The Virginia Register OF  REGULATIONS is an official state publication issued every other week  throughout the year. Indexes are published quarterly, and are cumulative for  the year. The Virginia Register has several functions. The new and  amended sections of regulations, both as proposed and as finally adopted, are  required by law to be published in the Virginia Register. In addition,  the Virginia Register is a source of other information about state  government, including petitions for rulemaking, emergency regulations,  executive orders issued by the Governor, and notices of public hearings on  regulations.
    ADOPTION,  AMENDMENT, AND REPEAL OF REGULATIONS
    An  agency wishing to adopt, amend, or repeal regulations must first publish in the  Virginia Register a notice of intended regulatory action; a basis,  purpose, substance and issues statement; an economic impact analysis prepared  by the Department of Planning and Budget; the agency’s response to the economic  impact analysis; a summary; a notice giving the public an opportunity to  comment on the proposal; and the text of the proposed regulation.
    Following  publication of the proposal in the Virginia Register, the promulgating agency  receives public comments for a minimum of 60 days. The Governor reviews the  proposed regulation to determine if it is necessary to protect the public  health, safety and welfare, and if it is clearly written and easily  understandable. If the Governor chooses to comment on the proposed regulation,  his comments must be transmitted to the agency and the Registrar no later than  15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment period. The  Governor’s comments, if any, will be published in the Virginia Register.  Not less than 15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment  period, the agency may adopt the proposed regulation.
    The  Joint Commission on Administrative Rules (JCAR) or the appropriate standing  committee of each house of the General Assembly may meet during the  promulgation or final adoption process and file an objection with the Registrar  and the promulgating agency. The objection will be published in the Virginia  Register. Within 21 days after receipt by the agency of a legislative  objection, the agency shall file a response with the Registrar, the objecting  legislative body, and the Governor.
    When  final action is taken, the agency again publishes the text of the regulation as  adopted, highlighting all changes made to the proposed regulation and  explaining any substantial changes made since publication of the proposal. A  30-day final adoption period begins upon final publication in the Virginia  Register.
    The  Governor may review the final regulation during this time and, if he objects,  forward his objection to the Registrar and the agency. In addition to or in  lieu of filing a formal objection, the Governor may suspend the effective date  of a portion or all of a regulation until the end of the next regular General  Assembly session by issuing a directive signed by a majority of the members of  the appropriate legislative body and the Governor. The Governor’s objection or  suspension of the regulation, or both, will be published in the Virginia  Register. If the Governor finds that changes made to the proposed  regulation have substantial impact, he may require the agency to provide an  additional 30-day public comment period on the changes. Notice of the  additional public comment period required by the Governor will be published in  the Virginia Register.
    The  agency shall suspend the regulatory process for 30 days when it receives  requests from 25 or more individuals to solicit additional public comment,  unless the agency determines that the changes have minor or inconsequential  impact.
    A  regulation becomes effective at the conclusion of the 30-day final adoption  period, or at any other later date specified by the promulgating agency, unless  (i) a legislative objection has been filed, in which event the regulation,  unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after  the expiration of the 21-day objection period; (ii) the Governor exercises his  authority to require the agency to provide for additional public comment, in  which event the regulation, unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date  specified, which shall be after the expiration of the period for which the  Governor has provided for additional public comment; (iii) the Governor and the  General Assembly exercise their authority to suspend the effective date of a  regulation until the end of the next regular legislative session; or (iv) the  agency suspends the regulatory process, in which event the regulation, unless  withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after the  expiration of the 30-day public comment period and no earlier than 15 days from  publication of the readopted action.
    A  regulatory action may be withdrawn by the promulgating agency at any time  before the regulation becomes final.
    FAST-TRACK  RULEMAKING PROCESS
    Section 2.2-4012.1 of the Code of Virginia provides an exemption from certain  provisions of the Administrative Process Act for agency regulations deemed by  the Governor to be noncontroversial.  To use this process, Governor's  concurrence is required and advance notice must be provided to certain  legislative committees.  Fast-track regulations will become effective on the  date noted in the regulatory action if no objections to using the process are  filed in accordance with § 2.2-4012.1.
    EMERGENCY  REGULATIONS
    Pursuant  to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of Virginia, an agency, upon consultation  with the Attorney General, and at the discretion of the Governor, may adopt  emergency regulations that are necessitated by an emergency situation. An  agency may also adopt an emergency regulation when Virginia statutory law or  the appropriation act or federal law or federal regulation requires that a  regulation be effective in 280 days or less from its enactment. The emergency regulation becomes operative upon its  adoption and filing with the Registrar of Regulations, unless a later date is  specified. Emergency regulations are limited to no more than 18 months in  duration; however, may be extended for six months under certain circumstances  as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D. Emergency regulations are published as  soon as possible in the Register.
    During  the time the emergency status is in effect, the agency may proceed with the  adoption of permanent regulations through the usual procedures. To begin  promulgating the replacement regulation, the agency must (i) file the Notice of  Intended Regulatory Action with the Registrar within 60 days of the effective  date of the emergency regulation and (ii) file the proposed regulation with the  Registrar within 180 days of the effective date of the emergency regulation. If  the agency chooses not to adopt the regulations, the emergency status ends when  the prescribed time limit expires.
    STATEMENT
    The  foregoing constitutes a generalized statement of the procedures to be followed.  For specific statutory language, it is suggested that Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006  et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia be examined  carefully.
    CITATION  TO THE VIRGINIA REGISTER
    The Virginia  Register is cited by volume, issue, page number, and date. 29:5 VA.R. 1075-1192  November 5, 2012, refers to Volume 29, Issue 5, pages 1075 through 1192 of  the Virginia Register issued on 
  November 5, 2012.
    The  Virginia Register of Regulations is  published pursuant to Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2  of the Code of Virginia. 
    Members  of the Virginia Code Commission: John  S. Edwards, Chair; James M. LeMunyon, Vice Chair, Gregory D.  Habeeb; Ryan T. McDougle; Pamela S. Baskervill; Robert L.  Calhoun; Carlos L. Hopkins; E.M. Miller, Jr.; Thomas M. Moncure, Jr.; Christopher  R. Nolen; Timothy Oksman; Charles S. Sharp; Robert L. Tavenner.
    Staff  of the Virginia Register: Jane  D. Chaffin, Registrar of Regulations; Karen Perrine, Assistant  Registrar; Anne Bloomsburg, Regulations Analyst; Rhonda Dyer, Publications  Assistant; Terri Edwards, Operations Staff Assistant.
         
       
                                                        PUBLICATION SCHEDULE AND DEADLINES
Vol. 32 Iss. 1 - September 07, 2015
September 2015 through October 2016
 
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*Filing deadlines are Wednesdays
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                                                        NOTICES OF INTENDED REGULATORY ACTION
Vol. 32 Iss. 1 - September 07, 2015
TITLE 12. HEALTH
Medicare-Medicaid Demonstration Waivers
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action 
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the Board of Medical Assistance Services intends to  consider promulgating 12VAC30-121, Medicare-Medicaid Demonstration Waivers and  amending 12VAC30-50, Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and Remedial  Care Services. The purpose of the proposed action is to create the  Commonwealth Coordinated Care program, which enables individuals who are  eligible for both Medicare and Medicaid services (dual eligibles) to receive  acute, primary, and long-term care services in a coordinated managed care  system.
    The dual eligible population is of particular interest for a  managed care program because the participants represent some of the most  vulnerable citizens who typically have extensive medical, behavioral health,  social, and long-term care needs. In the Commonwealth, dual eligibles are  currently excluded from managed care because Medicare, being their first payer  of services, covers their acute care services. Also, managed care organizations  did not originally cover long-term care services (neither nursing facility  services nor home and community-based services). These dual eligible persons  have been receiving acute and long-term care services in Medicaid's  fee-for-service system. 
    As a result of being in the fee-for-service system, no single  health care provider or entity is responsible for coordinating all of these  individuals' care, resulting in an inefficient system that is cumbersome for  the individuals with misaligned benefit structures and opportunities for cost  shifting. This system has likely led to unnecessary hospital admissions,  unnecessary use of nursing facilities, and the mismanagement of medications. 
    Integrating primary and acute care services with long-term care  and behavioral health services into one delivery system will streamline the  delivery of services by offering ongoing access to quality health and long-term  care services, care coordination, and referrals to appropriate community  resources. This will also empower the Commonwealth's full dual eligible  beneficiaries to remain independent, residing in settings of their choice for  as long as possible.
    The Social Security Act (§ 1932(a)) permits the combining  of Medicare and Medicaid services to dual eligible individuals under the  authority of a Financial Administration Demonstration Waiver. The goal of this  action is to provide integrated care to dual eligible individuals who are  currently excluded from participating in managed care programs. This change  will enable these participants to access their primary, acute, behavioral  health, and long-term care services through a single managed delivery system,  thereby increasing the coordination of services across the spectrum of care.
    Commonwealth Coordinated Care (CCC) Program participants will  include adult full benefit dual eligible individuals (ages 21 and older),  including full benefit dual eligible individuals in the Elderly or Disabled  with Consumer Direction (EDCD) Waiver and full benefit dual eligible  individuals residing in nursing facilities. Individuals who are required to  "spend down" income in order to meet Medicaid eligibility  requirements will not be eligible. The CCC Program also will not include  individuals for whom DMAS only pays a limited amount each month toward their  cost of care (e.g., deductibles only) such as: (i) qualified Medicare  beneficiaries (QMBs); (ii) special low income Medicare beneficiaries (SLMBs);  (iii) qualified disabled working individuals (QDWIs); or (iv) qualified  individuals (QIs). 
    The proposed regulatory action will allow DMAS to combine  certain aspects of managed care, long-term care, and Medicare into one program.  The program is expected to offer participants care coordination, which will, it  is anticipated, improve their quality of care. To accomplish this, DMAS is  including certain populations and certain services previously excluded from  managed care into a new managed care program. This new managed care program is  being offered on a voluntary basis in five regions of the Commonwealth: Central  Virginia, Tidewater, Northern Virginia, Charlottesville/Western, and the  Roanoke region. The program has been phased in on a regional basis over the  first 12 months of the program, starting with the Central Virginia and  Tidewater regions. Eligible individuals were notified of the opportunity to  enroll during March 2014 and the first opportunity for enrollment was effective  on April 1, 2014. The remaining three regions were phased in later in 2014.
    Covered services will include the following: 
    1. All Medicare Parts A, B, and D services (including  inpatient, outpatient, durable medical equipment (DME), skilled nursing  facilities (NFs), home health, and pharmacy);
    2. The majority of Medicaid State Plan services that are not  covered by Medicare, including behavioral health and transportation services;
    3. Medicaid-covered EDCD Waiver services: adult day health  care, personal care (consumer and agency directed), respite services (consumer  and agency directed), personal emergency response system (PERS), transition  coordination, and transition services; 
    4. Personal care services for persons enrolled in the Medicaid  Works program;
    5. Nursing facility services; and
    6. Flexible benefits that will be at the option of  participating plans.
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of  Virginia; §§ 1932 and 1915(c) of the Social Security Act.
    Public Comment Deadline: October 7, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Matthew Behrens, Project Manager,  Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad Street, Suite 1300,  Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 625-3673, FAX (804) 786-1680, or email  matthew.behrens@dmas.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-3786; Filed August 10, 2015, 8:46 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
Family Access to Medical Insurance Security Plan
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the Board of Medical Assistance Services intends to  consider amending 12VAC30-141, Family Access to Medical Insurance Security  Plan. The purpose of the proposed action is to grant eligibility to  applicable qualified state employees or their dependents who are otherwise  eligible to enroll in the FAMIS MOMs program to be enrolled in the program.  Current regulations exclude state employees who have access to subsidized  health insurance coverage from enrolling in the FAMIS MOMS program, even if  they are otherwise eligible by income and residency. This amendment will only  affect state employees who are qualified for employer-sponsored health  insurance; wage employees are not eligible to receive a state contribution  toward the cost of their health coverage. 
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-351 of the Code of  Virginia; Title XXI of the Social Security Act.
    Public Comment Deadline: October 7, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,  Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad  Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)  786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4365; Filed August 10, 2015, 7:49 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
Virginia Certified Home Inspectors Regulations
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action 
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the Virginia Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home  Inspectors intends to consider amending 18VAC15-40, Virginia Certified Home  Inspectors Regulations. The certified home inspector program is a voluntary  regulatory program administered by the Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home  Inspectors. Chapter 411 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly requires anyone who  conducts a home inspection on a new residential structure to be certified by  the board and to have successfully completed a training module developed by the  board in conjunction with the Department of Housing and Community Development.  The training module must be based on the International Residential Code  component of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code. Certification would  become mandatory for those individuals who wish to conduct a home inspection on  new residential structures. The board is required to develop regulation to  implement Chapter 411 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly for implementation on July  1, 2016. The act further requires the board to develop the training module  prior to July 1, 2016, and make such training module available for use in  accordance with Chapter 411.
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the proposed  action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-501 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: October 7, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Trisha L. Henshaw, Executive Director,  Virginia Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors, 9960 Mayland Drive,  Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8595, FAX (804) 350-5354, or  email alhi@dpor.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4423; Filed August 17, 2015, 10:43 a.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers
Withdrawal of Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Social Services has WITHDRAWN the  Notice of Intended Regulatory Action for 22VAC40-185, Standards for Licensed  Child Day Centers, and 22VAC40-186, Standards for Licensed Child  Day Centers, which was published in 29:3 VA.R. 341 October 8, 2012.
    Agency Contact: Debra O'Neill, Child Care Consultant,  Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 726-7648, FAX (804) 726-7132, or email  debra.oneill@dss.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3376; Filed August 19, 2015, 3:45 p.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers
Withdrawal of Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Social Services has WITHDRAWN the  Notice of Intended Regulatory Action for 22VAC40-185, Standards for Licensed  Child Day Centers, and 22VAC40-186, Standards for Licensed Child  Day Centers, which was published in 29:3 VA.R. 341 October 8, 2012.
    Agency Contact: Debra O'Neill, Child Care Consultant,  Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 726-7648, FAX (804) 726-7132, or email  debra.oneill@dss.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3376; Filed August 19, 2015, 3:45 p.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF)
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Social Services intends to  consider amending 22VAC40-295, Temporary Assistance for Needy Families  (TANF). The current regulation describes fair hearings and administrative  disqualification hearings. While those are different types of hearings, the  current regulation can be interpreted as meaning fair hearings and  administrative disqualification hearings are the same. The agency proposes  amending 22VAC40-295-140 to provide further clarification regarding the  interplay between the two hearing processes and eliminate the misunderstanding  about these separate processes. 
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 63.2-217 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: October 7, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Bridget Shelmet, Department of Social  Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 726-7144,  FAX (804) 726-7357, or email bridget.shelmet@dss.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4443; Filed August 9, 2015, 10:07 a.m. 
 
                                                        REGULATIONS
Vol. 32 Iss. 1 - September 07, 2015
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 1VAC30-45. Certification for  Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories (amending 1VAC30-45-10, 1VAC30-45-30 through  1VAC30-45-130, 1VAC30-45-300 through 1VAC30-45-400, 1VAC30-45-500,  1VAC30-45-510, 1VAC30-45-520, 1VAC30-45-600, 1VAC30-45-610, 1VAC30-45-660,  1VAC30-45-670, 1VAC30-45-720 through 1VAC30-45-771, 1VAC30-45-775,  1VAC30-45-791, 1VAC30-45-796, 1VAC30-45-798, 1VAC30-45-811, 1VAC30-45-850;  adding 1VAC30-45-95; repealing 1VAC30-45-530, 1VAC30-45-780 through 1VAC30-45-788,  1VAC30-45-800 through 1VAC30-45-808, 1VAC30-45-820 through 1VAC30-45-829). 
    Statutory Authority: § 2.2-1105 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: November 6, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Rhonda Bishton, Regulatory Coordinator,  Department of General Services, 1100 Bank Street, Suite 420, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 786-3311, FAX (804) 371-8305, or email  rhonda.bishton@dgs.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 2.2-1102 A 1 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Department of General Services (DGS) to prescribe regulations  necessary or incidental to the performance of the department's duties or  execution of powers conferred by the Code of Virginia.
    Section 2.2-1105 A of the Code of Virginia authorizes the  Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services (DCLS) to establish and conduct a  program for the certification of laboratories conducting any tests, analyses,  measurements, or monitoring required pursuant to the Air Pollution Control Law  (§ 10.1-1300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia), the Virginia Waste  Management Act (§ 10.1-1400 et seq. of the Code of Virginia), or the State  Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Section 2.2-1105 C of the Code of Virginia authorizes DCLS to establish a fee system to  pay for the costs of the certification program.
    Purpose: Environmental laboratories are required by  § 2.2-1105 of the Code of Virginia to be certified before submitting data  to the Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) under Virginia's air, water,  and waste laws and regulations. This statutory requirement is carried out by  DCLS under the regulatory requirements of 1VAC30-45 (noncommercial  laboratories) and 1VAC30-46 (commercial laboratories).
    Certifying environmental laboratories to a single set of  standards has several benefits. Certification promotes continuous quality  improvement. Certification gives confidence that work is performed properly and  to a known standard. Under the certification program, assurance is provided  that all environmental laboratories meet the same proficiency testing and quality  assurance and quality control standards. Meeting these standards ensures that  the laboratories have the ability to produce environmental test data of known  quality and defensibility for levels of pollutants in environmental samples.  The limits set by DEQ for air and water pollutants and for solid and hazardous  waste help protect our environment and public health. Laboratory measurements  of environmental samples determine compliance with Virginia's environmental  laws and therefore are the key to providing protection of public health and  welfare. Certifying laboratories to one standard reduces the uncertainties  associated with decisions made by the regulatory agencies that affect the  protection of human health and the environment.
    Current fees charged under the program are insufficient to  support the program as required by § 2.2-1105 C of the Code of Virginia.  The current fees are inadequate for three reasons. First, the fees were set  initially using an estimate of the number of laboratories to be certified that  was too high. Second, the program fees were established in 2004 and do not  account for inflation in the intervening years. Third, the fee structure does  not take into account the variety and amount of testing done by the  laboratories that DCLS certifies.
    The original estimate of laboratories that would be covered by  the program was based on limited information provided by DEQ and other sources.  Using this information, DCLS estimated the number of in-house and commercial  laboratories that were serving DEQ permit holders. This estimate proved to be  too high and the resulting fees, based on these estimates, are too low. The  revised fees are based on the number of laboratories currently certified under  the program.
    The current fee provisions do not include a factor for  inflation. The fees were proposed in 2004 in regulations that did not become  final until 2009. The cost of living has increased by approximately 20% since  2004. The revised fees have been adjusted to account for this increase in the  cost of living.
    The current fee provisions do not take into account the range  of testing and the variety of testing done by the certified laboratories. This  results in fees that do not mirror the scope of the laboratory testing. The  work performed by DCLS to certify a laboratory is directly related to the  number of test methods performed and the number of matrices tested by the  laboratory. The revised fee structure accounts for these differences. The  revised fees are adjusted in proportion to the number of test methods a  laboratory performs and for the number of matrices tested.
    The agency has gained operational experience through certifying  laboratories since January 2009. The proposed action revises the procedures  used to certify the laboratories, eliminating provisions that no longer apply  and revising some provisions to make the program more efficient. This includes  the addition of procedures to suspend laboratory certification. Suspension is a  benefit to the laboratory that may otherwise have its certification withdrawn.
    Noncommercial environmental laboratories perform proficiency  tests quite well. During a 31-month period (2010, 2011, and the first nine  months of 2012), these laboratories had a 95.79% success rate. Through this  experience DCLS has determined that reducing the annual requirement for two  proficiency test studies for each field of certification to one proficiency  test study will reduce the cost of the program for the laboratories and for the  agency without reducing the benefit gained from the certification program.
    The current regulation contains requirements for laboratories  that perform toxicity, asbestos, or radiochemical testing. No current  noncommercial environmental laboratory performs these specialized types of  tests. DCLS is removing these requirements in this proposal for this reason.  Only those requirements pertinent to noncommercial laboratories should be  included in the regulation. The proposal does stipulate that if a noncommercial  environmental laboratory decides to perform one or more of these types of  tests, the laboratory would have to meet the requirements for these types of  testing that are set out in the 2009 TNI Standards incorporated by reference  into proposed 1VAC30-46. These laboratories would also need to pay the test  category fees for these types of testing as set out in proposed 1VAC30-46.
    The quality control requirements that are part of Article 4  (1VAC30-45-600 et seq.) in the current regulation are based on the 2003 NELAC  standards. The NELAC Institute (TNI) has revised the 2003 standards and now  requires TNI-accredited laboratories to meet the 2009 standards. The 2009 TNI  Standards have eliminated or increased flexibility for a number of these  quality control requirements. DCLS is proposing in a separate rulemaking (1VAC30-46)  that commercial environmental laboratories meet the 2009 TNI Standards. Where  TNI has revised these provisions to make them more flexible or has eliminated  requirements, this proposed action does the same so that the noncommercial  laboratories will not be required to meet standards more stringent than the  commercial laboratories.
    Substance: The substantive revisions to 1VAC30-45 are  listed below.
    1. 1VAC30-45-40. The definition of "environmental  analysis" includes two exceptions that DCLS has previously made through  guidance. 
    2. 1VAC30-45-70 B. The procedures pertinent to the initial  certification period are deleted. The initial certification period was  established as January 1, 2009, to January 1, 2012, when DCLS certified  environmental laboratories for the first time. Because DCLS has completed the  initial certification of noncommercial environmental laboratories, these  provisions no longer apply.
    3. 1VAC30-45-70 C. The requirement for laboratories to file an  application for renewal every other year is deleted. Renewal can be done  efficiently without an additional application process. 
    4. 1VAC30-45-95. A new section pertaining to suspension is  added. Suspension provides the laboratory an opportunity to correct a problem  that would ordinarily cause the agency to withdraw certification from the  laboratory. This section sets out the procedures used to suspend laboratory  certification in part or in total. DCLS also may provide extra time under these  provisions for a lab to correct deficiencies before suspension occurs. 
    5. 1VAC30-45-110. The procedures to deny or withdraw  certification are revised. The notification procedures are revised to be more  explicit. The appeal process provisions are simplified, referring only to the  Administrative Process Act. 
    6. 1VAC30-45-130. The current fees are replaced by a system and  new fees that reflect the current costs of the program. The revised fees  account for inflation since 2004. Revised fees represent more closely the cost  of certifying each laboratory. These fees take into account the number of test  methods and the number of matrices for which the laboratory seeks or maintains  certification. The cost of certifying a laboratory is directly proportional to  the number of methods and matrices to be certified. 
    7. 1VAC30-45-500 through 1VAC30-45-520. The requirement  for two successful proficiency test studies every year is replaced by a  requirement for one successful proficiency test study per year for each field  of certification. A laboratory may participate in a second proficiency test  study if the first test is unsuccessful. The revision to the proficiency test  requirements includes revised procedures. 
    8. 1VAC30-45-530. The specific requirements for aquatic  toxicity proficiency testing are deleted. Noncommercial environmental  laboratories currently certified under the program do not perform this type of  testing because it is specialized. 
    9. 1VAC30-45-750 B, 1VAC30-45-780 through 1VAC30-45-789,  1VAC30-45-800 through 1VAC30-45-809, and 1VAC30-45-819 through 1VAC30-45-840.  The quality control requirements for toxicity, radiochemical, and asbestos  testing are deleted. These types of testing are not performed by noncommercial  environmental laboratories currently certified under the program because this  testing is specialized. If a noncommercial laboratory wishes to become  certified for one or more of these types of testing, the laboratory will be  required to meet the 2009 TNI Standards requirements for toxicity,  radiochemical, and asbestos testing.
    10. Over 20 provisions in Article 4, the quality system  standards, have been deleted, relaxed, or made more flexible. These provisions  were revised to ensure that they are no more stringent than the accreditation  standards for commercial laboratories. DCLS is proposing in a separate  rulemaking to accredit commercial laboratories to the requirements of the 2009  TNI Standards replacing the currently used 2003 NELAC Standards. These changes  are a result of the change to the 2009 TNI Standards for commercial  laboratories.
    Issues: The advantage to the general public is the  maintenance of up-to-date standards for the certification of noncommercial  environmental laboratories. There are no disadvantages to the public.
    There are two primary reasons this action is necessary for DCLS  and the Commonwealth. First the revisions to 1VAC30-45 modify or reduce the  program's administrative requirements making the program more efficient to operate.  Second charging the revised fees will enable the agency to cover the cost of  the certification program. There are no disadvantages to the agency or  Commonwealth.
    There are a number of advantages for the environmental  laboratories certified under 1VAC30-45. Many of these proposed revisions reduce  the costs for the noncommercial laboratories. The main examples of the  revisions that reduce cost for the laboratories are described below.
    The proposed action drops the requirement to perform  proficiency test studies from two to one each year for each field of  certification. Noncommercial environmental laboratory costs will drop as a  result. In some cases this reduced requirement may offset the increase in fees  proposed in this action. The noncommercial laboratories have demonstrated a  high success rate in the performance of proficiency tests. These laboratories  have often asked that the proficiency test study requirement be limited to one  proficiency test. DCLS believes reducing the requirement from two to one  proficiency test each year will not have a negative effect on the efficacy of  the program.
    The noncommercial laboratories will also benefit from the  changes to the quality system standards. These revisions delete or relax  standards or provide flexibility in meeting the standards. These changes reduce  the costs of certification for the laboratories.
    The primary disadvantage of the proposed action for the  affected laboratories is the increase in fees. The fee structure is revised to  reflect the actual cost to the agency of certifying each laboratory. The fees  are increased generally and will be charged annually rather than every other  year. The increase in fees should be offset by the reduction in the proficiency  test requirement.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Division  of Consolidated Laboratory Services (DCLS) proposes to amend its regulations  that govern certification of noncommercial environmental laboratories. Current  regulations were initially proposed in 2004 and became effective in 2009. Now  that DCLS has had several years of experience in certifying noncommercial  laboratories, they are proposing to amend these regulations to remove obsolete  language, make many clarifying changes to regulatory text and also to make  several substantive changes to these regulations. The substantive changes that  DCLS proposes will:
    1. Add two types of tests that do not qualify under the  regulatory definition of environmental analysis,
    2. Remove the requirement that certified noncommercial labs  fill out a renewal application,
    3. Add new rules that will govern suspension of  non-compliant laboratories and revise the rules that govern denial and  withdrawal of certification, 
    4. Make changes to quality control rules in these  regulations so that they are harmonized with DCLS's regulations that govern  commercial environmental laboratories, 
    5. Reduce the number of successful proficiency tests that labs  must complete each year from two to one for each field of certification and 
    6. Increase fees.
    Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for most  proposed regulatory changes. For some proposed changes, there is insufficient  information to ascertain whether benefits outweigh costs.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Current regulations define  "environmental analysis" and list several types of testing that are  excluded from this definition. Laboratories are not required to be certified  under these regulations (for the purposes of complying with the Virginia Air  Pollution Control Act, the Virginia Waste Management Act and the State Water  Control Act) in order to perform tests that are on the excluded list. DCLS now  proposes to add two tests; geochemical and permeability testing for solid waste  compliance and materials specification for air quality compliance when product  certifications specify the data required by an air permit such as fuel type,  BTU content, sulfur content or VOC content, will be added to the excluded list.  DCLS staff reports that these tests are currently exempted in DCLS guidance. No  entity is likely to incur any costs on account of this regulatory change.  Regulated entities will likely gain some benefit from this change as language  in regulation is legally enforceable and regulated entities are entitled to  notice of any changes to such language and are also entitled to participate in  the process that any proposed changes must go through.
    Current regulations require certified labs to fill out a  renewal application at least 90 days before the expiration date of their  current certification. DCLS proposes to drop this requirement as they believe  that renewal of certification can be accomplished without a formal application  (by the lab attesting to compliance with applicable regulation, reporting  acceptable proficiency test results and by paying the required renewal fees).  No entity is likely to incur any costs on account of this proposed change as  labs will still have to remain in compliance with these regulations. Affected  labs will save some time and may also save some money (if they were not  submitting their renewal application electronically) on account of this change.
    Current regulations allow DCLS to decertify labs that are not  in compliance with regulations or that have been found to have falsified any  data or have provided false information to support certification. Labs that are  decertified currently would have to reapply for certification. DCLS proposes to  amend regulatory language for decertification to increase clarity and also proposes  to add rules for suspension of certification. Under these new rules, DCLS will  be able to notify labs of deficiencies and, in most cases, give them up to 60  days to remediate those deficiencies. Under proposed regulations, if a lab has  deficiencies, has been notified of those deficiencies and does not remediate  them within the allowed time, DCLS will be able to suspend certification for 6  months or the remainder of the certification period (whichever is longer).  Adding language that allows suspension of certification will benefit both the  department and affected labs. The department will have a remedy short of  decertification for the labs under their purview. Labs will benefit from these  changes as they will allow labs time to address identified problems without  going through the time and expense of reapplying for certification after they  have fixed their issues. No entity is likely to incur any additional expense  under these proposed changes.
    Current regulations are not identical to regulations for the certification  of commercial environmental laboratories. DCLS proposes to delete or relax  several quality control requirements in current regulations so that these  regulations are no more stringent than those for commercial environmental labs.  DCLS, for instance, proposes to delete language that requires a copy of  certification statements be retained in analysts' personnel files. No entity is  likely to incur additional costs on account of changes like these.  Noncommercial environmental labs are likely to accrue some time and money  savings on account of these changes that harmonize rules for noncommercial and  commercial environmental labs.
    Current regulations require certified labs to complete  proficiency testing for each field of certification approximately every 6  months. DCLS proposes to only require one successful test per certification  field each year in order to maintain certification. DCLS estimates that this  change will save labs that only perform simple test procedures (STP labs)  between $149 and $245 per year. General labs will save between $198 and $296  per year. This regulatory change will benefit labs while still requiring labs  to prove proficiency in testing for which they are certified.
    Current regulations require renewal of certification biennially  and include a fee schedule that was written in 2004 (and only effective since  2009) when this certification program became required by legislation. When  current fees were set, DCLS had limited information from DEQ and other sources  and over-estimated how many labs would need to be certified (and, therefore,  underestimated the approximate portion of the cost of the certification program  each lab would have to bear). As a consequence of both an initial  underestimation of sufficient fees and because fees have not been adjusted as  the cost of this certification program has risen, DCLS now proposes to require  certification to be renewed every year and to increase fees for renewal.
    Current renewal fees for the 56 certified STP labs are between  $475 and $600 every two years. Fees for the 53 certified general labs currently  range between $2,825 and $5,200 every two years. DCLS proposes to set the  annual renewal fee for STP labs at $600. DCLS also proposes to increase fees  for renewal of certification for general labs. DCLS staff estimates that fees  for 47 STP labs will increase by 100%; fees for the remaining 9 STP labs will  increase 153%. DCLS staff estimates that fees for general labs will increase  between 2% and 56%; fees for two labs will increase between 2% and 6%, fees for  22 labs will increase by between 19% and 28%, fees for 27 labs will increase  between 31% and 48% and fees for two labs will increase between 50% and 56%. 
    DCLS will benefit from these fee increases as they will likely  allow this regulatory program to be more fully self-funded. To the extent that  this program provides a benefit to the public, proposed fee increases will  allow that benefit to continue. Labs will bear the costs of these increased  fees. There is insufficient information to ascertain whether the benefits of  increasing fees will outweigh the costs of doing so.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. DCLS reports that they  certify 109 noncommercial labs under the provisions of these regulations. Of  these 109 labs certified, 80 belong to local governments, 13 are owned by  industrial companies, one is owned by a private water utility, eight belong to  the Commonwealth of Virginia and seven are run by agencies of the federal  government. None of these laboratories qualify as small businesses.
    Localities Particularly Affected. Localities with certified  labs will be particularly affected by this proposed regulatory action.
    Projected Impact on Employment. This regulatory action is  unlikely to affect employment in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. For affected  privately owned noncommercial labs, increasing fees will likely cause a small  decrease in company profits and in the value of companies that own these labs.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. No small businesses  will be affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. No small businesses will be affected by these proposed regulatory  changes.
    Real Estate Development Costs. This regulatory action will  likely have no effect on real estate development costs in the Commonwealth.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04  of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number 14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include, but need not  be limited to, a determination of the public benefit, the projected number of  businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity  of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly  affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be  affected, the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement  or comply with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private  property. Further, if the proposed regulation has an adverse effect on small  businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include (i) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses  subject to the regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and  other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency is providing the following comments on the July 6, 2015, revised  economic impact analysis (EIA).
    Estimated Economic Impact - page 3, first full paragraph. The  regulation for commercial environmental laboratories (1VAC30-46) is being  revised separately. The standards that commercial environmental laboratories  currently meet and will have to continue to meet under revised 1VAC30-46 are  different than those for noncommercial environmental laboratories under revised  1VAC30-45. The quality control standards are the same in both regulations as  currently written. The quality control standards for noncommercial  environmental laboratories are being harmonized under this proposed revision to  provide flexibility or to lessen the quality control requirements where the  revised standards for the commercial environmental laboratories also do so.  Where the proposed revisions to 1VAC30-46 for commercial environmental  laboratories provide flexibility or reduce requirements pertaining to these  standards, the revisions to 1VAC30-45 provide these identical changes to ensure  that the noncommercial laboratories are meeting no more stringent standards  than the commercial laboratories.
    Estimated Economic Impact - page 3, second full paragraph; and  page 4, first full paragraph. The agency background document, TH02, on page 10,  addresses the overall cost change of the proposed revisions to 1VAC30-45. While  the noncommercial laboratories will incur higher fees, the reduction in the  requirement to perform proficiency testing (PT) studies each year will greatly  compensate for this increase in fees.
    DCLS provides four examples in the TH02 to demonstrate how fees  will change under the new fee structure given the reduction in the requirement  to perform PT studies. The four examples follow for comparison.
    Example A: A laboratory performing a total of 8 test methods on  nonpotable water in four test categories (oxygen demand, bacteriology,  physical, and inorganic chemistry) will see a fee increase of 19% [current fee  annualized is $1787.50; proposed annual fee is $2125; increase of $337.50].
    Example B: A laboratory performing a total of 8 methods on  nonpotable water in four test categories (bacteriology, physical, inorganic  chemistry, and organic chemistry) will see a fee increase of 24% [current fee  annualized is $1900; proposed annual fee is $2350; increase of $450].
    Example C: A laboratory performing a total of 11 methods on  nonpotable water and solid and chemical materials in two test categories  (physical and inorganic chemistry) will see a fee increase of 28% [current fee  annualized is $1637.50; proposed annual fee is $2090; increase of $452.50].
    Example D: A laboratory performing a total of 9 methods on  nonpotable water and solid and chemical materials in four test categories  (oxygen demand, physical, bacteriology, and inorganic chemistry) will see a fee  increase of 31% [current fee annualized is $1787.50; proposed annual fee is  $2345; increase of $915].
    Most laboratories performing any number of tests defined as  simple test procedures (STP) will incur a fee increase of 100%. These  laboratories currently pay $600 every two years. Under the proposal they will  pay $600 annually, an increase of $300 each year.
    At the same time, DCLS will  require only one proficiency test study for each field of certification  (matrix, technology/method, and analyte). This is a significant cost reduction  for both the STP laboratories and the general laboratories. A typical STP  laboratory performs nonpotable water testing for E. coli, total suspended  solids, and biochemical oxygen demand. Some STPs perform only two of these  tests; others test pH in addition to these tests. The majority of the STP labs  (64%) will see an overall savings on average of between $149 and $245 each year  due to the reduced proficiency testing requirement.
    A typical general environmental lab performs tests for simple  and complex nutrients as well as those tests performed by the STP labs. Others  add a test for total residual chlorine to the basic STP lab tests. The majority  of the general environmental labs (64% or 34 labs) will save on average between  $198 and $296 each year from the reduction in the requirement to perform PT  studies. Twelve other general environmental laboratories are certified for many  fields of certification, including test methods for organic chemistry and  chemical metals testing. Their savings will be greater but their fees will be  higher as well.
    Using the four examples above, the reduction in PT costs would  be as follows: Example A=$296; Example B=$289; Example C=$362; and Example  D=$341.
    The PT costs illustrated above are an average of the prices  charged by four approved PT providers that offer all the PT studies required by  these laboratories.
    Overall Changes in Laboratory Cost to Maintain Certification.  While the proposed fees will increase, the cost of maintaining certification  will be reduced overall. The reduction in the requirement to purchase and  perform PT studies from two to one each year will offset the increase in fees  for all laboratories. This can be demonstrated by using the four examples shown  above for general environmental 1aboratories.
     
         
                 |      DESCRIPTION      |          EXAMPLE A      |          EXAMPLE B      |          EXAMPLE C      |          EXAMPLE D      |    
       |      Current annualized fee      |          $1787.50      |          $1900.00      |          $1637.50      |          $1787.50      |    
       |      Current PT cost      |          $592.00      |          $578.00      |          $724.00      |          $682.00      |    
       |      Total current fee and PT costs      |          $2379.50      |          $2478.00      |          $2361.50      |          $2469.50      |    
       |      Proposed annual fee      |          $2125.00      |          $2350.00      |          $2090.00      |          $2345.00      |    
       |      Reduced PT cost under     proposal      |          $296.00      |          $289.00      |          $362.00      |          $341.00      |    
       |      Total proposed fee and PT     costs      |          $2421.00      |          $2639.00      |          $2452.00      |          $2686.00      |    
       |      TOTAL INCREASE IN COST     TO MAINTAIN CERTIFICATION UNDER PROPOSAL      |          $41.50 (1.7%)      |          $161.00 (6.5%)      |          $90.50 (3.8%)      |          $216.50 (8.8%)      |    
  
         
          The  laboratories performing only simple test procedures (STP) will also benefit  from the reduction in the requirement to purchase and perform PT studies from  two to one each year. The PT section above indicates that 64% of STP  laboratories would see an average savings between $149 and $245 per year. To  demonstrate the overall cost change for STP laboratories, two examples are  provided using these PT cost savings. Example E will see a savings of $149 each  year. Example F will see a savings of $245 each year.
           |      DESCRIPTION      |          EXAMPLE    E      |          EXAMPLE    F      |    
       |      Current    annualized fee      |          $300.00      |          $300.00      |    
       |      Current    PT cost      |          $298.00      |          $490.00      |    
       |      Total current fee and PT costs      |          $598.00      |          $790.00      |    
       |      Proposed annual fee      |          $600.00      |          $600.00      |    
       |      Reduced PT cost under proposal      |          $149.00      |          $245.00      |    
       |      Total proposed fee and PT    costs      |          $749.00      |          $845.00      |    
       |      TOTAL INCREASE IN COST TO MAINTAIN    CERTIFICATION UNDER PROPOSAL      |          $151.00 (25.3%)      |          $55.00 (6.7%)      |    
  
         
          The increase in the proposed fees is substantially reduced by  the reduction in PT study requirements proposed under the revisions to  1VAC30-45. The examples provided show an overall increase of cost (fees and PT  studies) for the noncommercial laboratories ranging from 1.7% to 25.3% annually  compared with the increase in fees of 19% to 100%.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments (i) streamline the procedures for  application and renewal of certification, (ii) reduce the requirement to  perform proficiency test studies to one study annually for each field of  certification, (iii) eliminate requirements for specialized testing that  noncommercial laboratories currently do not perform, (iv) add procedures for  suspension of certification to provide a laboratory time to correct problems to  avoid decertification, (v) make explicit the requirements to notify a  laboratory that the agency has cause to deny certification or to decertify,  (vi) simplify the appeal procedure language, (vii) restructure and modify the  fee system and increase the fees paid by laboratories, and (viii) eliminate or  provide increased flexibility for a number of quality system provisions  (Article 4). 
    Part I 
  General Provisions 
    1VAC30-45-10. Purpose.
    Section 2.2-1105 of the Code of Virginia directs the Division  of Consolidated Laboratory Services to establish a program to certify  environmental laboratories that perform tests, analyses, measurements or monitoring  required pursuant to the Commonwealth's air, waste and water laws and  regulations. This chapter sets out the required standards and the process by  which owners of noncommercial environmental laboratories may obtain  certification for their laboratories. 1VAC30-46 covers commercial  environmental laboratories and NELAP-accredited environmental laboratories  seeking reciprocal accreditation in Virginia.
    1VAC30-45-30. Applicability.
    A. This chapter applies to any owner of a noncommercial  environmental laboratory.
    B. Any environmental laboratory owned by an agency of the  federal government may be certified as follows:
    1. By DGS-DCLS DCLS to the standards set out in  this chapter; or
    2. By a federal primary accrediting authority accreditation  body to the standards established by the National Environmental  Laboratory Accreditation Conference TNI.
    C. Citizen monitoring groups. Section 62.1-44.19:11 of the  Code of Virginia both establishes a citizen water quality monitoring program  for Virginia and encourages the growth of the program. The Department of  Environmental Quality (DEQ) has a separate program of quality assurance and  quality control (QA/QC) standards for citizen monitoring groups and their  laboratories to follow. The following laboratories shall meet the DEG QA/QC  requirements developed for the purposes of citizen monitoring of water quality  in lieu of the requirements of 1VAC30-45 or 1VAC30-46:
    1. Laboratories owned by citizen monitoring groups.
    2. Laboratories at institutions of higher education affiliated  with citizen monitoring groups for the purposes of analyzing samples for the  groups. 
    D. Environmental research performed by environmental  laboratories owned by institutions of higher education. Institutions of  higher education. Environmental laboratories owned by institutions of  higher education located in Virginia that perform analyses for the purpose of  providing environmental research data to DEQ at DEQ's request shall meet the  QA/QC requirements specified by DEQ. An environmental laboratory owned by an  institution of higher education located in Virginia that performs environmental  research for DEQ shall not be subject to the requirements of either 1VAC30-45  or 1VAC30-46 unless DEQ requires the laboratory to do so. 
    1VAC30-45-40. Definitions.
    Where a term is defined in this section, the term shall  have no other meaning, even if it is defined differently in the Code of  Virginia or another regulation of the Virginia Administrative Code. Unless  specifically defined in this section, the terms used in this chapter shall have  the meanings commonly ascribed to them by recognized authorities. The  following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following  meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
    "Acceptance criteria" means specified limits placed  on characteristics of an item, process, or service defined in requirement  documents.
    "Accuracy" means the degree of agreement between an  observed value and an accepted reference value. Accuracy includes a combination  of random error (precision) and systematic error (bias) components that are due  to sampling and analytical operations. Accuracy is an indicator of data  quality.
    "Algae" means simple single-celled, colonial, or  multicelled, mostly aquatic plants, containing chlorophyll and lacking roots,  stems and leaves that are either suspended in water (phytoplankton) or attached  to rocks and other substrates (periphyton). 
    "Aliquot" means a portion of a sample taken for  analysis.
    "Analyte" means the substance or physical property  to be determined in samples examined.
    "Analytical method" means a technical procedure for  providing analysis of a sample, defined by a body such as the Environmental  Protection Agency or the American Society for Testing and Materials, that may  not include the sample preparation method.
    "Assessment" means the evaluation process used to  measure or establish the performance, effectiveness, and conformance of an  organization and its systems or both to defined criteria.
    "Assessor" means the person who performs on-site  assessments of laboratories' capability and capacity for meeting the  requirements under this chapter by examining the records and other physical  evidence for each one of the tests for which certification has been requested  assigned by DCLS to perform, alone or as part of an assessment team, an  assessment of an environmental laboratory.
    "Audit" means a systematic evaluation to determine  the conformance to quantitative and qualitative specifications of some  operational function or activity.
    "Authority" means, in the context of a governmental  body or local government, an authority created under the provisions of the  Virginia Water and Waste Authorities Act, Chapter 51 (§ 15.2-5100 et seq.)  of Title 15.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Batch" means environmental samples that are  prepared together or analyzed together or both with the same process and  personnel, using the same lot or lots of reagents. "Analytical batch"  means a batch composed of prepared environmental samples (extracts, digestates  or concentrates) that are analyzed together as a group. An analytical batch can  include prepared samples originating from various environmental matrices and  can exceed 20 samples. "Preparation batch" means a batch composed of  one to 20 environmental samples of the same matrix that meets the criteria in  this definition for "batch" and with a maximum time between the start  of processing of the first and last sample in the batch to be 24 hours.
    "Benthic macroinvertebrates" means bottom dwelling  animals without backbones that live at least part of their life cycles within  or upon available substrates within a body of water. 
    "Blank" means a sample that has not been exposed to  the analyzed sample stream in order to monitor contamination during sampling,  transport, storage or analysis. The blank is subjected to the usual analytical  and measurement process to establish a zero baseline or background value and is  sometimes used to adjust or correct routine analytical results. Blanks include  the following types:
    1. Field blank. A blank prepared in the field by filling a  clean container with pure deionized water and appropriate preservative, if any,  for the specific sampling activity being undertaken.
    2. Method blank. A sample of a matrix similar to the batch of  associated samples (when available) that is free from the analytes of interest  and is processed simultaneously with and under the same conditions as samples  through all steps of the analytical procedures, and in which no target analytes  or interferences are present at concentrations that impact the analytical  results for sample analyses. 
    "Calibration" means to determine, by measurement or  comparison with a standard, the correct value of each scale reading on a meter,  instrument or other device. The levels of the applied calibration standard  should bracket the range of planned or expected sample measurements.
    "Calibration curve" means the graphical  relationship between the known values, such as concentrations, of a series of  calibration standards and their instrument response.
    "Calibration standard" means a substance or  reference material used to calibrate an instrument.
    "Certified reference material" means a reference  material one or more of whose property values are certified by a technically  valid procedure, accompanied by or traceable to a certificate or other  documentation that is issued by a certifying body. 
    "Client" or "customer" means the  Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) when used in the context of quality  assurance and specific quality control provisions.
    "Commercial environmental laboratory" means an  environmental laboratory where environmental analysis is performed for another  person.
    "Corrective action" means the action taken to  eliminate the causes of an existing nonconformity, defect or other undesirable  situation in order to prevent recurrence.
    "DGS-DCLS" "DCLS" means the  Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services of the Department of General  Services.
    "Demonstration of capability" means the procedure  to establish the ability of the analyst to generate data of acceptable accuracy  and precision.
    "Detection limit" means the lowest concentration or  amount of the target analyte that can be determined to be different from zero  by a single measurement at a stated degree of confidence.
    "Environmental analysis" or "environmental  analyses" means any test, analysis, measurement, or monitoring used for  the purposes of the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law, the Virginia Waste  Management Act or the State Water Control Law (§ 10.1-1300 et seq., § 10.1-1400  et seq., and § 62.1-44.2 et seq., respectively, of the Code of Virginia).  For the purposes of these regulations, any test, analysis, measurement, or  monitoring required pursuant to the regulations promulgated under these three  laws, or by any permit or order issued under the authority of any of these laws  or regulations is "used for the purposes" of these laws. The term  shall not include the following:
    1. Sampling of water, solid and chemical materials, biological  tissue, or air and emissions.
    2. Field testing and measurement of water, solid and chemical  materials, biological tissue, or air and emissions, except when performed in an  environmental laboratory rather than at the site where the sample was taken.
    3. Taxonomic identification of samples for which there is no  national accreditation standard such as algae, benthic macroinvertebrates,  macrophytes, vertebrates and zooplankton. 
    4. Protocols used pursuant to § 10.1-104.2 of the Code of  Virginia to determine soil fertility, animal manure nutrient content, or plant  tissue nutrient uptake for the purposes of nutrient management.
    5. Geochemical and permeability testing for solid waste  compliance.
    6. Materials specification for air quality compliance when  product certifications specify the data required by an air permit such as fuel  type, Btu content, sulfur content, or VOC content.
    "Environmental laboratory" or  "laboratory" means a facility or a defined area within a facility  where environmental analysis is performed. A structure built solely to shelter  field personnel and equipment from inclement weather shall not be considered an  environmental laboratory. 
    "Establishment date" means the date set for the  accreditation program under 1VAC30-46 and the certification program to be  established under this chapter.
    "Establishment of certification program" or  "established program" means that DGS-DCLS DCLS has  completed the initial accreditation of environmental laboratories covered by  1VAC30-46 and the initial certification of environmental laboratories covered  by 1VAC30-45.
    "Facility" means something that is built or  installed to serve a particular function.
    "Field of certification" or "FoC"  means an approach to certifying laboratories by those matrix,  technology/method, and analyte/analyte group analyte  combinations for which DCLS offers certification.
    "Field of proficiency testing" or  "FoPT" means analytes for which a laboratory is required to  successfully analyze a PT sample in order to obtain or maintain certification,  collectively defined as matrix, technology/method, and analyte.
    "Field testing and measurement" means any of the  following:
    1. Any test for parameters under 40 CFR Part 136 for which the  holding time indicated for the sample requires immediate analysis; or
    2. Any test defined as a field test in federal regulation.
    The following is a limited list of currently recognized field  tests or measures that is not intended to be inclusive: continuous emissions  monitoring; on-line online monitoring; flow monitoring; tests for  pH, residual chlorine, temperature and dissolved oxygen; and field analysis for  soil gas.
    "Finding" means an assessment conclusion that  identifies a condition having a significant effect on an item or activity. An  assessment finding is normally a deficiency and is normally accompanied by  specific examples of the observed condition. referenced to a laboratory  certification standard and supported by objective evidence that identifies a  deviation from a laboratory certification standard requirement. 
    "Governmental body" means any department, agency,  bureau, authority, or district of the United States government, of the  government of the Commonwealth of Virginia, or of any local government within  the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    "Holding time (or maximum allowable holding time)"  means the maximum time that a sample may be held prior to analysis and still  be considered valid or not compromised can elapse between two specified  activities.
    "Initial certification period" means the period  during which DGS-DCLS is accepting and processing applications for the first time  under this chapter as specified in 1VAC30-45-60.
    "International System of Units (SI)" means the  coherent system of units adopted and recommended by the General Conference on  Weights and Measures.
    "Laboratory control sample" or "LCS"  means a sample matrix, free from the analytes of interest, spiked with verified  known amounts of analytes or a material containing known and verified amounts  of analytes. It is generally used to establish intra-laboratory or analyst  specific precision and bias or to assess the performance of all or a portion of  the measurement system. "Laboratory control sample" or  "LCS" may also be named laboratory fortified blank, spiked blank, or  QC check sample. 
    "Laboratory manager" means the person who has  overall responsibility for the technical operation of the environmental  laboratory and who exercises actual day-to-day supervision of laboratory  operation for the appropriate fields of testing and reporting of results. The  title of this person may include but is not limited to laboratory director,  technical director, laboratory supervisor or laboratory manager.
    "Legal entity" means an entity, other than a  natural person, who has sufficient existence in legal contemplation that it can  function legally, be sued or sue, and make decisions through agents as  in the case of corporations.
    "Limit of detection" or "LOD" means an  estimate of the minimum amount of a substance that an analytical process can  reliably detect. An LOD is analyte and matrix specific and may be laboratory  dependent.
    "Limit of quantitation" or "LOQ" means  the minimum levels, concentrations, or quantities of a target variable (e.g.,  target analyte) that can be reported with a specified degree of confidence. 
    "Local government" means a municipality (city or  town), county, sanitation district, or authority.
    "Macrophytes" means any aquatic or terrestrial  plant species that can be identified and observed with the eye, unaided by  magnification. 
    "Matrix" means the component or substrate that may  contain the analyte of interest. A matrix can be a field of certification  matrix or a quality system matrix. 
    1. Field of certification matrix. These matrix definitions  shall be used when certifying a laboratory.
    a. Non-potable Nonpotable water. Any aqueous  sample that has not been designated a potable or potential potable water  source. Includes surface water, groundwater, effluents, water treatment  chemicals, and TCLP or other extracts.
    b. Solid and chemical materials. Includes soils, sediments,  sludges, products and byproducts of an industrial process that results in a  matrix not previously defined.
    c. Biological tissue. Any sample of a biological origin such  as fish tissue, shellfish, or plant material. Such samples shall be grouped according  to origin.
    d. Air and emissions. Whole gas or vapor samples including  those contained in flexible or rigid wall containers and the extracted  concentrated analytes of interest from a gas or vapor that are collected with a  sorbent tube, impinger solution, filter or other device.
    2. Quality system matrix. For purposes of batch and quality  control requirement determinations, the following matrix types shall be used:
    a. Drinking water. Any aqueous sample that has been designated  a potable or potential potable water source.
    b. Aqueous. Any aqueous sample excluded from the definition of  drinking water matrix or saline/estuarine source. Includes surface water,  groundwater, effluents, and TCLP or other extracts.
    c. Saline/estuarine. Any aqueous sample from an ocean or  estuary, or other salt water source.
    d. Nonaqueous liquid. Any organic liquid with less than 15%  settleable solids.
    e. Biological tissue. Any sample of a biological origin such  as fish tissue, shellfish, or plant material. Such samples shall be grouped  according to origin.
    f. Solids. Includes soils, sediments, sludges and other  matrices with more than 15% settleable solids.
    g. Chemical waste. A product or by-product byproduct  of an industrial process that results in a matrix not previously defined.
    h. Air and emissions. Whole gas or vapor samples including  those contained in flexible or rigid wall containers and the extracted  concentrated analytes of interest from a gas or vapor that are collected with a  sorbent tube, impinger solution, filter or other device.
    "Matrix spike (spiked sample or fortified sample)"  means a sample prepared by adding a known mass of target analyte to a specified  amount of matrix sample for which an independent estimate of target analyte  concentration is available. Matrix spikes are used, for example, to determine  the effect of the matrix on a method's recovery efficiency.
    "Matrix spike duplicate (spiked sample or fortified  sample duplicate)" means a second replicate matrix spike prepared in the  laboratory and analyzed to obtain a measure of the precision of the recovery  for each analyte. 
    "National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation  Conference (NELAC)" means a voluntary organization of state and federal  environmental officials and interest groups with the primary purpose to  establish mutually acceptable standards for accrediting environmental  laboratories. A subset of NELAP.
    "National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation  Program (NELAP)" means the overall National Environmental Laboratory  Accreditation Program of which NELAC is a part.
    "National Institute of Standards and Technology" or  "NIST" means an agency of the U.S. Department of Commerce's  Technology Administration that is working with EPA, states, NELAC, and other  public and commercial entities to establish a system under which private sector  companies and interested states can be certified by NIST to provide  NIST-traceable proficiency testing (PT) samples.
    "Negative control" means measures taken to ensure  that a test, its components, or the environment do not cause undesired effects,  or produce incorrect test results.
    "Noncommercial environmental laboratory" means  either of the following:
    1. An environmental laboratory where environmental analysis is  performed solely for the owner of the laboratory.
    2. An environmental laboratory where the only performance of  environmental analysis for another person is one of the following:
    a. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory owned by a local government for an owner of a small wastewater treatment  system treating domestic sewage at a flow rate of less than or equal to 1,000  gallons per day.
    b. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory operated by a corporation as part of a general contract issued by a  local government to operate and maintain a wastewater treatment system or a  waterworks.
    c. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory owned by a corporation as part of the prequalification process or to  confirm the identity or characteristics of material supplied by a potential or  existing customer or generator as required by a hazardous waste management  permit under 9VAC20-60.
    d. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory owned by a Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW) for an industrial  source of wastewater under a permit issued by the POTW to the industrial source  as part of the requirements of a pretreatment program under Part VII  (9VAC25-31-730 et seq.) of 9VAC25-31.
    e. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory owned by a county authority for any municipality within the county's  geographic jurisdiction when the environmental analysis pertains solely to the  purpose for which the authority was created.
    f. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental laboratory  owned by an authority or a sanitation district for any participating local  government of the authority or sanitation district when the environmental  analysis pertains solely to the purpose for which the authority or sanitation  district was created.
    "Owner" means any person who owns, operates, leases  or controls an environmental laboratory.
    "Person" means an individual, corporation,  partnership, association, company, business, trust, joint venture or other  legal entity.
    "Physical," for the purposes of fee test  categories, means the tests to determine the physical properties of a sample.  Tests for solids, turbidity and color are examples of physical tests.
    "Positive control" means measures taken to ensure  that a test or its components are working properly and producing correct or  expected results from positive test subjects.
    "Precision" means the degree to which a set of  observations or measurements of the same property, obtained under similar  conditions, conform to themselves. Precision is an indicator of data quality.  Precision is expressed usually as standard deviation, variance or range, in  either absolute or relative terms.
    "Primary accrediting authority accreditation  body" means the agency or department designated at the territory,  state or federal level as the recognized authority with the responsibility and  accountability for granting NELAC accreditation to a specific laboratory for a  specific field of accreditation body responsible for assessing a  laboratory's total quality system, on-site assessment, and PT performance  tracking for fields of accreditation.
    "Proficiency test or testing (PT)" means evaluating  a laboratory's performance under controlled conditions relative to a given set  of criteria through analysis of unknown samples provided by an external source.
    "Proficiency test (PT) field of testing" means  the approach to offer proficiency testing by maxtrix, technology/method, and  analyte/analyte group.
    "Proficiency test (PT) sample" means a sample, the  composition of which is unknown to both the analyst and the laboratory and  is provided to test whether the analyst or laboratory or both laboratory  can produce analytical results within specified acceptance criteria.
    "Proficiency testing (PT) program" means the  aggregate of providing rigorously controlled and standardized environmental  samples to a laboratory for analysis, reporting of results, statistical  evaluation of the results and the collective demographics and results summary  of all participating laboratories.
    "Program," in the context of a regulatory program,  means the relevant U.S. Environmental Protection Agency program such as the  water program under the Clean Water Act (CWA), the air program under the Clean  Air Act (CAA), the waste program under the Comprehensive Environmental Response,  Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA or Superfund) or the waste program under  the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).
    "Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW)" means a  treatment works as defined by § 212 of the CWA, which is owned by a state or municipality  (as defined by § 502(4) of the CWA). This definition includes any devices and  systems used in the storage, treatment, recycling, and reclamation of municipal  sewage or industrial wastes of a liquid nature. It also includes sewers, pipes,  and other conveyances only if they convey wastewater to a POTW treatment plant.  The term also means the municipality as defined in § 502(4) of the CWA, which  has jurisdiction over the indirect discharges to and the discharges from such a  treatment works.
    "Quality assurance" or "QA" means  an integrated system of management activities involving planning, quality  control, quality implementation, assessment, reporting and quality  improvement to ensure that a product process, item, or service meets  defined standards of quality with a stated level of confidence is of the  type and quality needed and expected by the client.
    "Quality assurance officer" means the person who  has responsibility for the quality system and its implementation. Where  staffing is limited, the quality assurance officer may also be the laboratory  manager.
    "Quality control" or "QC" means  the overall system of technical activities whose purpose is to measure and  control the quality of a product or service so that it meets the needs of users  that measures the attributes and performance of a process, item, or service  against defined standards to verify that they meet the stated requirements  established by the customer; operational techniques and activities that are  used to fulfill requirements for quality; and also the system of activities and  checks used to ensure that measurement systems are maintained within prescribed  limits, providing protection against "out of control" conditions and  ensuring that the results are of acceptable quality.
    "Quality manual" means a document stating the  management policies, objectives, principles, organizational structure and  authority, responsibilities, accountability, and implementation of an agency,  organization, or laboratory, to ensure the quality of its product and the  utility of its product to its users.
    "Quality system" means a structured and documented  management system describing the policies, objectives, principles,  organizational authority, responsibilities, accountability, and implementation  plan of an organization for ensuring quality in its work processes, products  (items), and services. The quality system provides the framework for planning,  implementing, and assessing work performed by the organization and for carrying  out required quality assurance and quality control activities.
    "Range" means the difference between the minimum  and maximum of a set of values.
    "Reference material" means a material or substance  one or more properties of which are sufficiently well established to be used  for the calibration of an apparatus, the assessment of a measurement test  method, or for assigning values to materials.
    "Reference standard" means a standard, generally of  the highest metrological quality available at a given location, from which  measurements made at that location are derived. 
    "Responsible official" means one of the following,  as appropriate:
    1. If the laboratory is owned or operated by a private  corporation, "responsible official" means (i) a president, secretary,  treasurer, or a vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal  business function, or any other person who performs similar policy-making or  decision-making functions for the corporation or (ii) the manager of one or  more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities employing more than 250  persons or having gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in  second-quarter 1980 dollars), if authority to sign documents has been assigned  or delegated in accordance with corporate procedures.
    2. If the laboratory is owned or operated by a partnership,  association, or a sole proprietor, "responsible official" means a  general partner, officer of the association, or the proprietor, respectively.
    3. If the laboratory is owned or operated by a governmental  body, "responsible official" means a director or highest official  appointed or designated to oversee the operation and performance of the  activities of the environmental laboratory.
    4. Any person designated as the responsible official by an  individual described in subdivision 1, 2 or 3 of this definition, provided the  designation is in writing, the designation specifies an individual or position  with responsibility for the overall operation of the environmental laboratory,  and the designation is submitted to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
    "Sampling" means the act of collection for the  purpose of analysis.
    "Sanitation district" means a sanitation district  created under the provisions of Chapters 3 (§ 21-141 et seq.) through 5 (§ 21-291  et seq.) of Title 21 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Sewage" means the water-carried human wastes from  residences, buildings, industrial establishments or other places together with  such industrial wastes and underground, surface, storm, or other water as may  be present.
    "Simple test procedures" or "STP"  means any of the following:
    1. Field testing and measurement performed in an environmental  laboratory.
    2. The test procedures to determine:
    a. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) or carbonaceous BOD  (CBOD);
    b. Fecal coliform;
    c. Total coliform;
    d. Fecal streptococci;
    e. E. coli;
    f. Enterococci; 
    g. Settleable solids (SS);
    h. Total dissolved solids (TDS);
    i. Total solids (TS);
    j. Total suspended solids (TSS);
    k. Total volatile solids (TVS); and
    l. Total volatile suspended solids (TVSS).
    "Standard operating procedure (SOP)" or  "SOP" means a written document that details the method of an  operation, analysis or action whose techniques and procedures are thoroughly  prescribed and which is accepted for an operation, analysis, or action  with thoroughly prescribed techniques and steps. An SOP is officially approved  as the method for performing certain routine or repetitive tasks.
    "Standardized reference material (SRM)" or  "SRM" means a certified reference material produced by the U.S.  National Institute of Standards and Technology or other equivalent organization  and characterized for absolute content, independent of analytical method.
    "System laboratory" means a noncommercial  laboratory that analyzes samples from multiple facilities having the same  owner. 
    "TCLP" or "toxicity characteristic leachate  procedure" means Test Method 1311 in "Test Methods for Evaluating  Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," EPA Publication SW-846, as  incorporated by reference in 40 CFR 260.11. This method is used to determine  whether a solid waste exhibits the characteristic of toxicity (see 40 CFR  261.24).
    "Test" means a technical operation that consists of  the determination of one or more characteristics or performance of a given  product, material, equipment, organism, physical phenomenon, process or service  according to a specified procedure.
    "Test, analysis, measurement or monitoring required  pursuant to the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law" means any method of  analysis required by the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law (§ 10.1-1300 et  seq.); by the regulations promulgated under this law (9VAC5) including any  method of analysis listed either in the definition of "reference  method" in 9VAC5-10-20, or listed or adopted by reference in 9VAC5; or by  any permit or order issued under and in accordance with this law and these  regulations.
    "Test, analysis, measurement or monitoring required  pursuant to the Virginia Waste Management Act" means any method of  analysis required by the Virginia Waste Management Act (§ 10.1-1400 et seq.);  by the regulations promulgated under this law (9VAC20), including any method of  analysis listed or adopted by reference in 9VAC20; or by any permit or order  issued under and in accordance with this law and these regulations.
    "Test, analysis, measurement or monitoring required  pursuant to the Virginia Water Control Law" means any method of analysis  required by the Virginia Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq.); by the  regulations promulgated under this law (9VAC25), including any method of  analysis listed or adopted by reference in 9VAC25; or by any permit or order  issued under and in accordance with this law and these regulations.
    "Test method" means an adoption of a scientific  technique for performing a specific measurement as documented in a laboratory  standard operating procedure or as published by a recognized authority.
    "The NELAC Institute" or "TNI" means  the organization whose standards environmental laboratories must meet to become  accredited under 1VAC30-46, the regulation governing commercial environmental  laboratories in Virginia.
    "Toxicity characteristic leachate procedure" or  "TCLP" means Test Method 1311 in "Test Methods for Evaluating  Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," EPA Publication SW-846, as  incorporated by reference in 40 CFR 260.11. This method is used to determine  whether a solid waste exhibits the characteristic of toxicity (see 40 CFR  261.24).
    "Traceability" means the property of a  result of a measurement whereby it can be related to appropriate standards,  generally international or national standards, through an unbroken chain of  comparisons.
    "U.S. Environmental Protection Agency" or  "EPA" means the federal government agency with responsibility for  protecting, safeguarding and improving the natural environment (i.e., air,  water and land) upon which human life depends.
    "Virginia Air Pollution Control Law" means Chapter  13 (§ 10.1-1300 et seq.) of Title 10.1 of the Code of Virginia, which is  titled "Air Pollution Control Board."
    "Virginia Environmental Laboratory Accreditation  Program" or "VELAP" means the program DCLS operates to certify  environmental laboratories under this chapter.
    "Wastewater" means liquid and water-carried  industrial wastes and domestic sewage from residential dwellings, commercial  buildings, industrial and manufacturing facilities and institutions. 
    "Waterworks" means each system of structures and  appliances used in connection with the collection, storage, purification, and  treatment of water for drinking or domestic use and the distribution thereof to  the public, except distribution piping.
    "Zooplankton" means microscopic animals that float freely  with voluntary movement in a body of water. 
    1VAC30-45-50. Scope of certification.
    A. Noncommercial environmental laboratories shall be  certified based on the general laboratory standards set out in Part II  (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter and on the specific test methods or  analysis, monitoring or measurement required by regulatory permit or other  requirement under the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law, Virginia Waste  Management Act, or Virginia Water Control Law, the regulations  promulgated under these laws, and by permits and orders issued under and in  accordance with these laws or regulations.
    B. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall review alternative test  methods and procedures for certification when these are proposed by the  applicant laboratory. The provisions of 1VAC30-45-70 E and 1VAC30-45-90 B  govern alternative test methods and procedures.
    C. Certification shall be granted for one or more fields of  certification, including the matrix, the technology and methods used by the  noncommercial environmental laboratory, and the individual analytes or  analyte groups determined by the particular method used by the  laboratory.
    1VAC30-45-60. General: certification requirements.
    A. Components of certification. The components of  certification include review of personnel qualifications, on-site assessment,  proficiency testing, and quality systems. The criteria for these components,  set out in Part II (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter, shall be fulfilled  for certification.
    B. Individual laboratory sites and mobile laboratories.
    1. Individual laboratory sites are subject to the same  application process, assessments, and other requirements as environmental  laboratories. Any remote laboratory sites are considered separate sites and  subject to separate on-site assessments.
    2. Laboratories located at the same physical location shall be  considered an individual laboratory site if these laboratories are owned by the  same person, and have the same laboratory manager and quality system.
    3. Laboratories located at separate, noncontiguous physical  locations may request to be considered as an individual laboratory site if  these laboratories are owned by the same person and have the same laboratory  manager and quality system. 
    4. 3. A mobile laboratory, which is configured  with equipment to perform analyses, whether associated with a fixed-based  laboratory or not, is considered an environmental laboratory and shall require  separate certification. This certification shall remain with the mobile  laboratory and be site independent. Moving the configured mobile laboratory to  a different site will not require a new or separate certification. Before  performing analyses at each new site, the laboratory shall ensure that  instruments and equipment have been checked for performance and have been  calibrated.
    1VAC30-45-70. Process to apply and obtain certification.
    A. Duty to apply. All owners of noncommercial environmental  laboratories shall apply for certification as specified by the provisions of  this section. Applications for certification must be obtained from DCLS  program staff by email at Lab_Cert@dgs.virginia.gov.
    B. Timely initial applications.
    1. Owners of noncommercial environmental laboratories  applying for certification under this chapter for the first time shall submit  an application to DGS-DCLS no later than September 29, 2009.
    2. Owners of noncommercial environmental laboratories that  come into existence after January 1, 2009, shall submit an initial application  to DGS-DCLS no later than 180 calendar days prior to beginning operation.
    C. Timely renewal applications. The owner of a certified  noncommercial environmental laboratory shall submit an application for renewal  of certification at least 90 calendar days prior to expiration of  certification.
    B. Owners of noncommercial environmental laboratories  applying for certification under this chapter for the first time shall submit  an application to DCLS as specified under subsection F of this section.
    C. Renewal and  reassessment.
    1. DCLS shall renew certification annually for the  certified laboratory provided the laboratory does the following:
    a. Maintains compliance with this chapter.
    b. Attests to this compliance by signing the certificate of  compliance provided under subdivision F 3 of this section.
    c. Reports acceptable proficiency test values as required  by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    d. Pays the fee required by 1VAC30-45-130.
    2. DCLS shall reassess the certified environmental  laboratory during an on-site assessment as required by Article 2 (1VAC30-45-300  et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    D. Responsibilities of the owner and operator when the  laboratory is owned by one person and operated by another person.
    1. When an environmental laboratory is owned by one person but  is operated by another person, the operator may submit the application for the  owner.
    2. If the operator fails to submit the application, the owner  is not relieved of his responsibility to apply for certification.
    3. While DGS-DCLS DCLS may notify noncommercial  environmental laboratories of the date their applications are due, failure of DGS-DCLS  DCLS to notify does not relieve the owner of his obligation to apply  under this chapter.
    E. Submission of applications for modifications to  certification. An owner of a certified noncommercial environmental laboratory  shall follow the process set out in 1VAC30-45-90 B to add a new matrix,  technology/method, an analyte or analyte group, modify a test method or  institute use of a method or technology not in the laboratory's standard operating  procedures, including alternative test methods or procedures to modify  the laboratory's scope of certification.
    F. Contents of application.
    1. Applications shall include but not be limited to the  following information and documents:
    a. Legal name of laboratory;
    b. Name of owner of laboratory;
    c. Name of operator of laboratory, if different than owner;
    d. Street address and description of location of laboratory;
    e. Mailing address of laboratory, if different from street  address;
    f. Address of owner, if different from laboratory address;
    g. Name, address, telephone number, facsimile number and e-mail  email, as applicable, of responsible official; 
    h. Name, address, telephone number, facsimile number and e-mail  email, as applicable, of laboratory manager;
    i. Name, address, telephone number, facsimile number and e-mail  email, as applicable, of designated quality assurance officer;
    j. Name title, and telephone number of laboratory  contact person;
    k. Laboratory type (e.g., public water system, public wastewater  system or combination of the two, or industrial (with type of industry  indicated));
    l. Laboratory hours of operation;
    m. Fields of certification (matrix, technology/method, and analyte/analyte  group) analyte) for which certification is sought;
    n. Methods employed, including analytes;
    o. n. The results of the three most recent  proficiency test studies one successful unique PT study for each field  of proficiency testing as required by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part  II of this chapter;
    p. o. Quality assurance manual; and
    q. Lab identification number (for renewal only); and
    r. p. For mobile laboratories, a unique vehicle  identification number, such as a manufacturer's vehicle identification number  (VIN#), serial number, or license number.
    2. Fee. The application shall include payment of the fee as  specified in 1VAC30-45-130.
    3. Certification of compliance.
    a. The application shall include a "Certification of  Compliance" statement signed and dated by the responsible official, by the  quality control officer and by the laboratory manager.
    b. The certification of compliance shall state: "The  applicant understands and acknowledges that the laboratory is required to be  continually in compliance with the Virginia environmental laboratory  certification program regulation (1VAC30, Chapter 45) and is subject to the  provisions of 1VAC30-45-100 in the event of noncompliance. I certify under  penalty of law that this document and all attachments were prepared under my  direction or supervision in accordance with a system designed to assure that  qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information submitted.  Based on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the laboratory or those  persons directly responsible for gathering and evaluating the information, the  information submitted is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true,  accurate and complete. Submitting false information or data shall result in  denial of certification or decertification. I hereby further certify that I am  authorized to sign this application."
    G. Completeness determination.
    1. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall determine whether an  application is complete and notify the laboratory of the result of such  determination. During the initial certification period, DGS-DCLS DCLS  shall provide this notice within 90 calendar days of its receipt of a  laboratory's initial application. Following the initial certification  period, DGS-DCLS shall provide this notice within 60 calendar days of  DGS-DCLS's receipt of a laboratory's initial application and within 30 calendar  days of DGS-DCLS' receipt of a laboratory's renewal application.
    2. An application shall be determined complete if it contains  all the information required pursuant to subsection F of this section and is  sufficient to evaluate the laboratory prior to the on-site assessment.  Designating an application complete does not preclude DGS-DCLS DCLS  from requesting or accepting additional information.
    3. If DGS-DCLS DCLS determines that an  application is incomplete, DGS-DCLS's the DCLS notification of  such determination shall explain why the application is incomplete and specify  the additional information needed to make the application complete. 
    4. Except during the initial certification period, if If  DCLS makes no determination is made within 60 within 90  calendar days of DGS-DCLS's its receipt of either (i) the  application or (ii) additional information, in the case of an application  determined to be incomplete, the application shall be determined to be  complete. During the initial certification period, the time period shall be  90 calendar days.
    5. If the laboratory has not submitted the required additional  information within 90 days of receiving a notice from DGS-DCLS DCLS  requesting additional information, DGS-DCLS DCLS may return  the incomplete application and inform the laboratory that the application  cannot be processed. The laboratory may then submit a new application.
    H. Grant of interim certification pending final determination  on application.
    1. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall grant a laboratory interim  certification status under the following conditions:
    a. The laboratory's application is determined to be complete;
    b. The laboratory has satisfied all the requirements for  certification, including all requests for additional information, with the exception  of on-site assessment; and
    c. DGS-DCLS DCLS is unable to schedule the  on-site assessment within 90 120 days of its determination that  the application is complete (for initial applications) or before the  laboratory's certification expires (for renewal applications).
    2. A laboratory with interim certification status shall have  the same rights and status as a laboratory that has been granted certification  by DGS-DCLS DCLS.
    3. Interim certification expires when DGS-DCLS DCLS  issues a final determination on certification.
    I. On-site assessment. 1. An on-site assessment shall  be performed and the follow-up and reporting procedures for such assessments  shall be completed in accordance with Article 2 (1VAC30-45-300 et seq.) of Part  II of this chapter prior to issuance of a final determination on certification.  
    2. Alternative on-site assessment option. If DGS-DCLS is  unable to schedule an on-site assessment under the conditions of subsection H 1  c of this section, the owner of the applicant laboratory may use third-party  on-site assessors instead of DGS-DCLS on-site assessors under the following  conditions:
    a. The third-party on-site assessors are on a  DGS-DCLS-approved list of on-site assessors; and
    b. The owner of the applicant laboratory agrees to pay the  third-party on-site assessors.
    J. Final determination on certification. 1. Upon  completion of the certification review process and corrective action, if any, DGS-DCLS  DCLS shall grant certification in accordance with subsection K of this  section or deny certification in accordance with subsection L of this section.
    2. Except during the initial certification period, DGS-DCLS  shall complete action on a laboratory's application within nine months from the  time a completed application is received from the laboratory.
    K. Grant of certification.
    1. When a laboratory meets the requirements specified for  receiving certification, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall issue a certificate  to the laboratory. The DCLS shall send the certificate shall  be sent to the laboratory manager, and shall notify the  responsible official shall be notified.
    2. The director of DGS-DCLS DCLS or his designee  shall sign the certificate. The certificate shall include the following  information:
    a. Name of owner of laboratory;
    b. Name of operator of laboratory, if different from owner; 
    c. Name of responsible official;
    d. Address and location of laboratory;
    e. Laboratory identification number;
    f. Fields of certification (matrix, technology/method, analyte/analyte  group) and analyte) for which certification is granted;
    g. Any addenda or attachments; and
    h. Issuance date and expiration date.
    3. The laboratory shall post the most recent certificate of  certification and any addenda to the certificate issued by DGS-DCLS DCLS  in a prominent place in the laboratory facility.
    4. Certification shall expire two years one year  after the date on which certification is granted.
    L. Denial of certification.
    1. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall deny certification to an  environmental laboratory in total if the laboratory is found to be falsifying  any data or providing false information to support certification.
    2. Denial of certification in total or in part.
    a. DGS-DCLS DCLS may deny certification to an  environmental laboratory in total or in part if the laboratory fails to do any  of the following:
    (1) Pay the required fees.
    (2) Employ laboratory staff to meet the personnel  qualifications as required by Part II (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter.
    (3) Successfully analyze and report proficiency testing  samples as required by Part II of this chapter.
    (4) Submit a corrective action report plan in  accordance with Part II of this chapter in response to a deficiency report from  the on-site assessment team within the required 30 calendar days.
    (5) Implement the corrective actions detailed in the  corrective action report plan within the time frame specified by DGS-DCLS  DCLS.
    (6) Pass required on-site assessment as specified in Part II  of this chapter.
    (7) Implement a quality system as defined in Part II of this  chapter.
    b. DGS-DCLS DCLS may deny certification to an  environmental laboratory in total or in part if the laboratory's application is  not determined to be complete within 90 calendar days following notification of  incompleteness because the laboratory is delinquent in submitting information  required by DGS-DCLS DCLS in accordance with this chapter.
    c. DGS-DCLS DCLS may deny certification to an  environmental laboratory in total or in part if the DGS-DCLS DCLS  on-site assessment team is unable to carry out the on-site assessment pursuant  to Article 2 (1VAC30-45-300 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter because a  representative of the environmental laboratory denied the team entry during the  laboratory's normal business hours that it specified in its application.
    3. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall follow the process  specified in 1VAC30-45-110 when denying certification to an environmental  laboratory.
    M. Reapplication following denial of certification. 1.  Upon denial of certification, the laboratory shall wait six months before  reapplying for certification. 2. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall not waive  application fees for a laboratory reapplying for certification.
    1VAC30-45-80. Maintaining certification.
    A. Certification remains in effect until withdrawn by DGS-DCLS  DCLS, withdrawn voluntarily at the written request of the certified  laboratory, or until expiration of the certification period. To maintain  certification, the certified laboratory shall comply with the elements listed  in this section and in 1VAC30-45-90.
    B. Quality systems. Laboratories seeking to maintain  certification under this chapter shall assure consistency and promote the use  of quality assurance and quality control procedures. Article 4 (1VAC30-45-600  et seq.) of Part II of this chapter specifies the quality assurance and quality  control requirements that shall be met to maintain certification.
    C. Proficiency tests. Laboratories seeking to maintain  certification under this chapter shall perform proficiency tests as required  under Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    D. Recordkeeping and retention. All laboratory records  associated with certification parameters shall be kept as provided by the  requirements for records under Part II (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter.  These records shall be maintained for a minimum of three years unless the  records are required to be maintained for a longer period by another section of  this regulation or another regulation. All such records shall be available to DGS-DCLS  DCLS upon request.
    1VAC30-45-90. Notifications and changes to certification  elements and status.
    A. Changes to key certification criteria. The certified  laboratory shall notify DGS-DCLS DCLS in writing of any changes  in key certification criteria within 30 calendar days of the change. Key  certification criteria are laboratory ownership, location, key personnel, and  major instrumentation.
    B. Changes to scope of certification.
    1. DGS-DCLS DCLS may approve a laboratory's  application to add a new matrix, technology, analyte, or test method to a  laboratory's scope of certification or to otherwise modify the laboratory's  scope of certification by performing a data review.
    2. To apply, the owner of the certified laboratory shall  submit the following to DGS-DCLS DCLS:
    a. A letter written request signed by the owner  that briefly summarizes the addition to be made to the laboratory's scope of  certification.
    b. Pertinent information demonstrating the laboratory's  capability to perform the additional matrix, technology/method, or analyte/analyte  group analyte, such as proficiency testing performance and quality  control performance.
    c. A written standard operating procedure covering the new  matrix, technology/method, or analyte/analyte group analyte.
    3. DGS-DCLS DCLS may approve a laboratory's  application for modification to its scope of certification by performing a  review of the application materials submitted, without an on-site assessment.  The addition of a technology or test method requiring the use of specific  equipment may require an on-site assessment. Other reviews of performance and  documentation may be carried out by DGS-DCLS DCLS depending on  the modification for which the laboratory applies.
    4. Within 90 calendar days of the receipt of the application  from the certified environmental laboratory, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall  review and determine whether the proposed modification may be approved. 
    5. If the proposed modification to the laboratory's scope of  certification is approved, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall amend the  laboratory's certificate of certification.
    6. DCLS shall not send the amended certificate of  certification to the laboratory until DCLS receives the payment of the fee  required under 1VAC30-45-130 F 1.
    C. Change of ownership or location of laboratory.
    1. The certified laboratory shall submit a written  notification to DGS-DCLS DCLS of the change of ownership or  location of the laboratory within 30 calendar days of the change. This  requirement applies only to fixed-based and not pertaining to change  of location does not apply to mobile laboratories. 
    2. Certification may be transferred when the legal status or  ownership of a certified laboratory changes as long as the transfer does not  affect the laboratory's personnel, equipment, or organization. 
    3. If the laboratory's personnel, equipment, or organization  are affected by the change of legal status or ownership, DGS-DCLS DCLS  may require recertification or reapplication in any or all of the categories  for which the laboratory is certified.
    4. DGS-DCLS DCLS may require an on-site  assessment depending on the nature of the change of legal status or ownership. DGS-DCLS  DCLS shall determine the elements of any on-site assessment required. 
    5. When there is a change in ownership, the new owner of  the certified laboratory shall assure historical traceability of the laboratory  identification numbers. 
    6. 5. When there is a change in ownership, the  new owner of the certified laboratory shall keep all records and analyses  performed by the previous owner under his scope of pertaining to  certification for a period of three years, or longer if required by other  regulations. These records and analyses are subject to inspection by DGS-DCLS  DCLS during this three-year period. This provision applies regardless of  change of ownership, accountability or liability.
    D. Voluntary withdrawal. Any environmental laboratory owner  who wishes to withdraw the laboratory from its certification status or from  being certified, in total or in part, shall submit written notification to DGS-DCLS  no later than 30 calendar days before the end of the laboratory's certification  term DCLS. Within 30 calendar days, DGS-DCLS DCLS  shall provide the laboratory with a written notice of withdrawal.
    1VAC30-45-95. Suspension of certification.
    A. DCLS may suspend certification from an environmental  laboratory in total or in part to allow the laboratory time to correct the  reason for which DCLS may withdraw certification. Suspension is limited to the  reasons listed in subsection B of this section.
    B. DCLS may suspend certification from an environmental  laboratory in part or in total when the laboratory has failed to do any of the  following:
    1. Participate in the proficiency testing program as  required by Article 2 (1VAC30-45-300 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    2. Satisfactorily complete proficiency testing studies as  required by Article 2 (1VAC30-45-300 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    3. Maintain a quality system as defined in Article 4  (1VAC30-45-600 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    4. Employ staff that meets the personnel qualifications of  Article 1 (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    5. Notify DCLS of any changes in key certification criteria  as set forth in 1VAC30-45-90.
    C. Process to suspend certification.
    1. When DCLS becomes aware of a cause to suspend a  laboratory, the agency shall send notification to the responsible official and  the laboratory manager stating it appears to DCLS that the laboratory has  failed to meet the 1VAC30-45 standards for one or more of the reasons listed in  subsection B of this section. DCLS shall send the notification by certified  mail.
    2. The DCLS notification shall do the following:
    a. Require the laboratory to provide DCLS with  documentation of the corrective action already taken with regard to its failure  to meet a standard under subsection B of this section.
    b. State the corrective action the laboratory must take and  the time allowed for this corrective action to be completed in order to retain  certification.
    3. The environmental laboratory may proceed to correct the  deficiencies for which DCLS may suspend the laboratory's certification. 
    4. Alternatively the laboratory may state in writing that  DCLS is incorrect in its observations regarding potential suspension and give  specific reasons why the laboratory believes DCLS should not suspend  certification. The laboratory has the right to due process as set forth in  1VAC30-45-110, the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the  Code of Virginia), and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
    5. With the exception of subdivision B 4 of this section,  DCLS may allow the laboratory up to 60 days to correct the problem for which it  may have its certification suspended.
    6. DCLS shall set a date for suspension that follows the  period provided under subdivision 5 of this subsection to restore  certification.
    7. If the laboratory does not correct its deficiencies  within the time period allowed or pursue options under subdivision 4 of this  subsection, DCLS may suspend a laboratory in part or in total.
    8. DCLS shall notify the laboratory by letter if the  laboratory's certification is suspended in part or in total. DCLS shall send  the notification by certified mail. DCLS shall also notify the pertinent  Virginia state agency of the laboratory's suspension status.
    9. The laboratory may provide information demonstrating why  suspension is not warranted in accordance with subdivision 4 of this  subsection.
    D. Responsibilities of the environmental laboratory and  DCLS when certification has been suspended.
    1. The term of suspension shall be limited to six months or  the period of certification whichever is longer.
    2. The environmental laboratory shall not continue to  analyze samples or report analysis for the fields of certification for which  DCLS has suspended certification.
    3. The environmental laboratory shall retain certification  for the fields of certification, methods, and analytes where it continues to  meet the requirements of this chapter.
    4. The laboratory's suspended certification status shall  change to certified when the laboratory demonstrates to DCLS that the  laboratory has corrected the deficiency or deficiencies for which its  certification was suspended.
    5. An environmental laboratory with suspended certification  shall not have to reapply for certification if the cause or causes for  suspension are corrected within the term of suspension.
    6. If the laboratory fails to correct the causes of  suspension within the term of suspension, DCLS shall decertify the laboratory  in total or in part.
    1VAC30-45-100. Decertification.
    A. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall decertify an  environmental laboratory in total if the laboratory is found to be falsifying  any data or providing false information to support certification.
    B. DGS-DCLS DCLS may decertify an environmental  laboratory in part or in total when the laboratory has failed to do any of the  following:
    1. Participate in the proficiency testing program as required  by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    2. Complete Satisfactorily complete proficiency  testing studies and maintain a history of at least two successful  proficiency testing studies for each affected certified field of testing out of  the three most recent proficiency testing studies as defined in as  required by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    3. Maintain a quality system as defined in Article 4  (1VAC30-45-600 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    4. Employ staff that meet meets the personnel  qualifications in Article 1 (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    5. Submit an acceptable corrective action report plan  after two opportunities as specified in 1VAC30-45-390.
    6. Implement corrective action specified in the laboratory's  corrective action report plan as set out under 1VAC30-45-390.
    7. Notify DGS-DCLS DCLS of any changes in key  certification criteria as set forth in 1VAC30-45-90.
    8. Use accurate references to the laboratory's certification  status in the laboratory's documentation.
    9. Allow a DCLS assessment team entry during normal  business hours to conduct an on-site assessment required by Article 2  (1VAC30-45-300 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
    10. Pay the required fees specified in 1VAC30-45-130.
    C. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall follow the process  specified in 1VAC30-45-110 when decertifying an environmental laboratory.
    D. Responsibilities of the environmental laboratory and DGS-DCLS  DCLS when certification has been withdrawn.
    1. Laboratories that lose their certification in full shall  return their certificate to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
    2. If a laboratory loses certification in part, an addendum  to the certificate shall be issued by DGS-DCLS DCLS shall issue a  revised certificate to the laboratory.
    3. When the environmental laboratory has lost certification  in full or in part, the laboratory shall not continue to analyze samples or  report analyses for the fields of certification that DCLS has decertified.
    E. After correcting the reason or cause for decertification  under 1VAC30-45-100 subsection A or B of this section, the  laboratory owner may reapply for certification under 1VAC30-45-70.
    1VAC30-45-110. Procedures to deny certification, to or  decertify a laboratory, and; appeal procedures.
    A. Notification.
    1. If DGS-DCLS believes it has grounds DCLS  becomes aware of a cause to deny certification or to decertify an  environmental laboratory, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall notify the  environmental laboratory in writing of its intent to hold an informal fact  finding under § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia in order to make a decision on  the denial of certification or decertification this information and  require a response from the responsible official. DGS-DCLS DCLS  shall send this notification by certified mail to the responsible official and  provide a copy to the manager of the environmental laboratory. The notice of  informal fact finding shall provide a detailed explanation of the basis for the  notice.
    2. For a potential denial of certification, the notice  shall state that the laboratory has failed to meet the 1VAC30-45 standards and  shall specify one or more of the reasons for denial of certification under  1VAC30-45-70 L, providing a detailed explanation of the basis for the denial of  certification.
    3. For a potential decertification, the notice shall state  that the laboratory has failed to meet the 1VAC30-45 standards and shall  specify one or more of the reasons for decertification under 1VAC30-45-100 A or  B, providing a detailed explanation of the basis for decertification.
    4. In its notice, DCLS shall request the laboratory to  notify DCLS in writing if the laboratory believes the agency is incorrect in  its determination. Before rendering a decision on decertification or denial of  certification, DCLS shall provide the opportunity for the laboratory to meet  with DCLS in an informal fact-finding proceeding pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of  the Code of Virginia.
    5. If the laboratory believes DCLS to be incorrect in its  determination, the laboratory shall provide DCLS with a detailed written  demonstration of why DCLS should not deny certification to or decertify the laboratory.  The laboratory shall include this demonstration in the response required under  subdivision 6 of this subsection.
    6. The laboratory shall provide DCLS with a written  response within 30 calendar days of the date of notification from DCLS. The laboratory  shall indicate whether it disputes the DCLS determination provided in the  agency notice and whether the laboratory requests an informal fact-finding  proceeding. If the laboratory does not respond, DCLS shall render its case  decision.
    B. Following the informal fact finding held pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia, the director shall render a decision  regarding certification, and shall send this notification by certified mail to  the responsible official and provide a copy to the manager of the environmental  laboratory. If the director's decision is adverse to the environmental  laboratory, the responsible official may appeal this decision in accordance  with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme  Court of Virginia.
    C. The provisions of this section do not preclude informal  discussions between DGS-DCLS and any environmental laboratory that has been  notified of a possible denial of certification or of decertification. These  informal discussions to resolve the concerns that prompted the notice shall be  held prior to the informal fact-finding proceeding.
    B. An environmental laboratory may appeal a final decision  by DCLS to deny certification to or decertify a laboratory pursuant to the  Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    D. C. The certification status of an  environmental laboratory appealing decertification shall not change pending the  final decision of the appeals filed under the Virginia Administrative Process  Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) and Part 2A of the Rules of  Supreme Court of Virginia. 
    1VAC30-45-120. Exemptions.
    A. DGS-DCLS DCLS may grant a partial or full  exemption from the requirements of this chapter based on compliance and  performance.
    B. DGS-DCLS DCLS may consider granting an  exemption if a laboratory applies for an exemption and has met all  certification requirements for a period of four consecutive years.
    C. An environmental laboratory may apply for an exemption by  submitting a request. The request shall include the following information:
    1. The scope of the requested exemption;
    2. Whether the exemption should be partial or total;
    3. If partial, what form the exemption will take; and
    4. Why the exemption is appropriate.
    D. Upon receiving an application for an exemption, DGS-DCLS  DCLS shall provide notice of the request for an exemption in the  Virginia Register of Regulations.
    E. The notice shall provide a 30-day comment period on the  request and shall specify the nature of the request.
    F. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall grant or deny the  exemption request and provide a written response to the requesting laboratory  within 90 calendar days of receipt of the request.
    G. Exemptions granted by DGS-DCLS DCLS shall be  for a period of no more than 24 months.
    1VAC30-45-130. Fees.
    A. General.
    1. Fees shall be submitted with all applications, including  reapplications, for certification and all renewal applications for  certification. Applications shall not be designated as complete until the fee  is received by DGS-DCLS. Environmental laboratories shall pay a fee with  all applications, including reapplications, for certification. DCLS shall not  designate an application as complete until it receives payment of the fee.
    2. Each certified environmental laboratory shall pay an  annual fee to maintain its certification. DCLS shall send an invoice to the  certified environmental laboratory.
    3. Fees shall be nonrefundable.
    B. Fee computation.
    1. Fees shall be computed based on the test methods for  which a laboratory seeks certification and on the laboratory type. For the  purpose of fee calculation, the designations for the laboratory type are (i) a  general environmental laboratory or (ii) an environmental laboratory performing  only simple test procedures.
    2. The fee shall be the total of the base fee and the test  category fees for the specific laboratory type to be certified.
    3. The test category fees cover categories for the test  methods to be certified as specified in the laboratory's application.
    4. If the total of the base fee and the test category fees  is more than the maximum fee designated for the specific laboratory type to be  certified, the laboratory shall pay the maximum fee.
    C. Laboratories B. Environmental laboratories  performing only simple test procedures shall pay an annual fee of $600.
    1. The base fee shall be $100.
    2. The maximum fee shall be $600.
    D. General environmental laboratories.
    1. The base fee shall be $1,700.
    2. The maximum fee shall be $5,200.
    E. Test category fees.
    1. Fees shall be charged for each category of tests to be  certified.
    2. The fee for each category includes one or more  analytical methods unless otherwise specified. With the exception of the test  categories labeled oxygen demand and physical, test categories related to test  methods for water are defined by 40 CFR 136.3.
    3. Fees.
           |      TEST CATEGORY      |          FEE      |    
       |      Oxygen demand (BOD or COD)      |          $375      |    
       |      Bacteriology      |          $375      |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, fewer    than four methods      |          $375      |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, four    or more methods      |          $750      |    
       |      Chemistry metals, one – two    methods      |          $450      |    
       |      Chemistry metals, more than    two methods      |          $1,000      |    
       |      Organic chemistry, fewer    than four methods      |          $600      |    
       |      Organic chemistry, four or    more methods       |          $1,200      |    
       |      Aquatic toxicity, acute    methods only      |          $400      |    
       |      Aquatic toxicity, acute and    chronic methods      |          $700      |    
       |      Radiochemical      |          $1,000      |    
       |      Physical      |          $375      |    
  
    C. Fee computation for general environmental laboratories.
    1. Fees shall be applied on an annual basis.
    2. Environmental laboratories shall pay the total of the  base fee and the test category fees set out in subsections D and E of this  section.
    D. Base fees for general environmental laboratories. 
    1. DCLS determines the base fee for a laboratory by taking  into account both the total number of methods and the total number of field of  certification matrices for which the laboratory would be certified.
    2. DCLS shall charge the base fees set out in Table 1. The  base fee for a laboratory is located by first finding the row for the total  number of methods to be certified and then finding the box on that row located  in the column headed by the total number of matrices to be certified. For  example, DCLS charges a base fee of $1300 to a laboratory performing a total of  eight methods for one matrix.
           |      TABLE 1: BASE FEES      |    
       |      Number of Methods      |          1 Matrix      |          2 Matrices      |    
       |      1 - 9      |          $1300      |          $1430      |    
       |      10 - 29      |          $1400      |          $1575      |    
       |      30 - 99      |          $1550      |          $1825      |    
  
    E. Test category fees for general environmental  laboratories.
    1. The test category fees cover the types of testing for  which a laboratory may be certified as specified in the laboratory's  application or as certified at the time of annual billing.
    2. Fees shall be charged for each category of tests to be  certified.
    3. Fees shall be charged for the total number of field of  certification matrices to be certified under the specific test category. For  example, if a laboratory is performing inorganic chemistry for both nonpotable  water and solid and chemical materials matrices, the fee for this test category  would be found in the column for two matrices.
    4. The fee for each category includes one or more  analytical methods unless otherwise specified. 
    5. DCLS shall charge the test category fees set out in  Table 2. The test category fees for a laboratory are located by first finding  the row with the total number of test methods for the test category to be  certified. The fee to be charged for the test category will be found on that  row in the column headed by the total number of matrices to be certified. A  laboratory performing four test methods for inorganic chemistry in nonpotable  water and solid and chemical materials (two matrices) would be charged a test  category fee of $375.
    6. Noncommercial environmental laboratories that perform  toxicity, radiochemical, or asbestos testing shall pay the test category fees  established for these types of testing in 1VAC30-46-150.
           |      TABLE 2: TEST CATEGORY FEES      |    
       |      Test Category      |          Fees by Number of Matrices       |    
        |          One       |          Two       |    
       |      Oxygen demand      |          $225       |          $335      |    
       |      Bacteriology, 1 - 3 total    methods      |          $175      |          $265       |    
       |      Bacteriology, 4 or more    total methods      |          $220       |          $330       |    
       |      Physical, 1 - 5 total    methods      |          $175       |          $265      |    
       |      Physical, 6 - 10 total    methods      |          $220       |          $330       |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, 1 - 10    total methods      |          $250       |          $375      |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, 11 -    20 total methods      |          $315      |          $475       |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, 21 -    49 total methods      |          $394      |          $590       |    
       |      Chemistry metals, 1 - 5    total methods      |          $325       |          $490       |    
       |      Chemistry metals, 6 - 20 total    methods      |          $410      |          $615       |    
       |      Organic chemistry, 1 - 5    total methods      |          $400       |          $600      |    
       |      Organic chemistry, 6 - 20    total methods      |          $500       |          $750      |    
  
    7. Fee examples. Three  examples are provided.
    a. Example 1:
           |      Base Fee      |          One matrix and four test methods      |          $1300      |    
       |      Test Category Fees      |      |      |    
       |      One Matrix      |      |      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Bacteriology (2 methods)      |          $175      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Oxygen demand (1 method)      |          $225      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Physical (1)      |          $175      |    
       |      TOTAL      |      |          $1875      |    
  
    b. Example 2:
           |      Base Fee      |          One matrix and 15 test methods      |          $1400      |    
       |      Test Category Fees      |      |      |    
       |      One Matrix      |      |      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Bacteriology (2 methods)      |          $175      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Inorganic chemistry (9    methods)      |          $250      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Chemistry metals (2 methods)      |          $325      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Oxygen demand (1 method)      |          $225      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Physical (1)      |          $175      |    
       |      TOTAL      |      |          $2550      |    
  
    c. Example 3:
           |      Base Fee      |          Two matrices and 27 test methods      |          $1575      |    
       |      Test Category Fees      |      |      |    
       |      One Matrix      |      |      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Bacteriology (4 methods)      |          $220      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Oxygen demand (1 method)      |          $225      |    
       |      Solid and Chemical Materials      |          Chemistry metals (1 method)      |          $325      |    
       |      Two Matrices      |      |      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water and Solid    and Chemical Materials      |          Inorganic chemistry (13    methods)      |          $475      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water and Solid and Chemical Materials      |          Physical (7 methods)      |          $330      |    
       |      TOTAL      |      |          $3150      |    
  
    F. Additional fees. Additional fees shall be charged to  laboratories applying for the following: (i) modification to scope of  certification under 1VAC30-45-90 B, (ii) transfer of ownership under  1VAC30-45-90 C, (iii) exemption under 1VAC30-45-120, (iv) request that  multiple noncontiguous laboratory sites be considered as one site under  1VAC30-45-60 B 3, or (v) (iv) petition for a variance under  1VAC30-45-140. 
    1. For any certified environmental laboratory that applies  to modify its scope of certification as specified under 1VAC30-45-90 B, DCLS  shall assess a fee determined by the method in subsection G of this section.
    2. Under 1VAC30-45-90 C, DCLS may charge a transfer fee to  a certified laboratory that transfers ownership. A fee shall be charged if DCLS  (i) needs to review documentation sent by the laboratory about the transfer of  ownership or (ii) determines that an on-site assessment is necessary to  evaluate the effect of the transfer of ownership. DCLS shall assess a fee  determined by the method in subsection G of this section. If, under  1VAC30-45-90 C, DCLS determines that the change of ownership or location of  laboratory requires recertification of or reapplication by the laboratory, the  laboratory shall pay the application fees required under this section.
    1. 3. General environmental laboratories  applying for an exemption under 1VAC30-45-120 shall pay an initial  application fee of $250 and if the exemption is granted, up to an additional  $1,000 depending on the scope of the exemption. $700 plus an additional  fee based on the actual time needed for DCLS to assess the exemption request.  The total fee shall not exceed the actual time DCLS takes to assess the  exemption request. Laboratories performing only simple test procedures  applying for an exemption under 1VAC30-45-120 shall pay an initial  application fee of $100 and if the exemption is granted, up to an additional  $1,000 depending on the scope of the exemption. The fee assessed for the scope  of the exemption shall be based on the actual time needed for DGS-DCLS to make  the determination $300 plus an additional fee based on the actual time  needed for DCLS to assess the exemption request. The total fee shall not exceed  the actual time DCLS takes to assess the exemption request. The fee  assessed shall be calculated using the method in subsection G of this section.
    2. For any certified environmental laboratory that applies  to modify its scope of certification as specified under 1VAC30-45-90 B,  DGS-DCLS shall assess a fee determined by the method in subsection G of this  section.
    3. Under 1VAC30-45-90 C, DGS-DCLS may charge a transfer fee  to a certified laboratory that transfers ownership. A fee shall be charged if  DGS-DCLS (i) needs to review documentation sent by the laboratory about the  transfer of ownership or (ii) determines that an on-site assessment is  necessary to evaluate the effect of the transfer of ownership. DGS-DCLS shall  assess a fee determined by the method in subsection G of this section. If  DGS-DCLS determines that a fee should be charged, the fee shall be a minimum of  $100 and a maximum of $1,000. If, under 1VAC30-45-90 C, DGS-DCLS determines  that the change of ownership or location of laboratory requires recertification  of or reapplication by the laboratory, the laboratory shall pay the application  fees required under this section.
    4. Under 1VAC30-45-60 B 3, the owner of multiple  noncontiguous laboratories may request that DGS-DCLS consider these  laboratories to be one site. If, as a result of the request being granted,  DGS-DCLS needs to perform multiple on-site assessments, DGS-DCLS shall charge a  fee for the additional on-site assessments. The fee shall be the sum of  reasonable travel costs and labor charges for the additional on-site  assessments. The labor charges will be determined following the method in  subsection G of this section.
    5. 4. Under 1VAC30-45-140, any person regulated  by this chapter may petition the director to grant a variance from any  requirement of this chapter. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall charge a an  initial fee for the time needed of $700 plus an additional fee  based on the actual time needed for DCLS to review the petition, including  any on-site assessment required. The total fee shall not exceed the actual  time DCLS takes to review and make a determination on the request for a variance.  The fee shall be determined by the method specified in subsection G of this  section. 
    G. Fee determination.
    1. The fee shall be the sum of the total hourly charges for  all reviewers plus any on-site review costs incurred.
    2. An hourly charge per reviewer shall be determined by (i)  obtaining a yearly cost by multiplying the reviewer's annual salary by 1.35  (accounts for overhead such as taxes and insurance) and then (ii) dividing the  yearly cost by 1,642 (number of annual hours established by Fiscal Services,  DGS, for billing purposes). 
    3. The charge per reviewer shall be determined by multiplying  the number of hours expended in the review by the reviewer's hourly charge.
    4. If an on-site review is required, travel time and on-site  review time shall be charged at the same hourly charge per reviewer, and any  travel expenses shall be added.
    H. Out-of-state laboratories - travel costs. The owner of an  environmental laboratory located in another state who applies for certification  under this chapter shall also pay a fee equal to the reasonable travel costs  associated with conducting an on-site assessment at the laboratory. Reasonable  travel costs include transportation, lodging, per diem, and telephone and  duplication charges.
    I. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall derive the travel costs  charged under subsections G and H of this section from the Commonwealth of  Virginia reimbursement allowances and rates for lodging, per diem, and mileage.  
    Article 2 
  On-Site Assessment 
    1VAC30-45-300. Frequency of on-site assessment.
    A. A comprehensive on-site assessment shall be conducted of  each laboratory as a condition for granting certification initially and at  renewal every two years. DCLS shall reassess each certified laboratory  every two years starting from the date of the previous assessment plus or minus  six months.
    B. Other on-site assessments.
    1. If DGS-DCLS DCLS identified a deficiency on a  previous on-site assessment, the agency may conduct a follow-up on-site  assessment.
    2. DGS-DCLS DCLS may conduct an on-site  assessment when a laboratory applies to modify its scope of certification,;  when a transfer of owner occurs that affects personnel, equipment, or the  laboratory facilities,; or when a laboratory applies for an  exemption or a variance. Any other change occurring in a laboratory's  operations that might reasonably be expected to alter or impair analytical  capability and quality may trigger an on-site assessment.
    1VAC30-45-310. Announced and unannounced on-site assessments.
    A. DGS-DCLS DCLS may conduct, at its  discretion, either announced or unannounced on-site assessments.
    B. Advance notice of an assessment shall not be necessary.
    C. To the maximum extent practical, DGS-DCLS DCLS,  when necessary, shall work with the owner of an environmental laboratory to  obtain government security clearances for assessment personnel as far in  advance as possible. The owner of the environmental laboratory shall facilitate  expeditious attainment of the necessary clearances.
    D. To the maximum extent practical, assessment personnel  shall minimize disruption of a laboratory's operations and take into account  competing demands on the time of laboratory personnel.
    1VAC30-45-320. Request for records.
    Prior to the actual site visit, DGS-DCLS DCLS  may request in writing from a laboratory those records required to be  maintained by this chapter.
    1VAC30-45-330. Areas to be assessed.
    DGS-DCLS DCLS shall assess the laboratory  against the personnel and quality control standards in Article 1 (1VAC30-45-200  et seq.) and Article 4 (1VAC30-45-600 et seq.) of this part. The specific areas  evaluated in an on-site assessment shall include but not be limited to:
    1. Adequacy of the laboratory facility.
    2. Organization and management of the laboratory.
    3. Qualifications and experience of laboratory personnel.
    4. Receipt, tracking and handling of samples.
    5. Quantity, condition, and performance of laboratory  instrumentation and equipment.
    6. Preparation and traceability of calibration standards.
    7. Test methods (including the adequacy of the laboratory's  standard operating procedures as well as confirmation of the analyst's  adherence to SOPs, and the analyst's proficiency with the described task).
    8. Data reduction procedures, including an examination of raw  data and confirmation that final reported results can be traced to the raw  data/original observations.
    9. Quality assurance and quality control procedures, including  adherence to the laboratory's quality assurance plan and adequacy of the plan.
    10. Recordkeeping.
    1VAC30-45-340. National security considerations.
    A. Assessments at facilities owned or operated by federal  agencies or contractors may require security clearances, appropriate badging,  or a security briefing before the assessment begins.
    B. The laboratory shall notify DGS-DCLS DCLS in  writing of any information that is controlled for national security reasons and  cannot be released to the public.
    1VAC30-45-350. Arrival, admittance, and opening  conference.
    A. Arrival. Assessment personnel shall arrive at the  laboratory during established working hours. The laboratory manager (or, if  unavailable, the laboratory manager's designee) shall be located as soon as  possible after the assessment personnel arrive on the premises.
    B. Admittance of assessment personnel. 
    1. A laboratory's refusal to admit the assessment  personnel for an on-site assessment shall result in an automatic failure of the  laboratory to receive certification or loss of an existing certification by the  laboratory, unless there are extenuating circumstances that are accepted and  documented by DGS-DCLS DCLS. The team leader for the assessment  personnel shall notify DGS-DCLS DCLS as soon as possible after  refusal of entry.
    2. DCLS shall consider any verbal or physical threat to the  health and safety of its assessors or any overt antagonism towards its assessors  as a refusal to admit the assessors for the purpose of on-site assessment. The  assessors shall vacate the laboratory and shall notify DCLS as soon as possible  of the circumstances of this refusal to admit. This refusal to admit shall  result in an automatic failure of the laboratory to receive certification or  the automatic loss of an existing certification by the laboratory.
    C. Health and safety.
    1. Under no circumstance, and especially as a precondition to  gain access to a laboratory, shall assessment personnel be required or even  allowed to sign any waiver of responsibility on the part of the laboratory for  injuries incurred during an assessment.
    2. Assessment personnel shall comply with all facility and  laboratory safety procedures.
    D. Opening conference. An opening conference shall be  conducted and shall address the following topics:
    1. The purpose of the assessment;
    2. The identification of assessment personnel;
    3. The test methods that will be examined;
    4. Any pertinent records and procedures to be examined during  the assessment and the names of the individuals in the laboratory responsible  for providing assessment personnel with such records;
    5. The roles and responsibilities of laboratory staff and  managers;
    6. Any special safety procedures that the laboratory may think  necessary for the protection of assessment personnel;
    7. The standards and criteria that will be used in judging the  adequacy of the laboratory operation;
    8. Confirmation of the tentative time for the exit conference;  and
    9. Discussion of any questions the laboratory may have about  the assessment process.
    1VAC30-45-380. Closing conference.
    A. Assessment personnel shall meet with representatives of  the laboratory following the assessment for a closing conference.
    B. During the closing conference, assessment personnel shall  inform the laboratory of the preliminary findings and the basis for such  findings. The laboratory shall have an opportunity to provide further  explanation or clarification relevant to the preliminary findings. If the  laboratory objects to the preliminary findings during the closing conference,  all objections shall be documented by the assessment personnel and included in  the final report to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
    C. Additional problem areas may be identified in the final  report.
    D. Any potentially illegal activity that may be the subject  of further action shall not be discussed in the closing conference.
    1VAC30-45-390. Follow-up and reporting procedures.
    A. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall present an assessment  report to the laboratory within 30 calendar days of the assessment.
    B. If there are deficiencies identified in the assessment  report, the laboratory shall have 30 calendar days from the date of its receipt  of the assessment report to provide a response to DGS-DCLS DCLS.  This response shall be called a corrective action report plan.
    C. An exception to the deadlines specified in subsections A  and B of this section may occur in appropriate circumstances. Two circumstances  that may be considered appropriate by DGS-DCLS DCLS are where a  possible enforcement investigation or other action has been initiated or where  the laboratory shows good cause for an extension.
    D. The corrective action report plan shall  include the following:
    1. Any objections that the laboratory has with regard to the  assessment report;
    2. The action that the laboratory proposes to implement to  correct each deficiency identified in the assessment report; and
    3. The time period required to accomplish the corrective  action.
    E. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall determine and shall  notify the laboratory within 30 calendar days of receipt whether the corrective  action report plan is an acceptable response to the deficiencies  identified in the assessment report.
    F. If the corrective action report plan (or a  portion of the report) plan) is determined to be unacceptable to  remedy the deficiency, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall provide written  notification to the responsible official and manager of the laboratory  including a detailed explanation of the basis for such determination. Following  receipt of such notification, the laboratory shall have an additional 30  calendar days to submit a revised corrective action report plan  acceptable to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
    1VAC30-45-400. Documentation of on-site assessment.
    A. Checklists. The checklists used by assessment personnel  during the assessment shall become a part of DGS-DCLS's DCLS's  file for the laboratory.
    B. Assessment report format.
    1. The final assessment report shall contain a narrative  description of the adequacy of the laboratory as it relates to the assessment  standards specified in this chapter and in 1VAC30-45-330.
    2. Assessment reports shall contain:
    a. Name of owner of the laboratory (or operator of the  laboratory, if different from the owner);
    b. Identification of the laboratory assessed;
    c. Date of the assessment;
    d. Identification and affiliation of all assessment personnel;
    e. Identification of participants in the assessment process;
    f. Identification of analytes and test methods assessed;
    g. Statement of the objective of the assessment;
    h. Summary;
    i. Assessment observations, findings (including any  deficiencies), objections noted by the laboratory, and requirements; and
    j. Comments and recommendations.
    3. The assessment findings and requirements shall be  referenced to the standards in Part II (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter  so that both the finding is understood and the specific requirement is  outlined. The assessor shall specify the laboratory records, documents,  equipment, procedures, or staff evaluated and the observations that contributed  to each identified deficiency. The assessment report shall support with  sufficient data all assessment findings and the overall evaluation of the  laboratory.
    4. The comments and recommendations section may be used to  convey recommendations aimed at helping the laboratory improve.
    C. Release of report.
    1. The assessment report shall be released initially by DGS-DCLS  DCLS to the responsible official and the laboratory manager. The  assessment report shall not be released to the public until findings of the  assessment and the corrective actions have been finalized, all information  relating to national security has been stricken from the report in accordance  with prescribed procedures, and the report has been provided to the laboratory.
    2. Once the assessment report has been released to the  laboratory, any member of the public may request a copy of the report under the  requirements of the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et  seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    3. Checklists used by assessment personnel during the  on-site assessment shall be provided to the laboratory with the final on-site  assessment report.
    D. The laboratory shall have access to documentation  pertaining to any on-site assessment of its facilities. Any laboratory wishing to  review its files shall request such assistance of DGS-DCLS DCLS  five days prior to visiting DGS-DCLS DCLS. A laboratory may  request copies of its documents without visiting DGS-DCLS DCLS. A  reasonable fee may be charged for copying, mailing, and staff time.
    Article 3 
  Proficiency Testing 
    1VAC30-45-500. Laboratory enrollment in proficiency testing  program.
    A. Required level of participation.
    1. To be certified initially and to maintain certification,  a laboratory shall participate in two single-blind, single-concentration PT  studies, where available, per year for each PT field of testing for which it  seeks or wants to maintain certification. Laboratories applying to be certified  for environmental toxicology (aquatic toxicity, sediment toxicity, or soils toxicity)  shall meet the requirements of subdivision 3 of this subsection. 
    2. Laboratories shall obtain PT samples from any PT  provider approved under the requirements of the NELAC standards for proficiency  test providers set out in Chapter 2 of the 2003 standards such as NIST. For PT  fields of testing having no approved providers listed by NELAC, the laboratory  shall consult DGS-DCLS for an approved provider. 
    3. Laboratories applying to be certified for environmental  toxicology (aquatic toxicity, sediment toxicity, or soils toxicity). To be  certified initially and to maintain certification, a laboratory shall  participate in at least one PT study per year (i.e., not more than 12 months  apart), when available, for each method code (matrix, organism, exposure system  and endpoint) for which it seeks or wants to maintain certification.  Laboratories seeking certification for aquatic toxicity testing shall meet the  requirements of 1VAC30-45-530. 
    1. To be certified initially and to maintain certification,  a laboratory shall participate in PT studies as specified in 1VAC30-45-520 B  for the fields of certification (FoC) for which the laboratory seeks or wants  to maintain certification.
    2. The applicant laboratory shall obtain PT samples from a  PT provider approved by TNI. If a PT sample is not available from a  TNI-approved provider, the laboratory shall consult DCLS for an approved  provider.
    B. Requesting certification.
    1. When applying for certification, the laboratory owner shall  notify DGS-DCLS DCLS of the fields of testing certification  for which the laboratory chooses to become certified and shall participate in  the appropriate PT studies.
    2. For all fields of testing certification for  which PT samples are not available, the laboratory shall ensure the reliability  of its testing procedures by maintaining a quality system that meets all  applicable requirements of Article 4 (1VAC30-45-600 et seq.) of Part II of this  chapter.
    C. Reporting results. 1. Each laboratory shall  authorize the PT study provider to release all certification and remediation  results and "acceptable" or "not acceptable" status the  results of the final evaluation report of the laboratory's PT study  directly to DGS-DCLS DCLS, in addition to the laboratory.
    2. The results of all of the PT sample tests including  "acceptable" or "not acceptable" status shall be part of  the public record.
    1VAC30-45-510. Requirements for laboratory testing of PT study  samples.
    A. The samples shall be analyzed and the results returned  to the PT study provider no later than 45 calendar days from the scheduled  study shipment date. Samples for environmental toxicology shall be analyzed  within 45 calendar days of sample receipt. The laboratory shall report the  result within 45 calendar days of completion of the PT. The laboratory  shall report the analytical results from its analysis of the PT study to the PT  provider on or before the closing date of the study using the reporting format  specified by the PT provider.
    B. The laboratory's management and all analysts shall ensure  that all PT samples are managed, analyzed, and reported in the same manner as  real environmental samples utilizing the same staff, methods as used for  routine analysis of that analyte, procedures, equipment, and facilities. When  analyzing a PT sample, the laboratory shall employ the same calibration,  laboratory quality control and acceptance criteria, sequence of analytical  steps, number of replicates and other procedures as used when analyzing routine  samples. 
    C. Restrictions on exchanging information. Laboratories shall  comply with all of the following restrictions on the transfer of PT samples and  communication of PT sample results prior to the time the results of the study are  released. Laboratory management or staff shall not:
    1. Send any PT sample, or a portion of a PT sample, to another  laboratory for any analysis for which it seeks certification or is certified.
    2. Knowingly receive any PT sample or portion of a PT sample  from another laboratory for any analysis for which the sending laboratory seeks  certification or is certified.
    3. Communicate with any individual at another laboratory  (including intra-company communication) concerning the PT sample.
    4. Attempt to obtain the assigned value of any PT sample from  their PT provider.
    D. Maintenance of records. The laboratory shall maintain  copies of all written, printed, and electronic records, including but not  limited to bench sheets, instrument strip charts or printouts, data  calculations, and data reports, resulting from the analysis of any PT sample  for three years or for as long as is required by the applicable regulatory  program. These records shall include a copy of the PT study report forms used  by the laboratory to record PT results. All of these laboratory records shall  be made available to the DCLS assessors of DGS-DCLS during  on-site audits assessments of the laboratory.
    1VAC30-45-520. PT criteria for laboratory certification.
    A. Result categories.
    1. The criteria described in this section apply individually  to each PT field of testing FoPT, as defined by the laboratory  seeking to obtain or maintain certification in its certification request. These  criteria apply only to the PT portion of the overall certification standard.
    2. There are two PT result categories: "acceptable"  and "not acceptable."
    B. Initial and continuing certification.
    1. A laboratory seeking to obtain or maintain certification  shall successfully complete two PT studies one PT study for each  requested PT field of testing within the most recent three rounds attempted  FoC.
    2. Once a laboratory has been granted certification status, it  shall continue to complete PT studies for each PT field of testing FoPT  and maintain a history of at least two one acceptable PT studies  for each PT field of testing out of the most recent three study each  calendar year. The laboratory shall complete its PT studies by September 30 of  each calendar year.
    3. For a laboratory seeking to obtain initial  certification, the most recent three rounds attempted shall have occurred  within 18 months of the laboratory's application date. When the PT  sample used for initial certification was analyzed by the laboratory prior to  the date of application, the analysis date of the PT sample shall be no more  than 12 months prior to the application date of certification.
    4. For a laboratory seeking initial certification, or for  For a laboratory performing supplemental testing, the PT studies shall  be at least 15 calendar days apart from the closing date of one study to the  shipment date of another study for the same PT field of testing FoPT.
    5. For a laboratory to maintain certification, completion  dates of successive proficiency rounds for a given PT field of testing shall be  approximately six months apart. Failure to meet the semiannual schedule is  regarded as a failed study. 
    5. When the PT study result is reported by the PT provider  as "acceptable" the environmental laboratory has satisfied the PT  requirement.
    6. When the PT study result is "not acceptable,"  the environmental laboratory shall follow the procedure in subsection C of this  section.
    7. DCLS shall consider a laboratory's analytical result for  a FoPT not acceptable when the laboratory makes any reporting error or omission  that results in a nonspecific match between the analytical result for the FoPT  and any criterion that identifies the laboratory or the field of certification  for which the PT sample was analyzed for the purpose of initial or continued  certification.
    C. Procedure and requirements for "not  acceptable" PT study results.
    1. When a laboratory receives a PT study result of  "not acceptable," the laboratory shall determine the cause for the  failure and perform and document corrective action. The corrective action  documentation shall be completed within 30 days of receiving the "not  acceptable" PT study result and be submitted to DCLS upon request.
    2. Upon completion of the corrective action the laboratory  shall perform another PT study for each FoPT that had a "not  acceptable" result.
    3. If the laboratory successfully completes the makeup PT  study by receiving an "acceptable" result before December 31, DCLS  shall not suspend the laboratory's certification for the pertinent FoC. 
    4. If the laboratory receives a "not acceptable" result  on the makeup PT study, DCLS shall notify the laboratory that there is cause to  suspend the laboratory's certification for the FoC for which the PT study was  "not acceptable."
    5. DCLS shall not extend the period for annual PT study  completion beyond December 31 each year. Failure to satisfactorily complete a  PT study by December 31 shall result in suspension of certification in total or  in part.
    6. If the laboratory receives a "not acceptable"  result on three successive PT studies, DCLS shall decertify the laboratory for  the pertinent FoC until such time that the laboratory:
    a. Completes corrective action for all failed studies and  submits its corrective action report to DCLS; 
    b. Obtains an "acceptable" result for the PT  studies; and
    c. Applies for a change to its scope of certification and  pays applicable fees required by 1VAC30-45-90 B and 1VAC30-45-130 F.
    7. DCLS shall follow the provisions of 1VAC30-45-110 in  decertifying the laboratory.
    C. Supplemental studies.
    1. A laboratory may elect to participate in PT studies more  frequently than required by the semiannual schedule. This may be desirable, for  example, when a laboratory first applies for certification or when a laboratory  fails a study and wishes to quickly reestablish its history of successful  performance.
    2. These additional studies shall be reported and are  counted and scored the same way as routinely scheduled studies and shall be at  least 15 calendar days apart.
    D. Failed studies and corrective action.
    1. Whenever a laboratory fails a study, it shall determine  the cause for the failure and take any necessary corrective action. It shall  then document in its own records and provide to DGS-DCLS both the investigation  and the action taken.
    2. If a laboratory fails two out of the three most recent  studies for a given field of testing, its performance is considered  unacceptable for that field. The laboratory shall then meet the requirements of  initial certification as described in subsection B of this section.
    E. Second failed study.
    1. The PT provider reports laboratory PT performance  results to DGS-DCLS at the same time that it reports the results to the  laboratory.
    2. If a laboratory fails a second study out of the most  recent three, as described in subdivision D 2 of this section, DGS-DCLS shall  take action within 60 calendar days to determine the certification status for  the unacceptable PT field of testing.
    F. Scheduling of PT studies. Laboratories shall determine  the schedule for their PT studies. 
    G. D. Withdrawal from PT studies. A laboratory  may withdraw from a PT study for an analyte or analytes or for the entire  study if the laboratory notifies both the PT provider and DGS-DCLS before the  closing date of the PT study. This does not exempt the laboratory from  participating in the semiannual schedule. any FoPT on or before the  close date of the study. Withdrawing from a study shall not exempt the  laboratory from meeting the annual analysis requirements necessary for  continued certification.
    1VAC30-45-530. Special requirements for aquatic toxicity.  (Repealed.)
    A. Laboratories seeking certification for aquatic toxicity  testing shall be assessed through on-site assessment and evaluation of EPA  Discharge Monitoring Report-Quality Assurance (DMR-QA) test results when  available. A failed DMR-QA endpoint shall require both of the following:
    1. A formal response to DGS-DCLS with an explanation of the  probable cause for the endpoint failure and description of corrective actions  to be taken (where appropriate).
    2. A decision by DGS-DCLS to accept the response or require  additional actions on the part of the laboratory or by DGS-DCLS.
    B. If a laboratory's response is unacceptable and DGS-DCLS  does not require additional on-site assessments, the laboratory shall complete  another study. Such additional studies shall be conducted at least 15 calendar  days from the previous study until the results are acceptable to DGS-DCLS.  DGS-DCLS may conduct additional on-site assessments as necessary based on the  results of any additional studies.
    C. When the DMR-QA whole effluent toxicity portion does  not include all test procedures required for a permit, the laboratory shall  perform a proficiency test for aquatic toxicity testing.
    D. DGS-DCLS shall not base loss of certification for  aquatic toxicity testing solely on PT results. 
    Article 4 
  Quality System 
    1VAC30-45-600. Quality system.
    A. This article sets out the general requirements that an  environmental laboratory has to successfully demonstrate to be recognized as  competent to carry out specific environmental tests. The environmental  laboratory shall establish, implement and maintain a quality system based on  the required elements contained in this article.
    B. The quality system shall be appropriate to the type, range  and volume of testing, analysis, measurement or monitoring performed by the  laboratory. 
    C. The quality system's documentation shall be  communicated to, understood by, available to, and implemented by the  appropriate personnel. All personnel concerned with testing and calibration  activities within the laboratory shall familiarize themselves with the quality  documentation and implement the policies and procedures in their work.
    C. D. If more stringent standards or  requirements are included in a mandated test method or by regulation, the  laboratory shall demonstrate that such requirements are met. If it is not clear  which standard or requirement is more stringent, the standard or requirement  from the method or regulation is to be followed.
    D. E. Provisions pertaining to the management  of the quality system appear in 1VAC30-45-610 through 1VAC30-45-700. Provisions  pertaining to the technical requirements for the quality system appear in 1VAC30-45-710  through 1VAC30-45-770.
    1VAC30-45-610. Quality manual.
    A. General.
    1. The laboratory shall document its quality system in a  quality manual. The quality manual shall reflect all quality assurance and  quality control practices and programs used by the laboratory. The required  elements of the quality system may be described in more than one document.
    2. The quality manual shall be maintained current under the  responsibility of the quality assurance officer.
    3. The quality manual and any related documents shall be  communicated to, understood by, available to, and implemented by all laboratory  personnel.
    4. The quality manual shall include but not be limited to the  elements listed in subsection subsections B and C of this  section.
    B. The elements of a quality manual shall include but not be  limited to:
    1. Title page. The quality manual shall list the following  items on the title page:
    a. 1. A document title;
    b. 2. The laboratory's full name and address;
    c. 3. The name, address (if different from above),  and telephone number of the responsible official, laboratory manager, and  quality assurance officer;
    d. 4. The laboratory facility or facilities  covered by the quality manual;
    e. 5. Signed and dated concurrence, with  appropriate titles, of the responsible official, laboratory manager, and  quality assurance officer; and
    f. 6. The effective date of the quality manual.;
    2. 7. Table of contents. and  applicable lists of references, glossaries, and appendices; and
    3. 8. A quality policy statement, including  objectives of the quality system and commitment to good ethical  laboratory practices and to upholding the requirements of this chapter's  standards.
    C. The quality manual shall  include or reference but not be limited to:
    4. 1. The organization and management structure  of the laboratory, its place in any parent organization and relevant  organizational charts.
    5. The relationship between management, technical  operations, support services and the quality system.
    6. The capabilities of the laboratory or scope of its  operation.
    7. 2. Job descriptions of key staff and  reference to the job descriptions of other staff.
    8. 3. Processes or procedures for establishing  that personnel have adequate training and experience in the duties they are  expected to carry out and are receiving any needed training.
    9. Ethics policy statement developed by the laboratory.  Processes and procedures for educating and training personnel in their ethical  and legal responsibilities including the potential penalties for improper,  unethical or illegal actions.
    10. 4. Mechanisms for ensuring that the  laboratory reviews all new work to ensure that it has the appropriate  facilities and resources before commencing such work. 
    11. 5. Procedures to ensure that all records  required by this chapter are retained, as well as procedures for control and  maintenance of documentation through a document control system that ensures  that all standard operating procedures, manuals, or documents clearly indicate  the time period during which the procedure or document was in force.
    12. 6. Procedures for dealing with complaints.
    13. 7. Procedures for audits and data review.
    14. Reference to verification 8. Verification  practices that may include inter-laboratory comparisons, proficiency testing  programs, use of reference materials and internal quality control schemes.
    15. 9. Procedures to be followed for feedback  and corrective action whenever testing discrepancies are detected, or  departures from documented policies and procedures occur.
    16. 10. The laboratory management arrangements  for permitting departures from documented policies and procedures or from  standard specifications when the departures are planned and controlled.
    17. Reference to the 11. The major equipment and  reference measurement standards used as well as the physical facility and  environment used by the laboratory in conducting tests.
    18. Reference to procedures 12. Procedures for  calibration, verification and maintenance of equipment.
    19. 13. A list of all technology/methods under  which the laboratory performs its certified testing. 
    20. The laboratory's procedures 14. Procedures  for achieving traceability of measurements, including standards.
    21. 15. Procedures for receiving, handling,  storing, and disposing of submitted samples.
    22. Reference to procedures 16. Procedures for  reporting analytical results.
    17. Policy addressing the use of unique electronic  signatures, where applicable.
    C. D. Review and approval of quality manual.
    1. The quality assurance officer shall review the laboratory's  quality assurance program, manual and any related documentation whenever there  is any change in test methods employed by the laboratory, change in equipment,  or any other change in the laboratory that affects the quality assurance  program.
    2. The quality assurance manual shall be reviewed and approved  by the quality assurance officer, the laboratory manager, and the responsible  official at least annually.
    1VAC30-45-660. Required records.
    A. Sample handling.
    1. The laboratory shall maintain a record of all procedures to  which a sample is subjected while in the possession of the laboratory. These  shall include but are not limited to all records pertaining to sample preservation,  identification, receipt, acceptance or rejection, log-in, storage and tracking.  The laboratory shall also maintain sampling information on each sample. This  includes time and date of collection, type of sample (grab or composite), type  of container, sampling point and preservation. 
    2. The laboratory shall have documented procedures for the  receipt and retention of samples, including provisions necessary to protect the  integrity of the samples.
    B. Laboratory support activities. The laboratory shall retain  the following documents and data:
    1. All original raw data, whether hard copy or electronic, for  calibrations, samples and quality control measures, including analysts' work  sheets and data output records (chromatograms, strip charts, and other instrument  response readout records).
    2. A written description or reference to the specific test  method used that includes a description of the specific computational steps  used to translate parametric observations into a reportable analytical value.
    3. Copies of final reports.
    4. Archived standard operating procedures.
    5. Correspondence relating to laboratory activities.
    6. All corrective action reports plans, audits,  and audit responses.
    7. Proficiency test results and raw data.
    8. Results of data review, verification, and cross-checking  procedures.
    C. Analytical records. The laboratory shall retain essential  information associated with analytical documents, such as strip charts, tabular  printouts, computer data files, analytical notebooks, and run logs. This  information includes, but is not limited to, all manual calculations, (e.g.,  manual integrations); sample preparation; standard and reagent origin,  receipt, preparation, and use; quality control protocols and assessment; and  method performance criteria.
    D. Administrative records. The laboratory shall maintain the  following administrative records:
    1. Personnel qualifications, experience and training records.
    2. Records of demonstration of capability for each analyst or  work cell.
    3. A log of names, initials and signatures for all individuals  who are responsible for signing or initialing any laboratory record.
    1VAC30-45-670. Audits.
    A. Internal audits.
    1. The laboratory shall arrange for annual internal audits to  verify that its operations continue to comply with the requirements of the  laboratory's quality system. It is the responsibility of the quality assurance  officer to plan and organize audits as required by a predetermined schedule and  requested by management.
    2. Trained and qualified personnel who are, wherever resources  permit, independent of the activity to be audited, shall carry out these  audits. Personnel shall not audit their own activities except when it can be  demonstrated that an effective audit will be carried out.
    3. Where the audit findings cast doubt on the correctness or  validity of the laboratory's calibrations or test results, the laboratory shall  take immediate corrective action.
    4. A laboratory may have an audit performed under contract by  an outside source competent to audit the laboratory's operations.
    B. Managerial review.
    1. The laboratory management shall conduct a review, at least  annually, of its quality system and its testing and calibration activities to  ensure its continuing suitability and effectiveness and to introduce any  necessary changes or improvements in the quality system and laboratory  operations.
    2. The review shall take account of reports from managerial  and supervisory personnel, the outcome of recent internal audits, assessments  by external bodies, the results of inter-laboratory comparisons or proficiency  tests, corrective actions and other relevant factors.
    3. The laboratory shall have a procedure for review by  management and maintain records of review findings and actions.
    4. Where the staff of a laboratory is limited to a single  analyst, a supervisor may perform a managerial review.
    C. Audit review. All audit and review findings and any  corrective actions that arise from them shall be documented. The laboratory  management shall ensure that these actions are discharged within the agreed  time frame as indicated in the quality manual or standard operating procedures  or both. For clarification, documentation of audit and review findings should  be a simple procedure, essentially a memorandum setting out the findings of the  audit and managerial review and any action to follow.
    D. Corrective actions.
    1. In addition to providing acceptance criteria and specific  protocols for corrective actions in the method standard operating procedures,  the laboratory shall implement general procedures to be followed to determine  consistently when departures from documented policies, procedures and quality  control have occurred. These procedures may include but are not limited to the  following:
    a. Identify the individual or individuals responsible for  assessing each quality control data type;
    b. Identify the individual or individuals responsible for  initiating or recommending corrective actions or both;
    c. Define how the analyst shall treat a data set if the  associated quality control measurements are unacceptable;
    d. Specify how out-of-control situations and subsequent  corrective actions are to be documented; and
    e. Specify procedures for management (including the quality  assurance officer) to review corrective action reports plans.
    2. To the extent possible, samples shall be reported only if  all quality control measures are acceptable. If a quality control measure is  found to be out of control, and the data are to be reported, all samples  associated with the failed quality control measure shall be reported with the  appropriate data qualifiers.
    1VAC30-45-720. Equipment and reference materials.
    A. The laboratory shall be furnished with all items of  equipment, including reference materials, required for the correct performance  of tests for which certification is sought. The laboratory shall maintain  records of reference materials sufficient to provide proper performance of  tests. In those cases where the laboratory needs to use equipment outside its  permanent control it shall ensure that the relevant requirements of this  article are met.
    B. All equipment shall be properly maintained, inspected and  cleaned. Maintenance procedures shall be documented.
    C. Any item of the equipment that has been subjected to  overloading or mishandling, or that gives suspect results, or has been shown by  verification or otherwise to be defective shall be taken out of service  immediately, clearly identified as being out of service and, wherever possible,  stored at a specified place until it has been repaired and shown by  calibration, verification or test to perform satisfactorily. The laboratory  shall examine the effect of this defect on previous calibrations or tests.
    D. Each item of equipment including reference materials shall  be labeled, marked or otherwise identified to indicate its calibration status.
    E. Records of each major item of equipment significant to the  tests performed shall be maintained. These records shall include documentation  on all routine and non-routine maintenance activities. The laboratory shall  maintain records of reference materials sufficient to provide proper  performance of tests. The records shall include:
    1. The name of the item of equipment;
    2. The manufacturer's name, type identification, and serial  number or other unique identification;
    3. Date received and date placed in service (if available);
    4. 3. Current location, where appropriate;
    5. If available, condition when received (e.g., new, used,  reconditioned);
    6. 4. Copy of the manufacturer's instructions,  where available;
    7. 5. Dates and results of calibrations or  verifications or both and date of the next calibration or verification;
    8. 6. Details of maintenance carried out to date  and planned for the future; and
    9. 7. History of any damage, malfunction,  modification or repair.
    1VAC30-45-730. Test methods and standard operating procedures.
    A. Methods documentation.
    1. The laboratory shall have documented instructions on the  use and operation of all relevant equipment, on the handling and preparation of  samples, and for calibration or testing, where the absence of such instructions  could jeopardize the calibrations or tests.
    2. All instructions, standards, manuals and reference data  relevant to the work of the laboratory shall be maintained up to date and be  readily available to the staff.
    B. Standard operating procedures (SOPs).
    1. Laboratories shall maintain SOPs that accurately reflect  all phases of current laboratory activities such as assessing data integrity,  corrective actions, handling customer complaints, and all test methods. These  documents, for example, may be equipment manuals provided by the manufacturer  or internally written documents. The test methods may be copies of published  methods as long as any changes or selected options in the methods are  documented and included in the laboratory methods manual.
    2. The SOPs shall be organized. Each SOP shall clearly  indicate the effective date of the document, the revision number, and the  signature or signatures of the responsible laboratory manager or managers.
    3. Copies of all SOPs shall be accessible to all personnel.
    C. Laboratory methods manuals. SOPs for laboratory  methods.
    1. The laboratory shall have and maintain an in-house  methods manual or manuals SOP for each certified analyte or test  method.
    2. This manual may consists of copies of published or  referenced methods or standard operating procedures that have been SOP  may be a copy of a published or referenced method or may be written by the  laboratory. In cases where modifications to the published method have been made  by the laboratory or where the referenced test method is ambiguous or provides  insufficient detail, these changes or clarifications shall be clearly  described. Each test method shall include or reference where applicable:
    a. Identification of the test method;
    b. Applicable matrix or matrices;
    c. Method detection limit Limits of detection or  quantitation;
    d. Scope and application, including components parameters  to be analyzed;
    e. Summary of the test method;
    f. Definitions;
    g. Interferences;
    h. Safety;
    i. Equipment and supplies;
    j. Reagents and standards;
    k. Sample collection, preservation, shipment and storage;
    l. Quality control;
    m. Calibration and standardization;
    n. Procedure;
    o. Calculations Data analysis and calculations;
    p. Method performance;
    q. Pollution prevention;
    r. Data assessment and acceptance criteria for quality control  measures;
    s. Corrective actions for out-of-control data;
    t. Contingencies for handling out-of-control or unacceptable  data;
    u. Waste management;
    v. References; and
    w. Any tables, diagrams, flowcharts and validation data.
    D. Test methods.
    1. Laboratories shall use (i) promulgated test methods in  accordance with the Code of Federal Regulations; (ii) test methods stated in  any current permit issued by Virginia the State Air Pollution  Control Board, the Virginia Waste Management Board, or the State Water Control  Board; or (iii) alternate test procedures approved by the board issuing the  permit or the Department of Environmental Quality, including applicable quality  assurance requirements, and sample preservation, container, storage, and  holding time requirements. Laboratories shall use the latest valid edition  of a method unless it is not appropriate to do so.
    2. The laboratory shall use appropriate test methods and  procedures for all tests and related activities within its responsibility  (including sample handling, transport and storage, preparation and analysis).  The method and procedures shall be consistent with the accuracy required and  with any standard specifications relevant to the calibrations or tests  concerned.
    3. When the use of reference test methods for a sample  analysis is mandated, only those methods shall be used.
    4. Where test methods are employed that are not required, as  in the Performance Based Measurement System approach, the methods shall be  fully documented and validated (see subsection E of this section).
    E. Demonstration of capability.
    1. Prior to acceptance and institution of any test method,  satisfactory initial demonstration of method capability is required. In  general, this demonstration does not test the performance of the method in real  world samples, but in the applicable and available clean quality system matrix  sample (a quality system matrix in which no target analytes or interferences  are present at concentrations that impact the results of a specific test  method), e.g. for example, drinking water, solids, biological  tissue and air. Laboratories shall follow the procedure in subsection F of this  section to demonstrate capability.
    2. Thereafter, continuing ongoing demonstration  of method performance, such as laboratory control samples, is required.
    3. In cases where a laboratory analyzes samples using a test  method that has been in use by the laboratory before July 1999 for at  least one year prior to applying for certification, and there have been no  significant changes in instrument type, personnel or test method, the  continuing demonstration of method performance and the analyst's documentation  of continued proficiency shall be acceptable. The laboratory shall have records  on file to demonstrate that an initial demonstration of capability is not  required.
    4. In all cases, the laboratory shall complete and retain a  certification statement and shall make the statement available upon request.  The laboratory shall retain all associated supporting data necessary to  reproduce the analytical results summarized in the certification statement.
    5. The laboratory shall complete a demonstration of capability  each time there is a change in instrument type, personnel or test method,  including the addition of an analyte to a certified test method.
    6. In laboratories with specialized work cells (a group  consisting of analysts with specifically defined tasks that together perform  the test method), the group as a unit shall meet the criteria of this  subsection. This demonstration of capability shall be fully documented. 
    F. Procedure for demonstration of capability. The following  steps shall be performed for mandated test methods. However, before any results  are reported using this method, actual sample spike results may be used to meet  this standard, (i.e., at least four consecutive matrix spikes  within the last 12 months). For analytes that do not lend themselves to  spiking, (e.g., TSS), the demonstration of  capability may be performed using quality control samples. The laboratory may  document that other approaches to demonstration of capability are adequate.  This documentation shall be included in the laboratory's quality manual:
    1. A quality control (QC) sample may be obtained from an  outside source or may be prepared by the laboratory using alternate source  stock standards that are prepared independently from those used in instrument  calibration.
    2. The analyte or analytes shall be diluted in a volume of  clean quality system matrix sufficient to prepare four aliquots at the  concentration specified, or if unspecified, to a concentration of 1-4 times the  limit of quantitation.
    3. At least four aliquots shall be prepared and analyzed  according to the test method either concurrently or over a period of days.
    4. Using all of the results, calculate the mean recovery in  the appropriate reporting units (such as g/L) and the standard deviations of  the population sample (n-1) (in the same units) for each parameter of interest.  When it is not possible to determine mean and standard deviations, such as for  presence or absence of the analyte and logarithmic values, the laboratory shall  assess performance against established and documented criteria.
    5. Compare the information from subdivision 4 of this  subsection to the corresponding acceptance criteria for precision and accuracy  in the test method (if applicable) or in laboratory-generated acceptance  criteria (if there are not established mandatory criteria). If all parameters  meet the acceptance criteria, the analysis of actual samples may begin. If any  one of the parameters do not meet the acceptance criteria, the performance is  unacceptable for that parameter.
    6. When one or more of the tested parameters fail at least one  of the acceptance criteria, the analyst shall proceed according to either  subdivision 6 a or 6 b below of this subsection.
    a. Locate and correct the source of the problem and repeat the  test for all parameters of interest beginning with subdivision 3 of this  subsection.
    b. Beginning with subdivision 3 of this subsection, repeat the  test for all parameters that failed to meet criteria. Repeated failure,  however, confirms a general problem with the measurement system. If this  occurs, locate and correct the source of the problem and repeat the test for  all compounds of interest beginning with subdivision 3 of this subsection.
    G. Certification statement. The following certification  statement shall be used to document the completion of each demonstration of  capability. A copy of the certification statement shall be retained in the  personnel records of each affected employee.
    Demonstration of Capability 
  Certification Statement 
    Date: Page __of __
    Laboratory Name: 
    Laboratory Address:
    Analyst(s) Name(s):
    Matrix:
    (examples: laboratory pure water, soil, air, solid, biological  tissue)
    Method number, SOP#, Rev#, and Analyte, or Class of Analytes or  Measured Parameters
    (examples: barium by 200.7, trace metals by 6010 B, benzene by  8021 B, etc.)
    We, the undersigned, CERTIFY that:
    1. The analysts identified above, using the cited test  method(s), which is in use at this facility for the analyses of samples under  the Virginia Environmental Laboratory Certification Program, have met the  Demonstration of Capability.
    2. The test method(s) was performed by the analyst(s)  identified on this certification.
    3. A copy of the test method(s) and the laboratory-specific  SOPs are available for all personnel on-site.
    4. The data associated with the demonstration capability are  true, accurate, complete and self-explanatory(1).
    5. All raw data (including a copy of this certification form)  necessary to reconstruct and validate these analyses have been retained at the  facility, and that the associated information is well organized and available  for review by authorized assessors.
    Laboratory Manager's Name and  Title________________ Signature________________ Date_______
    Quality Assurance Officer's Name___________________  Signature________________ Date_______
    (1)True - consistent with supporting data. Accurate  - based on good laboratory practices consistent with sound scientific  principles and practices. Complete - includes the results of all supporting  performance testing. Self-explanatory - data properly labeled and stored so  that the results are clear and require no additional explanation. 
    H. Sample aliquots. Where sampling (as in obtaining sample  aliquots from a submitted sample) is carried out as part of the test method,  the laboratory shall use documented procedures and appropriate techniques to  obtain representative subsamples.
    I. Data verification. Calculations and data transfers shall  be subject to appropriate checks. The laboratory shall establish standard  operating procedures to ensure that (i) the reported data are free from  transcription and calculation errors and (ii) all quality control measures are  reviewed and evaluated before data are reported. The laboratory also shall  establish standard operating procedures addressing manual calculations  including manual integrations.
    J. Documentation and labeling of standards and reagents.  Documented procedures shall exist for the reception and storage of consumable  materials used for the technical operations of the laboratory.
    1. The laboratory shall retain records for all standards,  reagents, reference materials and media including the manufacturer/vendor, the  manufacturer's Certificate of Analysis or purity (if available), the date of  receipt, recommended storage conditions, and an expiration date after which the  material shall not be used unless its reliability is verified by the  laboratory.
    2. Original containers (such as provided by the manufacturer  or vendor) shall be labeled with an expiration date if this date is provided  by the manufacturer or vendor.
    3. Records shall be maintained on standard and reference  material preparation. These records shall indicate traceability to purchased  stocks or neat compounds, reference to the method of preparation, date of  preparation, expiration date and preparer's initials.
    4. Sufficient identification of containers of prepared  reagents and standards shall be provided to ensure proper performance of tests.
    K. Computers and electronic data related requirements. Where  computers, automated equipment or microprocessors are used for the capture,  processing, manipulation, recording, reporting, storage or retrieval of test  data, the laboratory shall ensure the following:
    1. Computer software developed by the user is documented in  sufficient detail and is suitably validated as being adequate for use.
    2. Procedures are established and implemented for protecting  the integrity of data, such as integrity of data entry or capture, data  storage, data transmission and data processing.
    3. Computer and automated equipment are maintained to ensure  proper functioning and provided with the environmental and operating conditions  necessary to maintain the integrity of calibration and test data.
    4. Appropriate procedures are established and implemented for  the maintenance of security of data including the prevention of unauthorized  access to, and the unauthorized amendment of, computer records.
    1VAC30-45-740. Measurement traceability and calibration.
    A. General requirements. All equipment used for environmental  tests, including equipment for subsidiary measurements (e.g., for environmental  conditions) having a significant effect on the accuracy or validity of the  result of the environmental test or sampling shall be calibrated before being  put into service and on a continuing basis. The laboratory shall have an  established program and procedure for the calibration of its equipment. This  includes balances, thermistors, thermometers and control standards. Such a  program shall include a system for selecting, using, calibrating, checking,  controlling and maintaining measurement standards, reference materials used as  measurement standards, and measuring and test equipment used to perform  environmental tests. 
    B. Traceability of calibration.
    1. The laboratory shall ensure that the equipment used can  provide the uncertainty of measurement needed.
    2. The overall program of calibration or verification or both  and validation of equipment shall be designed and operated so as to ensure that  measurements made by the laboratory are traceable to national standards of  measurement.
    3. Where traceability of measurements to the International  System of Units (SI) is not possible or not relevant, the same requirements for  traceability to, for example, certified reference materials, agreed methods and/or  or consensus standards, are required. The laboratory shall provide  satisfactory evidence of correlation of results, for example by participation  in a suitable program of inter-laboratory comparisons, proficiency testing, or  independent analysis.
    C. Reference standards and reference materials. 
    1. Reference standards. The laboratory shall have a program  and procedure for the calibration of its reference standards. Reference  standards of measurement shall be calibrated by a body that can provide  traceability as described in subsection B of this section. Such reference  standards of measurement held by the laboratory (such as Class S or equivalent  weights or traceable thermometers) shall be used for calibration only and for  no other purpose, unless it can be demonstrated that their performance as  reference standards would not be invalidated. Where commercially available,  this traceability shall be to a national standard of measurement.
    2. Reference materials. Reference materials shall, where  commercially available, be traceable to SI units of measurement, or to  certified reference materials. Where possible, traceability shall be to  national or international standards of measurement, or to national or  international standard reference materials. Internal reference materials shall  be checked as far as is technically and economically practicable. 
    D. Calibration. Calibration requirements are divided into two  parts: (i) requirements for analytical support equipment and (ii) requirements  for instrument calibration. In addition, the requirements for instrument  calibration are divided into initial instrument calibration and continuing  instrument calibration verification.
    1. Support equipment. These standards apply to all devices  that may not be the actual test instrument, but are necessary to support  laboratory operations. These include but are not limited to balances, ovens,  refrigerators, freezers, incubators, water baths, temperature measuring devices  (including thermometers and thermistors), thermal/pressure sample preparation  devices and volumetric dispensing devices (such as Eppendorf®, or automatic  dilutor or dispensing devices) if quantitative results are dependent on their  accuracy, as in standard preparation and dispensing or dilution into a  specified volume.
    a. All support equipment shall be maintained in proper working  order. The records of all repair and maintenance activities, including service  calls, shall be kept.
    b. All support equipment shall be calibrated or verified at  least annually, using NIST traceable references when available, over the entire  range of use. The results of such calibration shall be within the  specifications required of the application for which this equipment is used. If  not, the laboratory shall either (i) remove the equipment from service until  repaired or (ii) maintain records of established correction factors to correct  all measurements.
    c. Raw data records shall be retained to document equipment  performance.
    d. Prior to use on each working day On each day the  equipment is used, balances, ovens, refrigerators, freezers, and water  baths shall be checked in the expected use range, with NIST traceable  references where available. The acceptability for use or continued use shall be  according to the needs of the analysis or application for which the equipment  is being used.
    e. Mechanical volumetric dispensing devices including burettes  (except Class A glassware) shall be checked for accuracy on at least a  quarterly use basis. Glass microliter syringes are to be considered in the same  manner as Class A glassware, but shall come with a certificate attesting to  established accuracy or the accuracy shall be initially demonstrated and  documented by the laboratory.
    f. For chemical tests, the temperature, cycle time and  pressure of each run of autoclaves shall be documented by the use of  appropriate chemical indicators or temperature recorders and pressure gauges.
    g. For biological tests that employ autoclave sterilization, the  following requirements apply:
    (1) The performance of each autoclave shall be initially  evaluated by establishing its functional properties and performance, for  example heat distribution characteristics with respect to typical uses.  Autoclaves shall meet specified temperature tolerances. Pressure cookers fitted  only with a pressure gauge are not recommended for sterilization of media or  decontamination of wastes.
    (2) Records of autoclave operations including temperature and  time shall be maintained. This shall be done for every cycle. Acceptance and  rejection criteria shall be established and used to evaluate the autoclave  efficiency and effectiveness.
    2. Instrument calibration.
    a. This standard specifies the essential elements that define  the procedures and documentation for initial instrument calibration and  continuing instrument calibration verification to ensure that the data shall be  of known quality and be appropriate for a given regulation or decision. This  standard does not specify detailed procedural steps for calibration, but  establishes the essential elements for selection of the appropriate technique  or techniques. If more stringent standards or requirements are included in a  mandated test method or by regulation, the laboratory shall demonstrate that  such requirements are met. If it is not apparent which standard is more  stringent, then the requirements of the regulation or mandated test method are  to be followed.
    b. Initial instrument calibrations. The following items are  essential elements of initial instrument calibration:
    (1) The laboratory shall include or reference the details of  the initial instrument calibration procedures, including calculations,  integrations, acceptance criteria and associated statistics in the standard  operating procedure for the test method. When initial instrument calibration  procedures are referenced in the test method, then the laboratory shall retain  the referenced material and make it available for review.
    (2) The laboratory shall retain sufficient raw data records to  permit reconstruction of the initial instrument calibration, (e.g.,  calibration date, test method, instrument, analysis date, each analyte name,  analyst's initials or signature, concentration and response, calibration curve  or response factor, or unique equation or coefficient used to reduce instrument  responses to concentration).
    (3) Sample results shall be quantitated from the initial  instrument calibration and may not be quantitated from any continuing  instrument calibration verification unless otherwise required by regulation,  method, or program.
    (4) All initial instrument calibrations shall be verified with  a standard obtained from a second manufacturer or lot. Traceability shall be to  a national standard, when available. This element does not apply to  laboratories performing only simple test procedures.
    (5) Criteria for the acceptance of an initial instrument  calibration shall be established, (e.g., correlation coefficient  and relative percent difference). The criteria used shall be 0.995 or  greater for the calibration coefficient unless a different criterion is  included in the method being used.
    (6) Results of samples not bracketed by initial calibration  standards (within calibration range) shall be reported as having less certainty,  (e.g., defined qualifiers or flags or explained in the case narrative).  The lowest calibration standard shall be above the detection limit.
    (7) If the initial instrument calibration results are outside  established acceptance criteria, corrective actions shall be performed. Data  associated with an unacceptable initial instrument calibration shall not be  reported.
    (8) Calibration standards shall include concentrations at or  below the regulatory limit or decision level, if these limits or levels are  known by the laboratory, unless these concentrations are below the laboratory's  demonstrated detection limits.
    (9) If a reference or mandated method does not specify the  number of calibration standards, the minimum number is two, not including  blanks or a zero standard. The laboratory shall have a standard operating  procedure for determining the number of points for establishing the initial  instrument calibration.
    c. Continuing instrument calibration verification.
    (1) When an initial instrument calibration is not performed on  the day of analysis, the validity of the initial calibration shall be verified  prior to sample analyses by a continuing instrument calibration check with each  analytical batch. This provision does not apply to laboratories performing only  simple test procedures.
    (2) The following items are essential elements of continuing  instrument calibration verification:
    (a) The laboratory shall include or reference the details of  the continuing instrument calibration procedure, calculations and associated  statistics in the standard operating procedure for the test method.
    (b) The laboratory shall verify calibration for each compound,  element, or other discrete chemical species, except for multicomponent analytes  such as Aroclors, Total Petroleum Hydrocarbons, or Toxaphene where a  representative chemical related substance or mixture can be used. 
    (c) The laboratory shall perform a continuing instrument  calibration verification as follows:
    (i) At the beginning and end of each analytical batch. If an  internal standard is used, only one verification needs to be performed at the beginning  of the analytical batch;
    (ii) Whenever it is expected that the analytical system may be  out of calibration or might not meet the verification acceptance criteria;
    (iii) If the time period for calibration or the most previous  calibration verification has expired; or
    (iv) For analytical systems that contain a calibration  verification requirement. 
    (d) Sufficient raw data records shall be retained to permit  reconstruction of the continuing instrument calibration verification, (e.g.,  or test method, instrument, analysis date, each analyte name, concentration and  response, calibration curve or response factor, or unique equations or  coefficients used to convert instrument responses into concentrations).  Continuing calibration verification records shall explicitly connect the  continuing verification data to the initial instrument calibration.
    (e) Criteria for the acceptance of a continuing instrument  calibration verification shall be established, (e.g., percent  recovery or relative percent difference).
    (f) If the continuing instrument calibration verification  results obtained are outside established acceptance criteria, corrective  actions shall be performed. If routine corrective action procedures fail to  produce a second consecutive (immediate) calibration verification within  acceptance criteria, then either the laboratory has to demonstrate acceptable  performance after corrective action with two consecutive successful calibration  verifications, or a new initial instrument calibration shall be performed. If  the laboratory has not verified calibration, sample analyses shall not occur  until the analytical system is calibrated or calibration verified. If samples  are analyzed using a system on which the calibration has not yet been verified,  the results shall be flagged. Data associated with an unacceptable calibration  verification may be fully useable under the following special conditions:
    (i) When the acceptance criteria for the continuing  calibration verification are exceeded high, (i.e., high bias,)  and there are associated samples that are nondetects, then those nondetects may  be reported. Otherwise the samples affected by the unacceptable calibration  verification shall be reanalyzed after a new calibration curve has been  established, evaluated and accepted.
    (ii) When the acceptance criteria for the continuing  calibration verification are exceeded low, (i.e., low bias,)  those sample results may be reported if they exceed a maximum regulatory limit  or decision level. Otherwise the samples affected by the unacceptable  verification shall be reanalyzed after a new calibration curve has been  established, evaluated and accepted.
    1VAC30-45-750. Quality assurance.
    A. General. The laboratory shall have quality control  procedures for monitoring the validity of environmental tests undertaken. The  resulting data shall be recorded in such a way that trends are detectable and,  where practicable, statistical techniques shall be applied to the reviewing of  the results. This monitoring shall be planned and reviewed and may include, but  not be limited to, the following:
    1. Regular use of certified reference materials and/or or  internal quality control using secondary reference materials or both.
    2. Participation in interlaboratory comparison or proficiency  testing program.
    3. Replicate tests using the same or different methods.
    4. Retesting of retained samples.
    5. Correlation of results for different characteristics of a  sample (for example (e.g., total phosphate should be greater than  or equal to orthophosphate).
    B. Essential quality control procedures. The general quality  control principles in subsections C through F of this section shall apply,  where applicable, to all environmental laboratories. The manner in which they  are implemented is dependent on the types of tests performed by the laboratory.  1VAC30-45-760 through 1VAC30-45-829 specify quality control requirements for  specific test types. 1VAC30-45-770 through 1VAC30-45-775, 1VAC30-45-790  through 1VAC30-45-798, and 1VAC30-45-810 through 1VAC30-45-818 specify quality  control requirements for chemical testing, microbiological testing, and air  testing, respectively. Noncommercial environmental laboratories that analyze  environmental samples using other types of testing such as toxicity,  radiochemical, or asbestos testing shall meet the quality control standards for  the specific method and the specific type of testing in the 2009 TNI Standards  for Environmental Laboratories. The standards for any given test type shall  assure that the applicable principles are addressed.
    C. All laboratories shall have detailed written protocols in  place to monitor the following quality controls:
    1. Positive and negative controls to monitor tests such as  blanks, spikes, reference toxicants.
    2. Tests to define the variability or repeatability of the  laboratory results or both such as replicates.
    3. Measures to assure the accuracy of the test method  including calibration or continuing calibrations or both, use of certified  reference materials, proficiency test samples, or other measures.
    4. Measures to evaluate test method capability, such as method  detection limits and quantitation limits or range of applicability such as  linearity.
    5. Selection of appropriate formulae to reduce raw data to  final results such as regression analysis, comparison to internal and external  standard calculations, and statistical analyses.
    6. Selection and use of reagents and standards of appropriate  quality.
    7. Measures to assure the selectivity of the test for its  intended purpose.
    8. Measures to assure constant and consistent test conditions  (both instrumental and environmental) where required by the test method such as  temperature, humidity, light, or specific instrument conditions.
    1VAC30-45-760. Quality control requirements.
    A. General.
    1. The quality control protocols specified by the laboratory's  method manual SOPs shall be followed (1VAC30-45-730 C). The  laboratory shall ensure that either the (i) applicable essential standards  outlined in this section through 1VAC30-45-829 1VAC30-45-775,  1VAC30-45-791 through 1VAC30-45-798, and 1VAC30-45-811 or (ii) mandated  methods or regulations, whichever are more stringent, are incorporated into  their method manuals SOPs. When it is not apparent which is more  stringent, the quality control controls in the mandated method or  regulations is are to be followed. 
    2. All quality control measures shall be assessed and  evaluated on an ongoing basis and quality control acceptance criteria shall be  used to determine the validity of the data. The laboratory shall have  procedures for the development of acceptance/rejection criteria where no method  or regulatory criteria exists.
    B. Initial test method evaluation. For all test methods other  than toxicity and microbiology, the requirements of subdivisions 1 and 2  of this subsection apply. For toxicity and microbiology testing, the  initial test method evaluation requirements are contained in 1VAC30-45-780  through 1VAC30-45-788 and 1VAC30-45-790 through 1VAC30-45-798,  respectively. For the evaluation of precision and bias (subdivision 3 of  this subsection), the requirements of subdivision 3 a of this subsection apply  to standard methods. The requirements of subdivision 3 b of this subsection  apply to the methods referenced in that subdivision.
    1. Limit of detection (LOD).
    a. The laboratory shall determine the LOD for the method for  each target analyte of concern in the quality system matrices. All sample  processing steps of the analytical method shall be included in the  determination of the LOD.
    b. The validity of the LOD shall be confirmed by qualitative  identification of the analyte(s) in a quality control sample in each quality  system matrix containing the analyte at no more than two to three times the LOD  for single analyte tests and one to four times the LOD for multiple analyte  tests. This verification shall be performed on every instrument that is to be  used for analysis of samples and reporting of data.
    c. An LOD study is not required for any component for which  spiking solutions or quality control samples are not available such as  temperature, or, when test results are not to be reported to the LOD (versus  the limit of quantitation or working range of instrument calibration),  according to 1VAC30-45-771, 1VAC30-45-805, and 1VAC30-45-814,  and 1VAC30-45-826. Where an LOD study is not performed, the laboratory may  not report a value below the limit of quantitation.
    2. Limit of quantitation (LOQ).
    a. The laboratory shall determine the LOQ for each analyte of  concern according to a defined, documented procedure.
    b. The LOQ study is not required for any component or property  for which spiking solutions or quality control samples are not commercially  available or otherwise inappropriate (e.g., pH).
    c. The validity of the LOQ shall be confirmed by successful  analysis of a QC sample containing the analytes of concern in each quality  system matrix one to two times the claimed LOQ. A successful analysis is one  where the recovery of each analyte is within the established test method  acceptance criteria or client data quality objectives for accuracy. This single  analysis is not required if the bias and precision of the measurement system is  evaluated at the LOQ.
    3. Evaluation of precision and bias.
    a. Standard methods. The laboratory shall evaluate the  precision and bias of a standard method for each analyte of concern for each  quality system matrix according to either of the following:
    (1) The single-concentration four-replicate recovery study  procedures in 1VAC30-45-730 F; or
    (2) An alternate procedure documented in the quality manual  when the analyte cannot be spiked into the sample matrix and quality control  samples are not commercially available.
    b. Nonstandard methods.
    (1) For laboratory-developed test methods or nonstandard test  methods that were not in use by the laboratory before July 2003, the laboratory  shall have a documented procedure to evaluate precision and bias. The  laboratory shall also compare results of the precision and bias measurements  with criteria given in the reference method or criteria established by the laboratory.
    (2) Precision and bias measurements shall evaluate the method  across the analytical calibration range of the method. The laboratory shall  also evaluate precision and bias in the relevant quality system matrices and  shall process the samples through the entire measurement system for each  analyte of interest.
    (3) The following are examples of a systematic approach to  evaluate precision and bias:
    (a) Example 1. Analyze QC samples in triplicate containing the  analytes of concern at or near the limit of quantitation, at the upper-range of  the calibration (upper 20%) and at a mid-range concentration. Process these  samples on different days as three sets of samples through the entire  measurement system for each analyte of interest. Each day one QC sample at each  concentration is analyzed. A separate method blank shall be subjected to the  analytical method along with the QC samples on each of the three days. (Note  that the three samples at the LOQ concentration can demonstrate sensitivity as  well.) For each analyte, calculate the mean recovery for each day, for each  level over days, and for all nine samples. Calculate the relative standard  deviation for each of the separate means obtained. Compare the standard  deviations for the different days and the standard deviations for the different  concentrations. If the different standard deviations are all statistically  insignificant (e.g., F-test), then compare the overall mean and standard  deviation with the established criteria from above.
    (b) Example 2. A validation protocol such as the Tier I, Tier  II, and Tier III requirements in U.S. EPA Office of Water's Alternate Test  Procedure (ATP) approval process.
    4. Evaluation of selectivity. The laboratory shall evaluate  selectivity by following the checks established within the method. These checks  may include mass spectral tuning, second column confirmation, ICP inter-element  interference checks, chromatography retention time windows, sample blanks,  spectrochemical absorption or fluorescence profiles, co-precipitation  evaluations, and electrode response factors. 
    1VAC30-45-770. Chemical testing: positive and negative  controls.
    A. Negative control – method performance.
    1. Purpose. The method blank is used to assess the preparation  batch for possible contamination during the preparation and processing steps.  The method blank shall be processed along with and under the same conditions as  the associated samples to include all steps of the analytical procedure.  Procedures shall be in place to determine if a method blank is contaminated.  Any affected samples associated with a contaminated method blank shall be  reprocessed for analysis or the results reported with appropriate data  qualifying codes.
    2. Frequency. The method blank shall be analyzed at a minimum  of one per preparation batch. In those instances for which no separate  preparation method is used (example: (e.g., volatiles in water)  the batch shall be defined as environmental samples that are analyzed together  with the same method and personnel, using the same lots of reagents, not to  exceed the analysis of 20 environmental samples. 
    3. Composition. The method blank shall consist of a quality  system matrix that is similar to the associated samples and is known to be free  of the analytes of interest.
    4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action. While the goal  is to have no detectable contaminants, each method blank shall be critically  evaluated as to the nature of the interference and the effect on the analysis  of each sample within the batch. The source of contamination shall be  investigated and measures taken to minimize or eliminate the problem and  affected samples reprocessed or data shall be appropriately qualified if:
    a. The concentration of a targeted analyte in the blank is at  or above the reporting limit as established by the test method or by  regulation, and is greater than 1/10 of the amount measured in any sample.
    b. The blank contamination otherwise affects the sample  results as per the test method requirements or the individual project data  quality objectives.
    c. When a blank is determined to be contaminated, the cause  shall be investigated and measures taken to minimize or eliminate the problem.  Samples associated with a contaminated blank shall be evaluated as to the best  corrective action for the samples (e.g., reprocessing or data qualifying  codes). In all cases the corrective action shall be documented.
    B. Positive control – method  performance. Laboratory control sample (LCS).
    1. Purpose. The LCS is used to evaluate the performance of the  total analytical system, including all preparation and analysis steps. Results  of the LCS are compared to established criteria and, if found to be outside of  these criteria, indicates that the analytical system is "out of  control." Any affected samples associated with an out of control LCS shall  be reprocessed for re-analysis or the results reported with appropriate data  qualifying codes.
    2. Frequency. The LCS shall be analyzed at a minimum of one  per preparation batch. Exceptions would be for those analytes for which no  spiking solutions are available such as total suspended solids, total dissolved  solids, total volatile solids, total solids, pH, color, odor, temperature, dissolved  oxygen or turbidity. In those instances for which no separate preparation  method is used (example: volatiles in water) the batch shall be defined as  environmental samples that are analyzed together with the same method and  personnel, using the same lots of reagents, not to exceed the analysis of 20  environmental samples.
    3. Composition. The LCS is a quality system matrix, known to  be free of analytes of interest, spiked with known and verified concentrations  of analytes. NOTE: the matrix spike may be used in place of this control as  long as the acceptance criteria are as stringent as for the LCS. Alternatively  the LCS may consist of a media containing known and verified concentrations of  analytes or as Certified Reference Material (CRM). All analyte concentrations  shall be within the calibration range of the methods. The following shall be  used in choosing components for the spike mixtures:
    The components to be spiked shall be as specified by the  mandated test method or other regulatory requirement or as requested by the  client. In the absence of specified spiking components the laboratory shall  spike per the following:
    a. For those components that interfere with an accurate  assessment such as spiking simultaneously with technical chlordane, toxaphene and  PCBs, the spike should be chosen that represents the chemistries and elution  patterns of the components to be reported.
    b. For those test methods that have extremely long lists of  analytes, a representative number may be chosen. The analytes selected should  be representative of all analytes reported. The following criteria shall be  used for determining the minimum number of analytes to be spiked. However, the  laboratory shall insure that all targeted components are included in the spike  mixture over a two-year period. For methods that include 1-10 targets, spike  all components; for methods that include 11-20 targets, spike at least 10%  10 components or 80%, whichever is greater; and for methods with more  than 20 targets, spike at least 16 components.
    4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action.
    a. The results of the individual batch LCS are calculated in  percent recovery or other appropriate statistical technique that allows  comparison to established acceptance criteria. The laboratory shall document  the calculation.
    b. The individual LCS is compared to the acceptance criteria  as published in the mandated test method. Where there are no established  criteria, the laboratory shall determine internal criteria and document the  method used to establish the limits or utilize client specified assessment  criteria.
    c. A LCS that is determined to be within the criteria  effectively establishes that the analytical system is in control and validates  system performance for the samples in the associated batch. Samples analyzed  along with a LCS determined to be "out of control" shall be  considered suspect and the samples reprocessed and re-analyzed or the data  reported with appropriate data qualifying codes.
    5. If a large number of analytes are in the LCS, it becomes  statistically likely that a few will be outside control limits. This may not  indicate that the system is out of control, therefore corrective action may not  be necessary. Upper and lower marginal exceedance (ME) limits can be  established to determine when corrective action is necessary. A ME is defined  as being beyond the LCS control limit (3 standard deviations), but within the  ME limits. ME limits are between 3 and 4 standard deviations around the mean.
    a. The number of allowable marginal exceedances is based on  the number of analytes in the LCS. If more analytes exceed the LCS control  limits than is allowed, or if any one analyte exceeds the ME limits, the LCS  fails and corrective action is necessary. This marginal exceedance approach is  relevant for methods with long lists of analytes. It will not apply to target  analyte lists with fewer than 11 analytes.
    b. The number of allowable marginal exceedances is as follows:
           |      Number of analytes in LCS      |          Number of analytes allowed in ME of the LCS control limit      |    
       |      Greater than 90      |          Five      |    
       |      71‑90      |          Four      |    
       |      51‑70      |          Three      |    
       |      31‑50      |          Two      |    
       |      11‑30      |          One      |    
       |      Fewer than 11      |          None      |    
  
    c. Marginal exceedances shall be random. If the same analyte  exceeds the LCS control limit repeatedly, it is an indication of a systemic  problem. The source of the error shall be located and corrective action taken.  Laboratories shall have a written procedure to monitor the application of  marginal exceedance allowance to the LCS to ensure random behavior.
    C. Sample specific controls - general.
    1. The laboratory shall document procedures for determining  the effect of the sample matrix on method performance. These procedures relate  to the analyses of quality system matrix specific Quality Control (QC) samples  and are designed as data quality indicators for a specific sample using the  designated test method. These controls alone are not used to judge laboratory  performance.
    2. Examples of matrix specific QC include: Matrix Spike (MS);  Matrix Spike Duplicate (MSD); sample duplicates; and surrogate spikes. The  laboratory shall have procedures in place for tracking, managing, and handling  matrix specific QC criteria including spiking appropriate components at  appropriate concentrations, calculating recoveries and relative percent  difference, evaluating and reporting results based on performance of the QC  samples.
    D. Sample specific controls - matrix spike and matrix spike  duplicates.
    1. Purpose. Matrix specific QC samples indicate the effect of  the sample matrix on the precision and accuracy of the results generated using  the selected method. The information from these controls is sample/matrix  specific and would not normally be used to determine the validity of the entire  batch.
    2. Frequency. The frequency of the analysis of matrix specific  samples shall be determined as part of a systematic planning process (e.g.,  Data Quality Objectives) or as specified by the test method.
    3. Composition. The components to be spiked shall be as  specified by the mandated test method. Any permit specified analytes, as  specified by regulation or client requested analytes shall also be included. If  there are no specified components, the laboratory shall spike per the  following:
    a. For those components that interfere with an accurate  assessment such as spiking simultaneously with technical chlordane, toxaphene  and PCBs, the spike should be chosen that represents the chemistries and  elution patterns of the components to be reported.
    b. For those test methods that have extremely long lists of  analytes, a representative number may be chosen using the following criteria  for choosing the number of analytes to be spiked. However, the laboratory shall  insure that all targeted components are included in the spike mixture over a  two-year period. 
    (1) For methods that include 1-10 targets, spike all  components;
    (2) For methods that include 11-20 targets, spike at least 10%  10 components or 80%, whichever is greater;
    (3) For methods with more than 20 targets, spike at least 16  components.
    4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action.
    a. The results from matrix spike/matrix spike duplicate are  primarily designed to assess the precision and accuracy of analytical results  in a given matrix and are expressed as percent recovery (%R), relative percent  difference (RPD), or other appropriate statistical technique that allows comparison  to established acceptance criteria. The laboratory shall document the  calculation for %R, RPD or other statistical treatment used. 
    b. The results are compared to the acceptance criteria as  published in the mandated test method. Where there are no established criteria,  the laboratory shall determine internal criteria and document the method used  to establish the limits. For matrix spike results outside established criteria  corrective action shall be documented or the data reported with appropriate data  qualifying codes. 
    E. Sample specific controls - matrix duplicates.
    1. Purpose. Matrix duplicates are defined as replicate  aliquots of the same sample taken through the entire analytical procedure. The  results from this analysis indicate the precision of the results for the  specific sample using the selected method. The matrix duplicate provides a  usable measure of precision only when target analytes are found in the sample  chosen for duplication. 
    2. Frequency. The frequency of the analysis of matrix duplicates  may be determined as part of a systematic planning process (e.g., Data Quality  Objectives) or as specified by the mandated test method.
    3. Composition. Matrix duplicates are performed on replicate  aliquots of actual samples. The composition is usually not known. 
    4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action.
    a. The results from matrix duplicates are primarily designed  to assess the precision of analytical results in a given matrix and are  expressed as relative percent difference (RPD) or another statistical treatment  (e.g., absolute differences). The laboratory shall document the calculation for  relative percent difference or other statistical treatments.
    b. Results are compared to the acceptance criteria as  published in the mandated test method. Where there are no established criteria,  the laboratory shall determine internal criteria and document the method used  to establish the limits. For matrix duplicates results outside established  criteria corrective action shall be documented or the data reported with  appropriate data qualifying codes.
    F. Sample specific controls - surrogate spikes.
    1. Purpose. Surrogates are used most often in organic  chromatography test methods and are chosen to reflect the chemistries of the  targeted components of the method. Added prior to sample  preparation/extraction, they provide a measure of recovery for every sample  matrix.
    2. Frequency. Except where the matrix precludes its use or  when not commercially available, surrogate compounds shall be added to all  samples, standards, and blanks for all appropriate test methods. 
    3. Composition. Surrogate compounds are chosen to represent  the various chemistries of the target analytes in the method or MQO. They are  often specified by the mandated method and are deliberately chosen for their  being unlikely to occur as an environmental contaminant. Often this is  accomplished by using deuterated analogs of select compounds.
    4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action. The results are  compared to the acceptance criteria as published in the mandated test method.  Where there are no established criteria, the laboratory should determine  internal criteria and document the method used to establish the limits.  Surrogates outside the acceptance criteria shall be evaluated for the effect  indicated for the individual sample results. Data quality objectives or other  site-specific requirements may guide the appropriate corrective action. Results  reported from analyses with surrogate recoveries outside the acceptance  criteria should include appropriate data qualifiers.
    1VAC30-45-771. Chemical testing: limit of detection and limit  of quantitation.
    A. General. All procedures used shall be documented.  Documentation shall include the quality system matrix type. All supporting data  shall be retained.
    B. Limit of detection (LOD). The laboratory shall utilize a  test method that provides an LOD that is appropriate and relevant for the  intended use of the data. An LOD is not required for a test method when test  results are not reported outside of the calibration range. LODs shall be  determined by the protocol in the mandated test method or applicable  regulation. If the protocol for determining LODs is not specified, the  selection of the procedure shall reflect instrument limitations and the  intended application of the test method.
    1. The LOD shall be initially determined for the compounds of  interest in each test method in a quality system matrix in which there are no  target analytes or interferences at a concentration that would impact the  results. Alternatively the LOD shall be determined in the quality system matrix  of interest (see definition of matrix).
    2. LODs shall be determined each time there is a change in the  test method that affects how the test is performed, or when a change in  instrumentation occurs that affects the sensitivity of the analysis.
    3. The laboratory shall have established procedures to  relate LOD with LOQ.
    4. 3. The LOD shall be verified annually for  each quality system matrix, method and analyte according to the procedure  specified in 1VAC30-45-760 B 1.
    C. Limit of quantitation (LOQ).
    1. Any established LOQ shall be above the LOD.
    2. The LOQ shall be verified annually for each quality system  matrix, method and analyte according to the procedure specified in  1VAC30-45-760 B 2. Alternatively, the annual LOQ verification is not required  if the LOD is reevaluated or verified according to subdivision B 4 of this  section.
    1VAC30-45-775. Chemical testing: constant and consistent test  conditions.
    A. The laboratory shall assure that the test instruments  consistently operate within the specifications required of the application for  which the equipment is used.
    B. Glassware cleaning. Glassware shall be cleaned to meet  the sensitivity of the test method.
    C. B. Any cleaning and storage procedures that  are not specified by the test method shall be documented in laboratory records  and SOPs.
    1VAC30-45-780. Toxicity testing: general. (Repealed.)
    These standards apply to laboratories measuring the  toxicity and/or bioaccumulation of contaminants in effluents (aquatic  toxicity), receiving waters, sediments, elutriates, leachates and soils. In  addition to the essential quality control standards set out in 1VAC30-45-781  through 1VAC30-45-788, some methods may have additional or other requirements  based on factors such as the type of quality system matrix evaluated.
    1VAC30-45-781. Toxicity testing: positive and negative  controls. (Repealed.)
    A. Positive control. Reference toxicant tests demonstrate  a laboratory's ability to obtain consistent results with the test method and  evaluate the overall health and sensitivity of test organisms over time.
    1. The laboratory shall demonstrate its ability to obtain  consistent results with standard reference toxicants (SRT) and complete an  initial Demonstration of Capability (DOC) in order to attain accreditation in  toxicity testing methods.
    a. An initial DOC shall consist of five or more acceptable  SRT tests for each test method, species and endpoint with different batches of  organisms. Appropriate negative controls (water, sediment, or soil) shall be  tested at the frequency and duration specified in the test method. Initial DOCs  shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of 1VAC30-45-730 F. 
    b. Initial DOC is established by maintenance of SRT test  results on control charts. A laboratory shall record the control performance  and statistical endpoints (such as NOEC or ECp) for each method species and  endpoint on control charts. Initial DOC is established where 95% of the test  results required in subdivision A 1 a of this section fall within the control  limits established in accordance with subdivision A 1 c of this section and  meet test acceptability criteria (TAC). The laboratory shall evaluate precision  (i.e., coefficient of variation (CV)) or sensitivity (i.e., statistical minimum  significant difference (SMSD) measures; see subdivision A 1 d of this section)  for these tests against method-specific or, lacking the former,  laboratory-derived criteria to determine validity of the initial DOC.
    c. For endpoints that are point estimates (ICp, ECp),  control charts are constructed by plotting the cumulative mean and the control  limits that consist of the upper and lower 95% confidence limits (+/- 2  standard deviations). In case of highly variable point estimates that exceed method-specific  criteria, the control chart limits are adjusted accordingly. For endpoints from  hypothesis tests (NOEC, NOAEC), the values are plotted directly and the control  limits consist of one concentration interval above and below the concentration  representing the central tendency (i.e., the mode).
    d. For endpoints that are point estimates, the cumulative  mean CV is calculated and for endpoints from hypothesis tests, the SMSD is  calculated. These values are maintained on a control chart.
    2. Ongoing laboratory performance shall be demonstrated by  routine SRT testing for each test method and species and endpoint in accordance  with the minimum frequency requirements specified in subdivision A 3 of this  section.
    a. Intralaboratory precision is determined on an ongoing  basis through the use of control charts as established in subdivision A 1 b of  this section. The control charts shall be plotted as point estimate values,  such as EC25 for chronic tests and LC50 for acute tests, or as appropriate  hypothesis test values, such as the NOEC or NOAEC, over time within a  laboratory.
    b. After initial laboratory DOC is determined, the control  limits and CV for an individual test method, endpoints and species shall be  adjusted as additional test results are obtained. After 20 data points are  collected for a test method and species, the control chart is maintained using  only the last 20 data points, i.e., each successive mean value and control  limit is calculated using only the last 20 values. 
    c. Control chart limits are expected to be exceeded  occasionally regardless of how well a laboratory performs. Acceptance limits  for point estimates (ICp, ECp) that are based on 95% confidence limits should  theoretically be exceeded for one in 20 tests. Depending on the dilution factor  and test sensitivity, control charts based on hypothesis test values (NOEC,  NOAEC) may be expected to be exceeded on a similar frequency. Test results that  fall outside of control chart limits at a frequency of 5.0% or less, or that  fall just outside control chart limits (especially in the case of highly  proficient laboratories that may develop relatively narrow acceptance limits  over time), are not rejected de facto. Such data are evaluated in comparison  with control chart characteristics including the width of the acceptance limits  and the degree of departure of the value from acceptance limits.
    d. Consistent with the test methods used, laboratories  shall develop acceptance/rejection policies for SRT data that consider the  source of test organisms, the direction of the deviation, test dilution factor,  test sensitivity (for hypothesis test values), testing frequency,  out-of-control test frequency, relative width of acceptance limits, inter-test  CV, and degree of difference between test results and acceptance limits.
    e. In the case of reference toxicant data that fails to  meet control chart acceptance criteria, the test data are examined for defects,  corrective action taken, and the test repeated if necessary, using a different  batch of organisms or the data is qualified.
    3. The frequency of ongoing laboratory reference toxicant  testing shall be as follows unless the method specifically requires less  frequent SRT tests (e.g., sediment tests):
    a. For test methods conducted at a frequency of monthly or  greater, SRT tests shall be conducted at an ongoing frequency of monthly. 
    b. For test methods and species commonly used in the  laboratory, but that are tested at a frequency of less than monthly, SRT tests  shall be conducted concurrently with the environmental test. 
    c. If the test organisms are obtained from an outside  source the sensitivity of each batch of organisms received from a supplier  shall be determined via a concurrent SRT test unless the supplier can provide  control chart data for the last five SRT tests using the same SRT and test  conditions. Supplied SRT data may not be older than six months.
    d. The DOC for an analyst shall be consistent with  1VAC30-45-220 B but the frequency need not exceed the method-specified  requirements and subdivision A 3 a and A 3 b of this section.
    4. These standards do not currently specify a particular  reference toxicant and dilution series. If the permitting authority identifies  a reference toxicant or dilution series for a particular test, the laboratory  shall follow the specified requirements. All reference toxicant tests conducted  for a given test method and species shall use the same reference toxicant, test  concentrations, dilution water and data analysis methods. A dilution factor of  0.5x or greater shall be used for both acute and chronic tests. 
    5. The reference toxicant tests shall be conducted  following the same procedures as the environmental toxicity tests for which the  precision is being evaluated, unless otherwise specified in the test method  (for example, 10-day sediment tests employ 96-h water-only reference toxicant  tests). The test duration, laboratory dilution water, feeding, organism age,  range and density, test volumes, renewal frequency, water quality measurements,  and the number of test concentrations, replicates and organisms per replicate  shall be the same as specified for the environmental toxicity test.
    B. Negative control: control, brine control, control  sediment, control soil or dilution water.
    1. The standards for the use, type and frequency of testing  of negative controls are specified by the test methods and by permit or  regulation and shall be followed. A negative control is included with each test  to evaluate test performance and the health and sensitivity of the specific  batch of organisms.
    2. Appropriate additional negative controls shall be  included when sample adjustments (for example, addition of thiosulfate for  dechlorination) or solvent carriers are used in the test.
    3. Test acceptability criteria (TAC). The test  acceptability criteria specified in the test method shall be achieved for both  the reference toxicant and the effluent or environmental sample toxicity test.  The criteria shall be calculated and shall meet the method specified  requirements for performing toxicity tests.
    1VAC30-45-782. Toxicity testing: variability and/or  reproducibility. (Repealed.)
    Intralaboratory precision shall be determined on an  ongoing basis through the use of further reference toxicant tests and related  control charts as described in 1VAC30-45-840 A.
    1VAC30-45-783. Toxicity testing: accuracy. (Repealed.)
    This principle is not applicable to toxicity testing.
    1VAC30-45-784. Toxicity testing: test sensitivity. (Repealed.)
    A. The statistical minimum significant difference (SMSD)  shall be calculated according to the formula specified by the test method and  reported with the test results.
    B. Point estimates: (LCp, ICp, or ECp) Confidence  intervals shall be reported as a measure of the precision around the point  estimate value, when the calculation is possible.
    C. The SMSD shall be calculated and reported for only  hypothesis test values, such as the NOEC or NOAEC. 
    1VAC30-45-785. Toxicity testing: selection of appropriate  statistical analysis methods. (Repealed.)
    A. If required, methods of data analysis and endpoints are  specified by language in the regulation, permit or the test method.
    B. Dose response curves. The data shall be plotted in the  form of a curve relating the dose of the chemical or concentration of sample to  cumulative percentage of test organisms demonstrating a response such as death.  Evaluation criteria shall be established for interpretation of concentration or  dose response curves.
    1VAC30-45-786. Toxicity testing: selection and use of  reagents and standards. (Repealed.)
    A. The grade of all reagents used in toxicity tests is specified  in the test method except the reference standard. All reference standards shall  be prepared from chemicals that are analytical reagent grade or better. The  preparation of all standards and reference toxicants shall be documented.
    B. All standards and reagents associated with chemical  measurements, such as dissolved oxygen, pH or specific conductance, shall  comply with the standards outlined in 1VAC30-45-740 D 1 d. 
    C. Only reagent-grade water collected from distillation or  deionization units is used to prepare reagents.
    1VAC30-45-787. Toxicity testing: selectivity. (Repealed.)
    The permit or regulation specifies the selectivity of the  test.
    1VAC30-45-788. Toxicity testing: constant and consistent  test conditions. (Repealed.)
    A. If closed refrigerator‑sized incubators are used,  culturing and testing of organisms shall be separated to avoid cross‑contamination.
    B. Laboratory space shall be adequate for the types and  numbers of tests performed. The building shall provide adequate cooling, heating  and illumination for conducting testing and culturing; hot and cold running  water shall be available for cleaning equipment.
    C. Air used for aeration of test solutions, dilution  waters and cultures shall be free of oil and fumes.
    D. The laboratory or a contracted outside expert shall  positively identify test organisms to species on an annual basis. The taxonomic  reference (citation and page(s)) and the names(s) of the taxonomic expert(s)  shall be kept on file at the laboratory. When organisms are obtained from an  outside source, the supplier shall provide this same information.
    E. Instruments used for routine support measurements of  chemical and physical parameters such as pH, DO, conductivity, salinity,  alkalinity, hardness, chlorine, ammonia, and weight shall be calibrated, and/or  standardized per manufacturer's instructions. As these are support  measurements, only the calibration and verification requirements specified at  1VAC30-45-740 D 1 apply. All measurements and calibrations shall be documented.
    F. Test temperature shall be maintained as specified for  the test method. Temperature control equipment shall be adequate to maintain  the required test temperature(s). The average daily temperature of the test  solutions shall be maintained within the method-specified range. The minimum  frequency of measurement shall be once per 24-hour period. The test temperature  for continuous-flow toxicity tests shall be recorded and monitored  continuously. Where electronic data loggers are used, temperature shall be monitored  at a frequency sufficient to capture temporal variations of the environmental  control system.
    G. Reagent-grade water, prepared by any combination of  distillation, reverse osmosis, ion exchange, activated carbon and particle  filtration, shall meet the method specified requirements.
    H. The quality of the standard dilution water used for  testing or culturing shall be sufficient to allow satisfactory survival, growth  and reproduction of the test species as demonstrated by routine reference  toxicant tests and negative control performance. Water used for culturing and  testing shall be analyzed for toxic metals and organics whenever the minimum  acceptability criteria for control survival, growth or reproduction are not met  and no other cause, such as contaminated glassware or poor stock, can be  identified. It is recognized that the analyte lists of some methods manuals may  not include all potential toxicants, are based on estimates of chemical  toxicity available at the time of publication and may specify detection limits  that are not achievable in all matrices. However, for those analytes not  listed, or for which the measured concentration or limit of detection is  greater than the method-specified limit, the laboratory shall demonstrate that  the analyte at the measured concentration or reported limit of detection does  not exceed one-tenth of the expected chronic value for the most sensitive  species tested and/or cultured. The expected chronic value is based on  professional judgment and the best available scientific data. The "USEPA  Ambient Water Quality Criteria Documents" and the EPA AQUIRE database  provide guidance and data on acceptability and toxicity of individual metals  and organic compounds.
    I. The quality of the food used for testing or culturing  shall be sufficient to allow satisfactory survival, growth and reproduction of  the test species as demonstrated by routine reference toxicant tests and  negative control performance. The laboratory shall have written procedures for  the evaluation of food acceptance.
    J. A subset of organisms used in bioaccumulation tests  shall be analyzed at the start of the test (baseline) for the target compounds  to be measured in the bioaccumulation tests. 
    K. Test chamber size and test solution volume shall be as  specified in the test method. All test chambers used in a test shall be  identical.
    L. Test organisms shall be fed the quantity and type food  or nutrients specified in the test method. They shall also be fed at the  intervals specified in the test methods.
    M. All organisms in a test shall be from the same source.  Where available certified seeds are used for soil tests.
    N. All organisms used in tests, or used as broodstock to  produce neonate test organisms (for example cladocerans and larval fish), shall  appear healthy, show no signs of stress or disease and exhibit acceptable  survival (90% or greater) during the 24-hour period immediately preceding use  in tests.
    O. All materials used for test chambers, culture tanks,  tubing, etc., and coming in contact with test samples, solutions, control  water, sediment or soil or food shall be nontoxic and cleaned as described in  the test methods. Materials shall not reduce or add to sample toxicity.  Appropriate materials for use in toxicity testing and culturing are described  in the referenced manuals. 
    P. Light intensity shall be maintained as specified in the  methods manuals. Measurements shall be made and recorded on a yearly basis.  Photoperiod shall be maintained as specified in the test methods and shall be  documented at least quarterly. For algal and plant tests, the light intensity  shall be measured and recorded at the start of each test.
    Q. The testing laboratory shall document the health and  culturing conditions of all organisms used for testing. Such documentation  shall include culture conditions (e.g., salinity, hardness, temperature, pH)  and observations of any stress, disease or mortality. When organisms are  obtained from an outside source, the laboratory shall obtain written  documentation of these water quality parameters and biological observations for  each lot of organism received. These observations shall adequately address the  24-hour time period referenced in subsection N of this section. The laboratory  shall also record each of these observations and water quality parameters upon  the arrival of the organisms at the testing laboratory. 
    R. Age and the age range of the test organisms shall be as  specified in the test method. Supporting information, such as hatch dates and  times, times of brood releases and metrics (for example, chironomid head  capsule width) shall be documented.
    S. The maximum holding time of effluents (elapsed time  from sample collection to first use in a test) shall not exceed 36 hours;  samples may be used for renewal up to 72 hours after first use except as  prescribed by the method and approved by the regulatory agency having authority  for program oversight. 
    T. All samples shall be chilled to 0 to 6°C during or  immediately after collection except as prescribed by the method. 
    U. Organisms used in a given test shall be from the same  batch. 
    V. All tests shall have the minimum number of replicates  per treatment as prescribed by the method. 
    W. The control population of Ceriodaphnia in chronic  effluent or receiving water tests shall contain no more than 20% males.
    X. The culturing of C. dubia shall be adequate such that  blocking by parentage can be established.
    Y. Dissolved oxygen and pH in aquatic tests shall be  within acceptable range at test initiation and aeration (minimal) is provided  to tests if, and only if, acceptable dissolved oxygen concentrations cannot be  otherwise maintained or if specified by the test method.
    Z. Test soils or sediments shall be within the geochemical  tolerance range of the test organism.
    AA. An individual test may be conditionally acceptable if  temperature, dissolved oxygen, pH and other specified conditions fall outside  specifications, depending on the degree of the departure and the objectives of  the tests (see test conditions and test acceptability criteria specified for  each test method).
    1VAC30-45-791. Microbiology testing: sterility checks and  blanks, positive and negative controls.
    A. Sterility checks and blanks. The laboratory shall  demonstrate that the filtration equipment and filters, sample containers, media  and reagents have not been contaminated through improper handling or  preparation, inadequate sterilization, or environmental exposure.
    1. A sterility blank shall be analyzed for each lot of  pre-prepared, ready-to-use medium (including chromofluorogenic reagent) and for  each batch of medium prepared in the laboratory. This shall be done prior to  first use of the medium.
    2. For filtration technique, the laboratory shall conduct one  beginning and one ending sterility check for each laboratory sterilized  filtration unit used in a filtration series. The filtration series may  include single or multiple filtration units, which have been sterilized prior  to beginning the series. For presterilized single use funnels a sterility check  shall be performed on one funnel per lot. The filtration series is considered  ended when more than 30 minutes elapses between successive filtrations. During  a filtration series, filter funnels shall be rinsed with three 20-30 ml  portions of sterile rinse water after each sample filtration. In addition,  laboratories shall insert a sterility blank after every 10 samples or sanitize  filtration units by UV light after each sample filtration.
    3. For pour plate technique, sterility blanks of the medium  shall be made by pouring, at a minimum, one uninoculated plate for each lot of  pre-prepared, ready-to-use media and for each batch of medium prepared in the  laboratory.
    4. Sterility checks on sample containers shall be performed on  at least one container for each lot of purchased, presterilized containers with  nonselective growth media. For containers prepared and sterilized in the  laboratory, a sterility check shall be performed on one container per  sterilized batch with nonselective growth media.
    5. A sterility blank shall be performed on each batch of  dilution water prepared in the laboratory and on each batch of pre-prepared,  ready-to-use dilution water with nonselective growth media.
    6. At least one filter from each new lot of membrane filters  shall be checked for sterility with nonselective growth media.
    B. Positive controls.
    1. Positive culture controls demonstrate that the medium can  support the growth of the target organism(s), and that the medium produces the  specified or expected reaction to the target organism(s).
    2. Each preprepared, ready-to-use lot of medium (including  chromofluorogenic reagent) and each batch of medium prepared in the laboratory  shall be tested and demonstrate a known positive response. This shall be done  prior to first use of the medium.
    C. Negative controls. The provisions of this subsection shall  not apply to wastewater treatment plants. 
    1. Negative culture controls demonstrate that the medium does  not support the growth of non-target organisms or does not demonstrate the  typical positive reaction of the target organism(s) organism or  organisms.
    2. Each pre-prepared, ready-to-use lot of selective medium  (including chromofluorogenic reagent) and each batch of selective medium  prepared in the laboratory shall be analyzed with one or more known negative  culture controls, (i.e., nontarget organisms,) as  appropriate to the method. This shall be done prior to first use of the medium.
    1VAC30-45-796. Microbiology testing: quality of standards,  reagents, and media.
    A. The laboratory shall ensure that the quality of the  reagents and media used is appropriate for the test concerned.
    B. Culture media may be prepared from commercial dehydrated  powders or may be purchased ready to use. The laboratory may prepare media from  basic ingredients when commercial media are not available or when it can be  demonstrated that commercial media do not provide adequate results. Media  prepared by the laboratory from basic ingredients shall be tested for  performance (e.g., for selectivity, sensitivity, sterility, growth promotion,  growth inhibition) prior to first use. Detailed testing criteria information  shall be defined in either the laboratory's test methods, SOPs, quality manual,  or similar documentation.
    C. Reagents, commercial dehydrated powders and media shall be  used within the shelf-life of the product and shall be documented according to  1VAC30-45-730 J.
    D. Distilled water, deionized water or reverse osmosis produced  water free from bactericidal and inhibitory substances shall be used in the  preparation of media, solutions and buffers. The quality of the water shall be  monitored for chlorine residual, specific conductance, and heterotrophic  bacteria plate count monthly (when in use), when maintenance is performed on  the water treatment system, or at startup after a period of disuse longer than  one month. 
    E. Analysis for metals and the Bacteriological Water Quality  Test (to determine presence of toxic agents or growth promoting substances)  shall be performed annually. Results of these analyses shall meet the  specifications of the required method and records of analyses shall be  maintained for three years. (An exception to performing the Bacteriological  Water Quality Test shall be given to laboratories that can supply documentation  to show that their water source meets the criteria, as specified by the method,  for Type I or Type II reagent water.)
    F. Media, solutions and reagents shall be prepared, used and  stored according to a documented procedure following the manufacturer's  instructions or the test method. Documentation for media prepared in the  laboratory shall include date of preparation, preparer's initials, type and  amount of media prepared, manufacturer and lot number, final pH of the media,  and expiration date. Documentation for media purchased pre-prepared, ready to  use shall include manufacturer, lot number, type and amount of media  received, date of receipt, expiration date of the media, and pH of the media.
    1VAC30-45-798. Microbiology testing: constant and consistent  test conditions.
    A. Laboratory facilities. Floors and work surfaces shall be  nonabsorbent and easy to clean and disinfect. Work surfaces shall be adequately  sealed. Laboratories shall provide sufficient storage space, and shall be clean  and free from dust accumulation. Plants, food, and drink shall be prohibited  from the laboratory work area.
    B. Laboratory equipment.
    1. Temperature measuring devices. Temperature measuring  devices such as liquid-in-glass thermometers, thermocouples, and platinum  resistance thermometers used in incubators, autoclaves and other equipment  shall be the appropriate quality to meet specification(s) specifications  in the test method. The graduation of the temperature measuring devices shall  be appropriate for the required accuracy of measurement and they shall be  calibrated to national or international standards for temperature (see  1VAC30-45-740 C). Calibration shall be done at least annually.
    2. Autoclaves.
    a. The performance of each autoclave shall be initially  evaluated by establishing its functional properties and performance, for  example, heat distribution characteristics with respect to typical uses.  Autoclaves shall meet specified temperature tolerances. Pressure cookers shall  not be used for sterilization of growth media.
    b. Demonstration of sterilization temperature shall be  provided by use of continuous temperature recording device or by use of a  maximum registering thermometer with every cycle. Appropriate biological  indicators shall be used once per month to determine effective sterilization.  Temperature sensitive tape shall be used with the contents of each autoclave  run to indicate that the autoclave contents have been processed.
    c. Records of autoclave operations shall be maintained for  every cycle. Records shall include date, contents, maximum temperature reached,  pressure, time in sterilization mode, total run time (may be recorded as time  in and time out) and analyst's initials. 
    d. Autoclave maintenance shall be performed annually,  either internally or by service contract, shall be performed annually  and shall include a pressure check and calibration of temperature device.  Records of the maintenance shall be maintained in equipment logs. If the  laboratory demonstrates regular monitoring of pressure (e.g., for each  autoclaved batch) and annual calibration of the maximum registering  thermometer, the annual autoclave pressure and temperature device checks shall  not be required.
    e. The autoclave mechanical timing device shall be checked  quarterly against a stopwatch and the actual time elapsed documented.
    3. Volumetric equipment. Volumetric equipment shall be  calibrated as follows:
    a. Equipment with movable parts such as automatic dispensers,  dispensers/diluters, and mechanical hand pipettes shall be verified for  accuracy quarterly.
    b. Equipment such as filter funnels, bottles, nonclass A  glassware, and other marked containers shall be calibrated once per lot prior  to first use.
    c. The volume of the disposable volumetric equipment such as  sample bottles and disposable pipettes shall be checked once per lot.
    4. UV instruments. UV instruments used for sanitization shall  be tested quarterly for effectiveness with an appropriate UV light meter or by  plate count agar spread plates. Replace bulbs if output is less than 70% of  original for light tests or if count reduction is less than 99% for a plate  containing 200 to 300 organisms.
    5. Conductivity meters, oxygen meters, pH meters, hygrometers,  and other similar measurement instruments shall be calibrated according to the  method specified requirements (see 1VAC30-45-740 D 1 d).
    6. Incubators, water baths, and ovens.
    a. The stability and uniformity of temperature  distribution and time required after test sample addition to reestablish  equilibrium conditions in incubators and water baths shall be established.  Temperature of incubators and water baths shall be documented twice daily, at  least four hours apart, on each day of use.
    b. Ovens used for sterilization shall be checked for  sterilization effectiveness monthly with appropriate biological indicators.  Records shall be maintained for each cycle that include date, cycle time,  temperature, contents and analyst's initials.
    7. Labware (glassware and  plasticware).
    a. The laboratory shall have a documented procedure for  washing labware, if applicable. Detergents designed for laboratory use shall be  used.
    b. Glassware shall be made of borosilicate or other  noncorrosive material, free of chips and cracks, and shall have readable  measurement marks.
    c. Labware that is washed and reused shall be tested for  possible presence of residues that may inhibit or promote growth of  microorganisms by performing the Inhibitory Residue Test annually, and each  time the lab changes the lot of detergent or washing procedures.
    d. Washed labware shall be tested at least once daily, each  day of washing, for possible acid or alkaline residue by testing at least one  piece of labware with a suitable pH indicator such as bromothymol blue. Records  of tests shall be maintained.
    1VAC30-45-800. Radiochemical testing: general. (Repealed.)
    These standards apply to laboratories undertaking the  examination of environmental samples by radiochemical analysis. These  procedures for radiochemical analysis may involve some form of chemical  separation followed by detection of the radioactive decay of analyte (or  indicative daughters) and tracer isotopes where used. For the purpose of these  standards, procedures for the determination of radioactive isotopes by mass  spectrometry (e.g., ICP-MS or TIMS) or optical (e.g., KPA) techniques are not  addressed herein.
    1VAC30-45-801. Radiochemical testing: negative and positive  controls. (Repealed.)
    A. Negative controls.
    1. Method blank shall be performed at a frequency of one  per preparation batch. The results of this analysis shall be one of the quality  control measures to be used to assess the batch. The method blank result shall  be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria specified in the  laboratory method manual. When the specified method blank acceptance criteria  is not met, the specified corrective action and contingencies shall be followed  and results reported with appropriate data qualifying codes. The occurrence of  a failed method blank acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted  in the laboratory report.
    2. In the case of gamma spectrometry, generally a  nondestructive analysis, a method blank shall be prepared using a calibrated  counting geometry similar to that used for the samples. The container of the  appropriate geometry can be empty or filled to similar volume to partially  simulate gamma attenuation due to a sample matrix. 
    3. There shall be no subtraction of the required method  blank result from the sample results in the associated preparation or analytical  batch unless permitted by method or program. This does not preclude the  application of any correction factor (e.g., instrument background, analyte  presence in tracer, reagent impurities, peak overlap, etc.) to all analyzed  samples, both program/project submitted and internal quality control samples.  However, these correction factors shall not depend on the required method blank  result in the associated analytical batch.
    4. The method blank sample shall be prepared with similar  aliquot size to that of the routine samples for analysis and the method blank  result and acceptance criteria shall be calculated in a manner that compensates  for sample results based upon differing aliquot size.
    B. Positive controls.
    1. Laboratory control samples shall be performed at a  frequency of one per preparation batch. The results of this analysis shall be  one of the quality control measures to be used to assess the batch. The  laboratory control sample result shall be assessed against the specific  acceptance criteria specified in the laboratory method manual. When the  specified laboratory control sample acceptance criteria is not met the  specified corrective action and contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence  of a failed laboratory control sample acceptance criteria and the actions taken  shall be noted in the laboratory report.
    2. Matrix spike shall be performed at a frequency of one  per preparation batch for those methods that include a chemical separation  process without the use of an internal standard or carrier, and where there is  sufficient sample to do so. Although gross alpha, gross beta and tritium  measurements do not involve a chemical separation process, matrix spikes shall  be performed for these analyses on aqueous samples. The results of this analysis  shall be one of the quality control measures to be used to assess the batch.  The matrix spike result shall be assessed against the specific acceptance  criteria specified in the laboratory method manual. When the specified matrix  spike acceptance criteria is not met, the specified corrective action and  contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence of a failed matrix spike  acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted in the laboratory  report. The lack of sufficient sample aliquot size to perform a matrix spike  shall be noted in the laboratory report. 
    3. The activity of the laboratory control sample shall (i)  be at least five times the limit of detection and (ii) at a level comparable to  that of routine samples when such information is available if the sample  activities are expected to exceed five times the limit of detection.
    4. The activity of the matrix spike analytes(s) shall be  greater than five times the limit of detection.
    5. The laboratory standards used to prepare the laboratory  control sample and matrix spike shall be from a source independent of the  laboratory standards used for instrument calibration and shall meet the  requirements for reference standards provided in 1VAC30-45-807 A.
    6. The matrix spike shall be prepared by adding a known  activity of target analyte after subsampling if required but before any  chemical treatment (e.g., chemical digestion, dissolution, separation, etc.).  Where a radiochemical method, other than gamma spectroscopy, has more than one  reportable analyte isotope (e.g., plutonium, Pu 238 and Pu 239, using alpha  spectrometry), only one of the analyte isotopes need be included in the  laboratory control or matrix spike sample at the indicated activity level.  However, where more than one analyte isotope is present above the specified  limit of detection, each shall be assessed against the specified acceptance  criteria.
    7. Where gamma spectrometry is used to identify and  quantitate more than one analyte isotope, the laboratory control sample shall  contain isotopes that represent the low (e.g., americium-241), medium (e.g.,  cesium-137) and high (e.g., cobalt-60) energy range of the analyzed gamma  spectra. As indicated by these examples the isotopes need not exactly bracket  the calibrated energy range or the range over which isotopes are identified and  quantitated.
    8. The laboratory control sample shall be prepared with  similar aliquot size to that of the routine samples for analyses.
    C. Other controls.
    1. Tracer. For those methods that utilize a tracer (i.e.,  internal standard) each sample result shall have an associated tracer recovery  calculated and reported. The tracer shall be added to the sample after  subsampling if required but before any chemical treatment (e.g., chemical  digestion, dissolution, separation, etc.) unless otherwise specified by the  method. The tracer recovery for each sample result shall be one of the quality  control measures to be used to assess the associated sample result acceptance.  The tracer recovery shall be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria  specified in the laboratory method manual. When the specified tracer recovery  acceptance criteria is not met the specified corrective action and  contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence of a failed tracer recovery  acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted in the laboratory  report.
    2. Carrier. For those methods that utilize a carrier for  recovery determination, each sample shall have an associated carrier recovery  calculated and reported. The carrier shall be added to the sample after  subsampling if required but before any chemical treatment (e.g., chemical  digestion, dissolution, separation, etc.) unless otherwise specified by the  method. The carrier recovery for each sample shall be one of the quality  control measures to be used to assess the associated sample result acceptance.  The carrier recovery shall be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria  specified in the laboratory method manual. When the specified carrier recovery  acceptance criteria is not met the specified corrective action and  contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence of a failed carrier recovery  acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted in the laboratory  report.
    1VAC30-45-802. Radiochemical testing: analytical  variability/reproducibility. (Repealed.)
    A. Replicate shall be performed at a frequency of one per  preparation batch where there is sufficient sample to do so. The results of  this analysis shall be one of the quality control measures to be used to assess  batch acceptance. The replicate result shall be assessed against the specific acceptance  criteria specified in the laboratory method manual. When the specified  replicate acceptance criteria is not met the specified corrective action and  contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence of a failed replicate  acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted in the laboratory  report.
    B. For low level samples (less than approximately three  times the limit of detection) the laboratory may analyze duplicate laboratory  control samples or a replicate matrix spike (matrix spike and a matrix spike  duplicate) to determine reproducibility within a preparation batch.
    1VAC30-45-803. Radiochemical testing: method evaluation.  (Repealed.)
    In order to ensure the accuracy of the reported result,  the following procedures shall be in place:
    1. Initial demonstration of capability shall be performed  initially (prior to the analysis of any samples) and with a significant change  in instrument type (e.g., different detection technique), personnel or method.
    2. Proficiency test samples. The laboratory shall use the  results of such analysis to evaluate its ability to produce accurate data.
    1VAC30-45-804. Radiochemical testing: radiation measurement  instrumentation. (Repealed.)
    A. General. Because of the stability and response nature  of modern radiation measurement instrumentation, it is not typically necessary  to verify calibrate these systems each day of use. However, verification of  calibration is required as outlined in subsection B of this section. This  section addresses those practices that are necessary for proper calibration and  those requirements of 1VAC30-45-740 D (instrument calibrations) that are not  applicable to some types of radiation measurement instrumentation.
    B. Instrument calibration.
    1. Given that activity detection efficiency is independent  of sample activity at all but extreme activity levels, the requirements of  1VAC30-45-740 D 2 b (7) are not applicable to radiochemical method calibrations  except mass attenuation in gas-proportional counting and sample quench in  liquid scintillation counting. Radiation measurement instruments are subject to  calibration prior to initial use, when the instrument is placed back in service  after malfunctioning and the instrument's response has changed as determined by  a performance check or when the instrument's response exceeds predetermined  acceptance criteria for the instrument quality control.
    2. Instrument calibration shall be performed with reference  standards as defined in 1VAC30-45-807 A. The standards shall have the same  general characteristics (i.e., geometry, homogeneity, density, etc.) as the  associated samples.
    3. The frequency of calibration shall be addressed in the  laboratory method manual if not specified in the method. A specific frequency  (e.g., monthly) or observations from the associated control or tolerance chart,  as the basis for calibration shall be specified.
    C. Continuing instrument calibration verification  (performance checks). Performance checks shall be performed using appropriate  check sources and monitored with control charts or tolerance charts to ensure  that the instrument is operating properly and that the detector response has  not significantly changed and, therefore, the instrument calibration has not  changed. The same check source used in the preparation of the tolerance chart or  control chart at the time of calibration shall be used in the calibration  verification of the instrument. The check sources shall provide adequate  counting statistics for a relatively short count time and the source should be  sealed or encapsulated to prevent loss of activity and contamination of the  instrument and laboratory personnel.
    1. For gamma spectroscopy systems, the performance checks  for efficiency and energy calibration shall be performed on a day-of-use basis  along with performance checks on peak resolution.
    2. For alpha spectroscopy systems, the performance check  for energy calibration shall be performed on a weekly basis and the performance  check for counting efficiency shall be performed on at least a monthly basis.
    3. For gas-proportional and liquid scintillation counters,  the performance check for counting efficiency shall be performed on a  day-of-use basis. For batches of samples that uninterruptedly count for more  than a day a performance check can be performed at the beginning and end of the  batch as long as this time interval is no greater than one week. Verification  of instrument calibration does not directly verify secondary calibrations,  e.g., the mass efficiency curve or the quench curve.
    4. For scintillation counters the calibration verification  for counting efficiency shall be performed on a day of use basis.
    D. Background measurement. Background measurements shall  be made on a regular basis and monitored using control charts or tolerance  charts to ensure that a laboratory maintains its capability to meet required  data quality objectives. These values may be subtracted from the total measured  activity in the determination of the sample activity.
    1. For gamma spectroscopy systems, background measurements  shall be performed on at least a monthly basis.
    2. For alpha spectroscopy systems, background measurements  shall be performed on at least a monthly basis.
    3. For gas-proportional counters, background measurements  shall be performed on at least on a weekly basis.
    4. For scintillation counters, background measurements  shall be performed each day of use. 
    E. Instrument contamination monitoring. The laboratory  shall have a written procedure for monitoring radiation measurement  instrumentation for radioactive contamination. The procedure shall indicate the  frequency of the monitoring and shall indicate criteria, which initiates  corrective action.
    1VAC30-45-805. Radiochemical testing: Minimum detectable  activity (MDA)/Minimum detectable concentration (MDC)/Lower level of detection  (LLD). (Repealed.)
    A. MDA/MDC/LLD shall be determined prior to sample  analysis and shall be redetermined each time there is a significant change in  the test method or instrument type.
    B. The procedures employed shall be documented and  consistent with mandated method or regulation.
    1VAC30-45-806. Radiochemical testing: data reduction. (Repealed.)
    A. The requirements of 1VAC30-45-730 K apply.
    B. Measurement uncertainties. Each result shall be  reported with the associated measurement uncertainty. The procedures for determining  the measurement uncertainty shall be documented and be consistent with mandated  method and regulation.
    1VAC30-45-807. Radiochemical testing: quality of standards  and reagents. (Repealed.)
    A. The quality control program shall establish and  maintain provisions for radionuclide standards.
    1. Reference standards that are used in a radiochemical  laboratory shall be obtained from the National Institute of Standards and  Technology (NIST), or suppliers who participate in supplying NIST standards or  NIST traceable radionuclides. Any reference standards purchased outside the  United States shall be traceable back to each country's national standards  laboratory. Commercial suppliers of reference standards shall conform to ANSI  N42.22 to assure the quality of their products.
    2. Reference standards shall be accompanied with a  certificate of calibration whose content is as described in ANSI N42.22 - 1995,  Section 8, Certificates.
    3. Laboratories should consult with the supplier if the  laboratory's verification of the activity of the reference traceable standard  indicates a noticeable deviation from the certified value. The laboratory shall  not use a value other than the decay corrected certified value. The laboratory  shall have a written procedure for handling, storing and establishment of  expiration dates for reference standards.
    B. All reagents used shall be analytical reagent grade or  better.
    1VAC30-45-808. Radiochemical testing: constant and  consistent test conditions. (Repealed.)
    The laboratory shall maintain a radiological control  program that addresses analytical radiological control. The program shall  address the procedures for segregating samples with potentially widely varying  levels of radioactivity. The radiological control program shall explicitly  define how low level and high level samples will be identified, segregated and  processed in order to prevent sample cross-contamination. The radiological  control program shall include the measures taken to monitor and evaluate  background activity or contamination on an ongoing basis. 
    1VAC30-45-811. Air testing: negative and positive controls.
    A. Negative controls.
    1. Method blanks shall be performed at a frequency of at least  one per batch of 20 environmental samples or less per sample preparation  method. The results of the method blank analysis shall be used to evaluate the  contribution of the laboratory provided sampling media and analytical sample  preparation procedures to the amount of analyte found in each sample. If the  method blank result is greater than the limit of quantitation and contributes  greater than 10% of the total amount of analyte found in the sample, the source  of the contamination shall be investigated and measures taken to eliminate the  source of contamination. If contamination is found, the data shall be qualified  in the report.
    2. Collection efficiency. Sampling trains consisting of  multiple sections (e.g., filters, sorbent tubes, impingers) that are received  intact by the laboratory shall be separated into "front" and  "back" sections if required by the client. Each section shall be  processed and analyzed separately and the analytical results reported  separately.
    B. Positive controls. Laboratory control sample (LCS) shall  be analyzed at a rate of at least one per batch of 20 or fewer samples per  sample preparation method for each analyte. If a spiking solution is not  available, a calibration solution whose concentration approximates that of the  samples shall be included in each batch and with each lot of media. If a  calibration solution must be used for the LCS, the client will be notified  prior to the start of analysis. The concentration of the LCS shall be  relevant to the intended use of the data and either at a regulatory limit or  below it.
    C. Surrogates shall be used as required by the test method.
    D. Matrix spike shall be used as required by the test method.
    1VAC30-45-820. Asbestos testing: general. (Repealed.)
    These standards apply to laboratories undertaking the  examination of asbestos samples. These standards are organized by analytical technique,  including transmission electron microscopy (TEM) for the analysis of water,  wastewater, air, and bulk samples; phase contrast microscopy (PCM) for analysis  of workplace air; and polarized light microscopy (PLM) for analysis of bulk  samples. These procedures for asbestos analysis involve sample preparation  followed by detection of asbestos. If NIST SRMs specified below are  unavailable, the laboratory may substitute an equivalent reference material  with a certificate of analysis.
    1VAC30-45-821. Asbestos testing: negative controls. (Repealed.)
    A. Transmission electron microscopy.
    1. Water and wastewater.
    a. Blank determinations shall be made prior to sample  collection. When using polyethylene bottles, one bottle from each batch, or a  minimum of one from each 24 shall be tested for background level. When using  glass bottles, four bottles from each 24 shall be tested. An acceptable bottle  blank level is defined as ≤0.01 MFL > 10 μm. (EPA/600/R-94/134,  Method 100.2, Section 8.2)
    b. A process blank sample consisting of fiber-free water  shall be run before the first field sample. The quantity of water shall be  ≥10 mL for a 25-mm diameter filter and ≥ 50 mL for a 47-mm diameter  filter. (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section 11.8)
    2. Air.
    a. A blank filter shall be prepared with each set of  samples. A blank filter shall be left uncovered during preparation of the  sample set and a wedge from that blank filter shall be prepared alongside  wedges from the sample filters. At minimum, the blank filter shall be analyzed  for each 20 samples analyzed. (40 CFR Part 763, Appendix A to Subpart E  (AHERA), Table 1)
    b. Maximum contamination on a single blank filter shall be  no more than 53 structures/mm2. Maximum average contamination for  all blank filters shall be no more than 18 structures/mm2. (AHERA,  III.F.2)
    3. Bulk samples.
    a. Contamination checks using asbestos-free material, such  as the glass fiber blank in SRM 1866 (Page C-3, NIST Handbook 150-3, August  1994) shall be performed at a frequency of one for every 20 samples analyzed.  The detection of asbestos at a concentration exceeding 0.1% will require an  investigation to detect and remove the source of the asbestos contamination.
    b. The laboratory shall maintain a list of nonasbestos  fibers that can be confused with asbestos (Section 7.5, Page C-8, NIST Handbook  150-3, August 1994). The list shall include crystallographic and/or chemical  properties that disqualify each fiber being identified as asbestos (Section  2.5.5.2.1 Identification, Page 54, EPA/600/R-93/116).
    c. The laboratory should have a set of reference asbestos  materials from which a set of reference diffraction and X-ray spectra have been  developed.
    B. Phase contrast microscopy. At least two field blanks  (or 10% of the total samples, whichever is greater) shall be submitted for  analysis with each set of samples. Field blanks shall be handled in a manner  representative of actual handling of associated samples in the set with a  single exception that air shall not be drawn through the blank sample. A blank  cassette shall be opened for approximately 30 seconds at the same time other  cassettes are opened just prior to analysis. Results from field blank samples  shall be used in the calculation to determine final airborne fiber  concentration. The identity of blank filters should be unknown to the counter  until all counts have been completed. If a field blank yields greater than  seven fibers per 100 graticule fields, report possible contamination of the  samples.
    C. Polarized light microscopy.
    1. Friable materials. At least one blank slide shall be  prepared daily or with every 50 samples analyzed, whichever is less. This is  prepared by mounting a subsample of an isotropic verified non-ACM (e.g.,  fiberglass in SRM 1866) in a drop of immersion oil (nD should  reflect usage of various nD's) on a clean slide, rubbing preparation  tools (forceps, dissecting needles, etc.) in the mount and placing a clean  coverslip on the drop. The entire area under the coverslip shall be scanned to  detect any asbestos contamination. A similar check shall be made after every 20  uses of each piece of homogenization equipment. An isotropic verified non-ACM  shall be homogenized in the clean equipment, a slide prepared with the material  and the slide scanned for asbestos contamination. (This can be substituted for  the blank slide mentioned in this section.)
    2. Nonfriable materials. At least one non-ACM nonfriable  material shall be prepared and analyzed with every 20 samples analyzed. This  non-ACM shall go through the full preparation and analysis regimen for the type  of analysis being performed.
    1VAC30-45-822. Asbestos testing: test  variability/reproducibility. (Repealed.)
    A. Transmission electron microscopy. Quality assurance  analyses shall be performed regularly covering all time periods, instruments,  tasks, and personnel. The selection of samples shall be random and samples of  special interest may be included in the selection of samples for quality  assurance analyses. When possible, the checks on personnel performance shall be  executed without their prior knowledge. A disproportionate number of analyses  shall not be performed prior to internal or external audits. It is recommended  that a laboratory initially be at 100% quality control (all samples  reanalyzed). The proportion of quality control samples can later be lowered  gradually, as control indicates, to a minimum of 10%.
    1. Water and wastewater. All analyses shall be performed on  relocator grids so that other laboratories can easily repeat analyses on the  same grid openings. Quality assurance analyses shall not be postponed during  periods of heavy workloads. The total number of QA samples and blanks shall be  greater than or equal to 10% of the total sample workload. Precision of  analyses is related to concentration, as gleaned from interlaboratory proficiency  testing. Relative standard deviations (RSD) for amphibole asbestos decreased  from 50% at 0.8 MFL to 25% at 7 MFL in interlaboratory proficiency testing,  while RSD for chrysotile was higher, 50% at 6 MFL. 
    a. Replicate. A second, independent analysis shall be  performed on the same grids but on different grid openings than used in the  original analysis of a sample. Results shall be within 1.5X of Poisson standard  deviation. This shall be performed at a frequency of 1 per 100 samples.  (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Table 2)
    b. Duplicate. A second aliquot of sample shall be filtered  through a second filter, prepared and analyzed in the same manner as the  original preparation of that sample. Results shall be within 2.0X of Poisson  standard deviation. This shall be performed at a frequency of one per 100  samples. (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Table 2)
    c. Verified analyses. A second, independent analysis shall  be performed on the same grids and grid openings used in the original analysis  of a sample. The two sets of results shall be compared according to Turner and  Steel (NISTIR 5351). This shall be performed at a frequency of one per 20  samples. Qualified analysts shall maintain an average of ≥ 80% true  positives, ≤ 20% false negatives, and ≤ 10% false positives.
    2. Air.
    a. All analyses shall be performed on relocator grids so  that other laboratories can easily repeat analyses on the same grid openings.
    b. The laboratory and TEM analysts shall obtain mean  analytical results on NIST SRM 1876b so that trimmed mean values fall within  80% of the lower limit and 110% of the upper limit of the 95% confidence limits  as published on the certificate. These limits are derived from the allowable  false positives and false negatives given in subdivision A 2 e (3) of this  subsection. SRM 1876b shall be analyzed a minimum of once per year by each TEM  analyst.
    c. The laboratory shall have documentation demonstrating  that TEM analysts correctly classify at least 90% of both bundles and single  fibrils of asbestos structures greater than or equal to 1 mm in length in known  standard materials traceable to NIST, such as NIST bulk asbestos SRM 1866.
    d. Interlaboratory analyses shall be performed to detect  laboratory bias. The frequency of interlaboratory verified analysis shall  correspond to a minimum of 1 per 200 grid square analyses.
    e. If more than one TEM is used for asbestos analysis,  intermicroscope analyses shall be performed to detect instrument bias.
    (1) Replicate. A second, independent analysis shall be  performed in accordance with Section D.6.2.1.1.a. (AHERA, Table III)
    (2) Duplicate. A second wedge from a sample filter shall be  prepared and analyzed in the same manner as the original preparation of that  sample. Results shall be within 2.0X of Poisson standard deviation. This shall  be performed at a frequency of 1 per 100 samples. (AHERA, Table III)
    (3) Verified analyses. A second, independent analysis shall  be performed on the same grids and grid openings in accordance with subdivision  A 1 c of this section.
    3. Bulk samples. Determination of precision and accuracy  should follow guidelines in NISTIR 5951, Guide for Quality Control on the  Qualitative and Quantitative Analysis of Bulk Asbestos Samples: Version 1.  Because bulk samples with low (< 10%) asbestos content are the most  problematic, a laboratory's quality control program should focus on such  samples. At least 30% of a laboratory's QC analyses shall be performed on  samples containing from 1.0% to 10% asbestos.
    a. Intra-analyst precision. At least one out of 50 samples  shall be reanalyzed by the same analyst. For single analyst laboratories, at  least one out of every 10 samples shall be reanalyzed by the same analyst.
    b. Inter-analyst precision. At least one out of 15 samples  shall be reanalyzed by another analyst. Inter-analyst results will require  additional reanalysis, possibly including another analyst, to resolve  discrepancies when classification (ACM vs. non-ACM) errors occur, when asbestos  identification errors occur, or when inter-analyst precision is found to be  unacceptable.
    c. Inter-laboratory precision. The laboratory shall  participate in round robin testing with at least one other laboratory. Samples  shall be sent to this other lab at least four times per year. These samples  shall be samples previously analyzed as QC samples. Results of these analyses  shall be assessed in accordance with QC requirements. As a minimum, the QC  requirements shall address misclassifications (false positives, false  negatives) and misidentification of asbestos types. 
    B. Phase contrast microscopy.
    1. Inter-laboratory precision. Each laboratory analyzing  air samples for compliance determination shall implement an inter-laboratory  quality assurance program that as a minimum includes participation of at least  two other independent laboratories. Each laboratory shall participate in round  robin testing at least once every six months with at least all the other  laboratories in its inter-laboratory quality assurance group. Each laboratory  shall submit slides typical of its own workload for use in this program. The  round robin shall be designed and results analyzed using appropriate  statistical methodology. Results of this QA program shall be posted in each  laboratory to keep the microscopists informed.
    2. Intra- and inter-analyst precision. Each analyst shall  select and count a prepared slide from a "reference slide library" on  each day on which air counts are performed. Reference slides shall be prepared  using well-behaved samples taken from the laboratory workload. Fiber densities  shall cover the entire range routinely analyzed by the laboratory. These slides  shall be counted by all analysts to establish an original standard deviation  and corresponding limits of acceptability. Results from the daily reference  sample analysis shall be compared to the statistically derived acceptance  limits using a control chart or a database. It is recommended that the labels  on the reference slides be periodically changed so that the analysts do not  become familiar with the samples. Intra- and inter-analyst precision may be  estimated from blind recounts on reference samples. Inter-analyst precision  shall be posted in each laboratory to keep the microscopists informed.
    C. Polarized light microscopy. Refer to subdivision A 3 of  this section.
    1VAC30-45-823. Asbestos testing: other quality control  measures. (Repealed.)
    A. Transmission electron microscopy.
    1. Water and wastewater.
    a. Filter preparations shall be made from all six asbestos  types from NIST SRMs 1866 and 1867. These preparations shall have concentrations  between one and 20 structures (> 10 μm) per 0.01 mm2. One of  these preparations shall be analyzed independently at a frequency of one per  100 samples analyzed. Results shall be evaluated as verified asbestos analysis  in accordance with Turner and Steel (NISTIR 5351).
    b. NIST SRM 1876b shall be analyzed annually by each  analyst. Results shall be evaluated in accordance with limits published for  that SRM. This SRM is not strictly appropriate for waterborne asbestos but  analysts can demonstrate general TEM asbestos competence by producing results  within the published limits of this (the only recognized TEM counting standard)  SRM.
    2. Air.
    a. Filter preparations shall be made from all six asbestos  types in accordance with subdivision A 1 a of this section.
    b. NIST SRM 1876b shall be analyzed annually in accordance  with subdivision A 1 b of this section.
    3. Bulk samples. All analysts shall be able to correctly  identify the six regulated asbestos types (chrysotile, amosite, crocidolite,  anthophyllite, actinolite, and tremolite). Standards for the six asbestos types  listed are available from NIST (SRMs 1866 and 1867). These materials can also  be used as identification standards for AEM (Section 3.2.1 Qualitative  Analysis, Page 57, EPA/600/R-93/116).
    B. Phase contrast microscopy.
    1. Test for nonrandom fiber distribution. Blind recounts by  the same analyst shall be performed on 10% of the filters counted. A person  other than the counter should re-label slides before the second count. A test  for type II error (NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994, Section 13) shall be  performed to determine whether a pair of counts by the same analyst on the same  slide should be rejected due to nonrandom fiber distribution. If a pair of  counts is rejected by this test, the remaining samples in the set shall be  recounted and the new counts shall be tested against first counts. All rejected  paired counts shall be discarded. It shall not be necessary to use this  statistic on blank recounts.
    2. All individuals performing airborne fiber analysis shall  have taken the NIOSH Fiber Counting Course for sampling and evaluating airborne  asbestos dust or an equivalent course.
    3. All laboratories shall participate in a national sample  testing scheme such as the Proficiency Analytical Testing (PAT) program or the  Asbestos Analysts Registry (AAR) program, both sponsored by the American  Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA), or equivalent.
    C. Polarized light microscopy.
    1. Friable materials. Because accuracy cannot be determined  by reanalysis of routine field samples, at least one out of 100 samples shall  be a standard or reference sample that has been routinely resubmitted to  determine analyst's precision and accuracy. A set of these samples should be  accumulated from proficiency testing samples with predetermined weight  compositions or from standards generated with weighed quantities of asbestos  and other bulk materials (Perkins and Harvey, 1993; Parekh et al., 1992; Webber  et al., 1982). At least half of the reference samples submitted for this QC  shall contain between 1.0% and 10% asbestos.
    2. Nonfriable materials. At least one out of 100 samples  shall be a verified quantitative standard that has routinely been resubmitted  to determine analyst precision and accuracy.
    1VAC30-45-824. Asbestos testing: method evaluation. (Repealed.)
    In order to ensure the accuracy of reported results, the  following procedures shall be in place:
    1. Demonstration of capability shall be performed initially  (prior to the analysis of any samples) and with a significant change in  instrument type, personnel, or method.
    2. Performance audits. The results of such analyses shall  be used by the laboratory to evaluate the ability of the laboratory to produce  accurate data.
    1VAC30-45-825. Asbestos testing: asbestos calibration. (Repealed.)
    Refer to methods referenced in the following sections for  specific equipment requirements.
    1. Transmission electron microscopy: general. Analytical  electron microscopy equipment will not be discussed in this document.
    2. Transmission electron microscopy: water and wastewater.  All calibrations listed below (unless otherwise noted) shall be performed under  the same analytical conditions used for routine asbestos analysis and shall be  recorded in a notebook and include date and analyst's signature. Frequencies  stated below may be reduced to "before next use" if no samples are  analyzed after the last calibration period has expired. Likewise, frequencies  may have to be increased following non-routine maintenance or unacceptable  calibration performance.
    a. Magnification calibration. Magnification calibration  shall be done at the fluorescent screen, with the calibration specimen at the  eucentric position, at the magnification used for fiber counting, generally  10,000 and 20,000x. A logbook shall be maintained with the dates of the  calibration recorded. Calibrations shall be performed monthly to establish the  stability of magnification. Calibration data shall be displayed on control  charts that show trends over time. (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section 10.1)
    b. Camera constant. The camera length of the TEM in the  Selected Area Electron Diffraction (SAED) mode shall be calibrated before SAED  patterns of unknown samples are observed. The diffraction specimen shall be at  the eucentric position for this calibration. This calibration shall allow  accurate (< 10% variation) measurement of layer-line spacings on the medium  used for routine measurement, i.e., the phosphor screen or camera film. This  shall also allow accurate (< 5.0% variation) measurement of zone axis SAED  patterns on permanent media, e.g., film. Calibrations shall be performed  monthly to establish the stability of the camera constant (EPA/600/R-94/134,  Method 100.2, Section 10.2). Where nonasbestiform minerals may be expected  (e.g., winchite, richterite, industrial talc, vermiculite, etc.), an internal  camera constant standard such as gold, shall be deposited and measured on each  sample to facilitate accurate indexing of zone axis SAED patterns. In such  cases, layer line analysis alone shall not be used. Calibration data shall be  displayed on control charts that show trends over time.
    c. Spot size. The diameter of the smallest beam spot at  crossover shall be less than 250 nm as calibrated quarterly. Calibration data  shall be displayed on control charts that show trends over time.  (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section 10.3)
    d. Beam dose. The beam dose shall be calibrated so that  beam damage to chrysotile is minimized, specifically so that an electron  diffraction pattern from a single fibril ≥1 μm in length from a NIST  SRM chrysotile sample is stable in the electron beam dose for at least 15  seconds. 
    e. EDXA system.
    (1) The x-ray energy vs. channel number for the EDXA system  shall be calibrated to within 20 eV for at least two peaks between 0.7 keV and  10 keV. One peak shall be from the low end (0.7 keV to 2 keV) and the other  peak from the high end (7 keV to 10 keV) of this range. The calibration of the  x-ray energy shall be checked prior to each analysis of samples and  recalibrated if out of the specified range.
    (2) The ability of the system to resolve the Na Ka line  from the Cu L line shall be confirmed quarterly by obtaining a spectrum from  the NIST SRM 1866 crocidolite sample on a copper grid.
    (3) The k-factors for elements found in asbestos (Na, Mg,  Al, Si, Ca, and Fe) relative to Si shall be calibrated semiannually, or anytime  the detector geometry may be altered. NIST SRM 2063a shall be used for Mg, Si,  Ca, Fe, while k-factors for Na and Al may be obtained from suitable materials  such as albite, kaersutite, or NIST SRM 99a. The k-factors shall be determined  to a precision (2s) within 10% relative to the mean value obtained for Mg, Al,  Si, Ca, and Fe, and within 20% relative to the mean value obtained for Na. The  k-factor relative to Si for Na shall be between 1.0 and 4.0, for Mg and Fe  shall be between 1.0 and 2.0, and for Al and Ca shall be between 1.0 and 1.75.  The k-factor for Mg relative to Fe shall be 1.5 or less. Calibration data shall  be displayed on control charts that show trends over time.
    (4) The detector resolution shall be checked quarterly to  ensure a full-width half-maximum resolution of <175 eV at Mn Ka (5.90 keV).  Calibration data shall be displayed on control charts that show trends over  time.
    (5) The portions of a grid in a specimen holder for which  abnormal x-ray spectra are generated under routine asbestos analysis conditions  shall be determined and these areas shall be avoided in asbestos analysis.
    (6) The sensitivity of the detector for collecting x-rays  from small volumes shall be documented quarterly by collecting resolvable Mg  and Si peaks from a unit fibril of NIST SRM 1866 chrysotile.
    f. Low temperature asher. The low temperature asher shall  be calibrated quarterly by determining a calibration curve for the weight vs.  ashing time of collapsed mixed-cellulose-ester (MCE) filters. Calibration data  shall be displayed on control charts that show trends over time.
    g. Grid openings. The magnification of the grid opening  measurement system shall be calibrated using an appropriate standard at a  frequency of 20 openings/20 grids/lot of 1000 or one opening/sample. The  variation in the calibration measurements (2s) is <5.0% of the mean  calibration value.
    3. Air. All calibrations shall be performed in accordance  with subdivision 2 of this section, with the exception of magnification.  Magnification calibration shall be done at the fluorescent screen, with the  calibration specimen at the eucentric position, at the magnification used for  fiber counting, generally 15,000 to 20,000x (AHERA, III.G.1.c). A logbook shall  be maintained with the dates of the calibration recorded. Calibrations shall be  performed monthly to establish the stability of magnification. 
    4. Bulk samples. All calibrations shall be performed in  accordance with subdivision 3 of this section.
    5. Phase contrast microscopy. 
    a. At least once daily, the analyst shall use the telescope  ocular (or Bertrand lens, for some microscopes) supplied by the manufacturer to  ensure that the phase rings (annular diaphragm and phase-shifting elements) are  concentric.
    b. The phase-shift limit of detection of the microscope  shall be checked monthly or after modification or relocation using an HSE/NPL  phase-contrast test slide for each analyst/microscope combination (refer to  NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994, Section 10b). This procedure assures that  the minimum detectable fiber diameter (< ca. 0.25mm) for this microscope is  achieved.
    c. Prior to ordering the Walton-Beckett graticule,  calibration, in accordance with NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994, Appendix  A, shall be performed to obtain a counting area 100 mm in diameter at the image  plane. The diameter, dc (mm), of the circular counting area and the  disc diameter shall be specified when ordering the graticule. The field  diameter (D) shall be verified (or checked), to a tolerance of 100 μm ± 2  μm, with a stage micrometer upon receipt of the graticule from the  manufacturer. When changes (zoom adjustment, disassembly, replacement, etc.)  occur in the eyepiece-objective-reticle combination, field diameter shall be  remeasured (or recalibrated) to determine field area (mm2).  Recalibration of field diameter shall also be required when there is a change  in interpupillary distance (i.e., change in analyst). Acceptable range for  field area shall be 0.00754 mm2 to 0.00817 mm2. The  actual field area shall be documented and used.
    6. Polarized light microscopy.
    a. Microscope alignment. To accurately measure the required  optical properties, a properly aligned polarized light microscope (PLM) shall  be utilized. The PLM shall be aligned before each use. (Section 2.2.5.2.3,  EPA/600/R-93/116, July 1993)
    b. Refractive index liquids. Series of nD = 1.49  through 1.72 in intervals less than or equal to 0.005. Refractive index liquids  for dispersion staining, high-dispersion series 1.550, 1.605, 1.680. The  accurate measurement of the refractive index (RI) of a substance requires the  use of calibrated refractive index liquids. These liquids shall be calibrated  at first use and semiannually, or next use, whichever is less frequent, to an  accuracy of 0.004, with a temperature accuracy of 2°C using a refractometer or  RI glass beads.
    1VAC30-45-826. Asbestos testing: analytical sensitivity.  (Repealed.)
    A. Transmission electron microscopy.
    1. Water and wastewater. An analytical sensitivity  of 200,000 fibers per liter (0.2 MFL) is required for each sample analyzed  (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section 1.6). Analytical sensitivity is  defined as the waterborne concentration represented by the finding of one  asbestos structure in the total area of filter examined. This value will depend  on the fraction of the filter sampled and the dilution factor (if applicable).
    2. Air. An analytical sensitivity of 0.005  structures/cm2 is required for each sample analyzed. Analytical  sensitivity is defined as the airborne concentration represented by the finding  of one asbestos structure in the total area of filter examined. This value will  depend on the effective surface area of the filter, the filter area analyzed,  and the volume of air sampled (AHERA, Table I).
    3. Bulk samples.
    a. The range is dependent on the type of bulk material  being analyzed. The sensitivity may be as low as 0.0001% depending on the  extent to which interfering materials can be removed during the preparation of  AEM specimens. (Section 2.5.2 Range, Page 51, EPA/600/R-93/116)
    b. There should be an error rate of less than 1.0% on the  qualitative analysis for samples that contain chrysotile, amosite, and  crocidolite. A slightly higher error rate may occur for samples that contain  anthophyllite, actinolite, and tremolite, as it can be difficult to distinguish  among the three types. (Section 3, Page 10, NIST Handbook 150-3, August 1994)
    B. Phase contrast microscopy. The normal quantitative  working range of the test method is 0.04 to 0.5 fiber/cm2 for a 1000  L air sample. An ideal counting range on the filter shall be 100 to 1300  fibers/mm2. The limit of detection (LOD) is estimated to be 5.5  fibers per 100 fields or 7 fibers/mm2. The LOD in fiber/cc will  depend on sample volume and quantity of interfering dust but shall be <0.01  fiber/cm2 for atmospheres free of interferences. (NIOSH 7400, Issue  2, 15 August 1994)
    C. Polarized light microscopy. The laboratory shall  utilize a test method that provides a limit of detection that is appropriate  and relevant for the intended use of the data. Limit of detection shall be  determined by the protocol in the test method or applicable regulation.
    1VAC30-45-827. Asbestos testing: data reduction. (Repealed.)
    A. Transmission electron microscopy.
    1. Water and wastewater.
    a. The concentration of asbestos in a given sample shall be  calculated in accordance with EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section 12.1.  Refer to 1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
    b. Measurement uncertainties. The laboratory shall  calculate and report the upper and lower 95% confidence limits on the mean  concentration of asbestos fibers found in the sample (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method  100.2, Section 12.2.2).
    2. Air.
    a. The concentration of asbestos in a given sample shall be  calculated in accordance with the method utilized, e.g., AHERA. Refer to  1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
    b. Measurement uncertainties. The laboratory shall  calculate and report the upper and lower 95% confidence limits on the mean  concentration of asbestos fibers found in the sample.
    3. Bulk samples.
    a. The concentration of asbestos in a given sample shall be  calculated in accordance with the method utilized (e.g., EPA/600/R-93/116, July  1993). Refer to 1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
    b. Measurement uncertainties. Proficiency testing for floor  tiles analyzed by TEM following careful gravimetric reduction (New York ELAP  Certification Manual Item 198.4) has revealed an interlaboratory standard  deviation of approximately 20% for residues containing 70% or more asbestos.  Standard deviations range from 20% to 60% for residues with lower asbestos  content. 
    B. Phase contrast microscopy.
    1. Airborne fiber concentration in a given sample shall be  calculated in accordance with NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994, Sections 20  and 21. Refer to 1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
    2. Measurement uncertainties. The laboratory shall  calculate and report the intra-laboratory and inter-laboratory relative  standard deviation with each set of results. (NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August  1994)
    3. Fiber counts above 1300 fibers/mm2 and fiber  counts from samples with >50% of the filter area covered with particulate  should be reported as "uncountable" or "probably biased."  Other fiber counts outside the 100-1300 fibers/mm2 range should be  reported as having "greater than optimal variability" and as being  "probably biased."
    C. Polarized light microscopy.
    1. The concentration of asbestos in a given sample shall be  calculated in accordance with the method utilized (e.g., EPA/600/R-93/116, July  1993). Refer to 1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
    2. Method uncertainties. The individual laboratory shall  determine precision and accuracy for the percent range involved. If point  counting and/or visual estimates are used, a table of reasonable expanded  errors (refer to EPA/600/R-93/116, July 1993, Table 2-1) should be generated  for different concentrations of asbestos. 
    1VAC30-45-828. Asbestos testing: quality of standards and  reagents. (Repealed.)
    A. Transmission electron microscopy.
    1. The quality control program shall establish and maintain  provisions for asbestos standards.
    a. Reference standards that are used in an asbestos  laboratory shall be obtained from the National Institute of Standards and  Technology (NIST), EPA, or suppliers who participate in supplying NIST standards  or NIST traceable asbestos. Any reference standards purchased outside the  United States shall be traceable back to each country's national standards  laboratory. Commercial suppliers of reference standards shall conform to ANSI  N42.22 to assure the quality of their products.
    b. Reference standards shall be accompanied with a  certificate of calibration whose content is as described in ANSI N42.22-1995,  Section 8, Certificates.
    2. All reagents used shall be analytical reagent grade or  better.
    3. The laboratory shall have mineral fibers or data from  mineral fibers that will allow differentiating asbestos from at least the  following "look-alikes": fibrous talc, sepiolite, wollastonite,  attapulgite (palygorskite), halloysite, vermiculite scrolls, antigorite,  lizardite, pyroxenes, hornblende, richterite, winchite, or any other  asbestiform minerals that are suspected as being present in the sample. 
    B. Phase contrast microscopy. Standards of known  concentration have not been developed for this testing method. Routine workload  samples that have been statistically validated and national proficiency testing  samples such as PAT and AAR samples available from the AIHA may be utilized as  reference samples (refer to 1VAC30-45-822 B 2) to standardize the optical system  and analyst. All other testing reagents and devices (HSE/NPL test slide and  Walton-Beckett Graticule) shall conform to the specifications of the method  (refer to NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994). 
    C. Polarized light microscopy. Refer to 1VAC30-45-828 A.
    1VAC30-45-829. Asbestos testing: constant and consistent  test conditions. (Repealed.)
    The laboratory shall establish and adhere to written  procedures to minimize the possibility of cross-contamination between samples.
    1VAC30-45-850. Sample handling, sample acceptance policy,  and sample receipt.
    While the laboratory may not have control of field sampling  activities, the following are essential to ensure the validity of the  laboratory's data.
    1. Sample tracking. The laboratory shall have a documented  system for uniquely identifying the items to be tested to ensure that there can  be no confusion regarding the identity of such items at any time. This system  shall include identification for all samples, subsamples and subsequent  extracts or digestates or both. The use of container shape, size or other  physical characteristic, such as amber glass or purple top, is not an  acceptable means of identifying the sample. System laboratories shall use a  permanent chronological record such as a logbook or electronic database to  document receipt of all containers. This sample receipt log shall record the  following at a minimum: name of facility where sample was taken, date and time  of laboratory receipt, unique laboratory ID code, and signature or initials of  the person making the entries. 
    2. Sample acceptance policy. The laboratory shall have a  written sample acceptance policy that clearly outlines the circumstances under  which samples shall be accepted or rejected. The policy shall ensure that only  properly obtained samples with appropriate sampling records (see 1VAC30-45-640  B) are analyzed and that the samples are handled properly. This sample  acceptance policy shall be made available to sample collection personnel. The  policy shall include elements such as appropriate documentation of the sample's  identification, use of appropriate sample containers, adherence to specified  holding times, adequate sample volume to perform necessary tests, and  procedures to be used when samples show signs of damage, contamination or inadequate  preservation.
    3. Sample receipt protocols.
    a. Upon receipt, the condition of the sample, including any  abnormalities or departures from standard condition as prescribed in the  relevant test method, shall be recorded. All items specified by the sample  acceptance policy shall be checked.
    b. All samples that require thermal preservation shall be  considered acceptable if the arrival temperature is either within 2 degrees  Celsius °C of the required temperature or the method specified  range. For samples with a specified temperature of 4 degrees Celsius °C,  samples with a temperature of ranging from just above freezing temperature of  water to 6 degrees Celsius °C shall be acceptable. Samples that  are hand delivered to the laboratory immediately after collection or on the  same day that are collected may not meet this these criteria. In  these cases, the samples shall be considered acceptable if there is evidence  that the chilling process has begun such as arrival on ice. Thermal  preservation is not required in the field if the laboratory receives the sample  and either begins the analysis or refrigerates the sample within 15 minutes of  collection.
    c. The laboratory shall implement procedures for checking  chemical preservation using readily available techniques, such as pH or free  chlorine prior to or during sample preparation or analysis.
    d. The results of all checks required by the sample acceptance  policy and relevant test method shall be recorded.
    4. Storage conditions.
    a. The laboratory shall have documented procedures and  appropriate facilities to avoid deterioration, contamination or damage to the  sample during storage, handling, preparation, and testing. Any relevant  instructions provided with the item shall be followed. Where items have to be  stored or conditioned under specific environmental conditions, these conditions  shall be maintained, monitored and recorded.
    b. Samples shall be stored according to the conditions  specified by preservation protocols:
    (1) Samples that require thermal preservation shall be stored  under refrigeration that is within 2 degrees Celsius °C of the  specified preservation temperature unless method specific criteria exist. For  samples with a specified storage temperature of 4 degrees Celsius °C,  storage at a temperature above the freezing point of water to 6 degrees  Celsius °C shall be acceptable.
    (2) Samples shall be stored away from all standards, reagents,  food and other potentially contaminating sources. Samples shall be stored in  such a manner to prevent cross contamination.
    c. Sample fractions, extracts, leachates and other sample  preparation products shall be stored according to subdivision 4 a of this  section or according to specifications in the test method.
    d. Where a sample or portion of the sample is to be held  secure (for example (e.g., for reasons of record, safety or  value, or to enable check calibrations or tests to be performed later), the  laboratory shall have storage and security arrangements that protect the  condition and integrity of the secured items or portions concerned.
    5. Sample disposal. The laboratory shall have standard  operating procedures for the disposal of samples, digestates, leachates and  extracts or other sample preparation products.
    FORMS (1VAC30-45)
    Application for Certification of Environmental Laboratories  DGS‑21‑156 (eff. 1/09) 
    Application for Certification under 1VAC30-45 must be  obtained from program staff at Lab_Cert@dgs.virginia.gov
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (1VAC30-45)
    The Standards for Environmental Laboratories and  Accreditation Bodies, 2009, The NELAC Institute (TNI), P.O. Box 2439,  Weatherford, TX 76086; www.nelac-institute.org:  
    Volume  1: Management and Technical Requirements for Laboratories Performing  Environmental Analysis (EL-V1-2009)
    Volume  2: General Requirements for Accreditation Bodies Accrediting Environmental  Laboratories (EL-V2-2009)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-3334; Filed August 10, 2015, 10:01 a.m. 
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SERVICES
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 1VAC30-46. Accreditation for  Commercial Environmental Laboratories (amending 1VAC30-46-10, 1VAC30-46-30 through 1VAC30-46-150,  1VAC30-46-200, 1VAC30-46-210; adding 1VAC30-46-15, 1VAC30-46-95,  1VAC30-46-220). 
    Statutory Authority: § 2.2-1105 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Rhonda Bishton, Regulatory Coordinator,  Department of General Services, 1100 Bank Street, Suite 420, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 786-3311, FAX (804) 371-8305, or email  rhonda.bishton@dgs.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments (i) replace the 2003 National Environmental  Laboratory Accreditation Conference (NELAC) Standards used to accredit  commercial environmental laboratories with the 2009 The NELAC Institute (TNI)  Standards; (ii) restructure and increase fees; (iii) revise the process used to  accredit laboratories, eliminating requirements relating to the initial  accreditation period and streamlining the process to renew accreditation; (iv)  add a provision on suspension of accreditation; and (v) eliminate obsolete  language and amend text for clarity.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A  summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    Part I 
  General Provisions 
    1VAC30-46-10. Purpose.
    Section 2.2-1105 of the Code of Virginia directs the Division  of Consolidated Laboratory Services to establish a program to certify  environmental laboratories that perform tests, analyses, measurements or  monitoring required pursuant to the Commonwealth's air, waste and water laws  and regulations. This chapter sets out the required standards and the process  by which owners of commercial environmental laboratories may obtain  certification for their laboratories. Certification is referred to as  accreditation in this chapter. Commercial environmental laboratories are  accredited under the standards of the National Environmental Laboratory  Accreditation Conference (NELAC) as approved in 2003. In addition, this chapter  sets out the process that NELAP-accredited environmental laboratories must use  to receive accreditation in Virginia. 1VAC30-45 covers noncommercial  environmental laboratories.
    1VAC30-46-15. Standards for accreditation transition.
    A. Commercial environmental laboratories are  accredited under the standards of the National Environmental Laboratory  Accreditation Conference (NELAC), now The NELAC Institute (TNI).
    B. DCLS shall accredit commercial environmental  laboratories under the 2003 NELAC Standards [ through June 30,  2014, as specified by the provisions of this chapter that became  effective on January 1, 2009, for the first 10 months following November 1,  2015 ].
    C. DCLS shall accredit commercial environmental  laboratories under the 2009 TNI Standards [ beginning on July 1,  2014, as specified by the provisions of this chapter effective on  November 1, 2015, beginning on the first day of the 11th month following  November 1, 2015 ].
    1VAC30-46-30. Applicability.
    A. General applicability. This chapter applies to the  following:
    1. Any owner of a commercial environmental laboratory.
    2. Any owner of an environmental laboratory holding NELAP  TNI accreditation from a primary accrediting authority accreditation  body who wishes to apply for reciprocal secondary  accreditation under 1VAC30-46-140.
    B. DGS-DCLS.
    1. NELAP-accredited laboratory. DGS-DCLS shall meet the  requirements of this chapter through review and accreditation by a  NELAP-accredited federal or state accrediting authority. This process shall be  completed before January 1, 2012.
    2. Primary accrediting authority. DGS-DCLS shall meet the  requirements of the NELAC standards to become the primary accrediting authority  for the Commonwealth of Virginia. This review and approval by a NELAP  accrediting team shall be completed no later than January 1, 2010.
    B. Acquiring primary TNI accreditation through this  chapter.
    1. A commercial environmental laboratory located in  Virginia shall obtain primary TNI accreditation in Virginia as long as the  fields of accreditation for which the laboratory seeks accreditation are  offered by DCLS.
    2. DLCS shall not provide primary TNI accreditation for  environmental laboratories located in other states that offer TNI  accreditation.
    C. Voluntary accreditation. Any owner of an a  noncommercial environmental laboratory may apply for accreditation under  this chapter.
    D. Environmental laboratories required to obtain drinking  water certification under 1VAC30-40. Any owner of an environmental laboratory  Drinking water laboratory certification. An owner of a laboratory who  must meet the requirements of 1VAC30-40 pertaining to drinking water laboratory  certification and either 1VAC30-45 or this chapter may meet those requirements  by obtaining accreditation under this chapter.
    1VAC30-46-40. Definitions.
    A. The definitions contained in the 2003 National  Environmental Laboratory Accreditation Conference (NELAC) standards, Chapter 1,  Appendix A – Glossary, the 2009 TNI Standards are incorporated by  reference into this section. Some of the these definitions from  this glossary are included in this section because the terms are used  throughout this chapter. Where a term is defined in this section, the term  shall have no other meaning, even if it is defined differently in the Code of  Virginia or another regulation of the Virginia Administrative Code. Unless  specifically defined in this section, the terms used in this chapter shall have  the meanings commonly ascribed to them by recognized authorities. 
    B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Acceptance criteria" means specified limits  placed on characteristics of an item, process, or service defined in  requirement documents.
    "Accreditation" means the process by which an  agency or organization evaluates and recognizes a laboratory as meeting certain  predetermined qualifications or standards, thereby accrediting the laboratory.  "Accreditation" is the term used as a substitute for the term  "certification" under this chapter.
    [ "Accreditation body" or "AB"  means the authoritative body that performs accreditation. ] 
    "Accrediting authority" [ "Accreditation  body" of "AB" means the territorial, state, or federal  agency having responsibility and accountability for environmental laboratory  accreditation and which grants accreditation. ] 
    "Acceptance criteria" means specified limits  placed on characteristics of an item, process, or service defined in  requirement documents.
    "Algae" means simple single-celled, colonial, or  multicelled, mostly aquatic plants, containing chlorophyll and lacking roots,  stems and leaves that are either suspended in water (phytoplankton) or attached  to rocks and other substrates (periphyton).
    "Analyte" means the substance or physical property  to be determined in samples examined.
    "Analytical method" means a technical procedure for  providing analysis of a sample, defined by a body such as the Environmental  Protection Agency or the American Society for Testing and Materials, that may  not include the sample preparation method.
    "Assessment" means the evaluation process used to  measure or establish the performance, effectiveness, and conformance of an  organization and its systems or both to defined criteria (i.e., the  standards and requirements of laboratory accreditation).
    "Assessor" means the person who performs on-site  assessments of laboratories' capability and capacity for meeting the  requirements under this chapter by examining the records and other physical  evidence for each one of the tests for which accreditation has been requested  assigned by DCLS to perform, alone or as part of an assessment team, an  assessment of an environmental laboratory.
    "Authority" means, in the context of a governmental  body or local government, an authority created under the provisions of the  Virginia Water and Waste Authorities Act, Chapter 51 (§ 15.2-5100 et seq.)  of Title 15.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Benthic macroinvertebrates" means bottom dwelling  animals without backbones that live at least part of their life cycles within  or upon available substrates within a body of water. 
    "Commercial environmental laboratory" means an  environmental laboratory where environmental analysis is performed for another  person.
    "Corrective action" means the action taken to  eliminate the causes of an existing nonconformity, defect or other undesirable  situation in order to prevent recurrence.
    "DGS-DCLS" "DCLS" means the  Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services of the Department of General  Services.
    "Environmental analysis" or "environmental  analyses" means any test, analysis, measurement, or monitoring used for  the purposes of the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law, the Virginia Waste Management  Act or the State Water Control Law (§ 10.1-1300 et seq., § 10.1-1400 et  seq., and § 62.1-44.2 et seq., respectively, of the Code of Virginia). For  the purposes of these regulations, any test, analysis, measurement, or  monitoring required pursuant to the regulations promulgated under these three  laws, or by any permit or order issued under the authority of any of these laws  or regulations is "used for the purposes" of these laws. The term  shall not include the following:
    1. Sampling of water, solid and chemical materials, biological  tissue, or air and emissions.
    2. Field testing and measurement of water, solid and chemical  materials, biological tissue, or air and emissions, except when performed in an  environmental laboratory rather than at the site where the sample was taken.
    3. Taxonomic identification of samples for which there is no  national accreditation standard such as algae, benthic macroinvertebrates,  macrophytes, vertebrates and zooplankton. 
    4. Protocols used pursuant to § 10.1-104.2 of the Code of  Virginia to determine soil fertility, animal manure nutrient content, or plant  tissue nutrient uptake for the purposes of nutrient management.
    5. Geochemical and permeability testing for solid waste  compliance.
    6. Materials specification for air quality compliance when  product certifications specify the data required by an air permit such as fuel  type, Btu content, sulfur content, or volatile organic chemical (VOC) content.
    "Environmental laboratory" or  "laboratory" means a facility or a defined area within a facility  where environmental analysis is performed. A structure built solely to shelter  field personnel and equipment from inclement weather shall not be considered an  environmental laboratory. 
    "Establishment date" means the date set for the accreditation  program under this chapter and the certification program under 1VAC30-45 to be  established.
    "Establishment of accreditation program" or  "established program" means that DGS-DCLS DCLS has  completed the initial accreditation of environmental laboratories covered by  this chapter and the initial certification of environmental laboratories  covered by 1VAC30-45.
    "Facility" means something that is built or  installed to serve a particular function.
    "Field of accreditation" means an approach to  accrediting laboratories by those matrix, technology/method,  and analyte/analyte group analyte combinations for which DCLS offers  accreditation.
    "Field of accreditation matrix" means the following  when accrediting a laboratory:
    1. Drinking water. Any aqueous sample that has been designated  a potable or potential potable water source.
    2. Nonpotable water. Any aqueous sample excluded from the  definition of drinking water matrix. Includes surface water, groundwater,  effluents, water treatment chemicals, and TCLP or other extracts.
    3. Solid and chemical materials. Includes soils, sediments,  sludges, products and byproducts of an industrial process that results in a  matrix not previously defined.
    4. Biological tissue. Any sample of a biological origin such  as fish tissue, shellfish, or plant material. Such samples shall be grouped  according to origin, i.e., by species.
    5. Air and emissions. Whole gas or vapor samples including  those contained in flexible or rigid wall containers and the extracted  concentrated analytes of interest from a gas or vapor that are collected with a  sorbent tube, impinger solution, filter or other device.
    "Field of proficiency testing" or  "FoPT" means an approach to offer proficiency testing by analytes  for which a laboratory is required to successfully analyze a PT sample in order  to obtain or maintain accreditation, collectively defined as: matrix,  technology/method, and analyte/analyte group analyte.
    "Field testing and measurement" means any of the  following:
    1. Any test for parameters under 40 CFR Part 136 for which the  holding time indicated for the sample requires immediate analysis; or
    2. Any test defined as a field test in federal regulation.
    The following is a limited list of currently recognized field  tests or measures that is not intended to be inclusive: continuous emissions  monitoring; on-line monitoring; flow monitoring; tests for pH, residual  chlorine, temperature and dissolved oxygen; and field analysis for soil gas.
    "Finding" means a conclusion reached during an  on-site assessment that identifies a condition having a significant effect on  an item or activity. An assessment finding is normally a deficiency and is  normally accompanied by specific examples of the observed condition an  assessment conclusion referenced to a laboratory accreditation standard  [ incorporated by reference or contained in this chapter ] and  supported by objective evidence that identifies a deviation from a laboratory  accreditation standard requirement.
    "Governmental body" means any department, agency,  bureau, authority, or district of the United States government, of the  government of the Commonwealth of Virginia, or of any local government within  the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    "Holding time" (or maximum allowable  holding time)" means the maximum time that a sample may be held  prior to analysis and still be considered valid or not compromised can  elapse between two specified activities.
    "Initial accreditation period" means the period  during which DGS-DCLS is accepting and processing applications for the first  time under this chapter as specified in 1VAC30-46-70.
    "Legal entity" means an entity, other than a  natural person, who has sufficient existence in legal contemplation that it can  function legally, be sued or sue and make decisions through agents as in the  case of corporations.
    "Local government" means a municipality (city or  town), county, sanitation district, or authority.
    "Macrophytes" means any aquatic or terrestrial  plant species that can be identified and observed with the eye, unaided by  magnification.
    "Matrix" means the component or substrate that  contains the analyte of interest of a test sample.
    "National accreditation database" means the  publicly accessible database listing the accreditation status of all  laboratories participating in NELAP.
    "National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation  Conference (NELAC)" means a voluntary organization of state and federal  environmental officials and interest groups with the primary purpose to  establish mutually acceptable standards for accrediting environmental  laboratories. A subset of NELAP.
    "National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation  Program (NELAP)" means the overall National Environmental Laboratory  Accreditation Program of which NELAC is a part.
    "Noncommercial environmental laboratory" means  either of the following:
    1. An environmental laboratory where environmental analysis is  performed solely for the owner of the laboratory.
    2. An environmental laboratory where the only performance of  environmental analysis for another person is one of the following:
    a. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory owned by a local government for an owner of a small wastewater  treatment system treating domestic sewage at a flow rate of less than or equal  to 1,000 gallons per day.
    b. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory operated by a corporation as part of a general contract issued by a  local government to operate and maintain a wastewater treatment system or a  waterworks.
    c. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory owned by a corporation as part of the prequalification process or to  confirm the identity or characteristics of material supplied by a potential or  existing customer or generator as required by a hazardous waste management  permit under 9VAC20-60.
    d. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory owned by a Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW) for an industrial  source of wastewater under a permit issued by the POTW to the industrial source  as part of the requirements of a pretreatment program under Part VII  (9VAC25-31-730 et seq.) of 9VAC25-31.
    e. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory owned by a county authority for any municipality within the county's  geographic jurisdiction when the environmental analysis pertains solely to the  purpose for which the authority was created.
    f. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental  laboratory owned by an authority or a sanitation district for any participating  local government of the authority or sanitation district when the environmental  analysis pertains solely to the purpose for which the authority or sanitation  district was created.
    "Owner" means any person who owns, operates, leases  or controls an environmental laboratory.
    "Person" means an individual, corporation,  partnership, association, company, business, trust, joint venture or other  legal entity.
    "Physical," for the purposes of fee test  categories, means the tests to determine the physical properties of a sample.  Tests for solids, turbidity and color are examples of physical tests.
    "Pretreatment requirements" means any requirements  arising under Part VII (9VAC25-31-730 et seq.) of 9VAC25-31 including the duty  to allow or carry out inspections, entry or monitoring activities; any rules, regulations,  or orders issued by the owner of a POTW; or any reporting requirements imposed  by the owner of a POTW or by the regulations of the State Water Control Board.  Pretreatment requirements do not include the requirements of a national  pretreatment standard.
    "Primary accrediting authority accreditation  body" or "primary AB" means the agency or department  designated at the territory, state or federal level as the recognized authority  with the responsibility and accountability for granting NELAC accreditation to  a specific laboratory for a specific field of accreditation accreditation  body responsible for assessing a laboratory's total quality system, on-site  assessment, and PT performance tracking for fields of accreditation.
    "Proficiency test or testing (PT)" "Proficiency  test," "proficiency testing," or "PT" means  evaluating a laboratory's performance under controlled conditions relative to a  given set of criteria through analysis of unknown samples provided by an  external source.
    "Proficiency test (PT) sample" or  "PT sample" means a sample, the composition of which is unknown  to both the analyst and the laboratory, and is provided to  test whether the analyst or laboratory or both laboratory can  produce analytical results within specified acceptance criteria.
    "Proficiency testing (PT) program" or  "PT program" means the aggregate of providing rigorously  controlled and standardized environmental samples to a laboratory for analysis,  reporting of results, statistical evaluation of the results and the collective  demographics and results summary of all participating laboratories.
    "Publicly Owned Treatment Works" or  "POTW" (POTW)" means a treatment works as defined by  § 212 of the CWA, which is owned by a state or municipality (as defined by § 502(4)  of the CWA). This definition includes any devices and systems used in the  storage, treatment, recycling, and reclamation of municipal sewage or  industrial wastes of a liquid nature. It also includes sewers, pipes, and other  conveyances only if they convey wastewater to a POTW treatment plant. The term  also means the municipality as defined in § 502(4) of the CWA, which has  jurisdiction over the indirect discharges to and the discharges from such a  treatment works.
    "Quality assurance" or "QA" means  an integrated system of management activities involving planning, quality  control, quality implementation, assessment, reporting, and  quality improvement to ensure that a product process, item, or  service meets defined standards of quality with a stated level of confidence  is of the type and quality needed and expected by the client.
    "Quality assurance officer" means the person who  has responsibility for the quality system and its implementation. Where  staffing is limited, the quality assurance officer may also be the technical director  manager.
    "Quality control" or "QC" means  the (i) overall system of technical activities whose purpose is to  measure and control the quality of a product or service so that it meets the  needs of users that measures the attributes and performance of a  process, item, or service against defined standards to verify that they meet  the stated requirements established by the customer; (ii) operational  techniques and activities that are used to fulfill requirements for quality;  and (iii) system of activities and checks used to ensure that measurement  systems are maintained within prescribed limits, providing protection against  "out of control" conditions and ensuring that the results are of  acceptable quality.
    "Quality manual" means a document stating the  management policies, objectives, principles, organizational structure and  authority, responsibilities, accountability, and implementation of an agency,  organization, or laboratory, to ensure the quality of its product and the  utility of its product to its users.
    "Quality system" means a structured and documented  management system describing the policies, objectives, principles,  organizational authority, responsibilities, accountability, and implementation  plan of an organization for ensuring quality in its work processes, products  (items), and services. The quality system provides the framework for planning,  implementing, and assessing work performed by the organization and for carrying  out required quality assurance and quality control activities. 
    "Quality system matrix," for purposes of batch and  quality control requirements, means the following:
    1. Aqueous. Any aqueous sample excluded from the definition  of drinking water matrix or saline/estuarine source. Includes surface water,  groundwater, effluents, and TCLP or other extracts.
    2. Drinking water. Any aqueous sample that has been  designated a potable or potential potable water source.
    3. Saline/estuarine. Any aqueous sample from an ocean or  estuary, or other salt water source such as the Great Salt Lake.
    4. Non-aqueous liquid. Any organic liquid with less than  15% settleable solids.
    5. Biological tissue. Any sample of a biological origin  such as fish tissue, shellfish, or plant material. Such samples shall be  grouped according to origin.
    6. Solids. Includes soils, sediments, sludges and other  matrices with more than 15% settleable solids.
    7. Chemical waste. A product or byproduct of an industrial  process that results in a matrix not previously defined.
    8. Air and emissions. Whole gas or vapor samples including  those contained in flexible or rigid wall containers and the extracted  concentrated analytes of interest from a gas or vapor that are collected with a  sorbent tube, impinger solution, filter or other device.
    1. Air and emissions. Whole gas or vapor samples, including  those contained in flexible or rigid wall containers and the extracted  concentrated analytes of interest from a gas or vapor that are collected with a  sorbent tube, impinger solution, filter, or other device.
    2. Aqueous. Any aqueous sample excluded from the definition  of drinking water matrix or saline/estuarine source. Includes surface water,  groundwater, effluents, and TCLP or other extracts.
    3. Biological tissue. Any sample of a biological origin  such as fish tissue, shellfish, or plant material. Such samples shall be  grouped according to origin.
    4. Chemical waste. A product or byproduct of an industrial  process that results in a matrix not previously defined.
    5. Drinking water. Any aqueous sample that has been  designated a potable or potential potable water source.
    6. Non-aqueous liquid. Any organic liquid with less than  15% settleable solids.
    7. Saline/estuarine. Any aqueous sample from an ocean or  estuary, or other salt water source such as the Great Salt Lake.
    8. Solids. Includes soils, sediments, sludges, and other  matrices with more than 15% settleable solids. 
    "Recognition" means the mutual agreement of two  or more accrediting authorities to accept each other's findings regarding the  ability of environmental laboratories to meet NELAC standards.
    "Responsible official" means one of the following,  as appropriate:
    1. If the laboratory is owned or operated by a private  corporation, "responsible official" means (i) a president, secretary,  treasurer, or a vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal  business function, or any other person who performs similar policy-making or  decision-making functions for the corporation or (ii) the manager of one or  more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities employing more than 250  persons or having gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in  second-quarter 1980 dollars), if authority to sign documents has been assigned  or delegated in accordance with corporate procedures. 
    2. If the laboratory is owned or operated by a partnership,  association, or a sole proprietor, "responsible official" means a  general partner, officer of the association, or the proprietor, respectively.
    3. If the laboratory is owned or operated by a governmental  body, "responsible official" means a director or highest official  appointed or designated to oversee the operation and performance of the  activities of the governmental laboratory.
    4. Any person designated as the responsible official by an  individual described in subdivision 1, 2 or 3 of this definition provided the  designation is in writing, the designation specifies an individual or position  with responsibility for the overall operation of the laboratory, and the  designation is submitted to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
    "Sampling" means the act of collection for the  purpose of analysis.
    "Sanitation district" means a sanitation district  created under the provisions of Chapters 3 (§ 21-141 et seq.) through 5 (§ 21-291  et seq.) of Title 21 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Secondary accreditation body" or  "secondary AB" means the accreditation body that grants TNI  accreditation to laboratories based on their accreditation by a TNI-recognized  primary accreditation body.
    "Sewage" means the water-carried human wastes from  residences, buildings, industrial establishments or other places together with  such industrial wastes and underground, surface, storm, or other water as may  be present.
    "Standard operating procedure" or  "SOP" (SOP)" means a written document which  details the method of an operation, analysis or action whose techniques and  procedures are thoroughly prescribed and which is accepted that details  the method for an operation, analysis, or action with thoroughly prescribed  techniques and steps. An SOP is officially approved as the method for  performing certain routine or repetitive tasks.
    "TCLP" or "toxicity characteristic leachate  procedure" means Test Method 1311 in "Test Methods for Evaluating  Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," EPA Publication SW-846, as  incorporated by reference in 40 CFR 260.11. This method is used to determine  whether a solid waste exhibits the characteristic of toxicity (see 40 CFR  261.24).
    "Technical director manager (however  named)" means the person who has overall responsibility for the technical  operation of the environmental laboratory and who exercises actual day-to-day  supervision of laboratory operation for the appropriate fields of testing and  reporting of results. The title of this person may include but is not limited  to laboratory director, technical director manager, laboratory  supervisor, or laboratory manager.
    "Technology" means a specific arrangement of  analytical instruments, detection systems, or preparation techniques, or any  combination of these elements.
    "Test" means a technical operation that consists of  the determination of one or more characteristics or performance of a given  product, material, equipment, organism, physical phenomenon, process or service  according to a specified procedure.
    "Test, analysis, measurement or monitoring required  pursuant to the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law" means any method of  analysis required by the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law (§ 10.1-1300 et  seq. of the Code of Virginia); by the regulations promulgated under this  law (9VAC5), including any method of analysis listed either in the definition  of "reference method" in 9VAC5-10-20, or listed or adopted by  reference in 9VAC5; or by any permit or order issued under and in accordance  with this law and these regulations.
    "Test, analysis, measurement or monitoring required  pursuant to the Virginia Waste Management Act" means any method of  analysis required by the Virginia Waste Management Act (§ 10.1-1400 et seq. of  the Code of Virginia); by the regulations promulgated under this law  (9VAC20), including any method of analysis listed or adopted by reference in  9VAC20; or by any permit or order issued under and in accordance with this law  and these regulations.
    "Test, analysis, measurement or monitoring required  pursuant to the Virginia Water Control Law" means any method of analysis  required by the Virginia Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq. of the Code  of Virginia); by the regulations promulgated under this law (9VAC25),  including any method of analysis listed or adopted by reference in 9VAC25; or  by any permit or order issued under and in accordance with this law and these  regulations.
    "Test method" means an adoption of a scientific  technique for performing a specific measurement, as documented in a laboratory  standard operating procedure or as published by a recognized authority.
    "The NELAC Institute (TNI)" or "TNI"  means the organization whose standards environmental laboratories must meet to  be accredited in Virginia.
    "TNI standards" means the 2009 Standards for  Environmental Laboratories and Accreditation Bodies approved by TNI.
    "U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (U.S. EPA or  EPA)" means the federal government agency with responsibility for  protecting, safeguarding and improving the natural environment (i.e., air,  water and land) upon which human life depends.
    "Virginia Air Pollution Control Law" means Chapter  13 (§ 10.1-1300 et seq.) of Title 10.1 of the Code of Virginia which that  is titled "Air Pollution Control Board."
    "Virginia Environmental Laboratory Accreditation  Program" or "VELAP" means the program DCLS operates to accredit  environmental laboratories under this chapter. 
    "Wastewater" means liquid and water-carried  industrial wastes and domestic sewage from residential dwellings, commercial  buildings, industrial and manufacturing facilities, and institutions. 
    "Waterworks" means each system of structures and  appliances used in connection with the collection, storage, purification, and  treatment of water for drinking or domestic use and the distribution thereof to  the public, except distribution piping.
    "Zooplankton" means microscopic animals that float  freely with voluntary movement in a body of water.
    1VAC30-46-50. Scope of accreditation.
    A. Commercial environmental laboratories shall be accredited  based on the general laboratory standards set out in Part II (1VAC30-46-200 et  seq.) of this chapter and on the specific test methods or analysis, monitoring  or measurement required by Virginia Air Pollution Control Law (§ 10.1-1300  et seq. of the Code of Virginia), Virginia Waste Management Act (§ 10.1-1400 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) or Virginia Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2  et seq. of the Code of Virginia), the regulations promulgated under these  laws, and by permits and orders issued under and in accordance with these laws  and regulations.
    B. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall review alternative test  methods and procedures for accreditation when these are proposed by the  applicant laboratory. The provisions of 1VAC30-46-70 E and 1VAC30-46-90 B  govern alternative test methods and procedures.
    C. Accreditation shall be granted for one or more fields of  accreditation, including the matrix, the technology and methods used by the  commercial environmental laboratory, and the individual analytes or analyte  groups determined by the particular method.
    1VAC30-46-60. General: accreditation requirements.
    A. Components of accreditation. The components of  accreditation include review of personnel qualifications, on-site assessment,  proficiency testing and quality assurance and quality control standards. The  criteria for these components, specified in Part II (1VAC30-46-200 et seq.) of  this chapter, shall be fulfilled for accreditation.
    B. Individual laboratory sites and mobile laboratories.
    1. Individual laboratory sites are subject to the same  application process, assessments, and other requirements as environmental  laboratories. Any remote laboratory sites are considered separate sites and  subject to separate on-site assessments.
    2. Laboratories located at the same physical location shall be  considered an individual laboratory site if these laboratories are owned by the  same person, and have the same technical director manager and  quality system.
    3. Laboratories located at separate, noncontiguous physical  locations may request to be considered as an individual laboratory site if  these laboratories are owned by the same person and have the same laboratory  manager and quality system.
    4. 3. A mobile laboratory, which is configured  with equipment to perform environmental analyses, whether associated with a  fixed-based laboratory or not, is considered an environmental laboratory and  shall require separate accreditation. This accreditation shall remain with the  mobile laboratory and be site independent. Moving the configured mobile  laboratory to a different site shall not require a new or separate  accreditation. Before performing analyses at each new site, the laboratory  shall ensure that instruments and equipment have been checked for performance  and have been calibrated.
    1VAC30-46-70. Process to apply and obtain accreditation.
    A. Duty to apply. All owners of (i) commercial environmental  laboratories and (ii) NELAP-accredited TNI-accredited commercial  environmental laboratories applying for reciprocal secondary  accreditation shall apply for accreditation as specified by the provisions of  this section. Applications for accreditation must be obtained from DCLS  program staff by email at Lab_Cert@dgs.virginia.gov.
    B. Timely initial applications.
    1. Owners of commercial environmental laboratories applying  for accreditation under this chapter for the first time shall submit an  application to DGS-DCLS no later than July 1, 2009.
    2. Owners of commercial environmental laboratories that come  into existence after January 1, 2009, shall submit an initial application to  DGS-DCLS no later than 180 calendar days prior to initiating the provision of  environmental laboratory services.
    3. Owners of NELAP-accredited environmental laboratories.
    a. During the initial accreditation period, NELAP-  accredited environmental laboratories shall submit an application to DGS-DCLS  no later than July 1, 2009.
    b. After the program is established, NELAP-accredited  environmental laboratories shall submit an application to DGS-DCLS no later  than 180 calendar days prior to initiating the provision of environmental  laboratory services in Virginia.
    C. Timely renewal applications. 
    1. Every two years from the date of initial accreditation,  laboratories accredited under this chapter shall submit an application for  renewal of accreditation as required by subsection F of this section, including  the fees required by 1VAC30-46-150. During this biannual renewal DGS-DCLS shall  perform an on-site assessment in addition to a review of the laboratory's  application package.
    2. Every other year, DGS-DCLS shall renew accreditation for  the accredited laboratory provided the laboratory does all of the following:
    a. Maintains compliance with this chapter.
    b. Attests to this compliance by signing the Certificate of  Compliance provided under subdivision F 3 of this section.
    c. Reports acceptable proficiency test values for the  Fields of Accreditation for which the laboratory held accreditation during the  previous year.
    The laboratory shall submit the application information  required by subdivisions F 1 (except for the quality manual) and F 3 of this  section.
    3. Renewal application due dates.
    a. The owner of either an (i) accredited commercial  environmental laboratory or (ii) environmental laboratory holding reciprocal  accreditation shall submit an application for renewal of accreditation under  subdivision C 1 of this section at least 90 calendar days prior to expiration  of accreditation.
    b. The owner of either an (i) accredited commercial environmental  laboratory or (ii) environmental laboratory holding reciprocal accreditation  shall submit an application for renewal of accreditation under subdivision C 2  of this section at least 30 calendar days prior to expiration of accreditation.  
    B. Initial applications. Owners of commercial  environmental laboratories applying for accreditation under this chapter for  the first time shall submit an application to DCLS as specified under  subsection F of this section.
    C. Renewal and reassessment.
    1. DCLS shall renew accreditation annually for the  accredited laboratory provided the laboratory does the following:
    a. Maintains compliance with this chapter.
    b. Attests to this compliance by signing the certificate of  compliance provided under subdivision F 3 of this section.
    c. Reports acceptable proficiency test values as required  by 1VAC30-46-210 B.
    d. Pays the fee required by 1VAC30-46-150.
    2. DCLS shall reassess the accredited environmental  laboratory during an on-site assessment as required by 1VAC30-46-220.
    D. Responsibilities of the owner and operator when the  laboratory is owned by one person and operated by another person.
    1. When an environmental laboratory is owned by one person but  is operated by another person, the operator may submit the application for the  owner.
    2. If the operator fails to submit the application, the owner  is not relieved of his responsibility to apply for accreditation.
    3. While DGS-DCLS DCLS may notify environmental  laboratories of the date their applications are due, failure of DGS-DCLS  DCLS to notify does not relieve the owner of his obligation to apply  under this chapter.
    E. Submission of applications for modifications to  accreditation. An owner of an accredited environmental laboratory shall follow  the process set out in 1VAC30-46-90 B to add a new matrix technology/method,  an analyte or, analyte group, modify a test method or institute use of a method  or technology not in the laboratory's standard operating procedures, including  alternative test methods or procedures to modify the laboratory's scope  of accreditation.
    F. Contents of application.
    1. Applications shall include but not be limited to the  following information and documents:
    a. Legal name of laboratory;
    b. Name of owner of laboratory;
    c. Name of operator of laboratory, if different than owner;
    d. Street address and description of location of laboratory;
    e. Mailing address of laboratory, if different from street  address;
    f. Address of owner, if different from laboratory address;
    g. Name, address, telephone number, facsimile number and  e-mail, as applicable, of responsible official; 
    h. Name, address, telephone number, facsimile number and  e-mail, as applicable, of technical director manager;
    i. Name, address, telephone number, facsimile number and  e-mail, as applicable, of designated quality assurance officer;
    j. Name, title and telephone number of laboratory  contact person;
    k. Laboratory type (e.g., commercial, public wastewater  system, mobile);
    l. Laboratory hours of operation;
    m. Fields of accreditation for which the laboratory is seeking  accreditation;
    n. Methods employed, including analytes;
    o. n. The results of the three most recent  proficiency test studies two successful unique TNI-compliant PT studies  for each accreditation field of proficiency testing as required by  1VAC30-46-210 B  (for primary accreditation only); 
    p. o. Quality assurance manual (for primary  accreditation only);
    q. Lab identification number (for renewal only) p.  Copy of the primary certificate of accreditation for secondary accreditation  applications; and
    r. q. For mobile laboratories, a unique vehicle  identification number, such as a manufacturer's vehicle identification number  (VIN #), serial number, or license number.
    2. Fee. The application shall include payment of the fee as  specified in 1VAC30-46-150.
    3. Certification of compliance.
    a. The application shall include a "Certification of  Compliance" statement signed and dated by (i) the quality assurance  officer, and a (ii) the responsible official or the technical director  manager, or both.
    b. The certification of compliance shall state: "The  applicant understands and acknowledges that the laboratory is required to be  continually in compliance with the Virginia environmental laboratory  accreditation program regulation (1VAC30 Chapter 46) and is subject to the  provisions of 1VAC30-46-100 in the event of noncompliance. Specifically the  applicant:
    (1) Shall commit to fulfill continually the requirements  for accreditation set by DCLS for the areas where accreditation is sought or  granted.
    (2) When requested, shall afford such accommodation and  cooperation as is necessary to enable DCLS to verify fulfillment of  requirements for accreditation. This applies to all premises where laboratory  services take place.
    (3) Shall provide access to information, documents, and  records as necessary for the assessment and maintenance of the accreditation.
    (4) Shall provide access to those documents that provide  insight into the level of independence and impartiality of the laboratory from  its related bodies, where applicable.
    (5) Shall arrange the witnessing of laboratory services  when requested by DCLS.
    (6) Shall claim accreditation only with respect to the  scope for which it has been granted accreditation.
    (7) Shall pay fees as shall be determined by the  accreditation body.
    I certify under penalty of law that this document and all  attachments were prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance with  a system designed to assure that qualified personnel properly gather and  evaluate the information submitted. Based on my inquiry of the person or  persons who manage the laboratory or those persons directly responsible for  gathering and evaluating the information, the information submitted is, to the  best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate and complete. Submitting false  information or data shall result in denial or withdrawal of accreditation. I  further certify that I am authorized to sign this application."
    G. Completeness determination.
    1. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall determine whether an  application is complete and notify the laboratory of the result of such  determination. During the initial accreditation period, DGS-DCLS DCLS  shall provide this notice within 90 calendar days of its receipt of the initial  application. Following the initial accreditation period, DGS-DCLS shall  provide this notice as follows: 
    a. Within 60 calendar days of DGS-DCLS' receipt of a  laboratory's initial application.
    b. Within 30 calendar days of DGS-DCLS' receipt of a  laboratory's renewal application under subdivision C 1 of this section.
    c. Within 15 calendar days of DGS-DCLS' receipt of a  laboratory's renewal application under subdivision C 2 of this section.
    2. An initial application or an application for  renewal under subdivision C 1 of this section shall be determined complete  if it contains all the information required pursuant to subsection F of this  section and is sufficient to evaluate the laboratory prior to the on-site  assessment. DGS-DCLS shall consider an application for renewal under  subdivision C 2 of this section to be complete if it contains the information  required under subdivision C 2 of this section. Designating an application  complete does not preclude DGS-DCLS DCLS from requesting or  accepting additional information.
    3. If DGS-DCLS DCLS determines that an  application is incomplete, DGS-DCLS's the DCLS notification of  such determination shall explain why the application is incomplete and specify  the additional information needed to make the application complete.
    4. Except during the initial accreditation period, if If  DCLS makes no determination is made within 60 within 90  calendar days of DGS-DCLS's its receipt of either (i) the  application or (ii) additional information, in the case of an application  determined to be incomplete, the application shall be determined to be  complete. During the initial accreditation period, the time period shall be  90 calendar days. 
    5. If the laboratory has not submitted the required additional  information within 90 days of receiving a notice from DGS-DCLS DCLS  requesting additional information, DGS-DCLS DCLS may return  the incomplete application and inform the laboratory that the application  cannot be processed. The laboratory may then submit a new application.
    H. Grant of interim accreditation pending final determination  on application.
    1. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall grant interim  accreditation status to laboratories applying initially or for renewal under  subdivision C 1 of this section under the following conditions:
    a. The laboratory's application is determined to be complete;
    b. The laboratory has satisfied all the requirements for  accreditation, including all requests for additional information, with the  exception of on-site assessment; and
    c. DGS-DCLS DCLS is unable to schedule the  on-site assessment within 90 120 days of its determination that  the application is complete (for initial applications) or before the  laboratory's accreditation expires (for renewal applications under subdivision  C 1 of this section).
    2. DGS-DCLS shall grant interim accreditation status to a  laboratory renewing its accreditation under subdivision C 2 of this section  during its review of the renewal application if the owner has submitted a  complete application as required under subdivision C 2 of this section.
    3. 2. A laboratory with interim accreditation  status shall have the same rights and status as a laboratory that has been  granted accreditation by DGS-DCLS DCLS.
    4. 3. Interim accreditation status shall not  exceed 12 months.
    I. On-site assessment.
    1. An on-site assessment shall be performed and the  follow-up and reporting procedures for such assessments shall be completed in  accordance with Part II (1VAC30-46-200 et seq.) of this chapter 1VAC30-46-220  prior to issuance of a final determination on accreditation.
    2. Alternative on-site assessment option. If DGS-DCLS is  unable to schedule an on-site assessment under the conditions of subdivision H  1 c of this section, the owner of the applicant laboratory may use third-party  on-site assessors instead of DGS-DCLS on-site assessors under the following  conditions:
    a. The third-party on-site assessors are on a  DGS-DCLS-approved list of NELAC-trained on-site assessors; and
    b. The owner of the applicant laboratory agrees to pay the  third-party on-site assessors. 
    J. Final determination on accreditation. 
    1. Upon completion of the accreditation review process  and corrective action, if any, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall grant  accreditation in accordance with subsection K of this section or deny  accreditation in accordance with subsection L of this section.
    2. Except during the initial accreditation period, DGS-DCLS  shall complete action on a laboratory's application within nine months from the  time a completed application is received from the laboratory.
    3. During the initial accreditation period, DGS-DCLS shall  notify applicants of their interim accreditation status under subsection H of  this section only after all applications have been reviewed and are determined  to be complete.
    4. During the final approval process of the initial  accreditation period, DGS-DCLS shall notify applicants of their final  accreditation status only after all timely and complete applications have been  reviewed, all on-site assessments have been completed, and accreditation status  has been determined for all applicant laboratories.
    5. During the final approval process, DGS-DCLS shall  release on-site assessment reports to applicants at the time that applicants  are notified of their final accreditation status. 
    K. Grant of accreditation.
    1. When a laboratory meets the requirements specified for  receiving accreditation, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall issue a certificate  to the laboratory. The certificate shall be sent to the technical director  manager, and the responsible official shall be notified.
    2. The director of DGS-DCLS DCLS or his designee  shall sign the certificate. The certificate shall be transmitted as a sealed  and dated document.
    3. The certificate shall include the following information:
    a. Name of owner of laboratory;
    b. Name of operator of laboratory, if different from owner;
    c. Name of responsible official;
    d. Address and location of laboratory;
    e. Laboratory identification number;
    f. Fields of accreditation (matrix, technology/method and analyte/analyte  group) analyte) for which accreditation is granted;
    g. Any addenda or attachments; and
    h. Issuance date and expiration date.
    4. National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation Program  (NELAP) TNI-accreditation status.
    a. Laboratories accredited under this chapter are accredited  under the standards of the National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation  Conference TNI.
    b. The certificate of accreditation shall contain the NELAP  TNI insignia.
    c. Accredited laboratories shall comply with the provisions of  1VAC30-46-130 with regard to the use of these certificates and their status as NELAP-accredited  TNI-accredited laboratories.
    5. The laboratory shall post the most recent certificate of  accreditation and any addenda to the certificate issued by DGS-DCLS DCLS  in a prominent place in the laboratory facility.
    6. Accreditation shall expire one year after the date on which  accreditation is granted.
    L. Denial of accreditation.
    1. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall deny accreditation to an  environmental laboratory in total if the laboratory is found to be falsifying  any data or providing false information to support accreditation.
    2. Denial of accreditation in total or in part.
    a. DGS-DCLS DCLS may deny accreditation to an  environmental laboratory in total or in part if the laboratory fails to do any  of the following:
    (1) Pay the required fees;
    (2) Employ laboratory staff to meet the personnel  qualifications as required by Part II (1VAC30-46-200 et seq.) of this  chapter 1VAC30-46-210 A;
    (3) Successfully analyze and report proficiency testing  samples as required by Part II of this chapter 1VAC30-46-210 B;
    (4) Submit a corrective action report plan in  accordance with Part II of this chapter 1VAC30-46-220 in response  to a deficiency report from the on-site assessment team within the required 30  calendar days;
    (5) Implement the corrective actions detailed in the  corrective action report plan within the time frame specified by DGS-DCLS  DCLS;
    (6) Pass required on-site assessment as specified in Part  II of this chapter 1VAC30-46-220; or
    (7) Implement a quality system as defined in Part II of  this chapter 1VAC30-46-210 C.
    b. DGS-DCLS DCLS may deny accreditation to an  environmental laboratory in total or in part if the laboratory's application is  not determined to be complete within 90 days following notification of  incompleteness because the laboratory is delinquent in submitting information  required by DGS-DCLS DCLS in accordance with this chapter.
    c. DGS-DCLS DCLS may deny accreditation to an  environmental laboratory in total or in part if the DGS-DCLS DCLS  on-site assessment team is unable to carry out the on-site assessment pursuant  to 1VAC30-46-210 B 1VAC30-46-220 because a representative of the  environmental laboratory denied the team entry during the laboratory's normal  business hours that it specified in the laboratory application.
    3. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall follow the process  specified in 1VAC30-46-110 when denying accreditation to an environmental  laboratory. 
    M. Reapplication following denial of accreditation.
    1. Upon denial of accreditation, the laboratory shall wait  six months before reapplying for accreditation.
    2. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall not waive application  fees for a laboratory reapplying for accreditation.
    1VAC30-46-80. Maintaining accreditation.
    A. Accreditation remains in effect until withdrawn by DGS-DCLS  DCLS, withdrawn voluntarily at the written request of the accredited  laboratory, or expiration of the accreditation period. To maintain  accreditation, the accredited laboratory shall comply with the elements listed  in this section and in 1VAC30-46-90.
    B. Quality systems. A laboratory seeking to maintain  accreditation under this regulation shall assure consistency and promote the  use of quality assurance and quality control procedures. Part II  (1VAC30-46-200 et seq.) of this chapter 1VAC30-46-210 C specifies  the quality assurance and quality control requirements that shall be met to  maintain accreditation. The laboratory shall establish and maintain a quality  system based on the these required elements contained in Part  II.
    C. Proficiency tests. Laboratories seeking to maintain  accreditation under this regulation shall perform proficiency tests as required  under Part II (1VAC30-46-200 et seq.) of this chapter 1VAC30-46-210 B.
    D. Recordkeeping and retention. All laboratory records  associated with accreditation parameters shall be kept as provided by the  requirements for records under Part II (1VAC30-46-200 et seq.) of this chapter.  These records shall be maintained for a minimum of five years unless designated  for a longer period by another regulation or authority. All such records shall  be available to DGS-DCLS DCLS upon request.
    1VAC30-46-90. Notifications and changes to accreditation  elements and status.
    A. Changes to key accreditation criteria. The accredited  laboratory shall notify DGS-DCLS DCLS in writing of any changes  in key accreditation criteria within 30 calendar days of the change. Key  accreditation criteria are laboratory ownership (including legal,  commercial, or organizational status), location, resources and premises,  key personnel (including top management), and major  instrumentation, and quality system policies.
    B. Changes to scope of accreditation.
    1. DGS-DCLS DCLS may approve a laboratory's  application to add a new matrix, technology, analyte, or test method to a  laboratory's scope of accreditation or otherwise modify the laboratory's scope  of accreditation by performing a data review.
    2. To apply, the owner of the accredited laboratory shall  submit the following to DGS-DCLS DCLS:
    a. A letter written request signed by the owner  that briefly summarizes the addition to be made to the laboratory's scope of  accreditation.
    b. Pertinent information demonstrating the laboratory's  capability to perform the additional matrix, technology/method, or analyte/analyte  group analyte, such as proficiency testing performance and quality  control performance.
    c. A written standard operating procedure covering the new  matrix, technology/method, or analyte/analyte group analyte.
    3. DGS-DCLS DCLS may approve a laboratory's  application for modification to its scope of accreditation by performing a  review of the application materials submitted, without an on-site assessment.  The addition of a new technology or test method requiring the use of specific  equipment may require an on-site assessment. Other reviews of performance and  documentation may be carried out by DGS-DCLS DCLS, depending on  the modification for which the laboratory applies.
    4. Within 90 calendar days of the receipt of the application  from the accredited environmental laboratory, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall  review and determine whether the proposed modification may be approved.
    5. If the proposed modification to the laboratory's scope of  accreditation is approved, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall amend the  laboratory's certificate of accreditation.
    6. DCLS shall not send the amended certificate of  accreditation to the laboratory until DCLS receives the payment of the fee  required under 1VAC30-46-150 E 1. 
    C. Change of ownership or location of laboratory.
    1. The accredited laboratory shall submit a written  notification to DGS-DCLS DCLS of the change of ownership or  location of the laboratory within 30 calendar days of the change. This  requirement applies only to fixed-based and not pertaining to change  of location does not apply to mobile laboratories.
    2. Accreditation may be transferred when the legal status or  ownership of a accredited laboratory changes as long as the transfer does not  affect the laboratory's personnel, equipment, or organization.
    3. If the laboratory's personnel, equipment, or organization  are affected by the change of legal status or ownership, DGS-DCLS DCLS  may require reaccreditation or reapplication in any or all of the categories  for which the laboratory is accredited.
    4. DGS-DCLS DCLS may require an on-site  assessment depending on the nature of the change of legal status or ownership. DGS-DCLS  DCLS shall determine the elements of any on-site assessment required.
    5. When there is a change in ownership, the new owner of  the accredited laboratory shall assure historical traceability of the  laboratory accreditation numbers. 
    6. 5. When there is a change in ownership, the  new owner of the accredited laboratory shall keep for a minimum of five  years all records and analyses performed by the previous owner under his  scope of accreditation for a period of five years pertaining to accreditation.  These records and analyses are subject to inspection by DGS-DCLS DCLS  during this five-year period. This provision applies regardless of change of  ownership, accountability or liability. 
    D. Voluntary withdrawal. Any environmental laboratory owner  who wishes to withdraw the laboratory from its accreditation status or from  being accredited, in total or in part, shall submit written notification to DGS-DCLS  no later than 30 calendar days before the end of the laboratory's accreditation  term DCLS. Within 30 calendar days, DGS-DCLS DCLS  shall provide the laboratory with a written notice of withdrawal.
    1VAC30-46-95. Suspension of accreditation.
    A. Before withdrawing accreditation, DCLS may suspend  accreditation from an environmental laboratory in total or in part to allow the  laboratory time to correct the reason for which DCLS may withdraw  accreditation. Suspension is limited to the reasons listed in subsection B of  this section.
    B. DCLS may suspend accreditation from an environmental  laboratory in part or in total when the laboratory has failed to do any of the  following:
    1. Participate in the proficiency testing program as  required by 1VAC30-46-210 B.
    2. Complete proficiency testing studies and maintain a  history of at least two successful proficiency testing studies for each  accredited field of testing out of the three most recent proficiency testing  studies as defined in 1VAC30-46-210 B.
    3. Maintain a quality system as defined in 1VAC30-46-210 C.
    4. Employ staff that meets the personnel qualifications of  1VAC30-46-210 A.
    5. Notify DCLS of any changes in key accreditation criteria  as set forth in 1VAC30-46-90.
    C. Process to suspend accreditation.
    1. When DCLS determines that cause exists to suspend a  laboratory, the agency shall send notification to the responsible official and  the technical manager stating the agency's determination that the laboratory  has failed to meet the 1VAC30-46 standards for one or more of the reasons  listed in subsection B of this section. DCLS shall send the notification by certified  mail.
    2. In its notice, DCLS shall request the laboratory to  notify DCLS in writing if the laboratory believes the agency is incorrect in  its determination.
    3. The notification shall state that the laboratory is  required to take corrective action whenever a failure occurs and to document  the corrective action. The notification shall require the laboratory to provide  DCLS with documentation of the corrective action taken with regard to its  failure to meet a standard under this chapter.
    4. The notification shall state what the laboratory is  required to do to restore its accreditation status and the time allowed to do  so.
    5. The environmental laboratory may proceed to correct the  deficiencies for which DCLS has suspended the laboratory's accreditation.
    6. Alternatively the laboratory may state in writing that  DCLS is incorrect in its determination regarding suspension, giving specific  reasons why the laboratory believes DCLS should not suspend accreditation. 
    7. With the exception of subdivision B 4 of this section,  DCLS may allow the laboratory up to 60 days to correct the problem for which it  may have its accreditation suspended.
    8. DCLS shall set a date for suspension that follows the  period provided under subdivision [ B ] 7 of  this [ section subsection ] to restore  accreditation.
    9. If the laboratory does not correct its deficiencies  within the time period allowed, DCLS shall suspend a laboratory in part or in  total.
    10. DCLS shall notify the laboratory by letter of its  suspension status. DCLS shall send the notification by certified mail. DCLS  shall also notify the pertinent Virginia state agency of the laboratory's  suspension status.
    11. The laboratory may provide information demonstrating  why suspension is not warranted in accordance with the standard referenced in  the initial DCLS notification. If such information is not provided prior to the  suspension date, the laboratory accepts the DCLS decision to suspend.
    12. The laboratory has the right to due process as set  forth in 1VAC30-46-110.
    D. Responsibilities of the environmental laboratory and  DCLS when accreditation has been suspended.
    1. The term of suspension shall be limited to six months or  the period of accreditation whichever is longer.
    2. The environmental laboratory shall not continue to analyze  samples or report analysis for the fields of accreditation for which DCLS has  suspended accreditation.
    3. The environmental laboratory shall retain accreditation  for the fields of accreditation, methods, and analytes where it continues to  meet the requirements of this chapter.
    4. The laboratory's suspended accreditation status shall  change to accredited when the laboratory demonstrates to DCLS that the  laboratory has corrected the deficiency or deficiencies for which its  accreditation was suspended.
    5. An environmental laboratory with suspended accreditation  shall not have to reapply for accreditation if the cause or causes for  suspension are corrected within the term of suspension.
    6. If the laboratory fails to correct the causes of  suspension within the term of suspension, DCLS shall withdraw the laboratory's  accreditation in total or in part.
    1VAC30-46-100.Withdrawal of accreditation.
    A. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall withdraw accreditation  from an environmental laboratory in total if the laboratory is found to be  falsifying any data or providing false information to support certification:  accreditation.
    B. DGS-DCLS DCLS may withdraw accreditation  from an environmental laboratory in part or in total when the laboratory has  failed to do any of the following:
    1. Participate in the proficiency testing program as required  by 1VAC30-46-210 C 1VAC30-46-210 B.
    2. Complete proficiency testing studies and maintain a history  of at least two successful proficiency testing studies for each affected  accredited field of testing out of the three most recent proficiency testing  studies as defined in 1VAC30-46-210 C 1VAC30-46-210 B.
    3. Maintain a quality system as defined in 1VAC30-46-210 D  1VAC30-46-210 C.
    4. Employ staff that meet meets the personnel  qualifications of 1VAC30-46-210 A.
    5. Submit an acceptable corrective action report plan  after two opportunities as specified in 1VAC30-46-210 B 1VAC30-46-220.
    6. Implement corrective action specified in the laboratory's  corrective action report plan as set out under 1VAC30-46-210 B  1VAC30-46-220.
    7. Notify DGS-DCLS DCLS of any changes in key  accreditation criteria as set forth in 1VAC30-46-90.
    8. Use correct and authorized references to the laboratory's  accreditation status or that of DGS-DCLS DCLS in the laboratory's  documentation and advertising as set forth in 1VAC30-46-130.
    9. Allow a DCLS assessment team entry during normal  business hours to conduct an on-site assessment required by 1VAC30-46-220.
    10. Pay required fees specified in 1VAC30-46-150.
    C. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall follow the process  specified in 1VAC30-46-110 when withdrawing accreditation from an environmental  laboratory.
    D. Responsibilities of the environmental laboratory and DGS-DCLS  DCLS when accreditation has been withdrawn.
    1. Laboratories that lose their accreditation in full shall  return their certificate to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
    2. If a laboratory loses accreditation in part, an addendum  to the certificate shall be issued by DGS-DCLS DCLS shall issue a  revised certificate to the laboratory.
    3. The laboratory shall discontinue the use of all materials  that contain either a reference to the environmental laboratory's past  accreditation status or that display the NELAC/NELAP TNI logo.  These materials may include catalogs, advertising, business solicitations,  proposals, quotations, laboratory analytical results reports, or  other materials.
    4. The environmental laboratory shall not continue to  analyze samples or report analyses for the fields of accreditation for which  DCLS has withdrawn accreditation.
    E. After correcting the reason or cause for the withdrawal of  accreditation under 1VAC30-46-100 A or B, the laboratory owner may reapply for  accreditation under 1VAC30-46-70 B and E.
    1VAC30-46-110. Procedures to deny or withdraw  accreditation, to withdraw accreditation, and appeal procedures.
    A. Notification.
    1. If DGS-DCLS believes it has grounds DCLS  determines that cause exists to deny accreditation to or withdraw  accreditation from an environmental laboratory, DGS-DCLS DCLS  shall notify the environmental laboratory in writing of its intent to hold  an informal fact finding under § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia in order  to make a decision on the denial of accreditation or withdrawal of  accreditation determination. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall send  this notification by certified mail to the responsible official and provide a  copy to the technical director manager of the environmental  laboratory. The notice of informal fact finding shall provide a detailed  explanation of the basis for the notice.
    2. For denial of accreditation, the notice shall state that  the laboratory has failed to meet the standards in 1VAC30-46 and shall specify  one or more of the reasons for denial of accreditation under 1VAC30-46-70 L,  providing a detailed explanation of the basis for the denial of accreditation.
    3. For withdrawal of accreditation, the notice shall state  that the laboratory has failed to meet the standards in 1VAC30-46 and shall  specify one or more of the reasons for withdrawal of accreditation under 1VAC30-46-100  A or B, providing a detailed explanation of the basis for the withdrawal of  accreditation.
    4. In its notice, DCLS shall request the laboratory to  notify DCLS in writing if the laboratory believes the agency is incorrect in  its determination.
    5. If the laboratory believes DCLS to be incorrect in its  determination, the laboratory shall provide DCLS with a detailed written  demonstration of why DCLS should not deny or withdraw accreditation.
    B. Following the informal fact finding held pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia, the director shall render a decision  regarding accreditation, and shall send this notification by certified mail to  the responsible official and provide a copy to the technical director of the  environmental laboratory. If the director's decision is adverse to the  environmental laboratory, the responsible official may appeal this decision in  accordance with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the Rules of  the Supreme Court of Virginia.
    C. The provisions of this section do not preclude informal  discussions between DGS-DCLS and any environmental laboratory that has been  notified of a possible denial or withdrawal of accreditation. These informal  discussions to resolve the concerns that prompted the notice shall be held  prior to the informal fact finding proceeding. 
    B. An environmental laboratory may appeal a final decision  by DCLS to deny or withdraw accreditation pursuant to the Administrative  Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    D. C. The accreditation status of an  environmental laboratory appealing withdrawal of accreditation shall not change  pending the final decision of the appeals filed under the Virginia  Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) and Part  2A of the Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
    1VAC30-46-120. National accreditation database. Information  about accredited environmental laboratories.
    DGS-DCLS shall provide to NELAP the following information  about environmental laboratories accredited under this chapter: (i) technical  director's name; (ii) ownership and location of laboratory and any changes;  (iii) key accreditation criteria and any changes; (iv) interim, as well as  final, accreditation status; and (v) on-site assessment reports. DCLS  shall make available to the public information identifying the environmental  laboratories that it has accredited under this chapter.
    1VAC30-46-130. Use of accreditation status by environmental  laboratories accredited under this chapter.
    A. The owner of an environmental laboratory accredited under  this chapter shall not misrepresent the laboratory's fields of accreditation or  its accreditation status on any document. This includes laboratory reports,  catalogs, advertising, business solicitations, proposals, quotations or other  materials.
    B. Environmental laboratories accredited under this chapter  shall comply with all of the following:
    1. Post or display their most recent accreditation certificate  or their fields of accreditation in a prominent place in the laboratory  facility.
    2. Make accurate statements concerning their fields of  accreditation and accreditation status.
    3. Accompany DGS-DCLS's DCLS's name or the NELAC/NELAP  TNI logo or both with at least the phrase "NELAP-accredited"  "TNI-accredited" and the laboratory's identification number or  other identifier when DGS-DCLS's DCLS's name is used on general  literature such as catalogs, advertising, business solicitations, proposals,  quotations, laboratory analytical reports or other materials.
    4. Not use their accreditation certificate, their  accreditation status or the NELAC/NELAP TNI logo to imply  endorsement by DGS-DCLS DCLS.
    C. The owners of laboratories accredited under this chapter  who choose to (i) use DGS-DCLS's DCLS's name; (ii) make reference  to its NELAP TNI accreditation status; or (iii) use the NELAC/NELAP  TNI logo in any catalogs, advertising, business solicitations,  proposals, quotations, laboratory analytical reports or other materials, shall  comply with both of the following:
    1. Distinguish between proposed testing for which the  laboratory is accredited and the proposed testing for which the laboratory is  not accredited.
    2. Include the laboratory's identification number or other  identifier.
    1VAC30-46-140. Reciprocal Secondary  accreditation.
    A. DGS-DCLS, when recognized by NELAP as a primary  accrediting authority, DCLS may grant reciprocal secondary  accreditation to an environmental laboratory that holds a current accreditation  from another NELAP-recognized TNI-recognized primary accrediting  authority accreditation body.
    B. The owner of a NELAP-accredited TNI-accredited  environmental laboratory that seeks accreditation under this chapter shall  apply as specified in 1VAC30-46-70 with the exception of 1VAC30-46-70 F 1 n  and o.
    C. The owner of the applicant laboratory shall pay the fee  required by 1VAC30-46-150.
    D. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall not require a NELAP-accredited  TNI-accredited environmental laboratory that seeks accreditation under  this section to meet any additional proficiency testing, quality assurance, or  on-site assessment requirements for the fields of accreditation for which the  laboratory holds primary NELAP TNI accreditation.
    E. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall consider only the  current certificate of accreditation issued by the NELAP-recognized TNI-recognized  primary accrediting authority accreditation body.
    F. DGS-DCLS shall do the following: 1. Grant reciprocal  DCLS shall grant secondary accreditation for only the fields of  accreditation offered under this chapter for which the laboratory holds  current primary NELAP TNI accreditation.
    2. Except during the initial accreditation period, grant  reciprocal accreditation and issue certificates to an applicant laboratory  within 30 calendar days of receipt of the laboratory's application.
    G. Potential nonconformance issues.
    1. If DGS-DCLS notes any potential nonconformance with the  NELAC standards by a laboratory during the initial application process for  reciprocal accreditation or for a laboratory that already has been granted  NELAP accreditation through reciprocal accreditation, DGS-DCLS shall  immediately notify, in writing, the applicable NELAP-recognized primary  accrediting authority and the laboratory. The notification shall cite the  applicable sections within the NELAC standards for which nonconformance by the  laboratory has been noted.
    2. If the alleged nonconformance is noted during the  initial application process for reciprocal accreditation, final action on the  application for reciprocal accreditation shall not be taken until the alleged  nonconformance issue has been resolved.
    3. If the alleged nonconformance is noted after reciprocal  accreditation has been granted, the laboratory shall maintain its current  accreditation status until the alleged nonconformance issue has been resolved.
    4. If DGS-DCLS does not believe the primary accrediting  authority has taken timely and appropriate action on the potential  nonconformance, DGS-DCLS shall notify the NELAP director of its concerns.
    1VAC30-46-150. Fees.
    A. General.
    1. Fees shall be submitted Environmental  laboratories shall pay a fee with all applications, including  reapplications, for accreditation and all renewal applications for  accreditation under 1VAC30-46-70 C 1. Applications shall not be  designated as complete until the fee is received by DGS-DCLS. DCLS shall  not designate an application as complete until it receives payment of the fee.
    2. Fees shall be nonrefundable. Each accredited  environmental laboratory shall pay an annual fee to maintain its accreditation.  DCLS shall send an invoice to the accredited environmental laboratory.
    3. An environmental laboratory applying for reciprocal secondary  accreditation under this chapter 1VAC30-46-140 shall pay the same  fee as other laboratories subject to this chapter.
    4. Fees shall be nonrefundable.
    B. Fee computation.
    1. The fee shall be the total of the base fee and the test  category fees.
    2. The test category fees cover categories for the test  methods to be accredited as specified in the laboratory's application.
    3. If the total of the base fee and the test category fees  is more than the maximum fee, the laboratory shall pay the maximum fee.
    1. Fees shall be applied on an annual basis.
    2. Environmental laboratories shall pay the total of the  base fee and the test category fees set out in subsections C and D of this  section [ for the first twelve months following (insert the  effective date of this chapter) ].
    [ 3. Environmental laboratories shall pay the total  of the base fee and the test category fees required by subsections C and D of  this section as adjusted by the method set out in subsection E of this section  beginning the second 12 months following (insert the effective date of this  chapter) and for each of the 12-month periods that follow. ] 
    C. Base fee. The base fee shall be $1,700.
    1. DCLS determines the base fee for a laboratory by taking  into account both the total number of methods and the total number of field of  accreditation matrices for which the laboratory would be accredited.
    2. DCLS shall charge the base fees set out in Table 1. The  base fee for a laboratory is located by first finding the row for the total  number of methods to be accredited and then finding the box on that row located  in the column headed by the total number of matrices to be accredited. For  example, DCLS charges a base fee of $1300 to a laboratory performing a total of  eight methods for one matrix.
           |      TABLE 1: BASE FEES      |    
       |      Number of Methods      |          One Matrix      |          Two Matrices      |          Three Matrices      |          Four or more Matrices      |    
       |      1 - 9      |          $1300      |          $1430      |          $1575      |          $1730      |    
       |      10 - 29      |          $1400      |          $1575      |          $1750      |          $1950      |    
       |      30 - 99      |          $1550      |          $1825      |          $2150      |          $2550      |    
       |      100 - 149      |          $1650      |          $1980      |          $2375      |          $2850      |    
       |      150+      |          $1800      |          $2250      |          $2825      |          $3525      |    
  
    D. Maximum fee. The maximum fee shall be $5,200. 
    E. D. Test category fees.
    1. The test category fees cover the types of testing for  which a laboratory may be accredited as specified in the laboratory's  application or as accredited at the time of annual billing.
    1. 2. Fees shall be charged for each category of  tests to be accredited.
    3. Fees shall be charged for the total number of field of  accreditation matrices to be accredited under the specific test category. For  example, if a laboratory is performing inorganic chemistry for both nonpotable  water and solid and chemical matrices, the fee for this test category would be  found in the column for two matrices.
    2. 4. The fee for each category includes one or  more analytical methods unless otherwise specified. With the exception of  the test categories labeled oxygen demand and physical, test categories related  to test methods for water are defined by 40 CFR 136.3.
    5. Test category fees. DCLS shall charge the test category  fees set out in Table 2. The test category fees for a laboratory are located by  first finding the row with the total number of test methods for the test  category to be accredited. The fee to be charged for the test category will be  found on that row in the column headed by the total number of matrices to be  accredited. A laboratory performing four test methods for bacteriology in both  nonpotable and drinking water (two matrices) would be charged a test category  fee of $330.
    3. Fees.
           |      TEST CATEGORY      |          FEE      |    
       |      Oxygen demand (BOD or COD)      |          $375      |    
       |      Bacteriology      |          $375      |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, fewer than four methods      |          $375      |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, four or more methods      |          $750      |    
       |      Chemistry metals, one - two methods      |          $450      |    
       |      Chemistry metals, more than two methods      |          $1,000      |    
       |      Organic chemistry, fewer than four methods      |          $600      |    
       |      Organic chemistry, four or more methods      |          $1,200      |    
       |      Aquatic toxicity, acute methods only      |          $400      |    
       |      Aquatic toxicity, acute and chronic methods      |          $700      |    
       |      Radiochemical      |          $1,000      |    
       |      Physical      |          $375      |    
       |      TABLE 2: TEST CATEGORY FEES      |    
        |          Fees by Number of Matrices      |    
       |      Test Category      |          One       |          Two       |          Three or More      |    
       |      Aquatic toxicity, acute methods only      |          $400       |          N/A      |          N/A      |    
       |      Aquatic toxicity, acute and chronic methods      |          $600       |          N/A      |          N/A      |    
       |      Oxygen demand      |          $225      |          $335      |          $435      |    
       |      Bacteriology, 1 - 3 total methods      |          $175      |          $265      |          $345      |    
       |      Bacteriology, 4 or more total methods      |          $220      |          $330      |          $430      |    
       |      Physical, 1 - 5 total methods      |          $175      |          $265      |          $345      |    
       |      Physical, 6 - 10 total methods      |          $220      |          $330      |          $430      |    
       |      Physical, 11 or more total methods      |          $275      |          $415      |          $540      |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, 1 - 10 total methods      |          $250      |          $375      |          $490      |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, 11 - 20 total methods      |          $315      |          $475      |          $620      |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, 21 - 49 total methods      |          $394      |          $590      |          $767      |    
       |      Inorganic chemistry, 50 or more total methods      |          $492      |          $740      |          $962      |    
       |      Chemistry metals, 1 - 5 total methods      |          $325      |          $490      |          $637      |    
       |      Chemistry metals, 6 - 20 total methods      |          $410      |          $615      |          $800      |    
       |      Chemistry metals, 21 or    more total methods      |          $512      |          $770      |          $1000      |    
       |      Organic chemistry, 1 - 5 total methods      |          $400      |          $600      |          $780      |    
       |      Organic chemistry, 6 - 20 total methods      |          $500      |          $750      |          $975      |    
       |      Organic chemistry,    21 - 40 total methods      |          $625      |          $940      |          $1222      |    
       |      Organic chemistry, 41 or    more total methods      |          $780      |          $1170      |          $1520      |    
       |      Radiochemical,    1 - 10 total methods      |          $600      |          $900      |          $1170      |    
       |      Radiochemical, 11 or more total methods      |          $725      |          $1090      |          $1420      |    
       |      Asbestos      |          $725      |          $1090      |          $1420      |    
        |      |      |      |      |    
  
    6. Fee examples. Three examples are provided.
    a. Example 1:
           |      Base Fee      |          One matrix and four test methods      |          $1300      |    
       |      Test Category Fees      |      |                 |    
       |      One Matrix      |      |                 |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Bacteriology     (2 methods)      |          $175      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Oxygen demand     (1 method)      |          $225      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Physical     (1 method)      |          $175      |    
       |      TOTAL      |      |          $1875      |    
  
    b. Example 2:
           |      Base Fee      |          One matrix and 15 test methods      |          $1400      |    
       |      Test Category Fees      |                 |                 |    
       |      One Matrix      |                 |                 |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Bacteriology     (2 methods)      |          $175      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Inorganic chemistry     (9 methods)      |          $250      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Metals (2 methods)      |          $325      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Oxygen demand     (1 method)      |          $225      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Physical (1 method)      |          $175      |    
       |      TOTAL      |      |          $2550      |    
  
    c. Example 3:
           |      Base Fee      |          Two matrices and 27 test methods      |          $1575      |    
       |      Test Category Fees      |                 |                 |    
       |      One    Matrix      |                 |                 |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Bacteriology     (4 methods)      |          $220      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water      |          Oxygen demand     (1 method)      |          $225      |    
       |      Solid and Chemical Materials      |          Metals (1 method)      |          $325      |    
       |      Two Matrices      |                 |                 |    
       |      Nonpotable Water and Solid    and Chemical Materials      |          Inorganic chemistry     (13 methods)      |          $475      |    
       |      Nonpotable Water and Solid    and Chemical Materials      |          Physical     (7 methods)      |          $330      |    
       |      TOTAL      |      |          $3150      |    
  
    [ E. Calculation of fees - fees beginning (the  thirteenth month following the effective date of this chapter).
    1. DCLS shall revise the base fee and test category fee  tables after the first twelve months following the effective date of this  chapter and every twelve-month period thereafter.
    2. DCLS shall increase or decrease the fees set out in  the base fee and the test category fee tables using the Consumer Price  Index-Urban (CPI-U) percentage change, average-average for the previous  calendar year. (The CPI-U for all urban consumers is published by the U.S.  Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Examples of the CPI-U  average-average are -0.04, +1.6, and +3.2 percent for 2009, 2010, and 2011,  respectively. DCLS would determine the fees in the tables for 2012, for  example, by increasing each fee by 3.2 percent, the CPI-U average-average  percentage change for 2011.) 
    3. DCLS shall revise each previous year's tables so that  the revisions will be cumulative, reflecting the changes in the CPI-U over  time.
    4. DCLS shall round the revised fees to the nearest  dollar.
    5. DCLS shall publish the revised base fee and test  category fee tables annually on its VELAP website.
    F. E. ] Additional fees. Additional fees  shall be charged to laboratories applying for the following: (i) modification  to scope of accreditation under 1VAC30-46-90 B, (ii) transfer of ownership  under 1VAC30-46-90 C, (iii) request that multiple, noncontiguous laboratory  sites be considered as one site under 1VAC30-46-60 B 3, or (iv) (iii)  petition for a variance under 1VAC30-46-160.
    1. For any accredited environmental laboratory that applies to  modify its scope of accreditation as specified under 1VAC30-46-90 B, DGS-DCLS  DCLS shall assess a fee determined by the method in subsection [ G  F ] of this section.
    2. Under 1VAC30-46-90 C, DGS-DCLS DCLS may  charge a transfer fee to a certified laboratory that transfers ownership. A fee  shall be charged if DGS-DCLS DCLS (i) needs to review  documentation sent by the laboratory about the transfer of ownership or (ii)  determines that an on-site assessment is necessary to evaluate the effect of  the transfer of ownership. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall assess a fee  determined by the method in subsection [ G F ] of this  section. If DGS-DCLS determines that a fee should be charged, the fee shall  be a minimum of $100 and a maximum of $1,000. If, under 1VAC30-46-90 C, DGS-DCLS  DCLS determines that the change of ownership or location of laboratory  requires reaccreditation of or reapplication by the laboratory, the laboratory  shall pay the application fee required under this section.
    3. Under 1VAC30-46-60 B 3, the owner of multiple  non-contiguous laboratories may request that DGS-DCLS consider these  laboratories to be one site. If, as a result of the request being granted,  DGS-DCLS needs to perform multiple on-site assessments, DGS-DCLS shall charge a  fee for the additional on-site assessments. The fee shall be the sum of  reasonable travel costs and labor charges for the additional on-site  assessments. The labor charges will be determined following the method in subsection  G of this section.
    4. 3. Under 1VAC30-46-160, any person regulated  by this chapter may petition the director to grant a variance from any  requirement of this chapter. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall charge a fee for  the time needed to review the petition, including any on-site assessment  required. The fee shall be determined by the method specified in subsection  [ G F ] of this section. 
    [ G. F. ] Fee Additional  fees determination.
    1. The fee shall be the sum of the total hourly charges for  all reviewers plus any on-site review costs incurred.
    2. An hourly charge per reviewer shall be determined by (i)  obtaining a yearly cost by multiplying the reviewer's annual salary by 1.35  (accounts for overhead such as taxes and insurance) and then (ii) dividing the  yearly cost by 1,642 (number of annual hours established by Fiscal Services,  DGS, for billing purposes).
    3. The charge per reviewer shall be determined by multiplying  the number of hours expended in the review by the reviewer's hourly charge.
    4. If an on-site review is required, travel time and on-site  review time shall be charged at the same hourly charge per reviewer, and any  travel expenses shall be added.
    [ H. G. ] Out-of-state laboratories –  travel costs applying for primary accreditation. 
    1. The owner of an environmental laboratory located in  another state who applies for primary accreditation under this chapter  shall also pay a fee equal to the surcharge of $5000 plus the  labor costs of the on-site assessment and reasonable travel costs  associated with conducting an on-site assessment at the laboratory. Reasonable  travel costs include transportation, lodging, per diem, and telephone and  duplication charges. These charges shall be in addition to the fees charged  under subdivision A 1 and subsections B through D of this section.
    2. Once the laboratory is accredited, DCLS shall charge the  annual fee specified in subdivision A 2 and subsections B through D of this  section, the labor costs for the on-site assessment, and reasonable travel  costs associated with conducting the on-site assessment.
    [ I. H. ] DGS-DCLS DCLS  shall derive the travel costs charged under subsections G and H F and  G of this section from the Commonwealth of Virginia reimbursement  allowances and rates for lodging, per diem, and mileage.
    Part II 
  Standards 
    1VAC30-46-200. Incorporation of NELAC standards by  reference of TNI standards.
    A. The 2003 National Environmental Laboratory  Accreditation Conference (NELAC) standards approved June 5, 2003, as specified  in 1VAC30-46-210 are incorporated by reference into this chapter.
    B. Laboratories applying for accreditation and accredited  under this chapter shall comply with the 2003 NELAC standards incorporated by  reference into 1VAC30-46-210.
    C. The requirements of Chapter 4 of the 2003 NELAC standards,  Accreditation Process, are incorporated by reference into this chapter unless  the requirements are (i) already addressed in this chapter, (ii) superseded by  Virginia law, or (iii) incorporated by reference into 1VAC30-46-210. 
    A. The following TNI standards are incorporated by  reference into this chapter: The Standards for Environmental Laboratories and  Accreditation Bodies, 2009 (The NELAC Institute (TNI)), Volume 1: Management  and Technical Requirements for Laboratories Performing Environmental Analysis,  and Volume 2: General Requirements for Accreditation Bodies Accrediting  Environmental Laboratories, except for section 6.6 of Module 3 concerning  confidential business information.
    B. Environmental laboratories applying for accreditation  and accredited under this chapter shall comply with the TNI standards  incorporated by reference into subsection A of this section. For convenience  these standards are specified by accreditation component in 1VAC30-46-210 and  1VAC30-46-220.
    C. The TNI standards are organized  by volume and module.
    1. Volume 1 - Management and Technical Requirements for  Laboratories Performing Environmental Analysis includes the following modules:
    a. Proficiency Testing.
    b. Quality Systems General Requirements.
    c. Quality Systems for Asbestos Testing.
    d. Quality Systems for Chemical Testing.
    e. Quality Systems for Microbiological Testing.
    f. Quality Systems for Radiochemical Testing.
    g. Quality Systems for Toxicity Testing.
    2. Volume 2 - General Requirements for Accreditation Bodies  Accrediting Environmental Laboratories includes the following modules:
    a. General Requirements.
    b. Proficiency Testing.
    c. On-Site Assessment.
    1VAC30-46-210. Standards for accreditation.
    A. Standards for personnel qualifications. The standards  for personnel qualifications are the following provisions of the National  Environmental Laboratory Accreditation Conference (NELAC) standards as  incorporated by reference into this part: Chapter 4, Accreditation Process,  specifically, Components of Accreditation and Personnel Qualifications (4.1.1)  and Chapter 5, Quality Systems, specifically, Technical Requirements -  Personnel (5.5.2).
    B. Standards for on-site assessment. The standards for  on-site assessment are the following provisions of the NELAC standards as  incorporated by reference into this part.
    1. Chapter 3, On-site Assessment with one exception.  Subsection 3.4.5, Confidential Business Information (CBI) Considerations, shall  not be incorporated by reference into this part.
    2. Chapter 4, Accreditation Process, specifically, On-site  Assessments and Corrective Action Reports in Response to On-site Assessment  (4.1.2 and 4.1.3).
    C. Standards for proficiency testing. The standards for  proficiency testing are the following provisions of the NELAC standards as  incorporated by reference into this part.
    1. Chapter 2, Proficiency Testing, specifically,  Introduction, Scope, and Applicability; Major PT Groups and Their  Responsibilities; Laboratory Enrollment in Proficiency Testing Programs;  Requirements for Laboratory Testing of PT Study Samples; and PT Criteria for  Laboratory Accreditation (2.1, 2.2, 2.4 through 2.7).
    2. Chapter 4, Accreditation Process, specifically,  Proficiency Testing Samples (4.1.4).
    D. Standards for quality  systems.
    1. The standards for quality systems are the following  provisions of the NELAC standards as incorporated by reference into this part:  (i) Chapter 4, specifically, Accountability for Analytical Standards and (ii)  Chapter 5, Quality Systems.
    2. Quality systems - scope. Chapter 5 of the NELAC standards  sets out the scope of quality systems requirements. These provisions provide an  overview to major aspects of the accreditation process and are set out below  for emphasis:
    a. Chapter 5 includes all quality assurance policies and  quality control procedures that shall be delineated in a quality manual and  followed to ensure and document the quality of the analytical data.  Laboratories seeking accreditation shall assure implementation of all quality  assurance policies and the essential applicable quality control procedures  specified in this chapter. The quality assurance policies, which establish  essential quality control procedures, are applicable to environmental  laboratories regardless of size and complexity.
    b. The intent of Chapter 5 is to provide sufficient detail  concerning quality management requirements so that DGS-DCLS can evaluate  environmental laboratories consistently and uniformly.
    c. Chapter 5 sets out the general requirements that a  laboratory has to successfully demonstrate to be recognized as competent to  carry out specific environmental tests.
    d. If more stringent standards or requirements are included  in a mandated test method or by regulation, the laboratory shall demonstrate  that such requirements are met. If it is not clear which standards or  requirements are more stringent, the standard or requirement from the method or  regulation is to be followed.
    A. Standards for personnel. The standards for personnel  are found in Section 5.2 of Volume 1, Module 2 of the TNI standards.
    B. Standards for proficiency testing.
    1. The standards for proficiency testing are found in (i)  Module 1 and (ii) section 4.11 of Module 2 of Volume 1 of the TNI standards.
    2. Additional requirements from Volume 2, Module 2 of the  TNI standards.
    a. A laboratory shall perform two proficiency test studies  each calendar year for each FoPT. These proficiency testing studies shall be  performed at least five months apart and no longer than seven months apart  within the calendar year.
    b. The following proficiency testing studies shall not  apply when meeting the requirements of subdivision 2 a of this subsection:
    (1) Studies used for corrective action to reestablish  successful history in order to maintain accreditation; and
    (2) Studies used to reinstate accreditation after DCLS suspends  accreditation.
    c. DCLS shall consider a laboratory's analytical result for  a FoPT not acceptable for the following reasons:
    (1) When the laboratory does not report the results within  the time frames specified in Volume 1, Module 1 of the TNI standards.
    (2) When the laboratory makes any reporting error or  omission that results in a nonspecific match between the analytical result for  the FoPT and any criterion that identifies the laboratory or the field of  accreditation for which the PT sample was analyzed for the purpose of initial  or continued accreditation.
    d. If DCLS requests a corrective action plan from a  laboratory, the laboratory shall provide the plan within 30 calendar days of  the request.
    e. A laboratory may withdraw from a study for any FoPT on  or before the close date of the study. Withdrawing from a study shall not  exempt the laboratory from meeting the semiannual analysis requirements  necessary for continued accreditation.
    C. Standards for quality systems.
    1. General requirements for all environmental laboratories  are found in Volume 1, Module 2 of the TNI standards.
    2. Requirements for the specific types of testing that may  be performed by an individual environmental laboratory are found in Volume 1,  Modules 3 through 7 of the TNI standards.
    3. Drinking water laboratories obtaining certification  under this chapter shall meet the reporting requirements set out in [ 1VAC30-40  1VAC30-41 ] for compliance with 12VAC5-590-530 and 12VAC5-590-540.
    1VAC30-46-220. On-site assessment.
    A. The standards for on-site assessment are found in  Volume 2, Module 3 of the TNI standards. The requirements specific to  environmental laboratories are set out in this section.
    B. DCLS shall conduct a comprehensive on-site assessment  of an environmental laboratory prior to granting final primary accreditation to  the laboratory.
    C. Frequency of on-site assessment.
    1. DCLS shall reassess each accredited laboratory every two  years starting from the date of the previous assessment plus or minus six  months.
    2. Other on-site assessments.
    a. If DCLS identified a deficiency on a previous on-site  assessment, the agency may conduct a follow-up on-site assessment.
    b. DCLS may conduct an on-site assessment under the  following circumstances:
    (1) A laboratory applies to modify its scope of  accreditation;
    (2) A transfer of ownership occurs that affects personnel,  equipment, or the laboratory facilities; or
    (3) A laboratory applies for an exemption or a variance. 
    c. Any other change occurring in a laboratory's operations  that might reasonably be expected to alter or impair analytical capability and  quality may trigger an on-site assessment.
    D. Announced and unannounced on-site assessments. DCLS, at  its discretion, may conduct either announced or unannounced on-site  assessments. Advance notice of an assessment shall not be necessary.
    E. Preparation for the on-site assessment.
    1. Prior to the actual site visit, DCLS may request in  writing from a laboratory those records required to be maintained by this  chapter.
    2. DCLS may opt not to proceed with an on-site assessment  based on nonconformities found during document and record review.
    F. Areas to be assessed.
    1. DCLS shall assess the laboratory against the standards  incorporated by reference and specified in 1VAC30-46-200 and 1VAC30-46-210. 
    2. The laboratory shall ensure that its quality manual,  analytical methods, quality control data, proficiency test data, laboratory  SOPs, and all records needed to verify compliance with the standards specified  in 1VAC30-46-200 and 1VAC30-46-210 are available for review during the on-site  assessment.
    G. National security considerations.
    1. Assessments at facilities owned or operated by federal  agencies or contractors may require security clearances, appropriate badging,  or a security briefing before the assessment begins.
    2. The laboratory shall notify DCLS in writing of any  information that is controlled for national security reasons and cannot be  released to the public.
    H. Arrival, admittance, and opening conference.
    1. Arrival. DCLS and the laboratory shall agree to the date  and schedule for announced on-site assessments.
    2. Admittance of assessment personnel. A laboratory's  refusal to admit the assessment personnel for an on-site assessment shall  result in an automatic failure of the laboratory to receive accreditation or  loss of an existing accreditation by the laboratory, unless there are  extenuating circumstances that are accepted and documented by DCLS. 
    3. Health and safety. Under no circumstance, and especially  as a precondition to gain access to a laboratory, shall assessment personnel be  required or even allowed to sign any waiver of responsibility on the part of  the laboratory for injuries incurred during an assessment.
    4. Opening conference. An opening conference shall be  conducted and shall address the following topics:
    a. The purpose of the assessment;
    b. The identification of  assessment personnel;
    c. The test methods that will  be examined;
    d. Any pertinent records and  procedures to be examined during the assessment and the names of the individuals  in the laboratory responsible for providing assessment personnel with such  records;
    e. The roles and  responsibilities of laboratory staff and managers;
    f. Any special safety procedures that the laboratory may  think necessary for the protection of assessment personnel;
    g. The standards and criteria that will be used in judging  the adequacy of the laboratory operation;
    h. Confirmation of the tentative time for the exit  conference; and
    i. Discussion of any questions the laboratory may have  about the assessment process.
    I. On-site laboratory records review and collection.
    1. Records shall be reviewed by assessment personnel for  accuracy, completeness, and the use of proper methodology for each analyte and  test method to be evaluated.
    2. Records required to be maintained pursuant to this  chapter shall be examined as part of an assessment for accreditation. 
    J. Observations of and  interviews with laboratory personnel.
    1. As an element of the  assessment process, the assessment team shall evaluate an analysis regimen by  requesting that the analyst normally conducting the procedure give a  step-by-step description of exactly what is done and what equipment and  supplies are needed to complete the regimen. Any deficiencies shall be noted  and discussed with the analyst. In addition, the deficiencies shall be  discussed in the closing conference.
    2. Assessment personnel may  conduct interviews with appropriate laboratory personnel.
    3. Calculations, data  transfers, calibration procedures, quality control and quality assurance  practices, adherence to test methods, and report preparation shall be assessed  for the complete scope of accreditation with appropriate laboratory analysts.
    K. Closing conference.
    1. Assessment personnel shall meet with representatives of  the laboratory following the assessment for a closing conference. 
    2. During the closing  conference, assessment personnel shall inform the laboratory of the preliminary  findings and the basis for such findings. The laboratory shall have an opportunity  to provide further explanation or clarification relevant to the preliminary  findings. If the laboratory objects to the preliminary findings during the  closing conference, all objections shall be documented by the assessment  personnel and included in the final report to DCLS.
    3. Additional problem areas  may be identified in the final report.
    L. Follow-up and reporting procedures.
    1. DCLS shall provide an on-site assessment report to the  laboratory documenting any deficiencies found by DCLS within 30 calendar days  of the last day of the on-site assessment.
    2. When deficiencies are identified in the assessment  report, the laboratory shall have 30 calendar days from the date of its receipt  of the on-site assessment report to provide a corrective action plan to DCLS. 
    3. The laboratory's corrective action plan shall include  the following:
    a. Any objections that the laboratory has with regard to  the on-site assessment report;
    b. The action that the laboratory proposes to correct each  deficiency identified in the assessment report; 
    c. The time period required to accomplish the corrective  action; and
    d. Documentation of corrective action that the laboratory  has already completed at the time the corrective action plan is submitted.
    4. If the corrective action  plan, or a portion of the plan, is determined to be unacceptable to remedy the  deficiency, DCLS shall provide written notification to the responsible official  and technical manager of the laboratory, including a detailed explanation of  the basis for such determination. Following receipt of such notification, the  laboratory shall have an additional 30 calendar days to submit a revised  corrective action plan acceptable to DCLS.
    5. DCLS may withdraw  accreditation from a laboratory under 1VAC30-46-100 B 5 if DCLS finds the  second revised corrective action plan to be unacceptable.
    6. The laboratory shall  submit documentation to DCLS that the corrective action set out in its plan has  been completed within the time period specified in the plan.
    7. DCLS, under 1VAC30-46-100 B 6, may withdraw  accreditation from a laboratory if the laboratory fails to implement the corrective actions set out in its  corrective action plan.
    8. DCLS shall grant final  accreditation as specified in 1VAC30-46-70 K upon successful completion of any  required corrective action following the on-site assessment.
    FORMS (1VAC30-46)
    Application for Certification of Environmental  Laboratories, DGS‑21‑156 (eff. 1/09).
    Application for Accreditation under 1VAC30-46 - must be  obtained from program staff at Lab_Cert@dgs.virginia.gov  
    [ Laboratory  Management Qualifications, DGS-21-179 (eff. 2/09)
    Applicant  Laboratory Certification of Compliance, DGS-21-180 (eff. 8/12)
    VELAP  Request for Change of Scope - Request Authorization, DGS-21-185 (eff. 7/13)
    Corrective  Action (CA) Form, DGS-35-192 (rev. 4/13)
    On-site  Assessment Corrective Action Plan (CAP) Form, DGS-35-196 (eff. 5/13)
    Sample  - On-site Assessment Corrective Action Plan (CAP) Form, DGS-35-196 (eff. 5/13)
    Fee  Payment Form for Virginia Laboratory Certification Programs, DGS-35-232 (rev.  1/11)
    Documentation  Requested by VELAP Prior to Laboratory On-site Assessment, DGS-35-233 (rev.  3/13)
    Demonstration  of Capability Certification Statement, DGS-35-234 (eff. 4/10) ]
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (1VAC30-46)
    2003 National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation  Conference (NELAC) Standards, EPA/600/R-04/003, Approved at Ninth NELAC Annual  Meeting, June 5, 2003. 
    The Standards for Environmental Laboratories and  Accreditation Bodies, 2009, The NELAC Institute (TNI), P.O. Box 2439,  Weatherford, TX 76086; www.nelac-institute.org:  
    Volume  1: Management and Technical Requirements for Laboratories Performing  Environmental Analysis (EL-V1-2009)
    Volume  2: General Requirements for Accreditation Bodies Accrediting Environmental  Laboratories (EL-V2-2009)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-3067; Filed August 12, 2015, 1:19 p.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Marine Resources Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative  Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 11 of the Code of Virginia;  however, the commission is required to publish the full text of final  regulations.
         Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-280. Pertaining to  Speckled Trout and Red Drum (amending 4VAC20-280-60). 
    Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: September 1, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator,  Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News,  VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, FAX (757) 247-2002, or email  jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendment removes the Class 1 misdemeanor penalty for  any person fishing recreationally with any gear type in possession of more than  three red drum to conform to Chapter 108 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly, which  repealed § 28.2-304 of the Code of Virginia.
    4VAC20-280-60. Penalty. 
    A. Pursuant to § 28.2-304 of the Code of Virginia, any  person violating any provision of 4VAC20-280-40 C of this chapter shall be  guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. 
    B. Pursuant to § 28.2-903 of the Code of Virginia, any  person violating any provision of this chapter other than 4VAC20-280-40 C  shall be guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor, and a second or subsequent violation  of any provision of this chapter, other than 4VAC20-280-40 C, committed  by the same person within 12 months of a prior violation is a Class 1  misdemeanor. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4484; Filed August 27, 2015, 9:47 a.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Marine Resources Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative  Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 11 of the Code of Virginia;  however, the commission is required to publish the full text of final  regulations.
         Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-720. Pertaining to  Restrictions on Oyster Harvest (amending 4VAC20-720-15, 4VAC20-720-20,  4VAC20-720-40, 4VAC20-720-60 through 4VAC20-720-80). 
    Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: September 1, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator,  Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News,  VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, FAX (757) 247-2002, or email  jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments (i) include effort controls on sale and  resale of specific oyster licenses, with exceptions, and restriction on agents  for public oyster gear licensees; (ii) change coordinates and correct a  direction in oyster harvest area descriptions; (iii) update open oyster harvest  seasons and areas; (iv) set Friday as an additional unlawful day to take,  catch, or possess oysters from public grounds; (v) provide a vessel limit of 24  bushels only to the oyster areas designated as hand scrape gear areas listed in  4VAC20-720-40 B 8 through B 14 and a no-vessel limit for harvesters in hand  tong gear areas listed in 4VAC20-720-40 B 2 through B 7 and B 15; and (vi)  establish a 12-bushel vessel limit in the hand tong gear area listed in  4VAC20-720-40 B 1.
    4VAC20-720-15. Control date, effort control, and agents.
    A. The commission hereby establishes July 1, 2014, as the  control date for management of all public oyster fisheries in Virginia.  Participation by any individual in any public oyster fishery after the control  date will not be considered in the calculation or distribution of oyster  fishing rights should entry limitations be established. Any individual entering  the public oyster fishery after the control date will forfeit any right to  future participation in the public oyster fishery should further entry  limitations be established by the commission.
    B. The sale of oyster hand scrape and oyster dredge licenses  to individuals who have not previously held these licenses shall be suspended  until the commission reinstates the sale of those licenses. The sale of  oyster patent tong licenses to individuals who had not purchased that license  during the period from July 1, 2013, through August 25, 2015, shall be  suspended until the commission reinstates the sale of those licenses.
    C. For any lawful open public oyster harvest season,  commercial licenses for oyster hand scrape and oyster dredge shall only be sold  to those registered commercial fishermen who have been determined by the  commission to be eligible to purchase either of these licenses as of December  1, 2015, for license year 2016, except as described in subsection D of this  section.
    D. It shall be unlawful for any registered commercial  fisherman who paid an oyster resource user fee for using one or more gear types  from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, but during that same time period  reported less than 20 days of harvest by oyster hand scrape or oyster dredge to  purchase either of those gear licenses after November 30, 2015.
    E. Any registered commercial fisherman with an oyster  harvest status, as described in subsection D of this section, may appeal his  license ineligibility to the commission if that person can document that a  medical hardship, active military duty, or a substantial error in his mandatory  harvest reporting records prevented him from reporting at least 20 days of  oyster harvest from using oyster dredge or oyster hand scrape gear.
    F. Beginning January 1, 2016, valid oyster hand scrape and  oyster dredge for commercial licenses may be transferred to an immediate family  member of the licensee. In cases of death or incapacitation of a licensee,  these same licenses may be transferred to a registered commercial fisherman who  paid a current oyster resource user fee for one or more gear types. A  registered commercial fisherman who holds a current oyster resource user fee  for one or more gear types and is a current oyster hand scrape or oyster dredge  licensee may transfer that oyster hand scrape or oyster dredge license. All  such transfers shall be documented by the commission and shall be subject to  the approval of the commission.
    G. No person shall serve as an agent for any public oyster  gear licensee.
    4VAC20-720-20. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Aid to navigation" means any public or private day  beacon, lighted channel marker, channel buoy, lighted channel buoy, or  lighthouse that may be at, or adjacent to, any latitude and longitude used in  area descriptions.
    "Clean culled oyster" means any oyster taken from  natural public beds, rocks, or shoals that is three inches or greater in shell  length.
    "Coan River Area" means that area of the Coan River  inside of Public Grounds 77 and 78 of Northumberland County.
    Public Ground 77 of Northumberland County is located near the  mouth of the Coan River, beginning at a point approximately 2,300 feet  northeast of Honest Point and 1,300 feet southwest of Travis Point, said point  being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 59.5257207' N., Longitude 76°  27.8810639' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 59.3710259' N.,  Longitude 76° 27.9962148' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37°  59.2953830' N., Longitude 76° 28.0468953' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 4,  Latitude 37° 59.3350863' N., Longitude 76° 28.0968837' W.; thence northeasterly  to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 59.3965161' N., Longitude 76° 28.0287342' W.; thence  northwesterly to Corner 6, Latitude 37° 59.4758507' N., Longitude 76°  28.1112280' W.; thence north-northwesterly to Corner 7, Latitude 37°  59.5079401' N., Longitude 76° 28.1230058' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 8,  Latitude 37° 59.5579153' N., Longitude 76° 27.9889429' W.; thence southeasterly  to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.
    Public Ground 78 of Northumberland County is located near the  mouth of the Coan River, beginning at a point approximately 3,420 feet  southeast of Travis Point and 3,260 feet northwest of Great Point, said point  being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 59.4822275' N., Longitude 76° 27.1878637'  W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 59.3824046' N., Longitude  76° 27.1088650' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 59.2283287'  N., Longitude 76° 27.8632901' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 4, Latitude  37° 59.4368502' N., Longitude 76° 27.6868001' W.; thence continuing  northeasterly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 59.5949216' N., Longitude 76°  27.5399436' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point  of beginning.
    "Deep Rock Area" means all public grounds and unassigned  grounds, in that area of the Chesapeake Bay near Gwynn Island, beginning at  Cherry Point at the western-most point of the eastern headland of Kibble Pond  located at Latitude 37° 30.9802148' N., Longitude 76° 17.6764393' W.; thence  northeasterly to the Piankatank River, Flashing Green Channel Light  "3", Latitude 37° 32.3671325' N., Longitude 76° 16.7038334' W.;  thence east-southeasterly to the Rappahannock River Entrance Lighted Buoy  G"1R", Latitude 37° 32.2712833' N., Longitude 76° 11.4813666' W.;  thence southwesterly to the southern-most point of Sandy Point, the northern  headland of "The Hole in the Wall", Latitude 37° 28.1475258' N.,  Longitude 76° 15.8185670' W.; thence northwesterly along the Chesapeake Bay  mean low water line of the barrier islands of Milford Haven, connecting  headland to headland at their eastern-most points, and of Gwynn Island to the  western-most point of the eastern headland of Kibble Pond on Cherry Point, said  point being the point of beginning.
    "Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area" or  "DWS" means that area in the James River near Mulberry Island,  beginning at a point approximately 530 feet west of Deep Water Shoal Light,  said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 08.9433287' N., Longitude  76° 38.3213007' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 09.5734380'  N., Longitude 76° 37.8300582' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude  37° 08.9265524' N., Longitude 76° 37.0574269' W.; thence westerly to Corner 4,  Latitude 37° 08.4466039 N., Longitude 76° 37.4523346' W.; thence northwesterly  to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 08.4491489' N., Longitude 76° 38.0215553' W.; thence  northeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.
    "Great Wicomico River Area" means all public  grounds and unassigned grounds, in that area of the Great Wicomico River,  Ingram Bay, and the Chesapeake Bay, beginning at a point on Sandy Point,  Latitude 37° 49.3269652' N., Longitude 76° 18.3821766' W.; thence easterly to  the southern-most point of Cockrell Point, Latitude 37° 49.2664838' N.,  Longitude 76° 17.3454434' W.; thence easterly following the mean low water line  of Cockrell Point to a point on the boundary of Public Ground 115 at Cash  Point, Latitude 37° 49.2695619' N., Longitude 76° 17.2804046' W.; thence southeasterly  to the gazebo on the pierhead at Fleets Point, Latitude 37° 48.7855824' N.,  Longitude 76° 16.9609311' W.; thence southeasterly to the Great Wicomico  Lighthouse; thence due south to a point due east of the southern-most point of  Dameron Marsh, Latitude 37° 46.6610003' N., Longitude 76° 16.0570007' W.;  thence due east west to the southern-most point of Dameron Marsh,  Latitude 37° 46.6609070' N., Longitude 76° 17.2670707' W.; thence along the  mean low water line of Dameron Marsh, north and west to Garden Point, Latitude  37° 47.2519872' N., Longitude 76° 18.4028142' W.; thence northwesterly to  Windmill Point, Latitude 37° 47.5194547' N., Longitude 76° 18.7132194' W.;  thence northerly along the mean low water to the western headland of Harveys  Creek, Latitude 37° 47.7923573' N., Longitude 76° 18.6881450' W.; thence  east-southeasterly to the eastern headland of Harveys Creek, Latitude 37°  47.7826936' N., Longitude 76° 18.5469879' W.; thence northerly along the mean  low water line, crossing the entrance to Towels Creek at the offshore ends of  the jetties and continuing to Bussel Point, Latitude 37° 48.6879208' N.,  Longitude 76° 18.4670860' W.; thence northwesterly to the northern headland of  Cranes Creek, Latitude 37° 48.8329168' N., Longitude 76° 18.7308073' W.; thence  following the mean low water line northerly to a point on Sandy Point, said  point being the point of beginning.
    "Hand scrape" means any device or instrument with a  catching bar having an inside measurement of no more than 22 inches, which is  used or usable for the purpose of extracting or removing shellfish from a water  bottom or the bed of a body of water. 
    "Hand tong" or "ordinary tong" means any  pincers, nippers, tongs, or similar device used in catching oysters, which  consist of two shafts or handles attached to opposable and complementary  pincers, baskets, or containers operated entirely by hand, from the surface of  the water and has no external or internal power source.
    "James River Area" means those public grounds of  the James River and Nansemond River west of the Monitor Merrimac Memorial  Bridge Tunnel (Route I-664), northeast of the Mills E. Godwin, Jr. Bridge (U.S.  Route 17) on the Nansemond River, and south of the James River Bridge (U.S.  Route 17). 
    "James River Seed Area" means all public  grounds and unassigned grounds in that area of the James River and its  tributaries with a southeastern boundary beginning at a point on the shore on  the south side of the river at Rainbow Farm Point in Isle of Wight County  located at Latitude 37° 00.1965862' N., Longitude 76° 34.0712010' W.; thence  north-northeasterly to a VMRC Marker "STH", Latitude 37° 00.9815328  N., Longitude 76° 33.5955842' W.; thence to a VMRC Marker "SMT", at  Latitude 37° 01.3228160' N., Longitude 76° 33.3887351' W.; thence to the Flashing  Green Channel Light #5, at Latitude 37° 02.3449949' N., Longitude 76°  32.7689936' W.; thence northeasterly to a VMRC Marker "NMT", Latitude  37° 02.7740540' N., Longitude 76° 32.0960864' W.; thence to a VMRC Marker  "NTH" located at Latitude 37° 03.2030055' N., Longitude 76°  31.4231211' W.; thence to a point on the north shore of the river at Blunt  (Blount) Point, in the City of Newport News, located at Latitude 37°  03.3805862' N., Longitude 76° 31.1444562' W.; the northern boundary, being a  straight line, beginning at a point on the shore on the east side of the river  in the City of Newport News, at Latitude 37° 08.4458787' N., Longitude 76°  37.2855533' W.; thence westerly to the southeast corner of the Deep Water Shoal  State Replenishment Seed Area, Latitude 37° 08.4466039' N., Longitude 76°  37.4523346' W.; thence westerly to the southwest corner of the Deep Water Shoal  State Replenishment Seed Area, Latitude 37° 08.4490472' N., Longitude 76°  38.0215554' W.; thence westerly to a point on the shore on the west side of the  river at the mouth of Lawnes Creek in Isle of Wight County, Latitude 37°  08.4582990' N., Longitude 76° 40.2816023' W.
    "Latitude and longitude" means values that are  based upon a geodetic reference system of the North American Datum of 1983  (NAD83). When latitude and longitude are used in any area description, in  conjunction with any physical landmark, to include aids to navigation, the  latitude and longitude value is the legal point defining the boundary.
    "Little Wicomico River" means that area of the  Little Wicomico River inside of Public Ground 43 of Northumberland County,  located in the Little Wicomico River near Bridge Creek, beginning at a point  approximately 150 feet north of Peachtree Point, said point being Corner 1,  located at Latitude 37° 53.2910650' N., Longitude 76° 16.7312926' W.; thence  southwesterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 53.2601877' N., Longitude 76°  16.8662408' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 53.2678470' N.,  Longitude 76°16.8902408' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37°  53.3113148' N., Longitude 76° 16.8211543' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 1,  said corner being the point of beginning.
    "Milford Haven" means that area of Milford Haven  inside of Public Ground 7 of Mathews County, beginning at a point approximately  1,380 feet east of Point Breeze, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude  37° 28.3500000' N., Longitude 76° 16.5000000' W.; thence northeasterly to  Corner 2, Latitude 37° 28.3700000' N., Longitude 76° 16.4700000' W.; thence  southeasterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 28.3500000' N., Longitude 76°  16.4200000' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 28.3200000' N.,  Longitude 76° 16.4500000' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 1, said corner  being the point of beginning.
    "Mobjack Bay Area" means those areas of Mobjack Bay  consisting of Public Ground 25 of Gloucester County (Tow Stake) and that  portion of Public Ground 2 of Mathews County known as Pultz Bar described as:
    Public Ground 25 of Gloucester County, known as Tow Stake, is  located in Mobjack Bay, near the mouth of the Severn River, beginning at a  point approximately 2,880 feet east-northeast of Tow Stake Point, said point  being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 20.3883888' N., Longitude 76°  23.5883836' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 30.5910482' N.,  Longitude 76° 23.2372184' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37°  20.3786971' N., Longitude 76° 22.7241180' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 4,  Latitude 37° 19.8616759' N., Longitude 76° 23.5914937' W.; thence northwesterly  to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 20.0284019' N., Longitude 76° 23.7717423' W.; thence  northeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.
    Public Ground 2 of Mathews County, known as Pultz Bar, is  located in Mobjack Bay, beginning at a point approximately 5,420 feet south of  Minter Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 21.2500000'  N., Longitude 76° 21.3700000' W.; thence easterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37°  21.2700000' N., Longitude 76° 20.9600000' W.; thence southerly to Corner 3,  Latitude 37° 21.0200000' N., Longitude 76° 20.9400000' W.; thence westerly to  Corner 4, Latitude 37° 21.0500000' N., Longitude 76° 21.3300000' W.; thence  northerly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.
    "Nomini Creek Area" means that area of Nomini Creek  inside of Public Grounds 26 and 28 of Westmoreland County.
    Public Ground 26 of Westmoreland County is located in Nomini  Creek, north of Beales Wharf and east of Barnes Point, beginning at a point  approximately 1,400 feet north of Barnes Point, said point being Corner 1,  located at Latitude 38° 07.2690219' N., Longitude 76° 42.6784210' W.; thence  southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 07.0924060' N., Longitude 76°  42.4745767' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 06.8394053' N.,  Longitude 76° 42.6704025, W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 38°  06.8743004' N., Longitude 76° 42.7552151' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 5,  Latitude 38° 07.0569717' N., Longitude 76° 42.5603535' W.; thence northwesterly  to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.
    Public Ground 28 of Westmoreland County is located at the  mouth of Nomini Creek, beginning at a point approximately 50 feet west of White  Oak Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 38° 07.6429987' N.,  Longitude 76° 43.0337082' W.; thence south-southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude  38° 07.2987193' N., Longitude 76° 43.1101420' W.; thence northwesterly to  Corner 3, Latitude 38° 07.7029267' N., Longitude 76° 43.3337762' W.; thence  west to the mean low water line, Latitude 38° 07.7031535' N., Longitude 76°  43.3378345' W.; thence northerly and westerly along the mean low water line of  Nomini Creek to a point southwest of Cedar Island, Latitude 38° 07.8986449' N.,  Longitude 76° 43.6329097' W.; thence northeasterly to a point on the mean low  water line at the southern-most point of Cedar Island, Latitude 38° 07.8986449'  N., Longitude 76° 43.6329097' W.; thence following the mean low water line of  the southern and eastern sides of Cedar Island to a point, Latitude 38°  08.0164430' N., Longitude 76° 43.4773169' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 4,  Latitude 38° 08.0712849' N., Longitude 76° 43.4416606' W.; thence northeasterly  to a point on the northern headland of Nomini Creek at the mean low water line,  said point being Corner 5, Latitude 38° 08.2729626' N., Longitude 76°  43.3105315' W.; thence following the mean low water line of White Point to a  point northwest of Snake Island, Corner 6, Latitude 38° 08.4066960' N.,  Longitude 76° 42.9105565' W.; thence southeast, crossing the mouth of Buckner  Creek, to a point on the mean low water line of Snake Island, Corner 7,  Latitude 38° 08.3698254' N., Longitude 76° 42.8939656' W.; thence southeasterly  following the mean low water line of Snake Island to Corner 8, Latitude 38°  08.2333798' N., Longitude 76° 42.7778877' W.; thence south-southwesterly,  crossing the mouth of Buckner Creek, to Corner 9, Latitude 38° 08.2134371' N.,  Longitude 76° 42.7886409' W.; thence southeasterly to a point on the mean low  water line of the southern headland of Buckner Creek, Corner 10, Latitude 38°  08.1956281' N., Longitude 76° 42.7679625' W.; thence southwesterly following  the mean low water line of Nomini Creek, crossing the mouth of an un-named cove  at the narrowest point between the headlands and continuing to follow the mean  low water line to a point on White Oak Point, Latitude 38° 07.6428228' N.,  Longitude 76° 43.0233530' W.; thence west to Corner 1, said point being the  point of beginning. 
    "Oyster" means any shellfish of the species  Crassostrea virginica.
    "Oyster dredge" means any device having a maximum  weight of 150 pounds with attachments, maximum width of 50 inches, and maximum  tooth length of four inches. 
    "Oyster patent tong" means any patent tong not  exceeding 100 pounds in gross weight, including any attachment other than rope  and with the teeth not to exceed four inches in length.
    "Oyster resource user fee" means a fee that must be  paid each calendar year by anyone who grows, harvests, shucks, packs, or ships  oysters for commercial purposes.
    "Pocomoke Sound Area" means that area of Pocomoke  Sound inside of Public Grounds 9 and 10 of Accomack County.
    Public Ground 9 of Accomack County is located in the Pocomoke  Sound, beginning at a corner on the Maryland-Virginia state line, located in  the Pocomoke Sound approximately 1.06 nautical miles north-northeast of the  northern-most point of North End Point, said point being Corner 1, located at  Latitude 37° 57.2711566' N., Longitude 75° 42.2870790' W. (NAD83); thence  east-northeasterly along the Maryland-Virginia state line to Corner 2, Latitude  37° 57.2896577' N., Longitude 75° 41.9790727' W.; thence southerly to Corner 3,  Latitude 37° 57.2574850' N., Longitude 75° 41.9790730' W.; thence southwesterly  to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 57.2288700' N., Longitude 75° 42.0077287' W.; thence west-southwesterly  to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 57.2034533' N., Longitude 75° 42.1511250' W.; thence  south-southwesterly to Corner 6, Latitude 37° 57.0940590' N., Longitude 75°  42.1935214' W.; thence south-southeasterly to Corner 7, Latitude 37°  57.0551726' N., Longitude 75° 42.1814457' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 8,  Latitude 37° 56.9408327' N., Longitude 75° 42.2957912' W.; thence  south-southwesterly to Corner 9, Latitude 37° 56.6574947' N., Longitude 75°  42.3790819' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 10, Latitude 37° 56.5790952' N.,  Longitude 75° 42.5228752' W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 11, Latitude  37° 56.5712564' N., Longitude 75° 42.5915437' W.; thence south-southeasterly to  Corner 12, Latitude 37° 56.5441067' N., Longitude 75° 42.5869894' W.; thence  southwesterly to Corner 13, Latitude 37° 56.4575045' N., Longitude 75°  42.7458050' W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 14, Latitude 37°  56.2575123' N., Longitude 75° 43.3791097' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner  15, Latitude 37° 55.7408688' N., Longitude 75° 43.7957804' W.; thence westerly  to Corner 16, Latitude 37° 55.7575327' N., Longitude 75° 43.9458298' W.; thence  northwesterly to Corner 17, Latitude 37° 55.8908661' N., Longitude 75°  44.1291309' W.; thence north-northeasterly to Corner 18, Latitude 37°  55.9908639' N., Longitude 75° 44.0791266' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner  19, Latitude 37° 56.1241858' N., Longitude 75° 43.8791328' W.; thence  north-northeasterly to Corner 20, Latitude 37° 56.4075136' N., Longitude 75°  43.7291361' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 21, Latitude 37° 56.8241664' N.,  Longitude 75° 43.2624601' W.; thence north-northeasterly to Corner 22, Latitude  37° 57.0706006' N., Longitude 75° 43.1480402' W.; thence east-northeasterly  along the Maryland-Virginia state line to Corner 1, said corner being the point  of beginning.
    Public Ground 10 of Accomack County is located in the Pocomoke  Sound, beginning at a corner on the Maryland-Virginia state line, located in  the Pocomoke Sound approximately 2.3 nautical miles westerly of the  northern-most point of North End Point, said point being Corner 1, located at  Latitude 37° 56.4741881' N., Longitude 75° 45.7051676' W. (NAD83); thence  east-northeasterly along the Maryland-Virginia state line to Corner 2, Latitude  37° 56.9261140' N., Longitude 75° 43.7679786' W.; thence south-southwesterly to  Corner 3, Latitude 37° 56.1241948' N., Longitude 75° 44.3624962' W.; thence  west-southwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 56.0820561' N., Longitude 75°  44.5826292' W.; thence northerly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 56.1377309' N.,  Longitude 75° 44.5817745' W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 6, Latitude  37° 56.1259751' N., Longitude 75° 44.6226859' W.; thence southwesterly to  Corner 7, Latitude 37° 56.1039335' N., Longitude 75° 44.6692334' W.; thence  southerly to Corner 8, Latitude 37° 56.0643616' N., Longitude 75° 44.6750106'  W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 9, Latitude 37° 55.9742005' N.,  Longitude 75° 45.1458109' W.; thence west-northwesterly to Corner 10, Latitude  37° 56.0741973' N., Longitude 75° 45.8958329' W.; thence north-northwesterly to  Corner 11, Latitude 37° 56.2565760' N., Longitude 75° 46.0000557' W.; thence  northeasterly along the Maryland-Virginia state line to Corner 1, said corner  being the point of beginning.
    "Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Management Area" or  "PTSMA" means the area as defined in § 28.2-524 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    "Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 1" means  all public grounds and unassigned grounds, within an area of the PTSMA, in  Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds, bounded by a line beginning at a point on the  Maryland-Virginia state line, located at Latitude 37° 54.6136000' N., Longitude  75° 53.9739600' W.; thence south to the house on Great Fox Island, Latitude 37°  53.6946500' N., Longitude 75° 53.8898800' W.; thence westerly to a point,  Latitude 37° 53.3633500' N., Longitude 75° 56.5589600' W.; thence south to a  point, Latitude 37° 48.4429100' N., Longitude 75° 56.4883600' W.; thence  easterly to the north end of Watts Island, Latitude 37° 48.7757800' N.,  Longitude 75° 53.5994100' W.; thence northerly to the house on Great Fox  Island, Latitude 37° 53.6946500' N., Longitude 75° 53.8898800' W.; thence  southeasterly to Pocomoke Sound Shoal Flashing Light Red "8",  Latitude 37° 52.4583300' N., Longitude 75° 49.4000000' W.; thence southeasterly  to Messongo Creek Entrance Buoy Green Can "1", Latitude 37°  52.1000000' N., Longitude 75° 47.8083300' W.; thence southeast to Guilford  Flats Junction Light Flashing 2+1 Red "GF", Latitude 37° 50.9533300'  N., Longitude 75° 46.6416700' W.; thence southerly to a point on a line from  Guilford Flats Junction Light to the northern-most point of Russell Island,  where said line intersects the PTSMA boundary, Latitude 37° 48.4715943' N.,  Longitude 75° 46.9955932' W.; thence clockwise following the PTSMA boundary to  a point on the Maryland-Virginia state line, said point being the point of  beginning.
    "Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 2" means  all public grounds and unassigned grounds, within an area of the PTSMA, in  Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds, bounded by a line beginning at the house on Great  Fox Island, located at Latitude 37° 53.6946500' N., Longitude 75° 53.8898800'  W.; thence southerly to the north end of Watts Island, Latitude 37° 48.7757800'  N., Longitude 75° 53.5994100' W.; thence westerly to a point, Latitude 37°  48.4429100' N., Longitude 75° 56.4883600' W.; thence northerly to a point,  Latitude 37° 53.3633500' N., Longitude 75° 56.5589600' W.; thence easterly to  the house on Great Fox Island, said house being the point of beginning. Also,  Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 2 shall include all public grounds  and unassigned grounds in the PTSMA in Pocomoke Sound bounded by a line  beginning at a point on the Maryland-Virginia state line, Latitude 37°  54.6136000' N., Longitude 75° 53.9739600' W.; thence following the PTSMA  boundary clockwise to a point on the line from the northern-most point of  Russell Island to Guilford Flats Junction Light Flashing 2+1 Red  "GF", where said line intersects the PTSMA boundary, Latitude 37°  48.4715943' N., Longitude 75° 46.9955932' W.; thence northerly to Guilford  Flats Junction Light Flashing 2+1 Red "GF", Latitude 37° 50.9533300'  N., Longitude 75° 46.6416700' W.; thence northwesterly to Messongo Creek  Entrance Buoy Green Can "1", Latitude 37° 52.1000000' N., Longitude  75° 47.8083300' W.; thence northwesterly to Pocomoke Sound Shoal Flashing Light  Red "8", Latitude 37° 52.4583300' N., Longitude 75° 49.4000000' W.;  thence northwesterly to the house on Great Fox Island, Latitude 37° 53.6946500'  N., Longitude 75° 53.8898800' W.; thence northerly to a point on the  Maryland-Virginia state line, said point being the point of beginning.
    "Public oyster ground" means all those grounds  defined in § 28.2-551 of the Code of Virginia or by any other acts of the  General Assembly pertaining to those grounds, all those grounds set aside by  court order, and all those grounds set aside by order of the Marine Resources  Commission, and may be redefined by any of these legal authorities. 
    "Rappahannock River Area 7" means all public  grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, bounded downstream by a line  from Rogue Point, located at Latitude 37° 40.0400000' N., Longitude 76°  32.2530000' W.; thence west-northwesterly to Flashing Red Buoy "8",  Latitude 37° 40.1580000' N., Longitude 76° 32.9390000' W.; thence southwesterly  to Balls Point, Latitude 37° 39.3550000' N., Longitude 76° 34.4440000' W.; and  bounded upstream by a line from Punchbowl Point, Latitude 37° 44.6750000' N.,  Longitude 76° 37.3250000' W.; thence southeasterly to Monaskon Point, Latitude  37° 44.0630000' N., Longitude 76° 34.1080000' W.
    "Rappahannock River Area 8" means all public  grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, bounded downstream by a line  from Monaskon Point, located at Latitude 37° 44.0630000' N., Longitude 76°  34.1080000' W.; thence northwesterly to Punchbowl Point, Latitude 37°  44.6750000' N., Longitude 76° 37.3250000' W.; and bounded upstream by a line  from Jones Point, Latitude 37° 46.7860000' N., Longitude 76° 40.8350000' W.;  thence north-northwesterly to Sharps Point, Latitude 37° 49.3640000' N.,  Longitude 76° 42.0870000' W.
    "Rappahannock River Area 9" means all public  grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, bounded downstream by a line  from Sharps Point, located at Latitude 37° 49.3640000' N., Longitude 76°  42.0870000' W.; thence south-southeasterly to Jones Point, Latitude 37°  46.7860000' N., Longitude 76° 40.8350000' W.; and bounded upstream by the  Thomas J. Downing Bridge (U.S. Route 360).
    "Rappahannock River Rotation Area 1” means all  public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River and Chesapeake Bay,  bounded by a line offshore and across the mouth of the Rappahannock River from  a point on the mean low water line of Windmill Point, located at Latitude  37° 36.8200000' N., Longitude 76° 16.9460000' W.; thence southeast to Windmill  Point Light, Latitude 37° 35.7930000' N., Longitude 76° 14.1800000' W.; thence  southwesterly to Stingray Point Light, Latitude 37° 33.6730000' N., Longitude  76° 16.3620000' W.; thence westerly to a point on the mean low water line of  Stingray Point, Latitude 37° 33.6920000' N., Longitude 76° 17.9860000' W.; and  bounded upstream by a line from the mean low water line west of Broad Creek,  Latitude 37° 33.9520000' N., Longitude 76° 19.3090000' W.; thence northeasterly  to a VMRC Buoy on the Baylor line, Latitude 37° 34.5390000' 34.5310000'  N., Longitude 76° 19.0220000' 19.1430000' W.; thence  northeasterly to a VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37° 34.6830000' N., Longitude 76°  19.1000000' W.; thence northwesterly to a VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37° 35.0170000'  N., Longitude 76° 19.4500000' W.; thence northwesterly to Sturgeon Bar Light  “7R”, Latitude 37° 35.1500000' N., Longitude 76° 19.7330000' W.; thence  continuing northwesterly to Mosquito Point Light “8R”, Latitude 37° 36.1000000'  N., Longitude 76° 21.3000000' W.; thence northwesterly to the southern-most  corner of the house on Mosquito Point, Latitude 37° 36.5230000' N., Longitude  76° 21.5950000' W.
    "Rappahannock River Rotation Area 2" means all public  grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, bounded downstream by a line  from the southern-most corner of the house on Mosquito Point, located at  Latitude 37° 36.5230000' N., Longitude 76° 21.5950000' W.; thence southeast to  Mosquito Point Light "8R", Latitude 37° 36.1000000' N., Longitude 76°  21.3000000' W.; thence continuing southeasterly to Sturgeon Bar Beacon  "7R", Latitude 37° 35.1500000' N., Longitude 76° 19.7330000' W.;  thence west-southwesterly to a VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37° 34.9330000' N., Longitude  76° 21.0500000' W.; thence southwesterly to a VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37°  34.8830000' N., Longitude 76° 21.1000000' W.; thence southwesterly to a pier  west of Hunting Creek at Grinels, Latitude 37° 34.4360000' N., Longitude 76°  26.2880000' W.; and bounded on the upstream by a line from Mill Creek Channel  Marker "4", Latitude 37° 35.0830000' N., Longitude 76° 26.9500000'  W.; thence northeasterly to Mill Creek Channel Marker "2", Latitude  37° 35.4830000' N., Longitude 76° 24.5670000' W.; thence northeasterly to the  southern-most corner of the house on Mosquito Point, Latitude 37° 36.5230000'  N., Longitude 76° 21.5950000'0 W.
    "Rappahannock River Rotation Area 3" means all  public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, beginning from the  north channel fender at the Robert O. Norris, Jr. Bridge, located at Latitude  37° 37.4830000' N., Longitude 76° 25.3450000' W.; thence southeast to the  southern-most corner of the house on Mosquito Point, Latitude 37° 36.5230000'  N., Longitude 76° 21.5950000' W.; thence southwest to Mill Creek Channel Marker  "2", Latitude 37° 35.4830000' N., Longitude 76° 24.5670000' W.;  thence southwesterly to Mill Creek Channel Marker "4", Latitude 37°  35.0830000' N., Longitude 76° 24.9500000' W.; thence northeasterly to Parrotts Creek  Channel Marker "1", Latitude 37° 36.0330000' N., Longitude 76°  25.4170000' W.; thence northerly to VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37° 36.3330000' N.,  Longitude 76° 25.2000000' W.; thence northerly to the north channel fender of  the Robert O. Norris, Jr. Bridge, said point being the point of beginning.
    "Rappahannock River Rotation Area 4" means all  public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, Corrotoman River and  Carter Creek, beginning at the White Stone end of the Robert O. Norris, Jr.  Bridge (State Route 3), located at Latitude 37° 38.1290000' N., Longitude 76°  24.7220000' W.; thence along said bridge to the north channel fender, Latitude  37° 37.4830000' N., Longitude 76° 25.3450000' W.; thence westerly to the VMRC  Buoy "5-4", Latitude 37° 38.0050000' N., Longitude 76° 30.0280000'  W.; thence northerly to Old House Point, Latitude 37° 39.1390000' N., Longitude  76° 29.6850000' W.; thence northeasterly to Ball Point, Latitude 37°  41.6600000' N., Longitude 76° 28.6320000' W.; thence southeasterly to VMRC reef  marker "Ferry Bar – North", Latitude 37° 40.3000000' N., Longitude  76° 28.5000000' W.; thence southwesterly to VMRC reef marker "Ferry Bar –  South", Latitude 37° 40.1670000' N., Longitude 76° 28.5830000' W.; thence  southeasterly to a duck blind west of Corrotoman Point, Latitude 37°  39.8760000' N., Longitude 76° 28.4200000' W.; thence southerly to VMRC Buoy  "543", Latitude 37° 39.2670000' N., Longitude 76° 27.8500000' W.;  thence southerly to VMRC Buoy "Drumming-West", Latitude 37°  38.8830000' N., Longitude 76° 27.6830000' W.; thence southerly to VMRC Buoy  "Drumming-East", Latitude 37° 38.8330000' N., Longitude 76°  27.5670000' W.; thence northeasterly to Orchard Point, Latitude 37° 38.9240000'  N., Longitude 76° 27.1260000' W.
    "Rappahannock River Rotation Area 5" means all  public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, beginning at the Greys  Point end of the Robert O. Norris, Jr. Bridge (State Route 3), located at  Latitude 37° 36.8330000' N., Longitude 76° 25.9990000' W.; thence northeasterly  along the bridge to the north channel fender, Latitude 37° 37.4830000' N.,  Longitude 76° 25.3450000' W.; thence west-northwesterly to VMRC Buoy  "5-4", Latitude 37° 38.0050000' N., Longitude 76° 30.0280000' W.;  thence westerly to Buoy "R6", Latitude 37° 38.0330000' N., Longitude  76° 30.2830000' W.; thence south to the eastern headland of Whiting Creek,  Latitude 37° 36.6580000' N., Longitude 76° 30.3120000' W.
    "Rappahannock River Rotation Area 6" means all  public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, beginning on the  eastern headland of Whiting Creek, located at Latitude 37° 36.6580000' N.,  Longitude 76° 30.3120000' W.; thence north to Buoy "R6", Latitude 37°  38.0330000' N., Longitude 76° 30.2830000' W.; thence northwesterly to VMRC  White House Sanctuary Buoy, Latitude 37° 38.1500000' N., Longitude 76°  30.5330000' W.; thence northwesterly to VMRC Towles Point Area Buoy, Latitude  37° 38.8330000' N., Longitude 76° 31.5360000' W.; thence northwesterly to  Flashing Red Buoy "8" off Rogue Point, Latitude 37° 40.1580000' N.,  Longitude 76° 32.9390000' W.; thence southwesterly to Balls Point, Latitude 37°  39.3550000' N., Longitude 76° 34.4440000' W.
    "Seed oyster" means any oyster taken by any person  from natural beds, rocks, or shoals that is more than 30 days from harvest for  human consumption.
    "Thomas Rock Area" means all public grounds and  unassigned grounds, in that area of the James River, with an eastern boundary  being the upstream side of the James River Bridge (U.S. Route 17), and a  western boundary being a line drawn from the south side of the river at Rainbow  Farm Point, a point on the shore, in line with VMRC Markers "STH" and  "SMT", located at Latitude 37° 00.1965862' N., Longitude 76°  34.0712010' W.; thence north-northeasterly to a VMRC Marker "STH", Latitude  37° 00.9815328 N., Longitude 76° 33.5955842' W.; thence to a VMRC Marker  "SMT", at Latitude 37° 01.3228160' N., Longitude 76° 33.3887351' W.;  thence to the Flashing Green Channel Light #5, at Latitude 37° 02.3449949' N.,  Longitude 76° 32.7689936' W.; thence northeasterly to a VMRC Marker  "NMT", Latitude 37° 02.7740540' N., Longitude 76° 32.0960864' W.;  thence to a VMRC Marker "NTH" located at Latitude 37° 03.2030055' N.,  Longitude 76° 31.4231211' W.; thence to a point on the north shore of the river  at Blunt (Blount) Point, said point being in line with VMRC Markers  "NMT" and "NTH" and located at Latitude 37° 03.3805862' N.,  Longitude 76° 31.1444562' W.
    "Unassigned ground" means all those grounds defined  by any other acts of the General Assembly pertaining to those grounds, all  those grounds set aside by court order, and all those grounds set aside by  order of the Marine Resources Commission, and may be redefined by any of these  legal authorities. 
    "Upper Chesapeake Bay - Blackberry Hangs Area"  means all public grounds and unassigned grounds, in that area of the Chesapeake  Bay, bounded by a line, beginning at a point approximately 300 feet east of the  mean low water line of the Chesapeake Bay and approximately 1,230 feet  southwest of the end of the southern-most stone jetty at the mouth of the  Little Wicomico River, said point being Corner 1, Latitude 37° 53.1811193' N.,  Longitude 76° 14.1740146' W.; thence east-southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude  37° 52.9050025' N., Longitude 76° 11.9357257' W.; thence easterly to Corner 3,  Latitude 37° 52.9076552' N., Longitude 76° 11.6098145' W.; thence southwesterly  to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 52.8684955' N., Longitude 76° 11.6402444' W.; thence  east-southeasterly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 52.7924853' N., Longitude 76° 11.0253352'  W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 6, Latitude 37° 49.4327736' N., Longitude  76° 13.2409959' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 7, Latitude 37° 50.0560555'  N., Longitude 76° 15.0023234' W.; thence north-northeasterly to Corner 8,  Latitude 37° 50.5581183' N., Longitude 76° 14.8772805' W.; thence  north-northeasterly to Corner 9, Latitude 37° 52.0260950' N., Longitude 76°  14.5768550' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point  of beginning.
    "Yeocomico River Area" means that area of the North  West Yeocomico River, inside Public Ground 8 of Westmoreland County and those  areas of the South Yeocomico River inside Public Grounds 102, 104, and 107 of  Northumberland County.
    Public Ground 8 of Westmoreland County is located in the North  West Yeocomico River, beginning at a point approximately 1,455 feet northeast  of Crow Bar and 1,850 feet northwest of White Point, said point being Corner 1,  located at Latitude 38° 02.7468214' N., Longitude 76° 33.0775726' W.; thence  southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 02.7397202' N., Longitude 76°  33.0186286' W.; thence southerly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 02.6021644' N.,  Longitude 76° 33.0234175' W.; thence westerly to Corner 4, Latitude 38°  02.6006669' N., Longitude 76° 33.0824799' W.; thence northerly to Corner 1,  said corner being the point of beginning.
    Public Ground 102 of Northumberland County is located in the  South Yeocomico River, beginning at a point approximately 630 feet south of  Mundy Point and 1,745 feet southwest of Tom Jones Point, said point being  Corner 1, located at Latitude 38° 01.2138059' N., Longitude 76° 32.5577201' W.;  thence east-northeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 01.2268644' N., Longitude  76° 32.4497849' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 01.1091209'  N., Longitude 76° 32.5591101' W.; thence northerly to Corner 1, said corner  being the point of beginning.
    Public Ground 104 of Northumberland County is located in the  South Yeocomico River, beginning at a point approximately 670 feet north of  Walker Point and 1,900 feet northwest of Palmer Point, said point being Corner  1, located at Latitude 38° 00.8841841' N., Longitude 76° 32.6106215' W.; thence  southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 00.8609163' N., Longitude 76°  32.5296302' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 00.6693092' N.,  Longitude 76° 32.4161866' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 38°  00.6418466' N., Longitude 76° 32.5394849' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 1,  said corner being the point of beginning.
    Public Ground 107 of Northumberland County is located in the  South Yeocomico River, beginning at a point approximately 1,000 feet southwest  of Barn Point and 1,300 feet northwest of Tom Jones Point, said point being  Corner 1, located at Longitude 38° 01.1389367' N., Latitude 76° 32.3425617' W.;  thence east-southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 01.4106421' N., Longitude  76° 32.1077962' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 01.2717197'  N., Longitude 76° 32.2917989' W.; thence north-northwesterly to Corner 1, said corner  being the point of beginning.
    "York River Rotation Area 1" means all public  grounds in the York River, within Gloucester County, between a line from Upper  York River Flashing Red Channel Marker "8", Latitude 37° 17.8863666'  N., Longitude 76° 34.6534166' W.; thence northeasterly to Red Day Marker  "2" at the mouth of Cedar Bush Creek, Latitude 37° 18.6422166' N.,  Longitude 76° 33.8216000' W.; upstream to a line from the Flashing Yellow VIMS  Data Buoy "CB", Latitude 37° 20.4670000' N., Longitude 76° 37.4830000'  W.; thence northeasterly to the inshore end of the wharf at Clay Bank. 
    "York River Rotation Area 2" means all public  grounds in the York River, within Gloucester County, from the George P. Coleman  Memorial Bridge (U.S. Route 17), upstream to a line from Upper York River  Flashing Red Channel Marker "8", Latitude 37° 17.8863666' N.,  Longitude 76° 34.6534166' W.; thence northeasterly to Red Day Marker  "2" at the mouth of Cedar Bush Creek, Latitude 37° 18.6422166' N.,  Longitude 76° 33.8216000' W.
    4VAC20-720-40. Open oyster harvest season and areas. 
    A. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest oysters  from public and unassigned grounds outside of the seasons and areas set forth  in this section.
    B. It shall be unlawful to harvest clean cull oysters from  the public oyster grounds and unassigned grounds except during the lawful  seasons and from the lawful areas as described in the following subdivisions of  this subsection.
    1. James River Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal State  Replenishment Seed Area: October 1, 2014 2015, through April 30, 2015  2016.
    2. James River Area and the Thomas Rock Area (James River):  November 1, 2014, through January 31, 2015 Milford Haven: December 1,  2015, through February 29, 2016.
    3. York River Rotation Area 1: January 1, 2015, through  February 28, 2015 Rappahannock River Area 9: November 1, 2015, through  December 31, 2015.
    4. Milford Haven: December 1, 2014, through February 28,  2015 Little Wicomico River: October 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015.
    5. Deep Rock Area: December 1, 2014, through February 28,  2015 Coan River: October 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015.
    6. Rappahannock River Rotation Area 1: October 1, 2014,  through November 30, 2014 Yeocomico River: October 1, 2015, through  December 31, 2015.
    7. Rappahannock River Rotation Area 6: November 1, 2014,  through December 31, 2014 Nomini Creek: October 1, 2015, through  December 31, 2015.
    8. Rappahannock River Area 7: December 1, 2014, through  January 31, 2015 Mobjack Bay Area: January 1, 2016, through January 31,  2016.
    9. Rappahannock River Area 8: January 1, 2015, through  February 28, 2015 Rotation Area 5: October 1, 2015, through November 30,  2015.
    10. Rappahannock River Area 9: November 1, 2014, through  December 31, 2014 Rotation Area 3: November 1, 2015, through December  31, 2015.
    11. Great Wicomico River Area: December 1, 2014 2015,  through January 31, 2015 2016.
    12. Upper Chesapeake Bay - Blackberry Hangs Area: December 1, 2014  2015, through January 31, 2015 2016.
    13. Little Wicomico River: October 1, 2014, through  December 31, 2014 James River Area and the Thomas Rock Area (James  River): November 1 2015, through December 31, 2015, and March 1, 2016, through  March 31, 2016.
    14. Coan River: October 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014  Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 1: December 1, 2015, through  February 29, 2016.
    15. Yeocomico River: October 1, 2014, through December 31,  2014 Deep Rock Area: December 1, 2015, through February 29, 2016.
    16. Nomini Creek: October 1, 2014, through December 31,  2014 Seaside of the Eastern Shore (for clean cull oysters only):  November 1, 2015, through March 31, 2016.
    17. Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 2: December  1, 2014, through February 28, 2015.
    18. Seaside of the Eastern Shore (for clean cull oysters  only): November 1, 2014, through March 31, 2015.
    C. It shall be unlawful to harvest seed oysters from the  public oyster grounds or unassigned grounds, except during the lawful seasons.  The harvest of seed oysters from the lawful areas is described in the following  subdivisions of this subsection.
    1. James River Seed Area: October 1, 2014 2015,  through May 31, 2015 2016.
    2. Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area: October 1, 2014  2015, through May 31, 2015 2016.
    4VAC20-720-60. Day and time limit.
    A. It shall be unlawful to take, catch, or possess oysters on  Saturday and Sunday from the public oyster grounds or unassigned grounds in the  waters of the Commonwealth of Virginia, for commercial purposes, except that  this provision shall not apply to any person harvesting no more than one bushel  per day by hand or ordinary tong for household use only during the season when  the public oyster grounds or unassigned grounds are legally open for harvest. 
    B. From October 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, it shall  be unlawful to take, catch, or possess oysters on any Friday from the public  oyster grounds or unassigned grounds described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 9 through B  14.
    C. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest or  attempt to harvest oysters prior to sunrise or after 2 p.m. from the areas  described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 1 through 17 B 15 and 4VAC20-720-40  C. In addition, it shall be unlawful for any boat with an oyster dredge aboard  to leave the dock until one hour before sunrise or return to the dock after  sunset, and it shall be unlawful for any boat with a hand scrape aboard to  leave the dock until one-half hour before sunrise or return to the dock after  sunset.
    4VAC20-720-70. Gear restrictions. 
    A. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest oysters in  the James River Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment  Seed Area;, the Rappahannock River Area 9;, Milford  Haven, Little Wicomico River, Coan River, Nomini Creek and Yeocomico River,  except by hand tong. It shall be unlawful for any person to have a hand scrape  on board a boat that is harvesting or attempting to harvest oysters from public  grounds by hand tong.
    B. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters from the seaside  of the Eastern Shore area by any gear, except by hand.
    C. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters in the  Rappahannock River Rotation Areas 1 and 6 Areas 3 and 5, the  Rappahannock River Areas 7 and 8, James River Area, Thomas Rock Area, Upper  Chesapeake Bay Blackberry Hangs Area, York River Rotation Area 1 Mobjack  Bay Area, and Great Wicomico River Area, except by hand scrape. 
    D. It shall be unlawful for any person to have more than one  hand scrape on board any boat that is harvesting oysters or attempting to  harvest oysters from public grounds. It shall be unlawful for any person to  have a hand tong on board a boat that is harvesting or attempting to harvest  oysters from public grounds by hand scrape.
    E. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters from the Pocomoke  and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 2 Area 1, except by an oyster  dredge.
    F. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters from the Deep Rock  Area, except by an oyster patent tong. 
    4VAC20-720-75. Gear license. 
    A. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish,  from the hand scrape areas in the Rappahannock River, James River, Upper  Chesapeake Bay, York River Mobjack Bay Area, and Great Wicomico  River, unless that person has first obtained a valid hand scrape license. 
    B. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish  with an oyster dredge from the public oyster grounds in the Pocomoke and  Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 2 Area 1, unless that person has  first obtained a valid oyster dredge license. 
    C. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish  with a patent tong from the public oyster grounds in the Deep Rock Area, unless  that person has first obtained a valid oyster patent tong license.
    D. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish  with a hand tong from the public oyster grounds, as described in 4VAC20-720-70  A, unless that person has first obtained a valid hand tong license.
    E. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest  shellfish by hand from the public oyster grounds on the Seaside of the Eastern  Shore, as described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 16, unless that person has first obtained  a valid oyster by hand license.
    4VAC20-720-80. Quotas and harvest limits.
    A. The lawful daily harvest and possession limit of clean  cull oysters harvested from the areas described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 2 through 17  shall be eight bushels per registered commercial fisherman licensee who has  paid the oyster resource user fee. It shall be unlawful for any registered  commercial fisherman licensee to harvest or possess more than eight bushels per  day. The lawful daily vessel limit of clean cull oysters harvested from the  areas described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 2 through 17 shall be determined as the  number of registered commercial fisherman licensees who have paid the oyster  resource user fee on board the vessel multiplied by eight bushels with a  maximum daily landing and possession limit of 24 bushels of clean cull oysters  per vessel. It shall be unlawful to possess on board any vessel or to land more  than the lawful daily vessel limit of clean cull oysters described in this  subsection.
    A. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not  possess a valid commercial fisherman's registration license and a valid gear  license required by harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not  paid the current year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess more than  eight bushels per day. It shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily  vessel limit of 24 bushels clean cull oysters harvested from the areas  described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 8 through 14.
    B. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not  possess a valid commercial fisherman's registration license and a valid gear  license required by harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not  paid the current year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess more  than eight bushels per day. It shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a  daily vessel limit for clean cull oysters harvested from the areas described in  4VAC20-720-40 B 2 through 7 and 15, whereby that vessel limit shall equal the  number of registered commercial fisherman licensees on board the vessel who  hold a valid gear license and who have paid the oyster resource user fee  multiplied by eight.
    C. It shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily  vessel limit for clean cull oysters harvested from the areas described in  4VAC20-720-40 B 1, whereby that vessel limit shall equal the number of  registered commercial fisherman licensees on board the vessel who hold a valid  gear license and who have paid the oyster resource user fee multiplied by 12.  It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a valid commercial  fisherman's registration license and hold a valid gear license required by  harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not paid the current  year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess more than 12 bushels per  day. 
    B. D. In the Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds  Rotation Area 2 1, no blue crab bycatch is allowed. It shall be  unlawful to possess on board any vessel more than 250 hard clams.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4483; Filed August 27, 2015, 9:46 a.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Marine Resources Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative  Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 11 of the Code of Virginia;  however, the commission is required to publish the full text of final  regulations.
         Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-1300. Living  Shoreline Group 1 General Permit for Certain Living Shoreline  Treatments Involving Tidal Wetlands (adding 4VAC20-1300-10 through  4VAC20-1300-50). 
    Statutory Authority: § 28.2-104.1 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: September 1, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator,  Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News,  VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    This regulation establishes a general permit that  authorizes and encourages the use of living shorelines as the preferred alternative  for stabilizing tidal shorelines. The regulation provides for the permitting  processes for living shoreline treatments by establishing procedures and  qualifications for the general permit and sets forth specific criteria and  permit conditions.
    CHAPTER 1300
  LIVING SHORELINE GROUP 1 GENERAL PERMIT FOR CERTAIN LIVING SHORELINE TREATMENTS  INVOLVING TIDAL WETLANDS
    4VAC20-1300-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this general permit is to provide a  streamlined permitting process as an incentive to encourage property owners to  utilize a living shoreline approach as appropriate, manage shoreline erosion,  and promote the planting and growth of tidal wetland vegetation to restore or  enhance ecosystem services. The techniques and conditions contained in this  general permit are designed to limit the applicability of the permit to  situations where the projects are most likely to be successful, and so as to  limit the potential for adverse impacts on the environment and adjoining or  nearby properties. 
    Approval under this general permit constitutes the  commission or local wetlands board authorization required in accordance with § 28.2-1306 of the Code of Virginia. This general permit shall not conflict with  or obviate the need to comply with any other federal, state, or local permitting  requirement or authorization governing the proposed activity.
    4VAC20-1300-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Chairman" means the chairman of a local  wetlands board or his designee.
    "Commission" or "VMRC" means the  Virginia Marine Resources Commission.
    "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Marine  Resources or his designee.
    "Fiber log" means biodegradable fibrous material  often composed of coconut fiber that is formed into rolls of various lengths  and thicknesses used for erosion control and as a growing medium.
    "Fiber mat" means a biodegradable fibrous  material woven mat often composed of coconut fiber that is formed into mats of  various sizes and thicknesses used for erosion control and as a growing medium.  
    "Grazing protection" means temporary structures  consisting of wooden stakes, string lines, netting, and metal cages intended to  protect planted wetland vegetation and introduced ribbed mussels from  predation.
    "Joint Permit Application" means the current  Joint Permit Application utilized by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Virginia  Marine Resources Commission, Department of Environmental Quality, and local  wetlands boards to evaluate projects involving submerged lands, wetlands, and  coastal primary sand dunes and beaches for permit review, and any abbreviated  application developed specifically for this general permit.
    "Living shoreline" means a shoreline management  practice that provides erosion control and water quality benefits; protects,  restores, or enhances shoreline habitat; and maintains coastal processes  through the strategic placement of plants, stone, sand fill, and other  structural and organic materials.
    "Ribbed mussels" means the Atlantic ribbed  mussel (Geukensia demissa).
    "Shell bags" means net bags of various sizes  filled with oyster or clam shells used for erosion control and as a substrate  for other organisms. 
    "Tidal wetlands" or "wetlands" means  the jurisdictional area meeting the definition contained in § 28.2-1302 of  the Code of Virginia.
    "Wetlands board" or "board" means a  local wetlands board created pursuant to § 28.2-1303 of the Code of  Virginia.
    "Wetlands vegetation" means the vegetative  species listed in § 28.2-1302 of the Code of Virginia.
    4VAC20-1300-30. Applicability and procedures.
    A. This general permit shall authorize the placement of  certain specified sand fill, fiber logs, fiber mats, shell bags, and temporary  grazing protection in tidal wetlands, landward of mean low water, to improve  the growing conditions for wetland vegetation. The establishment of oysters and  ribbed mussels may be incorporated into the project design.
    B. To qualify for this general permit the applicant must  submit to VMRC a complete Joint Permit Application or special abbreviated  application and any supplemental information deemed necessary by the commission  or the applicable wetlands board chairman to fully evaluate the proposal. The  commissioner will oversee administration of the provisions of the general  permit.
    VMRC will forward the application to the Norfolk District  of the Corps of Engineers, the appropriate local wetlands board, and the  Department of Environmental Quality.
    C. The wetlands board and VMRC will review the application  concurrently to determine whether:
    1. The application is sufficiently complete to allow  evaluation.
    2. The project satisfactorily meets the general permit  criteria.
    3. The general permit process should be utilized.
    If both the wetlands board chairman and the commission  determine the proposal affirmatively satisfies all three requirements specified  in subdivisions 1, 2, and 3 of this subsection, the commissioner shall issue  the general permit. No public interest review or notification of adjoining  property owners shall be required and there shall be no application processing  fee or permit fee. In the event that no comment or request for additional  information is received from a wetlands board chairman or designee within 21  days of being provided the application, it shall be assumed the wetlands board  has no objection to the issuance of the general permit, and the commissioner  may issue the permit.
    Should either the wetlands board chairman or the  commission determine that the proposal does not satisfy all three requirements  specified in subdivisions 1, 2, and 3 of this subsection, the general permit  process shall not be utilized; however, the application may be supplemented  with additional information deemed necessary to qualify for the general permit,  or the proposal could be reviewed in accordance with the standard provisions of  the wetlands zoning ordinance contained in Chapter 13 (§ 28.2-1300 et  seq.) of Title 28.2 of the Code of Virginia. Issuance of the general permit  does not obviate the requirement for the permittee to comply with all other  applicable local, state, and federal laws and regulations, including those laws  and regulations administered by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, the  Chesapeake Bay Preservation Act (§ 62.1-44.15:67 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia), erosion and sediment control ordinances, stormwater management programs,  and the Virginia Water Protection Permit programs.
    4VAC20-1300-40. Specific criteria.
    A. The maximum fetch at the project site shall not exceed  1/2 mile in any shore angle direction. Coarse sand should be utilized for any  required fill. At a minimum the sand shall contain less than 10% very fine  material (passing a #100 sieve). The sand shall not be placed in a manner that  raises the elevation of any existing wetland area above the elevation of  jurisdictional tidal wetlands (1.5 times the mean tide range above mean low  water).
    B. Appropriate wetland vegetation shall be planted in all  wetland areas on which sand is placed where the resulting substrate elevation  is appropriate to support the growth of wetlands vegetation. If deemed  necessary to improve wetland habitat or resiliency, existing wetlands  vegetation may be filled provided the project does not result in a net loss in  aerial coverage of wetlands vegetation. Appropriate wetlands vegetation  includes only those species listed in the tidal wetlands ordinance  (§ 28.2-1302 of the Code of Virginia) that are anticipated to survive at  the project site elevation and normal salinity regime. The common reed, Phragmites  sp., shall not typically be considered appropriate wetlands vegetation for  planting purposes. 
    C. Fiber logs, fiber mats, and shell bags may be utilized  within the jurisdictional tidal wetland area to create a sill or to otherwise  support the growth of wetlands vegetation, provided they are not placed on  existing vegetation and are not stacked to a height that exceeds mean high  water. The bags, mats, and fiber logs shall be maintained and promptly removed  should they become displaced or unexpectedly damaged. If available, appropriate  biodegradable materials are encouraged. The replacement of failed fiber logs,  mats, or shell bags in the same location shall be allowed without the need to  receive additional authorization. Additional sand may be placed to replace any  lost sand or to adjust for substrate settlement, provided the elevation of the  originally proposed grade is not exceeded. 
    D. Temporary grazing protection may be utilized to protect  wetlands vegetation and ribbed mussels until they become established. The  protective structures shall be removed once the vegetation or mussels are  established. Such grazing protection is encouraged and should be  considered in the project design. Any requested grazing protection shall be  specified in the permit application.
    E. The permittee agrees to notify the commission upon  completion of the project and to provide a brief monitoring report at the end  of the first full growing season following planting and after the second year  of establishment. The monitoring shall be undertaken between June and September  of each year and shall include at a minimum the permit number, representative  photos of the site, and a brief statement concerning the success of the  project. Additional documentation is encouraged to allow improved evaluation of  the techniques utilized.
    F. Any vegetated wetlands established under this general  permit shall not be cut or harvested. Areas shall be replanted as necessary to  ensure there is at least no net loss of wetland vegetation within the project  area during the term of the permit. If necessary to promote the establishment  of wetlands vegetation, additional sand may be placed to restore the originally  proposed elevation grade.
    G. Any measures taken to eradicate invasive species at the  project site associated with the living shoreline activity, including  Phragmites sp., shall be noted in the permit application or conducted in  accordance with a plan evaluated and approved by the appropriate wetlands board  or locality. Such plans shall include measures to revegetate the area with  appropriate native wetlands vegetation.
    H. All activities undertaken in accordance with the  general permit are subject to the enforcement and penalty provisions contained  in Article 4 (§ 28.2-1316 et seq.) of Chapter 13 of Title 28.2 of the Code  of Virginia. Failure to comply with any criteria or condition of the general  permit may constitute a violation of the permit.
    4VAC20-1300-50. Permit conditions.
    A. This permit grants no authority to the permittee to  encroach on property rights, including riparian rights, of others.
    B. The duly authorized agents of the commission and the  applicable local government shall have the right to enter upon the premises at  reasonable times for the purposes of inspecting the work authorized by the  permit and to evaluate compliance with the terms and conditions of the permit.  Although the general permit is issued by the commissioner, the applicable local  wetlands board retains jurisdiction and may enforce violations and any  nonconformance with the permit occurring within tidal wetlands.
    C. The permittee shall comply with all applicable federal,  state, and local laws, ordinances, and rules and regulations concerning the  project, specifically including those related to the Corps of Engineers, water  quality standards, erosion and sedimentation control, the Chesapeake Bay  Preservation Act, the Stormwater Management Act, and the Virginia Water  Protection Permit Program. The granting of this permit shall not relieve the  permittee of the responsibility of obtaining any and all other permits or  authorization for this project.
    D. The permit shall not affect or interfere with the right  vouchsafed to the people of Virginia concerning fowling and the catching of and  taking of oysters and other shellfish in and from the waters not included  within the terms of the permit.
    E. The permittee shall, to  the greatest extent practicable, minimize adverse impacts of the project on  adjacent properties and wetlands and upon the natural resources of the  Commonwealth.
    F. The permit may be revoked at any time by the commission  upon the failure of the permittee to comply with the terms and conditions  hereof or at the will of the General Assembly of Virginia.
    G. All structures authorized by this permit that are not  maintained in good repair or that are displaced to areas not authorized shall  be completely removed within 30 days after notification by the commission or  its designated representatives.
    H. The permittee agrees to  indemnify and save harmless the Commonwealth of Virginia and any applicable  locality from any liability arising from the establishment, operation, or  maintenance of said project.
    I. This general permit shall be retained by the permittee  for the life of the project as evidence of authorization.
    J. The project authorized by  this general permit shall be completed within two years of the issuance of the  permit. Upon proper request by the permittee, the permit may be extended to  allow completion of the work.
        NOTICE: The following  form used in administering the regulation was filed by the agency. The form is  not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of the form to access it through  a hyperlink. The form is also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (4VAC20-1300)
    Tidewater  Joint Permit Application (JPA) for Projects Involving Tidal Waters, Tidal  Wetlands, and/or Dunes and Beaches in Virginia (rev. 3/2014)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4482; Filed August 10, 2015, 11:00 a.m. 
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-22. Licensure  Regulations for School Personnel (repealing 8VAC20-22-10 through 8VAC20-22-760).
    8VAC20-23. Licensure Regulations for School Personnel (adding 8VAC20-23-10 through 8VAC20-23-800). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 22.1-298.1 and 22.1-299 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    October 22, 2015 - 11 a.m. - 22nd Floor Conference Room;  James Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, Richmond, VA 23219. The public  hearing will begin immediately following adjournment of the Board of Education business  meeting.
    Public Comment Deadline: November 6, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Patty S. Pitts, Assistant Superintendent  for Teacher Education and Licensure, Department of Education, P.O. Box 2120,  Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-2522, or email patty.pitts@doe.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The Board of Education has the statutory  authority to prescribe licensure requirements. Section 22.1-298.1 of the Code  of Virginia, states, in part, the following: "…The Board of Education  shall prescribe, by regulation, the requirements for the licensure of teachers  and other school personnel required to hold a license…."
    Article VIII, Section 4 of the Constitution of Virginia states  that "The general supervision of the public school system shall be vested  in a Board of Education…."
    Sections 22.1-16, 22.1-298.1, 22.1-299, and 22.1-305.2 provide  authority for the Board of Education to promulgate Licensure Regulations for  School Personnel.
    Purpose: A comprehensive review and subsequent revisions  of the Licensure Regulations for School Personnel will align the regulations  with recent actions of the General Assembly, current best practices in  education, and with current educational research. The regulations will be  aligned to the revised Virginia Standards of Learning and the Guidelines for  Uniform Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers. Revisions  to the Licensure Regulations for School Personnel will assist in ensuring that  Virginia maintains high standards of professional competence for teachers and  professional school personnel. In addition, these regulations establish  policies and standards for the qualifications of instructional personnel,  further ensuring educational quality for Virginia public school students is  current and up to date. Ensuring high standards for professional competence and  the qualifications of instructional personnel will provide for educational  quality for public school students, which is necessary for the welfare of  citizens. In revising these regulations, the Board of Education sets forth  requirements for the revocation, cancellation, suspension, denial, and  reinstatement of licenses.
    Substance: The Board of Education has the statutory  authority to prescribe licensure requirements. Section 22.1-298.1 of the Code  of Virginia, states, in part, the following: "The Board of Education shall  prescribe, by regulation, the requirements for the licensure of teachers and  other school personnel required to hold a license…."
    The Advisory Board on Teacher Education and Licensure received  the proposed revisions to the Licensure Regulations for School Personnel on  April 22, 2013. The advisory board unanimously recommended that the Board of  Education accept the proposed revisions to the regulations in the proposed  stage of the regulatory process under the Administrative Process Act.
    Sections proposed to have substantive changes include the  following sections: 
    • 8VAC20-22-10. Definitions. The amendments revise the  definitions section of this chapter to align with proposed revisions throughout  the Licensure Regulations for School Personnel.
    • 8VAC20-22-40. Conditions for licensure. The amendments  include the requirement that individuals seeking initial licensure provide  evidence of training or certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary  resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators, as prescribed  in Chapters 498 and 530 of the 2013 Acts of Assembly. Text was added to clarify  the endorsement requirements for the teacher of record.
    • 8VAC20-22-50. Types of licenses; dating licenses. The  amendments would revise this section to include the following: 
    - Issue a Provisional License for two years (with the  exception of the Provisional Career Switcher License). Individuals may apply  for a third year on the Provisional License by submitting documentation  indicating that all licensure assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education have been taken.
    - Issue the International Educator License for a five-year,  instead of a three-year, exchange program.
    - Discontinue the Local Eligibility License by action of the  2013 General Assembly. 
    - Add the Online Teacher License as a five-year, renewable  license valid only for teaching online courses.
    - Add the Teach for America License, established as a two-year  provisional license by action of the 2013 General Assembly.
    • 8VAC20-22-90. Alternate routes to licensure. The amendments  increase the requirements from three semester hours to nine semester hours of  specified coursework prior to issuance of a Provisional (Special Education)  License to individuals without a five-year Virginia teaching license.
    • 8VAC20-22-110. Requirements for renewing a license. The  amendments would revise this section to include the following: 
    - Add the requirement, as prescribed by Chapter 726 of the  2013 Acts of Assembly, that any individual licensed and endorsed to teach  middle school civics or economics or high school government or history who is  seeking renewal of such license is required to demonstrate knowledge of  Virginia history or state and local government by completing a module or  professional development course specifically related to Virginia history or  state and local government.
    - Add the requirement that individuals renewing a license,  effective July 1, 2013, provide evidence of training or certification in  emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated  external defibrillators, as prescribed in  Chapters 498 and 530 of the  2013 Acts of Assembly. 
    - Change text to allow the division superintendent or the  principal to approve renewal activities and exceptions. Remove the text  "for one cycle of the renewal process" to allow an exception to the  content course requirements for individuals without a graduate degree beyond  one renewal cycle.
    • 8VAC20-22-130. Professional studies requirements. The  amendments include changing professional study coursework titles and course  content and adding an additional course requirement, "Assessment of and  for Learning"; three semester hours.
    • 8VAC20-22-140 – 8VAC20-22-670 (endorsement areas) The amendments  would revise the following endorsement areas: 
    - Early childhood for three-year-olds and four-year-olds  (add-on endorsement) - Allow individuals who hold the early childhood special  education endorsement to add this endorsement. 
    - Early/primary education preK-3 - Increase the coursework  requirements in mathematics and science and provide an option for specified  requirements and testing. 
    - Elementary education preK-6 - Increase the coursework  requirements in mathematics and science and provide an option for specified  requirements and testing. 
    - Middle education 6-8 - Increase the coursework requirements  in mathematics. 
    - Career and technical education - industrial cooperative  training (add-on endorsement). Discontinue the endorsement.
    - Engineering - Create a new endorsement. 
    - Special education - general curriculum K-6 (add-on  endorsement); Special education - general curriculum middle grades 6-8 (add-on  endorsement); Special education - general curriculum secondary grades 6-12  (add-on endorsement) Establish new add-on endorsements. 
    - Administration and supervision preK-12 - Revise the  alternate route to add an option of a combination of graduate-level coursework  and a research-based program approved by the Department of Education and add  "Principal of Distinction" to the name of the Level II endorsement,  mathematics specialist for elementary education, and mathematics specialist for  middle education.
    - Establish separate endorsements specific to the population  of students being served. Currently the endorsement is combined, mathematics  specialist for elementary and middle education. 
    - Special education - speech language pathologist preK-12 -  Discontinue issuing an initial license with an endorsement in speech/language  pathology. Individuals will seek a license from the Virginia Board of Examiners  for Audiology and Speech Pathology.
    • 8VAC20-22-720 – 8VAC20-22-800 (Part VII-Revocation,  Cancellation, Suspension, Denial, and Reinstatement of Teaching Licenses) -  Amendments proposed.
    Issues: The primary advantages of revising the Licensure  Regulations for School Personnel are to align the regulations with recent  actions of the General Assembly, with current best practices in education, and  with current educational research. The regulations will be aligned to the  revised Virginia Standards of Learning and the Guidelines for Uniform  Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers. Revisions to the  Licensure Regulations for School Personnel will assist in ensuring that  Virginia maintains high standards of professional competence for teachers and  professional school personnel.
    In addition, the regulations establish policies and standards  for the qualifications of instructional personnel, further ensuring educational  quality for Virginia public school students. In revising these regulations, the  Board of Education sets forth requirements for the revocation, cancellation,  suspension, denial, and reinstatement of licenses. 
    The regulatory action poses no disadvantages to the public or  the Commonwealth.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Education proposes to repeal the current regulation (8 VAC 20-22) and replace  it with a new regulation (8 VAC 20-23). In doing so, the Board proposes  numerous amendments to the rules including:
    • Requiring that individuals seeking initial licensure provide  evidence of training or certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary  resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators, as prescribed  in Chapter 498 of the 2013 Acts of Assembly.
    • Adding the requirement that individuals renewing a license,  effective July 1, 2013, provide evidence of training or certification in  emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated  external defibrillators, as prescribed in Chapter 498 of the 2013 Acts of  Assembly.
    • Issuing a Provisional License for two years (with the  exception of the Provisional Career Switcher License). Individuals may apply  for a third year on the Provisional License by submitting documentation  indicating that all licensure assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education have been taken.
    • Issuing the International Educator License for a five-year,  instead of a three-year exchange program.
    • Discontinuing the Local Eligibility License pursuant to  Chapter 588 of the 2013 Acts of Assembly.
    • Adding the Online Teacher License as a five-year, renewable  license valid only for teaching online courses.
    • Adding the Teach for America License, established as a  two-year provisional license, pursuant to Chapter 440 of the 2013 Virginia Acts  of Assembly.
    • Increase the requirements from three semester hours to nine  semester hours of specified coursework prior to issuance of a Provisional  (Special Education) License to individuals without a five-year Virginia  teaching license. 
    • Adding the requirement, as prescribed by Chapter 726 of the  2013 Acts of Assembly, that any individual licensed and endorsed to teach a)  middle school civics or economics or b) high school government or history who  is seeking renewal of such license is required to demonstrate knowledge of  Virginia history or state and local government by completing a module or  professional development course specifically related to Virginia history or  state and local government.
    • Changing text to allow the division superintendent or the  principal to approve renewal activities and exceptions. Removed the text for  one cycle of the renewal process to allow an exception to the content course  requirements for individuals without a graduate degree beyond one renewal  cycle.
    • Changing professional study coursework titles and course  content. An additional course requirement, Assessment of and for Learning (3  semester hours), is proposed.
    • Allowing individuals who hold the early childhood special  education endorsement to add the endorsement early childhood for three- and  four-year-olds endorsement.
    • For the early/primary education preK-3 endorsement,  increasing the coursework requirements in mathematics and science and providing  an option for specified requirements and testing.
    • For the elementary education preK-6 endorsement, increasing  the coursework requirements in mathematics and science and providing an option  for specified requirements and testing. 
    • For the middle education 6-8 endorsement, increasing the  coursework requirements in mathematics.
    • Discontinuing the career and technical education industrial  cooperative training endorsement.1 
    • Creating a new engineering endorsement.
    • Establishing the following new add-on endorsements: Special  education general curriculum K-6 (add-on endorsement), Special education  general curriculum middle grades 6-8 (add-on endorsement), and Special  education general curriculum secondary grades 6-12 (add-on endorsement).
    • For administration and supervision preK-12, revising the  alternate route to add an option of a combination of graduate-level coursework  and a research-based program approved by the Department of Education. Adding  Principal of Distinction to the name of the Level II endorsement.
    • Establishing separate mathematics specialist for  elementary education and mathematics specialist for middle education  endorsements specific to the population of students being served. Currently the  endorsement is combined, Mathematics specialist for elementary and middle  education.
    • Discontinuing initial licenses with an endorsement in  speech/language pathology. Individuals will seek a license from the Virginia  Board of Examiners for Audiology and Speech Pathology.2 
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  some changes. For other amendments, whether the benefits exceed the costs  depend on the policy views of the observer.
    Estimated Economic Impact. 
    First Aid, CPR, and AED Training:
    The legislatively mandated proposal to require that individuals  seeking initial teacher licensure and teachers seeking license renewal provide  evidence of training or certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary  resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators will introduce  significant benefits and costs. Having all (or nearly all) teachers in the  Commonwealth trained in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and  the use of automated external defibrillators will increase the likelihood that  someone with potentially lifesaving skills will be on hand during medical  emergencies in the classroom. To the extent that the future teachers absorb and  retain the knowledge they gain in this training, the long-run benefits may be  quite significant.
    For onsite training in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary  resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators, the American  Red Cross charges $250 plus $72 per person being trained if there at least 20  people being trained.3 So for example, if a school district arranged  to have the Red Cross come in and train 50 teachers the fees would total  $3,850. If teachers take courses on their own and go to a location already  offering the course, the cost is $90. If done all in person, the Red Cross  training would take 5.5 hours. Alternatively, the teachers could do 2 hours of  online training ahead of time. In that case the in-person training would last  1.5 hours. The fees would be the same in either case, but the amount of staff  time that potentially could have been used for other subjects differs.
    Teach for America:
    Currently individuals who go through the Teach for America  training program are not permitted to teach in Virginia (unless they fulfill  other requirements for provisional licensure). Pursuant to Chapter 440 of the  2013 Virginia Acts of Assembly, the Board proposes to add the Teach for America  License, established as a two-year provisional license. The addition of this  license will likely lead to Teach for America trained individuals teaching in  Virginia. High-quality peer-reviewed research has found that Teach for America  trained teachers have been particularly effective teachers in mathematics.4  Thus this proposed new license may have some positive impact on math learning  in the Commonwealth.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments  affect the 132 public school divisions in the Commonwealth, current and future  teachers, and businesses or organizations that provide training in emergency  first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated external  defibrillators. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The requirement that  individuals seeking initial teacher licensure and teachers seeking license  renewal provide evidence of training or certification in emergency first aid,  cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators  will increase demand for these services from businesses and organizations that  provide such training. The increase in demand may be enough to create  additional jobs.
    Effects on the Use and Value of  Private Property. The requirement that individuals seeking initial teacher  licensure and teachers seeking license renewal provide evidence of training or  certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the  use of automated external defibrillators will likely increase business for  firms that provide such training. This may increase the value of such  organizations and firms. 
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other  Effects. The proposed amendments are unlikely to significantly affect costs for  small businesses. The requirement that individuals seeking initial teacher  licensure and teachers seeking license renewal provide evidence of training or  certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the  use of automated external defibrillators will increase demand for these  services from small businesses that provide such training.
    Small Businesses: Alternative  Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed amendments will not  adversely affect small businesses. 
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate.
    General: The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order Number 14  (2010). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the  report should include but not be limited to:
    • the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom  the proposed regulatory action would apply,
    • the identity of any localities and types of businesses or  other entities particularly affected,
    • the projected number of persons and employment positions to  be affected, 
    • the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to  implement or comply with the regulation, and 
    • the impact on the use and value of private property. 
    Small Businesses: If the proposed regulatory action will have  an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such  economic impact analyses include:
    • an identification and estimate of the number of small  businesses subject to the proposed regulation,
    • the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation,  including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required  reports and other documents,
    • a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation  on affected small businesses, and 
    • a description of any less intrusive or less costly  alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. 
    Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1, if there is a  finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small  business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules is notified at the time  the proposed regulation is submitted to the Virginia Register of Regulations  for publication. This analysis shall represent DPB's best estimate for the  purposes of public review and comment on the proposed regulation. 
    _________________________________________________
    1According to the Department of Education the industrial  cooperative training endorsement has never been used.
    2The proposal to discontinue issuing an initial license  with an endorsement in speech/language pathology resulted from a joint effort  with the Department of Health Professions (DHP) to eliminate confusion as to  whether these individuals should be licensed by DHP or the Department of  Education. Chapter 781 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly clarified that DHP would  issue the licenses; therefore the board is eliminating references to the  program from its regulations.
    3If there are fewer than 20 individuals being trained,  the American Red Cross charges $90 per student.
    4Glazerman, S., Mayer, D., & Decker, P. (2006).  Alternative routes to teaching: The impacts of Teach For America on student  achievement and other outcomes. Journal of Policy Analysis and Management,  25(1), 75-96.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency concurs with the economic impact analysis completed by the Department of  Planning and Budget. The agency will continue to examine the economic and  administrative impact of the regulations as they progress through the  regulatory process under the Administrative Process Act.
    Summary:
    The proposed action repeals the existing regulation  (8VAC20-22) and adopts a new regulation (8VAC20-23) regarding licensure for  school personnel to align the regulation with recent changes in the Code of  Virginia, current best practices in education, current educational research,  and the revised Virginia Standards of Learning and the Guidelines for Uniform  Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers. Substantive  elements of the proposed new regulations (i) revise selected definitions to  conform with changes in the proposed new regulations; (ii) require initial and  renewal licensure applicants to provide evidence of training or certification  in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated  external defibrillators; (iii) clarify the endorsement requirements for the  teacher of record; (iv) modify the term of issuance of certain licenses; (v)  discontinue the Local Eligibility License; (vi) add the Online Teacher License  and the Teach for America License; (vii) increase the coursework requirements  prior to issuance of a Provisional (Special Education) License to individuals  without a five-year Virginia teaching license; (viii) add requirements for any  individual licensed and endorsed to teach middle school civics or economics, or  high school government or history, seeking license renewal; (ix) allow the  division superintendent or the principal to approve renewal activities and  exceptions; (x) change professional study coursework titles and course content  and add a three-semester-hour course in assessment of and for learning; (xi)  revise endorsement areas; (xii) discontinue issuance of an initial license with  an endorsement in speech/language pathology as individuals will seek a license  from the Virginia Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology; and (xiii)  amend the provisions on the revocation, cancellation, suspension, denial, and  reinstatement of teaching licenses.
    CHAPTER 23
  LICENSURE REGULATIONS FOR SCHOOL PERSONNEL
    Part I
  Definitions
    8VAC20-23-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the meanings indicated unless the context clearly implies otherwise:
    "Accredited institution" means an institution of  higher education accredited by a regional accrediting agency recognized by the  United States Department of Education.
    "Accredited virtual school or program" means a  virtual school or program accredited by one of the accrediting agencies  recognized by the Virginia Department of Education.
    "Alternate route to licensure" means a  nontraditional route to licensure available to individuals who meet the  criteria specified in 8VAC20-23-90.
    "Approved program" means a professional  education program recognized as meeting state standards for the content and  operation of such programs so that graduates of the program will be eligible  for state licensure. The Virginia Board of Education has the authority to  approve programs in Virginia.
    "Cancellation" means the withdrawal of a  teaching license following the voluntary return of the license by the license  holder.
    "Certified provider" means a provider certified  by the Virginia Department of Education to provide preparation and training for  applicants seeking the Provisional License specified in 8VAC20-23-90.
    "Collegiate Professional License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has satisfied all  requirements for licensure set forth in this chapter, including an earned  baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or university and the  professional teacher's assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education.
    "Content area coursework" means courses at the  undergraduate level (i.e., two-year or four-year institution) or at the  graduate level that will not duplicate previous courses, or the level of coursework,  taken in humanities, English, history and social sciences, sciences,  mathematics, health and physical education, and fine arts. These courses are  usually available through the college or department of arts or sciences.
    "Denial" means the refusal to grant a teaching  license to a new applicant or to an applicant who is reapplying after the  expiration of a license.
    "Division Superintendent License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has completed an  earned master's degree from a regionally accredited college or university and  meets the requirements specified in 8VAC20-23-630. The individual's name must  be listed on the Virginia Board of Education's list of eligible division  superintendents.
    "Experiential learning" means a process of  applying for an initial license through the alternate route as prescribed by  the Virginia Board of Education and meeting the criteria specified in  8VAC20-23-90 E to be eligible to request experiential learning credits in lieu  of the coursework for the endorsement (teaching) content area.
    "International Educator License" means a  five-year cultural exchange opportunity for Virginia students and international  teachers. The International Educator License is a professional teaching license  issued for no more than five years to an exchange teacher with citizenship in a  nation other than the United States of America and employed as teacher in a  Virginia public school or an accredited nonpublic school.
    "Licensure by reciprocity" means a process used to  issue a license to an individual coming into Virginia from another state when  that individual meets certain conditions specified in this chapter.
    "Mentor" means a classroom teacher hired by the  local school division who has achieved continuing contract status or other  instructional personnel including retired teachers who meet local mentor  selection criteria. The mentor should work in the same building as the  beginning teacher or be instructional personnel who is assigned solely as a  mentor. A mentor should be assigned a limited number of teachers at any time.  Instructional personnel who are not assigned solely as mentors should not be  assigned to more than four teachers at any time. Mentors guide teachers in the  program through demonstrations, observations, and consultations.
    "Online Teacher License" means a five-year,  renewable license valid only for teaching online courses. Teachers who hold a  five-year renewable license issued by the Virginia Board of Education may teach  online courses for which they are properly endorsed and do not need to seek  this license.
    "Postgraduate Professional License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has qualified for  the Collegiate Professional License and who holds an appropriate earned graduate  degree from a regionally accredited college or university.
    "Professional teacher assessment" means those  tests or other requirements mandated for licensure as prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education.
    "Provisional License" means a nonrenewable license  valid for a specified period of time not to exceed three years issued to an  individual who has allowable deficiencies for full licensure as set forth in  this chapter. The individual must have a minimum of an undergraduate degree  from a regionally accredited college or university, with the exception of those  individuals seeking the Technical Professional License. The Provisional  License, with the exception of those individuals seeking licensure through a  career switcher program who will be issued a one-year Provisional License, will  be issued for two years. Individuals may apply for a third year on the  Provisional License by submitting documentation indicating that all licensure  assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education have been taken.  Individuals must complete all requirements, including passing all licensure  assessments, for a renewable license within the validity period of the license.  
    "Pupil Personnel Services License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has earned an  appropriate graduate degree from a regionally accredited college or university  with an endorsement as a school counselor, school psychologist, school social  worker, or vocational evaluator. This license does not require teaching experience  unless otherwise outlined under the specific endorsement's requirements.
    "Renewable license" means a license issued by  the Virginia Board of Education for five years to an individual who meets all  requirements specified in this chapter.
    "Revocation" means the withdrawal of a teaching  license.
    "School Manager License" means a five-year,  renewable license intended to provide for a differentiation of administrative  responsibilities in a school setting. A school manager is licensed to  administer noninstructional responsibilities in an educational setting. For  example, a school manager is restricted from evaluating teachers, supervising  instruction, developing and evaluating curriculum, and serving as a school’s  student disciplinarian. The license is available to a candidate who holds a  baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or university; has  three years of success managerial experience; and is recommended for the  license by a Virginia school division superintendent.
    "Suspension" means the temporary withdrawal of a  teaching license.
    "Technical Professional License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has graduated from  an accredited high school (or possesses a General Educational Development  Certificate); has exhibited academic proficiency, technical competency, and  successful occupational experience; and meets the requirements specified in  subdivision 4 of 8VAC20-23-50.
    Part II 
  Administering the Regulations
    8VAC20-23-20. Administering this chapter.
    A. In administering this chapter, modifications may be  made in exceptional cases by the Superintendent of Public Instruction. Proposed  modifications shall be made in writing to the Superintendent of Public  Instruction, Commonwealth of Virginia, Virginia Department of Education, P.O.  Box 2120, Richmond, Virginia 23218-2120. 
    B. In administering this chapter, competencies required  for endorsement areas are outlined in the Regulations Governing the Review and  Approval of Education Programs in Virginia (8VAC20-543). This document should  be referenced for detailed information regarding coursework content for  endorsements. Individuals must complete the semester hours required for  endorsement areas, or the equivalent, that must be documented and approved by  the Department of Education.
    Part III 
  Licensure
    8VAC20-23-30. Purpose and responsibility for licensure.
    The primary purpose for licensing teachers and other  school personnel is to maintain standards of professional competence. The  responsibility for licensure is set forth in § 22.1-298.1 of the Code of  Virginia, which states that the Virginia Board of Education shall prescribe by  regulation the requirements for licensure of teachers.
    8VAC20-23-40. Conditions for licensure.
    A. Applicants for licensure must:
    1. Be at least 18 years of age;
    2. Pay the appropriate fees as determined by the  Virginia Board of Education and complete the application process;
    3. Have earned a baccalaureate degree, with the  exception of the Technical Professional License, from a regionally accredited college  or university and meet requirements for the license sought. Persons seeking  initial licensure through approved programs from Virginia institutions of  higher education shall only be licensed as instructional personnel by the  Virginia Board of Education if the professional education programs offered at  such institutions have been accredited by a national accrediting agency and the  education (endorsement) programs have final approval by the Virginia Board of  Education; and
    4. Possess good moral character (i.e., free of  conditions outlined in Part VII (8VAC20-23-720 et seq.) of this chapter.
    B. All candidates who hold at least a baccalaureate degree  from a regionally accredited college or university and who seek an initial  Virginia teaching license must obtain passing scores on professional teacher's  assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education. With the exception  of the career switcher program that requires assessments as prerequisites,  individuals must complete the professional teacher's assessments requirements  within the three-year validity of the initial provisional license. Candidates  seeking a Technical Professional License, International Educator License,  School Manager License, or Pupil Personnel Services License are not required to  take the professional teacher's assessments. Individuals who hold a valid  out-of-state license (full credential without deficiencies) and who have  completed a minimum of three years of full-time, successful teaching experience  in a public or an accredited nonpublic school, kindergarten through grade 12,  outside of Virginia are exempt from the professional teacher's assessment  requirements. Documentation must be submitted to verify the school's status as  a public or an accredited nonpublic school.
    C. All individuals seeking an initial endorsement in  early/primary education preK-3, elementary education preK-6, special  education-general curriculum, special education-deaf and hard of hearing,  special education-blindness and visual impairments, and individuals seeking an  endorsement as a reading specialist must obtain passing scores on a reading  instructional assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    D. Licensure by reciprocity is set forth in 8VAC20-23-100.  A school leaders assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education must  be met for all individuals who are seeking an endorsement authorizing them to  serve as principals and assistant principals in the public schools. Individuals  seeking an initial administration and supervision endorsement who are  interested in serving as central office instructional personnel are not  required to take and pass the school leaders assessment prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education.
    E. Individuals seeking initial licensure must demonstrate  proficiency in the use of educational technology for instruction, complete  study in child abuse recognition and intervention in accordance with curriculum  guidelines developed by the Virginia Board of Education in consultation with  the Virginia Department of Social Services, and receive professional  development in instructional methods tailored to promote student academic  progress and effective preparation for the Standards of Learning end-of-course  and end-of-grade assessments.
    F. Every person seeking initial licensure shall provide  evidence of completion of certification or training in emergency first aid,  cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and use of automated external defibrillators.  The certification or training program shall be based on the current national  evidenced-based emergency cardiovascular care guidelines for cardiopulmonary  resuscitation and the use of an automated external defibrillator, such as a  program developed by the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross.  The Virginia Board of Education shall provide a waiver for this requirement for  any person with a disability whose disability prohibits such person from  completing the certification or training.
    G. The teacher of record for verified credit courses for  high school graduation must hold a Virginia license with the appropriate  content endorsement.
    8VAC20-23-50. Types of licenses; dating licenses.
    A. The following types of licenses are available:
    1. Provisional License. The Provisional License is a  nonrenewable license valid for a period not to exceed three years issued to an  individual who has allowable deficiencies for full licensure as set forth in  this chapter. The Provisional License will be issued for two years, with the  exception of those individuals seeking a Provisional License through a career  switcher program. Individuals may apply for a third year on the Provisional  License by submitting documentation indicating that all licensure assessments  prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education (http://doe.virginia.gov/teaching/licensure/prof_teacher_assessment.pdf)  have been taken. The Provisional (Career Switcher) License will be dated as set  forth in 8VAC20-23-90 A 2. Individuals must complete the requirements including  passing all licensure assessments, for the renewable five-year license within  the validity period of the Provisional License. The individual must have a  minimum of an undergraduate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university, with the exception of those individuals seeking the Technical  Professional License.
    2. Collegiate Professional License. The Collegiate  Professional License is a five-year, renewable license available to an  individual who has satisfied all requirements for licensure, including an  earned undergraduate degree from a regionally accredited college or university  and the professional teacher's assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education.
    3. Postgraduate Professional License. The Postgraduate  Professional License is a five-year, renewable license available to an  individual who has qualified for the Collegiate Professional License and who  holds an appropriate earned graduate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university.
    4. Technical Professional License. The Technical  Professional License is a five-year, renewable license available to a person  who has graduated from an accredited high school or possesses a General  Educational Development Certificate; has exhibited academic proficiency, skills  in literacy and communication, technical competency, and successful  occupational experience; and has completed nine semester hours of specialized  professional studies credit from a regionally accredited college or university.  The nine semester hours of professional studies coursework must include three  semester hours of human development and learning, three semester hours of  curriculum and instruction, and three semester hours of applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management. The Technical  Professional License is issued at the recommendation of an employing  educational agency in the areas of career and technical education, educational  technology, and military science. Individuals seeking an endorsement to teach  military science must have the appropriate credentials issued by the United  States military. The employing Virginia educational agency must ensure the  credentials issued by the United States military are active during the period  the individual is teaching. In addition to demonstrating competency in the  endorsement area sought, the individual must:
    a. Hold a valid license issued by the appropriate Virginia  board for those program areas requiring a license and a minimum of two years of  successful experience at the journeyman level or an equivalent. The employing  Virginia educational agency must ensure that the valid license issued by the  appropriate Virginia board for the occupational program area is active during  the period the individual is teaching;
    b. Have completed a registered apprenticeship program and  two years of successful experience at the journeyman level or an equivalent  level in the trade; or
    c. Have four years of successful work experience at the  management or supervisory level or equivalent or have a combination of four  years of training and work experience at the management or supervisory level or  equivalent.
    Individuals holding the Technical Professional License who  seek the Collegiate Professional or Postgraduate Professional License must meet  the requirements of the respective licenses.
    5. School Manager License. The school manager license is a  five-year, renewable license intended to provide for the differentiation of  administrative responsibilities in a school setting. A school manager is  licensed to administer noninstructional responsibilities in an educational  setting. For example, a school manager is restricted from evaluating teachers,  supervising instruction, developing and evaluating curriculum, and serving as a  school's student disciplinarian. The license is available to a candidate who  holds a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university, has three years of successful managerial experience, and is  recommended for the license by a Virginia school division superintendent.
    6. Pupil Personnel Services License. The Pupil Personnel  Services License is a five-year, renewable license available to an individual  who has earned an appropriate graduate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university with an endorsement for school counselor, school  psychologist, school social worker, or vocational evaluator. This license does  not require teaching experience, unless otherwise outlined under the specific  endorsement's requirements.
    7. Division Superintendent License. The Division  Superintendent License is a five-year, renewable license available to an  individual who has completed an earned master's degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and meets the requirements specified in  8VAC20-23-630. The individual's name must be listed on the Virginia Board of  Education's list of eligible division superintendents.
    8. International Educator License. The International  Educator License provides a five-year cultural exchange opportunity for  Virginia students and international teachers. The International Educator  License is a professional teaching license issued to an exchange teacher with  citizenship in a nation other than the United States of America and who is  employed as a teacher in a Virginia public or accredited nonpublic school. To  be issued the five-year, nonrenewable International Educator License, an  individual serving as a cultural exchange teacher in Virginia must:
    a. Be employed by a Virginia public or an accredited  nonpublic school;
    b. Hold non-United States citizenship and be a nonpermanent  resident; and
    c. Meet the following requirements as verified by a  state-approved, federally-designated Exchange Visitor Program (22 CFR Part 62):
    (1) Be proficient in written and spoken English;
    (2) Demonstrate competence in the appropriate academic  subject area or areas by meeting the credential requirements for a qualified  teacher in the exchange country;
    (3) Hold the United States equivalent of a baccalaureate  degree or higher as determined by an approved credential agency; and
    (4) Complete at least two years of successful full-time  teaching experience that enables the educator to fulfill a similar assignment  in his home country or is comparable to those requirements for Virginia  teachers.
    If an individual meets requirements of subdivisions 8 a, 8  b, 8 c (1), 8 c (2), and 8 c (3) of this subsection and has completed at least  one year, but less than two years, of successful full-time teaching experience  that enables the educator to fulfill a similar assignment in his home country  or is comparable to those requirements for Virginia teachers, the International  Educator License will be issued for three years with an option to extend the  nonrenewable International Educator License for the additional two years upon  meeting all teacher assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education  and a recommendation of the Virginia employing school division or accredited  nonpublic school.
    Individuals who have been issued an International Educator  License who seek a five-year, renewable license will need to meet all licensure  and endorsement requirements, including applicable assessments prescribed by  the Virginia Board of Education.
    9. Online Teacher License. The Online Teacher License is a  five-year, renewable license valid only for teaching online courses. Teachers  who hold a five-year renewable license issued by the Virginia Board of  Education may teach online courses for which they are properly endorsed and do  not need to seek this license.
    a. The individual is required to meet requirements for an  endorsement in a content (teaching) area, professional studies requirements,  and qualifying scores on professional teacher's assessments as prescribed by  the Virginia Board of Education. In addition, the individual must complete a  three-semester-hour course in online instructional procedures.
    Online instructional procedures: 3 semester hours. Skills  in this area shall contribute to an understanding of the principles of online  learning and online instructional strategies and the application of skills in  the ability to use the Internet for teaching, learning, and management; design,  deliver, and support instruction in an online environment; adapt strategies for  a variety of course models (e.g., synchronous and asynchronous); select, adapt,  and create rich multimedia for instruction; adapt individualized education  program requirements to online course practices, as appropriate; use data to  meet individual students needs; and employ innovative teaching strategies in an  online environment. Demonstrated proficiency of advanced skills in the  following must be addressed: use of communication technologies to interact with  and engage students, parents, and mentors; use of education technologies;  management of instructional activities in a technology-mediated environment;  and nontraditional content delivery methods.
    b. Online teaching experience is not acceptable to meet the  full-time teaching experience for other license types, such as a Division  Superintendent License, or for endorsements, such as for the reading  specialist, school counselor, or administration and supervision endorsements.  The Online Teacher License may be issued if requirements have been met as one  of the following licenses to individuals teaching only online courses:
    (1) Online Teacher (Postgraduate Professional) License - a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has qualified for  the Online Teacher (Collegiate Professional) License and who holds an  appropriate earned graduate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university.
    (2) Online Teacher (Collegiate Professional) License - a  five-year, renewable teaching license available to an individual who has  satisfied all requirements for licensure, including an earned baccalaureate  degree from a regionally accredited college or university, endorsement and  professional studies requirements, and the professional teacher's assessments  prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education, or 
    (3) Online Teacher (Technical Professional) License - a  five-year, renewable teaching license available to an individual who has  graduated from an accredited high school or possesses a General Educational  Development Certificate; has exhibited academic proficiency, technical  competency, and occupational experience; and meets the requirements specified  in subdivision 4 of this section. An individual seeking an Online Teacher  (Technical Professional) License must be recommended for the license by a  Virginia public school, a Virginia accredited nonpublic school, or an  accredited virtual school program.
    c. A nonrenewable Online Teacher (Provisional) License may  be issued for a period not to exceed three years to an individual who has  allowable deficiencies for full licensure as set forth in 8VAC20-23-90 B. The  Online (Provisional) License will be issued for two years. Individuals may  apply for a third year on the Online (Provisional) License by submitting  documentation indicating that all licensure assessments prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education have been taken. The individual must have a minimum  of an undergraduate degree from a regionally accredited college or university,  with the exception of those individuals seeking the Technical Professional  License. Individuals must complete all requirements for a renewable Online  Teacher License within the validity period of the license.
    10. Teach For America License. The Teach For America  License is a two-year provisional license.
    a. This provisional license is available to any participant  in Teach For America, a nationwide nonprofit organization focused on closing  the achievement gaps between students in high-income and low-income areas, who  submits an application and meets the following requirements: 
    (1) Holds, at minimum, a baccalaureate degree from a  regionally accredited institution of higher education;
    (2) Has met the requirements prescribed by the Virginia  Board of Education for all endorsements sought or has met the qualifying scores  on the content area assessment prescribed by the board for the endorsements  sought;
    (3) Possesses good moral character according to criteria  developed by the Virginia Board of Education; 
    (4) Has been offered and has accepted placement in Teach  For America;
    (5) Has successfully completed preservice training and is  participating in the professional development requirements of Teach For  America, including teaching frameworks, curricula, lesson planning,  instructional delivery, classroom management, assessment and evaluation of  student progress, classroom diversity, and literacy development;
    (6) Has an offer of employment from a local school board to  teach in a public elementary or secondary school in the Commonwealth or a  preschool program that receives state funds pursuant to subsection C of  § 22.1-199.1 of the Code of Virginia; and 
    (7) Receives a recommendation from the employing school  division for a Teach For America License in the endorsement area in which the  individual seeks to be licensed.
    b. In addition to the criteria set forth in subdivision 10  a of of this subsection, any individual who seeks an endorsement in early  childhood, early/primary, or elementary education shall either (i) agree to  complete such coursework in the teaching of reading as may be prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education pursuant to 8VAC20-23-130 during the first year of  employment or (ii) achieve a passing score on a reading instructional  assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    c. Teachers issued a Teach For America provisional license  shall not be eligible for continuing contract status while employed under the  authority of a Teach For America license and shall be subject to the  probationary terms of employment specified in § 22.1-303 of the Code of  Virginia.
    d. The Virginia Board of Education may extend any Teach For  America License for one additional year upon request of the employing school  division, provided that no Teach For America License shall exceed a total of  three years in length. 
    e. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary,  upon completion of at least two years of full-time teaching experience in a  public elementary or secondary school in the Commonwealth or a preschool  program that receives state funds pursuant to subsection C of § 22.1-199.1  of the Code of Virginia, an individual holding a Teach For America License  shall be eligible to receive a renewable license if he has (i) achieved  satisfactory scores on all professional teacher assessments required by the  Virginia Board of Education and (ii) received satisfactory evaluations at the  conclusion of each year of employment.
    f. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary,  the Virginia Board of Education shall issue a Teach For America License to any  individual who (i) has completed two years of successful teaching in the Teach  For America program in another state, (ii) is not eligible to receive a  renewable license, and (iii) meets the criteria set forth in subdivision 10 a  of this subsection.
    B. All licenses will be effective from July 1 in the  school year in which the application is made. An employing Virginia public  school division, agency, or accredited nonpublic school is required to notify  employees in writing at the time of employment of the need to meet appropriate  assessment requirements for licensure. 
    8VAC20-23-60. Designations on licenses for career paths to  teaching.
    A. Designations on licenses will reflect stages in the  professional development of teachers and promote continuing growth and career  paths as educators. 
    B. Teaching licenses may be issued with one of the  following designations, and the designation will be processed as an add-on  endorsement. These designations will not apply to the Division Superintendent  License, School Manager License, International Educator License, or Pupil  Personnel Services License.
    1. Career Teacher: This voluntary teacher designation will  be issued on a renewable teaching license for individuals who have gained  continuing contract status in Virginia and who apply for the Career Teacher  designation.
    2. Mentor Teacher: This voluntary teacher designation will  be issued on a renewable teaching license for individuals who have (i) achieved  the Career Teacher designation, (ii) received a recommendation for the  designation from an employing Virginia school division superintendent or  designee or accredited nonpublic school head, (iii) served at least three years  as a mentor teacher in Virginia, (iv) documented responsibilities as a mentor,  and (v) completed a local or state mentor teacher training program in  accordance with the Virginia Board of Education requirements for mentor  teachers in the Virgnia Board of Education Mentor Teacher Guidelines (http://www.doe.virginia.gov/teaching/career_resources/mentor/program_creation_guidelines.pdf).
    3. Teacher as Leader: This voluntary teacher designation  will be issued on a renewable teaching license for individuals who have (i)  achieved the Career Teacher designation; (ii) completed at least five years of  successful, full-time teaching experience in a Virginia public school or  accredited nonpublic school; (iii) received the recommendation from an  employing Virginia school division superintendent or designee or an accredited  nonpublic school head; (iv) and completed one of the following:
    a. National Board Certification or a nationally recognized  certification program approved by the Virginia Board of Education and a  recommendation from an employing Virginia school division superintendent or  designee or accredited nonpublic school head and documentation in an approved  Department of Education format verifying the individual's demonstrated skills  and abilities as a school leader and direct contributions to school  effectiveness and student achievement; or
    b. A recommendation from an employing Virginia school  division superintendent or designee or accredited nonpublic school head and  documentation in an approved Department of Education format verifying the  individual's demonstrated skills and abilities as a school leader and direct  contributions to school effectiveness and student achievement.
    8VAC20-23-70. Additional endorsements.
    A. An individual who holds a teaching license may add an  additional teaching endorsement to the license by passing a rigorous academic  subject test for endorsements in which a test is prescribed by the Virginia  Board of Education. This testing option does not apply to individuals (i) who  are seeking an early/primary education preK-3 or elementary education preK-6  endorsement, special education endorsements, or a reading specialist  endorsement or (ii) who hold a Technical Professional License, Vocational  Evaluator License, Pupil Personnel Services License, School Manager License, or  Division Superintendent License.
    B. One or more endorsements may be added to a license  provided specific endorsement requirements have been met. Written requests may  be made by the licensed professional and should be directed to the Virginia  employing educational agency or college or university. If the request is not  acted upon by the local educational agency or college or university within 30  days or is disputed, the license holder may make a written request for an  additional endorsement directly to the Office of Professional Licensure,  Virginia Department of Education. Written requests should be submitted by  January 15 to be in effect by July 1 of the same year.
    8VAC20-23-80. Deletion of an endorsement.
    An endorsement may be deleted from a license at the  request of the licensed professional. Written requests are made by the licensed  professional and should be directed to the employing educational agency. If the  request is not acted upon by the local educational agency within 30 days or is  disputed, the license holder may make a written request for the deletion of an  endorsement directly to the Office of Professional Licensure, Virginia  Department of Education. Written requests should be submitted by January 15 to  be in effect on July 1 of that year.  Individuals who wish to add an  endorsement that has been deleted must meet requirements for that endorsement  at the time it is requested.
    8VAC20-23-90. Alternate routes to licensure.
    A. Career switcher alternate route to licensure for career  professions - Provisional (Career Switcher) License. An alternate route is  available to career switchers who seek teaching endorsements preK through grade  12 with the exception of special education.
    1. An individual seeking a Provisional (Career Switcher)  License through the career switcher program must meet the following  prerequisite requirements:
    a. An application process;
    b. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    c. The completion of requirements for an endorsement in a  teaching area or the equivalent through verifiable experience or academic  study;
    d. At least five years of full-time work experience or its  equivalent; and
    e. Virginia qualifying scores on the professional teacher's  assessments as prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    2. The Provisional (Career Switcher) License is awarded at  the end of Level I preparation. All components of the career switcher alternate  route for career professions must be completed by the candidate.
    3. The Level I requirements must be completed during the  course of a single year and may be offered through a variety of delivery  systems, including distance learning programs. If an employing agency  recommends extending the Provisional (Career Switcher) License for a second  year, the candidate will enter Level III of the program. Career switcher  programs must be certified by the Virginia Department of Education.
    a. Level I preparation. Intensive Level I preparation  includes a minimum of 180 clock hours of instruction, including field  experience. This phase includes, but is not limited to, curriculum and  instruction, including technology, reading, and other specific course content  relating to the Standards of Learning; differentiation of instruction;  classroom and behavior management; instructional design based on assessment  data; and human development and learning.
    b. Level II preparation during first year of employment.
    (1) Candidate seeks employment in Virginia with the  one-year Provisional (Career Switcher) License.
    (2) Continued Level II preparation during the first year of  employment with a minimum of five seminars that expand the intensive  preparation requirements listed in subdivision 3 a of this subsection. The five  seminars will include a minimum of 20 cumulative instructional hours. A variety  of instructional delivery techniques will be utilized to implement the  seminars.
    (3) One year of successful, full-time teaching experience  in a Virginia public or accredited nonpublic school under a one-year  Provisional (Career Switcher) License. A trained mentor must be assigned to  assist the candidate during the first year of employment. Responsibilities of  the mentor include, but are not limited to, the following:
    (a) Collaborate with the beginning teacher in the  development and implementation of an individualized professional development  plan;
    (b) Observe, assess, coach, and provide opportunities for  constructive feedback, including strategies for self-reflection;
    (c) Share resources and materials;
    (d) Share best instructional, assessment, and  organizational practices; classroom and behavior management strategies; and  techniques for promoting effective communication; and
    (e) Provide general support and direction regarding school  policies and procedures.
    (4) Upon completion of Levels I and II of the career  switcher alternate route to licensure program and submission of a  recommendation from the Virginia educational employing agency, the candidate  will be eligible to apply for a five-year, renewable license. Renewal  requirements for the regular license will be subject to current regulations of  the Virginia Board of Education.
    c. Level III preparation, if required.
    (1) Post preparation, if required, will be conducted by the  Virginia employing educational agency to address the areas where improvement is  needed as identified in the candidate's professional improvement plan; and
    (2) Upon completion of Levels I, II, and III of the career  switcher alternate route to licensure program and submission of a  recommendation from the Virginia educational employing agency, the candidate  will be eligible to receive a five-year renewable license.
    4. Verification of program completion will be documented by  the certified program provider and the division superintendent or designee.
    5. Certified providers implementing a career switcher  program may charge a fee for participation in the program.
    B. An alternate route is available to individuals employed  by an educational agency who seek teaching endorsements preK through grade 12.  The employing Virginia educational agency may request a nonrenewable  Provisional License on behalf of the individual if the individual has completed  an allowable portion of professional studies and endorsement requirements. This  route is also applicable to individuals who are employed by a Virginia public  school, a Virginia accredited nonpublic school, or an accredited virtual school  or program and who are seeking the Online Teacher License that is issued to  teachers who teach only online courses. The Provisional License will be issued  for two years. Individuals may apply for a third year on the Provisional  License by submitting documentation indicating that all licensure assessments  prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education have been taken. The Provisional  License is a nonrenewable teaching license valid for a period not to exceed  three years. Individuals must complete all licensure requirements to become  eligible for the five-year, renewable license.
    1. An individual seeking a license through this alternate  route must have met the following requirements:
    a. Entered the teaching field through the alternate route  to licensure upon the recommendation of the Virginia employing educational  agency. For the Online Teacher Provisional License, individuals must be  employed by a Virginia public school division, a Virginia accredited nonpublic  school, or an accredited virtual school or program;
    b. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university with the exception of individuals seeking the  Technical Professional License;
    c. Have met requirements for the endorsement area; and
    d. Need to complete an allowable portion of professional  studies and licensure requirements.
    2. The professional studies requirements for the  appropriate level of endorsement sought must be completed. A Virginia  educational agency may submit to the Superintendent of Public Instruction for  approval an alternate program to meet the professional studies requirements.  The alternate program must include training (e.g., seminar, internship,  coursework, etc.) in human development and learning; curriculum and  instruction, including technology; assessment of and for learning; classroom  and behavior management; the teaching profession, including legal status of  teachers and students, federal and state laws, and teacher evaluation as  prescribed by Virginia's Guidelines for Uniform Performance Standards and  Evaluation Criteria for Teachers; and reading.
    3. One year of successful, full-time teaching experience in  the appropriate teaching area in a Virginia public or an accredited nonpublic  school must be completed. For the Online Teacher License only, one year of successful  online teaching experience in the endorsement area in a public school division,  an accredited nonpublic school, or an accredited virtual school or program may  be accepted in lieu of the supervised teaching experience. A fully licensed  experienced teacher must be available in the school building to assist the  beginning teacher employed through the alternate route.
    C. Alternate route in special education. The Provisional  (Special Education) License is a nonrenewable teaching license issued to an  individual employed as a special education teacher in a public school or a  nonpublic special education school in Virginia who does not hold the  appropriate special education endorsement. The Provisional (Special Education)  License will be issued for two years. Individuals may apply for a third year on  the Provisional License by submitting documentation indicating that all  licensure assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education have been  taken. The Provisional License is a nonrenewable teaching license valid for a  period not to exceed three years. This alternate route to special education is  not applicable to individuals seeking the Online Teacher License. To be issued  the Provisional (Special Education) License through this alternate route, an  individual must meet the requirements through one of the two following options:
    1. Option I. The individual must hold a full, valid  Collegiate Professional or Postgraduate Professional License and must:
    a. Be employed by a Virginia public or nonpublic school as  a special educator and have the recommendation of the employing educational  agency;
    b. Have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    c. Have an assigned mentor with an active Virginia teaching  license with an endorsement in special education; and
    d. Have a planned program of study in the assigned  endorsement area, make progress toward meeting the endorsement requirements  each of the three years of the license, and have completed at least three  semester hours of coursework in the competencies of foundations for educating  students with disabilities and an understanding and application of the legal  aspects and regulatory requirements associated with identification, education,  and evaluation of students with disabilities. A survey course integrating these  competencies would satisfy this requirement. 
    The Provisional (Special Education) License through this  alternate route shall not be issued without the completion of these  prerequisites.
    2. Option II. The individual must:
    a. Be employed by a Virginia public or nonpublic school as  a special educator and have the recommendation of the employing educational  agency;
    b. Have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    c. Have an assigned mentor endorsed in special education;  and 
    d. Have a planned program of study in the assigned  endorsement area, make progress toward meeting the endorsement requirements  each of the three years of the license, and have completed nine semester hours  including courses in the following: characteristics of students with  disabilities, individualized education program implementation, and classroom  and behavior management. 
    The Provisional (Special Education) License through this  alternate route shall not be issued without the completion of these  prerequisites.
    D. Alternate programs at institutions of higher education  or Virginia school divisions. Alternate programs developed by institutions of  higher education (i) recognize the unique strengths of prospective teachers from  nontraditional backgrounds and (ii) prepare these individuals to meet the same  standards that are established for others who are granted a license through an  alternate route.
    E. Experiential learning. Individuals applying for an  initial teaching license through the alternate route as prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education must meet the following criteria to be eligible to  request experiential learning to satisfy the coursework for the endorsement  (teaching) content area:
    1. Have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    2. Have at least five years of documented full-time work  experience that may include specialized training related to the endorsement  sought; and
    3. Have met the qualifying score on the content knowledge  assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    Experiential learning does not apply to individuals  seeking special education and elementary education (i.e., preK-3 and preK-6)  endorsements or endorsements in which there is no Virginia Board of Education  prescribed content or subject assessment.
    8VAC20-23-100. Conditions for licensure for out-of-state  candidates by reciprocity.
    A. An individual coming into Virginia from any state may  qualify for a Virginia teaching license with comparable endorsement areas if  the individual (i) has completed a state-approved teacher preparation program  through a regionally accredited four-year college or university or (ii) holds a  valid out-of-state teaching license (i.e., full credential without deficiencies)  that must be in force at the time the application for a Virginia license is  made. An individual seeking licensure must establish a file in the Department  of Education by submitting a complete application packet that includes official  student transcripts. Unless exempted by the criteria in subsection C of this  section, professional teacher's assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education must be satisfied.
    B. An individual coming into Virginia will qualify for a  Virginia teaching license with comparable endorsement areas if the individual  holds an active national certification from the National Board for Professional  Teaching Standards (NBPTS) or a nationally recognized certification program  approved by the Virginia Board of Education.
    C. Individuals who hold a valid out-of-state license  (i.e., full credential without deficiencies) and who have completed a minimum  of three years of full-time, successful teaching experience in a public or an  accredited nonpublic school, kindergarten through grade 12, outside of Virginia  are exempt from the professional teacher's assessment requirements.  Documentation must be submitted to verify the school's status as a public or  accredited nonpublic school.
    8VAC20-23-110. Requirements for renewing a license.
    A. The Division Superintendent, Postgraduate Professional,  Collegiate Professional, Technical Professional, Pupil Personnel Services,  Online Teacher, and School Manager Licenses may be renewed upon the completion  of 180 professional development points within a five-year validity period based  on an individualized professional development plan that includes ongoing,  sustained, and high-quality professional development.
    B. An individual who holds an expired license must submit  a completed licensure application at the time a licensure renewal request is  submitted. 
    C. Virginia public school divisions and public education  agencies must report annually to the Virginia Department of Education that  instructional personnel have completed high-quality professional development  each year as set forth by the Virginia Department of Education.
    D. Any individual licensed and endorsed to teach (i)  middle school civics or economics or (ii) high school government or history who  is seeking renewal of such license is required to demonstrate knowledge of  Virginia history or state and local government by completing a module or  professional development course specifically related to Virginia history or  state and local government that has a value of five professional development points.  This requirement applies for purposes of the individual's next or initial  renewal occurring after July 1, 2014.
    E. If the requirement has not been met for initial  licensure or licensure renewal, individuals seeking renewal of a license shall  provide evidence of completion of certification or training in emergency first  aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated external  defibrillators. The certification or training program shall be based on the  current national evidence-based emergency cardiovascular care guidelines for  cardiopulmonary resuscitation and the use of an automated external  defibrillator, such as a program developed by the American Heart Association or  the American Red Cross. The Virginia Board of Education shall provide a waiver  for this requirement for any person with a disability whose disability  prohibits such person from completing the certification or training.
    F. Professional development points may be accrued by the  completion of professional development activities to improve and increase  instructional personnel's knowledge of the academic subjects the teachers teach  or the area assigned from one or more of the following eight options.
    1. College credit. Acceptable coursework offers content  that provides new information and is offered on campus, off campus, or through  extension by any regionally accredited two-year or four-year college or  university. College coursework must develop further experiences in subject  content taught, teaching strategies, uses of technologies, leadership, and  other essential elements in teaching to high standards and increasing student  learning. Instructional personnel must complete coursework to improve and  increase the knowledge of the academic subjects or endorsement areas in which  they are assigned. Individuals who do not hold a graduate degree must refer to  subsection G of this section.
    2. Professional conference. A professional conference is a  workshop, institute, or seminar of four or more hours that contributes to  ongoing, sustained, and high-quality professional development.
    3. Curriculum development. Curriculum development is a  group activity in which the license holder contributes to the improvement of  the curriculum of a school, a school division, or an education institution in  the teaching area assigned. This includes the alignment of curriculum  frameworks, instructional materials, and assessments to provide a system with  clear expectations of what is to be taught and learned.
    4. Publication of article. The article must contribute to  the education profession or to the body of knowledge of the license holder's  teaching area or instructional position. Grant reports that present the results  of educational research are acceptable provided the license holder had an  active role in planning, analyzing, interpreting, demonstrating, disseminating,  or evaluating the study or innovation. The article must be published in a  recognized professional journal.
    5. Publication of book. Books must be published for  purchase and must contribute to the education profession or to the body of  knowledge of the license holder's teaching area or instructional position. The  published book must increase the field of content knowledge; planning and  assessment for evaluating and providing students with feedback that encourages  student progress and measures student achievement; instruction, safety, and  learning environment; and communication and community relations working with  students, parents, and members of the community to promote broad support for  student learning. Points will not be awarded for self-published books.
    6. Mentorship. Mentoring is the process by which an  experienced professional who has received mentorship training provides  assistance to one or more persons for the purpose of improving their performance.  Assistance may involve role modeling, direct instruction, demonstration,  observation with feedback, developing of plans, and consultation to promote  instructional excellence and increased student achievement. Mentoring may  include the supervision of a field experience of a pre-service student teacher  or an intern in an approved teacher or principal preparation program, as well  as mentoring as part of the induction process for a beginning teacher or a  first-year administrator. Individuals serving in this role and submitting  documentation for license renewal based on the mentorship option shall receive  training as a mentor prior to the assignment and at least once during the  five-year renewal cycle.
    7. Educational project. Educational projects must be  planned, focused projects based on high standards of teaching and learning.  Projects must result in a written report or other tangible product. Projects  must contribute to the education profession or to the body of knowledge of the  license holder's teaching area or instructional position. A project could  include participation in new professional responsibilities, such as leading a  school improvement initiative.
    8. Professional development activity. Professional  development activities must focus on student learning and achievement,  schoolwide educational improvement, leadership, subject content, teaching  strategies, and use of technologies and other essential elements in teaching to  high standards. Activities must be planned, rigorous, systematic, and promote  continuous inquiry and reflection. Local employing educational agencies are  encouraged to design professional development activities that are conducted in  school settings and linked to student learning and achievement.
    G. A minimum of 90 points (i.e., three semester hours in a  content area) at the undergraduate (i.e., two-year or four-year institution) or  graduate level earned from a regionally accredited college or university in the  license holder's endorsement areas shall be required of license holders without  a master's degree. With prior approval, exceptions to the content course  requirement may be made by the division superintendent or principal. Special  education coursework designed to assist classroom teachers and other school  personnel in working with students with disabilities, a course in gifted  education, a course in educational technology, or a course in English as a  second language may be completed to satisfy the content course requirement.  Professional development activities designed to support the Virginia Standards  of Learning, Standards of Accreditation, and state assessments may be accepted  in lieu of the content course. An individual without a master's degree who  holds a renewable Online Teacher License may complete pedagogy of online instruction  coursework to meet this requirement. The substance of the activities must  clearly support these initiatives and address one or more of the following  areas: (i) new content knowledge to implement the Virginia Standards of  Learning, (ii) curriculum development initiative designed to translate the  standards from standards to classroom objectives, (iii) teaching beginning  reading skills including phonemic awareness and the structure of language  (i.e., phonics), (iv) staff development activities in assessment to assist  classroom teachers in the utilization of test results to improve classroom  instruction, and (v) professional development designed to implement the  technology standards in the schools. Technical Professional License holders  without baccalaureate degrees may satisfy the requirement through career and  technical education workshops, career and technical education institutes, or  through undergraduate coursework at two-year or four-year institutions.
    H. Content area courses are courses at the undergraduate  level (i.e., two-year or four-year institution) or at the graduate level that  will not duplicate previous courses taken in the humanities, English, history  and social sciences, sciences, mathematics, health and physical education, and  fine arts. These courses are usually available through the college of or  department of arts and sciences. License holders with elementary education,  middle education, special education, or reading endorsements must satisfy the  90-point requirement through reading coursework or content coursework in one of  the areas listed in this subsection. Courses available through a regionally  accredited college's or university's department of education may be used to  satisfy the content requirement for those license holders with endorsements in  health and physical education, career and technical education, and library  science education.
    I. With prior approval of the division superintendent or  principal, the 90 points in a content area also may be satisfied through  coursework taken to obtain a new teaching endorsement or coursework taken  because of a particular need of a particular teacher.
    J. The remaining 90 points may be accrued by activities  drawn from one or more of the eight renewal options. Renewal work is designed  to provide licensed personnel with opportunities for professional development  relative to the grade levels or teaching fields to which they are assigned or  for which they seek an added endorsement. Such professional development  encompasses (i) responsible remediation of any area of an individual's  knowledge or skills that fails to meet the standards of competency and (ii)  responsible efforts to increase the individual's knowledge of new developments  in his field and to respond to new curricular demands within the individual's  area of professional competence.
    K. The proposed work toward renewal in certain options  must be approved in advance by the chief executive officer or designee of the  employing educational agency. Persons who are not employed by an educational agency  may renew or reinstate their license by submitting to the Office of  Professional Licensure, Department of Education, their individualized renewal  record and verification of points, including official student transcripts of  coursework taken at a regionally accredited two-year or four-year college or  university.
    L. Accrual of professional development points shall be  determined by criteria set forth by the Virginia Department of Education in the  Virginia Renewal Manual (http://doe.virginia.gov/teaching/licensure/licensure_renewal_manual.pdf).
    M. Persons seeking license renewal as teachers must  demonstrate proficiency in the use of educational technology for instruction.
    N. Virginia school divisions and nonpublic schools will  recommend renewal of licenses using the renewal point system. The renewal  recommendation must include verification of demonstrated proficiency in the use  of educational technology for instruction.
    O. Training in instructional methods tailored to promote  academic progress and effective preparation for the Standards of Learning tests  and end-of-grade assessments is required for licensure renewal.
    P. If they have not already met the requirement, persons  seeking licensure renewal as teachers must complete study in child abuse  recognition and intervention in accordance with curriculum guidelines developed  by the Virginia Board of Education in consultation with the Virginia Department  of Social Services that are relevant to the specific teacher licensure routes.
    Part IV 
  Licensure Regulations Governing Early/Primary Education, Elementary Education,  and Middle Education Endorsements
    8VAC20-23-120. Early/primary education, elementary  education, and middle education endorsements.
    Individuals seeking licensure with endorsements in  early/primary education, elementary education, and middle education may meet  requirements through the completion of an approved program or if employed by a  Virginia public or nonpublic school through the alternate route to licensure.  Components of the licensure program include a degree from a regionally  accredited college or university in the liberal arts and sciences, or  equivalent; professional teacher's assessments requirement prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education; specific endorsement requirements; and  professional studies requirements.
    8VAC20-23-130. Professional studies requirements.
    Professional studies requirements for early/primary  education, elementary education, and middle education: 21 semester hours. These  requirements may be taught in integrated coursework or modules.
    1. Human development and learning (birth through  adolescence): 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  of the physical, social, emotional, speech and language, and intellectual  development of children and the ability to use this understanding in guiding  learning experiences and relating meaningfully to students. 
    b. The interaction of children with individual differences - economic,  social, racial, ethnic, religious, physical, and mental - should be  incorporated to include skills contributing to an understanding of  developmental disabilities and developmental issues related to but not limited  to low socioeconomic status, attention deficit disorders, developmental  disorders, gifted education including the use of multiple criteria to identify  gifted students, substance abuse, child abuse, and family disruptions.
    2. Curriculum and instruction: 3 semester hours.
    a. Early/primary education preK-3 or elementary education  preK-6 curriculum and instruction: 3 semester hours. 
    (1) Skills in this area shall contribute to an  understanding of the principles of learning; the application of skills in  discipline-specific methodology; effective communication with and among  students; selection and use of materials, including media and contemporary  technologies; and selection, development, and use of appropriate curricula,  methodologies, and materials that support and enhance student learning and  reflect the research on unique, age-appropriate, and culturally relevant  curriculum and pedagogy. 
    (2) Understanding of the principles of online learning and  online instructional strategies and the application of skills to deliver online  instruction must be included. 
    (3) Instructional practices that are sensitive to  culturally and linguistically diverse learners, including limited English  proficient students, gifted and talented students, and those students with  disabilities; and appropriate for the level of endorsement (i.e., preK-3 or  preK-6) sought shall be included. 
    (4) Teaching methods shall be tailored to promote student  engagement and student academic progress and effective preparation for the  Standards of Learning assessments. 
    (5) Study in (i) methods of improving communication between  schools and families, (ii) communicating with families regarding social and  instructional needs of children, (iii) ways of increasing family involvement in  student learning at home and in school, (iv) the Virginia Standards of  Learning, and (v) Virginia Foundation Blocks for Early Learning: Comprehensive  Standards for Four-Year-Olds prepared by the department's Office of Humanities  and Early Childhood shall be included. 
    (6) Early childhood educators must understand the role of  families in child development and in relation to teaching educational skills. 
    (7) Early childhood educators must understand the role of  the informal and play-mediated settings for promoting students' skills and  development and must demonstrate knowledge and skill in interacting in such  situations to promote specific learning outcomes as reflected in Virginia's  Foundation Blocks for Early Learning. Demonstrated proficiency in the use of  educational technology for instruction shall be included. Persons seeking  initial licensure as teachers and persons seeking licensure renewal as teachers  for the first time shall complete study in child abuse recognition and  intervention in accordance with curriculum guidelines developed by the Virginia  Board of Education in consultation with the Virginia Department of Social  Services that are relevant to the specific teacher licensure routes.  Pre-student teaching experiences (i.e., field experiences) should be evident  within these skills.
    b. Middle education 6-8 curriculum and instruction: 3  semester hours. 
    (1) Skills in this area shall contribute to an  understanding of the principles of learning; the application of skills in  discipline-specific methodology; effective communication with and among  students; and selection and use of materials, including media and contemporary  technologies.
    (2) Understanding of the principles of online learning and  online instructional strategies and the application of skills to deliver online  instruction must be included. 
    (3) Instructional practices that are sensitive to  culturally and linguistically diverse learners including limited English  proficient students, gifted and talented students, and students with  disabilities, and must be appropriate for the middle education endorsement  shall be included. 
    (4) Teaching methods shall be tailored to promote student  engagement and student academic progress and effective preparation for the  Virginia Standards of Learning assessments. 
    (5) Study in methods of improving communication between  schools and families, ways of increasing family involvement in student learning  at home and in school, and the Standards of Learning shall be included. 
    (6) Demonstrated proficiency in the use of educational  technology for instruction shall be included. 
    (7) Persons seeking initial licensure as teachers and  persons seeking licensure renewal as teachers for the first time shall complete  study in child abuse recognition and intervention in accordance with curriculum  guidelines developed by the Virginia Board of Education in consultation with  the Virginia Department of Social Services that are relevant to the specific  teacher licensure routes. Pre-student teaching experiences (i.e., field  experiences) should be evident within these skills.
    3. Classroom and behavior management: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  and application of research-based classroom and behavior management techniques,  classroom community building, positive behavior supports, and individual  interventions, including techniques that promote emotional well-being and teach  and maintain behavioral conduct and skills consistent with norms, standards,  and rules of the educational environment. 
    b. This area shall address diverse approaches based upon  behavioral, cognitive, affective, social and ecological theory and practice. 
    c. Approaches should support professionally appropriate  practices that promote positive redirection of behavior, development of social  skills, and of self discipline. 
    d. Knowledge and an understanding of various school crisis  management and safety plans and the demonstrated ability to create a safe,  orderly classroom environment must be included. 
    e. The link between classroom management and students' ages  must be understood and demonstrated in techniques used in the classroom.
    4. Assessment of and for learning: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall be designed to develop an  understanding and application of creating, selecting, and implementing valid  and reliable classroom-based assessments of student learning, including  formative and summative assessments. Assessments designed and adapted to meet  the needs of diverse learners must be addressed. 
    b. Analytical skills necessary to inform ongoing planning  and instruction, as well as to understand, and help students understand their  own progress and growth must be included. 
    c. Skills also include the relationships among assessment,  instruction, and monitoring student progress to include student performance  measures in grading practices, the ability to interpret valid assessments using  a variety of formats in order to measure student attainment of essential skills  in a standards-based environment, and the ability to analyze assessment data to  make decisions about how to improve instruction and student performance. 
    d. Understanding of state assessment programs and  accountability systems, including assessments used for student achievement goal  setting as related to teacher evaluation and determining student academic progress  must be included. 
    e. Knowledge of legal and ethical aspects of assessment,  and skills for developing familiarity with assessments used in preK-12  education (e.g., diagnostic, college admission exams, industry certifications,  and placement assessments) must be included.
    5. The teaching profession: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall be designed to develop an  understanding of the historical, philosophical, and sociological foundations  underlying the role, development, and organization of public education in the  United States. 
    b. Attention must be given to the legal status of teachers  and students, including federal and state laws and regulations; school as an  organization and culture; and contemporary issues and current trends in education,  including the impact of technology on education. Local, state, and federal  governance of schools, including the roles of teachers and schools in  communities, must be included. 
    c. Professionalism and ethical standards, as well as  personal integrity must be addressed. 
    d. Knowledge and understanding of Virginia's Guidelines for  Uniform Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers must be  included. 
    6. Reading: 6 semester hours.
    a. Early/primary preK-3 and elementary education preK-6 - language  acquisition and reading and writing: 6 semester hours. Skills listed for these  endorsement areas represent the minimum competencies that a beginning teacher  must be able to demonstrate. These skills are not intended to limit the scope  of a beginning teacher's program. Additional knowledge and skills that add to a  beginning teacher's competencies to deliver instruction and improve student  achievement should be included as part of a quality learning experience.
    (1) Language acquisition: 3 semester hours. Skills in this  area shall be designed to impart a thorough understanding of the Virginia  English Standards of Learning as well as the complex nature of language  acquisition as a precursor to literacy. Language acquisition shall follow the  typical development of linguistic competence in the areas of phonetics,  semantics, syntax, morphology, phonology, and pragmatics.
    (2) Reading and writing: 3 semester hours. Skills in this  area shall be designed to impart a thorough understanding of the Virginia  English Standards of Learning as well as the reciprocal nature of reading and  writing. Reading shall include phonemic awareness, concept of print, phonics,  fluency, vocabulary development, and comprehension strategies. Writing shall  include writing strategies and conventions as supporting the composing and  writing expression and usage and mechanics domains. Additional skills shall  include proficiency in understanding the stages of spelling development, the  writing process, as well as the ability to foster appreciation of a variety of  fiction and nonfiction texts and independent reading. 
    b. Middle education - language acquisition and reading  development: 3 semester hours and literacy in the content areas: 3 semester  hours. 
    (1) Language acquisition and reading development: 3  semester hours. Skills in this area shall be designed to impart a thorough  understanding of the complex nature of language acquisition and reading, to  include phonemic awareness, phonics, fluency, vocabulary development, and  comprehension strategies for adolescent learners. Additional skills shall  include proficiency in writing strategies as well as the ability to foster  appreciation of a variety of fiction and nonfiction texts and independent  reading for adolescent learners.
    (2) Literacy in the content areas: 3 semester hours. Skills  in this area shall be designed to impart an understanding of vocabulary  development and comprehension skills in English, mathematics, science, history  and social science, and other content areas. Strategies include teaching  students how to ask effective questions, summarize and retell both verbally and  in writing, and to listen effectively. Teaching strategies include literal,  interpretive, critical, and evaluative comprehension, as well as the ability to  foster appreciation of a variety of fiction and nonfiction texts and  independent reading for adolescent readers.
    7. Supervised clinical experience. Supervised clinical  experiences shall be continuous and systematic and comprised of early field  experiences and a minimum of 10 weeks of full-time student teaching under the  supervision of a cooperating teacher with demonstrated effectiveness in the  classroom. The summative supervised student teaching experience shall include  at least 150 clock hours spent in direct teaching at the level of endorsement.  One year of successful full-time teaching experience in the endorsement area in  a public or accredited nonpublic school may be accepted in lieu of the  supervised teaching experience. For the Online Teacher License only, one year  of successful online teaching experience in the endorsement area in a public  school, an accredited nonpublic school, or an accredited virtual school or  program may be accepted in lieu of the supervised teaching experience. A fully  licensed, experienced teacher shall be available in the school building to  assist a beginning teacher employed through the alternate route.
    8VAC20-23-140. Early childhood for three-year-olds and  four-year-olds (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in elementary education (such as preK-3  or preK-6) or special education early childhood;
    2. Completed 9 semester hours of graduate-level coursework  in early childhood education; and
    3. Completed a supervised practicum of at least 45  instructional hours in a preschool setting (i.e., three-year-olds and  four-year-olds) in a public school, an accredited nonpublic school, or another  program approved by the Virginia Board of Education. One year of successful,  full-time teaching experience in a public or accredited nonpublic school may be  accepted in lieu of the practicum.
    4. The add-on endorsement to an elementary endorsement that  includes preK is not required to teach preK (i.e., three-year-olds and  four-year-olds), but the endorsement recognizes the candidate's additional  preparation in early childhood education. 
    8VAC20-23-150. Early/primary education preK-3.
    Endorsement requirements.
    1. The candidate must have graduated from an approved  teacher preparation program in early/primary education preK-3; or
    2. The candidate for the early/primary education preK-3  endorsement must have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university in the liberal arts and sciences, or  equivalent, and completed coursework that covers the early/primary education  preK-3 competencies and fulfills the following 51 semester-hour requirements:
    a. English (must include composition, oral communication,  and literature): 12 semester hours; or complete 6 semester hours in English and  pass a rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education;
    b. Mathematics (must include algebra, geometry, probability  and statistics, and methods in teaching elementary mathematics): 12 semester  hours; or complete 6 semester hours in mathematics, complete a methods in  teaching elementary mathematics course (3 semester hours), and pass a rigorous  elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;
    c. Laboratory sciences: 12 semester hours (in at least two  science disciplines and methods in teaching elementary science); or complete 6  semester hours in laboratory science (in two science disciplines), complete a  methods in teaching elementary science course (3 semester hours), and pass a  rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;
    d. History (must include American history and world  history): 6 semester hours, and Social Science (must include geography and  economics): 6 semester hours; or complete 3 semester hours in history, complete  3 semester hours in social science (geography or economics), and pass a  rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;  and
    e. Arts: 3 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-160. Elementary education preK-6.
    Endorsement requirements.
    1. The candidate shall have graduated from an approved  teacher preparation program in elementary education preK-6; or
    2. The candidate for the elementary education preK-6  endorsement must have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university majoring in the liberal arts and sciences (or  equivalent) and fulfill the following 57 semester-hour requirements:
    a. English (must include composition, oral communication,  and literature): 12 semester hours; or complete 6 semester hours in English and  pass a rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;
    b. Mathematics (must include algebra, geometry, probability  and statistics, and teaching elementary mathematics): 15 semester hours; or  complete 6 hours in mathematics, complete a methods in teaching elementary  mathematics course (3 semester hours), and pass a rigorous elementary subject  test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;
    c. Science (including a laboratory course): 15 semester  hours in at least three science disciplines and at least a three credit science  methods course; or complete 6 semester hours (in two science disciplines),  complete a methods in teaching elementary science course (3 semester hours),  and pass a rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education;
    d. History (must include American history and world  history): 6 semester hours, and Social Science (must include geography and  economics): 6 semester hours; or complete 3 semester hours in history, complete  3 semester hours in social science (geography or economics), and pass a  rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;  and
    e. Arts: 3 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-170. Middle education 6-8.
    Endorsement requirements.
    1. The candidate must have  graduated from an approved teacher preparation discipline-specific program in  middle education 6-8 with at least one area of academic preparation from the  areas of English, mathematics, science, and history and social sciences; or
    2. An applicant seeking the middle education 6-8  endorsement must have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university in the liberal arts and sciences, or  equivalent; and completed the minimum number of semester hours, as indicated,  in at least one area of academic preparation (i.e., concentration) that will be  listed on the license. The applicant will be restricted to teaching only in the  area or areas of concentration listed on the teaching license.
    a. English. English concentration (must include coursework  in language, for example history, structure, grammar, fiction and nonfiction  texts, media literacy, advanced composition, and interpersonal communication or  speech): 21 semester hours.
    b. Mathematics. Mathematics concentration (must include  coursework in algebra, geometry, probability and statistics, applications of  mathematics, and methods of teaching mathematics to include middle school  mathematics content): 24 semester hours.
    c. Science. Science concentration (must include courses in  each of the following: biology, chemistry, physics, and Earth and space science;  and a laboratory course is required in two of the four areas): 21 semester  hours.
    d. History and social sciences. History and social sciences  concentration (must include a course in American history; world history;  economics; American government, including state and local government; and  geography): 21 semester hours.
    Part V 
  Licensure Regulations Governing PreK-12 Endorsements, Special Education,  Secondary Grades 6-12 Endorsements, and Adult Education
    8VAC20-23-180. PreK-12 endorsements, special education,  secondary grades 6-12 endorsements, and adult education.
    Individuals seeking licensure with preK-12 endorsements,  special education, secondary grades 6-12 endorsements, or adult education may  meet requirements through the completion of an approved program or if employed  by a Virginia public or nonpublic school through the alternate route to  licensure. Components of the licensure program include a degree from a  regionally accredited college or university in the liberal arts and sciences,  or equivalent; professional teacher's assessment requirements prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education; specific endorsement requirements; and  professional studies requirements.
    8VAC20-23-190. Professional studies requirements.
    Professional studies requirements for adult education,  preK-12 endorsements, and secondary grades 6-12 endorsements: 18 semester  hours. Professional studies requirements for special education: 21 semester  hours. These requirements may be taught in integrated coursework or modules.
    1. Human development and learning (birth through  adolescence): 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  of the physical, social, emotional, speech and language, and intellectual  development of children and the ability to use this understanding in guiding  learning experiences. 
    b. The interaction of children with individual differences  - economic, social, racial, ethnic, religious, physical, and mental - should be  incorporated to include skills contributing to an understanding of developmental  disabilities and developmental issues related to but not limited to low  socioeconomic status, attention deficit disorders, developmental disabilities,  gifted education including the use of multiple criteria to identify gifted  students, substance abuse, child abuse, and family disruptions.
    2. Curriculum and instruction: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  of the principles of learning; the application of skills in discipline-specific  methodology; effective communication with and among students; selection and use  of materials, including media and contemporary technologies; selection,  development, and use of appropriate curricula, methodologies, and materials  that support and enhance student learning and reflect the research on unique,  age-appropriate, and culturally relevant curriculum and pedagogy. 
    b. Understanding of the principles of online learning and  online instructional strategies and the application of skills to deliver online  instruction must be included. 
    c. Instructional practices that are sensitive to culturally  and linguistically diverse learners, including limited English proficient  students; gifted and talented students and those students with disabilities;  and appropriate for the level of endorsement sought shall be included. 
    d. Teaching methods shall be tailored to promote student  academic progress and effective preparation for the Virginia Standards of  Learning assessments. 
    e. Methods of improving communication between schools and  families, ways of increasing family involvement in student learning at home and  in school, and the Virginia Standards of Learning shall be included. 
    f. Demonstrated proficiency in the use of educational  technology for instruction shall be included. 
    g. Persons seeking initial licensure as teachers and  persons seeking licensure renewal as teachers for the first time shall complete  study in child abuse recognition and intervention in accordance with curriculum  guidelines developed by the Virginia Board of Education in consultation with  the Virginia Department of Social Services that are relevant to the specific  teacher licensure routes. 
    h. Curriculum and instruction for secondary grades 6-12  endorsements shall include middle and secondary education. Pre-student teaching  experiences (i.e., field experiences) should be evident within these skills.  For preK-12, field experiences shall be at the elementary, middle, and  secondary levels.
    3. Assessment of and for learning: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall be designed to develop an  understanding and application of creating, selecting, and implementing valid  and reliable classroom-based assessments of student learning, including  formative and summative assessments. Assessments designed and adapted to meet  the needs of diverse learners must be addressed. 
    b. Analytical skills necessary to inform ongoing planning  and instruction, as well as to understand, and help students understand their  own progress and growth must be included. 
    c. Skills also include the relationships among assessment,  instruction, and monitoring student progress to include student performance  measures in grading practices, the ability to interpret valid assessments using  a variety of formats in order to measure student attainment of essential skills  in a standards-based environment, and the ability to analyze assessment data to  make decisions about how to improve instruction and student performance. 
    d. Understanding of state assessment programs and  accountability systems, including assessments used for student achievement goal  setting as related to teacher evaluation and determining student academic  progress, including knowledge of legal and ethical aspects of assessment. 
    e. Develop familiarity with assessments used in preK-12  education (e.g., diagnostic, college admission exams, industry certifications,  placement assessments).
    4. The teaching profession: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall be designed to develop an  understanding of the historical, philosophical, and sociological foundations  underlying the role, development, and organization of public education in the  United States. 
    b. Attention must be given to the legal status of teachers  and students, including federal and state laws and regulations, school as an  organization and culture, and contemporary issues and current trends in  education, including the impact of technology on education. Local, state, and  federal governance of schools, including the roles of teachers and schools in  communities must be included. 
    c. Professionalism and ethical standards, as well as  personal integrity must be addressed. 
    d. Knowledge and understanding of Virginia's Guidelines for  Uniform Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers must be  included. 
    5. Classroom and behavior management: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  and application of research-based classroom and behavior management techniques,  classroom community building, positive behavior supports, and individual  interventions, including techniques that promote emotional well-being and teach  and maintain behavioral conduct and skills consistent with norms, standards,  and rules of the educational environment. 
    b. This area shall address diverse approaches based upon  behavioral, cognitive, affective, social and ecological theory and practice. 
    c. Approaches should support professionally appropriate  practices that promote positive redirection of behavior, development of social  skills and of self-discipline. 
    d. Knowledge and an understanding of various school crisis  management and safety plans and the ability to create a safe, orderly classroom  environment must be included. The link between classroom management and the  students' ages must be understood and demonstrated in techniques used in the  classroom. 
    6. Reading.
    a. Adult education, preK-12, and secondary grades 6-12 -  literacy in the content areas: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area shall be  designed to impart an understanding of vocabulary development and comprehension  skills in English, mathematics, science, history and social science, and other  content areas. Strategies include teaching students how to ask effective  questions, summarize and retell both verbally and in writing, and listen  effectively. Teaching strategies include literal, interpretive, critical, and  evaluative comprehension, as well as the ability to foster appreciation of a  variety of fiction and nonfiction texts and independent reading for adolescent  learners.
    b. Special education - language acquisition and reading and  writing: 6 semester hours. Skills listed for these endorsement areas represent  the minimum competencies that a beginning teacher must be able to demonstrate.  These skills are not intended to limit the scope of a beginning teacher's  program. Additional knowledge and skills that add to a beginning teacher's  competencies to deliver instruction and improve student achievement should be  included as part of a quality learning experience.
    (1) Language acquisition: 3 semester hours. Skills in this  area shall be designed to impart a thorough understanding of the Virginia  English Standards of Learning as well as the complex nature of language  acquisition as a precursor to literacy. Language acquisition shall follow the  typical development of linguistic competence in the areas of phonetics,  semantics, syntax, morphology, phonology, and pragmatics. 
    (2) Reading and writing: 3 semester hours. Skills in this  area shall be designed to impart a thorough understanding of the Virginia  English Standards of Learning as well as the reciprocal nature of reading and  writing. Reading shall include phonemic awareness, concept of print, phonics,  fluency, vocabulary development, and comprehension strategies. Writing shall  include writing strategies and conventions as supporting the composing and  writing expression and usage and mechanics domains. Additional skills shall  include proficiency in understanding the stages of spelling development, the  writing process, as well as the ability to foster appreciation of a variety of  fiction and nonfiction texts and independent reading.
    7. Supervised classroom experience. Supervised clinical  experiences shall be continuous and systematic and comprised of early field  experiences and a minimum of 10 weeks of full-time student teaching under the  supervision of a cooperating teacher with demonstrated effectiveness in the  classroom. The summative supervised student teaching experience shall include  at least 150 clock hours spent in direct teaching at the level of endorsement. 
    If a preK-12 endorsement is sought, teaching activities  shall be at the elementary and middle or secondary levels. Individuals seeking  the endorsement in library media shall complete the supervised school library  media practicum in a school library media setting. Individuals seeking an  endorsement in an area of special education shall complete the supervised  classroom experience requirement in the area of special education for which the  endorsement is sought. One year of successful full-time teaching experience in  the endorsement area in a public or an accredited nonpublic school may be  accepted in lieu of the supervised teaching experience. For the Online Teacher  License only, one year of successful online teaching experience in the  endorsement area in a public school, an accredited nonpublic school, or an  accredited virtual school or program may be accepted in lieu of the supervised  teaching experience. A fully licensed, experienced teacher shall be available  in the school building to assist a beginning teacher employed through the  alternate route.
    8VAC20-23-200. Adult education.
    A. Endorsement  requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university or hold a Collegiate Professional License; and
    2. A minimum of 15 semester hours in adult education that  must include the following competencies and one semester of supervised  successful full-time, or an equivalent number of hours of part-time experience,  teaching of adults:
    a. Understanding of the nature or psychology of the adult  learner or adult development;
    b. Understanding of the knowledge, skills, and processes  needed for the selection, evaluation, and instructional applications of the  methods and materials for adult basic skills including:
    (1) Curriculum development in adult basic education or  General Educational Development (GED) instruction;
    (2) Beginning reading for adults;
    (3) Beginning mathematics for adults;
    (4) Reading comprehension for adult education;
    (5) Foundations of adult education; and
    (6) Other adult basic skills instruction.
    B. Individuals not holding a Collegiate Professional  License or a Postgraduate Professional License must meet the professional  teacher's assessment requirements prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education.
    8VAC20-23-210. Adult English as a second language (add-on  endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in adult English as a second language; or
    2. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in a teaching area; and 
    3. Completed 21 semester hours of coursework distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Methods for teaching English as a second language to  adults: 3 semester hours;
    b. English linguistics: 3 semester hours;
    c. Cross-cultural education: 3 semester hours;
    d. Modern foreign language: 6 semester hours; and
    e. Electives from the following areas: 6 semester hours:
    (1) Cross-cultural communication;
    (2) Second language acquisition;
    (3) General linguistics;
    (4) Teaching reading to adults;
    (5) Adult English as a second language instruction; or
    (6) Adult English as a second language curriculum  development.
    8VAC20-23-220. Career and technical education – agricultural  education.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in agricultural education; or
    2. Completed 39 semester hours of coursework in  agriculture, including at least three semester hours in each of the following  areas in subdivisions 2 a through 2 f as well as a minimum of nine hours in one  concentration area listed in the following areas subdivisions 2 a through 2 f:
    a. Plant science;
    b. Animal science;
    c. Agricultural mechanics and applied technology with a lab  component;
    d. Agricultural economics and management;
    e. Forestry and wildlife management; 
    f. Horticulture; and
    g. Supervised occupational experience, 3 semester hours, or  one year of successful, full-time or the equivalent of relevant occupational  experience (a minimum of 2,000 cumulative hours) within the past five years.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in  specialized areas may be granted to individuals who have:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency;
    2. Completed two years of successful, full-time or the  equivalent of occupational experience within the past five years in the  teaching specialty sought;
    3. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours); and
    4. Completed an agricultural education certificate or  associate degree program in the teaching specialty area sought.
    8VAC20-23-230. Career and technical education – business and  information technology.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have: 
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in business and information technology; or 
    2. Completed a major in business education or 39 semester  hours of coursework in business and information technology, including: 
    a. Accounting: 6 semester hours; 
    b. Economics: 3 semester hours; 
    c. Business law, business principles, management,  marketing, or finance: 9 semester hours; 
    d. Communications and media to include oral, written, and  presentation: 3 semester hours; 
    e. Information systems and technology to include computer  software applications (e.g., word processing, spreadsheet, database, and  presentation), information technology fundamentals, database management,  communications systems, programming, software development, security, and  networking: 12 semester hours; 
    f. Input technologies to include touch keyboarding  (required, or documented demonstrated mastery of the touch keyboarding skill),  audio input devices, video input devices, pointing devices, touch screens, or  other emerging input technologies: 3 semester hours; and 
    g. Supervised business experience: 3 semester hours; or one  year of successful full-time or the equivalent (i.e., 2,000 part-time hours)  relevant occupational experience within the last five years. 
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  highly specialized business and information technology area, such as  networking, administration, communications systems, programming, database  management, Internet application development, medical office procedures, legal  office procedures, network administration, and other emerging highly  specialized areas may be granted to individuals who have: 
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency; 
    2. Completed two years of successful, full-time or the  equivalent occupational experience within the last five years in the teaching  specialty area sought; 
    3. Completed a business certificate or associate degree  program from a regionally accredited institution in the teaching specialty area  sought; and 
    4. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    8VAC20-23-240. Career and technical education – family and  consumer sciences.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in family and consumer sciences; or
    2. Completed a major in family and consumer sciences  education or 39 semester hours of coursework in family and consumer sciences  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Development of individuals through the lifespan and the  family life cycle and family: 9 semester hours;
    b. Resource management, personal and family finance, and  consumer economics: 6 semester hours;
    c. Food, nutrition, dietetics, wellness, and food science:  9 semester hours;
    d. Housing, home furnishing, and equipment: 3 semester  hours;
    e. Apparel and textiles: 6 semester hours;
    f. Occupational program management: 3 semester hours; and
    g. Supervised occupational experience related to family and  consumer sciences, 3 semester hours, or one year of successful, full-time or  the equivalent of relevant occupational experience within the last five years.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  specialized family and consumer sciences area, such as child care occupations,  consumer services, family and human services, fashion design occupations, food  occupations, hospitality occupations, interior design occupations, and home  furnishings occupations, and home and institutional services, may be granted to  individuals who have:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency.
    2. Completed at least two years of successful, full-time  occupational experience or the equivalent within the past five years in the  teaching specialty for which they are seeking endorsement.
    3. Completed a family and consumer sciences certificate or  associate degree program where applicable in the area of endorsement sought.
    4. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    8VAC20-23-250. Career and technical education – health and  medical sciences.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved program of study with a  minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university in a health care program of study and hold a current license or  certification as a professional practitioner in the area in which one is to be  teaching; or
    2. A current license or certification as a professional  practitioner in the area in which one is to be teaching and completed two years  of successful, full-time or the equivalent of occupational experience within  the past five years in an area related to the teaching specialty sought.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  specialized health occupations area may be granted to individuals who have:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency;
    2. A license or be certified as a professional practitioner  in the area in which one is to be teaching;
    3. Completed two years of full-time or the equivalent of  occupational experience within the past five years in the teaching specialty  sought;
    4. Completed a health occupations certificate or associate  degree program from a regionally accredited institution in the teaching  specialty area sought; and
    5. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    8VAC20-23-260. Career and technical education – marketing  education.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in marketing education; or
    2. Completed a major in marketing education or a minimum of  39 semester hours of coursework in marketing to include;
    a. Marketing processes and environment: 3 semester hours;
    b. Management and supervision: 6 semester hours;
    c. Economics: 3 semester hours;
    d. Merchandising and operations: 3 semester hours;
    e. Advertising and promotion: 3 semester hours;
    f. Sales and selling: 3 semester hours;
    g. Communication theory and techniques: 3 semester hours;
    h. Consumer behavior: 3 semester hours;
    i. International (global) marketing: 3 semester hours;
    j. Finance, accounting, or marketing mathematics: 3  semester hours;
    k. Technology applications: 3 semester hours; and
    l. Supervised marketing occupational experience, 3 semester  hours, or one year of full-time work experience in the field of marketing may  be accepted in lieu of the supervised marketing internship.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  specialized marketing area, such as apparel and accessories, hotel operations,  international marketing, or restaurant, may be granted to individuals who have:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency;
    2. Completed two years of full-time occupational  experience, or the equivalent, within the last five years in the teaching  specialty area sought; and
    3. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    8VAC20-23-270. Career and technical education – technology  education.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a  baccalaureate degree in technology education; or
    2. Completed a major in technology education or 33 semester  hours in technology education distributed in the following areas:
    a. The nature of technology. Experiences shall include  those that promote an understanding of the characteristics, scope, and core  concepts of physical, biological, and informational technologies, the  relationships among these technologies, and their connections to other science,  technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM) fields: 6 semester hours;
    b. Technology and society. Experiences shall include those  that develop a working knowledge of the cultural, social, economic, and  political effects of technology, its effect on the environment, and the role of  society in the history, development, and use of physical, biological, and  informational technologies: 3 semester hours;
    c. Engineering. Experiences shall include those that  develop comprehension of the attributes of technological design, inclusive of  constraints, optimization, predictive analysis, problem solving, critical  thinking, technical writing, and integrative mathematics and science: 6  semester hours; 
    d. Abilities for a technological world. Experiences shall  include those that develop the capacity to utilize the design process, to use  and maintain technological products and systems, and to assess their impact: 9  semester hours; and
    e. The designed world. Experiences shall include those that  promote an understanding of current and emerging physical, biological, and  informational technologies: 9 semester hours; or
    3. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university with a major in one of the following fields of study:  architecture, design, engineering, engineering technology, industrial  technology, or physics and completed a minimum of 15 semester hours of  technology education content coursework, including at least 3 semester hours in  each of the following areas:
    a. The nature of technology;
    b. Technology and society;
    c. Engineering; 
    d. Abilities for a technological world; and
    e. The designed world.
    8VAC20-23-280. Career and technical education – trade and  industrial education.
    A. Endorsement requirements.
    1. The candidate must have graduated from an approved  teacher preparation program with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a  regionally accredited college or university in trade and industrial education;  or
    2. A candidate who has graduated from an approved teacher  preparation program that is not in the trade and industrial education program  subject area for which the candidate is seeking endorsement must have:
    a. A current state licensure or industry certification  based on the prescribed standard or examination, if applicable; and
    b. Evidence of at least two years of full-time or  equivalent occupational experience within the past five years in the teaching  specialty for which the candidate is seeking endorsement. A candidate whose  occupational experience has not been within the last five years must  participate in a supervised technical update related to the teaching specialty  or area of endorsement or complete a supervised internship of work experience  of not less than six weeks related to the area of endorsement or teaching  specialty.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  specialized trade and industrial education area will be granted to an  individual who has:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency;
    2. A current license or is currently certified as a  professional practitioner in the area in which he is to be teaching, if  applicable, or can demonstrate competency in the area of trade and industrial  education he is to be teaching;
    3. Evidence of at least two years of full-time or the  equivalent occupational experience within the past five years in the teaching  specialty for which he is seeking endorsement. Candidates whose occupational  experience has not been within the last five years must participate in a  supervised technical update related to the teaching specialty or area of  endorsement or complete a supervised internship of work experience of not less  than six weeks related to the area of endorsement or teaching specialty; and
    4. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    C. Add-on endorsement requirements. A candidate must:
    1. Hold an active Collegiate Professional or Postgraduate  Professional License with a teaching endorsement;
    2. Demonstrate competency in the trade or industrial area  being sought;
    3. Hold current state licensure or industry certification  for the trade or industrial area for which endorsement is sought based upon the  prescribed standard or examination;
    4. Have completed two years or 4,000 clock hours of  satisfactory, full-time occupational experience at the journeyman level or an  equivalent level in the occupation within the last five years. Candidates whose  occupational experience has not been within the last five years must  participate in a supervised technical update related to the teaching specialty  or area of endorsement or complete a supervised internship of work experience  of not less than six weeks related to the area of endorsement or teaching  specialty; and
    5. Have completed 3 semester hours in curriculum and  instruction specific to vocational industrial education.
    8VAC20-23-290. Career and technical education – transition  and special needs (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in special needs; or
    2. Completed a major in career and technical education or  special education, pre-K-12 with an endorsement in one area of career and  technical education or special education preK-12, including 12 semester hours  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Overview of special needs programs and services: 3  semester hours;
    b. Instructional methods, curriculum, and resources: 3  semester hours;
    c. Career and life planning, transitioning, occupational  information, and delivery of cooperative education programs: 3 semester hours;  and
    d. Purposes and practices and characteristics of special  populations: 3 semester hours; and
    3. Completed successful, supervised occupational  experience, 3 semester hours, or one year of full-time or the equivalent of  relevant occupational experience within the past five years.
    8VAC20-23-300. Computer science.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in computer science; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 36 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Mathematics, including discrete mathematics;
    b. Data structures and algorithm analysis;
    c. Foundations of computer science; and
    d. Programming in at least two distinct languages: 6  semester hours.
    B. Add-on endorsement requirements in computer science.  The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed 18 semester hours of coursework distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Mathematics, including discrete mathematics;
    b. Data structures and algorithm analysis;
    c. Foundations of computer science; and
    d. Programming in at least two distinct languages: 6  semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-310. Dance arts preK-12.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in dance arts; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in dance arts or 24  semester hours with coursework distributed in the following areas:
    a. Development of movement language: 9 semester hours.
    (1) A course in each area of ballet, folk, jazz, and modern  dance: 6 semester hours; and
    (2) Area of concentration in one area of ballet, folk,  jazz, or modern dance beyond the entry level: 3 semester hours;
    b. Composition, improvisation, and dance arts production,  may include stage lighting, stage costuming, or stage makeup: 3 semester hours;
    c. Scientific foundations, including human anatomy,  kinesiology, and injury prevention and care for dance arts: 9 semester hours;  and
    d. Cultural understanding, including cultural context and  dance history: 3 semester hours.
    B. Add-on endorsement requirements in dance arts. The  candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed 15 semester hours of coursework distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Development of movement language: 9 semester hours.
    (1) A course in each area of ballet, folk, jazz, and  modern: 6 semester hours; and
    (2) Area of concentration in one area of ballet, folk,  jazz, or modern beyond the entry level: 3 semester hours;
    b. Composition, improvisation, and dance arts production,  may include stage lighting, stage costuming, or stage makeup: 3 semester hours;  and
    c. Cultural understanding, including cultural context and  dance history: 3 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-320. Driver education (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed an approved teacher preparation program in  driver education; or
    3. Completed 6 semester hours of coursework distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Driver Task Analysis: to include instructional  strategies as prescribed in the Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver  Education in Virginia 2010 (http://www.doe.virginia.gov/instruction/driver_  education/curriculum_admin_guide/index.shtml); understanding the highway  transportation system; applying Virginia's motor vehicle laws; personal, legal,  and emotional factors; visual and sensory perception; risk perception and risk  management; space management and other defensive driving techniques;  environmental, financial, and other vehicle ownership responsibilities; vehicle  technologies; and the scientific principles of the driving tasks: 3 semester  hours; and
    b. Principles and methodologies of classroom and in-car  instruction, including applying classroom and in-car teaching techniques for  delivering concurrent instruction; applying perception, vehicle balance, speed  control, and other risk management principles to the development of precision  driving skills; and understanding program administrative tasks, including  juvenile licensing laws and issuance of a driver's license; a minimum of 14  hours of actual behind-the-wheel supervised teaching experience demonstrating  vehicle control skills and performance capabilities that includes 2 hours of  basic evasive maneuvers; and a minimum of 14 hours of mentorship with a  licensed, endorsed driver education teacher: 3 semester hours.
    4. A current, valid Virginia driver's license. 
    8VAC20-23-330. Engineering.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in engineering;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in engineering or an  engineering subspecialty at an Accreditation Board for Engineering and  Technology (ABET)-accredited college or university program;
    3. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed an engineering technology,  science, or technology education major with at least 12 semester hours of  coursework in engineering courses, including:
    a. Introduction to engineering design;
    b. Statics or dynamics;
    c. Circuits or fluid mechanics; and
    d. Thermodynamics; 
    4. Completed a science, mathematics, or technology  education major with at least five years of successful experience working in an  engineering environment; or
    5. Hold a professional engineer's (P.E.) license.
    8VAC20-23-340. English.
    Endorsement requirements.  The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an  approved teacher preparation program in English; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in English or a minimum  of 36 semester hours of coursework distributed in the following areas:
    a. Literacy and reading: 12 semester hours. Courses must  include:
    (1) Survey of British literature;
    (2) Survey of American literature;
    (3) World literature; and
    (4) Literary theory and criticism.
    b. Language: 3 semester hours. Includes the development and  nature of the English language. 
    c. Composition: 12 semester hours. Experiences shall  include:
    (1) A grammar course integrating grammar and writing;
    (2) The teaching of writing, based on current knowledge and  most effective practices, including the use of technology for this purpose;
    (3) An advanced composition course emphasizing rhetorical  practices of expository, persuasive, argumentative, and analytical writing; and
    (4) Teaching research including ethical accessing,  evaluating, organizing, crediting, and synthesizing information.
    d. Oral language: 3 semester hours. Experiences shall  include the teaching of public and presentation speaking, including nonverbal  communication and the role of communication in small group and mass  communication.
    e. Electives from the areas listed in this section: 6  semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-350. English as a second language preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in English as a second language; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 24 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Teaching of reading and writing. Courses must include  the five areas of reading instruction: phonemic awareness, phonics, fluency,  vocabulary and text comprehension as well as the similarities and differences  between reading in a first language and reading in a second language and a  balanced literacy approach; one course must address teaching reading to English  language learners: 6 semester hours;
    b. English linguistics: 3 semester hours;
    c. Cross-cultural education: 3 semester hours;
    d. Second language acquisition: 3 semester hours; 
    e. Methods of English as a second language, to include the  World-Class Instructional Design and Assessment (WIDA) English Language  Development (ELD) Standards: 3 semester hours;
    f. English as a second language assessment to include  assessing comprehension and communication in English: 3 semester hours; and
    g. Electives from the areas listed in this section: 3  semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-360. Foreign language preK-12.
    A. The specific language of the endorsement will be noted  on the license.
    B. Endorsement requirements for foreign language 
  preK-12 - languages other than Latin. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in a foreign language; or 
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 30 semester hours of coursework  above the intermediate level in the foreign language distributed in the  following areas: 
    a. Advanced grammar and composition;
    b. Conversation, culture and civilization, and literature;  and
    c. In addition to the 30 semester hours, completed a  minimum of 3 semester hours of methods of teaching foreign languages at the  elementary and secondary levels.
    3. Endorsement in a second language may be obtained with 24  semester hours of coursework above the intermediate level. 
    4. Candidates who have learned a foreign language without  formal academic credit in a regionally accredited college or university must  complete the following requirements:
    a. Achieve a qualifying score on a foreign language assessment  in the appropriate language as prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;  and
    b. Earn a minimum of 3 semester hours of methods of  teaching foreign languages at the elementary and secondary levels from a  regionally accredited college or university in the United States or obtain  teacher certification in another country with at least 3 semester hours of  methods of teaching foreign languages at the elementary and secondary levels at  a foreign institution.
    C. Endorsement requirements for foreign language 
  preK-12 - Latin. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in Latin; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 24 semester hours of Latin above  the intermediate level. A maximum of six semester hours of Roman history, Roman  life, mythology, or archaeology may be included in the total hours. A minimum  of 3 semester hours of methods of teaching Latin at the elementary and  secondary levels are required.
    D. Endorsement requirements for foreign language 
  preK-12 - American Sign Language. 
    1. The candidate must have (i) graduated from an approved  teacher preparation program in a foreign language - American Sign Language or  (ii) earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university and completed a major in American Sign Language or 24 semester hours  above the intermediate level in American Sign Language. The program shall  include (i) courses in advanced grammar and syntax, conversation, and culture  and (ii) a minimum of 3 semester hours of methods of teaching foreign languages  at the elementary and secondary levels.
    2. Native users or candidates who have learned American  Sign Language without formal academic credit in a regionally accredited college  or university, as explained in subdivision 1 of this subsection, must complete  the following requirements:
    a. Competency in American Sign Language demonstrated by  written documentation of one of the following:
    (1) Hold a current, valid Provisional, Qualified, or  Professional certification by the American Sign Language Teachers' Association;
    (2) Hold one of the following current, valid national  certificates in interpreting:
    (a) Registry of Interpreters for Deaf certification in at  least one of the following: Certificate of Interpretation (CI), Certificate of  Deaf Interpretation (CDI), Reverse Skills Certification (RSC), or Comprehensive  Skills Certificate (CSC);
    (b) Hold a current, valid National Association for the Deaf  Level IV certification or higher; or
    (c) National Interpreter Certification (NIC); or
    (3) Complete requirements by achieving a qualifying score  on an assessment demonstrating proficiency in American Sign Language prescribed  by the Virginia Board of Education.
    b. Completed a minimum of 3 semester hours of methods of  teaching foreign languages at the elementary and secondary levels from a  regionally accredited college or university in the United States; and
    c. Earned a minimum of 6 semester hours in coursework  including grammar and syntax of American Sign Language.
    8VAC20-23-370. Gifted education (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed an approved teacher preparation program in  gifted education; or
    3. Completed the following requirements:
    a. Completed 12 semester hours of graduate-level coursework  in gifted education distributed in the following areas: 
    (1) Academic and social-emotional characteristics and  special populations of gifted learners: 3 semester hours;
    (2) Curriculum models and differentiation of instruction  for gifted learners: 3 semester hours;
    (3) Identification and assessment of gifted learners: 3  semester hours; and
    (4) Current trends and issues in the field of gifted  education: 3 semester hours; and
    b. Completed a practicum of at least 45 instructional  hours. This practicum shall include a minimum of 45 instructional hours of  successful teaching experiences with gifted students in a public or an  accredited nonpublic school. In lieu of the practicum, one year of successful, full-time  teaching experience with gifted students in a public or an accredited nonpublic  school may be accepted provided the teacher is assigned a mentor holding a  valid license with an endorsement in gifted education.
    8VAC20-23-380. Health and physical education preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in health and physical education; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in health and physical  education or 45 semester hours of coursework distributed in the following  areas:
    a. Personal health and safety: 3 semester hours;
    b. Human anatomy, physiology, and kinesiology: 9 semester  hours;
    c. General health and physical education theory, including  curriculum design and development in health and physical education: 3 semester  hours;
    d. Instructional methods and skills for secondary physical  education: 3 semester hours;
    e. Instructional methods and skills for elementary physical  education: 3 semester hours;
    f. School health methods course: 3 semester hours; 
    g. Health and physical education electives: 9 semester  hours;
    h. Adapted physical education: 3 semester hours;
    i. Technology in health and physical education: 3 semester  hours; 
    j. Nutrition: 3 semester hours; and
    k. Measurement and evaluation in the content area: 3 semester  hours.
    8VAC20-23-390. History and social sciences.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in history and social sciences; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 51 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. History: a major in history or 18 semester hours in  history (must include coursework in American history, Virginia history, and  world history);
    b. Political science: a major in political science or 18 semester  hours in political science to include coursework in American government (state and  local government);
    c. Geography: 9 semester hours; and
    d. Economics: 6 semester hours.
    B. Add-on endorsement requirements in history, political  science, geography, and economics. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and have a teaching license with an  endorsement in history, political science, geography, or economics; and
    2. Completed 21 semester hours of coursework in the  additional social science area (i.e., history, political science, geography, or  economics) sought.
    8VAC20-23-400. Journalism (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed a minimum of 15 semester hours in journalism.
    8VAC20-23-410. Keyboarding (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed  6 semester hours in keyboarding. Three  of the six semester hours may be from either formal keyboarding instruction or  documented demonstrated mastery of the touch keyboarding skill, and three  semester hours must include document formatting skills, word processing, and  computer applications.
    8VAC20-23-420. Library media preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved preparation program in school  library media; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 24 semester hours distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Teaching for learning, including knowledge of learners  and learning; effective and knowledgeable teaching; collaborative instructional  partners; integration of learning standards and technologies; assessment of and  for student learning; and the design and implementation of instruction that  engages students interests and develops their ability to inquire, think  critically, and gain and share knowledge: 3 semester hours;
    b. Literacy and reading, including familiarity with  children's, young adult, and professional literature in multiple formats; use  of a variety of strategies to promote reading for enjoyment and information;  collection development to support diverse learning needs; and collaboration to  reinforce reading instructional strategies: 6 semester hours;
    c. Information and knowledge, including efficient and  ethical information-seeking behavior, ethical and equitable access to  information, design and delivery of authentic learning through current and  emerging technology, and the use of evidence-based action research to create  and share knowledge: 6 semester hours;
    d. Advocacy and leadership, including networking with the  library community, commitment to professional development, leadership in  articulating the role of the school library program in the educational  community and in student learning, and advocacy for school library programs,  resources, and services: 3 semester hours; and
    e. Program management and administration, including  planning, developing, implementing, and evaluating library programs,  collections, and facilities; personnel; funding; organization of materials;  professional ethics; and strategic planning and program assessment: 6 semester  hours.
    3. Supervised school library media practicum. Experiences  shall include clinical experience to give the applicant an opportunity to apply  the skills, understandings, and competencies required for the endorsement. One  year of successful, full-time experience as a school librarian in a public or  accredited nonpublic school may be accepted in lieu of the supervised  practicum.
    8VAC20-23-430. Mathematics.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in mathematics; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in mathematics or 36  semester hours of coursework distributed in each of the following areas:
    a. Algebra. Experience shall include linear algebra  (matrices, vectors, and linear transformations) and abstract algebra (ring,  group, and field theory);
    b. Geometry. Experience shall include Euclidean and  non-Euclidean geometries;
    c. Analytic geometry;
    d. Probability and statistics;
    e. Discrete mathematics. Experience shall include the study  of mathematical properties of finite sets and systems and linear programming;
    f. Calculus. Experience shall include multivariable  calculus; and
    g. Mathematical modeling.
    8VAC20-23-440. Mathematics – Algebra I (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Either:
    a. Completed an approved teacher preparation program in  Algebra I; or
    b. Completed 24 semester hours that include coursework in  each of the following areas:
    (1) Elementary functions, introductory college algebra, and  trigonometry;
    (2) Linear algebra;
    (3) Calculus;
    (4) Euclidean geometry;
    (5) Probability and statistics;
    (6) Discrete mathematics; 
    (7) Mathematical modeling; and
    (8) Methods of teaching algebra.
    8VAC20-23-450. Music education – instrumental preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in music education - instrumental; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 42 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Basic music knowledge. Experiences shall be related to  music theory, music history, and literature: 18 semester hours.
    b. Musical performance. Experiences shall consist of  developing competency in a primary performance medium (band or orchestral instrument),  in a secondary performance medium (band, orchestral, or keyboard instrument),  and in teaching, rehearsing, and conducting ensembles: 18 semester hours.
    c. Electives with coursework selected from either of the  two areas listed in subdivisions 2 a and 2 b of this section: 6 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-460. Music education – vocal/choral preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in music education - vocal/choral; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 42 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Basic music knowledge. Experiences shall be related to  music theory, music history, and literature: 18 semester hours.
    b. Musical performance. Experiences shall consist of  developing competency in a primary and secondary medium, selected from voice or  keyboard and in teaching, rehearsing, and conducting ensembles: 18 semester  hours.
    c. Electives with coursework selected from either of the  two areas listed in subdivisions 2 a and 2 b of this section: 6 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-470. Science – biology.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in biology;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in biology or 32  semester hours in biology, and at least one course in each of the following:  genetics, biochemistry/molecular biology, cell biology, botany, zoology,  anatomy/physiology, ecology,  and evolutionary biology and other  preparation consistent with the competencies for the endorsement; or
    3. Earned an endorsement in another science discipline and  at least 18 semester hours in biology, including at least one course in each of  the following areas: genetics, biochemistry/molecular biology or cell biology,  botany or zoology, anatomy/physiology, and evolutionary biology or ecology.
    8VAC20-23-480. Science – chemistry.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in chemistry;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in chemistry or 32  semester hours in chemistry, including at least one course in each of the  following: inorganic chemistry, organic chemistry, physical chemistry,  biochemistry, and analytical chemistry and other preparation consistent with  the competencies required for the endorsement; or
    3. Earned an endorsement in another science discipline and  at least 18 semester hours in chemistry, including at least one course in each  of the following areas: inorganic chemistry, organic chemistry, physical  chemistry, biochemistry, and analytical chemistry.
    8VAC20-23-490. Science – Earth science.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in Earth science;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in Earth science,  geology, or environmental science with a minimum of 32 semester hours in Earth  sciences, including at least one course in each of the following: structural  geology, petrology, paleontology, oceanography, meteorology, and  astronomy/space science; or
    3. Earned an endorsement in another science discipline and  at least 18 semester hours in Earth sciences, including at least one course in  each of the following areas: structural geology, petrology, paleontology, oceanography,  meteorology, and astronomy/space or planetary science.
    8VAC20-23-500. Science – physics.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in physics;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in physics or 32  semester hours in physics, including the following coursework: mechanics,  electricity and magnetism, optics, and modern physics and other preparation  consistent with the competencies required for the endorsement; or
    3. Earned an endorsement in another science discipline and  at least 18 semester hours in physics, including preparation in each of the  following areas: mechanics, electricity and magnetism, optics, and modern  physics.
    8VAC20-23-510. Special education – adapted curriculum K-12.
    Endorsement requirements: The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved program in special education  - adapted curriculum; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 27 semester hours in the  education of students with disabilities distributed in the following areas:
    a. Core coursework: 12 semester hours distributed among the  following areas:
    (1) Foundations:  3 semester hours. Characteristics  that include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with  disabilities; historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an  understanding and application of the federal and state regulatory requirements;  and expectations associated with identification, education, and evaluation of  students with disabilities;
    (2) Assessment and evaluation: 3 semester hours. Includes  an understanding and application of the foundation of assessment and evaluation  related to best practices in special education, including types and  characteristics of assessment, introduction to formal and informal assessment,  and the use of assessments and other information to determine special education  eligibility, service delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students with  disabilities. Understanding of the current legal and ethical issues related to  assessment selection and use, including comprehensive evaluation requirements,  students with disabilities participation in the state and local accountability  systems, assessment options, appropriate grading and testing accommodations,  and assessment of students from diverse backgrounds.
    (3) Collaboration that includes skills in consultation,  case management, co-teaching, and collaboration: 3 semester hours. Includes  understanding roles and responsibilities, knowledge and application of  effective communication skills and of culturally responsive practices and  strategies, and the ability to develop home, school, and community partnerships  to address the needs of students with disabilities. 
    (4) Management of classroom instruction and behaviors: 3  semester hours. Includes an understanding and knowledge of research-based  classroom management techniques, positive behaviors supports, and individual  interventions and a demonstrated ability to create a safe, orderly classroom  environment including classroom organization, instructional design, and  establishment of classroom routines and procedures. Knowledge of the elements  of effective instructional planning, differentiation of instruction, and other  instructional approaches to enhance student engagement and achievement.  Understanding of behavior assessments, data collection and analysis, and  development and monitoring of behavior intervention plans.
    b. Adapted curriculum coursework: 15 semester hours of  coursework distributed in the following areas:
    (1) Characteristics: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to demonstrate knowledge of the characteristics, including  medical and health conditions, and learning and support needs of students with  disabilities (K-12) whose cognitive and functional skills are significantly  different from typically developing peers and therefore require adaptations to  the general curriculum for an appropriate education, including, but not limited  to, students with autism spectrum disorders, developmental delay, intellectual  disability, traumatic brain injury, and multiple disabilities including  sensory, deaf-blindness, speech-language, orthopedic and/or health impairments  as an additional disability to those referenced above.
    (2) Individualized education program (IEP) implementation:  3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and legal and regulatory  requirements of IEP development, including timelines, components, team  composition, roles, and responsibilities. Skills in this area include the  ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation throughout the K-12  grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of standardized and  nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions about student  progress, instruction, program, goal development, modifications, adaptations,  placement, and teaching methodology for students with disabilities who are  accessing the general education curriculum and Standards of Learning through an  aligned curriculum; and to demonstrate the use of assessment, evaluation, and  other information to develop and implement individual educational planning and  group instruction with students with disabilities in an adapted curriculum  across the K-12 grade levels.
    (3) Transitioning: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to prepare students and work with families to provide  successful student transitions throughout the educational experience to include  postsecondary education, training, employment, and independent living that  addresses an understanding of long-term planning, age-appropriate transition  assessments, career development, life skills, community experiences and  resources, and self-determination to include goal setting, decision making,  problem solving, self-awareness and self-advocacy, guardianship, and other  legal considerations.
    (4) Instructional methods and strategies for the adapted  curriculum: 3 semester hours. An understanding and application of service  delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities who need an  adapted curriculum. Knowledge of the general curriculum requirements and  expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based on student  characteristics and needs. Skills in this area include the ability to  understand and use a range of modifications, adaptations, special instructional  strategies, and research-based interventions that reflect best practice in  reading, writing, and mathematics instruction for students with more  significant disabilities; ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments;  knowledge of available assistive and instructional technologies, including  alternative communication methods and systems to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the adaptive curriculum and the  ability to evaluate its effectiveness; ability to develop and use  curriculum-based and standardized assessment to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional material and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to curriculum design and delivery; ability to  modify and adapt instructional content in a variety of settings and collaborate  with general education content teachers to develop and implement instructional  practices that meet the needs of students with disabilities in the adapted  curriculum and monitor student progress.
    (5) Individualized supports and specialized care of  students with significant disabilities: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of and  ability to implement adapted strategies to address the positioning, handling,  communication, personal care, and medical needs of students with significant  disabilities. Knowledge and understanding of the roles of related disciplines  and service providers in collaborative planning and service delivery.  Demonstration of the ability to develop and utilize a blended curriculum design  to address disability-specific or unique needs such as feeding and communication  while addressing the adapted curriculum requirements.
    8VAC20-23-520. Special education blindness and visual  impairments preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in special education visual impairments preK-12; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in special education  blindness and visual impairments or 30 semester hours in education of students  with visual impairments, distributed with at least one course in each of the  following areas: 
    a. Characteristics of students with visual impairment.  Provides an overview of the characteristics of and services to persons with  visual impairments, including the impact of visual impairment on infant and  child growth and development, child and adolescent emotional and social  development, and family interaction patterns. Includes the educational,  conceptual, psychosocial, and physical implications of a visual impairment.
    b. Foundations. Includes knowledge of the foundation for  educating students with disabilities; historical, ethical, and legal aspects  that include understanding and application of the regulatory requirements; and  expectations associated with identification, education, and evaluation of  students with disabilities.
    c. Braille code: 3 semester hours. Includes the literary  code of Braille, its implications for educational and literacy programs for  students with visual disabilities and how to teach the Braille code to students  with visual impairments.
    d. Braille reading and writing: 3 semester hours. Includes  instruction in the various technologies used by students who use Braille; basic  instruction on transcription of advanced Braille codes, including music,  foreign language, chemistry, computer Braille, and Nemeth code (Braille  mathematics code); techniques for teaching skills in each code; and technology  tools used to create Braille and tactile materials in addition to other  assistive technologies used for instruction in mathematics and science.
    e. Medical and educational implications of visual  impairment. Includes anatomy of the human eye, normal visual development,  pathology of the eye, examination procedures for the identification of visual  pathology, and the effects of pathology on visual learning and development.
    f. Assistive technology for students with sensory  impairment. Introduces specific technology and resources available to enhance  and improve ability of individuals with sensory disabilities and includes  literacy skill development of students who are blind or visually impaired using  technology.
    g. Curriculum and assessment. Includes knowledge of  educational assessments used with students with visual impairments and  additional disabilities including deaf-blindness. Addresses assessment of  technology needs of students with visual impairments, including functional  vision assessments, learning media assessments, assistive technology, and  assessment in areas of the expanded core curriculum; application of assessment  results to development of the individualized education program (IEP); planning  for placement; and services and accommodations for students with visual  impairments. 
    h. Positive behavior intervention supports. Includes  understanding of research-based, positive behavior intervention supports and  individual interventions; knowledge of the elements of effective instructional  planning, differentiation of instruction, and other instructional approaches to  enhance student engagement and achievement; and understanding of behavior  assessments, data collection and analysis, development and monitoring of  behavior intervention plans.
    i. Collaboration. Includes skills in consultation, case  management, co-teaching, and collaboration that include understanding roles and  responsibilities, knowledge and application of effective communication skills,  of culturally responsive practices and strategies, and the ability to develop  home, school, and community partnerships to address the needs of students who  are visually impaired.
    j. Teaching methods. 
    (1) Includes methods of teaching compensatory skills, the  core curriculum, and technology used by students who are blind and visually  impaired; introduces individual family service plans (IFSPs); and includes  understanding and application of development and implementation of the IEP,  including service delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students who are  visually impaired. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum requirements and  expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based on student  characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified needs of the students. Skills  in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and implement a range  of specialized instructional strategies and research-based interventions that  reflect best practice in instruction for students who are visually impaired. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of instructional  materials and practices to assess student needs as they relate to curriculum  design and delivery. 
    (6) Ability to model and directly teach instructional strategies  in a variety of settings, and monitor student progress. 
    (7) Ability to adapt materials and procedures to meet the  needs of students with visual impairments.
    k. Orientation and mobility. Includes the components of  orientation and mobility (O&M); how the need for independent travel in the  blind population created the field of O&M; and the philosophy and history  of O&M, including cane instruction, dog guides, and methods of travel.  Addresses techniques in developing orientation skills and basic mobility  instruction. Motor and concept skill development are emphasized.
    8VAC20-23-530. Special education deaf and hard of hearing  preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements.  The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in special education deaf and hard of hearing; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in special education  deaf and hard of hearing or 27 semester hours in education of students who are  deaf and hard of hearing distributed in the following areas: 
    a. Foundations: 3 semester hours. Includes knowledge of the  foundation for educating students with disabilities; historical, ethical and  legal aspects that include understanding and application of the regulatory  requirements; and expectations associated with identification, education, and  evaluation of students with disabilities.
    b. Characteristics: 3 semester hours. Includes the ability  to demonstrate knowledge of etiologies of hearing loss, definitions,  characteristics, learning, and support needs of students who are deaf and hard  of hearing from pre-K through secondary levels, who may be using various  communication modalities/languages and who may have additional disabilities.
    c. Assessment and evaluation: 3 semester hours. Includes an  understanding and application of the foundation of assessment and evaluation  related to best practices, including types and characteristics of assessments,  formal and informal assessment, and the use of assessment information to  determine special education eligibility and inform service delivery,  curriculum, accommodations, instructional methods, and student progress.  Understanding comprehensive evaluation requirements, participation of students  with disabilities in state and local accountability systems, assessment  options, appropriate testing accommodations, and assessment of students from  diverse backgrounds.
    d. Instructional planning: 3 semester hours. 
    (1) Familiarity with individual family service plans  (IFSPs). 
    (2) An understanding and application of development and  implementation of the individualized education program (IEP) including service  delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students who are deaf and hard of  hearing and transition. 
    (3) Knowledge of the general curriculum requirements and  expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based on student  characteristics and needs. 
    (4) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified needs of the students. Skills  in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and implement a range  of specialized instructional strategies and research-based interventions that  reflect best practice in instruction for students who are deaf and hard of  hearing. 
    (5) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of instructional  materials and practices to assess student needs as they relate to the  curriculum design and delivery. 
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach instructional  strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate with general educators to  develop and implement instructional practices that meet the needs of students  who are deaf and hard of hearing, and monitor student progress.
    e. Speech, language, and literacy development: 3 semester  hours. Includes an understanding of the normal developmental sequence of  speech, language (oral, signed, and written), auditory, and cognitive  milestones, varying methodologies and strategies used in assessing language  skills (through the air and spoken) of a student who is deaf and hard of  hearing; demonstrate skills necessary to foster and enhance language  development and communication skills in students who are deaf and hard of  hearing including American Sign Language, cued speech, and listening and spoken  language skills. Ability to model and directly teach instructional strategies  that foster language and literacy development.
    f. Classroom and behavior management: 3 semester hours.  Includes an understanding and knowledge of research-based classroom management  techniques, positive behavior intervention supports and individual  interventions; and demonstrated ability to create a safe, orderly classroom  environment including classroom organization, instructional design, and  establishment of classroom routines and procedures. Knowledge of the elements  of effective instructional planning, differentiation of instruction, and other  instructional approaches to enhance student engagement and achievement.  Understanding of behavior assessments, data collection and analysis,  development, and monitoring of behavior intervention plans
    g. Audiology and speech and hearing science: 3 semester  hours. Understanding of the basic principles of sound reception and production  including neuroanatomy of speech and hearing mechanisms and physical  characteristics and measurement of acoustic stimuli; biological, neurological,  and acoustic bases of communication; reading and interpreting audiograms and  other audiologic assessments used in determining eligibility; knowledge of  types, degrees, and effects of hearing loss on developmental domains; relevance  of age of onset, age of identification of hearing loss, and age of  amplification and intervention in speech and language development; ability to  troubleshoot hearing aids, external components of cochlear implants, and other  assistive listening devices; ability to foster development of listening skills.
    h. Collaboration: 3 semester hours. Includes skills in  consultation, case management, co-teaching, and collaboration that includes  understanding roles and responsibilities, knowledge and application of  effective communication skills, of culturally responsive practices and  strategies, and the ability to develop home, school, and community partnerships  to address the needs of students who are deaf and hard of hearing.
    i. Communication Modalities: 3 semester hours. Includes  introduction to the various communication modalities used by students who are  deaf and hard of hearing, including listening and spoken language, cued speech,  speech reading, and through the air communication including use of American  Sign Language (ASL) and contact varieties of signed language and coursework to  learn ASL.
    8VAC20-23-540. Special education early childhood (birth-age  five years).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in early childhood special education; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in early childhood  special education or 27 semester graduate hours in early childhood special  education, including at least one course in each of the following: 
    a. Foundations and legal aspects of special education: 3  semester hours;
    b. Assessment for diagnosis, program planning, and  curriculum-based measurement to document progress for young children with  typical development, disabling, and at-risk conditions: 3 semester hours;
    c. Curriculum and instructional programming for preschool:  3 semester hours;
    d. Speech and language development and intervention: 3  semester hours; 
    e. Medical aspects: 3 semester hours;
    f. Social and emotional skills and behavior management for  early childhood: 3 semester hours;
    g. Consultation, co-teaching, coaching, and mentoring: 3  semester hours;
    h. Family-centered intervention: 3 semester hours; and
    i. Early childhood elective: 3 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-550. Special education – general curriculum K-12.
    Endorsement requirements:  The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved program in special education  - general curriculum; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university and completed 27 semester hours in the education of  students with disabilities distributed in the following areas:
    a. Core coursework: 12 semester hours distributed among the  following areas:
    (1) Foundations: 3 semester hours. Characteristics that  include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with disabilities;  historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an understanding and  application of the federal and state regulatory requirements; and expectations  associated with identification, education, and evaluation of students with  disabilities.
    (2) Assessment and evaluation: 3 semester hours. Includes  an understanding and application of the foundation of assessment and evaluation  related to best practice in special education, including types and  characteristics of assessment, introduction to formal and informal assessment,  and the use of assessments and other information to determine special education  eligibility, service delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students with  disabilities. Understanding of the current legal and ethical issues related to  assessment selection and use, including comprehensive evaluation requirements,  students with disabilities participation in the state and local accountability  systems, assessment options, appropriate grading and testing accommodations,  and assessment of students from diverse backgrounds.
    (3) Collaboration that includes skills in consultation,  case management, co-teaching, and collaboration: 3 semester hours. Includes understanding  roles and responsibilities, knowledge and application of effective  communication skills and of culturally responsive practices and strategies and  the ability to develop home, school, and community partnerships to address the  needs of students with disabilities.
    (4) Management of classroom instruction and behaviors: 3  semester hours. Includes an understanding and knowledge of research-based  classroom management techniques, positive behavior support, and individual  interventions and a demonstrated ability to create a safe, orderly classroom  environment, including classroom organization, instructional design, and  establishment of classroom routines and procedures. Knowledge of the elements  of effective instructional planning, differentiation of instruction, and other  instructional approaches to enhance student engagement and achievement.  Understanding of behavior assessments, data collection and analysis,  development, and monitoring of behavior intervention plans.
    b. General curriculum coursework: 15 semester hours  distributed in the following areas:
    (1) Characteristics: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  shall include the ability to demonstrate knowledge of definitions,  characteristics, and learning and behavioral support needs of students with disabilities  who are accessing the general education curriculum at the elementary, middle,  and high school levels, including but not limited to, students with learning  disabilities, emotional disability, and intellectual disabilities;  developmental delay; autism; other health impairments; traumatic brain injury;  and multiple disabilities.
    (2) Individualized education program development and  implementation: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and  legal and regulatory requirements of IEP development including timelines,  components, team composition, and roles and responsibilities. Skills in this  area include the ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation  throughout the K-12 grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of  standardized and nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions  about student progress, instructional program, goal development,  accommodations, placement, and teaching methodology for students with  disabilities who are accessing the general education curriculum and the  standards of learning; and to demonstrate the use of assessment, evaluation,  and other information to develop and implement individual educational planning  and group instruction with students with disabilities who are accessing the  general education curriculum across the K-12 grade levels.
    (3) Transitioning: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to prepare students and work with families and community  agencies to provide successful student transitions throughout the educational  experience to include postsecondary education training, employment, and  independent living that addresses an understanding of long-term planning,  career development, life skills, community experiences and resources,  self-advocacy, and self-determination, guardianship, and legal considerations.
    (4) Instructional strategies in reading and writing: 3  semester hours. 
    (a) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in reading and  writing. 
    (b) Knowledge of the general curriculum, English  requirements and expectations, and how to provide access to the curriculum  based on student characteristics and needs. 
    (c) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified reading needs of the  students. Skills in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and  implement a range of specialized instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in reading and writing instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (d) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (e) Knowledge and ability to utilize current assistive and  instructional reading and writing technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (f) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized reading and writing assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the curriculum design and delivery. 
    (g) Ability to model and directly teach reading and writing  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the general curriculum, and  monitor student progress.
    (5) Instructional strategies in mathematics: 3 semester  hours. 
    (a) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in mathematics. 
    (b) Knowledge of the general curriculum mathematics  requirements and expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based  on student characteristics and needs. 
    (c) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address calculations, reasoning, and problem-solving  skills. Skills in this area include the ability to understand and use a range  of specialized mathematics instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in mathematics instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (d) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (e) Knowledge of and ability to utilize current mathematics  related assistive and instructional technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (f) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized mathematics assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the mathematics curriculum design and delivery.
    (g) Ability to model and directly teach mathematics  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the mathematics general  curriculum, and monitor student progress.
    8VAC20-23-560. Special education – general curriculum K-6  (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements: The candidate must:
    1. Hold an earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in elementary education (i.e.,  early/primary education preK-3 or elementary education preK-6).
    2. Have completed 15 semester hours in the education of  students with disabilities distributed in each of the following areas:
    a. Foundations: 3 semester hours. Characteristics that  include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with disabilities;  historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an understanding and  application of the federal and state regulatory requirements; and expectations  associated with identification, education, and evaluation of students with  disabilities.
    b. Individualized education program development and  implementation: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and  legal and regulatory requirements of IEP development including timelines,  components, team composition, and roles and responsibilities. Skills in this  area include the ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation  throughout the K-12 grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of  standardized and nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions about  student progress, instructional, program, goal development, accommodations,  placement, and teaching methodology for students with disabilities who are  accessing the general education curriculum and the Virginia Standards of  Learning; and to demonstrate the use of assessment, evaluation, and other  information to develop and implement individual educational planning and group  instruction with students with disabilities who are accessing the general  education curriculum across the K-12 grade levels.
    c. Assessment and evaluation: 3 semester hours. Includes an  understanding and application of the foundation of assessment and evaluation  related to best practice in special education, including types and  characteristics of assessment, introduction to formal and informal assessment,  and the use of assessments and other information to determine special education  eligibility, service delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students with  disabilities. Understanding of the current legal and ethical issues related to assessment  selection and use, including comprehensive evaluation requirements, students  with disabilities' participation in the state and local accountability systems,  assessment options, appropriate grading and testing accommodations, and  assessment of students from diverse backgrounds.
    d. Instructional strategies in reading and writing: 3  semester hours. 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in reading and  writing. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum, English  requirements and expectations, and how to provide access to the curriculum  based on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified reading needs of the  students. Skills in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and  implement a range of specialized instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in reading and writing instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge and ability to utilize current assistive and  instructional reading and writing technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized reading and writing assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach reading and writing  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that meet  the needs of students with disabilities in the general curriculum, and monitor  student progress.
    e. Instructional strategies in mathematics: (3 semester  hours). 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in mathematics. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum mathematics  requirements and expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based  on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address calculations, reasoning, and problem-solving  skills. Skills in this area include the ability to understand and use a range  of specialized mathematics instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in mathematics instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge of and ability to utilize current  mathematics-related assistive and instructional technologies to promote  learning and independence for students with disabilities in the general  curriculum and the ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the  technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized mathematics assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the mathematics curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach mathematics  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the mathematics general  curriculum, and monitor student progress.
    8VAC20-23-570. Special education – general curriculum middle  grades 6-8 (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements: The candidate must:
    1. Hold an earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in middle education (i.e., middle  education 6-8 English, middle education 6-8 history and social sciences, middle  education 6-8 mathematics, or middle education-sciences). 
    2. Have completed 15 semester hours in the education of  students with disabilities distributed in each of the following areas:
    a. Foundations: 3 semester hours. Characteristics that  include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with disabilities;  historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an understanding and  application of the federal and state regulatory requirements; and expectations  associated with identification, education, and evaluation of students with  disabilities.
    b. Individualized education program development and  implementation: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and  legal and regulatory requirements of IEP development, including timelines,  components, team composition, and roles and responsibilities. Skills in this  area include the ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation  throughout the K-12 grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of  standardized and nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions  about student progress, instructional, program, goal development,  accommodations, placement, and teaching methodology for students with  disabilities who are accessing the general education curriculum and the  standards of learning; and to demonstrate the use of assessment, evaluation,  and other information to develop and implement individual educational planning  and group instruction with students with disabilities who are accessing the  general education curriculum across the K-12 grade levels.
    c. Transitioning: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to prepare students and work with families and community  agencies to provide successful student transitions throughout the educational  experience to include postsecondary education training, employment, and  independent living that addresses an understanding of long-term planning,  career development, life skills, community experiences and resources,  self-advocacy, and self-determination, guardianship, and legal considerations.
    d. Instructional strategies in reading and writing: 3  semester hours. 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in reading and  writing. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum, English  requirements and expectations, and how to provide access to the curriculum  based on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified reading needs of the  students. Skills in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and  implement a range of specialized instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in reading and writing instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge and ability to utilize current assistive and  instructional reading and writing technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and standardized  reading and writing assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of instructional  materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess student needs as  it relates to the curriculum design and delivery. 
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach reading and writing  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the general curriculum, and monitor  student progress.
    e. Instructional strategies in mathematics: (3 semester  hours). 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in mathematics. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum mathematics  requirements and expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based  on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address calculations, reasoning and problem-solving  skills. Skills in this area include the ability to understand and use a range  of specialized mathematics instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in mathematics instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge of and ability to utilize current  mathematics-related assistive and instructional technologies to promote  learning and independence for students with disabilities in the general  curriculum and the ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the  technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and standardized  mathematics assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of instructional  materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess student needs as  they relate to the mathematics curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach mathematics  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the mathematics general  curriculum, and monitor student progress.
    8VAC20-23-580. Special education – general curriculum  secondary grades 6-12 (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements:  The candidate must:
    1. Hold an earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in English, history and social sciences,  mathematics, biology, chemistry, Earth science, or physics.
    2. Have completed 15 semester hours in the education of  students with disabilities distributed in each of the following areas:
    a. Foundations: 3 semester hours. Characteristics that  include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with disabilities;  historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an understanding and  application of the federal and state regulatory requirements; and expectations  associated with identification, education, and evaluation of students with  disabilities.
    b. Individualized education program development and  implementation: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and  legal and regulatory requirements of IEP development, including timelines,  components, team composition, and roles and responsibilities. Skills in this  area include the ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation  throughout the K-12 grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of  standardized and nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions  about student progress, instructional, program, goal development,  accommodations, placement, and teaching methodology for students with  disabilities who are accessing the general education curriculum and the  Virginia Standards of Learning; and to demonstrate the use of assessment,  evaluation, and other information to develop and implement individual  educational planning and group instruction with students with disabilities who  are accessing the general education curriculum across the K-12 grade levels.
    c. Transitioning: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to prepare students and work with families and community  agencies to provide successful student transitions throughout the educational  experience to include postsecondary education training, employment, and  independent living that addresses an understanding of long-term planning,  career development, life skills, community experiences and resources,  self-advocacy, and self-determination, guardianship, and legal considerations.
    d. Instructional strategies in reading and writing: 3  semester hours. 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in reading and  writing. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum, English  requirements and expectations, and how to provide access to the curriculum  based on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified reading needs of the  students. Skills in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and  implement a range of specialized instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in reading and writing instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge and ability to utilize current assistive and  instructional reading and writing technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized reading and writing assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach reading and writing  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the general curriculum, and  monitor student progress.
    e. Instructional strategies in mathematics: (3 semester  hours). 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in mathematics. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum mathematics  requirements and expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based  on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address calculations, reasoning, and problem-solving  skills. Skills in this area include the ability to understand and use a range  of specialized mathematics instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in mathematics instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge of and ability to utilize current  mathematics-related assistive and instructional technologies to promote  learning and independence for students with disabilities in the general  curriculum and the ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the  technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized mathematics assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the mathematics curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach mathematics  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that meet  the needs of students with disabilities in the mathematics general curriculum,  and monitor student progress.
    8VAC20-23-590. Speech communication (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and a license issued by the Virginia Board of  Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. A minimum of 15 semester hours in speech communication.
    8VAC20-23-600. Theatre arts preK-12.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in theatre arts; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in theatre arts or 33  semester hours distributed among the following areas:
    a. Directing: 6 semester hours;
    b. Technical theatre: 9 semester hours;
    c. Cultural context and theatre history: 3 semester hours;
    d. Performance: 6 semester hours; and
    e. Dramatic literature: 9 semester hours.
    B. Add-on endorsement requirements in theatre arts  preK-12. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed 15 semester hours distributed in the following  areas:
    a. Directing: 3 semester hours;
    b. Technical theatre: 3 semester hours;
    c. Cultural context and theatre history: 3 semester hours;  and
    d. Performance: 6 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-610. Visual arts preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in visual arts; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in visual arts or 36  semester hours in art distributed in the following areas:
    a. Two-dimensional media: 12 semester hours;
    b. Three-dimensional media: 12 semester hours;
    c. Cultural context and art history: 6 semester hours; 
    d. Evaluation and criticism and aesthetics: 3 semester  hours; and
    e. Related areas of the fine arts: 3 semester hours.
    Part VI 
  Licensure Regulations Governing Support Personnel
    8VAC20-23-620. Administration and supervision 
  preK-12.
    A. An endorsement in administration and supervision  preK-12 consists of Level I, which is required to serve as a building-level  administrator or central office instructional supervisor, and Level II, which  is an optional endorsement to which an experienced building-level administrator  may aspire. Individuals must meet the requirements for the administration and  supervision preK-12 endorsement through one of the four options listed in this  section. A school leader's assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education must be met for all individuals who are seeking an initial  endorsement authorizing them to serve as principals and assistant principals in  the public schools. Individuals seeking an initial administration and  supervision endorsement who are interested in serving as central office  instructional personnel are not required to take and pass the school leaders  assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    B. Level I, Option I: Approved program route to Level I  administration and supervision preK-12 endorsement. To become eligible for a  Level I endorsement under this option, the candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university;
    2. Completed three years of successful, full-time  experience in a public school or accredited nonpublic school in an  instructional personnel position that requires licensure in Virginia;
    3. Completed an approved program in administration and  supervision from a regionally accredited college or university;
    4. Completed a deliberately structured and supervised  internship that is focused on student academic progress for all students and  that:
    a. Provides significant experiences within a school  environment for candidates to synthesize and apply content knowledge and  develop professional skills through school-based leadership experiences; 
    b. Shall occur in a public or accredited nonpublic school; 
    c. Provides exposure to five different multiple sites  (i.e., elementary, middle high, central office, agency) with diverse student  populations; and
    d. Documents a minimum of 320 clock hours, of which 120  clock hours are embedded as experiential field-based opportunities experienced  during coursework; and
    5. Satisfied the requirements for the school leaders  licensure assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education. Individuals  seeking an initial administration and supervision endorsement who are  interested in serving as central office instructional personnel are not  required to take and pass the school leaders assessment prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education.
    C. Level I, Option II: Alternate route to Level I  administration and supervision preK-12 endorsement restricted to the Virginia  school division in which the superintendent submitted the recommendation for  endorsement. This endorsement is valid only in the designated Virginia school  division and would not be portable or reciprocal. In order to be eligible for  Level I endorsement under this option, the candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university;
    2. Completed graduate coursework in school law, evaluation  of instruction, and other areas of study as required by an employing Virginia  school superintendent. The graduate coursework must be taken from a regionally  accredited college or university that has a state-approved administration and  supervision program; 
    3. Completed three years of successful, full-time  experience in a public school or accredited nonpublic school in an  instructional personnel position that requires licensure in Virginia;
    4. Satisfied the requirements for the school leaders  licensure assessment specified by the Virginia Board of Education; and
    5. Been recommended by the superintendent in the employing  Virginia school division.
    D. Level I, Option III: Alternate route to Level I  administration and supervision preK-12 endorsement. In order to be eligible for  Level I endorsement under this option, the candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university;
    2. Completed graduate coursework in school law, evaluation  of instructional personnel, special education, school finance, educational  leadership, and other areas of study as required by an employing Virginia  school superintendent, and the graduate coursework must be taken from a  regionally accredited college or university that has a state-approved  administration and supervision program, or the candidate must have completed  school law, school finance, and a research-based program approved by the  Virginia Department of Education that includes organizational leadership,  instructional leadership, instructional practices in content areas, data  utilization, evaluation and instructional coaching, and creating positive  school cultures; 
    3. Completed three years of successful, full-time  experience in a public school or accredited nonpublic school in an  instructional personnel position that requires licensure in Virginia;
    4. Satisfied the requirements for the school leaders  licensure assessment specified by the Virginia Board of Education; and
    5. Been recommended by the superintendent in the employing  Virginia school division.
    E. Level I, Option IV: Out-of-state administration and  supervision endorsement. Virginia does not issue a stand-alone license in  administration and supervision. The endorsement is added to a license. The  candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university; 
    2. Completed three years of successful, full-time  experience in a public school or accredited nonpublic school in an  instructional personnel position;
    3. Satisfied the requirements for the school leaders  licensure assessment specified by the Virginia Board of Education; and
    4. A current, valid out-of-state license, which is full  credential, with an endorsement in administration and supervision or completed  an approved program in administration and supervision from a regionally  accredited college or university leading to an endorsement as a building-level  administrator.
    F. Level II: Principal of Distinction endorsement in  administration and supervision preK-12. A building-level administrator may seek  the Principal of Distinction, Level II endorsement in administration and  supervision preK-12 after successfully serving as a building-level administrator  for at least five years in a public school or an accredited nonpublic school  and successfully completing a formal induction program as a principal or  assistant principal. In order to earn the Principal of Distinction, Level II  endorsement, the candidate must meet two or more of the following criteria as  specified by the Virginia Board of Education and documented in a Virginia  Department of Education approved format and be recommended by the employing  Virginia school division superintendent:
    1. Evidence of improved student achievement;
    2. Evidence of effective instructional leadership;
    3. Evidence of positive effect on school climate or  culture;
    4. Earned doctorate in educational leadership or evidence  of formal professional development in the areas of school law, school finance,  supervision, human resource management, and instructional leadership; or
    5. Evidence of a completion of a high-quality professional  development project designed by the division superintendent.
    8VAC20-23-630. Division Superintendent License.
    An individual may be a candidate for the list of eligible  division superintendents and the renewable Division Superintendent License  through the completion of the requirements in one of the following four  options:
    1. Option I. The individual must:
    a. Hold an earned doctorate degree in educational  administration or educational leadership from a regionally accredited college  or university; and
    b. Have completed five years of educational experience in a  public or an accredited nonpublic school, two of which must be successful,  full-time teaching experience at the preK-12 level and two of which must be in  administration and supervision at the preK-12 level.
    2. Option II. The individual must:
    a. Hold an earned master's degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 30 graduate semester hours  beyond the conferral date of the master's degree; and
    b. Have completed requirements for administration and  supervision preK-12 endorsement that includes the demonstration of competencies  in the following areas:
    (1) Knowledge, understanding, and application of planning,  assessment, and instructional leadership that builds collective professional  capacity, including;
    (a) Principles of student motivation, growth, and  development as a foundation for age- appropriate and grade-appropriate  curriculum, instruction, and assessment;
    (b) Collaborative leadership in gathering and analyzing  data to identify needs to develop and implement a school improvement plan that  results in increased student learning;
    (c) Planning, implementation, and refinement of  standards-based curriculum aligned with instruction and assessment;
    (d) Collaborative planning and implementation of a variety  of assessment techniques, including examination of student work that yields  individual, class, grade level, and school level data as a foundation for  identifying existing competencies and targeting areas in need of further  attention;
    (e) Incorporation of differentiated and effective  instruction that responds to individual learner needs including appropriate  response to cultural, ethnic, and linguistic diversity;
    (f) Knowledge, understanding, and application of the  federal and state regulatory requirements and expectations associated with  identification, education, and evaluation of students with disabilities;
    (g) Collaboratively working with parents and school  personnel to ensure that students with disabilities are included as a valued  part of the school community, and that they receive effective and appropriately  intensive instruction to assist them in meeting the standards set for all  students as well as individual goals outlined in their individualized education  programs;
    (h) Integration of technology in curriculum and instruction  to enhance learner understanding;
    (i) Identification, analysis, and resolution of problems  using effective problem-solving techniques; and
    (j) Development, articulation, implementation, and  stewardship of a vision of excellence linked to mission and core beliefs that  promote continuous improvement consistent with the goals of the school  division.
    (2) Knowledge, understanding, and application of leadership  and organizations, including;
    (a) The change process of systems, organizations, and  individuals, using appropriate and effective adult learning models;
    (b) Aligning organizational practice, division mission, and  core beliefs for developing and implementing strategic plans;
    (c) Information sources and processing, including data  collection and data analysis strategies;
    (d) Using data as a part of ongoing program evaluation to  inform and lead change;
    (e) Developing a change management strategy for improved  student outcomes;
    (f) Developing distributed leadership strategies to create  personalized learning environments for diverse schools; and
    (g) Effective two-way communication skills including  consensus building, negotiation, and mediation skills.
    (3) Knowledge, understanding, and application of management  and leadership skills that achieve effective and efficient organizational  operations and sustain an instructional program conducive to student academic  progress, including;
    (a) Alignment of curriculum and instruction and assessment  of the educational program to achieve high academic success at the school and  division or district level;
    (b) Principles and issues of supervising and leading others  to ensure a working and learning climate that is safe, secure, and respectful  of a diverse school community;
    (c) Management decisions that ensure successful teaching  and learning including, human resources management and development, theories of  motivation, change in school culture, innovation and creativity, conflict  resolution, adult learning, and professional development models;
    (d) Knowledge, understanding, and application of Virginia's  Guidelines for Uniform Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for  Teachers and Virginia's Guidelines for Uniform Performance Standards and  Evaluation Criteria for Principals; 
    (e) Principles and issues related to fiscal operations of  school management;
    (f) Principles and issues related to school facilities and  use of space and time for supporting high-quality school instruction and  student learning;
    (g) Legal issues impacting school operations and  management;
    (h) Technologies that support management functions; and
    (i) Application of data-driven decision making to initiate  and continue improvement in school and classroom practices and student  achievement.
    (4) Knowledge, understanding, and application of the  conditions and dynamics impacting a diverse school community, including:
    (a) Emerging issues and trends within school and community  relations;
    (b) Working collaboratively with staff, families, and  community members to secure resources and to support the success of a diverse  population;
    (c) Developing appropriate public relations and public  engagement strategies and processes for building and sustaining positive  relationships with families, caregivers, and community partners; and
    (d) Integration of technology to support communication  efforts.
    (5) Knowledge, understanding, and application of the  purpose of education and the role of professionalism in advancing educational  goals, including:
    (a) Philosophy of education that reflects commitment to  principles of honesty, fairness, caring, and equity in day-to-day professional  behavior;
    (b) Integration of high-quality, content-rich, job-embedded  professional learning that respects the contribution of all faculty and staff  members in building a diverse professional learning community;
    (c) Reflective understanding of moral and legal consequences  of decision making in the school setting;
    (d) Intentional and purposeful effort to model  professional, moral, and ethical standards as well as personal integrity in all  interactions; and
    (e) Intentional and purposeful effort to model continuous professional  learning and to work collegially and collaboratively with all members of the  school community to support the school's goals and enhance its collective  capacity.
    (6) Knowledge, understanding, and application of leadership  theories and influences that impact schools, including:
    (a) Concepts of leadership including systems theory, change  theory, learning organizations, and current leadership theory;
    (b) Identify and respond to internal and external forces  and influences on a school;
    (c) Identify and apply the processes of educational policy  development at the state, local, and school level; and 
    (d) Identify and demonstrate ways to influence educational  policy development at the state, local, and school level.
    3. Option III. The  individual must:
    a. Hold an earned master's degree from a regionally  accredited college or university; 
    b. Hold a current, valid out-of-state license with an  endorsement as a division or district superintendent; and
    c. Have completed five years of educational experience in a  public or an accredited nonpublic school, two of which must be successful,  full-time teaching experience at the preK-12 level and two of which must be in  successful administration and supervision.
    4. Option IV. The individual must:
    a. Hold an earned master's degree or its equivalent from a  regionally accredited college or university;
    b. Have held a senior leadership position such as chief  executive officer or senior military officer; and
    c. Be recommended by a school board interested in employing  the individual as superintendent.
    8VAC20-23-640. Mathematics specialist for elementary  education.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and an endorsement in a teaching area;
    2. Completed at least three years of successful, full-time  teaching experience in a public or accredited nonpublic school in which the  teaching of mathematics was an important responsibility; and
    3. Either: 
    a. Graduated from an approved mathematics specialist for  elementary preparation program - master's level; or 
    b. Completed a master's level program in mathematics,  mathematics education, or related education field with at least 21 semester  hours undergraduate or graduate mathematics coursework distributed in the  following areas: (i) number and operations; (ii) rational numbers; (iii)  geometry and measurement; (iv) probability and statistics; (v) algebra and  functions; and (vi) at least nine semester hours of graduate coursework  pertaining to mathematics education in mathematics instructional leadership,  evaluation of mathematics curriculum and instruction, mathematical learning  theory, and student assessment for mathematics.
    8VAC20-23-650. Mathematics specialist for middle education.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and an endorsement in a teaching area;
    2. Completed at least three years of successful, full-time  teaching experience in a public or accredited nonpublic school in which the  teaching of mathematics was an important responsibility;
    3. Hold the secondary mathematics teaching endorsement  (6-12); and
    4. Either:
    a. Graduated from an approved mathematics specialist for  middle education preparation program - master's level; or 
    b. Completed a master's level program in mathematics,  mathematics education, or related education field with at least 21 semester  hours of undergraduate or graduate mathematics coursework distributed in the  following areas; (i) number and operations; (ii) rational numbers; (iii)  geometry and measurement; (iv) probability and statistics; (v) algebra and  functions; and (vi) at least nine semester hours of graduate coursework  pertaining to mathematics education in mathematics instructional leadership,  evaluation of mathematics curriculum and instruction, mathematical learning  theory, and student assessment for mathematics.
    8VAC20-23-660. Reading specialist.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Completed a graduate-level reading specialist  state-approved preparation program - master's degree required - that includes  course experiences of at least 30 semester hours of graduate coursework in the  competencies for the endorsement, as well as a practicum experience in the  diagnosis and remediation of reading difficulties.
    2. Satisfied the requirements for the reading specialist  assessment specified by the Virginia Board of Education.
    3. At least three years of successful classroom teaching  experience in which the teaching of reading was an important responsibility.
    8VAC20-23-670. School counselor preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. 
    1. Option I. The candidate must have:
    a. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university and completed an approved school counselor preparation  program that shall include at least 100 clock hours of internship and practicum  experiences in the preK-6 setting and 100 clock hours of internship and  practicum experiences in the grades 7-12 setting; and
    b. Two years of successful, full-time teaching experience  or two years of successful, full-time experience in school counseling in a  public or an accredited nonpublic school. Two years of successful, full-time  experience in school counseling in a public or an accredited nonpublic school  under a Provisional License may be accepted to meet this requirement.
    2. Option II. The candidate  must have:
    a. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university and completed an approved school counselor preparation  program that shall include at least 100 clock hours of internship and practicum  experiences in the preK-6 setting and 100 clock hours of internship and  practicum experiences in the grades 7-12 setting; and
    b. Two years of successful, full-time teaching experience  or two years of successful, full-time experience in school counseling in a  public or an accredited nonpublic school. Two years of successful, full-time  experience in school counseling in a public or an accredited nonpublic school  under a nonrenewable Provisional License may be accepted to meet this  requirement.
    8VAC20-23-680. School manager license.
    A. The school manager license is intended to provide for  the differentiation of administrative responsibilities in a school setting. A  school manager is licensed to administer noninstructional responsibilities in  an educational setting. For example, a school manager is restricted from  evaluating teachers, supervising instruction, developing and evaluating  curriculum, and serving as a school's student disciplinarian.
    B. To earn a school manager license, the candidate must:
    1. Have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    2. Have three years successful, full-time managerial  experience; and
    3. Be recommended for the license by a Virginia school  division superintendent.
    8VAC20-23-690. School psychology.
    Endorsement requirements:
    1. Option I. The candidate must:
    a. Complete an approved program in school psychology;
    b. Earn a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university and complete 60 graduate-level hours, 54 of which are  academic coursework, exclusive of field-based experiences, that culminate in at  least a master's degree; and
    c. Complete an internship that is documented by the  degree-granting institution. The internship experience shall occur on a  full-time basis over a period of one year or on a half-time basis over a period  of two consecutive years. The internship shall occur under conditions of  appropriate supervision, that is, the school-based supervisor shall be licensed  as either a school or clinical psychologist. The internship shall include  experiences at multiple age levels, at least one half of which shall be in an  accredited school setting.
    2. Option II. The candidate must hold a currently valid  certificate issued by the National School Psychology Certification Board.
    8VAC20-23-700. School social worker.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's of social work degree from a  regionally accredited college or university school of social work with a  minimum of 60 graduate-level semester hours;
    2. A minimum of six graduate semester hours in education to  include six semester hours from two of the following courses:
    a. The teaching profession (3 semester hours);
    b. Characteristics of special education (3 semester hours);
    c. Human development and learning (3 semester hours); or
    d. Classroom and behavior management (3 semester hours).
    3. Completed a supervised practicum or field experience of  a minimum of 400 clock hours in a public or an accredited nonpublic school  discharging the duties of a school social worker. One year of successful,  full-time experience as a school social worker in a public or an accredited  nonpublic school may be accepted in lieu of the school social work practicum.
    8VAC20-23-710. Vocational evaluator.
    Endorsement requirements:
    1. Option I. The candidate must be certified as a  vocational evaluation specialist by holding a professional vocational evaluator  (PVE) credential or a certified vocational evaluator (CVE) specialist  credential, meeting all standards and criteria of the Commission on  Certification of Work Adjustment and Vocational Evaluation Specialists  (CCWAVES).
    2. Option II. The candidate must have earned a master's  degree in vocational evaluation, career and technical education, special  education, or rehabilitation counseling and completed 15 graduate semester  hours distributed in the following areas:
    a. Tests and measurements: 3 semester hours;
    b. Medical and educational aspects of disability: 3  semester hours;
    c. Occupational information and job analysis: 3 semester  hours;
    d. Purposes and practices of vocational evaluation: 3  semester hours; and
    e. Career, life planning, and transition services: 3  semester hours.
    Part VII 
  Revocation, Cancellation, Suspension, Denial, and Reinstatement of Teaching  Licenses
    8VAC20-23-720. Revocation.
    A. A license issued by the Virginia Board of Education may  be revoked for the following reasons:
    1. Obtaining or attempting to obtain such license by  fraudulent means or through misrepresentation of material facts;
    2. Falsification of school records, documents, statistics,  or reports;
    3. Conviction of any felony;
    4. Conviction of any misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;
    5. Conviction of any misdemeanor involving a minor child or  drugs, not including alcohol;
    6. Conduct with direct and detrimental effect on the  health, welfare, discipline, or morale of students;
    7. Misapplication of or failure to account for school funds  or other school properties with which the licensee has been entrusted;
    8. Acts related to secure mandatory tests as specified in  subsection A of § 22.1-292.1 of the Code of Virginia;
    9. Knowingly and willfully with the intent to compromise  the outcome of an athletic competition procure, sell, or administer anabolic  steroids or cause such drugs to be procured, sold, or administered to a student  who is a member of a school athletic team, or fail to report the use of such  drugs by a student to the school principal and division superintendent as  required by clause (iii) of subsection A of § 22.1-279.3:1 of the Code of  Virginia. Any person whose license is suspended or revoked by the board  pursuant to this section shall be ineligible for three school years for  employment in the public schools of the Commonwealth; 
    10. Revocation, suspension, surrender, cancellation,  invalidation, or denial of, or other adverse action against, a teaching,  administrator, pupil personnel services, or other education-related certificate  or license by another state, territory, or country;
    11. Founded case of child abuse or neglect after all appeal  rights have been exhausted;
    12. Notification of dismissal or resignation pursuant to  subsection F of § 22.1-313 of the Code of Virginia; or
    13. Other good and just cause in the best interest of the  public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia. 
    B. Procedures.
    1. A complaint may be filed by anyone, but it shall be the  duty of a division superintendent, principal, or other responsible school  employee to file a complaint in any case in which he has knowledge that a  holder of a license is guilty of any offense set forth in subsection A of this  section. The person making the complaint shall submit the complaint in writing  to the appropriate division superintendent.
    2. Upon receipt of the complaint against the holder of a  license, a division superintendent or his duly authorized representative shall  investigate the complaint. If, on the basis of such investigation, the division  superintendent finds the complaint to be without merit, he shall so notify the  complaining party or parties in writing and then close his file on the matter.  This action shall be final unless the local school board, on its own motion,  votes to proceed to a hearing on the complaint. 
    C. Petition for revocation. Should the division  superintendent or local school board conclude that there is reasonable cause to  believe that a complaint against the holder of a license is well founded, the  license holder shall be notified of the complaint by a written petition for  revocation of a license signed by the division superintendent. A copy of such  petition shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the  license holder's last known address.
    D. Form of petition. The petition for the revocation of a  license shall set forth:
    1. The name and last known address of the person against  whom the petition is being filed;
    2. The type of license and the license number held by the  person against whom the petition is being filed;
    3. The offenses alleged and the specific actions that  comprise the alleged offenses;
    4. A statement of rights of the person charged under this  chapter. The statement of rights shall include notification to the person of  the right to cancel the license if he chooses not to contest the allegations in  the petition. The statement must notify the individual that he shall receive a  notice of cancellation that will include the statement: "The license  holder voluntarily returned the license in response to a petition for  revocation." The individual also shall be notified that the cancellation  of the license will be reported to division superintendents in Virginia and to  chief state school officers of the other states and territories of the United States;  and
    5. Any other pertinent information.
    E. Filing of petition. The original petition shall be  entered in the files of the local school board where the license holder is or  was last employed.
    F. Response to petition. The license holder shall present  his written answer to the petition, if any, within 14 days of delivery or  attempted delivery of the petition as certified by the United States Postal  Service.
    1. If the license holder does not wish to contest the  allegations in the petition, he may cancel the license by returning the license  to the division superintendent with a written, signed statement requesting  cancellation in response to a petition for revocation. The division  superintendent shall forward the request for cancellation along with the petition  for revocation to the Superintendent of Public Instruction within 14 days of  receipt. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall cancel the license and  send a notice of cancellation to the person by certified mail within 14 days of  receipt of the request for cancellation.
    2. If the license holder files a written answer admitting  or denying the allegations in the petition or fails to file a written answer  within 14 days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition as certified  by the United States Postal Service, the local school board shall promptly  proceed to a hearing. The local school board shall provide a hearing at the  time and place of its regular meeting or at such other reasonable time and  place it may specify. The license holder or his representative, if any, shall  be given at least 14 days' notice of the hearing.
    3. At the hearing, the local school board shall receive the  recommendation of the division superintendent and then either deny the petition  or recommend license revocation or suspension. A decision to deny the petition  shall be final, except as specified in subsection G of this section, and the  investigative file on the petition shall be closed and maintained as a separate  file. Any record or material relating to the allegations in the petition shall  be placed in the investigative file. Should the local school board recommend  the revocation or suspension of a license, the division superintendent shall  forward the recommendation and the investigative file to the Superintendent of  Public Instruction within 14 days.
    G. Revocation on motion of the Virginia Board of  Education. The Virginia Board of Education reserves the right to act directly  to revoke a license when the Virginia Board of Education has reasonable cause  to believe that subsection A of this section is applicable. The Superintendent  of Public Instruction may send a petition for revocation to the license holder  as provided by subsection D of this section. The license holder shall have the  opportunity to respond to the petition or request cancellation of the license  within 14 days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition, as certified  by the United States Postal Service. 
    1. If the license holder files a written answer admitting  the allegations in the petition or fails to file a written answer within 14  days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition as certified by the  United States Postal Service, the petition shall be forwarded to the Virginia  Board of Education for action. No revocation will be ordered without the  involved license holder being given the opportunity to appear at a hearing  specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    2. If the license holder timely files his written answer  denying the allegations in the petition, the Superintendent of Public  Instruction shall schedule a hearing with the investigative panel provided in  8VAC20-23-780 A. The license holder or his representative, if any, shall be  given at least 14 days' notice of the hearing. The investigative panel shall  take action on the petition as specified in 8VAC20-23-780 A. No revocation will  be ordered without the involved license holder being given the opportunity to  appear at a hearing specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    H. Reinstatement of license. A license that has been  revoked may be reinstated by the Virginia Board of Education after five years  if the board is satisfied that reinstatement is in the best interest of the  public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia. The individual seeking  reinstatement must submit a written request and completed application to the  board. The request for reinstatement will be reviewed by the Superintendent of  Public Instruction's investigative panel pursuant to 8VAC20-23-780.  Notification to all appropriate parties will be communicated in writing by the  Virginia Department of Education.
    8VAC20-23-730. Cancellation.
    A. A license may be canceled by the voluntary return of  the license by the license holder. Reasons for cancellation are the same as  those listed under 8VAC20-23-720 A.
    B. The individual may voluntarily return the license to  the division superintendent or the Superintendent of Public Instruction with a  written, signed statement requesting cancellation. The individual shall  acknowledge in the request that he understands that the notice of cancellation  will include the statement: "The license holder voluntarily returned his  teaching license and requested cancellation. Reasons for cancellation are the  same as those for revocation." However, if the request for cancellation is  in response to a petition for revocation, the individual shall acknowledge that  he understands that the notice of cancellation will include the statement:  "The license holder voluntarily returned the license in response to a  petition for revocation." The individual also shall acknowledge that he understands  that the cancellation of the license will be reported to division  superintendents in Virginia and to chief state school officers of the other  states and territories of the United States. The division superintendent shall  forward any request for cancellation and, if applicable, the petition for  revocation to the Superintendent of Public Instruction within 14 days of  receipt. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall cancel the license and  send the person a notice of cancellation by certified mail within 14 days of  receipt of the request for cancellation. 
    C. A license that has been canceled may be reinstated by  the Virginia Board of Education if the board is satisfied that reinstatement is  in the best interest of the public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia. The  individual seeking reinstatement must submit a written request and completed  application to the board. The request for reinstatement will be reviewed by the  Superintendent of Public Instruction's investigative panel pursuant to 8VAC20-23-780  A. Notification to all appropriate parties will be communicated in writing by  the Virginia Department of Education.
    8VAC20-23-740. Suspension.
    A. A license may be suspended for the following reasons:
    1. Physical, mental, or emotional incapacity as shown by a  competent medical authority;
    2. Incompetence or neglect of duty;
    3. Failure or refusal to comply with school laws and  regulations, including willful violation of contractual obligations;
    4. Acts related to secure mandatory tests as specified in  subsection A of § 22.1-292.1 of the Code of Virginia;
    5. Knowingly and willfully with the intent to compromise  the outcome of an athletic competition procure, sell, or administer anabolic  steroids or cause such drugs to be procured, sold, or administered to a student  who is a member of a school athletic team, or fail to report the use of such  drugs by a student to the school principal and division superintendent as  required by clause (iii) of subsection A of § 22.1-279.3:1 of the Code of  Virginia. Any person whose license is suspended or revoked by the board  pursuant to this section shall be ineligible for three school years for  employment in the public schools of the Commonwealth; or
    6. Other good and just cause in the best interest of the  public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    B. Procedures.
    1. A complaint may be filed by anyone, but it shall be the  duty of a division superintendent, principal, or other responsible school  employee to file a complaint in any case in which he has knowledge that the  license holder has committed any offense set forth in subsection A of this  section. The person making the complaint shall submit the complaint in writing  to the appropriate division superintendent.
    2. Upon receipt of the complaint against the holder of a  license, a division superintendent or his duly authorized representative shall  investigate the complaint. If, on the basis of such investigation, the division  superintendent finds the complaint to be without merit, he shall so notify the  complaining party or parties in writing and then close his file on the matter.  This action shall be final unless the local school board on its own motion  votes to proceed to a hearing on the complaint. 
    C. Petition for suspension. Should the division  superintendent or local school board conclude that there is reasonable cause to  believe that a complaint against the holder of a license is well founded, the  license holder shall be notified of the complaint by a written petition for  suspension of a license signed by the division superintendent. A copy of such  petition shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the  license holder's last known address.
    D. Form of petition. The petition for the suspension of a  license shall set forth:
    1. The name and last known address of the person against  whom the petition is being filed;
    2. The type of license and the license number held by the  person against whom the petition is being filed;
    3. The offenses alleged and the specific actions that  comprise the alleged offenses;
    4. A statement of the rights of the person against whom the  petition is being filed. The statement of rights shall notify the person of the  right to cancel the license if he chooses not to contest the allegations in the  petition. The statement also shall notify the individual that the license may  be suspended for up to five years and that he shall receive a notice of  cancellation that will include the statement: "The license holder  voluntarily returned the license in response to a petition for suspension."  The individual also shall be notified that the cancellation and period of  suspension will be reported to division superintendents in Virginia and to  chief state school officers of the other states and territories of the United  States; and 
    5. Any other pertinent information.
    E. Filing of petition. The original petition shall be  entered in the files of the local school board where the license holder is or  was last employed.
    F. Response to petition. The license holder shall present  his written answer to the petition, if any, within 14 days of delivery or  attempted delivery of the petition, as certified by the United States Postal  Service.
    1. If the license holder does not wish to contest the  allegations in the petition, he may cancel the license by returning the license  to the division superintendent with a written and signed statement requesting  cancellation. The division superintendent shall forward the request for  cancellation along with the petition for suspension to the Superintendent of  Public Instruction within 14 days of receipt. The Superintendent of Public  Instruction shall cancel the license and send the person a notice of  cancellation by certified mail within 14 days of receipt of the request for  cancellation. 
    2. If the license holder files a written answer admitting  or denying the allegations in the petition or fails to file a written answer  within 14 days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition as certified  by the United States Postal Service, the local school board shall promptly proceed  to a hearing. The local school board shall provide a hearing at the time and  place of its regular meeting or at such other reasonable time and place it may  specify. The license holder or his representative, if any, shall be given at  least 14 days' notice of the hearing.
    3. At its hearing, the local school board shall receive the  recommendation of the division superintendent and then either deny the petition  or recommend suspension. A decision to deny the petition shall be final, except  as specified in subsection G of this section, and the investigative file on the  petition shall be closed and maintained as a separate file. Any record or  material relating to the allegations in the petition shall be placed in the  investigative file. Should the local school board recommend the suspension of a  license, the division superintendent shall forward the recommendation and the  investigative file to the Superintendent of Public Instruction within 14 days.
    G. Suspension on motion of the Virginia Board of  Education. The Virginia Board of Education reserves the right to act directly  to suspend a license when the Virginia Board of Education has reasonable cause  to believe that subsection A of this section is applicable. The Superintendent  of Public Instruction may send a petition for suspension to the license holder  as specified in subsection D of this section. The license holder shall have the  opportunity to respond to the petition or request cancellation of the license  within 14 days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition, as certified  by the United States Postal Service.
    1. If the license holder files a written answer admitting  the allegations in the petition or fails to file a written answer within 14  days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition as certified by the  United States Postal Service, the petition shall be forwarded to the Virginia  Board of Education for action. No suspension will be ordered without the  involved license holder being given the opportunity to appear at a hearing  specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    2. If the license holder timely files his written answer  denying the allegations in the petition, the Superintendent of Public  Instruction shall schedule a hearing with the investigative panel provided in  8VAC20-23-780 A. The license holder or his representative, if any, shall be  given at least 14 days' notice of the hearing. The investigative panel shall  take action on the petition as specified in 8VAC20-23-780 A. No suspension will  be ordered without the involved license holder being given the opportunity to  appear at a hearing specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    H. Reinstatement of license. A license may be suspended  for a period of time not to exceed five years. The license may be reinstated by  the Superintendent of Public Instruction, upon written request and application,  with verification that all requirements for license renewal have been  satisfied. Notification to all appropriate parties will be communicated in  writing by the Virginia Department of Education. 
    8VAC20-23-750. Denial.
    A license may be denied for  the following reasons:
    1. Attempting to obtain such  license by fraudulent means or through misrepresentation of material facts;
    2. Falsification of records or documents;
    3. Conviction of any felony;
    4. Conviction of any misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;
    5. Conviction of any misdemeanor involving a minor child or  drugs, not including alcohol;
    6. Conduct with a direct and detrimental effect on the  health, welfare, discipline, or morale of students;
    7. Revocation, suspension, surrender, cancellation,  invalidation, or denial of, or other adverse action against, a teaching,  administrator, pupil personnel services, or other education-related certificate  or license by another state, territory, or country; 
    8. Founded case of child abuse or neglect, after all appeal  rights have been exhausted; or
    9. Other good and just cause in the best interest of the  public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    8VAC20-23-760. Expired licenses.
    A. The holder of a license that has expired must apply for  a license according to the procedures set forth in 8VAC20-23-40 or  8VAC20-23-110. Such application may be denied renewal by the Superintendent of  Public Instruction for any of the reasons specified in 8VAC20-23-750. No such  denial will be ordered unless the license holder is given the opportunity for  the hearing specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    B. A license issued by the Virginia Board of Education may  be revoked or suspended for any of the reasons listed in 8VAC20-23-720 A or  8VAC20-23-740 A, even if the license is expired, as long as the basis for  action occurred prior to the issuance of the license or while the license was  active. 
    8VAC20-23-770. Right to counsel and transcript.
    A license holder or applicant shall have the right, at his  own expense, to be represented by an attorney or other representative at (i)  any local school board hearing provided for in 8VAC20-23-720 F 2 or  8VAC20-23-740 F 2, (ii) investigative panel hearing provided for in  8VAC20-23-780 A, or (iii) proceedings before the Virginia Board of Education as  specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C. The hearing before the local school board provided  for in 8VAC20-23-720 F 2 or 8VAC20-23-740 F 2 and the investigative panel  hearing provided for in 8VAC20-23-780 A shall be recorded, and upon written  request the license holder or applicant shall be provided a transcript of the  hearing at his own expense. Any such hearing before the Virginia Board of  Education shall be recorded, and upon written request the license holder or  applicant shall be provided a transcript of the hearing at no charge.
    8VAC20-23-780. Action by the Superintendent of Public Instruction  and the Virginia Board of Education.
    A. Upon receipt of a petition, the Superintendent of  Public Instruction will ensure that an investigative panel at the state level  reviews the petition. The panel shall consist of three to five members selected  by the Superintendent of Public Instruction. The applicant or license holder  shall be given at least 14 days' notice of the date, time, and location of the  investigative panel hearing when his case will be considered. The Virginia  Department of Education shall ensure that the applicant or license holder  receives all documentation that will be used during the investigative panel  hearing prior to the hearing. Representatives of the local school division and  the applicant or license holder are entitled to be present with counsel and  witnesses if so desired. The investigative panel hearing shall be recorded. The  recommendation of the investigative panel is made to the Superintendent of  Public Instruction who will forward his recommendation and the documentation  used during the investigative panel hearing to the Virginia Board of Education  or its duly designated committee at one of its scheduled meetings. The  applicant or license holder shall be given at least 14 days' notice of the  Virginia Board of Education meeting when his case will be considered. Following  the investigative panel hearing, the Virginia Department of Education shall  forward the recommendation of the investigative panel to the applicant or  license holder as soon as practicable, but no later than 14 days prior to the  scheduled Virginia Board of Education meeting when his case will be considered.  
    B. The Superintendent of Public Instruction is authorized  to approve the issuance of licenses for individuals who have a misdemeanor  convictions related to drugs, not including alcohol, based on a review of the  cases. No individual would be denied a license without a hearing of the  Virginia Board of Education as required in this section.
    C. The Virginia Board of Education, or its duly designated  committee, shall consider the recommendation of the Superintendent of Public  Instruction and such relevant and material evidence as the applicant or license  holder may desire to present at the hearing. At its discretion, the Virginia  Board of Education may ask the applicant or license holder questions. At the  conclusion of the hearing, the Virginia Board of Education will announce its  decision. 
    D. The decision of the Virginia Board of Education shall  be recorded in the minutes of the meeting, and the applicant or license holder  and principal complainants will receive written notice of the decision. 
    8VAC20-23-790. Right of applicant or license holder to  appear at hearing.
    An applicant or a license holder shall have the right to  appear in person at the hearings held by the local school board, Virginia Board  of Education, or board committee described in this part unless he is confined  to jail or a penal institution.  The local school board or Virginia Board  of Education, at its discretion, may continue such hearings for a reasonable  time if the applicant or license holder is prevented from appearing in person  for reasons such as documented medical or mental impairment.
    8VAC20-23-800. Notification.
    Notification of the revocation, suspension, cancellation,  denial, or reinstatement of a license shall be made by the Superintendent of  Public Instruction, or his designee, to division superintendents in Virginia  and to chief state school officers of the other states and territories of the  United States.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3476; Filed August 10, 2015, 10:40 a.m. 
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-22. Licensure  Regulations for School Personnel (repealing 8VAC20-22-10 through 8VAC20-22-760).
    8VAC20-23. Licensure Regulations for School Personnel (adding 8VAC20-23-10 through 8VAC20-23-800). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 22.1-298.1 and 22.1-299 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    October 22, 2015 - 11 a.m. - 22nd Floor Conference Room;  James Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, Richmond, VA 23219. The public  hearing will begin immediately following adjournment of the Board of Education business  meeting.
    Public Comment Deadline: November 6, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Patty S. Pitts, Assistant Superintendent  for Teacher Education and Licensure, Department of Education, P.O. Box 2120,  Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-2522, or email patty.pitts@doe.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The Board of Education has the statutory  authority to prescribe licensure requirements. Section 22.1-298.1 of the Code  of Virginia, states, in part, the following: "…The Board of Education  shall prescribe, by regulation, the requirements for the licensure of teachers  and other school personnel required to hold a license…."
    Article VIII, Section 4 of the Constitution of Virginia states  that "The general supervision of the public school system shall be vested  in a Board of Education…."
    Sections 22.1-16, 22.1-298.1, 22.1-299, and 22.1-305.2 provide  authority for the Board of Education to promulgate Licensure Regulations for  School Personnel.
    Purpose: A comprehensive review and subsequent revisions  of the Licensure Regulations for School Personnel will align the regulations  with recent actions of the General Assembly, current best practices in  education, and with current educational research. The regulations will be  aligned to the revised Virginia Standards of Learning and the Guidelines for  Uniform Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers. Revisions  to the Licensure Regulations for School Personnel will assist in ensuring that  Virginia maintains high standards of professional competence for teachers and  professional school personnel. In addition, these regulations establish  policies and standards for the qualifications of instructional personnel,  further ensuring educational quality for Virginia public school students is  current and up to date. Ensuring high standards for professional competence and  the qualifications of instructional personnel will provide for educational  quality for public school students, which is necessary for the welfare of  citizens. In revising these regulations, the Board of Education sets forth  requirements for the revocation, cancellation, suspension, denial, and  reinstatement of licenses.
    Substance: The Board of Education has the statutory  authority to prescribe licensure requirements. Section 22.1-298.1 of the Code  of Virginia, states, in part, the following: "The Board of Education shall  prescribe, by regulation, the requirements for the licensure of teachers and  other school personnel required to hold a license…."
    The Advisory Board on Teacher Education and Licensure received  the proposed revisions to the Licensure Regulations for School Personnel on  April 22, 2013. The advisory board unanimously recommended that the Board of  Education accept the proposed revisions to the regulations in the proposed  stage of the regulatory process under the Administrative Process Act.
    Sections proposed to have substantive changes include the  following sections: 
    • 8VAC20-22-10. Definitions. The amendments revise the  definitions section of this chapter to align with proposed revisions throughout  the Licensure Regulations for School Personnel.
    • 8VAC20-22-40. Conditions for licensure. The amendments  include the requirement that individuals seeking initial licensure provide  evidence of training or certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary  resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators, as prescribed  in Chapters 498 and 530 of the 2013 Acts of Assembly. Text was added to clarify  the endorsement requirements for the teacher of record.
    • 8VAC20-22-50. Types of licenses; dating licenses. The  amendments would revise this section to include the following: 
    - Issue a Provisional License for two years (with the  exception of the Provisional Career Switcher License). Individuals may apply  for a third year on the Provisional License by submitting documentation  indicating that all licensure assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education have been taken.
    - Issue the International Educator License for a five-year,  instead of a three-year, exchange program.
    - Discontinue the Local Eligibility License by action of the  2013 General Assembly. 
    - Add the Online Teacher License as a five-year, renewable  license valid only for teaching online courses.
    - Add the Teach for America License, established as a two-year  provisional license by action of the 2013 General Assembly.
    • 8VAC20-22-90. Alternate routes to licensure. The amendments  increase the requirements from three semester hours to nine semester hours of  specified coursework prior to issuance of a Provisional (Special Education)  License to individuals without a five-year Virginia teaching license.
    • 8VAC20-22-110. Requirements for renewing a license. The  amendments would revise this section to include the following: 
    - Add the requirement, as prescribed by Chapter 726 of the  2013 Acts of Assembly, that any individual licensed and endorsed to teach  middle school civics or economics or high school government or history who is  seeking renewal of such license is required to demonstrate knowledge of  Virginia history or state and local government by completing a module or  professional development course specifically related to Virginia history or  state and local government.
    - Add the requirement that individuals renewing a license,  effective July 1, 2013, provide evidence of training or certification in  emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated  external defibrillators, as prescribed in  Chapters 498 and 530 of the  2013 Acts of Assembly. 
    - Change text to allow the division superintendent or the  principal to approve renewal activities and exceptions. Remove the text  "for one cycle of the renewal process" to allow an exception to the  content course requirements for individuals without a graduate degree beyond  one renewal cycle.
    • 8VAC20-22-130. Professional studies requirements. The  amendments include changing professional study coursework titles and course  content and adding an additional course requirement, "Assessment of and  for Learning"; three semester hours.
    • 8VAC20-22-140 – 8VAC20-22-670 (endorsement areas) The amendments  would revise the following endorsement areas: 
    - Early childhood for three-year-olds and four-year-olds  (add-on endorsement) - Allow individuals who hold the early childhood special  education endorsement to add this endorsement. 
    - Early/primary education preK-3 - Increase the coursework  requirements in mathematics and science and provide an option for specified  requirements and testing. 
    - Elementary education preK-6 - Increase the coursework  requirements in mathematics and science and provide an option for specified  requirements and testing. 
    - Middle education 6-8 - Increase the coursework requirements  in mathematics. 
    - Career and technical education - industrial cooperative  training (add-on endorsement). Discontinue the endorsement.
    - Engineering - Create a new endorsement. 
    - Special education - general curriculum K-6 (add-on  endorsement); Special education - general curriculum middle grades 6-8 (add-on  endorsement); Special education - general curriculum secondary grades 6-12  (add-on endorsement) Establish new add-on endorsements. 
    - Administration and supervision preK-12 - Revise the  alternate route to add an option of a combination of graduate-level coursework  and a research-based program approved by the Department of Education and add  "Principal of Distinction" to the name of the Level II endorsement,  mathematics specialist for elementary education, and mathematics specialist for  middle education.
    - Establish separate endorsements specific to the population  of students being served. Currently the endorsement is combined, mathematics  specialist for elementary and middle education. 
    - Special education - speech language pathologist preK-12 -  Discontinue issuing an initial license with an endorsement in speech/language  pathology. Individuals will seek a license from the Virginia Board of Examiners  for Audiology and Speech Pathology.
    • 8VAC20-22-720 – 8VAC20-22-800 (Part VII-Revocation,  Cancellation, Suspension, Denial, and Reinstatement of Teaching Licenses) -  Amendments proposed.
    Issues: The primary advantages of revising the Licensure  Regulations for School Personnel are to align the regulations with recent  actions of the General Assembly, with current best practices in education, and  with current educational research. The regulations will be aligned to the  revised Virginia Standards of Learning and the Guidelines for Uniform  Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers. Revisions to the  Licensure Regulations for School Personnel will assist in ensuring that  Virginia maintains high standards of professional competence for teachers and  professional school personnel.
    In addition, the regulations establish policies and standards  for the qualifications of instructional personnel, further ensuring educational  quality for Virginia public school students. In revising these regulations, the  Board of Education sets forth requirements for the revocation, cancellation,  suspension, denial, and reinstatement of licenses. 
    The regulatory action poses no disadvantages to the public or  the Commonwealth.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Education proposes to repeal the current regulation (8 VAC 20-22) and replace  it with a new regulation (8 VAC 20-23). In doing so, the Board proposes  numerous amendments to the rules including:
    • Requiring that individuals seeking initial licensure provide  evidence of training or certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary  resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators, as prescribed  in Chapter 498 of the 2013 Acts of Assembly.
    • Adding the requirement that individuals renewing a license,  effective July 1, 2013, provide evidence of training or certification in  emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated  external defibrillators, as prescribed in Chapter 498 of the 2013 Acts of  Assembly.
    • Issuing a Provisional License for two years (with the  exception of the Provisional Career Switcher License). Individuals may apply  for a third year on the Provisional License by submitting documentation  indicating that all licensure assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education have been taken.
    • Issuing the International Educator License for a five-year,  instead of a three-year exchange program.
    • Discontinuing the Local Eligibility License pursuant to  Chapter 588 of the 2013 Acts of Assembly.
    • Adding the Online Teacher License as a five-year, renewable  license valid only for teaching online courses.
    • Adding the Teach for America License, established as a  two-year provisional license, pursuant to Chapter 440 of the 2013 Virginia Acts  of Assembly.
    • Increase the requirements from three semester hours to nine  semester hours of specified coursework prior to issuance of a Provisional  (Special Education) License to individuals without a five-year Virginia  teaching license. 
    • Adding the requirement, as prescribed by Chapter 726 of the  2013 Acts of Assembly, that any individual licensed and endorsed to teach a)  middle school civics or economics or b) high school government or history who  is seeking renewal of such license is required to demonstrate knowledge of  Virginia history or state and local government by completing a module or  professional development course specifically related to Virginia history or  state and local government.
    • Changing text to allow the division superintendent or the  principal to approve renewal activities and exceptions. Removed the text for  one cycle of the renewal process to allow an exception to the content course  requirements for individuals without a graduate degree beyond one renewal  cycle.
    • Changing professional study coursework titles and course  content. An additional course requirement, Assessment of and for Learning (3  semester hours), is proposed.
    • Allowing individuals who hold the early childhood special  education endorsement to add the endorsement early childhood for three- and  four-year-olds endorsement.
    • For the early/primary education preK-3 endorsement,  increasing the coursework requirements in mathematics and science and providing  an option for specified requirements and testing.
    • For the elementary education preK-6 endorsement, increasing  the coursework requirements in mathematics and science and providing an option  for specified requirements and testing. 
    • For the middle education 6-8 endorsement, increasing the  coursework requirements in mathematics.
    • Discontinuing the career and technical education industrial  cooperative training endorsement.1 
    • Creating a new engineering endorsement.
    • Establishing the following new add-on endorsements: Special  education general curriculum K-6 (add-on endorsement), Special education  general curriculum middle grades 6-8 (add-on endorsement), and Special  education general curriculum secondary grades 6-12 (add-on endorsement).
    • For administration and supervision preK-12, revising the  alternate route to add an option of a combination of graduate-level coursework  and a research-based program approved by the Department of Education. Adding  Principal of Distinction to the name of the Level II endorsement.
    • Establishing separate mathematics specialist for  elementary education and mathematics specialist for middle education  endorsements specific to the population of students being served. Currently the  endorsement is combined, Mathematics specialist for elementary and middle  education.
    • Discontinuing initial licenses with an endorsement in  speech/language pathology. Individuals will seek a license from the Virginia  Board of Examiners for Audiology and Speech Pathology.2 
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  some changes. For other amendments, whether the benefits exceed the costs  depend on the policy views of the observer.
    Estimated Economic Impact. 
    First Aid, CPR, and AED Training:
    The legislatively mandated proposal to require that individuals  seeking initial teacher licensure and teachers seeking license renewal provide  evidence of training or certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary  resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators will introduce  significant benefits and costs. Having all (or nearly all) teachers in the  Commonwealth trained in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and  the use of automated external defibrillators will increase the likelihood that  someone with potentially lifesaving skills will be on hand during medical  emergencies in the classroom. To the extent that the future teachers absorb and  retain the knowledge they gain in this training, the long-run benefits may be  quite significant.
    For onsite training in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary  resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators, the American  Red Cross charges $250 plus $72 per person being trained if there at least 20  people being trained.3 So for example, if a school district arranged  to have the Red Cross come in and train 50 teachers the fees would total  $3,850. If teachers take courses on their own and go to a location already  offering the course, the cost is $90. If done all in person, the Red Cross  training would take 5.5 hours. Alternatively, the teachers could do 2 hours of  online training ahead of time. In that case the in-person training would last  1.5 hours. The fees would be the same in either case, but the amount of staff  time that potentially could have been used for other subjects differs.
    Teach for America:
    Currently individuals who go through the Teach for America  training program are not permitted to teach in Virginia (unless they fulfill  other requirements for provisional licensure). Pursuant to Chapter 440 of the  2013 Virginia Acts of Assembly, the Board proposes to add the Teach for America  License, established as a two-year provisional license. The addition of this  license will likely lead to Teach for America trained individuals teaching in  Virginia. High-quality peer-reviewed research has found that Teach for America  trained teachers have been particularly effective teachers in mathematics.4  Thus this proposed new license may have some positive impact on math learning  in the Commonwealth.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments  affect the 132 public school divisions in the Commonwealth, current and future  teachers, and businesses or organizations that provide training in emergency  first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated external  defibrillators. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The requirement that  individuals seeking initial teacher licensure and teachers seeking license  renewal provide evidence of training or certification in emergency first aid,  cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated external defibrillators  will increase demand for these services from businesses and organizations that  provide such training. The increase in demand may be enough to create  additional jobs.
    Effects on the Use and Value of  Private Property. The requirement that individuals seeking initial teacher  licensure and teachers seeking license renewal provide evidence of training or  certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the  use of automated external defibrillators will likely increase business for  firms that provide such training. This may increase the value of such  organizations and firms. 
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other  Effects. The proposed amendments are unlikely to significantly affect costs for  small businesses. The requirement that individuals seeking initial teacher  licensure and teachers seeking license renewal provide evidence of training or  certification in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the  use of automated external defibrillators will increase demand for these  services from small businesses that provide such training.
    Small Businesses: Alternative  Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed amendments will not  adversely affect small businesses. 
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate.
    General: The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order Number 14  (2010). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the  report should include but not be limited to:
    • the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom  the proposed regulatory action would apply,
    • the identity of any localities and types of businesses or  other entities particularly affected,
    • the projected number of persons and employment positions to  be affected, 
    • the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to  implement or comply with the regulation, and 
    • the impact on the use and value of private property. 
    Small Businesses: If the proposed regulatory action will have  an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such  economic impact analyses include:
    • an identification and estimate of the number of small  businesses subject to the proposed regulation,
    • the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation,  including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required  reports and other documents,
    • a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation  on affected small businesses, and 
    • a description of any less intrusive or less costly  alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. 
    Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1, if there is a  finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small  business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules is notified at the time  the proposed regulation is submitted to the Virginia Register of Regulations  for publication. This analysis shall represent DPB's best estimate for the  purposes of public review and comment on the proposed regulation. 
    _________________________________________________
    1According to the Department of Education the industrial  cooperative training endorsement has never been used.
    2The proposal to discontinue issuing an initial license  with an endorsement in speech/language pathology resulted from a joint effort  with the Department of Health Professions (DHP) to eliminate confusion as to  whether these individuals should be licensed by DHP or the Department of  Education. Chapter 781 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly clarified that DHP would  issue the licenses; therefore the board is eliminating references to the  program from its regulations.
    3If there are fewer than 20 individuals being trained,  the American Red Cross charges $90 per student.
    4Glazerman, S., Mayer, D., & Decker, P. (2006).  Alternative routes to teaching: The impacts of Teach For America on student  achievement and other outcomes. Journal of Policy Analysis and Management,  25(1), 75-96.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency concurs with the economic impact analysis completed by the Department of  Planning and Budget. The agency will continue to examine the economic and  administrative impact of the regulations as they progress through the  regulatory process under the Administrative Process Act.
    Summary:
    The proposed action repeals the existing regulation  (8VAC20-22) and adopts a new regulation (8VAC20-23) regarding licensure for  school personnel to align the regulation with recent changes in the Code of  Virginia, current best practices in education, current educational research,  and the revised Virginia Standards of Learning and the Guidelines for Uniform  Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers. Substantive  elements of the proposed new regulations (i) revise selected definitions to  conform with changes in the proposed new regulations; (ii) require initial and  renewal licensure applicants to provide evidence of training or certification  in emergency first aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated  external defibrillators; (iii) clarify the endorsement requirements for the  teacher of record; (iv) modify the term of issuance of certain licenses; (v)  discontinue the Local Eligibility License; (vi) add the Online Teacher License  and the Teach for America License; (vii) increase the coursework requirements  prior to issuance of a Provisional (Special Education) License to individuals  without a five-year Virginia teaching license; (viii) add requirements for any  individual licensed and endorsed to teach middle school civics or economics, or  high school government or history, seeking license renewal; (ix) allow the  division superintendent or the principal to approve renewal activities and  exceptions; (x) change professional study coursework titles and course content  and add a three-semester-hour course in assessment of and for learning; (xi)  revise endorsement areas; (xii) discontinue issuance of an initial license with  an endorsement in speech/language pathology as individuals will seek a license  from the Virginia Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology; and (xiii)  amend the provisions on the revocation, cancellation, suspension, denial, and  reinstatement of teaching licenses.
    CHAPTER 23
  LICENSURE REGULATIONS FOR SCHOOL PERSONNEL
    Part I
  Definitions
    8VAC20-23-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the meanings indicated unless the context clearly implies otherwise:
    "Accredited institution" means an institution of  higher education accredited by a regional accrediting agency recognized by the  United States Department of Education.
    "Accredited virtual school or program" means a  virtual school or program accredited by one of the accrediting agencies  recognized by the Virginia Department of Education.
    "Alternate route to licensure" means a  nontraditional route to licensure available to individuals who meet the  criteria specified in 8VAC20-23-90.
    "Approved program" means a professional  education program recognized as meeting state standards for the content and  operation of such programs so that graduates of the program will be eligible  for state licensure. The Virginia Board of Education has the authority to  approve programs in Virginia.
    "Cancellation" means the withdrawal of a  teaching license following the voluntary return of the license by the license  holder.
    "Certified provider" means a provider certified  by the Virginia Department of Education to provide preparation and training for  applicants seeking the Provisional License specified in 8VAC20-23-90.
    "Collegiate Professional License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has satisfied all  requirements for licensure set forth in this chapter, including an earned  baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or university and the  professional teacher's assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education.
    "Content area coursework" means courses at the  undergraduate level (i.e., two-year or four-year institution) or at the  graduate level that will not duplicate previous courses, or the level of coursework,  taken in humanities, English, history and social sciences, sciences,  mathematics, health and physical education, and fine arts. These courses are  usually available through the college or department of arts or sciences.
    "Denial" means the refusal to grant a teaching  license to a new applicant or to an applicant who is reapplying after the  expiration of a license.
    "Division Superintendent License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has completed an  earned master's degree from a regionally accredited college or university and  meets the requirements specified in 8VAC20-23-630. The individual's name must  be listed on the Virginia Board of Education's list of eligible division  superintendents.
    "Experiential learning" means a process of  applying for an initial license through the alternate route as prescribed by  the Virginia Board of Education and meeting the criteria specified in  8VAC20-23-90 E to be eligible to request experiential learning credits in lieu  of the coursework for the endorsement (teaching) content area.
    "International Educator License" means a  five-year cultural exchange opportunity for Virginia students and international  teachers. The International Educator License is a professional teaching license  issued for no more than five years to an exchange teacher with citizenship in a  nation other than the United States of America and employed as teacher in a  Virginia public school or an accredited nonpublic school.
    "Licensure by reciprocity" means a process used to  issue a license to an individual coming into Virginia from another state when  that individual meets certain conditions specified in this chapter.
    "Mentor" means a classroom teacher hired by the  local school division who has achieved continuing contract status or other  instructional personnel including retired teachers who meet local mentor  selection criteria. The mentor should work in the same building as the  beginning teacher or be instructional personnel who is assigned solely as a  mentor. A mentor should be assigned a limited number of teachers at any time.  Instructional personnel who are not assigned solely as mentors should not be  assigned to more than four teachers at any time. Mentors guide teachers in the  program through demonstrations, observations, and consultations.
    "Online Teacher License" means a five-year,  renewable license valid only for teaching online courses. Teachers who hold a  five-year renewable license issued by the Virginia Board of Education may teach  online courses for which they are properly endorsed and do not need to seek  this license.
    "Postgraduate Professional License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has qualified for  the Collegiate Professional License and who holds an appropriate earned graduate  degree from a regionally accredited college or university.
    "Professional teacher assessment" means those  tests or other requirements mandated for licensure as prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education.
    "Provisional License" means a nonrenewable license  valid for a specified period of time not to exceed three years issued to an  individual who has allowable deficiencies for full licensure as set forth in  this chapter. The individual must have a minimum of an undergraduate degree  from a regionally accredited college or university, with the exception of those  individuals seeking the Technical Professional License. The Provisional  License, with the exception of those individuals seeking licensure through a  career switcher program who will be issued a one-year Provisional License, will  be issued for two years. Individuals may apply for a third year on the  Provisional License by submitting documentation indicating that all licensure  assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education have been taken.  Individuals must complete all requirements, including passing all licensure  assessments, for a renewable license within the validity period of the license.  
    "Pupil Personnel Services License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has earned an  appropriate graduate degree from a regionally accredited college or university  with an endorsement as a school counselor, school psychologist, school social  worker, or vocational evaluator. This license does not require teaching experience  unless otherwise outlined under the specific endorsement's requirements.
    "Renewable license" means a license issued by  the Virginia Board of Education for five years to an individual who meets all  requirements specified in this chapter.
    "Revocation" means the withdrawal of a teaching  license.
    "School Manager License" means a five-year,  renewable license intended to provide for a differentiation of administrative  responsibilities in a school setting. A school manager is licensed to  administer noninstructional responsibilities in an educational setting. For  example, a school manager is restricted from evaluating teachers, supervising  instruction, developing and evaluating curriculum, and serving as a school’s  student disciplinarian. The license is available to a candidate who holds a  baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or university; has  three years of success managerial experience; and is recommended for the  license by a Virginia school division superintendent.
    "Suspension" means the temporary withdrawal of a  teaching license.
    "Technical Professional License" means a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has graduated from  an accredited high school (or possesses a General Educational Development  Certificate); has exhibited academic proficiency, technical competency, and  successful occupational experience; and meets the requirements specified in  subdivision 4 of 8VAC20-23-50.
    Part II 
  Administering the Regulations
    8VAC20-23-20. Administering this chapter.
    A. In administering this chapter, modifications may be  made in exceptional cases by the Superintendent of Public Instruction. Proposed  modifications shall be made in writing to the Superintendent of Public  Instruction, Commonwealth of Virginia, Virginia Department of Education, P.O.  Box 2120, Richmond, Virginia 23218-2120. 
    B. In administering this chapter, competencies required  for endorsement areas are outlined in the Regulations Governing the Review and  Approval of Education Programs in Virginia (8VAC20-543). This document should  be referenced for detailed information regarding coursework content for  endorsements. Individuals must complete the semester hours required for  endorsement areas, or the equivalent, that must be documented and approved by  the Department of Education.
    Part III 
  Licensure
    8VAC20-23-30. Purpose and responsibility for licensure.
    The primary purpose for licensing teachers and other  school personnel is to maintain standards of professional competence. The  responsibility for licensure is set forth in § 22.1-298.1 of the Code of  Virginia, which states that the Virginia Board of Education shall prescribe by  regulation the requirements for licensure of teachers.
    8VAC20-23-40. Conditions for licensure.
    A. Applicants for licensure must:
    1. Be at least 18 years of age;
    2. Pay the appropriate fees as determined by the  Virginia Board of Education and complete the application process;
    3. Have earned a baccalaureate degree, with the  exception of the Technical Professional License, from a regionally accredited college  or university and meet requirements for the license sought. Persons seeking  initial licensure through approved programs from Virginia institutions of  higher education shall only be licensed as instructional personnel by the  Virginia Board of Education if the professional education programs offered at  such institutions have been accredited by a national accrediting agency and the  education (endorsement) programs have final approval by the Virginia Board of  Education; and
    4. Possess good moral character (i.e., free of  conditions outlined in Part VII (8VAC20-23-720 et seq.) of this chapter.
    B. All candidates who hold at least a baccalaureate degree  from a regionally accredited college or university and who seek an initial  Virginia teaching license must obtain passing scores on professional teacher's  assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education. With the exception  of the career switcher program that requires assessments as prerequisites,  individuals must complete the professional teacher's assessments requirements  within the three-year validity of the initial provisional license. Candidates  seeking a Technical Professional License, International Educator License,  School Manager License, or Pupil Personnel Services License are not required to  take the professional teacher's assessments. Individuals who hold a valid  out-of-state license (full credential without deficiencies) and who have  completed a minimum of three years of full-time, successful teaching experience  in a public or an accredited nonpublic school, kindergarten through grade 12,  outside of Virginia are exempt from the professional teacher's assessment  requirements. Documentation must be submitted to verify the school's status as  a public or an accredited nonpublic school.
    C. All individuals seeking an initial endorsement in  early/primary education preK-3, elementary education preK-6, special  education-general curriculum, special education-deaf and hard of hearing,  special education-blindness and visual impairments, and individuals seeking an  endorsement as a reading specialist must obtain passing scores on a reading  instructional assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    D. Licensure by reciprocity is set forth in 8VAC20-23-100.  A school leaders assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education must  be met for all individuals who are seeking an endorsement authorizing them to  serve as principals and assistant principals in the public schools. Individuals  seeking an initial administration and supervision endorsement who are  interested in serving as central office instructional personnel are not  required to take and pass the school leaders assessment prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education.
    E. Individuals seeking initial licensure must demonstrate  proficiency in the use of educational technology for instruction, complete  study in child abuse recognition and intervention in accordance with curriculum  guidelines developed by the Virginia Board of Education in consultation with  the Virginia Department of Social Services, and receive professional  development in instructional methods tailored to promote student academic  progress and effective preparation for the Standards of Learning end-of-course  and end-of-grade assessments.
    F. Every person seeking initial licensure shall provide  evidence of completion of certification or training in emergency first aid,  cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and use of automated external defibrillators.  The certification or training program shall be based on the current national  evidenced-based emergency cardiovascular care guidelines for cardiopulmonary  resuscitation and the use of an automated external defibrillator, such as a  program developed by the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross.  The Virginia Board of Education shall provide a waiver for this requirement for  any person with a disability whose disability prohibits such person from  completing the certification or training.
    G. The teacher of record for verified credit courses for  high school graduation must hold a Virginia license with the appropriate  content endorsement.
    8VAC20-23-50. Types of licenses; dating licenses.
    A. The following types of licenses are available:
    1. Provisional License. The Provisional License is a  nonrenewable license valid for a period not to exceed three years issued to an  individual who has allowable deficiencies for full licensure as set forth in  this chapter. The Provisional License will be issued for two years, with the  exception of those individuals seeking a Provisional License through a career  switcher program. Individuals may apply for a third year on the Provisional  License by submitting documentation indicating that all licensure assessments  prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education (http://doe.virginia.gov/teaching/licensure/prof_teacher_assessment.pdf)  have been taken. The Provisional (Career Switcher) License will be dated as set  forth in 8VAC20-23-90 A 2. Individuals must complete the requirements including  passing all licensure assessments, for the renewable five-year license within  the validity period of the Provisional License. The individual must have a  minimum of an undergraduate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university, with the exception of those individuals seeking the Technical  Professional License.
    2. Collegiate Professional License. The Collegiate  Professional License is a five-year, renewable license available to an  individual who has satisfied all requirements for licensure, including an  earned undergraduate degree from a regionally accredited college or university  and the professional teacher's assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education.
    3. Postgraduate Professional License. The Postgraduate  Professional License is a five-year, renewable license available to an  individual who has qualified for the Collegiate Professional License and who  holds an appropriate earned graduate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university.
    4. Technical Professional License. The Technical  Professional License is a five-year, renewable license available to a person  who has graduated from an accredited high school or possesses a General  Educational Development Certificate; has exhibited academic proficiency, skills  in literacy and communication, technical competency, and successful  occupational experience; and has completed nine semester hours of specialized  professional studies credit from a regionally accredited college or university.  The nine semester hours of professional studies coursework must include three  semester hours of human development and learning, three semester hours of  curriculum and instruction, and three semester hours of applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management. The Technical  Professional License is issued at the recommendation of an employing  educational agency in the areas of career and technical education, educational  technology, and military science. Individuals seeking an endorsement to teach  military science must have the appropriate credentials issued by the United  States military. The employing Virginia educational agency must ensure the  credentials issued by the United States military are active during the period  the individual is teaching. In addition to demonstrating competency in the  endorsement area sought, the individual must:
    a. Hold a valid license issued by the appropriate Virginia  board for those program areas requiring a license and a minimum of two years of  successful experience at the journeyman level or an equivalent. The employing  Virginia educational agency must ensure that the valid license issued by the  appropriate Virginia board for the occupational program area is active during  the period the individual is teaching;
    b. Have completed a registered apprenticeship program and  two years of successful experience at the journeyman level or an equivalent  level in the trade; or
    c. Have four years of successful work experience at the  management or supervisory level or equivalent or have a combination of four  years of training and work experience at the management or supervisory level or  equivalent.
    Individuals holding the Technical Professional License who  seek the Collegiate Professional or Postgraduate Professional License must meet  the requirements of the respective licenses.
    5. School Manager License. The school manager license is a  five-year, renewable license intended to provide for the differentiation of  administrative responsibilities in a school setting. A school manager is  licensed to administer noninstructional responsibilities in an educational  setting. For example, a school manager is restricted from evaluating teachers,  supervising instruction, developing and evaluating curriculum, and serving as a  school's student disciplinarian. The license is available to a candidate who  holds a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university, has three years of successful managerial experience, and is  recommended for the license by a Virginia school division superintendent.
    6. Pupil Personnel Services License. The Pupil Personnel  Services License is a five-year, renewable license available to an individual  who has earned an appropriate graduate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university with an endorsement for school counselor, school  psychologist, school social worker, or vocational evaluator. This license does  not require teaching experience, unless otherwise outlined under the specific  endorsement's requirements.
    7. Division Superintendent License. The Division  Superintendent License is a five-year, renewable license available to an  individual who has completed an earned master's degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and meets the requirements specified in  8VAC20-23-630. The individual's name must be listed on the Virginia Board of  Education's list of eligible division superintendents.
    8. International Educator License. The International  Educator License provides a five-year cultural exchange opportunity for  Virginia students and international teachers. The International Educator  License is a professional teaching license issued to an exchange teacher with  citizenship in a nation other than the United States of America and who is  employed as a teacher in a Virginia public or accredited nonpublic school. To  be issued the five-year, nonrenewable International Educator License, an  individual serving as a cultural exchange teacher in Virginia must:
    a. Be employed by a Virginia public or an accredited  nonpublic school;
    b. Hold non-United States citizenship and be a nonpermanent  resident; and
    c. Meet the following requirements as verified by a  state-approved, federally-designated Exchange Visitor Program (22 CFR Part 62):
    (1) Be proficient in written and spoken English;
    (2) Demonstrate competence in the appropriate academic  subject area or areas by meeting the credential requirements for a qualified  teacher in the exchange country;
    (3) Hold the United States equivalent of a baccalaureate  degree or higher as determined by an approved credential agency; and
    (4) Complete at least two years of successful full-time  teaching experience that enables the educator to fulfill a similar assignment  in his home country or is comparable to those requirements for Virginia  teachers.
    If an individual meets requirements of subdivisions 8 a, 8  b, 8 c (1), 8 c (2), and 8 c (3) of this subsection and has completed at least  one year, but less than two years, of successful full-time teaching experience  that enables the educator to fulfill a similar assignment in his home country  or is comparable to those requirements for Virginia teachers, the International  Educator License will be issued for three years with an option to extend the  nonrenewable International Educator License for the additional two years upon  meeting all teacher assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education  and a recommendation of the Virginia employing school division or accredited  nonpublic school.
    Individuals who have been issued an International Educator  License who seek a five-year, renewable license will need to meet all licensure  and endorsement requirements, including applicable assessments prescribed by  the Virginia Board of Education.
    9. Online Teacher License. The Online Teacher License is a  five-year, renewable license valid only for teaching online courses. Teachers  who hold a five-year renewable license issued by the Virginia Board of  Education may teach online courses for which they are properly endorsed and do  not need to seek this license.
    a. The individual is required to meet requirements for an  endorsement in a content (teaching) area, professional studies requirements,  and qualifying scores on professional teacher's assessments as prescribed by  the Virginia Board of Education. In addition, the individual must complete a  three-semester-hour course in online instructional procedures.
    Online instructional procedures: 3 semester hours. Skills  in this area shall contribute to an understanding of the principles of online  learning and online instructional strategies and the application of skills in  the ability to use the Internet for teaching, learning, and management; design,  deliver, and support instruction in an online environment; adapt strategies for  a variety of course models (e.g., synchronous and asynchronous); select, adapt,  and create rich multimedia for instruction; adapt individualized education  program requirements to online course practices, as appropriate; use data to  meet individual students needs; and employ innovative teaching strategies in an  online environment. Demonstrated proficiency of advanced skills in the  following must be addressed: use of communication technologies to interact with  and engage students, parents, and mentors; use of education technologies;  management of instructional activities in a technology-mediated environment;  and nontraditional content delivery methods.
    b. Online teaching experience is not acceptable to meet the  full-time teaching experience for other license types, such as a Division  Superintendent License, or for endorsements, such as for the reading  specialist, school counselor, or administration and supervision endorsements.  The Online Teacher License may be issued if requirements have been met as one  of the following licenses to individuals teaching only online courses:
    (1) Online Teacher (Postgraduate Professional) License - a  five-year, renewable license available to an individual who has qualified for  the Online Teacher (Collegiate Professional) License and who holds an  appropriate earned graduate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university.
    (2) Online Teacher (Collegiate Professional) License - a  five-year, renewable teaching license available to an individual who has  satisfied all requirements for licensure, including an earned baccalaureate  degree from a regionally accredited college or university, endorsement and  professional studies requirements, and the professional teacher's assessments  prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education, or 
    (3) Online Teacher (Technical Professional) License - a  five-year, renewable teaching license available to an individual who has  graduated from an accredited high school or possesses a General Educational  Development Certificate; has exhibited academic proficiency, technical  competency, and occupational experience; and meets the requirements specified  in subdivision 4 of this section. An individual seeking an Online Teacher  (Technical Professional) License must be recommended for the license by a  Virginia public school, a Virginia accredited nonpublic school, or an  accredited virtual school program.
    c. A nonrenewable Online Teacher (Provisional) License may  be issued for a period not to exceed three years to an individual who has  allowable deficiencies for full licensure as set forth in 8VAC20-23-90 B. The  Online (Provisional) License will be issued for two years. Individuals may  apply for a third year on the Online (Provisional) License by submitting  documentation indicating that all licensure assessments prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education have been taken. The individual must have a minimum  of an undergraduate degree from a regionally accredited college or university,  with the exception of those individuals seeking the Technical Professional  License. Individuals must complete all requirements for a renewable Online  Teacher License within the validity period of the license.
    10. Teach For America License. The Teach For America  License is a two-year provisional license.
    a. This provisional license is available to any participant  in Teach For America, a nationwide nonprofit organization focused on closing  the achievement gaps between students in high-income and low-income areas, who  submits an application and meets the following requirements: 
    (1) Holds, at minimum, a baccalaureate degree from a  regionally accredited institution of higher education;
    (2) Has met the requirements prescribed by the Virginia  Board of Education for all endorsements sought or has met the qualifying scores  on the content area assessment prescribed by the board for the endorsements  sought;
    (3) Possesses good moral character according to criteria  developed by the Virginia Board of Education; 
    (4) Has been offered and has accepted placement in Teach  For America;
    (5) Has successfully completed preservice training and is  participating in the professional development requirements of Teach For  America, including teaching frameworks, curricula, lesson planning,  instructional delivery, classroom management, assessment and evaluation of  student progress, classroom diversity, and literacy development;
    (6) Has an offer of employment from a local school board to  teach in a public elementary or secondary school in the Commonwealth or a  preschool program that receives state funds pursuant to subsection C of  § 22.1-199.1 of the Code of Virginia; and 
    (7) Receives a recommendation from the employing school  division for a Teach For America License in the endorsement area in which the  individual seeks to be licensed.
    b. In addition to the criteria set forth in subdivision 10  a of of this subsection, any individual who seeks an endorsement in early  childhood, early/primary, or elementary education shall either (i) agree to  complete such coursework in the teaching of reading as may be prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education pursuant to 8VAC20-23-130 during the first year of  employment or (ii) achieve a passing score on a reading instructional  assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    c. Teachers issued a Teach For America provisional license  shall not be eligible for continuing contract status while employed under the  authority of a Teach For America license and shall be subject to the  probationary terms of employment specified in § 22.1-303 of the Code of  Virginia.
    d. The Virginia Board of Education may extend any Teach For  America License for one additional year upon request of the employing school  division, provided that no Teach For America License shall exceed a total of  three years in length. 
    e. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary,  upon completion of at least two years of full-time teaching experience in a  public elementary or secondary school in the Commonwealth or a preschool  program that receives state funds pursuant to subsection C of § 22.1-199.1  of the Code of Virginia, an individual holding a Teach For America License  shall be eligible to receive a renewable license if he has (i) achieved  satisfactory scores on all professional teacher assessments required by the  Virginia Board of Education and (ii) received satisfactory evaluations at the  conclusion of each year of employment.
    f. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary,  the Virginia Board of Education shall issue a Teach For America License to any  individual who (i) has completed two years of successful teaching in the Teach  For America program in another state, (ii) is not eligible to receive a  renewable license, and (iii) meets the criteria set forth in subdivision 10 a  of this subsection.
    B. All licenses will be effective from July 1 in the  school year in which the application is made. An employing Virginia public  school division, agency, or accredited nonpublic school is required to notify  employees in writing at the time of employment of the need to meet appropriate  assessment requirements for licensure. 
    8VAC20-23-60. Designations on licenses for career paths to  teaching.
    A. Designations on licenses will reflect stages in the  professional development of teachers and promote continuing growth and career  paths as educators. 
    B. Teaching licenses may be issued with one of the  following designations, and the designation will be processed as an add-on  endorsement. These designations will not apply to the Division Superintendent  License, School Manager License, International Educator License, or Pupil  Personnel Services License.
    1. Career Teacher: This voluntary teacher designation will  be issued on a renewable teaching license for individuals who have gained  continuing contract status in Virginia and who apply for the Career Teacher  designation.
    2. Mentor Teacher: This voluntary teacher designation will  be issued on a renewable teaching license for individuals who have (i) achieved  the Career Teacher designation, (ii) received a recommendation for the  designation from an employing Virginia school division superintendent or  designee or accredited nonpublic school head, (iii) served at least three years  as a mentor teacher in Virginia, (iv) documented responsibilities as a mentor,  and (v) completed a local or state mentor teacher training program in  accordance with the Virginia Board of Education requirements for mentor  teachers in the Virgnia Board of Education Mentor Teacher Guidelines (http://www.doe.virginia.gov/teaching/career_resources/mentor/program_creation_guidelines.pdf).
    3. Teacher as Leader: This voluntary teacher designation  will be issued on a renewable teaching license for individuals who have (i)  achieved the Career Teacher designation; (ii) completed at least five years of  successful, full-time teaching experience in a Virginia public school or  accredited nonpublic school; (iii) received the recommendation from an  employing Virginia school division superintendent or designee or an accredited  nonpublic school head; (iv) and completed one of the following:
    a. National Board Certification or a nationally recognized  certification program approved by the Virginia Board of Education and a  recommendation from an employing Virginia school division superintendent or  designee or accredited nonpublic school head and documentation in an approved  Department of Education format verifying the individual's demonstrated skills  and abilities as a school leader and direct contributions to school  effectiveness and student achievement; or
    b. A recommendation from an employing Virginia school  division superintendent or designee or accredited nonpublic school head and  documentation in an approved Department of Education format verifying the  individual's demonstrated skills and abilities as a school leader and direct  contributions to school effectiveness and student achievement.
    8VAC20-23-70. Additional endorsements.
    A. An individual who holds a teaching license may add an  additional teaching endorsement to the license by passing a rigorous academic  subject test for endorsements in which a test is prescribed by the Virginia  Board of Education. This testing option does not apply to individuals (i) who  are seeking an early/primary education preK-3 or elementary education preK-6  endorsement, special education endorsements, or a reading specialist  endorsement or (ii) who hold a Technical Professional License, Vocational  Evaluator License, Pupil Personnel Services License, School Manager License, or  Division Superintendent License.
    B. One or more endorsements may be added to a license  provided specific endorsement requirements have been met. Written requests may  be made by the licensed professional and should be directed to the Virginia  employing educational agency or college or university. If the request is not  acted upon by the local educational agency or college or university within 30  days or is disputed, the license holder may make a written request for an  additional endorsement directly to the Office of Professional Licensure,  Virginia Department of Education. Written requests should be submitted by  January 15 to be in effect by July 1 of the same year.
    8VAC20-23-80. Deletion of an endorsement.
    An endorsement may be deleted from a license at the  request of the licensed professional. Written requests are made by the licensed  professional and should be directed to the employing educational agency. If the  request is not acted upon by the local educational agency within 30 days or is  disputed, the license holder may make a written request for the deletion of an  endorsement directly to the Office of Professional Licensure, Virginia  Department of Education. Written requests should be submitted by January 15 to  be in effect on July 1 of that year.  Individuals who wish to add an  endorsement that has been deleted must meet requirements for that endorsement  at the time it is requested.
    8VAC20-23-90. Alternate routes to licensure.
    A. Career switcher alternate route to licensure for career  professions - Provisional (Career Switcher) License. An alternate route is  available to career switchers who seek teaching endorsements preK through grade  12 with the exception of special education.
    1. An individual seeking a Provisional (Career Switcher)  License through the career switcher program must meet the following  prerequisite requirements:
    a. An application process;
    b. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    c. The completion of requirements for an endorsement in a  teaching area or the equivalent through verifiable experience or academic  study;
    d. At least five years of full-time work experience or its  equivalent; and
    e. Virginia qualifying scores on the professional teacher's  assessments as prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    2. The Provisional (Career Switcher) License is awarded at  the end of Level I preparation. All components of the career switcher alternate  route for career professions must be completed by the candidate.
    3. The Level I requirements must be completed during the  course of a single year and may be offered through a variety of delivery  systems, including distance learning programs. If an employing agency  recommends extending the Provisional (Career Switcher) License for a second  year, the candidate will enter Level III of the program. Career switcher  programs must be certified by the Virginia Department of Education.
    a. Level I preparation. Intensive Level I preparation  includes a minimum of 180 clock hours of instruction, including field  experience. This phase includes, but is not limited to, curriculum and  instruction, including technology, reading, and other specific course content  relating to the Standards of Learning; differentiation of instruction;  classroom and behavior management; instructional design based on assessment  data; and human development and learning.
    b. Level II preparation during first year of employment.
    (1) Candidate seeks employment in Virginia with the  one-year Provisional (Career Switcher) License.
    (2) Continued Level II preparation during the first year of  employment with a minimum of five seminars that expand the intensive  preparation requirements listed in subdivision 3 a of this subsection. The five  seminars will include a minimum of 20 cumulative instructional hours. A variety  of instructional delivery techniques will be utilized to implement the  seminars.
    (3) One year of successful, full-time teaching experience  in a Virginia public or accredited nonpublic school under a one-year  Provisional (Career Switcher) License. A trained mentor must be assigned to  assist the candidate during the first year of employment. Responsibilities of  the mentor include, but are not limited to, the following:
    (a) Collaborate with the beginning teacher in the  development and implementation of an individualized professional development  plan;
    (b) Observe, assess, coach, and provide opportunities for  constructive feedback, including strategies for self-reflection;
    (c) Share resources and materials;
    (d) Share best instructional, assessment, and  organizational practices; classroom and behavior management strategies; and  techniques for promoting effective communication; and
    (e) Provide general support and direction regarding school  policies and procedures.
    (4) Upon completion of Levels I and II of the career  switcher alternate route to licensure program and submission of a  recommendation from the Virginia educational employing agency, the candidate  will be eligible to apply for a five-year, renewable license. Renewal  requirements for the regular license will be subject to current regulations of  the Virginia Board of Education.
    c. Level III preparation, if required.
    (1) Post preparation, if required, will be conducted by the  Virginia employing educational agency to address the areas where improvement is  needed as identified in the candidate's professional improvement plan; and
    (2) Upon completion of Levels I, II, and III of the career  switcher alternate route to licensure program and submission of a  recommendation from the Virginia educational employing agency, the candidate  will be eligible to receive a five-year renewable license.
    4. Verification of program completion will be documented by  the certified program provider and the division superintendent or designee.
    5. Certified providers implementing a career switcher  program may charge a fee for participation in the program.
    B. An alternate route is available to individuals employed  by an educational agency who seek teaching endorsements preK through grade 12.  The employing Virginia educational agency may request a nonrenewable  Provisional License on behalf of the individual if the individual has completed  an allowable portion of professional studies and endorsement requirements. This  route is also applicable to individuals who are employed by a Virginia public  school, a Virginia accredited nonpublic school, or an accredited virtual school  or program and who are seeking the Online Teacher License that is issued to  teachers who teach only online courses. The Provisional License will be issued  for two years. Individuals may apply for a third year on the Provisional  License by submitting documentation indicating that all licensure assessments  prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education have been taken. The Provisional  License is a nonrenewable teaching license valid for a period not to exceed  three years. Individuals must complete all licensure requirements to become  eligible for the five-year, renewable license.
    1. An individual seeking a license through this alternate  route must have met the following requirements:
    a. Entered the teaching field through the alternate route  to licensure upon the recommendation of the Virginia employing educational  agency. For the Online Teacher Provisional License, individuals must be  employed by a Virginia public school division, a Virginia accredited nonpublic  school, or an accredited virtual school or program;
    b. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university with the exception of individuals seeking the  Technical Professional License;
    c. Have met requirements for the endorsement area; and
    d. Need to complete an allowable portion of professional  studies and licensure requirements.
    2. The professional studies requirements for the  appropriate level of endorsement sought must be completed. A Virginia  educational agency may submit to the Superintendent of Public Instruction for  approval an alternate program to meet the professional studies requirements.  The alternate program must include training (e.g., seminar, internship,  coursework, etc.) in human development and learning; curriculum and  instruction, including technology; assessment of and for learning; classroom  and behavior management; the teaching profession, including legal status of  teachers and students, federal and state laws, and teacher evaluation as  prescribed by Virginia's Guidelines for Uniform Performance Standards and  Evaluation Criteria for Teachers; and reading.
    3. One year of successful, full-time teaching experience in  the appropriate teaching area in a Virginia public or an accredited nonpublic  school must be completed. For the Online Teacher License only, one year of successful  online teaching experience in the endorsement area in a public school division,  an accredited nonpublic school, or an accredited virtual school or program may  be accepted in lieu of the supervised teaching experience. A fully licensed  experienced teacher must be available in the school building to assist the  beginning teacher employed through the alternate route.
    C. Alternate route in special education. The Provisional  (Special Education) License is a nonrenewable teaching license issued to an  individual employed as a special education teacher in a public school or a  nonpublic special education school in Virginia who does not hold the  appropriate special education endorsement. The Provisional (Special Education)  License will be issued for two years. Individuals may apply for a third year on  the Provisional License by submitting documentation indicating that all  licensure assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education have been  taken. The Provisional License is a nonrenewable teaching license valid for a  period not to exceed three years. This alternate route to special education is  not applicable to individuals seeking the Online Teacher License. To be issued  the Provisional (Special Education) License through this alternate route, an  individual must meet the requirements through one of the two following options:
    1. Option I. The individual must hold a full, valid  Collegiate Professional or Postgraduate Professional License and must:
    a. Be employed by a Virginia public or nonpublic school as  a special educator and have the recommendation of the employing educational  agency;
    b. Have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    c. Have an assigned mentor with an active Virginia teaching  license with an endorsement in special education; and
    d. Have a planned program of study in the assigned  endorsement area, make progress toward meeting the endorsement requirements  each of the three years of the license, and have completed at least three  semester hours of coursework in the competencies of foundations for educating  students with disabilities and an understanding and application of the legal  aspects and regulatory requirements associated with identification, education,  and evaluation of students with disabilities. A survey course integrating these  competencies would satisfy this requirement. 
    The Provisional (Special Education) License through this  alternate route shall not be issued without the completion of these  prerequisites.
    2. Option II. The individual must:
    a. Be employed by a Virginia public or nonpublic school as  a special educator and have the recommendation of the employing educational  agency;
    b. Have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    c. Have an assigned mentor endorsed in special education;  and 
    d. Have a planned program of study in the assigned  endorsement area, make progress toward meeting the endorsement requirements  each of the three years of the license, and have completed nine semester hours  including courses in the following: characteristics of students with  disabilities, individualized education program implementation, and classroom  and behavior management. 
    The Provisional (Special Education) License through this  alternate route shall not be issued without the completion of these  prerequisites.
    D. Alternate programs at institutions of higher education  or Virginia school divisions. Alternate programs developed by institutions of  higher education (i) recognize the unique strengths of prospective teachers from  nontraditional backgrounds and (ii) prepare these individuals to meet the same  standards that are established for others who are granted a license through an  alternate route.
    E. Experiential learning. Individuals applying for an  initial teaching license through the alternate route as prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education must meet the following criteria to be eligible to  request experiential learning to satisfy the coursework for the endorsement  (teaching) content area:
    1. Have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    2. Have at least five years of documented full-time work  experience that may include specialized training related to the endorsement  sought; and
    3. Have met the qualifying score on the content knowledge  assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    Experiential learning does not apply to individuals  seeking special education and elementary education (i.e., preK-3 and preK-6)  endorsements or endorsements in which there is no Virginia Board of Education  prescribed content or subject assessment.
    8VAC20-23-100. Conditions for licensure for out-of-state  candidates by reciprocity.
    A. An individual coming into Virginia from any state may  qualify for a Virginia teaching license with comparable endorsement areas if  the individual (i) has completed a state-approved teacher preparation program  through a regionally accredited four-year college or university or (ii) holds a  valid out-of-state teaching license (i.e., full credential without deficiencies)  that must be in force at the time the application for a Virginia license is  made. An individual seeking licensure must establish a file in the Department  of Education by submitting a complete application packet that includes official  student transcripts. Unless exempted by the criteria in subsection C of this  section, professional teacher's assessments prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education must be satisfied.
    B. An individual coming into Virginia will qualify for a  Virginia teaching license with comparable endorsement areas if the individual  holds an active national certification from the National Board for Professional  Teaching Standards (NBPTS) or a nationally recognized certification program  approved by the Virginia Board of Education.
    C. Individuals who hold a valid out-of-state license  (i.e., full credential without deficiencies) and who have completed a minimum  of three years of full-time, successful teaching experience in a public or an  accredited nonpublic school, kindergarten through grade 12, outside of Virginia  are exempt from the professional teacher's assessment requirements.  Documentation must be submitted to verify the school's status as a public or  accredited nonpublic school.
    8VAC20-23-110. Requirements for renewing a license.
    A. The Division Superintendent, Postgraduate Professional,  Collegiate Professional, Technical Professional, Pupil Personnel Services,  Online Teacher, and School Manager Licenses may be renewed upon the completion  of 180 professional development points within a five-year validity period based  on an individualized professional development plan that includes ongoing,  sustained, and high-quality professional development.
    B. An individual who holds an expired license must submit  a completed licensure application at the time a licensure renewal request is  submitted. 
    C. Virginia public school divisions and public education  agencies must report annually to the Virginia Department of Education that  instructional personnel have completed high-quality professional development  each year as set forth by the Virginia Department of Education.
    D. Any individual licensed and endorsed to teach (i)  middle school civics or economics or (ii) high school government or history who  is seeking renewal of such license is required to demonstrate knowledge of  Virginia history or state and local government by completing a module or  professional development course specifically related to Virginia history or  state and local government that has a value of five professional development points.  This requirement applies for purposes of the individual's next or initial  renewal occurring after July 1, 2014.
    E. If the requirement has not been met for initial  licensure or licensure renewal, individuals seeking renewal of a license shall  provide evidence of completion of certification or training in emergency first  aid, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and the use of automated external  defibrillators. The certification or training program shall be based on the  current national evidence-based emergency cardiovascular care guidelines for  cardiopulmonary resuscitation and the use of an automated external  defibrillator, such as a program developed by the American Heart Association or  the American Red Cross. The Virginia Board of Education shall provide a waiver  for this requirement for any person with a disability whose disability  prohibits such person from completing the certification or training.
    F. Professional development points may be accrued by the  completion of professional development activities to improve and increase  instructional personnel's knowledge of the academic subjects the teachers teach  or the area assigned from one or more of the following eight options.
    1. College credit. Acceptable coursework offers content  that provides new information and is offered on campus, off campus, or through  extension by any regionally accredited two-year or four-year college or  university. College coursework must develop further experiences in subject  content taught, teaching strategies, uses of technologies, leadership, and  other essential elements in teaching to high standards and increasing student  learning. Instructional personnel must complete coursework to improve and  increase the knowledge of the academic subjects or endorsement areas in which  they are assigned. Individuals who do not hold a graduate degree must refer to  subsection G of this section.
    2. Professional conference. A professional conference is a  workshop, institute, or seminar of four or more hours that contributes to  ongoing, sustained, and high-quality professional development.
    3. Curriculum development. Curriculum development is a  group activity in which the license holder contributes to the improvement of  the curriculum of a school, a school division, or an education institution in  the teaching area assigned. This includes the alignment of curriculum  frameworks, instructional materials, and assessments to provide a system with  clear expectations of what is to be taught and learned.
    4. Publication of article. The article must contribute to  the education profession or to the body of knowledge of the license holder's  teaching area or instructional position. Grant reports that present the results  of educational research are acceptable provided the license holder had an  active role in planning, analyzing, interpreting, demonstrating, disseminating,  or evaluating the study or innovation. The article must be published in a  recognized professional journal.
    5. Publication of book. Books must be published for  purchase and must contribute to the education profession or to the body of  knowledge of the license holder's teaching area or instructional position. The  published book must increase the field of content knowledge; planning and  assessment for evaluating and providing students with feedback that encourages  student progress and measures student achievement; instruction, safety, and  learning environment; and communication and community relations working with  students, parents, and members of the community to promote broad support for  student learning. Points will not be awarded for self-published books.
    6. Mentorship. Mentoring is the process by which an  experienced professional who has received mentorship training provides  assistance to one or more persons for the purpose of improving their performance.  Assistance may involve role modeling, direct instruction, demonstration,  observation with feedback, developing of plans, and consultation to promote  instructional excellence and increased student achievement. Mentoring may  include the supervision of a field experience of a pre-service student teacher  or an intern in an approved teacher or principal preparation program, as well  as mentoring as part of the induction process for a beginning teacher or a  first-year administrator. Individuals serving in this role and submitting  documentation for license renewal based on the mentorship option shall receive  training as a mentor prior to the assignment and at least once during the  five-year renewal cycle.
    7. Educational project. Educational projects must be  planned, focused projects based on high standards of teaching and learning.  Projects must result in a written report or other tangible product. Projects  must contribute to the education profession or to the body of knowledge of the  license holder's teaching area or instructional position. A project could  include participation in new professional responsibilities, such as leading a  school improvement initiative.
    8. Professional development activity. Professional  development activities must focus on student learning and achievement,  schoolwide educational improvement, leadership, subject content, teaching  strategies, and use of technologies and other essential elements in teaching to  high standards. Activities must be planned, rigorous, systematic, and promote  continuous inquiry and reflection. Local employing educational agencies are  encouraged to design professional development activities that are conducted in  school settings and linked to student learning and achievement.
    G. A minimum of 90 points (i.e., three semester hours in a  content area) at the undergraduate (i.e., two-year or four-year institution) or  graduate level earned from a regionally accredited college or university in the  license holder's endorsement areas shall be required of license holders without  a master's degree. With prior approval, exceptions to the content course  requirement may be made by the division superintendent or principal. Special  education coursework designed to assist classroom teachers and other school  personnel in working with students with disabilities, a course in gifted  education, a course in educational technology, or a course in English as a  second language may be completed to satisfy the content course requirement.  Professional development activities designed to support the Virginia Standards  of Learning, Standards of Accreditation, and state assessments may be accepted  in lieu of the content course. An individual without a master's degree who  holds a renewable Online Teacher License may complete pedagogy of online instruction  coursework to meet this requirement. The substance of the activities must  clearly support these initiatives and address one or more of the following  areas: (i) new content knowledge to implement the Virginia Standards of  Learning, (ii) curriculum development initiative designed to translate the  standards from standards to classroom objectives, (iii) teaching beginning  reading skills including phonemic awareness and the structure of language  (i.e., phonics), (iv) staff development activities in assessment to assist  classroom teachers in the utilization of test results to improve classroom  instruction, and (v) professional development designed to implement the  technology standards in the schools. Technical Professional License holders  without baccalaureate degrees may satisfy the requirement through career and  technical education workshops, career and technical education institutes, or  through undergraduate coursework at two-year or four-year institutions.
    H. Content area courses are courses at the undergraduate  level (i.e., two-year or four-year institution) or at the graduate level that  will not duplicate previous courses taken in the humanities, English, history  and social sciences, sciences, mathematics, health and physical education, and  fine arts. These courses are usually available through the college of or  department of arts and sciences. License holders with elementary education,  middle education, special education, or reading endorsements must satisfy the  90-point requirement through reading coursework or content coursework in one of  the areas listed in this subsection. Courses available through a regionally  accredited college's or university's department of education may be used to  satisfy the content requirement for those license holders with endorsements in  health and physical education, career and technical education, and library  science education.
    I. With prior approval of the division superintendent or  principal, the 90 points in a content area also may be satisfied through  coursework taken to obtain a new teaching endorsement or coursework taken  because of a particular need of a particular teacher.
    J. The remaining 90 points may be accrued by activities  drawn from one or more of the eight renewal options. Renewal work is designed  to provide licensed personnel with opportunities for professional development  relative to the grade levels or teaching fields to which they are assigned or  for which they seek an added endorsement. Such professional development  encompasses (i) responsible remediation of any area of an individual's  knowledge or skills that fails to meet the standards of competency and (ii)  responsible efforts to increase the individual's knowledge of new developments  in his field and to respond to new curricular demands within the individual's  area of professional competence.
    K. The proposed work toward renewal in certain options  must be approved in advance by the chief executive officer or designee of the  employing educational agency. Persons who are not employed by an educational agency  may renew or reinstate their license by submitting to the Office of  Professional Licensure, Department of Education, their individualized renewal  record and verification of points, including official student transcripts of  coursework taken at a regionally accredited two-year or four-year college or  university.
    L. Accrual of professional development points shall be  determined by criteria set forth by the Virginia Department of Education in the  Virginia Renewal Manual (http://doe.virginia.gov/teaching/licensure/licensure_renewal_manual.pdf).
    M. Persons seeking license renewal as teachers must  demonstrate proficiency in the use of educational technology for instruction.
    N. Virginia school divisions and nonpublic schools will  recommend renewal of licenses using the renewal point system. The renewal  recommendation must include verification of demonstrated proficiency in the use  of educational technology for instruction.
    O. Training in instructional methods tailored to promote  academic progress and effective preparation for the Standards of Learning tests  and end-of-grade assessments is required for licensure renewal.
    P. If they have not already met the requirement, persons  seeking licensure renewal as teachers must complete study in child abuse  recognition and intervention in accordance with curriculum guidelines developed  by the Virginia Board of Education in consultation with the Virginia Department  of Social Services that are relevant to the specific teacher licensure routes.
    Part IV 
  Licensure Regulations Governing Early/Primary Education, Elementary Education,  and Middle Education Endorsements
    8VAC20-23-120. Early/primary education, elementary  education, and middle education endorsements.
    Individuals seeking licensure with endorsements in  early/primary education, elementary education, and middle education may meet  requirements through the completion of an approved program or if employed by a  Virginia public or nonpublic school through the alternate route to licensure.  Components of the licensure program include a degree from a regionally  accredited college or university in the liberal arts and sciences, or  equivalent; professional teacher's assessments requirement prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education; specific endorsement requirements; and  professional studies requirements.
    8VAC20-23-130. Professional studies requirements.
    Professional studies requirements for early/primary  education, elementary education, and middle education: 21 semester hours. These  requirements may be taught in integrated coursework or modules.
    1. Human development and learning (birth through  adolescence): 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  of the physical, social, emotional, speech and language, and intellectual  development of children and the ability to use this understanding in guiding  learning experiences and relating meaningfully to students. 
    b. The interaction of children with individual differences - economic,  social, racial, ethnic, religious, physical, and mental - should be  incorporated to include skills contributing to an understanding of  developmental disabilities and developmental issues related to but not limited  to low socioeconomic status, attention deficit disorders, developmental  disorders, gifted education including the use of multiple criteria to identify  gifted students, substance abuse, child abuse, and family disruptions.
    2. Curriculum and instruction: 3 semester hours.
    a. Early/primary education preK-3 or elementary education  preK-6 curriculum and instruction: 3 semester hours. 
    (1) Skills in this area shall contribute to an  understanding of the principles of learning; the application of skills in  discipline-specific methodology; effective communication with and among  students; selection and use of materials, including media and contemporary  technologies; and selection, development, and use of appropriate curricula,  methodologies, and materials that support and enhance student learning and  reflect the research on unique, age-appropriate, and culturally relevant  curriculum and pedagogy. 
    (2) Understanding of the principles of online learning and  online instructional strategies and the application of skills to deliver online  instruction must be included. 
    (3) Instructional practices that are sensitive to  culturally and linguistically diverse learners, including limited English  proficient students, gifted and talented students, and those students with  disabilities; and appropriate for the level of endorsement (i.e., preK-3 or  preK-6) sought shall be included. 
    (4) Teaching methods shall be tailored to promote student  engagement and student academic progress and effective preparation for the  Standards of Learning assessments. 
    (5) Study in (i) methods of improving communication between  schools and families, (ii) communicating with families regarding social and  instructional needs of children, (iii) ways of increasing family involvement in  student learning at home and in school, (iv) the Virginia Standards of  Learning, and (v) Virginia Foundation Blocks for Early Learning: Comprehensive  Standards for Four-Year-Olds prepared by the department's Office of Humanities  and Early Childhood shall be included. 
    (6) Early childhood educators must understand the role of  families in child development and in relation to teaching educational skills. 
    (7) Early childhood educators must understand the role of  the informal and play-mediated settings for promoting students' skills and  development and must demonstrate knowledge and skill in interacting in such  situations to promote specific learning outcomes as reflected in Virginia's  Foundation Blocks for Early Learning. Demonstrated proficiency in the use of  educational technology for instruction shall be included. Persons seeking  initial licensure as teachers and persons seeking licensure renewal as teachers  for the first time shall complete study in child abuse recognition and  intervention in accordance with curriculum guidelines developed by the Virginia  Board of Education in consultation with the Virginia Department of Social  Services that are relevant to the specific teacher licensure routes.  Pre-student teaching experiences (i.e., field experiences) should be evident  within these skills.
    b. Middle education 6-8 curriculum and instruction: 3  semester hours. 
    (1) Skills in this area shall contribute to an  understanding of the principles of learning; the application of skills in  discipline-specific methodology; effective communication with and among  students; and selection and use of materials, including media and contemporary  technologies.
    (2) Understanding of the principles of online learning and  online instructional strategies and the application of skills to deliver online  instruction must be included. 
    (3) Instructional practices that are sensitive to  culturally and linguistically diverse learners including limited English  proficient students, gifted and talented students, and students with  disabilities, and must be appropriate for the middle education endorsement  shall be included. 
    (4) Teaching methods shall be tailored to promote student  engagement and student academic progress and effective preparation for the  Virginia Standards of Learning assessments. 
    (5) Study in methods of improving communication between  schools and families, ways of increasing family involvement in student learning  at home and in school, and the Standards of Learning shall be included. 
    (6) Demonstrated proficiency in the use of educational  technology for instruction shall be included. 
    (7) Persons seeking initial licensure as teachers and  persons seeking licensure renewal as teachers for the first time shall complete  study in child abuse recognition and intervention in accordance with curriculum  guidelines developed by the Virginia Board of Education in consultation with  the Virginia Department of Social Services that are relevant to the specific  teacher licensure routes. Pre-student teaching experiences (i.e., field  experiences) should be evident within these skills.
    3. Classroom and behavior management: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  and application of research-based classroom and behavior management techniques,  classroom community building, positive behavior supports, and individual  interventions, including techniques that promote emotional well-being and teach  and maintain behavioral conduct and skills consistent with norms, standards,  and rules of the educational environment. 
    b. This area shall address diverse approaches based upon  behavioral, cognitive, affective, social and ecological theory and practice. 
    c. Approaches should support professionally appropriate  practices that promote positive redirection of behavior, development of social  skills, and of self discipline. 
    d. Knowledge and an understanding of various school crisis  management and safety plans and the demonstrated ability to create a safe,  orderly classroom environment must be included. 
    e. The link between classroom management and students' ages  must be understood and demonstrated in techniques used in the classroom.
    4. Assessment of and for learning: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall be designed to develop an  understanding and application of creating, selecting, and implementing valid  and reliable classroom-based assessments of student learning, including  formative and summative assessments. Assessments designed and adapted to meet  the needs of diverse learners must be addressed. 
    b. Analytical skills necessary to inform ongoing planning  and instruction, as well as to understand, and help students understand their  own progress and growth must be included. 
    c. Skills also include the relationships among assessment,  instruction, and monitoring student progress to include student performance  measures in grading practices, the ability to interpret valid assessments using  a variety of formats in order to measure student attainment of essential skills  in a standards-based environment, and the ability to analyze assessment data to  make decisions about how to improve instruction and student performance. 
    d. Understanding of state assessment programs and  accountability systems, including assessments used for student achievement goal  setting as related to teacher evaluation and determining student academic progress  must be included. 
    e. Knowledge of legal and ethical aspects of assessment,  and skills for developing familiarity with assessments used in preK-12  education (e.g., diagnostic, college admission exams, industry certifications,  and placement assessments) must be included.
    5. The teaching profession: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall be designed to develop an  understanding of the historical, philosophical, and sociological foundations  underlying the role, development, and organization of public education in the  United States. 
    b. Attention must be given to the legal status of teachers  and students, including federal and state laws and regulations; school as an  organization and culture; and contemporary issues and current trends in education,  including the impact of technology on education. Local, state, and federal  governance of schools, including the roles of teachers and schools in  communities, must be included. 
    c. Professionalism and ethical standards, as well as  personal integrity must be addressed. 
    d. Knowledge and understanding of Virginia's Guidelines for  Uniform Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers must be  included. 
    6. Reading: 6 semester hours.
    a. Early/primary preK-3 and elementary education preK-6 - language  acquisition and reading and writing: 6 semester hours. Skills listed for these  endorsement areas represent the minimum competencies that a beginning teacher  must be able to demonstrate. These skills are not intended to limit the scope  of a beginning teacher's program. Additional knowledge and skills that add to a  beginning teacher's competencies to deliver instruction and improve student  achievement should be included as part of a quality learning experience.
    (1) Language acquisition: 3 semester hours. Skills in this  area shall be designed to impart a thorough understanding of the Virginia  English Standards of Learning as well as the complex nature of language  acquisition as a precursor to literacy. Language acquisition shall follow the  typical development of linguistic competence in the areas of phonetics,  semantics, syntax, morphology, phonology, and pragmatics.
    (2) Reading and writing: 3 semester hours. Skills in this  area shall be designed to impart a thorough understanding of the Virginia  English Standards of Learning as well as the reciprocal nature of reading and  writing. Reading shall include phonemic awareness, concept of print, phonics,  fluency, vocabulary development, and comprehension strategies. Writing shall  include writing strategies and conventions as supporting the composing and  writing expression and usage and mechanics domains. Additional skills shall  include proficiency in understanding the stages of spelling development, the  writing process, as well as the ability to foster appreciation of a variety of  fiction and nonfiction texts and independent reading. 
    b. Middle education - language acquisition and reading  development: 3 semester hours and literacy in the content areas: 3 semester  hours. 
    (1) Language acquisition and reading development: 3  semester hours. Skills in this area shall be designed to impart a thorough  understanding of the complex nature of language acquisition and reading, to  include phonemic awareness, phonics, fluency, vocabulary development, and  comprehension strategies for adolescent learners. Additional skills shall  include proficiency in writing strategies as well as the ability to foster  appreciation of a variety of fiction and nonfiction texts and independent  reading for adolescent learners.
    (2) Literacy in the content areas: 3 semester hours. Skills  in this area shall be designed to impart an understanding of vocabulary  development and comprehension skills in English, mathematics, science, history  and social science, and other content areas. Strategies include teaching  students how to ask effective questions, summarize and retell both verbally and  in writing, and to listen effectively. Teaching strategies include literal,  interpretive, critical, and evaluative comprehension, as well as the ability to  foster appreciation of a variety of fiction and nonfiction texts and  independent reading for adolescent readers.
    7. Supervised clinical experience. Supervised clinical  experiences shall be continuous and systematic and comprised of early field  experiences and a minimum of 10 weeks of full-time student teaching under the  supervision of a cooperating teacher with demonstrated effectiveness in the  classroom. The summative supervised student teaching experience shall include  at least 150 clock hours spent in direct teaching at the level of endorsement.  One year of successful full-time teaching experience in the endorsement area in  a public or accredited nonpublic school may be accepted in lieu of the  supervised teaching experience. For the Online Teacher License only, one year  of successful online teaching experience in the endorsement area in a public  school, an accredited nonpublic school, or an accredited virtual school or  program may be accepted in lieu of the supervised teaching experience. A fully  licensed, experienced teacher shall be available in the school building to  assist a beginning teacher employed through the alternate route.
    8VAC20-23-140. Early childhood for three-year-olds and  four-year-olds (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in elementary education (such as preK-3  or preK-6) or special education early childhood;
    2. Completed 9 semester hours of graduate-level coursework  in early childhood education; and
    3. Completed a supervised practicum of at least 45  instructional hours in a preschool setting (i.e., three-year-olds and  four-year-olds) in a public school, an accredited nonpublic school, or another  program approved by the Virginia Board of Education. One year of successful,  full-time teaching experience in a public or accredited nonpublic school may be  accepted in lieu of the practicum.
    4. The add-on endorsement to an elementary endorsement that  includes preK is not required to teach preK (i.e., three-year-olds and  four-year-olds), but the endorsement recognizes the candidate's additional  preparation in early childhood education. 
    8VAC20-23-150. Early/primary education preK-3.
    Endorsement requirements.
    1. The candidate must have graduated from an approved  teacher preparation program in early/primary education preK-3; or
    2. The candidate for the early/primary education preK-3  endorsement must have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university in the liberal arts and sciences, or  equivalent, and completed coursework that covers the early/primary education  preK-3 competencies and fulfills the following 51 semester-hour requirements:
    a. English (must include composition, oral communication,  and literature): 12 semester hours; or complete 6 semester hours in English and  pass a rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education;
    b. Mathematics (must include algebra, geometry, probability  and statistics, and methods in teaching elementary mathematics): 12 semester  hours; or complete 6 semester hours in mathematics, complete a methods in  teaching elementary mathematics course (3 semester hours), and pass a rigorous  elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;
    c. Laboratory sciences: 12 semester hours (in at least two  science disciplines and methods in teaching elementary science); or complete 6  semester hours in laboratory science (in two science disciplines), complete a  methods in teaching elementary science course (3 semester hours), and pass a  rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;
    d. History (must include American history and world  history): 6 semester hours, and Social Science (must include geography and  economics): 6 semester hours; or complete 3 semester hours in history, complete  3 semester hours in social science (geography or economics), and pass a  rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;  and
    e. Arts: 3 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-160. Elementary education preK-6.
    Endorsement requirements.
    1. The candidate shall have graduated from an approved  teacher preparation program in elementary education preK-6; or
    2. The candidate for the elementary education preK-6  endorsement must have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university majoring in the liberal arts and sciences (or  equivalent) and fulfill the following 57 semester-hour requirements:
    a. English (must include composition, oral communication,  and literature): 12 semester hours; or complete 6 semester hours in English and  pass a rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;
    b. Mathematics (must include algebra, geometry, probability  and statistics, and teaching elementary mathematics): 15 semester hours; or  complete 6 hours in mathematics, complete a methods in teaching elementary  mathematics course (3 semester hours), and pass a rigorous elementary subject  test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;
    c. Science (including a laboratory course): 15 semester  hours in at least three science disciplines and at least a three credit science  methods course; or complete 6 semester hours (in two science disciplines),  complete a methods in teaching elementary science course (3 semester hours),  and pass a rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education;
    d. History (must include American history and world  history): 6 semester hours, and Social Science (must include geography and  economics): 6 semester hours; or complete 3 semester hours in history, complete  3 semester hours in social science (geography or economics), and pass a  rigorous elementary subject test prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;  and
    e. Arts: 3 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-170. Middle education 6-8.
    Endorsement requirements.
    1. The candidate must have  graduated from an approved teacher preparation discipline-specific program in  middle education 6-8 with at least one area of academic preparation from the  areas of English, mathematics, science, and history and social sciences; or
    2. An applicant seeking the middle education 6-8  endorsement must have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university in the liberal arts and sciences, or  equivalent; and completed the minimum number of semester hours, as indicated,  in at least one area of academic preparation (i.e., concentration) that will be  listed on the license. The applicant will be restricted to teaching only in the  area or areas of concentration listed on the teaching license.
    a. English. English concentration (must include coursework  in language, for example history, structure, grammar, fiction and nonfiction  texts, media literacy, advanced composition, and interpersonal communication or  speech): 21 semester hours.
    b. Mathematics. Mathematics concentration (must include  coursework in algebra, geometry, probability and statistics, applications of  mathematics, and methods of teaching mathematics to include middle school  mathematics content): 24 semester hours.
    c. Science. Science concentration (must include courses in  each of the following: biology, chemistry, physics, and Earth and space science;  and a laboratory course is required in two of the four areas): 21 semester  hours.
    d. History and social sciences. History and social sciences  concentration (must include a course in American history; world history;  economics; American government, including state and local government; and  geography): 21 semester hours.
    Part V 
  Licensure Regulations Governing PreK-12 Endorsements, Special Education,  Secondary Grades 6-12 Endorsements, and Adult Education
    8VAC20-23-180. PreK-12 endorsements, special education,  secondary grades 6-12 endorsements, and adult education.
    Individuals seeking licensure with preK-12 endorsements,  special education, secondary grades 6-12 endorsements, or adult education may  meet requirements through the completion of an approved program or if employed  by a Virginia public or nonpublic school through the alternate route to  licensure. Components of the licensure program include a degree from a  regionally accredited college or university in the liberal arts and sciences,  or equivalent; professional teacher's assessment requirements prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education; specific endorsement requirements; and  professional studies requirements.
    8VAC20-23-190. Professional studies requirements.
    Professional studies requirements for adult education,  preK-12 endorsements, and secondary grades 6-12 endorsements: 18 semester  hours. Professional studies requirements for special education: 21 semester  hours. These requirements may be taught in integrated coursework or modules.
    1. Human development and learning (birth through  adolescence): 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  of the physical, social, emotional, speech and language, and intellectual  development of children and the ability to use this understanding in guiding  learning experiences. 
    b. The interaction of children with individual differences  - economic, social, racial, ethnic, religious, physical, and mental - should be  incorporated to include skills contributing to an understanding of developmental  disabilities and developmental issues related to but not limited to low  socioeconomic status, attention deficit disorders, developmental disabilities,  gifted education including the use of multiple criteria to identify gifted  students, substance abuse, child abuse, and family disruptions.
    2. Curriculum and instruction: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  of the principles of learning; the application of skills in discipline-specific  methodology; effective communication with and among students; selection and use  of materials, including media and contemporary technologies; selection,  development, and use of appropriate curricula, methodologies, and materials  that support and enhance student learning and reflect the research on unique,  age-appropriate, and culturally relevant curriculum and pedagogy. 
    b. Understanding of the principles of online learning and  online instructional strategies and the application of skills to deliver online  instruction must be included. 
    c. Instructional practices that are sensitive to culturally  and linguistically diverse learners, including limited English proficient  students; gifted and talented students and those students with disabilities;  and appropriate for the level of endorsement sought shall be included. 
    d. Teaching methods shall be tailored to promote student  academic progress and effective preparation for the Virginia Standards of  Learning assessments. 
    e. Methods of improving communication between schools and  families, ways of increasing family involvement in student learning at home and  in school, and the Virginia Standards of Learning shall be included. 
    f. Demonstrated proficiency in the use of educational  technology for instruction shall be included. 
    g. Persons seeking initial licensure as teachers and  persons seeking licensure renewal as teachers for the first time shall complete  study in child abuse recognition and intervention in accordance with curriculum  guidelines developed by the Virginia Board of Education in consultation with  the Virginia Department of Social Services that are relevant to the specific  teacher licensure routes. 
    h. Curriculum and instruction for secondary grades 6-12  endorsements shall include middle and secondary education. Pre-student teaching  experiences (i.e., field experiences) should be evident within these skills.  For preK-12, field experiences shall be at the elementary, middle, and  secondary levels.
    3. Assessment of and for learning: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall be designed to develop an  understanding and application of creating, selecting, and implementing valid  and reliable classroom-based assessments of student learning, including  formative and summative assessments. Assessments designed and adapted to meet  the needs of diverse learners must be addressed. 
    b. Analytical skills necessary to inform ongoing planning  and instruction, as well as to understand, and help students understand their  own progress and growth must be included. 
    c. Skills also include the relationships among assessment,  instruction, and monitoring student progress to include student performance  measures in grading practices, the ability to interpret valid assessments using  a variety of formats in order to measure student attainment of essential skills  in a standards-based environment, and the ability to analyze assessment data to  make decisions about how to improve instruction and student performance. 
    d. Understanding of state assessment programs and  accountability systems, including assessments used for student achievement goal  setting as related to teacher evaluation and determining student academic  progress, including knowledge of legal and ethical aspects of assessment. 
    e. Develop familiarity with assessments used in preK-12  education (e.g., diagnostic, college admission exams, industry certifications,  placement assessments).
    4. The teaching profession: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall be designed to develop an  understanding of the historical, philosophical, and sociological foundations  underlying the role, development, and organization of public education in the  United States. 
    b. Attention must be given to the legal status of teachers  and students, including federal and state laws and regulations, school as an  organization and culture, and contemporary issues and current trends in  education, including the impact of technology on education. Local, state, and  federal governance of schools, including the roles of teachers and schools in  communities must be included. 
    c. Professionalism and ethical standards, as well as  personal integrity must be addressed. 
    d. Knowledge and understanding of Virginia's Guidelines for  Uniform Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for Teachers must be  included. 
    5. Classroom and behavior management: 3 semester hours. 
    a. Skills in this area shall contribute to an understanding  and application of research-based classroom and behavior management techniques,  classroom community building, positive behavior supports, and individual  interventions, including techniques that promote emotional well-being and teach  and maintain behavioral conduct and skills consistent with norms, standards,  and rules of the educational environment. 
    b. This area shall address diverse approaches based upon  behavioral, cognitive, affective, social and ecological theory and practice. 
    c. Approaches should support professionally appropriate  practices that promote positive redirection of behavior, development of social  skills and of self-discipline. 
    d. Knowledge and an understanding of various school crisis  management and safety plans and the ability to create a safe, orderly classroom  environment must be included. The link between classroom management and the  students' ages must be understood and demonstrated in techniques used in the  classroom. 
    6. Reading.
    a. Adult education, preK-12, and secondary grades 6-12 -  literacy in the content areas: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area shall be  designed to impart an understanding of vocabulary development and comprehension  skills in English, mathematics, science, history and social science, and other  content areas. Strategies include teaching students how to ask effective  questions, summarize and retell both verbally and in writing, and listen  effectively. Teaching strategies include literal, interpretive, critical, and  evaluative comprehension, as well as the ability to foster appreciation of a  variety of fiction and nonfiction texts and independent reading for adolescent  learners.
    b. Special education - language acquisition and reading and  writing: 6 semester hours. Skills listed for these endorsement areas represent  the minimum competencies that a beginning teacher must be able to demonstrate.  These skills are not intended to limit the scope of a beginning teacher's  program. Additional knowledge and skills that add to a beginning teacher's  competencies to deliver instruction and improve student achievement should be  included as part of a quality learning experience.
    (1) Language acquisition: 3 semester hours. Skills in this  area shall be designed to impart a thorough understanding of the Virginia  English Standards of Learning as well as the complex nature of language  acquisition as a precursor to literacy. Language acquisition shall follow the  typical development of linguistic competence in the areas of phonetics,  semantics, syntax, morphology, phonology, and pragmatics. 
    (2) Reading and writing: 3 semester hours. Skills in this  area shall be designed to impart a thorough understanding of the Virginia  English Standards of Learning as well as the reciprocal nature of reading and  writing. Reading shall include phonemic awareness, concept of print, phonics,  fluency, vocabulary development, and comprehension strategies. Writing shall  include writing strategies and conventions as supporting the composing and  writing expression and usage and mechanics domains. Additional skills shall  include proficiency in understanding the stages of spelling development, the  writing process, as well as the ability to foster appreciation of a variety of  fiction and nonfiction texts and independent reading.
    7. Supervised classroom experience. Supervised clinical  experiences shall be continuous and systematic and comprised of early field  experiences and a minimum of 10 weeks of full-time student teaching under the  supervision of a cooperating teacher with demonstrated effectiveness in the  classroom. The summative supervised student teaching experience shall include  at least 150 clock hours spent in direct teaching at the level of endorsement. 
    If a preK-12 endorsement is sought, teaching activities  shall be at the elementary and middle or secondary levels. Individuals seeking  the endorsement in library media shall complete the supervised school library  media practicum in a school library media setting. Individuals seeking an  endorsement in an area of special education shall complete the supervised  classroom experience requirement in the area of special education for which the  endorsement is sought. One year of successful full-time teaching experience in  the endorsement area in a public or an accredited nonpublic school may be  accepted in lieu of the supervised teaching experience. For the Online Teacher  License only, one year of successful online teaching experience in the  endorsement area in a public school, an accredited nonpublic school, or an  accredited virtual school or program may be accepted in lieu of the supervised  teaching experience. A fully licensed, experienced teacher shall be available  in the school building to assist a beginning teacher employed through the  alternate route.
    8VAC20-23-200. Adult education.
    A. Endorsement  requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university or hold a Collegiate Professional License; and
    2. A minimum of 15 semester hours in adult education that  must include the following competencies and one semester of supervised  successful full-time, or an equivalent number of hours of part-time experience,  teaching of adults:
    a. Understanding of the nature or psychology of the adult  learner or adult development;
    b. Understanding of the knowledge, skills, and processes  needed for the selection, evaluation, and instructional applications of the  methods and materials for adult basic skills including:
    (1) Curriculum development in adult basic education or  General Educational Development (GED) instruction;
    (2) Beginning reading for adults;
    (3) Beginning mathematics for adults;
    (4) Reading comprehension for adult education;
    (5) Foundations of adult education; and
    (6) Other adult basic skills instruction.
    B. Individuals not holding a Collegiate Professional  License or a Postgraduate Professional License must meet the professional  teacher's assessment requirements prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education.
    8VAC20-23-210. Adult English as a second language (add-on  endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in adult English as a second language; or
    2. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in a teaching area; and 
    3. Completed 21 semester hours of coursework distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Methods for teaching English as a second language to  adults: 3 semester hours;
    b. English linguistics: 3 semester hours;
    c. Cross-cultural education: 3 semester hours;
    d. Modern foreign language: 6 semester hours; and
    e. Electives from the following areas: 6 semester hours:
    (1) Cross-cultural communication;
    (2) Second language acquisition;
    (3) General linguistics;
    (4) Teaching reading to adults;
    (5) Adult English as a second language instruction; or
    (6) Adult English as a second language curriculum  development.
    8VAC20-23-220. Career and technical education – agricultural  education.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in agricultural education; or
    2. Completed 39 semester hours of coursework in  agriculture, including at least three semester hours in each of the following  areas in subdivisions 2 a through 2 f as well as a minimum of nine hours in one  concentration area listed in the following areas subdivisions 2 a through 2 f:
    a. Plant science;
    b. Animal science;
    c. Agricultural mechanics and applied technology with a lab  component;
    d. Agricultural economics and management;
    e. Forestry and wildlife management; 
    f. Horticulture; and
    g. Supervised occupational experience, 3 semester hours, or  one year of successful, full-time or the equivalent of relevant occupational  experience (a minimum of 2,000 cumulative hours) within the past five years.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in  specialized areas may be granted to individuals who have:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency;
    2. Completed two years of successful, full-time or the  equivalent of occupational experience within the past five years in the  teaching specialty sought;
    3. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours); and
    4. Completed an agricultural education certificate or  associate degree program in the teaching specialty area sought.
    8VAC20-23-230. Career and technical education – business and  information technology.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have: 
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in business and information technology; or 
    2. Completed a major in business education or 39 semester  hours of coursework in business and information technology, including: 
    a. Accounting: 6 semester hours; 
    b. Economics: 3 semester hours; 
    c. Business law, business principles, management,  marketing, or finance: 9 semester hours; 
    d. Communications and media to include oral, written, and  presentation: 3 semester hours; 
    e. Information systems and technology to include computer  software applications (e.g., word processing, spreadsheet, database, and  presentation), information technology fundamentals, database management,  communications systems, programming, software development, security, and  networking: 12 semester hours; 
    f. Input technologies to include touch keyboarding  (required, or documented demonstrated mastery of the touch keyboarding skill),  audio input devices, video input devices, pointing devices, touch screens, or  other emerging input technologies: 3 semester hours; and 
    g. Supervised business experience: 3 semester hours; or one  year of successful full-time or the equivalent (i.e., 2,000 part-time hours)  relevant occupational experience within the last five years. 
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  highly specialized business and information technology area, such as  networking, administration, communications systems, programming, database  management, Internet application development, medical office procedures, legal  office procedures, network administration, and other emerging highly  specialized areas may be granted to individuals who have: 
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency; 
    2. Completed two years of successful, full-time or the  equivalent occupational experience within the last five years in the teaching  specialty area sought; 
    3. Completed a business certificate or associate degree  program from a regionally accredited institution in the teaching specialty area  sought; and 
    4. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    8VAC20-23-240. Career and technical education – family and  consumer sciences.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in family and consumer sciences; or
    2. Completed a major in family and consumer sciences  education or 39 semester hours of coursework in family and consumer sciences  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Development of individuals through the lifespan and the  family life cycle and family: 9 semester hours;
    b. Resource management, personal and family finance, and  consumer economics: 6 semester hours;
    c. Food, nutrition, dietetics, wellness, and food science:  9 semester hours;
    d. Housing, home furnishing, and equipment: 3 semester  hours;
    e. Apparel and textiles: 6 semester hours;
    f. Occupational program management: 3 semester hours; and
    g. Supervised occupational experience related to family and  consumer sciences, 3 semester hours, or one year of successful, full-time or  the equivalent of relevant occupational experience within the last five years.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  specialized family and consumer sciences area, such as child care occupations,  consumer services, family and human services, fashion design occupations, food  occupations, hospitality occupations, interior design occupations, and home  furnishings occupations, and home and institutional services, may be granted to  individuals who have:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency.
    2. Completed at least two years of successful, full-time  occupational experience or the equivalent within the past five years in the  teaching specialty for which they are seeking endorsement.
    3. Completed a family and consumer sciences certificate or  associate degree program where applicable in the area of endorsement sought.
    4. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    8VAC20-23-250. Career and technical education – health and  medical sciences.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved program of study with a  minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university in a health care program of study and hold a current license or  certification as a professional practitioner in the area in which one is to be  teaching; or
    2. A current license or certification as a professional  practitioner in the area in which one is to be teaching and completed two years  of successful, full-time or the equivalent of occupational experience within  the past five years in an area related to the teaching specialty sought.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  specialized health occupations area may be granted to individuals who have:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency;
    2. A license or be certified as a professional practitioner  in the area in which one is to be teaching;
    3. Completed two years of full-time or the equivalent of  occupational experience within the past five years in the teaching specialty  sought;
    4. Completed a health occupations certificate or associate  degree program from a regionally accredited institution in the teaching  specialty area sought; and
    5. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    8VAC20-23-260. Career and technical education – marketing  education.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in marketing education; or
    2. Completed a major in marketing education or a minimum of  39 semester hours of coursework in marketing to include;
    a. Marketing processes and environment: 3 semester hours;
    b. Management and supervision: 6 semester hours;
    c. Economics: 3 semester hours;
    d. Merchandising and operations: 3 semester hours;
    e. Advertising and promotion: 3 semester hours;
    f. Sales and selling: 3 semester hours;
    g. Communication theory and techniques: 3 semester hours;
    h. Consumer behavior: 3 semester hours;
    i. International (global) marketing: 3 semester hours;
    j. Finance, accounting, or marketing mathematics: 3  semester hours;
    k. Technology applications: 3 semester hours; and
    l. Supervised marketing occupational experience, 3 semester  hours, or one year of full-time work experience in the field of marketing may  be accepted in lieu of the supervised marketing internship.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  specialized marketing area, such as apparel and accessories, hotel operations,  international marketing, or restaurant, may be granted to individuals who have:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency;
    2. Completed two years of full-time occupational  experience, or the equivalent, within the last five years in the teaching  specialty area sought; and
    3. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    8VAC20-23-270. Career and technical education – technology  education.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a  baccalaureate degree in technology education; or
    2. Completed a major in technology education or 33 semester  hours in technology education distributed in the following areas:
    a. The nature of technology. Experiences shall include  those that promote an understanding of the characteristics, scope, and core  concepts of physical, biological, and informational technologies, the  relationships among these technologies, and their connections to other science,  technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM) fields: 6 semester hours;
    b. Technology and society. Experiences shall include those  that develop a working knowledge of the cultural, social, economic, and  political effects of technology, its effect on the environment, and the role of  society in the history, development, and use of physical, biological, and  informational technologies: 3 semester hours;
    c. Engineering. Experiences shall include those that  develop comprehension of the attributes of technological design, inclusive of  constraints, optimization, predictive analysis, problem solving, critical  thinking, technical writing, and integrative mathematics and science: 6  semester hours; 
    d. Abilities for a technological world. Experiences shall  include those that develop the capacity to utilize the design process, to use  and maintain technological products and systems, and to assess their impact: 9  semester hours; and
    e. The designed world. Experiences shall include those that  promote an understanding of current and emerging physical, biological, and  informational technologies: 9 semester hours; or
    3. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university with a major in one of the following fields of study:  architecture, design, engineering, engineering technology, industrial  technology, or physics and completed a minimum of 15 semester hours of  technology education content coursework, including at least 3 semester hours in  each of the following areas:
    a. The nature of technology;
    b. Technology and society;
    c. Engineering; 
    d. Abilities for a technological world; and
    e. The designed world.
    8VAC20-23-280. Career and technical education – trade and  industrial education.
    A. Endorsement requirements.
    1. The candidate must have graduated from an approved  teacher preparation program with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a  regionally accredited college or university in trade and industrial education;  or
    2. A candidate who has graduated from an approved teacher  preparation program that is not in the trade and industrial education program  subject area for which the candidate is seeking endorsement must have:
    a. A current state licensure or industry certification  based on the prescribed standard or examination, if applicable; and
    b. Evidence of at least two years of full-time or  equivalent occupational experience within the past five years in the teaching  specialty for which the candidate is seeking endorsement. A candidate whose  occupational experience has not been within the last five years must  participate in a supervised technical update related to the teaching specialty  or area of endorsement or complete a supervised internship of work experience  of not less than six weeks related to the area of endorsement or teaching  specialty.
    B. Technical Professional License. An endorsement in a  specialized trade and industrial education area will be granted to an  individual who has:
    1. Been recommended by an employing Virginia educational  agency;
    2. A current license or is currently certified as a  professional practitioner in the area in which he is to be teaching, if  applicable, or can demonstrate competency in the area of trade and industrial  education he is to be teaching;
    3. Evidence of at least two years of full-time or the  equivalent occupational experience within the past five years in the teaching  specialty for which he is seeking endorsement. Candidates whose occupational  experience has not been within the last five years must participate in a  supervised technical update related to the teaching specialty or area of  endorsement or complete a supervised internship of work experience of not less  than six weeks related to the area of endorsement or teaching specialty; and
    4. Completed professional studies requirements (human  development and learning: 3 semester hours; curriculum and instruction in  career and technical education: 3 semester hours; and applications of  instructional technology or classroom and behavior management: 3 semester  hours).
    C. Add-on endorsement requirements. A candidate must:
    1. Hold an active Collegiate Professional or Postgraduate  Professional License with a teaching endorsement;
    2. Demonstrate competency in the trade or industrial area  being sought;
    3. Hold current state licensure or industry certification  for the trade or industrial area for which endorsement is sought based upon the  prescribed standard or examination;
    4. Have completed two years or 4,000 clock hours of  satisfactory, full-time occupational experience at the journeyman level or an  equivalent level in the occupation within the last five years. Candidates whose  occupational experience has not been within the last five years must  participate in a supervised technical update related to the teaching specialty  or area of endorsement or complete a supervised internship of work experience  of not less than six weeks related to the area of endorsement or teaching  specialty; and
    5. Have completed 3 semester hours in curriculum and  instruction specific to vocational industrial education.
    8VAC20-23-290. Career and technical education – transition  and special needs (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  with a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college  or university in special needs; or
    2. Completed a major in career and technical education or  special education, pre-K-12 with an endorsement in one area of career and  technical education or special education preK-12, including 12 semester hours  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Overview of special needs programs and services: 3  semester hours;
    b. Instructional methods, curriculum, and resources: 3  semester hours;
    c. Career and life planning, transitioning, occupational  information, and delivery of cooperative education programs: 3 semester hours;  and
    d. Purposes and practices and characteristics of special  populations: 3 semester hours; and
    3. Completed successful, supervised occupational  experience, 3 semester hours, or one year of full-time or the equivalent of  relevant occupational experience within the past five years.
    8VAC20-23-300. Computer science.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in computer science; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 36 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Mathematics, including discrete mathematics;
    b. Data structures and algorithm analysis;
    c. Foundations of computer science; and
    d. Programming in at least two distinct languages: 6  semester hours.
    B. Add-on endorsement requirements in computer science.  The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed 18 semester hours of coursework distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Mathematics, including discrete mathematics;
    b. Data structures and algorithm analysis;
    c. Foundations of computer science; and
    d. Programming in at least two distinct languages: 6  semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-310. Dance arts preK-12.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in dance arts; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in dance arts or 24  semester hours with coursework distributed in the following areas:
    a. Development of movement language: 9 semester hours.
    (1) A course in each area of ballet, folk, jazz, and modern  dance: 6 semester hours; and
    (2) Area of concentration in one area of ballet, folk,  jazz, or modern dance beyond the entry level: 3 semester hours;
    b. Composition, improvisation, and dance arts production,  may include stage lighting, stage costuming, or stage makeup: 3 semester hours;
    c. Scientific foundations, including human anatomy,  kinesiology, and injury prevention and care for dance arts: 9 semester hours;  and
    d. Cultural understanding, including cultural context and  dance history: 3 semester hours.
    B. Add-on endorsement requirements in dance arts. The  candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed 15 semester hours of coursework distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Development of movement language: 9 semester hours.
    (1) A course in each area of ballet, folk, jazz, and  modern: 6 semester hours; and
    (2) Area of concentration in one area of ballet, folk,  jazz, or modern beyond the entry level: 3 semester hours;
    b. Composition, improvisation, and dance arts production,  may include stage lighting, stage costuming, or stage makeup: 3 semester hours;  and
    c. Cultural understanding, including cultural context and  dance history: 3 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-320. Driver education (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed an approved teacher preparation program in  driver education; or
    3. Completed 6 semester hours of coursework distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Driver Task Analysis: to include instructional  strategies as prescribed in the Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver  Education in Virginia 2010 (http://www.doe.virginia.gov/instruction/driver_  education/curriculum_admin_guide/index.shtml); understanding the highway  transportation system; applying Virginia's motor vehicle laws; personal, legal,  and emotional factors; visual and sensory perception; risk perception and risk  management; space management and other defensive driving techniques;  environmental, financial, and other vehicle ownership responsibilities; vehicle  technologies; and the scientific principles of the driving tasks: 3 semester  hours; and
    b. Principles and methodologies of classroom and in-car  instruction, including applying classroom and in-car teaching techniques for  delivering concurrent instruction; applying perception, vehicle balance, speed  control, and other risk management principles to the development of precision  driving skills; and understanding program administrative tasks, including  juvenile licensing laws and issuance of a driver's license; a minimum of 14  hours of actual behind-the-wheel supervised teaching experience demonstrating  vehicle control skills and performance capabilities that includes 2 hours of  basic evasive maneuvers; and a minimum of 14 hours of mentorship with a  licensed, endorsed driver education teacher: 3 semester hours.
    4. A current, valid Virginia driver's license. 
    8VAC20-23-330. Engineering.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in engineering;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in engineering or an  engineering subspecialty at an Accreditation Board for Engineering and  Technology (ABET)-accredited college or university program;
    3. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed an engineering technology,  science, or technology education major with at least 12 semester hours of  coursework in engineering courses, including:
    a. Introduction to engineering design;
    b. Statics or dynamics;
    c. Circuits or fluid mechanics; and
    d. Thermodynamics; 
    4. Completed a science, mathematics, or technology  education major with at least five years of successful experience working in an  engineering environment; or
    5. Hold a professional engineer's (P.E.) license.
    8VAC20-23-340. English.
    Endorsement requirements.  The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an  approved teacher preparation program in English; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in English or a minimum  of 36 semester hours of coursework distributed in the following areas:
    a. Literacy and reading: 12 semester hours. Courses must  include:
    (1) Survey of British literature;
    (2) Survey of American literature;
    (3) World literature; and
    (4) Literary theory and criticism.
    b. Language: 3 semester hours. Includes the development and  nature of the English language. 
    c. Composition: 12 semester hours. Experiences shall  include:
    (1) A grammar course integrating grammar and writing;
    (2) The teaching of writing, based on current knowledge and  most effective practices, including the use of technology for this purpose;
    (3) An advanced composition course emphasizing rhetorical  practices of expository, persuasive, argumentative, and analytical writing; and
    (4) Teaching research including ethical accessing,  evaluating, organizing, crediting, and synthesizing information.
    d. Oral language: 3 semester hours. Experiences shall  include the teaching of public and presentation speaking, including nonverbal  communication and the role of communication in small group and mass  communication.
    e. Electives from the areas listed in this section: 6  semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-350. English as a second language preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in English as a second language; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 24 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Teaching of reading and writing. Courses must include  the five areas of reading instruction: phonemic awareness, phonics, fluency,  vocabulary and text comprehension as well as the similarities and differences  between reading in a first language and reading in a second language and a  balanced literacy approach; one course must address teaching reading to English  language learners: 6 semester hours;
    b. English linguistics: 3 semester hours;
    c. Cross-cultural education: 3 semester hours;
    d. Second language acquisition: 3 semester hours; 
    e. Methods of English as a second language, to include the  World-Class Instructional Design and Assessment (WIDA) English Language  Development (ELD) Standards: 3 semester hours;
    f. English as a second language assessment to include  assessing comprehension and communication in English: 3 semester hours; and
    g. Electives from the areas listed in this section: 3  semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-360. Foreign language preK-12.
    A. The specific language of the endorsement will be noted  on the license.
    B. Endorsement requirements for foreign language 
  preK-12 - languages other than Latin. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in a foreign language; or 
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 30 semester hours of coursework  above the intermediate level in the foreign language distributed in the  following areas: 
    a. Advanced grammar and composition;
    b. Conversation, culture and civilization, and literature;  and
    c. In addition to the 30 semester hours, completed a  minimum of 3 semester hours of methods of teaching foreign languages at the  elementary and secondary levels.
    3. Endorsement in a second language may be obtained with 24  semester hours of coursework above the intermediate level. 
    4. Candidates who have learned a foreign language without  formal academic credit in a regionally accredited college or university must  complete the following requirements:
    a. Achieve a qualifying score on a foreign language assessment  in the appropriate language as prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education;  and
    b. Earn a minimum of 3 semester hours of methods of  teaching foreign languages at the elementary and secondary levels from a  regionally accredited college or university in the United States or obtain  teacher certification in another country with at least 3 semester hours of  methods of teaching foreign languages at the elementary and secondary levels at  a foreign institution.
    C. Endorsement requirements for foreign language 
  preK-12 - Latin. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in Latin; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 24 semester hours of Latin above  the intermediate level. A maximum of six semester hours of Roman history, Roman  life, mythology, or archaeology may be included in the total hours. A minimum  of 3 semester hours of methods of teaching Latin at the elementary and  secondary levels are required.
    D. Endorsement requirements for foreign language 
  preK-12 - American Sign Language. 
    1. The candidate must have (i) graduated from an approved  teacher preparation program in a foreign language - American Sign Language or  (ii) earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited college or  university and completed a major in American Sign Language or 24 semester hours  above the intermediate level in American Sign Language. The program shall  include (i) courses in advanced grammar and syntax, conversation, and culture  and (ii) a minimum of 3 semester hours of methods of teaching foreign languages  at the elementary and secondary levels.
    2. Native users or candidates who have learned American  Sign Language without formal academic credit in a regionally accredited college  or university, as explained in subdivision 1 of this subsection, must complete  the following requirements:
    a. Competency in American Sign Language demonstrated by  written documentation of one of the following:
    (1) Hold a current, valid Provisional, Qualified, or  Professional certification by the American Sign Language Teachers' Association;
    (2) Hold one of the following current, valid national  certificates in interpreting:
    (a) Registry of Interpreters for Deaf certification in at  least one of the following: Certificate of Interpretation (CI), Certificate of  Deaf Interpretation (CDI), Reverse Skills Certification (RSC), or Comprehensive  Skills Certificate (CSC);
    (b) Hold a current, valid National Association for the Deaf  Level IV certification or higher; or
    (c) National Interpreter Certification (NIC); or
    (3) Complete requirements by achieving a qualifying score  on an assessment demonstrating proficiency in American Sign Language prescribed  by the Virginia Board of Education.
    b. Completed a minimum of 3 semester hours of methods of  teaching foreign languages at the elementary and secondary levels from a  regionally accredited college or university in the United States; and
    c. Earned a minimum of 6 semester hours in coursework  including grammar and syntax of American Sign Language.
    8VAC20-23-370. Gifted education (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed an approved teacher preparation program in  gifted education; or
    3. Completed the following requirements:
    a. Completed 12 semester hours of graduate-level coursework  in gifted education distributed in the following areas: 
    (1) Academic and social-emotional characteristics and  special populations of gifted learners: 3 semester hours;
    (2) Curriculum models and differentiation of instruction  for gifted learners: 3 semester hours;
    (3) Identification and assessment of gifted learners: 3  semester hours; and
    (4) Current trends and issues in the field of gifted  education: 3 semester hours; and
    b. Completed a practicum of at least 45 instructional  hours. This practicum shall include a minimum of 45 instructional hours of  successful teaching experiences with gifted students in a public or an  accredited nonpublic school. In lieu of the practicum, one year of successful, full-time  teaching experience with gifted students in a public or an accredited nonpublic  school may be accepted provided the teacher is assigned a mentor holding a  valid license with an endorsement in gifted education.
    8VAC20-23-380. Health and physical education preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in health and physical education; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in health and physical  education or 45 semester hours of coursework distributed in the following  areas:
    a. Personal health and safety: 3 semester hours;
    b. Human anatomy, physiology, and kinesiology: 9 semester  hours;
    c. General health and physical education theory, including  curriculum design and development in health and physical education: 3 semester  hours;
    d. Instructional methods and skills for secondary physical  education: 3 semester hours;
    e. Instructional methods and skills for elementary physical  education: 3 semester hours;
    f. School health methods course: 3 semester hours; 
    g. Health and physical education electives: 9 semester  hours;
    h. Adapted physical education: 3 semester hours;
    i. Technology in health and physical education: 3 semester  hours; 
    j. Nutrition: 3 semester hours; and
    k. Measurement and evaluation in the content area: 3 semester  hours.
    8VAC20-23-390. History and social sciences.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in history and social sciences; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 51 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. History: a major in history or 18 semester hours in  history (must include coursework in American history, Virginia history, and  world history);
    b. Political science: a major in political science or 18 semester  hours in political science to include coursework in American government (state and  local government);
    c. Geography: 9 semester hours; and
    d. Economics: 6 semester hours.
    B. Add-on endorsement requirements in history, political  science, geography, and economics. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and have a teaching license with an  endorsement in history, political science, geography, or economics; and
    2. Completed 21 semester hours of coursework in the  additional social science area (i.e., history, political science, geography, or  economics) sought.
    8VAC20-23-400. Journalism (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed a minimum of 15 semester hours in journalism.
    8VAC20-23-410. Keyboarding (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed  6 semester hours in keyboarding. Three  of the six semester hours may be from either formal keyboarding instruction or  documented demonstrated mastery of the touch keyboarding skill, and three  semester hours must include document formatting skills, word processing, and  computer applications.
    8VAC20-23-420. Library media preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved preparation program in school  library media; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 24 semester hours distributed in  the following areas:
    a. Teaching for learning, including knowledge of learners  and learning; effective and knowledgeable teaching; collaborative instructional  partners; integration of learning standards and technologies; assessment of and  for student learning; and the design and implementation of instruction that  engages students interests and develops their ability to inquire, think  critically, and gain and share knowledge: 3 semester hours;
    b. Literacy and reading, including familiarity with  children's, young adult, and professional literature in multiple formats; use  of a variety of strategies to promote reading for enjoyment and information;  collection development to support diverse learning needs; and collaboration to  reinforce reading instructional strategies: 6 semester hours;
    c. Information and knowledge, including efficient and  ethical information-seeking behavior, ethical and equitable access to  information, design and delivery of authentic learning through current and  emerging technology, and the use of evidence-based action research to create  and share knowledge: 6 semester hours;
    d. Advocacy and leadership, including networking with the  library community, commitment to professional development, leadership in  articulating the role of the school library program in the educational  community and in student learning, and advocacy for school library programs,  resources, and services: 3 semester hours; and
    e. Program management and administration, including  planning, developing, implementing, and evaluating library programs,  collections, and facilities; personnel; funding; organization of materials;  professional ethics; and strategic planning and program assessment: 6 semester  hours.
    3. Supervised school library media practicum. Experiences  shall include clinical experience to give the applicant an opportunity to apply  the skills, understandings, and competencies required for the endorsement. One  year of successful, full-time experience as a school librarian in a public or  accredited nonpublic school may be accepted in lieu of the supervised  practicum.
    8VAC20-23-430. Mathematics.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in mathematics; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in mathematics or 36  semester hours of coursework distributed in each of the following areas:
    a. Algebra. Experience shall include linear algebra  (matrices, vectors, and linear transformations) and abstract algebra (ring,  group, and field theory);
    b. Geometry. Experience shall include Euclidean and  non-Euclidean geometries;
    c. Analytic geometry;
    d. Probability and statistics;
    e. Discrete mathematics. Experience shall include the study  of mathematical properties of finite sets and systems and linear programming;
    f. Calculus. Experience shall include multivariable  calculus; and
    g. Mathematical modeling.
    8VAC20-23-440. Mathematics – Algebra I (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Either:
    a. Completed an approved teacher preparation program in  Algebra I; or
    b. Completed 24 semester hours that include coursework in  each of the following areas:
    (1) Elementary functions, introductory college algebra, and  trigonometry;
    (2) Linear algebra;
    (3) Calculus;
    (4) Euclidean geometry;
    (5) Probability and statistics;
    (6) Discrete mathematics; 
    (7) Mathematical modeling; and
    (8) Methods of teaching algebra.
    8VAC20-23-450. Music education – instrumental preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in music education - instrumental; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 42 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Basic music knowledge. Experiences shall be related to  music theory, music history, and literature: 18 semester hours.
    b. Musical performance. Experiences shall consist of  developing competency in a primary performance medium (band or orchestral instrument),  in a secondary performance medium (band, orchestral, or keyboard instrument),  and in teaching, rehearsing, and conducting ensembles: 18 semester hours.
    c. Electives with coursework selected from either of the  two areas listed in subdivisions 2 a and 2 b of this section: 6 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-460. Music education – vocal/choral preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in music education - vocal/choral; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 42 semester hours of coursework  distributed in the following areas:
    a. Basic music knowledge. Experiences shall be related to  music theory, music history, and literature: 18 semester hours.
    b. Musical performance. Experiences shall consist of  developing competency in a primary and secondary medium, selected from voice or  keyboard and in teaching, rehearsing, and conducting ensembles: 18 semester  hours.
    c. Electives with coursework selected from either of the  two areas listed in subdivisions 2 a and 2 b of this section: 6 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-470. Science – biology.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in biology;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in biology or 32  semester hours in biology, and at least one course in each of the following:  genetics, biochemistry/molecular biology, cell biology, botany, zoology,  anatomy/physiology, ecology,  and evolutionary biology and other  preparation consistent with the competencies for the endorsement; or
    3. Earned an endorsement in another science discipline and  at least 18 semester hours in biology, including at least one course in each of  the following areas: genetics, biochemistry/molecular biology or cell biology,  botany or zoology, anatomy/physiology, and evolutionary biology or ecology.
    8VAC20-23-480. Science – chemistry.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in chemistry;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in chemistry or 32  semester hours in chemistry, including at least one course in each of the  following: inorganic chemistry, organic chemistry, physical chemistry,  biochemistry, and analytical chemistry and other preparation consistent with  the competencies required for the endorsement; or
    3. Earned an endorsement in another science discipline and  at least 18 semester hours in chemistry, including at least one course in each  of the following areas: inorganic chemistry, organic chemistry, physical  chemistry, biochemistry, and analytical chemistry.
    8VAC20-23-490. Science – Earth science.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in Earth science;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in Earth science,  geology, or environmental science with a minimum of 32 semester hours in Earth  sciences, including at least one course in each of the following: structural  geology, petrology, paleontology, oceanography, meteorology, and  astronomy/space science; or
    3. Earned an endorsement in another science discipline and  at least 18 semester hours in Earth sciences, including at least one course in  each of the following areas: structural geology, petrology, paleontology, oceanography,  meteorology, and astronomy/space or planetary science.
    8VAC20-23-500. Science – physics.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in physics;
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in physics or 32  semester hours in physics, including the following coursework: mechanics,  electricity and magnetism, optics, and modern physics and other preparation  consistent with the competencies required for the endorsement; or
    3. Earned an endorsement in another science discipline and  at least 18 semester hours in physics, including preparation in each of the  following areas: mechanics, electricity and magnetism, optics, and modern  physics.
    8VAC20-23-510. Special education – adapted curriculum K-12.
    Endorsement requirements: The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved program in special education  - adapted curriculum; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 27 semester hours in the  education of students with disabilities distributed in the following areas:
    a. Core coursework: 12 semester hours distributed among the  following areas:
    (1) Foundations:  3 semester hours. Characteristics  that include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with  disabilities; historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an  understanding and application of the federal and state regulatory requirements;  and expectations associated with identification, education, and evaluation of  students with disabilities;
    (2) Assessment and evaluation: 3 semester hours. Includes  an understanding and application of the foundation of assessment and evaluation  related to best practices in special education, including types and  characteristics of assessment, introduction to formal and informal assessment,  and the use of assessments and other information to determine special education  eligibility, service delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students with  disabilities. Understanding of the current legal and ethical issues related to  assessment selection and use, including comprehensive evaluation requirements,  students with disabilities participation in the state and local accountability  systems, assessment options, appropriate grading and testing accommodations,  and assessment of students from diverse backgrounds.
    (3) Collaboration that includes skills in consultation,  case management, co-teaching, and collaboration: 3 semester hours. Includes  understanding roles and responsibilities, knowledge and application of  effective communication skills and of culturally responsive practices and  strategies, and the ability to develop home, school, and community partnerships  to address the needs of students with disabilities. 
    (4) Management of classroom instruction and behaviors: 3  semester hours. Includes an understanding and knowledge of research-based  classroom management techniques, positive behaviors supports, and individual  interventions and a demonstrated ability to create a safe, orderly classroom  environment including classroom organization, instructional design, and  establishment of classroom routines and procedures. Knowledge of the elements  of effective instructional planning, differentiation of instruction, and other  instructional approaches to enhance student engagement and achievement.  Understanding of behavior assessments, data collection and analysis, and  development and monitoring of behavior intervention plans.
    b. Adapted curriculum coursework: 15 semester hours of  coursework distributed in the following areas:
    (1) Characteristics: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to demonstrate knowledge of the characteristics, including  medical and health conditions, and learning and support needs of students with  disabilities (K-12) whose cognitive and functional skills are significantly  different from typically developing peers and therefore require adaptations to  the general curriculum for an appropriate education, including, but not limited  to, students with autism spectrum disorders, developmental delay, intellectual  disability, traumatic brain injury, and multiple disabilities including  sensory, deaf-blindness, speech-language, orthopedic and/or health impairments  as an additional disability to those referenced above.
    (2) Individualized education program (IEP) implementation:  3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and legal and regulatory  requirements of IEP development, including timelines, components, team  composition, roles, and responsibilities. Skills in this area include the  ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation throughout the K-12  grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of standardized and  nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions about student  progress, instruction, program, goal development, modifications, adaptations,  placement, and teaching methodology for students with disabilities who are  accessing the general education curriculum and Standards of Learning through an  aligned curriculum; and to demonstrate the use of assessment, evaluation, and  other information to develop and implement individual educational planning and  group instruction with students with disabilities in an adapted curriculum  across the K-12 grade levels.
    (3) Transitioning: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to prepare students and work with families to provide  successful student transitions throughout the educational experience to include  postsecondary education, training, employment, and independent living that  addresses an understanding of long-term planning, age-appropriate transition  assessments, career development, life skills, community experiences and  resources, and self-determination to include goal setting, decision making,  problem solving, self-awareness and self-advocacy, guardianship, and other  legal considerations.
    (4) Instructional methods and strategies for the adapted  curriculum: 3 semester hours. An understanding and application of service  delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities who need an  adapted curriculum. Knowledge of the general curriculum requirements and  expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based on student  characteristics and needs. Skills in this area include the ability to  understand and use a range of modifications, adaptations, special instructional  strategies, and research-based interventions that reflect best practice in  reading, writing, and mathematics instruction for students with more  significant disabilities; ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments;  knowledge of available assistive and instructional technologies, including  alternative communication methods and systems to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the adaptive curriculum and the  ability to evaluate its effectiveness; ability to develop and use  curriculum-based and standardized assessment to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional material and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to curriculum design and delivery; ability to  modify and adapt instructional content in a variety of settings and collaborate  with general education content teachers to develop and implement instructional  practices that meet the needs of students with disabilities in the adapted  curriculum and monitor student progress.
    (5) Individualized supports and specialized care of  students with significant disabilities: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of and  ability to implement adapted strategies to address the positioning, handling,  communication, personal care, and medical needs of students with significant  disabilities. Knowledge and understanding of the roles of related disciplines  and service providers in collaborative planning and service delivery.  Demonstration of the ability to develop and utilize a blended curriculum design  to address disability-specific or unique needs such as feeding and communication  while addressing the adapted curriculum requirements.
    8VAC20-23-520. Special education blindness and visual  impairments preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in special education visual impairments preK-12; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in special education  blindness and visual impairments or 30 semester hours in education of students  with visual impairments, distributed with at least one course in each of the  following areas: 
    a. Characteristics of students with visual impairment.  Provides an overview of the characteristics of and services to persons with  visual impairments, including the impact of visual impairment on infant and  child growth and development, child and adolescent emotional and social  development, and family interaction patterns. Includes the educational,  conceptual, psychosocial, and physical implications of a visual impairment.
    b. Foundations. Includes knowledge of the foundation for  educating students with disabilities; historical, ethical, and legal aspects  that include understanding and application of the regulatory requirements; and  expectations associated with identification, education, and evaluation of  students with disabilities.
    c. Braille code: 3 semester hours. Includes the literary  code of Braille, its implications for educational and literacy programs for  students with visual disabilities and how to teach the Braille code to students  with visual impairments.
    d. Braille reading and writing: 3 semester hours. Includes  instruction in the various technologies used by students who use Braille; basic  instruction on transcription of advanced Braille codes, including music,  foreign language, chemistry, computer Braille, and Nemeth code (Braille  mathematics code); techniques for teaching skills in each code; and technology  tools used to create Braille and tactile materials in addition to other  assistive technologies used for instruction in mathematics and science.
    e. Medical and educational implications of visual  impairment. Includes anatomy of the human eye, normal visual development,  pathology of the eye, examination procedures for the identification of visual  pathology, and the effects of pathology on visual learning and development.
    f. Assistive technology for students with sensory  impairment. Introduces specific technology and resources available to enhance  and improve ability of individuals with sensory disabilities and includes  literacy skill development of students who are blind or visually impaired using  technology.
    g. Curriculum and assessment. Includes knowledge of  educational assessments used with students with visual impairments and  additional disabilities including deaf-blindness. Addresses assessment of  technology needs of students with visual impairments, including functional  vision assessments, learning media assessments, assistive technology, and  assessment in areas of the expanded core curriculum; application of assessment  results to development of the individualized education program (IEP); planning  for placement; and services and accommodations for students with visual  impairments. 
    h. Positive behavior intervention supports. Includes  understanding of research-based, positive behavior intervention supports and  individual interventions; knowledge of the elements of effective instructional  planning, differentiation of instruction, and other instructional approaches to  enhance student engagement and achievement; and understanding of behavior  assessments, data collection and analysis, development and monitoring of  behavior intervention plans.
    i. Collaboration. Includes skills in consultation, case  management, co-teaching, and collaboration that include understanding roles and  responsibilities, knowledge and application of effective communication skills,  of culturally responsive practices and strategies, and the ability to develop  home, school, and community partnerships to address the needs of students who  are visually impaired.
    j. Teaching methods. 
    (1) Includes methods of teaching compensatory skills, the  core curriculum, and technology used by students who are blind and visually  impaired; introduces individual family service plans (IFSPs); and includes  understanding and application of development and implementation of the IEP,  including service delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students who are  visually impaired. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum requirements and  expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based on student  characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified needs of the students. Skills  in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and implement a range  of specialized instructional strategies and research-based interventions that  reflect best practice in instruction for students who are visually impaired. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of instructional  materials and practices to assess student needs as they relate to curriculum  design and delivery. 
    (6) Ability to model and directly teach instructional strategies  in a variety of settings, and monitor student progress. 
    (7) Ability to adapt materials and procedures to meet the  needs of students with visual impairments.
    k. Orientation and mobility. Includes the components of  orientation and mobility (O&M); how the need for independent travel in the  blind population created the field of O&M; and the philosophy and history  of O&M, including cane instruction, dog guides, and methods of travel.  Addresses techniques in developing orientation skills and basic mobility  instruction. Motor and concept skill development are emphasized.
    8VAC20-23-530. Special education deaf and hard of hearing  preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements.  The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in special education deaf and hard of hearing; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in special education  deaf and hard of hearing or 27 semester hours in education of students who are  deaf and hard of hearing distributed in the following areas: 
    a. Foundations: 3 semester hours. Includes knowledge of the  foundation for educating students with disabilities; historical, ethical and  legal aspects that include understanding and application of the regulatory  requirements; and expectations associated with identification, education, and  evaluation of students with disabilities.
    b. Characteristics: 3 semester hours. Includes the ability  to demonstrate knowledge of etiologies of hearing loss, definitions,  characteristics, learning, and support needs of students who are deaf and hard  of hearing from pre-K through secondary levels, who may be using various  communication modalities/languages and who may have additional disabilities.
    c. Assessment and evaluation: 3 semester hours. Includes an  understanding and application of the foundation of assessment and evaluation  related to best practices, including types and characteristics of assessments,  formal and informal assessment, and the use of assessment information to  determine special education eligibility and inform service delivery,  curriculum, accommodations, instructional methods, and student progress.  Understanding comprehensive evaluation requirements, participation of students  with disabilities in state and local accountability systems, assessment  options, appropriate testing accommodations, and assessment of students from  diverse backgrounds.
    d. Instructional planning: 3 semester hours. 
    (1) Familiarity with individual family service plans  (IFSPs). 
    (2) An understanding and application of development and  implementation of the individualized education program (IEP) including service  delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students who are deaf and hard of  hearing and transition. 
    (3) Knowledge of the general curriculum requirements and  expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based on student  characteristics and needs. 
    (4) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified needs of the students. Skills  in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and implement a range  of specialized instructional strategies and research-based interventions that  reflect best practice in instruction for students who are deaf and hard of  hearing. 
    (5) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of instructional  materials and practices to assess student needs as they relate to the  curriculum design and delivery. 
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach instructional  strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate with general educators to  develop and implement instructional practices that meet the needs of students  who are deaf and hard of hearing, and monitor student progress.
    e. Speech, language, and literacy development: 3 semester  hours. Includes an understanding of the normal developmental sequence of  speech, language (oral, signed, and written), auditory, and cognitive  milestones, varying methodologies and strategies used in assessing language  skills (through the air and spoken) of a student who is deaf and hard of  hearing; demonstrate skills necessary to foster and enhance language  development and communication skills in students who are deaf and hard of  hearing including American Sign Language, cued speech, and listening and spoken  language skills. Ability to model and directly teach instructional strategies  that foster language and literacy development.
    f. Classroom and behavior management: 3 semester hours.  Includes an understanding and knowledge of research-based classroom management  techniques, positive behavior intervention supports and individual  interventions; and demonstrated ability to create a safe, orderly classroom  environment including classroom organization, instructional design, and  establishment of classroom routines and procedures. Knowledge of the elements  of effective instructional planning, differentiation of instruction, and other  instructional approaches to enhance student engagement and achievement.  Understanding of behavior assessments, data collection and analysis,  development, and monitoring of behavior intervention plans
    g. Audiology and speech and hearing science: 3 semester  hours. Understanding of the basic principles of sound reception and production  including neuroanatomy of speech and hearing mechanisms and physical  characteristics and measurement of acoustic stimuli; biological, neurological,  and acoustic bases of communication; reading and interpreting audiograms and  other audiologic assessments used in determining eligibility; knowledge of  types, degrees, and effects of hearing loss on developmental domains; relevance  of age of onset, age of identification of hearing loss, and age of  amplification and intervention in speech and language development; ability to  troubleshoot hearing aids, external components of cochlear implants, and other  assistive listening devices; ability to foster development of listening skills.
    h. Collaboration: 3 semester hours. Includes skills in  consultation, case management, co-teaching, and collaboration that includes  understanding roles and responsibilities, knowledge and application of  effective communication skills, of culturally responsive practices and  strategies, and the ability to develop home, school, and community partnerships  to address the needs of students who are deaf and hard of hearing.
    i. Communication Modalities: 3 semester hours. Includes  introduction to the various communication modalities used by students who are  deaf and hard of hearing, including listening and spoken language, cued speech,  speech reading, and through the air communication including use of American  Sign Language (ASL) and contact varieties of signed language and coursework to  learn ASL.
    8VAC20-23-540. Special education early childhood (birth-age  five years).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in early childhood special education; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in early childhood  special education or 27 semester graduate hours in early childhood special  education, including at least one course in each of the following: 
    a. Foundations and legal aspects of special education: 3  semester hours;
    b. Assessment for diagnosis, program planning, and  curriculum-based measurement to document progress for young children with  typical development, disabling, and at-risk conditions: 3 semester hours;
    c. Curriculum and instructional programming for preschool:  3 semester hours;
    d. Speech and language development and intervention: 3  semester hours; 
    e. Medical aspects: 3 semester hours;
    f. Social and emotional skills and behavior management for  early childhood: 3 semester hours;
    g. Consultation, co-teaching, coaching, and mentoring: 3  semester hours;
    h. Family-centered intervention: 3 semester hours; and
    i. Early childhood elective: 3 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-550. Special education – general curriculum K-12.
    Endorsement requirements:  The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved program in special education  - general curriculum; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university and completed 27 semester hours in the education of  students with disabilities distributed in the following areas:
    a. Core coursework: 12 semester hours distributed among the  following areas:
    (1) Foundations: 3 semester hours. Characteristics that  include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with disabilities;  historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an understanding and  application of the federal and state regulatory requirements; and expectations  associated with identification, education, and evaluation of students with  disabilities.
    (2) Assessment and evaluation: 3 semester hours. Includes  an understanding and application of the foundation of assessment and evaluation  related to best practice in special education, including types and  characteristics of assessment, introduction to formal and informal assessment,  and the use of assessments and other information to determine special education  eligibility, service delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students with  disabilities. Understanding of the current legal and ethical issues related to  assessment selection and use, including comprehensive evaluation requirements,  students with disabilities participation in the state and local accountability  systems, assessment options, appropriate grading and testing accommodations,  and assessment of students from diverse backgrounds.
    (3) Collaboration that includes skills in consultation,  case management, co-teaching, and collaboration: 3 semester hours. Includes understanding  roles and responsibilities, knowledge and application of effective  communication skills and of culturally responsive practices and strategies and  the ability to develop home, school, and community partnerships to address the  needs of students with disabilities.
    (4) Management of classroom instruction and behaviors: 3  semester hours. Includes an understanding and knowledge of research-based  classroom management techniques, positive behavior support, and individual  interventions and a demonstrated ability to create a safe, orderly classroom  environment, including classroom organization, instructional design, and  establishment of classroom routines and procedures. Knowledge of the elements  of effective instructional planning, differentiation of instruction, and other  instructional approaches to enhance student engagement and achievement.  Understanding of behavior assessments, data collection and analysis,  development, and monitoring of behavior intervention plans.
    b. General curriculum coursework: 15 semester hours  distributed in the following areas:
    (1) Characteristics: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  shall include the ability to demonstrate knowledge of definitions,  characteristics, and learning and behavioral support needs of students with disabilities  who are accessing the general education curriculum at the elementary, middle,  and high school levels, including but not limited to, students with learning  disabilities, emotional disability, and intellectual disabilities;  developmental delay; autism; other health impairments; traumatic brain injury;  and multiple disabilities.
    (2) Individualized education program development and  implementation: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and  legal and regulatory requirements of IEP development including timelines,  components, team composition, and roles and responsibilities. Skills in this  area include the ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation  throughout the K-12 grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of  standardized and nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions  about student progress, instructional program, goal development,  accommodations, placement, and teaching methodology for students with  disabilities who are accessing the general education curriculum and the  standards of learning; and to demonstrate the use of assessment, evaluation,  and other information to develop and implement individual educational planning  and group instruction with students with disabilities who are accessing the  general education curriculum across the K-12 grade levels.
    (3) Transitioning: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to prepare students and work with families and community  agencies to provide successful student transitions throughout the educational  experience to include postsecondary education training, employment, and  independent living that addresses an understanding of long-term planning,  career development, life skills, community experiences and resources,  self-advocacy, and self-determination, guardianship, and legal considerations.
    (4) Instructional strategies in reading and writing: 3  semester hours. 
    (a) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in reading and  writing. 
    (b) Knowledge of the general curriculum, English  requirements and expectations, and how to provide access to the curriculum  based on student characteristics and needs. 
    (c) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified reading needs of the  students. Skills in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and  implement a range of specialized instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in reading and writing instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (d) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (e) Knowledge and ability to utilize current assistive and  instructional reading and writing technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (f) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized reading and writing assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the curriculum design and delivery. 
    (g) Ability to model and directly teach reading and writing  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the general curriculum, and  monitor student progress.
    (5) Instructional strategies in mathematics: 3 semester  hours. 
    (a) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in mathematics. 
    (b) Knowledge of the general curriculum mathematics  requirements and expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based  on student characteristics and needs. 
    (c) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address calculations, reasoning, and problem-solving  skills. Skills in this area include the ability to understand and use a range  of specialized mathematics instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in mathematics instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (d) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (e) Knowledge of and ability to utilize current mathematics  related assistive and instructional technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (f) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized mathematics assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the mathematics curriculum design and delivery.
    (g) Ability to model and directly teach mathematics  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the mathematics general  curriculum, and monitor student progress.
    8VAC20-23-560. Special education – general curriculum K-6  (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements: The candidate must:
    1. Hold an earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in elementary education (i.e.,  early/primary education preK-3 or elementary education preK-6).
    2. Have completed 15 semester hours in the education of  students with disabilities distributed in each of the following areas:
    a. Foundations: 3 semester hours. Characteristics that  include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with disabilities;  historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an understanding and  application of the federal and state regulatory requirements; and expectations  associated with identification, education, and evaluation of students with  disabilities.
    b. Individualized education program development and  implementation: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and  legal and regulatory requirements of IEP development including timelines,  components, team composition, and roles and responsibilities. Skills in this  area include the ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation  throughout the K-12 grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of  standardized and nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions about  student progress, instructional, program, goal development, accommodations,  placement, and teaching methodology for students with disabilities who are  accessing the general education curriculum and the Virginia Standards of  Learning; and to demonstrate the use of assessment, evaluation, and other  information to develop and implement individual educational planning and group  instruction with students with disabilities who are accessing the general  education curriculum across the K-12 grade levels.
    c. Assessment and evaluation: 3 semester hours. Includes an  understanding and application of the foundation of assessment and evaluation  related to best practice in special education, including types and  characteristics of assessment, introduction to formal and informal assessment,  and the use of assessments and other information to determine special education  eligibility, service delivery, curriculum, and instruction of students with  disabilities. Understanding of the current legal and ethical issues related to assessment  selection and use, including comprehensive evaluation requirements, students  with disabilities' participation in the state and local accountability systems,  assessment options, appropriate grading and testing accommodations, and  assessment of students from diverse backgrounds.
    d. Instructional strategies in reading and writing: 3  semester hours. 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in reading and  writing. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum, English  requirements and expectations, and how to provide access to the curriculum  based on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified reading needs of the  students. Skills in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and  implement a range of specialized instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in reading and writing instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge and ability to utilize current assistive and  instructional reading and writing technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized reading and writing assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach reading and writing  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that meet  the needs of students with disabilities in the general curriculum, and monitor  student progress.
    e. Instructional strategies in mathematics: (3 semester  hours). 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in mathematics. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum mathematics  requirements and expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based  on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address calculations, reasoning, and problem-solving  skills. Skills in this area include the ability to understand and use a range  of specialized mathematics instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in mathematics instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge of and ability to utilize current  mathematics-related assistive and instructional technologies to promote  learning and independence for students with disabilities in the general  curriculum and the ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the  technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized mathematics assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the mathematics curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach mathematics  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the mathematics general  curriculum, and monitor student progress.
    8VAC20-23-570. Special education – general curriculum middle  grades 6-8 (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements: The candidate must:
    1. Hold an earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in middle education (i.e., middle  education 6-8 English, middle education 6-8 history and social sciences, middle  education 6-8 mathematics, or middle education-sciences). 
    2. Have completed 15 semester hours in the education of  students with disabilities distributed in each of the following areas:
    a. Foundations: 3 semester hours. Characteristics that  include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with disabilities;  historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an understanding and  application of the federal and state regulatory requirements; and expectations  associated with identification, education, and evaluation of students with  disabilities.
    b. Individualized education program development and  implementation: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and  legal and regulatory requirements of IEP development, including timelines,  components, team composition, and roles and responsibilities. Skills in this  area include the ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation  throughout the K-12 grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of  standardized and nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions  about student progress, instructional, program, goal development,  accommodations, placement, and teaching methodology for students with  disabilities who are accessing the general education curriculum and the  standards of learning; and to demonstrate the use of assessment, evaluation,  and other information to develop and implement individual educational planning  and group instruction with students with disabilities who are accessing the  general education curriculum across the K-12 grade levels.
    c. Transitioning: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to prepare students and work with families and community  agencies to provide successful student transitions throughout the educational  experience to include postsecondary education training, employment, and  independent living that addresses an understanding of long-term planning,  career development, life skills, community experiences and resources,  self-advocacy, and self-determination, guardianship, and legal considerations.
    d. Instructional strategies in reading and writing: 3  semester hours. 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in reading and  writing. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum, English  requirements and expectations, and how to provide access to the curriculum  based on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified reading needs of the  students. Skills in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and  implement a range of specialized instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in reading and writing instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge and ability to utilize current assistive and  instructional reading and writing technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and standardized  reading and writing assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of instructional  materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess student needs as  it relates to the curriculum design and delivery. 
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach reading and writing  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the general curriculum, and monitor  student progress.
    e. Instructional strategies in mathematics: (3 semester  hours). 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in mathematics. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum mathematics  requirements and expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based  on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address calculations, reasoning and problem-solving  skills. Skills in this area include the ability to understand and use a range  of specialized mathematics instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in mathematics instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge of and ability to utilize current  mathematics-related assistive and instructional technologies to promote  learning and independence for students with disabilities in the general  curriculum and the ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the  technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and standardized  mathematics assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of instructional  materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess student needs as  they relate to the mathematics curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach mathematics  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the mathematics general  curriculum, and monitor student progress.
    8VAC20-23-580. Special education – general curriculum  secondary grades 6-12 (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements:  The candidate must:
    1. Hold an earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with an endorsement in English, history and social sciences,  mathematics, biology, chemistry, Earth science, or physics.
    2. Have completed 15 semester hours in the education of  students with disabilities distributed in each of the following areas:
    a. Foundations: 3 semester hours. Characteristics that  include knowledge of the foundation for educating students with disabilities;  historical, ethical, and legal aspects that include an understanding and  application of the federal and state regulatory requirements; and expectations  associated with identification, education, and evaluation of students with  disabilities.
    b. Individualized education program development and  implementation: 3 semester hours. Knowledge of the eligibility process and  legal and regulatory requirements of IEP development, including timelines,  components, team composition, and roles and responsibilities. Skills in this  area include the ability to apply knowledge of assessment and evaluation  throughout the K-12 grade levels to construct, use, and interpret a variety of  standardized and nonstandardized data collection techniques; to make decisions  about student progress, instructional, program, goal development,  accommodations, placement, and teaching methodology for students with  disabilities who are accessing the general education curriculum and the  Virginia Standards of Learning; and to demonstrate the use of assessment,  evaluation, and other information to develop and implement individual  educational planning and group instruction with students with disabilities who  are accessing the general education curriculum across the K-12 grade levels.
    c. Transitioning: 3 semester hours. Skills in this area  include the ability to prepare students and work with families and community  agencies to provide successful student transitions throughout the educational  experience to include postsecondary education training, employment, and  independent living that addresses an understanding of long-term planning,  career development, life skills, community experiences and resources,  self-advocacy, and self-determination, guardianship, and legal considerations.
    d. Instructional strategies in reading and writing: 3  semester hours. 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in reading and  writing. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum, English  requirements and expectations, and how to provide access to the curriculum  based on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address the identified reading needs of the  students. Skills in this area include the ability to identify, understand, and  implement a range of specialized instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in reading and writing instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge and ability to utilize current assistive and  instructional reading and writing technologies to promote learning and  independence for students with disabilities in the general curriculum and the  ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized reading and writing assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach reading and writing  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that  meet the needs of students with disabilities in the general curriculum, and  monitor student progress.
    e. Instructional strategies in mathematics: (3 semester  hours). 
    (1) An understanding and application of service delivery,  curriculum, and instruction of students with disabilities in mathematics. 
    (2) Knowledge of the general curriculum mathematics  requirements and expectations and how to provide access to the curriculum based  on student characteristics and needs. 
    (3) Ability to assess, interpret data, and implement  instructional practices to address calculations, reasoning, and problem-solving  skills. Skills in this area include the ability to understand and use a range  of specialized mathematics instructional strategies and research-based  interventions that reflect best practice in mathematics instruction for  students with disabilities. 
    (4) Ability to align the instructional practices and  intervention with the Virginia Standards of Learning and state assessments. 
    (5) Knowledge of and ability to utilize current  mathematics-related assistive and instructional technologies to promote  learning and independence for students with disabilities in the general  curriculum and the ability to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of the  technologies. 
    (6) Ability to develop and use curriculum-based and  standardized mathematics assessments to conduct ongoing evaluations of  instructional materials and practices to determine effectiveness and assess  student needs as they relate to the mathematics curriculum design and delivery.
    (7) Ability to model and directly teach mathematics  instructional strategies in a variety of settings, collaborate and co-teach  with general educators to develop and implement instructional practices that meet  the needs of students with disabilities in the mathematics general curriculum,  and monitor student progress.
    8VAC20-23-590. Speech communication (add-on endorsement).
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and a license issued by the Virginia Board of  Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. A minimum of 15 semester hours in speech communication.
    8VAC20-23-600. Theatre arts preK-12.
    A. Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in theatre arts; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in theatre arts or 33  semester hours distributed among the following areas:
    a. Directing: 6 semester hours;
    b. Technical theatre: 9 semester hours;
    c. Cultural context and theatre history: 3 semester hours;
    d. Performance: 6 semester hours; and
    e. Dramatic literature: 9 semester hours.
    B. Add-on endorsement requirements in theatre arts  preK-12. The candidate must have:
    1. An earned baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and hold a license issued by the Virginia  Board of Education with a teaching endorsement in a teaching area; and
    2. Completed 15 semester hours distributed in the following  areas:
    a. Directing: 3 semester hours;
    b. Technical theatre: 3 semester hours;
    c. Cultural context and theatre history: 3 semester hours;  and
    d. Performance: 6 semester hours.
    8VAC20-23-610. Visual arts preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Graduated from an approved teacher preparation program  in visual arts; or
    2. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed a major in visual arts or 36  semester hours in art distributed in the following areas:
    a. Two-dimensional media: 12 semester hours;
    b. Three-dimensional media: 12 semester hours;
    c. Cultural context and art history: 6 semester hours; 
    d. Evaluation and criticism and aesthetics: 3 semester  hours; and
    e. Related areas of the fine arts: 3 semester hours.
    Part VI 
  Licensure Regulations Governing Support Personnel
    8VAC20-23-620. Administration and supervision 
  preK-12.
    A. An endorsement in administration and supervision  preK-12 consists of Level I, which is required to serve as a building-level  administrator or central office instructional supervisor, and Level II, which  is an optional endorsement to which an experienced building-level administrator  may aspire. Individuals must meet the requirements for the administration and  supervision preK-12 endorsement through one of the four options listed in this  section. A school leader's assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of  Education must be met for all individuals who are seeking an initial  endorsement authorizing them to serve as principals and assistant principals in  the public schools. Individuals seeking an initial administration and  supervision endorsement who are interested in serving as central office  instructional personnel are not required to take and pass the school leaders  assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education.
    B. Level I, Option I: Approved program route to Level I  administration and supervision preK-12 endorsement. To become eligible for a  Level I endorsement under this option, the candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university;
    2. Completed three years of successful, full-time  experience in a public school or accredited nonpublic school in an  instructional personnel position that requires licensure in Virginia;
    3. Completed an approved program in administration and  supervision from a regionally accredited college or university;
    4. Completed a deliberately structured and supervised  internship that is focused on student academic progress for all students and  that:
    a. Provides significant experiences within a school  environment for candidates to synthesize and apply content knowledge and  develop professional skills through school-based leadership experiences; 
    b. Shall occur in a public or accredited nonpublic school; 
    c. Provides exposure to five different multiple sites  (i.e., elementary, middle high, central office, agency) with diverse student  populations; and
    d. Documents a minimum of 320 clock hours, of which 120  clock hours are embedded as experiential field-based opportunities experienced  during coursework; and
    5. Satisfied the requirements for the school leaders  licensure assessment prescribed by the Virginia Board of Education. Individuals  seeking an initial administration and supervision endorsement who are  interested in serving as central office instructional personnel are not  required to take and pass the school leaders assessment prescribed by the  Virginia Board of Education.
    C. Level I, Option II: Alternate route to Level I  administration and supervision preK-12 endorsement restricted to the Virginia  school division in which the superintendent submitted the recommendation for  endorsement. This endorsement is valid only in the designated Virginia school  division and would not be portable or reciprocal. In order to be eligible for  Level I endorsement under this option, the candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university;
    2. Completed graduate coursework in school law, evaluation  of instruction, and other areas of study as required by an employing Virginia  school superintendent. The graduate coursework must be taken from a regionally  accredited college or university that has a state-approved administration and  supervision program; 
    3. Completed three years of successful, full-time  experience in a public school or accredited nonpublic school in an  instructional personnel position that requires licensure in Virginia;
    4. Satisfied the requirements for the school leaders  licensure assessment specified by the Virginia Board of Education; and
    5. Been recommended by the superintendent in the employing  Virginia school division.
    D. Level I, Option III: Alternate route to Level I  administration and supervision preK-12 endorsement. In order to be eligible for  Level I endorsement under this option, the candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university;
    2. Completed graduate coursework in school law, evaluation  of instructional personnel, special education, school finance, educational  leadership, and other areas of study as required by an employing Virginia  school superintendent, and the graduate coursework must be taken from a  regionally accredited college or university that has a state-approved  administration and supervision program, or the candidate must have completed  school law, school finance, and a research-based program approved by the  Virginia Department of Education that includes organizational leadership,  instructional leadership, instructional practices in content areas, data  utilization, evaluation and instructional coaching, and creating positive  school cultures; 
    3. Completed three years of successful, full-time  experience in a public school or accredited nonpublic school in an  instructional personnel position that requires licensure in Virginia;
    4. Satisfied the requirements for the school leaders  licensure assessment specified by the Virginia Board of Education; and
    5. Been recommended by the superintendent in the employing  Virginia school division.
    E. Level I, Option IV: Out-of-state administration and  supervision endorsement. Virginia does not issue a stand-alone license in  administration and supervision. The endorsement is added to a license. The  candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university; 
    2. Completed three years of successful, full-time  experience in a public school or accredited nonpublic school in an  instructional personnel position;
    3. Satisfied the requirements for the school leaders  licensure assessment specified by the Virginia Board of Education; and
    4. A current, valid out-of-state license, which is full  credential, with an endorsement in administration and supervision or completed  an approved program in administration and supervision from a regionally  accredited college or university leading to an endorsement as a building-level  administrator.
    F. Level II: Principal of Distinction endorsement in  administration and supervision preK-12. A building-level administrator may seek  the Principal of Distinction, Level II endorsement in administration and  supervision preK-12 after successfully serving as a building-level administrator  for at least five years in a public school or an accredited nonpublic school  and successfully completing a formal induction program as a principal or  assistant principal. In order to earn the Principal of Distinction, Level II  endorsement, the candidate must meet two or more of the following criteria as  specified by the Virginia Board of Education and documented in a Virginia  Department of Education approved format and be recommended by the employing  Virginia school division superintendent:
    1. Evidence of improved student achievement;
    2. Evidence of effective instructional leadership;
    3. Evidence of positive effect on school climate or  culture;
    4. Earned doctorate in educational leadership or evidence  of formal professional development in the areas of school law, school finance,  supervision, human resource management, and instructional leadership; or
    5. Evidence of a completion of a high-quality professional  development project designed by the division superintendent.
    8VAC20-23-630. Division Superintendent License.
    An individual may be a candidate for the list of eligible  division superintendents and the renewable Division Superintendent License  through the completion of the requirements in one of the following four  options:
    1. Option I. The individual must:
    a. Hold an earned doctorate degree in educational  administration or educational leadership from a regionally accredited college  or university; and
    b. Have completed five years of educational experience in a  public or an accredited nonpublic school, two of which must be successful,  full-time teaching experience at the preK-12 level and two of which must be in  administration and supervision at the preK-12 level.
    2. Option II. The individual must:
    a. Hold an earned master's degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and completed 30 graduate semester hours  beyond the conferral date of the master's degree; and
    b. Have completed requirements for administration and  supervision preK-12 endorsement that includes the demonstration of competencies  in the following areas:
    (1) Knowledge, understanding, and application of planning,  assessment, and instructional leadership that builds collective professional  capacity, including;
    (a) Principles of student motivation, growth, and  development as a foundation for age- appropriate and grade-appropriate  curriculum, instruction, and assessment;
    (b) Collaborative leadership in gathering and analyzing  data to identify needs to develop and implement a school improvement plan that  results in increased student learning;
    (c) Planning, implementation, and refinement of  standards-based curriculum aligned with instruction and assessment;
    (d) Collaborative planning and implementation of a variety  of assessment techniques, including examination of student work that yields  individual, class, grade level, and school level data as a foundation for  identifying existing competencies and targeting areas in need of further  attention;
    (e) Incorporation of differentiated and effective  instruction that responds to individual learner needs including appropriate  response to cultural, ethnic, and linguistic diversity;
    (f) Knowledge, understanding, and application of the  federal and state regulatory requirements and expectations associated with  identification, education, and evaluation of students with disabilities;
    (g) Collaboratively working with parents and school  personnel to ensure that students with disabilities are included as a valued  part of the school community, and that they receive effective and appropriately  intensive instruction to assist them in meeting the standards set for all  students as well as individual goals outlined in their individualized education  programs;
    (h) Integration of technology in curriculum and instruction  to enhance learner understanding;
    (i) Identification, analysis, and resolution of problems  using effective problem-solving techniques; and
    (j) Development, articulation, implementation, and  stewardship of a vision of excellence linked to mission and core beliefs that  promote continuous improvement consistent with the goals of the school  division.
    (2) Knowledge, understanding, and application of leadership  and organizations, including;
    (a) The change process of systems, organizations, and  individuals, using appropriate and effective adult learning models;
    (b) Aligning organizational practice, division mission, and  core beliefs for developing and implementing strategic plans;
    (c) Information sources and processing, including data  collection and data analysis strategies;
    (d) Using data as a part of ongoing program evaluation to  inform and lead change;
    (e) Developing a change management strategy for improved  student outcomes;
    (f) Developing distributed leadership strategies to create  personalized learning environments for diverse schools; and
    (g) Effective two-way communication skills including  consensus building, negotiation, and mediation skills.
    (3) Knowledge, understanding, and application of management  and leadership skills that achieve effective and efficient organizational  operations and sustain an instructional program conducive to student academic  progress, including;
    (a) Alignment of curriculum and instruction and assessment  of the educational program to achieve high academic success at the school and  division or district level;
    (b) Principles and issues of supervising and leading others  to ensure a working and learning climate that is safe, secure, and respectful  of a diverse school community;
    (c) Management decisions that ensure successful teaching  and learning including, human resources management and development, theories of  motivation, change in school culture, innovation and creativity, conflict  resolution, adult learning, and professional development models;
    (d) Knowledge, understanding, and application of Virginia's  Guidelines for Uniform Performance Standards and Evaluation Criteria for  Teachers and Virginia's Guidelines for Uniform Performance Standards and  Evaluation Criteria for Principals; 
    (e) Principles and issues related to fiscal operations of  school management;
    (f) Principles and issues related to school facilities and  use of space and time for supporting high-quality school instruction and  student learning;
    (g) Legal issues impacting school operations and  management;
    (h) Technologies that support management functions; and
    (i) Application of data-driven decision making to initiate  and continue improvement in school and classroom practices and student  achievement.
    (4) Knowledge, understanding, and application of the  conditions and dynamics impacting a diverse school community, including:
    (a) Emerging issues and trends within school and community  relations;
    (b) Working collaboratively with staff, families, and  community members to secure resources and to support the success of a diverse  population;
    (c) Developing appropriate public relations and public  engagement strategies and processes for building and sustaining positive  relationships with families, caregivers, and community partners; and
    (d) Integration of technology to support communication  efforts.
    (5) Knowledge, understanding, and application of the  purpose of education and the role of professionalism in advancing educational  goals, including:
    (a) Philosophy of education that reflects commitment to  principles of honesty, fairness, caring, and equity in day-to-day professional  behavior;
    (b) Integration of high-quality, content-rich, job-embedded  professional learning that respects the contribution of all faculty and staff  members in building a diverse professional learning community;
    (c) Reflective understanding of moral and legal consequences  of decision making in the school setting;
    (d) Intentional and purposeful effort to model  professional, moral, and ethical standards as well as personal integrity in all  interactions; and
    (e) Intentional and purposeful effort to model continuous professional  learning and to work collegially and collaboratively with all members of the  school community to support the school's goals and enhance its collective  capacity.
    (6) Knowledge, understanding, and application of leadership  theories and influences that impact schools, including:
    (a) Concepts of leadership including systems theory, change  theory, learning organizations, and current leadership theory;
    (b) Identify and respond to internal and external forces  and influences on a school;
    (c) Identify and apply the processes of educational policy  development at the state, local, and school level; and 
    (d) Identify and demonstrate ways to influence educational  policy development at the state, local, and school level.
    3. Option III. The  individual must:
    a. Hold an earned master's degree from a regionally  accredited college or university; 
    b. Hold a current, valid out-of-state license with an  endorsement as a division or district superintendent; and
    c. Have completed five years of educational experience in a  public or an accredited nonpublic school, two of which must be successful,  full-time teaching experience at the preK-12 level and two of which must be in  successful administration and supervision.
    4. Option IV. The individual must:
    a. Hold an earned master's degree or its equivalent from a  regionally accredited college or university;
    b. Have held a senior leadership position such as chief  executive officer or senior military officer; and
    c. Be recommended by a school board interested in employing  the individual as superintendent.
    8VAC20-23-640. Mathematics specialist for elementary  education.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and an endorsement in a teaching area;
    2. Completed at least three years of successful, full-time  teaching experience in a public or accredited nonpublic school in which the  teaching of mathematics was an important responsibility; and
    3. Either: 
    a. Graduated from an approved mathematics specialist for  elementary preparation program - master's level; or 
    b. Completed a master's level program in mathematics,  mathematics education, or related education field with at least 21 semester  hours undergraduate or graduate mathematics coursework distributed in the  following areas: (i) number and operations; (ii) rational numbers; (iii)  geometry and measurement; (iv) probability and statistics; (v) algebra and  functions; and (vi) at least nine semester hours of graduate coursework  pertaining to mathematics education in mathematics instructional leadership,  evaluation of mathematics curriculum and instruction, mathematical learning  theory, and student assessment for mathematics.
    8VAC20-23-650. Mathematics specialist for middle education.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university and an endorsement in a teaching area;
    2. Completed at least three years of successful, full-time  teaching experience in a public or accredited nonpublic school in which the  teaching of mathematics was an important responsibility;
    3. Hold the secondary mathematics teaching endorsement  (6-12); and
    4. Either:
    a. Graduated from an approved mathematics specialist for  middle education preparation program - master's level; or 
    b. Completed a master's level program in mathematics,  mathematics education, or related education field with at least 21 semester  hours of undergraduate or graduate mathematics coursework distributed in the  following areas; (i) number and operations; (ii) rational numbers; (iii)  geometry and measurement; (iv) probability and statistics; (v) algebra and  functions; and (vi) at least nine semester hours of graduate coursework  pertaining to mathematics education in mathematics instructional leadership,  evaluation of mathematics curriculum and instruction, mathematical learning  theory, and student assessment for mathematics.
    8VAC20-23-660. Reading specialist.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Completed a graduate-level reading specialist  state-approved preparation program - master's degree required - that includes  course experiences of at least 30 semester hours of graduate coursework in the  competencies for the endorsement, as well as a practicum experience in the  diagnosis and remediation of reading difficulties.
    2. Satisfied the requirements for the reading specialist  assessment specified by the Virginia Board of Education.
    3. At least three years of successful classroom teaching  experience in which the teaching of reading was an important responsibility.
    8VAC20-23-670. School counselor preK-12.
    Endorsement requirements. 
    1. Option I. The candidate must have:
    a. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university and completed an approved school counselor preparation  program that shall include at least 100 clock hours of internship and practicum  experiences in the preK-6 setting and 100 clock hours of internship and  practicum experiences in the grades 7-12 setting; and
    b. Two years of successful, full-time teaching experience  or two years of successful, full-time experience in school counseling in a  public or an accredited nonpublic school. Two years of successful, full-time  experience in school counseling in a public or an accredited nonpublic school  under a Provisional License may be accepted to meet this requirement.
    2. Option II. The candidate  must have:
    a. Earned a master's degree from a regionally accredited  college or university and completed an approved school counselor preparation  program that shall include at least 100 clock hours of internship and practicum  experiences in the preK-6 setting and 100 clock hours of internship and  practicum experiences in the grades 7-12 setting; and
    b. Two years of successful, full-time teaching experience  or two years of successful, full-time experience in school counseling in a  public or an accredited nonpublic school. Two years of successful, full-time  experience in school counseling in a public or an accredited nonpublic school  under a nonrenewable Provisional License may be accepted to meet this  requirement.
    8VAC20-23-680. School manager license.
    A. The school manager license is intended to provide for  the differentiation of administrative responsibilities in a school setting. A  school manager is licensed to administer noninstructional responsibilities in  an educational setting. For example, a school manager is restricted from  evaluating teachers, supervising instruction, developing and evaluating  curriculum, and serving as a school's student disciplinarian.
    B. To earn a school manager license, the candidate must:
    1. Have earned a baccalaureate degree from a regionally  accredited college or university;
    2. Have three years successful, full-time managerial  experience; and
    3. Be recommended for the license by a Virginia school  division superintendent.
    8VAC20-23-690. School psychology.
    Endorsement requirements:
    1. Option I. The candidate must:
    a. Complete an approved program in school psychology;
    b. Earn a baccalaureate degree from a regionally accredited  college or university and complete 60 graduate-level hours, 54 of which are  academic coursework, exclusive of field-based experiences, that culminate in at  least a master's degree; and
    c. Complete an internship that is documented by the  degree-granting institution. The internship experience shall occur on a  full-time basis over a period of one year or on a half-time basis over a period  of two consecutive years. The internship shall occur under conditions of  appropriate supervision, that is, the school-based supervisor shall be licensed  as either a school or clinical psychologist. The internship shall include  experiences at multiple age levels, at least one half of which shall be in an  accredited school setting.
    2. Option II. The candidate must hold a currently valid  certificate issued by the National School Psychology Certification Board.
    8VAC20-23-700. School social worker.
    Endorsement requirements. The candidate must have:
    1. Earned a master's of social work degree from a  regionally accredited college or university school of social work with a  minimum of 60 graduate-level semester hours;
    2. A minimum of six graduate semester hours in education to  include six semester hours from two of the following courses:
    a. The teaching profession (3 semester hours);
    b. Characteristics of special education (3 semester hours);
    c. Human development and learning (3 semester hours); or
    d. Classroom and behavior management (3 semester hours).
    3. Completed a supervised practicum or field experience of  a minimum of 400 clock hours in a public or an accredited nonpublic school  discharging the duties of a school social worker. One year of successful,  full-time experience as a school social worker in a public or an accredited  nonpublic school may be accepted in lieu of the school social work practicum.
    8VAC20-23-710. Vocational evaluator.
    Endorsement requirements:
    1. Option I. The candidate must be certified as a  vocational evaluation specialist by holding a professional vocational evaluator  (PVE) credential or a certified vocational evaluator (CVE) specialist  credential, meeting all standards and criteria of the Commission on  Certification of Work Adjustment and Vocational Evaluation Specialists  (CCWAVES).
    2. Option II. The candidate must have earned a master's  degree in vocational evaluation, career and technical education, special  education, or rehabilitation counseling and completed 15 graduate semester  hours distributed in the following areas:
    a. Tests and measurements: 3 semester hours;
    b. Medical and educational aspects of disability: 3  semester hours;
    c. Occupational information and job analysis: 3 semester  hours;
    d. Purposes and practices of vocational evaluation: 3  semester hours; and
    e. Career, life planning, and transition services: 3  semester hours.
    Part VII 
  Revocation, Cancellation, Suspension, Denial, and Reinstatement of Teaching  Licenses
    8VAC20-23-720. Revocation.
    A. A license issued by the Virginia Board of Education may  be revoked for the following reasons:
    1. Obtaining or attempting to obtain such license by  fraudulent means or through misrepresentation of material facts;
    2. Falsification of school records, documents, statistics,  or reports;
    3. Conviction of any felony;
    4. Conviction of any misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;
    5. Conviction of any misdemeanor involving a minor child or  drugs, not including alcohol;
    6. Conduct with direct and detrimental effect on the  health, welfare, discipline, or morale of students;
    7. Misapplication of or failure to account for school funds  or other school properties with which the licensee has been entrusted;
    8. Acts related to secure mandatory tests as specified in  subsection A of § 22.1-292.1 of the Code of Virginia;
    9. Knowingly and willfully with the intent to compromise  the outcome of an athletic competition procure, sell, or administer anabolic  steroids or cause such drugs to be procured, sold, or administered to a student  who is a member of a school athletic team, or fail to report the use of such  drugs by a student to the school principal and division superintendent as  required by clause (iii) of subsection A of § 22.1-279.3:1 of the Code of  Virginia. Any person whose license is suspended or revoked by the board  pursuant to this section shall be ineligible for three school years for  employment in the public schools of the Commonwealth; 
    10. Revocation, suspension, surrender, cancellation,  invalidation, or denial of, or other adverse action against, a teaching,  administrator, pupil personnel services, or other education-related certificate  or license by another state, territory, or country;
    11. Founded case of child abuse or neglect after all appeal  rights have been exhausted;
    12. Notification of dismissal or resignation pursuant to  subsection F of § 22.1-313 of the Code of Virginia; or
    13. Other good and just cause in the best interest of the  public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia. 
    B. Procedures.
    1. A complaint may be filed by anyone, but it shall be the  duty of a division superintendent, principal, or other responsible school  employee to file a complaint in any case in which he has knowledge that a  holder of a license is guilty of any offense set forth in subsection A of this  section. The person making the complaint shall submit the complaint in writing  to the appropriate division superintendent.
    2. Upon receipt of the complaint against the holder of a  license, a division superintendent or his duly authorized representative shall  investigate the complaint. If, on the basis of such investigation, the division  superintendent finds the complaint to be without merit, he shall so notify the  complaining party or parties in writing and then close his file on the matter.  This action shall be final unless the local school board, on its own motion,  votes to proceed to a hearing on the complaint. 
    C. Petition for revocation. Should the division  superintendent or local school board conclude that there is reasonable cause to  believe that a complaint against the holder of a license is well founded, the  license holder shall be notified of the complaint by a written petition for  revocation of a license signed by the division superintendent. A copy of such  petition shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the  license holder's last known address.
    D. Form of petition. The petition for the revocation of a  license shall set forth:
    1. The name and last known address of the person against  whom the petition is being filed;
    2. The type of license and the license number held by the  person against whom the petition is being filed;
    3. The offenses alleged and the specific actions that  comprise the alleged offenses;
    4. A statement of rights of the person charged under this  chapter. The statement of rights shall include notification to the person of  the right to cancel the license if he chooses not to contest the allegations in  the petition. The statement must notify the individual that he shall receive a  notice of cancellation that will include the statement: "The license  holder voluntarily returned the license in response to a petition for  revocation." The individual also shall be notified that the cancellation  of the license will be reported to division superintendents in Virginia and to  chief state school officers of the other states and territories of the United States;  and
    5. Any other pertinent information.
    E. Filing of petition. The original petition shall be  entered in the files of the local school board where the license holder is or  was last employed.
    F. Response to petition. The license holder shall present  his written answer to the petition, if any, within 14 days of delivery or  attempted delivery of the petition as certified by the United States Postal  Service.
    1. If the license holder does not wish to contest the  allegations in the petition, he may cancel the license by returning the license  to the division superintendent with a written, signed statement requesting  cancellation in response to a petition for revocation. The division  superintendent shall forward the request for cancellation along with the petition  for revocation to the Superintendent of Public Instruction within 14 days of  receipt. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall cancel the license and  send a notice of cancellation to the person by certified mail within 14 days of  receipt of the request for cancellation.
    2. If the license holder files a written answer admitting  or denying the allegations in the petition or fails to file a written answer  within 14 days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition as certified  by the United States Postal Service, the local school board shall promptly  proceed to a hearing. The local school board shall provide a hearing at the  time and place of its regular meeting or at such other reasonable time and  place it may specify. The license holder or his representative, if any, shall  be given at least 14 days' notice of the hearing.
    3. At the hearing, the local school board shall receive the  recommendation of the division superintendent and then either deny the petition  or recommend license revocation or suspension. A decision to deny the petition  shall be final, except as specified in subsection G of this section, and the  investigative file on the petition shall be closed and maintained as a separate  file. Any record or material relating to the allegations in the petition shall  be placed in the investigative file. Should the local school board recommend  the revocation or suspension of a license, the division superintendent shall  forward the recommendation and the investigative file to the Superintendent of  Public Instruction within 14 days.
    G. Revocation on motion of the Virginia Board of  Education. The Virginia Board of Education reserves the right to act directly  to revoke a license when the Virginia Board of Education has reasonable cause  to believe that subsection A of this section is applicable. The Superintendent  of Public Instruction may send a petition for revocation to the license holder  as provided by subsection D of this section. The license holder shall have the  opportunity to respond to the petition or request cancellation of the license  within 14 days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition, as certified  by the United States Postal Service. 
    1. If the license holder files a written answer admitting  the allegations in the petition or fails to file a written answer within 14  days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition as certified by the  United States Postal Service, the petition shall be forwarded to the Virginia  Board of Education for action. No revocation will be ordered without the  involved license holder being given the opportunity to appear at a hearing  specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    2. If the license holder timely files his written answer  denying the allegations in the petition, the Superintendent of Public  Instruction shall schedule a hearing with the investigative panel provided in  8VAC20-23-780 A. The license holder or his representative, if any, shall be  given at least 14 days' notice of the hearing. The investigative panel shall  take action on the petition as specified in 8VAC20-23-780 A. No revocation will  be ordered without the involved license holder being given the opportunity to  appear at a hearing specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    H. Reinstatement of license. A license that has been  revoked may be reinstated by the Virginia Board of Education after five years  if the board is satisfied that reinstatement is in the best interest of the  public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia. The individual seeking  reinstatement must submit a written request and completed application to the  board. The request for reinstatement will be reviewed by the Superintendent of  Public Instruction's investigative panel pursuant to 8VAC20-23-780.  Notification to all appropriate parties will be communicated in writing by the  Virginia Department of Education.
    8VAC20-23-730. Cancellation.
    A. A license may be canceled by the voluntary return of  the license by the license holder. Reasons for cancellation are the same as  those listed under 8VAC20-23-720 A.
    B. The individual may voluntarily return the license to  the division superintendent or the Superintendent of Public Instruction with a  written, signed statement requesting cancellation. The individual shall  acknowledge in the request that he understands that the notice of cancellation  will include the statement: "The license holder voluntarily returned his  teaching license and requested cancellation. Reasons for cancellation are the  same as those for revocation." However, if the request for cancellation is  in response to a petition for revocation, the individual shall acknowledge that  he understands that the notice of cancellation will include the statement:  "The license holder voluntarily returned the license in response to a  petition for revocation." The individual also shall acknowledge that he understands  that the cancellation of the license will be reported to division  superintendents in Virginia and to chief state school officers of the other  states and territories of the United States. The division superintendent shall  forward any request for cancellation and, if applicable, the petition for  revocation to the Superintendent of Public Instruction within 14 days of  receipt. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall cancel the license and  send the person a notice of cancellation by certified mail within 14 days of  receipt of the request for cancellation. 
    C. A license that has been canceled may be reinstated by  the Virginia Board of Education if the board is satisfied that reinstatement is  in the best interest of the public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia. The  individual seeking reinstatement must submit a written request and completed  application to the board. The request for reinstatement will be reviewed by the  Superintendent of Public Instruction's investigative panel pursuant to 8VAC20-23-780  A. Notification to all appropriate parties will be communicated in writing by  the Virginia Department of Education.
    8VAC20-23-740. Suspension.
    A. A license may be suspended for the following reasons:
    1. Physical, mental, or emotional incapacity as shown by a  competent medical authority;
    2. Incompetence or neglect of duty;
    3. Failure or refusal to comply with school laws and  regulations, including willful violation of contractual obligations;
    4. Acts related to secure mandatory tests as specified in  subsection A of § 22.1-292.1 of the Code of Virginia;
    5. Knowingly and willfully with the intent to compromise  the outcome of an athletic competition procure, sell, or administer anabolic  steroids or cause such drugs to be procured, sold, or administered to a student  who is a member of a school athletic team, or fail to report the use of such  drugs by a student to the school principal and division superintendent as  required by clause (iii) of subsection A of § 22.1-279.3:1 of the Code of  Virginia. Any person whose license is suspended or revoked by the board  pursuant to this section shall be ineligible for three school years for  employment in the public schools of the Commonwealth; or
    6. Other good and just cause in the best interest of the  public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    B. Procedures.
    1. A complaint may be filed by anyone, but it shall be the  duty of a division superintendent, principal, or other responsible school  employee to file a complaint in any case in which he has knowledge that the  license holder has committed any offense set forth in subsection A of this  section. The person making the complaint shall submit the complaint in writing  to the appropriate division superintendent.
    2. Upon receipt of the complaint against the holder of a  license, a division superintendent or his duly authorized representative shall  investigate the complaint. If, on the basis of such investigation, the division  superintendent finds the complaint to be without merit, he shall so notify the  complaining party or parties in writing and then close his file on the matter.  This action shall be final unless the local school board on its own motion  votes to proceed to a hearing on the complaint. 
    C. Petition for suspension. Should the division  superintendent or local school board conclude that there is reasonable cause to  believe that a complaint against the holder of a license is well founded, the  license holder shall be notified of the complaint by a written petition for  suspension of a license signed by the division superintendent. A copy of such  petition shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the  license holder's last known address.
    D. Form of petition. The petition for the suspension of a  license shall set forth:
    1. The name and last known address of the person against  whom the petition is being filed;
    2. The type of license and the license number held by the  person against whom the petition is being filed;
    3. The offenses alleged and the specific actions that  comprise the alleged offenses;
    4. A statement of the rights of the person against whom the  petition is being filed. The statement of rights shall notify the person of the  right to cancel the license if he chooses not to contest the allegations in the  petition. The statement also shall notify the individual that the license may  be suspended for up to five years and that he shall receive a notice of  cancellation that will include the statement: "The license holder  voluntarily returned the license in response to a petition for suspension."  The individual also shall be notified that the cancellation and period of  suspension will be reported to division superintendents in Virginia and to  chief state school officers of the other states and territories of the United  States; and 
    5. Any other pertinent information.
    E. Filing of petition. The original petition shall be  entered in the files of the local school board where the license holder is or  was last employed.
    F. Response to petition. The license holder shall present  his written answer to the petition, if any, within 14 days of delivery or  attempted delivery of the petition, as certified by the United States Postal  Service.
    1. If the license holder does not wish to contest the  allegations in the petition, he may cancel the license by returning the license  to the division superintendent with a written and signed statement requesting  cancellation. The division superintendent shall forward the request for  cancellation along with the petition for suspension to the Superintendent of  Public Instruction within 14 days of receipt. The Superintendent of Public  Instruction shall cancel the license and send the person a notice of  cancellation by certified mail within 14 days of receipt of the request for  cancellation. 
    2. If the license holder files a written answer admitting  or denying the allegations in the petition or fails to file a written answer  within 14 days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition as certified  by the United States Postal Service, the local school board shall promptly proceed  to a hearing. The local school board shall provide a hearing at the time and  place of its regular meeting or at such other reasonable time and place it may  specify. The license holder or his representative, if any, shall be given at  least 14 days' notice of the hearing.
    3. At its hearing, the local school board shall receive the  recommendation of the division superintendent and then either deny the petition  or recommend suspension. A decision to deny the petition shall be final, except  as specified in subsection G of this section, and the investigative file on the  petition shall be closed and maintained as a separate file. Any record or  material relating to the allegations in the petition shall be placed in the  investigative file. Should the local school board recommend the suspension of a  license, the division superintendent shall forward the recommendation and the  investigative file to the Superintendent of Public Instruction within 14 days.
    G. Suspension on motion of the Virginia Board of  Education. The Virginia Board of Education reserves the right to act directly  to suspend a license when the Virginia Board of Education has reasonable cause  to believe that subsection A of this section is applicable. The Superintendent  of Public Instruction may send a petition for suspension to the license holder  as specified in subsection D of this section. The license holder shall have the  opportunity to respond to the petition or request cancellation of the license  within 14 days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition, as certified  by the United States Postal Service.
    1. If the license holder files a written answer admitting  the allegations in the petition or fails to file a written answer within 14  days of delivery or attempted delivery of the petition as certified by the  United States Postal Service, the petition shall be forwarded to the Virginia  Board of Education for action. No suspension will be ordered without the  involved license holder being given the opportunity to appear at a hearing  specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    2. If the license holder timely files his written answer  denying the allegations in the petition, the Superintendent of Public  Instruction shall schedule a hearing with the investigative panel provided in  8VAC20-23-780 A. The license holder or his representative, if any, shall be  given at least 14 days' notice of the hearing. The investigative panel shall  take action on the petition as specified in 8VAC20-23-780 A. No suspension will  be ordered without the involved license holder being given the opportunity to  appear at a hearing specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    H. Reinstatement of license. A license may be suspended  for a period of time not to exceed five years. The license may be reinstated by  the Superintendent of Public Instruction, upon written request and application,  with verification that all requirements for license renewal have been  satisfied. Notification to all appropriate parties will be communicated in  writing by the Virginia Department of Education. 
    8VAC20-23-750. Denial.
    A license may be denied for  the following reasons:
    1. Attempting to obtain such  license by fraudulent means or through misrepresentation of material facts;
    2. Falsification of records or documents;
    3. Conviction of any felony;
    4. Conviction of any misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;
    5. Conviction of any misdemeanor involving a minor child or  drugs, not including alcohol;
    6. Conduct with a direct and detrimental effect on the  health, welfare, discipline, or morale of students;
    7. Revocation, suspension, surrender, cancellation,  invalidation, or denial of, or other adverse action against, a teaching,  administrator, pupil personnel services, or other education-related certificate  or license by another state, territory, or country; 
    8. Founded case of child abuse or neglect, after all appeal  rights have been exhausted; or
    9. Other good and just cause in the best interest of the  public schools of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    8VAC20-23-760. Expired licenses.
    A. The holder of a license that has expired must apply for  a license according to the procedures set forth in 8VAC20-23-40 or  8VAC20-23-110. Such application may be denied renewal by the Superintendent of  Public Instruction for any of the reasons specified in 8VAC20-23-750. No such  denial will be ordered unless the license holder is given the opportunity for  the hearing specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C.
    B. A license issued by the Virginia Board of Education may  be revoked or suspended for any of the reasons listed in 8VAC20-23-720 A or  8VAC20-23-740 A, even if the license is expired, as long as the basis for  action occurred prior to the issuance of the license or while the license was  active. 
    8VAC20-23-770. Right to counsel and transcript.
    A license holder or applicant shall have the right, at his  own expense, to be represented by an attorney or other representative at (i)  any local school board hearing provided for in 8VAC20-23-720 F 2 or  8VAC20-23-740 F 2, (ii) investigative panel hearing provided for in  8VAC20-23-780 A, or (iii) proceedings before the Virginia Board of Education as  specified in 8VAC20-23-780 C. The hearing before the local school board provided  for in 8VAC20-23-720 F 2 or 8VAC20-23-740 F 2 and the investigative panel  hearing provided for in 8VAC20-23-780 A shall be recorded, and upon written  request the license holder or applicant shall be provided a transcript of the  hearing at his own expense. Any such hearing before the Virginia Board of  Education shall be recorded, and upon written request the license holder or  applicant shall be provided a transcript of the hearing at no charge.
    8VAC20-23-780. Action by the Superintendent of Public Instruction  and the Virginia Board of Education.
    A. Upon receipt of a petition, the Superintendent of  Public Instruction will ensure that an investigative panel at the state level  reviews the petition. The panel shall consist of three to five members selected  by the Superintendent of Public Instruction. The applicant or license holder  shall be given at least 14 days' notice of the date, time, and location of the  investigative panel hearing when his case will be considered. The Virginia  Department of Education shall ensure that the applicant or license holder  receives all documentation that will be used during the investigative panel  hearing prior to the hearing. Representatives of the local school division and  the applicant or license holder are entitled to be present with counsel and  witnesses if so desired. The investigative panel hearing shall be recorded. The  recommendation of the investigative panel is made to the Superintendent of  Public Instruction who will forward his recommendation and the documentation  used during the investigative panel hearing to the Virginia Board of Education  or its duly designated committee at one of its scheduled meetings. The  applicant or license holder shall be given at least 14 days' notice of the  Virginia Board of Education meeting when his case will be considered. Following  the investigative panel hearing, the Virginia Department of Education shall  forward the recommendation of the investigative panel to the applicant or  license holder as soon as practicable, but no later than 14 days prior to the  scheduled Virginia Board of Education meeting when his case will be considered.  
    B. The Superintendent of Public Instruction is authorized  to approve the issuance of licenses for individuals who have a misdemeanor  convictions related to drugs, not including alcohol, based on a review of the  cases. No individual would be denied a license without a hearing of the  Virginia Board of Education as required in this section.
    C. The Virginia Board of Education, or its duly designated  committee, shall consider the recommendation of the Superintendent of Public  Instruction and such relevant and material evidence as the applicant or license  holder may desire to present at the hearing. At its discretion, the Virginia  Board of Education may ask the applicant or license holder questions. At the  conclusion of the hearing, the Virginia Board of Education will announce its  decision. 
    D. The decision of the Virginia Board of Education shall  be recorded in the minutes of the meeting, and the applicant or license holder  and principal complainants will receive written notice of the decision. 
    8VAC20-23-790. Right of applicant or license holder to  appear at hearing.
    An applicant or a license holder shall have the right to  appear in person at the hearings held by the local school board, Virginia Board  of Education, or board committee described in this part unless he is confined  to jail or a penal institution.  The local school board or Virginia Board  of Education, at its discretion, may continue such hearings for a reasonable  time if the applicant or license holder is prevented from appearing in person  for reasons such as documented medical or mental impairment.
    8VAC20-23-800. Notification.
    Notification of the revocation, suspension, cancellation,  denial, or reinstatement of a license shall be made by the Superintendent of  Public Instruction, or his designee, to division superintendents in Virginia  and to chief state school officers of the other states and territories of the  United States.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3476; Filed August 10, 2015, 10:40 a.m. 
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE COUNCIL OF HIGHER EDUCATION FOR VIRGINIA
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The State  Council of Higher Education for Virginia is claiming an exemption from the  Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4002 B 4 of the  Code of Virginia, which exempts regulations relating to grants of state or  federal funds or property.
         Title of Regulation: 8VAC40-40. College Scholarship  Assistance Program Regulations (repealing 8VAC40-40-10 through  8VAC40-40-130). 
    Statutory Authority: § 23-38.47 (Repealed) of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: September 7, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Lee Ann Rung, Manager, Executive and  Council Affairs, State Council of Higher Education for Virginia, James Monroe  Building, 101 North 14th Street, 9th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)  225-2602, FAX (804) 371-7911, or email leeannrung@schev.edu.
    Summary:
    This action repeals the College Scholarship Assistance  Program Regulations as unnecessary due to the repeal of  the statutory  authority for the program by Chapter 484 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4478; Filed August 6, 2015, 4:28 p.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD
Forms
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency.  The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the  Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name to access a form. The  forms are also available through the agency contact or at the Office of the  Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond,  Virginia 23219.
         Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-90. Solid Waste  Management Permit Action Fees and Annual Fees.
    Agency Contact: Melissa Porterfield, Department of  Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,  telephone (804) 698-4238, or email melissa.porterfield@deq.virginia.gov.
    FORMS (9VAC20-90)
    Solid Waste Information and Assessment Program -  Reporting Table, Form DEQ 50-25 with Statement of Economic Benefits Form and  Instructions (rev. 11/14) 11/2014)
    Solid Waste Annual Permit Fee Quarter Payment Form, PF001  (rev. 7/14)
    Solid  Waste Annual Permit Fee Quarter Payment Form PF001 (rev. 7/2015)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4491; Filed August 19, 2015, 10:54 a.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Forms
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE:  Forms used in administering the following regulation have been filed by the  State Water Control Board. The forms are not being published; however, online  users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the  name of a new or amended form to access it. The forms are also available from  the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of  Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219. 
         Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-610. Groundwater  Withdrawal Regulations.
    Agency Contact: Debra Harris, Policy and Planning  Specialist, Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street,  Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 698-4209, email debra.harris@deq.virginia.gov.
    FORMS (9VAC25-610) 
    Department of Environmental Quality Water Division  Permit Application Fee Form (rev. 10/14)
    Application Instructions for Completing a  Groundwater Withdrawal Permit Application (rev. 11/13)
    Application for a Groundwater Withdrawal Permit  (rev. 9/12)
    Groundwater Withdrawal Permit - Change of  Ownership Agreement Form (rev. 11/13) 
    Uncontested Termination Agreement (rev. 11/13) 
    Water Well Completion Report, Form GW2 (eff. 7/07)
    Uniform  Water Well Completion Report, Form GW-2 (rev. 7/15)
    Public Notice Authorization Form - Authorization  for Public Notice Billing to Groundwater Withdrawal Permit Applicant (rev.  11/13) 
    Preapplication Meeting - Application for a  Groundwater Withdrawal Permit (rev. 9/12)
    Local and Areawide Planning Requirements (rev.  9/12)
    Quarterly Groundwater Withdrawal Report (rev.  11/13) 
    Mitigation Plan (rev. 11/13) 
    Existing Users Groundwater Withdrawal Permit  Application and Instructions (eff. 2/14)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4489; Filed August 12, 2015, 9:36 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration,  and Scope of Medical and Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-35, 12VAC30-50-75). 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of  Virginia; 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: October 7, 2015.
    Effective Date: October 22, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,  Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad  Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)  786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia grants  to the Board of Medical Assistance Services the authority to administer and  amend the Plan for Medical Assistance. Section 32.1-324 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS)  to administer and amend the Plan for Medical Assistance according to the  board's requirements. The Medicaid authority as established by § 1902 (a)  of the Social Security Act (42 USC 1396a) provides governing authority for  payments for services.
    Purpose: This amendment to the state Medicaid  regulations eliminates redundant coverage of benzodiazepines and barbiturates  between Medicare and Medicaid. This amendment will not prevent full benefit  dual eligibles from receiving these drugs. With this change, full benefit dual  eligibles will obtain these two drugs from their Medicare Part D pharmacy  benefit provider, rather than through the Medicaid fee-for-service program. In  accordance with existing Medicaid policy, DMAS will continue to provide  coverage for all other Virginia Medicaid-covered drugs that are not covered  under Medicare Part D coverage.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: DMAS is  utilizing the fast-track rulemaking process because the agency does not  anticipate any objections to these changes. Full benefit dual eligibles will  continue to have the same access to all of the classes of drugs they previously  had under Medicaid. This change is anticipated by the provider community  because the expanded Medicare Part D drug coverage for benzodiazepines and  barbiturates, regardless of medical condition, will be a national change that  all Medicare Part D pharmacy benefit plans must implement. These plans are  required by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services to inform their  enrollees of these changes.
    Substance: The sections of the State Plan for Medical  Assistance that will be affected by this action are 12VAC30-50-35 (Requirements  relating to payment for covered outpatient drugs for the categorically needy)  and 12VAC30-50-75 (Requirements relating to payment for covered outpatient  drugs for the medically needy). Prior to the Medicare Improvement for Patients  and Providers Act of 2008 (MIPPA), federal law restricted coverage of these two  drugs under Medicare Part D, but they were available through Medicaid.  Effective January 1, 2014, benzodiazepines and barbiturates will be covered for  full benefit dual eligibles under Medicare Part D for all health conditions. 
    This change resulted from the passage of § 175 of MIPPA  and the Affordable Care Act of 2010. MIPPA amended § 1860D-2(e)(2)(A) of  the Social Security Act to remove the blanket exclusion of these two drugs from  Part D coverage. The Affordable Care Act amended § 1927(d)(2) of the  Social Security Act to require Medicare Part D coverage of benzodiazepines and  barbiturates for any health condition, effective January 1, 2014. 
    Because of this additional Part D drug coverage, DMAS no longer  needs to provide this class of drugs to full benefit dual eligible individuals.  Therefore, DMAS terminates coverage of benzodiazepines and barbiturates for  full benefit dual eligibles in order to eliminate redundant coverage of these  two drugs. 
    Issues: The primary advantage to the general public and  private citizens with this proposed regulatory amendment is the cost savings  associated with the implementation of this change. DMAS will no longer need to  provide benzodiazepines and barbiturates. With the implementation of this  change, the cost of these drugs will be borne by the Medicare Part D plan of  the enrollee, not by the Virginia Medicaid program. There are no disadvantages  to the general public or private citizens. 
    The primary advantage to the agency and the Commonwealth is the  transfer of coverage for barbiturates and benzodiazepines to the federally  funded Medicare Part D plans, which will save money for the Commonwealth. 
    Medicaid enrolled pharmacies that provide coverage to full  benefit dual eligibles also participate in the Medicare Part D plans that will  be providing this additional coverage. It is anticipated that the transition to  a different payor for these classes of drugs from the Virginia Medicaid program  to Medicare Part D plans should cause no disruption in coverage. There are no  perceived disadvantages to the Commonwealth for this proposed regulatory  change.
    Department of Planning and  Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to  changes in federal law, the proposed regulations eliminate Medicaid coverage of  benzodiazepines and barbiturates as of January 1, 2014, for recipients who will  be eligible to receive these drugs under their Medicare coverage.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Prior to the Medicare Improvement  for Patients and Providers Act of 2008 (MIPPA), federal law restricted coverage  of these two drugs under Medicare Part D, but they were available through  Medicaid.
    Effective January 1, 2014, benzodiazepines and barbiturates  will be covered for full benefit dual eligibles under Medicare Part D for all  health conditions. This change resulted from the passage of both Section 175 of  MIPPA and the Affordable Care Act of 2010. MIPPA amended section  1860D-2(e)(2)(A) of the Social Security Act to remove the blanket exclusion of  these two drugs from Part D coverage. The Affordable Care Act amended section  1927(d)(2) of the Social Security Act, to require Medicare Part D coverage of  benzodiazepines and barbiturates for any health condition, effective January 1,  2014.
    Because of this additional Part D drug coverage, Virginia  Medicaid no longer needs to provide this class of drugs to full benefit dual  eligible individuals. Thus, the proposed regulations terminate coverage of  benzodiazepines and barbiturates for approximately 109,000 full benefit dual  eligibles. With this change, full benefit dual eligibles will obtain these two  drugs from their Medicare Part D pharmacy benefit provider, rather than through  the Medicaid fee-for-service program.
    While changes in coverage of these drugs will take place  regardless of this regulatory action, the main economic impact of these changes  is the shift in the funding sources. Currently, these drugs are paid by  Virginia Medicaid which is funded jointly by state (50%) and by federal (50%)  governments. As of January 1, 2014, Medicare program which is funded l00% by  federal government will pay for these drugs. Thus, the Commonwealth will  realize some fiscal savings and there will be additional federal funds coming  into Virginia. Since additional federal funds coming into Virginia do not have  offsetting reductions elsewhere in the state, these funds represent a net  injection into Virginia's economy. These injections are likely to have positive  impacts on state gross domestic product, employment, and income.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. There are approximately  109,000 categorically and medically needy full benefit dual eligibles and  approximately 1,000 pharmacies participating in the Medicaid program currently.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulations  apply throughout the Commonwealth.
    Projected Impact on Employment. This change should have a  positive impact on employment in the Commonwealth as there will be some state  fiscal savings and inflow of additional federal funds in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These changes  are not anticipated to have a direct impact on the use and value of private  property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. These changes are  not anticipated to have costs or other adverse impacts on small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. These changes are not anticipated to have an adverse impact on small  businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. No effect on real estate  development costs is expected.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, a determination of the public benefit, the  projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would  apply, the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities  particularly affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions  to be affected, the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to  implement or comply with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of  private property. Further, if the proposed regulation has an adverse effect on  small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact  analyses include (i) an identification and estimate of the number of small  businesses subject to the regulation; (ii) the projected reporting,  recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to  comply with the regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary  for preparing required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the  probable effect of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a  description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of  achieving the purpose of the regulation. The analysis presented above  represents DPB's best estimate of these economic impacts.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of  Planning and Budget. The agency concurs with this analysis.
    Summary:
    The amendments eliminate redundant coverage of  benzodiazepines and barbiturates between Medicare and Medicaid. Individuals who  are eligible for both Medicare and Medicaid will obtain these medications under  Medicare Part D drug coverage. 
    12VAC30-50-35. Requirements relating to payment for covered  outpatient drugs for the categorically needy. 
    A. Effective January 1, 2006, the Medicaid agency will not  cover any Part D drug for full-benefit dual eligible individuals who are  entitled to receive Medicare benefits under Part A or Part B. 
    The Medicaid agency provides coverage for the following excluded  or otherwise restricted drugs or classes of drugs, or their medical uses to all  Medicaid recipients, including full benefit dual eligible beneficiaries under  the Medicare Prescription Drug Benefit-Part D. The following excluded drugs are  covered: 
    1. Agents when used for anorexia, weight loss, or  weight gain (see specific drug categories in subsection B of this section); 
    2. Agents when used for the symptomatic relief of cough  and colds (see specific drug categories in subsection B of this section); 
    3. Prescription vitamins and mineral products, except prenatal  vitamins and fluoride (see specific drug categories in subsection B of this  section); and
    4. Nonprescription drugs (see specific drug categories in  subsection B of this section);.
    5. Barbiturates, except for dual eligible individuals when  used in the treatment of epilepsy, cancer, or a chronic mental health disorder  (see specific drug categories in subsection B of this section); and 
    6. Benzodiazepines, except for dual eligible individuals as  Part D will provide coverage for all conditions (see specific drug categories  in subsection B of this section). 
    B. Coverage of specific categories of excluded drugs will be  in accordance with existing Medicaid policy as described in 12VAC30-50-520. 
    12VAC30-50-75. Requirements relating to payment for covered  outpatient drugs for the medically needy. 
    A. Effective January 1, 2006, the Medicaid agency will not  cover any Part D drug for full-benefit dual eligible individuals who are  entitled to receive Medicare benefits under Part A or Part B. 
    The Medicaid agency provides coverage for the following  excluded or otherwise restricted drugs or classes of drugs, or their medical  uses to all Medicaid recipients, including full benefit dual eligible  beneficiaries under the Medicare Prescription Drug Benefit Part D. The  following excluded drugs are covered: 
    1. Agents when used for anorexia, weight loss, or  weight gain (see specific drug categories in subsection B of this section); 
    2. Agents when used for the symptomatic relief of cough  and colds (see specific drug categories in subsection B of this section); 
    3. Prescription vitamins and mineral products, except prenatal  vitamins and fluoride (see specific drug categories in subsection B of this  section); and
    4. Nonprescription drugs (see specific drug categories in  subsection B of this section);.
    5. Barbiturates, except for dual eligible individuals when  used in the treatment of epilepsy, cancer, or a chronic mental health disorder  (see specific drug categories in subsection B of this section); and 
    6. Benzodiazepines, except for dual eligible individuals as  Part D will provide coverage for all conditions (see specific drug categories  in subsection B of this section). 
    B. Coverage of specific categories of excluded drugs will be  in accordance with existing Medicaid policy as described in 12VAC30-50-520. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-3797; Filed August 10, 2015, 8:20 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC30-100. State Programs (amending 12VAC30-100-260,  12VAC30-100-270, 12VAC30-100-320, 12VAC30-100-340). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-325 and 32.1-330.1 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: October 7, 2015.
    Effective Date: October 22, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory  Coordinator, Division of Policy and Research, Department of Medical Assistance  Services, 600 East Broad Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone  (804) 371-6043, FAX (804) 786-1680, or email victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia grants  the Board of Medical Assistance Services the authority to administer and amend  the Plan for Medical Assistance. Section 32.1-324 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS)  to administer and amend the Plan for Medical Assistance according to the  board's requirements. The Medicaid authority as established by § 1902(a) of the  Social Security Act (42 USC § 1396a) provides governing authority for payments  for services.
    DMAS provides financial assistance to individuals who have been  diagnosed as HIV positive to purchase group health insurance plan benefits  through their employers. This assistance is permitted under the authority of § 32.1-330.1 of the Code of Virginia and the HIV Health Care Services Program (42  USC § 300ff-21 et seq.).
    Purpose: The purpose of this regulatory change is to  amend the current HIV Premium Assistance Program regulations in three ways: (i)  refer to individual and spousal income, rather than family income, when  evaluating individuals for this program's eligibility; (ii) expand the list of  countable liquid assets that DMAS may evaluate during eligibility  determination; and (iii) provide for coverage of family members if the  participant's health insurance is the sole source of health insurance for the  family. 
    DMAS believes that the proposed amendments contribute to  preserving the health, safety, and welfare of the citizens of the Commonwealth.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: The fast-track rulemaking  process is being utilized to promulgate this change in regulatory language as  it is expected to be noncontroversial. Removing this nonemployment requirement  enables persons who are still able to work to remain in the workforce, which  benefits the general economy as well as these individuals' families.
    Substance: 12VAC30-100-260 - Currently, Medicaid  regulations require that an HIV Premium Assistance Program participant's family  income not exceed 250% of the federal poverty level. This program provides  assistance to qualifying individuals to purchase private health insurance,  which covers their medical care for their HIV diagnoses. In some instances,  program participants have been required to move into residences with their  adult children. This current regulatory wording requires DMAS to consider the  income of these employed adult children in determining if the parent can  receive premium assistance. DMAS believes it is not appropriate to consider the  income of adult children in determining eligibility for this program. It is  more cost effective for DMAS to provide premium assistance for these  individuals as compared to having these individuals become eligible for the  full range of Medicaid-covered services. DMAS recommends the modification of  the family income to include only that of the program participant and the  program participant's spouse.
    12VAC30-100-270 - Currently, this Medicaid regulation contains  a specific finite list of liquid assets that DMAS considers when evaluating an  individual's eligibility for the HIV Premium Assistance Program. If a  participant's financial circumstances change during this period of program  eligibility, DMAS needs to be able to consider all available liquid assets in  determining eligibility. The appropriated funds for this program are limited  and individuals who have sufficient assets to afford their care should not be  permitted to access these limited funds. Permitting DMAS to consider liquid  assets beyond the finite list will help ensure that funds are allocated  appropriately. Adding reference from § 6.2-1100 of the Code of Virginia that  lists liquid assets accomplishes this. 
    12VAC30-100-340 - Currently, this Medicaid regulation contains  all the requirements of § 32.1-330.1 of the Code of Virginia except for the  requirement to provide "Coverage of family members, if the HIV-infected  person's policy is the sole source of health insurance." Since family  coverage is already unofficially permitted in DMAS policy, this change will  create no practical difference in this program. The amendment adds the language  of § 32.1-330.1 to the regulation.
    Issues: These changes will not have any disadvantages to  the Commonwealth, public, or government officials. The advantage of changing  "family income" to the "participant and spouse income" is  to prevent potential applicants from being disqualified from the program due to  the income earned by their adult children. The advantage of broadening the list  of liquid assets that DMAS can consider in determining eligibility is to ensure  that benefits are provided to appropriate individuals. There is no advantage to  adding reference to coverage of family members as this merely adds current  policy to regulation.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The  Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) administers the Human  Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) Premium Assistance Program under the authority of  § 32.1-330.1 of the Code of Virginia. Participants in the HIV premium  assistance program must be unable to work or have a substantial likelihood of  being unable to work within three months of becoming eligible to receive the  assistance. In addition, a physician must certify this condition.
    DMAS is proposing to amend regulations for the HIV Premium  Assistance program in 3 areas: (1) to refer to individual/spousal income,  rather than family, when evaluating individuals for program eligibility; (2) to  expand the list of countable liquid assets that DMAS may evaluate during  eligibility determination; and (3) to include a provision for coverage of  family members if the participants' health insurance is the sole source of  health insurance for the family.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, DMAS counts family income  to determine if an individual can qualify for HIV premium assistance. The  agency proposes that only the individual's and spouse's income will be  considered when evaluating an individual for this assistance. Sometimes these  individuals have to move into their adult employed children's homes and under  the current regulations these children's incomes count in determining their  parent's eligibility.
    Countable liquid assets are now limited to the following: a)  savings accounts, b) checking accounts, c) money market certificates, d)  certificates of deposit, e) mutual funds, and f) stocks and bonds. DMAS  proposes to add "All other liquid assets as provided in § 6.2-1100 of the  Code of Virginia" to the list of countable liquid assets. Under this  portion of the Code of Virginia liquid assets are defined as:
    (i) cash on hand; (ii) cash on deposit in Federal Home Loan  Banks, Federal Reserve Banks, savings institutions, or in commercial banks that  is withdrawable upon not more than 30 days' notice and that is not pledged as  security for indebtedness; (iii) the liquid asset fund of the United States  League of Saving Institutions; (iv) obligations of, or obligations that are  fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States; or (v) any  other asset that the Commissioner designates as a liquid asset. Any deposits in  financial institutions under the control or in the possession of any  supervisory authority are not liquid assets.
    This is intended to more fully reflect all assets that an  individual may acquire in determining eligibility for HIV premium assistance. 
    When the section of this regulation on health insurance premium  payments was initially drafted, DMAS did not address coverage of family members  in cases in which the participant's policy was the sole source of health  insurance. The agency proposes to include a provision for coverage of family  members if the participants' health insurance is the sole source of health  insurance for the family.
    All of the funding for the HIV Premium Assistance Program is  spent each year. The funding is the limiting factor as toward how much is  spent, not the number of people who qualify. The proposed amendments will just  change who receives how much. In that sense, the proposed amendments may be  considered beneficial in that they help enable the funds to be distributed to  those who are most needy. Those who lose out on premium assistance may feel  otherwise.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments  affect individuals with HIV. There are currently 8 individuals in the HIV  Premium Assistance Program.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect employment. 
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendments do not significantly affect the use and value of private property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  amendments do not significantly affect costs for small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments will not  affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate
    General: The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order Number 17  (2014). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the  report should include but not be limited to:
    • the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom  the proposed regulatory action would apply,
    • the identity of any localities and types of businesses or  other entities particularly affected,
    • the projected number of persons and employment positions to be  affected, 
    • the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to  implement or comply with the regulation, and 
    • the impact on the use and value of private property. 
    Small Businesses: If the proposed regulatory action will have  an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such  economic impact analyses include:
    • an identification and estimate of the number of small  businesses subject to the proposed regulation,
    • the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents,
    • a statement of the probable effect of the proposed  regulation on affected small businesses, and 
    • a description of any less intrusive or less costly  alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. 
    Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1, if there is a  finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small  business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules is notified at the time  the proposed regulation is submitted to the Virginia Register of Regulations  for publication. This analysis shall represent DPB's best estimate for the purposes  of public review and comment on the proposed regulation. 
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of  Planning and Budget regarding the regulations concerning the HIV Premium  Assistance Program. The agency raises no issues with this analysis.
    Summary:
    The amendments to the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)  Premium Assistance Program include (i) referring to individual and spousal  income, rather than family income, when evaluating individuals for program  eligibility; (ii) expanding the list of countable liquid assets that may be  evaluated during eligibility determination; and (iii) including provision for  coverage of family members if the participant's health insurance is the sole  source of health insurance for the family.
    12VAC30-100-260. Eligibility requirements. 
    An applicant will be determined to be eligible for the HIV  Premium Assistance Program if the individual: 
    1. Is a Virginia resident at the time of application and is: 
    a. A citizen of the United States; 
    b. An alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence or otherwise  permanently residing in the United States under color of law, including an  alien who is lawfully present in the United States pursuant to 8 USC § 1101  et seq.; or 
    c. An alien lawfully admitted under authority of the Indochina  Migration and Refugee Assistance Act of 1975, 22 USC § 2601 et seq.; 
    2. Is certified by a licensed physician to be HIV positive; 
    3. Is certified by a licensed physician to be unable to work  or to have a substantial likelihood of being unable to work within three months  of the date of the physician's certification due to the HIV infection; 
    4. Is eligible for continuation of group health insurance plan  benefits through the employer and the provisions of the Consolidated Omnibus  Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) of 1985, or for continuation of benefits  under any type of health insurance plan unless DMAS has reason to believe it is  not cost effective; 
    5. Has family applicant and spouse income no  greater than 250% of the poverty level; 
    6. Has countable liquid assets no more than $10,000 in value;  and 
    7. Is not eligible for Medicaid. 
    12VAC30-100-270. Determination of countable income and liquid  assets. 
    When determining eligibility for the HIV Premium Assistance  Program, the countable income and assets of each applicant shall be determined  as follows: 
    1. Income shall include total projected family applicant  and spouse income for the year beginning with the month of application to  the program, including but not limited to: 
    a. Wages; 
    b. Commissions and fees; 
    c. Salaries and tips; 
    d. Profit from self-employment; 
    e. Dividends or interest income; 
    f. Disability benefits; 
    g. Unemployment; 
    h. Pension or retirement. 
    2. Countable liquid assets shall include assets available as  of the date of the application which are convertible to cash. The following  liquid assets shall be counted when determining eligibility: 
    a. Savings accounts; 
    b. Checking accounts; 
    c. Money market certificates; 
    d. Certificates of deposit; 
    e. Mutual funds; or 
    f. Stocks and bonds.; or
    g. All other liquid assets as provided in § 6.2-1100 of the  Code of Virginia.
    12VAC30-100-320. Notification. 
    The program shall inform an applicant, enrollee, or  the individual's representative of the individual's legal rights and obligations  and give written notice of the following: 
    1. The final determination on an application, which shall  include the reason or reasons if an applicant is found ineligible; 
    2. The imminent expiration of program authority and funding; 
    3. A notice of action to deny, cancel, or suspend program  benefits which shall: 
    a. Include a statement of the proposed action, the reason for  the action, and the statutory or regulatory authority for the action; 
    b. Include notification of the right to appeal the action; 
    c. Be mailed at least 15 calendar days before the effective  date of the action. 
    12VAC30-100-340. Health insurance premium payments. 
    A. Premium payments shall be made to the employer, the  insurer, or the enrollee, according to procedures established by the program. 
    B. Applicants and enrollees shall provide information as may  be necessary for the payment of health insurance premiums by the program,  including but not limited to the name and address of the employer or health  insurance company, the last day of employment, the type of policy, the amount  of the premium, and the date by which the premium must be paid. 
    C. Payments under this program are limited to the cost of the  health insurance premium currently in effect and shall not include copayments,  deductibles, or any other costs incurred by the enrollees. Payments under  this program shall include coverage of family members if the enrollee's policy  is the sole source of health insurance. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4165; Filed August 10, 2015, 8:07 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
VIRGINIA BOARD FOR ASBESTOS, LEAD, AND HOME INSPECTORS
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC15-30. Virginia Lead-Based  Paint Activities Regulations (amending 18VAC15-30-161). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-501 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Trisha Henshaw, Executive Director,  Virginia Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors, 9960 Mayland Drive,  Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8595, FAX (866) 350-5354, or  email alhi@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments remove the lead licensure examination fee  cap and provide that examination fees are established through competitive  negotiation pursuant to the Virginia Public Procurement Act.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No  public comments were received by the promulgating agency. 
    Part IV 
  Fees 
    18VAC15-30-161. General fee requirements. 
    A. All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated. The  date on which the fee is received by the department or its agent will determine  whether the fee is on time. Checks or money orders shall be made payable to the  Treasurer of Virginia. 
    B. Fees for approval and renewal of an accredited lead  training program and an accredited lead refresher training program shall not be  imposed on any state, local government, or nonprofit training program. 
    C. The examination fee [ shall consist of the administration  expenses of the board ensuing from the board's examination procedures and  contract charges. Examination service contracts shall be established through  competitive negotiations is subject to contracted charges to the  department by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated  and bargained for ] in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement  Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). [ The examination  shall not exceed a cost of ] $75 [ $150 to the  candidate Fees will be adjusted and charged to the candidate in  accordance with this contract ]. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R14-3849; Filed August 17, 2015, 10:44 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
AUCTIONEERS BOARD
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC25-21. Regulations of the  Virginia Auctioneers Board (amending 18VAC25-21-10, 18VAC25-21-50,  18VAC25-21-70, 18VAC25-21-80, 18VAC25-21-90, 18VAC25-21-110, 18VAC25-21-120,  18VAC25-21-140 through 18VAC25-21-185, 18VAC25-21-220, 18VAC25-21-250,  18VAC25-21-280; adding 18VAC25-21-95). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-602 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Marian H. Brooks, Regulatory Board  Administrator, Auctioneers Board, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA  23233, telephone (804) 367-8514, FAX (866) 465-6206, or email  auctioneers@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments (i) replace the $40 examination and  reexamination fees with language making such fees subject to competitively  negotiated contracts, (ii) allow licensees to use continuing education hours  gained in reciprocating states to meet continuing education requirements in  Virginia, and (iii) clarify existing regulatory language. Since publication of  the proposed regulation, a change is added to clarify the requirements of the  contract between auctioneer or auction firm and the owner of the items to be  sold. 
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A  summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    Part I 
  Definitions 
    18VAC25-21-10. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Owner" means the bona fide owner or any  lawfully designated agent of the real or personal property being offered  for sale; in the case of a corporation, partnership, or other entity, except a  sole proprietorship, an authorized officer, director, or partner may be deemed  to be "owner" of the real or personal property being offered for  sale, provided such entity is licensed to do business in the Commonwealth of  Virginia. 
    18VAC25-21-50. Application.
    A. All applicants seeking licensure by reciprocity or  examination shall submit a fully executed application with the appropriate  fee or fees attached. Applicants will be notified if their application is  incomplete.
    Applications for licensure by examination must comply with the  requirements of the board's designee as to the deadline for submission of the  application to the board's designee.
    B. 1. If a corporation, limited liability company, or other  entity, the application shall include copies of the certificate of incorporation  or certificate of organization issued by the Virginia State Corporation  Commission, articles and bylaws. 
    2. If a foreign corporation, foreign limited liability  company, or other entity, the application shall include copies of the  certificate of authority to conduct business issued by the Virginia State  Corporation Commission, which shall be required in lieu of the certificates as  required by subdivision 1 of this subsection.
    3. Any firm applicant shall not have been previously found by  any regulatory board or agency to have violated any applicable regulations or  laws in the course of performing auctioneer duties or been convicted or  found guilty, regardless of the manner of adjudication, in any jurisdiction of  the United States of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude or any felony,  there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed.  Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of  this subdivision. A certified copy of a final order, decree or case decision by  a court or regulatory agency with the lawful authority to issue such order  shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or discipline.  Applicants for licensure who do not meet requirements set forth in this section  may be approved for licensure following consideration by the board in  accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. All applications will be reviewed by the Auctioneers Board  staff, or the board's designee, to determine eligibility for examination and  licensure within 30 days of receipt at the offices of the Department of  Professional and Occupational Regulation or the board's designee. However,  failure to review an application within 30 days of receipt shall not imply or  result in the automatic approval of the application. No applicant will be  approved for licensure unless all requirements of this part of this chapter are  met.
    18VAC25-21-70. Fees. 
    Fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated. The  following fees shall apply: 
           |      1. Individual auctioneer license      |          $25      |    
       |      2. Auctioneer firm license      |          $55      |    
       |      3. Examination      |          $40      |    
       |      4. Reexamination fee      |          $40      |    
       |      5. 3. Renewal for individual auctioneer's    license      |          $55      |    
       |      6. 4. Renewal for firm or corporation license      |          $65      |    
       |      7. 5. Late renewal for an individual    auctioneer's license      |          $80      |    
       |      8. 6. Late renewal for an auction firm or    corporate license      |          $90      |    
       |      9. 7. Reinstatement of the individual    auctioneer's license      |          $105      |    
       |      10. 8. Reinstatement of the firm or corporate    license      |          $115      |    
  
    The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted  charges by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and  bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). The board may adjust the fee charged  to candidates in accordance with these contracts.
    Part III 
  Renewal/Reinstatement 
    18VAC25-21-80. Notice of renewal. 
    The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation  board will mail a renewal notice to the licensee outlining the amount  due and procedures for renewal to the last known mailing address of record.  Failure to receive this notice shall not relieve the individual or firm  licensee of the obligation to renew. 
    Licenses issued under this chapter shall be issued for a  two-year period. Each license holder, corporation or firm shall be required to  renew the license by submitting the proper fee made payable to the Treasurer of  Virginia, with verification of current surety bond coverage as detailed in  18VAC25-21-30. In addition, individual license holders applying for renewal  are required to certify that they comply with the continuing education  requirements as contained in this chapter. By renewing the license, the  licensee is certifying continued compliance with the Standards of Practice in  Part IV (18VAC25-21-100 et seq.) and Standards of Conduct in Part V  (18VAC25-21-180 et seq.), as well as Continuing Education Requirements in Part  VII (18VAC25-21-230 et seq.) of this chapter.
    18VAC25-21-90. Failure to renew. 
    A. Any individual or firm licensee who fails to renew  a license within 30 days after the license expires, shall be required to pay a  late renewal fee.
    B. Any individual or firm licensee, including  individuals initially licensed pursuant to § 54.1-603 A of the Code of  Virginia, who fails to renew his license within six calendar months after the  expiration date of the license shall be required to apply for reinstatement of  the license. The applicant shall submit to the Department of Professional  and Occupational Regulation board a reinstatement application and  fee and comply with the following paragraph.
    If the license has expired for six months or more, but less  than two years, the applicant shall be required to submit a reinstatement  application, which shall be evaluated by the board to determine if the  applicant meets the renewal requirements. In addition, individual license  holders applying for reinstatement are required to provide evidence of  compliance with the continuing education requirements as contained in this  chapter. A license that is reinstated shall be deemed as having been continuous  without interruption. Nothing in these regulations shall divest the board of  its authority to discipline a license holder for a violation of the law or  regulation during the period of time for which the regulant licensee  was licensed.
    C. If the license has expired for two years or more, the  applicant shall be required to submit a new application and meet current entry  requirements that are in effect as of the date the application is received by  the board office. The applicant shall be required to submit the examination fee  and sit for and pass the Virginia Licensed Auctioneer's Examination or comply  with the provisions contained in 18VAC25-21-40. Any auctioneering activity  conducted between the time the previous license expired and the effective date  of the new license shall be considered unlicensed activity.
    D. The date that the complete renewal application,  including fees and all required documentation, is received by the Department  of Professional and Occupational Regulation board or its agent will  determine whether a license will be renewed without penalty or will be subject  to reinstatement requirements. 
    E. Auctioneer individual and firm licenses Licenses  issued under this regulation shall expire 24 months from the last day of the  month in which the license was issued. The expiration date of the license will  be included on the license.
    18VAC25-21-95. Board discretion to deny renewal or  reinstatement.
    The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license  for the same reason as it may refuse initial licensure or discipline a  licensee. The licensee has the right to request further review of any such  action by the board under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et  seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    18VAC25-21-110. Contracts. 
    A. When an auctioneer or auction firm a licensee  agrees to conduct an auction, a contract shall be drawn setting forth the  particulars of the terms and conditions under which the auctioneer or auction  firm received the real or personal property for auction and particulars for the  disbursement of the proceeds. Each contract for auction shall include the  following: 
    1. a. A detailed list of the real or personal property  received for sale with adequate descriptions of the property so that the personal  property [ of material value ] can be readily identified. If a  list cannot be made at the time of signing of the contract, [ and the  owner of the items agrees to waive this requirement in writing in an addendum  to the contract, ] then a list must be [ signed and dated  by the owner and ] made a part of the contract (and attached)  prior to auction of the real or personal property for that day; or 
    b. If the auctioneer or auction firm enters into a contract to  sell items on a consignment basis where the total value of all the items to be  sold at any one action does not exceed $500, [ and the owner of the  items agrees to waive this requirement in writing on a document separate from,  but made a part of, the contract, ] then the requirement contained in  subdivision 1 a of this subsection is not applicable. 
    2. The name, address, telephone number, and license number of  the Virginia auctioneer or auction firm licensee entering into the  contract. 
    3. The name, address and telephone number of the property  owner. 
    4. The date, time and place of the auction or auctions at  which the real or personal property is scheduled to be auctioned. The date by  which the property is to be returned or otherwise disposed of in accordance  with the terms of the contract if it is not sold.
    5. The fee or percentage of gross sales the auctioneer or  auction firm will charge the owner and what services are included in the fee,  such as preparation, travel, labor, advertising and any other auction related  expenses. 
    6. By what date the owner is to be paid and who is responsible  for disbursing the funds. 
    7. A statement that the clerk sheets, or other evidence to  properly account for all items sold, shall be given or made available for  inspection by the owner on a daily basis. 
    8. The following statement above the owner's signature line:  "I have read and accepted the terms of this contract." 
    B. A legible executed copy of the contract and any  addendums shall be given to the owner at the time of execution.
    18VAC25-21-120. Conduct at auctions. 
    No auctioneer or auction firm licensee shall  attempt to escalate bidding through false bids, or through collusion with  another (shills). The auctioneer or auction firm licensee shall  not bid on the owner's behalf nor knowingly accept a bid made by the owner or  made on the owner's behalf unless notice has been given that liberty for such  bidding has been reserved. The auctioneer or auction firm licensee  shall not neither bid on his own behalf nor knowingly accept a  bid made on his behalf unless notice has been given that such bidding will be  permitted.
    18VAC25-21-140. Documentation. 
    Upon completion of the auctioneer's or auction firm's licensee's  service, each owner shall be given legible copies of bills of sale, clerk  sheets, consignment sheets, settlement papers, balance sheets or other evidence  to properly account for all items sold at auction. 
    18VAC25-21-150. Escrow funds.
    A. Proceeds of a personal property auction not disbursed to  the owner on auction day shall be deposited in an auction escrow account by the  auctioneer/auction firm licensee no later than the next banking  day following the date of auction or sale of the goods, whichever occurs first.
    B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A of this  section for, proceeds that are paid via credit card, the  payment of such proceeds from the credit card issuer debit card, check  card, or any other electronic funds transfer (EFT) method shall be  deposited into an auction escrow account upon receipt from the credit card  issuer originating source.
    C. The auction escrow account shall be used solely for the  preservation and guarantee of auction proceeds until disbursed at settlement.  Funds for any other purpose shall not be commingled with the auction escrow  account. Contingency accounts established to guarantee checks accepted on the  owner's behalf shall not be considered commingling of funds. Moneys due to the  licensee shall not be withdrawn from the auction escrow account until final  settlement is made with the owner.
    D. Funds to be deposited in the escrow account may include  moneys that shall ultimately belong to the licensee for incidental expenses per  the terms of the contract. Such moneys shall be separately identified in the  escrow account records and shall be paid to the licensee by a check drawn on  the escrow account when the funds become due to the licensee. The fact that an  escrow account contains money that may ultimately belong to the licensee does  not constitute "commingling of funds" provided that there are periodic  withdrawals of said funds at intervals of not more than six months and that the  licensee can at all times accurately identify the total funds in that account  that belong to the licensee.
    E. On funds placed in an account bearing interest, written  disclosure in the contract of sale or lease at the time of contract or lease  writing shall be made to the principals to the transaction regarding the  disbursement of interest.
    C. Auctioneers/auction firms F. Auctioneers and  auction firms shall use federally insured depositories in the Commonwealth  of Virginia. All accounts, checks, and bank statements shall be labeled  "escrow" and the accounts shall be designated as "escrow"  accounts with the financial institution where such accounts are established.
    D. G. Proceeds due from the sale of goods other  than real property shall be disbursed to the owner no later than 30 days after  the date of each auction.
    E. H. Funds from a real estate auction shall be  held in escrow until settlement in accordance with the agreement of sale.
    F. I. If the owners' owner's  goods are not sold in a single auction, proceeds due shall be disbursed to the  owner within 30 days after each auction for goods other than real property, or  in accordance with the agreement of sale for the sale of real property. Notice  must be given to the owner of tentative date of auction, or date of return to  the owner, of the remaining goods.
    G. The auction escrow account shall be used solely for the  preservation and guarantee of auction proceeds until disbursed at settlement.  Funds for any other purpose shall not be commingled with the auction escrow  account. Contingency accounts established to guarantee checks accepted on the  owner's behalf shall not be considered commingling of funds. Moneys due to the  licensee shall not be withdrawn from the auction escrow account until final  settlement is made with the owner.
    H. J. The balance in the escrow accounts shall  be sufficient at all times to account for all funds that are designated to be  held by the licensee. A licensee shall not disburse or cause to be disbursed  moneys from an escrow account unless sufficient money is on deposit in that  account to the credit of the individual client or property involved. 
    I. Funds to be deposited in the escrow account may include  moneys that shall ultimately belong to the licensee for incidental expenses per  the terms of the contract. Such moneys shall be separately identified in the  escrow account records and shall be paid to the licensee by a check drawn on the  escrow account when the funds become due to the licensee. The fact that an  escrow account contains money that may ultimately belong to the licensee does  not constitute "commingling of funds" provided that there are  periodic withdrawals of said funds at intervals of not more than six months,  and that the licensee can at all times accurately identify the total funds in  that account that belong to the licensee.
    J. On funds placed in an account bearing interest, written  disclosure in the contract of sale or lease at the time of contract or lease  writing shall be made to the principals to the transaction regarding the  disbursement of interest.
    18VAC25-21-160. Records. 
    The licensee is required to maintain, for a period of four  years from the date of settlement, written records of the following: the  contract drawn with each owner; auction records, including but not limited to  lists of buyers and their addresses; and clerk sheets showing the items sold  including the buyers' numbers or names and the selling prices and the final  settlement papers shall be retained for a period of four years from the date  of settlement. These business records shall be available for inspection by  the board or its designees as deemed appropriate and necessary. 
    18VAC25-21-170. Change of address. 
    A. An auctioneer's or auction firm's license Licenses  shall not be transferable and shall bear the same name and physical address as  the business. Upon dissolution or change in the form of the business entity of  an auction firm, the auction firm license shall become void.
    B. Written notice shall be given within 30 days A  licensee shall report all changes of address to the board by each  individual or firm licensee of any change of physical business address or  location in writing, within 30 calendar days of the change,  whereupon the board shall issue an amended license without fee for the  unexpired portion of the biennial period.
    C. A post office box is not an acceptable only when  a physical business address is also provided. If the  licensee holds more than one license, certificate, or registration, the  licensee shall inform the board of all licenses, certificates, and  registrations affected by the address change.
    Part V 
  Standards of Conduct 
    18VAC25-21-180. Discipline.
    The board has the power to fine any individual or firm  licensee, or to suspend or revoke any license issued under the provisions of  Chapter 6 (§ 54.1-600 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and  the regulations of the board pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative  Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) if it finds that:
    1. The license was obtained, renewed or reinstated through  fraud or misrepresentation;
    2. The licensed auctioneer or firm licensee has  been convicted or found guilty, regardless of the manner of adjudication, in  any jurisdiction of the United States of a misdemeanor involving moral  turpitude or any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time  for appeal having elapsed. Review of prior criminal convictions shall be subject  to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. A certified  copy of a final order, decree or case decision by a court with the lawful  authority to issue such order shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of  such conviction or discipline;
    3. The licensed auctioneer or firm licensee has  been found by any regulatory board, agency, or jurisdiction where licensed to  have had a license or registration suspended, revoked or surrendered in  connection with a disciplinary action, who has been the subject of discipline  in another jurisdiction or to have violated any applicable regulations or laws  in the course of performing auctioneer duties. A certified copy of a final  order, decree or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with the lawful  authority to issue such order shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of  such conviction or discipline;
    4. The licensed auctioneer or firm licensee has  not demonstrated reasonable care, judgment, or application of his knowledge and  ability in the performance of auctioneering duties;
    5. The license auctioneer or firm licensee  violated or induced assisted another person to violate any  provisions of Chapters Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.), or 6 of Title 54.1 of the  Code of Virginia, or any provision of this chapter;, or combined  or conspired with or acted as agent, partner, or associate for another; or
    6. The licensee fails to comply, or misrepresents any  information pertaining to his compliance, with any of the continuing education  requirements as contained in this chapter.
    18VAC25-21-185. Cooperation with board.
    A. The licensee shall, upon request or demand, produce to the  board, or any of its agents, within 10 days any plan, document, book, record or  copy thereof in his possession concerning a transaction covered by this  chapter, and shall cooperate in the investigation of a complaint filed with the  board.
    B. A professional licensee who has direct  knowledge that any individual, including himself, or firm may be violating any  of these provisions, or the provisions of Chapters 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.)  through 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.) or Chapter 6 (§ 54.1-600 et seq.) of Title  54.1 of the Code of Virginia, shall immediately inform the secretary of the  board in writing and shall cooperate in furnishing any further information or  assistance that may be required.
    C. The board, in its discretion, may refuse to grant the  renewal or reinstatement of a license of any person for any of the reasons  specified in subsection A of this section. 
    18VAC25-21-220. Periodic requalification for continued course  approval. 
    At times established by the board, the The  board may require that schools that have previously obtained course approval  provide the board with evidence, in a form set forth by the board, that they  continue to comply with the requirements of 18VAC25-21-190 and 18VAC25-21-200.  Failure to continue to comply with the board's requirements or respond to such  a request may result in the board withdrawing its approval. 
    18VAC25-21-250. Continuing education requirements for renewal  or reinstatement.
    A. Individuals Licensees whose licenses expire  [ , ]  or [ who ] apply to reinstate  [ , after February 1, 2008, ]  shall be required to  comply with the continuing education provisions of this chapter.
    B. Individuals are required to complete at least six  continuing education credit hours of board-approved continuing education  courses for any license renewal or reinstatement.
    B. Licensees are required to complete at least six  continuing education credit hours of board-approved continuing education  courses for any license renewal or reinstatement.
    A Virginia licensee that is also licensed in another state  with which the board shares a reciprocal agreement may use board-approved  continuing education in that state to meet the required six hours of continuing  education for Virginia, provided that the reciprocal jurisdiction affords the  same privilege to Virginia licensees. 
    C. 1. Each individual licensee applying for  renewal shall certify that he has met the continuing education requirements of  this chapter. Only continuing education courses completed during the license period  immediately prior to the expiration date of the license shall be acceptable in  order to renew the license.
    2. Individuals Licensees shall maintain records  of completion of continuing education credit hours for two years from the date  of expiration of the license for which the continuing education credit hours  are being used to renew the license. Individuals shall provide such records to  the board or its duly authorized agents upon request.
    3. Continuing education credit hours utilized to satisfy the continuing  education requirements to renew a license shall be valid only for that renewal  and shall not be accepted for any subsequent renewal cycles or reinstatement.
    D. 1. Each individual applying for reinstatement shall  provide, as part of his reinstatement application, evidence of compliance with  the continuing education requirements of this chapter. The completion date of  continuing education courses submitted in support of a reinstatement  application shall not be more than two years old as of the date a complete  reinstatement application is received by the board.
    2. Continuing education credit hours utilized to satisfy the  continuing education requirements in order to reinstate a license shall be  valid only for that reinstatement and shall not be accepted for any subsequent  renewal cycles or reinstatement.
    E. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection C of this  section, continuing education hours earned during a licensing renewal cycle to  satisfy the continuing education requirements of the preceding licensing  renewal cycle shall be valid only for that preceding license renewal cycle and  shall not be accepted for any subsequent renewal cycles or reinstatement.
    18VAC25-21-280. Periodic requalification for continued course  approval.
    At times established by the board, the The  board may require that course providers that have previously obtained course  approval provide the board with evidence, in a form set forth by the board,  that they continue to comply with the requirements of 18VAC25-21-230 A and  18VAC25-21-240. Failure to continue to comply with the board's requirements or  respond to such a request may result in the board withdrawing its approval.
    FORMS (18VAC25-21)
    [ Auctioneer License By Examination Application,  2907EXLIC (rev. 11/08)
    Auctioneer Surety Bond Form, 2905_07BOND (rev. 11/08)
    Auctioneer License by Examination Application,  2907EXLIC (rev. 3/13)
    Auctioneer Surety Bond Form, 2905_07BOND (rev. 4/10) ]
    Auctioneer Firm License Application, 2908LIC (rev.  11/08)
    Auction Firm Surety Bond Form, 2906_08BOND (rev.  11/08)
    [ States with Approved Reciprocal Agreements, 29RECLST  (rev. 11/08)
    Virginia Approved Auctioneering Schools, 29SCHLST (rev.  11/08)
    States with Approved Reciprocal Agreements, 29RECLST  (rev. 2/12)
    Virginia Approved Auctioneering Schools, 29SCHLST (rev.  9/13) ] 
    Auctioneering School Application for Course  Approval, 29CRS (rev. 11/08)
    Auctioneer License By Reciprocity Application,  2907RECLIC (rev. 11/08)
    Auctioneer License Reinstatement Application,  2905_07REI (rev. 11/08)
    Application for Continuing Education Course  Approval, 29CECRS (rev. 11/08)
    Auctioneer Firm License Renewal Form, 2906_08REN  (eff. 11/08)
    Individual Auctioneer License Renewal Form,  2905_07REN (eff. 11/08)
    Continuing Education Medical Exemption Request,  2905_07CEXMP (eff. 11/08)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-2002; Filed August 5, 2015, 2:11 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
CEMETERY BOARD
Proposed Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC47-20. Cemetery Board Rules  and Regulations (amending 18VAC47-20-180, 18VAC47-20-190,  18VAC47-20-270; adding 18VAC47-20-280). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-2313 of  the Code of Virginia (18VAC47-20-270). 
    §§ 54.1-201, 54.1-2312.01, and 54.1-2313 of the Code of  Virginia (18VAC47-20-180, 18VAC47-20-190, 18VAC47-20-280).
    Public Hearing Information:
    October 20, 2015 - 10 a.m. - Department of Professional  and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Richmond, VA 23233
    Public Comment Deadline: November 6, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Christine Martine, Executive Director,  Cemetery Board, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone  (804) 367-8552, FAX (804) 527-4299, or email cemetery@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Chapter 500 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly states  in part "The Board shall adopt such regulations as the Board deems  appropriate and necessary to implement the provisions of this section.  Regulations of the Board shall be in accordance with the Administrative Process  Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.)."
    Section 54.1-2313 D of the Code of Virginia states: "In  addition to the general powers and duties conferred in this subtitle, the Board  shall have the power and duty to (i) regulate preneed burial contracts and  perpetual care trust fund accounts as prescribed by this chapter, including,  but not limited to, the authority to prescribe preneed contract forms,  disclosure requirements and disclosure forms and to require reasonable bonds to  insure performance of preneed contracts, (ii) regulate and register sales  personnel employed by a cemetery company, and (iii) regulate and establish  qualifications and standards of conduct for compliance agents employed by a  cemetery company to assure compliance of the cemetery with the provisions of  this chapter."
    Section 54.1-201 A 1 of the Code of Virginia states: "The  powers and duties of regulatory boards shall be as follows: to establish the  qualifications of applicants for certification or licensure by any such board,  provided that all qualifications shall be necessary to ensure either competence  or integrity to engage in such profession or occupation."
    Section 54.1-201 A 5 of the Code of Virginia states: "The  powers and duties of regulatory boards shall be as follows: to promulgate  regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act necessary to  assure continued competency, to prevent deceptive or misleading practices by  practitioners and to effectively administer the regulatory system administered  by the regulatory board . . ."
    Purpose: The purpose of the proposed regulation is to  make clarifying changes, to incorporate language as necessary to implement new  statutory requirements for interment of pets to ensure consistency with § 54.1-2312.01  of the Code of Virginia, and to make other changes that the board considers  necessary. Since the regulations have not undergone substantial revision since  2007, a thorough review was necessary to ensure the regulations provide minimum  burdens on the regulants while still protecting the public health, safety, and  welfare and reflect current procedures and policies of the board and the  Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation. The goal of the  proposed amendments is to make clear to both the cemetery companies and the  public what the requirements are for cemeteries that choose to permit the  interment of pets so an individual can choose whether or not he wants to be  interred in that cemetery.
    Substance: The proposed amendments to (i) 18VAC47-20-180  clarify records requirements for pet interments; (ii) 18VAC47-20-190 update  prohibited activities to ensure consistency with statutory changes regarding  pet interment; (iii) 18VAC47-20-270 reduce the hours to make training more  meaningful without unnecessary excess information to fill the hours; and (iv)  18VAC47-20-280 add a section to implement § 54.1-2312.01 of the Code of  Virginia regarding pet interment.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that the  revisions will improve the clarity of the regulations and ensure consistency  with current board practices, legal requirements, and standards of practice in  the industry, all to better protect the health, safety, and welfare of citizens  of the Commonwealth. The primary advantage to the Commonwealth is that the  revisions to the regulations reflect the importance that Virginia places on  ensuring the regulations are the least burdensome but also provide protection  to the citizens of the Commonwealth. No disadvantages to the Commonwealth could  be identified.
    Department of Planning and  Budget's Economic Impact Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to  § 54.1-2312.01, the Cemetery Board (Board) proposes to amend its  regulation to decrease the mandatory hours that a training course must last and  to allow cemetery companies to set up separate sections in their cemeteries  that allow pets to be buried either separately or beside their owners.
    Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for these  proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Current regulation requires that  training courses for compliance agents and their designees approved by the  Board include all Board required information and be at least eight hours long.  The Board has determined, however, that teaching all the required information  in any given course generally takes much less time than the minimum eight hours  allotted. Accordingly, the Board now proposes to amend the regulation so that  approved training courses must be at least four hours. Because the changed  hours would be a minimum, and because courses will still cover all information  required by the Board even if it takes longer than four hours to do so, the public  is unlikely to be harmed by more poorly informed cemetery compliance officers.  Cemetery companies will likely save money on account of this change as they pay  for their compliance officers' training. Compliance agents and designees will  likely benefit from having to spend less time in training.
    Currently, cemetery companies are only allowed to inter human  remains. In 2014, the General Assembly passed legislation that allows cemetery  companies to set aside sections of their cemeteries to bury humans and their  pets so long as:
    1. The sections set aside are "segregated entirely from  the remainder of the cemetery devoted to the interment of human remains,"
    2. Pets are not buried in the same grave, crypt or niche as a  human and
    3. Sections set aside are clearly marked and advertised as  being for pets and their owners.
    This legislation also allows for sections of cemeteries to be  set aside strictly for pets so long as those sections are segregated, clearly  marked and advertised as strictly for pets by the cemetery companies. The Board  now proposes to amend its regulation to reflect these legislative changes and  to require cemetery companies that set up sections of their cemeteries for pets  or pets and their owners to keep permanent records identifying the name and  type of pet interred, the name of the owner of the pet and the exact location  were the pet is interred. Cemetery companies are not required to set up  separate sections of their cemeteries for pets or pets and their owners and,  so, are unlikely to do so unless the revenue that is accrued from doing so  outweigh costs. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. Board staff reports that  there are 93 cemetery companies in the Commonwealth that own and operate 164  cemeteries. Approximately 90 of those cemetery companies would qualify as small  businesses. All of these cemetery companies will gain the ability to inter pets  or pets and their owners so long as they follow rules set forth in the  authorizing legislation and this proposed regulation. Board staff further reports  that fewer than 10 people per year apply to the Board to be compliance agents  or designees that would be affected by the changing training course hour  minimum.
    Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be  particularly affected by this proposed regulation.
    Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed regulatory  changes are unlikely to have any impact on employment in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These  proposed regulatory changes are unlikely to have any impact on the use or value  of private property in the Commonwealth.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. Small business  cemetery companies will not be required to incur any costs on account of this  regulatory action.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. Small business cemetery companies will not be required to incur any  costs on account of this regulatory action.
    Real Estate Development Costs. Cemetery companies may choose to  incur extra property development costs to set up sections of their cemeteries  for pets or pets and their owners but would likely only do so if they had an  expectation that they would see increased profits from that choice. 
    Legal Mandate. 
    General: The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed  the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order Number 17  (2014). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the  report should include but not be limited to:
    • the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom  the proposed regulation would apply,
    • the identity of any localities and types of businesses or  other entities particularly affected,
    • the projected number of persons and employment positions  to be affected, 
    • the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to  implement or comply with the regulation, and 
    • the impact on the use and value of private property. 
    Small Businesses: If the proposed regulation will have an  adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such  economic impact analyses include:
    • an identification and estimate of the number of small  businesses subject to the proposed regulation,
    • the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents,
    • a statement of the probable effect of the proposed  regulation on affected small businesses, and 
    • a description of any less intrusive or less costly  alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. 
    Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1, if there is a  finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small  business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules is notified at the time  the proposed regulation is submitted to the Virginia Register of Regulations for  publication. This analysis shall represent DPB's best estimate for the purposes  of public review and comment on the proposed regulation.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The board  concurs with the approval. 
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments (i) reduce the length of training  courses from eight hours to four hours and (ii) incorporate provisions on pet  interments and pet and owner interments to align with Chapter 500 of the 2014  Acts of Assembly.
    18VAC47-20-180. Records of interments. 
    A permanent record shall be kept of every interment in the  cemetery, showing the date of the interment, the name of the person interred,  together with information identifying the specific location in which the  interment was made. For interments made pursuant to § 54.1-2312.01 of the  Code of Virginia, the permanent records shall also include the type and name of  the pet interred and the name of the owner with information identifying the  specific location in which the pet interment was made.
    18VAC47-20-190. Prohibited activities. 
    In addition to the acts set forth in §§ 54.1-2314, 54.1-2315,  and 54.1-2316 of the Code of Virginia, the board may discipline a licensee or  registrant for the following acts: 
    1. Employing or affiliating with by independent contract,  sales personnel not registered with the board. 
    2. Unless otherwise addressed in this chapter, failing to  retain for a period of three years all records required by this chapter or  Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia  at the place of business in Virginia of the licensed cemetery company. 
    3. Failing to produce to the board or any of its agents, upon  request, any document, book, or record required by this chapter or Chapter 23.1  (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    4. Failing to respond to an inquiry by the board or any of its  agents within 21 days. 
    5. Advertising in any name other than the name in which  licensed or registered. 
    6. Furnishing substantially inaccurate or incomplete  information to the board in obtaining, renewing, reinstating, or maintaining a  license or registration. 
    7. Allowing a cemetery company license or sales personnel  registration to be used by an unlicensed cemetery company or unregistered sales  personnel. 
    8. Acting as or being an ostensible licensee for undisclosed  persons who do or will control or direct, directly or indirectly, the  operations of the licensee's business. 
    9. Having failed to inform the board in writing, within 30  days, that the company, an officer, director, or compliance agent,  has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere or was convicted and found guilty of any  felony or any crime involving moral turpitude. 
    10. Having failed to inform the board in writing, within 30  days, of a disciplinary action in a jurisdiction where licensed, including  suspension, revocation, or surrender in connection with a disciplinary  action. 
    11. Failing to reasonably maintain the buildings, grounds, and  facilities of a cemetery licensed to a cemetery company. 
    12. Failing to file any report required by Chapter 23.1 of  Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    13. Engaging in negligent, improper, fraudulent, or dishonest  conduct. 
    14. Failing to segregate entirely the section of the  cemetery dedicated to the interment of pets or the interment of human remains  and the pets of such deceased humans by means such as hedge, wall, tree line,  fence, roadway, or other similar physical barrier or boundary.
    15. Permitting the interment of a pet in the same grave,  crypt, or niche as the remains of a human.
    16. If a cemetery company has a section devoted to the  interment of pets or the interment of human remains and the pets of such  deceased humans, any advertisements failing to clearly state the cemetery  company has such section or sections in its cemetery.
    17. Failing to clearly mark the section or sections devoted  to the interment of pets or the interment of human remains and the pets of such  deceased humans with signage that is reasonably apparent to the general public.
    18VAC47-20-270. Standards of approval of training course.
    All training courses shall be approved by the board. The  training course shall be at least eight four hours and include  appropriate testing procedures to demonstrate an understanding of the  topics.  The training program shall include, but is not limited, to the  following topics:
    1. Cemetery Board statute and regulations;
    2. Perpetual care trust fund requirements;
    3. Preneed trust fund requirements;
    4. Preneed burial contracts;
    5. Interment records;
    6. General price list;
    7. Itemized statement of goods and services provided;
    8. Advertising;
    9. Solicitation;
    10. Funeral rule; and
    11. Proper care, maintenance, administration, and  embellishment of the cemetery.
    18VAC47-20-280. Special interment requirement
    A licensed cemetery company may establish a section in its  cemetery devoted to the interment of pets or the interment of human remains and  the pets of such deceased humans in accordance with § 54.1-2312.01 of the  Code of Virginia. All other provisions of this chapter shall apply. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4107; Filed August 17, 2015, 1:24 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR CONTRACTORS
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC50-30. Individual License  and Certification Regulations (amending 18VAC50-30-40, 18VAC50-30-90,  18VAC50-30-120, 18VAC50-30-130, 18VAC50-30-185, 18VAC50-30-190,  18VAC50-30-200). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201, 54.1-1102, and 54.1-1146 of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: Eric L. Olson, Executive Director, Board  for Contractors, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone  (804) 367-2785, FAX (866) 430-1033, or email contractors@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments provide for the licensure of residential  building energy analysts to comport with Chapter 865 of the 2011 Acts of  Assembly. The amendments add a definition of residential building energy  analyst, establish licensure eligibility criteria, list the fees associated  with the license, add prohibited acts for the license, and identify other  administrative requirements. 
     
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A  summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    18VAC50-30-40. Evidence of ability and proficiency. 
    A. Applicants for examination to be licensed as a journeyman  shall furnish evidence that one of the following experience and education  standards has been attained: 
    1. Four years of practical experience in the trade and 240  hours of formal vocational training in the trade. Experience in excess of four  years may be substituted for formal vocational training at a ratio of one year  of experience for 80 hours of formal training, but not to exceed 200 hours; 
    2. Four years of practical experience and 80 hours of  vocational training for liquefied petroleum gas fitters and natural gas fitter  providers except that no substitute experience will be allowed for liquefied  petroleum gas and natural gas workers; 
    3. An associate degree or a certificate of completion from at  least a two-year program in a tradesman-related field from an accredited  community college or technical school as evidenced by a transcript from the  educational institution and two years of practical experience in the trade for  which licensure is desired; 
    4. A bachelor's degree received from an accredited college or  university in an engineering curriculum related to the trade and one year of  practical experience in the trade for which licensure is desired; or 
    5. [ On or after July 1, 1995, an An ]  applicant with 10 years of practical experience in the trade as verified by  reference letters of experience from any of the following: building officials,  building inspectors, current or former employers, contractors, engineers,  architects or current or past clients attesting to the applicant's work in the  trade, may be granted permission to sit for the journeyman's level examination  without having to meet the educational requirements. 
    B. Applicants for examination to be licensed as a master  shall furnish evidence that one of the following experience standards has been  attained: 
    1. Evidence that they have one year of experience as a  licensed journeyman; or 
    2. [ On or after July 1, 1995, an An ]  an applicant with 10 years of practical experience in the trade, as verified by  reference letters of experience from any of the following: building officials,  building inspectors, current or former employers, contractors, engineers,  architects or current or past clients, attesting to the applicant's work in the  trade, may be granted permission to sit for the master's level examination  without having to meet the educational requirements. 
    C. Individuals who have successfully passed the Class A  contractors trade examination prior to January 1, 1991, administered by the  Virginia Board for Contractors in a certified trade shall be deemed qualified  as a master in that trade in accordance with this chapter. 
    D. Applicants for examination to be certified as a backflow  prevention device worker shall furnish evidence that one of the following  experience and education standards has been attained: 
    1. Four years of practical experience in water distribution  systems and 40 hours of formal vocational training in a school approved by the  board; or 
    2. Applicants with seven or more years of experience may  qualify with 16 hours of formal vocational training in a school approved by the  board. 
    The board accepts the American Society of Sanitary Engineers'  (ASSE) standards for testing procedures. Other programs could be approved after  board review. The board requires all backflow training to include instruction  in a wet lab. 
    E. An applicant for certification as an elevator mechanic  shall: 
    1. Have three years of practical experience in the construction,  maintenance and service/repair of elevators, escalators, or related  conveyances; 144 hours of formal vocational training; and satisfactorily  complete a written examination administered by the board. Experience in excess  of four years may be substituted for formal vocational training at a ratio of  one year of experience for 40 hours of formal training, but not to exceed 120  hours; 
    2. Have three years of practical experience in the  construction, maintenance, and service/repair of elevators, escalators, or  related conveyances and a certificate of completion of the elevator mechanic  examination of a training program determined to be equivalent to the  requirements established by the board; or 
    3. Successfully complete an elevator mechanic apprenticeship  program that is approved by the Virginia Apprenticeship Council or registered  with the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, U.S. Department of Labor, as  evidenced by providing a certificate of completion or other official document,  and satisfactorily complete a written examination administered by the board. 
    F. Pursuant to § 54.1-1129.1 A of the Code of Virginia, an  applicant for examination as a certified water well systems provider shall  provide satisfactory proof to the board of at least:
    1. One year of full-time practical experience in the drilling,  installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells or water well systems under  the supervision of a certified master water well systems provider or other  equivalent experience as approved by the board to qualify for examination as a  trainee water well systems provider;
    2. Three years of practical experience in the drilling,  installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells or water well systems under  the supervision of a certified master water well systems provider or other  equivalent experience as approved by the board and 24 hours of formal  vocational training in the trade to qualify for examination as a journeyman  water well systems provider; or
    3. Six years of practical experience in the drilling,  installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells or water well systems under  the supervision of a certified master water well systems provider or other  equivalent experience as approved by the board and 48 hours of formal  vocational training in the trade to qualify for examination as a master water  well systems provider.
    G. An applicant for certification as an accessibility  mechanic shall:
    1. Have three years of practical experience in the  construction, installation, maintenance, service, repair, and testing of  wheelchair lifts, incline chairlifts, dumbwaiters, residential elevators, or  related conveyances; 80 hours of formal vocational training; and satisfactorily  complete a written examination administered by the board. Experience in excess  of four years may be substituted for formal vocational training at a ratio of  one year of experience for 20 hours of formal training, but not to exceed 60  hours;
    2. Have three years of practical experience in the  construction, installation, maintenance, service, repair, and testing of  wheelchair lifts, incline chairlifts, dumbwaiters, residential elevators, or  related conveyances and a certificate of completion of an accessibility  mechanic examination of a training program determined to be equivalent to the  requirements established by the board; or
    3. Successfully complete an accessibility mechanic  apprenticeship program that is approved by the Virginia Apprenticeship Council  or registered with the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, U.S. Department  of Labor, as evidenced by providing a certificate of completion or other  official document, and satisfactorily complete a written examination  administered by the board.
    H. An applicant for a limited use/limited application (LULA)  endorsement shall:
    1. Hold a current certification as an accessibility mechanic  issued by the board. 
    2. Have one year of practical experience in the construction,  installation, maintenance, service, repair, and testing of limited use/limited  application elevators and complete a vocational education program approved by  the board; and satisfactorily complete a written examination administered by  the board; or complete a limited use/limited application elevator training  program determined to be equivalent to the requirements established by the board.  
    I. Pursuant to § 54.1-1145 B of the Code of Virginia,  an applicant for licensure as a residential building energy analyst shall  provide satisfactory proof to the board of:
    1. The completion of a residential building energy analyst  training program approved by the board;
    2. The completion of a minimum of five residential building  energy analyses under the supervision of a licensed residential building energy  analyst;
    3. Current membership in good standing with a certifying  organization approved by the board; and
    4. Maintaining a minimum of $100,000 of general liability  insurance from a company authorized to provide such insurance in the  Commonwealth of Virginia unless the individual is employed by a company that  holds a valid residential building energy analyst firm license issued by the  board.
    The applicant shall provide information for the past five  years prior to application on any outstanding past-due debts, outstanding  judgments, outstanding tax obligations, defaults on bonds, or pending or past  bankruptcies.
    J. Individuals applying for initial licensure as  residential building energy analysts who meet the criteria of § 54.1-1145  C of the Code of Virginia are not required to meet the eligibility standards  for licensure found in subsection I of this section. 
    18VAC50-30-90. Fees for licensure and certification.
    A. Each check or money order shall be made payable to the  Treasurer of Virginia. All fees required by the board are nonrefundable and  shall not be prorated. The date of receipt by the department or its agent is  the date that will be used to determine whether or not it is on time. Fees  remain active for a period of one year from the date of receipt and all  applications must be completed within that time frame. 
    B. Fees are as follows: 
           |      Original tradesman license by    examination      |          $130      |    
       |      Original tradesman license    without examination      |          $130      |    
       |      Card exchange (exchange of    locality-issued card for state-issued Virginia tradesman license)      |          $95       |    
       |      Liquefied petroleum gas fitter      |          $130      |    
       |      Natural gas fitter provider      |          $130      |    
       |      Backflow prevention device    worker certification      |          $130      |    
       |      Elevator mechanic    certification      |          $130      |    
       |      Certified accessibility    mechanic      |          $130      |    
       |      Water well systems provider    certification      |          $130      |    
       |      Residential building energy    analyst license      |          $130      |    
       |      Limited use/limited    application endorsement      |          $65      |    
  
    18VAC50-30-120. Renewal.
    A. Licenses and certification cards issued under this chapter  shall expire two years from the last day of the month in which they were issued  as indicated on the license or certification card.
    B. Effective with all licenses issued or renewed after  December 31, 2007, as a condition of renewal or reinstatement and pursuant to  § 54.1-1133 of the Code of Virginia, all individuals holding tradesman  licenses with the trade designations of plumbing, electrical and heating  ventilation and cooling shall be required to satisfactorily complete three  hours of continuing education for each designation and individuals holding  licenses as liquefied petroleum gas fitters and natural gas fitter providers,  one hour of continuing education, relating to the applicable building code,  from a provider approved by the board in accordance with the provisions of this  chapter. An inactive tradesman is not required to meet the continuing education  requirements as a condition of renewal.
    C. Certified elevator mechanics and certified accessibility  mechanics, as a condition of renewal or reinstatement and pursuant to  § 54.1-1143 of the Code of Virginia, shall be required to satisfactorily  complete eight hours of continuing education relating to the provisions of the  Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code pertaining to elevators, escalators,  and related conveyances. This continuing education will be from a provider  approved by the board in accordance with the provisions of this chapter. 
    D. Certified water well systems providers, as a condition of  renewal or reinstatement and pursuant to § 54.1-1129.1 B of the Code of  Virginia, shall be required to satisfactorily complete eight hours of  continuing education in the specialty of technical aspects of water well  construction, applicable statutory and regulatory provisions, and business  practices related to water well construction from a provider approved by the  board in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.
    E. Renewal fees are as follows: 
           |      Tradesman license      |          $90       |    
       |      Liquefied petroleum gas fitter license      |          $90       |    
       |      Natural gas fitter provider license      |          $90       |    
       |      Backflow prevention device worker certification      |          $90       |    
       |      Elevator mechanic certification      |          $90      |    
       |      Certified accessibility mechanic      |          $90      |    
       |      Water well systems provider certification      |          $90      |    
       |      Residential building energy analyst license      |          $90      |    
  
    All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated.
    For renewal fees received on or before August 31, 2017, the  fee shall be $60.
    F. The board will mail a renewal notice to the regulant  outlining procedures for renewal. Failure to receive this notice, however,  shall not relieve the regulant of the obligation to renew. If the regulant  fails to receive the renewal notice, a photocopy of the tradesman license or  backflow prevention device worker certification card may be submitted with the  required fee as an application for renewal within 30 days of the expiration  date.
    G. The date on which the renewal fee is received by the  department or its agent will determine whether the regulant is eligible for  renewal or required to apply for reinstatement.
    H. The board may deny renewal of a tradesman license or a  backflow prevention device worker certification card for the same reasons as it  may refuse initial issuance or to discipline a regulant. The regulant has a  right to appeal any such action by the board under the Virginia Administrative  Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    I. Failure to timely pay any monetary penalty, reimbursement  of cost, or other fee assessed by consent order or final order shall result in  delaying or withholding services provided by the department such as, but not  limited to, renewal, reinstatement, processing of a new application, or exam  administration.
    J. Residential building energy analysts, as a condition of  renewal or reinstatement, shall provide documentation of continued membership,  in good standing, of a certifying organization approved by the board and proof  of insurance as required in 18VAC50-30-40 I 4. 
    18VAC50-30-130. Reinstatement.
    A. Should the Department of Professional and Occupational  Regulation fail to receive the renewal application or fees within 30 days of  the expiration date, the regulant will be required to apply for reinstatement  of the license or certification card.
    B. Reinstatement fees are as follows:
           |      Tradesman license      |          $140*      |    
       |      Liquefied petroleum gas fitter license      |          $140*      |    
       |      Natural gas fitter provider license      |          $140*      |    
       |      Backflow prevention device worker certification      |          $140*      |    
       |      Elevator mechanic certification      |          $140*      |    
       |      Certified accessibility mechanic      |          $140*      |    
       |      Water well systems provider certification      |          $140*      |    
       |      Residential building energy analyst license      |          $140*      |    
       |      *Includes renewal fee listed in 18VAC50-30-120.      |    
  
    All fees required by the board are nonrefundable and shall not  be prorated.
    For reinstatement fees received on or before August 31, 2017,  the fee shall be $100. This fee includes the renewal fee listed in  18VAC50-30-120.
    C. Applicants for reinstatement shall meet the requirements  of 18VAC50-30-30.
    D. The date on which the reinstatement fee is received by the  department or its agent will determine whether the license or certification  card is reinstated or a new application is required. 
    E. In order to ensure that license or certification card  holders are qualified to practice as tradesmen, liquefied petroleum gas  fitters, natural gas fitter providers, backflow prevention device workers,  elevator mechanics, [ or ] water well systems providers, or  residential building energy analysts, no reinstatement will be permitted  once one year from the expiration date has passed. After that date the  applicant must apply for a new license or certification card and meet the then  current entry requirements. 
    F. Any tradesman, liquefied petroleum gas fitter, or natural  gas fitter provider activity conducted subsequent to the expiration of the  license may constitute unlicensed activity and may be subject to prosecution  under Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. Further, any person who holds himself  out as a certified backflow prevention device worker, as defined in  § 54.1-1128 of the Code of Virginia, or as a certified elevator mechanic  or certified accessibility mechanic, as defined in § 54.1-1140 of the Code  of Virginia, or as a water well systems provider as defined in § 54.1-1129.1  of the Code of Virginia, without the appropriate certification, may be subject  to prosecution under Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. Any activity related  to the operating integrity of an elevator, escalator, or related conveyance,  conducted subsequent to the expiration of an elevator mechanic certification  may constitute illegal activity and may be subject to prosecution under Title  54.1 of the Code of Virginia. Any individual who completes a residential  building energy analysis, as defined in § 54.1-1144 of the Code of Virginia,  subsequent to the expiration of a residential building energy analyst license  may have engaged in illegal activity and may be subject to prosecution under  Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    G. The board may deny reinstatement of a license or  certification card for the same reasons as it may refuse initial issuance or to  discipline a regulant. The regulant has a right to appeal any such action by  the board under the Virginia Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et  seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    H. Failure to timely pay any monetary penalty, reimbursement  of cost, or other fee assessed by consent order or final order shall result in  delaying or withholding services provided by the department, such as, but not  limited to, renewal, reinstatement, processing of a new application, or exam  administration.
    Part V 
  Standards of Conduct 
    18VAC50-30-185. Revocation of licensure or certification. 
    A. Licensure or certification may be revoked for  misrepresentation or a fraudulent application or for incompetence as  demonstrated by an egregious or repeated violation of the Virginia Uniform  Statewide Building Code. 
    B. The board shall have the power to require remedial  education and to fine, suspend, revoke or deny renewal of a license or  certification card of any individual who is found to be in violation of the  statutes or regulations governing the practice of licensed tradesmen, liquefied  petroleum gas fitters, natural gas fitter providers, backflow prevention device  workers, elevator mechanics, or accessibility mechanics, or  residential building energy analysts in the Commonwealth of Virginia. 
    18VAC50-30-190. Prohibited acts. 
    Any of the following are cause for disciplinary action: 
    1. Failure in any material way to comply with provisions of  Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) or Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of  Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or the regulations of the board; 
    2. Furnishing substantially inaccurate or incomplete  information to the board in obtaining, renewing, reinstating, or maintaining a  license or certification card; 
    3. Where the regulant has failed to report to the board, in  writing, the suspension or revocation of a tradesman, liquefied petroleum gas  fitter or natural gas fitter provider license, certificate or card, or backflow  prevention device worker, water well systems provider, elevator mechanic, or  accessibility mechanic certification card, by another state or a conviction in  a court of competent jurisdiction of a building code violation; 
    4. Negligence or incompetence in the practice of a tradesman,  liquefied petroleum gas fitter, natural gas fitter provider, backflow  prevention device worker, elevator mechanic, accessibility mechanic, or water  well systems provider; 
    5. Misconduct in the practice of a tradesman, liquefied  petroleum gas fitter, natural gas fitter provider, backflow prevention device  worker, elevator mechanic, accessibility mechanic, or water well systems provider;  
    6. A finding of improper or dishonest conduct in the practice  of a tradesman, liquefied petroleum gas fitter, natural gas fitter provider,  backflow prevention device worker, elevator mechanic, accessibility mechanic,  or water well systems provider by a court of competent jurisdiction; 
    7. For licensed tradesmen, liquefied petroleum gas fitters or  natural gas fitter providers performing jobs under $1,000, or backflow  prevention device workers, elevator mechanics, accessibility mechanics, or  water well systems providers performing jobs of any amount, abandonment, the  intentional and unjustified failure to complete work contracted for, or the  retention or misapplication of funds paid, for which work is either not  performed or performed only in part (unjustified cessation of work under the  contract for a period of 30 days or more shall be considered evidence of  abandonment); 
    8. Making any misrepresentation or making a false promise of a  character likely to influence, persuade, or induce; 
    9. Aiding or abetting an unlicensed contractor to violate any  provision of Chapter 1 or Chapter 11 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or  these regulations; or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent, partner,  or associate for an unlicensed contractor; or allowing one's license or  certification to be used by an unlicensed or uncertified individual; 
    10. Where the regulant has offered, given or promised anything  of value or benefit to any federal, state, or local government employee for the  purpose of influencing that employee to circumvent, in the performance of his  duties, any federal, state, or local law, regulation, or ordinance governing  the construction industry; 
    11. Where the regulant has been convicted or found guilty,  after initial licensure or certification, regardless of adjudication, in any  jurisdiction of any felony or of a misdemeanor involving lying, cheating or  stealing, sexual offense, drug distribution, physical injury, or relating to  the practice of the profession, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the  time of appeal having elapsed. Any pleas of guilty or nolo contendere shall be  considered a conviction for the purposes of this subdivision. The record of a  conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence  under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima  facie evidence of such guilt; 
    12. Having failed to inform the board in writing, within 30  days, that the regulant has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere or was convicted  and found guilty of any felony or a misdemeanor involving lying, cheating,  stealing, sexual offense, drug distribution, physical injury, or relating to  the practice of the profession; 
    13. Having been disciplined by any county, city, town, or any  state or federal governing body for actions relating to the practice of any  trade, backflow prevention device work, elevator or accessibility work, or  water well systems provider work, which action shall be reviewed by the board  before it takes any disciplinary action of its own; 
    14. Failure to comply with the Virginia Uniform Statewide  Building Code; 
    15. Practicing in a classification or specialty service for  which the regulant is not licensed or certified; 
    16. Failure to obtain any document required by the Virginia  Department of Health for the drilling, installation, maintenance, repair,  construction, or removal of water wells, water well systems, water well pumps,  or other water well equipment; and
    17. Failure to obtain a building permit or applicable  inspection where required;
    18. Failure to perform a residential building energy  analysis consistent with the requirements set forth by the board, the U.S.  Environmental Protection Agency, the U.S. Department of Energy, or the  "Energy Star" Program; and
    19. Failure of a residential building energy analyst to  maintain the general liability insurance required in 18VAC50-30-40 I 4.
    Part VI 
  Vocational Training and Continuing Education Providers 
    18VAC50-30-200. Vocational training. 
    A. Vocational training courses must be completed through  accredited colleges, universities, junior and community colleges; adult  distributive, marketing and formal vocational training as defined in this  chapter; Virginia Apprenticeship Council programs; or proprietary schools  approved by the Virginia Department of Education. 
    B. Backflow prevention device worker courses must be  completed through schools approved by the board. The board accepts the American  Society of Sanitary Engineers' (ASSE) standards for testing procedures. Other  programs could be approved after board review. The board requires all backflow  training to include instruction in a wet lab. 
    C. Elevator mechanic courses must be completed through  schools approved by the board. The board accepts training programs approved by  the National Elevator Industry Education Program (NEIEP). Other programs could  be approved after board review. 
    D. Water well systems provider courses must be completed  through schools or programs approved by the board.
    E. Certified accessibility courses must be completed through  education providers approved by the board. 
    F. Residential building energy analyst courses must be  completed through programs that meet or exceed the standards set forth by the  U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, the U.S. Department of Energy, or the  Home Performance with Energy Star Program. Other programs could be approved  after board review.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         [ FORMS (18VAC50-30)
    Education Provider Listing Application,  A501-27EDLIST-v3 (rev. 12/12)
    Education Provider Registration/Course Approval  Application, A501-27EDREG-v5 (rev. 12/12)
    Tradesman Additional Designation & License  Upgrade Application, A501-2710_ADDLIC-v2 (rev. 12/12)
    Tradesman Exam & License Application,  A501-2710EXLIC-v2 (rev. 12/12)
    Tradesman Individual Experience Form,  A501-2710EXP-v2 (rev. 12/12)
    Tradesman – Inactive/Activate License Application,  A501-2710INAT-v1 (eff. 1/13)
    Backflow Prevention Device Worker Certification  Application, A501-2717CERT-v2 (rev. 12/12)
    Certified Elevator Mechanic Application,  A501-2718CERT-v3 (rev. 7/13)
    Temporary Elevator Mechanic Certification (rev.  4/10) 
    Certified Water Well System Provider Application,  A501-2719CERT-v2 (rev. 12/12)
    Certified Accessibility Mechanics Application,  A501-2720CERT-v1 (eff. 1/14)
    Certified Accessibility Mechanics Limited  Use/Limited Application (LULA) Endorsement Application, A501-2720LULA-v1 (eff.  1/14) 
    Residential  Building Energy Analyst License Application, Form A501-2722LIC-v4 (rev. 7/14)
    Residential  Building Energy Analyst Experience Form, Form A501-2722EXP-v3 (rev. 7/13) ]
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-2739; Filed August 17, 2015, 10:48 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF MEDICINE
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Board of Medicine is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the Administrative  Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of the Code of Virginia,  which excludes regulations that are necessary to conform to changes in Virginia  statutory law where no agency discretion is involved. The Board of Medicine  will receive, consider, and respond to petitions from any interested person at  any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 18VAC85-20. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Medicine, Osteopathic Medicine, Podiatry, and  Chiropractic (amending 18VAC85-20-121, 18VAC85-20-122). 
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 7, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: William L. Harp, M.D., Executive  Director, Board of Medicine, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA  23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4621, FAX (804) 527-4429, or email  william.harp@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments conform regulation requirements for  postgraduate training per Chapter 525 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly so that 12 months  of such training must be done in one program or institution. 
    18VAC85-20-121. Educational requirements: Graduates of approved  institutions. 
    A. Such an applicant shall be a graduate of an institution  that meets the criteria appropriate to the profession in which he seeks to be  licensed, which are as follows: 
    1. For licensure in medicine. The institution shall be  approved or accredited by the Liaison Committee on Medical Education or other  official accrediting body recognized by the American Medical Association, or by  the Committee for the Accreditation of Canadian Medical Schools or its  appropriate subsidiary agencies or any other organization approved by the  board. 
    2. For licensure in osteopathic medicine. The institution  shall be approved or accredited by the Bureau of Professional Education of the  American Osteopathic Association or any other organization approved by the  board. 
    3. For licensure in podiatry. The institution shall be  approved and recommended by the Council on Podiatric Medical Education of the  American Podiatric Medical Association or any other organization approved by  the board. 
    B. Such an applicant for licensure in medicine, osteopathic  medicine, or podiatry shall provide evidence of having completed one year  12 months of satisfactory postgraduate training as an intern or resident  in a hospital or health care facility offering approved internship and  residency training programs in one program or institution when such  a program or institution is approved by an accrediting agency recognized  by the board for internship and residency training. 
    C. For licensure in chiropractic. 
    1. If the applicant matriculated in a chiropractic college on  or after July 1, 1975, he shall be a graduate of a chiropractic college  accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of the Council of Chiropractic  Education or any other organization approved by the board. 
    2. If the applicant matriculated in a chiropractic college  prior to July 1, 1975, he shall be a graduate of a chiropractic college  accredited by the American Chiropractic Association or the International  Chiropractic Association or any other organization approved by the board. 
    18VAC85-20-122. Educational requirements: Graduates and former  students of institutions not approved by an accrediting agency recognized by  the board. 
    A. A graduate of an institution not approved by an  accrediting agency recognized by the board shall present documentary evidence  that he: 
    1. Was enrolled and physically in attendance at the  institution's principal site for a minimum of two consecutive years and  fulfilled at least half of the degree requirements while enrolled two  consecutive academic years at the institution's principal site. 
    2. Has fulfilled the applicable requirements of § 54.1-2930 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    3. Has obtained a certificate from the Educational Council of  Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG), or its equivalent. Proof of licensure by the  board of another state or territory of the United States or a province of  Canada may be accepted in lieu of ECFMG certification. 
    4. Has had supervised clinical training as a part of his  curriculum in an approved hospital, institution or school of medicine offering  an approved residency program in the specialty area for the clinical training  received or in a program acceptable to the board and deemed a substantially  equivalent experience, if such training was received in the United States. 
    5. Has completed two years of satisfactory postgraduate  training as an intern, or resident in a hospital or health  care facility offering an approved internship or residency training program  when such a program is approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the  board for internship and residency, or clinical fellow. The two  years shall include at least 12 months in one program or institution approved  by an accrediting agency recognized by the board for internship or residency  training or in a clinical fellowship acceptable to the board in the same or a  related field.
    a. The board may substitute other postgraduate training or  study for one year of the two-year requirement when such training or study has  occurred in the United States or Canada and is: 
    (1) An approved fellowship program; or 
    (2) A position teaching medical students, interns, or  residents in a medical school program approved by an accrediting agency  recognized by the board for internship and residency training. 
    b. The board may substitute continuous full-time practice of  five years or more with a limited professorial license in Virginia and one year  of postgraduate training in a foreign country in lieu of two years of  postgraduate training. 
    6. Has received a degree from  the institution. 
    B. A former student who has completed all degree requirements  except social services and postgraduate internship at a school not approved by  an accrediting agency recognized by the board shall be considered for licensure  provided that he: 
    1. Has fulfilled the requirements of subdivisions A 1 through  5 of this section; 
    2. Has qualified for and completed an appropriate supervised  clinical training program as established by the American Medical Association;  and 
    3. Presents a document issued by the school certifying that he  has met all the formal requirements of the institution for a degree except  social services and postgraduate internship.  
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4123; Filed August 17, 2015, 2:09 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF MEDICINE
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Board of Medicine is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the Administrative  Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of the Code of Virginia,  which excludes regulations that are necessary to conform to changes in Virginia  statutory law where no agency discretion is involved. The Board of Medicine will  receive, consider, and respond to petitions from any interested person at any  time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 18VAC85-40. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Respiratory Care Practitioners (amending 18VAC85-40-10, 18VAC85-40-40 through  18VAC85-40-60, 18VAC85-40-65 through 18VAC85-40-70). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-2912.1  of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: October 7, 2015. 
    Agency Contact: William L. Harp, M.D., Executive  Director, Board of Medicine, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233,  telephone (804) 367-4558, FAX (804) 527-4429, or email  william.harp@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments conform to Chapter 302 of the 2015 Acts of  Assembly by changing the term "respiratory care practitioner" to  "respiratory therapist."
    CHAPTER 40 
  REGULATIONS GOVERNING THE PRACTICE OF RESPIRATORY CARE PRACTITIONERS THERAPISTS  
    Part I 
  General Provisions 
    18VAC85-40-10. Definitions. 
    A. The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the meanings ascribed to them in § 54.1-2900 of the Code of  Virginia: 
    Board 
    Qualified medical direction 
    B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise: 
    "AARC" means the American Association for  Respiratory Care. 
    "Accredited educational program" means a program  accredited by the Commission on Accreditation for Respiratory Care or any other  agency approved by the NBRC for its entry level certification examination. 
    "Active practice" means a minimum of 160 hours of  professional practice as a respiratory care practitioner therapist  within the 24-month period immediately preceding renewal or application for  licensure if previously licensed or certified in another jurisdiction. The  active practice of respiratory care may include supervisory, administrative,  educational or consultative activities or responsibilities for the delivery of  such services. 
    "Advisory board" means the Advisory Board on  Respiratory Care to the Board of Medicine as specified in § 54.1-2956 of the  Code of Virginia. 
    "NBRC" means the National Board for Respiratory  Care, Inc. 
    "Respiratory care practitioner therapist"  means a person as specified in § 54.1-2954 of the Code of Virginia. 
    Part II 
  Requirements for Licensure as a Respiratory Care Practitioner Therapist
    18VAC85-40-40. Licensure requirements. 
    An applicant for licensure shall submit the following on  forms provided by the board: 
    1. A completed application and a fee as prescribed in  18VAC85-40-35. 
    2. Verification of professional education in respiratory care  as required in 18VAC85-40-45. 
    3. Verification of practice as required on the application  form. 
    4. Evidence of passage of the national examination as required  in 18VAC85-40-50. 
    5. If licensed or certified in any other jurisdiction,  documentation of active practice as a respiratory care practitioner therapist  or documentation of 20 hours of continuing education within the 24-month period  immediately preceding application and verification that there has been no  disciplinary action taken or pending in that jurisdiction. 
    18VAC85-40-45. Educational requirements. 
    An applicant for licensure shall: 
    1. Be a graduate of an accredited educational program for  respiratory care practitioners therapists; or 
    2. Hold current credentialing as a Certified Respiratory  Therapist (CRT) or a Registered Respiratory Therapist (RRT) from the NBRC or  any other credentialing body determined by the board to be equivalent. 
    18VAC85-40-50. Examination requirements. 
    An applicant for a license to practice as a licensed  respiratory care practitioner therapist shall submit to the board  evidence that the applicant has passed the NBRC entry level examination for  respiratory care, or its equivalent as approved by the board. 
    18VAC85-40-55. Registration for voluntary practice by  out-of-state licensees. 
    Any respiratory care practitioner therapist who  does not hold a license to practice in Virginia and who seeks registration to  practice under subdivision 27 of § 54.1-2901 of the Code of Virginia on a  voluntary basis under the auspices of a publicly supported, all volunteer,  nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to  populations of underserved people shall: 
    1. File a complete application for registration on a form  provided by the board at least five business days prior to engaging in such  practice. An incomplete application will not be considered; 
    2. Provide a complete record of professional licensure in each  state in which he has held a license and a copy of any current license; 
    3. Provide the name of the nonprofit organization, the dates  and location of the voluntary provision of services; 
    4. Pay a registration fee of $10; and 
    5. Provide a notarized statement from a representative of the  nonprofit organization attesting to its compliance with provisions of  subdivision 27 of § 54.1-2901 of the Code of Virginia. 
    Part III 
  Renewal and Reinstatement 
    18VAC85-40-60. Renewal of license. 
    A. Every licensed respiratory care practitioner therapist  intending to continue his licensure shall biennially in each odd-numbered year  in his birth month: 
    1. Register with the board for renewal of his license; 
    2. Pay the prescribed renewal fee at the time he files for  renewal; 
    3. Attest that he has engaged in active practice as defined in  18VAC85-40-10 or present other documented evidence acceptable to the board that  he is prepared to resume practice; and 
    4. Attest to having met the continuing education requirements  of 18VAC85-40-66. 
    B. A respiratory care practitioner therapist  whose licensure has not been renewed by the first day of the month following  the month in which renewal is required shall pay a late fee as prescribed in  18VAC85-40-35. 
    18VAC85-40-65. Reactivation or reinstatement.
    A. To reactivate an inactive license or to reinstate a  license that has been lapsed for more than two years, a respiratory care  practitioner therapist shall submit evidence of competency to return  to active practice to include one of the following:
    1. Information on continued practice in another jurisdiction  during the period in which the license has been inactive or lapsed;
    2. Ten hours of continuing education for each year in which  the license has been inactive or lapsed, not to exceed three years; or
    3. Recertification by passage of an examination from NBRC.
    B. To reactivate an inactive license, a respiratory care  practitioner therapist shall pay a fee equal to the difference  between the current renewal fee for inactive licensure and the renewal fee for  active licensure.
    C. To reinstate a license which has been lapsed for more than  two years, a respiratory care practitioner therapist shall file  an application for reinstatement and pay the fee for reinstatement of his  licensure as prescribed in 18VAC85-40-35. The board may specify additional  requirements for reinstatement of a license so lapsed to include education,  experience or reexamination.
    D. A respiratory care practitioner therapist  whose licensure has been revoked by the board and who wishes to be reinstated  shall make a new application to the board, fulfill additional requirements as  specified in the order from the board and make payment of the fee for  reinstatement of his licensure as prescribed in 18VAC85-40-35 pursuant to § 54.1-2408.2  of the Code of Virginia.
    E. The board reserves the right to deny a request for  reactivation or reinstatement to any licensee who has been determined to have  committed an act in violation of § 54.1-2915 of the Code of Virginia or  any provisions of this chapter.
    18VAC85-40-66. Continuing education requirements. 
    A. In order to renew an active license as a respiratory care  practitioner therapist, a licensee shall attest to having completed  20 hours of continuing education as approved and documented by a sponsor  recognized by the AARC or in courses directly related to the practice of  respiratory care as approved by the American Medical Association for Category 1  CME credit within the last biennium. 
    B. A practitioner shall be exempt from the continuing  education requirements for the first biennial renewal following the date of  initial licensure in Virginia. 
    C. The practitioner shall retain in his records the completed  form with all supporting documentation for a period of four years following the  renewal of an active license. 
    D. The board shall periodically conduct a random audit of its  active licensees to determine compliance. The practitioners selected for the  audit shall provide all supporting documentation within 30 days of receiving  notification of the audit. 
    E. Failure to comply with these requirements may subject the  licensee to disciplinary action by the board. 
    F. The board may grant an extension of the deadline for  continuing competency requirements, for up to one year, for good cause shown  upon a written request from the licensee prior to the renewal date. 
    G. The board may grant an exemption for all or part of the  requirements for circumstances beyond the control of the licensee, such as  temporary disability, mandatory military service, or officially declared  disasters. 
    18VAC85-40-67. Restricted volunteer license.
    A. A respiratory care practitioner therapist  who held an unrestricted license issued by the Virginia Board of Medicine or by  a board in another state as a licensee in good standing at the time the license  expired or became inactive may be issued a restricted volunteer license to  practice without compensation in a clinic that is organized in whole or in part  for the delivery of health care services without charge in accordance with § 54.1-106 of the Code of Virginia.
    B. To be issued a restricted volunteer license, a respiratory  care practitioner therapist shall submit an application to the  board that documents compliance with requirements of § 54.1-2928.1 of the  Code of Virginia and the application fee prescribed in 18VAC85-40-35.
    C. The licensee who intends to continue practicing with a  restricted volunteer license shall renew  biennially during his birth  month, meet the continued competency requirements prescribed in subsection D of  this section, and pay to the board the renewal fee prescribed in 18VAC85-40-35.
    D. The holder of a restricted volunteer license shall not be  required to attest to hours of continuing education for the first renewal of  such a license.  For each renewal thereafter, the licensee shall attest to  obtaining 10 hours of continuing education as approved and documented by a  sponsor recognized by the AARC or in courses directly related to the practice  of respiratory care as approved by the American Medical Association for  Category 1 CME credit within the last biennium.
    Part IV 
  Scope of Practice 
    18VAC85-40-70. Individual responsibilities. 
    Practice as a licensed respiratory care practitioner therapist  means, upon receipt of written or verbal orders from a qualified practitioner  and under qualified medical direction, the evaluation, care and treatment of  patients with deficiencies and abnormalities associated with the  cardiopulmonary system. This practice shall include, but not be limited to,  ventilatory assistance and support; the insertion of artificial airways without  cutting tissue and the maintenance of such airways; the administration of  medical gases exclusive of general anesthesia; topical administration of  pharmacological agents to the respiratory tract; humidification; and  administration of aerosols. The practice of respiratory care shall include such  functions shared with other health professionals as cardiopulmonary  resuscitation; bronchopulmonary hygiene; respiratory rehabilitation; specific  testing techniques required to assist in diagnosis, therapy and research; and  invasive and noninvasive cardiopulmonary monitoring. 
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (18VAC85-40) 
    Instructions and Application for Reinstatement of License  to Practice Respiratory Care (rev. 11/10).
    Instructions (rev. 1/09) and Application for a License to  Practice as a Respiratory Care Practitioner (rev. 12/07).
    Reinstatement Application Instructions for Respiratory  Care Practitioner after Reinstatement Denied or License Revoked (rev. 8/07).
    Reinstatement Application Instructions for Respiratory  Care Practitioner after Mandatory Suspension, Suspension or Surrender (rev.  8/07).
    Form A, Claims History Sheet (rev. 8/07).
    Form B, Activity Questionnaire (rev. 8/07).
    Form C, Clearance from Other State Boards (rev. 8/07).
    Form L, Certificate of Professional Education (rev. 1/09).
    Application for Registration for Volunteer Practice (rev.  8/07).
    Sponsor Certification for Volunteer Registration  (rev. 8/08) 
    Instructions  and Application for a License to Practice as a Respiratory Therapist (rev.  8/2015)
    Application  for Registration for Volunteer Practice (undated)
    Form  B, Activity Questionnaire (rev. 8/2015)
    Application  to reactivate an Inactive License for a Respiratory Therapist (eff. 8/2015)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4312; Filed August 17, 2015, 2:10 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
DEPARTMENT OF PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL REGULATION
Forms
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency.  The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the  Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a  hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or  may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building,  2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         Title of Regulation: 18VAC120-40. Virginia  Professional Boxing and Wrestling Events Regulations.
    Agency Contact: Kathleen R. Nosbisch, Executive  Director, Professional Boxing, Wrestling and Martial Arts Advisory Board,  Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive,  Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8514, or email  kate.nosbisch@dpor.virginia.gov.
    FORMS (18VAC120-40)
    Boxing and Wrestling Nonparticipant License Application,  41NPLIC (rev. 7/05).
    Boxing and Wrestling Event Card Additions and Deletions  Form, 41EVCHG (eff. 8/03).
    Boxing and Wrestling Event Surety Bond Form, 41EVBOND  (rev. 8/03).
    Boxing and Wrestling Deposit Verification, 41DEPOSIT (rev.  8/03).
    Boxing and Wrestling Promoter's Fee Report, 41PFRFIN (rev.  2/06).
    Boxing Event License Application, 41BEVLIC (rev. 8/06).
    Boxing License Application, 41BOXLIC (rev. 8/06).
    Boxing Promoter License Application, 41BPRLIC (eff. 7/05).
    Promoters Payout Report, 41PQYREP (rev. 4/06).
    Wrestling Event License Application, 41WEVLIC (rev. 8/06).
    Wrestling License Application, 41WLIC (rev. 8/06).
    Wrestling Promoter License Application, 41WPRLIC (eff.  7/05).
    Limited Boxing License Application, 41LTDBOXLIC (eff.  9/05).
    Limited Wrestling License Application, 41LTDWLIC (eff.  9/05).
    Martial Arts Boxing License Application, 41MALIC (eff.  8/06).
    Wrestling  License Application, A511-4101LIC-v2 (eff. 1/2015)
    Boxing  License Application, A511-4102LIC-v2 (eff. 1/2015)
    Boxing  Manager/Matchmaker License Application, A511-4103_04LIC (eff. 9/2012)
    Trainer,  Second or Cut Man License Application, A511-4105LIC-v2 (eff. 1/2015)
    Wrestling  Promoter License Application, A511-4106LIC-v2 (eff. 9/2013)
    Wrestling  Event License Application, A511-4107LIC-v2 (eff. 1/2014)
    Boxing  Event License Application, A511-4108LIC-v2 (eff. 1/2014)
    Boxing  Promoter License Application, A511-4110LIC-v1 (eff. 9/2012)
    Limited  (Temporary) Wrestling License Application, A511-4121LIC-v2 (eff. 1/2015)
    Limited  (Temporary) Boxing License Application, A511-4122LIC-v2 (eff. 1/2015)
    Martial  Arts Boxing License Application, A511-4123LIC-v2 (eff. 1/2015)
    Amateur  Boxing - Sanctioning Organization Approval Application, A511-4130AB_SO-v1 (eff.  10/2015)
    Amateur  Martial Arts - Sanctioning Organization Approval Application,  A511-4130AMA_SOA-v1 (eff. 10/2015)
    Amateur  Event Notification Form, A511-4130EVE-v1 (eff. 10/2015)
    Amateur  Sanctioning Organization - Experience Verification Form, A511-4130EXP-v1 (eff.  10/2015)
    Event  Cash Bond Form, A511-41ECBOND (eff. 9/2012)
    Event  Surety Bond Form, A511-41EVBOND (eff. 9/2012)
    Event  Card Additions and/or Deletions Form, A511-41EVCHG (eff. 9/2012)
    Promoter  Payout Report, A511-41PAYREP (eff. 9/2012)
    Promoter's  Fee Report, A511-41PFR (eff. 9/2012)
    Gate  Fee Report, A511-41GFR-v2 (eff. 10/2015)
    Criminal  Conviction Reporting Form, A406-01CCR-v1 (eff. 5/2015) 
    Disciplinary  Action Reporting Form, A406-01DAR-v1 (eff. 5/2015)
    Denial  of Licensure Reporting Form, A406-01DEN-v1 (eff. 5/2015)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4486; Filed August 8, 2015, 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
STATE BOARD OF SOCIAL SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 22VAC40-72. Standards for  Licensed Assisted Living Facilities (repealing 22VAC40-72-10 through 22VAC40-72-1160).
    22VAC40-73. Standards for Licensed Assisted Living  Facilities (adding 22VAC40-73-10 through 22VAC40-73-1180).  
    Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-217, 63.2-1732, and 63.2-1805 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    October 13, 2015 - 12 p.m. - Department of Social  Services, Central Regional Office, 1604 Santa Rosa Road, Richmond, VA 23229
    Public Comment Deadline: November 6, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Judith McGreal, Licensing Program  Consultant, Division of Licensing Programs, Department of Social Services, 801  East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 726-7157, FAX (804)  726-7132, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email judith.mcgreal@dss.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia requires  the State Board of Social Services to adopt regulations as may be necessary or  desirable to carry out the purpose of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia.  Section 63.2-1721 of the Code of Virginia requires applicants for assisted  living facility licensure to undergo a background check; § 63.2-1732 of  the Code of Virginia provides the board's overall authority to promulgate  regulations for assisted living facilities and specifies content areas to be  included in the standards; § 63.2-1802 of the Code of Virginia authorizes  assisted living facilities to provide safe, secure environments for residents  with serious cognitive impairments due to dementia if they comply with the  board's regulations; § 63.2-1803 of the Code of Virginia addresses  staffing of assisted living facilities; § 63.2-1805 of the Code of  Virginia requires the board to promulgate regulations regarding admission,  retention, and discharge of residents; and § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia  relates to resident rights. The promulgating entity is the State Board of  Social Services.
    Purpose: This regulatory action is essential to protect  the health, safety, and welfare of aged, infirm, or disabled adults who reside  in assisted living facilities. The regulatory action is needed to ensure that  assisted living facilities provide care, services, and a safe environment for  an increasingly vulnerable population. In addition, the assisted living  facility regulation provides clear criteria for licensees to follow to obtain  and maintain their licensure.
    The State Board of Social Services adopted 22VAC40-72 in  November 2006 and has amended the regulation five times over the intervening  years. Repeal of the existing regulation and adoption of a new regulation will  allow greater flexibility to adjust the structure, format, and language to  provide increased consistency and clarity. This consistency and clarity will  improve both compliance with the regulation and enforcement. It will also allow  for a format conducive to the greater protection of residents of the  Commonwealth's licensed assisted living facilities, the number of which (both  residents and facilities) are expected to significantly increase in upcoming  years.
    Substance: New substantive provisions in the regulation  include: 
    22VAC40-73-100 provides for the development and implementation  of an enhanced infection control program that addresses the surveillance,  prevention, and control of disease and infection.
    22VAC40-73-160 adds to administrator training requirements that  administrators who supervise medication aides, but are not registered  medication aides themselves, must have annual training in medication  administration.
    22VAC40-73-210 increases the annual training hours for direct  care staff.
    22VAC40-73-220 adds requirements regarding private duty  personnel.
    22VAC40-73-260 increases the number of staff needed with  certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation to one for every 50 residents.
    22VAC40-73-280 changes an exception to the staffing requirement  that allows staff to sleep at night under certain circumstances to limit its  application to facilities licensed for residential living care only.
    22VAC40-73-310 adds to admission and retention requirements  additional specifications regarding an agreement between a facility and hospice  program when hospice care is provided to a resident.
    22VAC40-73-325 adds a requirement for a fall risk assessment  for residents who meet the criteria for assisted living care.
    22VAC40-73-490 reduces the number of times annually required  for health care oversight when a facility employs a full-time licensed health  care professional and adds a requirement that all residents be included  annually in the health care oversight.
    22VAC40-73-540 specifies that visiting hours may not be  restricted unless a resident so chooses.
    22VAC40-73-620 reduces the number of times annually for  oversight of special diets.
    22VAC40-73-750 adds a provision that a resident may determine  not to have certain furnishings that are otherwise required in his bedroom.
    22VAC40-73-880 adds to the standard that in a bedroom with a  thermostat where only one resident resides, the resident may choose a  temperature other than what is otherwise required.
    22VAC40-73-930 adds to the provision for signaling and call  systems that for a resident with an inability to use the signaling device, this  inability must be included on his individualized service plan with frequency of  rounds indicated.
    22VAC40-73-980 adds antibiotic cream or ointment and aspirin to  first aid kit requirements and eliminates activated charcoal; adds a  requirement for flashlight or battery lantern for each employee directly  responsible for resident care, not only for those at night; and adds a  requirement that 48 hours of emergency food and water supply be on site.
    22VAC40-73-1010 removes the exception for facilities licensed  for 10 or fewer with no more than three with serious cognitive impairment that  currently applies to all requirements for mixed population and makes it  applicable only to the staffing requirement.
    22VAC40-73-1030 increases the training required in cognitive  impairment for direct care staff and other staff, except for the administrator.
    22VAC40-73-1120 increases the number of hours per week of  activities for residents in a safe, secure environment.
    22VAC40-73-1130 specifies that there must be at least two  direct care staff members on each floor in each special care unit, rather than  in each special care unit.
    22VAC40-73-1140 increases the number of hours of training in  cognitive impairment for the administrator and changes the time period in which  the training must be received for both the administrator and for direct care  staff who work in a special care unit, and also increases training in cognitive  impairment for others who have contact with residents in a special care unit.
    Issues: The primary advantage of the proposed regulatory  action to the public and the Commonwealth is the increased protection it  provides to residents in assisted living facilities. The action is needed to protect  the health, safety, and welfare of an increasingly vulnerable population of  aged, infirm, or disabled adults. The regulation addresses the care, services,  and environment provided by assisted living facilities.
    The new regulation also provides clear criteria for licensees  to follow to maintain their licensure and for licensing staff to use in  determining compliance with standards and in the implementation of any  necessary enforcement action. In the proposed regulatory action, a fair and  reasonable balance has been attempted to ensure adequate protection of  residents while considering the cost to facilities. Although some requirements  have been increased, others have been eliminated or reduced.
    Several areas of the proposed regulations have been of particular  interest to assisted living facility providers, provider associations, advocacy  groups, licensing staff, and the general public. These areas have been  addressed and include (i) revising requirements for health care oversight to  allow more flexibility, (ii) adding to provisions for signaling and call  systems to better meet the needs of residents who are unable to use a signaling  device, (iii) prohibiting restrictions on visiting hours but allowing for  facility guidelines for such purposes as security, (iv) providing for more  staff training to better meet the needs of residents, (v) reducing the  frequency of oversight of special diets, (vi) providing greater flexibility  when residents store cleaning supplies or other hazardous materials in their  rooms, (vii) providing more specific requirements regarding fall risk  assessment to prevent or reduce falls by residents, and (viii) eliminating some  requirements relating to personnel practices that are internal business  practices of a facility.
    The regulation takes into consideration differences in the  levels of care, that is, residential living care and assisted living care, as  well as the cost constraints of smaller facilities. The regulation addresses  the needs of the mental health population, physically disabled residents, and  elderly persons. Because the assisted living facility industry is so diverse in  respect to size, population in care, types of services offered, form of  sponsorship, etc., the standards must be broad enough to allow for these  differences, while at the same time be specific enough so that providers know  what is expected of them. The new regulation was revised based on multiple  regulatory advisory panel input, recommendations and feedback, public comment,  and Assisted Living Facility Advisory Committee recommendations. 
    The regulatory action poses no disadvantages to the public or  the Commonwealth.
    Governor's Request for Public Comment: I have reviewed  the proposed regulation on a preliminary basis. While I reserve the right to  take action under the Administrative Process Act as the regulation moves  forward, I approve the publication of this proposed regulation to the next  stage for the purpose of soliciting public comment. Specifically, I would like  public comment on and agency consideration of two possible changes.
    First, whether assisted living facilities should be required to  have Internet capability for the use of residents. Currently, assisted living  facilities are required to provide residents access to a telephone, but these  regulations have not been changed for many years. The Internet has become such  an integral part of everyday life that it may be time to update these  regulations to require assisted living facilities in Virginia to have Internet  capability. The benefits to resident quality of life could be substantial;  however, more information about both the costs and the benefits is needed. I  would like the agency to consider the costs and benefits of requiring Internet  capability at assisted living facilities, and I would like public comment on  the same. Specific information about cost issues should be included in any  public comment that argues the costs of requiring Internet capability are  prohibitive. 
    Second, the proposed regulation amends rules regarding direct  care staff based on the number per floor, rather than per unit. I would like  public comment on and agency consideration of any alternative ways to implement  a common sense requirement based either on the number of residents or some more  flexible measure since assisted living facilities vary in their physical design  and space.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Social Services (Board) proposes to repeal its current regulations that govern  standards for licensed assisted living facilities and replace them with revised  regulations that contain numerous changes. In addition to clarifying and  organizational changes, the Board is proposing various substantive changes as  well. The most significant of the changes proposed for these regulations  include: 
    1. The development and implementation of an enhanced infection  control program that addresses the surveillance, prevention, and control of  disease and infection. Proposed requirements for the enhanced  program include that the program be written down, that a licensed health care  professional be involved in its development and that a staff person be  appointed as a point of contact.
    2. Requiring administrators who are not registered medication  aides but who supervise medication aides to have annual refresher training in  medication administration. 
    3. Increasing the annual training that direct care staff who  work for assisted living facilities are required to complete from 16 hours to  18 hours. Annual training for direct care staff at residential care facilities  is proposed to increase from 8 to 14 hours.
    4. Increasing the cognitive impairment training required for  direct care staff (except for administrators) who work in mixed population  facilities from four to six hours to be completed within four months of  employment. Non-direct care staff training (again, excepting administrators)  must be completed within one month of employment and was increased from one to  two hours.
    5. Increasing the number of hours of training in cognitive  impairment for administrators of facilities with special care units from 10  hours within a year of hiring to 12 hours within 3 months. The time period in  which cognitive impairment training must be completed by direct care staff who  work in a special care unit is proposed to shorten from within a year of hiring  to within four months. Other staff cognitive impairment training is proposed to  increase from one to two hours within a month of hiring.
    6. Increasing the hours of training that managers of smaller  facilities that share an administrator must complete from 16 hours to 20 hours  annually. As part of the required annual training, managers of facilities that  have residents with mental impairment will have to complete six hours of  training (rather than the four hours required now) specifically geared toward  meeting the needs of the mentally impaired. The Board also proposes to newly  require two hours of annual training on infection control as part of the 20  hours of proposed required annual training.
    7. Requiring direct care staff who work with residential care  level residents to meet the same staff qualifications as individuals who work  with assisted living level residents. Residential direct care staff will newly  be required to complete some sort of approved nurse aide or personal care aide  training. The proposed regulations will give these individuals one year from  the effective date of these regulations to get the additional training that  would be newly required. 
    8. Adding requirements regarding private duty personnel that  would incorporate into the regulation some of the standards that are currently  in the Department of Social Services' (DSS) technical assistance document.
    9. Increasing the number of staff needed with certification in  cardiopulmonary resuscitation from one for every 100 to one for every 50  residents. 
    10. Changing a staffing requirement exception that allows staff  to sleep at night in facilities that house 19 or fewer residents to limit its  application to residential living facilities only.
    11. Listing additional specifications regarding agreements  between facilities and hospice programs when hospice care is provided to a  resident. 
    12. Requiring a fall risk assessment to be conducted for  residents who meet the criteria for assisted living care. 
    13. Reducing the number of health care oversight reviews when a  facility employs a full-time licensed health care professional (usually a  registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse). For assisted living level  residents, the requirement would decrease from four times per year to two times  per year. For residential living level residents, the requirement would  decrease from twice per year to once per year. The Board also proposes to  require that all residents, rather than just a sampling, be included in at  least one review annually.
    14. Reducing the number of times a review must be conducted to  oversee special diets from quarterly to every six months.
    15. Requiring that staff at facilities with  residents who are unable to use their room's signaling/call systems device have  a plan to keep those residents safe. This information would be included on the  resident's individualized service plan (ISP). Residents ISP's must also  indicate with what frequency rounds will be done.
    16. Eliminating activated charcoal and adding antibiotic cream  or ointment and aspirin to the list of what first aid kits must contain. This  section would also add a flashlight or battery lantern requirement for each  employee who is directly responsible for resident care.
    17. Modifying the current requirement to have 96 hours of  emergency food and water supply available to include a requirement that 48  hours of the supply be available on-site. 
    18. Removing the exception for facilities licensed for ten or fewer  residents with no more than three individuals with serious cognitive  impairments that applied to all requirements for mixed populations so that it  only applies to the staffing requirement.
    19. Increasing the number of hours per week of activities that  must be offered to residents in a safe, secure environment from 16 hours  weekly, with not less than one hour each day, to 21 hours weekly, with not less  than two hours each day. 
    20. Specifying that there must be at least two direct care  staff members on each floor in each special care unit. 
    21. Specifying that visiting hours may not be restricted unless  a resident chooses. 
    22. Allowing residents to determine whether they want to have  certain furnishings that are otherwise required in their bedrooms. 
    23. Permitting residents to set the thermostats to a  temperature other than what is otherwise required so long as they do not have a  roommate. 
    24. Allowing residents who do not have serious cognitive  impairments increased flexibility pertaining to the storage of cleaning  supplies and personal care items that could be considered hazardous.
    Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for some  proposed changes. For other proposed changes, there is insufficient information  to ascertain whether benefits will outweigh costs. Costs likely outweigh  benefits for one proposed change.
    Estimated Economic Impact. 
    Infection Control:
    Current regulations require Licensed Assisted Living Facilities  (ALFs) to develop and maintain an infection control program that addresses the  surveillance, prevention and control of infections by: 1) training staff and  volunteers in hand washing and preventing cross contamination between residents  or tasks, 2) prohibiting staff and volunteers with communicable diseases from  direct contact with residents or their food and 3) training staff how to  properly handle, store and transport linens, supplies, equipment and medical  waste so as to not spread infection. Current regulations also require that  methods used for infection control be described in a written document.
    The Board proposes to amend infection control program  requirements so that ALFs will have to develop and write the required infection  control programs with input from a licensed health care professional (usually a  nurse), will have to review their infection control programs at least annually  and will have to designate a staff person as point of contact to monitor  compliance with the facilities' infection control programs. Board staff reports  that some licensed facilities already have a licensed health care professional  on staff that will be able to help create or review infection control programs  for the facilities in which they work. Where that is true, the costs to  facilities on account of the proposed changes to infection control programs  will be limited to the opportunity cost of having the health care professional  work at this task for however many hours it takes rather than working at some  other task(s). For licensed facilities that do not have a health care  professional on staff, the costs associated with these proposed changes will  include the cost of hiring a health care professional to help with the  infection control program. Board staff estimates that a nurse can be hired for  approximately $30 an hour and that it would take approximately eight hours to  write an infection control plan. Using these numbers, the costs associated with  these changes will be $240 initially plus the wage costs for other staff that  would be involved in writing the plan. Since each facility's infection control  program will have to be reviewed annually, and a health care professional will  have to be involved each time the program is reviewed, facilities may incur  approximately the same costs (~$240 + the cost for other staff members' time)  each year after these proposed regulations are promulgated. While the Board's  goal in proposing these changes to infection control programs is presumably to  decrease the number of diseases spread in licensed facilities, the magnitude of  any future effects from these changes is unknown. Because of this, there is  insufficient information to tell whether there will be ameliorative effects on  disease control sufficient to justify the costs of these proposed changes to  facilities.
    Training Requirements:
    Current regulations of the Department of Social Services  require assisted living facility administrators who supervise medication aides,  but who are not licensed or registered to administer medication themselves, to  complete 68 hours of Board of Nursing approved training on administering  medication. The Board now proposes to also require affected administrators to  complete yearly refresher training. Board staff reports that this training will  be approximately four hours in length and will cost approximately $50 per year  per affected administrator plus the implicit cost of administrators' time to  take the course. The Board also proposes to increase the amount of annual  general continuing education that direct care staff at assisted living level  facilities must complete from 16 hours to 18 hours and to increase the annual  general continuing education that direct care staff at residential care  facilities must complete from 8 hours to 14 hours. Board staff estimates that  this training will cost $20 plus the salary costs for each staff person who is  required to train. Board staff estimates that salary costs will be  approximately $8 per hour of additional training.
    Required hours of cognitive impairment training are also  proposed to increase over several categories. Direct care staff at facilities  with mixed populations will have to complete 6 hours of annual cognitive  impairment training rather than the 4 hours they must currently complete.  Administrators of facilities with special care units would have to complete 12  hours of initial cognitive impairment training within three months of hire  rather than the currently required 10 hours of training within 12 months of  hire. Non-direct care staff at mixed population facilities and in special care  units would see their annual cognitive impairment training increase from one to  two hours. Board staff did not report specifically on how much cognitive  impairment training will cost but costs will likely be roughly the same as  those for general training for all staff but the administrators (i.e.,  approximately $20 for the training itself plus $8 x the number of additional  hours required for each affected staff member). Time costs incurred on account  of these proposed training standards will likely be higher for facility  administrators since their salaries are likely higher.
    Managers at smaller ALFs that share an administrator currently  have to complete 16 hours of annual training relating to management or  operations of the type of facilities where they are employed with the addendum  that managers who work at facilities that have mentally impaired residents must  currently complete 4 hours of mental impairment training as part of their 16  hours per year. The Board proposes to increase annual training for managers to  20 hours and increase the mental impairment training for managers who have to  complete such training to 6 hours (of the required 20). Additionally, the Board  proposes to require that managers complete 2 hours of annual infection control  training that can be counted toward their 20 hour total. Additional training  for managers will have costs attached that are more in line with the additional  training costs for administrators listed above.
    For all of the categories of training listed in the three  paragraphs above, Board staff reports that training is being increased to  address concerns that have arisen on account of complaints to the Board and on  account of issues raised during inspections. Since the magnitude of possible  benefits of additional training cannot be measured (as they have not happened  yet), there is insufficient information to judge whether benefits will outweigh  costs for these proposed training increases.
    Under current regulations, direct care staff who care for  assisted living level residents must meet certain qualifications within two  months of employment. They must either 1) have a certification as a nurse aide  issued by the Virginia Board of Nursing, 2) have successfully completed a  Virginia Board of Nursing approved nursing assistant, geriatric assistant or  home health aide education program, 3) have successfully completed a personal  care aide training program approved by the Department of Medical Assistance  Services (DMAS), 4) have successfully completed a DSS approved nursing  assistant, geriatric assistant or home health aide education program or 5) have  successfully completed DSS-approved 40-hour direct care staff training. 
    The Board now proposes to slightly change the training options  available to direct care staff that care for assisted living level residents  and to also require direct care staff who care for residential living level  residents to meet one of these same criteria within one year of the  promulgation of these proposed regulations. Under proposed regulations affected  direct care staff must either 1) have a certification as a nurse aide issued by  the Virginia Board of Nursing, 2) have successfully completed a Virginia Board  of Nursing approved nurse aide education program, 3) have successfully  completed a nursing education program preparing for registered nursing  licensure of practical nursing licensure, 4) be enrolled in a nursing education  program and have completed at least one course that includes 40 hours of direct  client care clinical experience, 5) have successfully completed a personal care  aide training program approved by DMAS, 6) have successfully completed an  education program for geriatric assistants or home health care aides or for  nurse aides which is provided by a hospital, nursing facility or educational  institution approved by DSS, or 7) have successfully completed DSS-approved  40-hour direct care staff training. 
    Board staff reports that the lowest cost option for attaining  one of the required credentials would be to have a qualified individual who is  already employed by a facility or who comes into a facility specifically to  teach new direct care staff the department-approved 40-hour direct care staff  training program. The costs associated with this credentialing would be the  time value of the approximately 40 hours times the instructor's hourly wage  plus 40 hours times the wage of the newly hired direct care employee times the  number of employees taught at once. So, assuming an hourly wage for the health  care professional teaching the class is $30 per hour and an hourly wage for  direct care staff of $8 per hour, the cost of this instruction would be would  be 40x30 or $1,200 plus 8x40 or $320 per trainee. Since residential living  level residents do not require as intense a level of care as assisted living  level residents, it is likely that direct care staff for residential living  level residents do not need all of the training that direct care staff for  assisted living level residents do. Therefore, it is likely that the costs of  requiring the same level of training for all direct care staff will likely  outweigh the anticipated benefits of doing so.
    Staffing Requirements:
    Current regulations require that there be one staff member  trained in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on site for every 100 residents  in a facility. The Board proposes to amend this standard so that the ratio of  CPR trained staff to residents is 1:50. Board staff estimates that the costs  associated with changing this standard will include $50 for the class in CPR  plus $8x4 hours of a staff member's time to take the class for each additional  trained staff member required. Board staff also reports that 52% of facilities  house fewer than 50 residents and would, therefore, be unaffected by this  proposed change. Of the remaining facilities, most would have to have only one  additional CPR trained staff member on site during each shift. Since the  populations served by assisted living facilities and residential care  facilities are, by and large, older and more prone to illnesses such as heart  attack and stroke that would likely require CPR to be administered, the  benefits of this proposed change likely outweighs its costs.
    Current requirements that personal care staff hired by  residents or their families must meet are located in DSS's technical assistance  document. The Board proposes to move these requirements to regulation. Under  the proposed regulations, facilities will have to have a written agreement  outlining the services to be provided by the private personal care personnel  and will also have to ensure that these individuals have a tuberculosis  screening and orientation and initial training. Board staff reports that the  requirements for private duty personnel in these proposed regulations are less  restrictive than those currently enforced so both facilities and families ought  to benefit from these proposed changes.
    Current regulations allow staff at licensed facilities that  house 19 or fewer residents to sleep at night so long as all residents are also  asleep and do not need care. The Board proposes to change this allowance so  that it only applies to residential living level facilities with 19 or fewer  residents. This means that staff at assisted living level facilities will have  to remain awake at night. Given that assisted living level residents require a  greater level of care, and are likely more prone to needing sudden intervention  at any time including the night, the benefits of this change likely outweigh  any inconvenience that staff may experience from not being able to sleep during  their work hours.
    Current regulations require that there be two direct care staff  members awake and on duty in each special care unit in a facility. The Board  proposes to amend this requirement so that there will have to be two direct  care staff members on each floor of a special care unit. This change will  significantly increase the number of staff that will be required to be on  premises in special care units that are housed on multiple floors of a facility  or will require facilities to reconfigure special care units so that they are  housed only on one floor. These costs must be weighed against any benefit that  might accrue to residents of special care units because of the presence of  additional staff. The benefits of this change would likely have to be quite  large if they are to outweigh its costs.
    Other requirements: 
    The Board proposes to newly require that residents entering  assisted living level care undergo a fall risk assessment and that this  assessment be conducted by the time each resident's ISP is complete. The  proposed regulations also require that a resident's fall risk assessment be  updated annually or when a resident has a fall or a change in condition. There  will be time costs for staff to do fall risk assessments but these costs should  be minimal and, in any case, are likely outweighed by the benefits that will  likely accrue to residents when direct care staff is more aware of how at risk  of falling a resident is.
    Current regulations require that assisted living level  facilities conduct four health care oversight reviews per year and that residential  living level facilities conduct two health care oversight reviews each year.  These are general reviews of health outcomes and care at the facility rather  than specific reviews of any particular residents. Current regulations also  require facilities to conduct a review of how well special dietary needs are  being met quarterly. The Board now proposes to reduce the number of health care  oversight reviews when a facility employs a full-time licensed health care  professional, from four per year to two per year for assisted living level care  and from two per year to one per year for residential living level care, and to  also reduce the frequency of special dietary oversight reviews from quarterly  to every six months. These changes are likely to benefit facilities by reducing  the time needed to comply with regulatory requirements each year. There are  likely no costs attached to these proposed changes because individual  residents' health care and dietary needs are analyzed individually apart from  these aggregate reviews.
    Current regulations require assisted living facilities to have  signaling devises in residents' bedrooms or attached bathrooms that can be  pulled or otherwise activated and that alert direct care staff that a resident  needs assistance. Some assisted living residents, however, have difficulty  reaching or pulling signaling devises. As a consequence, the Board proposes to  require facilities to have a plan to monitor residents who cannot use signaling  devises and also proposes to require that each such resident have written into  his/her ISP the frequency with which staff will be checking in on them. This  change may require staff to check in on affected residents more often but the  costs of both staff time and keeping records as to how often residents are  checked on are likely outweighed by the health benefits that will likely accrue  to residents whose acute health issues will likely get a quick response despite  them not being able to alert staff that is a distance from them. 
    Current regulations exempt mixed population facilities with no  more than 10 total residents and with no more than three residents with serious  cognitive impairments from cognitive impairment safety requirements that larger  facilities must adhere to. Currently, facilities that are licensed for more  than 10 residents and that have residents with serious cognitive impairments  must have some sort of system that monitors such residents so that they do not  wander, must have at least two direct care staff on duty and awake in each building  of the facility and must have staff provide sight and sound supervision for  impaired residents while on trips away from the facility. The Board proposes to  amend these requirements so that facilities licensed for 10 or fewer residents,  that house three or fewer residents with serious cognitive impairments, will  have to have a security monitoring system of some sort but will not have to  meet the additional staffing requirements that larger facilities have to meet. 
    Board staff reports that affected facilities can install door  alarms (estimated cost $2 to $40 per door plus the cost of batteries) or they  can install a camera system (estimated cost approximately $300). Facilities may  also choose to pay for bracelets that are monitored by the local sheriff's office  and that allow residents who wander to be tracked down. The initial cost of  bracelets varies from locality to locality (free in some localities and several  hundred dollars in other localities); localities may charge a monthly fee of  approximately $10 per bracelet per month for monitoring and tracking, if  necessary. Alternately, facilities might choose to install door alarms with  keypads (estimated cost $4,500 to $5,100) or purchase a ResidentGuard system  that has several safety systems for residents (estimated cost $1,000 to  $2,000). Whatever the safety system chosen, the attendant costs would need to  be measured against any benefits in additional safety that might accrue to  impaired residents. There is insufficient information at this time to accurately  measure costs against benefits. 
    Current regulations require facilities with special care units  to offer 16 hours of planned activities each week with at least one hour of  activity each day for these units. The Board proposes to increase the hours of  activity required to 21 hours per week with at least two hours of activity  being offered each day. This change will likely cost facilities some additional  staff time and perhaps some additional cost in activity materials, depending on  what kind of activity is being offered. Residents may benefit from additional  activities that will likely increase interaction with other residents and staff  of the facility and that may slow the degradation of health and mental  faculties that may occur in inactive seniors.1  There is insufficient information to measure the magnitude of costs versus  benefits for this proposed incremental change to required planned activity.
    The Board proposes a number of other changes to these  regulations that will allow residents more autonomy in setting their own  environment. For instance, the Board proposes to allow residents who are in  single rooms to set the thermostat in their room to some other temperature than  what is required now. The Board also proposes to specify that visiting hours may  not be restricted unless a resident chooses, to allow residents to remove  furniture from their rooms and to allow residents to keep cleaning supplies and  personal care chemicals out of sight in their rooms so long as they do not have  a serious cognitive impairment. Costs associated with these changes will likely  be minimal and might include staff time to move furniture and monitor guests  and/or some additional heating and cooling cost for residents that change their  thermostat settings. These costs are likely outweighed by the benefits to  residents of having a friendlier more personalized environment that might be  individually safer. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. Board staff reports there are  currently 552 licensed assisted living facilities; of these, approximately 12%,  or approximately 66 facilities, house only residential living care residents.  The remaining facilities house both residential living care residents and  assisted living care residents or house only assisted living care residents.  Board staff also reports that most of these facilities would qualify as small  businesses in the Commonwealth. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be  particularly affected by this proposed regulatory action.
    Projected Impact on Employment. Proposed increases in training  requirements for staff of ALFs, particularly training that is currently not  required of residential care level staff but will be required under these  proposed regulations, will increase the costs of being eligible to work in  residential care and assisted living care facilities. As a consequence of these  increased costs, fewer individuals are likely to seek employment in these  facilities; especially if they can earn a comparable wage in another field that  does not require training at all or requires less training than this.  Facilities may also hire fewer staff and/or take in fewer residents if their  costs increase because they have to cover increased training costs directly.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These proposed  regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use or value of private property  in the Commonwealth.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. Affected small  businesses will likely incur costs for hiring health care professionals to  perform certain newly required tasks and for additional staff training. Smaller  facilities with 19 or fewer residents and with 10 or fewer residents will incur  costs to meet regulatory requirements that they are currently exempted from.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The Board may wish to revisit the issue of proposed qualifications for  staff that work solely with residential care level residents. Since these  residents do not require the same level of care as assisted living level  residents, the Board may be able to lessen the adverse impact of these  regulations on affected small businesses by not requiring the same staff  qualifications for working with residents that require less intervention and  care as they do for working with residents that require more. 
    Real Estate Development Costs. This regulatory action will  likely have no effect on real estate development costs in the Commonwealth.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04  of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number 14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include, but need not  be limited to, a determination of the public benefit, the projected number of  businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity  of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly  affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected,  the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply  with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has an adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less  intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the  regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    _____________________________________________
    1 http://www.phac-aspc.gc.ca/cphorsphc-respcacsp/2010/fr-rc/cphorsphc-respcacsp-06-eng.php
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Social Services reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by  the Department of Planning and Budget and has no comment.
    Summary:
    This proposed regulatory action repeals the existing  regulation, 22VAC40-72, and establishes a comprehensive new regulation,  22VAC40-73, for licensed assisted living facilities. The comprehensive new  regulation is intended to (i) improve clarity, (ii) incorporate improvements in  the language and reflect current federal and state law, (iii) relieve intrusive  and burdensome requirements that are not necessary, (iv) provide greater  protection for residents in care, and (v) reflect current standards of care. 
    Major components of the new regulation include requirements  regarding (i) general provisions; (ii) administration and administrative  services and personnel; (iii) staffing and supervision; (iv) admission,  retention, and discharge of residents; (v) resident care and related services;  (vi) resident accommodations and related provisions; (vii) buildings and  grounds; (viii) emergency preparedness; and (ix) additional requirements for  facilities that care for adults with serious cognitive impairments who cannot  recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare. 
    CHAPTER 73
  STANDARDS FOR LICENSED ASSISTED LIVING FACILITIES
    Part I
  General Provisions
    22VAC40-73-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"  means bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, bowel control, bladder  control, and eating or feeding. A person's degree of independence in performing  these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care and  services.
    "Administer medication" means to open a  container of medicine or to remove the ordered dosage and to give it to the  resident for whom it is ordered.
    "Administrator" means the licensee or a person  designated by the licensee who is responsible for the general administration  and management of an assisted living facility and who oversees the day-to-day  operation of the facility, including compliance with all regulations for  licensed assisted living facilities.
    "Admission" means the date a person actually  becomes a resident of the assisted living facility and is physically present at  the facility.
    "Advance directive" means, as defined in  § 54.1-2982 of the Code of Virginia, (i) a witnessed written document,  voluntarily executed by the declarant in accordance with the requirements of  § 54.1-2983 of the Code of Virginia or (ii) a witnessed oral statement,  made by the declarant subsequent to the time he is diagnosed as suffering from  a terminal condition and in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2983  of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Ambulatory" means the condition of a resident  who is physically and mentally capable of self-preservation by evacuating in  response to an emergency to a refuge area as defined by 13VAC5-63, the Virginia  Uniform Statewide Building Code, without the assistance of another person, or  from the structure itself without the assistance of another person if there is  no such refuge area within the structure, even if such resident may require the  assistance of a wheelchair, walker, cane, prosthetic device, or a single verbal  command to evacuate.
    "Assisted living care" means a level of service  provided by an assisted living facility for adults who may have physical or  mental impairments and require at least moderate assistance with the activities  of daily living. 
    "Assisted living facility" means, as defined in  § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia, any congregate residential setting that  provides or coordinates personal and health care services, 24-hour supervision,  and assistance (scheduled and unscheduled) for the maintenance or care of four  or more adults who are aged, infirm, or disabled and who are cared for in a  primarily residential setting, except (i) a facility or portion of a facility  licensed by the State Board of Health or the Department of Behavioral Health  and Developmental Services, but including any portion of such facility not so  licensed; (ii) the home or residence of an individual who cares for or  maintains only persons related to him by blood or marriage; (iii) a facility or  portion of a facility serving infirm or disabled persons between the ages of 18  and 21 years, or 22 years if enrolled in an educational program for the  handicapped pursuant to § 22.1-214 of the Code of Virginia, when such  facility is licensed by the department as a children's residential facility  under Chapter 17 (§ 63.2-1700 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia,  but including any portion of the facility not so licensed; and (iv) any housing  project for persons 62 years of age or older or the disabled that provides no  more than basic coordination of care services and is funded by the U.S.  Department of Housing and Urban Development, by the U.S. Department of  Agriculture, or by the Virginia Housing Development Authority. Included in this  definition are any two or more places, establishments, or institutions owned or  operated by a single entity and providing maintenance or care to a combined  total of four or more aged, infirm, or disabled adults. Maintenance or care  means the protection, general supervision, and oversight of the physical and  mental well-being of an aged, infirm, or disabled individual. 
    "Attorney-in-fact" means strictly, one who is  designated to transact business for another: a legal agent.
    "Behavioral health authority" means the  organization, appointed by and accountable to the governing body of the city or  county that established it, that provides mental health, developmental, and  substance abuse services through its own staff or through contracts with other  organizations and providers.
    "Building" means a structure with exterior walls  under one roof.
    "Cardiopulmonary resuscitation" or  "CPR" means an emergency procedure consisting of external cardiac  massage and artificial respiration; the first treatment for a person who has  collapsed, has no pulse, and has stopped breathing; and attempts to restore  circulation of the blood and prevent death or brain damage due to lack of  oxygen.
    "Case management" means multiple functions  designed to link clients to appropriate services. Case management may include a  variety of common components such as initial screening of needs, comprehensive  assessment of needs, development and implementation of a plan of care, service  monitoring, and client follow-up.
    "Case manager" means an employee of a public  human services agency who is qualified and designated to develop and coordinate  plans of care.
    "Chapter" or "this chapter" means  these regulations, that is, Standards for Licensed Assisted Living Facilities,  22VAC40-73, unless noted otherwise.
    "Chemical restraint" means a psychopharmacologic  drug that is used for discipline or convenience and not required to treat the  resident's medical symptoms or symptoms from mental illness or intellectual  disability and that prohibits an individual from reaching his highest level of  functioning.
    "Commissioner" means the commissioner of the  department, his designee, or authorized representative.
    "Community services board" or "CSB"  means a public body established pursuant to § 37.2-501 of the Code of  Virginia that provides mental health, developmental, and substance abuse  programs and services within the political subdivision or political  subdivisions participating on the board.
    "Companion services" means assistance provided  to residents in such areas as transportation, meal preparation, shopping, light  housekeeping, companionship, and household management. 
    "Conservator" means a person appointed by the  court who is responsible for managing the estate and financial affairs of an  incapacitated person and, where the context plainly indicates, includes a  "limited conservator" or a "temporary conservator." The  term includes (i) a local or regional program designated by the Department for  Aging and Rehabilitative Services as a public conservator pursuant to Article 6  (§ 51.5-149 et seq.) of Chapter 14 of Title 51.5 of the Code of Virginia  or (ii) any local or regional tax-exempt charitable organization established  pursuant to § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code to provide  conservatorial services to incapacitated persons. Such tax-exempt charitable  organization shall not be a provider of direct services to the incapacitated  person. If a tax-exempt charitable organization has been designated by the  Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services as a public conservator, it  may also serve as a conservator for other individuals.
    "Continuous licensed nursing care" means  around-the-clock observation, assessment, monitoring, supervision, or provision  of medical treatments provided by a licensed nurse. Residents requiring  continuous licensed nursing care may include:
    1. Individuals who have a medical instability due to  complexities created by multiple, interrelated medical conditions; or
    2. Individuals with a health care condition with a high  potential for medical instability.
    "Days" means calendar days unless noted  otherwise.
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Social Services.
    "Department's representative" means an employee  or designee of the Virginia Department of Social Services, acting as an  authorized agent of the Commissioner of Social Services.
    "Dietary supplement" means a product intended  for ingestion that supplements the diet, is labeled as a dietary supplement, is  not represented as a sole item of a meal or diet, and contains a dietary  ingredient, (i.e., vitamins, minerals, amino acid, herbs or other botanicals,  dietary substances (such as enzymes), and concentrates, metabolites,  constituents, extracts, or combinations of the preceding types of ingredients).  Dietary supplements may be found in many forms, such as tablets, capsules,  liquids, or bars.
    "Direct care staff" means supervisors,  assistants, aides, or other staff of a facility who assist residents in the  performance of personal care or daily living activities.  Examples are  likely to include nursing staff, activity staff, geriatric or personal care  assistants, medication aides, and mental health workers but are not likely to  include waiters, chauffeurs, cooks, and dedicated housekeeping, maintenance,  and laundry personnel.
    "Discharge" means the movement of a resident out  of the assisted living facility.
    "Electronic" means relating to technology having  electrical, digital, magnetic, wireless, optical, electromagnetic, or similar  capabilities.
    "Electronic record" means a record created,  generated, sent, communicated, received, or stored by electronic means.
    "Electronic signature" means an electronic  sound, symbol, or process attached to or logically associated with a record and  executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record.
    "Emergency placement" means the temporary status  of an individual in an assisted living facility when the person's health and  safety would be jeopardized by denying entry into the facility until the  requirements for admission have been met.
    "Emergency restraint" means a situation that may  require the use of a restraint where the resident's behavior is unmanageable to  the degree an immediate and serious danger is presented to the health and  safety of the resident or others.
    "General supervision and oversight" means  assuming responsibility for the well-being of residents, either directly or  through contracted agents.
    "Guardian" means a person appointed by the court  who is responsible for the personal affairs of an incapacitated person,  including responsibility for making decisions regarding the person's support,  care, health, safety, habilitation, education, therapeutic treatment, and, if  not inconsistent with an order of involuntary admission, residence. Where the  context plainly indicates, the term includes a "limited guardian" or  a "temporary guardian." The term includes (i) a local or regional  program designated by the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services as a  public guardian pursuant to Article 6 (§ 51.5-149  et seq.) of Chapter 14 of Title 51.5 of the Code of Virginia or (ii) any local  or regional tax-exempt charitable organization established pursuant to §  501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code to provide guardian services to  incapacitated persons. Such tax-exempt charitable organization shall not be a  provider of direct services to the incapacitated person. If a tax-exempt  charitable organization has been designated by the Department for Aging and  Rehabilitative Services as a public guardian, it may also serve as a guardian  for other individuals. 
    "Habilitative service" means activities to  advance a normal sequence of motor skills, movement, and self-care abilities or  to prevent avoidable additional deformity or dysfunction.
    "Health care provider" means a person, corporation,  facility, or institution licensed by this Commonwealth to provide health care  or professional services, including but not limited to a physician or hospital,  dentist, pharmacist, registered or licensed practical nurse, optometrist,  podiatrist, chiropractor, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant,  clinical psychologist, or health maintenance organization.
    "Household member" means any person domiciled in  an assisted living facility other than residents or staff.
    "Imminent physical threat or danger" means clear  and present risk of sustaining or inflicting serious or life threatening  injuries.
    "Independent clinical psychologist" means a  clinical psychologist who is chosen by the resident of the assisted living  facility and who has no financial interest in the assisted living facility,  directly or indirectly, as an owner, officer, or employee or as an independent  contractor with the facility.
    "Independent living status" means that the  resident is assessed as capable of performing all activities of daily living  and instrumental activities of daily living for himself without requiring the  assistance of another person and is assessed as capable of taking medications  without the assistance of another person. If the policy of a facility dictates  that medications are administered or distributed centrally without regard for  the residents' capacity, this policy shall not be considered in determining  independent status.
    "Independent physician" means a physician who is  chosen by the resident of the assisted living facility and who has no financial  interest in the assisted living facility, directly or indirectly, as an owner,  officer, or employee or as an independent contractor with the facility. 
    "Individualized service plan" or "ISP"  means the written description of actions to be taken by the licensee, including  coordination with other services providers, to meet the assessed needs of the  resident.
    "Instrumental activities of daily living" or  "IADLs" means meal preparation, housekeeping, laundry, and managing  money. A person's degree of independence in performing these activities is a  part of determining appropriate level of care and services.
    "Intellectual disability" means disability,  originating before the age of 18 years, characterized concurrently by (i)  significantly subaverage intellectual functioning as demonstrated by  performance on a standardized measure of intellectual functioning, administered  in conformity with accepted professional practice, that is at least two  standard deviations below the mean and (ii) significant limitations in adaptive  behavior as expressed in conceptual, social, and practical adaptive skills.
    "Intermittent intravenous therapy" means therapy  provided by a licensed health care professional at medically predictable  intervals for a limited period of time on a daily or periodic basis.
    "Legal representative" means a person legally  responsible for representing or standing in the place of the resident for the  conduct of his affairs. This may include a guardian, conservator,  attorney-in-fact under durable power of attorney ("durable power of  attorney" defines the type of legal instrument used to name the  attorney-in-fact and does not change the meaning of attorney-in-fact), trustee,  or other person expressly named by a court of competent jurisdiction or the  resident as his agent in a legal document that specifies the scope of the  representative's authority to act. A legal representative may only represent or  stand in the place of a resident for the function or functions for which he has  legal authority to act. A resident is presumed competent and is responsible for  making all health care, personal care, financial, and other personal decisions  that affect his life unless a representative with legal authority has been  appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction or has been appointed by the  resident in a properly executed and signed document. A resident may have  different legal representatives for different functions. For any given  standard, the term "legal representative" applies solely to the legal  representative with the authority to act in regard to the function or functions  relevant to that particular standard. 
    "Licensed health care professional" means any  health care professional currently licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to  practice within the scope of his profession, such as a nurse practitioner,  registered nurse, licensed practical nurse (nurses may be licensed or hold  multistate licensure pursuant to § 54.1-3000 of the Code of Virginia),  clinical social worker, dentist, occupational therapist, pharmacist, physical  therapist, physician, physician assistant, psychologist, and speech-language  pathologist. Responsibilities of physicians referenced in this chapter may be  implemented by nurse practitioners or physician assistants in accordance with  their protocols or practice agreements with their supervising physicians and in  accordance with the law.
    "Licensee" means any person, association, partnership,  corporation, company, or public agency to whom the license is issued.
    "Manager" means a designated person who serves  as a manager pursuant to 22VAC40-73-170 and 22VAC40-73-180.
    "Mandated reporter" means persons specified in § 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia who are required to report matters giving  reason to suspect abuse, neglect, or exploitation of an adult.
    "Maximum physical assistance" means that an  individual has a rating of total dependence in four or more of the seven  activities of daily living as documented on the uniform assessment instrument.  An individual who can participate in any way with performance of the activity  is not considered to be totally dependent.
    "Medication aide" means a staff person who has  current registration with the Virginia Board of Nursing to administer drugs  that would otherwise be self-administered to residents in an assisted living  facility in accordance with the Regulations Governing the Registration of  Medication Aides (18VAC90-60). This definition also includes a staff person who  is an applicant for registration as a medication aide in accordance with  subdivision 2 of 22VAC40-73-670.
    "Mental illness" means a disorder of thought,  mood, emotion, perception, or orientation that significantly impairs judgment,  behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to address basic life  necessities and requires care and treatment for the health, safety, or recovery  of the individual or for the safety of others.
    "Mental impairment" means a disability that  reduces an individual's ability to reason logically, make  appropriate decisions, or engage in purposeful behavior.
    "Minimal assistance" means dependency in only  one activity of daily living or dependency in one or more of the instrumental  activities of daily living as documented on the uniform assessment instrument.
    "Moderate assistance" means dependency in two or  more of the activities of daily living as documented on the uniform assessment  instrument.
    "Nonambulatory" means the condition of a  resident who by reason of physical or mental impairment is not capable of  self-preservation without the assistance of another person.
    "Nonemergency restraint" means circumstances  that may require the use of a restraint for the purpose of providing support to  a physically weakened resident.
    "Physical impairment" means a condition of a  bodily or sensory nature that reduces an individual's ability to function or to  perform activities.
    "Physical restraint" means any manual method or  physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached or adjacent to  the resident's body that the resident cannot remove easily, which restricts  freedom of movement or access to his body.
    "Physician" means an individual licensed to  practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in any of the 50 states or the  District of Columbia.
    "Prescriber" means a practitioner who is  authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 of the Code of Virginia to  issue a prescription.
    "Private duty personnel" means an individual  hired, either directly or through a licensed home care organization, by a  resident, family member, legal representative, or similar entity to provide  one-on-one services to the resident, such as a private duty nurse, home  attendant, personal aide, or companion. Private duty personnel are not hired by  the facility, either directly or through a contract. 
    "Private pay" means that a resident of an  assisted living facility is not eligible for benefits under the Auxiliary  Grants Program.
    "Psychopharmacologic drug" means any drug  prescribed or administered with the intent of controlling mood, mental status,  or behavior. Psychopharmacologic drugs include not only the obvious drug  classes, such as antipsychotic, antidepressants, and the antianxiety/hypnotic  class, but any drug that is prescribed or administered with the intent of  controlling mood, mental status, or behavior, regardless of the manner in which  it is marketed by the manufacturers and regardless of labeling or other  approvals by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
    "Public pay" means that a resident of an  assisted living facility is eligible for benefits under the Auxiliary Grants  Program.
    "Qualified" means having appropriate training  and experience commensurate with assigned responsibilities, or if referring to  a professional, possessing an appropriate degree or having documented  equivalent education, training, or experience. There are specific definitions  for "qualified assessor" and "qualified mental health  professional" in this section. 
    "Qualified assessor" means an individual who is authorized  to perform an assessment, reassessment, or change in level of care for an  applicant to or resident of an assisted living facility. For public pay  individuals, a qualified assessor is an employee of a public human services  agency trained in the completion of the uniform assessment instrument (UAI).  For private pay individuals, a qualified assessor is an employee of the  assisted living facility trained in the completion of the UAI or an independent  private physician or a qualified assessor for public pay individuals.
    "Qualified mental health professional" means a  behavioral health professional who is trained and experienced in providing  psychiatric or mental health services to individuals who have a psychiatric  diagnosis, including (i) a physician licensed in Virginia; (ii) a psychologist:  an individual with a master's degree in psychology from a college or university  accredited by an association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education,  with at least one year of clinical experience; (iii) a social worker: an  individual with at least a master's degree in human services or related field  (e.g., social work, psychology, psychiatric rehabilitation, sociology,  counseling, vocational rehabilitation, or human services counseling) from  college or university accredited by an association recognized by the U.S.  Secretary of Education, with at least one year of clinical experience providing  direct services to persons with a diagnosis of mental illness; (iv) a  registered psychiatric rehabilitation provider (RPRP) registered with the  International Association of Psychosocial Rehabilitation Services (IAPSRS); (v)  a clinical nurse specialist or psychiatric nurse practitioner licensed in the  Commonwealth of Virginia with at least one year of clinical experience working  in a mental health treatment facility or agency; (vi) any other licensed mental  health professional; or (vii) any other person deemed by the Department of  Behavioral Health and Developmental Services as having qualifications  equivalent to those described in this definition. Any unlicensed person who  meets the requirements contained in this definition shall either be under the  supervision of a licensed mental health professional or employed by an agency  or organization licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services.
    "Rehabilitative services" means activities that  are ordered by a physician or other qualified health care professional that are  provided by a rehabilitative therapist (e.g., physical therapist, occupational therapist,  or speech-language pathologist). These activities may be necessary when a  resident has demonstrated a change in his capabilities and are provided to  restore or improve his level of functioning.
    "Resident" means any adult residing in an  assisted living facility for the purpose of receiving maintenance or care.
    "Residential living care" means a level of  service provided by an assisted living facility for adults who may have  physical or mental impairments and require only minimal assistance with the  activities of daily living. Included in this level of service are individuals  who are dependent in medication administration as documented on the uniform  assessment instrument, although they may not require minimal assistance with  the activities of daily living. This definition includes the services provided  by the facility to individuals who are assessed as capable of maintaining  themselves in an independent living status.
    "Respite care" means services provided in an  assisted living facility for the maintenance or care of aged, infirm, or  disabled adults for a temporary period of time or temporary periods of time  that are regular or intermittent. Facilities offering this type of care are  subject to this chapter.
    "Restorative care" means activities designed to  assist the resident in reaching or maintaining his level of potential. These  activities are not required to be provided by a rehabilitative therapist and  may include activities such as range of motion, assistance with ambulation,  positioning, assistance and instruction in the activities of daily living,  psychosocial skills training, and reorientation and reality orientation.
    "Restraint" means either "physical  restraint" or "chemical restraint" as these terms are defined in  this section.
    "Safe, secure environment" means a  self-contained special care unit for individuals with serious cognitive  impairments due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia who cannot  recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare. There may be one or  more self-contained special care units in a facility or the whole facility may  be a special care unit. Nothing in this definition limits or contravenes the  privacy protections set forth in § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Sanitizing" means treating in such a way to  remove bacteria and viruses through using a disinfectant solution (e.g., bleach  solution or commercial chemical disinfectant) or physical agent (e.g., heat).
    "Serious cognitive impairment" means severe  deficit in mental capability of a chronic, enduring, or long-term nature that  affects areas such as thought processes, problem-solving, judgment, memory, and  comprehension and that interferes with such things as reality orientation,  ability to care for self, ability to recognize danger to self or others, and  impulse control. Such cognitive impairment is not due to acute or episodic  conditions, nor conditions arising from treatable metabolic or chemical  imbalances or caused by reactions to medication or toxic substances. For the  purposes of this chapter, serious cognitive impairment means that an individual  cannot recognize danger or protect his own safety and welfare. Serious  cognitive impairment involves an assessment by a clinical psychologist licensed  to practice in the Commonwealth or by a physician as specified in  22VAC40-73-1090.
    "Significant change" means a change in a  resident's condition that is expected to last longer than 30 days. It does not  include short-term changes that resolve with or without intervention, a  short-term acute illness or episodic event, or a well-established, predictive,  cyclic pattern of clinical signs and symptoms associated with a previously  diagnosed condition where an appropriate course of treatment is in progress.
    "Skilled nursing treatment" means a service  ordered by a physician or other prescriber that is provided by and within the  scope of practice of a licensed nurse.
    "Skills training" means systematic skill  building through curriculum-based psychoeducational and cognitive-behavioral  interventions. These interventions break down complex objectives for role  performance into simpler components, including basic cognitive skills such as  attention, to facilitate learning and competency.
    "Staff" or "staff person" means  personnel working at a facility who are compensated or have a financial  interest in the facility, regardless of role, service, age, function, or  duration of employment at the facility. "Staff" or "staff  person" also includes those individuals hired through a contract to  provide services for the facility.
    "Substance abuse" means the use, without  compelling medical reason, of alcohol or other legal or illegal drugs that  results in psychological or physiological dependency or danger to self or  others as a function of continued use in such a manner as to induce mental, emotional,  or physical impairment and cause socially dysfunctional or socially disordering  behavior.
    "Systems review" means a physical examination of  the body to determine if the person is experiencing problems or distress,  including cardiovascular system, respiratory system, gastrointestinal system,  urinary system, endocrine system, musculoskeletal system, nervous system,  sensory system, and the skin.
    "Transfer" means movement of a resident to a  different assigned living area within the same licensed facility.
    "Trustee" means one who stands in a fiduciary or  confidential relation to another; especially, one who, having legal title to  property, holds it in trust for the benefit of another and owes a fiduciary  duty to that beneficiary.
    "Uniform assessment instrument" or  "UAI" means the department designated assessment form. There is an  alternate version of the form that may be used for private pay residents.  Social and financial information that is not relevant because of the resident's  payment status is not included on the private pay version of the form.
    "Volunteer" means a person who works at an  assisted living facility who is not compensated. This does not include persons  who, either as an individual or as part of an organization, present at or  facilitate group activities.
    22VAC40-73-20. Requirements of law and applicability.
    A. Chapters 17 (§ 63.2-1700 et seq.) and 18  (§ 63.2-1800 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia include  requirements of law relating to licensure, including licensure of assisted  living facilities.
    B. This chapter applies to assisted living facilities as  defined in § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia and in 22VAC40-73-10.
    1. Each assisted living facility shall comply with Parts I  (22VAC40-73-10 et seq.) through IX (22VAC40-73-950 et seq.) of this chapter.
    2. An assisted living facility that cares for adults with  serious cognitive impairments shall also comply with Part X (22VAC40-73-1000 et  seq.) of this chapter.
    22VAC40-73-30. Program of care.
    There shall be a program of care that:
    1. Meets the resident population's physical, mental,  emotional, and psychosocial needs;
    2. Provides protection, guidance, and supervision;
    3. Promotes a sense of security, self-worth, and  independence; and
    4. Promotes the resident's involvement with appropriate  community resources.
    Part II
  Administration and Administrative Services
    22VAC40-73-40. Licensee.
    A. The licensee shall ensure compliance with all  regulations for licensed assisted living facilities and terms of the license  issued by the department; with relevant federal, state, and local laws; with  other relevant regulations; and with the facility's own policies and  procedures.
    B. The licensee shall:
    1. Give evidence of financial responsibility and solvency.
    2. Be of good character and reputation in accordance with  § 63.2-1702 of the Code of Virginia. Character and reputation  investigation includes, but is not limited to, background checks as required by  § 63.2-1721 of the Code of Virginia.
    3. Meet the requirements specified in the Regulation for  Background Checks for Assisted Living Facilities and Adult Day Care Centers  (22VAC40-90).
    4. Act in accordance with General Procedures and  Information for Licensure (22VAC40-80). 
    5. Protect the physical and mental well-being of residents.
    6. Exercise general supervision over the affairs of the  licensed facility and establish policies and procedures concerning its  operation in conformance with applicable law, this chapter, and the welfare of  the residents.
    7. Ensure that he or his relatives, his agents or agents'  relatives, the facility administrator or administrator's relatives, or facility  staff shall not act as, seek to become, or become the conservator or guardian  of any resident unless specifically so appointed by a court of competent  jurisdiction pursuant to Article 1 (§ 64.1-2000 et seq.) of Chapter 20 of  Title 64.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    8. Ensure that the current license is posted in the  facility in a place conspicuous to the residents and the public.
    9. Ensure that the facility keeps and maintains at the  facility records, reports, plans, schedules, and other information as required  by this chapter for licensed assisted living facilities. 
    10. Ensure that any document required by this chapter to be  posted shall be in at least 12-point type or equivalent size. 
    11. Make certain that when it is time to discard records,  they are disposed of in a manner that ensures confidentiality. 
    12. Ensure that at all times the department's  representative is afforded reasonable opportunity to inspect all of the facility's  buildings, books, and records and to interview agents, employees, residents,  and any person under its custody, control, direction, or supervision. 
    C. Upon initial application for an assisted living  facility license, any person applying to operate such a facility who has not  previously owned or managed or does not currently own or manage a licensed  assisted living facility shall be required to undergo training by the  commissioner. Such training shall be required of those owners and currently  employed administrators of an assisted living facility at the time of initial  application for a license.
    1. The commissioner may also approve training programs  provided by other entities and allow owners or administrators to attend such  approved training programs in lieu of training by the commissioner.
    2. The commissioner may at his discretion also approve for  licensure applicants who meet requisite experience criteria as established by  the board.
    3. The training programs shall focus on the health and  safety regulations and resident rights as they pertain to assisted living  facilities and shall be completed by the owner or administrator prior to the  granting of an initial license.
    4. The commissioner may, at his discretion, issue a license  conditioned upon the completion by the owner or administrator of the required  training.
    D. The licensee shall notify in writing the regional  licensing office of intent to sell or voluntarily close the facility no less  than 60 days prior to the sale date or closure. The following shall apply:
    1. No less than 60 days prior to the planned sale date or  closure, the licensee shall notify the residents, and as relevant, legal  representatives, case managers, eligibility workers, and designated contact  persons of the intended sale or closure of the facility and the date for such. 
    2. If plans are made at such time that 60-day notice is not  possible, the licensee shall notify the regional licensing office, the  residents, legal representatives, case managers, eligibility workers, and  designated contact persons as soon as the intent to sell or close the facility  is known.
    3. If the facility is to be sold, at the time of  notification specified in subdivision 1 of this subsection, the licensee shall  explain to each resident, his legal representative, case manager, and at least  one designated contact person that the resident can choose whether to stay or  relocate, unless the new licensee specifies relocation. If a resident chooses  to stay, there must be a new resident agreement between the resident and the  new licensee that meets the specifications of 22VAC40-73-390.
    4. The licensee shall provide updates regarding the closure  or sale of the facility to the regional licensing office, as requested.
    22VAC40-73-50. Disclosure.
    A. The assisted living facility shall prepare and provide  a statement to the prospective resident and his legal representative, if any,  that discloses information about the facility. The statement shall be on a form  developed by the department and shall:
    1. Disclose information fully and accurately in plain  language;
    2. Be provided in advance of admission and prior to signing  an admission agreement or contract;
    3. Be provided upon request; and
    4. Disclose the following information, which shall be kept  current:
    a. Name of the facility;
    b. Name of the licensee;
    c. Ownership structure of the facility (e.g., individual,  partnership, corporation, limited liability company, unincorporated  association, or public agency);
    d. Description of all accommodations, services, and care  that the facility offers;
    e. Fees charged for accommodations, services, and care,  including clear information about what is included in the base fee and all fees  for additional accommodations, services, and care;
    f. Criteria for admission to the facility and restrictions  on admission;
    g. Criteria for transfer to a different living area within  the same facility, including transfer to another level or type of care within  the same facility or complex;
    h. Criteria for discharge;
    i. Categories, frequency, and number of activities provided  for residents; 
    j. General number, position types, and qualifications of  staff on each shift;
    k. Notation that additional information about the facility  that is included in the resident agreement is available upon request; and
    l. The department's website address, with a note that  additional information about the facility may be obtained from the website,  including type of license, capacity, special services, and most recent years'  compliance history.
    B. Written acknowledgment of the receipt of the disclosure  by the resident or his legal representative shall be retained in the resident's  record.
    C. The disclosure statement shall also be available to the  general public, upon request.
    22VAC40-73-60. Electronic records and signatures.
    A. Use of electronic records or signatures shall comply  with the provisions of the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act, §§ 59.1-479  through 59.1-501 of the Code of Virginia.
    B. In addition to the requirements of the Uniform  Electronic Transactions Act, the use of electronic signatures shall be deemed  to constitute a signature and have the same effect as a written signature on a  document as long as the licensee:
    1. Develops, implements, and maintains specific policies  and procedures for the use of electronic signatures;
    2. Ensures that each electronic signature identifies the  individual signing the document by name and title;
    3. Ensures that the document cannot be altered after the  signature has been affixed;
    4. Ensures that access to the code or key sequence is limited;
    5. Ensures that all users have signed statements that they  alone have access to and use the key or computer password for their signature  and will not share their key or password with others; and
    6. Ensures that strong and substantial evidence exists that  would make it difficult for the signer or the receiving party to claim the  electronic representation is not valid.
    C. A back-up and security system shall be utilized for all  electronic documents.
    22VAC40-73-70. Incident reports.
    A. Each facility shall report to the regional licensing  office within 24 hours any major incident that has negatively affected or that  threatens the life, health, safety, or welfare of any resident. 
    B. The report required in subsection A of this section  shall include (i) the name of the facility, (ii) the name or names of the  resident or residents involved in the incident, (iii) the name of the person  making the report, (iv) the date of the incident, (v) a description of the  incident, and (vi) the actions taken in response to the incident.
    C. The facility shall submit a written report of each  incident specified in subsection A of this section to the regional licensing  office within seven days from the date of the incident. The report shall be  signed and dated by the administrator and include the following information:
    1. Name and address of the facility;
    2. Name of the resident or residents involved in the  incident;
    3. Date and time of the incident;
    4. Description of the incident, the circumstances under  which it happened, and when applicable, extent of injury or damage;
    5. Location of the incident;
    6. Actions taken in response to the incident;
    7. Actions to prevent recurrence of the incident, if  applicable;
    8. Name of staff person in charge at the time of the  incident;
    9 . Names, telephone numbers, and addresses of witnesses to  the incident, if any; and
    10. Name, title, and signature of the person making the  report, if other than the administrator, and date of the completion of the  report. 
    D. The facility shall submit to the regional licensing  office amendments to the written report when circumstances require, such as  when substantial additional actions are taken, when significant new  information becomes available, or there is resolution of the incident after  submission of the report.
    E. A copy of the written report of each incident shall be  maintained by the facility for at least two years.
    F. If applicable, the facility shall ensure that there is  documentation in the resident's record as required by 22VAC40-73-470 F. 
    22VAC40-73-80. Management and control of resident funds.
    Pursuant to § 63.2-1808 A 3 of the Code of Virginia, the  resident shall be free to manage his personal finances and funds regardless of  source, unless a committee, conservator, or guardian has been appointed for a  resident. However the resident may request that the facility assist with the  management of personal funds, and the facility may assist the resident in such  management under the following conditions:
    1. There shall be documentation of this request and  delegation, signed and dated by the resident and the administrator. The  documentation shall be maintained in the resident's record.
    2. Residents' funds shall be held separately from any other  moneys of the facility. Residents' funds shall not be borrowed, used as assets  of the facility, or used for purposes of personal interest by the licensee,  operator, administrator, or facility staff.
    3. The resident shall be given a choice of whether he  wishes his funds to be maintained in an individual resident account, which may  be interest-bearing, or in a single account for the accumulated funds of  multiple residents, which shall not be interest-bearing. 
    4. For residents who are not recipients of an auxiliary  grant, the facility may charge a reasonable amount for administration of the  account.
    5. The facility shall maintain a written accounting of  money received and disbursed by the facility that shows a current balance. The  written accounting of the funds shall be made available to the resident at  least quarterly and upon request, and a copy shall also be placed in the  resident's record. 
    6. The resident's funds shall be made available to the  resident upon request.
    22VAC40-73-90. Safeguarding residents' funds.
    No facility administrator or staff person shall act as  either attorney‑in‑fact or trustee unless the resident has no other  preferred designee and the resident himself expressly requests such service by  or through facility personnel. When the facility administrator or staff person  acts as attorney-in-fact or trustee, the following applies:
    1. There shall be documentation that the resident has  requested such service and from whom, signed and dated by the resident, the  facility administrator, and if a staff person is to provide the service, the  staff person. The documentation shall be maintained in the resident's record.
    2. The facility administrator or staff person so named  attorney-in-fact or trustee shall be accountable at all times in the proper  discharge of such fiduciary responsibility as provided under Virginia law. 
    3. The facility shall maintain a written accounting of  money received and disbursed by the facility administrator or staff person that  shows a current balance. The written accounting of the funds shall be made  available to the resident at least quarterly and upon request, and a copy shall  also be placed in the resident's record. 
    4. The resident's funds shall be made available to the  resident upon request.
    5. Upon termination of the power of attorney or trust for  any reason, the facility administrator or staff person so named  attorney-in-fact or trustee shall return all funds and assets, with full  accounting, to the resident or to another responsible party expressly  designated by the resident.
    22VAC40-73-100. Infection control program.
    A. The assisted living facility shall develop, in writing,  and implement an infection control program addressing the surveillance,  prevention, and control of disease and infection that is consistent with the  federal Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines and the  federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) bloodborne  pathogens regulations.
    1. A licensed health care professional, practicing within  the scope of his profession and with training in infection prevention, shall  participate in the development of infection prevention policies and procedures  and shall assure compliance with applicable guidelines and regulations.
    2. The administrator shall ensure at least an annual review  of infection prevention policies and procedures for any necessary updates. A  licensed health care professional, practicing within the scope of his  profession and with training in infection prevention, shall be included in the  review to assure compliance with applicable guidelines and regulations.  Documentation of the review shall be maintained at the facility. 
    3. A staff person who has been trained in basic infection  prevention shall participate in the annual review and serve as point of contact  for the program. This person shall be responsible for on-going monitoring of  the implementation of the infection control program. 
    B. The infection control program shall be applicable to  all staff and volunteers and encompass all services as well as the entire  physical plant and grounds.
    C. The infection control program shall include: 
    1. Procedures for the implementation of infection  prevention measures by staff and volunteers to include:
    a. Use of standard precautions;
    b. Use of personal protective equipment; and
    c. Means to assure hand hygiene.
    2. Procedures for other infection prevention measures  related to job duties to include, but not be limited to:
    a. Determination of whether prospective or returning  residents have acute infectious disease and use of appropriate measures to  prevent disease transmission;
    b. Use of safe injection practices and other procedures  where the potential for exposure to blood or body fluids exists; 
    c. Blood glucose monitoring practices that are consistent  with CDC guidelines. When providing assisted blood glucose monitoring, only  single-use auto-retractable disposable lancets may be used;
    d. The handling, storing, processing, and transporting of  linens, supplies, and equipment in a manner that prevents the spread of  infection; 
    e. The sanitation of rooms, including cleaning and  disinfecting procedures, agents, and schedules;
    f. The sanitation of equipment, including medical equipment  that may be used on more than one resident (e.g., blood glucose meters and  blood pressure cuffs, including cleaning and disinfecting procedures, agents,  and schedules); 
    g. The handling, storing, processing, and transporting of  medical waste in accordance with applicable regulations; and
    h. Maintenance of an effective pest control program.
    3. Readily accessible handwashing equipment and necessary  personal protective equipment for staff and volunteers (e.g., soap,  alcohol-based hand rubs, disposable towels or hot air dryers, and gloves).
    4. Product specific instructions for use of cleaning and  disinfecting agents (e.g., dilution, contact time, and management of accidental  exposures).
    5. Initial training as specified in 22VAC40-73-120 C 4 and  annual retraining of staff and volunteers in infection prevention methods, as  applicable to job responsibilities.
    D. The facility shall have a staff health program that includes:
    1. Provision of information on recommended vaccinations,  per guidelines from the CDC Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices  (ACIP), to facility staff and volunteers who have any potential exposure to  residents or to infectious materials, including body substances, contaminated  medical supplies and equipment, contaminated environmental surfaces, or  contaminated air;
    2. Assurance that employees with communicable diseases are  identified and prevented from work activities that could result in transmission  to other personnel or residents;
    3. An exposure control plan for bloodborne pathogens;
    4. Documentation of screening and immunizations offered to,  received by, or declined by employees in accordance with law, regulation, or  recommendations of public health authorities, including access to hepatitis B  vaccine;
    5. Compliance with requirements of the OSHA for reporting  of workplace associated injuries or exposure to infection. 
    E. The facility administrator shall immediately make or  cause to be made a report of an outbreak of disease as defined by the State  Board of Health. Such report shall be made by rapid means to the local health  director or to the Commissioner of the Virginia Department of Health and to the  licensing representative of the Department of Social Services in the regional  licensing office. 
    F. When recommendations are made by the Virginia  Department of Health to prevent or control transmission of an infectious agent  in the facility, the recommendations must be followed.
    Part III
  Personnel
    22VAC40-73-110. Staff general qualifications.
    All staff shall:
    1. Be considerate and respectful of the rights, dignity,  and sensitivities of persons who are aged, infirm, or disabled; 
    2. Be able to speak, read, and write in English as  necessary to carry out their job responsibilities; and 
    3. Meet the requirements specified in the Regulation for  Background Checks for Assisted Living Facilities and Adult Day Care Centers  (22VAC40-90).
    22VAC40-73-120. Staff orientation and initial training.
    A. The orientation and training required in subsections B  and C of this section shall occur within the first seven working days of  employment. Until this orientation and training is completed, the staff person  may only assume job responsibilities if under the sight supervision of a  trained direct care staff person or administrator. 
    B. All staff shall be oriented to:
    1. The purpose of the facility;
    2. The facility's organizational structure;
    3. The services provided;
    4. The daily routines; 
    5. The facility's policies and procedures;
    6. Specific duties and responsibilities of their positions;  and
    7. Required compliance with regulations for assisted living  facilities as it relates to their duties and responsibilities.
    C. All staff shall be trained in the relevant laws, regulations,  and the facility's policies and procedures sufficiently to implement:
    1. Emergency and disaster plans for the facility;
    2. Procedures for the handling of resident emergencies;
    3. Use of the first aid kit and knowledge of its location;
    4. Handwashing techniques, standard precautions, infection  risk-reduction behavior, and other infection control measures specified in  22VAC40-73-100;
    5. Confidential treatment of personal information;
    6. Requirements regarding the rights and responsibilities  of residents;
    7. Requirements and procedures for detecting and reporting  suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of residents and for mandated  reporters, the consequences for failing to make a required report, as set out  in § 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia;
    8. Procedures for reporting and documenting incidents as  required in 22VAC40-73-70;
    9. Methods of alleviating common adjustment problems that  may occur when a resident moves from one residential environment to another;  and
    10. For direct care staff, the needs, preferences, and  routines of the residents for whom they will provide care.
    22VAC40-73-130. Reports of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
    All staff who are mandated reporters under  § 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia shall report suspected abuse, neglect,  or exploitation of residents in accordance with that section. 
    22VAC40-73-140. Administrator qualifications.
    A. The administrator shall be at least 21 years of age.
    B. The administrator shall be able to read and write, and  understand this chapter.
    C. The administrator shall be able to perform the duties  and carry out the responsibilities required by this chapter.
    D. For a facility licensed only for residential living  care that does not employ an administrator licensed by the Virginia Board of  Long-Term Care Administrators, the administrator shall:
    1. Be a high school graduate or shall have a General  Education Development (GED) Certificate;
    2. (i) Have successfully completed at least 30 credit hours  of postsecondary education from a college or university accredited by an  association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education and at least 15 of  the 30 credit hours shall be in business or human services or a combination  thereof; (ii) have successfully completed a course of study approved by the  department that is specific to the administration of an assisted living  facility; (iii) have a bachelor's degree from a college or university  accredited by an association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education; or  (iv) be a licensed nurse; and
    3. Have at least one year of administrative or supervisory  experience in caring for adults in a residential group care facility.
    The requirements of this subsection shall not apply to an  administrator of an assisted living facility employed prior to the effective  date of these regulations, who met the requirements in effect when employed and  who has been continuously employed as an assisted living facility  administrator.
    E. For a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, the administrator shall be licensed by the Virginia Board  of Long-Term Care Administrators as required by § 63.2-1803 of the Code of  Virginia.
    22VAC40-73-150. Administrator provisions and  responsibilities.
    A. Each facility shall have an administrator of record.
    B. If an administrator dies, resigns, is discharged, or  becomes unable to perform his duties, the facility shall immediately employ a  new administrator or appoint a qualified acting administrator. 
    1. The facility shall notify the department's regional licensing  office in writing within 14 days of a change in a facility's administrator,  including but not limited to the resignation of an administrator, appointment  of an acting administrator, and appointment of a new administrator, except that  the time period for notification may differ as specified in subdivision 2 of  this subsection.
    2. A facility licensed for both residential and assisted  living care shall comply with the notice requirements set out in  § 63.2-1803 B of the Code of Virginia. 
    3. For a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, when an acting administrator is named, he shall meet the  qualifications and notice requirements set out in § 63.2-1803 B of the  Code of Virginia. 
    4. A facility licensed only for residential living care may  be operated by an acting administrator for no more than 90 days from the last  date of employment of the administrator.
    5. A facility licensed for both residential and assisted  living care may be operated by an acting administrator in accordance with the  time frames set out in § 63.2-1803 B and C of the Code of Virginia.
    6. A person may not become an acting administrator at any  assisted living facility if the Virginia Board of Long-Term Care Administrators  has refused to issue or renew, suspended, or revoked his assisted living  facility or nursing home administrator license. 
    7. No assisted living facility shall operate under the  supervision of an acting administrator pursuant to §§ 54.1-3103.1 and 63.2-1803 of the Code of Virginia more than one time during any two-year period  unless authorized to do so by the department.
    C. The administrator shall be responsible for the general  administration and management of the facility and shall oversee the day-to-day  operation of the facility. This shall include but shall not be limited to  responsibility for:
    1.Ensuring that care is provided to residents in a manner  that protects their health, safety, and well-being; 
    2. Maintaining compliance with applicable laws and  regulations;
    3. Developing and implementing all policies, procedures,  and services as required by this chapter;
    4. Ensuring staff and volunteers comply with residents'  rights;
    5. Maintaining buildings and grounds;
    6. Recruiting, hiring, training, and supervising staff; and
    7. Ensuring the development, implementation, and monitoring  of an individualized service plan for each resident, except that a plan is not  required for a resident with independent living status.
    D. The administrator shall report to the Director of the  Department of Health Professions information required by and in accordance with  § 54.1-2400.6 of the Code of Virginia regarding any person (i) licensed,  certified, or registered by a health regulatory board or (ii) holding a  multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or an applicant for  licensure, certification, or registration. Information required to be reported,  under specified circumstances includes but is not limited to substance abuse  and unethical or fraudulent conduct.
    E. For a facility licensed only for residential living  care, either the administrator or a designated assistant who meets the  qualifications of the administrator shall be awake and on duty on the premises  at least 40 hours per week with no fewer than 24 of those hours being during  the day shift on weekdays.
    Exceptions:
    1. 22VAC40-73-170 allows a shared administrator for smaller  facilities.
    2. If the administrator is licensed as an assisted living  facility administrator or nursing home administrator by the Virginia Board of  Long-Term Care Administrators, the provisions regarding the administrator in  subsection F of this section apply. When such is the case, there is no  requirement for a designated assistant.
    F. For a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, the administrator shall serve on a full-time basis as the  on-site agent of the licensee and shall be responsible for the day-to-day  administration and management of the facility, except as provided in  22VAC40-73-170.
    G. The administrator, acting administrator, or as allowed  in subsection E of this section, designated assistant administrator, shall not  be a resident of the facility.
    22VAC40-73-160. Administrator training.
    A. For a facility licensed only for residential living  care that does not employ a licensed administrator, the administrator shall  attend at least 20 hours of training related to management or operation of a  residential facility for adults or relevant to the population in care within 12  months from the date of employment and annually thereafter from that date. At least  two of the required 20 hours of training shall focus on infection control and  prevention, and when adults with mental impairments reside in the facility, at  least six of the required 20 hours shall focus on topics related to residents'  mental impairments. Documentation of attendance shall be retained at the  facility and shall include type of training, name of the entity that provided  the training, and date and number of hours of training.
    B. All licensed administrators shall meet the continuing  education requirements for continued licensure.
    C. Any administrator who has not previously undergone the  training specified in 22VAC40-73-40 C shall be required to complete that  training within two months of employment as administrator of the facility. The  training may be counted toward the annual training requirement for the first  year, except that for licensed administrators, whether the training counts  toward continuing education and for what period of time depends upon the  administrator licensure requirements. Administrators employed prior to December  28, 2006, are not required to complete this training.
    D. Administrators who supervise medication aides, but are  not registered medication aides themselves, shall successfully complete a  training program approved by the Virginia Board of Nursing for the registration  of medication aides. The training program for such administrators must include  a minimum of 68 hours of student instruction and training, but need not include  the prerequisite for the program or the written examination for registration.  The training shall be completed prior to supervising medication aides and may  be counted toward the annual training requirement in subsection A of this  section, except that for licensed administrators, whether the training counts  toward continuing education and for what period of time depends upon the  administrator licensure requirements. The following exceptions apply:
    1. The administrator is licensed by the Commonwealth of  Virginia to administer medications; or
    2. Medication aides are supervised by an individual  employed full time at the facility who is licensed by the Commonwealth of  Virginia to administer medications. 
    E. Administrators who have completed the training program  specified in subsection D of this section and who supervise medication aides  shall be required to annually have (i) four hours of training in medication  administration specific to the facility population or (ii) a refresher course  in medication administration offered by a Virginia Board of Nursing approved  program. Administrators are exempt from this annual medication training or  refresher course during the first year after completion of the training program  noted in subsection D of this section. This annual medication administration  training or course may not be counted toward the annual training requirement  specified in subsection A of this section. For licensed administrators, whether  the training counts toward continuing education and for what period of time  depends upon the administrator licensure requirements. 
    F. If a designated assistant administrator, as allowed in  22VAC40-73-150 E supervises medication aides, the requirements of subsections D  and E of this section apply to the designated assistant administrator. 
    22VAC40-73-170. Shared administrator for smaller facilities.
    A. An administrator who is not licensed as an assisted  living facility administrator or nursing home administrator by the Virginia  Board of Long-Term Care Administrators is allowed to be present at a facility  for fewer than the required minimum 40 hours per week in order to serve  multiple facilities, without a designated assistant, under the following  conditions:
    1. The administrator shall serve no more than four  facilities.
    2. The combined total licensed capacity of the facilities  served by the administrator shall be 40 or fewer residents.
    3. The administrator shall be awake and on duty on the  premises of each facility served for at least 10 hours a week.
    4. The administrator shall serve as a full-time  administrator (i.e., shall be awake and on duty on the premises of all  facilities served for a combined total of at least 40 hours a week).
    5. Each of the facilities served shall be within a  30-minute average one-way travel time of the other facilities.
    6. When not present at a facility, the administrator shall  be on call to that facility during the hours he is working as an administrator  and shall maintain such accessibility through suitable communication devices.
    7. A designated assistant may act in place of the administrator  during the required minimum of 40 hours only if the administrator is ill or on  vacation and for a period of time that shall not exceed four consecutive weeks.  The designated assistant shall meet the qualifications of the administrator.
    8. Each of the facilities served shall have a manager,  designated and supervised by the administrator. The manager shall be awake and  on duty on the premises of the facility for the remaining part of the 40  required hours per week when the administrator or designated assistant is not  present at the facility. The manager shall meet the following qualifications  and requirements:
    a. The manager shall be at least 21 years of age.
    b. The manager shall be able to read and write, and  understand this chapter.
    c. The manager shall be able to perform the duties and to  carry out the responsibilities of his position.
    d. The manager shall: 
    (1) Be a high school graduate or have a General Education  Development (GED) Certificate;
    (2) (i) Have successfully completed at least 30 credit hours  of postsecondary education from a college or university accredited by an  association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education and at least 15 of  the 30 credit hours shall be in business or human services or a combination  thereof; (ii) have successfully completed a course of study of 40 or more hours  approved by the department that is specific to the management of an assisted  living facility; (iii) have a bachelor's degree from a college or university  accredited by an association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education; or  (iv) be a licensed nurse; and
    (3) Have at least one year of administrative or supervisory  experience in caring for adults in a residential group care facility. 
    e. Subdivision 8 d of this subsection does not apply to a  manager of an assisted living facility employed prior to the effective date of  this chapter who met the requirements in effect when employed and who has been  continuously employed as an assisted living facility manager. 
    f. The manager shall not be a resident of the facility.
    g. The manager shall complete the training specified in  22VAC40-73-40 C within two months of employment as manager. The training may be  counted toward the annual training requirement for the first year.
    Exception: A manager employed prior to December 28, 2006,  who met the requirements in effect when employed and who has been continuously  employed as a manager. 
    h. The manager shall attend at least 20 hours of training  related to management or operation of a residential facility for adults or  relevant to the population in care within each 12-month period. When adults  with mental impairments reside in the facility, at least six of the required 20  hours of training shall focus on topics related to residents' mental  impairments and at least two of the required 20 hours on infection control and  prevention. Documentation of attendance shall be retained at the facility and  shall include title of course, name of the entity that provided the training,  and date and number of hours of training.
    9. There shall be a written management plan for each  facility that describes how the administrator will oversee the care and  supervision of the residents and the day-to-day operation of the facility.
    10. The minimum of 40 hours per week required for the  administrator or manager to be awake and on duty on the premises of a facility  shall include at least 24 hours during the day shift on weekdays.
    B. An administrator, who is licensed as an assisted living  facility administrator or nursing home administrator by the Virginia Board of  Long-Term Care Administrators, may be responsible for the day-to-day  administration and management of multiple facilities under the following  conditions:
    1. The administrator shall serve no more than four  facilities.
    2. The combined total licensed capacity of the facilities  served by the administrator shall be 40 or fewer residents.
    3. The administrator shall serve on a full-time basis as  the on-site agent of the licensee or licensees, proportioning his time among  all the facilities served in order to ensure that he provides sufficient  administrative and management functions to each facility.
    4. Each of the facilities served shall be within a  30-minute average one-way travel time of the other facilities.
    5. When not present at a facility, the administrator shall  be on call to that facility during the hours he is working as an administrator  and shall maintain such accessibility through suitable communication devices.
    6. Each of the facilities served shall have a manager,  designated and supervised by the administrator, to assist the administrator in  overseeing the care and supervision of the residents and the day-to-day  operation of the facility. The majority of the time, the administrator and the  manager shall be present at a facility at different times to ensure appropriate  oversight of the facility. The manager shall meet the qualifications and  requirements specified in subdivision A 8 of this section. 
    Exception: In regard to subdivision A 8 of this section,  the reference to 40 hours is not relevant to a facility to which this  subsection applies (i.e., a facility with a licensed administrator).
    7. There shall be a written management plan for each  facility that includes written policies and procedures that describe how the  administrator shall oversee the care and supervision of the residents and the  day-to-day operation of the facility.
    C. This section shall not apply to an administrator who  serves both an assisted living facility and a nursing home as provided for in  22VAC40-73-180.
    22VAC40-73-180. Administrator of both assisted living  facility and nursing home.
    A. Any person meeting the qualifications for a licensed  nursing home administrator pursuant to § 54.1-3103 of the Code of Virginia  may serve as the administrator of both an assisted living facility and a  licensed nursing home, provided the assisted living facility and licensed  nursing home are part of the same building.
    B. Whenever an assisted living facility and a licensed  nursing home have a single administrator, there shall be a written management  plan that addresses the care and supervision of the assisted living facility  residents. The management plan shall include, but not be limited to, the  following:
    1. Written policies and procedures that describe how the  administrator will oversee the care and supervision of the residents and the  day-to-day operation of the facility.
    2. If the administrator does not provide the direct  management of the assisted living facility or only provides a portion thereof,  the plan shall specify a designated individual who shall serve as manager and  who shall be supervised by the administrator.
    3. The manager referred to in subdivision 2 of this  subsection shall be on site and meet the qualifications and requirements of  22VAC40-73-170 A 8, A 9, and A 10. 
    22VAC40-73-190. Designated direct care staff person in  charge.
    A. When the administrator, the designated assistant, or  the manager is not awake and on duty on the premises, there shall be a  designated direct care staff member in charge on the premises. However, when no  residents are present at the facility, the designated staff person in charge  does not have to be on the premises.
    B. The specific duties and responsibilities of the  designated direct care staff member in charge shall be determined by the administrator.
    C. Prior to being placed in charge, the staff member shall  be informed of and receive training on his duties and responsibilities and  provided written documentation of such duties and responsibilities.
    D. The staff member shall be awake and on duty on the  premises while in charge.
    E. The staff member in charge shall be capable of  protecting the physical and mental well-being of the residents.
    F. The administrator shall ensure that the staff member in  charge is prepared to carry out his duties and responsibilities and respond  appropriately in case of an emergency.
    G. The staff member in charge shall not be a resident of  the facility.
    22VAC40-73-200. Direct care staff qualifications.
    A. Direct care staff shall be at least 18 years of age  unless certified in Virginia as a nurse aide. 
    B. Direct care staff who are responsible for caring for  residents with special health care needs shall only provide services within the  scope of their practice and training. 
    C. Direct care staff shall meet one of the requirements in  this subsection. If the staff does not meet the requirement at the time of  employment, he shall successfully meet one of the requirements in this  subsection within two months of employment. Licensed health care professionals  practicing within the scope of their profession are not required to complete  the training in this subsection.
    1. Certification as a nurse aide issued by the Virginia  Board of Nursing.
    2. Successful completion of a Virginia Board of  Nursing-approved nurse aide education program.
    3. Successful completion of a nursing education program  preparing for registered nurse licensure or practical nurse licensure. 
    4. Current enrollment in a nursing education program  preparing for registered nurse or practical nurse licensure and completion of  at least one clinical course in the nursing program that includes at least 40  hours of direct client care clinical experience. 
    5. Successful completion of a personal care aide training  program approved by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance Services.
    6. Successful completion of an educational program for  geriatric assistant or home health aide or for nurse aide that is not covered  under subdivision 2 of this subsection. The program shall be provided by a  hospital, nursing facility, or educational institution and may include  out-of-state training. The program must be approved by the department. To  obtain department approval:
    a. The facility shall provide to the department's  representative an outline of course content, dates and hours of instruction  received, the name of the entity that provided the training, and other  pertinent information.
    b. The department will make a determination based on the  information in subdivision 6 a of this subsection and provide written  confirmation to the facility when the educational program meets department  requirements.
    7. Successful completion of the department-approved 40-hour  direct care staff training provided by a registered nurse or licensed practical  nurse. 
    8. Direct care staff employed prior to the effective date  of this chapter who did not care for residents meeting the criteria for  assisted living care, and who were therefore not required to meet this  subsection at that time, shall successfully complete a training program  consistent with department requirements no later than one year after the  effective date of this chapter, except that direct care staff of the facility  employed prior to February 1, 1996, shall not be required to complete the  training in this subsection if they (i) have been continuously employed as  direct care staff in the facility since then and (ii) have demonstrated  competency on a skills checklist dated and signed no later than February 1,  1997, by a licensed health care professional practicing within the scope of his  profession.
    D. The facility shall obtain a copy of the certificate  issued or other documentation indicating that the person has met one of the  requirements of subsection C of this section, which shall be part of the staff  member's record in accordance with 22VAC40-73-250.
    E. The administrator shall develop and implement a written  plan for supervision of direct care staff who have not yet met the requirements  as allowed for in subsection C of this section.
    22VAC40-73-210. Direct care staff training.
    A. In a facility licensed only for residential living  care, all direct care staff shall attend at least 14 hours of training  annually. 
    B. In a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, all direct care staff shall attend at least 18 hours of  training annually. 
    C. Training for the first year shall commence no later  than 60 days after employment.
    D. The training shall be in addition to (i) required first  aid training; (ii) CPR training, if taken; and (iii) for medication aides,  continuing education required by the Virginia Board of Nursing.
    E. The training shall be relevant to the population in  care and shall be provided by a qualified individual through in-service  training programs or institutes, workshops, classes, or conferences.
    F. At least two of the required hours of training shall  focus on infection control and prevention. When adults with mental impairments  reside in the facility, at least four of the required hours shall focus on  topics related to residents' mental impairments.
    G. Documentation of the type of training received, the  entity that provided the training, number of hours of training, and dates of  the training shall be kept by the facility in a manner that allows for  identification by individual staff person and is considered part of the staff  member's record.
    Exception: Direct care staff who are licensed health care  professionals or certified nurse aides shall attend at least 12 hours of annual  training.
    22VAC40-73-220. Private duty personnel.
    A. When private duty personnel from licensed home care  organizations provide direct care or companion services to residents in an  assisted living facility, the following applies:
    1. Before direct care or companion services are initiated,  the facility shall obtain, in writing, information on the type and frequency of  the services to be delivered to the resident by private duty personnel, review  the information to determine if it is acceptable, and provide notification to  the home care organization regarding any needed changes. 
    2. The direct care or companion services provided by  private duty personnel to meet identified needs shall be reflected on the  resident's individualized service plan. 
    3. The facility shall ensure that the requirements of  22VAC40-73-250 D 1 through D 4 regarding tuberculosis are applied to private  duty personnel and that the required reports are maintained by the facility or  the licensed home care organization, based on written agreement between the  two.
    4. The facility shall provide orientation and training to private  duty personnel regarding the facility's policies and procedures related to the  duties of private duty personnel.
    5. The facility shall ensure that documentation of resident  care required by this chapter is maintained.
    6. The facility shall monitor the delivery of direct care  and companion services to the resident by private duty personnel.
    B. When private duty personnel who are not employees of a  licensed home care organization provide direct care or companion services to  residents in an assisted living facility, the requirements listed under  subdivisions 2 through 6 in subsection A of this section apply. In addition,  before direct care or companion services are initiated, the facility shall:
    1. Obtain, in writing, information on the type and frequency  of the services to be delivered to the resident by private duty personnel,  review the information to determine if it is acceptable, and provide  notification to whomever has hired the private duty personnel regarding any  needed changes.
    2. Ensure that private duty personnel are qualified for the  types of direct care or companion services they are responsible for providing  to residents and maintain documentation of the qualifications.
    C. The requirements of subsections A and B of this section  shall not apply to private duty personnel who only provide skilled nursing  treatments as specified in 22VAC40-73-470 B. However, depending upon the  circumstances, there may be other sections of this chapter that apply in such  cases (e.g., inclusion on the resident's individualized service plan).
    22VAC40-73-230. Staff duties performed by residents.
    A. Any resident who performs any staff duties shall meet  the personnel and health requirements for that position.
    B. There shall be a written agreement between the facility  and any resident who performs staff duties.
    1. The agreement shall specify duties, hours of work, and  compensation.
    2. The agreement shall not be a condition for admission or  continued residence.
    3. The resident shall enter into such an agreement  voluntarily.
    22VAC40-73-240. Volunteers.
    A. Any volunteers used shall: 
    1. Have qualifications appropriate to the services they  render; and 
    2. Be subject to laws and regulations governing  confidential treatment of personal information. 
    B. No volunteer shall be permitted to serve in an assisted  living facility without the permission of or unless under the supervision of a  person who has received a criminal record clearance pursuant to § 63.2-1720 of  the Code of Virginia.
    C. The facility shall maintain the following documentation  on volunteers:
    1. Name.
    2. Address.
    3. Telephone number.
    4. Emergency contact information.
    5. Information on any qualifications, orientation,  training, and education required by this chapter, including any specified  relevant information.
    D. Duties and responsibilities of all volunteers shall be  clearly differentiated from those of persons regularly filling staff positions.  
    E. At least one staff person shall be assigned  responsibility for coordinating volunteer services, including overall selection,  supervision, and orientation of volunteers. 
    F. Prior to beginning volunteer service, all volunteers  shall attend an orientation including information on their duties and  responsibilities, resident rights, confidentiality, emergency procedures, infection  control, the name of their supervisor, and reporting requirements and sign and  date a statement that they have received and understood this information.
    G. All volunteers shall be under the supervision of a  designated staff person when residents are present. 
    22VAC40-73-250. Staff records and health requirements.
    A. A record shall be established for each staff person. It  shall not be destroyed until at least two years after employment is terminated.
    B. All staff records shall be retained at the facility,  treated confidentially, and kept in a locked area.
    Exception: Emergency contact information required by  subdivision C 9 of this section shall also be kept in an easily accessible  place. 
    C. Personal and social data to be maintained on  staff and included in the staff record are as follows:
    1. Name;
    2. Birth date;
    3. Current address and telephone number;
    4. Position title and date employed;
    5. Verification that the staff person has received a  copy of his current job description;
    6. An original criminal record report and a sworn  disclosure statement;
    7. Documentation of qualifications for employment related  to the staff person's position, including any specified relevant information;
    8. Verification of current professional license,  certification, registration, medication aide provisional authorization, or  completion of a required approved training course;
    9. Name and telephone number of person to contact in an  emergency;
    10. Documentation of orientation, training, and education  required by this chapter, including any specified relevant information; and
    11. Date of termination of employment.
    D. Health information required by these standards shall be  maintained at the facility and be included in the staff record for each staff  person, and also shall be maintained at the facility for each household member  who comes in contact with residents.
    1. Initial tuberculosis examination and report.
    a. Each staff person on or within seven days prior to the  first day of work at the facility and each household member prior to coming in  contact with residents shall submit the results of a risk assessment,  documenting the absence of tuberculosis in a communicable form as evidenced by  the completion of the current screening form published by the Virginia  Department of Health or a form consistent with it. 
    b. The risk assessment shall be no older than 30 days.
    2. Subsequent tuberculosis evaluations and reports.
    a. Any staff person or household member required to be  evaluated who comes in contact with a known case of infectious tuberculosis  shall be screened as determined appropriate based on consultation with the  local health department.
    b. Any staff person or household member required to be  evaluated who develops chronic respiratory symptoms of three weeks duration  shall be evaluated immediately for the presence of infectious tuberculosis.
    c. Each staff person or household member required to  be evaluated shall annually submit the results of a risk assessment,  documenting that the individual is free of tuberculosis in a communicable form  as evidenced by the completion of the current screening form published by the  Virginia Department of Health or a form consistent with it.
    3. Any individual suspected to have infectious tuberculosis  shall not be allowed to return to work or have any contact with the residents  and personnel of the facility until a physician has determined that the  individual is free of infectious tuberculosis.
    4. The facility shall report any active case of  tuberculosis developed by a staff person or household member required to be  evaluated to the local health department.
    E. Record of any vaccinations and immunizations received  as noted in 22VAC40-73-100 D.
    F. At the request of the administrator of the facility or  the department, a report of examination by a licensed physician shall be  obtained when there are indications that the safety of residents in care may be  jeopardized by the physical or mental health of a staff person or household  member.
    G. Any staff person or household member who, upon  examination or as a result of tests, shows indication of a physical or mental  condition that may jeopardize the safety of residents in care or that would  prevent performance of duties:
    1. Shall be removed immediately from contact with  residents; and
    2. Shall not be allowed contact with residents until the  condition is cleared to the satisfaction of the examining physician as  evidenced by a signed statement from the physician.
    22VAC40-73-260. First aid and CPR certification.
    A. First aid.
    1. Each direct care staff member who does not have current  certification in first aid as specified in subdivision 2 of this subsection  shall receive certification in first aid within 60 days of employment from the  American Red Cross, American Heart Association, National Safety Council,  American Safety and Health Institute, community college, hospital, volunteer  rescue squad, or fire department. The certification must either be in adult  first aid or include adult first aid.
    2. Each direct care staff member shall maintain current  certification in first aid from an organization listed in subdivision 1 of this  subsection. To be considered current, first aid certification from community  colleges, hospitals, volunteer rescue squads, or fire departments shall have  been issued within the past three years. The certification must either be in  adult first aid or include adult first aid.
    3. A direct care staff member who is a registered nurse or  licensed practical nurse does not have to meet the requirements of subdivisions  1 and 2 of this subsection.
    4. There shall be at least one staff person on the premises  at all times who has current certification in first aid that meets the  specifications of this section, unless the facility has an on-duty registered  nurse or licensed practical nurse.
    B. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
    1. There shall be at least one staff person on the premises  at all times who has current certification in CPR from the American Red Cross,  American Heart Association, National Safety Council, American Safety and Health  Institute, or who has current CPR certification issued within the past two  years by a community college, hospital, volunteer rescue squad, or fire  department, The certification must either be in adult CPR or include adult CPR.
    2. In facilities licensed for over 50 residents, at least  one additional staff person who meets the requirements of subdivision 1 of this  subsection shall be available for every 50 residents, or portion thereof. More  staff persons who meet the requirements in subdivision 1 of this subsection  shall be available if necessary to assure quick access to residents in the  event of the need for CPR.
    C. A listing of all staff who have current certification  in first aid or CPR, in conformance with subsections A and B of this section,  shall be posted in the facility so that the information is readily available to  all staff at all times. The listing must indicate by staff person whether the  certification is in first aid or CPR or both and must be kept up to date.
    D. A staff person with current certification in first aid  and CPR shall be present for the duration of facility-sponsored activities off  the facility premises, when facility staff are responsible for oversight of one  or more residents during the activity.
    22VAC40-73-270. Direct care staff training when aggressive  or restrained residents are in care.
    The following training is required for staff in assisted  living facilities that accept, or have in care, residents who are or who may be  aggressive or restrained:
    1. Aggressive residents.
    a. Direct care staff shall be trained in methods of dealing  with residents who have a history of aggressive behavior or of dangerously  agitated states prior to being involved in the care of such residents.
    b. This training shall include, at a minimum, information,  demonstration, and practical experience in self-protection and in the  prevention and de-escalation of aggressive behavior.
    2. Restrained residents.
    a. Prior to being involved in the care of residents in  restraints, direct care staff shall be appropriately trained in caring for the  health needs of such residents. 
    b. This training shall include, at a minimum, information,  demonstration, and experience in:
    (1) The proper techniques for applying and monitoring  restraints;
    (2) Skin care appropriate to prevent redness, breakdown,  and decubiti;
    (3) Active and active assisted range of motion to prevent  contractures;
    (4) Assessment of blood circulation to prevent obstruction  of blood flow and promote adequate blood circulation to all extremities;
    (5) Turning and positioning to prevent skin breakdown and  keep the lungs clear;
    (6) Provision of sufficient bed clothing and covering to  maintain a normal body temperature;
    (7) Provision of additional attention to meet the physical,  mental, emotional, and social needs of the restrained resident; and
    (8) Awareness of possible risks associated with restraint  use and methods of reducing or eliminating such risks.
    3. The training described in subdivisions 1 and 2 of this  section shall meet the following criteria:
    a. Training shall be provided by a qualified health  professional.
    b. A written description of the content of this training, a  notation of the entity providing the training, and the names of direct care  staff receiving the training shall be maintained by the facility except that,  if the training is provided by the department, only a listing of direct care  staff trained and the date of training are required.
    4. Refresher training for all direct care staff shall be  provided at least annually or more often as needed.
    a. The refresher training shall encompass the techniques  described in subdivision 1 or 2 of this section, or both.
    b. A record of the refresher training and a description of  the content of the training shall be maintained by the facility.
    Part IV
  Staffing and Supervision
    22VAC40-73-280. Staffing.
    A. The assisted living facility shall have staff adequate  in knowledge, skills, and abilities and sufficient in numbers to provide  services to attain and maintain the physical, mental, and psychosocial  well-being of each resident as determined by resident assessments and  individualized service plans, and to assure compliance with this chapter.
    B. The assisted living facility shall maintain a written  plan that specifies the number and type of direct care staff required to meet  the day-to-day, routine direct care needs and any identified special needs for  the residents in care. This plan shall be directly related to actual resident  acuity levels and individualized care needs. 
    C. An adequate number of staff persons shall be on the  premises at all times to implement the approved fire and emergency evacuation  plan.
    D. At least one direct care staff member shall be awake  and on duty at all times in each building when at least one resident is  present.
    Exception: For a facility licensed for residential living  care only, in buildings that house 19 or fewer residents, the staff member on  duty does not have to be awake during the night if (i) none of the residents  have care needs that require a staff member awake at night and (ii) the facility  ensures compliance with the requirements of 22VAC40-73-930 C. 
    22VAC40-73-290. Work schedule and posting.
    A. The facility shall maintain a written work schedule  that includes the names and job classifications of all staff working each  shift, with an indication of whomever is in charge at any given time.
    1. Any absences, substitutions, or other changes shall be  noted on the schedule.
    2. The facility shall maintain a copy of the schedule for  two years.
    B. The facility shall develop and implement a procedure  for posting the name of the current on-site person in charge, as provided for  in this chapter, in a place in the facility that is conspicuous to the  residents and the public.
    22VAC40-73-300. Communication among staff.
    A. Procedures shall be established and reviewed with staff  for communication among administrators, designated assistant administrators,  managers, and designated staff persons in charge, as applicable to a facility,  to ensure stable operations and sound transitions.
    B. A method of written communication shall be utilized as  a means of keeping direct care staff on all shifts informed of significant  happenings or problems experienced by residents, including complaints and  incidents or injuries related to physical or mental conditions. 
    1. A record shall be kept of the written communication for  at least the past two years.
    2. The information shall be included in the records of the  involved residents. 
    Part V
  Admission, Retention, and Discharge of Residents
    22VAC40-73-310. Admission and retention of residents.
    A. No resident shall be admitted or retained:
    1. For whom the facility cannot provide or secure  appropriate care;
    2. Who requires a level of care or service or type of  service for which the facility is not licensed or which the facility does not  provide; or
    3. If the facility does not have staff appropriate in  numbers and with appropriate skill to provide the care and services needed by  the resident.
    B. Assisted living facilities shall not admit an  individual before a determination has been made that the facility can meet the  needs of the resident. The facility shall make the determination based upon the  following information at a minimum:
    1. The completed UAI.
    2. The physical examination report.
    3. A documented interview between the administrator or a  designee responsible for admission and retention decisions, the resident, and  his legal representative, if any. In some cases, medical conditions may create  special circumstances that make it necessary to hold the interview on the date  of admission. 
    4. A mental health screening in accordance with  22VAC40-73-330 A.
    C. An assisted living facility shall only admit or retain  residents as permitted by its use and occupancy classification and certificate  of occupancy. The ambulatory or nonambulatory status, as defined in  22VAC40-73-10, of an individual is based upon:
    1. Information contained in the physical examination  report; and
    2. Information contained in the most recent UAI.
    D. Based upon review of the UAI prior to admission of a  resident, the assisted living facility administrator shall provide written  assurance to the resident that the facility has the appropriate license to meet  his care needs at the time of admission. Copies of the written assurance shall  be given to the legal representative and case manager, if any, and a copy  signed by the resident or his legal representative shall be kept in the  resident's record.
    E. All residents shall be 18 years of age or older.
    F. No person shall be admitted without his consent and  agreement, or that of his legal representative with demonstrated legal  authority to give such consent on his behalf. 
    G. The facility shall not require a person to relinquish  the rights specified in § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia as a condition of  admission or retention.
    H. In accordance with § 63.2-1805 D of the Code of  Virginia, assisted living facilities shall not admit or retain individuals with  any of the following conditions or care needs:
    1. Ventilator dependency;
    2. Dermal ulcers III and IV except those stage III ulcers  that are determined by an independent physician to be healing;
    3. Intravenous therapy or injections directly into the  vein, except for intermittent intravenous therapy managed by a health care  professional licensed in Virginia except as permitted in subsection K of this  section;
    4. Airborne infectious disease in a communicable state that  requires isolation of the individual or requires special precautions by the  caretaker to prevent transmission of the disease, including diseases such as  tuberculosis and excluding infections such as the common cold;
    5. Psychotropic medications without appropriate diagnosis  and treatment plans;
    6. Nasogastric tubes;
    7. Gastric tubes except when the individual is capable of  independently feeding himself and caring for the tube or as permitted in  subsection K of this section;
    8. Individuals presenting an imminent physical threat or  danger to self or others;
    9. Individuals requiring continuous licensed nursing care;
    10. Individuals whose physician certifies that placement is  no longer appropriate;
    11. Unless the individual's independent physician  determines otherwise, individuals who require maximum physical assistance as  documented by the UAI and meet Medicaid nursing facility level of care criteria  as defined in the State Plan for Medical Assistance Program (12VAC30-10); or
    12. Individuals whose physical or mental health care needs  cannot be met in the specific assisted living facility as determined by the  facility.
    I. When a resident has a stage III dermal ulcer that has  been determined by an independent physician to be healing, periodic observation  and any necessary dressing changes shall be performed by a licensed health care  professional under a physician's or other prescriber's treatment plan. 
    J. Intermittent intravenous therapy may be provided to a  resident for a limited period of time on a daily or periodic basis by a  licensed health care professional under a physician's or other prescriber's  treatment plan. When a course of treatment is expected to be ongoing and extends  beyond a two-week period, evaluation is required at two-week intervals by the  licensed health care professional.
    K. At the request of the resident in an assisted living  facility and when his independent physician determines that it is appropriate,  care for the conditions or care needs (i) specified in subdivisions G 3 and G 7  of this section may be provided to the resident by a physician licensed in  Virginia, a nurse licensed in Virginia or a nurse holding a multistate  licensure privilege under a physician's treatment plan, or a home care  organization licensed in Virginia or (ii) specified in subdivision G 7 of this  section may also be provided to the resident by facility staff if the care is  delivered in accordance with the regulations of the Board of Nursing for  delegation by a registered nurse, 18VAC90-20-420 through 18VAC90-20-460, and  22VAC40-73-470 E. This standard does not apply to recipients of auxiliary  grants.
    L. When care for a resident's special medical needs is  provided by licensed staff of a home care agency, the assisted living facility  direct care staff may receive training from the home care agency staff in  appropriate treatment monitoring techniques regarding safety precautions and  actions to take in case of emergency. This training is required prior to direct  care staff assuming such duties. Updated training shall be provided as needed.  The training shall include content based on the resident's specific needs.
    M. Notwithstanding § 63.2-1805 of the Code of  Virginia, at the request of the resident, hospice care may be provided in an  assisted living facility under the same requirements for hospice programs  provided in Article 7 (§ 32.1-162.1 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 of  the Code of Virginia if the hospice program determines that such program is  appropriate for the resident. If hospice care is provided, there shall be a  written agreement between the assisted living facility and any hospice program  that provides care in the facility. The agreement shall include:
    1. Policies and procedures to ensure appropriate  communication and coordination between the facility and the hospice program;
    2. Specification of the roles and responsibilities of each  entity, including listing of the services that will generally be provided by  the facility and the services that will generally be provided by the hospice  program; 
    3. Acknowledgment that the services provided to each  resident shall be reflected on the individualized service plan as required in  22VAC40-73-450 D; and
    4. Signatures of an authorized representative of the  facility and an authorized representative of the hospice program.
    22VAC40-73-320. Physical examination and report.
    A. Within the 30 days preceding admission, a person shall  have a physical examination by an independent physician. The report of such  examination shall be on file at the assisted living facility and shall contain  the following:
    1. The date of the physical examination;
    2. Height, weight, and blood pressure;
    3. Significant medical history;
    4. General physical condition, including a systems review  as is medically indicated;
    5. Any diagnosis or significant problems;
    6. Any known allergies and description of the person's  reactions;
    7. Any recommendations for care including medication, diet,  and therapy;
    8. Results of a risk assessment documenting the absence of  tuberculosis in a communicable form as evidenced by the completion of the  current screening form published by the Virginia Department of Health or a form  consistent with it;
    9. A statement that the individual does not have any of the  conditions or care needs prohibited by 22VAC40-73-310 H;
    10. A statement that specifies whether the individual is  considered to be ambulatory or nonambulatory; 
    11. A statement that specifies whether the individual is or  is not capable of self-administering medication; and
    12. The signature of the examining physician or his  designee.
    B. Subsequent tuberculosis  evaluations.
    1. A risk assessment for tuberculosis shall be completed  annually on each resident as evidenced by the completion of the current screening  form published by the Virginia Department of Health or a form consistent with  it.
    2. Any resident who comes in contact with a known case of  infectious tuberculosis shall be screened as deemed appropriate in consultation  with the local health department.
    3. Any resident who develops respiratory symptoms of three  or more weeks duration with no medical explanation shall be referred for  evaluation for the presence of infectious tuberculosis.
    4. If a resident develops an active case of tuberculosis,  the facility shall report this information to the local health department.
    C. As necessary to determine whether a resident's needs  can continue to be met in the assisted living facility, the department may  request a current physical examination or psychiatric evaluation, including  diagnosis and assessments.
    22VAC40-73-325. Fall risk assessment.
    A. For residents who meet the criteria for assisted living  care, by the time the comprehensive ISP is completed, a fall risk assessment  shall be conducted.
    B. The fall risk assessment shall be reviewed and updated:
    1. At least annually; 
    2. When the condition of the resident changes; and
    3. After a fall.
    C. Should a resident fall, the facility must show  documentation of an analysis of the circumstances of the fall and interventions  that were initiated to prevent or reduce additional falls.
    22VAC40-73-330. Mental health screening.
    A. A mental health screening shall be conducted prior to  admission if behaviors or patterns of behavior occurred within the previous six  months that were indicative of mental illness, intellectual disability,  substance abuse, or behavioral disorders and that caused, or continue to cause,  concern for the health, safety, or welfare either of that individual or others  who could be placed at risk of harm by that individual. 
    Exceptions: 
    1. If it is not possible for the screening to be conducted  prior to admission, the individual may be admitted if all other admission  requirements are met. The reason for the delay shall be documented and the  screening shall be conducted as soon as possible, but no later than 30 days  after admission.
    2. The screening shall not be required for individuals  under the care of a qualified mental health professional immediately prior to  admission, as long as there is documentation of the person's psychosocial and  behavioral functioning as specified in 22VAC40-73-340 A 1.
    B. A mental health screening shall be conducted when a  resident displays behaviors or patterns of behavior indicative of mental  illness, intellectual disability, substance abuse, or behavioral disorders that  cause concern for the health, safety, or welfare of either that individual or  others who could be placed at risk of harm by the individual.
    C. The mental health screening shall be conducted by a qualified  mental health professional having no financial interest in the assisted living  facility, directly or indirectly as an owner, officer, employee, or as an  independent contractor with the facility.
    D. A copy of the screening shall be filed in the resident's  record.
    E. If the screening indicates a need for mental health,  intellectual disability, substance abuse, or behavioral disorder services for  the resident, the facility shall provide:
    1. Notification of the resident's need for such services to  the community services board, behavioral health authority, or other appropriate  licensed provider identified by the resident or his legal representative; and 
    2. Notification to the resident, authorized contact person  of record, and physician of record that mental health services have been  recommended for the resident.
    22VAC40-73-340. Psychosocial and behavioral history.
    A. When determining appropriateness of admission for an  individual with mental illness, intellectual disability, substance abuse, or  behavioral disorders, the following information shall be obtained by the  facility:
    1. If the prospective resident is referred by a state or  private hospital, community services board, behavioral health authority, or  long-term care facility, documentation of the individual's psychosocial and  behavioral functioning shall be acquired. 
    2. If the prospective resident is coming from a private  residence, information about the individual's psychosocial and behavioral  functioning shall be gathered from primary sources, such as family members or  friends. Although there is no requirement for written information from primary  sources, the facility must document the source and content of the information  that was obtained.
    B. The administrator or his designee shall document that  the individual's psychosocial and behavioral history were reviewed and used to  help determine the appropriateness of the admission.
    C. If the individual is admitted, the psychosocial and  behavioral history shall be used in the development of the person's individualized  service plan and documentation of the history shall be filed in the 'record.
    22VAC40-73-350. Sex offender information.
    A. The assisted living facility shall register with the  Department of State Police to receive notice of the registration or reregistration  of any sex offender within the same or a contiguous zip code area in which the  facility is located, pursuant to § 9.1-914 of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The assisted living facility shall ascertain, prior to  admission, whether a potential resident is a registered sex offender if the  facility anticipates the potential resident will have a length of stay greater  than three days or in fact stays longer than three days and shall document in  the resident's record that this was ascertained and the date the information  was obtained.
    C. The assisted living facility shall ensure that each  resident or his legal representative is fully informed, prior to or at the time  of admission and annually, that he should exercise whatever due diligence he  deems necessary with respect to information on any sex offenders registered  pursuant to Chapter 9 (§ 9.1-900 et. seq.) of Title 9.1 of the Code of  Virginia, including how to obtain such information. Written acknowledgment of  having been so informed shall be provided by the resident or his legal  representative and shall be maintained in the resident's record.
    D. At the same time that the person is informed as  required in subsection C of this section, the assisted living facility shall  provide notification that, upon request, the facility shall:
    1. Assist the resident, prospective resident, or his legal  representative in accessing the information on registered sex offenders; and
    2. Provide the resident, prospective resident, or his legal  representative with printed copies of the information on registered sex  offenders.
    22VAC40-73-360. Emergency placement.
    A. An emergency placement shall occur only when the  emergency is documented and approved by (i) an adult protective services worker  for public pay individuals or (ii) an independent physician or an adult  protective services worker for private pay individuals.
    B. When an emergency placement occurs, the person shall  remain in the assisted living facility no longer than seven days unless all the  requirements for admission have been met and the person has been admitted.
    C. The facility shall obtain sufficient information on the  person to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the individual while he  remains at the facility as allowed by subsection B of this section. 
    22VAC40-73-370. Respite care.
    If an assisted living facility provides respite care as  defined in 22VAC40-73-10, the requirements of this chapter apply to the respite  care, except as follows:
    1. For individuals in respite care, the ISP shall be  completed prior to the person participating in respite care and need not  include expected outcome. 
    2. Each time an individual returns for respite care, the  facility shall reevaluate the person's condition and as needed, ensure that the  uniform assessment instrument and the individualized service plan are updated.  The reevaluation shall include, but not be limited to, observation of the  person; interviews with the individual and his legal representative, if any;  and consultation with others knowledgeable about the person, as appropriate.
    3. If the period of time between respite care stays is six  months or longer, a new physical examination report shall be required prior to  the individual returning for respite care. The examination shall take place  within 30 days prior to the person's return for respite care.
    4. The record for the individual in respite care shall  include the dates of respite care.
    5. The medication review required by 22VAC40-73-690 does  not apply to individuals in respite care.
    22VAC40-73-380. Resident personal and social information.
    A. Prior to or at the time of admission to an assisted  living facility, the following personal and social information on a person  shall be obtained:
    1. Name;
    2. Last home address, and address from which resident was  received, if different;
    3. Date of admission;
    4. Birth date or if unknown, estimated age;
    5. Birthplace, if known;
    6. Marital status, if known;
    7. Name, address, and telephone number of all legal  representatives, if any;
    8. If there is a legal representative, copies of current  legal documents that show proof of each legal representative's authority to act  on behalf of the resident and that specify the scope of the representative's  authority to make decisions and to perform other functions;
    9. Name, address, and telephone number of next of kin, if  known (two preferred);
    10. Name, address, and telephone number of designated  contact person authorized by the resident or legal representative, if  appropriate, for notification purposes, including emergency notification and  notification of the need for mental health, intellectual disability, substance  abuse, or behavioral disorder services - if the resident or legal  representative is willing to designate an authorized contact person. There may  be more than one designated contact person. The designated contact person may  also be listed under another category, such as next of kin or legal  representative;
    11. Name, address, and telephone number of the responsible  individual stipulated in 22VAC40-73-550 H, if needed;
    12. Name, address, and telephone number of personal  physician, if known;
    13. Name, address, and telephone number of personal  dentist, if known;
    14. Name, address, and telephone number of clergyman and  place of worship, if applicable;
    15. Name, address, and telephone number of local department  of social services or any other agency, if applicable, and the name of the  assigned case manager or caseworker;
    16. Service in the armed forces, if applicable;
    17. Lifetime vocation, career, or primary role;
    18. Special interests and hobbies;
    19. Known allergies, if any; 
    20. Information concerning advance directives, Do Not  Resuscitate (DNR) Orders, or organ donation, if applicable; and
    21. For residents who meet the criteria for assisted living  care, the additional information in subdivisions a, b, and c of this  subdivision 21: 
    a. Previous mental health or intellectual disability  services history, if any, and if applicable for care or services;
    b. Current behavioral and social functioning including  strengths and problems; and
    c. Any substance abuse history if applicable for care or  services.
    B. The personal and social information required in  subsection A of this section shall be placed in the individual's record.
    22VAC40-73-390. Resident agreement with facility.
    A. At or prior to the time of admission, there shall be a  written agreement or written acknowledgment of notification dated and signed by  the resident or applicant for admission or the appropriate legal  representative, and by the licensee or administrator. This document shall include  the following:
    1. Financial arrangement for accommodations, services, and  care that specifies:
    a. Listing of specific charges for accommodations,  services, and care to be made to the individual resident signing the agreement,  the frequency of payment, and any rules relating to nonpayment;
    b. Description of all accommodations, services, and care  that the facility offers and any related charges;
    c. For an auxiliary grant recipient, a list of services  included under the auxiliary grant rate;
    d. The amount and purpose of an advance payment or deposit  payment and the refund policy for such payment, except that recipients of  auxiliary grants may not be charged an advance payment or deposit payment;
    e. The policy with respect to increases in charges and length  of time for advance notice of intent to increase charges;
    f. If the ownership of any personal property, real estate,  money or financial investments is to be transferred to the facility at the time  of admission or at some future date, it shall be stipulated in the agreement;  and
    g. The refund policy to apply when transfer of ownership,  closing of facility, or resident transfer or discharge occurs.
    2. Requirements or rules to be imposed regarding resident  conduct and other restrictions or special conditions.
    3. Those actions, circumstances, or conditions that would  result or might result in the resident's discharge from the facility.
    4. Signed acknowledgments that: 
    a. Requirements or rules regarding resident conduct, other  restrictions, or special conditions have been reviewed by the resident or his  legal representative;
    b. The resident or his legal representative has been  informed of the policy regarding the amount of notice required when a resident  wishes to move from the facility;
    c. The resident has been informed of the policy required by  22VAC40-73-840 regarding pets living in the facility;
    d. The resident has been informed of the policy required by  22VAC40-73-860 K regarding weapons;
    e. The resident or his legal representative or responsible  individual as stipulated in 22VAC40-73-550 H has reviewed § 63.2-1808 of  the Code of Virginia, Rights and Responsibilities of Residents of Assisted  Living Facilities, and that the provisions of this statute have been explained  to him;
    f. The resident or his legal representative or responsible  individual as stipulated in 22VAC40-73-550 H has reviewed and had explained to  him the facility's policies and procedures for implementing § 63.2-1808 of  the Code of Virginia, including the grievance policy and the transfer or  discharge policy;
    g. The resident has been informed that interested residents  may establish and maintain a resident council, that the facility is responsible  for providing assistance with the formation and maintenance of the council,  whether or not such a council currently exists in the facility, and the general  purpose of a resident council (See 22VAC40-73-830);
    h. The resident has been informed of the bed hold policy in  case of temporary transfer or movement from the facility, if the facility has such  a policy (See 22VAC40-73-420 B);
    i. The resident has been informed of the policy or  guidelines regarding visiting in the facility, if the facility has such a  policy or guidelines (See 22VAC40-73-540 C);
    j. The resident has been informed of the rules and  restrictions regarding smoking on the premises of the facility, including but  not limited to that which is required by 22VAC40-73-820;
    k. The resident has been informed of the policy regarding  the administration and storage of medications and dietary supplements; and
    l. The resident has received written assurance that the  facility has the appropriate license to meet his care needs at the time of  admission, as required by 22VAC40-73-310 D.
    B. Copies of the signed agreement or acknowledgment of  notification shall be provided to the resident and, as appropriate, his legal  representative and shall be retained in the resident's record.
    C. The original agreement shall be updated whenever there  are changes in financial arrangements, accommodations, services, care provided  by the facility, requirements governing the resident's conduct, other  restrictions, or special conditions, and signed by the licensee or  administrator and the resident or his legal representative. If the original  agreement provides for specific changes in any of these items, this standard  does not apply to those changes.
    22VAC40-73-400. Monthly statement of charges and payments.
    The facility shall provide to each resident or the  resident's legal representative, if one has been appointed, a monthly statement  that itemizes any charges made by the facility and any payments received from  the resident or on behalf of the resident during the previous calendar month  and shall show the balance due or any credits for overpayment. The facility  shall also place a copy of the monthly statement in the resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-410. Orientation and related information for  residents.
    A. Upon admission, the assisted living facility shall  provide an orientation for new residents and their legal representatives,  including but not limited to, emergency response procedures, mealtimes, and use  of the call system. If needed, the orientation shall be modified as appropriate  for residents with cognitive impairments. Acknowledgment of having received the  orientation shall be signed and dated by the resident and, as appropriate, his  legal representative, and such documentation shall be kept in the resident's  record.
    B. Upon admission and upon request, the assisted living  facility shall provide to the resident and, if appropriate, his legal  representative, a written description of the types of staff persons working in  the facility and the services provided, including the hours such services are  available.
    22VAC40-73-420. Acceptance back in facility.
    A. An assisted living facility shall establish procedures  to ensure that any resident detained by a temporary detention order pursuant to  §§ 37.2-809 through 37.2-813 of the Code of Virginia is accepted back in  the assisted living facility if the resident is not involuntarily committed  pursuant to §§ 37.2-814 through 37.2-819 of the Code of Virginia. The  procedures shall include, but not be limited to:
    1. Obtaining written recommendations from a qualified  mental health professional regarding supportive services necessary to address  the mental health needs of the resident returning to the facility;
    2. Documenting whether the recommendations specified in  subdivision 1 of this subsection can be implemented based on facility or  community resources and whether the resident can be retained at the facility or  would need to be discharged;
    3. Updating the resident's individualized service plan, as  needed; and
    4. Ensuring that direct care staff involved in the care and  supervision of the resident receive clear and timely communication regarding  their responsibilities in respect to the mental health needs of the resident  and behavioral or emotional indicators of possible crisis situations.
    B. If an assisted living facility allows for temporary  movement of a resident with agreement to hold a bed, it shall develop and  follow a written bed hold policy, which includes, but is not limited to, the  conditions for which a bed will be held, any time frames, terms of payment, and  circumstances under which the bed will no longer be held.
    22VAC40-73-430. Discharge of residents.
    A. When actions, circumstances, conditions, or care needs  occur that will result in the discharge of a resident, discharge planning shall  begin immediately, and there shall be documentation of such, including the  beginning date of discharge planning. The resident shall be moved within 30  days, except that if persistent efforts have been made and the time frame is  not met, the facility shall document the reason and the efforts that have been  made. 
    B. As soon as discharge planning begins, the assisted  living facility shall notify the resident, the resident's legal representative  and designated contact person if any, of the planned discharge, the reason for  the discharge, and that the resident will be moved within 30 days unless there  are extenuating circumstances relating to inability to place the resident in  another setting within the time frame referenced in subsection A of this  section. Written notification of the actual discharge date and place of  discharge shall be given to the resident, the resident's legal representative  and contact person, if any, and additionally for public pay residents, the  eligibility worker and assessor, at least 14 days prior to the date that the  resident will be discharged.
    C. The assisted living facility shall adopt and conform to  a written policy regarding the number of days' notice that is required when a  resident wishes to move from the facility. Any required notice of intent to  move shall not exceed 30 days.
    D. The facility shall assist the resident and his legal  representative, if any, in the discharge or transfer process. The facility  shall help the resident prepare for relocation, including discussing the  resident's destination. Primary responsibility for transporting the resident  and his possessions rests with the resident or his legal representative.
    E. When a resident's condition presents an immediate and  serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of the resident or others and  emergency discharge is necessary, 14-day notification of planned discharge does  not apply, although the reason for the relocation shall be discussed with the  resident and, when possible, his legal representative prior to the move.
    F. Under emergency conditions, the resident's legal  representative, designated contact person, family, caseworker, social worker,  or any other persons, as appropriate, shall be informed as rapidly as possible,  but by the close of the day following discharge, of the reasons for the move.  For public pay residents, the eligibility worker and assessor shall also be so  informed within the same time frame. No later than five days after discharge,  the information shall be provided in writing to all those notified. 
    G. For public pay residents, in the event of a resident's  death, the assisted living facility shall provide written notification to the  eligibility worker and assessor within five days after the resident's death.
    H. Discharge statement.
    1. At the time of discharge, the assisted living facility  shall provide to the resident and, as appropriate, his legal representative and  designated contact person a dated statement signed by the licensee or  administrator that contains the following information:
    a. The date on which the resident, his legal  representative, or designated contact person was notified of the planned  discharge and the name of the legal representative or designated contact person  who was notified;
    b. The reason or reasons for the discharge;
    c. The actions taken by the facility to assist the resident  in the discharge and relocation process; and
    d. The date of the actual discharge from the facility and  the resident's destination.
    2. When the termination of care is due to emergency  conditions, the dated statement shall contain the information in subdivisions 1  a through 1 d of this subsection as appropriate and shall be provided or mailed  to the resident, his legal representative, or designated contact person within  48 hours from the time of the decision to discharge.
    3. A copy of the written statement shall be retained in the  resident's record.
    I. When the resident is discharged and moves to another  caregiving facility, the assisted living facility shall provide to the  receiving facility such information related to the resident as is necessary to  ensure continuity of care and services. Original information pertaining to the  resident shall be maintained by the assisted living facility from which the  resident was discharged. The assisted living facility shall maintain a listing  of all information shared with the receiving facility.
    J. Within 60 days of the date of discharge, each resident  or his legal representative shall be given a final statement of account, any  refunds due, and return of any money, property, or things of value held in  trust or custody by the facility.
    Part VI
  Resident Care and Related Services
    22VAC40-73-440. Uniform assessment instrument (UAI).
    A. All residents of and applicants to assisted living  facilities shall be assessed face to face using the uniform assessment  instrument in accordance with Assessment in Assisted Living Facilities (22VAC30-110).  The UAI shall be completed prior to admission, at least annually, and whenever  there is a significant change in the resident's condition. 
    B. The UAI shall be completed within 90 days prior to  admission to the assisted living facility, except that if there has been a  change in the resident's condition since the completion of the UAI that would  affect the admission, a new UAI shall be completed.
    C. When a resident moves to an assisted living facility  from another assisted living facility or other long‑term care setting  that uses the UAI, if there is a completed UAI on record, another UAI does not  have to be completed except that a new UAI shall be completed whenever:
    1. There is a significant change in the resident's  condition; or 
    2. The previous assessment is more than 12 months old.
    D. Annual reassessments and reassessments due to a  significant change in the resident's condition, using the UAI, shall be  utilized to determine whether a resident's needs can continue to be met by the  facility and whether continued placement in the facility is in the best  interest of the resident.
    E. During an inspection or review, staff from the  department, the Department of Medical Assistance Services, or the local  department of social services may initiate a change in level of care for any  assisted living facility resident for whom it is determined that the resident's  UAI is not reflective of the resident's current status. 
    F. At the request of the assisted living facility, the  resident's legal representative, the resident's physician, the department, or  the local department of social services an independent assessment using the UAI  shall be completed to determine whether the resident's care needs are being met  in the assisted living facility. The assisted living facility shall assist in  obtaining the independent assessment as requested. An independent assessment is  one that is completed by a qualified entity other than the original assessor. 
    G. For private pay individuals, the assisted living  facility shall ensure that the uniform assessment instrument is completed as  required by 22VAC30-110. 
    H. For a private pay resident, if the UAI is completed by  an independent physician or a qualified human services agency assessor, the  assisted living facility shall be responsible for coordinating with the  physician or the agency assessor to ensure that the UAI is completed as  required. 
    I. The assisted living facility shall be in compliance  with the requirements set forth in 22VAC30-110.
    J. The facility shall maintain the completed UAI in the  resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-450. Individualized service plans.
    A. On the day of admission, unless a comprehensive  individualized service plan is completed during that time, a preliminary plan  of care shall be developed to address the basic needs of the resident, which  adequately protects his health, safety, and welfare. The preliminary plan shall  be developed by a staff person with the qualifications specified in subsection  B of this section and in conjunction with the resident, and, as appropriate,  other individuals noted in subdivision B 1 of this section.
    B. The licensee, administrator, or his designee who has  successfully completed the department-approved individualized service plan  (ISP) training, provided by a licensed health care professional practicing  within the scope of his profession, shall develop a comprehensive ISP to meet  the resident's service needs. An individualized service plan is not required  for those residents who are assessed as capable of maintaining themselves in an  independent living status.
    1. The licensee, administrator, or designee shall develop  the ISP in conjunction with the resident and, as appropriate, with the  resident's family, legal representative, direct care staff members, case  manager, health care providers, qualified mental health professionals, or other  persons.
    2. The plan shall reflect the resident's assessed needs and  support the principles of individuality, personal dignity, freedom of choice,  and home-like environment and shall include other formal and informal supports  that may participate in the delivery of services. Whenever possible, residents  shall be given a choice of options regarding the type and delivery of services.
    3. The plan shall be designed to maximize the resident's  level of functional ability.
    C. The comprehensive individualized service plan shall be  completed within 30 days after admission and shall include the following:
    1. Description of identified needs and date identified  based upon the (i) UAI; (ii) admission physical examination; (iii) interview  with resident; (iv) fall risk assessment, if appropriate; (v) assessment of  psychological, behavioral, and emotional functioning, if appropriate; and (vi)  other sources;
    2. A written description of what services will be provided  to address identified needs, and if applicable, other services, and who will  provide them;
    3. When and where the services will be provided; 
    4. The expected outcome and time frame for expected  outcome; 
    5. Date outcome achieved; and
    6. For a facility licensed for residential living care  only, if a resident lives in a building housing 19 or fewer residents, a  statement that specifies whether the person does need or does not need to have  a staff member awake and on duty at night.
    D. When hospice care is provided to a resident, the  assisted living facility and the licensed hospice organization shall  communicate and establish and agree upon a coordinated plan of care for the  resident. The services provided by each shall be included on the individualized  service plan.
    E. The individualized service plan shall be signed and  dated by the licensee, administrator, or his designee, (i.e., the person who  has developed the plan), and by the resident or his legal representative. The  plan shall also indicate any other individuals who contributed to the  development of the plan, with a notation of the date of contribution. The title  or relationship to the resident of each person who was involved in the  development of the plan shall be so noted. These requirements shall also apply  to reviews and updates of the plan.
    F. Individualized service plans shall be reviewed and  updated at least once every 12 months and as needed as the condition of the  resident changes. The review and update shall be performed by a staff person  with the qualifications specified in subsection B of this section and in  conjunction with the resident and, as appropriate, with the resident's family,  legal representative, direct care staff, case manager, health care providers,  qualified mental health professionals, or other persons. 
    G. The master service plan shall be filed in the  resident's record. A current copy shall be provided to the resident and shall  also be maintained in a location accessible at all times to direct care staff,  but that protects the confidentiality of the contents of the service plan.  Extracts from the plan may be filed in locations specifically identified for  their retention.
    H. The facility shall ensure that the care and services  specified in the individualized service plan are provided to each resident,  except that:
    1. There may be a deviation from the plan when mutually  agreed upon between the facility and the resident or the resident's legal  representative at the time the care or services are scheduled or when there is  an emergency that prevents the care or services from being provided.
    2. Deviation from the plan shall be documented in writing,  including a description of the circumstances, the date it occurred, and the  signatures of the parties involved, and the documentation shall be retained in  the resident's record. 
    3. The facility may not start, change, or discontinue  medications, dietary supplements, diets, medical procedures, or treatments  without an order from a physician or other prescriber.
    22VAC40-73-460. Personal care services and general  supervision and care.
    A. The facility shall assume general responsibility for  the health, safety, and well-being of the residents.
    B. Care provision and service delivery shall be  resident-centered to the maximum extent possible and include:
    1. Resident participation in decisions regarding the care  and services provided to him; 
    2. Personalization of care and services tailored to the  resident's circumstances and preferences; and
    3. Prompt response by staff to resident needs as reasonable  to the circumstances.
    C. Care shall be furnished in a way that fosters the  independence of each resident and enables him to fulfill his potential.
    D. The facility shall provide supervision of resident  schedules, care, and activities, including attention to specialized needs, such  as prevention of falls and wandering from the premises.
    E. The facility shall regularly observe each resident for  changes in physical, mental, emotional, and social functioning.
    1. Any notable change in a resident's condition or  functioning, including illness, injury, or altered behavior, and action taken  shall be documented in the resident's record.
    2. The facility shall provide appropriate assistance when  observation reveals unmet needs.
    F. The facility shall notify the next of kin, legal  representative, designated contact person, or, if applicable, any responsible  social agency of any incident of a resident falling or wandering from the  premises, whether or not it results in injury. This notification shall occur as  soon as possible but at least within 24 hours from the time of initial  discovery or knowledge of the incident. The resident's record shall include  documentation of the notification, including date, time, caller, and person or  agency notified.
    Exception: If the whereabouts of a resident are unknown and  there is reason to be concerned about his safety, the facility shall  immediately notify the appropriate law-enforcement agency. The facility shall  also immediately notify the resident's next of kin, legal representative,  designated contact person, or, if applicable, any responsible social agency.
    G. The facility shall provide care and services to each  resident by staff who are able to communicate with the resident in a language  the resident understands or shall make provisions for communications between  staff and residents to ensure an accurate exchange of information.
    H. The facility shall ensure that personal assistance and  care are provided to each resident as necessary so that the needs of the  resident are met, including but not limited to assistance or care with:
    1. The activities of daily living:
    a. Bathing - at least twice a week, but more often if  needed or desired;
    b. Dressing;
    c. Toileting;
    d. Transferring;
    e. Bowel control; 
    f. Bladder control; and
    g. Eating or feeding;
    2. The instrumental activities of daily living:
    a. Meal preparation;
    b. Housekeeping;
    c. Laundry; and
    d. Managing money;
    3. Ambulation;
    4. Hygiene and grooming:
    a. Shampooing, combing, and brushing hair;
    b. Shaving;
    c. Trimming fingernails and toenails (certain medical conditions  necessitate that this be done by a licensed health care professional);
    d. Daily tooth brushing and denture care; and
    e. Skin care at least twice daily for those with limited  mobility; and
    5. Functions and tasks:
    a. Arrangements for transportation;
    b. Arrangements for shopping;
    c. Use of the telephone; and
    d. Correspondence.
    I. Each resident shall be dressed in clean clothing and be  free of odors related to hygiene. Each resident shall be encouraged to wear day  clothing when out of bed.
    J. Residents who are incontinent shall have a full or  partial bath and clean clothing and linens each time their clothing or bed  linen is soiled or wet.
    K. The facility shall ensure each resident is able to  obtain individually preferred personal care items when:
    1. The preferred personal care items are reasonably  available; and
    2. The resident is willing and able to pay for the  preferred items.
    22VAC40-73-470. Health care services.
    A. The facility shall ensure, either directly or  indirectly, that the health care service needs of residents are met. The ways  in which the needs may be met include, but are not limited to:
    1. Staff of the facility providing health care services;
    2. Persons employed by a resident providing health care  services; or
    3. The facility assisting residents in making appropriate  arrangements for health care services.
    a. When a resident is unable to participate in making  appropriate arrangements, the resident's family, legal representative,  designated contact person, cooperating social agency, or personal physician  shall be notified of the need.
    b. When mental health care is needed or desired by a  resident, this assistance shall include securing the services of the local  community services board, state or federal mental health clinic, or similar  facility or agent in the private sector. 
    B. A resident's need for skilled nursing treatments within  the facility shall be met by the facility’s employment of a licensed nurse or  contractual agreement with a licensed nurse, or by a home health agency or by a  private duty licensed nurse.
    C. Services shall be provided to prevent clinically  avoidable complications, including but not limited to:
    1. Pressure ulcer development or worsening of an ulcer; 
    2. Contracture;
    3. Loss of continence; 
    4. Dehydration; and
    5. Malnutrition.
    D. The facility shall develop and implement a written  policy to ensure that staff are made aware of any life-threatening conditions  of residents, including but not limited to allergic reactions, and actions that  staff may need to take.
    E. When care for gastric tubes is provided to a resident  by unlicensed direct care facility staff as allowed in clause (ii) of  22VAC40-73-310 K, the following criteria shall be met:
    1. Prior to the care being provided, the facility shall  obtain an informed consent, signed by the resident or his legal representative,  that includes at a minimum acknowledgment that:
    a. An unlicensed person will routinely be providing the  gastric tube care and feedings under the delegation of a registered nurse (RN)  who has assessed the resident's care needs and the unlicensed person's ability  to safely and adequately meet those needs;
    b. Delegation means the RN need not be present in the  facility during routine gastric tube care and feedings; 
    c. Registered medication aides are prohibited from  administering medications via gastric tubes and medications may only be  administered by licensed personnel (e.g., a licensed practical nurse (LPN) or  RN); 
    d. The tube care and feedings provided to the resident and  the supervisory oversight provided by the delegating RN will be reflected on  the individualized service plan as required in 22VAC40-73-450; and
    e. The signed consent shall be maintained in the resident's  record.
    2. Only those direct care staff with written approval from  the delegating nurse may provide the tube care and feedings.  In addition  to the approval, the RN shall document:
    a. The general and resident-specific instructions he  provided to the staff person; and
    b. The staff person's successful demonstration of  competency in tube care,
    3. The delegating RN shall be employed by or under contract  with the licensed assisted living facility and shall have supervisory  authority over the direct care staff being approved to provide gastric tube  care and feedings.
    4. The supervisory responsibilities of the delegating nurse  include, but are not limited to:
    a. Monitoring the direct care staff performance related to  the delegated tasks; 
    b. Evaluating the outcomes for the resident; 
    c. Ensuring appropriate documentation; and
    d. Documenting relevant findings and recommendations.
    5. The delegating RN shall schedule supervisory oversight  based upon the following criteria:
    a. The stability and condition of the resident; 
    b. The experience and competency of the unlicensed direct  care staff person; 
    c. The nature of the tasks or procedures being delegated;  and 
    d. The proximity and availability of the delegating nurse  to the unlicensed direct care staff person when the nursing tasks will be  performed. 
    6. Prior to allowing direct care staff to independently  perform care for gastric tubes as provided for in this subsection, each person  must be able to successfully demonstrate performance of the entire procedure  correctly while under direct observation of the delegating RN. Subsequently,  each person shall be directly observed no less than monthly for at least three  consecutive months, after which direct observation shall be conducted no less  than every six months or more often if indicated. The delegating RN shall  retain documentation at the facility of all supervisory activities and direct  observations of staff.
    7. Contact information for the delegating RN shall be  readily available to all staff responsible for tube feedings when an RN or LPN  is not present in the facility.
    8. Written protocols that encompass the basic policies and  procedures for the performance of gastric tube feedings, as well as any  resident-specific instructions, shall be available to any direct care staff  member responsible for tube feedings. 
    9. The facility shall have a written back-up plan to ensure  that a person who is qualified as specified in this subsection is available if  the direct care staff member who usually provides the care is absent.
    F. When the resident suffers serious accident, injury,  illness, or medical condition, or there is reason to suspect that such has  occurred, medical attention from a licensed health care professional shall be  secured immediately. The circumstances involved and the medical attention  received or refused shall be documented in the resident's record. The date and  time of occurrence, as well as the personnel involved shall be included in the  documentation.
    1. The resident's physician, if not already involved, next  of kin, legal representative, designated contact person, case manager, and any responsible  social agency, as appropriate, shall be notified as soon as possible but at  least within 24 hours of the situation and action taken, or if applicable, the  resident's refusal of medical attention. If a resident refuses medical  attention, the resident's physician shall be notified immediately.
    2. A notation shall be made in the resident's record of  such notice, including the date, time, caller, and person notified.
    G. If a resident refuses medical attention, the facility  shall assess whether it can continue to meet the resident's needs.
    22VAC40-73-480. Restorative, habilitative, and  rehabilitative services.
    A. Facilities shall assure that all restorative care and  habilitative service needs of the residents are met. Facilities shall  coordinate with appropriate professional service providers and ensure that any  facility staff who assist with support for these service needs are trained by  and receive direction from qualified professionals. Restorative and  habilitative care includes, but is not limited to, range of motion, assistance  with ambulation, positioning, assistance and instruction in the activities of  daily living, psychosocial skills training, and reorientation and reality  orientation.
    B. In the provision of restorative and habilitative care, staff  shall emphasize services such as the following:
    1. Making every effort to keep residents active, within the  limitations set by physicians' or other prescribers' orders;
    2. Encouraging residents to achieve independence in the  activities of daily living;
    3. Assisting residents to adjust to their disabilities, to  use their prosthetic devices, and to redirect their interests if they are no  longer able to maintain past involvement in particular activities; 
    4. Assisting residents to carry out prescribed physical  therapy exercises between appointments with the physical therapist; and
    5. Maintaining a bowel and bladder training program.
    C. Facilities shall arrange for specialized rehabilitative  services by qualified personnel as needed by the resident. Rehabilitative  services include physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech-language  pathology services. Rehabilitative services may be indicated when the resident  has lost or has shown a change in his ability to respond to or perform a given  task and requires professional rehabilitative services in an effort to regain  lost function. Rehabilitative services may also be indicated to evaluate the  appropriateness and individual response to the use of assistive technology.
    D. All rehabilitative services rendered by a  rehabilitative professional shall be performed only upon written medical  referral by a physician or other qualified health care professional.
    E. The physician's or other prescriber's orders, services  provided, evaluations of progress, and other pertinent information regarding  the rehabilitative services shall be recorded in the resident's record.
    F. Direct care staff who are involved in the care of  residents using assistive devices shall know how to operate and utilize the  devices.
    22VAC40-73-490. Health care oversight.
    A. Each assisted living facility shall retain a licensed  health care professional who has at least two years of experience as a health  care professional in an adult residential facility, adult day care center,  acute care facility, nursing home, or licensed home care or hospice  organization, either by direct employment or on a contractual basis, to provide  on-site health care oversight. 
    1. For residents who meet the criteria for residential  living care: 
    a. The licensed health care professional, practicing within  the scope of his profession, shall provide the health care oversight at least  every six months, or more often if indicated, based on his professional  judgment of the seriousness of a resident's needs or the stability of a resident's  condition; or
    b. If the facility employs a licensed health care  professional who is on site on a full-time basis, the licensed health care  professional, practicing within the scope of his profession, shall provide the  health care oversight at least annually, or more often if indicated, based on  his professional judgment of the seriousness of a resident's needs or stability  of a resident's condition.
    2. For residents who meet the criteria for assisted living  care:
    a. The licensed health care professional, practicing within  the scope of his profession, shall provide the health care oversight at least  every three months, or more often if indicated, based on his professional  judgment of the seriousness of a resident's needs or stability of a resident's  condition; or
    b. If the facility employs a licensed health care  professional who is on site on a full-time basis, the licensed health care  professional, practicing within the scope of his profession, shall provide the  health care oversight at least every six months, or more often if indicated,  based on his professional judgment of the seriousness of a resident's needs or  stability of a resident's condition.
    3. All residents shall be included at least annually in the  health care oversight.
    B. While on site, as specified in subsection A of this  section, the licensed health care professional shall provide health care  oversight of the following and make recommendations for change as needed:
    1. Ascertain whether a resident's service plan  appropriately addresses the current health care needs of the resident.
    2. Monitor direct care staff performance of health-related  activities.
    3. Evaluate the need for staff training.
    4. Provide consultation and technical assistance to staff  as needed.
    5. Review documentation regarding health care services,  including medication and treatment records, to assess that services are being  provided in accordance with physicians' or other prescribers' orders.
    6. Monitor conformance to the facility's medication  management plan and the maintenance of required medication reference materials.  
    7. Observe infection control measures and consistency with  the infection control program of the facility.
    8. Review the current condition and the records of  restrained residents to assess the appropriateness of the restraint and  progress toward its reduction or elimination.
    a. The licensed health care professional shall be at a  minimum a registered nurse. 
    b. The licensed health care professional providing the  oversight for this subdivision shall also provide the oversight for  subdivisions 1 through 7 of this subsection for restrained residents.
    c. The health care oversight for all restrained residents  shall be provided at least every three months.
    d. The oversight provided shall be a holistic review of the  physical, emotional, and mental health of the resident and identification of  any unmet needs. 
    e. The oversight shall include review of physician's orders  for restraints to determine whether orders are no older than three months, as  required by 22VAC40-73-710 C 2. 
    f. The oversight shall include an evaluation of whether  direct care staff have received the restraint training required by  22VAC40-73-270 and whether the facility is meeting the requirements of  22VAC40-73-710 regarding the use of restraints.
    9. Certify that the requirements of subdivisions 1 through  8 of this subsection were met, including the dates of the health care  oversight. The specific residents for whom the oversight was provided must be  identified. The administrator shall be advised of the findings of the health  care oversight and any recommendations. All of the requirements of this  subdivision shall be (i) in writing, (ii) signed and dated by the health care  professional, (iii) provided to the administrator within 10 days of the  completion of the oversight, and (iv) maintained in the facility files for at  least two years, with any specific recommendations regarding a particular  resident also maintained in the resident's record. 
    10. Action taken in response to the recommendations noted  in subdivision 9 of this subsection shall be documented in the resident's  record if resident specific, and if otherwise, in the facility files.
    22VAC40-73-500. Access by community services boards, certain  local government departments, and behavioral health authorities.
    All assisted living facilities shall provide reasonable  access to staff or contractual agents of community services boards, local  government departments with policy-advisory community services boards, or  behavioral health authorities as defined in § 37.2-100 of the Code of  Virginia for the purposes of:
    1. Assessing or evaluating clients residing in the  facility; 
    2. Providing case management or other services or  assistance to clients residing in the facility; or 
    3. Monitoring the care of clients residing in the facility.  
    Such staff or contractual agents also shall be given  reasonable access to other facility residents who have previously requested  their services.
    22VAC40-73-510. Mental health services coordination and  support.
    A. For each resident requiring mental health services, the  services of the local community services board, or a public or private mental  health clinic, rehabilitative services agency, treatment facility or agent, or  qualified health care professional shall be secured as appropriate based on the  resident's current evaluation and to the extent possible, the resident's  preference for service provider. The assisted living facility shall assist the  resident in obtaining the services. If the services are not able to be secured,  the facility shall document the reason for such and the efforts made to obtain  the services. If the resident has a legal representative, the representative  shall be notified of failure to obtain services and the notification shall be  documented.
    B. Written procedures to ensure communication and  coordination between the assisted living facility and the mental health service  provider shall be established to assure that the mental health needs of the  resident are addressed. 
    C. Efforts, which must be documented, shall be made by the  assisted living facility to assist in ensuring that prescribed interventions  are implemented, monitored, and evaluated for their effectiveness in addressing  the resident's mental health needs.
    D. If efforts to obtain the recommended services are  unsuccessful, the facility must document:
    1. Whether it can continue to meet all other needs of the  resident.
    2. How it plans to ensure that the failure to obtain the  recommended services will not compromise the health, safety, or rights of the  resident and others who come in contact with the resident.
    3. Details of additional steps the facility will take to  find alternative providers to meet the resident's needs.
    22VAC40-73-520. Activity and recreational requirements.
    A. Activities for residents shall:
    1. Support the skills and abilities of residents in order  to promote or maintain their highest level of independence or functioning;
    2. Accommodate individual differences by providing a  variety of types of activities and levels of involvement; and
    3. Offer residents a varied mix of activities weekly  including, but not limited to, those that are physical; social; cognitive,  intellectual, or creative; productive; sensory; reflective or contemplative;  nature or the natural world; and weather permitting, outdoor. Any given  activity may involve more than one of these. Community resources as well as  facility resources may be used to provide activities.
    B. Resident participation  in activities. 
    1. Residents shall be encouraged but not forced to  participate in activity programs offered by the facility and the community. 
    2. During an activity, each resident shall be encouraged  but not coerced to join in at his level of functioning, to include observing.
    3. Any restrictions on participation imposed by a physician  shall be documented in the resident's record. 
    C. Activities shall be planned under the supervision of  the administrator or other qualified staff person who shall encourage  involvement of residents and staff in the planning.
    D. In a facility licensed for residential living care  only, there shall be at least 11 hours of scheduled activities available to the  residents each week for no less than one hour each day. 
    E. In a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, there shall be at least 14 hours of scheduled activities  available to the residents each week for no less than one hour each day. 
    F. During an activity, when needed to ensure that each of  the following is adequately accomplished, there shall be staff persons or  volunteers to: 
    1. Lead the activity; 
    2. Assist the residents with the activity; 
    3. Supervise the general area; 
    4. Redirect any individuals who require different  activities; and
    5. Protect the health, safety, and welfare of the residents  participating in the activity.
    G. The staff person or volunteer leading the activity  shall have a general understanding of the following:
    1. Attention spans and functional levels of the residents  in the group;
    2. Methods to adapt the activity to meet the needs and  abilities of the residents;
    3. Various methods of engaging and motivating individuals  to participate; and
    4. The importance of providing appropriate instruction,  education, and guidance throughout the activity.
    H. Adequate supplies and equipment appropriate for the  program activities shall be available in the facility.
    I. There shall be a written schedule of activities that  meets the following criteria:
    1. The schedule of activities shall be developed at least  monthly.
    2. The schedule shall include:
    a. Group activities for all residents or small groups of  residents; and
    b. The name, if any, and the type, date, and hour of the  activity.
    3. If one activity is substituted for another, the change  shall be noted on the schedule.
    4. The current month's schedule shall be posted in a  conspicuous location in the facility or otherwise be made available to  residents and their families.
    5. The schedule of activities for the past two years shall  be kept at the facility.
    6. If a resident requires an individual schedule of activities,  that schedule shall be a part of the individualized service plan.
    J. The facility shall promote access to the outdoors. 
    K. In addition to the required scheduled activities, there  shall be unscheduled staff and resident interaction throughout the day that  fosters an environment that promotes socialization opportunities for residents.
    22VAC40-73-530. Freedom of movement.
    A. Any resident who does not have a serious cognitive  impairment shall be allowed to freely leave the facility.  A resident who  has a serious cognitive impairment shall be subject to the provisions set forth  in 22VAC40-73-1040 A or 22VAC40-73-1150 A.
    B. Doors leading to the outside shall not be locked from  the inside or secured from the inside in any manner that amounts to a lock,  except that doors may be locked or secured in a manner that amounts to a lock  in special care units as provided in 22VAC40-73-1150 A. Any devices used to  lock or secure doors in any manner must be in accordance with applicable  building and fire codes.
    C. The facility shall provide freedom of movement for the  residents to common areas and to their personal spaces. The facility shall not  lock residents out of or inside their rooms.
    22VAC40-73-540. Visiting in the facility.
    A. Daily visits to residents in the facility shall be  permitted.
    B. Visiting hours shall not be restricted, except by a  resident when it is the resident's choice. 
    C. The facility may establish a policy or guidelines so  that visiting is not disruptive to other residents and facility security is not  compromised. However, daily visits and visiting hours shall not be restricted  as provided in subsections A and B of this section.
    D. The facility shall encourage regular family involvement  with the resident and shall provide ample opportunities for family  participation in activities at the facility.
    22VAC40-73-550. Resident rights.
    A. The resident shall be encouraged and informed of  appropriate means as necessary to exercise his rights as a resident and a  citizen throughout the period of his stay at the facility.
    B. The resident has the right to voice or file grievances,  or both, with the facility and to make recommendations for changes in the  policies and services of the facility. The residents shall be protected by the  licensee or administrator, or both, from any form of coercion, discrimination,  threats, or reprisal for having voiced or filed such grievances.
    C. Any resident of an assisted living facility has the  rights and responsibilities as provided in § 63.2-1808 of the Code of  Virginia and this chapter.
    D. The operator or administrator of an assisted living  facility shall establish written policies and procedures for implementing  § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia.
    E. The facility shall make its policies and procedures for  implementing § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia available and accessible  to residents, relatives, agencies, and the general public.
    F. The rights and responsibilities of residents shall be  printed in at least 12-point type and posted conspicuously in a public place in  all assisted living facilities. The facility shall also post the name and  telephone number of the appropriate regional licensing supervisor of the  department, the Adult Protective Services' toll-free telephone number, the  toll-free telephone number of the Virginia Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program and  any substate (i.e., local) ombudsman program serving the area, and the  toll-free telephone number of the Virginia Office for Protection and Advocacy. 
    G. The rights and responsibilities of residents in  assisted living facilities shall be reviewed annually with each resident or his  legal representative or responsible individual as stipulated in subsection H of  this section and each staff person. Evidence of this review shall be the  resident's, his legal representative's or responsible individual's, or staff  person's written acknowledgment of having been so informed, which shall include  the date of the review and shall be filed in the resident's or staff person's  record.
    H. If a resident is unable to fully understand and exercise  the rights and responsibilities contained in § 63.2-1808 of the Code of  Virginia, the facility shall require that a responsible individual, of the  resident's choice when possible, designated in writing in the resident's record  annually be made aware of each item in § 63.2-1808 and the decisions that  affect the resident or relate to specific items in § 63.2-1808. 
    1. A resident shall be assumed capable of understanding and  exercising these rights unless a physician determines otherwise and documents  the reasons for such determination in the resident’s record.
    2. The facility shall seek a determination and reasons  for the determination from a resident's physician regarding the resident's  capability to understand and exercise these rights when there is reason to  believe that the resident may not be capable of such.
    22VAC40-73-560. Resident records.
    A. The facility shall establish written policy and  procedures for documentation and recordkeeping to ensure that the information  in resident records is accurate and clear and that the records are  well-organized.
    B. Resident records shall be identified and easily located  by resident name, including when a resident's record is kept in more than one  place. This shall apply to both electronic and hard copy material.
    C. Any physician's notes and progress reports in the  possession of the facility shall be retained in the resident's record.
    D. Copies of all agreements between the facility and the  resident and official acknowledgment of required notifications, signed by all  parties involved, shall be retained in the resident's record. Copies shall be  provided to the resident and to persons whose signatures appear on the  document.
    E. All resident records shall be kept current, retained at  the facility, and kept in a locked area, except that information shall be made  available as noted in subsection F of this section.
    F. The licensee shall assure that all records are treated  confidentially and that information shall be made available only when needed  for care of the resident. All records shall be made available for inspection by  the department's representative.
    G. Residents shall be allowed access to their own records.  A legal representative of a resident shall be provided access to the resident's  record or part of the record as allowed by the scope of his legal authority. 
    H. The complete resident record shall be retained for at  least two years after the resident leaves the facility.
    1. For at least the first year, the record shall be  retained at the facility.
    2. After the first year, the record may be retained off  site in a safe, secure area. The record must be available at the facility  within 48 hours.
    I. A current picture of each resident shall be readily  available for identification purposes or, if the resident refuses to consent to  a picture, there shall be a narrative physical description, which is annually  updated, maintained in his file.
    22VAC40-73-570. Release of information from resident's  record.
    A. The resident or the appropriate legal representative  has the right to release information from the resident's record to persons or  agencies outside the facility. 
    B. The licensee is responsible for making available to  residents and legal representatives a form which they may use to grant their  written permission for the facility to release information to persons or  agencies outside the facility. The facility shall retain a copy of any signed  release of information form in the resident's record. 
    C. Only under the following circumstances is a facility  permitted to release information from the resident's records or information  regarding the resident's personal affairs without the written permission of the  resident or his legal representative, where appropriate: 
    1. When records have been properly subpoenaed; 
    2. When the resident is in need of emergency medical care  and is unable or unwilling to grant permission to release information or his  legal representative is not available to grant permission;
    3. When the resident moves to another caregiving facility; 
    4. To representatives of the department; or 
    5. As otherwise required by law.
    D. When a resident is hospitalized or transported by  emergency medical personnel, information necessary to the care of the resident  shall be furnished by the facility to the hospital or emergency medical  personnel. Examples of such information include medications, a Do Not  Resuscitate (DNR) Order, advance directives, and organ donation information.  The facility shall also provide the name, address, and telephone number of the  resident's designated contact person to the hospital or emergency medical  personnel. 
    22VAC40-73-580. Food service and nutrition.
    A. When any portion of an assisted living facility is  subject to inspection by the Virginia Department of Health, the facility shall  be in compliance with those regulations, as evidenced by an initial and subsequent  annual reports from the Virginia Department of Health. The report shall be  retained at the facility for a period of at least two years.
    B. All meals shall be served in the dining area as  designated by the facility, except that:
    1. If the facility, through its policies and procedures,  offers routine or regular room service, residents shall be given the option of  having meals in the dining area or in their rooms, provided that:
    a. There is a written agreement to this effect, signed and  dated by both the resident and the licensee or administrator and filed in the  resident's record.
    b. If a resident's individualized service plan, physical  examination report, mental health status report, or any other document  indicates that the resident has a psychiatric condition that contributes to  self-isolation, a qualified mental health professional shall make a  determination in writing whether the person should have the option of having  meals in his room. If the determination is made that the resident should not have  this option, then the resident shall have his meals in the dining area.
    2. Under special circumstances, such as temporary illness,  temporary incapacity, temporary agitation of a resident with cognitive  impairment, or occasional, infrequent requests due to a resident's personal  preference, meals may be served in a resident's room. 
    3. When meals are served in a resident's room, a sturdy  table must be used.
    C. Personnel shall be available to help any resident who  may need assistance in reaching the dining room or when eating.
    D. A minimum of 45 minutes shall be allowed for each  resident to complete a meal. If a resident has been assessed on the UAI as  dependent in eating or feeding, his individualized service plan shall indicate  an approximate amount of time needed for meals to ensure needs are met.
    E. Facilities shall develop and implement a policy to  monitor each resident for: 
    1. Warning signs of changes in physical or mental status  related to nutrition; and
    2. Compliance with any needs determined by the resident's  individualized service plan or prescribed by a physician or other prescriber,  nutritionist, or health care professional.
    F. Facilities shall implement interventions as soon as a  nutritional problem is suspected. These interventions shall include, but are  not limited to the following:
    1. Weighing residents at least monthly to determine whether  the resident has significant weight loss (i.e., 5.0% weight loss in one month,  7.5% in three months, or 10% in six months); and
    2. Notifying the attending physician if a significant  weight loss is identified in any resident who is not on a physician-approved  weight reduction program and obtaining, documenting, and following the  physician's instructions regarding nutritional care.
    G. Residents with independent living status who have  kitchens equipped with stove, refrigerator, and sink within their individual  apartments may have the option of obtaining meals from the facility or from  another source. If meals are obtained from another source, the facility must ensure  availability of meals when the resident is sick or temporarily unable to  prepare meals for himself.
    22VAC40-73-590. Number of meals and availability of snacks.
    A. At least three well-balanced meals, served at regular  intervals, shall be provided daily to each resident, unless contraindicated as  documented by the attending physician in the resident's record or as provided  for in 22VAC40-73-580 G.
    B. Bedtime and between meal snacks shall be made available  for all residents desiring them or in accordance with their physician's or  other prescriber's orders.
    1. Appropriate adjustments in the provision of snacks to a  resident shall be made when orders from the resident's physician or other  prescriber in the resident's record limits the receipt or type of snacks.
    2. Vending machines shall not be used as the only source  for snacks.
    22VAC40-73-600. Time interval between meals.
    A. Time between the evening meal and breakfast the  following morning shall not exceed 15 hours.
    B. There shall be at least four hours between breakfast  and lunch and at least four hours between lunch and supper.
    C. When multiple seatings are required due to limited  dining space, scheduling shall ensure that these time intervals are met for all  residents. Schedules shall be made available to residents, legal  representatives, staff, volunteers, and any other persons responsible for  assisting residents in the dining process.
    22VAC40-73-610. Menus for meals and snacks.
    A. Food preferences of residents shall be considered when  menus are planned. 
    B. Menus for meals and snacks for the current week shall  be dated and posted in an area conspicuous to residents. 
    1. Any menu substitutions or additions shall be recorded on  the posted menu. 
    2. A record shall be kept of the menus served for two  years.
    C. Minimum daily menu. 
    1. Unless otherwise ordered in writing by the resident's  physician or other prescriber, the daily menu, including snacks, for each  resident shall meet the current guidelines of the U.S. Department of  Agriculture's food guidance system or the dietary allowances of the Food and  Nutritional Board of the National Academy of Sciences, taking into  consideration the age, sex, and activity of the resident. 
    2. Other foods may be added. 
    3. Second servings and snacks shall be available at no  additional charge. 
    4. At least one meal each day shall include a hot main  dish. 
    D. When a diet is prescribed for a resident by his  physician or other prescriber, it shall be prepared and served according to the  physician's or other prescriber's orders. 
    E. A copy of a diet manual containing acceptable practices  and standards for nutrition shall be kept current and on file in the dietary  department. 
    F. The facility shall make drinking water readily  available to all residents. Direct care staff shall know which residents need  help getting water or other fluids and drinking from a cup or glass. Direct  care staff shall encourage and assist residents who do not have medical  conditions with physician or other prescriber ordered fluid restrictions to  drink water or other beverages frequently.
    22VAC40-73-620. Oversight of special diets.
    A. There shall be oversight at least every six months of  special diets by a dietitian or nutritionist for each resident who has such a  diet. Special diets may also be referred to using terms such as medical  nutrition therapy or diet therapy. The dietitian or nutritionist must meet the  requirements of § 54.1-2731 of the Code of Virginia and 18VAC75-30, Regulations  Governing Standards for Dietitians and Nutritionists.
    B. The oversight specified in subsection A of this section  shall be on site and include the following:
    1. A review of the physician's or other prescriber's order  and the preparation and delivery of the special diet.
    2. An evaluation of the adequacy of the resident's special  diet and the resident's acceptance of the diet.
    3. Certification that the requirements of this subsection  were met, including the date of the oversight and identification of the  residents for whom the oversight was provided. The administrator shall be  advised of the findings of the oversight and any recommendations. All of the  requirements of this subdivision shall be (i) in writing, (ii) signed and dated  by the dietitian or nutritionist, (iii) provided to the administrator within 10  days of the completion of the oversight, and (iv) maintained in the files at  the facility for at least two years, with any specific recommendations  regarding a particular resident also maintained in the resident's record.
    4. Upon receipt of recommendations noted in subdivision 3  of this subsection, the administrator or the dietitian or nutritionist shall  report them to the resident's physician. Documentation of the report shall be  maintained in the resident's record.
    5. Action taken in response to the recommendations noted in  subdivision 3 of this subsection shall be documented in the resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-630. Observance of religious dietary practices.
    A. The resident's religious dietary practices shall be  respected.
    B. Religious dietary practices of the administrator or  licensee shall not be imposed upon residents unless mutually agreed upon in the  admission agreement between administrator or licensee and resident. 
    22VAC40-73-640. Medication management plan and reference  materials.
    A. The facility shall have, keep current, and implement a  written plan for medication management. The facility's medication plan shall  address procedures for administering medication and shall include:
    1. Methods to ensure an understanding of the  responsibilities associated with medication management;
    2. Standard operating procedures, including but not limited  to the facility's standard dosing schedule and any general restrictions  specific to the facility;
    3. Methods to prevent the use of outdated, damaged, or  contaminated medications;
    4. Methods to ensure that each resident's prescription  medications and any over-the-counter drugs and supplements ordered for the  resident are filled and refilled in a timely manner to avoid missed dosages;
    5. Methods for verifying that medication orders have been  accurately transcribed to medication administration records (MARs), including  within 24 hours of receipt of a new order or change in an order;
    6. Methods for monitoring medication administration and the  effective use of the MARs for documentation;
    7. Methods to ensure accurate counts of all controlled  substances whenever assigned medication administration staff changes;
    8. Methods to ensure that staff who are responsible for  administering medications meet the qualification requirements of  22VAC40-73-670;
    9. Methods to ensure that staff who are responsible for  administering medications are adequately supervised, including periodic direct  observation of medication administration;
    10. A plan for proper disposal of medication;
    11. Methods to ensure that residents do not receive  medications or dietary supplements to which they have known allergies;
    12. Identification of the medication aide or the person  licensed to administer drugs responsible for routinely communicating issues or  observations related to medication administration to the prescribing physician  or other prescriber; 
    13. Methods to ensure that staff who are responsible for  administering medications are trained on the facility's medication management  plan; and
    14. Procedures for internal monitoring of the facility's  conformance to the medication management plan.
    B. The facility's written medication management plan  requires approval by the department. 
    C. Subsequent changes shall be reviewed as part of the  department's regular inspection process.
    D. In addition to the facility's written medication  management plan, the facility shall maintain, as reference materials for  medication aides, at least one pharmacy reference book, drug guide, or  medication handbook for nurses that is no more than two years old. 
    22VAC40-73-650. Physician's or other prescriber's order.
    A. No medication, dietary supplement, diet, medical  procedure, or treatment shall be started, changed, or discontinued by the  facility without a valid order from a physician or other prescriber.  Medications include prescription, over-the-counter, and sample medications.
    B. Physician or other prescriber orders, both written and  oral, for administration of all prescription and over-the-counter medications  and dietary supplements shall include the name of the resident, the date of the  order, the name of the drug, route, dosage, strength, how often medication is  to be given, and identify the diagnosis, condition, or specific indications for  administering each drug.
    C. Physician's or other prescriber's oral orders shall:
    1. Be charted by the individual who takes the order. That  individual must be one of the following:
    a. A licensed health care professional practicing within  the scope of his profession; or
    b. A medication aide.
    2. Be reviewed and signed by a physician or other  prescriber within 14 days. 
    D. Medication aides may not transmit an oral order to a  pharmacy.
    E. The resident's record shall contain the physician's or  other prescriber's signed written order or a dated notation of the physician's  or other prescriber's oral order. Orders shall be organized chronologically in  the resident's record.
    F. Whenever a resident is admitted to a hospital for  treatment of any condition, the facility shall obtain new orders for all  medications and treatments prior to or at the time of the resident's return to  the facility. The facility shall ensure that the primary physician is aware of  all medication orders and has documented any contact with the physician  regarding the new orders. 
    22VAC40-73-660. Storage of medications.
    A. A medicine cabinet, container, or compartment shall be  used for storage of medications and dietary supplements prescribed for  residents when such medications and dietary supplements are administered by the  facility. Medications shall be stored in a manner consistent with current  standards of practice. 
    1. The storage area shall be locked. 
    2. Schedule II drugs and any other drugs subject to abuse  must be kept in a separate locked storage compartment (e.g., a locked cabinet  within a locked storage area or a locked container within a locked cabinet or  cart).
    3. The individual responsible for medication administration  shall keep the keys to the storage area on his person.
    4. When in use, the storage area shall have adequate  illumination in order to read container labels. 
    5. The storage area shall not be located in the kitchen or  bathroom, but in an area free of dampness or abnormal temperatures unless the  medication requires refrigeration. 
    6. When required, medications shall be refrigerated. 
    a. It is permissible to store dietary supplements and foods  and liquids used for medication administration in a refrigerator that is  dedicated to medication storage if the refrigerator is in a locked storage  area.
    b. When it is necessary to store medications in a refrigerator  that is routinely used for food storage, the medications shall be stored  together in a locked container in a clearly defined area.
    7. Single-use and dedicated medical supplies and equipment  shall be appropriately labeled and stored. Medical equipment suitable for  multi-use shall be stored to prevent cross-contamination.
    B. A resident may be permitted to keep his own medication  in an out-of-sight place in his room if the UAI has indicated that the resident  is capable of self-administering medication. The medication and any dietary  supplements shall be stored so that they are not accessible to other residents.  This does not prohibit the facility from storing or administering all  medication and dietary supplements. 
    Exception: If the facility has no residents with serious  cognitive impairments, the facility may determine that the out-of-sight and  inaccessibility safeguards specified in this subsection do not apply.
    22VAC40-73-670. Qualifications and supervision of staff  administering medications.
    When staff administers medications to residents, the  following standards shall apply:
    1. Each staff person who administers medication shall be  authorized by § 54.1-3408 of the Virginia Drug Control Act. All staff  responsible for medication administration shall:
    a. Be licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to  administer medications; or
    b. Be registered with the Virginia Board of Nursing as a  medication aide, except as specified in subdivision 2 of this section.
    2. Any applicant for registration as a medication aide who  has provided to the Virginia Board of Nursing evidence of successful completion  of the education or training course required for registration may act as a  medication aide on a provisional basis for no more than 120 days before  successfully completing any required competency evaluation. However, upon  notification of failure to successfully complete the written examination after  three attempts, an applicant shall immediately cease acting as a medication  aide. 
    3. Medication aides shall be supervised by one of the  following:
    a. An individual employed full time at the facility who is  licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to administer medications;
    b. The administrator who is licensed by the Commonwealth of  Virginia to administer medications or who has successfully completed a training  program approved by the Virginia Board of Nursing for the registration of  medication aides. The training program for administrators who supervise  medication aides, but are not registered medication aides themselves, must include  a minimum of 68 hours of student instruction and training but need not include  the prerequisite for the program or the written examination for registration.  The administrator must also meet the requirements of 22VAC40-73-160 E; or 
    c. For a facility licensed for residential living care  only, the designated assistant administrator, as specified in 22VAC40-73-150 E,  who is licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to administer medications or  who has successfully completed a training program approved by the Virginia  Board of Nursing for the registration of medication aides. The training program  for designated assistant administrators who supervise medication aides, but are  not registered medication aides themselves, must include a minimum of 68 hours  of student instruction and training but need not include the prerequisite for  the program or the written examination for registration. The designated  assistant administrator must also meet the requirements of 22VAC40-73-160 E.
    22VAC40-73-680. Administration of medications and related  provisions.
    A. Staff who are licensed, registered, or acting as  medication aides on a provisional basis as specified in 22VAC40-73-670 shall  administer drugs to those residents who are dependent on medication  administration as documented on the UAI. 
    B. Medications shall be removed from the pharmacy  container, or the container shall be opened, by a staff person licensed,  registered, or acting as a medication aide on a provisional basis as specified  in 22VAC40-73-670 and administered to the resident by the same staff person.  Medications shall remain in the pharmacy issued container, with the  prescription label or direction label attached, until administered to the  resident.
    C. Medications shall be administered not earlier than one  hour before and not later than one hour after the facility's standard dosing  schedule, except those drugs that are ordered for specific times, such as  before, after, or with meals.
    D. Medications shall be administered in accordance with  the physician's or other prescriber's instructions and consistent with the  standards of practice outlined in the current registered medication aide  curriculum approved by the Virginia Board of Nursing.
    E. Medical procedures or treatments ordered by a physician  or other prescriber shall be provided according to his instructions.
    F. Sample medications shall remain in the original  packaging, labeled by a physician or other prescriber or pharmacist with the  resident's name, the name of the medication, the strength, dosage, and route  and frequency of administration, until administered.
    G. Over-the-counter medication shall remain in the  original container, labeled with the resident's name, or in a pharmacy-issued  container, until administered.
    H. At the time the medication is administered, the  facility shall document on a medication administration record (MAR) all  medications administered to residents, including over-the-counter medications  and dietary supplements.
    I. The MAR shall include: 
    1. Name of the resident; 
    2. Date prescribed; 
    3. Drug product name; 
    4. Strength of the drug;
    5. Dosage; 
    6. Diagnosis, condition, or specific indications for  administering the drug or supplement;
    7. Route (e.g., by mouth); 
    8. How often medication is to be taken; 
    9. Date and time given and initials of direct care staff  administering the medication; 
    10. Dates the medication is discontinued or changed; 
    11. Any medication errors or omissions; 
    12. Description of significant adverse effects suffered by  the resident; 
    13. For "as needed" (PRN) medications:
    a. Symptoms for which medication was given;
    b. Exact dosage given; and
    c. Effectiveness; and
    14. The name, signature, and initials of all staff  administering medications.
    J. In the event of an adverse drug reaction or a  medication error, the following applies:
    1. Action shall be taken as directed by a physician,  pharmacist, or a poison control center;
    2. The resident's physician of record and family member or  other responsible person shall be notified as soon as possible; and
    3. Medication administration staff shall document actions  taken in the resident's record. 
    K. The performance of all medical procedures and  treatments ordered by a physician or other prescriber shall be documented, and  the documentation shall be retained in the resident's record.
    L. The use of PRN medications is prohibited, unless one or  more of the following conditions exist: 
    1. The resident is capable of determining when the  medication is needed; 
    2. Licensed health care professionals administer the PRN  medication; or 
    3. Medication aides administer the PRN medication when the  facility has obtained from the resident's physician or other prescriber a  detailed medication order. The order shall include symptoms that indicate the  use of the medication, exact dosage, the exact time frames the medication is to  be given in a 24-hour period, and directions as to what to do if symptoms  persist. 
    M. In order for drugs in a hospice comfort kit to be  administered, the requirements specified in subsection L of this section must  be met, and each medication in the kit must have a prescription label attached  by the pharmacy.
    N. Medications ordered for PRN administration shall be  available, properly labeled for the specific resident, and properly stored at  the facility.
    O. Stat-drug boxes may only be used when the following  conditions are met:
    1. There is an order from the prescriber for any drug  removed from the stat-drug box; and
    2. The drug is removed from the stat-drug box and  administered by a nurse, pharmacist or prescriber licensed to administer  medications. 
    3. Registered medication aides are not permitted to either  remove or administer medications from the stat-drug box. 
    22VAC40-73-690. Medication review.
    A. For each resident assessed for residential living care,  except for those who self-administer all of their medications, a licensed  health care professional, practicing within the scope of his profession, shall  perform an annual review of all the medications of the resident. 
    B. For each resident assessed for assisted living care,  except for those who self-administer all of their medications, a licensed  health care professional, practicing within the scope of his profession, shall  perform a review every six months of all the medications of the resident.
    C. The medication review shall include prescription drugs,  over-the-counter medications, and dietary supplements ordered for the resident.  
    D. If deemed appropriate by the licensed health care  professional, the review shall include observation of the resident or interview  with the resident or staff.
    E. The review shall include, but not be limited to, the  following:
    1. All medications that the resident is taking and  medications that he could be taking if needed (PRNs).
    2. An examination of the dosage, strength, route, how  often, prescribed duration, and when the medication is taken. 
    3. Documentation of actual and consideration of potential  interactions of drugs with one another.
    4. Documentation of actual and consideration of potential  interactions of drugs with foods or drinks.
    5. Documentation of actual and consideration of potential  negative effects of drugs resulting from a resident's medical condition other  than the one the drug is treating.
    6. Consideration of whether PRNs, if any, are still needed  and if clarification regarding use is necessary.
    7. Consideration of whether the resident needs additional  monitoring or testing.
    8. Documentation of actual and consideration of potential  adverse effects or unwanted side effects of specific medications.
    9. Identification of that which may be questionable, such  as (i) similar medications being taken, (ii) different medications being used  to treat the same condition, (iii) what seems an excessive number of  medications, and (iv) what seems an exceptionally high drug dosage.
    10. The health care professional shall notify the  resident's attending physician of any concerns or problems and document the  notification.
    F. The licensed health care professional shall certify  that the requirements of subdivisions E 1 through E 10 of this section were  met, including the dates of the medication review. The administrator shall be  advised of the findings of the medication review and any recommendations. All  of the requirements of this subdivision shall be (i) in writing, (ii) signed  and dated by the health care professional, (iii) provided to the administrator  within 10 days of the completion of the review, and (iv) maintained in the  facility files for at least two years, with any specific recommendations  regarding a particular resident also maintained in the resident's record.
    G. Action taken in response to the recommendations noted  in subsection F of this section shall be documented in the resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-700. Oxygen therapy. 
    When oxygen therapy is provided, the following safety  precautions shall be met and maintained: 
    1. The facility shall have a valid physician's or other  prescriber's order that includes the following:
    a. The oxygen source, such as compressed gas or concentrators;
    b. The delivery device, such as nasal cannula, reservoir  nasal cannulas, or masks; and
    c. The flow rate deemed therapeutic for the resident.
    2. The facility shall post "No Smoking-Oxygen in  Use" signs and enforce the smoking prohibition in any room of a building  where oxygen is in use. 
    3. The facility shall ensure that only oxygen from a  portable source shall be used by residents when they are outside their rooms.  The use of long plastic tether lines to the source of oxygen outside their rooms  is not permitted. 
    4. The facility shall make available to staff the emergency  numbers to contact the resident's physician or other prescriber and the oxygen  vendor for emergency service or replacement. 
    5. The facility shall demonstrate that all direct care  staff responsible for assisting residents who use oxygen supplies have had  training or instruction in the use and maintenance of resident-specific  equipment.
    6. The facility shall include in its disaster preparedness  plan a checklist of information required to meet the identified needs of those  individuals who require oxygen therapy including, but not limited to, the  following:
    a. Whether the facility has on-site, emergency generator  capacity sufficient to safely operate oxygen concentrators efficiently.
    b. Whether in the absence of on-site generators the  facility has agreements with vendors to provide emergency generators, including  whether those generators will support oxygen concentrators. 
    c. Where the facility maintains chart copies of each resident's  agreement, including emergency preparedness and back-up plans, with his oxygen  equipment and supply vendor for ready access in any emergency situation.
    d. How equipment and supplies will be transported in the  event that residents must be evacuated to another location. 
    22VAC40-73-710. Restraints.
    A. The use of chemical restraints is prohibited.
    B. Physical restraints shall not be used for purposes of  discipline or convenience. Restraints may only be used to treat a resident's  medical symptoms or symptoms from mental illness or intellectual disability. 
    C. The facility may only impose physical restraints when  the resident's medical symptoms or symptoms from mental illness or intellectual  disability warrant the use of restraints. The restraint must: 
    1. Be necessary to ensure the physical safety of the  resident or others;
    2. Be imposed in accordance with a physician's written  order, which must be no older than three months, that specifies the condition,  circumstances, and duration under which the restraint is to be used, except in  emergency circumstances until such an order can reasonably be obtained; and 
    3. Not be ordered on a standing, blanket, or "as  needed" (PRN) basis. 
    D. Whenever physical restraints are used, the following  conditions shall be met: 
    1. A restraint shall be used only to the minimum extent  necessary to protect the resident or others;
    2. Restraints shall only be applied by direct care staff  who have received training in their use as specified by subdivision 2 of  22VAC40-73-270;
    3. The facility shall closely monitor the resident's  condition, which includes checking on the resident at least every 30 minutes; 
    4. The facility shall assist the resident as often as  necessary, but no less than 10 minutes every hour, for his hydration, safety, comfort,  range of motion, exercise, elimination, and other needs; 
    5. The facility shall release the resident from the  restraint as quickly as possible; 
    6. Direct care staff shall keep a record of restraint  usage, outcomes, checks, and any assistance required in subdivision 4 of this  subsection and shall note any unusual occurrences or problems; 
    7. In nonemergencies, as defined in 22VAC40-73-10:
    a. Restraints shall be used as a last resort and only if  the facility, after completing, implementing, and evaluating the resident's  comprehensive assessment and service plan, determines and documents that less  restrictive means have failed;
    b. Restraints shall be used in accordance with the  resident's service plan, which documents the need for the restraint and  includes a schedule or plan of rehabilitation training enabling the progressive  removal or the progressive use of less restrictive restraints when appropriate;
    c. The facility shall explain the use of the restraint and  potential negative outcomes to the resident or his legal representative and the  resident's right to refuse the restraint and shall obtain the written consent  of the resident or his legal representative;
    d. Restraints shall be applied so as to cause no physical  injury and the least possible discomfort; and
    e. The facility shall notify the resident's legal  representative or designated contact person as soon as practicable, but no  later than 24 hours after the initial administration of a nonemergency  restraint. The facility shall keep the legal representative or designated  contact person informed about any changes in restraint usage. A notation shall  be made in the resident's record of such notice, including the date, time,  caller, and person notified.
    8. In emergencies, as defined in 22VAC40-73-10: 
    a. Restraints shall not be used unless they are necessary  to alleviate an unanticipated immediate and serious danger to the resident or  other individuals in the facility; 
    b. An oral or written order shall be obtained from a  physician within one hour of administration of the emergency restraint and the  order shall be documented;
    c. In the case of an oral order, a written order shall be  obtained from the physician as soon as possible; 
    d. The resident shall be within sight and sound of direct  care staff at all times; 
    e. If the emergency restraint is necessary for longer than  two hours, the resident shall be transferred to a medical or psychiatric  inpatient facility or monitored in the facility by a mental health crisis team  until his condition has stabilized to the point that the attending physician  documents that restraints are not necessary; and 
    f. The facility shall notify the resident's legal representative  or designated contact person as soon as practicable, but no later than 12 hours  after administration of an emergency restraint. A notation shall be made in the  resident's record of such notice, including the date, time, caller and person  notified.
    22VAC40-73-720. Do Not Resuscitate Orders.
    A. Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Orders for withholding  cardiopulmonary resuscitation from an individual in the event of cardiac or  respiratory arrest may only be carried out in a licensed assisted living  facility when:
    1. A valid written order has been issued by the resident's  attending physician; and 
    2. The written order is included in the individualized  service plan; 
    B. The facility shall have a system to ensure that all  staff are aware of residents who have a valid DNR Order.
    C. The DNR Order shall be readily available to other  authorized persons, such as emergency medical technicians (EMTs), when  necessary.
    D. Durable DNR Orders shall not authorize the assisted  living facility or its staff to withhold other medical interventions, such as  intravenous fluids, oxygen, or other therapies deemed necessary to provide  comfort care or to alleviate pain.
    E. Section 63.2-1807 of the Code of Virginia states that  the owners or operators of any assisted living facility may provide that their  staff who are certified in CPR shall not be required to resuscitate any  resident for whom a valid written order not to resuscitate in the event of  cardiac or respiratory arrest has been issued by the resident's attending  physician and has been included in the resident's individualized service plan.
    F. If the owner or operator of a facility has determined  that DNR Orders will not be honored, the facility shall have a policy  specifying this and, prior to admission, the resident or his legal guardian  shall be notified of the policy and sign an acknowledgment of the notification.
    22VAC40-73-730. Advance directives.
    A. Upon admission or while residing in the facility,  whenever the resident has established advance directives, such as a living will  or a durable power of attorney for health care, to the extent available, the  facility shall obtain the following:
    1. The name of and contact information for the individual  or individuals who has the document or documents;
    2. The location of the documents; 
    3. Either the advance directives or the content of the  advance directives; and
    4. The name of and contact information for any designated  agent, as related to the development and modification of the individualized  service plan. 
    B. If the facility is unable to obtain any of the  information or documents as noted in subdivisions 1 through 4 of subsection A  of this section, the efforts made to do so shall be documented in the  resident's record. 
    C. The information regarding advance directives shall be  readily available to other authorized persons, such as emergency medical  technicians (EMTs), when necessary.
    D. A resident requesting assistance with establishing  advance directives shall be referred to his primary health care provider or  attorney.
    Part VII
  Resident Accommodations and Related Provisions
    22VAC40-73-740. Personal possessions.
    A. Each resident shall be permitted to keep reasonable  personal property in his possession at a facility in order to maintain  individuality and personal dignity.
    B. A facility shall ensure that each resident has his own  clothing. 
    1. The use of a common clothing pool is prohibited. 
    2. If necessary, resident's clothing shall be  inconspicuously marked with his name to avoid getting mixed with others. 
    3. Residents shall be allowed and encouraged to select  their daily clothing and wear clothing to suit their activities and appropriate  to weather conditions. 
    C. Each resident shall have his own personal care items. 
    D. Each facility shall develop and implement a written  policy regarding procedures to be followed when a resident's clothing or other  personal possessions, such as jewelry, television, radio, or other durable  property, are reported missing. Attempts shall be made to determine the reason  for the loss and any reasonable actions shall be taken to recover the item and  to prevent or discourage future losses. The results of the investigation shall  be reported in writing to the resident. Documentation shall be maintained for  at least two years regarding items that were reported missing and resulting  actions that were taken.
    22VAC40-73-750. Resident rooms.
    A. The resident shall be encouraged to furnish or decorate  his room as space and safety considerations permit and in accordance with this  chapter.
    B. Bedrooms shall contain the following items, except as  provided for in subsection C of this section:
    1. A separate bed with comfortable mattress, springs, and  pillow for each resident. Provisions for a double bed for a married couple  shall be optional;
    2. A table or its equivalent accessible to each bed;
    3. An operable bed lamp or bedside light accessible to each  resident;
    4. A sturdy chair for each resident;
    5. Drawer space for clothing and other personal items. If  more than one resident occupies a room, ample drawer space shall be assigned to  each individual;
    6. At least one mirror - if the resident has an individual  adjoining bathroom, the mirror may be in the bathroom; and
    7. Window coverings for privacy.
    C. If a resident specifies in writing that he does not  wish to have an item or items listed in subsection B of this section and  understands that he may decide otherwise at any time, the resident's bedroom is  not required to contain those specified items. The written specification shall  be maintained in the resident's record.
    D. Adequate and accessible closet or wardrobe space shall  be provided for each resident. As of December 28, 2006, in all buildings  approved for construction or change in use and occupancy classification, the  closet or wardrobe space shall be in the resident's bedroom.
    E. The facility shall have sufficient bed and bath linens  in good repair so that residents always have clean:
    1. Sheets;
    2. Pillowcases;
    3. Blankets;
    4. Bedspreads;
    5. Towels;
    6. Washcloths; and
    7. Waterproof mattress covers when needed.
    22VAC40-73-760. Living room or multipurpose room.
    A. Sitting rooms or recreation areas or both shall be  equipped with:
    1. Comfortable chairs (e.g., overstuffed, straight-backed,  and rockers); 
    2. Tables; 
    3. Lamps; 
    4. Television, if not available in other areas of the  facility; 
    5. Radio, if not available in other areas of the facility;  and
    6. Current newspaper. 
    B. Space other than sleeping areas shall be provided for  residents for sitting, for visiting with one another or with guests, for social  and recreational activities, and for dining. These areas may be used  interchangeably.
    22VAC40-73-770. Dining areas.
    Dining areas shall have a sufficient number of sturdy  dining tables and chairs to serve all residents, either all at one time or in  reasonable shifts. 
    22VAC40-73-780. Laundry and linens.
    A. Residents' clothing shall be kept clean and in good  repair. 
    B. Bed and bath linens shall be changed at least every  seven days and more often if needed. In facilities with common bathing areas,  bath linens shall be changed after each use. 
    C. When the facility provides laundry service for  residents' clothing or personal linens, the clean items shall be sorted by  individual resident. 
    D. Table coverings and napkins shall be clean at all  times. 
    E. Table and kitchen linens shall be laundered separately  from other washable goods. 
    F. When bed, bath, table, and kitchen linens are washed,  the water shall be above 140°F or the dryer shall heat the linens above 140°F  as verified by the manufacturer or a sanitizing agent shall be used according  to the manufacturer's instructions. 
    22VAC40-73-790. Transportation.
    The resident shall be assisted in making arrangements for  transportation as necessary. 
    22VAC40-73-800. Incoming and outgoing mail.
    A. Incoming and outgoing mail shall not be censored.
    B. Incoming mail shall be delivered promptly.
    C. Mail shall not be opened by staff or volunteers except  upon request of the resident and in his presence or written request of the  legal representative.
    22VAC40-73-810. Telephones.
    A. Each building shall have at least one operable, nonpay  telephone easily accessible to staff. There shall be additional telephones or  extensions as may be needed to summon help in an emergency. 
    B. The resident shall have reasonable access to a nonpay  telephone on the premises. 
    C. Privacy shall be provided for residents to use a  telephone.
    22VAC40-73-820. Smoking.
    A. Smoking by residents, staff, volunteers, and visitors  shall be done only in areas designated by the facility and approved by the  State Fire Marshal or local fire official. Smoking shall not be allowed in a  kitchen or food preparation areas. A facility may prohibit smoking on its  premises.
    B. All designated smoking areas shall be provided with  suitable ashtrays. 
    C. Residents shall not be permitted to smoke in or on  their beds. 
    D. All common areas shall have smoke-free areas designated  for nonsmokers. 
    22VAC40-73-830. Resident councils.
    A. The facility shall permit and encourage the formation  of a resident council by residents and shall assist the residents in its  establishment.
    B. The purposes of the resident council shall be to:
    1. Work with the administration in improving the quality of  life for all residents;
    2. Discuss the services offered by the facility and make  recommendations for resolution of identified problems or concerns; and 
    3. Perform other functions as determined by the council.
    C. The resident council shall be composed of residents of  the facility and the council may extend membership to family members,  advocates, friends, and others. Residents shall be encouraged but shall not be  compelled to attend meetings.
    D. The facility shall assist residents in maintaining the  resident council, including, but not limited to:
    1. Scheduling regular meetings;
    2. Providing space for meetings;
    3. Posting notice for meetings;
    4. Providing assistance in attending meetings for those  residents who request it; and 
    5. Preparing written reports of meetings as requested by  the council for dissemination to all residents.
    E. The facility shall provide a written response to the  council prior to the next meeting regarding any recommendations made by the  council for resolution of problems or concerns. 
    F. In order to promote a free exchange of ideas, the  presence of any facility personnel shall be only at the request of the council.
    G. If there is no council, the facility shall annually  remind residents that they may establish a resident council and that the  facility would assist in its formation and maintenance. The general purpose of  the council shall also be explained at this time.
    22VAC40-73-840. Pets living in the assisted living facility.
    A. Each assisted living facility shall develop and  implement a written policy regarding pets living on the premises that will  ensure the safety and well-being of all residents and staff.
    B. If a facility allows pets to live on the premises, the  following applies:
    1. The policy specified in subsection A of this section  shall include:
    a. The types of pets that are permitted in the assisted  living facility; and
    b. The conditions under which pets may be in the assisted  living facility.
    2. Before being allowed to live on the premises, pets shall  have had all recommended or required immunizations and shall be certified by a  licensed veterinarian to be free of diseases transmittable to humans.
    3. Pets living on the assisted living facility premises:
    a. Shall have regular examinations and immunizations,  appropriate for the species, by a licensed veterinarian; and 
    b. Shall be restricted from central food preparation areas.
    4. Documentation of examinations and immunizations shall be  maintained at the facility. 
    5. Pets shall be well-treated and cared for in compliance  with state regulations and local ordinances.
    6. Any resident's rights, preferences, and medical needs  shall not be compromised by the presence of a pet.
    7. Any pet living on the premises shall have a suitable  temperament, be healthy, and otherwise pose no significant health or safety  risks to residents, staff, volunteers, or visitors.
    22VAC40-73-850. Pets visiting the assisted living facility.
    If an assisted living facility allows pets to visit the  premises, the following shall apply:
    1. Any pet present at the facility shall be in good health  and show no evidence of carrying any disease;
    2. Any resident's rights, preferences, and medical needs  shall not be compromised by the presence of a pet; and
    3. Any pet shall be well-treated while visiting on the  premises, have a suitable temperament, and otherwise pose no significant health  or safety risks to residents, staff, volunteers, or visitors.
    Part VIII
  Buildings and Grounds
    22VAC40-73-860. General requirements.
    A. Buildings licensed for ambulatory residents or  nonambulatory residents shall be classified by and meet the specifications for  the proper use and occupancy classification as required by the Virginia Uniform  Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63).
    B. Documentation completed and signed by the building  official shall be obtained as evidence of compliance with the applicable  edition of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code.
    C. Before construction begins or contracts are awarded for  any new construction, remodeling, or alterations, plans shall be submitted to  the department for review.
    D. Doors and windows.
    1. All doors shall open and close readily and effectively.
    2. Any doorway that is used for ventilation shall be  effectively screened.
    3. Any operable window (i.e., a window that may be opened)  shall be effectively screened.
    E. There shall be enclosed walkways between residents'  rooms and dining and sitting areas that are adequately lighted, heated, and  ventilated.
    F. There shall be an ample supply of hot and cold water  from an approved source available to the residents at all times.
    G. Hot water at taps available to residents shall be  maintained within a range of 105°F to 120°F.
    H. Where there is an outdoor area accessible to residents,  such as a porch or lawn, it shall be equipped with furniture in season.
    I. Each facility shall store cleaning supplies and other  hazardous materials in a locked area, except as noted in subsection J of this  section. 
    J. A resident may be permitted to keep his own cleaning  supplies or other hazardous materials in an out-of-sight place in his room if  the resident does not have a serious cognitive impairment. The cleaning  supplies or other hazardous materials shall be stored so that they are not  accessible to other residents. 
    Exception: When a resident keeps his own cleaning supplies  or other hazardous materials in his room, if the facility has no residents with  serious cognitive impairments, the facility may determine that the out-of-sight  and inaccessibility safeguards specified in this subsection do not apply,  unless mandated by the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code or Virginia  Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51).
    K. Each facility shall develop and implement a written  policy regarding weapons on the premises of the facility that will ensure the  safety and well-being of all residents and staff. 
    22VAC40-73-870. Maintenance of buildings and grounds.
    A. The interior and exterior of all buildings shall be  maintained in good repair and kept clean and free of rubbish.
    B. All buildings shall be well-ventilated and free from  foul, stale, and musty odors. 
    C. Adequate provisions for the collection and legal  disposal of garbage, ashes, and waste material shall be made. 
    D. Buildings shall be kept free of infestations of insects  and vermin. The grounds shall be kept free of their breeding places. 
    E. All furnishings, fixtures, and equipment, including,  but not limited to, furniture, window coverings, sinks, toilets, bathtubs, and  showers, shall be kept clean and in good repair and condition, except that  furnishings and equipment owned by a resident shall be, at a minimum, in safe  condition and not soiled in a manner that presents a health hazard. 
    F. All inside and outside steps, stairways, and ramps  shall have nonslip surfaces. 
    G. Grounds shall be properly maintained to include mowing  of grass and removal of snow and ice. 
    H. Handrails shall be provided on all stairways, ramps,  elevators, and at changes of floor level. 
    I. Elevators, where used, shall be kept in good running  condition and shall be inspected at least annually. Elevators shall be  inspected in accordance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code  (13VAC5-63). The signed and dated certificate of inspection issued by the local  authority shall be evidence of such inspection.
    22VAC40-73-880. Heating, ventilation, and cooling.
    A. At least one movable thermometer shall be available in  each building for measuring temperatures in individual rooms that do not have a  fixed thermostat that shows the temperature in the room. 
    B. Heating. 
    1. Heat shall be supplied from a central heating plant or  an electrical heating system in accordance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide  Building Code (13VAC5-63). 
    2. Provided their installation or operation has been  approved by the state or local building or fire authorities, space heaters,  such as but not limited to, wood burning stoves, coal burning stoves, and oil  heaters, or portable heating units either vented or unvented, may be used only  to provide or supplement heat in the event of a power failure or similar  emergency. These appliances shall be used in accordance with the manufacturer's  instructions. 
    3. A temperature of at least 72°F shall be maintained in  all areas used by residents during hours when residents are normally awake.  During night hours, when residents are asleep, a temperature of at least 68°F  shall be maintained. This standard applies unless otherwise mandated by federal  or state authorities.
    Exception: The facility may allow the temperature in a  bedroom in which only one resident resides, which has a thermostat in the room,  to be controlled by the resident as long as the temperature does not endanger  the health, safety, or welfare of the resident. 
    C. Cooling. 
    1. The facility shall provide in all buildings an air  conditioning system for all areas used by residents, including residents'  bedrooms and common areas. Temperatures in all areas used by residents shall  not exceed 80°F.
    Exception: The facility may allow the temperature in a  bedroom in which only one resident resides, which has a thermostat in the room,  to be controlled by the resident as long as the temperature does not endanger  the health, safety, or welfare of the resident. 
    2. Any electric fans shall be screened and placed for the  protection of the residents. 
    D. The facility shall develop and implement a plan to  protect residents from heat-related and cold- related illnesses in the event of  loss of air-conditioning or heat due to emergency situations or malfunctioning  or broken equipment. 
    22VAC40-73-890. Lighting and lighting fixtures.
    A. Artificial lighting shall be by electricity. 
    B. All interior and exterior areas shall be adequately  lighted for the safety and comfort of residents and staff. 
    C. Glare shall be kept at a minimum in rooms used by  residents. When necessary to reduce glare, coverings shall be used for windows  and lights. 
    D. If used, fluorescent lights shall be replaced if they  flicker or make noise. 
    22VAC40-73-900. Sleeping areas.
    Resident sleeping quarters shall provide:
    1. For not less than 450 cubic feet of air space per  resident;
    2. For square footage as provided in this subdivision:
    a. As of February 1, 1996, all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63), shall have not  less than 100 square feet of floor area in bedrooms accommodating one resident;  otherwise not less than 80 square feet of floor area in bedrooms accommodating  one resident shall be required.
    b. As of February 1, 1996, all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code, shall have not less than 80  square feet of floor area per person in bedrooms accommodating two or more  residents; otherwise not less than 60 square feet of floor area per person in  bedrooms accommodating two or more persons shall be required;
    3. For ceilings at least 7-1/2 feet in height;
    4. For window areas as provided in this subdivision:
    a. There shall be at least eight square feet of glazed  window area in a room housing one person; and
    b. There shall be at least six square feet of glazed window  area per person in rooms occupied by two or more persons;
    5. For occupancy as provided in this subdivision:
    a. As of December 28, 2006, in all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63), there shall be no  more than two residents residing in a bedroom.
    b. Unless the provisions of subdivision 5 a of this  subsection apply, there shall be no more than four residents residing in a  bedroom;
    6. For at least three feet of space between sides and ends  of beds that are placed in the same room;
    7. That no bedroom shall be used as a corridor to any other  room;
    8. That all beds shall be placed only in bedrooms; and
    9. That household members and staff shall not share  bedrooms with residents.
    22VAC40-73-910. Common rooms.
    As of October 9, 2001, buildings approved for construction  or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in the Virginia  Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63), shall have a glazed window area  above ground level in at least one of the common rooms (e.g., living room,  multipurpose room, or dining room). The square footage of the glazed window  area shall be at least 8.0% of the square footage of the floor area of the  common room.
    22VAC40-73-920. Toilet, face/hand washing, and bathing  facilities.
    A. In determining the number of toilets, face/hand washing  sinks, bathtubs, or showers required, the total number of persons residing on  the premises shall be considered. Unless there are separate facilities for  household members or staff, they shall be counted in determining the required number  of fixtures, except that for bathtubs or showers, the staff count shall include  only live-in staff.
    1. As of December 28, 2006, in all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63), on each floor where  there are residents' bedrooms, there shall be:
    a. At least one toilet for each four persons, or portion  thereof;
    b. At least one face/hand washing sink for each four  persons, or portion thereof;
    c. At least one bathtub or shower for each seven persons,  or portion thereof;
    d. Toilets, face/hand washing sinks and bathtubs or showers  in separate rooms for men and women where more than four persons live on a  floor. Bathrooms equipped to accommodate more than one person at a time shall  be labeled by gender. Gender designation of bathrooms shall remain constant  during the course of a day.
    2. Unless the provisions of subdivision 1 of this  subsection apply, on each floor where there are residents' bedrooms, there  shall be:
    a. At least one toilet for each seven persons, or portion  thereof;
    b. At least one face/hand washing sink for each seven  persons, or portion thereof;
    c. At least one bathtub or shower for each 10 persons, or  portion thereof;
    d. Toilets, face/hand washing sinks and bathtubs or showers  in separate rooms for men and women where more than seven persons live on a  floor. Bathrooms equipped to accommodate more than one person at a time shall  be labeled by gender. Gender designation of bathrooms shall remain constant  during the course of a day.
    3. As of December 28, 2006, in all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code, when residents' rooms are located  on the same floor as the main living or dining area, in addition to the  requirements of subdivision 1 of this subsection, there shall be at least one  more toilet and face/hand washing sink, which is available for common use. The  provisions of subdivision 4 c of this subsection shall also apply.
    4. On floors used by residents where there are no  residents' bedrooms, there shall be:
    a. At least one toilet;
    b. At least one face/hand washing sink;
    c. Toilets and face/hand washing sinks in separate rooms  for men and women in facilities where there are 10 or more residents. Bathrooms  equipped to accommodate more than one person at a time shall be designated by  gender. Gender designation of bathrooms must remain constant during the course  of a day.
    B. Bathrooms shall provide for privacy for such activities  as bathing, toileting, and dressing. 
    C. There shall be ventilation to the outside in order to  eliminate foul odors.
    D. The following sturdy safeguards shall be provided, with  installation in compliance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code:
    1. Handrails by bathtubs;
    2. Grab bars by toilets; and
    3. Handrails inside and stools available to stall showers.
    Exception: These safeguards shall be optional for  individuals with independent living status.
    E. Bathtubs and showers shall have nonskid surfacing or  strips.
    F. The face/hand washing sink shall be in the same room as  the toilet or in an adjacent private area that is not part of a common use area  of the assisted living facility.
    G. The assisted living facility shall provide private or  common use toilet, face/hand washing, and bathing facilities to meet the needs  of each resident.
    22VAC40-73-925. Toilet, face/hand washing, and bathing  supplies.
    A. The facility shall have an adequate supply of toilet  tissue and soap. Toilet tissue shall be accessible to each commode and soap  shall be accessible to each face/hand washing sink and each bathtub or shower.
    B. Common face/hand washing sinks shall have paper towels  or an air dryer and liquid soap for hand washing.
    C. Residents may not share bar soap. 
    D. The facility may not charge an additional amount for  toilet paper, soap, paper towels, or use of an air dryer at common sinks and  commodes.
    22VAC40-73-930. Provisions for signaling and call systems.
    A. All assisted living facilities shall have a signaling  device that is easily accessible to the resident in his bedroom or in a  connecting bathroom that alerts the direct care staff that the resident needs  assistance.
    B. In buildings licensed to care for 20 or more residents  under one roof, there shall be a signaling device that terminates at a central  location that is continuously staffed and permits staff to determine the origin  of the signal or is audible and visible in a manner that permits staff to  determine the origin of the signal. 
    C. In buildings licensed to care for 19 or fewer residents  under one roof, if the signaling device does not permit staff to determine the  origin of the signal as specified in subsection B of this section, direct care  staff shall make rounds at least once each hour to monitor for emergencies or  other unanticipated resident needs. These rounds shall begin when the majority  of the residents have gone to bed each evening and shall terminate when the  majority of the residents have arisen each morning, and shall be documented as  follows:
    1. A written log shall be maintained showing the date and  time rounds were made and the signature of the direct care staff member who  made rounds.
    2. Logs for the past two years shall be retained.
    D. For each resident with an inability to use the  signaling device, this inability shall be included in the resident's  individualized service plan, indicating the need for monitoring for emergencies  and other unanticipated needs. In addition to any other services, the plan  shall specify a minimal frequency of rounds to be made by direct care staff and  the method used to document that such rounds were made. Documentation of rounds  shall be retained for two years.
    22VAC40-73-940. Fire safety: compliance with state  regulations and local fire ordinances.
    A. An assisted living facility shall comply with the  Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51) as determined by at least  an annual inspection by the appropriate fire official. Reports of the  inspections shall be retained at the facility for at least two years.
    B. An assisted living facility shall comply with any local  fire ordinance.
    Part IX
  Emergency Preparedness
    22VAC40-73-950. Emergency preparedness and response plan.
    A. The facility shall develop a written emergency  preparedness and response plan that shall address:
    1. Documentation of initial and annual contact with the  local emergency coordinator to determine (i) local disaster risks, (ii)  communitywide plans to address different disasters and emergency situations,  and (iii) assistance, if any, that the local emergency management office will  provide to the facility in an emergency.
    2. Analysis of the facility's potential hazards, including  severe weather, fire, loss of utilities, flooding, work place violence or  terrorism, severe injuries, or other emergencies that would disrupt normal  operation of the facility.
    3. Written emergency management policies and procedures for  provision of:
    a. Administrative direction and management of response  activities;
    b. Coordination of logistics during the emergency;
    c. Communications;
    d. Life safety of residents, staff, volunteers, and  visitors;
    e. Property protection;
    f. Continued services to residents;
    g. Community resource accessibility; and
    h. Recovery and restoration.
    4. Written emergency response procedures for assessing the  situation; protecting residents, staff, volunteers, visitors, equipment,  medications, and vital records; and restoring services. Emergency procedures  shall address:
    a. Alerting emergency personnel and facility staff;
    b. Warning and notification of residents, including  sounding of alarms when appropriate;
    c. Providing emergency access to secure areas and opening  locked doors;
    d. Conducting evacuations and sheltering in place, as  appropriate, and accounting for all residents;
    e. Locating and shutting off utilities when necessary;
    f. Maintaining and operating emergency equipment  effectively and safely;
    g. Communicating with staff and community emergency  responders during the emergency; and
    h. Conducting relocations to emergency shelters or  alternative sites when necessary and accounting for all residents.
    5. Supporting documents that would be needed in an  emergency, including emergency call lists, building and site maps necessary to  shut off utilities, memoranda of understanding with relocation sites, and list  of major resources such as suppliers of emergency equipment.
    B. Staff and volunteers shall be knowledgeable in and  prepared to implement the emergency preparedness plan in the event of an  emergency.
    C. The facility shall develop and implement an orientation  and quarterly review on the emergency preparedness and response plan for all  staff, residents, and volunteers, with emphasis placed on an individual’s  respective responsibilities. The orientation and review shall cover  responsibilities for: 
    1. Alerting emergency personnel and sounding alarms; 
    2. Implementing evacuation, shelter in place, and  relocation procedures; 
    3. Using, maintaining, and operating emergency equipment; 
    4. Accessing emergency medical information, equipment, and  medications for residents; 
    5. Locating and shutting off utilities; and 
    6. Utilizing community support services. 
    D. The facility shall review the emergency preparedness  plan annually or more often as needed and make necessary revisions. Such  revisions shall be communicated to staff, residents, and volunteers and  incorporated into the orientation and quarterly review for staff, residents,  and volunteers. 
    E. In the event of a disaster, fire, emergency, or any  other condition that may jeopardize the health, safety, and welfare of  residents, the facility shall take appropriate action to protect the health,  safety, and welfare of the residents and take appropriate actions to remedy the  conditions as soon as possible. 
    F. After the disaster or emergency is stabilized, the  facility shall:
    1. Notify family members and legal representatives; and
    2. Report the disaster or emergency to the regional  licensing office by the next day as specified in 22VAC40-73-70.
    22VAC40-73-960. Fire and emergency evacuation plan.
    A. Assisted living facilities shall have a written plan  for fire and emergency evacuation that is to be followed in the event of a fire  or other emergency. The plan shall be approved by the appropriate fire  official. 
    B. A fire and emergency evacuation drawing shall be posted  in a conspicuous place on each floor of each building used by residents. The  drawing shall show primary and secondary escape routes, areas of refuge,  assembly areas, telephones, fire alarm boxes, and fire extinguishers, as  appropriate. 
    C. The telephone numbers for the fire department, rescue  squad or ambulance, police, and Poison Control Center shall be posted by each  telephone shown on the fire and emergency evacuation plan.
    D. In assisted living facilities where all outgoing  telephone calls must be placed through a central switchboard located on the  premises, the information required in subsection C of this section may be  posted by the switchboard rather than by each telephone, provided this  switchboard is manned 24 hours each day. 
    E. Staff and volunteers shall be fully informed of the  approved fire and emergency evacuation plan, including their duties, and the  location and operation of fire extinguishers, fire alarm boxes, and any other  available emergency equipment.
    22VAC40-73-970. Fire and emergency evacuation drills.
    A. Fire and emergency evacuation drill frequency and  participation shall be in accordance with the current edition of the Virginia  Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51). The drills required for each shift  in a quarter shall not be conducted in the same month.
    B. Additional fire and emergency evacuation drills  may be held at the discretion of the administrator or licensing inspector and  must be held when there is any reason to question whether the requirements of  the approved fire and emergency evacuation plan can be met.
    C. Each required fire and emergency evacuation drill shall  be unannounced.
    D. Immediately following each required fire and emergency  evacuation drill, there shall be an evaluation of the drill by the staff in  order to determine the effectiveness of the drill. The licensee or  administrator shall immediately correct any problems identified in the  evaluation and document the corrective action taken,
    E. A record of the required fire and emergency evacuation  drills shall be kept in the facility for two years. Such record shall include:
    1. Identity of the person conducting the drill;
    2. The date and time of the drill;
    3. The method used for notification of the drill;
    4. The number of staff participating;
    5. The number of residents participating;
    6. Any special conditions simulated; 
    7. The time it took to complete the drill;
    8. Weather conditions; and
    9. Problems encountered, if any.
    22VAC40-73-980. Emergency equipment and supplies.
    A. A complete first aid kit shall be on hand at the  facility, located in a designated place that is easily accessible to staff but  not to residents. Items with expiration dates must not have dates that have  already passed. The kit shall include, but not be limited to, the following  items: 
    1. Adhesive tape; 
    2.Antibiotic cream or ointment packets;
    3. Antiseptic wipes or ointment;
    4. Band-aids, in assorted sizes;
    5. Blankets, either disposable or other;
    6. Disposable single-use breathing barriers or shields for  use with rescue breathing or CPR (e.g., CPR mask or other type);
    7. Cold pack;
    8. Disposable single-use waterproof gloves;
    9. Gauze pads and roller gauze, in assorted sizes;
    10 . Hand cleaner (e.g., waterless hand sanitizer or  antiseptic towelettes);
    11. Plastic bags;
    12. Scissors;
    13. Small flashlight and extra batteries;
    14. Thermometer;
    15. Triangular bandages;
    16. Tweezers; 
    17. 81-milligram aspirin in single packets or small bottle;  and
    18. The first aid instructional manual.
    B. In facilities that have a motor vehicle that is used to  transport residents and in a motor vehicle used for a field trip, there shall  be a first aid kit on the vehicle, located in a designated place that is  accessible to staff but not residents that includes items as specified in  subsection A of this section.
    C. First aid kits shall be checked at least monthly to  assure that all items are present and items with expiration dates are not past  their expiration date.
    D. Each facility with six or more residents shall be  equipped with a permanent connection able to connect to a temporary emergency  electrical power source for the provision of electricity during an interruption  of the normal electric power supply. The connection shall be of the size that  is capable of providing power to required circuits when connected and that is  sufficient to implement the emergency preparedness and response plan. The  installation of a connection for temporary electric power shall be in  compliance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63) and approved  by the local building official. Permanent installations of emergency power  systems shall be acceptable when installed in accordance with the Uniform  Statewide Building Code and approved by the local building official.
    E. The following emergency lighting shall be available:
    1. Flashlights or battery lanterns for general use.
    2. One flashlight or battery lantern for each employee  directly responsible for resident care.
    3. One flashlight or battery lantern for each bedroom used  by residents and for the living and dining area unless there is a provision for  emergency lighting in the adjoining hallways.
    4. The use of open flame lighting is prohibited.
    F. There shall be two forms of communication for use in an  emergency.
    G. The facility shall ensure the availability of a 96-hour  supply of emergency food and drinking water. At least 48 hours of the supply  must be on site at any given time. 
    22VAC40-73-990. Plan for resident emergencies and practice  exercise.
    A. Assisted living facilities shall have a written plan  for resident emergencies that includes:
    1. Procedures for handling medical emergencies, including  identifying the staff person responsible for (i) calling the rescue squad,  ambulance service, resident's physician, or Poison Control Center; and (ii) providing  first aid and CPR, when indicated.
    2. Procedures for handling mental health emergencies such  as, but not limited to, catastrophic reaction or the need for a temporary  detention order.
    3. Procedures for making pertinent medical information and  history available to the rescue squad and hospital, including but not limited  to, information on medications and advance directives.
    4. Procedures to be followed in the event that a resident  is missing, including but not limited to (i) involvement of facility staff,  appropriate law-enforcement agency, and others as needed; (ii) areas to be  searched; (iii) expectations upon locating the resident; and (iv) documentation  of the event.
    5. Procedures for notifying the resident's family, legal  representative, designated contact person, and any responsible social agency.
    6. Procedures for notifying the regional licensing office  as specified in 22VAC40-73-70.
    B. At least once every six months, all staff on each shift  shall participate in an exercise in which the procedures for resident  emergencies are practiced. Documentation of each exercise shall be maintained  in the facility for at least two years.
    C. The plan for resident emergencies shall be readily  available to all staff.
    Part X
  Additional Requirements for Facilities that Care for Adults with Serious  Cognitive Impairments 
    Article 1
  Subjectivity
    22VAC40-73-1000. Subjectivity.
    All facilities that care for residents with serious  cognitive impairments due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia who  cannot recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare shall be  subject to either Article 2 (22VAC40-73-1010 et seq.) or Article 3  (22VAC40-73-1080 et seq.) of this part. All facilities that care for residents  with serious cognitive impairments due to any other diagnosis who cannot  recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare shall be subject to  Article 2 of this part. 
    Article 2
  Mixed Population
    22VAC40-73-1010. Applicability.
    The requirements in this article apply when there is a  mixed population consisting of any combination of (i) residents who have  serious cognitive impairments due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of  dementia who are unable to recognize danger or protect their own safety and  welfare and who are not in a special care unit as provided for in Article 3  (22VAC40-73-1080 et seq.) of this part; (ii) residents who have serious  cognitive impairments due to any other diagnosis who cannot recognize danger or  protect their own safety and welfare; and (iii) other residents. The requirements  in this article also apply when all the residents have serious cognitive  impairments due to any diagnosis other than a primary psychiatric diagnosis of  dementia and cannot recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare.  Except for special care units covered by Article 3 of this part, these  requirements apply to the entire facility unless specified otherwise.
    22VAC40-73-1020. Staffing.
    A. When residents are present, there shall be at least two  direct care staff members awake and on duty at all times in each building who  shall be responsible for the care and supervision of the residents.  
    B. During trips away from the facility, there shall be  sufficient direct care staff to provide sight and sound supervision to all  residents who cannot recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare.
    Exception: The requirements of subsections A and B of this  section do not apply when facilities are licensed for 10 or fewer residents if  no more than three of the residents have serious cognitive impairments. Each  prospective resident or his legal representative shall be notified of this  exception prior to admission.
    22VAC40-73-1030. Staff training.
    A. Commencing immediately upon employment and within three  months, the administrator shall attend 12 hours of training in working with  individuals who have a cognitive impairment, and the training shall meet the  requirements of subsection C of this section. 
    1. Training in cognitive impairment that meets the  requirements of subsection C of this section and was completed in the year  prior to employment is transferable and counts toward the required 12 hours if  there is documentation of the training.
    2. Whether the training counts toward continuing education  for administrator licensure and for what period of time depends upon the  licensure requirements of the Virginia Board of Long-Term Care Administrators.
    B. Commencing immediately upon employment and within four  months, direct care staff shall attend six hours of training in working with  individuals who have a cognitive impairment, and the training shall meet the  requirements of subsection C of this section. 
    1. The six-hour training received within the first four  months of employment is counted toward the annual training requirement for the  first year. 
    2. Training in cognitive impairment that meets the  requirements of subsection C of this section and was completed in the year  prior to employment is transferable if there is documentation of the training. 
    3. The documented previous cognitive impairment training  referenced in subdivision 2 of this subsection is counted toward the required  six hours but not toward the annual training requirement.
    C. Curriculum for the training in cognitive impairment for  direct care staff and administrators shall be developed by a qualified health  professional or by a licensed social worker, shall be relevant to the  population in care, shall maximize the level of a resident's functional  ability, and shall include, but need not be limited to:
    1. Information about cognitive impairment, including areas  such as cause, progression, behaviors, and management of the condition;
    2. Communicating with the resident;
    3. Resident care techniques for persons with physical,  cognitive, behavioral, and social disabilities;
    4. Managing dysfunctional behavior; 
    5. Creating a therapeutic environment;
    6. Planning and facilitating activities appropriate for  each resident; and
    7. Identifying and alleviating safety risks to residents  with cognitive impairment.
    D. Within the first month of employment, staff, other than  the administrator and direct care staff, shall complete two hours of training  on the nature and needs of residents with cognitive impairments relevant to the  population in care.
    22VAC40-73-1040. Doors and windows.
    A. Doors leading to the outside shall have a system of  security monitoring of residents with serious cognitive impairments, such as  door alarms, cameras, constant staff oversight, security bracelets that are  part of an alarm system, or delayed egress mechanisms. Residents with serious  cognitive impairments may be limited but not prohibited from exiting the  facility or any part thereof. Before limiting any resident from freely leaving  the facility, the resident's record shall reflect the behavioral observations or  other bases for determining that the resident has a serious cognitive  impairment and cannot recognize danger or protect his own safety and welfare.
    B. There shall be protective devices on the bedroom and  the bathroom windows of residents with serious cognitive impairments and on  windows in common areas accessible to these residents to prevent the windows  from being opened wide enough for a resident to crawl through. The protective  devices on the windows shall be in conformance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide  Building Code (13VAC5-63). 
    22VAC40-73-1050. Outdoor access.
    A. The facility shall have a secured outdoor area for the  residents' use or provide direct care staff supervision while residents with  serious cognitive impairments are outside.
    B. Weather permitting, residents with serious cognitive  impairments shall be reminded of the opportunity to be outdoors on a daily  basis, 
    22VAC40-73-1060. Indoor walking area.
    The facility shall provide to residents free access to an  indoor walking corridor or other indoor area that may be used for walking.
    22VAC40-73-1070. Environmental precautions.
    A. Special environmental precautions shall be taken by the  facility to eliminate hazards to the safety and well‑being of residents  with serious cognitive impairments.  Examples of environmental precautions  include signs, carpet patterns and arrows that point the way, and reduction of  background noise.
    B. When there are indications that ordinary materials or  objects may be harmful to a resident with a serious cognitive impairment, these  materials or objects shall be inaccessible to the resident except under staff  supervision.
    Article 3
  Safe, Secure Environment
    22VAC40-73-1080. Applicability.
    A. In order to be admitted or retained in a safe, secure  environment as defined in 22VAC40-73-10, except as provided in subsection B of  this section, a resident must have a serious cognitive impairment due to a  primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia and be unable to recognize danger or  protect his own safety and welfare. The requirements in this article apply when  such residents reside in a safe, secure environment. These requirements apply  only to the safe, secure environment. 
    B. A resident's spouse, parent, adult sibling, or adult  child who otherwise would not meet the criteria to reside in a safe, secure  environment may reside in the special care unit if the spouse, parent, sibling,  or child so requests in writing, the facility agrees in writing, and the  resident, if capable of making the decision, agrees in writing. The written  request and agreements must be maintained in the resident's file. The spouse,  parent, sibling, or child is considered a resident of the facility and as such  this chapter applies. The requirements of this article do not apply for the  spouse, parent, adult sibling, or adult child since the individual does not  have a serious cognitive impairment due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of  dementia with an inability to recognize danger or protect his own safety and  welfare.
    22VAC40-73-1090. Assessment.
    A. Prior to his admission to a safe, secure environment,  the resident shall have been assessed by an independent clinical psychologist  licensed to practice in the Commonwealth or by an independent physician as  having a serious cognitive impairment due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of  dementia with an inability to recognize danger or protect his own safety and  welfare. The physician shall be board certified or board eligible in a  specialty or subspecialty relevant to the diagnosis and treatment of serious  cognitive impairments (e.g., family practice, geriatrics, internal medicine,  neurology, neurosurgery, or psychiatry). The assessment shall be in writing and  shall include, but not be limited to the following areas:
    1. Cognitive functions (e.g., orientation, comprehension,  problem-solving, attention and concentration, memory, intelligence, abstract  reasoning, judgment, and insight);
    2. Thought and perception (e.g., process and content);
    3. Mood/affect;
    4. Behavior/psychomotor;
    5. Speech/language; and
    6. Appearance.
    B. The assessment required in subsection A of this section  shall be maintained in the resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-1100. Approval.
    A. Prior to placing a resident with a serious cognitive  impairment due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia in a safe, secure  environment, the facility shall obtain the written approval of one of the  following persons, in the following order of priority:
    1. The resident, if capable of making an informed decision;
    2. A guardian or other legal representative for the  resident if one has been appointed;
    3. A relative who is willing and able to take  responsibility to act as the resident's representative, in the following  specified order: (i) spouse, (ii) adult child, (iii) parent, (iv) adult  sibling, (v) adult grandchild, (vi) adult niece or nephew, (vii) aunt or uncle;  or
    4. If the resident is not capable of making an informed  decision and a guardian, legal representative, or relative is unavailable, an  independent physician who is skilled and knowledgeable in the diagnosis and  treatment of dementia.
    B. The obtained written approval shall be retained in the  resident's file.
    C. The facility shall document that the order of priority  specified in subsection A of this section was followed, and the documentation  shall be retained in the resident's file.
    D. As soon as one of the persons in the order as  prioritized in subsection A of this section disapproves of placement or  retention in the safe, secure environment, then the assisted living facility  shall not place or retain the resident or prospective resident in the special  care unit. If the resident is not to be retained in the unit, the discharge  requirements specified in 22VAC40-73-430 apply.
    22VAC40-73-1110. Appropriateness of placement and continued  residence.
    A. Prior to admitting a resident with a serious cognitive  impairment due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia to a safe, secure  environment, the licensee, administrator, or designee shall determine whether  placement in the special care unit is appropriate. The determination and  justification for the decision shall be in writing and shall be retained in the  resident's file. 
    B. Six months after placement of the resident in the safe,  secure environment and annually thereafter, the licensee, administrator, or  designee shall perform a review of the appropriateness of each resident's  continued residence in the special care unit.
    C. Whenever warranted by a change in a resident's  condition, the licensee, administrator, or designee shall also perform a review  of the appropriateness of continued residence in the unit.
    D. The reviews specified in subsections B and C of this  section shall be performed in consultation with the following persons, as  appropriate: 
    1. The resident; 
    2. A responsible family member; 
    3. A guardian or other legal representative; 
    4. A designated contact person; 
    5. Direct care staff who provide care and supervision to  the resident; 
    6. The resident's mental health provider; 
    7. The licensed health care professional required in  22VAC40-73-490; 
    8. The resident's physician; and 
    9. Any other professional involved with the resident. 
    E. The licensee, administrator, or designee shall make a  determination as to whether continued residence in the special care unit is  appropriate at the time of each review required by subsections B and C of this  section. The determination and justification for the decision shall be in  writing and shall be retained in the resident's file.
    22VAC40-73-1120. Activities.
    A. In addition to the requirements of this section, all  the requirements of 22VAC40-73-520 apply to safe, secure environments, except  for 22VAC40-73-520 C and E. 
    B. There shall be at least 21 hours of scheduled  activities available to the residents each week for no less than two hours each  day. 
    C. If appropriate to meet the needs of the resident with a  short attention span, there shall be multiple short activities.
    D. Staff shall regularly encourage residents to  participate in activities and provide guidance and assistance, as needed.
    E. As appropriate, residents shall be encouraged to  participate in supervised activities or programs outside the special care unit.
    F. There shall be a designated staff person responsible  for managing or coordinating the structured activities program. This staff  person shall be on site in the special care unit at least 20 hours a week,  shall maintain personal interaction with the residents and familiarity with  their needs and interests, and shall meet at least one of the following  qualifications:
    1. Be a qualified therapeutic recreation specialist or an  activities professional;
    2. Be eligible for certification as a therapeutic  recreation specialist or an activities professional by a recognized accrediting  body;
    3. Have one year full-time work experience within the last  five years in an activities program in an adult care setting;
    4. Be a qualified occupational therapist or an occupational  therapy assistant; or
    5. Prior to or within six months of employment, have  successfully completed 40 hours of department-approved training in adult group  activities and in recognizing and assessing the activity needs of residents.
    The required 20 hours on site does not have to be devoted  solely to managing or coordinating activities; neither is it required that the  person responsible for managing or coordinating the activities program conduct  the activities.
    22VAC40-73-1130. Staffing.
    A. When residents are present, there shall be at least two  direct care staff members awake and on duty at all times on each floor in each  special care unit who shall be responsible for the care and supervision of the  residents, except as provided in subsection B of this section. This requirement  is independent of 22VAC40-73-280 D and 22VAC40-73-1020 A.
    B. Only one direct care staff member has to be awake and  on duty in the unit if sufficient to meet the needs of the residents, if (i)  there are no more than five residents present in the unit and (ii) there are at  least two other direct care staff members in the building, one of whom is  readily available to assist with emergencies in the special care unit, provided  that supervision necessary to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of  residents throughout the building is not compromised.
    C. During trips away from the facility, there shall be  sufficient direct care staff to provide sight and sound supervision to  residents.
    22VAC40-73-1140. Staff training.
    A. Commencing immediately upon employment and within three  months, the administrator shall attend at least 12 hours of training in  cognitive impairment that meets the requirements of subsection C of this  section.
    1. Training in cognitive impairment that meets the  requirements of subsection C of this section and was completed in the year  prior to employment is transferable and counts toward the required 12 hours if  there is documentation of the training.
    2. Whether the training counts toward continuing education  for administrator licensure and for what period of time depends upon the  licensure requirements of the Virginia Board of Long-Term Care Administrators.
    B. Commencing immediately upon employment in the safe,  secure environment and within four months, direct care staff shall attend at  least 10 hours of training in cognitive impairment that meets the requirements  of subsection C of this section. 
    1. The training is counted toward the annual training  requirement for the first year. 
    2. Training in cognitive impairment that meets the  requirements of subsection C of this section and was completed in the year  prior to employment is transferable if there is documentation of the training. 
    3. The documented previous cognitive impairment training  referenced in subdivision 2 of this subsection is counted toward the required  10 hours but not toward the annual training requirement.
    C. The training in cognitive impairment required by  subsections A and B of this section shall be relevant to the population in  care, shall maximize the level of a resident's functional ability, and shall  include, but not be limited to, the following topics:
    1. Information about cognitive impairment, including areas  such as cause, progression, behaviors, and management of the condition;
    2. Communicating with the resident;
    3. Resident care techniques for persons with physical,  cognitive, behavioral, and social disabilities;
    4. Managing dysfunctional behavior; 
    5.Creating a therapeutic environment;
    6. Planning and facilitating activities appropriate for  each resident; and 
    7. Identifying and alleviating safety risks to residents  with cognitive impairment.
    D. The training specified in subsection C of this section  shall be developed and provided by:
    1. A licensed health care professional practicing within  the scope of his profession who has at least 12 hours of training in the care  of individuals with cognitive impairments due to dementia; or
    2. A person who has been approved by the department to  develop or provide the training.
    E. Within the first month of employment, staff, other than  the administrator and direct care staff, who will have contact with residents  in the special care unit shall complete two hours of training on the nature and  needs of residents with cognitive impairments due to dementia.
    22VAC40-73-1150. Doors and windows.
    A. Doors that lead to unprotected areas shall be monitored  or secured through devices that conform to applicable building and fire codes,  including but not limited to, door alarms, cameras, constant staff oversight,  security bracelets that are part of an alarm system, pressure pads at doorways,  delayed egress mechanisms, locking devices, or perimeter fence gates. Residents  who reside in safe, secure environments may be prohibited from exiting the  facility or the special care unit, if applicable building and fire codes are  met.
    B. There shall be protective devices on the bedroom and  bathroom windows of residents and on windows in common areas accessible to  residents to prevent the windows from being opened wide enough for a resident  to crawl through. The protective devices on the windows shall be in conformance  with the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63). 
    22VAC40-73-1160. Outdoor access.
    A. The facility shall have a secured outdoor area for the  residents' use or provide direct care staff supervision while residents are  outside.
    B. Residents shall be given the opportunity to be outdoors  on a daily basis, weather permitting.
    22VAC40-73-1170. Indoor walking area.
    The facility shall provide to residents free access to an  indoor walking corridor or other indoor area that may be used for walking.
    22VAC40-73-1180. Environmental precautions.
    A. Special environmental precautions shall be taken by the  facility to eliminate hazards to the safety and well-being of residents.  Examples of environmental precautions include signs, carpet patterns and arrows  that point the way, high visual contrast between floors and walls, and  reduction of background noise.
    B. When there are indications that ordinary materials or  objects may be harmful to a resident, these materials or objects shall be  inaccessible to the resident except under staff supervision.
    C. Special environmental enhancements, tailored to the  population in care, shall be provided by the facility to enable residents to  maximize their independence and to promote their dignity in comfortable  surroundings. Examples of environmental enhancements include memory boxes,  activity centers, rocking chairs, and visual contrast between plates and eating  utensils and the table.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (22VAC40-73)
    Report  of Tuberculosis Screening
    Virginia  Department of Health Report of Tuberculosis Screening Form (eff. 3/2011)
    Virginia  Department of Health TB Control Program TB Risk Assessment Form, TB 512 (eff.  5/2011)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-3227; Filed August 5, 2015, 1:42 p.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
STATE BOARD OF SOCIAL SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 22VAC40-72. Standards for  Licensed Assisted Living Facilities (repealing 22VAC40-72-10 through 22VAC40-72-1160).
    22VAC40-73. Standards for Licensed Assisted Living  Facilities (adding 22VAC40-73-10 through 22VAC40-73-1180).  
    Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-217, 63.2-1732, and 63.2-1805 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    October 13, 2015 - 12 p.m. - Department of Social  Services, Central Regional Office, 1604 Santa Rosa Road, Richmond, VA 23229
    Public Comment Deadline: November 6, 2015.
    Agency Contact: Judith McGreal, Licensing Program  Consultant, Division of Licensing Programs, Department of Social Services, 801  East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 726-7157, FAX (804)  726-7132, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email judith.mcgreal@dss.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia requires  the State Board of Social Services to adopt regulations as may be necessary or  desirable to carry out the purpose of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia.  Section 63.2-1721 of the Code of Virginia requires applicants for assisted  living facility licensure to undergo a background check; § 63.2-1732 of  the Code of Virginia provides the board's overall authority to promulgate  regulations for assisted living facilities and specifies content areas to be  included in the standards; § 63.2-1802 of the Code of Virginia authorizes  assisted living facilities to provide safe, secure environments for residents  with serious cognitive impairments due to dementia if they comply with the  board's regulations; § 63.2-1803 of the Code of Virginia addresses  staffing of assisted living facilities; § 63.2-1805 of the Code of  Virginia requires the board to promulgate regulations regarding admission,  retention, and discharge of residents; and § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia  relates to resident rights. The promulgating entity is the State Board of  Social Services.
    Purpose: This regulatory action is essential to protect  the health, safety, and welfare of aged, infirm, or disabled adults who reside  in assisted living facilities. The regulatory action is needed to ensure that  assisted living facilities provide care, services, and a safe environment for  an increasingly vulnerable population. In addition, the assisted living  facility regulation provides clear criteria for licensees to follow to obtain  and maintain their licensure.
    The State Board of Social Services adopted 22VAC40-72 in  November 2006 and has amended the regulation five times over the intervening  years. Repeal of the existing regulation and adoption of a new regulation will  allow greater flexibility to adjust the structure, format, and language to  provide increased consistency and clarity. This consistency and clarity will  improve both compliance with the regulation and enforcement. It will also allow  for a format conducive to the greater protection of residents of the  Commonwealth's licensed assisted living facilities, the number of which (both  residents and facilities) are expected to significantly increase in upcoming  years.
    Substance: New substantive provisions in the regulation  include: 
    22VAC40-73-100 provides for the development and implementation  of an enhanced infection control program that addresses the surveillance,  prevention, and control of disease and infection.
    22VAC40-73-160 adds to administrator training requirements that  administrators who supervise medication aides, but are not registered  medication aides themselves, must have annual training in medication  administration.
    22VAC40-73-210 increases the annual training hours for direct  care staff.
    22VAC40-73-220 adds requirements regarding private duty  personnel.
    22VAC40-73-260 increases the number of staff needed with  certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation to one for every 50 residents.
    22VAC40-73-280 changes an exception to the staffing requirement  that allows staff to sleep at night under certain circumstances to limit its  application to facilities licensed for residential living care only.
    22VAC40-73-310 adds to admission and retention requirements  additional specifications regarding an agreement between a facility and hospice  program when hospice care is provided to a resident.
    22VAC40-73-325 adds a requirement for a fall risk assessment  for residents who meet the criteria for assisted living care.
    22VAC40-73-490 reduces the number of times annually required  for health care oversight when a facility employs a full-time licensed health  care professional and adds a requirement that all residents be included  annually in the health care oversight.
    22VAC40-73-540 specifies that visiting hours may not be  restricted unless a resident so chooses.
    22VAC40-73-620 reduces the number of times annually for  oversight of special diets.
    22VAC40-73-750 adds a provision that a resident may determine  not to have certain furnishings that are otherwise required in his bedroom.
    22VAC40-73-880 adds to the standard that in a bedroom with a  thermostat where only one resident resides, the resident may choose a  temperature other than what is otherwise required.
    22VAC40-73-930 adds to the provision for signaling and call  systems that for a resident with an inability to use the signaling device, this  inability must be included on his individualized service plan with frequency of  rounds indicated.
    22VAC40-73-980 adds antibiotic cream or ointment and aspirin to  first aid kit requirements and eliminates activated charcoal; adds a  requirement for flashlight or battery lantern for each employee directly  responsible for resident care, not only for those at night; and adds a  requirement that 48 hours of emergency food and water supply be on site.
    22VAC40-73-1010 removes the exception for facilities licensed  for 10 or fewer with no more than three with serious cognitive impairment that  currently applies to all requirements for mixed population and makes it  applicable only to the staffing requirement.
    22VAC40-73-1030 increases the training required in cognitive  impairment for direct care staff and other staff, except for the administrator.
    22VAC40-73-1120 increases the number of hours per week of  activities for residents in a safe, secure environment.
    22VAC40-73-1130 specifies that there must be at least two  direct care staff members on each floor in each special care unit, rather than  in each special care unit.
    22VAC40-73-1140 increases the number of hours of training in  cognitive impairment for the administrator and changes the time period in which  the training must be received for both the administrator and for direct care  staff who work in a special care unit, and also increases training in cognitive  impairment for others who have contact with residents in a special care unit.
    Issues: The primary advantage of the proposed regulatory  action to the public and the Commonwealth is the increased protection it  provides to residents in assisted living facilities. The action is needed to protect  the health, safety, and welfare of an increasingly vulnerable population of  aged, infirm, or disabled adults. The regulation addresses the care, services,  and environment provided by assisted living facilities.
    The new regulation also provides clear criteria for licensees  to follow to maintain their licensure and for licensing staff to use in  determining compliance with standards and in the implementation of any  necessary enforcement action. In the proposed regulatory action, a fair and  reasonable balance has been attempted to ensure adequate protection of  residents while considering the cost to facilities. Although some requirements  have been increased, others have been eliminated or reduced.
    Several areas of the proposed regulations have been of particular  interest to assisted living facility providers, provider associations, advocacy  groups, licensing staff, and the general public. These areas have been  addressed and include (i) revising requirements for health care oversight to  allow more flexibility, (ii) adding to provisions for signaling and call  systems to better meet the needs of residents who are unable to use a signaling  device, (iii) prohibiting restrictions on visiting hours but allowing for  facility guidelines for such purposes as security, (iv) providing for more  staff training to better meet the needs of residents, (v) reducing the  frequency of oversight of special diets, (vi) providing greater flexibility  when residents store cleaning supplies or other hazardous materials in their  rooms, (vii) providing more specific requirements regarding fall risk  assessment to prevent or reduce falls by residents, and (viii) eliminating some  requirements relating to personnel practices that are internal business  practices of a facility.
    The regulation takes into consideration differences in the  levels of care, that is, residential living care and assisted living care, as  well as the cost constraints of smaller facilities. The regulation addresses  the needs of the mental health population, physically disabled residents, and  elderly persons. Because the assisted living facility industry is so diverse in  respect to size, population in care, types of services offered, form of  sponsorship, etc., the standards must be broad enough to allow for these  differences, while at the same time be specific enough so that providers know  what is expected of them. The new regulation was revised based on multiple  regulatory advisory panel input, recommendations and feedback, public comment,  and Assisted Living Facility Advisory Committee recommendations. 
    The regulatory action poses no disadvantages to the public or  the Commonwealth.
    Governor's Request for Public Comment: I have reviewed  the proposed regulation on a preliminary basis. While I reserve the right to  take action under the Administrative Process Act as the regulation moves  forward, I approve the publication of this proposed regulation to the next  stage for the purpose of soliciting public comment. Specifically, I would like  public comment on and agency consideration of two possible changes.
    First, whether assisted living facilities should be required to  have Internet capability for the use of residents. Currently, assisted living  facilities are required to provide residents access to a telephone, but these  regulations have not been changed for many years. The Internet has become such  an integral part of everyday life that it may be time to update these  regulations to require assisted living facilities in Virginia to have Internet  capability. The benefits to resident quality of life could be substantial;  however, more information about both the costs and the benefits is needed. I  would like the agency to consider the costs and benefits of requiring Internet  capability at assisted living facilities, and I would like public comment on  the same. Specific information about cost issues should be included in any  public comment that argues the costs of requiring Internet capability are  prohibitive. 
    Second, the proposed regulation amends rules regarding direct  care staff based on the number per floor, rather than per unit. I would like  public comment on and agency consideration of any alternative ways to implement  a common sense requirement based either on the number of residents or some more  flexible measure since assisted living facilities vary in their physical design  and space.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Social Services (Board) proposes to repeal its current regulations that govern  standards for licensed assisted living facilities and replace them with revised  regulations that contain numerous changes. In addition to clarifying and  organizational changes, the Board is proposing various substantive changes as  well. The most significant of the changes proposed for these regulations  include: 
    1. The development and implementation of an enhanced infection  control program that addresses the surveillance, prevention, and control of  disease and infection. Proposed requirements for the enhanced  program include that the program be written down, that a licensed health care  professional be involved in its development and that a staff person be  appointed as a point of contact.
    2. Requiring administrators who are not registered medication  aides but who supervise medication aides to have annual refresher training in  medication administration. 
    3. Increasing the annual training that direct care staff who  work for assisted living facilities are required to complete from 16 hours to  18 hours. Annual training for direct care staff at residential care facilities  is proposed to increase from 8 to 14 hours.
    4. Increasing the cognitive impairment training required for  direct care staff (except for administrators) who work in mixed population  facilities from four to six hours to be completed within four months of  employment. Non-direct care staff training (again, excepting administrators)  must be completed within one month of employment and was increased from one to  two hours.
    5. Increasing the number of hours of training in cognitive  impairment for administrators of facilities with special care units from 10  hours within a year of hiring to 12 hours within 3 months. The time period in  which cognitive impairment training must be completed by direct care staff who  work in a special care unit is proposed to shorten from within a year of hiring  to within four months. Other staff cognitive impairment training is proposed to  increase from one to two hours within a month of hiring.
    6. Increasing the hours of training that managers of smaller  facilities that share an administrator must complete from 16 hours to 20 hours  annually. As part of the required annual training, managers of facilities that  have residents with mental impairment will have to complete six hours of  training (rather than the four hours required now) specifically geared toward  meeting the needs of the mentally impaired. The Board also proposes to newly  require two hours of annual training on infection control as part of the 20  hours of proposed required annual training.
    7. Requiring direct care staff who work with residential care  level residents to meet the same staff qualifications as individuals who work  with assisted living level residents. Residential direct care staff will newly  be required to complete some sort of approved nurse aide or personal care aide  training. The proposed regulations will give these individuals one year from  the effective date of these regulations to get the additional training that  would be newly required. 
    8. Adding requirements regarding private duty personnel that  would incorporate into the regulation some of the standards that are currently  in the Department of Social Services' (DSS) technical assistance document.
    9. Increasing the number of staff needed with certification in  cardiopulmonary resuscitation from one for every 100 to one for every 50  residents. 
    10. Changing a staffing requirement exception that allows staff  to sleep at night in facilities that house 19 or fewer residents to limit its  application to residential living facilities only.
    11. Listing additional specifications regarding agreements  between facilities and hospice programs when hospice care is provided to a  resident. 
    12. Requiring a fall risk assessment to be conducted for  residents who meet the criteria for assisted living care. 
    13. Reducing the number of health care oversight reviews when a  facility employs a full-time licensed health care professional (usually a  registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse). For assisted living level  residents, the requirement would decrease from four times per year to two times  per year. For residential living level residents, the requirement would  decrease from twice per year to once per year. The Board also proposes to  require that all residents, rather than just a sampling, be included in at  least one review annually.
    14. Reducing the number of times a review must be conducted to  oversee special diets from quarterly to every six months.
    15. Requiring that staff at facilities with  residents who are unable to use their room's signaling/call systems device have  a plan to keep those residents safe. This information would be included on the  resident's individualized service plan (ISP). Residents ISP's must also  indicate with what frequency rounds will be done.
    16. Eliminating activated charcoal and adding antibiotic cream  or ointment and aspirin to the list of what first aid kits must contain. This  section would also add a flashlight or battery lantern requirement for each  employee who is directly responsible for resident care.
    17. Modifying the current requirement to have 96 hours of  emergency food and water supply available to include a requirement that 48  hours of the supply be available on-site. 
    18. Removing the exception for facilities licensed for ten or fewer  residents with no more than three individuals with serious cognitive  impairments that applied to all requirements for mixed populations so that it  only applies to the staffing requirement.
    19. Increasing the number of hours per week of activities that  must be offered to residents in a safe, secure environment from 16 hours  weekly, with not less than one hour each day, to 21 hours weekly, with not less  than two hours each day. 
    20. Specifying that there must be at least two direct care  staff members on each floor in each special care unit. 
    21. Specifying that visiting hours may not be restricted unless  a resident chooses. 
    22. Allowing residents to determine whether they want to have  certain furnishings that are otherwise required in their bedrooms. 
    23. Permitting residents to set the thermostats to a  temperature other than what is otherwise required so long as they do not have a  roommate. 
    24. Allowing residents who do not have serious cognitive  impairments increased flexibility pertaining to the storage of cleaning  supplies and personal care items that could be considered hazardous.
    Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for some  proposed changes. For other proposed changes, there is insufficient information  to ascertain whether benefits will outweigh costs. Costs likely outweigh  benefits for one proposed change.
    Estimated Economic Impact. 
    Infection Control:
    Current regulations require Licensed Assisted Living Facilities  (ALFs) to develop and maintain an infection control program that addresses the  surveillance, prevention and control of infections by: 1) training staff and  volunteers in hand washing and preventing cross contamination between residents  or tasks, 2) prohibiting staff and volunteers with communicable diseases from  direct contact with residents or their food and 3) training staff how to  properly handle, store and transport linens, supplies, equipment and medical  waste so as to not spread infection. Current regulations also require that  methods used for infection control be described in a written document.
    The Board proposes to amend infection control program  requirements so that ALFs will have to develop and write the required infection  control programs with input from a licensed health care professional (usually a  nurse), will have to review their infection control programs at least annually  and will have to designate a staff person as point of contact to monitor  compliance with the facilities' infection control programs. Board staff reports  that some licensed facilities already have a licensed health care professional  on staff that will be able to help create or review infection control programs  for the facilities in which they work. Where that is true, the costs to  facilities on account of the proposed changes to infection control programs  will be limited to the opportunity cost of having the health care professional  work at this task for however many hours it takes rather than working at some  other task(s). For licensed facilities that do not have a health care  professional on staff, the costs associated with these proposed changes will  include the cost of hiring a health care professional to help with the  infection control program. Board staff estimates that a nurse can be hired for  approximately $30 an hour and that it would take approximately eight hours to  write an infection control plan. Using these numbers, the costs associated with  these changes will be $240 initially plus the wage costs for other staff that  would be involved in writing the plan. Since each facility's infection control  program will have to be reviewed annually, and a health care professional will  have to be involved each time the program is reviewed, facilities may incur  approximately the same costs (~$240 + the cost for other staff members' time)  each year after these proposed regulations are promulgated. While the Board's  goal in proposing these changes to infection control programs is presumably to  decrease the number of diseases spread in licensed facilities, the magnitude of  any future effects from these changes is unknown. Because of this, there is  insufficient information to tell whether there will be ameliorative effects on  disease control sufficient to justify the costs of these proposed changes to  facilities.
    Training Requirements:
    Current regulations of the Department of Social Services  require assisted living facility administrators who supervise medication aides,  but who are not licensed or registered to administer medication themselves, to  complete 68 hours of Board of Nursing approved training on administering  medication. The Board now proposes to also require affected administrators to  complete yearly refresher training. Board staff reports that this training will  be approximately four hours in length and will cost approximately $50 per year  per affected administrator plus the implicit cost of administrators' time to  take the course. The Board also proposes to increase the amount of annual  general continuing education that direct care staff at assisted living level  facilities must complete from 16 hours to 18 hours and to increase the annual  general continuing education that direct care staff at residential care  facilities must complete from 8 hours to 14 hours. Board staff estimates that  this training will cost $20 plus the salary costs for each staff person who is  required to train. Board staff estimates that salary costs will be  approximately $8 per hour of additional training.
    Required hours of cognitive impairment training are also  proposed to increase over several categories. Direct care staff at facilities  with mixed populations will have to complete 6 hours of annual cognitive  impairment training rather than the 4 hours they must currently complete.  Administrators of facilities with special care units would have to complete 12  hours of initial cognitive impairment training within three months of hire  rather than the currently required 10 hours of training within 12 months of  hire. Non-direct care staff at mixed population facilities and in special care  units would see their annual cognitive impairment training increase from one to  two hours. Board staff did not report specifically on how much cognitive  impairment training will cost but costs will likely be roughly the same as  those for general training for all staff but the administrators (i.e.,  approximately $20 for the training itself plus $8 x the number of additional  hours required for each affected staff member). Time costs incurred on account  of these proposed training standards will likely be higher for facility  administrators since their salaries are likely higher.
    Managers at smaller ALFs that share an administrator currently  have to complete 16 hours of annual training relating to management or  operations of the type of facilities where they are employed with the addendum  that managers who work at facilities that have mentally impaired residents must  currently complete 4 hours of mental impairment training as part of their 16  hours per year. The Board proposes to increase annual training for managers to  20 hours and increase the mental impairment training for managers who have to  complete such training to 6 hours (of the required 20). Additionally, the Board  proposes to require that managers complete 2 hours of annual infection control  training that can be counted toward their 20 hour total. Additional training  for managers will have costs attached that are more in line with the additional  training costs for administrators listed above.
    For all of the categories of training listed in the three  paragraphs above, Board staff reports that training is being increased to  address concerns that have arisen on account of complaints to the Board and on  account of issues raised during inspections. Since the magnitude of possible  benefits of additional training cannot be measured (as they have not happened  yet), there is insufficient information to judge whether benefits will outweigh  costs for these proposed training increases.
    Under current regulations, direct care staff who care for  assisted living level residents must meet certain qualifications within two  months of employment. They must either 1) have a certification as a nurse aide  issued by the Virginia Board of Nursing, 2) have successfully completed a  Virginia Board of Nursing approved nursing assistant, geriatric assistant or  home health aide education program, 3) have successfully completed a personal  care aide training program approved by the Department of Medical Assistance  Services (DMAS), 4) have successfully completed a DSS approved nursing  assistant, geriatric assistant or home health aide education program or 5) have  successfully completed DSS-approved 40-hour direct care staff training. 
    The Board now proposes to slightly change the training options  available to direct care staff that care for assisted living level residents  and to also require direct care staff who care for residential living level  residents to meet one of these same criteria within one year of the  promulgation of these proposed regulations. Under proposed regulations affected  direct care staff must either 1) have a certification as a nurse aide issued by  the Virginia Board of Nursing, 2) have successfully completed a Virginia Board  of Nursing approved nurse aide education program, 3) have successfully  completed a nursing education program preparing for registered nursing  licensure of practical nursing licensure, 4) be enrolled in a nursing education  program and have completed at least one course that includes 40 hours of direct  client care clinical experience, 5) have successfully completed a personal care  aide training program approved by DMAS, 6) have successfully completed an  education program for geriatric assistants or home health care aides or for  nurse aides which is provided by a hospital, nursing facility or educational  institution approved by DSS, or 7) have successfully completed DSS-approved  40-hour direct care staff training. 
    Board staff reports that the lowest cost option for attaining  one of the required credentials would be to have a qualified individual who is  already employed by a facility or who comes into a facility specifically to  teach new direct care staff the department-approved 40-hour direct care staff  training program. The costs associated with this credentialing would be the  time value of the approximately 40 hours times the instructor's hourly wage  plus 40 hours times the wage of the newly hired direct care employee times the  number of employees taught at once. So, assuming an hourly wage for the health  care professional teaching the class is $30 per hour and an hourly wage for  direct care staff of $8 per hour, the cost of this instruction would be would  be 40x30 or $1,200 plus 8x40 or $320 per trainee. Since residential living  level residents do not require as intense a level of care as assisted living  level residents, it is likely that direct care staff for residential living  level residents do not need all of the training that direct care staff for  assisted living level residents do. Therefore, it is likely that the costs of  requiring the same level of training for all direct care staff will likely  outweigh the anticipated benefits of doing so.
    Staffing Requirements:
    Current regulations require that there be one staff member  trained in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on site for every 100 residents  in a facility. The Board proposes to amend this standard so that the ratio of  CPR trained staff to residents is 1:50. Board staff estimates that the costs  associated with changing this standard will include $50 for the class in CPR  plus $8x4 hours of a staff member's time to take the class for each additional  trained staff member required. Board staff also reports that 52% of facilities  house fewer than 50 residents and would, therefore, be unaffected by this  proposed change. Of the remaining facilities, most would have to have only one  additional CPR trained staff member on site during each shift. Since the  populations served by assisted living facilities and residential care  facilities are, by and large, older and more prone to illnesses such as heart  attack and stroke that would likely require CPR to be administered, the  benefits of this proposed change likely outweighs its costs.
    Current requirements that personal care staff hired by  residents or their families must meet are located in DSS's technical assistance  document. The Board proposes to move these requirements to regulation. Under  the proposed regulations, facilities will have to have a written agreement  outlining the services to be provided by the private personal care personnel  and will also have to ensure that these individuals have a tuberculosis  screening and orientation and initial training. Board staff reports that the  requirements for private duty personnel in these proposed regulations are less  restrictive than those currently enforced so both facilities and families ought  to benefit from these proposed changes.
    Current regulations allow staff at licensed facilities that  house 19 or fewer residents to sleep at night so long as all residents are also  asleep and do not need care. The Board proposes to change this allowance so  that it only applies to residential living level facilities with 19 or fewer  residents. This means that staff at assisted living level facilities will have  to remain awake at night. Given that assisted living level residents require a  greater level of care, and are likely more prone to needing sudden intervention  at any time including the night, the benefits of this change likely outweigh  any inconvenience that staff may experience from not being able to sleep during  their work hours.
    Current regulations require that there be two direct care staff  members awake and on duty in each special care unit in a facility. The Board  proposes to amend this requirement so that there will have to be two direct  care staff members on each floor of a special care unit. This change will  significantly increase the number of staff that will be required to be on  premises in special care units that are housed on multiple floors of a facility  or will require facilities to reconfigure special care units so that they are  housed only on one floor. These costs must be weighed against any benefit that  might accrue to residents of special care units because of the presence of  additional staff. The benefits of this change would likely have to be quite  large if they are to outweigh its costs.
    Other requirements: 
    The Board proposes to newly require that residents entering  assisted living level care undergo a fall risk assessment and that this  assessment be conducted by the time each resident's ISP is complete. The  proposed regulations also require that a resident's fall risk assessment be  updated annually or when a resident has a fall or a change in condition. There  will be time costs for staff to do fall risk assessments but these costs should  be minimal and, in any case, are likely outweighed by the benefits that will  likely accrue to residents when direct care staff is more aware of how at risk  of falling a resident is.
    Current regulations require that assisted living level  facilities conduct four health care oversight reviews per year and that residential  living level facilities conduct two health care oversight reviews each year.  These are general reviews of health outcomes and care at the facility rather  than specific reviews of any particular residents. Current regulations also  require facilities to conduct a review of how well special dietary needs are  being met quarterly. The Board now proposes to reduce the number of health care  oversight reviews when a facility employs a full-time licensed health care  professional, from four per year to two per year for assisted living level care  and from two per year to one per year for residential living level care, and to  also reduce the frequency of special dietary oversight reviews from quarterly  to every six months. These changes are likely to benefit facilities by reducing  the time needed to comply with regulatory requirements each year. There are  likely no costs attached to these proposed changes because individual  residents' health care and dietary needs are analyzed individually apart from  these aggregate reviews.
    Current regulations require assisted living facilities to have  signaling devises in residents' bedrooms or attached bathrooms that can be  pulled or otherwise activated and that alert direct care staff that a resident  needs assistance. Some assisted living residents, however, have difficulty  reaching or pulling signaling devises. As a consequence, the Board proposes to  require facilities to have a plan to monitor residents who cannot use signaling  devises and also proposes to require that each such resident have written into  his/her ISP the frequency with which staff will be checking in on them. This  change may require staff to check in on affected residents more often but the  costs of both staff time and keeping records as to how often residents are  checked on are likely outweighed by the health benefits that will likely accrue  to residents whose acute health issues will likely get a quick response despite  them not being able to alert staff that is a distance from them. 
    Current regulations exempt mixed population facilities with no  more than 10 total residents and with no more than three residents with serious  cognitive impairments from cognitive impairment safety requirements that larger  facilities must adhere to. Currently, facilities that are licensed for more  than 10 residents and that have residents with serious cognitive impairments  must have some sort of system that monitors such residents so that they do not  wander, must have at least two direct care staff on duty and awake in each building  of the facility and must have staff provide sight and sound supervision for  impaired residents while on trips away from the facility. The Board proposes to  amend these requirements so that facilities licensed for 10 or fewer residents,  that house three or fewer residents with serious cognitive impairments, will  have to have a security monitoring system of some sort but will not have to  meet the additional staffing requirements that larger facilities have to meet. 
    Board staff reports that affected facilities can install door  alarms (estimated cost $2 to $40 per door plus the cost of batteries) or they  can install a camera system (estimated cost approximately $300). Facilities may  also choose to pay for bracelets that are monitored by the local sheriff's office  and that allow residents who wander to be tracked down. The initial cost of  bracelets varies from locality to locality (free in some localities and several  hundred dollars in other localities); localities may charge a monthly fee of  approximately $10 per bracelet per month for monitoring and tracking, if  necessary. Alternately, facilities might choose to install door alarms with  keypads (estimated cost $4,500 to $5,100) or purchase a ResidentGuard system  that has several safety systems for residents (estimated cost $1,000 to  $2,000). Whatever the safety system chosen, the attendant costs would need to  be measured against any benefits in additional safety that might accrue to  impaired residents. There is insufficient information at this time to accurately  measure costs against benefits. 
    Current regulations require facilities with special care units  to offer 16 hours of planned activities each week with at least one hour of  activity each day for these units. The Board proposes to increase the hours of  activity required to 21 hours per week with at least two hours of activity  being offered each day. This change will likely cost facilities some additional  staff time and perhaps some additional cost in activity materials, depending on  what kind of activity is being offered. Residents may benefit from additional  activities that will likely increase interaction with other residents and staff  of the facility and that may slow the degradation of health and mental  faculties that may occur in inactive seniors.1  There is insufficient information to measure the magnitude of costs versus  benefits for this proposed incremental change to required planned activity.
    The Board proposes a number of other changes to these  regulations that will allow residents more autonomy in setting their own  environment. For instance, the Board proposes to allow residents who are in  single rooms to set the thermostat in their room to some other temperature than  what is required now. The Board also proposes to specify that visiting hours may  not be restricted unless a resident chooses, to allow residents to remove  furniture from their rooms and to allow residents to keep cleaning supplies and  personal care chemicals out of sight in their rooms so long as they do not have  a serious cognitive impairment. Costs associated with these changes will likely  be minimal and might include staff time to move furniture and monitor guests  and/or some additional heating and cooling cost for residents that change their  thermostat settings. These costs are likely outweighed by the benefits to  residents of having a friendlier more personalized environment that might be  individually safer. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. Board staff reports there are  currently 552 licensed assisted living facilities; of these, approximately 12%,  or approximately 66 facilities, house only residential living care residents.  The remaining facilities house both residential living care residents and  assisted living care residents or house only assisted living care residents.  Board staff also reports that most of these facilities would qualify as small  businesses in the Commonwealth. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be  particularly affected by this proposed regulatory action.
    Projected Impact on Employment. Proposed increases in training  requirements for staff of ALFs, particularly training that is currently not  required of residential care level staff but will be required under these  proposed regulations, will increase the costs of being eligible to work in  residential care and assisted living care facilities. As a consequence of these  increased costs, fewer individuals are likely to seek employment in these  facilities; especially if they can earn a comparable wage in another field that  does not require training at all or requires less training than this.  Facilities may also hire fewer staff and/or take in fewer residents if their  costs increase because they have to cover increased training costs directly.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These proposed  regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use or value of private property  in the Commonwealth.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. Affected small  businesses will likely incur costs for hiring health care professionals to  perform certain newly required tasks and for additional staff training. Smaller  facilities with 19 or fewer residents and with 10 or fewer residents will incur  costs to meet regulatory requirements that they are currently exempted from.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The Board may wish to revisit the issue of proposed qualifications for  staff that work solely with residential care level residents. Since these  residents do not require the same level of care as assisted living level  residents, the Board may be able to lessen the adverse impact of these  regulations on affected small businesses by not requiring the same staff  qualifications for working with residents that require less intervention and  care as they do for working with residents that require more. 
    Real Estate Development Costs. This regulatory action will  likely have no effect on real estate development costs in the Commonwealth.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04  of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number 14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include, but need not  be limited to, a determination of the public benefit, the projected number of  businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity  of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly  affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected,  the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply  with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has an adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less  intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the  regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    _____________________________________________
    1 http://www.phac-aspc.gc.ca/cphorsphc-respcacsp/2010/fr-rc/cphorsphc-respcacsp-06-eng.php
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Social Services reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by  the Department of Planning and Budget and has no comment.
    Summary:
    This proposed regulatory action repeals the existing  regulation, 22VAC40-72, and establishes a comprehensive new regulation,  22VAC40-73, for licensed assisted living facilities. The comprehensive new  regulation is intended to (i) improve clarity, (ii) incorporate improvements in  the language and reflect current federal and state law, (iii) relieve intrusive  and burdensome requirements that are not necessary, (iv) provide greater  protection for residents in care, and (v) reflect current standards of care. 
    Major components of the new regulation include requirements  regarding (i) general provisions; (ii) administration and administrative  services and personnel; (iii) staffing and supervision; (iv) admission,  retention, and discharge of residents; (v) resident care and related services;  (vi) resident accommodations and related provisions; (vii) buildings and  grounds; (viii) emergency preparedness; and (ix) additional requirements for  facilities that care for adults with serious cognitive impairments who cannot  recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare. 
    CHAPTER 73
  STANDARDS FOR LICENSED ASSISTED LIVING FACILITIES
    Part I
  General Provisions
    22VAC40-73-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"  means bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, bowel control, bladder  control, and eating or feeding. A person's degree of independence in performing  these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care and  services.
    "Administer medication" means to open a  container of medicine or to remove the ordered dosage and to give it to the  resident for whom it is ordered.
    "Administrator" means the licensee or a person  designated by the licensee who is responsible for the general administration  and management of an assisted living facility and who oversees the day-to-day  operation of the facility, including compliance with all regulations for  licensed assisted living facilities.
    "Admission" means the date a person actually  becomes a resident of the assisted living facility and is physically present at  the facility.
    "Advance directive" means, as defined in  § 54.1-2982 of the Code of Virginia, (i) a witnessed written document,  voluntarily executed by the declarant in accordance with the requirements of  § 54.1-2983 of the Code of Virginia or (ii) a witnessed oral statement,  made by the declarant subsequent to the time he is diagnosed as suffering from  a terminal condition and in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2983  of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Ambulatory" means the condition of a resident  who is physically and mentally capable of self-preservation by evacuating in  response to an emergency to a refuge area as defined by 13VAC5-63, the Virginia  Uniform Statewide Building Code, without the assistance of another person, or  from the structure itself without the assistance of another person if there is  no such refuge area within the structure, even if such resident may require the  assistance of a wheelchair, walker, cane, prosthetic device, or a single verbal  command to evacuate.
    "Assisted living care" means a level of service  provided by an assisted living facility for adults who may have physical or  mental impairments and require at least moderate assistance with the activities  of daily living. 
    "Assisted living facility" means, as defined in  § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia, any congregate residential setting that  provides or coordinates personal and health care services, 24-hour supervision,  and assistance (scheduled and unscheduled) for the maintenance or care of four  or more adults who are aged, infirm, or disabled and who are cared for in a  primarily residential setting, except (i) a facility or portion of a facility  licensed by the State Board of Health or the Department of Behavioral Health  and Developmental Services, but including any portion of such facility not so  licensed; (ii) the home or residence of an individual who cares for or  maintains only persons related to him by blood or marriage; (iii) a facility or  portion of a facility serving infirm or disabled persons between the ages of 18  and 21 years, or 22 years if enrolled in an educational program for the  handicapped pursuant to § 22.1-214 of the Code of Virginia, when such  facility is licensed by the department as a children's residential facility  under Chapter 17 (§ 63.2-1700 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia,  but including any portion of the facility not so licensed; and (iv) any housing  project for persons 62 years of age or older or the disabled that provides no  more than basic coordination of care services and is funded by the U.S.  Department of Housing and Urban Development, by the U.S. Department of  Agriculture, or by the Virginia Housing Development Authority. Included in this  definition are any two or more places, establishments, or institutions owned or  operated by a single entity and providing maintenance or care to a combined  total of four or more aged, infirm, or disabled adults. Maintenance or care  means the protection, general supervision, and oversight of the physical and  mental well-being of an aged, infirm, or disabled individual. 
    "Attorney-in-fact" means strictly, one who is  designated to transact business for another: a legal agent.
    "Behavioral health authority" means the  organization, appointed by and accountable to the governing body of the city or  county that established it, that provides mental health, developmental, and  substance abuse services through its own staff or through contracts with other  organizations and providers.
    "Building" means a structure with exterior walls  under one roof.
    "Cardiopulmonary resuscitation" or  "CPR" means an emergency procedure consisting of external cardiac  massage and artificial respiration; the first treatment for a person who has  collapsed, has no pulse, and has stopped breathing; and attempts to restore  circulation of the blood and prevent death or brain damage due to lack of  oxygen.
    "Case management" means multiple functions  designed to link clients to appropriate services. Case management may include a  variety of common components such as initial screening of needs, comprehensive  assessment of needs, development and implementation of a plan of care, service  monitoring, and client follow-up.
    "Case manager" means an employee of a public  human services agency who is qualified and designated to develop and coordinate  plans of care.
    "Chapter" or "this chapter" means  these regulations, that is, Standards for Licensed Assisted Living Facilities,  22VAC40-73, unless noted otherwise.
    "Chemical restraint" means a psychopharmacologic  drug that is used for discipline or convenience and not required to treat the  resident's medical symptoms or symptoms from mental illness or intellectual  disability and that prohibits an individual from reaching his highest level of  functioning.
    "Commissioner" means the commissioner of the  department, his designee, or authorized representative.
    "Community services board" or "CSB"  means a public body established pursuant to § 37.2-501 of the Code of  Virginia that provides mental health, developmental, and substance abuse  programs and services within the political subdivision or political  subdivisions participating on the board.
    "Companion services" means assistance provided  to residents in such areas as transportation, meal preparation, shopping, light  housekeeping, companionship, and household management. 
    "Conservator" means a person appointed by the  court who is responsible for managing the estate and financial affairs of an  incapacitated person and, where the context plainly indicates, includes a  "limited conservator" or a "temporary conservator." The  term includes (i) a local or regional program designated by the Department for  Aging and Rehabilitative Services as a public conservator pursuant to Article 6  (§ 51.5-149 et seq.) of Chapter 14 of Title 51.5 of the Code of Virginia  or (ii) any local or regional tax-exempt charitable organization established  pursuant to § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code to provide  conservatorial services to incapacitated persons. Such tax-exempt charitable  organization shall not be a provider of direct services to the incapacitated  person. If a tax-exempt charitable organization has been designated by the  Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services as a public conservator, it  may also serve as a conservator for other individuals.
    "Continuous licensed nursing care" means  around-the-clock observation, assessment, monitoring, supervision, or provision  of medical treatments provided by a licensed nurse. Residents requiring  continuous licensed nursing care may include:
    1. Individuals who have a medical instability due to  complexities created by multiple, interrelated medical conditions; or
    2. Individuals with a health care condition with a high  potential for medical instability.
    "Days" means calendar days unless noted  otherwise.
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Social Services.
    "Department's representative" means an employee  or designee of the Virginia Department of Social Services, acting as an  authorized agent of the Commissioner of Social Services.
    "Dietary supplement" means a product intended  for ingestion that supplements the diet, is labeled as a dietary supplement, is  not represented as a sole item of a meal or diet, and contains a dietary  ingredient, (i.e., vitamins, minerals, amino acid, herbs or other botanicals,  dietary substances (such as enzymes), and concentrates, metabolites,  constituents, extracts, or combinations of the preceding types of ingredients).  Dietary supplements may be found in many forms, such as tablets, capsules,  liquids, or bars.
    "Direct care staff" means supervisors,  assistants, aides, or other staff of a facility who assist residents in the  performance of personal care or daily living activities.  Examples are  likely to include nursing staff, activity staff, geriatric or personal care  assistants, medication aides, and mental health workers but are not likely to  include waiters, chauffeurs, cooks, and dedicated housekeeping, maintenance,  and laundry personnel.
    "Discharge" means the movement of a resident out  of the assisted living facility.
    "Electronic" means relating to technology having  electrical, digital, magnetic, wireless, optical, electromagnetic, or similar  capabilities.
    "Electronic record" means a record created,  generated, sent, communicated, received, or stored by electronic means.
    "Electronic signature" means an electronic  sound, symbol, or process attached to or logically associated with a record and  executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record.
    "Emergency placement" means the temporary status  of an individual in an assisted living facility when the person's health and  safety would be jeopardized by denying entry into the facility until the  requirements for admission have been met.
    "Emergency restraint" means a situation that may  require the use of a restraint where the resident's behavior is unmanageable to  the degree an immediate and serious danger is presented to the health and  safety of the resident or others.
    "General supervision and oversight" means  assuming responsibility for the well-being of residents, either directly or  through contracted agents.
    "Guardian" means a person appointed by the court  who is responsible for the personal affairs of an incapacitated person,  including responsibility for making decisions regarding the person's support,  care, health, safety, habilitation, education, therapeutic treatment, and, if  not inconsistent with an order of involuntary admission, residence. Where the  context plainly indicates, the term includes a "limited guardian" or  a "temporary guardian." The term includes (i) a local or regional  program designated by the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services as a  public guardian pursuant to Article 6 (§ 51.5-149  et seq.) of Chapter 14 of Title 51.5 of the Code of Virginia or (ii) any local  or regional tax-exempt charitable organization established pursuant to §  501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code to provide guardian services to  incapacitated persons. Such tax-exempt charitable organization shall not be a  provider of direct services to the incapacitated person. If a tax-exempt  charitable organization has been designated by the Department for Aging and  Rehabilitative Services as a public guardian, it may also serve as a guardian  for other individuals. 
    "Habilitative service" means activities to  advance a normal sequence of motor skills, movement, and self-care abilities or  to prevent avoidable additional deformity or dysfunction.
    "Health care provider" means a person, corporation,  facility, or institution licensed by this Commonwealth to provide health care  or professional services, including but not limited to a physician or hospital,  dentist, pharmacist, registered or licensed practical nurse, optometrist,  podiatrist, chiropractor, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant,  clinical psychologist, or health maintenance organization.
    "Household member" means any person domiciled in  an assisted living facility other than residents or staff.
    "Imminent physical threat or danger" means clear  and present risk of sustaining or inflicting serious or life threatening  injuries.
    "Independent clinical psychologist" means a  clinical psychologist who is chosen by the resident of the assisted living  facility and who has no financial interest in the assisted living facility,  directly or indirectly, as an owner, officer, or employee or as an independent  contractor with the facility.
    "Independent living status" means that the  resident is assessed as capable of performing all activities of daily living  and instrumental activities of daily living for himself without requiring the  assistance of another person and is assessed as capable of taking medications  without the assistance of another person. If the policy of a facility dictates  that medications are administered or distributed centrally without regard for  the residents' capacity, this policy shall not be considered in determining  independent status.
    "Independent physician" means a physician who is  chosen by the resident of the assisted living facility and who has no financial  interest in the assisted living facility, directly or indirectly, as an owner,  officer, or employee or as an independent contractor with the facility. 
    "Individualized service plan" or "ISP"  means the written description of actions to be taken by the licensee, including  coordination with other services providers, to meet the assessed needs of the  resident.
    "Instrumental activities of daily living" or  "IADLs" means meal preparation, housekeeping, laundry, and managing  money. A person's degree of independence in performing these activities is a  part of determining appropriate level of care and services.
    "Intellectual disability" means disability,  originating before the age of 18 years, characterized concurrently by (i)  significantly subaverage intellectual functioning as demonstrated by  performance on a standardized measure of intellectual functioning, administered  in conformity with accepted professional practice, that is at least two  standard deviations below the mean and (ii) significant limitations in adaptive  behavior as expressed in conceptual, social, and practical adaptive skills.
    "Intermittent intravenous therapy" means therapy  provided by a licensed health care professional at medically predictable  intervals for a limited period of time on a daily or periodic basis.
    "Legal representative" means a person legally  responsible for representing or standing in the place of the resident for the  conduct of his affairs. This may include a guardian, conservator,  attorney-in-fact under durable power of attorney ("durable power of  attorney" defines the type of legal instrument used to name the  attorney-in-fact and does not change the meaning of attorney-in-fact), trustee,  or other person expressly named by a court of competent jurisdiction or the  resident as his agent in a legal document that specifies the scope of the  representative's authority to act. A legal representative may only represent or  stand in the place of a resident for the function or functions for which he has  legal authority to act. A resident is presumed competent and is responsible for  making all health care, personal care, financial, and other personal decisions  that affect his life unless a representative with legal authority has been  appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction or has been appointed by the  resident in a properly executed and signed document. A resident may have  different legal representatives for different functions. For any given  standard, the term "legal representative" applies solely to the legal  representative with the authority to act in regard to the function or functions  relevant to that particular standard. 
    "Licensed health care professional" means any  health care professional currently licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to  practice within the scope of his profession, such as a nurse practitioner,  registered nurse, licensed practical nurse (nurses may be licensed or hold  multistate licensure pursuant to § 54.1-3000 of the Code of Virginia),  clinical social worker, dentist, occupational therapist, pharmacist, physical  therapist, physician, physician assistant, psychologist, and speech-language  pathologist. Responsibilities of physicians referenced in this chapter may be  implemented by nurse practitioners or physician assistants in accordance with  their protocols or practice agreements with their supervising physicians and in  accordance with the law.
    "Licensee" means any person, association, partnership,  corporation, company, or public agency to whom the license is issued.
    "Manager" means a designated person who serves  as a manager pursuant to 22VAC40-73-170 and 22VAC40-73-180.
    "Mandated reporter" means persons specified in § 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia who are required to report matters giving  reason to suspect abuse, neglect, or exploitation of an adult.
    "Maximum physical assistance" means that an  individual has a rating of total dependence in four or more of the seven  activities of daily living as documented on the uniform assessment instrument.  An individual who can participate in any way with performance of the activity  is not considered to be totally dependent.
    "Medication aide" means a staff person who has  current registration with the Virginia Board of Nursing to administer drugs  that would otherwise be self-administered to residents in an assisted living  facility in accordance with the Regulations Governing the Registration of  Medication Aides (18VAC90-60). This definition also includes a staff person who  is an applicant for registration as a medication aide in accordance with  subdivision 2 of 22VAC40-73-670.
    "Mental illness" means a disorder of thought,  mood, emotion, perception, or orientation that significantly impairs judgment,  behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to address basic life  necessities and requires care and treatment for the health, safety, or recovery  of the individual or for the safety of others.
    "Mental impairment" means a disability that  reduces an individual's ability to reason logically, make  appropriate decisions, or engage in purposeful behavior.
    "Minimal assistance" means dependency in only  one activity of daily living or dependency in one or more of the instrumental  activities of daily living as documented on the uniform assessment instrument.
    "Moderate assistance" means dependency in two or  more of the activities of daily living as documented on the uniform assessment  instrument.
    "Nonambulatory" means the condition of a  resident who by reason of physical or mental impairment is not capable of  self-preservation without the assistance of another person.
    "Nonemergency restraint" means circumstances  that may require the use of a restraint for the purpose of providing support to  a physically weakened resident.
    "Physical impairment" means a condition of a  bodily or sensory nature that reduces an individual's ability to function or to  perform activities.
    "Physical restraint" means any manual method or  physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached or adjacent to  the resident's body that the resident cannot remove easily, which restricts  freedom of movement or access to his body.
    "Physician" means an individual licensed to  practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in any of the 50 states or the  District of Columbia.
    "Prescriber" means a practitioner who is  authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 of the Code of Virginia to  issue a prescription.
    "Private duty personnel" means an individual  hired, either directly or through a licensed home care organization, by a  resident, family member, legal representative, or similar entity to provide  one-on-one services to the resident, such as a private duty nurse, home  attendant, personal aide, or companion. Private duty personnel are not hired by  the facility, either directly or through a contract. 
    "Private pay" means that a resident of an  assisted living facility is not eligible for benefits under the Auxiliary  Grants Program.
    "Psychopharmacologic drug" means any drug  prescribed or administered with the intent of controlling mood, mental status,  or behavior. Psychopharmacologic drugs include not only the obvious drug  classes, such as antipsychotic, antidepressants, and the antianxiety/hypnotic  class, but any drug that is prescribed or administered with the intent of  controlling mood, mental status, or behavior, regardless of the manner in which  it is marketed by the manufacturers and regardless of labeling or other  approvals by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
    "Public pay" means that a resident of an  assisted living facility is eligible for benefits under the Auxiliary Grants  Program.
    "Qualified" means having appropriate training  and experience commensurate with assigned responsibilities, or if referring to  a professional, possessing an appropriate degree or having documented  equivalent education, training, or experience. There are specific definitions  for "qualified assessor" and "qualified mental health  professional" in this section. 
    "Qualified assessor" means an individual who is authorized  to perform an assessment, reassessment, or change in level of care for an  applicant to or resident of an assisted living facility. For public pay  individuals, a qualified assessor is an employee of a public human services  agency trained in the completion of the uniform assessment instrument (UAI).  For private pay individuals, a qualified assessor is an employee of the  assisted living facility trained in the completion of the UAI or an independent  private physician or a qualified assessor for public pay individuals.
    "Qualified mental health professional" means a  behavioral health professional who is trained and experienced in providing  psychiatric or mental health services to individuals who have a psychiatric  diagnosis, including (i) a physician licensed in Virginia; (ii) a psychologist:  an individual with a master's degree in psychology from a college or university  accredited by an association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education,  with at least one year of clinical experience; (iii) a social worker: an  individual with at least a master's degree in human services or related field  (e.g., social work, psychology, psychiatric rehabilitation, sociology,  counseling, vocational rehabilitation, or human services counseling) from  college or university accredited by an association recognized by the U.S.  Secretary of Education, with at least one year of clinical experience providing  direct services to persons with a diagnosis of mental illness; (iv) a  registered psychiatric rehabilitation provider (RPRP) registered with the  International Association of Psychosocial Rehabilitation Services (IAPSRS); (v)  a clinical nurse specialist or psychiatric nurse practitioner licensed in the  Commonwealth of Virginia with at least one year of clinical experience working  in a mental health treatment facility or agency; (vi) any other licensed mental  health professional; or (vii) any other person deemed by the Department of  Behavioral Health and Developmental Services as having qualifications  equivalent to those described in this definition. Any unlicensed person who  meets the requirements contained in this definition shall either be under the  supervision of a licensed mental health professional or employed by an agency  or organization licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services.
    "Rehabilitative services" means activities that  are ordered by a physician or other qualified health care professional that are  provided by a rehabilitative therapist (e.g., physical therapist, occupational therapist,  or speech-language pathologist). These activities may be necessary when a  resident has demonstrated a change in his capabilities and are provided to  restore or improve his level of functioning.
    "Resident" means any adult residing in an  assisted living facility for the purpose of receiving maintenance or care.
    "Residential living care" means a level of  service provided by an assisted living facility for adults who may have  physical or mental impairments and require only minimal assistance with the  activities of daily living. Included in this level of service are individuals  who are dependent in medication administration as documented on the uniform  assessment instrument, although they may not require minimal assistance with  the activities of daily living. This definition includes the services provided  by the facility to individuals who are assessed as capable of maintaining  themselves in an independent living status.
    "Respite care" means services provided in an  assisted living facility for the maintenance or care of aged, infirm, or  disabled adults for a temporary period of time or temporary periods of time  that are regular or intermittent. Facilities offering this type of care are  subject to this chapter.
    "Restorative care" means activities designed to  assist the resident in reaching or maintaining his level of potential. These  activities are not required to be provided by a rehabilitative therapist and  may include activities such as range of motion, assistance with ambulation,  positioning, assistance and instruction in the activities of daily living,  psychosocial skills training, and reorientation and reality orientation.
    "Restraint" means either "physical  restraint" or "chemical restraint" as these terms are defined in  this section.
    "Safe, secure environment" means a  self-contained special care unit for individuals with serious cognitive  impairments due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia who cannot  recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare. There may be one or  more self-contained special care units in a facility or the whole facility may  be a special care unit. Nothing in this definition limits or contravenes the  privacy protections set forth in § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Sanitizing" means treating in such a way to  remove bacteria and viruses through using a disinfectant solution (e.g., bleach  solution or commercial chemical disinfectant) or physical agent (e.g., heat).
    "Serious cognitive impairment" means severe  deficit in mental capability of a chronic, enduring, or long-term nature that  affects areas such as thought processes, problem-solving, judgment, memory, and  comprehension and that interferes with such things as reality orientation,  ability to care for self, ability to recognize danger to self or others, and  impulse control. Such cognitive impairment is not due to acute or episodic  conditions, nor conditions arising from treatable metabolic or chemical  imbalances or caused by reactions to medication or toxic substances. For the  purposes of this chapter, serious cognitive impairment means that an individual  cannot recognize danger or protect his own safety and welfare. Serious  cognitive impairment involves an assessment by a clinical psychologist licensed  to practice in the Commonwealth or by a physician as specified in  22VAC40-73-1090.
    "Significant change" means a change in a  resident's condition that is expected to last longer than 30 days. It does not  include short-term changes that resolve with or without intervention, a  short-term acute illness or episodic event, or a well-established, predictive,  cyclic pattern of clinical signs and symptoms associated with a previously  diagnosed condition where an appropriate course of treatment is in progress.
    "Skilled nursing treatment" means a service  ordered by a physician or other prescriber that is provided by and within the  scope of practice of a licensed nurse.
    "Skills training" means systematic skill  building through curriculum-based psychoeducational and cognitive-behavioral  interventions. These interventions break down complex objectives for role  performance into simpler components, including basic cognitive skills such as  attention, to facilitate learning and competency.
    "Staff" or "staff person" means  personnel working at a facility who are compensated or have a financial  interest in the facility, regardless of role, service, age, function, or  duration of employment at the facility. "Staff" or "staff  person" also includes those individuals hired through a contract to  provide services for the facility.
    "Substance abuse" means the use, without  compelling medical reason, of alcohol or other legal or illegal drugs that  results in psychological or physiological dependency or danger to self or  others as a function of continued use in such a manner as to induce mental, emotional,  or physical impairment and cause socially dysfunctional or socially disordering  behavior.
    "Systems review" means a physical examination of  the body to determine if the person is experiencing problems or distress,  including cardiovascular system, respiratory system, gastrointestinal system,  urinary system, endocrine system, musculoskeletal system, nervous system,  sensory system, and the skin.
    "Transfer" means movement of a resident to a  different assigned living area within the same licensed facility.
    "Trustee" means one who stands in a fiduciary or  confidential relation to another; especially, one who, having legal title to  property, holds it in trust for the benefit of another and owes a fiduciary  duty to that beneficiary.
    "Uniform assessment instrument" or  "UAI" means the department designated assessment form. There is an  alternate version of the form that may be used for private pay residents.  Social and financial information that is not relevant because of the resident's  payment status is not included on the private pay version of the form.
    "Volunteer" means a person who works at an  assisted living facility who is not compensated. This does not include persons  who, either as an individual or as part of an organization, present at or  facilitate group activities.
    22VAC40-73-20. Requirements of law and applicability.
    A. Chapters 17 (§ 63.2-1700 et seq.) and 18  (§ 63.2-1800 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia include  requirements of law relating to licensure, including licensure of assisted  living facilities.
    B. This chapter applies to assisted living facilities as  defined in § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia and in 22VAC40-73-10.
    1. Each assisted living facility shall comply with Parts I  (22VAC40-73-10 et seq.) through IX (22VAC40-73-950 et seq.) of this chapter.
    2. An assisted living facility that cares for adults with  serious cognitive impairments shall also comply with Part X (22VAC40-73-1000 et  seq.) of this chapter.
    22VAC40-73-30. Program of care.
    There shall be a program of care that:
    1. Meets the resident population's physical, mental,  emotional, and psychosocial needs;
    2. Provides protection, guidance, and supervision;
    3. Promotes a sense of security, self-worth, and  independence; and
    4. Promotes the resident's involvement with appropriate  community resources.
    Part II
  Administration and Administrative Services
    22VAC40-73-40. Licensee.
    A. The licensee shall ensure compliance with all  regulations for licensed assisted living facilities and terms of the license  issued by the department; with relevant federal, state, and local laws; with  other relevant regulations; and with the facility's own policies and  procedures.
    B. The licensee shall:
    1. Give evidence of financial responsibility and solvency.
    2. Be of good character and reputation in accordance with  § 63.2-1702 of the Code of Virginia. Character and reputation  investigation includes, but is not limited to, background checks as required by  § 63.2-1721 of the Code of Virginia.
    3. Meet the requirements specified in the Regulation for  Background Checks for Assisted Living Facilities and Adult Day Care Centers  (22VAC40-90).
    4. Act in accordance with General Procedures and  Information for Licensure (22VAC40-80). 
    5. Protect the physical and mental well-being of residents.
    6. Exercise general supervision over the affairs of the  licensed facility and establish policies and procedures concerning its  operation in conformance with applicable law, this chapter, and the welfare of  the residents.
    7. Ensure that he or his relatives, his agents or agents'  relatives, the facility administrator or administrator's relatives, or facility  staff shall not act as, seek to become, or become the conservator or guardian  of any resident unless specifically so appointed by a court of competent  jurisdiction pursuant to Article 1 (§ 64.1-2000 et seq.) of Chapter 20 of  Title 64.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    8. Ensure that the current license is posted in the  facility in a place conspicuous to the residents and the public.
    9. Ensure that the facility keeps and maintains at the  facility records, reports, plans, schedules, and other information as required  by this chapter for licensed assisted living facilities. 
    10. Ensure that any document required by this chapter to be  posted shall be in at least 12-point type or equivalent size. 
    11. Make certain that when it is time to discard records,  they are disposed of in a manner that ensures confidentiality. 
    12. Ensure that at all times the department's  representative is afforded reasonable opportunity to inspect all of the facility's  buildings, books, and records and to interview agents, employees, residents,  and any person under its custody, control, direction, or supervision. 
    C. Upon initial application for an assisted living  facility license, any person applying to operate such a facility who has not  previously owned or managed or does not currently own or manage a licensed  assisted living facility shall be required to undergo training by the  commissioner. Such training shall be required of those owners and currently  employed administrators of an assisted living facility at the time of initial  application for a license.
    1. The commissioner may also approve training programs  provided by other entities and allow owners or administrators to attend such  approved training programs in lieu of training by the commissioner.
    2. The commissioner may at his discretion also approve for  licensure applicants who meet requisite experience criteria as established by  the board.
    3. The training programs shall focus on the health and  safety regulations and resident rights as they pertain to assisted living  facilities and shall be completed by the owner or administrator prior to the  granting of an initial license.
    4. The commissioner may, at his discretion, issue a license  conditioned upon the completion by the owner or administrator of the required  training.
    D. The licensee shall notify in writing the regional  licensing office of intent to sell or voluntarily close the facility no less  than 60 days prior to the sale date or closure. The following shall apply:
    1. No less than 60 days prior to the planned sale date or  closure, the licensee shall notify the residents, and as relevant, legal  representatives, case managers, eligibility workers, and designated contact  persons of the intended sale or closure of the facility and the date for such. 
    2. If plans are made at such time that 60-day notice is not  possible, the licensee shall notify the regional licensing office, the  residents, legal representatives, case managers, eligibility workers, and  designated contact persons as soon as the intent to sell or close the facility  is known.
    3. If the facility is to be sold, at the time of  notification specified in subdivision 1 of this subsection, the licensee shall  explain to each resident, his legal representative, case manager, and at least  one designated contact person that the resident can choose whether to stay or  relocate, unless the new licensee specifies relocation. If a resident chooses  to stay, there must be a new resident agreement between the resident and the  new licensee that meets the specifications of 22VAC40-73-390.
    4. The licensee shall provide updates regarding the closure  or sale of the facility to the regional licensing office, as requested.
    22VAC40-73-50. Disclosure.
    A. The assisted living facility shall prepare and provide  a statement to the prospective resident and his legal representative, if any,  that discloses information about the facility. The statement shall be on a form  developed by the department and shall:
    1. Disclose information fully and accurately in plain  language;
    2. Be provided in advance of admission and prior to signing  an admission agreement or contract;
    3. Be provided upon request; and
    4. Disclose the following information, which shall be kept  current:
    a. Name of the facility;
    b. Name of the licensee;
    c. Ownership structure of the facility (e.g., individual,  partnership, corporation, limited liability company, unincorporated  association, or public agency);
    d. Description of all accommodations, services, and care  that the facility offers;
    e. Fees charged for accommodations, services, and care,  including clear information about what is included in the base fee and all fees  for additional accommodations, services, and care;
    f. Criteria for admission to the facility and restrictions  on admission;
    g. Criteria for transfer to a different living area within  the same facility, including transfer to another level or type of care within  the same facility or complex;
    h. Criteria for discharge;
    i. Categories, frequency, and number of activities provided  for residents; 
    j. General number, position types, and qualifications of  staff on each shift;
    k. Notation that additional information about the facility  that is included in the resident agreement is available upon request; and
    l. The department's website address, with a note that  additional information about the facility may be obtained from the website,  including type of license, capacity, special services, and most recent years'  compliance history.
    B. Written acknowledgment of the receipt of the disclosure  by the resident or his legal representative shall be retained in the resident's  record.
    C. The disclosure statement shall also be available to the  general public, upon request.
    22VAC40-73-60. Electronic records and signatures.
    A. Use of electronic records or signatures shall comply  with the provisions of the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act, §§ 59.1-479  through 59.1-501 of the Code of Virginia.
    B. In addition to the requirements of the Uniform  Electronic Transactions Act, the use of electronic signatures shall be deemed  to constitute a signature and have the same effect as a written signature on a  document as long as the licensee:
    1. Develops, implements, and maintains specific policies  and procedures for the use of electronic signatures;
    2. Ensures that each electronic signature identifies the  individual signing the document by name and title;
    3. Ensures that the document cannot be altered after the  signature has been affixed;
    4. Ensures that access to the code or key sequence is limited;
    5. Ensures that all users have signed statements that they  alone have access to and use the key or computer password for their signature  and will not share their key or password with others; and
    6. Ensures that strong and substantial evidence exists that  would make it difficult for the signer or the receiving party to claim the  electronic representation is not valid.
    C. A back-up and security system shall be utilized for all  electronic documents.
    22VAC40-73-70. Incident reports.
    A. Each facility shall report to the regional licensing  office within 24 hours any major incident that has negatively affected or that  threatens the life, health, safety, or welfare of any resident. 
    B. The report required in subsection A of this section  shall include (i) the name of the facility, (ii) the name or names of the  resident or residents involved in the incident, (iii) the name of the person  making the report, (iv) the date of the incident, (v) a description of the  incident, and (vi) the actions taken in response to the incident.
    C. The facility shall submit a written report of each  incident specified in subsection A of this section to the regional licensing  office within seven days from the date of the incident. The report shall be  signed and dated by the administrator and include the following information:
    1. Name and address of the facility;
    2. Name of the resident or residents involved in the  incident;
    3. Date and time of the incident;
    4. Description of the incident, the circumstances under  which it happened, and when applicable, extent of injury or damage;
    5. Location of the incident;
    6. Actions taken in response to the incident;
    7. Actions to prevent recurrence of the incident, if  applicable;
    8. Name of staff person in charge at the time of the  incident;
    9 . Names, telephone numbers, and addresses of witnesses to  the incident, if any; and
    10. Name, title, and signature of the person making the  report, if other than the administrator, and date of the completion of the  report. 
    D. The facility shall submit to the regional licensing  office amendments to the written report when circumstances require, such as  when substantial additional actions are taken, when significant new  information becomes available, or there is resolution of the incident after  submission of the report.
    E. A copy of the written report of each incident shall be  maintained by the facility for at least two years.
    F. If applicable, the facility shall ensure that there is  documentation in the resident's record as required by 22VAC40-73-470 F. 
    22VAC40-73-80. Management and control of resident funds.
    Pursuant to § 63.2-1808 A 3 of the Code of Virginia, the  resident shall be free to manage his personal finances and funds regardless of  source, unless a committee, conservator, or guardian has been appointed for a  resident. However the resident may request that the facility assist with the  management of personal funds, and the facility may assist the resident in such  management under the following conditions:
    1. There shall be documentation of this request and  delegation, signed and dated by the resident and the administrator. The  documentation shall be maintained in the resident's record.
    2. Residents' funds shall be held separately from any other  moneys of the facility. Residents' funds shall not be borrowed, used as assets  of the facility, or used for purposes of personal interest by the licensee,  operator, administrator, or facility staff.
    3. The resident shall be given a choice of whether he  wishes his funds to be maintained in an individual resident account, which may  be interest-bearing, or in a single account for the accumulated funds of  multiple residents, which shall not be interest-bearing. 
    4. For residents who are not recipients of an auxiliary  grant, the facility may charge a reasonable amount for administration of the  account.
    5. The facility shall maintain a written accounting of  money received and disbursed by the facility that shows a current balance. The  written accounting of the funds shall be made available to the resident at  least quarterly and upon request, and a copy shall also be placed in the  resident's record. 
    6. The resident's funds shall be made available to the  resident upon request.
    22VAC40-73-90. Safeguarding residents' funds.
    No facility administrator or staff person shall act as  either attorney‑in‑fact or trustee unless the resident has no other  preferred designee and the resident himself expressly requests such service by  or through facility personnel. When the facility administrator or staff person  acts as attorney-in-fact or trustee, the following applies:
    1. There shall be documentation that the resident has  requested such service and from whom, signed and dated by the resident, the  facility administrator, and if a staff person is to provide the service, the  staff person. The documentation shall be maintained in the resident's record.
    2. The facility administrator or staff person so named  attorney-in-fact or trustee shall be accountable at all times in the proper  discharge of such fiduciary responsibility as provided under Virginia law. 
    3. The facility shall maintain a written accounting of  money received and disbursed by the facility administrator or staff person that  shows a current balance. The written accounting of the funds shall be made  available to the resident at least quarterly and upon request, and a copy shall  also be placed in the resident's record. 
    4. The resident's funds shall be made available to the  resident upon request.
    5. Upon termination of the power of attorney or trust for  any reason, the facility administrator or staff person so named  attorney-in-fact or trustee shall return all funds and assets, with full  accounting, to the resident or to another responsible party expressly  designated by the resident.
    22VAC40-73-100. Infection control program.
    A. The assisted living facility shall develop, in writing,  and implement an infection control program addressing the surveillance,  prevention, and control of disease and infection that is consistent with the  federal Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines and the  federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) bloodborne  pathogens regulations.
    1. A licensed health care professional, practicing within  the scope of his profession and with training in infection prevention, shall  participate in the development of infection prevention policies and procedures  and shall assure compliance with applicable guidelines and regulations.
    2. The administrator shall ensure at least an annual review  of infection prevention policies and procedures for any necessary updates. A  licensed health care professional, practicing within the scope of his  profession and with training in infection prevention, shall be included in the  review to assure compliance with applicable guidelines and regulations.  Documentation of the review shall be maintained at the facility. 
    3. A staff person who has been trained in basic infection  prevention shall participate in the annual review and serve as point of contact  for the program. This person shall be responsible for on-going monitoring of  the implementation of the infection control program. 
    B. The infection control program shall be applicable to  all staff and volunteers and encompass all services as well as the entire  physical plant and grounds.
    C. The infection control program shall include: 
    1. Procedures for the implementation of infection  prevention measures by staff and volunteers to include:
    a. Use of standard precautions;
    b. Use of personal protective equipment; and
    c. Means to assure hand hygiene.
    2. Procedures for other infection prevention measures  related to job duties to include, but not be limited to:
    a. Determination of whether prospective or returning  residents have acute infectious disease and use of appropriate measures to  prevent disease transmission;
    b. Use of safe injection practices and other procedures  where the potential for exposure to blood or body fluids exists; 
    c. Blood glucose monitoring practices that are consistent  with CDC guidelines. When providing assisted blood glucose monitoring, only  single-use auto-retractable disposable lancets may be used;
    d. The handling, storing, processing, and transporting of  linens, supplies, and equipment in a manner that prevents the spread of  infection; 
    e. The sanitation of rooms, including cleaning and  disinfecting procedures, agents, and schedules;
    f. The sanitation of equipment, including medical equipment  that may be used on more than one resident (e.g., blood glucose meters and  blood pressure cuffs, including cleaning and disinfecting procedures, agents,  and schedules); 
    g. The handling, storing, processing, and transporting of  medical waste in accordance with applicable regulations; and
    h. Maintenance of an effective pest control program.
    3. Readily accessible handwashing equipment and necessary  personal protective equipment for staff and volunteers (e.g., soap,  alcohol-based hand rubs, disposable towels or hot air dryers, and gloves).
    4. Product specific instructions for use of cleaning and  disinfecting agents (e.g., dilution, contact time, and management of accidental  exposures).
    5. Initial training as specified in 22VAC40-73-120 C 4 and  annual retraining of staff and volunteers in infection prevention methods, as  applicable to job responsibilities.
    D. The facility shall have a staff health program that includes:
    1. Provision of information on recommended vaccinations,  per guidelines from the CDC Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices  (ACIP), to facility staff and volunteers who have any potential exposure to  residents or to infectious materials, including body substances, contaminated  medical supplies and equipment, contaminated environmental surfaces, or  contaminated air;
    2. Assurance that employees with communicable diseases are  identified and prevented from work activities that could result in transmission  to other personnel or residents;
    3. An exposure control plan for bloodborne pathogens;
    4. Documentation of screening and immunizations offered to,  received by, or declined by employees in accordance with law, regulation, or  recommendations of public health authorities, including access to hepatitis B  vaccine;
    5. Compliance with requirements of the OSHA for reporting  of workplace associated injuries or exposure to infection. 
    E. The facility administrator shall immediately make or  cause to be made a report of an outbreak of disease as defined by the State  Board of Health. Such report shall be made by rapid means to the local health  director or to the Commissioner of the Virginia Department of Health and to the  licensing representative of the Department of Social Services in the regional  licensing office. 
    F. When recommendations are made by the Virginia  Department of Health to prevent or control transmission of an infectious agent  in the facility, the recommendations must be followed.
    Part III
  Personnel
    22VAC40-73-110. Staff general qualifications.
    All staff shall:
    1. Be considerate and respectful of the rights, dignity,  and sensitivities of persons who are aged, infirm, or disabled; 
    2. Be able to speak, read, and write in English as  necessary to carry out their job responsibilities; and 
    3. Meet the requirements specified in the Regulation for  Background Checks for Assisted Living Facilities and Adult Day Care Centers  (22VAC40-90).
    22VAC40-73-120. Staff orientation and initial training.
    A. The orientation and training required in subsections B  and C of this section shall occur within the first seven working days of  employment. Until this orientation and training is completed, the staff person  may only assume job responsibilities if under the sight supervision of a  trained direct care staff person or administrator. 
    B. All staff shall be oriented to:
    1. The purpose of the facility;
    2. The facility's organizational structure;
    3. The services provided;
    4. The daily routines; 
    5. The facility's policies and procedures;
    6. Specific duties and responsibilities of their positions;  and
    7. Required compliance with regulations for assisted living  facilities as it relates to their duties and responsibilities.
    C. All staff shall be trained in the relevant laws, regulations,  and the facility's policies and procedures sufficiently to implement:
    1. Emergency and disaster plans for the facility;
    2. Procedures for the handling of resident emergencies;
    3. Use of the first aid kit and knowledge of its location;
    4. Handwashing techniques, standard precautions, infection  risk-reduction behavior, and other infection control measures specified in  22VAC40-73-100;
    5. Confidential treatment of personal information;
    6. Requirements regarding the rights and responsibilities  of residents;
    7. Requirements and procedures for detecting and reporting  suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of residents and for mandated  reporters, the consequences for failing to make a required report, as set out  in § 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia;
    8. Procedures for reporting and documenting incidents as  required in 22VAC40-73-70;
    9. Methods of alleviating common adjustment problems that  may occur when a resident moves from one residential environment to another;  and
    10. For direct care staff, the needs, preferences, and  routines of the residents for whom they will provide care.
    22VAC40-73-130. Reports of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
    All staff who are mandated reporters under  § 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia shall report suspected abuse, neglect,  or exploitation of residents in accordance with that section. 
    22VAC40-73-140. Administrator qualifications.
    A. The administrator shall be at least 21 years of age.
    B. The administrator shall be able to read and write, and  understand this chapter.
    C. The administrator shall be able to perform the duties  and carry out the responsibilities required by this chapter.
    D. For a facility licensed only for residential living  care that does not employ an administrator licensed by the Virginia Board of  Long-Term Care Administrators, the administrator shall:
    1. Be a high school graduate or shall have a General  Education Development (GED) Certificate;
    2. (i) Have successfully completed at least 30 credit hours  of postsecondary education from a college or university accredited by an  association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education and at least 15 of  the 30 credit hours shall be in business or human services or a combination  thereof; (ii) have successfully completed a course of study approved by the  department that is specific to the administration of an assisted living  facility; (iii) have a bachelor's degree from a college or university  accredited by an association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education; or  (iv) be a licensed nurse; and
    3. Have at least one year of administrative or supervisory  experience in caring for adults in a residential group care facility.
    The requirements of this subsection shall not apply to an  administrator of an assisted living facility employed prior to the effective  date of these regulations, who met the requirements in effect when employed and  who has been continuously employed as an assisted living facility  administrator.
    E. For a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, the administrator shall be licensed by the Virginia Board  of Long-Term Care Administrators as required by § 63.2-1803 of the Code of  Virginia.
    22VAC40-73-150. Administrator provisions and  responsibilities.
    A. Each facility shall have an administrator of record.
    B. If an administrator dies, resigns, is discharged, or  becomes unable to perform his duties, the facility shall immediately employ a  new administrator or appoint a qualified acting administrator. 
    1. The facility shall notify the department's regional licensing  office in writing within 14 days of a change in a facility's administrator,  including but not limited to the resignation of an administrator, appointment  of an acting administrator, and appointment of a new administrator, except that  the time period for notification may differ as specified in subdivision 2 of  this subsection.
    2. A facility licensed for both residential and assisted  living care shall comply with the notice requirements set out in  § 63.2-1803 B of the Code of Virginia. 
    3. For a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, when an acting administrator is named, he shall meet the  qualifications and notice requirements set out in § 63.2-1803 B of the  Code of Virginia. 
    4. A facility licensed only for residential living care may  be operated by an acting administrator for no more than 90 days from the last  date of employment of the administrator.
    5. A facility licensed for both residential and assisted  living care may be operated by an acting administrator in accordance with the  time frames set out in § 63.2-1803 B and C of the Code of Virginia.
    6. A person may not become an acting administrator at any  assisted living facility if the Virginia Board of Long-Term Care Administrators  has refused to issue or renew, suspended, or revoked his assisted living  facility or nursing home administrator license. 
    7. No assisted living facility shall operate under the  supervision of an acting administrator pursuant to §§ 54.1-3103.1 and 63.2-1803 of the Code of Virginia more than one time during any two-year period  unless authorized to do so by the department.
    C. The administrator shall be responsible for the general  administration and management of the facility and shall oversee the day-to-day  operation of the facility. This shall include but shall not be limited to  responsibility for:
    1.Ensuring that care is provided to residents in a manner  that protects their health, safety, and well-being; 
    2. Maintaining compliance with applicable laws and  regulations;
    3. Developing and implementing all policies, procedures,  and services as required by this chapter;
    4. Ensuring staff and volunteers comply with residents'  rights;
    5. Maintaining buildings and grounds;
    6. Recruiting, hiring, training, and supervising staff; and
    7. Ensuring the development, implementation, and monitoring  of an individualized service plan for each resident, except that a plan is not  required for a resident with independent living status.
    D. The administrator shall report to the Director of the  Department of Health Professions information required by and in accordance with  § 54.1-2400.6 of the Code of Virginia regarding any person (i) licensed,  certified, or registered by a health regulatory board or (ii) holding a  multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or an applicant for  licensure, certification, or registration. Information required to be reported,  under specified circumstances includes but is not limited to substance abuse  and unethical or fraudulent conduct.
    E. For a facility licensed only for residential living  care, either the administrator or a designated assistant who meets the  qualifications of the administrator shall be awake and on duty on the premises  at least 40 hours per week with no fewer than 24 of those hours being during  the day shift on weekdays.
    Exceptions:
    1. 22VAC40-73-170 allows a shared administrator for smaller  facilities.
    2. If the administrator is licensed as an assisted living  facility administrator or nursing home administrator by the Virginia Board of  Long-Term Care Administrators, the provisions regarding the administrator in  subsection F of this section apply. When such is the case, there is no  requirement for a designated assistant.
    F. For a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, the administrator shall serve on a full-time basis as the  on-site agent of the licensee and shall be responsible for the day-to-day  administration and management of the facility, except as provided in  22VAC40-73-170.
    G. The administrator, acting administrator, or as allowed  in subsection E of this section, designated assistant administrator, shall not  be a resident of the facility.
    22VAC40-73-160. Administrator training.
    A. For a facility licensed only for residential living  care that does not employ a licensed administrator, the administrator shall  attend at least 20 hours of training related to management or operation of a  residential facility for adults or relevant to the population in care within 12  months from the date of employment and annually thereafter from that date. At least  two of the required 20 hours of training shall focus on infection control and  prevention, and when adults with mental impairments reside in the facility, at  least six of the required 20 hours shall focus on topics related to residents'  mental impairments. Documentation of attendance shall be retained at the  facility and shall include type of training, name of the entity that provided  the training, and date and number of hours of training.
    B. All licensed administrators shall meet the continuing  education requirements for continued licensure.
    C. Any administrator who has not previously undergone the  training specified in 22VAC40-73-40 C shall be required to complete that  training within two months of employment as administrator of the facility. The  training may be counted toward the annual training requirement for the first  year, except that for licensed administrators, whether the training counts  toward continuing education and for what period of time depends upon the  administrator licensure requirements. Administrators employed prior to December  28, 2006, are not required to complete this training.
    D. Administrators who supervise medication aides, but are  not registered medication aides themselves, shall successfully complete a  training program approved by the Virginia Board of Nursing for the registration  of medication aides. The training program for such administrators must include  a minimum of 68 hours of student instruction and training, but need not include  the prerequisite for the program or the written examination for registration.  The training shall be completed prior to supervising medication aides and may  be counted toward the annual training requirement in subsection A of this  section, except that for licensed administrators, whether the training counts  toward continuing education and for what period of time depends upon the  administrator licensure requirements. The following exceptions apply:
    1. The administrator is licensed by the Commonwealth of  Virginia to administer medications; or
    2. Medication aides are supervised by an individual  employed full time at the facility who is licensed by the Commonwealth of  Virginia to administer medications. 
    E. Administrators who have completed the training program  specified in subsection D of this section and who supervise medication aides  shall be required to annually have (i) four hours of training in medication  administration specific to the facility population or (ii) a refresher course  in medication administration offered by a Virginia Board of Nursing approved  program. Administrators are exempt from this annual medication training or  refresher course during the first year after completion of the training program  noted in subsection D of this section. This annual medication administration  training or course may not be counted toward the annual training requirement  specified in subsection A of this section. For licensed administrators, whether  the training counts toward continuing education and for what period of time  depends upon the administrator licensure requirements. 
    F. If a designated assistant administrator, as allowed in  22VAC40-73-150 E supervises medication aides, the requirements of subsections D  and E of this section apply to the designated assistant administrator. 
    22VAC40-73-170. Shared administrator for smaller facilities.
    A. An administrator who is not licensed as an assisted  living facility administrator or nursing home administrator by the Virginia  Board of Long-Term Care Administrators is allowed to be present at a facility  for fewer than the required minimum 40 hours per week in order to serve  multiple facilities, without a designated assistant, under the following  conditions:
    1. The administrator shall serve no more than four  facilities.
    2. The combined total licensed capacity of the facilities  served by the administrator shall be 40 or fewer residents.
    3. The administrator shall be awake and on duty on the  premises of each facility served for at least 10 hours a week.
    4. The administrator shall serve as a full-time  administrator (i.e., shall be awake and on duty on the premises of all  facilities served for a combined total of at least 40 hours a week).
    5. Each of the facilities served shall be within a  30-minute average one-way travel time of the other facilities.
    6. When not present at a facility, the administrator shall  be on call to that facility during the hours he is working as an administrator  and shall maintain such accessibility through suitable communication devices.
    7. A designated assistant may act in place of the administrator  during the required minimum of 40 hours only if the administrator is ill or on  vacation and for a period of time that shall not exceed four consecutive weeks.  The designated assistant shall meet the qualifications of the administrator.
    8. Each of the facilities served shall have a manager,  designated and supervised by the administrator. The manager shall be awake and  on duty on the premises of the facility for the remaining part of the 40  required hours per week when the administrator or designated assistant is not  present at the facility. The manager shall meet the following qualifications  and requirements:
    a. The manager shall be at least 21 years of age.
    b. The manager shall be able to read and write, and  understand this chapter.
    c. The manager shall be able to perform the duties and to  carry out the responsibilities of his position.
    d. The manager shall: 
    (1) Be a high school graduate or have a General Education  Development (GED) Certificate;
    (2) (i) Have successfully completed at least 30 credit hours  of postsecondary education from a college or university accredited by an  association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education and at least 15 of  the 30 credit hours shall be in business or human services or a combination  thereof; (ii) have successfully completed a course of study of 40 or more hours  approved by the department that is specific to the management of an assisted  living facility; (iii) have a bachelor's degree from a college or university  accredited by an association recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education; or  (iv) be a licensed nurse; and
    (3) Have at least one year of administrative or supervisory  experience in caring for adults in a residential group care facility. 
    e. Subdivision 8 d of this subsection does not apply to a  manager of an assisted living facility employed prior to the effective date of  this chapter who met the requirements in effect when employed and who has been  continuously employed as an assisted living facility manager. 
    f. The manager shall not be a resident of the facility.
    g. The manager shall complete the training specified in  22VAC40-73-40 C within two months of employment as manager. The training may be  counted toward the annual training requirement for the first year.
    Exception: A manager employed prior to December 28, 2006,  who met the requirements in effect when employed and who has been continuously  employed as a manager. 
    h. The manager shall attend at least 20 hours of training  related to management or operation of a residential facility for adults or  relevant to the population in care within each 12-month period. When adults  with mental impairments reside in the facility, at least six of the required 20  hours of training shall focus on topics related to residents' mental  impairments and at least two of the required 20 hours on infection control and  prevention. Documentation of attendance shall be retained at the facility and  shall include title of course, name of the entity that provided the training,  and date and number of hours of training.
    9. There shall be a written management plan for each  facility that describes how the administrator will oversee the care and  supervision of the residents and the day-to-day operation of the facility.
    10. The minimum of 40 hours per week required for the  administrator or manager to be awake and on duty on the premises of a facility  shall include at least 24 hours during the day shift on weekdays.
    B. An administrator, who is licensed as an assisted living  facility administrator or nursing home administrator by the Virginia Board of  Long-Term Care Administrators, may be responsible for the day-to-day  administration and management of multiple facilities under the following  conditions:
    1. The administrator shall serve no more than four  facilities.
    2. The combined total licensed capacity of the facilities  served by the administrator shall be 40 or fewer residents.
    3. The administrator shall serve on a full-time basis as  the on-site agent of the licensee or licensees, proportioning his time among  all the facilities served in order to ensure that he provides sufficient  administrative and management functions to each facility.
    4. Each of the facilities served shall be within a  30-minute average one-way travel time of the other facilities.
    5. When not present at a facility, the administrator shall  be on call to that facility during the hours he is working as an administrator  and shall maintain such accessibility through suitable communication devices.
    6. Each of the facilities served shall have a manager,  designated and supervised by the administrator, to assist the administrator in  overseeing the care and supervision of the residents and the day-to-day  operation of the facility. The majority of the time, the administrator and the  manager shall be present at a facility at different times to ensure appropriate  oversight of the facility. The manager shall meet the qualifications and  requirements specified in subdivision A 8 of this section. 
    Exception: In regard to subdivision A 8 of this section,  the reference to 40 hours is not relevant to a facility to which this  subsection applies (i.e., a facility with a licensed administrator).
    7. There shall be a written management plan for each  facility that includes written policies and procedures that describe how the  administrator shall oversee the care and supervision of the residents and the  day-to-day operation of the facility.
    C. This section shall not apply to an administrator who  serves both an assisted living facility and a nursing home as provided for in  22VAC40-73-180.
    22VAC40-73-180. Administrator of both assisted living  facility and nursing home.
    A. Any person meeting the qualifications for a licensed  nursing home administrator pursuant to § 54.1-3103 of the Code of Virginia  may serve as the administrator of both an assisted living facility and a  licensed nursing home, provided the assisted living facility and licensed  nursing home are part of the same building.
    B. Whenever an assisted living facility and a licensed  nursing home have a single administrator, there shall be a written management  plan that addresses the care and supervision of the assisted living facility  residents. The management plan shall include, but not be limited to, the  following:
    1. Written policies and procedures that describe how the  administrator will oversee the care and supervision of the residents and the  day-to-day operation of the facility.
    2. If the administrator does not provide the direct  management of the assisted living facility or only provides a portion thereof,  the plan shall specify a designated individual who shall serve as manager and  who shall be supervised by the administrator.
    3. The manager referred to in subdivision 2 of this  subsection shall be on site and meet the qualifications and requirements of  22VAC40-73-170 A 8, A 9, and A 10. 
    22VAC40-73-190. Designated direct care staff person in  charge.
    A. When the administrator, the designated assistant, or  the manager is not awake and on duty on the premises, there shall be a  designated direct care staff member in charge on the premises. However, when no  residents are present at the facility, the designated staff person in charge  does not have to be on the premises.
    B. The specific duties and responsibilities of the  designated direct care staff member in charge shall be determined by the administrator.
    C. Prior to being placed in charge, the staff member shall  be informed of and receive training on his duties and responsibilities and  provided written documentation of such duties and responsibilities.
    D. The staff member shall be awake and on duty on the  premises while in charge.
    E. The staff member in charge shall be capable of  protecting the physical and mental well-being of the residents.
    F. The administrator shall ensure that the staff member in  charge is prepared to carry out his duties and responsibilities and respond  appropriately in case of an emergency.
    G. The staff member in charge shall not be a resident of  the facility.
    22VAC40-73-200. Direct care staff qualifications.
    A. Direct care staff shall be at least 18 years of age  unless certified in Virginia as a nurse aide. 
    B. Direct care staff who are responsible for caring for  residents with special health care needs shall only provide services within the  scope of their practice and training. 
    C. Direct care staff shall meet one of the requirements in  this subsection. If the staff does not meet the requirement at the time of  employment, he shall successfully meet one of the requirements in this  subsection within two months of employment. Licensed health care professionals  practicing within the scope of their profession are not required to complete  the training in this subsection.
    1. Certification as a nurse aide issued by the Virginia  Board of Nursing.
    2. Successful completion of a Virginia Board of  Nursing-approved nurse aide education program.
    3. Successful completion of a nursing education program  preparing for registered nurse licensure or practical nurse licensure. 
    4. Current enrollment in a nursing education program  preparing for registered nurse or practical nurse licensure and completion of  at least one clinical course in the nursing program that includes at least 40  hours of direct client care clinical experience. 
    5. Successful completion of a personal care aide training  program approved by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance Services.
    6. Successful completion of an educational program for  geriatric assistant or home health aide or for nurse aide that is not covered  under subdivision 2 of this subsection. The program shall be provided by a  hospital, nursing facility, or educational institution and may include  out-of-state training. The program must be approved by the department. To  obtain department approval:
    a. The facility shall provide to the department's  representative an outline of course content, dates and hours of instruction  received, the name of the entity that provided the training, and other  pertinent information.
    b. The department will make a determination based on the  information in subdivision 6 a of this subsection and provide written  confirmation to the facility when the educational program meets department  requirements.
    7. Successful completion of the department-approved 40-hour  direct care staff training provided by a registered nurse or licensed practical  nurse. 
    8. Direct care staff employed prior to the effective date  of this chapter who did not care for residents meeting the criteria for  assisted living care, and who were therefore not required to meet this  subsection at that time, shall successfully complete a training program  consistent with department requirements no later than one year after the  effective date of this chapter, except that direct care staff of the facility  employed prior to February 1, 1996, shall not be required to complete the  training in this subsection if they (i) have been continuously employed as  direct care staff in the facility since then and (ii) have demonstrated  competency on a skills checklist dated and signed no later than February 1,  1997, by a licensed health care professional practicing within the scope of his  profession.
    D. The facility shall obtain a copy of the certificate  issued or other documentation indicating that the person has met one of the  requirements of subsection C of this section, which shall be part of the staff  member's record in accordance with 22VAC40-73-250.
    E. The administrator shall develop and implement a written  plan for supervision of direct care staff who have not yet met the requirements  as allowed for in subsection C of this section.
    22VAC40-73-210. Direct care staff training.
    A. In a facility licensed only for residential living  care, all direct care staff shall attend at least 14 hours of training  annually. 
    B. In a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, all direct care staff shall attend at least 18 hours of  training annually. 
    C. Training for the first year shall commence no later  than 60 days after employment.
    D. The training shall be in addition to (i) required first  aid training; (ii) CPR training, if taken; and (iii) for medication aides,  continuing education required by the Virginia Board of Nursing.
    E. The training shall be relevant to the population in  care and shall be provided by a qualified individual through in-service  training programs or institutes, workshops, classes, or conferences.
    F. At least two of the required hours of training shall  focus on infection control and prevention. When adults with mental impairments  reside in the facility, at least four of the required hours shall focus on  topics related to residents' mental impairments.
    G. Documentation of the type of training received, the  entity that provided the training, number of hours of training, and dates of  the training shall be kept by the facility in a manner that allows for  identification by individual staff person and is considered part of the staff  member's record.
    Exception: Direct care staff who are licensed health care  professionals or certified nurse aides shall attend at least 12 hours of annual  training.
    22VAC40-73-220. Private duty personnel.
    A. When private duty personnel from licensed home care  organizations provide direct care or companion services to residents in an  assisted living facility, the following applies:
    1. Before direct care or companion services are initiated,  the facility shall obtain, in writing, information on the type and frequency of  the services to be delivered to the resident by private duty personnel, review  the information to determine if it is acceptable, and provide notification to  the home care organization regarding any needed changes. 
    2. The direct care or companion services provided by  private duty personnel to meet identified needs shall be reflected on the  resident's individualized service plan. 
    3. The facility shall ensure that the requirements of  22VAC40-73-250 D 1 through D 4 regarding tuberculosis are applied to private  duty personnel and that the required reports are maintained by the facility or  the licensed home care organization, based on written agreement between the  two.
    4. The facility shall provide orientation and training to private  duty personnel regarding the facility's policies and procedures related to the  duties of private duty personnel.
    5. The facility shall ensure that documentation of resident  care required by this chapter is maintained.
    6. The facility shall monitor the delivery of direct care  and companion services to the resident by private duty personnel.
    B. When private duty personnel who are not employees of a  licensed home care organization provide direct care or companion services to  residents in an assisted living facility, the requirements listed under  subdivisions 2 through 6 in subsection A of this section apply. In addition,  before direct care or companion services are initiated, the facility shall:
    1. Obtain, in writing, information on the type and frequency  of the services to be delivered to the resident by private duty personnel,  review the information to determine if it is acceptable, and provide  notification to whomever has hired the private duty personnel regarding any  needed changes.
    2. Ensure that private duty personnel are qualified for the  types of direct care or companion services they are responsible for providing  to residents and maintain documentation of the qualifications.
    C. The requirements of subsections A and B of this section  shall not apply to private duty personnel who only provide skilled nursing  treatments as specified in 22VAC40-73-470 B. However, depending upon the  circumstances, there may be other sections of this chapter that apply in such  cases (e.g., inclusion on the resident's individualized service plan).
    22VAC40-73-230. Staff duties performed by residents.
    A. Any resident who performs any staff duties shall meet  the personnel and health requirements for that position.
    B. There shall be a written agreement between the facility  and any resident who performs staff duties.
    1. The agreement shall specify duties, hours of work, and  compensation.
    2. The agreement shall not be a condition for admission or  continued residence.
    3. The resident shall enter into such an agreement  voluntarily.
    22VAC40-73-240. Volunteers.
    A. Any volunteers used shall: 
    1. Have qualifications appropriate to the services they  render; and 
    2. Be subject to laws and regulations governing  confidential treatment of personal information. 
    B. No volunteer shall be permitted to serve in an assisted  living facility without the permission of or unless under the supervision of a  person who has received a criminal record clearance pursuant to § 63.2-1720 of  the Code of Virginia.
    C. The facility shall maintain the following documentation  on volunteers:
    1. Name.
    2. Address.
    3. Telephone number.
    4. Emergency contact information.
    5. Information on any qualifications, orientation,  training, and education required by this chapter, including any specified  relevant information.
    D. Duties and responsibilities of all volunteers shall be  clearly differentiated from those of persons regularly filling staff positions.  
    E. At least one staff person shall be assigned  responsibility for coordinating volunteer services, including overall selection,  supervision, and orientation of volunteers. 
    F. Prior to beginning volunteer service, all volunteers  shall attend an orientation including information on their duties and  responsibilities, resident rights, confidentiality, emergency procedures, infection  control, the name of their supervisor, and reporting requirements and sign and  date a statement that they have received and understood this information.
    G. All volunteers shall be under the supervision of a  designated staff person when residents are present. 
    22VAC40-73-250. Staff records and health requirements.
    A. A record shall be established for each staff person. It  shall not be destroyed until at least two years after employment is terminated.
    B. All staff records shall be retained at the facility,  treated confidentially, and kept in a locked area.
    Exception: Emergency contact information required by  subdivision C 9 of this section shall also be kept in an easily accessible  place. 
    C. Personal and social data to be maintained on  staff and included in the staff record are as follows:
    1. Name;
    2. Birth date;
    3. Current address and telephone number;
    4. Position title and date employed;
    5. Verification that the staff person has received a  copy of his current job description;
    6. An original criminal record report and a sworn  disclosure statement;
    7. Documentation of qualifications for employment related  to the staff person's position, including any specified relevant information;
    8. Verification of current professional license,  certification, registration, medication aide provisional authorization, or  completion of a required approved training course;
    9. Name and telephone number of person to contact in an  emergency;
    10. Documentation of orientation, training, and education  required by this chapter, including any specified relevant information; and
    11. Date of termination of employment.
    D. Health information required by these standards shall be  maintained at the facility and be included in the staff record for each staff  person, and also shall be maintained at the facility for each household member  who comes in contact with residents.
    1. Initial tuberculosis examination and report.
    a. Each staff person on or within seven days prior to the  first day of work at the facility and each household member prior to coming in  contact with residents shall submit the results of a risk assessment,  documenting the absence of tuberculosis in a communicable form as evidenced by  the completion of the current screening form published by the Virginia  Department of Health or a form consistent with it. 
    b. The risk assessment shall be no older than 30 days.
    2. Subsequent tuberculosis evaluations and reports.
    a. Any staff person or household member required to be  evaluated who comes in contact with a known case of infectious tuberculosis  shall be screened as determined appropriate based on consultation with the  local health department.
    b. Any staff person or household member required to be  evaluated who develops chronic respiratory symptoms of three weeks duration  shall be evaluated immediately for the presence of infectious tuberculosis.
    c. Each staff person or household member required to  be evaluated shall annually submit the results of a risk assessment,  documenting that the individual is free of tuberculosis in a communicable form  as evidenced by the completion of the current screening form published by the  Virginia Department of Health or a form consistent with it.
    3. Any individual suspected to have infectious tuberculosis  shall not be allowed to return to work or have any contact with the residents  and personnel of the facility until a physician has determined that the  individual is free of infectious tuberculosis.
    4. The facility shall report any active case of  tuberculosis developed by a staff person or household member required to be  evaluated to the local health department.
    E. Record of any vaccinations and immunizations received  as noted in 22VAC40-73-100 D.
    F. At the request of the administrator of the facility or  the department, a report of examination by a licensed physician shall be  obtained when there are indications that the safety of residents in care may be  jeopardized by the physical or mental health of a staff person or household  member.
    G. Any staff person or household member who, upon  examination or as a result of tests, shows indication of a physical or mental  condition that may jeopardize the safety of residents in care or that would  prevent performance of duties:
    1. Shall be removed immediately from contact with  residents; and
    2. Shall not be allowed contact with residents until the  condition is cleared to the satisfaction of the examining physician as  evidenced by a signed statement from the physician.
    22VAC40-73-260. First aid and CPR certification.
    A. First aid.
    1. Each direct care staff member who does not have current  certification in first aid as specified in subdivision 2 of this subsection  shall receive certification in first aid within 60 days of employment from the  American Red Cross, American Heart Association, National Safety Council,  American Safety and Health Institute, community college, hospital, volunteer  rescue squad, or fire department. The certification must either be in adult  first aid or include adult first aid.
    2. Each direct care staff member shall maintain current  certification in first aid from an organization listed in subdivision 1 of this  subsection. To be considered current, first aid certification from community  colleges, hospitals, volunteer rescue squads, or fire departments shall have  been issued within the past three years. The certification must either be in  adult first aid or include adult first aid.
    3. A direct care staff member who is a registered nurse or  licensed practical nurse does not have to meet the requirements of subdivisions  1 and 2 of this subsection.
    4. There shall be at least one staff person on the premises  at all times who has current certification in first aid that meets the  specifications of this section, unless the facility has an on-duty registered  nurse or licensed practical nurse.
    B. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
    1. There shall be at least one staff person on the premises  at all times who has current certification in CPR from the American Red Cross,  American Heart Association, National Safety Council, American Safety and Health  Institute, or who has current CPR certification issued within the past two  years by a community college, hospital, volunteer rescue squad, or fire  department, The certification must either be in adult CPR or include adult CPR.
    2. In facilities licensed for over 50 residents, at least  one additional staff person who meets the requirements of subdivision 1 of this  subsection shall be available for every 50 residents, or portion thereof. More  staff persons who meet the requirements in subdivision 1 of this subsection  shall be available if necessary to assure quick access to residents in the  event of the need for CPR.
    C. A listing of all staff who have current certification  in first aid or CPR, in conformance with subsections A and B of this section,  shall be posted in the facility so that the information is readily available to  all staff at all times. The listing must indicate by staff person whether the  certification is in first aid or CPR or both and must be kept up to date.
    D. A staff person with current certification in first aid  and CPR shall be present for the duration of facility-sponsored activities off  the facility premises, when facility staff are responsible for oversight of one  or more residents during the activity.
    22VAC40-73-270. Direct care staff training when aggressive  or restrained residents are in care.
    The following training is required for staff in assisted  living facilities that accept, or have in care, residents who are or who may be  aggressive or restrained:
    1. Aggressive residents.
    a. Direct care staff shall be trained in methods of dealing  with residents who have a history of aggressive behavior or of dangerously  agitated states prior to being involved in the care of such residents.
    b. This training shall include, at a minimum, information,  demonstration, and practical experience in self-protection and in the  prevention and de-escalation of aggressive behavior.
    2. Restrained residents.
    a. Prior to being involved in the care of residents in  restraints, direct care staff shall be appropriately trained in caring for the  health needs of such residents. 
    b. This training shall include, at a minimum, information,  demonstration, and experience in:
    (1) The proper techniques for applying and monitoring  restraints;
    (2) Skin care appropriate to prevent redness, breakdown,  and decubiti;
    (3) Active and active assisted range of motion to prevent  contractures;
    (4) Assessment of blood circulation to prevent obstruction  of blood flow and promote adequate blood circulation to all extremities;
    (5) Turning and positioning to prevent skin breakdown and  keep the lungs clear;
    (6) Provision of sufficient bed clothing and covering to  maintain a normal body temperature;
    (7) Provision of additional attention to meet the physical,  mental, emotional, and social needs of the restrained resident; and
    (8) Awareness of possible risks associated with restraint  use and methods of reducing or eliminating such risks.
    3. The training described in subdivisions 1 and 2 of this  section shall meet the following criteria:
    a. Training shall be provided by a qualified health  professional.
    b. A written description of the content of this training, a  notation of the entity providing the training, and the names of direct care  staff receiving the training shall be maintained by the facility except that,  if the training is provided by the department, only a listing of direct care  staff trained and the date of training are required.
    4. Refresher training for all direct care staff shall be  provided at least annually or more often as needed.
    a. The refresher training shall encompass the techniques  described in subdivision 1 or 2 of this section, or both.
    b. A record of the refresher training and a description of  the content of the training shall be maintained by the facility.
    Part IV
  Staffing and Supervision
    22VAC40-73-280. Staffing.
    A. The assisted living facility shall have staff adequate  in knowledge, skills, and abilities and sufficient in numbers to provide  services to attain and maintain the physical, mental, and psychosocial  well-being of each resident as determined by resident assessments and  individualized service plans, and to assure compliance with this chapter.
    B. The assisted living facility shall maintain a written  plan that specifies the number and type of direct care staff required to meet  the day-to-day, routine direct care needs and any identified special needs for  the residents in care. This plan shall be directly related to actual resident  acuity levels and individualized care needs. 
    C. An adequate number of staff persons shall be on the  premises at all times to implement the approved fire and emergency evacuation  plan.
    D. At least one direct care staff member shall be awake  and on duty at all times in each building when at least one resident is  present.
    Exception: For a facility licensed for residential living  care only, in buildings that house 19 or fewer residents, the staff member on  duty does not have to be awake during the night if (i) none of the residents  have care needs that require a staff member awake at night and (ii) the facility  ensures compliance with the requirements of 22VAC40-73-930 C. 
    22VAC40-73-290. Work schedule and posting.
    A. The facility shall maintain a written work schedule  that includes the names and job classifications of all staff working each  shift, with an indication of whomever is in charge at any given time.
    1. Any absences, substitutions, or other changes shall be  noted on the schedule.
    2. The facility shall maintain a copy of the schedule for  two years.
    B. The facility shall develop and implement a procedure  for posting the name of the current on-site person in charge, as provided for  in this chapter, in a place in the facility that is conspicuous to the  residents and the public.
    22VAC40-73-300. Communication among staff.
    A. Procedures shall be established and reviewed with staff  for communication among administrators, designated assistant administrators,  managers, and designated staff persons in charge, as applicable to a facility,  to ensure stable operations and sound transitions.
    B. A method of written communication shall be utilized as  a means of keeping direct care staff on all shifts informed of significant  happenings or problems experienced by residents, including complaints and  incidents or injuries related to physical or mental conditions. 
    1. A record shall be kept of the written communication for  at least the past two years.
    2. The information shall be included in the records of the  involved residents. 
    Part V
  Admission, Retention, and Discharge of Residents
    22VAC40-73-310. Admission and retention of residents.
    A. No resident shall be admitted or retained:
    1. For whom the facility cannot provide or secure  appropriate care;
    2. Who requires a level of care or service or type of  service for which the facility is not licensed or which the facility does not  provide; or
    3. If the facility does not have staff appropriate in  numbers and with appropriate skill to provide the care and services needed by  the resident.
    B. Assisted living facilities shall not admit an  individual before a determination has been made that the facility can meet the  needs of the resident. The facility shall make the determination based upon the  following information at a minimum:
    1. The completed UAI.
    2. The physical examination report.
    3. A documented interview between the administrator or a  designee responsible for admission and retention decisions, the resident, and  his legal representative, if any. In some cases, medical conditions may create  special circumstances that make it necessary to hold the interview on the date  of admission. 
    4. A mental health screening in accordance with  22VAC40-73-330 A.
    C. An assisted living facility shall only admit or retain  residents as permitted by its use and occupancy classification and certificate  of occupancy. The ambulatory or nonambulatory status, as defined in  22VAC40-73-10, of an individual is based upon:
    1. Information contained in the physical examination  report; and
    2. Information contained in the most recent UAI.
    D. Based upon review of the UAI prior to admission of a  resident, the assisted living facility administrator shall provide written  assurance to the resident that the facility has the appropriate license to meet  his care needs at the time of admission. Copies of the written assurance shall  be given to the legal representative and case manager, if any, and a copy  signed by the resident or his legal representative shall be kept in the  resident's record.
    E. All residents shall be 18 years of age or older.
    F. No person shall be admitted without his consent and  agreement, or that of his legal representative with demonstrated legal  authority to give such consent on his behalf. 
    G. The facility shall not require a person to relinquish  the rights specified in § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia as a condition of  admission or retention.
    H. In accordance with § 63.2-1805 D of the Code of  Virginia, assisted living facilities shall not admit or retain individuals with  any of the following conditions or care needs:
    1. Ventilator dependency;
    2. Dermal ulcers III and IV except those stage III ulcers  that are determined by an independent physician to be healing;
    3. Intravenous therapy or injections directly into the  vein, except for intermittent intravenous therapy managed by a health care  professional licensed in Virginia except as permitted in subsection K of this  section;
    4. Airborne infectious disease in a communicable state that  requires isolation of the individual or requires special precautions by the  caretaker to prevent transmission of the disease, including diseases such as  tuberculosis and excluding infections such as the common cold;
    5. Psychotropic medications without appropriate diagnosis  and treatment plans;
    6. Nasogastric tubes;
    7. Gastric tubes except when the individual is capable of  independently feeding himself and caring for the tube or as permitted in  subsection K of this section;
    8. Individuals presenting an imminent physical threat or  danger to self or others;
    9. Individuals requiring continuous licensed nursing care;
    10. Individuals whose physician certifies that placement is  no longer appropriate;
    11. Unless the individual's independent physician  determines otherwise, individuals who require maximum physical assistance as  documented by the UAI and meet Medicaid nursing facility level of care criteria  as defined in the State Plan for Medical Assistance Program (12VAC30-10); or
    12. Individuals whose physical or mental health care needs  cannot be met in the specific assisted living facility as determined by the  facility.
    I. When a resident has a stage III dermal ulcer that has  been determined by an independent physician to be healing, periodic observation  and any necessary dressing changes shall be performed by a licensed health care  professional under a physician's or other prescriber's treatment plan. 
    J. Intermittent intravenous therapy may be provided to a  resident for a limited period of time on a daily or periodic basis by a  licensed health care professional under a physician's or other prescriber's  treatment plan. When a course of treatment is expected to be ongoing and extends  beyond a two-week period, evaluation is required at two-week intervals by the  licensed health care professional.
    K. At the request of the resident in an assisted living  facility and when his independent physician determines that it is appropriate,  care for the conditions or care needs (i) specified in subdivisions G 3 and G 7  of this section may be provided to the resident by a physician licensed in  Virginia, a nurse licensed in Virginia or a nurse holding a multistate  licensure privilege under a physician's treatment plan, or a home care  organization licensed in Virginia or (ii) specified in subdivision G 7 of this  section may also be provided to the resident by facility staff if the care is  delivered in accordance with the regulations of the Board of Nursing for  delegation by a registered nurse, 18VAC90-20-420 through 18VAC90-20-460, and  22VAC40-73-470 E. This standard does not apply to recipients of auxiliary  grants.
    L. When care for a resident's special medical needs is  provided by licensed staff of a home care agency, the assisted living facility  direct care staff may receive training from the home care agency staff in  appropriate treatment monitoring techniques regarding safety precautions and  actions to take in case of emergency. This training is required prior to direct  care staff assuming such duties. Updated training shall be provided as needed.  The training shall include content based on the resident's specific needs.
    M. Notwithstanding § 63.2-1805 of the Code of  Virginia, at the request of the resident, hospice care may be provided in an  assisted living facility under the same requirements for hospice programs  provided in Article 7 (§ 32.1-162.1 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 of  the Code of Virginia if the hospice program determines that such program is  appropriate for the resident. If hospice care is provided, there shall be a  written agreement between the assisted living facility and any hospice program  that provides care in the facility. The agreement shall include:
    1. Policies and procedures to ensure appropriate  communication and coordination between the facility and the hospice program;
    2. Specification of the roles and responsibilities of each  entity, including listing of the services that will generally be provided by  the facility and the services that will generally be provided by the hospice  program; 
    3. Acknowledgment that the services provided to each  resident shall be reflected on the individualized service plan as required in  22VAC40-73-450 D; and
    4. Signatures of an authorized representative of the  facility and an authorized representative of the hospice program.
    22VAC40-73-320. Physical examination and report.
    A. Within the 30 days preceding admission, a person shall  have a physical examination by an independent physician. The report of such  examination shall be on file at the assisted living facility and shall contain  the following:
    1. The date of the physical examination;
    2. Height, weight, and blood pressure;
    3. Significant medical history;
    4. General physical condition, including a systems review  as is medically indicated;
    5. Any diagnosis or significant problems;
    6. Any known allergies and description of the person's  reactions;
    7. Any recommendations for care including medication, diet,  and therapy;
    8. Results of a risk assessment documenting the absence of  tuberculosis in a communicable form as evidenced by the completion of the  current screening form published by the Virginia Department of Health or a form  consistent with it;
    9. A statement that the individual does not have any of the  conditions or care needs prohibited by 22VAC40-73-310 H;
    10. A statement that specifies whether the individual is  considered to be ambulatory or nonambulatory; 
    11. A statement that specifies whether the individual is or  is not capable of self-administering medication; and
    12. The signature of the examining physician or his  designee.
    B. Subsequent tuberculosis  evaluations.
    1. A risk assessment for tuberculosis shall be completed  annually on each resident as evidenced by the completion of the current screening  form published by the Virginia Department of Health or a form consistent with  it.
    2. Any resident who comes in contact with a known case of  infectious tuberculosis shall be screened as deemed appropriate in consultation  with the local health department.
    3. Any resident who develops respiratory symptoms of three  or more weeks duration with no medical explanation shall be referred for  evaluation for the presence of infectious tuberculosis.
    4. If a resident develops an active case of tuberculosis,  the facility shall report this information to the local health department.
    C. As necessary to determine whether a resident's needs  can continue to be met in the assisted living facility, the department may  request a current physical examination or psychiatric evaluation, including  diagnosis and assessments.
    22VAC40-73-325. Fall risk assessment.
    A. For residents who meet the criteria for assisted living  care, by the time the comprehensive ISP is completed, a fall risk assessment  shall be conducted.
    B. The fall risk assessment shall be reviewed and updated:
    1. At least annually; 
    2. When the condition of the resident changes; and
    3. After a fall.
    C. Should a resident fall, the facility must show  documentation of an analysis of the circumstances of the fall and interventions  that were initiated to prevent or reduce additional falls.
    22VAC40-73-330. Mental health screening.
    A. A mental health screening shall be conducted prior to  admission if behaviors or patterns of behavior occurred within the previous six  months that were indicative of mental illness, intellectual disability,  substance abuse, or behavioral disorders and that caused, or continue to cause,  concern for the health, safety, or welfare either of that individual or others  who could be placed at risk of harm by that individual. 
    Exceptions: 
    1. If it is not possible for the screening to be conducted  prior to admission, the individual may be admitted if all other admission  requirements are met. The reason for the delay shall be documented and the  screening shall be conducted as soon as possible, but no later than 30 days  after admission.
    2. The screening shall not be required for individuals  under the care of a qualified mental health professional immediately prior to  admission, as long as there is documentation of the person's psychosocial and  behavioral functioning as specified in 22VAC40-73-340 A 1.
    B. A mental health screening shall be conducted when a  resident displays behaviors or patterns of behavior indicative of mental  illness, intellectual disability, substance abuse, or behavioral disorders that  cause concern for the health, safety, or welfare of either that individual or  others who could be placed at risk of harm by the individual.
    C. The mental health screening shall be conducted by a qualified  mental health professional having no financial interest in the assisted living  facility, directly or indirectly as an owner, officer, employee, or as an  independent contractor with the facility.
    D. A copy of the screening shall be filed in the resident's  record.
    E. If the screening indicates a need for mental health,  intellectual disability, substance abuse, or behavioral disorder services for  the resident, the facility shall provide:
    1. Notification of the resident's need for such services to  the community services board, behavioral health authority, or other appropriate  licensed provider identified by the resident or his legal representative; and 
    2. Notification to the resident, authorized contact person  of record, and physician of record that mental health services have been  recommended for the resident.
    22VAC40-73-340. Psychosocial and behavioral history.
    A. When determining appropriateness of admission for an  individual with mental illness, intellectual disability, substance abuse, or  behavioral disorders, the following information shall be obtained by the  facility:
    1. If the prospective resident is referred by a state or  private hospital, community services board, behavioral health authority, or  long-term care facility, documentation of the individual's psychosocial and  behavioral functioning shall be acquired. 
    2. If the prospective resident is coming from a private  residence, information about the individual's psychosocial and behavioral  functioning shall be gathered from primary sources, such as family members or  friends. Although there is no requirement for written information from primary  sources, the facility must document the source and content of the information  that was obtained.
    B. The administrator or his designee shall document that  the individual's psychosocial and behavioral history were reviewed and used to  help determine the appropriateness of the admission.
    C. If the individual is admitted, the psychosocial and  behavioral history shall be used in the development of the person's individualized  service plan and documentation of the history shall be filed in the 'record.
    22VAC40-73-350. Sex offender information.
    A. The assisted living facility shall register with the  Department of State Police to receive notice of the registration or reregistration  of any sex offender within the same or a contiguous zip code area in which the  facility is located, pursuant to § 9.1-914 of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The assisted living facility shall ascertain, prior to  admission, whether a potential resident is a registered sex offender if the  facility anticipates the potential resident will have a length of stay greater  than three days or in fact stays longer than three days and shall document in  the resident's record that this was ascertained and the date the information  was obtained.
    C. The assisted living facility shall ensure that each  resident or his legal representative is fully informed, prior to or at the time  of admission and annually, that he should exercise whatever due diligence he  deems necessary with respect to information on any sex offenders registered  pursuant to Chapter 9 (§ 9.1-900 et. seq.) of Title 9.1 of the Code of  Virginia, including how to obtain such information. Written acknowledgment of  having been so informed shall be provided by the resident or his legal  representative and shall be maintained in the resident's record.
    D. At the same time that the person is informed as  required in subsection C of this section, the assisted living facility shall  provide notification that, upon request, the facility shall:
    1. Assist the resident, prospective resident, or his legal  representative in accessing the information on registered sex offenders; and
    2. Provide the resident, prospective resident, or his legal  representative with printed copies of the information on registered sex  offenders.
    22VAC40-73-360. Emergency placement.
    A. An emergency placement shall occur only when the  emergency is documented and approved by (i) an adult protective services worker  for public pay individuals or (ii) an independent physician or an adult  protective services worker for private pay individuals.
    B. When an emergency placement occurs, the person shall  remain in the assisted living facility no longer than seven days unless all the  requirements for admission have been met and the person has been admitted.
    C. The facility shall obtain sufficient information on the  person to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the individual while he  remains at the facility as allowed by subsection B of this section. 
    22VAC40-73-370. Respite care.
    If an assisted living facility provides respite care as  defined in 22VAC40-73-10, the requirements of this chapter apply to the respite  care, except as follows:
    1. For individuals in respite care, the ISP shall be  completed prior to the person participating in respite care and need not  include expected outcome. 
    2. Each time an individual returns for respite care, the  facility shall reevaluate the person's condition and as needed, ensure that the  uniform assessment instrument and the individualized service plan are updated.  The reevaluation shall include, but not be limited to, observation of the  person; interviews with the individual and his legal representative, if any;  and consultation with others knowledgeable about the person, as appropriate.
    3. If the period of time between respite care stays is six  months or longer, a new physical examination report shall be required prior to  the individual returning for respite care. The examination shall take place  within 30 days prior to the person's return for respite care.
    4. The record for the individual in respite care shall  include the dates of respite care.
    5. The medication review required by 22VAC40-73-690 does  not apply to individuals in respite care.
    22VAC40-73-380. Resident personal and social information.
    A. Prior to or at the time of admission to an assisted  living facility, the following personal and social information on a person  shall be obtained:
    1. Name;
    2. Last home address, and address from which resident was  received, if different;
    3. Date of admission;
    4. Birth date or if unknown, estimated age;
    5. Birthplace, if known;
    6. Marital status, if known;
    7. Name, address, and telephone number of all legal  representatives, if any;
    8. If there is a legal representative, copies of current  legal documents that show proof of each legal representative's authority to act  on behalf of the resident and that specify the scope of the representative's  authority to make decisions and to perform other functions;
    9. Name, address, and telephone number of next of kin, if  known (two preferred);
    10. Name, address, and telephone number of designated  contact person authorized by the resident or legal representative, if  appropriate, for notification purposes, including emergency notification and  notification of the need for mental health, intellectual disability, substance  abuse, or behavioral disorder services - if the resident or legal  representative is willing to designate an authorized contact person. There may  be more than one designated contact person. The designated contact person may  also be listed under another category, such as next of kin or legal  representative;
    11. Name, address, and telephone number of the responsible  individual stipulated in 22VAC40-73-550 H, if needed;
    12. Name, address, and telephone number of personal  physician, if known;
    13. Name, address, and telephone number of personal  dentist, if known;
    14. Name, address, and telephone number of clergyman and  place of worship, if applicable;
    15. Name, address, and telephone number of local department  of social services or any other agency, if applicable, and the name of the  assigned case manager or caseworker;
    16. Service in the armed forces, if applicable;
    17. Lifetime vocation, career, or primary role;
    18. Special interests and hobbies;
    19. Known allergies, if any; 
    20. Information concerning advance directives, Do Not  Resuscitate (DNR) Orders, or organ donation, if applicable; and
    21. For residents who meet the criteria for assisted living  care, the additional information in subdivisions a, b, and c of this  subdivision 21: 
    a. Previous mental health or intellectual disability  services history, if any, and if applicable for care or services;
    b. Current behavioral and social functioning including  strengths and problems; and
    c. Any substance abuse history if applicable for care or  services.
    B. The personal and social information required in  subsection A of this section shall be placed in the individual's record.
    22VAC40-73-390. Resident agreement with facility.
    A. At or prior to the time of admission, there shall be a  written agreement or written acknowledgment of notification dated and signed by  the resident or applicant for admission or the appropriate legal  representative, and by the licensee or administrator. This document shall include  the following:
    1. Financial arrangement for accommodations, services, and  care that specifies:
    a. Listing of specific charges for accommodations,  services, and care to be made to the individual resident signing the agreement,  the frequency of payment, and any rules relating to nonpayment;
    b. Description of all accommodations, services, and care  that the facility offers and any related charges;
    c. For an auxiliary grant recipient, a list of services  included under the auxiliary grant rate;
    d. The amount and purpose of an advance payment or deposit  payment and the refund policy for such payment, except that recipients of  auxiliary grants may not be charged an advance payment or deposit payment;
    e. The policy with respect to increases in charges and length  of time for advance notice of intent to increase charges;
    f. If the ownership of any personal property, real estate,  money or financial investments is to be transferred to the facility at the time  of admission or at some future date, it shall be stipulated in the agreement;  and
    g. The refund policy to apply when transfer of ownership,  closing of facility, or resident transfer or discharge occurs.
    2. Requirements or rules to be imposed regarding resident  conduct and other restrictions or special conditions.
    3. Those actions, circumstances, or conditions that would  result or might result in the resident's discharge from the facility.
    4. Signed acknowledgments that: 
    a. Requirements or rules regarding resident conduct, other  restrictions, or special conditions have been reviewed by the resident or his  legal representative;
    b. The resident or his legal representative has been  informed of the policy regarding the amount of notice required when a resident  wishes to move from the facility;
    c. The resident has been informed of the policy required by  22VAC40-73-840 regarding pets living in the facility;
    d. The resident has been informed of the policy required by  22VAC40-73-860 K regarding weapons;
    e. The resident or his legal representative or responsible  individual as stipulated in 22VAC40-73-550 H has reviewed § 63.2-1808 of  the Code of Virginia, Rights and Responsibilities of Residents of Assisted  Living Facilities, and that the provisions of this statute have been explained  to him;
    f. The resident or his legal representative or responsible  individual as stipulated in 22VAC40-73-550 H has reviewed and had explained to  him the facility's policies and procedures for implementing § 63.2-1808 of  the Code of Virginia, including the grievance policy and the transfer or  discharge policy;
    g. The resident has been informed that interested residents  may establish and maintain a resident council, that the facility is responsible  for providing assistance with the formation and maintenance of the council,  whether or not such a council currently exists in the facility, and the general  purpose of a resident council (See 22VAC40-73-830);
    h. The resident has been informed of the bed hold policy in  case of temporary transfer or movement from the facility, if the facility has such  a policy (See 22VAC40-73-420 B);
    i. The resident has been informed of the policy or  guidelines regarding visiting in the facility, if the facility has such a  policy or guidelines (See 22VAC40-73-540 C);
    j. The resident has been informed of the rules and  restrictions regarding smoking on the premises of the facility, including but  not limited to that which is required by 22VAC40-73-820;
    k. The resident has been informed of the policy regarding  the administration and storage of medications and dietary supplements; and
    l. The resident has received written assurance that the  facility has the appropriate license to meet his care needs at the time of  admission, as required by 22VAC40-73-310 D.
    B. Copies of the signed agreement or acknowledgment of  notification shall be provided to the resident and, as appropriate, his legal  representative and shall be retained in the resident's record.
    C. The original agreement shall be updated whenever there  are changes in financial arrangements, accommodations, services, care provided  by the facility, requirements governing the resident's conduct, other  restrictions, or special conditions, and signed by the licensee or  administrator and the resident or his legal representative. If the original  agreement provides for specific changes in any of these items, this standard  does not apply to those changes.
    22VAC40-73-400. Monthly statement of charges and payments.
    The facility shall provide to each resident or the  resident's legal representative, if one has been appointed, a monthly statement  that itemizes any charges made by the facility and any payments received from  the resident or on behalf of the resident during the previous calendar month  and shall show the balance due or any credits for overpayment. The facility  shall also place a copy of the monthly statement in the resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-410. Orientation and related information for  residents.
    A. Upon admission, the assisted living facility shall  provide an orientation for new residents and their legal representatives,  including but not limited to, emergency response procedures, mealtimes, and use  of the call system. If needed, the orientation shall be modified as appropriate  for residents with cognitive impairments. Acknowledgment of having received the  orientation shall be signed and dated by the resident and, as appropriate, his  legal representative, and such documentation shall be kept in the resident's  record.
    B. Upon admission and upon request, the assisted living  facility shall provide to the resident and, if appropriate, his legal  representative, a written description of the types of staff persons working in  the facility and the services provided, including the hours such services are  available.
    22VAC40-73-420. Acceptance back in facility.
    A. An assisted living facility shall establish procedures  to ensure that any resident detained by a temporary detention order pursuant to  §§ 37.2-809 through 37.2-813 of the Code of Virginia is accepted back in  the assisted living facility if the resident is not involuntarily committed  pursuant to §§ 37.2-814 through 37.2-819 of the Code of Virginia. The  procedures shall include, but not be limited to:
    1. Obtaining written recommendations from a qualified  mental health professional regarding supportive services necessary to address  the mental health needs of the resident returning to the facility;
    2. Documenting whether the recommendations specified in  subdivision 1 of this subsection can be implemented based on facility or  community resources and whether the resident can be retained at the facility or  would need to be discharged;
    3. Updating the resident's individualized service plan, as  needed; and
    4. Ensuring that direct care staff involved in the care and  supervision of the resident receive clear and timely communication regarding  their responsibilities in respect to the mental health needs of the resident  and behavioral or emotional indicators of possible crisis situations.
    B. If an assisted living facility allows for temporary  movement of a resident with agreement to hold a bed, it shall develop and  follow a written bed hold policy, which includes, but is not limited to, the  conditions for which a bed will be held, any time frames, terms of payment, and  circumstances under which the bed will no longer be held.
    22VAC40-73-430. Discharge of residents.
    A. When actions, circumstances, conditions, or care needs  occur that will result in the discharge of a resident, discharge planning shall  begin immediately, and there shall be documentation of such, including the  beginning date of discharge planning. The resident shall be moved within 30  days, except that if persistent efforts have been made and the time frame is  not met, the facility shall document the reason and the efforts that have been  made. 
    B. As soon as discharge planning begins, the assisted  living facility shall notify the resident, the resident's legal representative  and designated contact person if any, of the planned discharge, the reason for  the discharge, and that the resident will be moved within 30 days unless there  are extenuating circumstances relating to inability to place the resident in  another setting within the time frame referenced in subsection A of this  section. Written notification of the actual discharge date and place of  discharge shall be given to the resident, the resident's legal representative  and contact person, if any, and additionally for public pay residents, the  eligibility worker and assessor, at least 14 days prior to the date that the  resident will be discharged.
    C. The assisted living facility shall adopt and conform to  a written policy regarding the number of days' notice that is required when a  resident wishes to move from the facility. Any required notice of intent to  move shall not exceed 30 days.
    D. The facility shall assist the resident and his legal  representative, if any, in the discharge or transfer process. The facility  shall help the resident prepare for relocation, including discussing the  resident's destination. Primary responsibility for transporting the resident  and his possessions rests with the resident or his legal representative.
    E. When a resident's condition presents an immediate and  serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of the resident or others and  emergency discharge is necessary, 14-day notification of planned discharge does  not apply, although the reason for the relocation shall be discussed with the  resident and, when possible, his legal representative prior to the move.
    F. Under emergency conditions, the resident's legal  representative, designated contact person, family, caseworker, social worker,  or any other persons, as appropriate, shall be informed as rapidly as possible,  but by the close of the day following discharge, of the reasons for the move.  For public pay residents, the eligibility worker and assessor shall also be so  informed within the same time frame. No later than five days after discharge,  the information shall be provided in writing to all those notified. 
    G. For public pay residents, in the event of a resident's  death, the assisted living facility shall provide written notification to the  eligibility worker and assessor within five days after the resident's death.
    H. Discharge statement.
    1. At the time of discharge, the assisted living facility  shall provide to the resident and, as appropriate, his legal representative and  designated contact person a dated statement signed by the licensee or  administrator that contains the following information:
    a. The date on which the resident, his legal  representative, or designated contact person was notified of the planned  discharge and the name of the legal representative or designated contact person  who was notified;
    b. The reason or reasons for the discharge;
    c. The actions taken by the facility to assist the resident  in the discharge and relocation process; and
    d. The date of the actual discharge from the facility and  the resident's destination.
    2. When the termination of care is due to emergency  conditions, the dated statement shall contain the information in subdivisions 1  a through 1 d of this subsection as appropriate and shall be provided or mailed  to the resident, his legal representative, or designated contact person within  48 hours from the time of the decision to discharge.
    3. A copy of the written statement shall be retained in the  resident's record.
    I. When the resident is discharged and moves to another  caregiving facility, the assisted living facility shall provide to the  receiving facility such information related to the resident as is necessary to  ensure continuity of care and services. Original information pertaining to the  resident shall be maintained by the assisted living facility from which the  resident was discharged. The assisted living facility shall maintain a listing  of all information shared with the receiving facility.
    J. Within 60 days of the date of discharge, each resident  or his legal representative shall be given a final statement of account, any  refunds due, and return of any money, property, or things of value held in  trust or custody by the facility.
    Part VI
  Resident Care and Related Services
    22VAC40-73-440. Uniform assessment instrument (UAI).
    A. All residents of and applicants to assisted living  facilities shall be assessed face to face using the uniform assessment  instrument in accordance with Assessment in Assisted Living Facilities (22VAC30-110).  The UAI shall be completed prior to admission, at least annually, and whenever  there is a significant change in the resident's condition. 
    B. The UAI shall be completed within 90 days prior to  admission to the assisted living facility, except that if there has been a  change in the resident's condition since the completion of the UAI that would  affect the admission, a new UAI shall be completed.
    C. When a resident moves to an assisted living facility  from another assisted living facility or other long‑term care setting  that uses the UAI, if there is a completed UAI on record, another UAI does not  have to be completed except that a new UAI shall be completed whenever:
    1. There is a significant change in the resident's  condition; or 
    2. The previous assessment is more than 12 months old.
    D. Annual reassessments and reassessments due to a  significant change in the resident's condition, using the UAI, shall be  utilized to determine whether a resident's needs can continue to be met by the  facility and whether continued placement in the facility is in the best  interest of the resident.
    E. During an inspection or review, staff from the  department, the Department of Medical Assistance Services, or the local  department of social services may initiate a change in level of care for any  assisted living facility resident for whom it is determined that the resident's  UAI is not reflective of the resident's current status. 
    F. At the request of the assisted living facility, the  resident's legal representative, the resident's physician, the department, or  the local department of social services an independent assessment using the UAI  shall be completed to determine whether the resident's care needs are being met  in the assisted living facility. The assisted living facility shall assist in  obtaining the independent assessment as requested. An independent assessment is  one that is completed by a qualified entity other than the original assessor. 
    G. For private pay individuals, the assisted living  facility shall ensure that the uniform assessment instrument is completed as  required by 22VAC30-110. 
    H. For a private pay resident, if the UAI is completed by  an independent physician or a qualified human services agency assessor, the  assisted living facility shall be responsible for coordinating with the  physician or the agency assessor to ensure that the UAI is completed as  required. 
    I. The assisted living facility shall be in compliance  with the requirements set forth in 22VAC30-110.
    J. The facility shall maintain the completed UAI in the  resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-450. Individualized service plans.
    A. On the day of admission, unless a comprehensive  individualized service plan is completed during that time, a preliminary plan  of care shall be developed to address the basic needs of the resident, which  adequately protects his health, safety, and welfare. The preliminary plan shall  be developed by a staff person with the qualifications specified in subsection  B of this section and in conjunction with the resident, and, as appropriate,  other individuals noted in subdivision B 1 of this section.
    B. The licensee, administrator, or his designee who has  successfully completed the department-approved individualized service plan  (ISP) training, provided by a licensed health care professional practicing  within the scope of his profession, shall develop a comprehensive ISP to meet  the resident's service needs. An individualized service plan is not required  for those residents who are assessed as capable of maintaining themselves in an  independent living status.
    1. The licensee, administrator, or designee shall develop  the ISP in conjunction with the resident and, as appropriate, with the  resident's family, legal representative, direct care staff members, case  manager, health care providers, qualified mental health professionals, or other  persons.
    2. The plan shall reflect the resident's assessed needs and  support the principles of individuality, personal dignity, freedom of choice,  and home-like environment and shall include other formal and informal supports  that may participate in the delivery of services. Whenever possible, residents  shall be given a choice of options regarding the type and delivery of services.
    3. The plan shall be designed to maximize the resident's  level of functional ability.
    C. The comprehensive individualized service plan shall be  completed within 30 days after admission and shall include the following:
    1. Description of identified needs and date identified  based upon the (i) UAI; (ii) admission physical examination; (iii) interview  with resident; (iv) fall risk assessment, if appropriate; (v) assessment of  psychological, behavioral, and emotional functioning, if appropriate; and (vi)  other sources;
    2. A written description of what services will be provided  to address identified needs, and if applicable, other services, and who will  provide them;
    3. When and where the services will be provided; 
    4. The expected outcome and time frame for expected  outcome; 
    5. Date outcome achieved; and
    6. For a facility licensed for residential living care  only, if a resident lives in a building housing 19 or fewer residents, a  statement that specifies whether the person does need or does not need to have  a staff member awake and on duty at night.
    D. When hospice care is provided to a resident, the  assisted living facility and the licensed hospice organization shall  communicate and establish and agree upon a coordinated plan of care for the  resident. The services provided by each shall be included on the individualized  service plan.
    E. The individualized service plan shall be signed and  dated by the licensee, administrator, or his designee, (i.e., the person who  has developed the plan), and by the resident or his legal representative. The  plan shall also indicate any other individuals who contributed to the  development of the plan, with a notation of the date of contribution. The title  or relationship to the resident of each person who was involved in the  development of the plan shall be so noted. These requirements shall also apply  to reviews and updates of the plan.
    F. Individualized service plans shall be reviewed and  updated at least once every 12 months and as needed as the condition of the  resident changes. The review and update shall be performed by a staff person  with the qualifications specified in subsection B of this section and in  conjunction with the resident and, as appropriate, with the resident's family,  legal representative, direct care staff, case manager, health care providers,  qualified mental health professionals, or other persons. 
    G. The master service plan shall be filed in the  resident's record. A current copy shall be provided to the resident and shall  also be maintained in a location accessible at all times to direct care staff,  but that protects the confidentiality of the contents of the service plan.  Extracts from the plan may be filed in locations specifically identified for  their retention.
    H. The facility shall ensure that the care and services  specified in the individualized service plan are provided to each resident,  except that:
    1. There may be a deviation from the plan when mutually  agreed upon between the facility and the resident or the resident's legal  representative at the time the care or services are scheduled or when there is  an emergency that prevents the care or services from being provided.
    2. Deviation from the plan shall be documented in writing,  including a description of the circumstances, the date it occurred, and the  signatures of the parties involved, and the documentation shall be retained in  the resident's record. 
    3. The facility may not start, change, or discontinue  medications, dietary supplements, diets, medical procedures, or treatments  without an order from a physician or other prescriber.
    22VAC40-73-460. Personal care services and general  supervision and care.
    A. The facility shall assume general responsibility for  the health, safety, and well-being of the residents.
    B. Care provision and service delivery shall be  resident-centered to the maximum extent possible and include:
    1. Resident participation in decisions regarding the care  and services provided to him; 
    2. Personalization of care and services tailored to the  resident's circumstances and preferences; and
    3. Prompt response by staff to resident needs as reasonable  to the circumstances.
    C. Care shall be furnished in a way that fosters the  independence of each resident and enables him to fulfill his potential.
    D. The facility shall provide supervision of resident  schedules, care, and activities, including attention to specialized needs, such  as prevention of falls and wandering from the premises.
    E. The facility shall regularly observe each resident for  changes in physical, mental, emotional, and social functioning.
    1. Any notable change in a resident's condition or  functioning, including illness, injury, or altered behavior, and action taken  shall be documented in the resident's record.
    2. The facility shall provide appropriate assistance when  observation reveals unmet needs.
    F. The facility shall notify the next of kin, legal  representative, designated contact person, or, if applicable, any responsible  social agency of any incident of a resident falling or wandering from the  premises, whether or not it results in injury. This notification shall occur as  soon as possible but at least within 24 hours from the time of initial  discovery or knowledge of the incident. The resident's record shall include  documentation of the notification, including date, time, caller, and person or  agency notified.
    Exception: If the whereabouts of a resident are unknown and  there is reason to be concerned about his safety, the facility shall  immediately notify the appropriate law-enforcement agency. The facility shall  also immediately notify the resident's next of kin, legal representative,  designated contact person, or, if applicable, any responsible social agency.
    G. The facility shall provide care and services to each  resident by staff who are able to communicate with the resident in a language  the resident understands or shall make provisions for communications between  staff and residents to ensure an accurate exchange of information.
    H. The facility shall ensure that personal assistance and  care are provided to each resident as necessary so that the needs of the  resident are met, including but not limited to assistance or care with:
    1. The activities of daily living:
    a. Bathing - at least twice a week, but more often if  needed or desired;
    b. Dressing;
    c. Toileting;
    d. Transferring;
    e. Bowel control; 
    f. Bladder control; and
    g. Eating or feeding;
    2. The instrumental activities of daily living:
    a. Meal preparation;
    b. Housekeeping;
    c. Laundry; and
    d. Managing money;
    3. Ambulation;
    4. Hygiene and grooming:
    a. Shampooing, combing, and brushing hair;
    b. Shaving;
    c. Trimming fingernails and toenails (certain medical conditions  necessitate that this be done by a licensed health care professional);
    d. Daily tooth brushing and denture care; and
    e. Skin care at least twice daily for those with limited  mobility; and
    5. Functions and tasks:
    a. Arrangements for transportation;
    b. Arrangements for shopping;
    c. Use of the telephone; and
    d. Correspondence.
    I. Each resident shall be dressed in clean clothing and be  free of odors related to hygiene. Each resident shall be encouraged to wear day  clothing when out of bed.
    J. Residents who are incontinent shall have a full or  partial bath and clean clothing and linens each time their clothing or bed  linen is soiled or wet.
    K. The facility shall ensure each resident is able to  obtain individually preferred personal care items when:
    1. The preferred personal care items are reasonably  available; and
    2. The resident is willing and able to pay for the  preferred items.
    22VAC40-73-470. Health care services.
    A. The facility shall ensure, either directly or  indirectly, that the health care service needs of residents are met. The ways  in which the needs may be met include, but are not limited to:
    1. Staff of the facility providing health care services;
    2. Persons employed by a resident providing health care  services; or
    3. The facility assisting residents in making appropriate  arrangements for health care services.
    a. When a resident is unable to participate in making  appropriate arrangements, the resident's family, legal representative,  designated contact person, cooperating social agency, or personal physician  shall be notified of the need.
    b. When mental health care is needed or desired by a  resident, this assistance shall include securing the services of the local  community services board, state or federal mental health clinic, or similar  facility or agent in the private sector. 
    B. A resident's need for skilled nursing treatments within  the facility shall be met by the facility’s employment of a licensed nurse or  contractual agreement with a licensed nurse, or by a home health agency or by a  private duty licensed nurse.
    C. Services shall be provided to prevent clinically  avoidable complications, including but not limited to:
    1. Pressure ulcer development or worsening of an ulcer; 
    2. Contracture;
    3. Loss of continence; 
    4. Dehydration; and
    5. Malnutrition.
    D. The facility shall develop and implement a written  policy to ensure that staff are made aware of any life-threatening conditions  of residents, including but not limited to allergic reactions, and actions that  staff may need to take.
    E. When care for gastric tubes is provided to a resident  by unlicensed direct care facility staff as allowed in clause (ii) of  22VAC40-73-310 K, the following criteria shall be met:
    1. Prior to the care being provided, the facility shall  obtain an informed consent, signed by the resident or his legal representative,  that includes at a minimum acknowledgment that:
    a. An unlicensed person will routinely be providing the  gastric tube care and feedings under the delegation of a registered nurse (RN)  who has assessed the resident's care needs and the unlicensed person's ability  to safely and adequately meet those needs;
    b. Delegation means the RN need not be present in the  facility during routine gastric tube care and feedings; 
    c. Registered medication aides are prohibited from  administering medications via gastric tubes and medications may only be  administered by licensed personnel (e.g., a licensed practical nurse (LPN) or  RN); 
    d. The tube care and feedings provided to the resident and  the supervisory oversight provided by the delegating RN will be reflected on  the individualized service plan as required in 22VAC40-73-450; and
    e. The signed consent shall be maintained in the resident's  record.
    2. Only those direct care staff with written approval from  the delegating nurse may provide the tube care and feedings.  In addition  to the approval, the RN shall document:
    a. The general and resident-specific instructions he  provided to the staff person; and
    b. The staff person's successful demonstration of  competency in tube care,
    3. The delegating RN shall be employed by or under contract  with the licensed assisted living facility and shall have supervisory  authority over the direct care staff being approved to provide gastric tube  care and feedings.
    4. The supervisory responsibilities of the delegating nurse  include, but are not limited to:
    a. Monitoring the direct care staff performance related to  the delegated tasks; 
    b. Evaluating the outcomes for the resident; 
    c. Ensuring appropriate documentation; and
    d. Documenting relevant findings and recommendations.
    5. The delegating RN shall schedule supervisory oversight  based upon the following criteria:
    a. The stability and condition of the resident; 
    b. The experience and competency of the unlicensed direct  care staff person; 
    c. The nature of the tasks or procedures being delegated;  and 
    d. The proximity and availability of the delegating nurse  to the unlicensed direct care staff person when the nursing tasks will be  performed. 
    6. Prior to allowing direct care staff to independently  perform care for gastric tubes as provided for in this subsection, each person  must be able to successfully demonstrate performance of the entire procedure  correctly while under direct observation of the delegating RN. Subsequently,  each person shall be directly observed no less than monthly for at least three  consecutive months, after which direct observation shall be conducted no less  than every six months or more often if indicated. The delegating RN shall  retain documentation at the facility of all supervisory activities and direct  observations of staff.
    7. Contact information for the delegating RN shall be  readily available to all staff responsible for tube feedings when an RN or LPN  is not present in the facility.
    8. Written protocols that encompass the basic policies and  procedures for the performance of gastric tube feedings, as well as any  resident-specific instructions, shall be available to any direct care staff  member responsible for tube feedings. 
    9. The facility shall have a written back-up plan to ensure  that a person who is qualified as specified in this subsection is available if  the direct care staff member who usually provides the care is absent.
    F. When the resident suffers serious accident, injury,  illness, or medical condition, or there is reason to suspect that such has  occurred, medical attention from a licensed health care professional shall be  secured immediately. The circumstances involved and the medical attention  received or refused shall be documented in the resident's record. The date and  time of occurrence, as well as the personnel involved shall be included in the  documentation.
    1. The resident's physician, if not already involved, next  of kin, legal representative, designated contact person, case manager, and any responsible  social agency, as appropriate, shall be notified as soon as possible but at  least within 24 hours of the situation and action taken, or if applicable, the  resident's refusal of medical attention. If a resident refuses medical  attention, the resident's physician shall be notified immediately.
    2. A notation shall be made in the resident's record of  such notice, including the date, time, caller, and person notified.
    G. If a resident refuses medical attention, the facility  shall assess whether it can continue to meet the resident's needs.
    22VAC40-73-480. Restorative, habilitative, and  rehabilitative services.
    A. Facilities shall assure that all restorative care and  habilitative service needs of the residents are met. Facilities shall  coordinate with appropriate professional service providers and ensure that any  facility staff who assist with support for these service needs are trained by  and receive direction from qualified professionals. Restorative and  habilitative care includes, but is not limited to, range of motion, assistance  with ambulation, positioning, assistance and instruction in the activities of  daily living, psychosocial skills training, and reorientation and reality  orientation.
    B. In the provision of restorative and habilitative care, staff  shall emphasize services such as the following:
    1. Making every effort to keep residents active, within the  limitations set by physicians' or other prescribers' orders;
    2. Encouraging residents to achieve independence in the  activities of daily living;
    3. Assisting residents to adjust to their disabilities, to  use their prosthetic devices, and to redirect their interests if they are no  longer able to maintain past involvement in particular activities; 
    4. Assisting residents to carry out prescribed physical  therapy exercises between appointments with the physical therapist; and
    5. Maintaining a bowel and bladder training program.
    C. Facilities shall arrange for specialized rehabilitative  services by qualified personnel as needed by the resident. Rehabilitative  services include physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech-language  pathology services. Rehabilitative services may be indicated when the resident  has lost or has shown a change in his ability to respond to or perform a given  task and requires professional rehabilitative services in an effort to regain  lost function. Rehabilitative services may also be indicated to evaluate the  appropriateness and individual response to the use of assistive technology.
    D. All rehabilitative services rendered by a  rehabilitative professional shall be performed only upon written medical  referral by a physician or other qualified health care professional.
    E. The physician's or other prescriber's orders, services  provided, evaluations of progress, and other pertinent information regarding  the rehabilitative services shall be recorded in the resident's record.
    F. Direct care staff who are involved in the care of  residents using assistive devices shall know how to operate and utilize the  devices.
    22VAC40-73-490. Health care oversight.
    A. Each assisted living facility shall retain a licensed  health care professional who has at least two years of experience as a health  care professional in an adult residential facility, adult day care center,  acute care facility, nursing home, or licensed home care or hospice  organization, either by direct employment or on a contractual basis, to provide  on-site health care oversight. 
    1. For residents who meet the criteria for residential  living care: 
    a. The licensed health care professional, practicing within  the scope of his profession, shall provide the health care oversight at least  every six months, or more often if indicated, based on his professional  judgment of the seriousness of a resident's needs or the stability of a resident's  condition; or
    b. If the facility employs a licensed health care  professional who is on site on a full-time basis, the licensed health care  professional, practicing within the scope of his profession, shall provide the  health care oversight at least annually, or more often if indicated, based on  his professional judgment of the seriousness of a resident's needs or stability  of a resident's condition.
    2. For residents who meet the criteria for assisted living  care:
    a. The licensed health care professional, practicing within  the scope of his profession, shall provide the health care oversight at least  every three months, or more often if indicated, based on his professional  judgment of the seriousness of a resident's needs or stability of a resident's  condition; or
    b. If the facility employs a licensed health care  professional who is on site on a full-time basis, the licensed health care  professional, practicing within the scope of his profession, shall provide the  health care oversight at least every six months, or more often if indicated,  based on his professional judgment of the seriousness of a resident's needs or  stability of a resident's condition.
    3. All residents shall be included at least annually in the  health care oversight.
    B. While on site, as specified in subsection A of this  section, the licensed health care professional shall provide health care  oversight of the following and make recommendations for change as needed:
    1. Ascertain whether a resident's service plan  appropriately addresses the current health care needs of the resident.
    2. Monitor direct care staff performance of health-related  activities.
    3. Evaluate the need for staff training.
    4. Provide consultation and technical assistance to staff  as needed.
    5. Review documentation regarding health care services,  including medication and treatment records, to assess that services are being  provided in accordance with physicians' or other prescribers' orders.
    6. Monitor conformance to the facility's medication  management plan and the maintenance of required medication reference materials.  
    7. Observe infection control measures and consistency with  the infection control program of the facility.
    8. Review the current condition and the records of  restrained residents to assess the appropriateness of the restraint and  progress toward its reduction or elimination.
    a. The licensed health care professional shall be at a  minimum a registered nurse. 
    b. The licensed health care professional providing the  oversight for this subdivision shall also provide the oversight for  subdivisions 1 through 7 of this subsection for restrained residents.
    c. The health care oversight for all restrained residents  shall be provided at least every three months.
    d. The oversight provided shall be a holistic review of the  physical, emotional, and mental health of the resident and identification of  any unmet needs. 
    e. The oversight shall include review of physician's orders  for restraints to determine whether orders are no older than three months, as  required by 22VAC40-73-710 C 2. 
    f. The oversight shall include an evaluation of whether  direct care staff have received the restraint training required by  22VAC40-73-270 and whether the facility is meeting the requirements of  22VAC40-73-710 regarding the use of restraints.
    9. Certify that the requirements of subdivisions 1 through  8 of this subsection were met, including the dates of the health care  oversight. The specific residents for whom the oversight was provided must be  identified. The administrator shall be advised of the findings of the health  care oversight and any recommendations. All of the requirements of this  subdivision shall be (i) in writing, (ii) signed and dated by the health care  professional, (iii) provided to the administrator within 10 days of the  completion of the oversight, and (iv) maintained in the facility files for at  least two years, with any specific recommendations regarding a particular  resident also maintained in the resident's record. 
    10. Action taken in response to the recommendations noted  in subdivision 9 of this subsection shall be documented in the resident's  record if resident specific, and if otherwise, in the facility files.
    22VAC40-73-500. Access by community services boards, certain  local government departments, and behavioral health authorities.
    All assisted living facilities shall provide reasonable  access to staff or contractual agents of community services boards, local  government departments with policy-advisory community services boards, or  behavioral health authorities as defined in § 37.2-100 of the Code of  Virginia for the purposes of:
    1. Assessing or evaluating clients residing in the  facility; 
    2. Providing case management or other services or  assistance to clients residing in the facility; or 
    3. Monitoring the care of clients residing in the facility.  
    Such staff or contractual agents also shall be given  reasonable access to other facility residents who have previously requested  their services.
    22VAC40-73-510. Mental health services coordination and  support.
    A. For each resident requiring mental health services, the  services of the local community services board, or a public or private mental  health clinic, rehabilitative services agency, treatment facility or agent, or  qualified health care professional shall be secured as appropriate based on the  resident's current evaluation and to the extent possible, the resident's  preference for service provider. The assisted living facility shall assist the  resident in obtaining the services. If the services are not able to be secured,  the facility shall document the reason for such and the efforts made to obtain  the services. If the resident has a legal representative, the representative  shall be notified of failure to obtain services and the notification shall be  documented.
    B. Written procedures to ensure communication and  coordination between the assisted living facility and the mental health service  provider shall be established to assure that the mental health needs of the  resident are addressed. 
    C. Efforts, which must be documented, shall be made by the  assisted living facility to assist in ensuring that prescribed interventions  are implemented, monitored, and evaluated for their effectiveness in addressing  the resident's mental health needs.
    D. If efforts to obtain the recommended services are  unsuccessful, the facility must document:
    1. Whether it can continue to meet all other needs of the  resident.
    2. How it plans to ensure that the failure to obtain the  recommended services will not compromise the health, safety, or rights of the  resident and others who come in contact with the resident.
    3. Details of additional steps the facility will take to  find alternative providers to meet the resident's needs.
    22VAC40-73-520. Activity and recreational requirements.
    A. Activities for residents shall:
    1. Support the skills and abilities of residents in order  to promote or maintain their highest level of independence or functioning;
    2. Accommodate individual differences by providing a  variety of types of activities and levels of involvement; and
    3. Offer residents a varied mix of activities weekly  including, but not limited to, those that are physical; social; cognitive,  intellectual, or creative; productive; sensory; reflective or contemplative;  nature or the natural world; and weather permitting, outdoor. Any given  activity may involve more than one of these. Community resources as well as  facility resources may be used to provide activities.
    B. Resident participation  in activities. 
    1. Residents shall be encouraged but not forced to  participate in activity programs offered by the facility and the community. 
    2. During an activity, each resident shall be encouraged  but not coerced to join in at his level of functioning, to include observing.
    3. Any restrictions on participation imposed by a physician  shall be documented in the resident's record. 
    C. Activities shall be planned under the supervision of  the administrator or other qualified staff person who shall encourage  involvement of residents and staff in the planning.
    D. In a facility licensed for residential living care  only, there shall be at least 11 hours of scheduled activities available to the  residents each week for no less than one hour each day. 
    E. In a facility licensed for both residential and  assisted living care, there shall be at least 14 hours of scheduled activities  available to the residents each week for no less than one hour each day. 
    F. During an activity, when needed to ensure that each of  the following is adequately accomplished, there shall be staff persons or  volunteers to: 
    1. Lead the activity; 
    2. Assist the residents with the activity; 
    3. Supervise the general area; 
    4. Redirect any individuals who require different  activities; and
    5. Protect the health, safety, and welfare of the residents  participating in the activity.
    G. The staff person or volunteer leading the activity  shall have a general understanding of the following:
    1. Attention spans and functional levels of the residents  in the group;
    2. Methods to adapt the activity to meet the needs and  abilities of the residents;
    3. Various methods of engaging and motivating individuals  to participate; and
    4. The importance of providing appropriate instruction,  education, and guidance throughout the activity.
    H. Adequate supplies and equipment appropriate for the  program activities shall be available in the facility.
    I. There shall be a written schedule of activities that  meets the following criteria:
    1. The schedule of activities shall be developed at least  monthly.
    2. The schedule shall include:
    a. Group activities for all residents or small groups of  residents; and
    b. The name, if any, and the type, date, and hour of the  activity.
    3. If one activity is substituted for another, the change  shall be noted on the schedule.
    4. The current month's schedule shall be posted in a  conspicuous location in the facility or otherwise be made available to  residents and their families.
    5. The schedule of activities for the past two years shall  be kept at the facility.
    6. If a resident requires an individual schedule of activities,  that schedule shall be a part of the individualized service plan.
    J. The facility shall promote access to the outdoors. 
    K. In addition to the required scheduled activities, there  shall be unscheduled staff and resident interaction throughout the day that  fosters an environment that promotes socialization opportunities for residents.
    22VAC40-73-530. Freedom of movement.
    A. Any resident who does not have a serious cognitive  impairment shall be allowed to freely leave the facility.  A resident who  has a serious cognitive impairment shall be subject to the provisions set forth  in 22VAC40-73-1040 A or 22VAC40-73-1150 A.
    B. Doors leading to the outside shall not be locked from  the inside or secured from the inside in any manner that amounts to a lock,  except that doors may be locked or secured in a manner that amounts to a lock  in special care units as provided in 22VAC40-73-1150 A. Any devices used to  lock or secure doors in any manner must be in accordance with applicable  building and fire codes.
    C. The facility shall provide freedom of movement for the  residents to common areas and to their personal spaces. The facility shall not  lock residents out of or inside their rooms.
    22VAC40-73-540. Visiting in the facility.
    A. Daily visits to residents in the facility shall be  permitted.
    B. Visiting hours shall not be restricted, except by a  resident when it is the resident's choice. 
    C. The facility may establish a policy or guidelines so  that visiting is not disruptive to other residents and facility security is not  compromised. However, daily visits and visiting hours shall not be restricted  as provided in subsections A and B of this section.
    D. The facility shall encourage regular family involvement  with the resident and shall provide ample opportunities for family  participation in activities at the facility.
    22VAC40-73-550. Resident rights.
    A. The resident shall be encouraged and informed of  appropriate means as necessary to exercise his rights as a resident and a  citizen throughout the period of his stay at the facility.
    B. The resident has the right to voice or file grievances,  or both, with the facility and to make recommendations for changes in the  policies and services of the facility. The residents shall be protected by the  licensee or administrator, or both, from any form of coercion, discrimination,  threats, or reprisal for having voiced or filed such grievances.
    C. Any resident of an assisted living facility has the  rights and responsibilities as provided in § 63.2-1808 of the Code of  Virginia and this chapter.
    D. The operator or administrator of an assisted living  facility shall establish written policies and procedures for implementing  § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia.
    E. The facility shall make its policies and procedures for  implementing § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia available and accessible  to residents, relatives, agencies, and the general public.
    F. The rights and responsibilities of residents shall be  printed in at least 12-point type and posted conspicuously in a public place in  all assisted living facilities. The facility shall also post the name and  telephone number of the appropriate regional licensing supervisor of the  department, the Adult Protective Services' toll-free telephone number, the  toll-free telephone number of the Virginia Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program and  any substate (i.e., local) ombudsman program serving the area, and the  toll-free telephone number of the Virginia Office for Protection and Advocacy. 
    G. The rights and responsibilities of residents in  assisted living facilities shall be reviewed annually with each resident or his  legal representative or responsible individual as stipulated in subsection H of  this section and each staff person. Evidence of this review shall be the  resident's, his legal representative's or responsible individual's, or staff  person's written acknowledgment of having been so informed, which shall include  the date of the review and shall be filed in the resident's or staff person's  record.
    H. If a resident is unable to fully understand and exercise  the rights and responsibilities contained in § 63.2-1808 of the Code of  Virginia, the facility shall require that a responsible individual, of the  resident's choice when possible, designated in writing in the resident's record  annually be made aware of each item in § 63.2-1808 and the decisions that  affect the resident or relate to specific items in § 63.2-1808. 
    1. A resident shall be assumed capable of understanding and  exercising these rights unless a physician determines otherwise and documents  the reasons for such determination in the resident’s record.
    2. The facility shall seek a determination and reasons  for the determination from a resident's physician regarding the resident's  capability to understand and exercise these rights when there is reason to  believe that the resident may not be capable of such.
    22VAC40-73-560. Resident records.
    A. The facility shall establish written policy and  procedures for documentation and recordkeeping to ensure that the information  in resident records is accurate and clear and that the records are  well-organized.
    B. Resident records shall be identified and easily located  by resident name, including when a resident's record is kept in more than one  place. This shall apply to both electronic and hard copy material.
    C. Any physician's notes and progress reports in the  possession of the facility shall be retained in the resident's record.
    D. Copies of all agreements between the facility and the  resident and official acknowledgment of required notifications, signed by all  parties involved, shall be retained in the resident's record. Copies shall be  provided to the resident and to persons whose signatures appear on the  document.
    E. All resident records shall be kept current, retained at  the facility, and kept in a locked area, except that information shall be made  available as noted in subsection F of this section.
    F. The licensee shall assure that all records are treated  confidentially and that information shall be made available only when needed  for care of the resident. All records shall be made available for inspection by  the department's representative.
    G. Residents shall be allowed access to their own records.  A legal representative of a resident shall be provided access to the resident's  record or part of the record as allowed by the scope of his legal authority. 
    H. The complete resident record shall be retained for at  least two years after the resident leaves the facility.
    1. For at least the first year, the record shall be  retained at the facility.
    2. After the first year, the record may be retained off  site in a safe, secure area. The record must be available at the facility  within 48 hours.
    I. A current picture of each resident shall be readily  available for identification purposes or, if the resident refuses to consent to  a picture, there shall be a narrative physical description, which is annually  updated, maintained in his file.
    22VAC40-73-570. Release of information from resident's  record.
    A. The resident or the appropriate legal representative  has the right to release information from the resident's record to persons or  agencies outside the facility. 
    B. The licensee is responsible for making available to  residents and legal representatives a form which they may use to grant their  written permission for the facility to release information to persons or  agencies outside the facility. The facility shall retain a copy of any signed  release of information form in the resident's record. 
    C. Only under the following circumstances is a facility  permitted to release information from the resident's records or information  regarding the resident's personal affairs without the written permission of the  resident or his legal representative, where appropriate: 
    1. When records have been properly subpoenaed; 
    2. When the resident is in need of emergency medical care  and is unable or unwilling to grant permission to release information or his  legal representative is not available to grant permission;
    3. When the resident moves to another caregiving facility; 
    4. To representatives of the department; or 
    5. As otherwise required by law.
    D. When a resident is hospitalized or transported by  emergency medical personnel, information necessary to the care of the resident  shall be furnished by the facility to the hospital or emergency medical  personnel. Examples of such information include medications, a Do Not  Resuscitate (DNR) Order, advance directives, and organ donation information.  The facility shall also provide the name, address, and telephone number of the  resident's designated contact person to the hospital or emergency medical  personnel. 
    22VAC40-73-580. Food service and nutrition.
    A. When any portion of an assisted living facility is  subject to inspection by the Virginia Department of Health, the facility shall  be in compliance with those regulations, as evidenced by an initial and subsequent  annual reports from the Virginia Department of Health. The report shall be  retained at the facility for a period of at least two years.
    B. All meals shall be served in the dining area as  designated by the facility, except that:
    1. If the facility, through its policies and procedures,  offers routine or regular room service, residents shall be given the option of  having meals in the dining area or in their rooms, provided that:
    a. There is a written agreement to this effect, signed and  dated by both the resident and the licensee or administrator and filed in the  resident's record.
    b. If a resident's individualized service plan, physical  examination report, mental health status report, or any other document  indicates that the resident has a psychiatric condition that contributes to  self-isolation, a qualified mental health professional shall make a  determination in writing whether the person should have the option of having  meals in his room. If the determination is made that the resident should not have  this option, then the resident shall have his meals in the dining area.
    2. Under special circumstances, such as temporary illness,  temporary incapacity, temporary agitation of a resident with cognitive  impairment, or occasional, infrequent requests due to a resident's personal  preference, meals may be served in a resident's room. 
    3. When meals are served in a resident's room, a sturdy  table must be used.
    C. Personnel shall be available to help any resident who  may need assistance in reaching the dining room or when eating.
    D. A minimum of 45 minutes shall be allowed for each  resident to complete a meal. If a resident has been assessed on the UAI as  dependent in eating or feeding, his individualized service plan shall indicate  an approximate amount of time needed for meals to ensure needs are met.
    E. Facilities shall develop and implement a policy to  monitor each resident for: 
    1. Warning signs of changes in physical or mental status  related to nutrition; and
    2. Compliance with any needs determined by the resident's  individualized service plan or prescribed by a physician or other prescriber,  nutritionist, or health care professional.
    F. Facilities shall implement interventions as soon as a  nutritional problem is suspected. These interventions shall include, but are  not limited to the following:
    1. Weighing residents at least monthly to determine whether  the resident has significant weight loss (i.e., 5.0% weight loss in one month,  7.5% in three months, or 10% in six months); and
    2. Notifying the attending physician if a significant  weight loss is identified in any resident who is not on a physician-approved  weight reduction program and obtaining, documenting, and following the  physician's instructions regarding nutritional care.
    G. Residents with independent living status who have  kitchens equipped with stove, refrigerator, and sink within their individual  apartments may have the option of obtaining meals from the facility or from  another source. If meals are obtained from another source, the facility must ensure  availability of meals when the resident is sick or temporarily unable to  prepare meals for himself.
    22VAC40-73-590. Number of meals and availability of snacks.
    A. At least three well-balanced meals, served at regular  intervals, shall be provided daily to each resident, unless contraindicated as  documented by the attending physician in the resident's record or as provided  for in 22VAC40-73-580 G.
    B. Bedtime and between meal snacks shall be made available  for all residents desiring them or in accordance with their physician's or  other prescriber's orders.
    1. Appropriate adjustments in the provision of snacks to a  resident shall be made when orders from the resident's physician or other  prescriber in the resident's record limits the receipt or type of snacks.
    2. Vending machines shall not be used as the only source  for snacks.
    22VAC40-73-600. Time interval between meals.
    A. Time between the evening meal and breakfast the  following morning shall not exceed 15 hours.
    B. There shall be at least four hours between breakfast  and lunch and at least four hours between lunch and supper.
    C. When multiple seatings are required due to limited  dining space, scheduling shall ensure that these time intervals are met for all  residents. Schedules shall be made available to residents, legal  representatives, staff, volunteers, and any other persons responsible for  assisting residents in the dining process.
    22VAC40-73-610. Menus for meals and snacks.
    A. Food preferences of residents shall be considered when  menus are planned. 
    B. Menus for meals and snacks for the current week shall  be dated and posted in an area conspicuous to residents. 
    1. Any menu substitutions or additions shall be recorded on  the posted menu. 
    2. A record shall be kept of the menus served for two  years.
    C. Minimum daily menu. 
    1. Unless otherwise ordered in writing by the resident's  physician or other prescriber, the daily menu, including snacks, for each  resident shall meet the current guidelines of the U.S. Department of  Agriculture's food guidance system or the dietary allowances of the Food and  Nutritional Board of the National Academy of Sciences, taking into  consideration the age, sex, and activity of the resident. 
    2. Other foods may be added. 
    3. Second servings and snacks shall be available at no  additional charge. 
    4. At least one meal each day shall include a hot main  dish. 
    D. When a diet is prescribed for a resident by his  physician or other prescriber, it shall be prepared and served according to the  physician's or other prescriber's orders. 
    E. A copy of a diet manual containing acceptable practices  and standards for nutrition shall be kept current and on file in the dietary  department. 
    F. The facility shall make drinking water readily  available to all residents. Direct care staff shall know which residents need  help getting water or other fluids and drinking from a cup or glass. Direct  care staff shall encourage and assist residents who do not have medical  conditions with physician or other prescriber ordered fluid restrictions to  drink water or other beverages frequently.
    22VAC40-73-620. Oversight of special diets.
    A. There shall be oversight at least every six months of  special diets by a dietitian or nutritionist for each resident who has such a  diet. Special diets may also be referred to using terms such as medical  nutrition therapy or diet therapy. The dietitian or nutritionist must meet the  requirements of § 54.1-2731 of the Code of Virginia and 18VAC75-30, Regulations  Governing Standards for Dietitians and Nutritionists.
    B. The oversight specified in subsection A of this section  shall be on site and include the following:
    1. A review of the physician's or other prescriber's order  and the preparation and delivery of the special diet.
    2. An evaluation of the adequacy of the resident's special  diet and the resident's acceptance of the diet.
    3. Certification that the requirements of this subsection  were met, including the date of the oversight and identification of the  residents for whom the oversight was provided. The administrator shall be  advised of the findings of the oversight and any recommendations. All of the  requirements of this subdivision shall be (i) in writing, (ii) signed and dated  by the dietitian or nutritionist, (iii) provided to the administrator within 10  days of the completion of the oversight, and (iv) maintained in the files at  the facility for at least two years, with any specific recommendations  regarding a particular resident also maintained in the resident's record.
    4. Upon receipt of recommendations noted in subdivision 3  of this subsection, the administrator or the dietitian or nutritionist shall  report them to the resident's physician. Documentation of the report shall be  maintained in the resident's record.
    5. Action taken in response to the recommendations noted in  subdivision 3 of this subsection shall be documented in the resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-630. Observance of religious dietary practices.
    A. The resident's religious dietary practices shall be  respected.
    B. Religious dietary practices of the administrator or  licensee shall not be imposed upon residents unless mutually agreed upon in the  admission agreement between administrator or licensee and resident. 
    22VAC40-73-640. Medication management plan and reference  materials.
    A. The facility shall have, keep current, and implement a  written plan for medication management. The facility's medication plan shall  address procedures for administering medication and shall include:
    1. Methods to ensure an understanding of the  responsibilities associated with medication management;
    2. Standard operating procedures, including but not limited  to the facility's standard dosing schedule and any general restrictions  specific to the facility;
    3. Methods to prevent the use of outdated, damaged, or  contaminated medications;
    4. Methods to ensure that each resident's prescription  medications and any over-the-counter drugs and supplements ordered for the  resident are filled and refilled in a timely manner to avoid missed dosages;
    5. Methods for verifying that medication orders have been  accurately transcribed to medication administration records (MARs), including  within 24 hours of receipt of a new order or change in an order;
    6. Methods for monitoring medication administration and the  effective use of the MARs for documentation;
    7. Methods to ensure accurate counts of all controlled  substances whenever assigned medication administration staff changes;
    8. Methods to ensure that staff who are responsible for  administering medications meet the qualification requirements of  22VAC40-73-670;
    9. Methods to ensure that staff who are responsible for  administering medications are adequately supervised, including periodic direct  observation of medication administration;
    10. A plan for proper disposal of medication;
    11. Methods to ensure that residents do not receive  medications or dietary supplements to which they have known allergies;
    12. Identification of the medication aide or the person  licensed to administer drugs responsible for routinely communicating issues or  observations related to medication administration to the prescribing physician  or other prescriber; 
    13. Methods to ensure that staff who are responsible for  administering medications are trained on the facility's medication management  plan; and
    14. Procedures for internal monitoring of the facility's  conformance to the medication management plan.
    B. The facility's written medication management plan  requires approval by the department. 
    C. Subsequent changes shall be reviewed as part of the  department's regular inspection process.
    D. In addition to the facility's written medication  management plan, the facility shall maintain, as reference materials for  medication aides, at least one pharmacy reference book, drug guide, or  medication handbook for nurses that is no more than two years old. 
    22VAC40-73-650. Physician's or other prescriber's order.
    A. No medication, dietary supplement, diet, medical  procedure, or treatment shall be started, changed, or discontinued by the  facility without a valid order from a physician or other prescriber.  Medications include prescription, over-the-counter, and sample medications.
    B. Physician or other prescriber orders, both written and  oral, for administration of all prescription and over-the-counter medications  and dietary supplements shall include the name of the resident, the date of the  order, the name of the drug, route, dosage, strength, how often medication is  to be given, and identify the diagnosis, condition, or specific indications for  administering each drug.
    C. Physician's or other prescriber's oral orders shall:
    1. Be charted by the individual who takes the order. That  individual must be one of the following:
    a. A licensed health care professional practicing within  the scope of his profession; or
    b. A medication aide.
    2. Be reviewed and signed by a physician or other  prescriber within 14 days. 
    D. Medication aides may not transmit an oral order to a  pharmacy.
    E. The resident's record shall contain the physician's or  other prescriber's signed written order or a dated notation of the physician's  or other prescriber's oral order. Orders shall be organized chronologically in  the resident's record.
    F. Whenever a resident is admitted to a hospital for  treatment of any condition, the facility shall obtain new orders for all  medications and treatments prior to or at the time of the resident's return to  the facility. The facility shall ensure that the primary physician is aware of  all medication orders and has documented any contact with the physician  regarding the new orders. 
    22VAC40-73-660. Storage of medications.
    A. A medicine cabinet, container, or compartment shall be  used for storage of medications and dietary supplements prescribed for  residents when such medications and dietary supplements are administered by the  facility. Medications shall be stored in a manner consistent with current  standards of practice. 
    1. The storage area shall be locked. 
    2. Schedule II drugs and any other drugs subject to abuse  must be kept in a separate locked storage compartment (e.g., a locked cabinet  within a locked storage area or a locked container within a locked cabinet or  cart).
    3. The individual responsible for medication administration  shall keep the keys to the storage area on his person.
    4. When in use, the storage area shall have adequate  illumination in order to read container labels. 
    5. The storage area shall not be located in the kitchen or  bathroom, but in an area free of dampness or abnormal temperatures unless the  medication requires refrigeration. 
    6. When required, medications shall be refrigerated. 
    a. It is permissible to store dietary supplements and foods  and liquids used for medication administration in a refrigerator that is  dedicated to medication storage if the refrigerator is in a locked storage  area.
    b. When it is necessary to store medications in a refrigerator  that is routinely used for food storage, the medications shall be stored  together in a locked container in a clearly defined area.
    7. Single-use and dedicated medical supplies and equipment  shall be appropriately labeled and stored. Medical equipment suitable for  multi-use shall be stored to prevent cross-contamination.
    B. A resident may be permitted to keep his own medication  in an out-of-sight place in his room if the UAI has indicated that the resident  is capable of self-administering medication. The medication and any dietary  supplements shall be stored so that they are not accessible to other residents.  This does not prohibit the facility from storing or administering all  medication and dietary supplements. 
    Exception: If the facility has no residents with serious  cognitive impairments, the facility may determine that the out-of-sight and  inaccessibility safeguards specified in this subsection do not apply.
    22VAC40-73-670. Qualifications and supervision of staff  administering medications.
    When staff administers medications to residents, the  following standards shall apply:
    1. Each staff person who administers medication shall be  authorized by § 54.1-3408 of the Virginia Drug Control Act. All staff  responsible for medication administration shall:
    a. Be licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to  administer medications; or
    b. Be registered with the Virginia Board of Nursing as a  medication aide, except as specified in subdivision 2 of this section.
    2. Any applicant for registration as a medication aide who  has provided to the Virginia Board of Nursing evidence of successful completion  of the education or training course required for registration may act as a  medication aide on a provisional basis for no more than 120 days before  successfully completing any required competency evaluation. However, upon  notification of failure to successfully complete the written examination after  three attempts, an applicant shall immediately cease acting as a medication  aide. 
    3. Medication aides shall be supervised by one of the  following:
    a. An individual employed full time at the facility who is  licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to administer medications;
    b. The administrator who is licensed by the Commonwealth of  Virginia to administer medications or who has successfully completed a training  program approved by the Virginia Board of Nursing for the registration of  medication aides. The training program for administrators who supervise  medication aides, but are not registered medication aides themselves, must include  a minimum of 68 hours of student instruction and training but need not include  the prerequisite for the program or the written examination for registration.  The administrator must also meet the requirements of 22VAC40-73-160 E; or 
    c. For a facility licensed for residential living care  only, the designated assistant administrator, as specified in 22VAC40-73-150 E,  who is licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to administer medications or  who has successfully completed a training program approved by the Virginia  Board of Nursing for the registration of medication aides. The training program  for designated assistant administrators who supervise medication aides, but are  not registered medication aides themselves, must include a minimum of 68 hours  of student instruction and training but need not include the prerequisite for  the program or the written examination for registration. The designated  assistant administrator must also meet the requirements of 22VAC40-73-160 E.
    22VAC40-73-680. Administration of medications and related  provisions.
    A. Staff who are licensed, registered, or acting as  medication aides on a provisional basis as specified in 22VAC40-73-670 shall  administer drugs to those residents who are dependent on medication  administration as documented on the UAI. 
    B. Medications shall be removed from the pharmacy  container, or the container shall be opened, by a staff person licensed,  registered, or acting as a medication aide on a provisional basis as specified  in 22VAC40-73-670 and administered to the resident by the same staff person.  Medications shall remain in the pharmacy issued container, with the  prescription label or direction label attached, until administered to the  resident.
    C. Medications shall be administered not earlier than one  hour before and not later than one hour after the facility's standard dosing  schedule, except those drugs that are ordered for specific times, such as  before, after, or with meals.
    D. Medications shall be administered in accordance with  the physician's or other prescriber's instructions and consistent with the  standards of practice outlined in the current registered medication aide  curriculum approved by the Virginia Board of Nursing.
    E. Medical procedures or treatments ordered by a physician  or other prescriber shall be provided according to his instructions.
    F. Sample medications shall remain in the original  packaging, labeled by a physician or other prescriber or pharmacist with the  resident's name, the name of the medication, the strength, dosage, and route  and frequency of administration, until administered.
    G. Over-the-counter medication shall remain in the  original container, labeled with the resident's name, or in a pharmacy-issued  container, until administered.
    H. At the time the medication is administered, the  facility shall document on a medication administration record (MAR) all  medications administered to residents, including over-the-counter medications  and dietary supplements.
    I. The MAR shall include: 
    1. Name of the resident; 
    2. Date prescribed; 
    3. Drug product name; 
    4. Strength of the drug;
    5. Dosage; 
    6. Diagnosis, condition, or specific indications for  administering the drug or supplement;
    7. Route (e.g., by mouth); 
    8. How often medication is to be taken; 
    9. Date and time given and initials of direct care staff  administering the medication; 
    10. Dates the medication is discontinued or changed; 
    11. Any medication errors or omissions; 
    12. Description of significant adverse effects suffered by  the resident; 
    13. For "as needed" (PRN) medications:
    a. Symptoms for which medication was given;
    b. Exact dosage given; and
    c. Effectiveness; and
    14. The name, signature, and initials of all staff  administering medications.
    J. In the event of an adverse drug reaction or a  medication error, the following applies:
    1. Action shall be taken as directed by a physician,  pharmacist, or a poison control center;
    2. The resident's physician of record and family member or  other responsible person shall be notified as soon as possible; and
    3. Medication administration staff shall document actions  taken in the resident's record. 
    K. The performance of all medical procedures and  treatments ordered by a physician or other prescriber shall be documented, and  the documentation shall be retained in the resident's record.
    L. The use of PRN medications is prohibited, unless one or  more of the following conditions exist: 
    1. The resident is capable of determining when the  medication is needed; 
    2. Licensed health care professionals administer the PRN  medication; or 
    3. Medication aides administer the PRN medication when the  facility has obtained from the resident's physician or other prescriber a  detailed medication order. The order shall include symptoms that indicate the  use of the medication, exact dosage, the exact time frames the medication is to  be given in a 24-hour period, and directions as to what to do if symptoms  persist. 
    M. In order for drugs in a hospice comfort kit to be  administered, the requirements specified in subsection L of this section must  be met, and each medication in the kit must have a prescription label attached  by the pharmacy.
    N. Medications ordered for PRN administration shall be  available, properly labeled for the specific resident, and properly stored at  the facility.
    O. Stat-drug boxes may only be used when the following  conditions are met:
    1. There is an order from the prescriber for any drug  removed from the stat-drug box; and
    2. The drug is removed from the stat-drug box and  administered by a nurse, pharmacist or prescriber licensed to administer  medications. 
    3. Registered medication aides are not permitted to either  remove or administer medications from the stat-drug box. 
    22VAC40-73-690. Medication review.
    A. For each resident assessed for residential living care,  except for those who self-administer all of their medications, a licensed  health care professional, practicing within the scope of his profession, shall  perform an annual review of all the medications of the resident. 
    B. For each resident assessed for assisted living care,  except for those who self-administer all of their medications, a licensed  health care professional, practicing within the scope of his profession, shall  perform a review every six months of all the medications of the resident.
    C. The medication review shall include prescription drugs,  over-the-counter medications, and dietary supplements ordered for the resident.  
    D. If deemed appropriate by the licensed health care  professional, the review shall include observation of the resident or interview  with the resident or staff.
    E. The review shall include, but not be limited to, the  following:
    1. All medications that the resident is taking and  medications that he could be taking if needed (PRNs).
    2. An examination of the dosage, strength, route, how  often, prescribed duration, and when the medication is taken. 
    3. Documentation of actual and consideration of potential  interactions of drugs with one another.
    4. Documentation of actual and consideration of potential  interactions of drugs with foods or drinks.
    5. Documentation of actual and consideration of potential  negative effects of drugs resulting from a resident's medical condition other  than the one the drug is treating.
    6. Consideration of whether PRNs, if any, are still needed  and if clarification regarding use is necessary.
    7. Consideration of whether the resident needs additional  monitoring or testing.
    8. Documentation of actual and consideration of potential  adverse effects or unwanted side effects of specific medications.
    9. Identification of that which may be questionable, such  as (i) similar medications being taken, (ii) different medications being used  to treat the same condition, (iii) what seems an excessive number of  medications, and (iv) what seems an exceptionally high drug dosage.
    10. The health care professional shall notify the  resident's attending physician of any concerns or problems and document the  notification.
    F. The licensed health care professional shall certify  that the requirements of subdivisions E 1 through E 10 of this section were  met, including the dates of the medication review. The administrator shall be  advised of the findings of the medication review and any recommendations. All  of the requirements of this subdivision shall be (i) in writing, (ii) signed  and dated by the health care professional, (iii) provided to the administrator  within 10 days of the completion of the review, and (iv) maintained in the  facility files for at least two years, with any specific recommendations  regarding a particular resident also maintained in the resident's record.
    G. Action taken in response to the recommendations noted  in subsection F of this section shall be documented in the resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-700. Oxygen therapy. 
    When oxygen therapy is provided, the following safety  precautions shall be met and maintained: 
    1. The facility shall have a valid physician's or other  prescriber's order that includes the following:
    a. The oxygen source, such as compressed gas or concentrators;
    b. The delivery device, such as nasal cannula, reservoir  nasal cannulas, or masks; and
    c. The flow rate deemed therapeutic for the resident.
    2. The facility shall post "No Smoking-Oxygen in  Use" signs and enforce the smoking prohibition in any room of a building  where oxygen is in use. 
    3. The facility shall ensure that only oxygen from a  portable source shall be used by residents when they are outside their rooms.  The use of long plastic tether lines to the source of oxygen outside their rooms  is not permitted. 
    4. The facility shall make available to staff the emergency  numbers to contact the resident's physician or other prescriber and the oxygen  vendor for emergency service or replacement. 
    5. The facility shall demonstrate that all direct care  staff responsible for assisting residents who use oxygen supplies have had  training or instruction in the use and maintenance of resident-specific  equipment.
    6. The facility shall include in its disaster preparedness  plan a checklist of information required to meet the identified needs of those  individuals who require oxygen therapy including, but not limited to, the  following:
    a. Whether the facility has on-site, emergency generator  capacity sufficient to safely operate oxygen concentrators efficiently.
    b. Whether in the absence of on-site generators the  facility has agreements with vendors to provide emergency generators, including  whether those generators will support oxygen concentrators. 
    c. Where the facility maintains chart copies of each resident's  agreement, including emergency preparedness and back-up plans, with his oxygen  equipment and supply vendor for ready access in any emergency situation.
    d. How equipment and supplies will be transported in the  event that residents must be evacuated to another location. 
    22VAC40-73-710. Restraints.
    A. The use of chemical restraints is prohibited.
    B. Physical restraints shall not be used for purposes of  discipline or convenience. Restraints may only be used to treat a resident's  medical symptoms or symptoms from mental illness or intellectual disability. 
    C. The facility may only impose physical restraints when  the resident's medical symptoms or symptoms from mental illness or intellectual  disability warrant the use of restraints. The restraint must: 
    1. Be necessary to ensure the physical safety of the  resident or others;
    2. Be imposed in accordance with a physician's written  order, which must be no older than three months, that specifies the condition,  circumstances, and duration under which the restraint is to be used, except in  emergency circumstances until such an order can reasonably be obtained; and 
    3. Not be ordered on a standing, blanket, or "as  needed" (PRN) basis. 
    D. Whenever physical restraints are used, the following  conditions shall be met: 
    1. A restraint shall be used only to the minimum extent  necessary to protect the resident or others;
    2. Restraints shall only be applied by direct care staff  who have received training in their use as specified by subdivision 2 of  22VAC40-73-270;
    3. The facility shall closely monitor the resident's  condition, which includes checking on the resident at least every 30 minutes; 
    4. The facility shall assist the resident as often as  necessary, but no less than 10 minutes every hour, for his hydration, safety, comfort,  range of motion, exercise, elimination, and other needs; 
    5. The facility shall release the resident from the  restraint as quickly as possible; 
    6. Direct care staff shall keep a record of restraint  usage, outcomes, checks, and any assistance required in subdivision 4 of this  subsection and shall note any unusual occurrences or problems; 
    7. In nonemergencies, as defined in 22VAC40-73-10:
    a. Restraints shall be used as a last resort and only if  the facility, after completing, implementing, and evaluating the resident's  comprehensive assessment and service plan, determines and documents that less  restrictive means have failed;
    b. Restraints shall be used in accordance with the  resident's service plan, which documents the need for the restraint and  includes a schedule or plan of rehabilitation training enabling the progressive  removal or the progressive use of less restrictive restraints when appropriate;
    c. The facility shall explain the use of the restraint and  potential negative outcomes to the resident or his legal representative and the  resident's right to refuse the restraint and shall obtain the written consent  of the resident or his legal representative;
    d. Restraints shall be applied so as to cause no physical  injury and the least possible discomfort; and
    e. The facility shall notify the resident's legal  representative or designated contact person as soon as practicable, but no  later than 24 hours after the initial administration of a nonemergency  restraint. The facility shall keep the legal representative or designated  contact person informed about any changes in restraint usage. A notation shall  be made in the resident's record of such notice, including the date, time,  caller, and person notified.
    8. In emergencies, as defined in 22VAC40-73-10: 
    a. Restraints shall not be used unless they are necessary  to alleviate an unanticipated immediate and serious danger to the resident or  other individuals in the facility; 
    b. An oral or written order shall be obtained from a  physician within one hour of administration of the emergency restraint and the  order shall be documented;
    c. In the case of an oral order, a written order shall be  obtained from the physician as soon as possible; 
    d. The resident shall be within sight and sound of direct  care staff at all times; 
    e. If the emergency restraint is necessary for longer than  two hours, the resident shall be transferred to a medical or psychiatric  inpatient facility or monitored in the facility by a mental health crisis team  until his condition has stabilized to the point that the attending physician  documents that restraints are not necessary; and 
    f. The facility shall notify the resident's legal representative  or designated contact person as soon as practicable, but no later than 12 hours  after administration of an emergency restraint. A notation shall be made in the  resident's record of such notice, including the date, time, caller and person  notified.
    22VAC40-73-720. Do Not Resuscitate Orders.
    A. Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Orders for withholding  cardiopulmonary resuscitation from an individual in the event of cardiac or  respiratory arrest may only be carried out in a licensed assisted living  facility when:
    1. A valid written order has been issued by the resident's  attending physician; and 
    2. The written order is included in the individualized  service plan; 
    B. The facility shall have a system to ensure that all  staff are aware of residents who have a valid DNR Order.
    C. The DNR Order shall be readily available to other  authorized persons, such as emergency medical technicians (EMTs), when  necessary.
    D. Durable DNR Orders shall not authorize the assisted  living facility or its staff to withhold other medical interventions, such as  intravenous fluids, oxygen, or other therapies deemed necessary to provide  comfort care or to alleviate pain.
    E. Section 63.2-1807 of the Code of Virginia states that  the owners or operators of any assisted living facility may provide that their  staff who are certified in CPR shall not be required to resuscitate any  resident for whom a valid written order not to resuscitate in the event of  cardiac or respiratory arrest has been issued by the resident's attending  physician and has been included in the resident's individualized service plan.
    F. If the owner or operator of a facility has determined  that DNR Orders will not be honored, the facility shall have a policy  specifying this and, prior to admission, the resident or his legal guardian  shall be notified of the policy and sign an acknowledgment of the notification.
    22VAC40-73-730. Advance directives.
    A. Upon admission or while residing in the facility,  whenever the resident has established advance directives, such as a living will  or a durable power of attorney for health care, to the extent available, the  facility shall obtain the following:
    1. The name of and contact information for the individual  or individuals who has the document or documents;
    2. The location of the documents; 
    3. Either the advance directives or the content of the  advance directives; and
    4. The name of and contact information for any designated  agent, as related to the development and modification of the individualized  service plan. 
    B. If the facility is unable to obtain any of the  information or documents as noted in subdivisions 1 through 4 of subsection A  of this section, the efforts made to do so shall be documented in the  resident's record. 
    C. The information regarding advance directives shall be  readily available to other authorized persons, such as emergency medical  technicians (EMTs), when necessary.
    D. A resident requesting assistance with establishing  advance directives shall be referred to his primary health care provider or  attorney.
    Part VII
  Resident Accommodations and Related Provisions
    22VAC40-73-740. Personal possessions.
    A. Each resident shall be permitted to keep reasonable  personal property in his possession at a facility in order to maintain  individuality and personal dignity.
    B. A facility shall ensure that each resident has his own  clothing. 
    1. The use of a common clothing pool is prohibited. 
    2. If necessary, resident's clothing shall be  inconspicuously marked with his name to avoid getting mixed with others. 
    3. Residents shall be allowed and encouraged to select  their daily clothing and wear clothing to suit their activities and appropriate  to weather conditions. 
    C. Each resident shall have his own personal care items. 
    D. Each facility shall develop and implement a written  policy regarding procedures to be followed when a resident's clothing or other  personal possessions, such as jewelry, television, radio, or other durable  property, are reported missing. Attempts shall be made to determine the reason  for the loss and any reasonable actions shall be taken to recover the item and  to prevent or discourage future losses. The results of the investigation shall  be reported in writing to the resident. Documentation shall be maintained for  at least two years regarding items that were reported missing and resulting  actions that were taken.
    22VAC40-73-750. Resident rooms.
    A. The resident shall be encouraged to furnish or decorate  his room as space and safety considerations permit and in accordance with this  chapter.
    B. Bedrooms shall contain the following items, except as  provided for in subsection C of this section:
    1. A separate bed with comfortable mattress, springs, and  pillow for each resident. Provisions for a double bed for a married couple  shall be optional;
    2. A table or its equivalent accessible to each bed;
    3. An operable bed lamp or bedside light accessible to each  resident;
    4. A sturdy chair for each resident;
    5. Drawer space for clothing and other personal items. If  more than one resident occupies a room, ample drawer space shall be assigned to  each individual;
    6. At least one mirror - if the resident has an individual  adjoining bathroom, the mirror may be in the bathroom; and
    7. Window coverings for privacy.
    C. If a resident specifies in writing that he does not  wish to have an item or items listed in subsection B of this section and  understands that he may decide otherwise at any time, the resident's bedroom is  not required to contain those specified items. The written specification shall  be maintained in the resident's record.
    D. Adequate and accessible closet or wardrobe space shall  be provided for each resident. As of December 28, 2006, in all buildings  approved for construction or change in use and occupancy classification, the  closet or wardrobe space shall be in the resident's bedroom.
    E. The facility shall have sufficient bed and bath linens  in good repair so that residents always have clean:
    1. Sheets;
    2. Pillowcases;
    3. Blankets;
    4. Bedspreads;
    5. Towels;
    6. Washcloths; and
    7. Waterproof mattress covers when needed.
    22VAC40-73-760. Living room or multipurpose room.
    A. Sitting rooms or recreation areas or both shall be  equipped with:
    1. Comfortable chairs (e.g., overstuffed, straight-backed,  and rockers); 
    2. Tables; 
    3. Lamps; 
    4. Television, if not available in other areas of the  facility; 
    5. Radio, if not available in other areas of the facility;  and
    6. Current newspaper. 
    B. Space other than sleeping areas shall be provided for  residents for sitting, for visiting with one another or with guests, for social  and recreational activities, and for dining. These areas may be used  interchangeably.
    22VAC40-73-770. Dining areas.
    Dining areas shall have a sufficient number of sturdy  dining tables and chairs to serve all residents, either all at one time or in  reasonable shifts. 
    22VAC40-73-780. Laundry and linens.
    A. Residents' clothing shall be kept clean and in good  repair. 
    B. Bed and bath linens shall be changed at least every  seven days and more often if needed. In facilities with common bathing areas,  bath linens shall be changed after each use. 
    C. When the facility provides laundry service for  residents' clothing or personal linens, the clean items shall be sorted by  individual resident. 
    D. Table coverings and napkins shall be clean at all  times. 
    E. Table and kitchen linens shall be laundered separately  from other washable goods. 
    F. When bed, bath, table, and kitchen linens are washed,  the water shall be above 140°F or the dryer shall heat the linens above 140°F  as verified by the manufacturer or a sanitizing agent shall be used according  to the manufacturer's instructions. 
    22VAC40-73-790. Transportation.
    The resident shall be assisted in making arrangements for  transportation as necessary. 
    22VAC40-73-800. Incoming and outgoing mail.
    A. Incoming and outgoing mail shall not be censored.
    B. Incoming mail shall be delivered promptly.
    C. Mail shall not be opened by staff or volunteers except  upon request of the resident and in his presence or written request of the  legal representative.
    22VAC40-73-810. Telephones.
    A. Each building shall have at least one operable, nonpay  telephone easily accessible to staff. There shall be additional telephones or  extensions as may be needed to summon help in an emergency. 
    B. The resident shall have reasonable access to a nonpay  telephone on the premises. 
    C. Privacy shall be provided for residents to use a  telephone.
    22VAC40-73-820. Smoking.
    A. Smoking by residents, staff, volunteers, and visitors  shall be done only in areas designated by the facility and approved by the  State Fire Marshal or local fire official. Smoking shall not be allowed in a  kitchen or food preparation areas. A facility may prohibit smoking on its  premises.
    B. All designated smoking areas shall be provided with  suitable ashtrays. 
    C. Residents shall not be permitted to smoke in or on  their beds. 
    D. All common areas shall have smoke-free areas designated  for nonsmokers. 
    22VAC40-73-830. Resident councils.
    A. The facility shall permit and encourage the formation  of a resident council by residents and shall assist the residents in its  establishment.
    B. The purposes of the resident council shall be to:
    1. Work with the administration in improving the quality of  life for all residents;
    2. Discuss the services offered by the facility and make  recommendations for resolution of identified problems or concerns; and 
    3. Perform other functions as determined by the council.
    C. The resident council shall be composed of residents of  the facility and the council may extend membership to family members,  advocates, friends, and others. Residents shall be encouraged but shall not be  compelled to attend meetings.
    D. The facility shall assist residents in maintaining the  resident council, including, but not limited to:
    1. Scheduling regular meetings;
    2. Providing space for meetings;
    3. Posting notice for meetings;
    4. Providing assistance in attending meetings for those  residents who request it; and 
    5. Preparing written reports of meetings as requested by  the council for dissemination to all residents.
    E. The facility shall provide a written response to the  council prior to the next meeting regarding any recommendations made by the  council for resolution of problems or concerns. 
    F. In order to promote a free exchange of ideas, the  presence of any facility personnel shall be only at the request of the council.
    G. If there is no council, the facility shall annually  remind residents that they may establish a resident council and that the  facility would assist in its formation and maintenance. The general purpose of  the council shall also be explained at this time.
    22VAC40-73-840. Pets living in the assisted living facility.
    A. Each assisted living facility shall develop and  implement a written policy regarding pets living on the premises that will  ensure the safety and well-being of all residents and staff.
    B. If a facility allows pets to live on the premises, the  following applies:
    1. The policy specified in subsection A of this section  shall include:
    a. The types of pets that are permitted in the assisted  living facility; and
    b. The conditions under which pets may be in the assisted  living facility.
    2. Before being allowed to live on the premises, pets shall  have had all recommended or required immunizations and shall be certified by a  licensed veterinarian to be free of diseases transmittable to humans.
    3. Pets living on the assisted living facility premises:
    a. Shall have regular examinations and immunizations,  appropriate for the species, by a licensed veterinarian; and 
    b. Shall be restricted from central food preparation areas.
    4. Documentation of examinations and immunizations shall be  maintained at the facility. 
    5. Pets shall be well-treated and cared for in compliance  with state regulations and local ordinances.
    6. Any resident's rights, preferences, and medical needs  shall not be compromised by the presence of a pet.
    7. Any pet living on the premises shall have a suitable  temperament, be healthy, and otherwise pose no significant health or safety  risks to residents, staff, volunteers, or visitors.
    22VAC40-73-850. Pets visiting the assisted living facility.
    If an assisted living facility allows pets to visit the  premises, the following shall apply:
    1. Any pet present at the facility shall be in good health  and show no evidence of carrying any disease;
    2. Any resident's rights, preferences, and medical needs  shall not be compromised by the presence of a pet; and
    3. Any pet shall be well-treated while visiting on the  premises, have a suitable temperament, and otherwise pose no significant health  or safety risks to residents, staff, volunteers, or visitors.
    Part VIII
  Buildings and Grounds
    22VAC40-73-860. General requirements.
    A. Buildings licensed for ambulatory residents or  nonambulatory residents shall be classified by and meet the specifications for  the proper use and occupancy classification as required by the Virginia Uniform  Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63).
    B. Documentation completed and signed by the building  official shall be obtained as evidence of compliance with the applicable  edition of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code.
    C. Before construction begins or contracts are awarded for  any new construction, remodeling, or alterations, plans shall be submitted to  the department for review.
    D. Doors and windows.
    1. All doors shall open and close readily and effectively.
    2. Any doorway that is used for ventilation shall be  effectively screened.
    3. Any operable window (i.e., a window that may be opened)  shall be effectively screened.
    E. There shall be enclosed walkways between residents'  rooms and dining and sitting areas that are adequately lighted, heated, and  ventilated.
    F. There shall be an ample supply of hot and cold water  from an approved source available to the residents at all times.
    G. Hot water at taps available to residents shall be  maintained within a range of 105°F to 120°F.
    H. Where there is an outdoor area accessible to residents,  such as a porch or lawn, it shall be equipped with furniture in season.
    I. Each facility shall store cleaning supplies and other  hazardous materials in a locked area, except as noted in subsection J of this  section. 
    J. A resident may be permitted to keep his own cleaning  supplies or other hazardous materials in an out-of-sight place in his room if  the resident does not have a serious cognitive impairment. The cleaning  supplies or other hazardous materials shall be stored so that they are not  accessible to other residents. 
    Exception: When a resident keeps his own cleaning supplies  or other hazardous materials in his room, if the facility has no residents with  serious cognitive impairments, the facility may determine that the out-of-sight  and inaccessibility safeguards specified in this subsection do not apply,  unless mandated by the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code or Virginia  Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51).
    K. Each facility shall develop and implement a written  policy regarding weapons on the premises of the facility that will ensure the  safety and well-being of all residents and staff. 
    22VAC40-73-870. Maintenance of buildings and grounds.
    A. The interior and exterior of all buildings shall be  maintained in good repair and kept clean and free of rubbish.
    B. All buildings shall be well-ventilated and free from  foul, stale, and musty odors. 
    C. Adequate provisions for the collection and legal  disposal of garbage, ashes, and waste material shall be made. 
    D. Buildings shall be kept free of infestations of insects  and vermin. The grounds shall be kept free of their breeding places. 
    E. All furnishings, fixtures, and equipment, including,  but not limited to, furniture, window coverings, sinks, toilets, bathtubs, and  showers, shall be kept clean and in good repair and condition, except that  furnishings and equipment owned by a resident shall be, at a minimum, in safe  condition and not soiled in a manner that presents a health hazard. 
    F. All inside and outside steps, stairways, and ramps  shall have nonslip surfaces. 
    G. Grounds shall be properly maintained to include mowing  of grass and removal of snow and ice. 
    H. Handrails shall be provided on all stairways, ramps,  elevators, and at changes of floor level. 
    I. Elevators, where used, shall be kept in good running  condition and shall be inspected at least annually. Elevators shall be  inspected in accordance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code  (13VAC5-63). The signed and dated certificate of inspection issued by the local  authority shall be evidence of such inspection.
    22VAC40-73-880. Heating, ventilation, and cooling.
    A. At least one movable thermometer shall be available in  each building for measuring temperatures in individual rooms that do not have a  fixed thermostat that shows the temperature in the room. 
    B. Heating. 
    1. Heat shall be supplied from a central heating plant or  an electrical heating system in accordance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide  Building Code (13VAC5-63). 
    2. Provided their installation or operation has been  approved by the state or local building or fire authorities, space heaters,  such as but not limited to, wood burning stoves, coal burning stoves, and oil  heaters, or portable heating units either vented or unvented, may be used only  to provide or supplement heat in the event of a power failure or similar  emergency. These appliances shall be used in accordance with the manufacturer's  instructions. 
    3. A temperature of at least 72°F shall be maintained in  all areas used by residents during hours when residents are normally awake.  During night hours, when residents are asleep, a temperature of at least 68°F  shall be maintained. This standard applies unless otherwise mandated by federal  or state authorities.
    Exception: The facility may allow the temperature in a  bedroom in which only one resident resides, which has a thermostat in the room,  to be controlled by the resident as long as the temperature does not endanger  the health, safety, or welfare of the resident. 
    C. Cooling. 
    1. The facility shall provide in all buildings an air  conditioning system for all areas used by residents, including residents'  bedrooms and common areas. Temperatures in all areas used by residents shall  not exceed 80°F.
    Exception: The facility may allow the temperature in a  bedroom in which only one resident resides, which has a thermostat in the room,  to be controlled by the resident as long as the temperature does not endanger  the health, safety, or welfare of the resident. 
    2. Any electric fans shall be screened and placed for the  protection of the residents. 
    D. The facility shall develop and implement a plan to  protect residents from heat-related and cold- related illnesses in the event of  loss of air-conditioning or heat due to emergency situations or malfunctioning  or broken equipment. 
    22VAC40-73-890. Lighting and lighting fixtures.
    A. Artificial lighting shall be by electricity. 
    B. All interior and exterior areas shall be adequately  lighted for the safety and comfort of residents and staff. 
    C. Glare shall be kept at a minimum in rooms used by  residents. When necessary to reduce glare, coverings shall be used for windows  and lights. 
    D. If used, fluorescent lights shall be replaced if they  flicker or make noise. 
    22VAC40-73-900. Sleeping areas.
    Resident sleeping quarters shall provide:
    1. For not less than 450 cubic feet of air space per  resident;
    2. For square footage as provided in this subdivision:
    a. As of February 1, 1996, all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63), shall have not  less than 100 square feet of floor area in bedrooms accommodating one resident;  otherwise not less than 80 square feet of floor area in bedrooms accommodating  one resident shall be required.
    b. As of February 1, 1996, all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code, shall have not less than 80  square feet of floor area per person in bedrooms accommodating two or more  residents; otherwise not less than 60 square feet of floor area per person in  bedrooms accommodating two or more persons shall be required;
    3. For ceilings at least 7-1/2 feet in height;
    4. For window areas as provided in this subdivision:
    a. There shall be at least eight square feet of glazed  window area in a room housing one person; and
    b. There shall be at least six square feet of glazed window  area per person in rooms occupied by two or more persons;
    5. For occupancy as provided in this subdivision:
    a. As of December 28, 2006, in all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63), there shall be no  more than two residents residing in a bedroom.
    b. Unless the provisions of subdivision 5 a of this  subsection apply, there shall be no more than four residents residing in a  bedroom;
    6. For at least three feet of space between sides and ends  of beds that are placed in the same room;
    7. That no bedroom shall be used as a corridor to any other  room;
    8. That all beds shall be placed only in bedrooms; and
    9. That household members and staff shall not share  bedrooms with residents.
    22VAC40-73-910. Common rooms.
    As of October 9, 2001, buildings approved for construction  or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in the Virginia  Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63), shall have a glazed window area  above ground level in at least one of the common rooms (e.g., living room,  multipurpose room, or dining room). The square footage of the glazed window  area shall be at least 8.0% of the square footage of the floor area of the  common room.
    22VAC40-73-920. Toilet, face/hand washing, and bathing  facilities.
    A. In determining the number of toilets, face/hand washing  sinks, bathtubs, or showers required, the total number of persons residing on  the premises shall be considered. Unless there are separate facilities for  household members or staff, they shall be counted in determining the required number  of fixtures, except that for bathtubs or showers, the staff count shall include  only live-in staff.
    1. As of December 28, 2006, in all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63), on each floor where  there are residents' bedrooms, there shall be:
    a. At least one toilet for each four persons, or portion  thereof;
    b. At least one face/hand washing sink for each four  persons, or portion thereof;
    c. At least one bathtub or shower for each seven persons,  or portion thereof;
    d. Toilets, face/hand washing sinks and bathtubs or showers  in separate rooms for men and women where more than four persons live on a  floor. Bathrooms equipped to accommodate more than one person at a time shall  be labeled by gender. Gender designation of bathrooms shall remain constant  during the course of a day.
    2. Unless the provisions of subdivision 1 of this  subsection apply, on each floor where there are residents' bedrooms, there  shall be:
    a. At least one toilet for each seven persons, or portion  thereof;
    b. At least one face/hand washing sink for each seven  persons, or portion thereof;
    c. At least one bathtub or shower for each 10 persons, or  portion thereof;
    d. Toilets, face/hand washing sinks and bathtubs or showers  in separate rooms for men and women where more than seven persons live on a  floor. Bathrooms equipped to accommodate more than one person at a time shall  be labeled by gender. Gender designation of bathrooms shall remain constant  during the course of a day.
    3. As of December 28, 2006, in all buildings approved for  construction or change in use and occupancy classification, as referenced in  the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code, when residents' rooms are located  on the same floor as the main living or dining area, in addition to the  requirements of subdivision 1 of this subsection, there shall be at least one  more toilet and face/hand washing sink, which is available for common use. The  provisions of subdivision 4 c of this subsection shall also apply.
    4. On floors used by residents where there are no  residents' bedrooms, there shall be:
    a. At least one toilet;
    b. At least one face/hand washing sink;
    c. Toilets and face/hand washing sinks in separate rooms  for men and women in facilities where there are 10 or more residents. Bathrooms  equipped to accommodate more than one person at a time shall be designated by  gender. Gender designation of bathrooms must remain constant during the course  of a day.
    B. Bathrooms shall provide for privacy for such activities  as bathing, toileting, and dressing. 
    C. There shall be ventilation to the outside in order to  eliminate foul odors.
    D. The following sturdy safeguards shall be provided, with  installation in compliance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code:
    1. Handrails by bathtubs;
    2. Grab bars by toilets; and
    3. Handrails inside and stools available to stall showers.
    Exception: These safeguards shall be optional for  individuals with independent living status.
    E. Bathtubs and showers shall have nonskid surfacing or  strips.
    F. The face/hand washing sink shall be in the same room as  the toilet or in an adjacent private area that is not part of a common use area  of the assisted living facility.
    G. The assisted living facility shall provide private or  common use toilet, face/hand washing, and bathing facilities to meet the needs  of each resident.
    22VAC40-73-925. Toilet, face/hand washing, and bathing  supplies.
    A. The facility shall have an adequate supply of toilet  tissue and soap. Toilet tissue shall be accessible to each commode and soap  shall be accessible to each face/hand washing sink and each bathtub or shower.
    B. Common face/hand washing sinks shall have paper towels  or an air dryer and liquid soap for hand washing.
    C. Residents may not share bar soap. 
    D. The facility may not charge an additional amount for  toilet paper, soap, paper towels, or use of an air dryer at common sinks and  commodes.
    22VAC40-73-930. Provisions for signaling and call systems.
    A. All assisted living facilities shall have a signaling  device that is easily accessible to the resident in his bedroom or in a  connecting bathroom that alerts the direct care staff that the resident needs  assistance.
    B. In buildings licensed to care for 20 or more residents  under one roof, there shall be a signaling device that terminates at a central  location that is continuously staffed and permits staff to determine the origin  of the signal or is audible and visible in a manner that permits staff to  determine the origin of the signal. 
    C. In buildings licensed to care for 19 or fewer residents  under one roof, if the signaling device does not permit staff to determine the  origin of the signal as specified in subsection B of this section, direct care  staff shall make rounds at least once each hour to monitor for emergencies or  other unanticipated resident needs. These rounds shall begin when the majority  of the residents have gone to bed each evening and shall terminate when the  majority of the residents have arisen each morning, and shall be documented as  follows:
    1. A written log shall be maintained showing the date and  time rounds were made and the signature of the direct care staff member who  made rounds.
    2. Logs for the past two years shall be retained.
    D. For each resident with an inability to use the  signaling device, this inability shall be included in the resident's  individualized service plan, indicating the need for monitoring for emergencies  and other unanticipated needs. In addition to any other services, the plan  shall specify a minimal frequency of rounds to be made by direct care staff and  the method used to document that such rounds were made. Documentation of rounds  shall be retained for two years.
    22VAC40-73-940. Fire safety: compliance with state  regulations and local fire ordinances.
    A. An assisted living facility shall comply with the  Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51) as determined by at least  an annual inspection by the appropriate fire official. Reports of the  inspections shall be retained at the facility for at least two years.
    B. An assisted living facility shall comply with any local  fire ordinance.
    Part IX
  Emergency Preparedness
    22VAC40-73-950. Emergency preparedness and response plan.
    A. The facility shall develop a written emergency  preparedness and response plan that shall address:
    1. Documentation of initial and annual contact with the  local emergency coordinator to determine (i) local disaster risks, (ii)  communitywide plans to address different disasters and emergency situations,  and (iii) assistance, if any, that the local emergency management office will  provide to the facility in an emergency.
    2. Analysis of the facility's potential hazards, including  severe weather, fire, loss of utilities, flooding, work place violence or  terrorism, severe injuries, or other emergencies that would disrupt normal  operation of the facility.
    3. Written emergency management policies and procedures for  provision of:
    a. Administrative direction and management of response  activities;
    b. Coordination of logistics during the emergency;
    c. Communications;
    d. Life safety of residents, staff, volunteers, and  visitors;
    e. Property protection;
    f. Continued services to residents;
    g. Community resource accessibility; and
    h. Recovery and restoration.
    4. Written emergency response procedures for assessing the  situation; protecting residents, staff, volunteers, visitors, equipment,  medications, and vital records; and restoring services. Emergency procedures  shall address:
    a. Alerting emergency personnel and facility staff;
    b. Warning and notification of residents, including  sounding of alarms when appropriate;
    c. Providing emergency access to secure areas and opening  locked doors;
    d. Conducting evacuations and sheltering in place, as  appropriate, and accounting for all residents;
    e. Locating and shutting off utilities when necessary;
    f. Maintaining and operating emergency equipment  effectively and safely;
    g. Communicating with staff and community emergency  responders during the emergency; and
    h. Conducting relocations to emergency shelters or  alternative sites when necessary and accounting for all residents.
    5. Supporting documents that would be needed in an  emergency, including emergency call lists, building and site maps necessary to  shut off utilities, memoranda of understanding with relocation sites, and list  of major resources such as suppliers of emergency equipment.
    B. Staff and volunteers shall be knowledgeable in and  prepared to implement the emergency preparedness plan in the event of an  emergency.
    C. The facility shall develop and implement an orientation  and quarterly review on the emergency preparedness and response plan for all  staff, residents, and volunteers, with emphasis placed on an individual’s  respective responsibilities. The orientation and review shall cover  responsibilities for: 
    1. Alerting emergency personnel and sounding alarms; 
    2. Implementing evacuation, shelter in place, and  relocation procedures; 
    3. Using, maintaining, and operating emergency equipment; 
    4. Accessing emergency medical information, equipment, and  medications for residents; 
    5. Locating and shutting off utilities; and 
    6. Utilizing community support services. 
    D. The facility shall review the emergency preparedness  plan annually or more often as needed and make necessary revisions. Such  revisions shall be communicated to staff, residents, and volunteers and  incorporated into the orientation and quarterly review for staff, residents,  and volunteers. 
    E. In the event of a disaster, fire, emergency, or any  other condition that may jeopardize the health, safety, and welfare of  residents, the facility shall take appropriate action to protect the health,  safety, and welfare of the residents and take appropriate actions to remedy the  conditions as soon as possible. 
    F. After the disaster or emergency is stabilized, the  facility shall:
    1. Notify family members and legal representatives; and
    2. Report the disaster or emergency to the regional  licensing office by the next day as specified in 22VAC40-73-70.
    22VAC40-73-960. Fire and emergency evacuation plan.
    A. Assisted living facilities shall have a written plan  for fire and emergency evacuation that is to be followed in the event of a fire  or other emergency. The plan shall be approved by the appropriate fire  official. 
    B. A fire and emergency evacuation drawing shall be posted  in a conspicuous place on each floor of each building used by residents. The  drawing shall show primary and secondary escape routes, areas of refuge,  assembly areas, telephones, fire alarm boxes, and fire extinguishers, as  appropriate. 
    C. The telephone numbers for the fire department, rescue  squad or ambulance, police, and Poison Control Center shall be posted by each  telephone shown on the fire and emergency evacuation plan.
    D. In assisted living facilities where all outgoing  telephone calls must be placed through a central switchboard located on the  premises, the information required in subsection C of this section may be  posted by the switchboard rather than by each telephone, provided this  switchboard is manned 24 hours each day. 
    E. Staff and volunteers shall be fully informed of the  approved fire and emergency evacuation plan, including their duties, and the  location and operation of fire extinguishers, fire alarm boxes, and any other  available emergency equipment.
    22VAC40-73-970. Fire and emergency evacuation drills.
    A. Fire and emergency evacuation drill frequency and  participation shall be in accordance with the current edition of the Virginia  Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51). The drills required for each shift  in a quarter shall not be conducted in the same month.
    B. Additional fire and emergency evacuation drills  may be held at the discretion of the administrator or licensing inspector and  must be held when there is any reason to question whether the requirements of  the approved fire and emergency evacuation plan can be met.
    C. Each required fire and emergency evacuation drill shall  be unannounced.
    D. Immediately following each required fire and emergency  evacuation drill, there shall be an evaluation of the drill by the staff in  order to determine the effectiveness of the drill. The licensee or  administrator shall immediately correct any problems identified in the  evaluation and document the corrective action taken,
    E. A record of the required fire and emergency evacuation  drills shall be kept in the facility for two years. Such record shall include:
    1. Identity of the person conducting the drill;
    2. The date and time of the drill;
    3. The method used for notification of the drill;
    4. The number of staff participating;
    5. The number of residents participating;
    6. Any special conditions simulated; 
    7. The time it took to complete the drill;
    8. Weather conditions; and
    9. Problems encountered, if any.
    22VAC40-73-980. Emergency equipment and supplies.
    A. A complete first aid kit shall be on hand at the  facility, located in a designated place that is easily accessible to staff but  not to residents. Items with expiration dates must not have dates that have  already passed. The kit shall include, but not be limited to, the following  items: 
    1. Adhesive tape; 
    2.Antibiotic cream or ointment packets;
    3. Antiseptic wipes or ointment;
    4. Band-aids, in assorted sizes;
    5. Blankets, either disposable or other;
    6. Disposable single-use breathing barriers or shields for  use with rescue breathing or CPR (e.g., CPR mask or other type);
    7. Cold pack;
    8. Disposable single-use waterproof gloves;
    9. Gauze pads and roller gauze, in assorted sizes;
    10 . Hand cleaner (e.g., waterless hand sanitizer or  antiseptic towelettes);
    11. Plastic bags;
    12. Scissors;
    13. Small flashlight and extra batteries;
    14. Thermometer;
    15. Triangular bandages;
    16. Tweezers; 
    17. 81-milligram aspirin in single packets or small bottle;  and
    18. The first aid instructional manual.
    B. In facilities that have a motor vehicle that is used to  transport residents and in a motor vehicle used for a field trip, there shall  be a first aid kit on the vehicle, located in a designated place that is  accessible to staff but not residents that includes items as specified in  subsection A of this section.
    C. First aid kits shall be checked at least monthly to  assure that all items are present and items with expiration dates are not past  their expiration date.
    D. Each facility with six or more residents shall be  equipped with a permanent connection able to connect to a temporary emergency  electrical power source for the provision of electricity during an interruption  of the normal electric power supply. The connection shall be of the size that  is capable of providing power to required circuits when connected and that is  sufficient to implement the emergency preparedness and response plan. The  installation of a connection for temporary electric power shall be in  compliance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63) and approved  by the local building official. Permanent installations of emergency power  systems shall be acceptable when installed in accordance with the Uniform  Statewide Building Code and approved by the local building official.
    E. The following emergency lighting shall be available:
    1. Flashlights or battery lanterns for general use.
    2. One flashlight or battery lantern for each employee  directly responsible for resident care.
    3. One flashlight or battery lantern for each bedroom used  by residents and for the living and dining area unless there is a provision for  emergency lighting in the adjoining hallways.
    4. The use of open flame lighting is prohibited.
    F. There shall be two forms of communication for use in an  emergency.
    G. The facility shall ensure the availability of a 96-hour  supply of emergency food and drinking water. At least 48 hours of the supply  must be on site at any given time. 
    22VAC40-73-990. Plan for resident emergencies and practice  exercise.
    A. Assisted living facilities shall have a written plan  for resident emergencies that includes:
    1. Procedures for handling medical emergencies, including  identifying the staff person responsible for (i) calling the rescue squad,  ambulance service, resident's physician, or Poison Control Center; and (ii) providing  first aid and CPR, when indicated.
    2. Procedures for handling mental health emergencies such  as, but not limited to, catastrophic reaction or the need for a temporary  detention order.
    3. Procedures for making pertinent medical information and  history available to the rescue squad and hospital, including but not limited  to, information on medications and advance directives.
    4. Procedures to be followed in the event that a resident  is missing, including but not limited to (i) involvement of facility staff,  appropriate law-enforcement agency, and others as needed; (ii) areas to be  searched; (iii) expectations upon locating the resident; and (iv) documentation  of the event.
    5. Procedures for notifying the resident's family, legal  representative, designated contact person, and any responsible social agency.
    6. Procedures for notifying the regional licensing office  as specified in 22VAC40-73-70.
    B. At least once every six months, all staff on each shift  shall participate in an exercise in which the procedures for resident  emergencies are practiced. Documentation of each exercise shall be maintained  in the facility for at least two years.
    C. The plan for resident emergencies shall be readily  available to all staff.
    Part X
  Additional Requirements for Facilities that Care for Adults with Serious  Cognitive Impairments 
    Article 1
  Subjectivity
    22VAC40-73-1000. Subjectivity.
    All facilities that care for residents with serious  cognitive impairments due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia who  cannot recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare shall be  subject to either Article 2 (22VAC40-73-1010 et seq.) or Article 3  (22VAC40-73-1080 et seq.) of this part. All facilities that care for residents  with serious cognitive impairments due to any other diagnosis who cannot  recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare shall be subject to  Article 2 of this part. 
    Article 2
  Mixed Population
    22VAC40-73-1010. Applicability.
    The requirements in this article apply when there is a  mixed population consisting of any combination of (i) residents who have  serious cognitive impairments due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of  dementia who are unable to recognize danger or protect their own safety and  welfare and who are not in a special care unit as provided for in Article 3  (22VAC40-73-1080 et seq.) of this part; (ii) residents who have serious  cognitive impairments due to any other diagnosis who cannot recognize danger or  protect their own safety and welfare; and (iii) other residents. The requirements  in this article also apply when all the residents have serious cognitive  impairments due to any diagnosis other than a primary psychiatric diagnosis of  dementia and cannot recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare.  Except for special care units covered by Article 3 of this part, these  requirements apply to the entire facility unless specified otherwise.
    22VAC40-73-1020. Staffing.
    A. When residents are present, there shall be at least two  direct care staff members awake and on duty at all times in each building who  shall be responsible for the care and supervision of the residents.  
    B. During trips away from the facility, there shall be  sufficient direct care staff to provide sight and sound supervision to all  residents who cannot recognize danger or protect their own safety and welfare.
    Exception: The requirements of subsections A and B of this  section do not apply when facilities are licensed for 10 or fewer residents if  no more than three of the residents have serious cognitive impairments. Each  prospective resident or his legal representative shall be notified of this  exception prior to admission.
    22VAC40-73-1030. Staff training.
    A. Commencing immediately upon employment and within three  months, the administrator shall attend 12 hours of training in working with  individuals who have a cognitive impairment, and the training shall meet the  requirements of subsection C of this section. 
    1. Training in cognitive impairment that meets the  requirements of subsection C of this section and was completed in the year  prior to employment is transferable and counts toward the required 12 hours if  there is documentation of the training.
    2. Whether the training counts toward continuing education  for administrator licensure and for what period of time depends upon the  licensure requirements of the Virginia Board of Long-Term Care Administrators.
    B. Commencing immediately upon employment and within four  months, direct care staff shall attend six hours of training in working with  individuals who have a cognitive impairment, and the training shall meet the  requirements of subsection C of this section. 
    1. The six-hour training received within the first four  months of employment is counted toward the annual training requirement for the  first year. 
    2. Training in cognitive impairment that meets the  requirements of subsection C of this section and was completed in the year  prior to employment is transferable if there is documentation of the training. 
    3. The documented previous cognitive impairment training  referenced in subdivision 2 of this subsection is counted toward the required  six hours but not toward the annual training requirement.
    C. Curriculum for the training in cognitive impairment for  direct care staff and administrators shall be developed by a qualified health  professional or by a licensed social worker, shall be relevant to the  population in care, shall maximize the level of a resident's functional  ability, and shall include, but need not be limited to:
    1. Information about cognitive impairment, including areas  such as cause, progression, behaviors, and management of the condition;
    2. Communicating with the resident;
    3. Resident care techniques for persons with physical,  cognitive, behavioral, and social disabilities;
    4. Managing dysfunctional behavior; 
    5. Creating a therapeutic environment;
    6. Planning and facilitating activities appropriate for  each resident; and
    7. Identifying and alleviating safety risks to residents  with cognitive impairment.
    D. Within the first month of employment, staff, other than  the administrator and direct care staff, shall complete two hours of training  on the nature and needs of residents with cognitive impairments relevant to the  population in care.
    22VAC40-73-1040. Doors and windows.
    A. Doors leading to the outside shall have a system of  security monitoring of residents with serious cognitive impairments, such as  door alarms, cameras, constant staff oversight, security bracelets that are  part of an alarm system, or delayed egress mechanisms. Residents with serious  cognitive impairments may be limited but not prohibited from exiting the  facility or any part thereof. Before limiting any resident from freely leaving  the facility, the resident's record shall reflect the behavioral observations or  other bases for determining that the resident has a serious cognitive  impairment and cannot recognize danger or protect his own safety and welfare.
    B. There shall be protective devices on the bedroom and  the bathroom windows of residents with serious cognitive impairments and on  windows in common areas accessible to these residents to prevent the windows  from being opened wide enough for a resident to crawl through. The protective  devices on the windows shall be in conformance with the Virginia Uniform Statewide  Building Code (13VAC5-63). 
    22VAC40-73-1050. Outdoor access.
    A. The facility shall have a secured outdoor area for the  residents' use or provide direct care staff supervision while residents with  serious cognitive impairments are outside.
    B. Weather permitting, residents with serious cognitive  impairments shall be reminded of the opportunity to be outdoors on a daily  basis, 
    22VAC40-73-1060. Indoor walking area.
    The facility shall provide to residents free access to an  indoor walking corridor or other indoor area that may be used for walking.
    22VAC40-73-1070. Environmental precautions.
    A. Special environmental precautions shall be taken by the  facility to eliminate hazards to the safety and well‑being of residents  with serious cognitive impairments.  Examples of environmental precautions  include signs, carpet patterns and arrows that point the way, and reduction of  background noise.
    B. When there are indications that ordinary materials or  objects may be harmful to a resident with a serious cognitive impairment, these  materials or objects shall be inaccessible to the resident except under staff  supervision.
    Article 3
  Safe, Secure Environment
    22VAC40-73-1080. Applicability.
    A. In order to be admitted or retained in a safe, secure  environment as defined in 22VAC40-73-10, except as provided in subsection B of  this section, a resident must have a serious cognitive impairment due to a  primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia and be unable to recognize danger or  protect his own safety and welfare. The requirements in this article apply when  such residents reside in a safe, secure environment. These requirements apply  only to the safe, secure environment. 
    B. A resident's spouse, parent, adult sibling, or adult  child who otherwise would not meet the criteria to reside in a safe, secure  environment may reside in the special care unit if the spouse, parent, sibling,  or child so requests in writing, the facility agrees in writing, and the  resident, if capable of making the decision, agrees in writing. The written  request and agreements must be maintained in the resident's file. The spouse,  parent, sibling, or child is considered a resident of the facility and as such  this chapter applies. The requirements of this article do not apply for the  spouse, parent, adult sibling, or adult child since the individual does not  have a serious cognitive impairment due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of  dementia with an inability to recognize danger or protect his own safety and  welfare.
    22VAC40-73-1090. Assessment.
    A. Prior to his admission to a safe, secure environment,  the resident shall have been assessed by an independent clinical psychologist  licensed to practice in the Commonwealth or by an independent physician as  having a serious cognitive impairment due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of  dementia with an inability to recognize danger or protect his own safety and  welfare. The physician shall be board certified or board eligible in a  specialty or subspecialty relevant to the diagnosis and treatment of serious  cognitive impairments (e.g., family practice, geriatrics, internal medicine,  neurology, neurosurgery, or psychiatry). The assessment shall be in writing and  shall include, but not be limited to the following areas:
    1. Cognitive functions (e.g., orientation, comprehension,  problem-solving, attention and concentration, memory, intelligence, abstract  reasoning, judgment, and insight);
    2. Thought and perception (e.g., process and content);
    3. Mood/affect;
    4. Behavior/psychomotor;
    5. Speech/language; and
    6. Appearance.
    B. The assessment required in subsection A of this section  shall be maintained in the resident's record.
    22VAC40-73-1100. Approval.
    A. Prior to placing a resident with a serious cognitive  impairment due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia in a safe, secure  environment, the facility shall obtain the written approval of one of the  following persons, in the following order of priority:
    1. The resident, if capable of making an informed decision;
    2. A guardian or other legal representative for the  resident if one has been appointed;
    3. A relative who is willing and able to take  responsibility to act as the resident's representative, in the following  specified order: (i) spouse, (ii) adult child, (iii) parent, (iv) adult  sibling, (v) adult grandchild, (vi) adult niece or nephew, (vii) aunt or uncle;  or
    4. If the resident is not capable of making an informed  decision and a guardian, legal representative, or relative is unavailable, an  independent physician who is skilled and knowledgeable in the diagnosis and  treatment of dementia.
    B. The obtained written approval shall be retained in the  resident's file.
    C. The facility shall document that the order of priority  specified in subsection A of this section was followed, and the documentation  shall be retained in the resident's file.
    D. As soon as one of the persons in the order as  prioritized in subsection A of this section disapproves of placement or  retention in the safe, secure environment, then the assisted living facility  shall not place or retain the resident or prospective resident in the special  care unit. If the resident is not to be retained in the unit, the discharge  requirements specified in 22VAC40-73-430 apply.
    22VAC40-73-1110. Appropriateness of placement and continued  residence.
    A. Prior to admitting a resident with a serious cognitive  impairment due to a primary psychiatric diagnosis of dementia to a safe, secure  environment, the licensee, administrator, or designee shall determine whether  placement in the special care unit is appropriate. The determination and  justification for the decision shall be in writing and shall be retained in the  resident's file. 
    B. Six months after placement of the resident in the safe,  secure environment and annually thereafter, the licensee, administrator, or  designee shall perform a review of the appropriateness of each resident's  continued residence in the special care unit.
    C. Whenever warranted by a change in a resident's  condition, the licensee, administrator, or designee shall also perform a review  of the appropriateness of continued residence in the unit.
    D. The reviews specified in subsections B and C of this  section shall be performed in consultation with the following persons, as  appropriate: 
    1. The resident; 
    2. A responsible family member; 
    3. A guardian or other legal representative; 
    4. A designated contact person; 
    5. Direct care staff who provide care and supervision to  the resident; 
    6. The resident's mental health provider; 
    7. The licensed health care professional required in  22VAC40-73-490; 
    8. The resident's physician; and 
    9. Any other professional involved with the resident. 
    E. The licensee, administrator, or designee shall make a  determination as to whether continued residence in the special care unit is  appropriate at the time of each review required by subsections B and C of this  section. The determination and justification for the decision shall be in  writing and shall be retained in the resident's file.
    22VAC40-73-1120. Activities.
    A. In addition to the requirements of this section, all  the requirements of 22VAC40-73-520 apply to safe, secure environments, except  for 22VAC40-73-520 C and E. 
    B. There shall be at least 21 hours of scheduled  activities available to the residents each week for no less than two hours each  day. 
    C. If appropriate to meet the needs of the resident with a  short attention span, there shall be multiple short activities.
    D. Staff shall regularly encourage residents to  participate in activities and provide guidance and assistance, as needed.
    E. As appropriate, residents shall be encouraged to  participate in supervised activities or programs outside the special care unit.
    F. There shall be a designated staff person responsible  for managing or coordinating the structured activities program. This staff  person shall be on site in the special care unit at least 20 hours a week,  shall maintain personal interaction with the residents and familiarity with  their needs and interests, and shall meet at least one of the following  qualifications:
    1. Be a qualified therapeutic recreation specialist or an  activities professional;
    2. Be eligible for certification as a therapeutic  recreation specialist or an activities professional by a recognized accrediting  body;
    3. Have one year full-time work experience within the last  five years in an activities program in an adult care setting;
    4. Be a qualified occupational therapist or an occupational  therapy assistant; or
    5. Prior to or within six months of employment, have  successfully completed 40 hours of department-approved training in adult group  activities and in recognizing and assessing the activity needs of residents.
    The required 20 hours on site does not have to be devoted  solely to managing or coordinating activities; neither is it required that the  person responsible for managing or coordinating the activities program conduct  the activities.
    22VAC40-73-1130. Staffing.
    A. When residents are present, there shall be at least two  direct care staff members awake and on duty at all times on each floor in each  special care unit who shall be responsible for the care and supervision of the  residents, except as provided in subsection B of this section. This requirement  is independent of 22VAC40-73-280 D and 22VAC40-73-1020 A.
    B. Only one direct care staff member has to be awake and  on duty in the unit if sufficient to meet the needs of the residents, if (i)  there are no more than five residents present in the unit and (ii) there are at  least two other direct care staff members in the building, one of whom is  readily available to assist with emergencies in the special care unit, provided  that supervision necessary to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of  residents throughout the building is not compromised.
    C. During trips away from the facility, there shall be  sufficient direct care staff to provide sight and sound supervision to  residents.
    22VAC40-73-1140. Staff training.
    A. Commencing immediately upon employment and within three  months, the administrator shall attend at least 12 hours of training in  cognitive impairment that meets the requirements of subsection C of this  section.
    1. Training in cognitive impairment that meets the  requirements of subsection C of this section and was completed in the year  prior to employment is transferable and counts toward the required 12 hours if  there is documentation of the training.
    2. Whether the training counts toward continuing education  for administrator licensure and for what period of time depends upon the  licensure requirements of the Virginia Board of Long-Term Care Administrators.
    B. Commencing immediately upon employment in the safe,  secure environment and within four months, direct care staff shall attend at  least 10 hours of training in cognitive impairment that meets the requirements  of subsection C of this section. 
    1. The training is counted toward the annual training  requirement for the first year. 
    2. Training in cognitive impairment that meets the  requirements of subsection C of this section and was completed in the year  prior to employment is transferable if there is documentation of the training. 
    3. The documented previous cognitive impairment training  referenced in subdivision 2 of this subsection is counted toward the required  10 hours but not toward the annual training requirement.
    C. The training in cognitive impairment required by  subsections A and B of this section shall be relevant to the population in  care, shall maximize the level of a resident's functional ability, and shall  include, but not be limited to, the following topics:
    1. Information about cognitive impairment, including areas  such as cause, progression, behaviors, and management of the condition;
    2. Communicating with the resident;
    3. Resident care techniques for persons with physical,  cognitive, behavioral, and social disabilities;
    4. Managing dysfunctional behavior; 
    5.Creating a therapeutic environment;
    6. Planning and facilitating activities appropriate for  each resident; and 
    7. Identifying and alleviating safety risks to residents  with cognitive impairment.
    D. The training specified in subsection C of this section  shall be developed and provided by:
    1. A licensed health care professional practicing within  the scope of his profession who has at least 12 hours of training in the care  of individuals with cognitive impairments due to dementia; or
    2. A person who has been approved by the department to  develop or provide the training.
    E. Within the first month of employment, staff, other than  the administrator and direct care staff, who will have contact with residents  in the special care unit shall complete two hours of training on the nature and  needs of residents with cognitive impairments due to dementia.
    22VAC40-73-1150. Doors and windows.
    A. Doors that lead to unprotected areas shall be monitored  or secured through devices that conform to applicable building and fire codes,  including but not limited to, door alarms, cameras, constant staff oversight,  security bracelets that are part of an alarm system, pressure pads at doorways,  delayed egress mechanisms, locking devices, or perimeter fence gates. Residents  who reside in safe, secure environments may be prohibited from exiting the  facility or the special care unit, if applicable building and fire codes are  met.
    B. There shall be protective devices on the bedroom and  bathroom windows of residents and on windows in common areas accessible to  residents to prevent the windows from being opened wide enough for a resident  to crawl through. The protective devices on the windows shall be in conformance  with the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63). 
    22VAC40-73-1160. Outdoor access.
    A. The facility shall have a secured outdoor area for the  residents' use or provide direct care staff supervision while residents are  outside.
    B. Residents shall be given the opportunity to be outdoors  on a daily basis, weather permitting.
    22VAC40-73-1170. Indoor walking area.
    The facility shall provide to residents free access to an  indoor walking corridor or other indoor area that may be used for walking.
    22VAC40-73-1180. Environmental precautions.
    A. Special environmental precautions shall be taken by the  facility to eliminate hazards to the safety and well-being of residents.  Examples of environmental precautions include signs, carpet patterns and arrows  that point the way, high visual contrast between floors and walls, and  reduction of background noise.
    B. When there are indications that ordinary materials or  objects may be harmful to a resident, these materials or objects shall be  inaccessible to the resident except under staff supervision.
    C. Special environmental enhancements, tailored to the  population in care, shall be provided by the facility to enable residents to  maximize their independence and to promote their dignity in comfortable  surroundings. Examples of environmental enhancements include memory boxes,  activity centers, rocking chairs, and visual contrast between plates and eating  utensils and the table.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (22VAC40-73)
    Report  of Tuberculosis Screening
    Virginia  Department of Health Report of Tuberculosis Screening Form (eff. 3/2011)
    Virginia  Department of Health TB Control Program TB Risk Assessment Form, TB 512 (eff.  5/2011)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-3227; Filed August 5, 2015, 1:42 p.m.