other business operator, or (ii) on the same day the person repaid or satisfied  in full an open-end loan from the other business operator.
    3. The other business operator shall not  make an open-end loan to a person pursuant to an open-end credit agreement if  (i) the person has an outstanding payday loan from the licensee, or (ii) on the  same day the person repaid or satisfied in full a payday loan from the  licensee.
    4. The other business operator and the  licensee shall not make an open-end loan and a payday loan contemporaneously or  in response to a single request for a loan or credit.
    5. The licensee and other business  operator shall provide each applicant for a payday loan or open-end credit plan  with a separate disclosure, signed by the applicant, that clearly identifies  all of the loan products available in the licensee's payday lending offices  along with the corresponding annual percentage rate, interest rate, and other  costs associated with each loan product.
    G. If a licensee  received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to  conduct business as an authorized delegate or agent of a money order seller or  money transmitter from the licensee's payday lending offices, the other  business operator shall be and remain a party to a written agreement to act as  an authorized delegate or agent of a person licensed or exempt from licensing  as a money order seller or money transmitter under Chapter 12 (§ 6.1-370 et  seq.) of Title 6.1 of the Code of Virginia.  The other business operator  shall not engage in money order sales or money transmission services on its own  behalf or on behalf of any person other than a licensed or exempt money order  seller or money transmitter with whom it has a written agreement.
    H. If a licensee  received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to  conduct the business of (i) tax preparation and electronic tax filing services,  or (ii) facilitating third party tax preparation and electronic tax filing  services, from the licensee's payday lending offices, the following additional  conditions shall be applicable:
    1. The licensee shall not make, arrange,  or broker a payday loan that is secured by an interest in a borrower's tax  refund, or in whole or in part by (i) any other assignment of income payable to  a borrower, or (ii) any assignment of an interest in a borrower's account at a  depository institution. This condition shall not be construed to prohibit the  licensee from making a payday loan that is secured solely by a check payable to  the licensee drawn on a borrower's account at a depository institution.
    2. The other business operator shall not  engage in the business of (i) accepting funds for transmission to the Internal  Revenue Service or other government instrumentalities, or (ii) receiving tax  refunds for delivery to individuals, unless licensed or exempt from licensing  under Chapter 12 (§ 6.1-370 et seq.) of Title 6.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    I. If a licensee  received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to  conduct the business of facilitating or arranging tax refund anticipation loans  or tax refund payments from the licensee's payday lending offices, the  following additional conditions shall be applicable:
    1. The other business operator shall not  facilitate or arrange a tax refund anticipation loan or tax refund payment to  enable a person to pay any amount owed to the licensee as a result of a payday  loan transaction.
    2. The other business operator and the  licensee shall not facilitate or arrange a tax refund anticipation loan or tax  refund payment and make a payday loan contemporaneously or in response to a  single request for a loan or credit.
    3. The licensee shall not make, arrange,  or broker a payday loan that is secured by an interest in a borrower's tax  refund, or in whole or in part by (i) any other assignment of income payable to  a borrower, or (ii) any assignment of an interest in a borrower's account at a  depository institution.  This condition shall not be construed to prohibit  the licensee from making a payday loan that is secured solely by a check payable  to the licensee drawn on a borrower's account at a depository institution.
    4. The other business operator shall not  engage in the business of receiving tax refunds or tax refund payments for  delivery to individuals unless licensed or exempt from licensing under Chapter  12 (§ 6.1-370 et seq.) of Title 6.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    5. The licensee and other business  operator shall provide each applicant for a payday loan or tax refund  anticipation loan with a separate disclosure, signed by the applicant, that  clearly identifies all of the loan products available in the licensee's payday  lending offices along with the corresponding annual percentage rate, interest  rate, and other costs associated with each loan product.
    J. If a licensee  received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to  conduct a consumer finance business from the licensee's payday lending offices,  the following additional conditions shall be applicable:
    1. The licensee shall not make a payday  loan to a person if (i) the person has an outstanding consumer finance loan  from the other business operator, or (ii) on the same day the person repaid or  satisfied in full a consumer finance loan from the other business operator.
    2. The other business operator shall not  make a consumer finance loan to a person if (i) the person has an outstanding  payday loan from the licensee, or (ii) on the same day the person repaid or  satisfied in full a payday loan from the licensee.
    3. The licensee and other business  operator shall not make a payday loan and a consumer finance loan  contemporaneously or in response to a single request for a loan or credit.
    4. The licensee and other business  operator shall provide each applicant for a payday loan or consumer finance  loan with a separate disclosure, signed by the applicant, that clearly  identifies all of the loan products available in the licensee's payday lending  offices along with the corresponding annual percentage rate, interest rate, and  other costs associated with each loan product.
    K. If a licensee  received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to  conduct the business of operating an automated teller machine from the  licensee's payday lending offices, the other business operator shall not charge  a fee or receive other compensation in connection with the use of its automated  teller machine by a person when the person is withdrawing funds in order to  make a payment on a payday loan from the licensee.
    L. The  commission may impose any additional conditions upon the conduct of other  business in payday lending offices that it deems necessary and in the public  interest.
    M. Except as  otherwise provided in subsection N of this section, the conditions set forth or  referred to in subsections E through L of this section shall supersede the  conditions set forth in the commission's approval orders entered prior to  December 1, 2009.
    N. If prior to  December 1, 2009, a licensee received commission authority for an other  business operator to conduct a business not identified in subsections F through  K of this section, the conditions that were imposed by the commission at the  time of the approval shall remain in full force and effect.
    O. Failure by a  licensee or other business operator to comply with any provision of this  section or any condition imposed by the commission, or failure by a licensee to  comply with the Act, this chapter, or any other law or regulation applicable to  the conduct of the licensee's business, may result in the revocation of the  authority to conduct other business, fines, license suspension, license  revocation, or other appropriate enforcement action.
270
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Proposed Regulation
    REGISTRAR’S  NOTICE:  The State Board of Health is claiming an exemption from the Administrative  Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 23 of the Code of Virginia,  which excludes the State Board of Health when promulgating regulations pursuant  to § 35.1-14, which conform, insofar as practicable, with the federal Food  and Drug Administration's Food Code. Pursuant to § 35.1-14 E of the Code  of Virginia, this regulatory action is exempt from portions of the  Administrative Process Act provided the State Board of Agriculture and Consumer  Services adopts the same version and both agency’s regulations have the same  effective date. Both agencies are working toward that goal.
         Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-421. Food Regulations (amending 12VAC5-421-10, 12VAC5-421-50,  12VAC5-421-60, 12VAC5-421-70, 12VAC5-421-80, 12VAC5-421-90, 12VAC5-421-100,  12VAC5-421-140, 12VAC5-421-180, 12VAC5-421-360, 12VAC5-421-370, 12VAC5-421-400,  12VAC5-421-410, 12VAC5-421-430, 12VAC5-421-440, 12VAC5-421-450, 12VAC5-421-490,  12VAC5-421-500, 12VAC5-421-540, 12VAC5-421-570, 12VAC5-421-680, 12VAC5-421-700,  12VAC5-421-730, 12VAC5-421-740, 12VAC5-421-760, 12VAC5-421-780, 12VAC5-421-790,  12VAC5-421-800, 12VAC5-421-820, 12VAC5-421-830, 12VAC5-421-850, 12VAC5-421-860,  12VAC5-421-870, 12VAC5-421-900, 12VAC5-421-950, 12VAC5-421-980,  12VAC5-421-1200, 12VAC5-421-1230, 12VAC5-421-1260, 12VAC5-421-1310,  12VAC5-421-1420, 12VAC5-421-1550, 12VAC5-421-1560, 12VAC5-421-1690,  12VAC5-421-1890, 12VAC5-421-1980, 12VAC5-421-2040, 12VAC5-421-2190,  12VAC5-421-2230, 12VAC5-421-2280, 12VAC5-421-2310, 12VAC5-421-2520,  12VAC5-421-2600, 12VAC5-421-2630, 12VAC5-421-2790, 12VAC5-421-2810,  12VAC5-421-2920, 12VAC5-421-2950, 12VAC5-421-2960, 12VAC5-421-3020,  12VAC5-421-3030, 12VAC5-421-3040, 12VAC5-421-3045, 12VAC5-421-3080,  12VAC5-421-3130, 12VAC5-421-3180, 12VAC5-421-3240, 12VAC5-421-3460,  12VAC5-421-3750, 12VAC5-421-3815, 12VAC5-421-3860, 12VAC5-421-4040,  12VAC5-421-4050, 12VAC5-421-4070; repealing 12VAC5-421-110, 12VAC5-421-120,  12VAC5-421-150, 12VAC5-421-750, 12VAC5-421-1020, 12VAC5-421-1030,  12VAC5-421-1440, 12VAC5-421-1880, 12VAC5-421-2510, 12VAC5-421-2590,  12VAC5-421-3010, 12VAC5-421-3050, 12VAC5-421-3060, 12VAC5-421-3110,  12VAC5-421-3120, 12VAC5-421-3160).
    Statutory Authority: §§ 35.1-11  and 35.1-14 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing  Information:
    October 21, 2009 - 2 p.m. -  Virginia Department of Health, James Madison Building, 109 Governor Street,  Fifth Floor Conference Room, Richmond, VA
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Gary L. Hagy,  Director of Food and General Environmental Services, Department of Health, 109  Governor St., Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 864-7455, TTY (800) 828-1120,  or email gary.hagy@vdh.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    The Food Regulations establish minimum  sanitary standards for operating restaurants. Those standards include the safe  and sanitary maintenance, storage, operation, and use of equipment; the safe  preparation, handling, protection, and preservation of food, including  necessary refrigeration or heating methods; procedures for vector and pest  control; requirements for toilet and cleansing facilities for employees and  customers; requirements for appropriate lighting and ventilation not otherwise  provided for in the Uniform Statewide Building Code; requirements for an  approved water supply and sewage disposal system; personal hygiene standards  for employees, particularly those engaged in food handling; and the appropriate  use of precautions to prevent the transmission of communicable diseases. The  regulations also inform potential restaurant owners or operators how to obtain  a permit to operate a restaurant from the department. The regulations are being  amended to be consistent with the current 2007 supplement to the 2005 Food and  Drug Administration's (FDA) Food Code. The current Food Regulations are based  on the 2003 Supplement to the 2001 FDA Food Code. These changes are also being  proposed concurrently with the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer  Services (VDACS) adoption of the 2007 Supplement to the 2005 FDA Food Code.  Pursuant to § 35.1-14 C and E of the Code of Virginia, this action is exempt  from portions of the Administrative Process Act (APA), provided VDACS adopts  the same version and both agency’s regulations have the same effective date.  Both agencies are working toward that end. Both VDH and VDACS previously  adopted the 2003 supplement to the 2001 FDA Food Code with an effective date of  October 16, 2007.
    Part  I 
  Definitions, Purpose and Administration 
    12VAC5-421-10.  Definitions.
    The following words and terms  when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context  clearly indicates otherwise.
    "Accredited program"  means a food protection manager certification program that has been evaluated  and listed by an accrediting agency as conforming to national standards that  certify individuals. "Accredited program" refers to the certification  process and is a designation based upon an independent evaluation of factors  such as the sponsor's mission; organizational structure; staff resources;  revenue sources; policies; public information regarding program scope,  eligibility requirements, recertification, discipline and grievance procedures;  and test development and administration. "Accredited program" does  not refer to training functions or educational programs.
    "Additive" means either  a (i) "food additive" having the meaning stated in the Federal Food,  Drug, and Cosmetic Act, § 201(s) and 21 CFR Part 170 or (ii) "color  additive" having the meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug, and  Cosmetic Act, § 201(t) and 21 CFR Part 70.
    "Adulterated" has the  meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, § 402.
    "Agent" means a legally  authorized representative of the owner.
    "Agent of the  commissioner" means the district or local health director, unless  otherwise stipulated.
    "Approved" means  acceptable to the department based on a determination of conformity with  principles, practices, and generally recognized standards that protect public  health.
    "Approved water supply"  means a waterworks which has a valid waterworks operation permit from the  department or a nonpublic water supply which is evaluated, tested and if found  in reasonable compliance with the construction standards of the Private Well  Regulations (12VAC5-630) and the bacteriological water quality standards of the  Virginia Waterworks Regulations (12VAC5-590), accepted and approved by the  director or the director's designee.
    "Asymptomatic"  means without obvious symptoms; not showing or producing indication of a  disease or other medical condition, such as an individual infected with a  pathogen but not exhibiting or producing any signs or symptoms of vomiting,  diarrhea, or jaundice. Asymptomatic includes not showing symptoms because  symptoms have resolved or subsided, or because symptoms never manifested.
    "aw" means  water activity which is a measure of the free moisture in a food, is the  quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor  pressure of pure water at the same temperature, and is indicated by the symbol  aw.
    "Balut"  means an embryo inside a fertile egg that has been incubated for a period  sufficient for the embryo to reach a specific stage of development after which  it is removed from incubation before hatching.
    "Bed and breakfast"  means a tourist home that serves meals.
    "Beverage" means a  liquid for drinking, including water.
    "Board" means the State  Board of Health.
    "Bottled drinking  water" means water that is sealed in bottles, packages, or other  containers and offered for sale for human consumption.
    "Building official"  means a representative of the Department of Housing and Community Development.
    "Casing" means a  tubular container for sausage products made of either natural or artificial  (synthetic) material.
    "Certification number"  means a unique combination of letters and numbers assigned by a shellfish  control authority to a molluscan shellfish dealer according to the provisions  of the National Shellfish Sanitation Program.
    "CIP" means cleaned in  place by the circulation or flowing by mechanical means through a piping system  of a detergent solution, water rinse, and sanitizing solution onto or over  equipment surfaces that require cleaning, such as the method used, in part, to  clean and sanitize a frozen dessert machine. CIP does not include the cleaning  of equipment such as band saws, slicers or mixers that are subjected to  in-place manual cleaning without the use of a CIP system.
    "CFR" means Code of  Federal Regulations. Citations in these regulations to the CFR refer  sequentially to the title, part, and section numbers, such as 21 CFR 178.1010  refers to Title 21, Part 178, Section 1010.
    "Code of Federal  Regulations" means the compilation of the general and permanent rules published  in the Federal Register by the executive departments and agencies of the  federal government which:
    1. Is published annually by the U.S.  Government Printing Office; and
    2. Contains FDA rules in 21 CFR, USDA  rules in 7 CFR and 9 CFR, EPA rules in 40 CFR, and Wildlife and Fisheries Rules  in 50 CFR.
    "Commingle" means:
    1. To combine shellstock harvested on  different days or from different growing areas as identified on the tag or  label; or
    2. To combine shucked shellfish from  containers with different container codes or different shucking dates.
    "Comminuted" means  reduced in size by methods including chopping, flaking, grinding, or mincing.  "Comminuted" includes fish or meat products that are reduced in size  and restructured or reformulated such as gefilte fish, gyros, ground beef, and  sausage; and a mixture of two or more types of meat that have been reduced in  size and combined, such as sausages made from two or more meats.
    "Commissary" means a  catering establishment, restaurant, or any other place in which food, food  containers or supplies are kept, handled, prepared, packaged or stored for  distribution to satellite operations.
    "Commissioner" means  the State Health Commissioner, his duly designated officer or his agent.
    "Conditional  employee" means a potential food employee to whom a job offer is made,  conditional on responses to subsequent medical questions or examinations  designed to identify potential food employees who may be suffering from a  disease that can be transmitted through food and done in compliance with Title  1 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.
    "Confirmed disease  outbreak" means a foodborne disease outbreak in which laboratory analysis  of appropriate specimens identifies a causative organism or chemical and  epidemiological analysis implicates the food as the source of the illness.
    "Consumer" means a  person who is a member of the public, takes possession of food, is not  functioning in the capacity of an operator of a food establishment or food  processing plant, and does not offer the food for resale.
    "Corrosion-resistant  materials" means a material that maintains acceptable surface cleanability  characteristics under prolonged influence of the food to be contacted, the  normal use of cleaning compounds and sanitizing solutions, and other conditions  of the use environment.
    "Counter-mounted  equipment" means equipment that is not easily movable and is designed to  be mounted off the floor on a table, counter, or shelf.
    "Critical control  point" means a point or procedure in a specific food system where loss of  control may result in an unacceptable health risk.
    "Critical item" means a  provision of these regulations that, if in noncompliance, is more likely than  other violations to contribute to food contamination, illness, or environmental  degradation.
    "Critical limit" means  the maximum or minimum value to which a physical, biological, or chemical  parameter must be controlled at a critical control point to minimize the risk  that the identified food safety hazard may occur.
    "Dealer"  means a person who is authorized by a shellfish control authority for the  activities of a shellstock shipper, shucker-packer, repacker, reshipper, or  depuration processor of molluscan shellfish according to the provisions of the  National Shellfish Sanitation Program.
    "Delicatessen" means a  store where ready to eat products such as cooked meats, prepared salads, etc.  are sold for off-premises consumption.
    "Department" means the  State Health Department.
    "Director" means the  district or local health director.
    "Disclosure" means a  written statement that clearly identifies the animal foods that are, or can be  ordered, raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate  pathogens in their entirety, or items that contain an ingredient that is raw,  undercooked, or otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens.
    "Drinking water" means  water that meets the water quality standards for bacteria of the Virginia  Waterworks Regulations (12VAC5-590). Drinking water is traditionally known as  "potable water." Drinking water includes the term water except where  the term used connotes that the water is not potable, such as "boiler  water," "mop water," "rainwater,"  "wastewater," and "nondrinking" water.
    "Dry storage area"  means a room or area designated for the storage of packaged or containerized  bulk food that is not potentially hazardous and dry goods such as  single-service items.
    "Easily cleanable"  means a characteristic of a surface that:
    1. Allows effective removal of soil by  normal cleaning methods;
    2. Is dependent on the material, design,  construction, and installation of the surface; and
    3. Varies with the likelihood of the  surface's role in introducing pathogenic or toxigenic agents or other  contaminants into food based on the surface's approved placement, purpose, and  use.
    "Easily cleanable"  includes a tiered application of the criteria that qualify the surface as  easily cleanable as specified above to different situations in which varying  degrees of cleanability are required such as:
    1. The appropriateness of stainless  steel for a food preparation surface as opposed to the lack of need for  stainless steel to be used for floors or for tables used for consumer dining;  or
    2. The need for a different degree of  cleanability for a utilitarian attachment or accessory in the kitchen as  opposed to a decorative attachment or accessory in the consumer dining area.
    "Easily movable" means:
    1. Portable (weighing 30 pounds or  less); mounted on casters, gliders, or rollers; or provided with a mechanical  means to safely tilt a unit of equipment for cleaning; and
    2. Having no utility connection, a  utility connection that disconnects quickly, or a flexible utility connection  line of sufficient length to allow the equipment to be moved for cleaning of  the equipment and adjacent area.
    "Egg" means the shell  egg of the domesticated chicken, turkey, duck, goose, or guinea. avian  species such as chicken, duck, goose, guinea, quail, ratites, or turkey. Egg  does not include a balut; egg of the reptile species such as alligator; or an  egg product.
    "Egg  product" means all, or a portion of, the contents found inside eggs  separated from the shell and pasteurized in a food processing plant, with or  without added ingredients, intended for human consumption, such as dried,  frozen, or liquid eggs. Egg product does not include food that contains eggs  only in a relatively small proportion such as cake mixes.
    "Employee" means the  permit holder, person in charge, food employee, person having  supervisory or management duties, person on the payroll, family member,  volunteer, person performing work under contractual agreement, or other person  working in a food establishment.
    "Enterohemorrhagic  Escherichia coli (EHEC)" means E.coli that cause hemorrhagic  colitis, meaning bleeding enterically or bleeding from the intestine. The term  is typically used in association with E.coli that have the capacity to  produce Shiga toxins and to cause attaching and effacing lesion in the  intestine. EHEC is a subset of STEC, whose members produce additional virulence  factors. Infections with EHEC may be asymptomatic but are classically  associated with bloody diarrhea (hemorrhagic colitis) and hemolytic uremic  syndrome (HUS) or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Examples of  serotypes of EHEC include: E.coli O157:H7; E.coli O157:NM; E.coli  O26:H11; E.coli O145:NM; E.coli O103:H2; or E.coli  O111:NM. Also see Shiga toxin-producing E.coli.
    "EPA" means the U.S.  Environmental Protection Agency.
    "Equipment" means an  article that is used in the operation of a food establishment. "Equipment"  includes, but is not limited to, items such as a freezer, grinder, hood, ice  maker, meat block, mixer, oven, reach-in refrigerator, scale, sink, slicer,  stove, table, temperature measuring device for ambient air, vending machine, or  warewashing machine.
    "Exclude" means to  prevent a person from working as a food employee in a food establishment  or entering a food establishment except for those areas open to the general  public as an employee.
    "F" means degrees  Fahrenheit.
    "FDA" means the U.S.  Food and Drug Administration.
    "Fish" means: fresh or  saltwater finfish, crustaceans, and other forms of aquatic life (including  alligator, frog, aquatic turtle, jellyfish, sea cucumber, and sea urchin and  the roe of such animals) other than birds or mammals; all mollusks, if such  animal life is intended for human consumption; and, includes any edible human  food product derived in whole or in part from fish, including fish that has  been processed in any manner.
    "Food" means a raw,  cooked, or processed edible substance, ice, beverage, or ingredient used or  intended for use or for sale in whole or in part for human consumption.
    "Foodborne disease  outbreak" means the occurrence of two or more cases of a similar illness  resulting from the ingestion of a common food.
    "Food-contact surface"  means a surface of equipment or a utensil with which food normally comes into  contact, or a surface of equipment or a utensil from which food may drain,  drip, or splash into a food, or onto a surface normally in contact with food.
    "Food employee" means  an individual working with unpackaged food, food equipment or utensils, or  food-contact surfaces.
    "Food establishment"  means an operation that stores, prepares, packages, serves, vends, or otherwise  provides food for human consumption (i) such as a restaurant; satellite or  catered feeding location; catering operation if the operation provides food  directly to a consumer or to a conveyance used to transport people; market;  vending location; conveyance used to transport people; institution; or food  bank; and (ii) that relinquishes possession of food to a consumer directly, or  indirectly through a delivery service such as home delivery of grocery orders  or restaurant takeout orders, or delivery service that is provided by common  carriers.
    "Food establishment"  includes (a) an element of the operation such as a transportation vehicle or a  central preparation facility that supplies a vending location or satellite  feeding location; (b) an operation that is conducted in a mobile, stationary,  temporary, or permanent facility or location; where consumption is on or off  the premises; and regardless of whether there is a charge for the food; and (c)  a facility that does not meet the exemption criteria identified in subdivision  6 of this definition or a facility that meets the exemption requirements but  chooses to be regulated under these regulations.
    "Food establishment"  does not include:
    1. An establishment that offers only  prepackaged foods that are not potentially hazardous;
    2. A produce stand that only offers  whole, uncut fresh fruits and vegetables;
    3. A food processing plant; including  those that are located on the premises of a food establishment;
    4. A kitchen in a private home if only  food that is not potentially hazardous is prepared for sale or service at a  function such as a religious or charitable organization's bake sale if allowed  by law and if the consumer is informed by a clearly visible placard at the  sales or service location that the food is prepared in a kitchen that is not  subject to regulation and inspection by the regulatory authority;
    5. An area where food that is prepared  as specified in subdivision 4 above is sold or offered for human consumption;
    6. A kitchen in a private home, such as,  but not limited to, a family day-care provider or a home for adults, serving 12  or fewer recipients; or a bed-and-breakfast operation that prepares and offers  food only to guests if the home is owner occupied, the number of available  guest bedrooms does not exceed six, breakfast is the only meal offered, the  number of guests served does not exceed 18, and the consumer is informed by  statements contained in published advertisements, mailed brochures, and  placards posted at the registration area that the food is prepared in a kitchen  that is, by these regulations, exempt from this chapter; or
    7. A private home that receives catered  or home-delivered food.
    For the purpose of implementing  this chapter, the following are also exempt from the definition of a "food  establishment" in this chapter, as defined in §§ 35.1-25 and 35.1-26 of  the Code of Virginia:
    1. Boarding houses that do not  accommodate transients;
    2. Cafeterias operated by industrial  plants for employees only;
    3. Churches, fraternal, school and  social organizations and volunteer fire departments and rescue squads that hold  dinners and bazaars not more than one time per week and not in excess of two  days duration at which food prepared in homes of members or in the kitchen of  the church or organization and is offered for sale to the public;
    4. Grocery stores, including the  delicatessen that is a part of a grocery store, selling exclusively for  off-premises consumption and places manufacturing or selling packaged or canned  goods;
    5. Churches that serve meals for their  members as a regular part of their religious observance; and
    6. Convenience stores or gas stations  that are subject to the State Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services'  Retail Food Establishment Regulations (2VAC5-585) or any regulations  subsequently adopted and that (i) have 15 or fewer seats at which food is  served to the public on the premises of the convenience store or gas station  and (ii) are not associated with a national or regional restaurant chain.  Notwithstanding this exemption, such convenience stores or gas stations shall remain  responsible for collecting any applicable local meals tax.
    "Food processing plant"  means a commercial operation that manufactures, packages, labels, or stores  food for human consumption and does not provide food directly to a consumer  provides food for sale or distribution to other business entities such as  food processing plants or food establishments. Food processing plant does not  include a food establishment.
    "Game animal" means an  animal, the products of which are food, that is not classified as: cattle,  sheep, swine, goat, horse, mule, or other equine in 9 CFR Part 301 Definitions,  as poultry in 9 CFR Part 381 Poultry Products Inspection Regulations, or as  Fish as defined in this section.
    "Game animal" includes  mammals such as reindeer, elk, deer, antelope, water buffalo, bison, rabbit,  squirrel, opossum, raccoon, nutria, or muskrat and nonaquatic reptiles such as  land snakes.
    "Game animal" does not  include ratites such as ostrich, emu, and rhea.
    "General use pesticide"  means a pesticide that is not classified by EPA for restricted use as specified  in 40 CFR 152.175.
    "Grade A standards"  means the requirements of the USPHS/FDA "Grade A Pasteurized Milk  Ordinance" and "Grade A Condensed and Dry Milk Ordinance" with  which certain fluid and dry milk and milk products comply.
    "HACCP Plan" means a  written document that delineates the formal procedures for following the Hazard  Analysis Critical Control Point principles developed by The National Advisory  Committee on Microbiological Criteria for Foods.
    "Handwashing  sink" means a lavatory, a basin or vessel for washing, a wash basin, or a  plumbing fixture especially placed for use in personal hygiene and designed for  the washing of hands.  Handwashing sink includes an automatic handwashing  facility.
    "Hazard" means a  biological, chemical, or physical property that may cause an unacceptable  consumer health risk.
    "Health  practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine, or if  allowed by law, a nurse practitioner, physician assistant, or similar medical  profession.
    "Hermetically sealed  container" means a container that is designed and intended to be secure  against the entry of microorganisms and, in the case of low acid canned foods,  to maintain the commercial sterility of its contents after processing.
    "Highly susceptible  population" means persons who are more likely than other people in the  general population to experience foodborne disease because they are:
    1. Immunocompromised, preschool age  children, or older adults; and
    2. Obtaining food at a facility that  provides services such as custodial care, health care, or assisted living, such  as a child or adult day care center, kidney dialysis center, hospital or  nursing home, or nutritional or socialization services such as a senior center.
    "Hot water" means water  at a temperature of 100°F or higher unless otherwise stated.
    "Imminent health  hazard" means a significant threat or danger to health that is considered  to exist when there is evidence sufficient to show that a product, practice,  circumstance, or event creates a situation that requires immediate correction  or cessation of operation to prevent injury based on the number of potential  injuries, and the nature, severity, and duration of the anticipated injury.
    "Injected" means  tenderizing a meat with deep penetration or injecting the meat such as with  juices which may be referred to as "injecting," "pinning,"  or "stitch pumping." During injection infectious or toxigenic  microorganisms may be introduced from its surface to its interior.
    "Juice," when  used in the context of food safety, means the aqueous liquid expressed or  extracted from one or more fruits or vegetables, puries purées of  the edible portions of one or more fruits or vegetables, purées of the  edible portions of one or more fruits or vegetables, or any concentrate of  such liquid or purée. Juice includes juice as a whole beverage, an  ingredient of a beverage and a purée as an ingredient of a beverage. Juice  does not include, for purposes of HACCP, liquids, purées, or concentrates that  are not used as beverages or ingredients of beverages.
    "Kitchenware" means  food preparation and storage utensils.
    "Law" means applicable  local, state, and federal statutes, regulations, and ordinances.
    "Linens" means fabric  items such as cloth hampers, cloth napkins, table cloths, wiping cloths, and  work garments including cloth gloves.
    "Major food  allergen" means milk, egg, fish (such as bass, flounder, cod, and  including crustacean shellfish such as crab, lobster, or shrimp), tree nuts  (such as almonds, pecans, or walnuts), wheat, peanuts, and soybeans; or a food  ingredient that contains protein derived from one of these foods.  Major  food allergen does not include any highly refined oil derived from a major food  allergen in this definition and any ingredient derived from such highly refined  oil; or any ingredient that is exempt under the petition or notification  process specified in the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of  2004 (P. L. 108-282).
    "Meat" means the flesh  of animals used as food including the dressed flesh of cattle, swine, sheep, or  goats and other edible animals, except fish, poultry, and wild game animals as  specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 3 and 4.
    "mg/L" means milligrams  per liter, which is the metric equivalent of parts per million (ppm).
    "Mobile  food unit" means a food establishment that is mounted on wheels that is  readily moveable from place to place and shall include pushcarts, trailers,  trucks, or vans. There is no size limit to mobile food units but they must be  mobile at all times during operation and must be on wheels (excluding boats in  the water) at all times. The unit, all operations, and all equipment must be  integral to and be within or attached to the unit. 
    "Molluscan shellfish"  means any edible species of fresh or frozen oysters, clams, mussels, and  scallops or edible portions thereof, except when the scallop product consists  only of the shucked adductor muscle.
    "Occasional" means not  more than one time per week, and not in excess of two days duration.
    "Organization" means  any one of the following:
    1. A volunteer fire department or rescue  squad or auxiliary unit thereof which has been recognized in accordance with § 15.2-955 of the Code of Virginia by an ordinance or resolution of the political  subdivision where the volunteer fire department or rescue squad is located as  being a part of the safety program of such political subdivision;
    2. An organization operated exclusively  for religious, charitable, community or educational purposes;
    3. An association of war veterans or  auxiliary units thereof organized in the United States;
    4. A fraternal association or  corporation operating under the lodge system;
    5. A local chamber of commerce; or
    6. A nonprofit organization that raises  funds by conducting raffles which generate annual gross receipts of less than  $75,000, provided such gross receipts from the raffle, less expenses and  prizes, are used exclusively for charitable, educational, religious or  community purposes.
    "Packaged" means  bottled, canned, cartoned, securely bagged, or securely wrapped, whether  packaged in a food establishment or a food processing plant.
    "Permit" means a  license issued by the regulatory authority that authorizes a person to operate  a food establishment.
    "Permit holder" means  the entity that is legally responsible for the operation of the food  establishment such as the owner, the owner's agent, or other person, and  possesses a valid permit to operate a food establishment.
    "Person" means an  association, a corporation, individual, partnership, other legal entity,  government, or governmental subdivision or agency.
    "Person in charge"  means the individual present at a food establishment who is responsible for the  operation at the time of inspection.
    "Personal care items"  means items or substances that may be poisonous, toxic, or a source of  contamination and are used to maintain or enhance a person's health, hygiene,  or appearance. Personal care items include items such as medicines; first aid  supplies; and other items such as cosmetics, and toiletries such as toothpaste  and mouthwash.
    "pH" means the symbol  for the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration, which is a  measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
    "Physical facilities"  means the structure and interior surfaces of a food establishment including  accessories such as soap and towel dispensers and attachments such as light  fixtures and heating or air conditioning system vents.
    "Plumbing fixture"  means a receptacle or device that is permanently or temporarily connected to the  water distribution system of the premises and demands a supply of water from  the system or discharges used water, waste materials, or sewage directly or  indirectly to the drainage system of the premises.
    "Plumbing system" means  the water supply and distribution pipes; plumbing fixtures and traps; soil,  waste, and vent pipes; sanitary and storm sewers and building drains, including  their respective connections, devices, and appurtenances within the premises;  and water-treating equipment.
    "Poisonous or toxic  materials" means substances that are not intended for ingestion and are  included in four categories:
    1. Cleaners and sanitizers, which  include cleaning and sanitizing agents and agents such as caustics, acids,  drying agents, polishes, and other chemicals;
    2. Pesticides which include substances  such as insecticides and rodenticides;
    3. Substances necessary for the  operation and maintenance of the establishment such as nonfood grade  lubricants, paints, and personal care items that may be deleterious to health;  and
    4. Substances that are not necessary for  the operation and maintenance of the establishment and are on the premises for  retail sale, such as petroleum products and paints.
    "Potentially  hazardous food" means a food that is natural or synthetic and that  requires temperature control because it is in a form capable of supporting:
    1. The rapid and progressive growth of  infectious or toxigenic microorganisms;
    2. The growth and toxin production of  Clostridium botulinum; or
    3. In raw shell eggs, the growth of  Salmonella enteritidis.
    "Potentially  hazardous food" includes an animal food (a food of animal origin) that is  raw or heat-treated; a food of plant origin that is heat-treated or consists of  raw seed sprouts; cut melons; and garlic-in-oil mixtures that are not acidified  or otherwise modified at a food processing plant in a way that results in  mixtures that do not support growth as specified above in this definition.
    Potentially  hazardous food does not include:
    1. An air-cooled hard-boiled egg with  shell intact or a shell egg that is not hard boiled, but has been treated to  destroy all viable Salmonellae;
    2. A food with an aw value of  0.85 or less;
    3. A food with a pH level of 4.6 or  below when measured at 24°C (75°F);
    4. A food, in an unopened hermetically  sealed container, that is commercially processed to achieve and maintain  commercial sterility under conditions of nonrefrigerated storage and  distribution;
    5. A food for which a laboratory  evidence demonstrates that the rapid and progressive growth of infectious and  toxigenic microorganisms or the growth of Salmonella enteritidis in eggs or  Clostridium botulinum cannot occur, such as a food that has an aw  and a pH that are above the levels specified in this definition and that may  contain a preservative, other barrier to the growth of microorganism, or a  combination of barriers that inhibit the growth of microorganisms; and
    6. A food that does not support the  growth of microorganisms as specified above in this definition even though the  food may contain an infectious or toxigenic microorganism or chemical or  physical contaminant at a level sufficient to cause illness.
    "Potentially  hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food)" means a food  that requires time/temperature control for safety (TCS) to limit pathogenic  microorganism growth or toxin formation:
    1. Potentially hazardous food  (time/temperature control for safety food) includes an animal food that is raw  or heat-treated; a plant food that is heat-treated or consists of raw seed  sprouts, cut melons, cut tomatoes, or mixtures of cut tomatoes that are not  modified in a way so that they are unable to support pathogenic microorganism  growth or toxin formation, or garlic-in-oil mixtures that are not modified in a  way that results in mixtures that do not support pathogenic microorganism  growth or toxin formation; and except as specified in subdivision 2 of this  definition, a food that because of the interaction of its Aw and pH  values is designated as Product Assessment Required (PA) in Table A or B of  this definition:
           |   | Table A.    Interaction of pH and Aw for control of spores in food heat-treated to    destroy vegetative cells and subsequently packaged. | 
       |   | Aw values | pH values | 
       |   | 4.6 or less | >4.6-5.6 | >5.6 | 
       |   | <0.92 | non-PHF*/non-TCS food** | non-PHF/non-TCS food | non-PHF/non-TCS food | 
       |   | > 0.92-0.95 | non-PHF/non-TCS food | non-PHF/non-TCS food | PA*** | 
       |   | >0.95 | non-PHF/non-TCS food | PA | PA | 
       |   | *PHF means Potentially    Hazardous Food **TCS means Time/Temperature    Control for Safety Food ***PA means Product Assessment    required | 
  
     
           |   | Table B.    Interaction of pH and Aw for control of vegetative cells and spores in food    not heat-treated or heat-treated but not packaged. | 
       |   | Aw values | pH values | 
       |   | < 4.2 | 4.2 - 4.6 | > 4.6 - 5.0 | > 5.0 | 
       |   | <0.88 | non-PHF*/non-TCS    food** | non-PHF/non-TCS    food | non-PHF/non-TCS    food | non-PHF/non-TCS    food | 
       |   | 0.88-0.90 | non-PHF/non-TCS    food | non-PHF/non-TCS    food | non-PHF/non-TCS    food | PA*** | 
       |   | >0.90-0.92 | non-PHF/non-TCS    food | non-PHF/non-TCS    food | PA | PA | 
       |   | >0.92 | non-PHF/non-TCS    food | PA | PA | PA | 
       |   | *PHF means    Potentially Hazardous Food **TCS means    Time/Temperature Control for Safety Food ***PA means    Product Assessment required | 
  
    2. Potentially hazardous food  (time/temperature control for safety food) does not include:
    a. An air-cooled hard-boiled egg with  shell intact, or an egg with shell intact that is not hard-boiled, but has been  pasteurized to destroy all viable Salmonellae;
    b. A food in an unopened hermetically  sealed container that is commercially processed to achieve and maintain  commercial sterility under conditions of nonrefrigerated storage and  distribution;
    c. A food that because of its pH or Aw  value, or interaction of Aw and pH values, is designated as a  non-PHF/non-TCS food in Table A or B of this definition;
    d. A food that is designated as Product  Assessment required (PA) in Table A or B of this definition and has undergone a  Product Assessment showing that the growth or toxin formation of pathogenic  microorganisms that are reasonably likely to occur in that food is precluded  due to:
    (1) Intrinsic factors including added or  natural characteristics of the food such as preservatives, antimicrobials,  humectants, acidulants, or nutrients, 
    (2) Extrinsic factors including  environmental or operational factors that affect the food such as packaging,  modified atmosphere such as reduced oxygen packaging, shelf-life and use, or  temperature range of storage and use, or
    (3) A combination of intrinsic and  extrinsic factors; or
    e. A food that does not support the  growth or toxin formation of pathogenic microorganisms in accordance with one  of the subdivisions 2 a through 2 d of this definition even though the food may  contain a pathogenic microorganism or chemical or physical contaminant at a  level sufficient to cause illness or injury.
    "Poultry" means any  domesticated bird (chickens, turkeys, ducks, geese, or guineas), whether live  or dead, as defined in 9 CFR Part 381, Poultry Products Inspection Regulations,  and any migratory waterfowl, game bird, or squab such as pheasant, partridge,  quail, grouse, guineas, or pigeon or squab whether live or dead, as defined in  9 CFR Part 362, Voluntary Poultry Inspection Regulations. "Poultry"  does not include ratites.
    "Premises" means the  physical facility, its contents, and the contiguous land or property under the  control of the permit holder; or the physical facility, its contents, and the  land or property which are under the control of the permit holder and may  impact food establishment personnel, facilities, or operations, if a food  establishment is only one component of a larger operation such as a health care  facility, hotel, motel, school, recreational camp, or prison.
    "Primal cut" means a  basic major cut into which carcasses and sides of meat are separated, such as a  beef round, pork loin, lamb flank or veal breast.
    "Public water system"  has the meaning stated in 40 CFR Part 141, National Primary Drinking Water  Regulations.
    "Pushcart"  means any wheeled vehicle or device other than a motor vehicle or trailer that  may be moved with or without the assistance of a motor and that does not  require registration by the department of motor vehicles. A pushcart is limited  to the sale and/or service of hot dogs and frankfurter-like foods.
    "Ratite"  means a flightless bird such as an emu, ostrich, or rhea.
    "Ready-to-eat food"  means food that:
    1. Is in a form that is edible without  additional preparation to achieve food safety, as specified under  12VAC5-421-700 A through C, 12VAC5-421-710, or 12VAC5-421-730;
    2. Is a raw or partially cooked animal  food and the consumer is advised as specified under 12VAC5-421- 700 D 1 and 2;  or
    3. Is prepared in accordance with a  variance that is granted as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 D 1 and 2.
    Ready-to-eat food may receive  additional preparation for palatability or aesthetic, epicurean, gastronomic,  or culinary purposes.
    "Ready-to-eat food"  includes:
    1. Raw animal food that is cooked as  specified under 12VAC5-421-700, or frozen as specified under 12VAC5-421-730;
    2. Raw fruits and vegetables that are  washed as specified under 12VAC5-421-510;
    3. Fruits and vegetables that are cooked  for hot holding as specified under 12VAC5-421-720;
    4. All potentially hazardous food that  is cooked to the temperature and time required for the specific food under  12VAC5-421-700 and cooled as specified in 12VAC5-421-800;
    5. Plant food for which further washing,  cooking, or other processing is not required for food safety, and from which  rinds, peels, husks, or shells, if naturally present, are removed;
    6. Substances derived from plants such  as spices, seasonings, and sugar;
    7. A bakery item such as bread, cakes,  pies, fillings, or icing for which further cooking is not required for food  safety;
    8. The following products that are  produced in accordance with USDA guidelines and that have received a lethality  treatment for pathogen: dry, fermented sausages, such as dry salami or  pepperoni; salt-cured meat and poultry products, such as prosciutto, country  cured ham, and Parma ham; and dried meat and poultry products, such as jerky or  beef sticks; and
    9. Food manufactured according to 21 CFR  Part 113, Thermally Processed Low-Acid Foods Packaged in Hermetically Sealed  Containers.
    "Reduced oxygen  packaging" means the reduction of the amount of oxygen in a package by  removing oxygen; displacing oxygen and replacing it with another gas or  combination of gases; or otherwise controlling the oxygen content to a level  below that normally found in the surrounding 21% oxygen atmosphere atmosphere  (approximately 21% at sea level); and a process as specified in this  definition that involves a food for which Clostridium botulinum is  identified as a microbiological hazard in the final packaged form. the  hazards Clostridium botulinum or Listeria monocytogenes require  control in the final packaged form. Reduced oxygen packaging includes:
    1. Vacuum packaging, in which air is  removed from a package of food and the package is hermetically sealed so that a  vacuum remains inside the package;
    2. Modified atmosphere packaging, in  which the atmosphere of a package of food is modified so that its composition  is different from air but the atmosphere may change over time due to the  permeability of the packaging material or the respiration of the food. Modified  atmosphere packaging includes reduction in the proportion of oxygen, total  replacement of oxygen, or an increase in the proportion of other gases such as  carbon dioxide or nitrogen;
    3. Controlled atmosphere packaging, in  which the atmosphere of a package of food is modified so that until the package  is opened, its composition is different from air, and continuous control of  that atmosphere is maintained, such as by using oxygen scavengers or a  combination of total replacement oxygen, nonrespiring food, and impermeable  packaging material;
    4. Cook chill packaging, in which cooked  food is hot filled into impermeable bags that have the air expelled and are  then sealed or crimped closed. The bagged food is rapidly chilled and  refrigerated at temperatures that inhibit the growth of psychrotrophic  pathogens; or
    5. Sous vide packaging, in which raw or  partially cooked food is placed in a hermetically sealed, impermeable bag,  cooked in the bag, rapidly chilled, and refrigerated at temperatures that  inhibit the growth of psychrotrophic pathogens.
    "Refuse" means solid  waste not carried by water through the sewage system.
    "Regulatory authority"  means the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, the  Virginia Department of Health or their authorized representative having  jurisdiction over the food establishment.
    "Reminder" means a  written statement concerning the health risk of consuming animal foods raw,  undercooked, or without being processed to eliminate pathogens.
    "Reservice"  means the transfer of food that is unused and returned by a consumer after  being served or sold and in the possession of the consumer, to another person.
    "Restrict" means to  limit the activities of a food employee so that there is no risk of  transmitting a disease that is transmissible through food and the food employee  does not work with exposed food, clean equipment, utensils, linens, and unwrapped  single-service or single-use articles.
    "Restricted egg" means  any check, dirty egg, incubator reject, inedible, leaker, or loss as defined in  9 CFR Part 590.
    "Restricted use  pesticide" means a pesticide product that contains the active ingredients  specified in 40 CFR 152.175 (pesticides classified for restricted use) and that  is limited to use by or under the direct supervision of a certified applicator.
    "Risk" means the  likelihood that an adverse health effect will occur within a population as a  result of a hazard in a food.
    "Safe material" means  an article manufactured from or composed of materials that shall not reasonably  be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in their becoming a component or  otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food; an additive that is used  as specified in § 409 or 706 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or  other materials that are not additives and that are used in conformity with  applicable regulations of the Food and Drug Administration.
    "Sanitization" means  the application of cumulative heat or chemicals on cleaned food contact  surfaces that, when evaluated for efficacy, yield a reduction of five logs,  which is equal to a 99.999% reduction, of representative disease microorganisms  of public health importance.
    "Sealed" means free of  cracks or other openings that permit the entry or passage of moisture.
    "Service animal" means  an animal such as a guide dog, signal dog, or other animal individually trained  to provide assistance to an individual with a disability.
    "Servicing area" means  an operating base location to which a mobile food establishment or  transportation vehicle returns regularly for such things as vehicle and  equipment cleaning, discharging liquid or solid wastes, refilling water tanks  and ice bins, and boarding food.
    "Sewage" means liquid  waste containing animal or vegetable matter in suspension or solution and may  include liquids containing chemicals in solution.
    "Shellfish control  authority" means a state, federal, foreign, or other government entity  legally responsible for administering a program that includes certification of  molluscan shellfish harvesters and dealers for interstate commerce such as the  Virginia Department of Health Division of Shellfish Sanitation.
    "Shellstock" means raw,  in-shell molluscan shellfish.
    "Shiga toxin-producing  Escherichia coli" (STEC) means any E. coli capable of producing  Shiga toxins (also called verocytotoxins or "Shiga-like" toxins). This  includes, but is not limited to, E. coli reported as serotype O157:H7, O157:NM,  and O157:H-. Examples of serotypes of STEC include both O157 and  non-O157 E.coli. Also see Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli.
    "Shucked shellfish"  means molluscan shellfish that have one or both shells removed.
    "Single-service  articles" means tableware, carry-out utensils, and other items such as  bags, containers, placemats, stirrers, straws, toothpicks, and wrappers that  are designed and constructed for one time, one person use after which they are  intended for discard.
    "Single-use articles"  means utensils and bulk food containers designed and constructed to be used  once and discarded. Single-use articles includes items such as wax paper,  butcher paper, plastic wrap, formed aluminum food containers, jars, plastic  tubs or buckets, bread wrappers, pickle barrels, ketchup bottles, and number 10  cans which do not meet the materials, durability, strength and cleanability  specifications contained in 12VAC5-421-960, 12VAC5-421-1080, and  12VAC5-421-1100 for multiuse utensils.
    "Slacking" means the  process of moderating the temperature of a food such as allowing a food to  gradually increase from a temperature of -10°F (-23°C) to 25°F (-4°C) in  preparation for deep-fat frying or to facilitate even heat penetration during  the cooking of previously block-frozen food such as spinach.
    "Smooth" means a  food-contact surface having a surface free of pits and inclusions with a  cleanability equal to or exceeding that of (100 grit) number three stainless  steel; a nonfood-contact surface of equipment having a surface equal to that of  commercial grade hot-rolled steel free of visible scale; and a floor, wall, or  ceiling having an even or level surface with no roughness or projections that  render it difficult to clean.
    "Substantial  compliance" shall mean that details of equipment or structure design or  construction and/or food preparation, handling, storage, transportation and/or  cleaning procedures will not substantially affect health consideration or  performance of the facility or its employees.
    "Table-mounted  equipment" means equipment that is not easily movable and is designed to  be mounted off the floor on a table, counter, or shelf.
    "Tableware" means  eating, drinking, and serving utensils for table use such as flatware including  forks, knives, and spoons; hollowware including bowls, cups, serving dishes,  tumblers; and plates.
    "Temperature measuring  device" means a thermometer, thermocouple, thermistor, or other device  that indicates the temperature of food, air, or water.
    "Temporary food  establishment" means a food establishment that operates for a period of no  more than 14 consecutive days in conjunction with a single event or  celebration.
    "USDA" means the U.S.  Department of Agriculture.
    "Utensil" means a  food-contact implement or container used in the storage, preparation,  transportation, dispensing, sale, or service of food, such as kitchenware or  tableware that is multiuse, single service, or single use; gloves used in  contact with food; temperature sensing probes of food temperature measuring  devices and probe-type price or identification tags used in contact with food.
    "Variance" means a  written document issued by the regulatory authority that authorizes a  modification or waiver of one or more requirements of this chapter if, in the  opinion of the regulatory authority, a health hazard or nuisance will not  result from the modification or waiver.
    "Vending machine" means  a self-service device that, upon insertion of a coin, paper currency, token,  card, or key, or by optional manual operation, dispenses unit servings of food in  bulk or in packages without the necessity of replenishing the device between  each vending operation.
    "Vending machine  location" means the room, enclosure, space, or area where one or more  vending machines are installed and operated and includes the storage and  servicing areas on the premises that are used in conjunction with the vending  machines.
    "Warewashing" means the  cleaning and sanitizing of food-contact surfaces of equipment and utensils.
    "Whole-muscle, intact  beef" means whole muscle beef that is not injected, mechanically  tenderized, reconstructed, or scored and marinated, from which beef steaks may  be cut.
    Part  II 
  Management and Personnel 
    Article  1 
  Supervision 
    12VAC5-421-50.  Assignment of responsibility.
    The 1. Except as  specified in subdivision 2 of this section, the permit holder shall be the  person in charge or shall designate a person in charge and shall ensure that a  person in charge is present at the food establishment during all hours of  operation.
    2. In a food  establishment with two or more separately permitted departments that are the  legal responsibility of the same permit holder and that are located on the same  premises, the permit holder may, during specific time periods when food is not  being prepared, packaged, or served, designate a single person in charge who is  present on the premises during all hours of operation, and who is responsible  for each separately permitted food establishment on the premises.
    12VAC5-421-60.  Demonstration of knowledge.
    Based on the risks of foodborne  illness inherent to the food operation, during inspections and upon request the  person in charge shall demonstrate to the regulatory authority knowledge of  foodborne disease prevention, and the requirements of these regulations. The  person in charge shall demonstrate this knowledge by: being a  certified food protection manager who has shown proficiency of required  information through passing a test that is part of an accredited program, or by  responding correctly to the environmental health specialist's questions as they  relate to the specific food operation. The areas of knowledge may include: 
    1. Complying with the Food Regulations  by having no violations of critical items during the current inspection;
    2. Being a certified food protection  manager who has shown proficiency of required information through passing a  test that is part of an accredited program; or
    3. Responding correctly to the  environmental specialist's questions as they relate to the specific food  operation. The areas of operation may include:
    1. a. Describing the  relationship between the prevention of foodborne disease and the personal  hygiene of a food employee; 
    2. b. Explaining the  responsibility of the person in charge for preventing the transmission of  foodborne disease by a food employee who has a disease or medical condition  that may cause foodborne disease; 
    3. c. Describing the  symptoms associated with the diseases that are transmissible through food; 
    4. d. Explaining the  significance of the relationship between maintaining the time and temperature  of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food)  and the prevention of foodborne illness; 
    5. e. Explaining the hazards  involved in the consumption of raw or undercooked meat, poultry, eggs, and  fish; 
    6. f. Stating the required  food temperatures and times for safe cooking of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) including meat, poultry, eggs, and fish; 
    7. g. Stating the required  temperatures and times for the safe refrigerated storage, hot holding, cooling,  and reheating of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for  safety food); 
    8. h. Describing the  relationship between the prevention of foodborne illness and the management and  control of the following: 
    a. (1) Cross contamination, 
    b. (2) Hand contact with  ready-to-eat foods, 
    c. (3) Handwashing, and 
    d. (4) Maintaining the food  establishment in a clean condition and in good repair; 
    i. Describing the foods identified as  major food allergens and the symptoms that a major food allergen could cause in  a sensitive individual who has an allergic reaction;
    9. j. Explaining the  relationship between food safety and providing equipment that is: 
    a. (1) Sufficient in number  and capacity, and 
    b. (2) Properly designed,  constructed, located, installed, operated, maintained, and cleaned; 
    10. k. Explaining correct  procedures for cleaning and sanitizing utensils and food-contact surfaces of  equipment; 
    11. l. Identifying the source  of water used and measures taken to ensure that it remains protected from  contamination such as providing protection from backflow and precluding the  creation of cross connections; 
    12. m. Identifying poisonous  or toxic materials in the food establishment and the procedures necessary to  ensure that they are safely stored, dispensed, used, and disposed of according  to law; 
    13. n. Identifying control  points in the operation from purchasing through sale or service that may  contribute to the transmission of foodborne illness and explaining steps taken  to ensure that the points are controlled in accordance with the requirements of  this chapter; 
    14. o. Explaining the details  of how the person in charge and food employees comply with a HACCP plan if such  a plan is a voluntary agreement between the regulatory authority and the  establishment; and 
    15. p. Explaining the  responsibilities, rights, and authorities assigned by this chapter to the: 
    a. (1) Food employee, 
    b. (2) Person in charge, and  
    c. (3) Regulatory authority.;  and
    q. Explaining how the person in charge,  food employees, and conditional employees comply with reporting  responsibilities and the exclusion or restriction of food employees.
    12VAC5-421-70. Person  Duties of person in charge.
    The person in charge shall ensure  that: 
    1. Food establishment operations are not  conducted in a private home or in a room used as living or sleeping quarters as  specified under 12VAC5-421-2990; 
    2. Persons unnecessary to the food  establishment operation are not allowed in the food preparation, food storage,  or warewashing areas, except that brief visits and tours may be authorized by  the person in charge if steps are taken to ensure that exposed food; clean  equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-service and single-use  articles are protected from contamination; 
    3. Employees and other persons such as  delivery and maintenance persons and pesticide applicators entering the food  preparation, food storage, and warewashing areas comply with these regulations;  
    4. Employees are effectively cleaning  their hands, by routinely monitoring the employees' handwashing; 
    5. Employees are visibly observing foods  as they are received to determine that they are from approved sources,  delivered at the required temperatures, protected from contamination,  unadulterated, and accurately presented, by routinely monitoring the employees'  observations and periodically evaluating foods upon their receipt; 
    6. Employees are properly cooking  potentially hazardous food, being particularly careful in cooking those foods  known to cause severe foodborne illness and death, such as eggs and comminuted  meats, through daily oversight of the employees' routine monitoring of the  cooking temperatures; 
    7. Employees are using proper methods to  rapidly cool potentially hazardous foods that are not held hot or are not for  consumption within four hours, through daily oversight of the employees'  routine monitoring of food temperatures during cooling; 
    8. (Reserved); Consumers who  order raw or partially cooked ready-to-eat foods of animal origin are informed  as specified under 12VAC5-421-930 that the food is not cooked sufficiently to  ensure its safety; 
    9. Employees are properly sanitizing  cleaned multiuse equipment and utensils before they are reused, through routine  monitoring of solution temperature and exposure time for hot water sanitizing,  and chemical concentration, pH, temperature, and exposure time for chemical  sanitizing; 
    10. Consumers are notified that clean  tableware is to be used when they return to self-service areas such as salad  bars and buffets; 
    11. Employees Except when  approval is obtained from the regulatory authority as specified in  12VAC5-421-450 B, employees are preventing cross-contamination of  ready-to-eat food with bare hands by properly using suitable utensils such as  deli tissue, spatulas, tongs, single-use gloves, or dispensing equipment; and  
    12. Employees are properly trained in  food safety as it relates to their assigned duties.; and
    13. Food employees and conditional  employees are informed of their responsibility to report in accordance with  law, to the person in charge, information about their health and activities as  they relate to diseases that are transmissible through food, as specified under  12VAC5-421-80.
    Article  2 
  Employee Health 
    12VAC5-421-80.  Responsibility of the permit holder, person in charge to  require reporting by food employees and applicants, and conditional  employees.
    The permit  holder shall require food employee applicants to whom a conditional offer of  employment is made and food employees to report to the person in charge,  information about their health and activities as they relate to diseases that  are transmissible through food. A food employee or applicant shall report the  information in a manner that allows the person in charge to prevent the  likelihood of foodborne disease transmission, including the date of onset of  jaundice or of an illness specified in subdivision 2 of this section, if the  food employee or applicant: 
    1. Is diagnosed with an illness due to: 
    a. Salmonella typhi, 
    b. Shigella spp., 
    c. Escherichia coli O157:H7, or 
    d. Hepatitis A virus; 
    2. Has a symptom caused by illness,  infection, or other source that is: 
    a. Associated with an acute  gastrointestinal illness such as (i) diarrhea; (ii) fever; (iii) vomiting; (iv)  jaundice; or (v) sore throat with fever; or 
    b. A lesion containing pus such as a  boil or infected wound that is open or draining and is: 
    (1) On the hands or wrists, unless an  impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall protects the lesion and a  single-use glove is worn over the impermeable cover; 
    (2) On exposed portions of the arms,  unless the lesion is protected by an impermeable cover; or 
    (3) On other parts of the body, unless  the lesion is covered by a dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage; 
    3. Had a past illness from an infectious  agent specified in subsection A of this section; or 
    4. Meets one or more of the following  high-risk conditions: 
    a. Is suspected of causing, or being  exposed to, a confirmed disease outbreak caused by S. typhi, Shigella spp., E.  coli O157:H7, or hepatitis A virus including an outbreak at an event such as a  family meal, church supper, or festival because the food employee or applicant:  
    (1) Prepared food implicated in the  outbreak, 
    (2) Consumed food implicated in the  outbreak, or 
    (3) Consumed food at the event prepared  by a person who is infected or ill with the infectious agent that caused the  outbreak or who is suspected of being a shedder of the infectious agent, or 
    b. Lives in the same household as a  person who is diagnosed with a disease caused by S. typhi, Shigella spp., E.  coli O157:H7, or hepatitis A virus, or 
    c. Lives in the same household as a  person who attends or works in a setting where there is a confirmed disease  outbreak caused by S. typhi, Shigella spp., E. coli O157:H7, or hepatitis A  virus. 
    A.  The  permit holder shall require food employees and conditional employees to report  to the person in charge information about their health and activities as they  relate to diseases that are transmissible through food.  A food employee  or conditional employee shall report the information in a  manner that  allows the person in charge to reduce the risk of foodborne disease  transmission, including providing necessary additional information, such as the  date of onset of symptoms and an illness, or of a diagnosis without symptoms,  if the food employee or conditional employee:
    1. Has any of the following symptoms:
    a. Vomiting;
    b. Diarrhea;
    c. Jaundice; 
    d. Sore throat with fever; or 
    e. A lesion containing pus such as a  boil or infected wound that is open or draining and is:
    (1) On the hands or wrists, unless an  impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall protects the lesion and a  single-use glove is worn over the impermeable cover;
    (2) On exposed portions of the arms,  unless the lesion is protected by an impermeable cover; or 
    (3) On other parts of the body, unless  the lesion is covered by a dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage;
    2. Has an illness diagnosed by a health  practitioner due to:
    a. Norovirus;
    b. Hepatitis A virus;
    c. Shigella spp.;
    d. Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin  producing Escherichia coli; or
    e. Salmonella Typhi;
    3. Had a previous illness, diagnosed by  a health practitioner, within the past three months due to Salmonella Typhi,  without having received antibiotic therapy, as determined by a health  practitioner;
    4. Has been exposed to, or is the  suspected source of, a confirmed disease outbreak, because the food employee or  conditional employee consumed or prepared food implicated in the outbreak, or  consumed food at an event prepared by a person who is infected or ill with:
    a. Norovirus within the past 48 hours of  the last exposure; 
    b. Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin  producing Escherichia coli, or Shigella spp. within the past three days of the  last exposure; 
    c. Salmonella Typhi within the past 14  days of the last exposure; or
    d. Hepatitis A virus within the past 30  days of the last exposure; or
    5. Has been exposed by attending or  working in a setting where there is a confirmed disease outbreak, or living in  the same household as, and has knowledge about an individual who works or  attends a setting where there is a confirmed disease outbreak, or living in the  same household as, and has knowledge about, and individual diagnosed with an  illness caused by:
    a. Norovirus within the past 48 hours of  exposure;
    b. Enterohemorragic or Shiga-toxin  producing Escherichia coli or Shigella spp. within the past three days of the  last exposure; 
    c. Salmonella Typhi within the past 14  days of the last exposure; or
    d. Hepatitis A virus within the past 30  days of the last exposure.
    B.  The  person in charge shall notify the regulatory authority when a food employee is:
    1. Jaundiced; or 
    2. Diagnosed with an illness due to a  pathogen as specified under subdivision A 2 a through e of this section.
    C. The person in  charge shall ensure that a conditional employee:
    1. Who exhibits or reports a symptom, or  who reports a diagnosed illness as specified under subdivision A 2 a through e  of this section, is prohibited from becoming a food employee until the conditional  employee meets the criteria for the specific symptoms or diagnosed illness as  specified under 12VAC5-421-100; and 
    2. Who will work as a food employee in a  food establishment that serves a highly susceptible population and reports a  history of exposure as specified under subdivision A 4 through 5 of this  section, is prohibited from becoming a food employee until the conditional  employee meets the criteria specified under subdivision 9 of 12VAC5-421-100.
    D. The person in  charge shall ensure that a food employee who exhibits or reports a symptom, or  who reports a diagnosed illness or history of exposure as specified under  subdivision A 1 through 5 of this section is:
    1. Excluded as specified under  subdivisions 1 through 3 of 12VAC5-421-90, and subdivisions D 1, E 1, F 1, or G  1 of 12VAC5-421-90 and in compliance with the provisions specified under  subdivision 1 through 7 of 12VAC5-421-100; or
    2. Restricted as specified under  subdivisions 4 b, 5 b, 6 b, or 7 b of 12VAC5-421-90, or subdivisions 8 or 9 of  12VAC5-421-90 and in compliance with the provisions specified under  subdivisions 4 through 9 of 12VAC5-421-100.
    E. A food  employee or conditional employee shall report to the person in charge the  information as specified under subsection A of this section.
    F. A food  employee shall:
    1. Comply with an exclusion as specified  under subdivisions 1 through 3 of 12VAC5-421-90 and subdivisions 4 a, 5 a,  6 a, or 7 a of 12VAC5-421-90 and with the provisions specified under  subdivisions 1 through 7 of 12VAC5-421-100; or
    2. Comply with a restriction as  specified under subdivisions 4 b, 5 b, 6 b, or 7 b of 12VAC5-421-90, or  subdivisions 8 or 9 of 12VAC5-421-90 and comply with the provisions specified  under subdivisions 4 through 9 of 12VAC5-421-100.
    12VAC5-421-90.  Exclusions and restrictions.
    A. The person in  charge shall exclude a food employee from a food establishment if the food  employee is diagnosed with an infectious agent specified in subdivision 1 of  12VAC5-421-80;
    B. Except as  specified under subsection C or D of this section, the person in charge shall  restrict a food employee from working with exposed food; clean equipment,  utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-service and single-use articles in a  food establishment if the food employee is:
    1. Suffering from a symptom specified in  12VAC5-421-80 subdivision 2 a (1), (2), (3) or (5) or subdivision 2 b; or
    2. Not experiencing a symptom of acute  gastroenteritis specified in subdivision 2 a of 12VAC5-421-80, but has a stool  that yields a specimen culture that is positive for Salmonella typhi, Shigella  spp., or E. coli O157:H7.
    C. If the  population served is a highly susceptible population, the person in charge  shall exclude a food employee who:
    1. Is experiencing a symptom of acute  gastrointestinal illness specified in 12VAC5-421-80 subdivision 2 a (1), (2),  (3) or (5) and meets a high-risk condition specified in subdivision 4 of  12VAC5-421-80;
    2. Is not experiencing a symptom of  acute gastroenteritis specified in subdivision 2 a of 12VAC5-421-80, but has a  stool that yields a specimen culture that is positive for S. typhi, Shigella  spp., or E. coli O157:H7;
    3. Had a past illness from S. typhi  within the last three months; or
    4. Had a past illness from Shigella spp.  or E. coli O157:H7 within the last month.
    D. For a food  employee who is jaundiced:
    1. If the onset of jaundice occurred  within the last seven calendar days, the person in charge shall exclude the  food employee from the food establishment; or
    2. If the onset of jaundice occurred  more than seven calendar days before, the person in charge shall:
    a. Exclude the food employee from a food  establishment that serves a highly susceptible population; or
    b. Restrict the food employee from  activities specified in subdivision 2 of 12VAC5-421-90, if the food  establishment does not serve a highly susceptible population.
    The person in  charge shall exclude or restrict a food employee from a food establishment in  accordance with the following:
    1. Except when the symptom is from a  noninfectious condition, exclude a food employee if the food employee is:
    a. Symptomatic with vomiting or  diarrhea; or
    b. Symptomatic with vomiting or diarrhea  and diagnosed with an infection from Norovirus, Shigella spp., or  Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin producing Escherichia coli.
    2. Exclude a food employee who is:
    a. Jaundiced and the onset of jaundice  occurred within the last seven calendar days, unless the food employee provides  to the person in charge written medical documentation from a health  practitioner specifying that the jaundice is not caused by Hepatitis A virus or  other fecal-orally transmitted infection;
    b. Diagnosed with an infection from  Hepatitis A virus within 14 calendar days from the onset of any illness  symptoms, or within seven calendar days of the onset of jaundice; or
    c. Diagnosed with an infection from  Hepatitis A virus without developing symptoms.
    3. Exclude a food employee who is  diagnosed with an infection from Salmonella Typhi, or reports a previous  infection with Salmonella Typhi within the past three months as specified in  12VAC5-421-80 A 3.
    4. If a food employee is diagnosed with  an infection from Norovirus and is asymptomatic:
    a. Exclude the food employee who works  in a food establishment serving a highly susceptible population; or
    b. Restrict the food employee who works  in a food establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.
    5. If a food employee is diagnosed with  an infection from Shigella spp. and is asymptomatic:
    a. Exclude the food employee who works  in a food establishment serving a highly susceptible population; or
    b. Restrict the food employee who works  in a food establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.
    6. If a food employee is diagnosed with  an infection from Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin producing E.coli, and is  asymptomatic:
    a. Exclude the food employee who works  in a food establishment serving a highly susceptible population; or
    b. Restrict the food employee who works  in a food establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.
    7. If a food employee is ill with  symptoms of acute onset of sore throat with fever:
    a. Exclude the food employee who works  in a food establishment serving a highly susceptible population; or
    b. Restrict the food employee who works  in a food establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.
    8. If a food employee is infected with a  skin lesion containing pus such as a boil or infected wound that is open or  draining and not properly covered as specified under 12VAC5-421-80 A 1 e,  restrict the food employee.
    9. If a food employee is exposed to a  foodborne pathogen as specified under 12VAC5-421-80 A 4 or 5, restrict the food  employee who works in a food establishment serving a highly susceptible  population.
    12VAC5-421-100.  Removal, adjustment, or retention of exclusions and restrictions.
    A. The person in  charge may remove an exclusion specified under 12VAC5-421-90 A if:
    1. The person in charge obtains approval  from the regulatory authority; and
    2. The person excluded as specified  under 12VAC5-421-90 A provides to the person in charge written medical  documentation from a physician licensed to practice medicine or, if allowed by  law, a nurse practitioner or physician assistant, that specifies that the  excluded person may work in an unrestricted capacity in a food establishment,  including an establishment that serves a highly susceptible population, because  the person is free of the infectious agent of concern as specified in  12VAC5-421-4070.
    B. The person in  charge may remove a restriction specified under:
    1. 12VAC5-421-90 B 1 if the restricted  person:
    a. Is free of the symptoms specified  under 12VAC5-421-80 subdivision 2 a (1), (2), (3) or (5) and no foodborne  illness occurs that may have been caused by the restricted person;
    b. Is suspected of causing foodborne  illness but (i) is free of the symptoms specified under 12VAC5-421-80  subdivision 2 a (1), (2), (3) or (5) and (ii) provides written medical  documentation from a physician licensed to practice medicine or, if allowed by  law, a nurse practitioner or physician assistant, stating that the restricted  person is free of the infectious agent that is suspected of causing the  person's symptoms or causing foodborne illness, as specified in  12VAC5-421-4070; or
    c. Provides written medical  documentation from a physician licensed to practice medicine or, if allowed by  law, a nurse practitioner or physician assistant, stating that the symptoms  experienced result from a chronic noninfectious condition such as Crohn's  disease, irritable bowel syndrome, or ulcerative colitis; or
    2. 12VAC5-421-90 B 2 if the restricted  person provides written medical documentation from a physician, licensed to  practice medicine, or, if allowed by law, a nurse practitioner or physician  assistant, according to the criteria specified in 12VAC5-421-4070 that  indicates the stools are free of Salmonella typhi, Shigella spp., or E. coli  O157:H7, whichever is the infectious agent of concern.
    C. The person in  charge may remove an exclusion specified under 12VAC5-421-90 C if the excluded  person provides written medical documentation from a physician licensed to  practice medicine or, if allowed by law, a nurse practitioner or physician  assistant:
    1. That specifies that the person is  free of the infectious agent of concern as specified in 12VAC5-421-4070.
    2. If the person is excluded under 12VAC5-421-90  C 1, that the symptoms experienced result from a chronic noninfectious  condition such as Crohn's disease, irritable bowel syndrome, or ulcerative  colitis.
    D. The person in  charge may remove an exclusion specified under 12VAC5-421-90 D 1 and 12VAC5-421-90  D 2 a and a restriction specified in 12VAC5-421-90 D 2 b if:
    1. No foodborne illness occurs that may  have been caused by the excluded or restricted person and the person provides  written medical documentation from a physician licensed to practice medicine  stating that specifies that the person is free of hepatitis A virus as  specified in subdivision 4 a of 12VAC5-421-4070; or
    2. The excluded or restricted person is  suspected of causing foodborne illness and complies with subdivision 4 a and 4  b of 12VAC5-421-4070.
    The person in  charge shall adhere to the following conditions when removing, adjusting, or  retaining the exclusion or restriction of a food employee:
    1. Except when a food employee is  diagnosed with an infection from Hepatitis A virus or Salmonella Typhi:
    a. Reinstate a food employee who was  excluded as specified under subdivision 1 a of 12VAC5-421-90 if the food  employee:
    (1) Is asymptomatic for at least 24  hours; or
    (2) Provides to the person in charge  written medical documentation from a health practitioner that states the  symptom is from a noninfectious condition.
    b. If a food employee was diagnosed with  an infection from Norovirus and excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b of  12VAC5-421-90:
    (1) Restrict the food employee, who is  asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food establishment not  serving a highly susceptible population until the conditions for reinstatement  as specified in subdivision 4 a or b of this section are met; or
    (2) Retain the exclusion for the food  employee, who is asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food  establishment that serves a highly susceptible population, until the conditions  for reinstatement as specified in subdivision 4 a or b of this section are met.
    c. If a food employee was diagnosed with  an infection from Shigella spp. and excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b  of 12VAC5-421-90:
    (1) Restrict the food employee, who is  asymptomatic, for at least 24 hours and works in a food establishment not  serving a highly susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement  as specified in subdivision 5 a or b of this section are met; or
    (2) Retain the exclusion for the food  employee, who is asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food  establishment that serves a highly susceptible population, until the conditions  for reinstatement as specified in subdivision 5 a or b, or 5 a and 1 c (1) of  this section are met.
    d. If a food employee was diagnosed with  an infection from Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin producing Escherichia coli  and excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b of 12VAC5-421-90:
    (1) Restrict the food employee, who is  asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food establishment not  serving a highly susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement  as specified in subdivision 6 a or b of this section are met; or
    (2) Retain the exclusion for the food  employee, who is asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food  establishment that serves a highly susceptible population, until the conditions  for reinstatement as specified in subdivision 6 a or b are met.
    2. Reinstate a food employee who was  excluded as specified under subdivision 2 of 12VAC5-421-90 if the person in  charge obtains approval from the regulatory authority and one of the following  conditions is met:
    a. The food employee has been jaundiced  for more than seven calendar days;
    b. The anicteric food employee has been  symptomatic with symptoms other than jaundice for more than 14 calendar days;  or
    c. The food employee provides to the  person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner  stating that the food employee is free of a Hepatitis A virus infection.
    3. Reinstate a food employee who was  excluded as specified under subdivision 3 of 12VAC5-421-90 if:
    a. The person in charge obtains approval  from the regulatory authority; and
    b. The food employee provides to the  person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner that  states the employee is free from S. Typhi infection.
    4. Reinstate a food employee who was  excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b or 4 a of 12VAC5-421-90, who was  restricted under subdivision 4 b of 12VAC5-421-90 if the person in charge  obtains approval from the regulatory authority and one of the following conditions  is met:
    a. The excluded or restricted food  employee provides to the person in charge written medical documentation from a  health practitioner stating that the food employee is free of a Norovirus  infection;
    b. The food employee was excluded or  restricted after symptoms of vomiting or diarrhea resolved, and more than 48  hours have passed since the food employee became symptomatic; or
    c. The food employee was excluded or  restricted and did not develop symptoms and more than 48 hours have passed  since the food employee was diagnosed.
    5. Reinstate a food employee who was  excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b or 5 a of 12VAC5-421-90 or who was  restricted under subdivision 5 b of 12VAC5-421-90 if the person in charge  obtains approval from the regulatory authority and one of the following  conditions is met:
    a. The excluded or restricted food  employee provides to the person in charge written medical documentation from a  health practitioner stating that the food employee is free of a Shigella spp.  infection based on test results showing two consecutive negative stool specimen  cultures that are taken:
    (1) Not earlier than 48 hours after  discontinuance of antibiotics, and
    (2) At least 24 hours apart;
    b. The food employee was excluded or  restricted after symptoms of vomiting or diarrhea resolved, and more than seven  calendar days have passed since the food employee became asymptomatic; or
    c. The food employee was excluded or  restricted and did not develop symptoms and more than seven calendar days have  passed since the food employee was diagnosed.
    6. Reinstate a food employee who was  excluded or restricted as specified under subdivision 1 b or 6 a of  12VAC5-421-90 or who was restricted under subdivision 6 b of 12VAC5-421-90 if  the person in charge obtains approval from the regulatory authority and one of  the following conditions is met:
    a. The excluded or restricted food  employee provides to the person in charge written medical documentation from a  health practitioner stating that the food employee is free of an infection from  Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin producing Escherichia coli based on test  results that show two consecutive negative stool specimen cultures that are  taken:
    (1) Not earlier than 48 hours after the  discontinuance of antibiotics; and
    (2) At least 24 hours apart;
    b. The food employee was excluded or  restricted after symptoms of vomiting or diarrhea resolved and more than seven  calendar days have passed since the employee became asymptomatic; or
    c. The food employee was excluded or  restricted and did not develop symptoms and more than seven days have passed  since the employee was diagnosed.
    7. Reinstate a food employee who was  excluded or restricted as specified under subdivision 7 a or b of 12VAC5-421-90  if the food employee provides to the person in charge written medical  documentation from a health practitioner stating that the food employee meets  one of the following conditions:
    a. Has received antibiotic therapy for  Streptococcus pyogenes infection for more than 24 hours;
    b. Has at least one negative throat  specimen culture for Streptococcus pyogenes infection; or
    c. Is otherwise determined by a health  practitioner to be free of Streptococcus pyogenes infection.
    8. Reinstate a food employee who was  restricted as specified under subdivision 8 of 12VAC5-421-90 if the skin,  infected wound, cut, or pustular boil is properly covered with one of the  following:
    a. An impermeable cover such as a finger  cot or stall and a single-use glove over the impermeable cover if the infected  wound or pustular boil is on the hand, finger, or wrist;
    b. An impermeable cover on the arm if  the infected wound or pustular boil is on the arm; or
    c. A dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage  if the infected wound or pustular boil is on another part of the body.
    9. Reinstate a food employee who was  restricted as specified under subdivision 9 of 12VAC5-421-90 and was exposed to  one of the following pathogens as specified under 12VAC5-421-80 A 4 or 5:
    a. Norovirus and one of the following  conditions is met:
    (1) More than 48 hours have passed since  the last day the food employee was potentially exposed; or
    (2) More than 48 hours have passed since  the food employee's household contact became asymptomatic.
    b. Shigella spp. or Enterohemorrhagic or  Shiga-toxin producing Escherichia coli and one of the following conditions is  met:
    (1) More than three calendar days have  passed since the last day the food employee was potentially exposed; or
    (2) More than three calendar days have  passed since the food employee's household contact became asymptomatic.
    c. S. Typhi and one of the following  conditions is met:
    (1) More than 14 calendar days have  passed since the last day the food employee was potentially exposed; or
    (2) More than 14 calendar days have  passed since the food employee's household contact became asymptomatic.
    d. Hepatitis A virus and one of the  following conditions is met:
    (1) The food employee is immune to  Hepatitis A virus infection because of prior illness from Hepatitis A;
    (2) The food employee is immune to  Hepatitis A virus infection because of vaccination against Hepatitis A;
    (3) The food employee is immune to  Hepatitis A virus infection because of IgG administration;
    (4) More than 30 calendar days have  passed since the last the food employee was potentially exposed;
    (5) More than 30 calendar days have  passed since the food employee's household contact became jaundiced; or
    (6) The food employee does not use an  alternative procedure that allows bare hand contact with ready-to-eat food  until at least 30 days after the potential exposure, as specified in  subdivisions 9 d (4) and (5) of this section, and the food employee receives  additional training about:
    (a) Hepatitis A symptoms and preventing  the transmission of infection;
    (b) Proper handwashing procedures; and 
    (c) Protecting ready-to-eat food from  contamination introduced by bare hand contact.
    12VAC5-421-110. Responsibility  of a food employee or an applicant to report to the person in charge. (Repealed.)
    A food employee  or a person who applies for a job as a food employee shall: 
    1. In a manner specified in  12VAC5-421-80, report to the person in charge the information specified in  12VAC5-421-80; and 
    2. Comply with exclusions and  restrictions that are specified in 12VAC5-421-90. 
    12VAC5-421-120. Reporting  by the person in charge. (Repealed.)
    The person in  charge shall notify the regulatory authority that a food employee is diagnosed  with, an illness due to Salmonella typhi, Shigella spp., Shiga toxin-producing  Escherichia coli , or hepatitis A virus.
    12VAC5-421-140.  Cleaning procedure of hands and arms.
    A. Except as specified in  subsection B D of this section, food employees shall clean their  hands and exposed portions of their arms (or surrogate prosthetic devices for  hands or arms) for at least 20 seconds, using a cleaning compound in a lavatory  that is equipped as specified under 12VAC5-421-2190 A.
    B. Food  employees shall use the following cleaning procedure:
    1. Vigorous friction on the surfaces of  the lathered fingers, finger tips, areas between the fingers, hands and arms  (or by vigorously rubbing the surrogate prosthetic devices for hands or arms)  for at least 10 to 15 seconds, followed by thorough rinsing under clean,  running warm water; and 
    2. Immediately follow the cleaning  procedure, thorough drying of cleaned hands and arms (or surrogate prosthetic  devices) using a method as specified under 12VAC5-421-3030.
    B.  Food  employees shall use the following cleaning procedure in the order stated to  clean their hands and exposed portions of their arms, including surrogate  prosthetic devices for hands and arms:
    1. Rinse under clean, running warm  water;
    2. Apply an amount of cleaning compound  recommended by the cleaning compound manufacturer;
    3. Rub together vigorously for at least  10 to 15 seconds while:
    a. Paying particular attention to removing  soil from underneath the fingernails during the cleaning procedure; and
    b. Creating friction on the surfaces of  the hands and arms or surrogate prosthetic devices for hands and arms, finger  tips, and areas between the fingers;
    4. Thoroughly rinsing under clean,  running warm water; and
    5. Immediately follow the cleaning  procedure with thorough drying using a method as specified under  12VAC5-421-3030.
    C. Food  employees shall pay particular attention to the areas underneath the  fingernails during the cleaning procedure.
    C. To avoid  recontaminating their hands or surrogate prosthetic devices, food employees may  use disposable paper towels or similar clean barriers when touching surfaces  such as manually operated faucet handles on a handwashing sink or the handle of  a restroom door.
    D. If approved and capable of  removing the types of soils encountered in the food operations involved, an  automatic handwashing facility may be used by food employees to clean their  hands.
    12VAC5-421-150. [Reserved]  (Repealed.)
    12VAC5-421-180.  Hand sanitizers Antiseptics.
    A. A hand sanitizer and a  chemical hand sanitizing solution used as a hand dip shall antiseptic  used as a topical application, a hand antiseptic solution used as a hand dip,  or a hand antiseptic soap shall:
    1. Comply with one of the following:
    a. Be an FDA approved drug based on  safety and effectiveness approved drug that is listed in the FDA  publication Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations as  an approved drug based on safety and effectiveness; or
    b. Have active antimicrobial ingredients  that are approved by FDA as an OTC (over-the-counter) health-care antiseptic  drug product that is safe and effective for application to human skin listed  in the FDA monograph for OTC (over the counter) Health-Care Antiseptic Drug  Products as an antiseptic handwash; and
    2. Consist of components that are  Comply with one of the following:
    a. Listed for such use in contact with  food in 21 CFR Part 178 - Indirect Food Additives: Adjuvants, Production Aids,  and Sanitizer;
    b. Exempt from regulation as food  additives under 21 CFR 170.39 - Threshold of regulation for substances used in  food-contact articles; 
    c. Generally recognized as safe (GRAS)  for the intended use in contact with food within the meaning of the Federal  Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA); or
    d. Permitted for such use by an  effective Food Contact Substance Notification as defined by paragraph 409(h) of  the FFDCA and listed in the FDA's Inventory of Effective Premarket  Notifications for Food Contact Substances; and
    a. Have components that are exempted  from the requirement of being listed in the federal Food Additive regulations  as specified in 21 CFR 170.39 - Threshold of regulation for substances used in  food-contact articles; or
    b. Comply with and be listed in:
    (i) 21 CFR 178 - Indirect Food  Additives: Adjuvants, Production Aids, and Sanitizers as regulated for use as a  food additive with conditions of safe use; or
    (ii) 21 CFR 182 - Substances Generally  Recognized as Safe, 21 CFR 184 - Direct Food Substances Affirmed as Generally  Recognized as Safe, or 21 CFR 186 - Indirect Food Substances Affirmed as  Generally Recognized as Safe for use in contact with food; and 
    3. Be applied only to hands that are  cleaned as specified under 12VAC5-421-140.
    B. If a hand sanitizer or a  chemical hand sanitizing solution used as a hand dip does not meet the criteria  specified under subdivision A 2 of this section, use shall be: If a hand  antiseptic or a hand antiseptic solution used as a hand dip does not meet the  criteria specified in subdivision A 2 of this section, use shall be:
    1. Followed by thorough hand rinsing in  clean water before hand contact with food or by the use of gloves; or
    2. Limited to situations that involve no  direct contact with food by the bare hands.
    C. A chemical hand sanitizing  solution hand antiseptic solution used as a hand dip shall be  maintained clean and at a strength equivalent to 100 ppm (mg/l) chlorine or  above.
    12VAC5-421-360.  Shell eggs.
    Shell eggs shall be received  clean and sound and shall not exceed the restricted egg tolerances for U.S.  Consumer Grade B as specified in 7 CFR Part 56 - Regulations Governing the  Grading of Shell Eggs and U.S. Standards, Grades, and Weight Classes for Shell  Eggs, and 7 CFR Part 59 - Regulations Governing the Inspection of Eggs and Egg  Products as specified in United States Standards, Grades, and Weight  Classes for Shell Eggs, AMS 56.200 et seq., administered by the Agricultural  Marketing Service of USDA.
    12VAC5-421-370.  Eggs and milk products, pasteurized.
    A. Liquid, frozen, and dry  eggs and egg Egg products shall be obtained pasteurized.
    B. Fluid and dry milk and milk  products complying with Grade A standards as specified in law shall be  obtained pasteurized. shall:
    1. Be obtained pasteurized; and
    2. Comply with Grade A standards as  specified in law.
    C. Frozen milk products, such as  ice cream, shall be obtained pasteurized in accordance with 21 CFR Part 135,  Frozen Desserts. 
    D. Cheese shall be obtained  pasteurized unless alternative procedures to pasteurization are provided for in  the Code of Federal Regulations, such as 21 CFR Part 133, Cheeses and Related  Cheese Products, for curing certain cheese varieties. 
    12VAC5-421-400.  Shucked shellfish, packaging and identification.
    A. Raw shucked shellfish shall be  obtained in nonreturnable packages that bear a legible label that identifies  the: 
    1. Name, address, and certification  number of the shucker-packer shucker, packer, or repacker of the  molluscan shellfish; and 
    2. The "sell by" or  "best if used by" date for packages with a capacity of less than  one-half gallon (1.87 L) or the date shucked for packages with a capacity of  one-half gallon (1.87 L) or more. 
    B. A package of raw shucked  shellfish that does not bear a label or which bears a label which does not  contain all the information as specified under subsection A of this section  shall be subject to a hold order, as allowed by law, or seizure and destruction  in accordance with 21 CFR 1240.60(d), Subpart D, Specific Administrative  Decisions Regarding Interstate Shipments. 
    12VAC5-421-410.  Shellstock identification.
    A. Shellstock shall be obtained  in containers bearing legible source identification tags or labels that are  affixed by the harvester and each dealer that depurates, ships, or reships the  shellstock, as specified in the National Shellfish Sanitation Program Manual  of Operations Guide for the Control of Molluscan Shellfish, Part  II Sanitation of the Harvesting, Processing and Distribution of Shellfish, 1995  Revision, and that list: 
    1. Except as specified under subsection  C of this section, on the harvester's tag or label, the following information  in the following order: 
    a. The harvester's identification number  that is assigned by the shellfish control authority, 
    b. The date of harvesting, 
    c. The most precise identification of  the harvest location or aquaculture site that is practicable based on the  system of harvest area designations that is in use by the shellfish control  authority and including the abbreviation of the name of the state or country in  which the shellfish are harvested, 
    d. The type and quantity of shellfish,  and 
    e. The following statement in bold,  capitalized type: "This tag is required to be attached until container is  empty or retagged and thereafter kept on file for 90 days"; and 
    2. Except as specified under subsection  D of this section, on each dealer's tag or label, the following information in  the following order: 
    a. The dealer's name and address, and  the certification number assigned by the shellfish control authority, 
    b. The original shipper's certification  number including the abbreviation of the name of the state or country in which  the shellfish are harvested, 
    c. The same information as specified for  a harvester's tag under subdivisions 1 b through d of this subsection, and 
    d. The following statement in bold,  capitalized type: "THIS TAG IS REQUIRED TO BE ATTACHED UNTIL CONTAINER IS  EMPTY AND THEREAFTER KEPT ON FILE FOR 90 DAYS." 
    B. A container of shellstock that  does not bear a tag or label or that bears a tag or label that does not contain  all the information as specified under subsection A of this section shall be  subject to a hold order, as allowed by law, or seizure and destruction in  accordance with 21 CFR 1240.60(d), Subpart D, Specific Administrative Decisions  Regarding Interstate Shipments. 
    C. If a place is provided on the  harvester's tag or label for a dealer's name, address, and certification  number, the dealer's information shall be listed first. 
    D. If the harvester's tag or  label is designed to accommodate each dealer's identification as specified  under subdivisions A 2 a and b of this section, individual dealer tags or  labels need not be provided. 
    12VAC5-421-430.  Molluscan shellfish; original container.
    A. Except as specified in  subsections B and C of this section, molluscan shellfish shall not be removed  from the container in which they were received other than immediately before  sale or preparation for service.
    B. For display purposes,  shellstock may be removed from the container in which they are received,  displayed on drained ice, or held in a display container, and a quantity  specified by a consumer may be removed from the display or display container  and provided to the consumer if:
    1. The source of the shellstock on  display is identified as specified under 12VAC5-421-410 and recorded as  specified under 12VAC5-421-440; and
    2. The shellstock are protected from  contamination.
    C. Shucked shellfish may be  removed from the container in which they were received and held in a display  container from which individual servings are dispensed upon a consumer's  request if:
    1. The labeling information for the  shellfish on display as specified under 12VAC5-421-400 is retained and  correlated to the date when, or dates during which, the shellfish are sold or  served; and
    2. The shellfish are protected from  contamination.
    D. Shucked  shellfish may be removed from the container in which they were received and  repacked in consumer self-service containers where allowed by law if:
    1. The labeling information for the  shellfish is on each consumer self-service container as specified under  12VAC5-421-400 and 12VAC5-421-900 A and B 1 through 5;
    2. The labeling information as specified  under 12VAC5-421-400 is retained and correlated with the date when, or dates  during which, the shellfish are sold or served;
    3. The labeling information and dates  specified under subdivision D 2 of this section are maintained for 90 days; and  
    4. The shellfish are protected from  contamination.
    12VAC5-421-440.  Shellstock; maintaining identification. 
    A. Except as specified under  subdivision B C 2 of this section, shellstock tags or labels  shall remain attached to the container in which the shellstock are received  until the container is empty.
    B. The identity  of the source of shellstock that are sold or served shall be maintained by  retaining shellstock tags or labels for 90 calendar days from the date the  container is emptied by:
    1. Using an approved recordkeeping  system that keeps the tags or labels in chronological order correlated to the  date when, or dates during which, the shellstock are sold or served; and
    2. If shellstock are removed from their  tagged or labeled container:
    a. Preserving source identification by  using a recordkeeping system as specified under subdivision 1 of this  subsection;
    b. Ensuring that shellstock from one  tagged or labeled container are not commingled with shellstock from another  container being ordered by the consumer.
    B. The date when  the last shellstock from the container is sold or served shall be recorded on  the tag or label.
    C. The identity  of the source of shellfish that are sold or served shall be maintained by  retaining shellstock tags or labels for 90 calendar days from the date that is  recorded on the tag or label as specified in subsection B of this section, by:
    1. Using an approved recordkeeping  system that keeps the tags or labels in chronological order correlated to the  date that is recorded on the tag or label, as specified under subsection B of  this section; and
    2. If shellstock are removed from its  tagged or labeled container:
    a. Preserving source identification by  using a recordkeeping system as specified under subdivision C 1 of this  section, and
    b. Ensuring that shellstock from one  tagged or labeled container are not commingled with shellstock from another container  with certification numbers, different harvest dates, or different growing areas  as identified on the tag or label before being ordered by the consumer.
    Article  3 
  Protection from Contamination after Receiving 
    12VAC5-421-450.  Preventing contamination.
    A. Food employees shall wash  their hands as specified under 12VAC5-421-140.
    B. Except when washing fruits and  vegetables as specified under 12VAC5-421-510 or as specified in subsection C  D of this section, food employees shall not contact exposed, ready-to-eat  food with their bare hands and shall use suitable utensils such as deli tissue,  spatulas, tongs, single-use gloves or dispensing equipment.
    C. When  otherwise approved, food employees not serving a highly susceptible population  may contact exposed, ready-to-eat food with their bare hands.
    D. Food  employees shall minimize bare hand and arm contact with exposed food that is  not in a ready-to-eat form.
    C. Food  employees shall minimize bare hand and arm contact with exposed food that is  not in a ready-to-eat form.
    D. Food  employees not serving a highly susceptible population may contact exposed,  ready-to-eat food with their bare hands if:
    1. The permit holder obtains prior  approval from the regulatory authority;
    2. Written procedures are maintained in  the food establishment and made available to the regulatory authority upon  request that include:
    a. For each bare hand contact procedure,  a listing of the specific ready-to-eat foods that are touched by bare hands.
    b. Diagrams and other information  showing that handwashing facilities, installed, located, equipped, and  maintained as specified under 12VAC5-421-2230, 12VAC5-421-2280,  12VAC5-421-2310, 12VAC5-421-3020, 12VAC5-421-3030, and 12VAC5-421-3045 are in  an easily accessible location and in close proximity to the work station where  the bare hand contact procedure is conducted;
    3. A written employee health policy that  details how the food establishment complies with 12VAC5-421-80, 12VAC5-421-90,  and 12VAC5-421-100 including:
    a. Documentation that the food employees  and conditional employees acknowledge that they are informed to report  information about their health and activities as they relate to  gastrointestinal symptoms and diseases that are transmittable through food as  specified under 12VAC5-421-80 A, 
    b. Documentation that food employees and  conditional employees acknowledge their responsibilities as specified under  12VAC5-421-80 E and F, and
    c. Documentation that the person in  charge acknowledges the responsibilities as specified under 12VAC5-421-80 B, C,  and D, and 12VAC5-421-90 and 12VAC5-421-100;
    4. Documentation that the food employees  acknowledge that they have received training in:
    a. The risks of contacting the specific  ready-to-eat foods with their bare hands,
    b. Proper handwashing as specified under  12VAC5-421-140,
    c. When to wash their hands as specified  under 12VAC5-421-160,
    d. Where to wash their hands as  specified under 12VAC5-421-170,
    e. Proper fingernail maintenance as  specified under 12VAC5-421-190,
    f. Prohibition of jewelry as specified  under 12VAC5-421-200, and
    g. Good hygienic practices as specified  under 12VAC5-421-220 and 12VAC5-421-230;
    5. Documentation that hands are washed  before food preparation and as necessary to prevent cross-contamination by food  employees as specified under 12VAC5-421-130, 12VAC5-421-140, 12VAC5-421-160,  and 12VAC5-421-170 during all hours of operation when the specific ready-to-eat  foods are prepared;
    6. Documentation that food employees  contacting ready-to-eat food with bare hands use two or more of the following  control measures to provide additional safeguards to hazards associated with  bare hand contact:
    a. Double handwashing,
    b. Nail brushes,
    c. A hand antiseptic after handwashing  as specified under 12VAC5-421-180,
    d. Incentive programs such as paid sick  leave that assist or encourage food employees not to work when they are ill, or  
    e. Other control measures approved by  the regulatory authority; and
    7. Documentation that corrective action  is taken when subdivision D 1 through 6 of this section are not followed.
    12VAC5-421-490.  Pasteurized eggs; substitute for shell eggs for certain recipes and  populations.
    Pasteurized eggs or egg products  shall be substituted for raw shell eggs in the preparation of foods such as  Caesar salad, hollandaise or bearnaise sauce, mayonnaise, meringue, and  egg-fortified beverages that are not: 
    1. Cooked as specified in 12VAC5-421-700  A 1 or 2; or 
    2. Included in 12VAC5-421-700 D. The  eggs are held before service following cooking. 
    12VAC5-421-500.  Protection from unapproved additives. 
    A. As Food, as  specified in 12VAC5-421-350, food shall be protected from contamination  that may result from the addition of:
    1. Unsafe or unapproved food or color  additives; and
    2. Unsafe or unapproved levels of  approved food and color additives.
    B. A food employee shall not:
    1. Apply sulfiting agents to fresh  fruits and vegetables intended for raw consumption or to a food considered to  be a good source of vitamin B1; or
    2. Serve or sell food specified in  subdivision 1 of this subsection that is treated with sulfiting agents before  receipt by the food establishment, except that grapes need not meet the  provisions of this subsection.
    2. Except for grapes, serve or sell food  specified under subdivision B 1 of this section that is treated with sulfiting  agents before receipt by the food establishment.
    12VAC5-421-540.  Food contact with equipment and utensils.
    Food shall only contact surfaces  of equipment and utensils that are cleaned as specified under  12VAC5-421-1770 through 12VAC5-421-1870 and sanitized as specified under  12VAC5-421-1880 through 12VAC5-421-1900. :
    1. Equipment and utensils that are  cleaned as specified under 12VAC5-421-1770 through 12VAC5-421-1870, and  sanitized as specified under 12VAC5-421-1880 through 12VAC5-421-1900; or
    2. Single-service and single-use  articles.
    12VAC5-421-570.  Wiping cloths; used for one purpose.
    A. Cloths that are in use for  wiping food spills shall be used for no other purpose. in-use for wiping  food spills from tableware and carry-out containers that occur as food is being  served shall be:
    1. Maintained dry; and
    2. Used for no other purpose.
    B. Cloths used  for wiping food spills shall be: 
    1. Dry and used for wiping food spills  from tableware and carry-out containers; or 
    2. Wet and cleaned as specified under  12VAC5-421-1920 D, stored in a chemical sanitizer at a concentration specified  in 12VAC5-421-3380, and used for wiping spills from food-contact and  nonfood-contact surfaces of equipment. 
    C. Dry or wet  cloths that are used with raw animal foods shall be kept separate from cloths  used for other purposes, and moist cloths used with raw animal foods shall be  kept in a separate sanitizing solution. 
    D. Wet wiping  cloths used with a freshly made sanitizing solution and dry wiping cloths shall  be free of food debris and visible soil. 
    E. Working  containers of sanitizing solutions for storage of in-use wiping cloths shall be  placed above the floor and used in a manner to prevent contamination of food,  equipment, utensils, linens, single-service or single-use articles.
    B. Cloths in-use  for wiping counters and other equipment surfaces shall be:
    1. Held between uses in a chemical  sanitizer solution at a concentration specified in 12VAC5-421-3380; and
    2. Laundered daily as specified under  12VAC5-421-1920 D.
    C. Cloths in-use  for wiping surfaces in contact with raw animal foods shall be kept separate  from other cloths used for other purposes.
    D. Dry wiping  cloths and the chemical sanitizing solutions specified in subdivision B 1 of  this section in which wet wiping cloths are held between uses shall be free of  food debris and visible soil.
    E. Containers of  chemical sanitizing solutions specified in subdivision B 1 of this section in  which wet wiping cloths are held between uses shall be stored off the floor and  used in a manner that prevents contamination of food, equipment, utensils,  linens, single-service, or single-use articles.
    F. Single-use  disposable sanitizer wipes shall be used in accordance with EPA-approved  manufacturer's label use instructions.
    12VAC5-421-680.  Returned food and reservice of food.
    A. Except as specified under  subsection B of this section, after being served or sold and in the possession  of a consumer, food that is unused or returned by the consumer shall not be  offered as food for human consumption. 
    B. A Except as  specified in subdivision 8 of 12VAC5-421-950, a container of food that is  not potentially hazardous (time/temperature control for safety food) may  be transferred reserved from one consumer to another if: 
    1. The food is dispensed so that it is  protected from contamination and the container is closed between uses such as a  narrow-neck bottle containing catsup, steak sauce, or wine; or 
    2. The food, such as crackers, salt or  pepper, is in an unopened original package and maintained in sound condition. 
    Article  4 
  Destruction of Organisms of Public Health Concern 
    12VAC5-421-700.  Raw animal foods. 
    A. Except as specified in  subsections B, C, and D of this section, raw animal foods such as eggs, fish,  meat, poultry, and foods containing these raw animal foods shall be cooked to  heat all parts of the food to a temperature and for a time that complies with  one of the following methods based on the food that is being cooked: 
    1. 145°F (63°C) or above for 15 seconds  for: 
    a. Raw shell eggs that are broken and  prepared in response to a consumer's order and for immediate service; and 
    b. Except as specified under  subdivisions A 2 and 3 and subsection B and C of this section, fish,  and meat, and pork including game animals commercially raised for  food as specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 1 and game animals under a voluntary  inspection program as specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 2; 
    2. 155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds or the  temperature specified in the following chart that corresponds to the holding  time for ratites and injected meats; the following if they are comminuted:  fish, meat, game animals commercially raised for food as specified under  12VAC5-421-330 A 1, and game animals under a voluntary inspection program as  specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 2; and raw eggs that are not prepared as  specified under subdivision 1 a of this subsection: 
           |   | Minimum | 
       |   | Temperature°F (°C)
 | Time | 
       |   | 145 (63) | 3 minutes | 
       |   | 150 (66) | 1 minute | 
       |   | 158 (70) | <1 second    (instantaneous) | 
  
    3. 165°F (74°C) or above for 15 seconds  for poultry, wild game animals as specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 3, stuffed  fish, stuffed meat, stuffed pasta, stuffed poultry, stuffed ratites, or  stuffing containing fish, meat, or poultry. 
    B. Whole beef roasts and  corned beef roasts, pork roasts, meat roasts including beef, corned  beef, lamb, pork, and cured pork roasts such as ham shall be cooked: 
    1. In an oven that is preheated to the  temperature specified for the roast's weight in the following chart and that is  held at that temperature; and 
           |   | Oven Type | Oven Temperature    Based on Roast Weight | 
       |   |   | Less than 10    lbs (4.5 kg) | 10 lbs (4.5    kg) or more | 
       |   | Still Dry | 350°F (177°C)    or more | 250°F (121°C)    or more | 
       |   | Convection | 325°F (163°C)    or more | 250°F (121°C)    or more | 
       |   | High Humidity1 | 250°F (121°C)    or less | 250°F (121°C)    or less | 
       |   | 1 Relative    humidity greater than 90% for at least 1 hour as measured in the cooking    chamber or exit of the oven; or in a moisture-impermeable bag that provides    100% humidity. | 
  
    2. As specified in the following chart,  to heat all parts of the food to a temperature and for the holding time that  corresponds to that temperature. 
           |   | Temperature°F (°C)
 | Time1 in    Minutes | Temperature°F (°C)
 | Time1 in    Seconds | 
       |   | 130 (54.4) | 112 | 147 (63.9) | 134 | 
       |   | 131 (55.0) | 89 | 149 (65.0) | 85 | 
       |   | 133 (56.1) | 56 | 151 (66.1) | 54 | 
       |   | 135 (57.2) | 36 | 153 (67.2) | 34 | 
       |   | 136 (57.8) | 28 | 155 (68.3) | 22 | 
       |   | 138 (58.9) | 18 | 157 (69.4) | 14 | 
       |   | 140 (60.0) | 12 | 158 (70.0) | 0 | 
       |   | 142 (61.1) | 8 |   |   | 
       |   | 144 (62.2) | 5 |   |   | 
       |   | 145 (62.8) | 4 |   |   | 
       |   | 1 Holding time    may include postoven heat rise | 
  
    C. A raw or undercooked whole-muscle,  intact beef steak may be served or offered for sale in a ready-to-eat form if: 
    1. The food establishment serves a  population that is not a highly susceptible population; 
    2. The steak is labeled, as specified  under 12VAC5-421-270 E, to indicate that it meets the definition of  "whole-muscle, intact beef"; and 
    3. The steak is cooked on both the top  and bottom to a surface temperature of 145°F (63°C) or above and a cooked color  change is achieved on all external surfaces. 
    D. A raw animal food such as raw  egg, raw fish, raw-marinated fish, raw molluscan shellfish, or steak tartare,  or a partially cooked food such as lightly cooked fish, soft cooked eggs, or  rare meat other than whole-muscle, intact beef steaks as specified in  subsection C of this section, may be served or offered for sale in a  ready-to-eat form if: 
    1. (i) As specified under subdivisions 3  a and b of 12VAC5-421-950 the food establishment serves a population that is  not a highly susceptible population and (ii) the consumer is informed as  specified under 12VAC5-421-930 that to ensure its safety, the food should be  cooked as specified under subsections A or B of this section; or
    2. The regulatory authority grants a  variance from subsection A or B of this section as specified in 12VAC5-421-3570  based on a HACCP plan that: 
    a. Is submitted by the permit holder and  approved as specified under 12VAC5-421-3570; 
    b. Documents scientific data or other  information that shows that a lesser time and temperature regimen results in a  safe food; and 
    c. Verifies that equipment and  procedures for food preparation and training of food employees at the food  establishment meet the conditions. 
    12VAC5-421-730.  Parasite destruction.
    A. Except as specified in  subsection B of this section, before service or sale in ready-to-eat form, raw,  marinated raw-marinated, partially cooked or marinated-partially  cooked fish other than molluscan shellfish shall be frozen throughout to a  temperature of shall be:
    1. -4°F (-20°C) or below for 168 hours  (seven days) in a freezer; or 
    2. -35°C (-31°F) or below for 15 hours  in a blast freezer. 
    1. Frozen and stored at a temperature of  -4°F (-20°C) or below for a minimum of 168 hours (seven days) in a freezer;
    2. Frozen at -31°F (-35°C) or below  until solid and stored at -31°F (-35°C) or below for a minimum of 15 hours; or
    3. Frozen at -31°F (-35°C) or below  until solid and stored at -4°F (-20°C) or below for a minimum of 24 hours.
    B. If the fish  are tuna of the species Thunnus alalunga, Thunnus albacares (Yellowfin tuna),  Thunnus atlanticus, Thunnus maccoyii (Bluefin tuna, Southern), Thunnus obesus  (Bigeye tuna), or Thunnus thynnus (Bluefin tuna, Northern), the fish may be  served or sold in a raw, raw-marinated, or partially cooked ready-to-eat form  without freezing as specified under subsection A of the section. 
    B. Subsection A  of this section does not apply to:
    1. Molluscan shellfish;
    2. Tuna of the species Thunnus alalunga,  Thunnus albacares (Yellowfin tuna), Thunnus atlanticus, Thunnus maccoyii  (Bluefin tuna, Southern), Thunnus obesus (Bigeye tuna), or Thunnus thynnus  (Bluefin, Northern); or
    3. Aquacultured fish, such as salmon,  that:
    a. If raised in open water, are raised  in net-pens; or 
    b. Are raised in land-based operations  such as ponds or tanks; and
    c. Are fed formulated feed, such as  pellets, that contains no live parasites infective to the aquacultured fish.
    12VAC5-421-740.  Records, creation and retention.
    A. Except as specified in  12VAC5-421-730 B and subsection B of this section, if raw, marinated,  raw-marinated, partially cooked, or marinated-partially cooked fish are served  or sold in ready-to-eat form, the person in charge shall record the freezing  temperature and time to which the fish are subjected and shall retain the  records at the food establishment for 90 calendar days beyond the time of  service or sale of the fish. 
    B. If the fish are frozen by a  supplier, a written agreement or statement from the supplier stipulating that  the fish supplied are frozen to a temperature and for a time specified under  12VAC5-421-730 may substitute for the records specified under subsection A of  this section. 
    C. If raw,  raw-marinated, partially cooked, or marinated-partially cooked fish are served  or sold in ready-to-eat form, and the fish are raised and fed as specified in  12VAC5-421-730 B 3, a written agreement or statement from the supplier or  aquaculturist stipulating that the fish were raised and fed as specified in  12VAC5-421-730 B 3 shall be obtained by the person in charge and retained in  the records of the food establishment for 90 calendar days beyond the time of  service or sale of the fish.
    12VAC5-421-750. Reheating  for immediate service. (Repealed.)
    Cooked and  refrigerated food that is prepared for immediate service in response to an  individual consumer order, such as a roast beef sandwich au jus, may be served  at any temperature. 
    12VAC5-421-760.  Reheating for hot holding.
    A. Except as specified under  subsections B, C and E of this section, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) that is cooked, cooled, and reheated for hot  holding shall be reheated so that all parts of the food reach at least 165°F  (74°C) for 15 seconds.
    B. Except as specified under  subsection C of this section, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) reheated in a microwave oven for hot holding shall  be reheated so that all parts of the food reach a temperature of at least 165°F  (74°C) and the food is rotated or stirred, covered, and allowed to stand  covered two minutes after reheating.
    C. Ready-to-eat food taken from a  commercially processed, hermetically sealed container, or from an intact  package from a food processing plant that is inspected by the food regulatory  authority that has jurisdiction over the plant, shall be heated to a  temperature of at least 135°F (57°C) for hot holding.
    D. Reheating for hot holding shall  be done rapidly and the time the food is between the temperature specified  under subdivision 2 of 12VAC5-421-820 and 165°F (74°C) shall not exceed two  hours as specified under subsections A through C of this section shall  be done rapidly and the time the food is between 41°F (5°C) and the  temperatures specified under subsections A through C of this section may not  exceed two hours.
    E. Remaining unsliced portions of  meat roasts that are cooked as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 B may be  reheated for hot holding using the oven parameters and minimum time and  temperature conditions specified under 12VAC5-421-700 B. 
    12VAC5-421-780.  Potentially hazardous food, slacking.
    Frozen potentially hazardous food  (time/temperature control for safety food) that is slacked to moderate  the temperature shall be held: 
    1. Under refrigeration that maintains  the food temperature at 41°F (5°C) or less; or 
    2. At any temperature if the food  remains frozen. 
    12VAC5-421-790.  Thawing.
    Except as specified in  subdivision 4 of this section, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) shall be thawed:
    1. Under refrigeration that maintains  the food temperature at 41°F (5°C) or less; or
    2. Completely submerged under running  water:
    a. At a water temperature of 70°F (21°C)  or below;
    b. With sufficient water velocity to  agitate and float off loose particles in an overflow; and
    c. For a period of time that does not  allow thawed portions of ready-to-eat food to rise above 41°F (5°C); or
    d. For a period of time that does not  allow thawed portions of a raw animal food requiring cooking as specified under  12VAC5-421-700 A or B to be above 41°F (5°C) for more than four hours  including:
    (1) The time the food is exposed to the  running water and the time needed for preparation for cooking; or
    (2) The time it takes under  refrigeration to lower the food temperature to 41°F (5°C);
    3. As part of a cooking process if the  food that is frozen is:
    a. Cooked as specified under  12VAC5-421-700 A or B or 12VAC5-421-710; or
    b. Thawed in a microwave oven and  immediately transferred to conventional cooking equipment, with no interruption  in the process; or
    4. Using any procedure if a portion of  frozen ready-to-eat food is thawed and prepared for immediate service in  response to an individual consumer's order.
    12VAC5-421-800.  Cooling.
    A. Cooked potentially hazardous  food (time/temperature controlled for safety food) shall be cooled:
    1. Within two hours, from 135°F (57°C)  to 70°F (21°C); and
    2. Within an additional four hours, from  70°F (21°C) to 41°F (5°C) or less.
    2. Within a total of six hours from  135°F (57°C) to 41°F (5°C) or less.
    B. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) shall be cooled within four hours to 41°F (5°C) or  less if prepared from ingredients at ambient temperature, such as reconstituted  foods and canned tuna.
    C. Except as specified in  subsection D of this section, a potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) received in compliance with laws allowing a  temperature above 41°F (5°C) during shipment from the supplier as specified in  12VAC5-421-340 B, shall be cooled within four hours to 41°F (5°C) or less. 
    D. Raw shell eggs shall be  received as specified under 12VAC5-421-340 C and immediately placed in  refrigerated equipment that maintains an ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C)  or less.
    12VAC5-421-820.  Potentially hazardous food; hot and cold holding.
    A. Except during preparation,  cooking, or cooling, or when time is used as the public health control as  specified under 12VAC5-421-850, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) shall be maintained:
    1. At 135°F (57°C) or above, except that  roasts cooked to a temperature and for a time specified under 12VAC5-421-700 B  or reheated as specified in 12VAC5-421-760 E may be held at a temperature of  130°F (54°C) or above; or
    2. At 41°F (5°C) or less.
    B. Shell eggs that have not been  treated to destroy all viable Salmonellae shall be stored in refrigerated  equipment that maintains an ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C) or less.
    C. Potentially  hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) in a homogenous  liquid form may be maintained outside the temperature control requirements, as  specified in subsection A of this section, while contained within specially  designed equipment that complies with the design and construction requirements  as specified under subdivision 5 of 12VAC5-421-1230.
    12VAC5-421-830.  Ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food, date marking.
    A. Except as specified in  subsection D of this section, refrigerated, ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous  food prepared and held in a food establishment for more than 24 hours shall be  clearly marked to indicate the food shall be consumed on the premises, sold, or  discarded within seven calendar days or less from the day the food is prepared.  The day of preparation shall be counted as day 1 when packaging food  using a reduced oxygen packaging method as specified under 12VAC5-421-870, and  except as specified in subsections D and E of this section, refrigerated  ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety  food) prepared and held in a food establishment for more than 24 hours shall be  clearly marked to indicate the date or day by which the food shall be consumed  on the premises, sold, or discarded when held at a temperature of 41°F (5°C) or  less for a maximum of seven days.
    B. Except as specified in  subsections D and E D through F of this section, refrigerated  ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for  safety food) prepared and packaged by a food processing plant shall be  clearly marked at the time the original container is opened in a food  establishment and if the food is held for more than 24 hours, to indicate the  date or day by which the food shall be consumed on the premises, sold, or  discarded, based on the temperature and time combinations specified in  subsection A of this section and:
    1. The day the original container is  opened in the food establishment shall be counted as day 1; and
    2. The day or date marked by the food  establishment shall not exceed a manufacturer's use-by date if the manufacturer  determined the use-by date based on food safety.
    C. A  refrigerated, ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food that is frequently  rewrapped, such as lunchmeat or a roast, or for which date marking is  impractical, such as soft serve mix or milk in a dispensing machine, may be  marked as specified in subsection A or B of this section, or by an alternative  method acceptable to the regulatory authority.
    D. Subsections A  and B of this section do not apply to individual meal portions served or  repackaged for sale from a bulk container upon a consumer's request.
    E. Subsection B  of this section does not apply to the following when the face has been cut, but  the remaining portion is whole and intact.
    1. Fermented sausages produced in a  federally inspected food processing plant that are not labeled "Keep  Refrigerated" and that retain the original casing on the product;
    2. Shelf stable, dry, fermented  sausages; and
    3. Shelf stable salt-cured products such  as prosciutto and Parma (ham) produced in a federally inspected food processing  plant that are not labeled "Keep Refrigerated."
    F. A refrigerated,  ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food ingredient or a portion of a  refrigerated, ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food that is subsequently  combined with additional ingredients or portions of food shall retain the date  marking of the earliest-prepared or first-prepared ingredient.
    C. A  refrigerated, ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) ingredient or a portion of a refrigerated,  ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety  food) that is subsequently combined with additional ingredients or portions of  food shall retain the date marking of the earliest-prepared or first-prepared  ingredient.
    D. A date  marking system that meets the criteria specified in subsections A and B of this  section may include:
    1. Using a method approved by the  regulatory authority for refrigerated, ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food  (time/temperature control for safety food) that is frequently rewrapped, such  as lunchmeat or a roast, or for which date marking is impractical, such as  soft-serve mix or milk in a dispensing machine;
    2. Marking the date or day of  preparation, with a procedure to discard the food on or before the last date or  day by which the food must be consumed on the premises, sold, or discarded as  specified in subsection A of this section;
    3. Marking the date or day the original  container is opened in a food establishment, with a procedure to discard the  food on or before the last date of day by which the food must be consumed on  the premises, sold, or discarded as specified under subsection B of this  section; or
    4. Using calendar dates, days of the  week, color-coded marks, or other effective marking methods, provided that the  marking system is disclosed to the regulatory authority upon request.
    E. Subsections A  and B of this section do not apply to individual meal portions served or  repackaged for sale from a bulk container upon a consumer's request.
    F. Subsection B  of this section does not apply to the following foods prepared and packaged by  a food processing plant inspected by a regulatory authority:
    1. Deli salads, such as ham salad,  seafood salad, chicken salad, egg salad, pasta salad, potato salad, and  macaroni salad, manufactured in accordance with 21 CFR Part 110 Current good  manufacturing practice in manufacturing, packing or holding food;
    2. Hard cheeses containing not more than  39% moisture as defined in 21 CFR Part 133 Cheeses and related cheese products,  such as cheddar, gruyere, parmesan and reggiano, and romano;
    3. Semi-soft cheese containing more than  39% moisture, but not more than 50% moisture, as defined in 21 CFR Part 133  Cheeses and cheese related products, such as blue, edam, gorgonzola, gouda, and  monterey jack;
    4. Cultured dairy products as defined in  21 CFR Part 131 Milk and cream, such as yogurt, sour cream, and buttermilk;
    5. Preserved fish products, such as  pickled herring and dried or salted cod, and other acidified fish products as  defined in 21 CFR Part 114 Acidified foods;
    6. Shelf stable, dry fermented sausages,  such as pepperoni and Genoa salami that are not labeled "Keep  Refrigerated" as specified in 9 CFR Part 317 Labeling, marking devices,  and containers, and that retain the original casing on the product; and
    7. Shelf stable salt-cured products such  as prosciutto and Parma (ham) that are not labeled "Keep  Refrigerated" as specified in 9 CFR Part 317 Labeling, marking devices,  and containers.
    12VAC5-421-850.  Time as a public health control.
    A. Except as  specified under subsection B of this section, if time only, rather than time in  conjunction with temperature, is used as the public health control for a  working supply of potentially hazardous food before cooking, or for  ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food that is displayed or held for service for  immediate consumption:
    1. The food shall be marked or otherwise  identified to indicate the time that is four hours past the point in time when  the food is removed from temperature control;
    2. The food shall be cooked and served,  served if ready-to-eat, or discarded, within four hours from the point in time  when the food is removed from temperature control;
    3. The food in unmarked containers or  packages or marked to exceed a four-hour limit shall be discarded; and
    4. Written procedures shall be  maintained in the food establishment and made available to the regulatory  authority upon request, that ensure compliance with:
    a. Subdivisions 1, 2 and 3 of this  section; and
    b. 12VAC5-421-800 for food that is  prepared, cooked, and refrigerated before time is used as a public health  control.
    B. In a food  establishment that serves a highly susceptible population, time only, rather  than time in conjunction with temperature, shall not be used as the public  health control for raw eggs.
    A. Except as  specified under subsection D of this section, if time without temperature  control is used as the public health control for a working supply of  potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) before  cooking or for ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) that is displayed or held for sale or service, written  procedures shall be prepared in advance, maintained in the food establishment,  and made available to the regulatory authority upon request that specify:
    1. Methods of compliance with  subdivisions B 1 through 3 or C 1 through 5 of this section; and 
    2. Methods of compliance with  12VAC5-421-800 for food that is prepared, cooked, and refrigerated before time  is used as a public health control.
    B. If time  without temperature control is used as the public health control up to a  maximum of four hours:
    1. The food shall be marked or otherwise  identified to indicate the time that is four hours past the point in time when  the food is removed from temperature control;
    2. The food shall be cooked and served,  served at any temperature if ready-to-eat, or discarded, within four hours from  the point in time when the food is removed from temperature control; and
    3. The food in unmarked containers or  packages, or marked to exceed a four-hour limit shall be discarded.
    C. If time  without temperature control is used as the public health control up to a  maximum of six hours:
    1. The food shall have an initial  temperature of 41ºF (5ºC) or less when removed from temperature control and the  food temperature may not exceed 70ºF (21ºC) within a maximum time period of six  hours; 
    2. The food shall be monitored to ensure  the warmest portion of the food does not exceed 70ºF (21ºC) during the six-hour  period, unless an ambient air temperature is maintained that ensures the food  does not exceed 70ºF (21ºC) during the six-hour holding period;
    3. The food shall be marked or otherwise  identified to indicate:
    a. The time when the food is removed  from 41ºF (5ºC) or less cold-holding temperature control, and
    b. The time that is six hours past the  point in time when the food is removed from 41ºF (5ºC) or less cold-holding  temperature control;
    4. The food shall be:
    a. Discarded if the temperature of the  foods exceeds 70ºF (21ºC), or
    b. Cooked and served, served at any  temperature if ready-to-eat, or discarded within a maximum of six hours from  the point in time when the food is removed from 41ºF (5ºC) or less cold-holding  temperature control; and
    5. The food in unmarked containers or  packages, or marked with a time that exceeds the six-hour limit shall be  discarded.
    D. A food  establishment that serves a highly susceptible population may not use time as  specified under subsections A, B, or C of this section as the public health  control for raw eggs.
    12VAC5-421-860.  Variance requirement.
    A food establishment shall obtain  a variance from the regulatory authority as specified in 12VAC5-421-3570 and  12VAC5-421-3580 before:
    1. Smoking food as a method of food  preservation rather than as a method of flavor enhancement; 
    2. Curing food; 
    3. Using food additives or adding  components such as vinegar: 
    a. As a method of food preservation  rather than as a method of flavor enhancement; or 
    b. To render a food so that it is not  potentially hazardous; 
    4. Packaging food using a reduced oxygen  packaging method except as specified under 12VAC5-421-870 where a barrier to  Clostridium botulinum in addition to refrigeration exists; 
    5. Operating a molluscan shellfish  life-support system display tank used to store and display shellfish that are  offered for human consumption; 
    6. Custom processing animals that are  for personal use as food and not for sale or service in a food establishment; or  
    7. Preparing food by another method  that is determined by the regulatory authority to require a variance. Sprouting  seeds or beans; or
    8. Preparing food by another method that  is determined by the regulatory authority to require a variance.
    12VAC5-421-870.  Reduced oxygen packaging; criteria.
    A. Except for a  food establishment that obtains a variance as specified under 12VAC5-421-860, a  food establishment that packages food using a reduced oxygen packaging method  and Clostridium botulinum is identified as a microbiological hazard in the  final packaged form shall ensure that there are at least two barriers in place  to control the growth and toxin formation of Clostridium botulinum.
    B. A food  establishment that packages food using a reduced oxygen packaging method and  Clostridium botulinum is identified as a microbiological hazard in the final  packaged form shall have a HACCP plan that contains the information specified  under subdivision 4 of 12VAC5-421-3630 and that:
    1. Identifies the food to be packaged;
    2. Limits the food packaged to a food  that does not support the growth of Clostridium botulinum because it complies  with one of the following:
    a. Has an aw of 0.91 or less;
    b. Has a pH of 4.6 or less;
    c. Is a meat or poultry product cured at  a food processing plant regulated by the USDA using substances specified in 9  CFR 424.21, Use of food ingredients and sources of radiation, and is received  in an intact package; or
    d. Is a food with a high level of  competing organisms such as raw meat or raw poultry;
    3. Specifies methods for maintaining  food at 41°F (5°C) or below;
    4. Describes how the packages shall be  prominently and conspicuously labeled on the principal display panel in bold  type on a contrasting background, with instructions to:
    a. Maintain the food at 41°F (5°C) or  below; and
    b. Discard the food if within 14  calendar days of its packaging it is not served for on-premises consumption, or  consumed if served or sold for off-premises consumption;
    5. Limits the refrigerated shelf life to  no more than 14 calendar days from packaging to consumption, except the time  the product is maintained frozen, or the original manufacturer's "sell  by" or "use by" date, whichever occurs first;
    6. Includes operational procedures that:
    a. Prohibit contacting food with bare  hands;
    b. Identify a designated area and the  method by which:
    (1) Physical barriers or methods of separation  of raw foods and ready-to-eat foods minimize cross contamination; and
    (2) Access to the processing equipment  is restricted to responsible trained personnel familiar with the potential  hazards of the operation, and
    c. Delineate cleaning and sanitization  procedures for food-contact surfaces; and
    7. Describes the training program that  ensures that the individual responsible for the reduced oxygen packaging  operation understands the:
    a. Concepts required for a safe  operation;
    b. Equipment and facilities; and
    c. Procedures specified under  subdivision 6 of this subsection and subdivision 4 of 12VAC5-421-3630.
    C. Except for  fish that is frozen before, during, and after packaging, a food establishment  shall not package fish using a reduced oxygen packaging method.
    A. Except for a  food establishment that obtains a variance as specified under 12VAC5-421-860  and except as specified under subsections C and E of this section, a food  establishment that packages potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) using a reduced oxygen packaging method shall ensure  that there are at least two barriers in place to control the growth and toxin  formation of Clostridium botulinum and the growth of Listeria monocytogenes.
    B. A food  establishment that packages potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) using a reduced oxygen method shall have a HACCP plan  that contains the following information specified under 12VAC5-421-3630 D:
    1. Identifies food to be packaged;
    2. Except as specified in subsections C  and E and as specified in subsection D of this section, requires that the  packaged food shall be maintained at 41°F (5°C) or less and meet at least one  of the following criteria:
    a. Has an Aw of 0.91 or less,
    b. Has a pH of 4.6 or less,
    c. Is a meat or poultry product cured as  a food processing plant regulated by the USDA using substances specified in 9  CFR 424.21, Use of food ingredients and sources of radiation, and is received  in an intact package, or
    d. Is a food with a high level of  competing organisms such as raw meat or raw poultry;
    3. Describes how the package shall be  prominently and conspicuously labeled on the principal display panel in bold  type on a contrasting background, with instructions to:
    a. Maintain food at 41°F (5°C) or below,  and 
    b. Discard the food within 14 calendar  days of its packaging if it not served for on-premises consumption, or consumed  if served or sold for off-premises consumption;
    4. Limits the refrigerated shelf life to  no more than 14 calendar days from packaging to consumption, except the time  the product is maintained frozen, or the original manufacturer's "sell  by" or "use by" date, whichever occurs first;
    5. Includes operational procedures that:
    a. Prohibit contacting food with bare  hands,
    b. Identify a designated work area and  the method by which:
    (1) Physical barriers or methods of  separation of raw foods and ready-to-eat foods minimize cross contamination,  and
    (2) Access to the processing equipment  is limited to responsible trained personnel familiar with the potential hazards  of the operation, and
    c. Delineate cleaning and sanitization  procedures for food contact surfaces; and
    6. Describes the training program that  ensures that the individual responsible for the reduced oxygen packaging operation  understands the:
    a. Concepts required for safe operation,  
    b. Equipment and facilities, and
    c. Procedures specified under  subdivision B 5 of this section and 12VAC5-421-3630 D.
    C. Except for  fish that is frozen before, during, and after packaging, a food establishment  may not package fish using a reduced oxygen packaging method.
    D. Except as  specified in subsection C of this section, a food establishment may package  food using a cook-chill or sous-vide process without obtaining a variance if:
    1. The food establishment implements a  HACCP plan that contains the information as specified under 12VAC5-421-3630 D:
    2. The food is:
    a. Prepared and consumed on the  premises, or prepared and consumed off the premises but within the same  business entity with no distribution or sale of the bagged product to another  business entity or the consumer, 
    b. Cooked to heat all parts of the food  to a temperature and for a time as specified under 12VAC5-421-700,
    c. Protected from contamination after  cooking as specified in 12VAC5-421-450 through 12VAC5-421-690,
    d. Placed in a package or bag with an  oxygen barrier and sealed before cooking, or placed in a package or bag and  sealed immediately after cooking, and before reaching a temperature below 135°F  (57°C), 
    e. Cooled to 41°F (5°C) in the sealed  package or bag as specified under 12VAC5-421-800, and subsequently:
    (1) Cooled to 34°F (1°C) within 48 hours  of reaching 41°F (5°C) and held at that temperature until consumed or discarded  within 30 days after the date of preparation;
    (2) Cooled to 34°F (1°C) within 48 hours  of reaching 41°F (5°C), removed from refrigeration equipment that maintains a  34°F (1°C) food temperature and then held at 41°F (5°C) or less for no more  than 72 hours, at which time the food must be consumed or discarded;
    (3) Cooled to 38°F (3°C) or less within  24 hours of reaching 41°F (5°C) and held there for no more than 72 hours from  packaging, at which time the food must be consumed or discarded; or
    (4) Held frozen with no shelf-life  restriction while frozen until consumed or used.
    f. Held in a refrigeration unit that is  equipped with an electronic system that continuously monitors time  and  temperature and is visually examined for proper operation twice daily,
    g. If transported off-site to a  satellite location of the same business entity, equipped with verifiable  electronic monitoring devices to ensure that times and temperatures are  monitored during transportation, and
    h. Labeled with the product name and the  date packaged; and
    3. The records required to confirm that  cooling and cold holding refrigeration time/temperature parameters are required  as part of the HACCP plan, are maintained and are:
    a. Made available to the regulatory  authority upon request, and
    b. Held for six months; and
    4. Written operational procedures as  specified under subdivision B 5 of this section and a training program as  specified under subdivision B 6 of this section are implemented.
    E. A food  establishment may package cheese using a reduced oxygen packaging method  without obtaining a variance if it:
    1. Limits the cheeses packaged to those  that are commercially manufactured in a food processing plant with no  ingredients added in the food establishment and that meet the Standards of  Identity as specified in 21 CFR 133.150 Hard Cheeses, 21 CFR 133.169  Pasteurized process cheese, or 21 CFR 133.187 Semi-soft cheeses;
    2. Has a HACCP plan that contains the  information specified in 12VAC5-421-3630 D;
    3. Except as specified under subdivision  B 2 , B 3 b, and B 4, complies with subsection B of this section;
    4. Labels the package on the principal  display panel with a "use by" date that does not exceed 30 days or  the original manufacturer's "sell by" or "use by" date,  whichever comes first; and
    5. Discards the reduced oxygen packaged  cheese if it is not sold for off-premises consumption or consumed within 30  calendar days of its packaging.
    12VAC5-421-900.  Food labels.
    A. Food packaged in a food  establishment, shall be labeled as specified in accordance with all applicable  laws and regulations, including 21 CFR Part 101 - Food Labeling, and 9 CFR Part  317 - Labeling, Marking Devices, and Containers. 
    B. Label information shall  include: 
    1. The common name of the food, or  absent a common name, an adequately descriptive identity statement; 
    2. If made from two or more ingredients,  a list of ingredients in descending order of predominance by weight, including  a declaration of artificial color or flavor and chemical preservatives, if  contained in the food; 
    3. An accurate declaration of the  quantity of contents; 
    4. The name and place of business of the  manufacturer, packer, or distributor; and 
    5. Except as exempted in the Federal  Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act § 403(Q)(3) - (5), nutrition labeling as specified  in 21 CFR Part 101 - Food Labeling, and 9 CFR Part 317 Subpart B - Nutrition  Labeling.
    6. For any salmonid fish containing  canthaxanthin as a color additive, the labeling of the bulk fish container,  including a list of ingredients, displayed on the retail container or by other  written means, such as a counter card, that discloses the use of canthaxanthin.
    5. The name of the food source for each  major food allergen contained in the food unless the food source is already  part of the common or usual name of the respective ingredient;
    6. Except as exempted in the Federal  Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act § 403(Q)(3) - (5), nutrition labeling as specified  in 21 CFR Part 101 - Food Labeling, and 9 CFR Part 317 Subpart B - Nutrition  Labeling; and
    7. For any salmonid fish containing  canthaxanthin as a color additive, the labeling of the bulk fish container,  including a list of ingredients, displayed on the retail container or by other  written means, such as a counter card, that discloses the use of canthaxanthin.
    C. Bulk food that is available  for consumer self-dispensing shall be prominently labeled with the following  information in plain view of the consumer:
    1. The manufacturer's or processor's  label that was provided with the food; or 
    2. A card, sign, or other method of  notification that includes the information specified under subdivisions B 1, 2  and 5 of this section.
    D. Bulk, unpackaged foods such as  bakery products and unpackaged foods that are portioned to consumer  specification need not be labeled if: 
    1. A health, nutrient content, or other  claim is not made; 
    2. There are no state or local laws  requiring labeling; and 
    3. The food is manufactured or prepared  on the premises of the food establishment or at another food establishment or a  food processing plant that is owned by the same person and is regulated by the  food regulatory agency that has jurisdiction. 
    Article  8 
  Special Requirements for Highly Susceptible Populations 
    12VAC5-421-950.  Pasteurized foods, prohibited reservice, and prohibited food.
    In a food establishment that  serves a highly susceptible population:
    1. The following criteria apply to  juice:
    a. For the purposes of this paragraph  only, children who are age nine or less and receive food in a school, day care  setting, or similar facility that provides custodial care are included as  highly susceptible populations; 
    b. Prepackaged juice or a prepackaged  beverage containing juice, that bears a warning label as specified in 21 CFR  101.17(g) Food Labeling, or packaged juice or beverage containing juice, that  bears a warning label as specified under subdivision 2 of 12VAC5-421-765 shall  not be served or offered for sale; and 
    c. Unpackaged juice that is prepared on  the premises for service or sale in a ready-to-eat form shall be processed  under a HACCP plan that contains the information specified in subdivisions 2  through 5 of 12VAC5-421-3630 and as specified under 21 CFR 120.24, Process  controls.
    2. Pasteurized shell eggs or  pasteurized liquid, frozen, or dry eggs or egg products shall be  substituted for raw shell eggs in the preparation of:
    a. Foods such as Caesar salad,  hollandaise or biarnaise sauce, mayonnaise, meringue, eggnog, ice cream,  and egg-fortified beverages; and
    b. Except as specified in subdivision 5  6 of this section, recipes in which more than one egg is broken and the  eggs are combined.
    3. The following foods shall not be  served or offered for sale in a ready-to-eat form:
    a. Raw animal foods such as raw fish,  raw-marinated fish, raw molluscan shellfish, and steak tartare;
    b. A partially cooked animal food such  as lightly cooked fish, rare meat, soft-cooked eggs that are made from raw  shell eggs, and meringue; and
    c. Raw seed sprouts.
    4. Food employees shall not contact  ready-to-eat food as specified in 12VAC5-421-450 B.
    5. Subdivision 2 b of this section does  not apply if:
    a. The raw eggs are combined immediately  before cooking for one consumer's serving at a single meal, cooked as specified  under 12VAC5-421-700 A 1, and served immediately, such as an omelet, soufflé,  or scrambled eggs;
    b. The raw eggs are combined as an  ingredient immediately before baking and the eggs are thoroughly cooked to a  ready-to-eat form, such as a cake, muffin, or bread; or
    c. The preparation of the food is  conducted under a HACCP plan that:
    (1) Identifies the food to be prepared;
    (2) Prohibits contacting ready-to-eat  food with bare hands;
    (3) Includes specifications and  practices that ensure:
    (a) Salmonella Enteritidis growth is  controlled before and after cooking; and
    (b) Salmonella Enteritidis is destroyed  by cooking the eggs according to the temperature and time specified in  12VAC5-421-700 A 2;
    d. Contains the information specified  under subdivision 4 of 12VAC5-421-3630 including procedures that:
    (1) Control cross contamination of  ready-to-eat food with raw eggs; and
    (2) Delineate cleaning and sanitization  procedures for food-contact surfaces; and
    e. Describes the training program that  ensures that the food employee responsible for the preparation of the food  understands the procedures to be used.
    5. Time only, as the public health  control as specified under 12VAC5-421-850, may not be used for raw eggs.
    6. Subdivision 2 b of this section does  not apply if:
    a. The raw eggs are combined immediately  before cooking for one consumer's serving at a single meal, cooked as specified  under 12VAC5-421-700 A 1, and served immediately, such as an omelet, soufflé,  or scrambled eggs;
    b. The raw eggs are combined as an  ingredient immediately before baking and the eggs are thoroughly cooked to a  ready-to-eat form, such as a cake, muffin, or bread; or
    c. The preparation of the food is  conducted under a HACCP plan that:
    (1) Identifies the food to be prepared;
    (2) Prohibits contacting ready-to-eat  food with bare hands;
    (3) Includes specifications and  practices that ensure:
    (a) Salmonella Enteritidis growth is  controlled before and after cooking; and
    (b) Salmonella Enteritidis is destroyed  by cooking the eggs according to the temperature and time specified in  12VAC5-421-700 A 2;
    d. Contains the information specified  under subdivision 4 of 12VAC5-421-3630 including procedures that:
    (1) Control cross contamination of  ready-to-eat food with raw eggs; and
    (2) Delineate cleaning and sanitization  procedures for food-contact surfaces; and
    e. Describes the training program that  ensures that the food employee responsible for the preparation of the food  understands the procedures to be used.
    7. Except as specified in subdivision 8  of this section, food may be reserved as specified under 12VAC5-421-680 B 1 and  2.
    8. Foods may not be reserved under the  following conditions:
    1. Any food served to patients or  clients who are under contact precautions in medical isolation or quarantine,  or protective environment isolation may not be reserved to others outside.
    2. Packages of food from any patients,  clients, or other consumers should not be reserved to persons in protective  environment isolation
    12VAC5-421-980.  Lead in ceramic, china, and crystal utensils, use limitation.
    A. Ceramic, china,  crystal utensils, and decorative utensils such as hand-painted ceramic or china  that are used in contact with food shall be lead-free or contain levels of lead  not exceeding the limits of the following utensil categories: 
           | Utensil    Category
 | Description 
 |   | 
       | Hot beverage    mugs
 | coffee mugs
 | 0.5    mg/l 
 | 
       | Large    hollowware
 | bowls 1.16 qt.    (1.1 liter) 
 | 1.0    mg/l 
 | 
       | Small    hollowware
 | bowls <    1.16 qt. (1.1 liter) 
 | 2.0 mg/l 
 | 
       | Flat utensils
 | plates,    saucers
 | 3.0 mg/l 
 | 
  
     
           | Utensil    Category | Ceramic Article    Description | Maximum Lead mg/L
 | 
       | Beverage Mugs,    Cups, Pitchers | Coffee Mugs | 0.5 | 
       | Large    Hollowware(excluding pitchers)
 | Bowls > 1.1    Liter(1.16 Quart)
 | 1.0 | 
       | Small    Hollowware(excluding cups and mugs
 | Bowls <1.1    Liter(1.16 Quart)
 | 2.0 | 
       | Flat tableware | Plates, Saucers | 3.0 | 
  
    B. Pewter alloys  containing lead in excess of 0.05% may not be used as a food contact surface.
    C. Solder and  flux containing lead in excess of 0.2% may not be used as a food contact  surface.
    12VAC5-421-1020.  Lead in pewter alloys, use limitation. (Repealed.)
    Pewter alloys  containing lead in excess of 0.05% shall not be used as a food-contact surface.
    12VAC5-421-1030.  Lead in solder and flux, use limitation. (Repealed.)
    Solder and flux  containing lead in excess of 0.2% shall not be used as a food-contact surface.
    12VAC5-421-1200.  Pressure measuring devices, mechanical warewashing equipment.
    Pressure measuring devices that  display the pressures in the water supply line for the fresh hot water  sanitizing rinse shall have increments of 1 pounds per square inch (7  kilopascals) or smaller and shall be accurate to ±2 pounds per square inch (±14  kilopascals) in the 1525 pounds per square inch (100170 kilopascals) range  in the range indicated on the manufacturer's data plate.
    12VAC5-421-1230.  Dispensing equipment, protection of equipment and food. 
    In equipment that dispenses or  vends liquid food or ice in unpackaged form: 
    1. The delivery tube, chute, orifice,  and splash surfaces directly above the container receiving the food shall be  designed in a manner, such as with barriers, baffles, or drip aprons, so that  drips from condensation and splash are diverted from the opening of the  container receiving the food; 
    2. The delivery tube, chute, and orifice  shall be protected from manual contact such as by being recessed; 
    3. The delivery tube or chute and  orifice of equipment used to vend liquid food or ice in unpackaged form to  self-service consumers shall be designed so that the delivery tube or chute and  orifice are protected from dust, insects, rodents, and other contamination by a  self-closing door if the equipment is: 
    a. Located in an outside area that does  not otherwise afford the protection of an enclosure against the rain, windblown  debris, insects, rodents, and other contaminants that are present in the  environment, or 
    b. Available for self-service during  hours when it is not under the full-time supervision of a food employee; and 
    4. The dispensing equipment actuating  lever or mechanism and filling device of consumer self-service beverage  dispensing equipment shall be designed to prevent contact with the lip-contact  surface of glasses or cups that are refilled. 
    5.  Dispensing equipment in which  potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) in  homogenous liquid form is maintained outside of the temperature control  requirements as specified in 12VAC5-421-820 C shall:
    a. Be specifically designed and equipped  to maintain the commercial sterility of aseptically packaged food in a  homogenous liquid form for a specified duration from the time of opening the  packaging within the equipment; and
    b. Conform to the requirements for this  equipment as specified in NSF/ANSI 18-2006 Manual Food and Beverage Dispensing  Equipment.
    12VAC5-421-1260.  Beverage tubing, separation. 
    Beverage tubing  and cold-plate beverage cooling devices shall not be installed in contact with  stored ice. This section does not apply to cold plates that are constructed  integrally with an ice storage bin.
    Except for cold  plates that are constructed integrally with an ice storage bin, beverage tubing  and cold-plate beverage cooling devices may not be installed in contact with  stored ice.
    12VAC5-421-1310.  Vending machines, automatic shutoff.
    A. A machine vending potentially  hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) shall have an  automatic control that prevents the machine from vending food:
    1. If there is a power failure,  mechanical failure, or other condition that results in an internal machine  temperature that can not maintain food temperatures as specified under Part III  (12VAC5-421-260 et seq.) of this chapter; and
    2. If a condition specified under  subdivision 1 of this subsection occurs, until the machine is serviced and  restocked with food that has been maintained at temperatures specified under  Part III.
    B. When the automatic shutoff  within a machine vending potentially hazardous food (time/temperature  control for safety food) is activated:
    1. In a refrigerated vending machine,  the ambient temperature shall not exceed 41°F (5°C) for more than 30 minutes  immediately after the machine is filled, serviced, or restocked; or
    2. In a hot holding vending machine, the  ambient temperature shall not be less than 135°F (57°C) for more than 120  minutes immediately after the machine is filled, serviced, or restocked.
    12VAC5-421-1420.  Case lot handling equipment apparatuses, movability.
    Equipment Apparatuses,  such as dollies, pallets, racks, and skids used to store and transport large  quantities of packaged foods received from a supplier in a cased or overwrapped  lot, shall be designed to be moved by hand or by conveniently available  equipment such as hand trucks and forklifts. 
    12VAC5-421-1440.  Food equipment, certification and classification. (Repealed.)
    Food equipment  that is certified or classified for sanitation by an American National  Standards Institute (ANSI)-accredited certification program will be deemed to  comply with Articles 1 (12VAC5-421-960 et seq.) and 2 (12VAC5-421-1080 et seq.)  of this part. 
    12VAC5-421-1550.  Fixed equipment, spacing or sealing.
    A. Equipment that is fixed  because it is not easily movable shall be installed so that it is: 
    1. Spaced to allow access for cleaning  along the sides, behind, and above the equipment; 
    2. Spaced from adjoining equipment,  walls, and ceilings a distance of not more than 1/32 inch or 1 millimeter; or 
    3. Sealed to adjoining equipment or  walls, if the equipment is exposed to spillage or seepage. 
    B. Table-mounted Counter-mounted  equipment that is not easily movable shall be installed to allow cleaning of  the equipment and areas underneath and around the equipment by being: 
    1. Sealed to the table; or 
    2. Elevated on legs as specified under  12VAC5-421-1560 D. 
    12VAC5-421-1560.  Fixed equipment, elevation or sealing.
    A. Except as specified in  subsections B and C of this section, floor-mounted equipment that is not easily  movable shall be sealed to the floor or elevated on legs that provide at least  a 6 inch (15 centimeter) clearance between the floor and the equipment. 
    B. If no part of the floor under  the floor-mounted equipment is more than 6 inches (15 centimeters) from the  point of cleaning access, the clearance space may be only 4 inches (10  centimeters). 
    C. This section does not apply to  display shelving units, display refrigeration units, and display freezer units  located in the consumer shopping areas of a retail food store, if the floor  under the units is maintained clean. 
    D. Except as specified in subsection  E of this section, table-mounted counter-mounted equipment that  is not easily movable shall be elevated on legs that provide at least a 4-inch  (10 centimeter) clearance between the table and the equipment. 
    E. The clearance space between  the table and table-mounted counter-mounted equipment may be: 
    1. Three inches (7.5 centimeters) if the  horizontal distance of the table top under the equipment is no more than 20  inches (50 centimeters) from the point of access for cleaning; or 
    2. Two inches (5 centimeters) if the  horizontal distance of the table top under the equipment is no more than 3  inches (7.5 centimeters) from the point of access for cleaning. 
    12VAC5-421-1690.  Mechanical warewashing equipment, sanitization pressure. 
    The flow  pressure of the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse in a warewashing machine shall  not be less than 15 pounds per square inch (100 kilopascals) or more than 25  pounds per square inch (170 kilopascals) as measured in the water line  immediately downstream or upstream from the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse  control valve.
    The flow  pressure of the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse in a warewashing machine, as  measured in the water line immediately downstream or upstream from the fresh  hot water sanitizing rinse control valve, shall be within the range specified  on the machine manufacturer's data plate and may not be less than five pounds  per square inch (35 kilopascals) or more than 30 pounds per square inch (200  kilopascals).
    Article  7 
  Sanitization of Equipment and Utensils 
    12VAC5-421-1880.  Food-contact surfaces and utensils. (Repealed.)
    Equipment  food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be sanitized.
    Article  7
  Sanitization of Equipment and Utensils
    12VAC5-421-1890.  Before use after cleaning.
    Utensils and food-contact  surfaces of equipment shall be sanitized before use after cleaning.
    12VAC5-421-1980.  Food-contact surfaces.
    Lubricants as specified in  12VAC5-421-3420 shall be applied to food-contact surfaces that require  lubrication in a manner that does not contaminate food-contact surfaces. 
    12VAC5-421-2040.  Preset tableware. 
    If tableware is  preset: 
    1. It shall be protected from  contamination by being wrapped, covered, or inverted; 
    2. Exposed, unused settings shall be  removed when a consumer is seated; or 
    3. Exposed, unused settings shall be  cleaned and sanitized before further use if the settings are not removed when a  consumer is seated. 
    A.   Tableware that is preset shall be protected from contamination by being  wrapped, covered, or inverted.
    B.  When  tableware is preset, exposed, unused settings shall be:
    1.  Removed when a consumer is  seated; or
    2.  Cleaned and sanitized before  further use if the settings are not removed when a consumer is seated.
    12VAC5-421-2190.  Handwashing lavatory sink, water temperature, and flow.
    A. A handwashing lavatory sink  shall be equipped to provide water at a temperature of at least 100°F (38°C)  through a mixing valve or combination faucet.
    B. A steam mixing valve shall not  be used at a handwashing lavatory sink.
    C. A self-closing, slow-closing,  or metering faucet shall provide a flow of water for at least 15 seconds  without the need to reactivate the faucet.
    12VAC5-421-2230.  Handwashing lavatory sinks, numbers, and capacities.
    A. Except as specified in  subsection B of this section, at least one handwashing lavatory sink,  or the number of handwashing lavatories sinks necessary for their  convenient use by employees in areas specified under 12VAC5-421-2280, and not  fewer than the number of handwashing lavatories sinks required by  law shall be provided. 
    B. If approved, when food  exposure is limited and handwashing lavatories sinks are not  conveniently available, such as in some mobile or temporary food establishments  or at some vending machine locations, employees may use chemically treated  towelettes for handwashing. 
    12VAC5-421-2280.  Handwashing lavatory sinks, location.
    A handwashing lavatory sink  shall be located: 
    1. To be readily accessible for use by  employees in food preparation, food dispensing, and warewashing areas; and 
    2. In, or immediately adjacent to,  toilet rooms. 
    12VAC5-421-2310.  Using a handwashing lavatory sink.
    A. A handwashing lavatory sink  shall be maintained so that it is accessible at all times for employee use.
    B. A handwashing lavatory sink  shall not be used for purposes other than handwashing.
    12VAC5-421-2510.  Establishment drainage system. (Repealed.)
    Food  establishment drainage systems, including grease traps, that convey sewage  shall be designed and installed as specified under 12VAC5-421-2180 A. 
    12VAC5-421-2520.  Backflow prevention.
    A. Except as  specified in subsections B and C of this section, a direct connection shall not  exist between the sewage system and a drain originating from equipment in which  food, portable equipment, or utensils are placed.
    B. If allowed by  law, a warewashing machine may have a direct connection between its waste  outlet and a floor drain when the machine is located within 5 feet (1.5 m) of a  trapped floor drain and the machine outlet is connected to the inlet side of a  properly vented floor drain trap.
    C. If allowed by  law, a warewashing or culinary sink may have a direct connection.
    A. Except as  specified in subsections B, C, and D of this section, a direct connection may  not exist between the sewage system and a drain originating from equipment in  which food, portable equipment, or utensils are placed.
    B. Subsection A  of this section does not apply to floor drains that originate in refrigerated  spaces that are constructed as an integral part of the building.
    C. If allowed by  law, a warewashing machine may have a direct connection between its waste  outlet and a floor drain when the machine is located within five feet (1.5  meters) of a trapped floor drain and the machine outlet is connected to the  inlet side of a properly vented floor drain trap.
    D. If allowed by  law, a warewashing or culinary sink may have a direct connection.
    Article  5 
  Refuse, Recyclables, and Returnables 
    12VAC5-421-2590.  Indoor storage area. (Repealed.)
    If located  within the food establishment, a storage area for refuse, recyclables, and  returnables shall meet the requirements specified under 12VAC5-421-2790,  12VAC5-421-2810 through 12VAC5-421-2880, 12VAC5-421-2930, and 12VAC5-421-2940. 
    Article  5 
  Refuse, Recyclables, and Returnables 
    12VAC5-421-2600.  Outdoor storage surface. 
    An outdoor storage surface for  refuse, recyclables, and returnables shall be constructed of nonabsorbent  material such as concrete or asphalt and shall be smooth, durable, and sloped  to drain. 
    12VAC5-421-2630.  Receptacles in vending machines. 
    A refuse receptacle  shall not be located within a vending machine, except that a receptacle for  beverage bottle crown closures may be located within a vending machine. 
    Except for a  receptacle for a beverage bottle crown closures, a refuse receptacle may not be  located within a vending machine.
    Part  VI 
  Physical Facilities 
    Article  1 
  Materials for Construction and Repair 
    12VAC5-421-2790.  Indoor areas; surface characteristics. 
    A. Except as specified in  subsection B of this section, materials for indoor floor, wall, and ceiling  surfaces under conditions of normal use shall be:
    1. Smooth, durable, and easily cleanable  for areas where food establishment operations are conducted;
    2. Closely woven and easily cleanable  carpet for carpeted areas; and
    3. Nonabsorbent for areas subject to  moisture such as food preparation areas, walk-in refrigerators, warewashing  areas, toilet rooms, mobile food establishment servicing areas, and areas  subject to flushing or spray cleaning methods.
    B. In a temporary food  establishment:
    1. A floor may be concrete, if graded to  drain, machine-laid asphalt, or dirt or gravel if it is covered with mats,  removable platforms, duckboards, or other suitable approved materials  that are effectively treated to control dust and mud; and
    2. Walls and ceilings may be constructed  of a material that protects the interior from the weather and windblown dust  and debris.
    Article  2 
  Design, Construction, and Installation 
    12VAC5-421-2810.  Floors, walls, and ceilings -- cleanability. 
    Except as  specified under 12VAC5-421-2840, the floors, floor coverings, walls, wall  coverings, and ceilings shall be designed, constructed, and installed so they  are smooth and easily cleanable, except that antislip floor coverings or  applications may be used for safety reasons.
    Except as  specified under 12VAC5-421-2840 and except for anti-slip floor coverings or  applications that may be used for safety reasons, floors, floor coverings,  walls, wall coverings, and ceilings shall be designed, constructed, and  installed so they are smooth and easily cleanable.
    12VAC5-421-2920.  Toilet rooms, enclosed. 
    A toilet room  located on the premises shall be completely enclosed and provided with a  tight-fitting and self-closing door except that this requirement does not apply  to a toilet room that is located outside a food establishment and does not open  directly into the food establishment such as a toilet room that is provided by  the management of a shopping mall. 
    Except where a  toilet room is located outside a food establishment and does not open directly  into the food establishment such as a toilet room that is provided by the  management of a shopping mall, a toilet room located on the premises shall be  completely enclosed and provided with a tight-fitting and self-closing door.
    12VAC5-421-2950.  Outdoor food vending areas, overhead protection. 
    If located  outside, a machine used to vend food shall be provided with overhead protection  except that machines vending canned beverages need not meet this requirement. 
    Except for  machines that vend canned beverages, if located outside, a machine used to vend  food shall be provided with overhead protection.
    12VAC5-421-2960.  Outdoor servicing areas, overhead protection. 
    Servicing areas  shall be provided with overhead protection except that areas used only for the  loading of water or the discharge of sewage and other liquid waste, through the  use of a closed system of hoses, need not be provided with overhead protection.  
    Except for areas  used only for the loading of water or the discharge of sewage or other liquid  waste, through the use of a closed system of hoses, servicing areas shall be  provided with overhead protection.
    Article  3 
  Numbers and Capacities 
    12VAC5-421-3010.  Handwashing lavatories, minimum number. (Repealed.)
    Handwashing  lavatories shall be provided as specified under 12VAC5-421-2230. 
    Article  3
  Numbers and Capacities
    12VAC5-421-3020.  Handwashing cleanser, availability.
    Each handwashing lavatory sink  or group of two adjacent lavatories handwashing sinks shall be  provided with a supply of hand cleaning liquid, powder, or bar soap. 
    12VAC5-421-3030.  Hand drying provision.
    Each handwashing lavatory sink  or group of adjacent lavatories handwashing sinks shall be  provided with: 
    1. Individual, disposable towels; 
    2. A continuous towel system that supplies  the user with a clean towel; or 
    3. A heated-air hand drying device. 
    12VAC5-421-3040.  Handwashing aids and devices, use restrictions.
    A sink used for food preparation  or utensil washing shall not be provided with the handwashing aids and devices  required for a handwashing lavatory sink as specified under  12VAC5-421-3020 and 12VAC5-421-3030 and 12VAC5-421-2650 C. 
    12VAC5-421-3045.  Handwashing signage.
    A sign or poster that notifies  food employees to wash their hands shall be provided at all handwashing lavatories  sinks used by food employees and shall be clearly visible to food  employees. 
    12VAC5-421-3050.  Disposable towels, waste receptacle. (Repealed.)
    A handwashing  lavatory or group of adjacent lavatories that is provided with disposable  towels shall be provided with a waste receptacle as specified under  12VAC5-421-2650 C. 
    12VAC5-421-3060.  Toilets and urinals, minimum number. (Repealed.)
    Toilets and  urinals shall be provided as specified under 12VAC5-421-2240. 
    12VAC5-421-3080.  Lighting, intensity.
    The light intensity shall be: 
    1. At least 10 foot candles (110 lux)  (108 lux) at a distance of 30 inches (75 cm) above the floor, in  walk-in refrigeration units and dry food storage areas and in other areas and  rooms during periods of cleaning; 
    2. At least 20 foot candles (220  lux): (215 lux):
    a. At a surface where food is provided  for consumer self-service such as buffets and salad bars or where fresh produce  or packaged foods are sold or offered for consumption; 
    b. Inside equipment such as reach-in and  under-counter refrigerators; 
    c. At a distance of 30 inches (75 cm)  above the floor in areas used for handwashing, warewashing, and equipment and  utensil storage, and in toilet rooms; and 
    3. At least 50 foot candles (540 lux) at  a surface where a food employee is working with food or working with utensils  or equipment such as knives, slicers, grinders, or saws where employee safety  is a factor. 
    12VAC5-421-3110.  Service sinks, availability. (Repealed.)
    A service sink  or curbed cleaning facility shall be provided as specified under  12VAC5-421-2250. 
    Article  4 
  Location and Placement 
    12VAC5-421-3120.  Handwashing lavatories, conveniently located. (Repealed.)
    Handwashing  lavatories shall be conveniently located as specified under 12VAC5-421-2280.
    Article  4
  Location and Placement
    12VAC5-421-3130.  Toilet rooms, convenience and accessibility. 
    Toilet rooms shall be  conveniently located and accessible to employees during all hours of operation.  Toilet rooms intended for use by customers shall not necessitate travel through  food preparation or handling areas. 
    12VAC5-421-3160.  Refuse, recyclables, and returnables -- receptacles, waste handling units,  and designated storage areas. (Repealed.)
    Units,  receptacles, and areas designated for storage of refuse and recyclable and  returnable containers shall be located as specified under 12VAC5-421-2680. 
    12VAC5-421-3180.  Cleaning, frequency and restrictions.
    A. The physical facilities shall  be cleaned as often as necessary to keep them clean. 
    B. Cleaning  shall be done during periods when the least amount of food is exposed such as  after closing. This requirement does not apply to cleaning that is necessary  due to a spill or other accident. 
    B. Except for  cleaning that is necessary due to a spill or other accident, cleaning shall be  done during periods when the least amount of food is exposed such as after  closing.
    12VAC5-421-3240.  Maintaining and using handwashing lavatories Cleaning of Plumbing  Fixtures.
    Handwashing  lavatories shall be kept clean, and maintained and used as specified under  12VAC5-421-2310. Plumbing  fixtures such as handwashing sinks, toilets, and urinals shall be cleaned as  often as necessary to keep them clean and maintained and used as specified  under 12VAC5-421-2310.
    12VAC5-421-3460.  Medicines -- restriction and storage.
    A. Only those  medicines that are necessary for the health of employees shall be allowed in a  food establishment. This section does not apply to medicines that are stored or  displayed for retail sale. 
    B. Medicines  that are in a food establishment for the employees' use shall be labeled as  specified under 12VAC5-421-3320 and located to prevent the contamination of  food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles. 
    A. Except for  medicines that are stored or displayed for retail sale, only those medicines  that are necessary for the health of employees shall be allowed in a food  establishment.
    B. Medicines  that are in a food establishment for the employees' use shall be labeled as  specified under 12VAC5-421-3320 and located to prevent the contamination of  food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles.
    12VAC5-421-3750.  Responsibilities of the permit holder.
    Upon acceptance of the permit  issued by the regulatory authority, the permit holder in order to retain the  permit shall:
    1. Post the permit in a location in the  food establishment that is conspicuous to consumers;
    2. Comply with the provisions of this  chapter including the conditions of a granted variance as specified under  12VAC5-421-3590, and approved plans as specified under 12VAC5-421-3610;
    3. If a food establishment is required  under 12VAC5-421-3620 to operate under a HACCP plan, comply with the plan as  specified under 12VAC5-421-3590;
    4. Immediately contact the regulatory  authority to report an illness of a food employee as specified under 12VAC5-421-120  12VAC5-421-80 B;
    5. Immediately discontinue operations  and notify the regulatory authority if an imminent health hazard may exist as  specified under 12VAC5-421-3910;
    6. Allow representatives of the  regulatory authority access to the food establishment as specified under  12VAC5-421-3820;
    7. Replace existing facilities and  equipment specified in 12VAC5-421-3510 with facilities and equipment that  comply with this chapter if:
    a. The regulatory authority directs the  replacement because the facilities and equipment constitute a public health  hazard or nuisance or no longer comply with the criteria upon which the  facilities and equipment were accepted;
    b. The regulatory authority directs the replacement  of the facilities and equipment because of a change of ownership; or
    c. The facilities and equipment are  replaced in the normal course of operation;
    8. Comply with directives of the  regulatory authority including time frames for corrective actions specified in  inspection reports, notices, orders, warnings, and other directives issued by  the regulatory authority in regard to the permit holder's food establishment or  in response to community emergencies;
    9. Accept notices issued and served by  the regulatory authority according to law; and
    10. Be subject to the administrative,  civil, injunctive, and criminal remedies authorized in law for failure to  comply with this chapter or a directive of the regulatory authority, including  time frames for corrective actions specified in inspection reports, notices,  orders, warnings, and other directives.
    12VAC5-421-3815.  Competency of environmental health specialists.
    An authorized representative of  the commissioner who inspects a food establishment or conducts plan review for  compliance with this chapter shall have the knowledge, skills, and ability to  adequately perform the required duties.
    12VAC5-421-3860.  Documenting information and observations.
    The regulatory authority shall  document on an inspection report form:
    1. Administrative information about the  food establishment's legal identity, street and mailing addresses, type of  establishment and operation as specified under 12VAC5-421-3700, inspection  date, and other information such as type of water supply and sewage disposal,  status of the permit, and personnel certificates that may be required; and
    2. Specific factual observations of  violative conditions or other deviations from this chapter that require  correction by the permit holder including:
    a. Failure of the person in charge to  demonstrate the knowledge of foodborne illness prevention, application of HACCP  principles, and the requirements of this chapter specified under 12VAC5-421-60;
    b. Failure of food employees and the  person in charge to demonstrate their knowledge of their responsibility to  report a disease or medical condition as specified under 12VAC5-421-110 and  12VAC5-421-120 12VAC5-421-80 B and D;
    c. Nonconformance with critical items of  this chapter;
    d. Failure of the appropriate food  employees to demonstrate their knowledge of, and ability to perform in  accordance with, the procedural, monitoring, verification, and corrective  action practices required by the regulatory authority as specified under  12VAC5-421-60;
    e. Failure of the person in charge to  provide records required by the regulatory authority for determining  conformance with a HACCP plan as specified under subdivision 4 f of  12VAC5-421-3630; and
    f. Nonconformance with critical limits  of a HACCP plan.
    12VAC5-421-4040.  Investigation and control, obtaining information: personal history of illness,  medical examination, and specimen analysis. 
    The regulatory  authority shall act when it has reasonable cause to believe that a food  employee has possibly transmitted disease; may be infected with a disease in a  communicable form that is transmissible through food; may be a carrier of  infectious agents that cause a disease that is transmissible through food; or  is affected with a boil, an infected wound, or acute respiratory infection, by:  
    The regulatory  authority shall act when it has reasonable cause to believe that a food  employee or conditional employee has possibly transmitted disease; may be  infected with a disease in a communicable form that is transmissible through  food; may be a carrier of infectious agents that cause a disease that is  transmissible through food; or is affected with a boil, an infected wound, or  acute respiratory infection, by:
    1. Securing a confidential medical  history of the employee suspected of transmitting disease or making other  investigations as deemed appropriate; and 
    2. Requiring appropriate medical  examinations, including collection of specimens for laboratory analysis, of a  suspected employee and other employees. 
    12VAC5-421-4050.  Restriction or exclusion of food employee, or summary suspension of permit.
    Based on the findings of an  investigation related to a food employee or conditional employee who is  suspected of being infected or diseased, the regulatory authority may issue an  order to the suspected food employee, conditional employee, or permit  holder instituting one or more of the following control measures:
    1. Restricting the food employee or  conditional employee;
    2. Excluding the food employee or  conditional employee; or
    3. Closing the food establishment by summarily  suspending a permit to operate in accordance with law.
    12VAC5-421-4070.  Release of food employee from restriction or exclusion. 
    The regulatory  authority shall release a food employee from restriction or exclusion according  to law and the following conditions:
    1. A food employee who was infected with  Salmonella typhi if the food employee's stools are negative for S. typhi based  on testing of at least three consecutive stool specimen cultures that are  taken:
    a. Not earlier than one month after  onset ;
    b. At least 48 hours after  discontinuance of antibiotics ; and
    c. At least 24 hours apart; and
    2. If one of the cultures taken as  specified in subdivision 1 of this section is positive, repeat cultures are  taken at intervals of one month until at least three consecutive negative stool  specimen cultures are obtained.
    3. A food employee who was infected with  Shigella spp. or Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli if the employee's  stools are negative for Shigella spp. or Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli  based on testing of two consecutive stool specimen cultures that are taken:
    a. Not earlier than 48 hours after  discontinuance of antibiotics; and
    b. At least 24 hours apart.
    4. A food employee who was infected with  hepatitis A virus if:
    a. Symptoms cease; or
    b. At least two blood tests show falling  liver enzymes.
    The regulatory  authority shall release a food employee, or conditional employee from  restriction or exclusion according to law and the conditions specified under  12VAC5-421-100.
270
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
    REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE:  The following regulatory action is exempt from the Administrative Process Act  in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code of Virginia, which excludes  regulations that are necessary to meet the requirements of federal law or  regulations, provided such regulations do not differ materially from those  required by federal law or regulation. The Department of Medical Assistance  Services will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any interested  person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 12VAC30-10. State Plan Under  Title XIX of the Social Security Act Medical Assistance Program; General Provisions (amending 12VAC30-10-690).
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of  the Code of Virginia; Title XIX of the Social Security Act (42 USC § 1396  et seq.).
    Effective Date: October 1,  2009. 
    Agency Contact: Brian  McCormick, Regulatory Supervisor, Department of Medical Assistance Services,  600 East Broad Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)  371-8856, FAX (804) 786-1680, or email brian.mccormick@dmas.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    This action incorporates into the  Virginia Administrative Code (VAC), for the purpose of maintaining the  necessary consistency between the VAC and the State Plan for Medical Assistance  Services, language issued by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to  be included in the State Plan. The language establishes DMAS' compliance with §  1932(d)(1) of the Social Security Act and 42 CFR 438.610 prohibiting managed  care organizations from having affiliations with individuals who have been  suspended or otherwise excluded from federal health care programs.
    12VAC30-10-690.  Exclusion of providers and suspension of practitioners and other individuals. 
    A. All of the requirements of 42  CFR 1002, Subpart B are met. 
    In addition to meeting all  federal requirements, the agency, under the authority of State state  law, imposes broader sanctions. 
    B. The Medicaid agency meets the  requirements of: 
    1. § 1902(p) of the Act by excluding  from participation-- :
    a. At the State's state's discretion,  any individual or entity for any reason for which the Secretary could exclude  the individual or entity from participation in a program under Title XVIII in  accordance with § 1128, 1128A, or 1866(b)(2). 
    b. Any HMO (as defined in § 1903(m) of  the Act) or an entity furnishing services under a waiver approved under §  1915(b)(1) of the Act, that-- :
    (1) Could be excluded under § 1128(b)(8)  relating to owners and managing employees who have been convicted of certain  crimes or received other sanctions,: or 
    (2) Has, directly or indirectly, a  substantial contractual relationship (as defined by the Secretary) with an  individual or entity that is described in § 1128(b)(8)(B) of the Act. 
    2. An MCO, PIHP, PAHP, or PCCM may not  have prohibited affiliations with individuals (as defined in 42 CFR 438.610(b))  who are debarred, suspended, or otherwise excluded from participating in  procurement activities under the Federal Acquisition Regulation or from  participating in nonprocurement activities under regulations issued under  Executive Order No. 12549 or under guidelines implementing Executive Order No.  12549.  If the Commonwealth finds that an MCO, PCCM, PIHP, or PAHP is not  in compliance, the Commonwealth will comply with the requirements of 42 CFR  438.610(c).
    3. § 1902(a)(39) of the Act by--  :
    a. Excluding an individual or entity  from participation for the period specified by the Secretary, when required by  the Secretary to do so in accordance with § 1128 or 1128A of the Act; and 
    b. Providing that no payment will be  made with respect to any item or service furnished by an individual or entity  during this period. 
    C. The Medicaid agency meets the  requirements of-- : 
    1. § 1902(a)(41) of the Act with respect  to prompt notification to HCFA whenever a provider is terminated, suspended,  sanctioned, or otherwise excluded from participating under this State state  plan; and 
    2. § 1902(a)(49) of the Act with  respect to providing information and access to information regarding sanctions  taken against health care practitioners and providers by State state  licensing authorities in accordance with § 1921 of the Act.
270
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AND DEVELOPMENTAL SERVICES
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 12VAC35-12. Public Participation  Guidelines (amending 12VAC35-12-10, 12VAC35-12-20).
    Statutory Authority:  §§ 2.2-4007-02 and 37.2-203 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public  hearings are scheduled. 
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Effective Date: October 15,  2009. 
    Agency Contact: Linda  Grasewicz, Policy Analyst, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental  Services, Jefferson Bldg., 1220 Bank St., 12th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 786-0040, FAX (804) 371-0092, or email  linda.grasewicz@co.dmhmrsas.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The board has the authority to  adopt these regulations under § 37.2-203 of the Code of Virginia. It is  required to develop and adopt public participation guidelines to solicit the  input of interested parties in the development of its regulations under  § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of Virginia.
    Purpose: The amendment  allows the department to comply with the requirements of the Administrative  Process Act (APA), (§ 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia). The APA requires  each agency of state government that is empowered by basic laws to make  regulations to adopt and use public participation guidelines for soliciting the  input of interested parties in the formation and development of its  regulations.
    Chapter 781 of the 2009 Virginia Acts of Assembly  requires the department (not the board) to adopt emergency regulations under  Item 315 DD. This means that the department must have public participation  guidelines under the APA.
    The proposed amendment expands the scope of the  board's public participation guidelines to define the department as an  "agency" that must involve the public in the development of its  regulations. Currently, these public participation guidelines apply only to the  board. The amendment will ensure that the public has the opportunity to  participate in the development regulations that are required pursuant to the  agency's basic law. This public participation will help to protect the health,  safety, and welfare of Virginia citizens.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: This amendment  will not alter or affect the processes that are established by the board's  current public particpation guidelines. The current regulations are model  public participation guidelines adopted by the board in 2008 pursuant to  Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. These model regulations were  developed to standardize the public participation process so that interested  members of the public know how and when to comment or participate in regulatory  actions that affect or interest them. This amendment expands the scope of the  board's regulations to require the department to comply with this standard  public participation process. It is intended to provide the opportunity for  public participation in the department's regulatory processes according to the  APA and is not expected to be controversial.
    The amendment will also change the name of the  department and the board consistent with legislation passed by Chapter 840 of  the 2009 Acts of Assembly. This name change will not have any impact on the  public participation process or regulatory requirements and is not expected to  be controversial.
    Substance: There are no  new substantive provisions or substantive changes to the existing sections of  the regulations.
    Issues: The primary  advantage of this regulatory action is that it will facilitate the  participation of the interested members of the public in the regulatory  activities undertaken by the department.
    This action allows the department to comply with APA  requirements and should enable it to develop regulations that are consistent  with the legal authority, are responsive to the public need, are not overly  burdensome, and protect the health, safety and welfare of Virginia citizens.
    There are no known disadvantages to the public or  the Commonwealth.
    The Department of Planning and Budget's  Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation.  The Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Board  (Board) proposes to amend its Public Participation Guidelines to include  rulemaking actions taken by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation  and Substance Abuse Services (DMHMRSAS) and to enact a statutorily required  name change.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the  costs for all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, the  "agency" that is subject to these regulations is defined as solely  being the Board. Since both the Board and the Department (DMHMRSAS) have  regulatory authority, the Board proposes to amend these regulations so that the  Department is specifically included in the "agency" definition. This  change will benefit the public by ensuring that they have the same opportunity  to be involved in the rulemaking process no matter which entity (the Board or  the Department) has initiated it. No entity is likely to incur any costs on  account of this amendment.
    This year the General Assembly passed a law which  changed the name of the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation and  Substance Abuse Services to the Department of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services. The Board proposes to amend these regulations to  account for this statutory change. DMHMRSAS, and other agencies that have  regulations that name DMHMRSAS, will likely incur some one-time costs  associated with rewriting regulations and reprinting any promotional materials  that mention DMHMRSAS.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. This regulatory  action will affect all state agencies and private individuals who might be  interested in participating in the rulemaking process. DMHMRSAS is unsure of  how many entities this might be but reports that, as of May 1, 2009, there were  163 registered Town Hall users that were signed up to receive notice of any  regulatory actions from the agency.
    Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will  be particularly affected by this proposed regulatory action.
    Projected Impact on Employment. This regulatory  action will likely have no impact on employment in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property.  This regulatory action will likely have no affect on the use or value of  private property in the Commonwealth.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. Small  businesses in the Commonwealth are unlikely to incur any costs on account of  this regulatory action.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes  Adverse Impact. Small businesses in the Commonwealth are unlikely to incur any  costs on account of this regulatory action.
    Real Estate Development Costs. This regulatory  action will likely have no affect on real estate development costs in the  Commonwealth.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget  (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in  accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and  Executive Order Number 36 (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic  impact analyses include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of  businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity  of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly  affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be  affected, the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement  or comply with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private  property. Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    Agency's Response to the Department of  Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis: The agency  concurs with the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of  Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    This action amends the board's public  participation regulations to include the rulemaking processes that are undertaken  by the department. The current regulations are applicable only to the State  Mental Health Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Board. The stated  purpose of these regulations in 12VAC35-12-10 and the definition of  "agency" in 12VAC23-12-20 are changed to include both the department  and the board. This change will allow the the department to comply with the  requirements in § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of Virginia to facilitate public  participation in the formation and development of its regulations.
    This action also replaces the name State  Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Board with State  Board of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (hereinafter referred to  as the board) and names the current Department of Mental Health, Mental  Retardation Substance Abuse Services as the Department of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services (hereinafter referred to as the department) consistent  with Chapter 840 of the 2009 Acts of Assembly.  This change became effective  on July 1, 2009.
    Part  I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    12VAC35-12-10.  Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to  promote public involvement in the development, amendment or repeal of the  regulations of the State Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse  Services Board of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services and the  Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. This chapter  does not apply to regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or  excluded from the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et  seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    12VAC35-12-20.  Definitions.
    The following words and terms  when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context  clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Administrative Process  Act" means Chapter 40 (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of  Virginia.
    "Agency" means the State  Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Board, which is  the unit entity of state government empowered by the agency's basic  law to make regulations or decide cases. This term includes the State Board  of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services and the Department of  Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. Actions specified in this  chapter may be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means  provisions in the Code of Virginia that delineate the basic authority and  responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar"  means the electronic calendar for official government meetings open to the  public as required by § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel''  or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  an agency to consider issues that are controversial with the assistance of a  facilitator or mediator, for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the  development of a proposed regulatory action.
    "Notification list"  means a list used to notify persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may  include an electronic list maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall  or other list maintained by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means  any scheduled gathering of a unit of state government empowered by an agency's  basic law to make regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating,  amending or repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any  individual, corporation, partnership, association, cooperative, limited  liability company, trust, joint venture, government, political subdivision, or  any other legal or commercial entity and any successor, representative, agent,  agency, or instrumentality thereof.
    "Public hearing" means  a scheduled time at which members or staff of the agency will meet for the  purpose of receiving public comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any  statement of general application having the force of law, affecting the rights  or conduct of any person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the  authority conferred on it by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action"  means the promulgation, amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory  panel" or "RAP" means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of  interested parties established by the agency for the purpose of assisting in  regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the  Virginia Regulatory Town Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department  of Planning and Budget at www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public  comment forums and displays information about regulatory meetings and  regulatory actions under consideration in Virginia and sends this information  to registered public users.
    "Virginia Register"  means the Virginia Register of Regulations, the publication that provides  official legal notice of new, amended and repealed regulations of state  agencies, which is published under the provisions of Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et  seq.) of the Administrative Process Act.
  270
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF PHARMACY
Proposed Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC110-20. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Pharmacy (adding 18VAC110-20-25).
    Statutory Authority:  § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    September 2, 2009 - 9 a.m. -  Department of Health Professions, 9960 Mayland Drive, Perimeter Center, 2nd  Floor Conference Center, Richmond, VA
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 30, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Elizabeth Scott  Russell, RPh, Executive Director, Board of Pharmacy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite  300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4456, FAX (804) 527-4472, or  email scotti.russell@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia provides the Board of Pharmacy the authority to promulgate regulations  to administer the regulatory system.
    Purpose: The 2007  General Assembly amended the statutes relating to grounds for denial or  disciplinary action against a license by the Board of Pharmacy. The previous,  very narrowly defined section relating to "unprofessional conduct"  was repealed and those activities specifically listed in § 54.1-3316 (11)  and (12) as grounds for disciplinary action. In addition, § 54.1-3316 (4)  was expanded to include unprofessional conduct specified in regulations  promulgated by the board. The intent of this action is to promulgate such  regulations.
    After utilizing regulations from other boards and a  compilation of unprofessional conduct regulations from other states to  determine those provisions that should be set out in Virginia regulation, the  board developed regulatory language to ensure that it has the necessary  authority to protect the public health and safety from unprofessional conduct  or substandard care.
    Substance: The board has  added 18VAC110-20-25, which provides that certain practices shall constitute  unprofessional conduct within the meaning § 54.1-3316 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Issues: The primary  advantage of this proposal is greater protection for the public by having  clearer, more definitive language about behaviors and actions that may  constitute unprofessional conduct in a pharmacy.
    There are no disadvantages of these provisions to  the agency or the Commonwealth; more specific provisions in regulation to  supplement those stated in the Code of Virginia will allow more explicit  charges in a disciplinary notice, which will be beneficial to both the agency  and the respondent.  The board does not anticipate more than a four or five  additional disciplinary proceedings or notices of disciplinary action, because  it currently manages to state the charges for such conduct under general  provisions of the Code of Virginia. There are no other pertinent matters.
    The Department of Planning and Budget's  Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation.  Pursuant to 2007 General Assembly House Bill 2649, the Board of Pharmacy  (Board) proposes to add a new section to these regulations to establish the  types of behavior that constitute unprofessional conduct. HB 2649 repealed the  previous, narrowly-defined Code section relating to "unprofessional  conduct" and replaced it with language that expanded Virginia Code § 54.1-3316 by stating that unprofessional conduct would include that which is  "specified in regulations promulgated by the Board."
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the  costs for all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. The proposed regulation  would specify the following as grounds for unprofessional conduct: 1) a  violation of patient privacy or other provisions in the Health Records Act, 2)  willful or negligent breaching of patient confidentiality, 3) failure to  maintain the confidentiality of information received from the Prescription  Monitoring Program, obtaining such information for reasons other than to assist  in determining the validity of a prescription to be filled, or misusing  information received from the program, 4) engaging in disruptive or abusive  behavior that interferes with or adversely affects patient care, 5) engaging in  conduct constituting a boundary violation that would include a situation in  which the licensee is in a position to take advantage of a patient or his  family, 6) failure to maintain adequate safeguards against the diversion of  controlled substances, 7) failure to appropriately respond to a known  dispensing error, 8) delegating a task to someone not adequately trained to  perform that task, 9) failure by the pharmacist in charge to ensure that  pharmacy interns and pharmacy technicians are currently registered, and 10)  failure to exercise professional judgment in determining whether a prescription  meets the requirements of law prior to dispensing.
    According to the Department of Health Professions  (DHP), specifying the types of behavior that constitute unprofessional conduct  will allow more explicit charges in a disciplinary notices, but will not cause  a large increase in the number of disciplinary actions conducted since the  Board currently manages to state the charges for such conduct under general  provisions of the Code. In calendar year 2008 the Board received 301  disciplinary cases and closed 426. Out of the 426 cases closed by the Board of  Pharmacy in calendar year 2008, 221 were closed as "no violation" or  "undetermined." The rest were closed with some type of finding, or by  confidential consent agreement.  The Board estimates that specifying  unprofessional conduct in regulation will in practice produce no more than 4 or  5 additional cases annually.
    Specifying what constitutes unprofessional conduct  will be beneficial for pharmacy professionals and the public in that there will  be less uncertainty and fewer misunderstandings concerning what conduct is  subject to discipline.  There are no obvious costs associated with the  proposed specificity.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed  amendments affect the 9964 pharmacists, 1396 pharmacy interns, 9502 pharmacy  technicians, 1688 resident pharmacies, and 544 non-resident pharmacies  regulated by the Virginia Board of Pharmacy.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed  amendments do not disproportionately affect particular localities.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal  amendments do not significantly affect employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property.  The proposed amendments do not significantly affect the use and value of  private property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The  proposed amendments do not significantly affect small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes  Adverse Impact. The proposed amendments do not significantly affect small  businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed  amendments do not significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget  (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in  accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and  Executive Order Number 36 (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic  impact analyses include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of  businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity  of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly  affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be  affected, the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement  or comply with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private  property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small  businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include (i) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses  subject to the regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and  other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    Agency's Response to the Department of  Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis: The Board of  Pharmacy concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget on  proposed amended regulations for 18VAC110-20, Regulations Governing the  Practice of Pharmacy relating to regulations for unprofessional conduct.
    Summary:
    The proposed regulatory action adds a  section on unprofessional conduct to address certain issues and licensee  conduct that have been problematic and to supplement the statutory provision in  § 54.1-3316 of the Code of Virginia that establishes grounds for  disciplinary action based on unprofessional conduct specified in regulations  promulgated by the board. The amendments include, but are not limited to,  patient confidentiality, unethical behavior, sexual misconduct, failure to  report a known dispensing error in a manner that protects the public, and  inappropriate delegation of pharmacy acts to subordinates.
    18VAC110-20-25.  Unprofessional conduct.
    The following  practices shall constitute unprofessional conduct within the meaning of  § 54.1-3316 of the Code of Virginia: 
    1. Failing to comply with provisions of  § 32.1-127.1:03 of the Code of Virginia related to the confidentiality and  disclosure of patient records or related to provision of patient records to  another practitioner or to the patient or his personal representative;
    2. Willfully or negligently breaching  the confidentiality of a patient unless otherwise required or permitted by  applicable law;
    3. Failing to maintain confidentiality  of information received from the Prescription Monitoring Program, obtaining  such information for reasons other than to assist in determining the validity  of a prescription to be filled, or misusing information received from the  program;
    4. Engaging in disruptive or abusive  behavior in a pharmacy or other health care setting that interferes with  patient care or could reasonably be expected to adversely impact the quality of  care rendered to a patient;
    5. Engaging or attempting to engage in a  relationship with a patient that constitutes a professional boundary violation  in which the practitioner uses his professional position to take advantage of  the vulnerability of a patient or his family, including but not limited to  sexual misconduct with a patient or a member of his family or other conduct  that results or could result in personal gain at the expense of the patient; 
    6. Failing to maintain adequate  safeguards against diversion of controlled substances; 
    7. Failing to appropriately respond to a  known dispensing error in a manner that protects the health and safety of the  patient; 
    8. Delegating a task within the practice  of pharmacy to a person who is not adequately trained to perform such a task;
    9. Failing by the PIC to ensure that  pharmacy interns and pharmacy technicians working in the pharmacy are registered  and that such registration is current; or
    10. Failing to exercise professional  judgment in determining whether a prescription meets requirements of law before  dispensing.
270
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF PHYSICAL THERAPY
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC112-20. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Physical Therapy (amending 18VAC112-20-10, 18VAC112-20-40,  18VAC112-20-50, 18VAC112-20-60, 18VAC112-20-65, 18VAC112-20-70, 18VAC112-20-90,  18VAC112-20-120, 18VAC112-20-131, 18VAC112-20-135, 18VAC112-20-136,  18VAC112-20-140, 18VAC112-20-150; adding 18VAC112-20-160, 18VAC112-20-170,  18VAC112-20-180, 18VAC112-20-190, 18VAC112-20-200).
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400  and Chapter 34.1 (§ 54.1-3473 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: September 30,  2009. 
    Agency Contact: Lisa R. Hahn,  Executive Director, Board of Physical Therapy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300,  Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-4674, FAX (804) 527-4413, or email  ptboard@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments clarify certain  definitions and requirements for practice by physical therapists, simplify  regulations for trainees, specify the additional training or course work  required to retake the examination after three failures, add evidence of  competency for licensure by endorsement, clarify the responsibilities of a  physical therapist in the evaluation and discharge of a patient, modify the  requirements for renewal or reinstatement of licensure, and add provisions on  standards of professional practice and grounds for unprofessional conduct.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's  Response:  A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    Part  I 
  General Provisions 
    18VAC112-20-10.  Definitions.
    In addition to the words and  terms defined in § 54.1-3473 of the Code of Virginia, the following words and  terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the  context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Active practice" means  a minimum of 160 hours of professional practice as a physical therapist or  physical therapist assistant within the 24-month period immediately preceding  renewal. Active practice may include supervisory, administrative, educational  or consultative activities or responsibilities for the delivery of such  services.
    "Approved program"  means an educational program accredited by the Commission on Accreditation in  Physical Therapy Education of the American Physical Therapy Association.
    "CLEP" means the  College Level Examination Program.
    "Contact hour" means 60  minutes of time spent in continuing learning activity exclusive of breaks,  meals or vendor exhibits. 
    "Direct supervision"  means a physical therapist or a physical therapist assistant is physically  present and immediately available and is fully responsible for the physical  therapy tasks or activities being performed.
    "Discharge"  means the discontinuation of interventions in [ a single  an ] episode of care that have been provided in an unbroken  sequence [ in a single practice setting ] and related  to the physical therapy interventions for a given condition or problem.
    "Evaluation" means the  examination, assessment or screening of a patient a process in which the  physical therapist makes clinical judgments based on data gathered during an  examination [ or screening ] in order to plan and implement  a treatment intervention, provide preventive care, reduce risks of injury and  impairment, or provide for consultation.
    "Face-to-face" means  learning activities or courses obtained in a group setting or through  interactive, real-time technology.
    "FCCPT" means the  Foreign Credentialing Commission on Physical Therapy.
    "General supervision"  means a physical therapist shall be available for consultation.
    "National examination"  means the examinations developed and administered by the Federation of State  Boards of Physical Therapy and approved by the board for licensure as a  physical therapist or physical therapist assistant.
    "Support personnel"  means a person who is performing designated routine tasks related to physical  therapy under the direction and supervision of a physical therapist or physical  therapist assistant within the scope of this chapter.
    "TOEFL" means the Test  of English as a Foreign Language.
    "Trainee" means a  person seeking licensure as a physical therapist or physical therapist  assistant who is undergoing a traineeship.
    1. "Foreign educated trainee"  means a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant who was educated  outside the United States and did not graduate from an approved program and who  is seeking licensure to practice in Virginia. 
    2. "Inactive practice trainee"  means a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant who has previously  been licensed and has not practiced for at least 320 hours within the past four  years and who is seeking licensure or relicensure in Virginia. 
    3. "Unlicensed graduate  trainee" means a graduate of an approved physical therapist or physical  therapist assistant program who has not taken the national examination or who  has taken the examination but not yet received a license from the board. 
    "Traineeship" means a  period of active clinical practice during which an unlicensed applicant  for licensure as a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant works  under the direct supervision of a physical therapist approved by the board.
    "TSE" means the Test of  Spoken English. 
    "Type 1" means face-to  face continuing learning activities offered by an approved organization as  specified in 18VAC112-20-131. 
    "Type 2" means  continuing learning activities which may or may not be offered by an approved  organization but shall be activities considered by the learner to be beneficial  to practice or to continuing learning.
    18VAC112-20-40.  Education requirements: graduates of approved programs.
    A. An applicant for licensure who  is a graduate of an approved program shall submit documented evidence of his  graduation from such a program with the required application and fee.
    B. If an applicant is a graduate  of an approved program located outside of the United States or Canada, he shall  provide proof of proficiency in the English language by passing TOEFL and TSE or  the TOEFL iBT, the Internet-based tests of listening, reading, speaking and  writing by a score determined by the board or an equivalent examination  approved by the board. TOEFL iBT or TOEFL and TSE may be waived upon  evidence of English proficiency that the applicant's physical  [ therapist assistant therapy ] program was  taught in English or that the native tongue of the applicant's nationality is  English.
    18VAC112-20-50.  Education requirements: graduates of schools not approved by an accrediting  agency approved by the board. 
    A. An applicant for initial  licensure as a physical therapist who is a graduate of a school not approved by  an accrediting agency approved by the board shall submit the required  application and fee and provide documentation of the physical therapist's  certification by a report from the FCCPT or of the physical therapist  eligibility for licensure as verified by a report from any other credentialing  agency approved by the board that substantiates that the physical therapist has  been evaluated in accordance with requirements of subsection B of this section.  
    B. The board shall only approve a  credentialing agency that: 
    1. Utilizes the Coursework Evaluation  Tool for Foreign Educated Physical Therapists of the Federation of State Boards  of Physical Therapy and utilizes original source documents to establish  substantial equivalency to an approved physical therapy program; 
    2. Conducts a review of any license or  registration held by the physical therapist in any country or jurisdiction to  ensure that the license or registration is current and unrestricted or was  unrestricted at the time it expired or was lapsed; and 
    3. Verifies English language proficiency  by passage of the TOEFL and TSE examination or the TOEFL iBT, the  Internet-based tests of listening, reading, speaking and writing or by  review of other evidence of English proficiency that the  applicant's physical therapy program was taught in English or that the native  tongue of the applicant's nationality is English.
    C. An applicant for licensure as  a physical therapist assistant who is a graduate of a school not approved by  the board shall submit with the required application and fee the following: 
    1. Proof of proficiency in the English  language by passing TOEFL and TSE or the TOEFL iBT, the Internet-based tests  of listening, reading, speaking and writing by a score determined by the  board or an equivalent examination approved by the board. TOEFL iBT or  TOEFL and TSE may be waived upon evidence of English proficiency that  the applicant's physical therapist assistant program was taught in English or  that the native tongue of the applicant's nationality is English.
    2. A copy of the original certificate or  diploma that has been certified as a true copy of the original by a notary  public, verifying his graduation from a physical therapy curriculum. If the  certificate or diploma is not in the English language, submit either: 
    a. An English translation of such  certificate or diploma by a qualified translator other than the applicant; or 
    b. An official certification in English  from the school attesting to the applicant's attendance and graduation date. 
    3. Verification of the equivalency of  the applicant's education to the educational requirements of an approved  program for physical therapist assistants from a scholastic credentials service  approved by the board. 
    D. An applicant for initial  licensure as a physical therapist or a physical therapist assistant who is not  a graduate of an approved program shall also submit verification of having  successfully completed a full-time 1,000-hour traineeship as a "foreign  educated trainee" under the direct supervision of a licensed physical  therapist. 
    1. The traineeship shall be in a  facility that serves as an education facility for students enrolled in an  accredited program educating physical therapists in Virginia and is approved by  the board accordance with requirements in 18VAC112-20-140. 
    1. It shall be the responsibility of the  foreign educated trainee to make the necessary arrangements for his training  with the director of physical therapy or the director's designee at the  facility selected by the trainee. 
    2. The physical therapist supervising  the foreign educated trainee shall submit a completed physical therapy or  physical therapist assistant clinical performance instrument approved by the  board. 
    3. If the traineeship is not  successfully completed, the president of the board or his designee shall  determine if a new traineeship shall commence. If it is determined by the board  that a new traineeship shall not commence, then the application for licensure  shall be denied. 
    4. The second traineeship may be served  under a different supervising physical therapist and may be served in a  different organization than the initial traineeship. If the second traineeship  is not successfully completed, as determined by the supervising physical  therapist, then the application for licensure shall be denied. 
    5. 2. The traineeship  requirements of this part may be waived if the applicant for a license can  verify, in writing, the successful completion of one year of clinical physical  therapy practice as a licensed physical therapist or physical therapist  assistant in the United States, its territories, the District of Columbia, or Canada,  equivalent to the requirements of this chapter. 
    18VAC112-20-60.  Requirements for licensure by examination. 
    A. Every applicant for initial  licensure by examination shall submit: 
    1. Documentation of having met the  educational requirements specified in 18VAC112-20-40 or 18VAC112-20-50; 
    2. The required application, fees and  credentials to the board; and 
    3. Documentation of passage of the  national examination as prescribed by the board. 
    B. If an applicant fails the  national examination three times, he shall apply for approval to sit for any  subsequent examination by submission of evidence satisfactory to the board of  having successfully completed additional clinical training or course work in  the deficiency areas of the examination the following requirements:
    1. Provide the board with a copy of the  deficiency report from the examination; 
    2. Review areas of deficiency with the  applicant's physical therapy educational program and develop a plan, which may  include additional clinical training or coursework, to address deficiency  areas; and
    3. Take an examination review course and  the practice examination.
    18VAC112-20-65.  Requirements for licensure by endorsement.
    A. A physical therapist or  physical therapist assistant who holds a current, unrestricted license in the  United States, its territories, the District of Columbia, or Canada may be  licensed in Virginia by endorsement. 
    B. An applicant for licensure by  endorsement shall submit:
    1. Documentation of having met the  educational requirements prescribed in 18VAC112-20-40 or 18VAC112-20-50. In  lieu of meeting such requirements, an applicant may provide evidence of  clinical practice during the five years immediately preceding application for  licensure in Virginia with a current, unrestricted license issued by another  U.S. jurisdiction;
    2. The required application, fees, and  credentials to the board; and 
    3. A current report from the Healthcare  Integrity and Protection Data Bank (HIPDB) and a current report from the  National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB);
    4. Evidence of completion of 15 hours of  continuing education for each year in which the applicant held a license in  another U.S. jurisdiction, or 60 hours obtained within the past four years; and
    3. 5. Documentation of  passage of an examination equivalent to the Virginia examination at the time of  initial licensure or documentation of passage of an examination required by  another state at the time of initial licensure in that state and active,  clinical practice with a current, unrestricted license for at least five years  prior to applying for licensure in Virginia.
    For the purpose of this  subsection, active, clinical practice shall mean at least 2,500 hours of  patient care over a five-year period.
    C. A physical therapist or  physical therapist assistant seeking licensure by endorsement who has not  actively practiced physical therapy for at least 160 320 hours  within the two four years immediately preceding his application  for licensure shall first successfully complete a 480-hour 480 hours  in a traineeship as specified by subsection B of in accordance  with requirements in 18VAC112-20-140.
    18VAC112-20-70.  Traineeship for unlicensed graduate scheduled to sit for the national  examination. 
    A. Upon approval of the president  of the board or his designee, an unlicensed graduate trainee in Virginia  may be employed as a trainee under the direct supervision of a licensed  physical therapist until the results of the national examination are received. 
    B. The traineeship, which  shall be in accordance with requirements in 18VAC112-20-140, shall  terminate two working days following receipt by the candidate of the licensure  examination results. 
    C. The unlicensed graduate may  reapply for a new traineeship while awaiting to take the next examination. A  new traineeship shall not be approved for more than one year following the  receipt of the first examination results. 
    18VAC112-20-90.  General responsibilities. 
    A. The physical therapist shall  be responsible for managing all aspects of the physical therapy care of each  patient and shall provide: 
    1. The initial evaluation for each  patient and its documentation in the patient record; and 
    2. Periodic evaluations [ prior  to patient discharge ], including documentation of the patient's  response to therapeutic intervention. 
    3. The documented [ discharge  status ]  of the patient [ at the time of  discharge ] , including the response to therapeutic intervention  [ at the time of discharge ].
    B. The physical therapist shall  communicate the overall plan of care to the patient or his legally authorized  representative and shall also communicate with a referring doctor of medicine,  osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dental surgery, nurse practitioner or  physician assistant to the extent required by § 54.1-3482 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    C. A physical therapist assistant  may assist the physical therapist in performing selected components of physical  therapy intervention to include treatment, measurement and data collection, but  not to include the performance of an evaluation as defined in 18VAC112-20-10. 
    D. A physical therapist  assistant's visits to a patient may be made under general supervision. 
    E. A physical therapist providing  services with a direct access certification as specified in § 54.1-3482 of the  Code of Virginia shall utilize the Direct Access Patient Attestation and  Medical Release Form prescribed by the board or otherwise include in the  patient record the information, attestation and written consent required by  subsection B of § 54.1-3482 of the Code of Virginia.
    18VAC112-20-120.  Responsibilities to patients. 
    A. The initial patient visit  shall be made by the physical therapist for evaluation of the patient and  establishment of a plan of care. 
    B. The physical therapist  assistant's first visit with the patient shall only be made after verbal or  written communication with the physical therapist regarding patient status and  plan of care. Documentation of such communication shall be made in the  patient's record. 
    C. Documentation of physical  therapy interventions shall be recorded on a patient's record by the physical  therapist or physical therapist assistant providing the care. 
    D. The physical therapist shall  reevaluate the patient as needed, but not less than according to the following  schedules: 
    1. For inpatients in hospitals as defined  in § 32.1-123 of the Code of Virginia, it shall be not less than once every  seven consecutive days. 
    2. For patients in other settings, it  shall be not less than one of 12 visits made to the patient during a 30-day  period, or once every 30 days from the last evaluation, whichever occurs  first. 
    Failure to abide by this  subsection due to the absence of the physical therapist in case of illness,  vacation, or professional meeting, for a period not to exceed five consecutive  days, will not constitute a violation of these provisions. 
    E. The physical therapist shall  be responsible for ongoing involvement in the care of the patient to include  regular communication with a physical therapist assistant regarding the  patient's plan of treatment. 
    18VAC112-20-131.  Continued competency requirements for renewal of an active license. 
    A. In order to renew an active  license biennially after December 31, 2003, a physical therapist or a  physical therapist assistant shall complete at least 30 contact hours of  continuing learning activities within the two years immediately preceding  renewal. In choosing continuing learning activities or courses, the licensee  shall consider the following: (i) the need to promote ethical practice, (ii) an  appropriate standard of care, (iii) patient safety, (iv) application of new  medical technology, (v) appropriate communication with patients, and (vi)  knowledge of the changing health care system. 
    B. To document the required  hours, the licensee shall maintain the Continued Competency Activity and  Assessment Form that is provided by the board and that shall indicate  completion of the following: 
    1. A minimum of 15 of the contact hours  required for physical therapists and 10 of the contact hours required for  physical therapist assistants shall be in Type 1 face-to-face courses. For the  purpose of this section, "course" means an organized program of  study, classroom experience or similar educational experience that is directly  related to the clinical practice of physical therapy and approved or provided  by one of the following organizations or any of its components: 
    a. The Virginia Physical Therapy  Association; 
    b. The American Physical Therapy  Association; 
    c. Local, state or federal government  agencies; 
    d. Regionally accredited colleges and  universities; 
    e. Health care organizations accredited  by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO); 
    f. The American Medical Association -  Category I Continuing Medical Education course; and 
    g. The National Athletic Trainers Association.  
    2. No more than 15 of the contact hours  required for physical therapists and 20 of the contact hours required for  physical therapist assistants may be Type 2 activities or courses, which may or  may not be offered by an approved organization but which shall be related to  the clinical practice of physical therapy. Type 2 activities may include but  not be limited to consultation with colleagues, independent study, and research  or writing on subjects related to practice. 
    3. Documentation of specialty  certification by the American Physical Therapy Association may be provided as  evidence of completion of continuing competency requirements for the biennium  in which initial certification or recertification occurs. 
    4. Documentation of graduation from a  transitional doctor of physical therapy program may be provided as evidence of  completion of continuing competency requirements for the biennium in which the  physical therapist was awarded the degree.
    C. A licensee shall be exempt  from the continuing competency requirements for the first biennial renewal  following the date of initial licensure by examination in Virginia. 
    D. The licensee shall retain his  records on the completed form with all supporting documentation for a period of  four years following the renewal of an active license. 
    E. The licensees selected in a  random audit conducted by the board shall provide the completed Continued  Competency Activity and Assessment Form and all supporting documentation within  30 days of receiving notification of the audit. 
    F. Failure to comply with these  requirements may subject the licensee to disciplinary action by the board. 
    G. The board may grant an  extension of the deadline for continuing competency requirements for up to one  year for good cause shown upon a written request from the licensee prior to the  renewal date. 
    H. The board may grant an  exemption for all or part of the requirements for circumstances beyond the  control of the licensee, such as temporary disability, mandatory military  service, or officially declared disasters. 
    I. Physical therapists holding  certification to provide direct access without a referral shall include four  contact hours as part of the required 30 contact hours of continuing education  in courses related to clinical practice in a direct access setting.
    18VAC112-20-135.  Inactive license. 
    A. A physical therapist or  physical therapist assistant who holds a current, unrestricted license in  Virginia shall, upon a request on the renewal application and submission of the  required renewal fee of $70 for a physical therapist and $35 for a physical  therapist assistant, be issued an inactive license. From January 1, 2006,  through December 31, 2006, the inactive renewal fee shall be $30 for a physical  therapist and $15 for a physical therapist assistant. 
    1. The holder of an inactive license  shall not be required to meet active practice requirements. 
    2. An inactive licensee shall not be  entitled to perform any act requiring a license to practice physical therapy in  Virginia. 
    B. A physical therapist or  physical therapist assistant who holds an inactive license may reactivate his  license by: 
    1. Paying the difference between the  renewal fee for an inactive license and that of an active license for the  biennium in which the license is being reactivated; and 
    2. Providing proof of: 
    a. Active practice hours in another  jurisdiction equal to those required for renewal of an active license in  Virginia for the period in which the license has been inactive. If the inactive  licensee does not meet the requirement for active practice, the license may be  reactivated by meeting the completing 480 hours in a traineeship that  meets the requirements prescribed in 18VAC112-20-140; and 
    b. Completion of the number of  continuing competency hours required for the period in which the license has  been inactive, not to exceed four years. 
    18VAC112-20-136.  Reinstatement requirements. 
    A. A physical  therapist or physical therapist assistant whose Virginia license is lapsed for  two years or less may reinstate his license by payment of the renewal and late  fees as set forth in 18VAC112-20-150 and completion of continued competency  requirements as set forth in 18VAC112-20-131.
    B. A physical  therapist or physical therapist assistant whose Virginia license is lapsed for  more than two years and who is seeking reinstatement shall: 
    1. Practice physical therapy in another  jurisdiction for at least 320 hours within the four years immediately preceding  applying for reinstatement or successfully complete 480 hours as an inactive  practice trainee as specified in 18VAC112-20-140; and 
    2. Complete the number of continuing  competency hours required for the period in which the license has been lapsed,  not to exceed four years. 
    18VAC112-20-140.  Traineeship required requirements. 
    The 480 hours of  traineeship [ : (i) ] shall be in a facility that [ (i) ]  serves as a clinical education facility for students enrolled in an accredited  program educating physical therapists in Virginia, (ii) is approved by the  board, and (iii) is under the direction and supervision of a licensed physical  therapist. 
    1. The physical therapist supervising  the inactive practice trainee shall submit a report to the board at the end of  the 480 required number of hours on forms supplied by the board. 
    2. If the traineeship is not  successfully completed at the end of the 480 required hours, as  determined by the supervising physical therapist, the president of the board or  his designee shall determine if a new traineeship shall commence. If the  president of the board determines that a new traineeship shall not commence,  then the application for licensure shall be denied. 
    3. The second traineeship may be served  under a different supervising physical therapist and may be served in a  different organization than the initial traineeship. If the second traineeship  is not successfully completed, as determined by the supervising physical  therapist, then the application for licensure shall be denied. 
    18VAC112-20-150.  Fees. 
    A. Unless otherwise provided,  fees listed in this section shall not be refundable. 
    B. Licensure by examination. 
    1. The application fee shall be $140 for  a physical therapist and $100 for a physical therapist assistant. 
    2. The fees for taking all required  examinations shall be paid directly to the examination services. 
    C. Licensure by endorsement. The  fee for licensure by endorsement shall be $140 for a physical therapist and  $100 for a physical therapist assistant. 
    D. Licensure renewal and  reinstatement. 
    1. The fee for active license renewal  for a physical therapist shall be $135 and for a physical therapist assistant  shall be $70 and shall be due by December 31 in each even-numbered year. From  January 1, 2006, through December 31, 2006, the fee for active license renewal  fee shall be $60 for a physical therapist and $30 for a physical therapist  assistant. 
    2. A fee of $25 for a physical therapist  assistant and $50 for a physical therapist for processing a late renewal within  one renewal cycle shall be paid in addition to the renewal fee. 
    3. The fee for reinstatement of a  license that has expired for two or more years shall be $180 for a physical  therapist and $120 for a physical therapist assistant and shall be submitted  with an application for licensure reinstatement. 
    E. Other fees. 
    1. The fee for an application for  reinstatement of a license that has been revoked shall be $1,000; the fee  for an application for reinstatement of a license that has been suspended shall  be $500. 
    2. The fee for a duplicate license shall  be $5, and the fee for a duplicate wall certificate shall be $15. 
    3. The fee for a returned check shall be  $35. 
    4. The fee for a letter of good  standing/verification to another jurisdiction shall be $10. 
    F. Direct access certification  fees.
    1. The application fee shall be $75 for  a physical therapist to obtain certification to provide services without a  referral.
    2. The fee for renewal on a direct  access certification shall be $35 and shall be due by December 31 in each  even-numbered year.
    3. A fee of $15 for processing a late  renewal of certification within one renewal cycle shall be paid in addition to  the renewal fee.
    Part  IV 
  Standards of Practice 
    18VAC112-20-160.  Requirements for patient records.
    A. Practitioners  shall comply with provisions of § 32.1-127.1:03 of the Code of Virginia related  to the confidentiality and disclosure of patient records. 
    B. Practitioners  shall provide patient records to another practitioner or to the patient or his  personal representative in a timely manner in accordance with provisions of § 32.1-127.1:03 of the Code of Virginia.
    C. Practitioners  shall properly manage and keep timely, accurate, legible and complete patient  records.
    D. Practitioners  who are employed by a health care institution, school system or other entity,  in which the individual practitioner does not own or maintain his own records,  shall maintain patient records in accordance with the policies and procedures  of the employing entity. 
    E. Practitioners  who are self-employed or employed by an entity in which the individual  practitioner does own and is responsible for patient records shall:
    1. Maintain a patient record for a  minimum of six years following the last patient encounter with the following  exceptions:
    a. Records of a minor child shall be  maintained until the child reaches the age of 18 or becomes emancipated, with a  minimum time for record retention of six years from the last patient encounter  regardless of the age of the child;
    b. Records that have previously been  transferred to another practitioner or health care provider or provided to the  patient or his personal representative; or
    c. Records that are required by  contractual obligation or federal law may need to be maintained for a longer  period of time.
    2. From (six months from the effective  date of the regulation), post information or in some manner inform all patients  concerning the time frame for record retention and destruction. Patient records  shall only be destroyed in a manner that protects patient confidentiality, such  as by incineration or shredding.
    F. When a  practitioner is closing, selling or relocating his practice, he shall meet the  requirements of § 54.1-2405 of the Code of Virginia for giving notice that  copies of records can be sent to any like-regulated provider of the patient's  choice or provided to the patient.
    18VAC112-20-170.  Confidentiality and practitioner-patient communication.
    A. A  practitioner shall not willfully or negligently breach the confidentiality  between a practitioner and a patient. A breach of confidentiality that is  required or permitted by applicable law or beyond the control of the  practitioner shall not be considered negligent or willful.
    B. Communication  with patients.
    1. Except as provided in § 32.1-127.1:03  F of the Code of Virginia, a practitioner shall accurately present information  to a patient or his legally authorized representative in understandable terms  and encourage participation in decisions regarding the patient's care. 
    2. A practitioner shall not deliberately  make a false or misleading statement regarding the practitioner's skill or the  efficacy or value of a treatment or procedure provided or directed by the  practitioner in the treatment of any disease or condition.
    3. Before any invasive procedure is  performed, informed consent shall be obtained from the patient and documented  in accordance with the policies of the health care entity. Practitioners shall  inform patients of the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the recommended  invasive procedure that a reasonably prudent practitioner in similar practice  in Virginia would tell a patient. In the instance of a minor or a patient who  is incapable of making an informed decision on his own behalf or is incapable  of communicating such a decision due to a physical or mental disorder, the  legally authorized person available to give consent shall be informed and the  consent documented. 
    4. Practitioners shall adhere to  requirements of § 32.1-162.18 of the Code of Virginia for obtaining informed  consent from patients prior to involving them as subjects in human research  with the exception of retrospective chart reviews. 
    C. Termination  of the practitioner/patient relationship.
    1. The practitioner or the patient may  terminate the relationship. In either case, the practitioner shall make the  patient record available, except in situations where denial of access is  allowed by law.
    2. A practitioner shall not terminate  the relationship or make his services unavailable without documented notice to  the patient that allows for a reasonable time to obtain the services of another  practitioner. 
    18VAC112-20-180.  Practitioner responsibility.
    A. A  practitioner shall not:
    1. Perform procedures or techniques that  are outside the scope of his practice or for which he is not trained and  individually competent;
    2. Knowingly allow persons under his  supervision to jeopardize patient safety or provide patient care outside of  such person's scope of practice or area of responsibility. Practitioners shall  delegate patient care only to persons who are properly trained and supervised; 
    3. Engage in an egregious pattern of  disruptive behavior or interaction in a health care setting that interferes  with patient care or could reasonably be expected to adversely impact the  quality of care rendered to a patient; or
    4. Exploit the practitioner/patient  relationship for personal gain. 
    B. A  practitioner shall not knowingly and willfully solicit or receive any  remuneration, directly or indirectly, in return for referring an individual to  a facility or institution as defined in § 37.2-100 of the Code of Virginia, or  hospital as defined in § 32.1-123 of the Code of Virginia. 
    Remuneration  shall be defined as compensation, received in cash or in kind, but shall not  include any payments, business arrangements, or payment practices allowed by [ Title  ] 42 [ , USC ] § 1320a-7b(b) [ of the United  States Code, as amended, ] or any regulations promulgated thereto.
    C. A  practitioner shall not willfully refuse to provide information or records as  requested or required by the board or its representative pursuant to an  investigation or to the enforcement of a statute or regulation.
    D. A  practitioner shall report any disciplinary action taken by a physical therapy  regulatory board in another jurisdiction within 30 days of final action. 
    18VAC112-20-190.  Sexual contact.
    A. For purposes  of § 54.1-3483 (10) of the Code of Virginia and this section, sexual contact  includes, but is not limited to, sexual behavior or verbal or physical behavior  that: 
    1. May reasonably be interpreted as  intended for the sexual arousal or gratification of the practitioner, the  patient, or both; or 
    2. May reasonably be interpreted as  romantic involvement with a patient regardless of whether such involvement  occurs in the professional setting or outside of it. 
    B. Sexual  contact with a patient.
    1. The determination of when a person is  a patient for purposes of § 54.1-3483 (10) of the Code of Virginia is made on a  case-by-case basis with consideration given to the nature, extent, and context  of the professional relationship between the practitioner and the person. The  fact that a person is not actively receiving treatment or professional services  from a practitioner is not determinative of this issue. A person is presumed to  remain a patient until the patient-practitioner relationship is terminated. 
    2. The consent to, initiation of, or  participation in sexual behavior or involvement with a practitioner by a  patient does not change the nature of the conduct nor negate the statutory  prohibition. 
    C. Sexual  contact between a practitioner and a former patient. Sexual contact between a  practitioner and a former patient after termination of the practitioner-patient  relationship may still constitute unprofessional conduct if the sexual contact  is a result of the exploitation of trust, knowledge, or influence of emotions  derived from the professional relationship. 
    D. Sexual  contact between a practitioner and a key third party shall constitute  unprofessional conduct if the sexual contact is a result of the exploitation of  trust, knowledge or influence derived from the professional relationship or if  the contact has had or is likely to have an adverse effect on patient care. For  purposes of this section, key third party of a patient shall mean spouse or  partner, parent or child, guardian, or legal representative of the patient.
    E. Sexual contact  between a supervisor and a trainee shall constitute unprofessional conduct if  the sexual contact is a result of the exploitation of trust, knowledge or  influence derived from the professional relationship or if the contact has had  or is likely to have an adverse effect on patient care.
    18VAC112-20-200.  Advertising ethics.
    A. Any statement  specifying a fee, whether standard, discounted or free, for professional  services that does not include the cost of all related procedures, services and  products which, to a substantial likelihood, will be necessary for the  completion of the advertised service as it would be understood by an ordinarily  prudent person shall be deemed to be deceptive or misleading, or both. Where  reasonable disclosure of all relevant variables and considerations is made, a  statement of a range of prices for specifically described services shall not be  deemed to be deceptive or misleading. 
    B. Advertising a  discounted or free service, examination, or treatment and charging for any  additional service, examination, or treatment that is performed as a result of  and within 72 hours of the initial office visit in response to such  advertisement is unprofessional conduct unless such professional services  rendered are as a result of a bona fide emergency. This provision may not be  waived by agreement of the patient and the practitioner. 
    C.  Advertisements of discounts shall disclose the full fee that has been  discounted. The practitioner shall maintain documented evidence to substantiate  the discounted fees and shall make such information available to a consumer  upon request. 
    D. A licensee  shall not use the term "board certified" or any similar words or  phrase calculated to convey the same meaning in any advertising for his  practice unless he holds certification in a clinical specialty issued by the  American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties.
    E. A licensee of  the board shall not advertise information that is false, misleading, or  deceptive. For an advertisement for a single practitioner, it shall be presumed  that the practitioner is responsible and accountable for the validity and  truthfulness of its content. For an advertisement for a practice in which there  is more than one practitioner, the name of the practitioner or practitioners  responsible and accountable for the content of the advertisement shall be  documented and maintained by the practice for at least two years.
    F.  Documentation, scientific and otherwise, supporting claims made in an  advertisement shall be maintained and available for the board's review for at  least two years.
270
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC115-30. Regulations  Governing the Certification of Substance Abuse Counselors and Substance Abuse  Counseling (amending 18VAC115-30-10, 18VAC115-30-30,  18VAC115-30-40, 18VAC115-30-45, 18VAC115-30-50, 18VAC115-30-60, 18VAC115-30-61,  18VAC115-30-62, 18VAC115-30-90, 18VAC115-30-120, 18VAC115-30-150).
    Statutory Authority:  §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3505 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public  hearings are scheduled. 
    Public Comments: Public comments  may be submitted until 5 p.m. on September 30, 2009.
    Effective Date: October 15,  2009. 
    Agency Contact: Evelyn B.  Brown, Executive Director, Board of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300,  Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-4488, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email  evelyn.brown@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Regulations are promulgated  under the general authority of Chapter 24 (§ 54.1-2400 et seq.) of Title  54.1 of the Code of Virginia. Section 54.1-2400 provides the Board of  Counseling the authority to promulgate regulations to administer the regulatory  system.
    Specific regulatory authority for the powers and  duties of the Board of Counseling is found in § 54.1-3505.
    Purpose: The purpose of  the proposed action is to clarify requirements so applicants and certificate  holders are better able to comply with regulations. Other changes are intended  to improve the competency of those certified by the board to counsel  individuals with substance abuse problems. For example, more specificity about  evidence of continued ability is necessary for an applicant for reinstatement  to be assured that the counselor or assistant is minimally competent and safe  to return to practice. These and other changes are intended to assist the board  in certifying practitioners who can safely and effectively counsel persons with  substance abuse issues.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: The proposed  action is the result of a periodic review of regulations for which there was no  comment received and no substantive changes recommended. Since the amendments  are primarily intended to add specificity to regulations that have been  confusing, the board does not expect there to be any controversy with the  proposed action.
    Substance: The following  changes are proposed:
    An "individualized program" has been  deleted to allow a Person to complete the 400 hours in seminars and workshops  offered by the same providers that are approved for continuing education in  regulations for licensed substance abuse treatment practitioners. The  amendments will clarify the regulations and the means by which a person can  obtain the required number of hours. They will also ensure some professional  oversight of seminars and workshops used to complete educational requirements.
    The requirement for 100 hours of supervision to be  face-to-face has been replaced by "individual" supervision to allow  more flexibility in obtaining supervision. Amendments also specify a minimum  and maximum number of hours per week, so there is some consistency in  supervision throughout the supervised experience.
    The requirement to provide evidence of current  competency to practice in order to reinstate certification has been amended to  specify that the evidence must consist of 20 hours of substance abuse education  obtained through seminars and workshops or by coursework at an educational  institution.
    Issues: The primary  advantage to the public is the continued assurance that those who are board  certified are minimally competent to provide services. There are no  disadvantages.
    The primary advantage to the agency is clarification  and specificity for several rules that have been confusing or ill-defined.
    There are no other pertinent matters of interest.
    The Department of Planning and Budget's  Economic Impact Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation.  The Board of Counseling (Board) proposes to amend the Regulations Governing the  Certification of Substance Abuse Counselors by: 1) removing obsolete terms, 2)  adding clarifying language, 3) listing the board-approved organizations for  seminars and workshops, 4) repealing the requirement that supervisors submit  official transcripts of a high school diploma or general education development  certificate, 5) replacing the "face to face" supervision requirement  with a requirement for "individual" supervision, 6) amending the  experience requirement from "an average of two hours" to "a  minimum of one hour and a maximum of four hours per week," and 7)  specifying that reinstatement requires that the applicant submit evidence that  a minimum of 20 hours of substance abuse education has been obtained.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the  costs for one or more proposed changes. There is insufficient data to  accurately compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs for other changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Both the proposed and  current regulations require that applicants for certification as a substance  abuse counselor or substance abuse counseling assistant complete respectively  400 clock hours or 300 clock hours of substance abuse education. Under the  current regulations applicants may obtain the education from an accredited  university or college or via seminars and workshops to be approved by the Board  at the time of application. The Board proposes to list the approved organizations  from which seminars and workshops must either be taken from or approved by to  qualify for board-approved education. According to the Department of Health  Professions (Department), this is the same list that is currently used in  practice by the Board. Thus, this proposed amendment will be beneficial for  applicants in that they will not mistakenly waste their time in seminars and  workshops that will not be approved by the Board.
    The current regulations require that supervisors  submit official transcripts of a high school diploma or general education  development certificate. Since supervisors must also hold a license or  certification issued by the Board, there is little benefit garnered from  requiring that a high school diploma or general education development  certificate be sent. The Board proposes to no longer require that transcripts  be sent. Since obtaining and sending official transcripts involves time costs  and postage, this proposal will create a net benefit by reducing cost without  affecting the competence of approved supervisors in practice.
    Both the proposed and current regulations require  100 hours of supervised experience and that no more than half of those hours  may be under group supervision. The current regulations require that there be an  average of two hours of face-to-face supervision per week. The Board proposes  two changes: 1) "an average of two hours" is converted to "a  minimum of one hour and a maximum of four hours," and 2)  "face-to-face" is amended to "individual." According to the  Department, the first change is proposed "so there is some consistency in  supervision throughout the supervised experience." There may be a small  cost associated with this change in that it reduces flexibility of schedules,  but the Board believes the benefit of consistent supervision over time exceeds  that cost. The second change is proposed to allow for the use of modern  technology to enable one-to-one supervision with its accompanying benefits  without the associated costs of always being physically present in the same  room.
    The current regulations state that "A person  who fails to renew a certificate after one year or more shall apply for  reinstatement, pay the reinstatement fee for a lapsed license and submit  evidence regarding the continued ability to perform the functions within the  scope of practice of the license." The Board proposes to specify that the  evidence be a minimum of 20 hours of substance abuse education that is  consistent with the course content required for initial certification. According  to the Department, this is consistent with what the Board currently requires in  practice. Placing this language in regulation will be beneficial in that it  will reduce confusion and reduce the likelihood of inconsistency of treatment  of different individuals with similar circumstances.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed  amendments affect applicants for substance abuse counselor certification and  substance abuse counseling assistant certification, and potentially the current  1597 certified substance abuse counselors and 61 certified substance abuse  counseling assistants.1
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed  amendments do not disproportionately affect particular localities.
    Projected Impact on Employment.The proposed  amendments will not significantly affect the quantity of jobs.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property.  Private health systems which employ certified substance abuse counselors and  certified substance abuse counseling assistants may gain some flexibility in  how they assign staff due to the proposal to amend "face-to-face"  supervision to "individual" supervision. On the other hand, the  proposal to change the requirement for an average of two hours of face-to-face  supervision per week to a minimum of one hour and a maximum of four hours may  reduce some flexibility in how they assign staff. Neither change should  significantly affect the value of the private health systems.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The  proposed amendments are unlikely to significantly affect small businesses. Most  or all certified substance abuse counselors and certified substance abuse  counseling assistants work for public agencies or large health systems.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes  Adverse Impact. The proposed amendments are unlikely to significantly affect  small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed  amendments are unlikely to significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget  (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in  accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and  Executive Order Number 36 (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic  impact analyses include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of  businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity  of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly  affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected,  the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply  with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB’s best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    ___________________________
    1 Data source: Department of Heath  Professions
    Agency's Response to the Department of  Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis: The Board of  Counseling concurs with the economic impact analysis of the Department of  Planning and Budget for 18VAC115-30, Regulations Governing the Certification of  Substance Abuse Counselors and Substance Abuse Counseling.
    Summary:
    The board has amended regulations for  substance abuse counselors and assistants to update and clarify regulations  that are not clearly understood or specific, to allow more flexibility in  acquiring supervised experience required for certification, and to specify the  board-approved list of organizations that may offer educational opportunities.
    Part  I 
  General Provisions 
    18VAC115-30-10.  Definitions.
    A. The following words and terms  when used in this chapter shall have the meaning ascribed to them in § 54.1-3500 of the Code of Virginia: 
    "Board" 
    "Certified substance abuse  counselor" 
    "Certified substance abuse  counseling assistant" 
    "Practice of substance abuse  treatment" 
    "Substance abuse" and  "substance dependence" 
    "Substance abuse  treatment" 
    B. The following words and terms  when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context  clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Applicant" means an  individual who has submitted a completed application with documentation and the  appropriate fees to be examined for certification as a substance abuse  counselor or substance abuse counseling assistant. 
    "Appropriately  credentialed authority" means an entity licensed by an agency of the  Commonwealth to render the services of substance abuse counselors or substance  abuse counseling assistants. 
    "Candidate" means a  person who has been approved to take the examinations for certification as a  substance abuse counselor or substance abuse counseling assistant. 
    "Clinical supervision"  means the ongoing process performed by a clinical supervisor who monitors the  performance of the person supervised and provides regular, documented  face-to-face consultation, guidance and education with respect to the clinical  skills and competencies of the person supervised. 
    "Clinical supervisor"  means one who provides case-related supervision, consultation, education and  guidance for the applicant. The supervisor must be credentialed as defined in  18VAC115-30-60 C. 
    "Competency area" means  an area in which a person possesses knowledge and skill and the ability to  apply them in the clinical setting. 
    "Didactic" means  teaching-learning methods which that impart facts and  information, usually in the form of one-way communication (includes directed  readings and lectures). 
    "Endorsement" means the  waiver of the examination requirement for certification as a substance abuse  counselor for persons currently certified or licensed in another jurisdiction. 
    "Group supervision"  means the process of clinical supervision of no more than six persons in a  group setting provided by a qualified supervisor. 
    "NAADAC"  means the National Association of Alcoholism and Drug Abuse Counselors.
    "Substance abuse  counseling" means applying a counseling process, treatment strategies and  rehabilitative services to help an individual to: 
    1. Understand his substance use, abuse  or dependency; and 
    2. Change his drug-taking behavior so  that it does not interfere with effective physical, psychological, social or  vocational functioning. 
    18VAC115-30-30.  Fees required by the board. 
    A. The board has established the following  fees applicable to the certification of substance abuse counselors and  substance abuse counseling assistants: 
           | Substance abuse counselor annual certification    renewal | $55 | 
       | Substance abuse counseling assistant    annual certification renewal | $40 | 
       | Substance abuse counselor initial    certification by examination: Application processing and initial    certification | $90 | 
       | Substance abuse counseling assistant    initial certification by examination: Application processing and initial    certification | $90 | 
       | Initial certification by endorsement    of substance abuse counselors: Application processing and initial    certification | $90 | 
       | Registration of supervision | $50 | 
       | Add or change supervisor | $25 | 
       | Duplicate certificate | $5 | 
       | Late renewal | $20 | 
       | Reinstatement of a lapsed certificate | $100 | 
       | Replacement of or additional wall    certificate | $15 | 
       | Returned check | $35 | 
       | Reinstatement following revocation or    suspension | $500 | 
       | One-time fee reduction for renewal of    certification as a substance abuse counselor due on June 30, 2007
 | $27
 | 
       | One-time fee reduction for renewal of    certification as a substance abuse counseling assistant due on June 30, 2007
 | $20
 | 
  
    B. All fees are nonrefundable. 
    Part  II 
  Requirements for Certification 
    18VAC115-30-40.  Prerequisites for certification by examination for substance abuse counselors. 
    A. A candidate for certification  as a substance abuse counselor shall meet all the requirements of this section,  including passing and shall pass the examination prescribed in  18VAC115-30-90. 
    B. Every prospective  applicant for examination for certification by the board shall: 
    1. Meet the educational and experience  requirements prescribed in 18VAC115-30-50 and 18VAC115-30-60; 
    2. Submit the following to the board or  its contracting agent within the time frame established by the board or that  agent: 
    a. A completed application form; 
    b. Official transcript documenting  attainment of a bachelor's degree; 
    c. Official transcripts or certificates  verifying completion of the didactic training requirement set forth in  subsection B of 18VAC115-30-50; 
    d. Verification of supervisor's  education and experience as required under 18VAC115-30-60; 
    e. Verification of supervision forms  documenting fulfillment of the experience requirements of 18VAC115-30-60; 
    f. Documentation of any other  professional license or certificate ever held in another jurisdiction; and 
    g. The application processing and  initial certification fee. 
    18VAC115-30-45.  Prerequisites for certification by endorsement for substance abuse counselors. 
    Every applicant for certification  by endorsement shall submit in one package: 
    1. A completed application; 
    2. The application processing fee; 
    3. Verification of all professional  licenses or certificates ever held in any other jurisdiction. In order to  qualify for endorsement, the applicant shall have no unresolved action against  a license or certificate. The board will consider history of disciplinary  action on a case-by-case basis. The board will also determine whether any or  all other professional licenses or certificates held in another jurisdiction  are substantially equivalent to those sought in Virginia; 
    4. Affidavit of having read and  understood the regulations and laws governing the practice of substance abuse  counseling in Virginia; and 
    5. Further documentation of one of the  following: 
    a. Licensure or certification as a  substance abuse counselor in another jurisdiction in good standing obtained by  standards substantially equivalent to the education and experience requirements  set forth in this chapter as verified by a certified copy of the original  application submitted directly from the out-of-state licensing agency, or a  copy of the regulations in effect at the time of initial licensure or  certification and verification of a passing score on a licensure examination in  the jurisdiction in which licensure or certification was obtained, and which  that is deemed substantially equivalent by the board; or 
    b. Verification of a current certification  in good standing issued by NAADAC or other board-recognized national  certification in substance abuse counseling in good standing obtained by  educational and experience standards substantially equivalent to those  set forth in this chapter. 
    18VAC115-30-50.  Educational requirements for substance abuse counselors. 
    A. An applicant for examination  for certification as a substance abuse counselor shall: 
    1. Have a bachelor's degree. ;  and
    2. Have completed 400 clock hours of  substance abuse education from one of the following programs: 
    a. An accredited university or college; or
    b. An integrated program acceptable to  the board; or 
    c. An individualized program of seminars b. Seminars  and workshops to be approved by the board at the time of application that  meet the requirements of subsection B of this section and are offered or  approved by one of the following:
    (1) The American Association of Marriage  and Family Counselors and its state affiliates.
    (2) The American Association of Marriage  and Family Therapists and its state affiliates.
    (3) The American Association of State  Counseling Boards.
    (4) The American Counseling Association  and its state and local affiliates.
    (5) The American Psychological  Association and its state affiliates.
    (6) The Commission on Rehabilitation  Counselor Certification.
    (7) NAADAC, The Association for  Addiction Professionals and its state and local affiliates.
    (8) National Association of Social  Workers. 
    (9) National Board for Certified  Counselors.
    (10) A national behavioral health organization  or certification body.
    (11) Individuals or organizations that  have been approved as continuing competency sponsors by the American  Association of State Counseling Boards or a counseling board in another state.
    B. Substance abuse education. 
    1. The education will include 220 hours  spent in receiving didactic training in substance abuse counseling. Each  applicant shall have received a minimum of 10 clock hours in each of the  following eight areas: 
    a. Understanding the dynamics of human  behavior; 
    b. Signs and symptoms of substance  abuse; 
    c. Treatment approaches, group  dynamics and other adjunctive treatment and recovery support; 
    d. Continuum of care and case management  skills; 
    e. Recovery process and relapse  prevention methods; 
    f. Ethics; 
    g. Professional identity in the  provision of substance abuse services; and 
    h. Crisis intervention. 
    In addition, each applicant shall have  at least 20 hours in each of the following two areas: 
    (i) Substance abuse counseling treatment  planning and substance abuse research; and 
    (ii) Group counseling. 
    2. The education shall also consist of  180 hours of experience performing the following tasks with substance abuse  clients: 
    a. Screening clients to determine  eligibility and appropriateness for admission to a particular program; 
    b. Intake of clients by performing the  administrative and initial assessment tasks necessary for admission to a  program; 
    c. Orientation of new clients to  program's rules, goals, procedures, services, costs and the rights of the  client; 
    d. Assessment of client's strengths,  weaknesses, problems, and needs for the development of a treatment plan; 
    e. Treatment planning with the client to  identify and rank problems to be addressed, establish goals, and agree on  treatment processes; 
    f. Counseling the client utilizing  specialized skills in both individual and group approaches to achieve treatment  goals and objectives; 
    g. Case management activities which  that bring services, agencies, people and resources together in a  planned framework of action to achieve established goals; 
    h. Crisis intervention responses to  clients' needs during acute mental, emotional or physical distress; 
    i. Education of clients by providing  information about drug abuse and available services and resources; 
    j. Referral of clients in order to meet  identified needs unable to be met by the counselor and assisting the client in  effectively utilizing those resources; 
    k. Reporting and charting information  about client's assessment, treatment plan, progress, discharge summaries and  other client-related data; and 
    l. Consultation with other professionals  to assure comprehensive quality care for the client. 
    Each of these tasks shall be performed  for at least eight hours under supervision and shall be verified as a part of  the application by the supervisor. 
    C. Groups and classes attended as  a part of a therapy or treatment program will not be accepted as any part of  the educational experience. 
    18VAC115-30-60.  Experience requirements for substance abuse counselors. 
    A. Registration. Supervision  obtained without prior board approval will not be accepted if it does not meet  the requirements set forth in subsections B and C of this section. Individuals  who wish to register supervision for board approval prior to obtaining the  supervised experience shall submit in one package: 
    1. A supervisory contract; 
    2. Verification of the supervisor's  education and experience as required under subsection C of this section; and
    3. Official transcripts documenting  completion of a high school diploma or general education development  certificate; and 
    4. 3. The registration fee. 
    B. Experience requirements. 
    1. An applicant for certification as a  substance abuse counselor shall have had 2,000 hours of supervised experience  in the delivery of clinical substance abuse counseling services. 
    2. The supervised experience shall  include an average of two hours a minimum of one hour and a maximum  of four hours per week of face-to-face consultation supervision  between the supervisor and the applicant to total 100 hours within the required  experience. No more than half of these hours may be satisfied with group  supervision. One hour of group supervision will be deemed equivalent to one  hour of face-to-face individual supervision. 
    3. Applicants must document successful  completion of their supervised experience on the Verification of Supervision  Form at the time of application. Supervised experience obtained prior to  January 19, 2000, may be accepted toward certification if this supervised  experience met the board's requirements that were in effect at the time the  supervision was rendered. 
    C. Supervisory requirements  Supervisor qualifications. 1. A board-approved clinical  supervisor shall be: 
    a. 1. A licensed substance abuse treatment  practitioner; 
    Be a 2. A licensed professional counselor,  licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed  marriage and family therapist, medical doctor, or registered nurse, and possess  either a board-recognized national certification in substance abuse counseling  obtained by standards substantially equivalent to those set forth in this  chapter, or a minimum of one year experience in substance abuse counseling and  at least 100 hours of didactic training covering the areas outlined in  18VAC115-30-50 B 1 a through h; or 
    b. Be a licensed substance abuse treatment practitioner; or  
    c. Be a 3. A substance abuse counselor certified  by the Virginia Board of Counseling who has: 
    (1) a. Board-recognized national certification  in substance abuse counseling obtained by standards substantially equivalent to  those set forth in this chapter; or 
    (2) b. Two years experience as a Virginia  board-certified substance abuse counselor. 
    D. Supervisory  responsibilities. 
    2. 1. Supervisors shall  assume responsibility for the professional activities of the prospective  applicants under their supervision. 
    3. 2. Supervisors shall not  provide supervision for activities for which prospective applicants have not  had appropriate education. 
    4. 3. Supervisors shall  provide supervision only for those substance abuse counseling services which  that they are qualified to render. 
    5. 4. At the time of formal  application for certification, the board-approved supervisor shall document the  applicant's total hours of supervision, length of work experience, competence  in substance abuse counseling and any needs for additional supervision or  training. 
    6. 5. Supervision by any  individual whose relationship to the supervisee compromises the objectivity of  the supervisor is prohibited. 
    7. The applicant shall keep the board's  contracting agent informed of his current supervisor's license or certificate  number, business address, and phone number. The board's contracting agent shall  be informed within 30 days of any changes in the applicant's supervision. 
    18VAC115-30-61.  Prerequisites for certification by examination for substance abuse counseling  assistant. 
    A. A candidate for certification  as a substance abuse counseling assistant shall meet all the requirements of  this section, including passing the examination prescribed in 18VAC115-30-90. 
    B. Every prospective  applicant for examination for certification by the board shall: 
    1. Meet the educational requirements  prescribed in 18VAC115-30-62; and
    2. Submit the following to the board or  its contracting agent within the time frame established by the board or  that agent: 
    a. A completed application form; 
    b. Official transcript documenting  attainment of a high school diploma or general education development (GED)  certificate; and 
    c. The application processing and  initial certification fee. 
    18VAC115-30-62.  Educational requirements for substance abuse counseling assistants. 
    A. An applicant for certification  as a substance abuse counseling assistant shall: 
    1. Have an official high school diploma  or general educational development (GED) certificate; and 
    2. Have completed 300 clock hours of  substance abuse education from one of the following programs: 
    a. An accredited university or college; or
    b. An integrated program approved by the  board at the time of application; or 
    c. An individualized program of seminars b. Seminars  and workshops approved by the board at the time of application. that  meet the educational requirements specified in subsection B of this section and  are offered or approved by one of the following:
    (1) The American Association of Marriage  and Family Counselors and its state affiliates.
    (2) The American Association of Marriage  and Family Therapists and its state affiliates.
    (3) The American Association of State  Counseling Boards.
    (4) The American Counseling Association  and its state and local affiliates.
    (5) The American Psychological  Association and its state affiliates.
    (6) The Commission on Rehabilitation  Counselor Certification.
    (7) NAADAC, The Association for  Addiction Professionals and its state and local affiliates.
    (8) National Association of Social  Workers. 
    (9) National Board for Certified  Counselors.
    (10) A national behavioral health  organization or certification body.
    (11) Individuals or organizations that  have been approved as continuing competency sponsors by the American  Association of State Counseling Boards or a counseling board in another state.
    B. Substance abuse education. 
    1. The education will include 120 hours  spent in receiving didactic training in substance abuse counseling. Each  applicant shall have received a minimum of 10 clock hours in each of the  following eight areas: 
    a. Understanding the dynamics of human  behavior; 
    b. Signs and symptoms of substance  abuse; 
    c. Treatment approaches, group  dynamics and other adjunctive treatment and recovery support; 
    d. Case management skills and continuum  of care; 
    e. Recovery process and relapse  prevention methods; 
    f. Ethics; 
    g. Professional identity in the  provision of substance abuse services; and 
    h. Crisis intervention. 
    2. The education shall include 180 hours  of experience performing the following tasks with substance abuse clients while  under supervision: 
    a. Screening clients and gathering  information used in making the determination for the need for additional  professional assistance; 
    b. Intake of clients by performing the  administrative tasks necessary for admission to a program; 
    c. Orientation of new clients to  program's rules, goals, procedures, services, costs and the rights of the  client; 
    d. Assisting the client in identifying  and ranking problems to be addressed, establish goals, and agree on treatment  processes; 
    e. Implementation of a substance abuse  treatment plan as directed by the supervisor; 
    f. Implementation of case management  activities that bring services, agencies, people and resources together in a  planned framework of action to achieve established goals; 
    g. Assistance in identifying appropriate  crisis intervention responses to clients' needs during acute mental, emotional  or physical distress; 
    h. Education of clients by providing  information about drug abuse and available services and resources; 
    i. Facilitating the client's utilization  of available support systems and community resources to meet needs identified  in clinical valuation or treatment planning; 
    j. Reporting and charting information  about client's treatment, progress, and other client-related data; and 
    k. Consultation with other professionals  to assure comprehensive quality care for the client. 
    Each of these tasks shall be performed  for at least eight hours under supervision and shall be verified as a part of  the application by the supervisor. 
    C. Groups and classes attended as  a part of a therapy or treatment program shall not be accepted as any part of  the educational experience. 
    Part  III 
  Examinations 
    18VAC115-30-90.  General examination requirements for substance abuse counselors and substance  abuse counseling assistants. 
    A. Every applicant for  certification as a substance abuse counselor or substance abuse counseling  assistant by examination shall pass a written examination approved by the  board. The board shall determine the passing score on the examination. 
    B. Every applicant for  certification by endorsement shall have passed an examination deemed by the  board to be substantially equivalent to the Virginia examination. 
    C. The  contracting agent shall notify all applicants in writing of the time and place  of the examination for which they have been approved to sit. 
    D. The  contracting agent will notify all applicants in writing of their success or  failure on any examination. 
    18VAC115-30-120.  Reinstatement.
    A. A person whose certificate has  expired may renew it within one year after its expiration date by paying the  late renewal fee prescribed in 18VAC115-30-30 and the certification fee prescribed  for the year the certificate was not renewed.
    B. A person who fails to renew a  certificate after one year or more shall apply for reinstatement, pay the  reinstatement fee for a lapsed license certificate and submit  evidence regarding of a minimum of 20 hours of substance abuse  education that is consistent with course content specified in subsection B of  18VAC15-30-50 for substance abuse counselors and in 18VAC15-30-62 for substance  abuse counseling assistants to demonstrate the continued ability to perform  the functions within the scope of practice of the license certificate.
    18VAC115-30-150.  Grounds for revocation, suspension, restriction or denial of certificate;  petition for rehearing.
    A. In accordance  with § 54.1-2400(7) of the Code of Virginia, the board may revoke, suspend,  restrict or decline to issue or renew a certificate based upon the following  conduct:
    1. Conviction of a felony or of a  misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, or violation of or aid to another in  violating any provision of Chapter 35 (§ 54.1-3500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of  the Code of Virginia, any other statute applicable to the practice of substance  abuse counseling, or any provision of this chapter; 
    2. Procuring a certificate by fraud or  misrepresentation;
    3. Conducting one's practice in such a  manner so as to make it a danger to the health and welfare of one's clients or  to the public; or if one is unable to practice substance abuse counseling with  reasonable skill and safety to clients by reason of illness, abusive use of  alcohol, drugs, narcotics, chemicals, or any other type of material or as a  result of any mental or physical condition;
    4. Negligence in professional conduct or  nonconformance with the standards of practice outlined in 18VAC115-30-140; or
    5. Performance of functions outside the  board-certified area of competency.
    B. Petition for  rehearing. A petition may be made to the board for a rehearing upon good cause  shown or as a result of substantial new evidence having been obtained which  would alter the determination reached in subsection A of this section.
270
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR PROFESSIONAL SOIL SCIENTISTS AND WETLAND PROFESSIONALS
Final Regulation
    REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE:  The Board for Professional Soil Scientists and Wetland Professionals is  claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act in accordance with  § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that  are necessary to conform to changes in Virginia statutory law where no agency  discretion is involved. The Board for Professional Soil Scientists and Wetland  Professionals will receive, consider, and respond to petitions from any  interested person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 18VAC145-20. Professional Soil  Scientists Regulations (amending 18VAC145-20-111).
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-201 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 1,  2009. 
    Agency Contact: Kathleen R.  Nosbisch, Executive Director, Board for Professional Soil Scientists and  Wetland Professionals, 9960 Mayland Drive, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804)  367-8514, FAX (804) 527-4294, or email soilscientist@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendment removes experience as a  waiver to taking the examination for certification as a Professional Soil  Scientist.
    18VAC145-20-111.  Waiver from examination through reciprocity or experience.
    An applicant qualified to take  the examination may be granted a Virginia certificate without written  examination, provided that: 1. The the applicant holds an  unexpired professional soil scientist certificate or equivalent issued on the  basis of equivalent requirements for certification in Virginia, by a regulatory  body of another state, territory or possession of the United States and is not  the subject of any disciplinary proceeding before such regulatory body which  that could result in the suspension or revocation of his certificate,  and such other regulatory body recognizes the certificates issued by this board,  or.
    2. The applicant can verify a record of  at least 10 years of experience as set forth in 18VAC145-20-90 in soil  evaluation that demonstrates to the board that the applicant is competent to  practice as a professional soil scientist. 
270
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
BOARDS OF EDUCATION; JUVENILE JUSTICE; BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AND DEVELOPMENTAL SERVICES; AND SOCIAL SERVICES
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 22VAC42-11. Standards for  Interdepartmental Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (repealing 22VAC42-11-10 through 22VAC42-11-1100).
    Statutory Authority: §§ 16.1-309.9, 22.1-321, 22.1-323, 22.1-323.2, 37.2-407, 37.2-408, 63.2-217, 63.2-1701, 63.2-1703, 63.2-1737, 63.2-203, 66-10, and 66-24 of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 1,  2009.
    Agency Contact: L. Richard  Martin, Jr., Director, Department of Social Services, Office of Legislative and  Regulatory Affairs, 7 North Eighth Street, Room 5214, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 726-7902, FAX (804) 726-7006, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email  richard.martin@dss.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    Pursuant to Chapter 873 of the 2008 Acts  of Assembly, this action eliminates the interdepartmental regulation of  children's residential facilities and group homes. The Departments of  Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, Social Services, and Juvenile  Justice now regulate and license children's residential facilities and group  homes for which they are the primary licensing agency with newly promulgated  regulations specific to each agency.
270
TITLE 24. TRANSPORTATION AND MOTOR VEHICLES
DEPARTMENT OF MOTOR VEHICLES
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 24VAC20-81. Hauling Permit  Regulation (adding 24VAC20-81-10 through 24VAC20-81-250).
    Statutory  Authority:  § 46.2-203 and Article 18 (§ 46.2-1139 et seq.) of Chapter 10 of Title 46.2 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: September 30,  2009. 
    Agency Contact: Barbara S.  Klotz, Legislative Services Manager, Department of Motor Vehicles, P.O. Box  27412, Richmond, VA 23269-0001, telephone (804) 367-8171, FAX (804) 367-6631,  TTY (800) 272-9268, or email barbara.klotz@dmv.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The Department of Motor Vehicles is  responsible for the issuance of oversize and overweight permits for the  movement of objects and vehicles that exceed the statutory limits set forth in  the Code of Virginia. This is a new regulation that contains the Hauling Permit  Manual. The manual establishes the requirements for the issuance of hauling  permits and the movement of these objects and vehicles over the highways of the  Commonwealth of Virginia.
    During the 60-day comment period for the  proposed regulation, concerns were raised by industry representatives and  law-enforcement officials in two key areas: the invalidation of hauling permits  and the escort vehicle requirements. Industry representatives expressed  concerns regarding the high cost associated with the invalidation of permits  while law-enforcement officials emphasized the need to ensure that  overdimension loads are moved safely over the highways of Virginia.  24VAC20-81-230 is revised to clarify the invalidation of permits by law  enforcement. DMV believes that the revisions to this section will minimize the  burden on specialized carriers and riggers in the Commonwealth yet support  law-enforcement requirements that overdimension loads be moved as safely as possible  through local jurisdictions.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's  Response:  A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    CHAPTER  81 
  HAULING PERMIT REGULATION \
    Part  I
  General Provisions
    24VAC20-81-10.  Definitions.
    The following  words and terms when used in this regulation shall have the following meanings  unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Automobile  and watercraft transporters" means a tractor truck, lowboy, vehicle, or  combination, including vehicles or combinations that transport motor vehicles  or watercraft on their power unit, designed and used exclusively for the  transportation of motor vehicles or watercraft. 
    "Commissioner"  means the Commissioner of the Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles.
    "DMV"  means the Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles. 
    "Escort  Vehicle Driver Certification" means a document issued by a state that  signifies that the holder of the certification has successfully completed the  issuing state's requirements to escort overdimensional vehicle configurations. 
    "Nondivisible  load  [ or vehicle ]" means a vehicle configuration  exceeding applicable size or weight limits which, if separated into smaller  loads, would:
    1. Compromise the intended use of the  vehicle, i.e., make it unable to perform the function for which it was  intended;
    2. Destroy the value of the load or  vehicle, i.e., make it unusable for its intended purpose; or
    3. Require more than eight man work  hours to dismantle using appropriate equipment. The applicant for a nondivisible  load permit has the burden of proof as to the number of man work hours required  to dismantle the load. 
    "Nondivisible  load or vehicle" can also be defined as in 23 CFR 658.5  (http://www.access.gpo.gov/nara/cfr/cfr-table-search.html).
    "Off-centered  load" means a  [ transport vehicle's cargo is loaded so that there is no overhang on  driver's side of the transport vehicle and overhang on the passenger side load  that extends beyond, and is not evenly distributed across the bed of the  transport vehicle. Off-centered loads must be loaded so the overhang is to the  passenger side of the transport vehicle ]. 
    "Semitrailer"  means a vehicle of the trailer type so designed and used in conjunction with a  motor vehicle that some part of its own weight and that of its own load rest on  or is carried by another vehicle. 
    "Solid  waste" means any garbage, refuse, sludge and other discarded material,  including solid, liquid, semisolid or contained gaseous material, resulting  from industrial, commercial, mining and agricultural operations, or community  activities but does not include (i) solid or dissolved material in domestic  sewage, (ii) solid or dissolved material in irrigation return flows or in  industrial discharges that are sources subject to a permit from the State Water  Control Board, or (iii) source, special nuclear, or byproduct material as  defined by the Federal Atomic Energy Act of 1954.
    "Stinger-steered  automobile and watercraft transporter" means an automobile or watercraft  transporter configured as a semitrailer combination wherein the fifth wheel is  located on a drop frame behind and below the rearmost axle of the power unit.
    "Tandem  axle" means  [ more not less ] than 40 inches but not more  than 96 inches between axle centers of two consecutive axles.
    "Tractor  truck" means a motor vehicle designed and used primarily for drawing other  vehicles and not so constructed as to carry a load other than a part of the  load and weight of the vehicle attached thereto. 
    "Trailer"  means a vehicle without motive power designed for carrying property or  passengers wholly on its own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle,  including manufactured housing. 
    "Truck"  means a motor vehicle designed to transport property on its own structure  independent of any other vehicle and having a registered gross weight in excess  of 7,500 pounds. 
    "VDOT"  means the Virginia Department of Transportation.
    "Vehicle  configuration" means the height, weight, width and length of a vehicle to  include vehicle axle spacing. 
    24VAC20-81-20.  General.  
    A. The Code of  Virginia sets forth limitations of weight, width, height and length of objects  and vehicles that may be moved upon state highways and also empowers the  Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles to issue oversize or  overweight permits for vehicles traveling over Virginia's highways with loads  that, when reduced to their smallest dimensions, exceed maximum legal weight or  size limits. 
    B. The intent of  establishing statutory limitations is to protect the traveling public from  hazard and unnecessary inconvenience, and to preserve the capacity and  structural integrity of highways and bridges. Also, it is assumed that the  state legislature did not intend for the Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles  to allow, by permit, the movement of any and all vehicles or loads over the  highways where such movements would exceed statutory limitations (especially  where other forms of transportation are available or when loads can be  reasonably reduced to meet statutory limits). 
    C. Permits  issued by the Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles have jurisdiction only on  those roads maintained by the Virginia Department of Transportation or where an  agreement exists between the Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles and a  jurisdiction that bears the responsibility of maintaining their own roads.  However, the Virginia Department of Motor [ Vehicle's  Vehicles' ] hauling permit is valid for travel over city streets  provided that the streets are listed within the permit. Applicants must secure  approval from local authorities prior to making movements over roads under  local [ jurisdictions jurisdiction ] that  are not listed on the Virginia Department of Motor [ Vehicle's  Vehicles' ] hauling permit. 
    D. The policy of  the Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles is to give primary consideration to  the safety, comfort, convenience of the traveling public and to the economic  interest of the Commonwealth while preserving the integrity of the state's  highway system.
    24VAC20-81-30.  Authority; permits.
    A. The  Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles or his designee shall issue  hauling permits for qualifying vehicles when: an overwidth situation is not  created by loading multiple items side-by-side; an overheight situation is not  created by stacking multiple items on top of one another; an overlength  situation is not created by loading multiple items behind one another; an  overweight situation is not created by carrying multiple items; or when  statutorily exempted by the Code of Virginia.
    B. All  applications for hauling permits shall be made to the Department of Motor  Vehicles or its designee by:
    1. Accessing the hauling permit website  online at www.dmvnow.com;
    2. Calling the hauling permit ordering  line at (804) 786-2787;
    3. Applying through a permit service  chosen by the applicant;
    4. Applying in person at the DMV  Headquarters Office at 2300 W. Broad St., Richmond;
    5. Faxing application to the Hauling  Permit Section at (804) 367-0063; or
    6. Mailing application to: DMV, Hauling  Permit Section, P.O. Box [ 23602 26302 ],  Richmond, VA [ 2326 23260 ].
    C. Permits may  be denied, revoked or declared invalid as stated in 24VAC20-81-230. 
    Part  II 
  Legal Weight and Size Limits for Virginia 
    24VAC20-81-40.  Interstate system and designated highways.
    If the vehicle  configuration has been reduced to the smallest dimensions possible and still  exceeds any of the following statutory limitations listed below, the applicant  may be eligible for a hauling permit. 
           | Single Axle    Weight: | 20,000 pounds    or 650 pounds per inch (width) of tire in contact with the surface of the    highway | 
       | Tandem Axle    Weight: | 34,000 pounds | 
       | Gross Weight: | See    24VAC20-81-60. Legal weight allowed based on axle spacing | 
       | Width: | 8 feet 6    inches (excluding mirrors and safety devices) | 
       | Height: | 13 feet 6    inches | 
       | Length: | Semitrailer -    48 feet | 
       | Semitrailer -    53 feet, provided that the semitrailer has a distance of not more than 41    feet between the kingpin of the semitrailer and the rearmost axle or a point    midway between the rear tandem axles.  | 
       | Tractor truck    semitrailer combinations with 48 or 53 foot semitrailers - no overall length    restrictions. | 
       | Twin trailers    - 28 1/2 feet each | 
       | Single unit    vehicle - 40 feet excluding load | 
  
    Tractor trucks  shall not have more than one semitrailer attached.
    Trucks shall not  have more than one trailer attached.
    Three motor  vehicles shall be drawn only if coupled together by a saddle mount device. 
    24VAC20-81-50.  Primary and secondary systems.
    If the vehicle  configuration has been reduced to the smallest dimensions possible and still  exceeds any of the following statutory limitations listed below, the applicant  may be eligible for a hauling permit. 
           | Single Axle    Weight: | 20,000 pounds    or 650 pounds per inch (width) of tire in contact with the surface of the    highway. | 
       | Tandem Axle    Weight: | 34,000 pounds. | 
       | Gross Weight: | See    24VAC20-81-60. Legal weight allowed based on axle spacing. | 
       | Width: | 8 feet 6 inches    excluding mirrors. Safety devices shall not exceed 3 inches on each side. | 
       | Height: | 13 feet 6    inches. | 
       | Length: | Single unit -    40 feet excluding load. | 
       | Tractor    semitrailer combination - 65 feet including load | 
       | Combination of    a towing vehicle and any manufactured housing - 65 feet including load and    coupling. | 
       | Semitrailer -    53 feet, provided that the semitrailer has a distance of not more than 41    feet between the kingpin of the semitrailer and the rearmost axle or a point    midway between the rear tandem axles. May be prohibited on certain highways    where posted. | 
  
    24VAC20-81-60.  Legal weight allowed based on axle spacing.
    Legal weight in  pounds for any group of two or more consecutive axles. A hauling permit is  required when a vehicle configuration exceeds the weight limitations according  to axle spacing. "L" is defined as the distance in feet between [ the  extremes of ] any group of two or more consecutive axles  [ , when measured longitudinally, from the center of the axle to the  center of the axle, with any fraction of a foot rounded to the next highest  foot as set forth in the following table ]: 
    
           
           | L | 2    axles | 3    axles | 4    axles | 5    axles | 6    axles | 7    or more axles | 
       | 4 | 34,000 |   |   |   |   |   | 
       | 5 | 34,000 |   |   |   |   |   | 
       | 6 | 34,000 |   |   |   |   |   | 
       | 7 | 34,000 |   |   |   |   |   | 
       | 8 | 34,000 | 34,000 |   |   |   |   | 
       | 9 | 39,000 | 42,500 |   |   |   |   | 
       | 10 | 40,000 | 43,500 |   |   |   |   | 
       | 11 |   | 44,000 |   |   |   |   | 
       | 12 |   | 45,000 | 50,000 |   |   |   | 
       | 13 |   | 45,000 | 50,500 |   |   |   | 
       | 14 |   | 46,500 | 51,500 |   |   |   | 
       | 15 |   | 47,000 | 52,000 |   |   |   | 
       | 16 |   | 48,000 | 52,500 | 58,000 |   |   | 
       | 17 |   | 48,500 | 53,500 | 58,500 |   |   | 
       | 18 |   | 49,500 | 54,000 | 59,000 |   |   | 
       | 19 |   | 50,000 | 54,500 | 60,000 |   |   | 
       | 20 |   | 51,000 | 55,500 | 60,500 | 66,000 |   | 
       | 21 |   | 51,500 | 56,000 | 61,000 | 66,500 |   | 
       | 22 |   | 52,500 | 56,500 | 61,500 | 67,000 |   | 
       | 23 |   | 53,000 | 57,500 | 62,500 | 68,000 |   | 
       | 24 |   | 54,000 | 58,000 | 63,000 | 68,500 | 74,000 | 
       | 25 |   | 54,500 | 58,500 | 63,500 | 69,000 | 74,500 | 
       | 26 |   | 55,500 | 59,500 | 64,000 | 69,500 | 75,000 | 
       | 27 |   | 56,000 | 60,000 | 65,000 | 70,000 | 75,500 | 
       | 28 |   | 57,000 | 60,500 | 65,500 | 71,000 | 76,500 | 
       | 29 |   | 57,500 | 61,500 | 66,000 | 71,500 | 77,000 | 
       | 30 |   | 58,500 | 62,000 | 66,500 | 72,000 | 77,500 | 
       | 31 |   | 59,000 | 62,500 | 67,500 | 72,500 | 78,000 | 
       | 32 |   | 60,000 | 63,500 | 68,000 | 73,000 | 78,500 | 
       | 33 |   |   | 64,000 | 68,500 | 74,000 | 79,000 | 
       | 34 |   |   | 64,500 | 69,000 | 74,500 | 80,000 | 
       | 35 |   |   | 65,500 | 70,000 | 75,000 |   | 
       | 36 |   |   | 66,000 | 70,500 | 75,500 |   | 
       | 37 |   |   | 66,500 | 71,000 | 76,000 |   | 
       | 38 |   |   | 67,500 | 72,000 | 77,000 |   | 
       | 39 |   |   | 68,000 | 72,500 | 77,500 |   | 
       | 40 |   |   | 68,500 | 73,000 | 78,000 |   | 
       | 41 |   |   | 69,500 | 73,500 | 78,500 |   | 
       | 42 |   |   | 70,000 | 74,000 | 79,000 |   | 
       | 43 |   |   | 70,500 | 75,000 | 80,000 |   | 
       | 44 |   |   | 71,500 | 75,500 |   |   | 
       | 45 |   |   | 72,000 | 76,000 |   |   | 
       | 46 |   |   | 72,500 | 76,500 |   |   | 
       | 47 |   |   | 73,500 | 77,500 |   |   | 
       | 48 |   |   | 74,000 | 78,000 |   |   | 
       | 49 |   |   | 74,500 | 78,500 |   |   | 
       | 50 |   |   | 75,500 | 79,000 |   |   | 
       | 51 |   |   | 76,000 | 80,000 |   |   | 
  
         
          24VAC20-81-70.  Maximum single axle and tandem axle weight allowed without an engineering  review.
    Maximum weight  in pounds according to vehicle axle spacings allowed by permit without an  engineering review from the Virginia Department of Transportation's Structures  and Bridges Division for any single axle or tandem axle group. 
           | Single Axle    Weight: | 24,000 pounds    (or 850 pounds per inch, width of tire measured in contact with the surface    of the road). | 
       | Tandem Axle    Weight: | 44,000 pounds.     | 
  
    24VAC20-81-80.  Maximum weight allowed by permit without an engineering review based on axle  spacing.
    Maximum weight  in pounds according to vehicle axle spacings allowed by permit without an  engineering review from the Virginia Department of Transportation's Structures  and Bridges Division for any group of two or more consecutive axles. 
    All vehicle  configurations shall be reduced to the smallest dimensions possible and those  exceeding the specifications identified in this chart will require an  engineering review before a permit can be issued. 
    "L" is  defined as the distance in feet between [ extremes of ]  any group of two or more consecutive axles [ , when measured  longitudinally, from the center of the axle to the center of the axle, with any  fraction of a foot rounded to the next highest foot as set forth in the  following table ]:
         
           
           | L | 2    axles | 3    axles | 4    axles | 5    axles | 6    axles | 7    or more axles | 
       | 4 | 44,000 |   |   |   |   |   | 
       | 5 | 44,000 |   |   |   |   |   | 
       | 6 | 44,000 |   |   |   |   |   | 
       | 7 | 44,000 |   |   |   |   |   | 
       | 8 | 48,000 | 53,500 |   |   |   |   | 
       | 9 |   | 54,500 |   |   |   |   | 
       | 10 |   | 55,000 |   |   |   |   | 
       | 11 |   | 56,000 |   |   |   |   | 
       | 12 |   | 56,500 | 63,000 |   |   |   | 
       | 13 |   | 57,500 | 63,500 |   |   |   | 
       | 14 |   | 58,000 | 64,500 |   |   |   | 
       | 15 |   | 59,000 | 65,000 |   |   |   | 
       | 16 |   | 59,500 | 65,500 | 72,500 |   |   | 
       | 17 |   | 60,500 | 66,500 | 73,000 |   |   | 
       | 18 |   | 61,000 | 67,000 | 74,000 |   |   | 
       | 19 |   | 62,000 | 67,500 | 74,500 |   |   | 
       | 20 |   | 62,500 | 68,500 | 75,000 | 82,000 |   | 
       | 21 |   | 63,500 | 69,000 | 75,500 | 82,500 |   | 
       | 22 |   | 64,000 | 69,500 | 76,500 | 83,000 |   | 
       | 23 |   | 65,000 | 70,500 | 77,000 | 84,000 |   | 
       | 24 |   | 65,500 | 71,000 | 77,500 | 84,500 | 91,500 | 
       | 25 |   | 66,500 | 71,500 | 78,000 | 85,000 | 92,000 | 
       | 26 |   | 67,000 | 72,500 | 79,000 | 85,500 | 92,500 | 
       | 27 |   | 68,000 | 73,000 | 79,500 | 86,000 | 93,000 | 
       | 28 |   | 68,500 | 73,500 | 80,000 | 87,000 | 94,000 | 
       | 29 |   | 69,500 | 74,500 | 80,500 | 87,500 | 94,500 | 
       | 30 |   | 70,000 | 75,000 | 81,500 | 88,000 | 95,000 | 
       | 31 |   | 71,000 | 75,500 | 82,000 | 88,500 | 95,500 | 
       | 32 |   | 71,500 | 76,500 | 82,500 | 89,000 | 96,000 | 
       | 33 |   |   | 77,000 | 83,000 | 90,000 | 97,000 | 
       | 34 |   |   | 77,500 | 84,000 | 90,500 | 97,500 | 
       | 35 |   |   | 78,500 | 84,500 | 91,000 | 98,000 | 
       | 36 |   |   | 79,000 | 85,000 | 91,500 | 98,500 | 
       | 37 |   |   | 79,500 | 85,500 | 92,000 | 99,000 | 
       | 38 |   |   | 80,500 | 86,500 | 93,000 | 99,500 | 
       | 39 |   |   | 81,000 | 87,000 | 93,500 | 100,500 | 
       | 40 |   |   | 81,500 | 87,500 | 94,000 | 101,000 | 
       | 41 |   |   | 82,500 | 88,000 | 94,500 | 101,500 | 
       | 42 |   |   | 83,000 | 89,000 | 95,000 | 102,000 | 
       | 43 |   |   | 83,500 | 89,500 | 96,000 | 102,500 | 
       | 44 |   |   | 84,500 | 90,000 | 96,500 | 103,000 | 
       | 45 |   |   | 85,000 | 90,500 | 97,000 | 104,000 | 
       | 46 |   |   | 85,500 | 91,500 | 97,500 | 104,500 | 
       | 47 |   |   | 86,500 | 92,000 | 98,000 | 105,000 | 
       | 48 |   |   | 87,000 | 92,500 | 99,000 | 105,500 | 
       | 49 |   |   | 87,500 | 93,000 | 99,500 | 106,000 | 
       | 50 |   |   | 88,500 | 94,000 | 100,000 | 106,500 | 
       | 51 |   |   | 89,000 | 94,500 | 100,500 | 107,500 | 
       | 52 |   |   | 89,500 | 95,000 | 101,000 | 108,000 | 
       | 53 |   |   | 90,500 | 95,500 | 102,000 | 108,500 | 
       | 54 |   |   | 91,000 | 96,500 | 102,500 | [ 109,500109,000 ] | 
       | 55 |   |   | 91,500 | 97,000 | 103,000 | 109,500 | 
       | 56 |   |   | 92,500 | 97,500 | 104,000 | 110,000 | 
       | 57 |   |   | 93,000 | 98,000 | 104,500 | 111,000 | 
       | 58 |   |   | 94,000 | 99,000 | 105,000 | 111,500 | 
       | 59 |   |   | 94,500 | 99,500 | 105,500 | 112,000 | 
       | 60 |   |   | 95,000 | 100,000 | 106,000 | 112,500 | 
       | 61 |   |   | 96,000 | 101,000 | 106,500 | 113,000 | 
       | 62 |   |   |   | 101,500 | 107,000 | 113,500 | 
       | 63 |   |   |   | 102,000 | 108,000 | 114,500 | 
       | 64 |   |   |   | 102,500 | 108,500 | 115,000 | 
  
         
          Part  III 
  Description, Requirements and Limitations of Special Permits Available 
    24VAC20-81-90.  Single trip permit.
    Single trip  permits are issued to cover one movement between two specific points. Single  trip permits are vehicle specific and cannot be transferred between [ vehicle  configurations vehicles ]. Most single trip permits are  valid for a 13-day period; however the Hauling Permit Section may restrict any  single trip permit movement to a lesser period depending on various  circumstances such as weather, routes of travel, construction projects, overall  dimensions of the vehicle configuration or other unforeseen circumstances. No  refunds or credits will be granted for unused or expired permits. 
    [ Single trip permits  are vehicle specific and cannot be transferred between vehicles. ]  Since the permits are vehicle specific, the original permit or a legible  copy of the entire permit is required to be carried in the transport vehicle.  This permit shall be presented to Department of Motor Vehicles, law enforcement  or Department of Transportation officials when requested.
           | Maximum Size    and Weight Limitations for the Single Trip Permit | 
       | Height: | 15 feet | 
       | Width: | 15 feet | 
       | Length: | [ 100150 ] feet | 
       | Single Axle: | 24,000 pounds | 
       | Tandem Axle: | 44,000 pounds | 
       | Tri-Axle: | Maximum weight    based on total amount of [ spacingsspacing ]    between the centers of the first and last axle in the 3 axle group - see    24VAC20-81-80. | 
       | Quad Axle: | Maximum weight    based on total amount of [ spacingsspacing ]    between the centers of the first and last axle in the 4 axle group - see    24VAC20-81-80. | 
       | Gross Weight: | Maximum weight    based on total number of axles in the configuration and total amount of [ spacingsspacing ] between the centers of the first and last axles - see    24VAC20-81-80. | 
  
    24VAC20-81-100.  Superload single trip permit.
    A. Like the  single trip permit, superload single trip permits are issued to cover one  movement between two specific points. Superload single trip permit requests  exceed the maximum weight or size limitations allowed on a single trip permit.  Superload single trip permit requests require various levels of research and  analysis and should be submitted to the Hauling Permit Section at least 10  working days prior to the anticipated date of movement. All superload single  trip permits are issued on a case-by-case basis, and only after an appropriate  review or VDOT engineering analysis has determined that the vehicle configuration  will not harm or damage bridges and structures on the designated routes of  travel. Results of the review or engineering analysis may render the vehicle  configuration ineligible for movement.
    Superload single  trip permits are vehicle specific and cannot be transferred between vehicles.  Since superload single trip permits are vehicle specific, the original permit  or a legible copy of the entire permit is required to be carried in the  transport vehicle. This permit shall be presented to Department of Motor  Vehicles, law enforcement or Department of Transportation officials when  requested.
    In cases where  the superload single trip permit request has been denied due to weight, the  customer may request that an in-depth engineering analysis be performed on the  desired route of travel. VDOT structures and bridges engineers will perform the  in-depth engineering analysis. The applicant is responsible for paying all  expenses associated with the in-depth engineering analysis. All requests for an  in-depth analysis must be submitted to the Hauling Permit Section in writing.  Upon receipt of the letter requesting the in-depth analysis a member of the  hauling permit staff will assist the applicant through the remainder of the  process. 
    B. Requirements  for superload single trip permits exceeding certain parameters are described in  this subsection: 
    A letter of  variance is required on all movements that exceed any of the following  parameters: 18 feet in width; 250,000 pounds in weight; 200 feet in length; or  16 feet in height. The shipper or the manufacturer of the oversized or  overweight item will submit the information listed below to the Virginia  Department of Motor Vehicles: FAX: (804) 367-0063 or mailed to the Virginia  Department of Motor Vehicles, Hauling Permit Section, P.O. Box 26302, Richmond,  VA 23260. The letter shall list, in detail: 
    1. Name and description of the item  being moved; 
    2. Overall loaded dimensions for the  vehicle configuration to include height, width, length and gross weight; 
    3. Explanation of why the load cannot be  reduced; 
    4. Explanation of why the load cannot be  transported by air, rail or water; 
    5. Origin and destination specific to  Virginia, including mileage and specific intersecting routes (e.g., Route 65 -  one mile south of Route 2 in Campbell County); 
    6. Preferred routes of travel; and 
    7. Point of contact, someone within the  company that can speak to the requested movement in case additional information  is needed. 
    C. In addition  to the letter of variance all movements that exceed 18 feet in width or 16 feet  in height may be required to submit a detailed travel plan, depending on the  time of travel and the routes of travel. The plan should include but is not  limited to the following:
    1. The plan should address how to  facilitate the movement of emergency vehicles responding to emergencies. The  plan will also identify locations where the overdimensional configuration will  pull over to allow movement of traffic. Traffic shall not be detained for more  than 10 minutes if at all possible. The plan will also address layover  locations. 
    2. Letters from property owners or  public facilities giving permission to layover on their property until able to  proceed in accordance with the permit. Each letter shall include the name,  phone number and email address of the primary point of contact. The hauling  permit staff will contact the point of contact to confirm the layover  privileges on their property prior to DMV issuing the superload single trip  permit.
    3. Letters from local law-enforcement  personnel agreeing to escort the overdimensional configuration through their  jurisdiction. Each letter shall include the name, phone number and email  address of the primary point of contact. The hauling permit staff will contact  the point of contact to confirm their escorting role prior to DMV issuing the  superload single trip permit.
    4. Letters from affected utility, cable  and telephone companies, agreeing to accompany the overdimensional  configuration to lift overhead wires. Each letter shall include the name, phone  number and email address of the primary point of contact. The hauling permit  staff will contact the point of contact to confirm their role in the move prior  to DMV issuing the hauling permit.
    5. Letters from the Department of  Transportation agreeing to accompany the overdimensional configuration to lift  overhead traffic signals, remove traffic [ signals signal ]  arms, or remove guardrails, or remove signs, or remove and or adjust any  inventory maintained by their department. Each letter shall include the name,  phone number and email address of the primary point of contact. The hauling  permit staff will contact the point of contact to confirm their role in the  move prior to DMV issuing the hauling permit.
    24VAC20-81-110.  General blanket permit.
    General blanket  permits allow frequent movements within a specified time period on designated  or unrestricted routes in Virginia. General blanket permits are issued on a  case-by-case basis and only after appropriate reviews or analysis have been  completed to ensure the vehicle configuration will not harm or damage bridges,  structures, or other state inventory along the routes of travel.
    General blanket  permits are vehicle specific and cannot be transferred between vehicles. Since  the permits are vehicle specific, the original permit or a legible copy of the  entire permit is required to be carried in the transport vehicle. This permit  shall be presented to Department of Motor Vehicles, law enforcement or  Department of Transportation officials when requested.
    All general  blanket permits are issued through the Virginia Department of Motor Vehicle's  headquarters office and all requests shall be made at least 10 workdays prior  to the anticipated movement date.
    [ Applicants who make  multiple moves should strongly consider obtaining a general blanket. Generally,  the larger the vehicle configuration, the more restrictive the regulations will  be. General blanket permits should be used for core business needs or those  moves that are the most frequent. For those rare or infrequent moves outside of  core business transactions, routine single trip permits should be considered. ]  
           | Maximum    Size and Weight Limitations for the General Blanket Permit | 
       | Height: | 14 feet | 
       | Width: | 14 feet | 
       | Length: | [ 85100 ] feet (including front or rear overhang) | 
       | [ Rear    Overhang | 10 feet]
 | 
       | [ Front    Overhang | 3 feet]
 | 
       | Single Axle: | 24,000 pounds | 
       | Tandem Axle: | 44,000 pounds | 
       | Tri-Axle: | Maximum weight    based on axle    [ spacingsspacing ] between the centers of    the first and last axle in the 3-axle group - see 24VAC20-81-80. | 
       | Quad Axle: | Maximum weight    based on axle    [ spacingsspacing ] between the centers of    the first and last axle in the 4-axle group - see 24VAC20-81-80. | 
       | Gross Weight: | Maximum weight    based on the total number of axles in the configuration and the [ total]    amount of [spacingsspacing ] between    the centers of the first and last axles - see 24VAC20-81-80. | 
  
    [ If the vehicle  configuration exceeds any of the weight or width parameters defined for the  general blanket permit, the applicant may be eligible to apply for the  superload blanket permit or the superload single trip permit. ] 
    24VAC20-81-120.  Superload blanket permit.
    When the vehicle [ configuration's  single axile, tandem axile, tri-axile or width exceed configuration  exceeds ] the parameters allowed for the general blanket permit,  the applicant may apply for [ the a ] superload  blanket permit. [ No superload blanket permit shall exceed 14  feet in height, 16 feet in width, 105 feet in length, or 150,000 pounds gross  weight. Furthermore, no blanket permit shall have more than three feet of front  overhang or 10 feet of rear overhang, which are both included in the length of  105 feet. These permits may be issued on a case-by-case basis. ]  
    The superload  blanket permit allows frequent movements within a specified time period  statewide or on specific routes. All requests for the superload blanket permit  must be submitted to the Hauling Permit Section at least 10 workdays in advance  of the anticipated movement date. These permits are vehicle specific and can  not be transferred between vehicle configurations. Superload blanket permits  are issued  [ on a case by case basis and ] only after the  appropriate reviews or VDOT engineering analysis have been completed to ensure  that the vehicle configuration will not harm or damage bridges, structures, or  other state inventory on the routes of travel. Results of the reviews or  engineering analysis may render the vehicle configuration ineligible to move  under the authority of a superload blanket permit. 
    24VAC20-81-130.  Exempted  [ blanket ] permits; eligibility requirements.
    Listed below are  some of the most frequently requested exempt permits. Most exempt [ permits  blanket permit loads ] are reducible but have been granted  statutory authority to operate on the state highway system. These permits are  vehicle specific and cannot be transferred between vehicle configurations. The  applicant must adhere to specific statutory criteria in order to qualify for  these permits. For additional information concerning these permits contact the  Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles at (804) 497-7135 or refer to the hauling  permit website online at www.dmvnow.com or www.dmv.virginia.gov. 
    1. When transporting containerized cargo  in a sealed seagoing container bound to or from a seaport, and the seagoing  container has been or will be transported by marine shipment, the applicant is  eligible to receive an exempt permit. The contents of the seagoing container  shall not be changed from the time it is loaded by the consignor or his agents  to the time it is delivered to the consignee or his agents. 
    2. Three- or four-axle [ vehicles  with an axle spacing of at least 22 feet that are (four-axle  vehicles must have 22 feet or more axle spacing) vehicles ] used  exclusively for the mixing of concrete in transit or at a project site or for  transporting necessary components in a compartmentalized vehicle to produce  concrete immediately upon arrival at a project site are eligible to receive an  exempt permit. This permit does not authorize travel on the federal interstate  highway system.
    3. Three-, four-, five-, and six-axle  vehicles are eligible to obtain a permit to haul coal from a mine or other  place of production to a preparation plant, loading dock, or railroad. Hauling  of coal is restricted to 85 miles [ from the origin to the  destination within the Commonwealth of Virginia from the preparation  plant, loading dock, or railroad ] and travel is not authorized on  the federal interstate highway system.
    Vehicles hauling gravel, sand, or  crushed stone, and vehicles hauling liquids produced from gas or oil wells or  water used for drilling and completion of a gas or oil well do not require a  permit. Travel is restricted to no more than 50 miles from the origin to the  destination. All movements are valid only within the counties that impose a tax  on coal or gases extracted from the earth and no travel is allowed on the  federal interstate highway system.
    4. Three- or four-axle [ vehicles  with an axile spacing of at least 22 feet (four axle vehicles must  have 22 feet or more axle spacing) vehicles ] hauling excavated  materials from construction-related land clearing operations are eligible to  receive an exempt permit. This permit does not authorize travel on the federal  interstate highway system.
    5. When hauling solid waste, other than  hazardous waste, the applicant is eligible for an exempt permit. This permit is [ only ]  limited to two- and three-axle vehicles. This permit does not authorize  travel on the federal interstate highway system.
    6. Vehicles used to haul farm produce  grown in Virginia are eligible to receive an exempt permit. These permits are  only valid in Accomack and Northampton counties. 
    7. Vehicles used exclusively to  transport seed cotton modules are eligible to receive an exempt permit. This  permit does not authorize travel on the federal interstate highway system.
    8. Self-propelled motor vehicles  manufactured for the specific purpose of supporting well-drilling machinery on  the job site and whose movement on any highway is incidental to the purpose for  which it was designed and manufactured for is eligible to receive an exempt  permit. This permit does not authorize travel on the federal interstate highway  system.
    9. Vehicles or equipment that is  registered in the name of the United States government, state or local agencies  shall receive without cost, an overdimensional or overweight permit to move  overdimensional or overweight items. Contractors moving items on behalf of the  United States government, state or local agencies are not eligible to receive  this permit at no cost.
    10. A straight truck designed or used to  carry fuel and having a capacity of less than 6,000 gallons is eligible for an  exempt permit. The tank wagon is limited to two axles and shall not exceed a  gross weight of 36,000 pounds, nor can it exceed 24,000 pounds on a single  axle. This permit does not [ authorized authorize ]  travel on the federal interstate highway system.
    11. For purposes of this section,  "underground pipe cleaning equipment" means a self-propelled motor  vehicle manufactured for the specific purpose of vacuuming and cleaning  underground sanitary and storm pipe. "Hydroexcavating equipment"  means a self-propelled motor vehicle manufactured for the specific purpose of  digging with water and vacuuming of debris. "Water blasting  equipment" means a self-propelled motor vehicle manufactured for the  specific purpose of waterblasting flat concrete surfaces and vacuuming spent  water for reuse. The above vehicles are eligible to receive an exempt permit.  This permit does not  [ authorized authorize ] travel on the  federal interstate highway system. 
    [ Note: Exempt blanket permits  are permitted by the Code of Virginia and are subject to change. ] 
    Part  IV 
  Fees 
    24VAC20-81-140.  Hauling permit administrative fees and other fees required by law; escort  driver certification fees.
           | Hauling    Permits: |   | 
       |   | Single Trip [ Hauling]    Permit | $20 | 
       |   | Superload    Single Trip Permit | $30 | 
       |   | General    Blanket Permit – 1 year | $100 | 
       |   | General    Blanket Permit – 2 years | $200 | 
       |   | Superload    Blanket Permit – 1 year or less | $100 | 
       |   | [ Tank    Wagon Permit (1 year)] | [ $845] | 
       |   | Exempt Blanket [ PermitsPermit ] | [ $100Determined by the Code of Virginia ] | 
  
    In addition to  the administrative fees listed above, Virginia law requires that all hauling  permits be assessed an additional mileage fee if the vehicle configuration is  overweight or if the equipment used is unlicensable in Virginia. Additional  fees required by Virginia law may be applicable and will be collected as  required. Refer to the hauling permit website at www.dmvnow.com for questions  concerning fees. 
           | Escort Driver    Certification: |   | 
       |   | Original    Certification | $25 | 
       |   | Renewal | $25 | 
       |   | Reissue | $15 | 
       |   | Duplicate | $15 | 
  
    Part  V
  Travel Guidelines 
    24VAC20-81-150.  Travel restrictions; holiday travel; days and times of travel; speed limits.
    A. Permitted  vehicle configurations are allowed to travel on all holidays except the  following state observed holidays: (i) New Year's Day, (ii) Memorial Day, (iii)  Independence Day, (iv) Labor Day, (v) Thanksgiving Day, and (vi) Christmas Day.  
    On the holidays  mentioned above, permits will not be valid from noon the preceding weekday  through the holiday. If the observed holiday falls on a Monday the permit will  not be valid from noon on the preceding Friday through Monday. 
    B. Normal times  of travel for permitted loads are [ 30 minutes after ]  sunrise to [ 30 minutes before ] sunset,  Monday through Saturday. [ Vehicle Some super load  vehicle ] configurations [ that are 16 feet wide or  greater ] may be required to travel during the hours of  darkness [ (9:30 p.m. to 5 a.m.) ]. No permitted  travel is allowed within the corporate limits of cities/towns between the hours  of 7 a.m. to 9 a.m. and 4 p.m. to 6 p.m. except for configurations that are  overweight or overlength (not exceeding 85 feet, including rear overhang) only.  No travel is allowed on Sundays, except for loads that are permitted for  overweight or overlength (not exceeding 85 feet, including rear overhang) only.  The Hauling Permit Section [ shall have the authority to route  vehicles outside may modify ] the normal hours of travel  or restrict times of travel [ during normal hours of travel ]  if it is determined necessary giving primary consideration to the safety and  well-being of the traveling public.
    When road  conditions, visibility or unfavorable weather conditions make traveling  hazardous to the operator or to the traveling public, permitted vehicles are  not authorized to operate unless responding to an emergency. [ Vehicles  that are underway when inclement weather occurs shall exit the road at the  first available safe location and park in a safe place until the weather clears  or until road conditions improve to allow safe travel conditions. ]  Law-enforcement judgment shall prevail in all circumstances. 
    [ C. Unless otherwise  specified within the permit, the maximum speed limit for permitted vehicle  configurations is the posted speed limit not to exceed 55 miles per hour. ]  
    Part  VI 
  Escort Vehicles and Equipment Requirements; Escort Vehicle Driver  Certification; and General Escorting Guidelines 
    24VAC20-81-160.  Escort vehicles and equipment requirements.
    [ A. Depending on the  routes of travel, escorts may be required for vehicle configurations exceeding  10 feet in width, 13 feet 6 inches in height, 85 feet in length, when more than  15 feet or more of front or rear overhang exist, or when determined as  necessary by the issuing agent giving primary consideration to the safety of  the traveling public, the attributes of the configuration, and the geographical  location of the move.
    B. A. ] The  escort vehicle shall be a truck not less than one-quarter ton-rated load  capacity but not more than 17,000 pounds gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) or  a passenger vehicle of not less than 2,000 pounds gross weight. Escort vehicles  shall not resemble nor be confused with law-enforcement or safety-assistance  vehicles. Escort vehicles shall be in compliance with all state and local  registration processes required by the state in which the vehicle is  registered. Escort vehicles shall not be overdimensional or overweight while in  use performing escorting duties. They are not permitted to pull a trailer of  any kind while performing escorting duties [ and shall have an  unobstructed view through the rear window ].
    [ C. B. ]  All escort vehicles shall be equipped with a two-way radio communication  system to maintain communications between the permitted vehicle driver and all  escort vehicles in the group.
    [ D. C. ]  Front or lead escort vehicles are required to have a height pole/hot-pole  when required by permit. While performing escorting duties the pole shall be  extended at least three inches above the specified height of the vehicle  configuration being escorted. 
    [ E. D. ]  Escort vehicles headlamps shall be on at all times while escorting  overdimensional/overweight movements.
    [ F. E. ]  All escort vehicles shall have at least one [ light ],  rotating or strobe, positioned on top of the escort vehicle. The light must be  visible for a distance of at least 500 feet in all directions by approaching  vehicles.
    [ G. F. ]  Paddles shall be at least [ 24 18 ] inches  by [ 24 18 ] inches with six-inch high  lettering. For greater visibility, a high-intensity flashing stop/slow paddle  may be used.
    [ H. G. ]  All flags used for flagging purposes shall be red or any highly fluorescent  color, not less than 18 inches square and in good condition. Flags shall be  placed at the extremities of a vehicle load to identify overwidth or secured at  the end of the load to identify overhang.
    [ I. H. ]  Individuals performing flagging activities shall wear a hard hat and a red  or any highly visible fluorescent [ colored jacket or vest  traffic vest or jacket of approved Type ANSI II or III ].
    [ J. I. ]  Escort vehicles shall have signs, descriptive of the load [ it  is escorting being escorted ], i.e., "Wide  Load" or "Oversize Load" or "Overweight Load." At a  minimum, the signs shall be displayed in black eight-inch high letters with  [ 1-1/2 inch a minimum of 1-1/4 inch ] brush  strokes on a yellow banner. The banner shall be mounted on the front and rear  bumper of the escort vehicle. If displayed on the roof of the escort vehicle  other drivers must be able to read the signs when approaching or following the  escort vehicle. 
    [ K. J. ]  A minimum of one Underwriters Laboratories [ (U.L.)  (UL) ] or Factory Mutual Laboratories [ (F.M.)  (FM) ] approved, five pounds or greater, Type "BC" or  "ABC" fire extinguisher shall be carried in the escort vehicle or  escort vehicles.
    [ L. K. ]  Reflective triangles or road flares shall be used to warn oncoming or  approaching vehicles of a breakdown. 
    24VAC20-81-170.  Escort vehicle driver certification.
    Certification as  an escort vehicle driver is mandatory when escorting oversize loads [ exceeding  12 feet in width, or 85 feet in length, or 14 feet in height. Certification is also  required when escorting a load with 15 feet or more of rear overhang or 10 feet  or more of front overhang, or whenever an off centered load exceeds five feet.  The overhang of an off-centered load must be loaded to the passenger side of  the transport vehicle ].
    Virginia  residents who possess a valid Virginia driver's license shall obtain their  certification through Virginia's Escort Vehicle Driver Certification Program.  Non-Virginia residents may be certified through Virginia's Escort Vehicle  Driver Certification Program or through a certification program from another  state. Regardless of what state certifies the driver as an escort driver,  certification is considered invalid if the driver's license is not valid.
    [ The Virginia Escort  Vehicle Driver Certification test is available at all Virginia Department of  Motor Vehicles Customer Service Center locations. The applicant is  required to successfully pass a multiple-choice exam before a certificate can  be issued. ]
    Successful  applicants shall carry the certification document with them while escorting  vehicle configurations [ that require certified escort vehicle  drivers ]. Certification, along with a driver's license, must  be presented when requested by any Department of Motor Vehicles, law  enforcement or Department of Transportation officials when requested. Failure  to have the certification in possession while escorting a permitted load  [ that requires a certified escort ] will cause the  movement to be delayed until proper escorts and credentials are in place. 
    Additional  information concerning Escort Vehicle Driver Certification in Virginia can be  requested by calling the Hauling Permit Section at (804) 497-7135. 
    24VAC20-81-180.  General escorting guidelines.
    [ Escort vehicle  drivers or certified escort vehicle drivers may be required depending on the  routes of travel and the overall dimensions of the vehicle configuration.  Escorts will not be picked up or dropped as the permitted configuration travels  through the Commonwealth. Escorts, when required by permit will stay with the  vehicle configuration throughout the duration of the move. All  escort vehicle operators are required to be certified prior to performing the  duties of an oversize/overweight load escort vehicle operator in Virginia. ]  General guidelines as to when escorts are required follows; this listing is  not all inclusive: 
    [ 1. One front escort is  required on all roads if the permitted load exceeds 10 feet in width or 75 feet  in overall length.
    2. One certified front escort is  required on all roads if the permitted load exceeds 12 feet in width or 85 feet  in length.
    3. One front and two rear escorts, all  certified, will be required on all roads if the permitted load exceeds 14 feet  in width.
    4. One front escort is required on all  roads when the front overhang exceeds four feet. 
    5. One certified front escort is  required on all roads when the front overhang is 10 feet or more.
    6. One rear escort will be required on  all roads when the rear overhang is 10 feet or more. 
    7. One certified rear escort is required  on all roads when the rear overhang is 15 feet or more.
    8. One certified front escort equipped  with height pole is required on all roads when the permitted load exceeds 14  feet in height.
    9. One front escort is required on all  roads when the off centered load exceeds three feet on the passenger side of  the vehicle configuration.
    10. Two certified front escorts will be  required when the off centered load exceeds five feet on the passenger side of  the vehicle configuration.
    11. One front and one rear escort, both  certified, is required on all roads when the permitted load exceeds 100 feet in  overall length.
    12. Two front and two rear escorts, all  certified, will be required on all roads when the permitted load exceeds 18  feet in width or 200 feet in length. 
    1. One front and one rear escort is  required on noninterstate routes when the permitted load exceeds 12 feet in  width.
    2. One rear escort is required on  interstate routes when the permitted load exceeds 12 feet in width.
    3. Two front and one rear escorts are  required on noninterstate routes when the permitted load exceeds 14 feet in  width.
    4. One front and one rear escort is  required on interstate routes when the permitted load exceeds 14 feet in width.  
    5. Two front and two rear escorts are  required on noninterstate routes when the permitted load exceeds 16 feet in  width.
    6. One front and two rear escorts are  required on interstate routes when the permitted load exceeds 16 feet in width.  
    7. One front escort is required when an  off-centered load exceeds three feet six inches on the passenger side of the  vehicle configuration.
    8. One front escort and one rear escort  is required when an off-centered load exceeds five feet on the passenger side  of the vehicle configuration.
    9. One front escort equipped with height  pole, adjusted three inches above the load height, is required on all routes  when the permitted load exceeds 14 feet five inches in height.
    10. One rear escort is required on  noninterstate routes when the permitted load exceeds 85 feet in length.
    11. One rear escort is required on  interstate routes when the permitted load exceeds 120 feet in length.
    12. One front and one rear escort is  required on all routes when the permitted load exceeds 150 feet in length.
    13. One front escort is required on all  routes when the permitted load has a front overhang that exceeds 10 feet  (measured from the bumper).
    14. One rear escort is required on all  routes when the permitted load has a rear overhang that exceeds 15 feet  (measured from the bumper).
    15. Permit loads that exceed 18 feet  wide or 200 feet long will be handled on a case-by-case basis.
    Escort  requirements are subject to change with individual consideration of weight,  width, length, height, geographical location, or route of travel as determined  by the issuing agent. ]  
    Part  VII 
  Emergency and National Defense Moves 
    24VAC20-81-190.  Emergency moves.
    Requests for  emergency moves will be carefully reviewed on a case-by-case basis. An  emergency is defined as "a calamity, existing or imminent, caused by fire,  flood, riot, windstorm, explosion, [ or ] act  of God, [ or other situation ] which requires immediate  remedial action to protect life or property." 
    In some  instances waivers are issued by the appropriate state authority exempting  overweight/overwidth carriers from statutory size and weight limitations who  are responding to and supporting relief efforts. Maximum size and weight  limitations will be identified in the waiver and all requests that exceed those  limitations will have to apply for a hauling permit in accordance with  established processes that govern the permitting process. 
    Emergency move  requests and questions concerning waivers issued in support of a declared  relief effort or disaster shall be made through the Virginia Department of  Transportation's Emergency Operations Center (TEOC) at 1-800-367-7623. TEOC is  open 24 hours a day, seven days a week. During normal business hours, contact  the Hauling Permit Section at (804) 497-7135. 
    Blanket permit  users may request "emergency travel regulations" when ordering  permits if there is a possibility that the equipment or commodity permitted  will be required in support of an emergency as defined above. Having emergency  travel regulations in the permit may allow response to the emergency using the  blanket permit, if that permit covers the routes [ of  travel intended to use used to respond to the emergency ].  However, the permittee must contact the Virginia Department of Transportation's  Emergency Operations Center and give them vital travel information that will be  passed on to the Virginia State Police, all applicable law-enforcement  jurisdictions, and DMV weigh stations.
    24VAC20-81-200.  National defense moves.
    The U.S.  Department of Defense's Military Traffic Command shall be the sole certifying  agency during peacetime for all movements made by an agency declared essential  to the national defense. During a national emergency, movements essential to  national defense would be far greater in scope, and those not under direct  control of one of the military departments or Department of Defense agencies  would be certified by the appropriate emergency transportation authority. 
    Part  VIII 
  Responsibilities 
    24VAC20-81-210.  Compliance with state laws and permit requirements.
    A. The  acceptance and use of the Virginia hauling permit by the applicant or his  designee is his agreement that he will proof the permit for accuracy prior to  traveling on Virginia's highways. If the document is incorrect, the permittee  will immediately contact the Hauling Permit Section to obtain the proper permit  prior to traveling over Virginia's highways. The permittee accepts full  responsibility and the consequences associated with having a hauling permit  containing erroneous or incorrect information.
    B. The  acceptance and use of the Virginia hauling permit by the applicant is his  agreement that he has met all legal requirements concerning operational  authority imposed by motor vehicle laws of Virginia, the Department of Motor  Vehicles, or the  [ Interstate Commerce Commission federal government ].
    C. The  acceptance and use of the Virginia hauling permit by the applicant is his  agreement that each vehicle permitted is insured no less than that required by  the Commonwealth of Virginia. 
    D. The  acceptance and use of the Virginia hauling permit by the applicant is his  agreement to pay for all damages and cost involved to persons or property as a  result of the permitted movement. 
    E. The  acceptance and use of the Virginia hauling permit by the applicant is his  agreement that he will comply with all the terms and conditions as specified  within the permit.
    F. The  permittee, an agent of the permittee, or any member of the permitee's company,  shall within 15 workdays notify the Hauling Permit Section, if the permitted  vehicle is involved in any accident. Failure to notify the Hauling Permit  Section of involvement in an accident may result in suspension or denial of  permitting privileges as specified in 24VAC20-81-230. 
    24VAC20-81-220.  Injury or damage.
    The permittee  assumes all responsibility for an injury to persons or damage to public or  private property caused directly or indirectly by the transportation of  vehicles and loads moving under the authority of a state-issued permit.  Furthermore, the permittee agrees to hold the Commonwealth of Virginia, Department  of Motor Vehicles and its employees and other state agencies and their  employees harmless from all suits, claims, damages or proceedings of any kind,  as a direct or indirect result of the transportation of the permitted vehicle.
    Part  IX 
  Denial; Revocation; Refusal to Renew; Appeal; Invalidation 
    24VAC20-81-230.  Denial; revocation; refusal to renew; appeal; invalidation.
    A. An overweight  or oversize permit may be revoked by the Department of Motor Vehicles upon  written findings that the permittee violated the terms of the permit, which  shall incorporate by reference these rules, as well as state and local laws and  ordinances regulating the operation of overweight or oversized vehicles.  Repeated violations may result in a permanent denial of the right to use the  state highway system or roads for transportation of overweight and oversized  vehicle configurations. A permit may also be revoked for misrepresentation of  the information on the application, fraudulently obtaining a permit, alteration  of a permit, or unauthorized use of a permit. 
    B. Hauling  permits may be denied to any applicant or company, or both, for a period not to  exceed one year when the applicant or company or both has been notified in  writing by the Department of Motor Vehicles designee that violations existed  under a previously issued permit. Customers who are delinquent in payment to  other DMV functions will be denied a hauling permit until their delinquent  account or accounts are satisfied. 
    C. No permit  application request shall be denied or revoked, or permit application renewal  refused, until a written notice of the violation of the issued permit has been  furnished to the applicant. The permittee may appeal in writing to the  Assistant Commissioner of Motor Carrier Services or his designee within 10  working days of receipt of written notification of denial or revocation setting  forth the grounds for making an appeal. Upon receipt of the appeal, the  Assistant Commissioner for Motor Carrier Services or his designee will conduct  an informal fact-finding process conforming to the requirements of the Code of  Virginia and will issue a case decision that will be the final administrative  step. Judicial review of such decision shall be available pursuant to § 2.2-4025 of the Administrative Process Act. Upon revocation of the permit, it  must be surrendered without consideration for refund or credit of fees. Upon  restoration of permit privileges a new hauling permit must be obtained prior to  movement on the state highway system. 
    [ D. A Hauling Permit  may be invalidated and confiscated by law enforcement officials or weight  enforcement officials if the permitted vehicle or vehicle combination: is found  to be operating off route; has fewer axles than that required within the  permit; is moving a commodity other than that specified within the permit; is  willfully (intentionally) traveling outside the hours specified within the  permit.; is traveling without escorts as required by the permit; or if the  driver does not have the entire permit in the vehicle. In these situations, in  addition to taking legal enforcement actions, law and weigh enforcement  personnel shall have the authority to direct the vehicle configuration to a  safe location, at the permittee's expense, and detain the vehicle configuration  until it meets all of the requirements of the permit as stated or until a new  hauling permit is issued. 
    D.  Law-enforcement officials or weight-enforcement officials may invalidate or  confiscate a hauling permit if the permitted vehicle or vehicle combination is  operating off the route listed on the permit; if the vehicle has fewer axles  than required by the permit; if the vehicle has less axle spacing than required  by the permit when measured longitudinally from the center of the axle to  center axle with any fraction of a foot rounded to the next highest foot; or if  the vehicle is transporting multiple items not allowed by the permit. 
    Law-enforcement  officials or weight-enforcement officials may direct the vehicle to a safe  location, at the permittee’s expense, and detain the vehicle configuration  until it meets all the requirements of the hauling permit or until a new  hauling permit is issued if the vehicle is not traveling with escorts as  required by the permit; if the vehicle is traveling outside the hours specified  within the permit; if the driver does not have the entire permit in the  vehicle; if the hauling permit has been invalidated or confiscated due to one  of the conditions listed in subsection C of this section; if the vehicle is  over the permitted weight; or if law enforcement deems the vehicle to be  violating any safety requirement. ] 
    Part  X 
  Transportation of Explosives, Radioactive and Other Hazardous Materials 
    24VAC20-81-240.  Transportation of explosives, radioactive and other hazardous materials.
    A. A person,  shipper or carrier transporting or proposing to transport explosives or other  hazardous materials shall do so in compliance with all provisions of 49 CFR  Parts 100 through 180. Hazardous materials are those described by class in 49  CFR Parts 173 through 180. 
    B. All  transporters who transport hazardous waste that originates or terminates in  Virginia for the purpose of storage, treatment or disposal shall apply for and  receive an Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) identification number that is  unique to the transporter, and apply for a transportation permit from the  Virginia Department of Environmental Quality, Waste Division. 
    Transporters of  hazardous waste generated outside of Virginia and designated for delivery to a  treatment, storage or disposal facility in another state shall conform with the  manifest requirements of those states or EPA, as prescribed in 40 CFR Part 262.  Specific questions regarding the movement and permitting of hazardous materials  and hazardous waste should be addressed to: 
           |   | Department of    Environmental Quality 629 East Main Street
 P.O. Box 10009
 Richmond, VA 23240-0009
 | 
       |   | Phone:  | 804-698-4249    (Hazardous Materials)804-698-4237 (Hazardous Waste)
 | 
  
    Questions  regarding the movement of Hazardous Materials through tunnels or bridges, or  both, shall be addressed to: 
           |   | Department of    TransportationHazardous Materials Officer
 1221 East Broad Street
 Richmond, VA 23219
 Phone: 804-371-0891
 | 
  
    Questions  regarding hazardous material spills or incidents shall be addressed to:  CHEMTREC 1-800-424-9300 (24 hours a day). 
    Part  XI 
  Weigh Stations; Location 
    24VAC20-81-250.  Permanent weigh stations.
    Operators of  trucks which have a registered gross weight in excess of 7,500 pounds are  required by law to drive their vehicles onto scales for weight inspection as  directed by either a police officer or regulatory highway signs. By Virginia  law, a police officer may require the operator of a truck to drive a distance  not to exceed 10 road miles to a weigh facility or location for weight  inspection. Refusal to drive onto scales for inspection is a misdemeanor.  Locations for the weigh stations in Virginia are as follows: 
           | Station | Route | Location | 
       | 1. Alberta | 85 | Alberta | 
       | 2. Aldie | 50 | Aldie | 
       | 3. Bland | 77 | Bland | 
       | 4. Carson | 95 | Carson | 
       | 5. Dahlgren | 301 | Dahlgren | 
       | 6. Dumfries | 95 | Triangle | 
       | 7. Hollins | 11 | Hollins | 
       | 8. Middletown | 11 | Middletown | 
       | 9. New Church | 13 | Temperanceville | 
       | 10. Sandston | 64 | Sandston | 
       | 11. Stephens    City | 81 | Stephens City | 
       | 12. Suffolk | 58 | Suffolk | 
       | 13. Troutville | 81 | Troutville                                                                                                    | 
  
        NOTICE: The forms used  in administering the above regulation are not being published; however, the  name of each form is listed below. The forms are available for public inspection  by contacting the agency contact for this regulation, or at the office of the  Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond,  Virginia.
         FORMS (24VAC20-81)
    Virginia's Size,  Weight, and Equipment Requirements for Trucks, Trailers and Towed Vehicles, DMV  109 (rev. 7/08).
    Virginia Single  Trip Superload Hauling Permit Application, HP 400 (rev. 8/08).
    Virginia Blanket  Hauling Permit Application, HP 401 (rev. 1/07).
    Virginia Exempt  Blanket Hauling Permit Application, HP 402 (rev. 8/08).
    Virginia Hauling  Permit Addendum Additional Axle Form, HP 403 (rev. 1/07).
    Vehicle Escort  Driver Application, HP 404 (rev. 3/06).
    Virginia Escort  Driver's Manual, HP 405 (rev. 6/06).
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