The Virginia Register OF  REGULATIONS is an official state publication issued every other week  throughout the year. Indexes are published quarterly, and are cumulative for  the year. The Virginia Register has several functions. The new and  amended sections of regulations, both as proposed and as finally adopted, are  required by law to be published in the Virginia Register. In addition,  the Virginia Register is a source of other information about state  government, including petitions for rulemaking, emergency regulations,  executive orders issued by the Governor, and notices of public hearings on  regulations.
    ADOPTION,  AMENDMENT, AND REPEAL OF REGULATIONS
    An  agency wishing to adopt, amend, or repeal regulations must first publish in the  Virginia Register a notice of intended regulatory action; a basis,  purpose, substance and issues statement; an economic impact analysis prepared  by the Department of Planning and Budget; the agency’s response to the economic  impact analysis; a summary; a notice giving the public an opportunity to  comment on the proposal; and the text of the proposed regulation.
    Following  publication of the proposal in the Virginia Register, the promulgating agency  receives public comments for a minimum of 60 days. The Governor reviews the  proposed regulation to determine if it is necessary to protect the public  health, safety and welfare, and if it is clearly written and easily  understandable. If the Governor chooses to comment on the proposed regulation,  his comments must be transmitted to the agency and the Registrar no later than  15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment period. The  Governor’s comments, if any, will be published in the Virginia Register.  Not less than 15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment  period, the agency may adopt the proposed regulation.
    The  Joint Commission on Administrative Rules (JCAR) or the appropriate standing  committee of each house of the General Assembly may meet during the  promulgation or final adoption process and file an objection with the Registrar  and the promulgating agency. The objection will be published in the Virginia  Register. Within 21 days after receipt by the agency of a legislative  objection, the agency shall file a response with the Registrar, the objecting  legislative body, and the Governor.
    When  final action is taken, the agency again publishes the text of the regulation as  adopted, highlighting all changes made to the proposed regulation and  explaining any substantial changes made since publication of the proposal. A  30-day final adoption period begins upon final publication in the Virginia  Register.
    The  Governor may review the final regulation during this time and, if he objects,  forward his objection to the Registrar and the agency. In addition to or in  lieu of filing a formal objection, the Governor may suspend the effective date  of a portion or all of a regulation until the end of the next regular General  Assembly session by issuing a directive signed by a majority of the members of  the appropriate legislative body and the Governor. The Governor’s objection or  suspension of the regulation, or both, will be published in the Virginia  Register. If the Governor finds that changes made to the proposed  regulation have substantial impact, he may require the agency to provide an  additional 30-day public comment period on the changes. Notice of the  additional public comment period required by the Governor will be published in  the Virginia Register.
    The  agency shall suspend the regulatory process for 30 days when it receives  requests from 25 or more individuals to solicit additional public comment,  unless the agency determines that the changes have minor or inconsequential  impact.
    A  regulation becomes effective at the conclusion of the 30-day final adoption  period, or at any other later date specified by the promulgating agency, unless  (i) a legislative objection has been filed, in which event the regulation,  unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after  the expiration of the 21-day objection period; (ii) the Governor exercises his  authority to require the agency to provide for additional public comment, in  which event the regulation, unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date  specified, which shall be after the expiration of the period for which the  Governor has provided for additional public comment; (iii) the Governor and the  General Assembly exercise their authority to suspend the effective date of a  regulation until the end of the next regular legislative session; or (iv) the  agency suspends the regulatory process, in which event the regulation, unless  withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after the  expiration of the 30-day public comment period and no earlier than 15 days from  publication of the readopted action.
    A  regulatory action may be withdrawn by the promulgating agency at any time  before the regulation becomes final.
    FAST-TRACK  RULEMAKING PROCESS
    Section 2.2-4012.1 of the Code of Virginia provides an exemption from certain  provisions of the Administrative Process Act for agency regulations deemed by  the Governor to be noncontroversial.  To use this process, Governor's  concurrence is required and advance notice must be provided to certain  legislative committees.  Fast-track regulations will become effective on the  date noted in the regulatory action if no objections to using the process are  filed in accordance with § 2.2-4012.1.
    EMERGENCY  REGULATIONS
    Pursuant  to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of Virginia, an agency, upon consultation  with the Attorney General, and at the discretion of the Governor, may adopt  emergency regulations that are necessitated by an emergency situation. An  agency may also adopt an emergency regulation when Virginia statutory law or  the appropriation act or federal law or federal regulation requires that a  regulation be effective in 280 days or less from its enactment. The emergency regulation becomes operative upon its  adoption and filing with the Registrar of Regulations, unless a later date is  specified. Emergency regulations are limited to no more than 18 months in  duration; however, may be extended for six months under certain circumstances  as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D. Emergency regulations are published as  soon as possible in the Register.
    During  the time the emergency status is in effect, the agency may proceed with the  adoption of permanent regulations through the usual procedures. To begin  promulgating the replacement regulation, the agency must (i) file the Notice of  Intended Regulatory Action with the Registrar within 60 days of the effective  date of the emergency regulation and (ii) file the proposed regulation with the  Registrar within 180 days of the effective date of the emergency regulation. If  the agency chooses not to adopt the regulations, the emergency status ends when  the prescribed time limit expires.
    STATEMENT
    The  foregoing constitutes a generalized statement of the procedures to be followed.  For specific statutory language, it is suggested that Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006  et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia be examined  carefully.
    CITATION  TO THE VIRGINIA REGISTER
    The Virginia  Register is cited by volume, issue, page number, and date. 29:5 VA.R. 1075-1192  November 5, 2012, refers to Volume 29, Issue 5, pages 1075 through 1192 of  the Virginia Register issued on 
  November 5, 2012.
    The  Virginia Register of Regulations is  published pursuant to Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2  of the Code of Virginia. 
    Members  of the Virginia Code Commission: John  S. Edwards, Chair; James M. LeMunyon, Vice Chair, Gregory D.  Habeeb; Ryan T. McDougle; Pamela S. Baskervill; Robert L.  Calhoun; Carlos L. Hopkins; E.M. Miller, Jr.; Thomas M. Moncure, Jr.; Christopher  R. Nolen; Timothy Oksman; Charles S. Sharp; Robert L. Tavenner.
    Staff  of the Virginia Register: Jane  D. Chaffin, Registrar of Regulations; Karen Perrine, Assistant  Registrar; Anne Bloomsburg, Regulations Analyst; Rhonda Dyer, Publications  Assistant; Terri Edwards, Operations Staff Assistant.
         
       
                                                        PUBLICATION SCHEDULE AND DEADLINES
Vol. 32 Iss. 8 - December 14, 2015
December 2015 through December 2016
 
  | Volume: Issue | Material Submitted By Noon* | Will Be Published On | 
 
  | 32:8 | November 24, 2015 (Tuesday) | December 14, 2015 | 
 
  | 32:9 | December 9, 2015 | December 28, 2015 | 
 
  | 32:10 | December 21, 2015 (Monday) | January 11, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:11 | January 6, 2016 | January 25, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:12 | January 20, 2016 | February 8, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:13 | February 3, 2016 | February 22, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:14 | February 17, 2016 | March 7, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:15 | March 2, 2016 | March 21, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:16 | March 16, 2016 | April 4, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:17 | March 30, 2016 | April 18, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:18 | April 13, 2016 | May 2, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:19 | April 27, 2016 | May 16, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:20 | May 11, 2016 | May 30, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:21 | May 25, 2016 | June 13, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:22 | June 8, 2016 | June 27, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:23 | June 22, 2016 | July 11, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:24 | July 6, 2016 | July 25, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:25 | July 20, 2016 | August 8, 2016 | 
 
  | 32:26 | August 3, 2016 | August 22, 2016 | 
 
  | 33:1 | August 17, 2016 | September 5, 2016 | 
 
  | 33:2 | August 31, 2016 | September 19, 2016 | 
 
  | 33:3 | September 14, 2016 | October 3, 2016 | 
 
  | 33:4 | September 28, 2016 | October 17, 2016 | 
 
  | 33:5 | October 12, 2016 | October 31, 2016 | 
 
  | 33:6 | October 26, 2016 | November 14, 2016 | 
 
  | 33:7 | November 9, 2016 | November 28, 2016 | 
 
  | 33:8 | November 22, 2016 (Tuesday) | December 12, 2016 | 
 
  | 33:9 | December 7, 2016 | December 26, 2016 | 
*Filing deadlines are Wednesdays
unless otherwise specified.
 
   
                                                        PETITIONS FOR RULEMAKING
Vol. 32 Iss. 8 - December 14, 2015
TITLE 12. HEALTH
    STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
    Initial Agency Notice
    Title of Regulation:  12VAC5-550. Board of Health Regulations Governing Vital Records.
    Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-249  through 32.1-276 of the Code of Virginia.
    Name of Petitioner: James Parrish, Equality Virginia;  and Arli Christian, National Center for Transgender Equality
    Nature of Petitioner's  Request: The petitioner requests that  the vital records regulations be amended as follows: Virginia's birth  certificate gender change regulation should not require surgery, based on a  modern understanding of appropriate treatment for transgender people.  Virginia's birth certificate gender change regulation should not require a  court order, as courts are a costly and complicated barrier to many transgender  people, and medical providers, rather than judges, have the professional  expertise to request the appropriate gender marker on a birth certificate.
    Agency Plan for Disposition of  Request: In accordance with Virginia  law, the petition has been filed with the Registrar of Regulations and will be  published on December 14, 2014, and posted to the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall  at www.townhall.virginia.gov. Comment on the petition will be accepted until  January 4, 2016, and may be posted on the Townhall or sent to the board.  Following receipt of all comment on the petition, and within 90 days of January  4, 2016, the matter will be considered by the State Health Commissioner, acting  on behalf of the Board, in order to decide whether to grant the petition.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 4, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Janet Rainey, Director, Department of  Health, Division of Vital Records, 2001 Maywill Street, Suite 268, Richmond, VA  23230, telephone (804) 662-5245, or email janet.rainey@vdh.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-07; Filed November 13, 2015, 12:45 p.m.
    w  ––––––––––––––––––  w
    TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND  OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
    BOARD OF SOCIAL WORK
    Initial Agency Notice
    Title of Regulation:  18VAC140-20. Regulations Governing the Practice of Social Work.
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Name of Petitioner: Anjaulyeke Bryant-Covert.
    Nature of Petitioner's Request: To amend 18VAC140-20-70  to allow persons who have failed the licensing examination to count their  supervision hours beyond the two years currently prescribed. The amendment  would grandfather those applicants who do not meet current requirements for  registration of supervision.
    Agency Plan for Disposition of  Request: In accordance with Virginia  law, the petition was filed with the Registrar of Regulations and will be  published on December 14, 2015, with a request for comment to be received until  January 13, 2016. The petition will also be posted for comment on the Virginia  Regulatory Townhall at www.townhall.virginia.gov. At the next meeting held  after the close of the comment period, scheduled for February 5, 2016, the  board will consider the petition and any comment received to decide whether or  not to initiate the rulemaking process.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Elaine J. Yeatts, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, Department of Health Professions, 9960 Mayland Drive, Richmond, VA  23233, telephone (804) 367-4688, or email elaine.yeatts@dhp.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-08; Filed November 12, 2015, 10:50 a.m.
     
         
       
                                                        
                                                        NOTICES OF INTENDED REGULATORY ACTION
Vol. 32 Iss. 8 - December 14, 2015
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
Regulations Banning Concealed Firearms in Offices Owned or Occupied by Executive Branch Agencies
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the  Code of Virginia that the Department of General Services intends to consider adopting  1VAC30-105, Regulations Banning Concealed Firearms in Offices Owned or  Occupied by Executive Branch Agencies. The purpose of this proposed action  is to implement Executive Order 50 (McAuliffe 2015), which bans firearms in  executive branch agency offices. The proposed regulation will prohibit concealed  firearms in offices and workplace facilities under the ownership, lease, or  control of an executive branch agency and includes a requirement for posting  signs to this effect. 
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 2.2-1102 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 27, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Rhonda Bishton, Regulatory Coordinator,  Department of General Services, 1100 Bank Street, Suite 420, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 786-3311, FAX (804) 371-8305, or email  rhonda.bishton@dgs.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4572; Filed December 3, 2015, 3:48 p.m. 
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
Standards for Planning, Design, Construction and Reimbursement of Local Correctional Facilities
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Corrections intends to consider  repealing 6VAC15-80, Standards for Planning, Design, Construction and  Reimbursement of Local Correctional Facilities and adopting 6VAC15-81,  Standards for Planning, Design, Construction, and Reimbursement of Local  Correctional Facilities. The purpose of the proposed action is to  repeal the existing regulation, 6VAC15-80, and replace it with a new  regulation, 6VAC15-81. The new regulation will update the regulations to  current Code of Virginia requirements and current fire code, building code, and  audit standards for the construction of local correctional facilities. 
    In addition, this regulation will undergo a periodic review  pursuant to Executive Order 17 (2014) and a small business impact review  pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia to determine whether this  regulation should be terminated, amended, or retained in its current form.  Public comment is sought on the review of any issue relating to this  regulation, including whether the regulation (i) is necessary for the  protection of public health, safety, and welfare or for the economical  performance of important governmental functions; (ii) minimizes the economic  impact on small businesses in a manner consistent with the stated objectives of  applicable law; and (iii) is clearly written and easily understandable.
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 53.1-5, 53.1-80, 53.1-81,  and 53.1-82 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 14, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Jim Bruce, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, Department of Corrections, P.O. Box 26963, Richmond, VA  23261-6963, telephone (804) 887-8215, or email james.bruce@vadoc.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4552; Filed November 13, 2015, 4:10 p.m. 
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
Standards for Planning, Design, Construction, and Reimbursement of Local Correctional Facilities
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Corrections intends to consider  repealing 6VAC15-80, Standards for Planning, Design, Construction and  Reimbursement of Local Correctional Facilities and adopting 6VAC15-81,  Standards for Planning, Design, Construction, and Reimbursement of Local  Correctional Facilities. The purpose of the proposed action is to  repeal the existing regulation, 6VAC15-80, and replace it with a new  regulation, 6VAC15-81. The new regulation will update the regulations to  current Code of Virginia requirements and current fire code, building code, and  audit standards for the construction of local correctional facilities. 
    In addition, this regulation will undergo a periodic review  pursuant to Executive Order 17 (2014) and a small business impact review  pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia to determine whether this  regulation should be terminated, amended, or retained in its current form.  Public comment is sought on the review of any issue relating to this  regulation, including whether the regulation (i) is necessary for the  protection of public health, safety, and welfare or for the economical  performance of important governmental functions; (ii) minimizes the economic  impact on small businesses in a manner consistent with the stated objectives of  applicable law; and (iii) is clearly written and easily understandable.
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 53.1-5, 53.1-80, 53.1-81,  and 53.1-82 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 14, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Jim Bruce, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, Department of Corrections, P.O. Box 26963, Richmond, VA  23261-6963, telephone (804) 887-8215, or email james.bruce@vadoc.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4552; Filed November 13, 2015, 4:10 p.m. 
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
Regulations Governing Juvenile Record Information and the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action 
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the  Code of Virginia that the Board of Juvenile Justice intends to consider  amending 6VAC35-160, Regulations Governing Juvenile Record Information and  the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System. The purpose of the  proposed action is to remove antiquated terms and requirements, provide  clarifying language for processes that were previously vague, and ensure that  the Commonwealth Information Technology Resource Management Standards are met.
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 16.1-223 and 66-10 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 29, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Janet P. Van Cuyk, Legislative and  Research Manager, Department of Juvenile Justice, 600 East Main Street, 20th  Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 588-3879, FAX (804) 371-6490, or  email janet.vancuyk@djj.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4311; Filed November 20, 2015, 10:03 a.m. 
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
Licensure Regulations for School Personnel
Withdrawal of Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Education has WITHDRAWN the Notice  of Intended Regulatory Action for 8VAC20-22, Licensure Regulations for  School Personnel, which was published in 29:6 VA.R. 1196 November 19, 2012. The  local eligibility license was eliminated through a separate regulatory action,  and the requirements for teachers who teach online only are included in the  board's comprehensive revision of the Licensure Regulations for School  Personnel; therefore, this regulatory action is unnecessary.
    Agency Contact: Patty S. Pitts, Assistant Superintendent  for Teacher Education and Licensure, Department of Education, P.O. Box 2120,  Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-2522, or email patty.pitts@doe.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3427; Filed November 20, 2015, 2:21 p.m. 
TITLE 11. GAMING
 Charitable Gaming Regulations
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the  Code of Virginia that the Charitable Gaming Board intends to consider amending 11VAC15-40,  Charitable Gaming Regulations. The Charitable Gaming Regulations currently  include provisions prescribing the number of standalone electronic pull-tab  devices and handheld electronic pull-tab devices that may be used at qualifying  sites. The planned regulatory action seeks to examine the limit on the number  of electronic pull-tab devices that may be used at various qualified sites with  the goal of increasing the number of devices allowed. These sites include (i)  premises at which charitable gaming is conducted and (ii) private social  quarters. Premises at which charitable gaming is conducted are open to the  public during charitable gaming sessions. Private social quarters also conduct  charitable gaming and are operated by qualified nonprofit organizations, but  entrance to these premises is limited to members of the organization operating  the social quarters and the members' guests. 
    The type of premises determines the number of electronic  pull-tab devices that may be present at the premises. Limits on the number of  permitted devices are prescribed in 11VAC15-40-300. Currently, this regulation  allows a maximum of 10 standalone electronic pull-tab devices and 50 handheld electronic  pull-tab devices in premises that are open to the public, while private social  quarters are limited to a total of five electronic pull-tab devices, regardless  of type. These limits were based on an agreement reached between stakeholders  during the drafting of the final text of the regulation, which became effective  in 2012.
    This proposed regulatory action was initiated in response to a  Petition for Rulemaking from a licensed manufacturer of electronic pull-tab  systems requesting an increase in the number of electronic pull-tab devices  allowed in private social quarters. 
    The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the proposed  action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 18.2-340.15 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Michael Menefee, Program Manager,  Charitable and Regulatory Programs, Department of Agriculture and Consumer  Services, 102 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-3983,  FAX (804) 371-7479, or email michael.menefee@vdacs.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-32; Filed November 13, 2015, 1:09 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
Eligibility Conditions and Requirements
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the  Code of Virginia that the Board of Medical Assistance Services intends to  consider amending 12VAC30-40, Eligibility Conditions and Requirements.  The purpose of the proposed action is to comply with Item 307 T of Chapter 665  of the 2015 Acts of the Assembly, which directed that payments made to  compensate individuals who were involuntarily sterilized pursuant to the  Virginia Eugenical Sterilization Act and who are living as of February 1, 2015,  are disregarded for the purpose of Medicaid eligibility determinations. 
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia;  42 USC § 1396 et seq.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,  Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad  Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)  786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4351; Filed November 23, 2015, 10:36 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
Victims of Sterilization Fund Program
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of  the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services intends to consider promulgating 12VAC35-240, Victims  of Sterilization Fund Program. The purpose of the proposed action is to  implement Item 307 T of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, which  establishes compensation for individuals who were involuntarily sterilized  pursuant to the 1924 Virginia Eugenical Sterilization Act and who are living as  of February 1, 2015. The act enacts requirements for the compensation program,  including funding limits on claims and a requirement that disbursements be  based on the date at which sufficient documentation is provided, and authorizes  the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services to pay claims.
    The proposed regulation establishes (i) eligibility criteria,  (ii) submission of claims, (iii) appropriate documentation for verification,  (iv) compensation, and (v) an administrative process for handling claims
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 37.2-203 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Ruth Anne Walker, Regulatory  Coordinator, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services,  Jefferson Building, 1220 Bank Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone  (804) 225-2252, FAX (804) 786-8623, or email  ruthanne.walker@dbhds.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4471; Filed November 21, 2015, 8:54 p.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Standards and Regulations for Licensed Adult Day Care Centers
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the  Code of Virginia that the State Board of Social Services intends to consider  repealing 22VAC40-60, Standards and Regulations for Licensed Adult Day Care  Centers, and adopting 22VAC40-61, Regulations for Licensed Adult Day  Care Centers. The purpose of the proposed action is to repeal the existing  regulation for licensed adult day care centers, 22VAC40-60, and adopt a new  regulation, 22VAC40-61, to replace it. A comprehensive revision is needed to  provide greater protection for adults in care, improve the organization of the  regulation, increase clarity and consistency, incorporate changed practices and  procedures, and eliminate unnecessarily burdensome or intrusive requirements.  The revision will allow for changes based on improved practices, the latest  research and improved technology, as well as meeting the increased needs of a  population of elderly, infirm, or disabled persons that has become more  vulnerable over the years. Current technology and medical practice have allowed  individuals to stay in their own homes, or to live with family members longer,  and as a result, there is an increased need for this level of care and  socialization.
    As part of this comprehensive review, this regulation will  undergo a periodic review pursuant to Executive Order 17 (2014) and a small  business impact review pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia to  determine whether this regulation should be terminated, amended, or retained in  its current form. Public comment is sought on the review of any issue relating  to this regulation, including whether the regulation (i) is necessary for the  protection of public health, safety, and welfare or for the economical  performance of important governmental functions; (ii) minimizes the economic  impact on small businesses in a manner consistent with the stated objectives of  applicable law; and (iii) is clearly written and easily understandable.
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 63.2-1733 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Annette Kelley, Licensing Consultant,  Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street, Room 1507, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 726-7632, FAX (804) 726-7132, or email  annette.kelley@dss.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4545; Filed November 16, 2015, 12:05 p.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Regulations for Licensed Adult Day Care Centers
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the  Code of Virginia that the State Board of Social Services intends to consider  repealing 22VAC40-60, Standards and Regulations for Licensed Adult Day Care  Centers, and adopting 22VAC40-61, Regulations for Licensed Adult Day  Care Centers. The purpose of the proposed action is to repeal the existing  regulation for licensed adult day care centers, 22VAC40-60, and adopt a new  regulation, 22VAC40-61, to replace it. A comprehensive revision is needed to  provide greater protection for adults in care, improve the organization of the  regulation, increase clarity and consistency, incorporate changed practices and  procedures, and eliminate unnecessarily burdensome or intrusive requirements.  The revision will allow for changes based on improved practices, the latest  research and improved technology, as well as meeting the increased needs of a  population of elderly, infirm, or disabled persons that has become more  vulnerable over the years. Current technology and medical practice have allowed  individuals to stay in their own homes, or to live with family members longer,  and as a result, there is an increased need for this level of care and  socialization.
    As part of this comprehensive review, this regulation will  undergo a periodic review pursuant to Executive Order 17 (2014) and a small  business impact review pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia to  determine whether this regulation should be terminated, amended, or retained in  its current form. Public comment is sought on the review of any issue relating  to this regulation, including whether the regulation (i) is necessary for the  protection of public health, safety, and welfare or for the economical  performance of important governmental functions; (ii) minimizes the economic  impact on small businesses in a manner consistent with the stated objectives of  applicable law; and (iii) is clearly written and easily understandable.
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 63.2-1733 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Annette Kelley, Licensing Consultant,  Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street, Room 1507, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 726-7632, FAX (804) 726-7132, or email  annette.kelley@dss.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4545; Filed November 16, 2015, 12:05 p.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the  Code of Virginia that the State Board of Social Services intends to consider  repealing 22VAC40-185, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers, and  adopting 22VAC40-186, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers. This  proposed regulatory action is a joint action to repeal the existing regulation,  22VAC40-185, and establish a new regulation, 22VAC 40-186, for licensed child  day centers to address health and safety issues. The action is essential to  enhance the health, safety, and welfare of children in care. The purpose of the  adoption of a new regulation is to support the agency's effort to expand and  clarify health and safety requirements; to improve understanding and  interpretation leading to enhanced compliance and enforcement by adjusting  structure and format and simplifying language; and to incorporate updates to  address ever-changing national health and safety guidelines and practices. In  addition, it is the goal of the agency to ensure that parents have sufficient  information to make informed decisions about placing their children in licensed  child day centers while ensuring the safety of children receiving care in  licensed child day centers. 
    The current regulation has been amended seven times since its  adoption in 1993 and its current terminology and format is burdensome and  confusing for providers, parents, and Division of Licensing Programs (DOLP)  staff to navigate. In fact, the current regulations are supplemented by a  67-page guidance document to assist providers, parents, and DOLP staff in  interpreting and enforcing the current regulation. The goal of this proposed  action is to present a clearly written regulation that will eliminate or  substantially decrease the need for such an elaborate technical assistance  document. 
    Repeal of the existing regulation and adoption of a new  regulation was determined by the agency as the most efficient and effective way  to make the necessary changes to achieve clarity, consistency, and to protect  children.
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-217 and 63.2-1734 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Tatanishia Armstrong, Licensing  Consultant, Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 726-7152 ext. 7, FAX (804) 726-7132, or email  tatanishia.armstrong@dss.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-3376; Filed November 10, 2015, 4:23 p.m.
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the  Code of Virginia that the State Board of Social Services intends to consider  repealing 22VAC40-185, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers, and  adopting 22VAC40-186, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers. This  proposed regulatory action is a joint action to repeal the existing regulation,  22VAC40-185, and establish a new regulation, 22VAC 40-186, for licensed child  day centers to address health and safety issues. The action is essential to  enhance the health, safety, and welfare of children in care. The purpose of the  adoption of a new regulation is to support the agency's effort to expand and  clarify health and safety requirements; to improve understanding and  interpretation leading to enhanced compliance and enforcement by adjusting  structure and format and simplifying language; and to incorporate updates to  address ever-changing national health and safety guidelines and practices. In  addition, it is the goal of the agency to ensure that parents have sufficient  information to make informed decisions about placing their children in licensed  child day centers while ensuring the safety of children receiving care in  licensed child day centers. 
    The current regulation has been amended seven times since its  adoption in 1993 and its current terminology and format is burdensome and  confusing for providers, parents, and Division of Licensing Programs (DOLP)  staff to navigate. In fact, the current regulations are supplemented by a  67-page guidance document to assist providers, parents, and DOLP staff in  interpreting and enforcing the current regulation. The goal of this proposed  action is to present a clearly written regulation that will eliminate or  substantially decrease the need for such an elaborate technical assistance  document. 
    Repeal of the existing regulation and adoption of a new  regulation was determined by the agency as the most efficient and effective way  to make the necessary changes to achieve clarity, consistency, and to protect  children.
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-217 and 63.2-1734 of  the Code of Virginia.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Tatanishia Armstrong, Licensing  Consultant, Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 726-7152 ext. 7, FAX (804) 726-7132, or email  tatanishia.armstrong@dss.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-3376; Filed November 10, 2015, 4:23 p.m.
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Appeals of Financial Sanctions for Local Departments of Social Services
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
    Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the  Code of Virginia that the State Board of Social Services intends to consider  adopting 22VAC40-920, Appeals of Financial Sanctions for Local Departments of  Social Services. The purpose of the proposed action is to provide local  departments of social services (LDSS) with an appeals process for enforcement  actions taken against the LDSS by the state Department of Social Services. 
    The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the  proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register. 
    Statutory Authority: § 63.2-217 of the Code of  Virginia; 45 CFR 92.43(a).
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Agency Contact: David Morrison, Department of Social  Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 726-7266,  or email david.morrison@dss.virginia.gov.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4569; Filed November 10, 2015, 3:04 p.m. 
 
                                                        REGULATIONS
Vol. 32 Iss. 8 - December 14, 2015
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SERVICES
Emergency Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 1VAC30-105. Regulations Banning  Concealed Firearms in Offices Owned or Occupied by Executive Branch Agencies (adding 1VAC30-105-10 through 1VAC30-105-80). 
    Statutory Authority: § 2.2-1102 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Dates: December 3, 2015, through June 3, 2017.
    Agency Contact: Rhonda Bishton, Regulatory Coordinator,  Department of General Services, 1100 Bank Street, Suite 420, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 786-3311, FAX (804) 371-8305, or email  rhonda.bishton@dgs.virginia.gov.
    Preamble:
    This regulation implements Executive Order 50 (McAuliffe  2015), which bans firearms in executive branch agency offices. This regulation  prohibits concealed firearms in offices and workplace facilities under the  ownership, lease, or control of an executive branch agency, and includes a  requirement for posting signs to this effect. The executive order (EO) directs  the Department of General Services to propose regulations within 30 days of the  EO.
    As stated in the EO, it is the Governor's desire to protect  citizens and state employees from gun violence. The purpose of this regulation  is to ban concealed firearms from offices owned, leased, or controlled by  executive branch agencies. While state employees are already prohibited from  carrying firearms through state personnel directives, this regulation will  extend that prohibition to members of the public and other nonemployee individuals  who may enter the premises. 
    As stated in the EO, the Governor has determined there is a  need to take every precaution to protect citizens and state employees from gun  violence. Every day, over 60,000 Virginians report to work in state government buildings  across the Commonwealth to provide services to their fellow Virginians.  Citizens rely on open access to these facilities to allow citizens to access  government representatives and address personal and professional needs.  Allowing the carrying of firearms exposes state employees and citizens to  unnecessary risk.
    CHAPTER 105
  REGULATIONS BANNING CONCEALED FIREARMS IN OFFICES OWNED OR OCCUPIED BY  EXECUTIVE BRANCH AGENCIES
    1VAC30-105-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of these regulations is to ban the carrying of  concealed firearms in offices occupied by executive branch agencies, with  certain exceptions as set forth herein. 
    1VAC30-105-20. Applicability.
    A. This chapter applies to all buildings and workplace  facilities owned, leased, or controlled in whole or in part, by or for an  executive branch agency. These regulations are intended to be consistent with  the Virginia Department of Human Resource Management Policy 1.80 – Workplace  Violence, which prohibits state employees from possessing, brandishing, or using  a weapon that is not required by the employee's position while on state  premises or engaged in state business. 
    B. This chapter applies to the concealed carrying of  firearms; the Department of General Services has issued a guidance document  elsewhere prohibiting the open carrying of firearms.
    C. The prohibition against carrying a concealed firearm  does not apply to law-enforcement officers, authorized security personnel, or  military personnel, when such individuals are authorized to carry a firearm in accordance  with their duties, and when they are carrying the firearm within that  authority. It also does not apply to state employees where the employee's  position requires carrying a concealed firearm.
    D. These regulations do not apply to individuals who are  on public hunting lands, are engaged in lawful hunting, and are in compliance  with the Department of Game and Inland Fisheries' Hunting and Trapping  regulations found in 4VAC15, regarding allowable firearms and hunting license  requirements.
    1VAC30-105-30. Definitions.
    "Authorized security personnel" means a natural  person who performs the functions of observation, detection, reporting, or  notification of appropriate authorities or designated agents regarding persons  or property on the premises he or she is contracted to protect.
    "Concealed firearm" means a firearm hidden from  common observation, including a firearm hidden when it is observable but is of  such deceptive appearance as to disguise the firearm's true nature. 
    "Executive branch agency" means any  administrative unit of state government in the executive branch, including any  department, institution, commission, board, council, authority or other body,  however designated.
    "Firearm" means any handgun, pistol, revolver,  or other weapon designed or intended to propel a missile of any kind by action  of an explosion of any combustible material.
    "Law-enforcement officer" shall have the same  definition as in § 18.2-307.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "State office" means any building or workplace  facility owned, leased, or controlled by or for an executive branch agency,  including buildings that support the workplace facility. This includes that  portion of premises open to others and then used exclusively for functions or  activities sponsored by an executive branch agency's tenant(s) while such  functions are taking place. 
    1VAC30-105-40. Possession of firearms prohibited.
    Possession or carrying of any concealed firearm by any  person is prohibited in and on state offices. Entry upon a state office in  violation of this prohibition is expressly forbidden. This prohibition does not  apply to law-enforcement officers, authorized security personnel, or military  personnel, when such individuals are authorized to carry a firearm in  accordance with their duties, and when they are carrying the firearm within  that authority. It also does not apply to state employees where the employee's  position requires carrying a concealed firearm. 
    1VAC30-105-50. Required lease terms for state offices.
    All leases entered into where an executive branch agency  is the lessor shall contain a prohibition on concealed firearms so as to be  binding upon all tenants. All leases entered into for the benefit of an  executive branch agency shall contain this prohibition to indicate the lessor's  acknowledgment. Exceptions may be allowed where approved in writing by the  Governor or his designee.
    1VAC30-105-60. Posting of signs.
    A. Posting location. Signs shall be posted at all state  offices indicating the prohibition against carrying concealed firearms. Where  the entire premises are owned or occupied by an executive branch agency, signs  shall be displayed at every entrance. Where only a portion of the premises are  leased for an executive branch agency, the signs shall be displayed within the  state office. If an executive branch agency is using an office open to others,  temporary signs shall be displayed at or near the entry to the office during  the time the office is being used exclusively for Commonwealth-sponsored  functions or activities while such functions are taking place.
    B. Size and design. Signs shall be of a size and design  approved by the Department of General Services. The occupying agency shall be  responsible for obtaining signage from the department and for posting of the  signs. 
    1VAC30-105-70. Enforcement.
    The occupying agency shall be responsible for enforcing  this regulation.
    1VAC30-105-80. Exemptions.
    A. A state institution of higher education is exempt from  this regulation if the institution has implemented its own policies or  regulations governing firearms.
    B. The Governor or his designee may otherwise grant  exemptions from the requirements of this chapter. To qualify for an exemption,  the applying executive branch agency must show that an alternative policy,  consistent with the Commonwealth's policy against firearms in state offices, is  appropriate. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4572; Filed December 3, 2015, 3:48 p.m. 
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
OFFICE OF THE STATE INSPECTOR GENERAL
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 1VAC42-5. Public Partipation  Guidelines (adding 1VAC42-5-10 through 1VAC42-5-110). 
    Statutory Authority: § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 14, 2016.
    Effective Date: January 29, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Julie C. Grimes, Communications  Coordinator, Office of the State Inspector General, 101 North 14th Street, 7th  Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 625-3276, FAX (804) 371-0165, or  email julie.grimes@osig.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The legal basis for the Office of the State  Inspector General (OSIG) to promulgate its initial public participation  guidelines is § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of Virginia. OSIG is required to  promulgate regulations under § 2.2-3014 of the Code of Virginia for the  proper administration of the Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower Reward Fund. OSIG  is also authorized to adopt, promulgate, amend, and rescind regulations related  to carrying out its statutory duties by §§ 2.2-307 through 2.2-322 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Purpose: The purpose of adopting and promulgating the  initial public participation guidelines is to ensure the regulatory review  process used by OSIG with regard to the regulations it adopts, promulgates,  amends, or rescinds is generally consistent with the rulemaking process used by  other Virginia rulemaking bodies.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: The promulgation  of this regulation should be noncontroversial because OSIG is merely adopting  the model public participation guidelines developed by the Virginia Department  of Planning and Budget.
    Substance: OSIG is adopting its initial public  participation guidelines because it is responsible for promulgating regulations  for the administration of the Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower Reward Fund. The  regulations may be subject to periodic regulatory review, thus necessitating  the need to adopt initial public participation guidelines, which are based upon  the model public participation guidelines issued by the Virginia Department of  Planning and Budget. The public participation guidelines exist to promote  public involvement in the development, amendment, or repeal of an agency's  regulations. Under § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of Virginia, rulemaking  bodies are required to adopt public participation guidelines and to use these  guidelines in the development of their regulations. Adoption of public  participation guidelines will ensure OSIG's rulemaking process is consistent  with the process used by other Virginia rulemaking bodies. There are no  substantive provisions or changes to the model public participation guidelines  offered to executive agencies by the Virginia Department of Planning and  Budget.
    Issues: The primary advantage of this regulation is that  OSIG will have in place public participation guidelines consistent with the  Governor's executive agencies that will guide future regulatory action by OSIG.  There are no disadvantages to taking this action.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Office of  the State Inspector General (OSIG) proposes to adopt model public participation  guidelines as mandated in Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Pursuant to Chapter 321 of the 2008  Acts of Assembly, the Department of Planning and Budget, in consultation with  the Office of the Attorney General, (i) developed model public participation  guidelines (PPGs) and (ii) provided these model PPGs to each agency that has  the authority to promulgate regulations. Chapter 321 required that, by December  1, 2008, state agencies either (a) adopt these model public participation  guidelines as an exempt action or (b) if significant additions or changes are  proposed, promulgate the model public participation guidelines with the  proposed changes as fast-track regulations pursuant to Code of Virginia section  § 2.2-4012.1. Pursuant to Chapter 321, model PPGs promulgated by agencies after  January 1, 2009, are subject to the normal requirements of the Administrative  Process Act. 
    Pursuant to 2011 Acts of Assembly, Chapter 871, effective July  1, 2012, OSIG is authorized to promulgate regulations regarding the performance  of its statutory duties regarding the proper administration of the Fraud and  Abuse Whistle Blower Reward Fund including eligibility requirements and  procedures for filing a claim. Thus, OSIG now proposes to promulgate the model  PPGs as a fast-track action for development of its future regulations.
    The purposes of the model PPG legislation are threefold: first,  to ensure that each agency or board has a current set of PPGs in place.1  Second, to ensure that each agency's or board's PPGs incorporate the use of  technology such as the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall, email to the extent  possible, and the use of electronic mailing lists. Last, but perhaps most  importantly, to have uniform guidelines in place to facilitate citizen  participation in rulemaking and to make those guidelines consistent, to the  extent possible, among all executive branch boards and agencies. For all of  these reasons, citizens who are interested in participating in the OSIG's  rulemaking process will benefit from the promulgation of these PPGs.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. While OSIG has a broad client  base, these PPGs are proposed for development of Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower  Reward Fund regulations, the only regulations OSIG foresees at this time it  will develop. Thus, citizens who are interested in participating in the OSIG's  rulemaking process for the fund may be affected. Although there is no  information on who may be interested in OSIG's rulemaking process, between July  1, 2012, and September 30, 2015, OSIG received 4,386 hotline calls, of which  1,971 were assigned for investigation.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not  directly affect employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendments do not directly affect the use and value of private property.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not  directly affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: 
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments do not  directly affect small businesses.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed  amendments do not adversely affect small businesses.
    Adverse Impacts: 
    Businesses: The proposed amendments do not adversely affect  non-small businesses.
    Localities: The proposed amendments do not adversely affect  localities.
    Other Entities: The proposed amendments do not adversely affect  other entities.
    __________________________
    1Some agencies and boards have not updated their PPGs  since the mid-late 1980's.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Office of the State Inspector General concurs with the findings of the  Department of Planning and Budget's economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    The regulations are based on model public participation  guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and Budget pursuant to Chapter  321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Public participation guidelines exist to  promote public involvement in the development, amendment, or repeal of an  agency's regulations. The public participation guidelines include (i) providing  for the establishment and maintenance of notification lists of interested  persons and specifying the information to be sent to such persons; (ii)  providing for public comments on regulatory actions; (iii) establishing the  time period during which public comments shall be accepted; (iv) providing that  the plan to hold a public meeting shall be indicated in any notice of intended  regulatory action; (v) providing for the appointment, when necessary, of  regulatory advisory panels to provide professional specialization or technical  assistance and negotiated rulemaking panels if a regulatory action is expected  to be controversial; and (vi) providing for the periodic review of regulations.
    CHAPTER 5
  PUBLIC PARTIPATION GUIDELINES
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    1VAC42-5-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment, or repeal of the regulations of the  Office of the State Inspector General. This chapter does not apply to  regulations, guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the  provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the  Code of Virginia). 
    1VAC42-5-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the Office of the State Inspector  General, which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's basic  law to make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this chapter may  be fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency. 
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of  the Code of Virginia).
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending, or  repealing a regulation. 
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action. 
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov that has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users. 
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended, and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative  Process Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    1VAC42-5-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier. 
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list. 
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list. 
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    1VAC42-5-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 1VAC42-5-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed or a  reproposed regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on how to obtain, a  copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    1VAC42-5-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to (i) submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency, and  (ii) be accompanied by and represented by counsel or other representative. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall.
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows:
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation.
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation.
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation.
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation.
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review.
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking.
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended.
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of  Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    1VAC42-5-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia,  any person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and 
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to  dispose of the petition. 
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register. 
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    1VAC42-5-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a RAP to provide professional  specialization or technical assistance when the agency determines that such  expertise is necessary to address a specific regulatory issue or action or when  individuals indicate an interest in working with the agency on a specific  regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    1VAC42-5-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint an NRP if a regulatory action is  expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation; 
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely. 
    1VAC42-5-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  an NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with  § 2.2-3707 D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice  to be provided to participants and the public.
    1VAC42-5-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing  following the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to the  date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who requested a  hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    1VAC42-5-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with the following:
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to  § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all  existing regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity,  and cost of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the  Administrative Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small  businesses.
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions.
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4535; Filed November 13, 2015, 5:07 p.m. 
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
BOARD OF JUVENILE JUSTICE
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 6VAC35-71. Regulation Governing  Juvenile Correctional Centers (amending 6VAC35-71-350). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 66-10 and 66-13 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Effective Date: January 30, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Janet Van Cuyk, Regulatory Coordinator,  Department of Juvenile Justice, 600 East Main Street, 20th Floor, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 588-3879, FAX (804) 371-6490, or email  janet.vancuyk@djj.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 66-4 of the Code of Virginia creates the  board, while § 66-10 of the Code of Virginia provides that the board shall have  the power and duty to promulgate such regulations as may be necessary to carry  out the provisions of Title 66 of the Code of Virginia and the other laws of  the Commonwealth. Per § 66-24 D of the Code of Virginia, the board is  required to promulgate regulations for licensure or certification of community  group homes or other residential facilities that contract with or are rented for  the care of juveniles in direct state care. The board's regulations shall  address the services required to be provided in such facilities as it may deem  appropriate to ensure the welfare and safety of the juveniles. In addition, the  board's regulations "shall include, but need not be limited to, (i)  specifications for the structure and accommodations of such facilities  according to the needs of the juveniles to be placed in the home or facility;  (ii) rules concerning allowable activities, local government- and group home-  or residential care facility-imposed curfews, and study, recreational, and  bedtime hours; and (iii) a requirement that each home or facility have a  community liaison who shall be responsible for facilitating cooperative  relationships with the neighbors, the school system, local law enforcement,  local government officials, and the community at large."
    Purpose: During the drafting of Regulation Governing  Juvenile Correctional Centers (6VAC35-71), an exemption for secure facilities  was erroneously deleted that had been provided for in the previous regulation,  Standards for Interim Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities  (6VAC35-51-460 D). This section stated: "There shall be one toilet, one  hand basin, and one shower or tub for every four residents in any building  constructed or structurally modified after July 1, 1981, except secure custody  facilities. Facilities licensed after December 28, 2007, shall comply with the  one-to-four ratio." The previous regulations granted secure custody  facilities built prior to December 28, 2007, an exception to the one-to-four  ratio because these facilities were built when the construction standard was  one toilet, one hand basin, and one shower or tub for every eight residents.  The Standards for Interim Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities  6VAC35-51 were effective September 17, 2008, through December 31, 2013. 
    The current regulation governing juvenile correctional centers  became effective January 1, 2014, and does not include the exemption for secure  facilities built prior to 2007. Without this exemption, secure custody  facilities constructed after July 1, 1981, are required to conform to the  one-to-four ratio. However, the majority of secure facilities across the  Commonwealth cannot meet this regulatory requirement since they were  constructed using a one-to-eight ratio that was required by construction  speculations in effect from July 1, 1981, through December 27, 2007. It will be  cost prohibitive for facilities to meet the requirements set forth in the  current regulations. 
    The fast-track rulemaking process is requested to amend the  language in 6VAC35-71-350 to include the exemption language. The amended  language, if approved, will be substantially similar to the original language  drafted in 6VAC35-51-460 that grandfathers in those facilities certified prior  to December 28, 2007, that were constructed to conform to the one-to-eight  ratio. All of other sections of the regulation remain unchanged.
    The amendments have no known no impact on the public health,  safety, or welfare.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: It is  anticipated that the amendment to 6VAC35-71-350 will be noncontroversial as the  proposed change reinserts language that was erroneously deleted in the  regulatory action that superseded the regulatory provision with the exemption.  The department and the board are of the understanding that this action is  correcting a scrivener's error. There was no public comment in opposition to  the proposed amendment. The juvenile correctional center facility  administrators, the department's certification unit, the department's  administration, and the board support the proposed amendment as  noncontroversial. Concurrently, on January 7, 2014, the board granted all  juvenile correctional centers built prior to December 28, 2007, a variance to  the one-to-four ratio required in 6VAC35-71-350 until such time as the  regulations were amended with the understanding that a similar regulatory  action be pursued to reincorporate the exemption for juvenile correctional  centers.
    Substance: The proposed amendment changes the date for  which juvenile correctional centers are required to comply with the requirement  to have one toilet, one hand basin, and one shower or tub for every four  residents (one-to-four ratio) in any building constructed or structurally  modified after July 1, 1981, to require only those buildings constructed or  structurally modified after December 28, 2007, to meet the aforementioned  one-to-four ratio.
    Issues: The primary advantage of the proposed amendment  is to correct a drafting error and to avoid a substantial financial burden and,  thus, achieve a financial saving to the Commonwealth for the cost of labor and  materials required to construct additional bathroom facilities in the four  state-operated juvenile correctional centers to meet the current regulatory  requirements. In addition to the capital costs, there would likely be  additional administrative costs associated with overtime hours for staff that  would be required to monitor construction staff to comply with the regulatory  requirement that staff monitor all situations in which outside personnel  perform any kind of work in the immediate presence of residents. The bathroom  facilities are located in the juvenile facility living area and construction in  this space would be disruptive to the juvenile facility daily routines for the  duration of the construction. There are no advantages or disadvantages to the  public and no disadvantages in adopting the proposed change to the  Commonwealth.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Juvenile Justice proposes to amend building standards in its regulation that  governs juvenile correctional centers to insert an exemption to newer bathing  facility standards. This exemption was in the regulation that was in effect  until December 2013 and was unintentionally left out of the current superseding  regulation. 
    Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for this  proposed regulatory change.
    Estimated Economic Impact. The former regulation for juvenile  correctional centers contained an exemption for secure detention facilities to  a general building rule that specified that all juvenile justice facilities  built or modified after July 1, 1981, contain at least one full bathroom  (containing a toilet, wash basin and tub or shower) for every four residents.  The exemption only applied the 4/1 ratio standard to secure facilities built or  modified after December 28, 2007; facilities built or modified before December  28, 2007, were subject to a standard that specified one full bathroom for every  eight residents. This exemption was inadvertently left out when a superseding  regulation was promulgated in 2013. The Board now proposes to insert the  exemption back into regulation so that secure detention facilities are not  required to conform to the more stringent and costly standard.
    There are currently 553 individuals housed in four state-run  juvenile correctional centers. Any of these facilities that were built or  modified between July 1, 1981, (when the new, more stringent standard went into  general effect) and December 28, 2007, (when the new, more stringent standard  applied under the exemption) will save the cost that would be incurred if they  had to approximately double the number of full bathrooms in their facilities.  Total cost per facility absent this proposed regulatory change would likely be  more than $10,0001 times the number of bathrooms that would need to  be added. Given this estimate, the state's cost avoidance on account of  reinserting the exemption into regulation will be considerable.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. There are currently four  secure juvenile correctional centers in the Commonwealth. To the extent that  any of these facilities were built or modified between July 1, 1981, and  December 28, 2007, they will be affected by this proposed regulatory action. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be  particularly affected by this proposed regulatory action. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. This proposed regulation is  unlikely to affect employment in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. This proposed  regulation affects only public secure juvenile correctional centers.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. This proposed  regulation affects only public secure juvenile correctional centers.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. This proposed regulation affects only public secure juvenile  correctional centers.
    Real Estate Development Costs. This proposed regulatory action  will allow the state to avoid likely large costs for having to modify existing  secure juvenile correctional centers.
    ______________________
        Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  responsible Virginia Board of Juvenile Justice agency representatives have  reviewed the Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) economic impact analysis.  The agency is in agreement with DPB's analysis.
    Summary:
    The amendment changes which juvenile correctional centers  are required to comply with the requirement to have one toilet, one hand basin,  and one shower or tub for every four residents from any building constructed or  structurally modified after July 1, 1981, to only those buildings constructed  or structurally modified after December 28, 2007.
    6VAC35-71-350. Toilet facilities.
    A. There shall be toilet facilities available for resident  use in all sleeping areas for each JCC constructed after January 1, 1998.
    B. There shall be at least one toilet, one hand basin, and  one shower or tub for every eight residents for facilities certified before  July 1, 1981 on or before December 27, 2007. There shall be one  toilet, one hand basin, and one shower or tub for every four residents in any  building constructed or structurally modified after July 1, 1981 on  or after December 28, 2007.
    C. There shall be at least one bathtub in each facility.
    D. The maximum number of employees on duty in the living unit  shall be counted in determining the required number of toilets and hand basins  when a separate bathroom is not provided for staff.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4034; Filed November 20, 2015, 1:26 p.m. 
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
BOARD OF JUVENILE JUSTICE
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 6VAC35-101. Regulation Governing  Juvenile Secure Detention Centers (amending 6VAC35-101-420). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 16.1-322.7 and 66-10 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Effective Date: January 30, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Janet Van Cuyk, Regulatory Coordinator,  Department of Juvenile Justice, 600 East Main Street, 20th Floor, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 588-3879, FAX (804) 371-6490, or email  janet.vancuyk@djj.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 66-4 of the Code of Virginia creates the  board, while § 66-10 of the Code of Virginia provides that the board shall have  the power and duty to promulgate such regulations as may be necessary to carry  out the provisions of Title 66 of the Code of Virginia and the other laws of  the Commonwealth. Per § 66-24 D of the Code of Virginia, the board is  required to promulgate regulations for licensure or certification of community  group homes or other residential facilities that contract with or are rented  for the care of juveniles in direct state care. The board's regulations shall  address the services required to be provided in such facilities as it may deem  appropriate to ensure the welfare and safety of the juveniles. In addition, the  board's regulations "shall include, but need not be limited to (i)  specifications for the structure and accommodations of such facilities  according to the needs of the juveniles to be placed in the home or facility;  (ii) rules concerning allowable activities, local government- and group home-  or residential care facility-imposed curfews, and study, recreational, and  bedtime hours; and (iii) a requirement that each home or facility have a community  liaison who shall be responsible for facilitating cooperative relationships  with the neighbors, the school system, local law enforcement, local government  officials, and the community at large."
    Purpose: During the drafting of Regulation Governing  Juvenile Secure Detention Centers (6VAC35-101) an exemption for secure  facilities was erroneously deleted in the regulation that had been provided in  the previous regulation Standards for Interim Regulation of Children's  Residential Facilities (6VAC35-51-460 D). This section stated: "There  shall be one toilet, one hand basin, and one shower or tub for every four  residents in any building constructed or structurally modified after July 1,  1981, except secure custody facilities. Facilities licensed after December 28,  2007, shall comply with the one-to-four ratio." The previous  regulations granted secure custody facilities built prior to December 28, 2007,  an exception to the one-to-four ratio because these facilities were  built when the construction standard was one toilet, one hand basin, and one  shower or tub for every eight residents. The Standards for Interim Regulation  of Children's Residential Facilities 6VAC35-51 were effective September 17,  2008, through December 31, 2013.
    The current regulation governing juvenile secure detention  centers became effective January 1, 2014, and does not include the exemption  for secure facilities built prior to 2007. Without this exemption, secure  custody facilities constructed after July 1, 1981, are required to conform to  the one-to-four ratio. However, the majority of secure facilities across the  Commonwealth cannot meet this regulatory requirement since they were  constructed using a one-to-eight ratio that was required by construction  speculations in effect from July 1, 1981, through December 27, 2007. It will be  cost prohibitive for facilities to meet the requirements set forth in the  current regulations. 
    The fast-track rulemaking process is requested to amend the  language in 6VAC35-101-420 to include the exemption language. The amended  language, if approved, will be substantially similar to the original language  drafted in 6VAC35-51-460 that grandfathers in those facilities certified prior  to December 28, 2007, that were constructed to conform to the one-to-eight ratio.  All of other sections of the regulation will remain unchanged.
    The amendments have no known no impact on the public health,  safety, or welfare.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: It is  anticipated that the amendment to 6VAC35-101-420 will be noncontroversial as  the proposed change reinserts language that was erroneously deleted in this  regulatory action that superseded the regulatory provision with the exemption.  The department and the board are of the understanding that this action is  correcting a scrivener's error. There was no public comment in opposition to  the proposed amendment. The juvenile secure detention center administrators,  the department's certification unit, the department's administration, and the  board support the proposed amendment as noncontroversial. Additionally, on  January 7, 2014, the board granted all juvenile secure detention centers built  prior to December 28, 2007, a variance to the one-to-four ratio required in  6VAC35-101-420 until such time as the regulations were amended, with the  understanding that a similar regulatory action be pursued to reincorporate the  exemption for juvenile secure detention centers.
    Substance: The proposed amendment changes the date for  which juvenile secure detention centers are required to comply with the  requirement to have one toilet, one hand basin, and one shower or tub for every  four residents (one-to-four ratio) in any building constructed or structurally  modified after July 1, 1981, to require only those buildings constructed or  structurally modified after December 28, 2007, to meet the aforementioned  one-to-four ratio.
    Issues: The primary advantage of the proposed amendment  is to correct a drafting error and to avoid a substantial financial burden and,  thus, achieve a financial saving to the local governments operating secure  juvenile detention centers. The localities will not have to fund the cost of  labor and materials required to construct additional bathroom facilities in the  24 juvenile secure detention centers to meet the current regulatory  requirements. In addition to the capital costs, there would likely be  additional administrative costs associated with overtime hours for staff that  would be required to monitor construction staff to comply with the regulatory  requirement that staff monitor all situations in which outside personnel  perform any kind of work in the immediate presence of residents. The bathroom  facilities are located in the juvenile facility living area and construction in  this space would be disruptive to the juvenile facility daily routines for the  duration of the construction. There are no advantages or disadvantages to the  public and no disadvantages in adopting the proposed change to the  Commonwealth.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Juvenile Justice proposes to amend building standards in its regulation that  governs juvenile secure detention centers to insert an exemption to newer  bathing facility standards. This exemption was in the regulation that was in  effect until December 2013 and was unintentionally left out of the current  superseding regulation. 
    Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for this  proposed regulatory change.
    Estimated Economic Impact. The former regulation for juvenile  secure detention centers contained an exemption for secure detention facilities  to a general building rule that specified that all juvenile justice facilities  built or modified after July 1, 1981, contain at least one full bathroom (containing  a toilet, wash basin and tub or shower) for every four residents. The exemption  only applied the 4/1 ratio standard to secure facilities built or modified  after December 28, 2007; facilities built or modified before December 28, 2007,  were subject to a standard that specified one full bathroom for every eight  residents. This exemption was inadvertently left out when a superseding  regulation was promulgated in 2013. The Board now proposes to insert the  exemption back into regulation so that secure detention facilities are not  required to conform to the more stringent and costly standard.
    There are currently 778 individuals housed in 24 locality-run  juvenile secure detention centers. Any of these facilities that were built or  modified between July 1, 1981, (when the new, more stringent standard went into  general effect) and December 28, 2007, (when the new, more stringent standard  applied under the exemption) will save the cost that would be incurred if they  had to approximately double the number of full bathrooms in their facilities.  Total cost per facility absent this proposed regulatory change would likely be  more than $10,0001 times the number of bathrooms that would need to  be added. Given this estimate, affected localities' cost avoidance on account  of reinserting the exemption into regulation will be considerable.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. There are currently 24  locality-run juvenile secure detention centers in the Commonwealth. To the  extent that any of these facilities were built or modified between July 1,  1981, and December 28, 2007, they will be affected by this proposed regulatory  action. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. Localities that have juvenile  secure detention facilities will be particularly affected by this proposed  regulatory action. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. This proposed regulation is  unlikely to affect employment in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. This proposed  regulation affects only public juvenile secure detention centers.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. This proposed  regulation affects only public juvenile secure detention centers.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. This proposed regulation affects only public juvenile secure detention  centers.
    Real Estate Development Costs. This proposed regulatory action  will allow affected Virginia localities to avoid likely large costs for having  to modify existing juvenile secure detention centers.
    ______________________
        Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  responsible Virginia Board of Juvenile Justice agency representatives have  reviewed the Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) economic impact analysis.  The agency is in agreement with DPB's analysis.
    Summary:
    The amendment changes which juvenile secure detention  centers are required to comply with the requirement to have one toilet, one  hand basin, and one shower or tub for every four residents from any building  constructed or structurally modified after July 1, 1981, to only those  buildings constructed or structurally modified after December 28, 2007.
    6VAC35-101-420. Toilet facilities.
    A. There shall be toilet facilities available for resident  use in all sleeping rooms for each detention center constructed after January  1, 1998.
    B. There shall be at least one toilet, one hand basin, and  one shower or bathtub for every eight residents for detention centers  constructed before July 1, 1981 on or before December 27, 2007.  There shall be one toilet, one hand basin, and one shower or tub for every four  residents in any building constructed or structurally modified after July 1,  1981 on or after December 28, 2007.
    C. There shall be at least one bathtub in each facility.
    D. The maximum number of staff members on duty in the living  unit shall be counted in determining the required number of toilets and hand  basins when a separate bathroom is not provided for staff.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4035; Filed November 20, 2015, 1:23 p.m. 
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Final Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-60. Regulations  Governing the Approval of Correspondence Courses for Home Instruction (repealing 8VAC20-60-10 through  8VAC20-60-100).
    8VAC20-340. Regulations Governing Driver Education (adding 8VAC20-340-5, 8VAC20-340-40). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 22.1-16 and 22.1-205 of the Code  of Virginia.
    Effective Date: January 13, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Melissa Luchau, Director for Board  Relations, Department of Education, P.O. Box 2120, 101 North 14th Street, 25th  Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 225-2924, FAX (804) 225-2524, or  email melissa.luchau@doe.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    The regulatory action repeals 8VAC20-60, Regulations  Governing the Approval of Correspondence Courses for Home Instruction, and  amends 8VAC20-340, Regulations Governing Driver Education. The amendments (i)  incorporate the definition section from 8VAC20-60, with minor revisions, and  add a definition for the term "parent"; (ii) require the applicant to  submit as part of the application process an affidavit, a schedule of tuition  and fees, a description of its refund policy, and copies of all application  forms and enrollment agreements used by the applicant; (iii) expand the  approval criteria by requiring that the content of each course meets the  requirements of the Driver Education Standards of Learning and the Curriculum  and Administrative Guide for Driver Education in Virginia, 2010 edition; (iv)  address approval and denial of an application, and revocation of an approved  application; and (v) permit reconsideration by the board when an application is  denied or when approval is revoked. 
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No  public comments were received by the promulgating agency. 
    8VAC20-340-5. Definitions.
    The following words or terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Board" means the Virginia Board of Education.
    "Correspondence school" means a school,  organization, or other entity, no matter how titled, that teaches students by  mailing them lessons and exercises that upon completion are returned to the  school for grading. Such lessons or exercises also may be transmitted and  graded by electronic means.
    "Course" means the presentation of an orderly  sequence of material dealing with an individual subject area, such as driver  education.
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Education.
    "Home instruction" means the teaching of a child  or children by a teaching parent in the home as an alternative to meeting the  requirements of compulsory attendance as defined in § 22.1-254 of the Code  of Virginia and as a means of complying with § 22.1-254.1 of the  Code of Virginia.
    "Parent" means any parent, guardian, legal  guardian, or other person having control or charge of a child as specified in  § 22.1-1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "School" means a correspondence school for  driver education programs.
    8VAC20-340-40. Approval of correspondence courses for driver  education.
    A. Required submissions. Schools seeking approval  to offer the classroom portion of a driver education program to school-age  children through a correspondence program or course in Virginia shall submit  the following:
    1. A signed and completed copy of the department's  affidavit form.
    2. A catalog or other documents containing the following  information:
    a. A statement of ownership or control of the institution;
    b. Descriptions of the driver education courses offered by  the institution;
    c. A description of the method used to evaluate the  students' work; 
    d. A schedule of tuition and fees, including the school's  refund policies; and
    e. Copies of all application forms and enrollment  agreements used by the school.
    3. Verification of approval or exemption from regular  oversight from the appropriate state or local government agency in the school's  state of domicile.
    4. Information regarding the school's accreditation status.
    5. The name and publisher of the textbook required.
    6. An estimate of the minimum amount of time (in hours)  required to complete the course.
    7. Such additional information as the board or department  may deem necessary.
    B. All schools must evaluate the students' work at regular  intervals specified by the department and maintain a permanent record of the  work. 
    C. Each school meeting the criteria listed in this section  is required to submit the required materials for review every year concurrent  with the renewal affidavit.
    D. Approval criteria. Driver education courses offered by  schools submitting the materials required by this section shall be  approved [ if when ] the following  criteria have been met:
    1. The school is, in fact, a correspondence school as  defined in 8VAC20-340-5;
    2. The courses offered are consistent with state or federal  laws or regulations; 
    3. The school evaluates the students' progress at regular  intervals specified by the department and maintains a permanent record of that  work; and
    4. The content of each course is accurate [ ,  and ] rigorous [ , ] and meets the  requirements of the Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver Education in  Virginia, 2010 edition, which includes the Driver Education Standards of  Learning.
    The school must provide evidence that at least two subject  matter experts have reviewed and validated the accuracy of online content and  textbook materials.
    E. [ The department will consider an  application complete when it determines that An application shall be  complete when ] all required information has been submitted in the  form required by the department. If the department [ finds,  on behalf of the board, determines ] the application [ to  be ] incomplete, [ the department shall notify ]  the applicant [ will be notified of the  insufficiencies ] in writing within 45 days of receipt of the  incomplete application. [ If the The ] applicant  [ does not resubmit a complete application must submit  the required items to complete the application, to be received by the  department ] within 45 days from the notification [ ,.  If the application is not completed within the 45-day period, ] the  case file for the request for approval as a provider will be closed.  [ Prior At any time prior ] to closure, the  applicant may withdraw the request for approval. The applicant may [ resubmit  a complete submit a new ] application at [ a  later any ] time.
    [ F. Approval process. After a review of the  complete application, the department will notify the applicant of its decision  regarding approval. If the application is approved, the department will issue a  letter of approval with terms of the approval. If the department denies or  revokes the approval for good cause, the department will issue a letter stating  the reasons for revocation and denial, including information regarding the applicant's  right to appeal this decision.
    G. Appeal process for denial or revocation. 
    1. Fact-finding conference: notification, appearance,  and conduct.
    a. Unless emergency circumstances exist that require  immediate action, no application shall be denied, suspended, or revoked except  upon notice stating the proposed basis for such action and the time and place  for a fact-finding conference. 
    b. If a basis exists for a refusal to approve or a  suspension or a revocation of the department's approval, the department shall  notify, via certified or hand-delivered mail, the interested parties at the  address of record maintained by the department.
    c. Notification shall include the basis for the proposed  action and any information in the possession of the department that can be  relied upon in making an adverse decision. 
    d. The fact-finding conference shall afford the  interested party the opportunity to present written and oral information to the  department that may have a bearing on the proposed action at a fact-finding  conference. Such information should include a brief, written statement of  errors the party believes were made in the department's decision. 
    e. If no withdrawal occurs, a fact-finding conference  shall be scheduled at the earliest mutually agreeable date, but no later than  60 days from the date of the notification. A school wishing to waive its right  to a conference to proceed directly to a formal hearing shall notify the  department of such at least 14 days before the scheduled conference.
    f. The department may rely on public data, documents, or  information in making its decision if all parties are given advance notice of  the department's intent to rely on such data. 
    g. If, after consideration of information presented  during an informal fact-finding conference, a basis for adverse action still  exists, the department shall send to the interested parties a report on the  fact-finding conference within 90 days of the conference, via certified or  hand-delivered mail, that shall include the decision, a brief and general  description of the factual or procedural basis for the decision, and the right  to a formal hearing. 
    h. Parties may enter into a consent agreement to settle  the issues at any time prior to, during, or subsequent to an informal  fact-finding conference.
    2. Hearing: notification, appearance, and conduct.
    a. If an interested party intends to request a formal  hearing, it shall notify the department within 30 days of receipt of a report  on the fact-finding conference. 
    b. Parties shall be given reasonable notice of the (i)  time, place, and nature of the hearing; (ii) basic law under which the  department contemplates its possible exercise of authority; and (iii) matters  of fact and law asserted or questioned by the department. 
    c. If an interested party or representative fails to  appear at a hearing, the hearing officer may proceed in the party's or  representative's absence and make a recommendation.
    d. Oral and written arguments may be submitted to and  limited by the hearing officer. Oral arguments shall be recorded in an  appropriate manner.
    e. The burden of proof at such hearings shall be on the  party seeking to reverse the decision of the department. 
    3. Hearing location. Hearings before a hearing officer  shall be held, insofar as practical, in the county or city in which the school  is located. Hearing officers may conduct hearings at locations convenient to  the greatest number of persons or by telephone conference, videoconference, or  similar technology in order to expedite the hearing process. No hearing shall  be located outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia unless it is held by  electronic means as specified in the Code of Virginia. 
    4. Hearing decisions.
    a. Recommendations of the hearing officer shall be a  part of the record and shall include a written statement of the hearing  officer's findings of fact and recommendations as well as the reasons or basis  for the recommendations. Recommendations shall be based upon all the material  issues of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record.
    b. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall review  the recommendation of the hearing officer and render a decision on the  recommendation within 30 days of receipt. The decision shall cite the  appropriate rule, relief, or denial thereof as to each issue.
    c. The Superintendent of Public Instruction's decision  regarding the school's approval shall be delivered to the concerned parties  within five days of the decision and include a brief statement of the  conclusions, the basis of the conclusions, the basic law upon which the  department relies, and the recommendation of the hearing officer. 
    5. Agency representation. The Superintendent of Public  Instruction's designee may represent the department in an informal conference  or at a hearing.
    F. Approval, denial, and revocation.
    1. The department, on behalf of the board, shall notify  applicants in writing when an application is approved. 
    2. Applications that do not meet the criteria required by  subsections A, B, and D of this section shall be denied. The department shall notify  applicants in writing of the denial, stating the reasons the application was  denied and including the applicant's right to request the board to reconsider  the application, pursuant to subsection G of this section.
    3. An approved application may be revoked for good cause,  which includes, but is not limited to, the conviction of the applicant, or any  employee thereof, of (i) any felony or (ii) any offense involving the sexual  molestation, physical or sexual abuse, or rape of a child.
    G. Reconsideration by the Board of Education when an  application is denied or when approval is revoked. A school whose application  has been denied or whose approval has been revoked for good cause may request  reconsideration by letter to the board. The letter of request shall include the  reasons that the school believes the denial or revocation was inappropriate and  shall document how it has corrected any insufficiency identified in the letter  of denial or revocation. The board's decision on reconsideration shall be final  on that application; however, a denial of reconsideration shall not prevent the  school from submitting a new application at a later time. ] 
    H. Determination of continued compliance. Approval of the  academic courses shall be renewed annually on or before August 1, provided that  the school verifies that it continues to meet the requirements of this section.  Forms for this purpose shall be provided by the department.
    I. Disclaimer. The Board of Education's approval of a  correspondence course is not an endorsement of the program as a substitute for  public school programs nor is it an endorsement of the educational or  operational philosophy of the school. Additionally, the approval of courses is  not intended as an endorsement of the quality of the courses nor is it a  conclusion that these courses meet the educational needs of the student or the  assessment required by § 22.1-254.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    Parents who choose to educate their children at home  through a driver education correspondence course are directly responsible for  the educational progress of their children and the adequacy of instruction. The  board assumes no liability for damages or financial loss to parents using any  of the approved driver education correspondence courses. 
    J. Restrictions. No school whose courses are approved as a  driver education program shall advertise in any way that the courses have the  endorsement, recommendation, accreditation, or recognition, or any other  similar term, of the board, the department, or the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    K. Transmitting the affidavit, documents, and other  materials. The affidavit, related letters, forms, and other required  application materials must be submitted to the Division of Instruction at the  Virginia Department of Education by email to the Driver Education Specialist,  whose contact information may be found at  http://www.doe.virginia.gov/directories/index.shtml#vdoe.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name to access a form. The forms are  also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the  Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond,  Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (8VAC20-340)
    Affidavit  for Approval to Provide Driver Education Programs for Parents Approved to Home  School [ undated (rev. 5/2013) ] 
    Classroom  Driver Education Program Approval/Renewal for Homeschool Students [ undated  (rev. 5/2013) ]
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (8VAC20-340) 
    [ Curriculum Guide of Driver Education in Virginia. ]
    Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver Education  in Virginia, 2010 Edition (includes Driver Education Standards of Learning,  revised January 2008), Virginia Department of Education [ (http://www.doe.virginia.gov/instruction/driver_education/curriculum_admin_guide/index.shtml).
    Program  Administration
    Module  One – Virginia Driver Responsibilities: Licensing Responsibilities
    Module  Two – Virginia Driver Responsibilities: Preparing to Operate a Vehicle
    Module  Three – Basic Maneuvering Tasks: Low Risk Environment
    Module  Four – Basic Maneuvering Tasks: Moderate Risk Driving Environment
    Module  Five – Information Processing: Moderate Risk Driving Environment
    Module  Six – Information Processing: Complex Risk Environments
    Module  Seven – Driver Performance: Personal Factors
    Module  Eight – Driver Responsibilities: Adverse Conditions
    Module  Eight – Driver Responsibilities: Adverse Conditions
    Module  Nine – Driver Responsibilities: Vehicle Functions
    Module  Ten – Driver Responsibilities: Making Informed Choices
    Module  Eleven – Laboratory Instruction – Behind-the-Wheel and In-Car Observation
    Resource  List ]
    VA.R. Doc. No. R11-2644; Filed November 10, 2015, 1:04 p.m. 
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Final Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-60. Regulations  Governing the Approval of Correspondence Courses for Home Instruction (repealing 8VAC20-60-10 through  8VAC20-60-100).
    8VAC20-340. Regulations Governing Driver Education (adding 8VAC20-340-5, 8VAC20-340-40). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 22.1-16 and 22.1-205 of the Code  of Virginia.
    Effective Date: January 13, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Melissa Luchau, Director for Board  Relations, Department of Education, P.O. Box 2120, 101 North 14th Street, 25th  Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 225-2924, FAX (804) 225-2524, or  email melissa.luchau@doe.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    The regulatory action repeals 8VAC20-60, Regulations  Governing the Approval of Correspondence Courses for Home Instruction, and  amends 8VAC20-340, Regulations Governing Driver Education. The amendments (i)  incorporate the definition section from 8VAC20-60, with minor revisions, and  add a definition for the term "parent"; (ii) require the applicant to  submit as part of the application process an affidavit, a schedule of tuition  and fees, a description of its refund policy, and copies of all application  forms and enrollment agreements used by the applicant; (iii) expand the  approval criteria by requiring that the content of each course meets the  requirements of the Driver Education Standards of Learning and the Curriculum  and Administrative Guide for Driver Education in Virginia, 2010 edition; (iv)  address approval and denial of an application, and revocation of an approved  application; and (v) permit reconsideration by the board when an application is  denied or when approval is revoked. 
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No  public comments were received by the promulgating agency. 
    8VAC20-340-5. Definitions.
    The following words or terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Board" means the Virginia Board of Education.
    "Correspondence school" means a school,  organization, or other entity, no matter how titled, that teaches students by  mailing them lessons and exercises that upon completion are returned to the  school for grading. Such lessons or exercises also may be transmitted and  graded by electronic means.
    "Course" means the presentation of an orderly  sequence of material dealing with an individual subject area, such as driver  education.
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Education.
    "Home instruction" means the teaching of a child  or children by a teaching parent in the home as an alternative to meeting the  requirements of compulsory attendance as defined in § 22.1-254 of the Code  of Virginia and as a means of complying with § 22.1-254.1 of the  Code of Virginia.
    "Parent" means any parent, guardian, legal  guardian, or other person having control or charge of a child as specified in  § 22.1-1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "School" means a correspondence school for  driver education programs.
    8VAC20-340-40. Approval of correspondence courses for driver  education.
    A. Required submissions. Schools seeking approval  to offer the classroom portion of a driver education program to school-age  children through a correspondence program or course in Virginia shall submit  the following:
    1. A signed and completed copy of the department's  affidavit form.
    2. A catalog or other documents containing the following  information:
    a. A statement of ownership or control of the institution;
    b. Descriptions of the driver education courses offered by  the institution;
    c. A description of the method used to evaluate the  students' work; 
    d. A schedule of tuition and fees, including the school's  refund policies; and
    e. Copies of all application forms and enrollment  agreements used by the school.
    3. Verification of approval or exemption from regular  oversight from the appropriate state or local government agency in the school's  state of domicile.
    4. Information regarding the school's accreditation status.
    5. The name and publisher of the textbook required.
    6. An estimate of the minimum amount of time (in hours)  required to complete the course.
    7. Such additional information as the board or department  may deem necessary.
    B. All schools must evaluate the students' work at regular  intervals specified by the department and maintain a permanent record of the  work. 
    C. Each school meeting the criteria listed in this section  is required to submit the required materials for review every year concurrent  with the renewal affidavit.
    D. Approval criteria. Driver education courses offered by  schools submitting the materials required by this section shall be  approved [ if when ] the following  criteria have been met:
    1. The school is, in fact, a correspondence school as  defined in 8VAC20-340-5;
    2. The courses offered are consistent with state or federal  laws or regulations; 
    3. The school evaluates the students' progress at regular  intervals specified by the department and maintains a permanent record of that  work; and
    4. The content of each course is accurate [ ,  and ] rigorous [ , ] and meets the  requirements of the Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver Education in  Virginia, 2010 edition, which includes the Driver Education Standards of  Learning.
    The school must provide evidence that at least two subject  matter experts have reviewed and validated the accuracy of online content and  textbook materials.
    E. [ The department will consider an  application complete when it determines that An application shall be  complete when ] all required information has been submitted in the  form required by the department. If the department [ finds,  on behalf of the board, determines ] the application [ to  be ] incomplete, [ the department shall notify ]  the applicant [ will be notified of the  insufficiencies ] in writing within 45 days of receipt of the  incomplete application. [ If the The ] applicant  [ does not resubmit a complete application must submit  the required items to complete the application, to be received by the  department ] within 45 days from the notification [ ,.  If the application is not completed within the 45-day period, ] the  case file for the request for approval as a provider will be closed.  [ Prior At any time prior ] to closure, the  applicant may withdraw the request for approval. The applicant may [ resubmit  a complete submit a new ] application at [ a  later any ] time.
    [ F. Approval process. After a review of the  complete application, the department will notify the applicant of its decision  regarding approval. If the application is approved, the department will issue a  letter of approval with terms of the approval. If the department denies or  revokes the approval for good cause, the department will issue a letter stating  the reasons for revocation and denial, including information regarding the applicant's  right to appeal this decision.
    G. Appeal process for denial or revocation. 
    1. Fact-finding conference: notification, appearance,  and conduct.
    a. Unless emergency circumstances exist that require  immediate action, no application shall be denied, suspended, or revoked except  upon notice stating the proposed basis for such action and the time and place  for a fact-finding conference. 
    b. If a basis exists for a refusal to approve or a  suspension or a revocation of the department's approval, the department shall  notify, via certified or hand-delivered mail, the interested parties at the  address of record maintained by the department.
    c. Notification shall include the basis for the proposed  action and any information in the possession of the department that can be  relied upon in making an adverse decision. 
    d. The fact-finding conference shall afford the  interested party the opportunity to present written and oral information to the  department that may have a bearing on the proposed action at a fact-finding  conference. Such information should include a brief, written statement of  errors the party believes were made in the department's decision. 
    e. If no withdrawal occurs, a fact-finding conference  shall be scheduled at the earliest mutually agreeable date, but no later than  60 days from the date of the notification. A school wishing to waive its right  to a conference to proceed directly to a formal hearing shall notify the  department of such at least 14 days before the scheduled conference.
    f. The department may rely on public data, documents, or  information in making its decision if all parties are given advance notice of  the department's intent to rely on such data. 
    g. If, after consideration of information presented  during an informal fact-finding conference, a basis for adverse action still  exists, the department shall send to the interested parties a report on the  fact-finding conference within 90 days of the conference, via certified or  hand-delivered mail, that shall include the decision, a brief and general  description of the factual or procedural basis for the decision, and the right  to a formal hearing. 
    h. Parties may enter into a consent agreement to settle  the issues at any time prior to, during, or subsequent to an informal  fact-finding conference.
    2. Hearing: notification, appearance, and conduct.
    a. If an interested party intends to request a formal  hearing, it shall notify the department within 30 days of receipt of a report  on the fact-finding conference. 
    b. Parties shall be given reasonable notice of the (i)  time, place, and nature of the hearing; (ii) basic law under which the  department contemplates its possible exercise of authority; and (iii) matters  of fact and law asserted or questioned by the department. 
    c. If an interested party or representative fails to  appear at a hearing, the hearing officer may proceed in the party's or  representative's absence and make a recommendation.
    d. Oral and written arguments may be submitted to and  limited by the hearing officer. Oral arguments shall be recorded in an  appropriate manner.
    e. The burden of proof at such hearings shall be on the  party seeking to reverse the decision of the department. 
    3. Hearing location. Hearings before a hearing officer  shall be held, insofar as practical, in the county or city in which the school  is located. Hearing officers may conduct hearings at locations convenient to  the greatest number of persons or by telephone conference, videoconference, or  similar technology in order to expedite the hearing process. No hearing shall  be located outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia unless it is held by  electronic means as specified in the Code of Virginia. 
    4. Hearing decisions.
    a. Recommendations of the hearing officer shall be a  part of the record and shall include a written statement of the hearing  officer's findings of fact and recommendations as well as the reasons or basis  for the recommendations. Recommendations shall be based upon all the material  issues of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record.
    b. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall review  the recommendation of the hearing officer and render a decision on the  recommendation within 30 days of receipt. The decision shall cite the  appropriate rule, relief, or denial thereof as to each issue.
    c. The Superintendent of Public Instruction's decision  regarding the school's approval shall be delivered to the concerned parties  within five days of the decision and include a brief statement of the  conclusions, the basis of the conclusions, the basic law upon which the  department relies, and the recommendation of the hearing officer. 
    5. Agency representation. The Superintendent of Public  Instruction's designee may represent the department in an informal conference  or at a hearing.
    F. Approval, denial, and revocation.
    1. The department, on behalf of the board, shall notify  applicants in writing when an application is approved. 
    2. Applications that do not meet the criteria required by  subsections A, B, and D of this section shall be denied. The department shall notify  applicants in writing of the denial, stating the reasons the application was  denied and including the applicant's right to request the board to reconsider  the application, pursuant to subsection G of this section.
    3. An approved application may be revoked for good cause,  which includes, but is not limited to, the conviction of the applicant, or any  employee thereof, of (i) any felony or (ii) any offense involving the sexual  molestation, physical or sexual abuse, or rape of a child.
    G. Reconsideration by the Board of Education when an  application is denied or when approval is revoked. A school whose application  has been denied or whose approval has been revoked for good cause may request  reconsideration by letter to the board. The letter of request shall include the  reasons that the school believes the denial or revocation was inappropriate and  shall document how it has corrected any insufficiency identified in the letter  of denial or revocation. The board's decision on reconsideration shall be final  on that application; however, a denial of reconsideration shall not prevent the  school from submitting a new application at a later time. ] 
    H. Determination of continued compliance. Approval of the  academic courses shall be renewed annually on or before August 1, provided that  the school verifies that it continues to meet the requirements of this section.  Forms for this purpose shall be provided by the department.
    I. Disclaimer. The Board of Education's approval of a  correspondence course is not an endorsement of the program as a substitute for  public school programs nor is it an endorsement of the educational or  operational philosophy of the school. Additionally, the approval of courses is  not intended as an endorsement of the quality of the courses nor is it a  conclusion that these courses meet the educational needs of the student or the  assessment required by § 22.1-254.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    Parents who choose to educate their children at home  through a driver education correspondence course are directly responsible for  the educational progress of their children and the adequacy of instruction. The  board assumes no liability for damages or financial loss to parents using any  of the approved driver education correspondence courses. 
    J. Restrictions. No school whose courses are approved as a  driver education program shall advertise in any way that the courses have the  endorsement, recommendation, accreditation, or recognition, or any other  similar term, of the board, the department, or the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    K. Transmitting the affidavit, documents, and other  materials. The affidavit, related letters, forms, and other required  application materials must be submitted to the Division of Instruction at the  Virginia Department of Education by email to the Driver Education Specialist,  whose contact information may be found at  http://www.doe.virginia.gov/directories/index.shtml#vdoe.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name to access a form. The forms are  also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the  Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond,  Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (8VAC20-340)
    Affidavit  for Approval to Provide Driver Education Programs for Parents Approved to Home  School [ undated (rev. 5/2013) ] 
    Classroom  Driver Education Program Approval/Renewal for Homeschool Students [ undated  (rev. 5/2013) ]
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (8VAC20-340) 
    [ Curriculum Guide of Driver Education in Virginia. ]
    Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver Education  in Virginia, 2010 Edition (includes Driver Education Standards of Learning,  revised January 2008), Virginia Department of Education [ (http://www.doe.virginia.gov/instruction/driver_education/curriculum_admin_guide/index.shtml).
    Program  Administration
    Module  One – Virginia Driver Responsibilities: Licensing Responsibilities
    Module  Two – Virginia Driver Responsibilities: Preparing to Operate a Vehicle
    Module  Three – Basic Maneuvering Tasks: Low Risk Environment
    Module  Four – Basic Maneuvering Tasks: Moderate Risk Driving Environment
    Module  Five – Information Processing: Moderate Risk Driving Environment
    Module  Six – Information Processing: Complex Risk Environments
    Module  Seven – Driver Performance: Personal Factors
    Module  Eight – Driver Responsibilities: Adverse Conditions
    Module  Eight – Driver Responsibilities: Adverse Conditions
    Module  Nine – Driver Responsibilities: Vehicle Functions
    Module  Ten – Driver Responsibilities: Making Informed Choices
    Module  Eleven – Laboratory Instruction – Behind-the-Wheel and In-Car Observation
    Resource  List ]
    VA.R. Doc. No. R11-2644; Filed November 10, 2015, 1:04 p.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Proposed Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  State Water Control Board is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the  Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 8 of the Code  of Virginia, which exempts general permits issued by the State Water Control  Board pursuant to the State Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq.),  Chapter 24 (§ 62.1-242 et seq.) of Title 62.1, and Chapter 25 (§ 62.1-254  et seq.) of Title 62.1 if the board (i) provides a Notice of Intended  Regulatory Action in conformance with the provisions of § 2.2-4007.01; (ii)  following the passage of 30 days from the publication of the Notice of Intended  Regulatory Action forms a technical advisory committee composed of relevant  stakeholders, including potentially affected citizens groups, to assist in the  development of the general permit; (iii) provides notice and receives oral and  written comment as provided in § 2.2-4007.03; and (iv) conducts at least  one public hearing on the proposed general permit.
         Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-820. General Virginia  Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Watershed Permit Regulation for  Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus Discharges and Nutrient Trading in the  Chesapeake Bay Watershed in Virginia (amending 9VAC25-820-10 through 9VAC25-820-80;  adding 9VAC25-820-15). 
    Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    January 21, 2016 - 2 p.m. - Department of Environmental  Quality, Piedmont Regional Office, 4949-A Cox Road, Glen Allen, Virginia 23060
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Allan Brockenbrough, Department of  Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,  telephone (804) 698-4147, FAX (804) 698-4032, or email allan.brockenbrough@deq.virginia.gov.
    Announcement of Periodic Review and Small Business Impact  Review: Pursuant to Executive Order 17 (2014) and § 2.2-4007.1 of the  Code of Virginia, the agency is conducting a periodic review and small business  impact review of this regulation to determine whether this regulation should be  terminated, amended, or retained in its current form. Public comment is sought  on the review of any issue relating to this regulation, including whether the  regulation (i) is necessary for the protection of public health, safety, and  welfare or for the economical performance of important governmental functions;  (ii) minimizes the economic impact on small businesses in a manner consistent  with the stated objectives of applicable law; and (iii) is clearly written and  easily understandable.
    Summary:
    This action amends and reissues the general permit for total  nitrogen (TN) and total phosphorus (TP) discharges and nutrient trading in the  Chesapeake Bay watershed in Virginia. The regulation provides for the  permitting of TN and TP discharges in the Chesapeake Bay watershed and allows  for trading of nutrient credits to minimize costs to the regulated facilities  and allow for future growth. The proposed amendments to the existing regulation  update and clarify definitions, effective dates, monitoring frequencies and  sample types, quantification level requirements, trading ratio provisions, and  new wasteload allocations for some facilities as required by the December 29,  2010, Chesapeake Bay total maximum daily load (TMDL) with associated compliance  schedule requirements and conditions applicable to all Virginia Pollutant  Discharge Elimination System permits. 
    The most significant proposed changes are (i) reduced  nutrient wasteload allocations for the significant dischargers to the James  River Basin, including reduced TN wasteload allocations for the Hampton Roads  Sanitary District facilities and reduced TP wasteload allocations for all but  two of the significant James River dischargers along with associated schedules  of compliance; (ii) increased monitoring frequencies for facilities with design  flows between 5.0 and 19.999 millions of gallons per day (MGD) and between 0.5  and 0.999 MGD; (iii) the addition of maximum quantification level requirements;  (iv) the addition of a provision to allow a nonpoint source to point source  trading ratio of less than 2:1 with an associated public notice requirement;  (v) updated prices of TN and TP credit purchases from the Nutrient Offset Fund  based on the cost of projects financed by the fund over the previous permit  cycle; and (vi) updated TN and TP delivery factors.
    9VAC25-820-10. Definitions.
    Except as defined below, the words and terms used in this  chapter shall have the meanings defined in the Virginia Pollution Pollutant  Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Permit Regulation (9VAC25-31).
    "Annual mass load of total nitrogen" (expressed in  pounds per year) means the sum of the total monthly loads for all of the months  in one calendar year. See Part I E 4 of the general permit in 9VAC25-820-70 for  calculating total monthly load.
    "Annual mass load of total phosphorus" (expressed  in pounds per year) means the sum of the total monthly loads for all of the  months in one calendar year. See Part I E 4 of the general permit in  9VAC25-820-70 for calculating total monthly load.
    "Association" means the Virginia Nutrient Credit  Exchange Association authorized by § 62.1-44.19:17 of the Code of  Virginia.
    "Attenuation" means the rate at which nutrients are  reduced through natural processes during transport in water.
    "Board" means the Virginia State Water Control  Board or State Water Control Board.
    "Delivered total nitrogen load" means the  discharged mass load of total nitrogen from a point source that is adjusted by  the delivery factor for that point source.
    "Delivered total phosphorus load" means the  discharged mass load of total phosphorus from a point source that is adjusted  by the delivery factor for that point source.
    "Delivery factor" means an estimate of the number  of pounds of total nitrogen or total phosphorus delivered to tidal waters for  every pound discharged from a permitted facility, as determined by the  specific geographic location of the permitted facility, to account for  attenuation that occurs during riverine transport between the permitted  facility and tidal waters. Delivery factors shall be calculated using the  Chesapeake Bay Program watershed model. For the purpose of this regulation,  delivery factors with a value greater than 1.00 in the Chesapeake Bay Program  watershed model shall be considered to be equal to 1.00.
    "Department" or "DEQ" means the  Department of Environmental Quality.
    "Director" means the director of the Department  of Environmental Quality.
    "Eastern Shore trading ratio" means the number  ratio of pounds of point source credits from another tributary that can  be acquired and applied by the owner of a facility in the Eastern Coastal  Shore Basin for every pound of point source total nitrogen or total  phosphorus discharged from the Eastern Shore Basin facility. Trading ratios  are expressed in the form "credits supplied: credits received."
    "Equivalent load" means:
    2,300 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 300 pounds per year  of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered  equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design  capacity of 0.04 million gallons per day,
    5,700 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 760 pounds per year  of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered  equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design  capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day, and
    28,500 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 3,800 pounds per  year of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered  equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design  capacity of 0.5 million gallons per day.
    "Existing facility" means a facility holding  (i) subject to a current individual VPDES permit that from  which a discharge has either commenced discharge from, or for  which its owner has received a Certificate to Construct (for sewage  treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial  facilities) for the treatment works used to derive its waste load  wasteload allocation on or before July 1, 2005, or (ii) for which the  owner has a waste load wasteload allocation listed in  9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and  9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation. Existing  facility shall also mean and include any facility, without not subject  to an individual VPDES permit, for which its owner holds a  separate waste load wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-120 C of  the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation.
    "Expansion" or "expands" means (i)  initiating construction at an existing treatment works after July 1, 2005, to  increase design flow capacity, except that the term does not apply in those  cases where a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or  equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) was issued  on or before July 1, 2005, or (ii) industrial production process changes or the  use of new treatment products at industrial facilities that increase the annual  mass load of total nitrogen or total phosphorus above the waste load wasteload  allocation.
    "Facility" means a point source discharging from  which a discharge or proposing to proposed discharge of  total nitrogen or total phosphorus to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries exists.  This term does not include confined animal feeding operations, discharges of  storm water, return flows from irrigated agriculture, or vessels.
    "General permit" means this general permit  authorized by § 62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Industrial facility" means any facility (as  defined above) other than sewage treatment works.
    "Local water quality-based limitations" means  limitations intended to protect local water quality including applicable total  maximum daily load (TMDL) allocations, applicable Virginia Pollution Discharge  Elimination System (VPDES) permit limits, applicable limitations set forth in  water quality standards established under § 62.1-44.15 (3a) of the Code of  Virginia, or other limitations as established by the State Water Control Board.  
    "New discharge" means any discharge from a facility  that did not commence the discharge of pollutants prior to July 1, 2005,  except that the term does not apply in those cases where a Certificate to  Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for  discharges from industrial facilities) was issued to the facility on or before  July 1, 2005.
    "Nonsignificant discharger" means (i) a sewage  treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the  fall line with a design capacity of less than 0.1 million gallons per day, or  less than an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities, or (ii) a  sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed upstream of  the fall line with a design capacity of less than 0.5 million gallons per day,  or less than an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities.
    "Offset" means to acquire an annual waste load  wasteload allocation of total nitrogen or total phosphorus by for  a new or expanding facility to ensure that there is no net increase of  nutrients into the affected tributary of the Chesapeake Bay.
    "Permitted design capacity" or "permitted  capacity" means the allowable load (pounds per year) assigned to an  existing facility that is a nonsignificant discharger, and that  does not have a waste load wasteload allocation listed in  9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and  9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation. The  permitted design capacity is calculated based on the design flow and installed  nutrient removal technology (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent  discharge from industrial facilities) at a facility that has either commenced  discharge, or for which an owner has received a Certificate to Construct  (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from  industrial facilities) prior to July 1, 2005. This mass load is used for (i)  determining whether the owner of the expanding facility must offset  additional mass loading of nitrogen and phosphorus and (ii) determining whether  the owner of the facility must acquire credits at the end of a calendar  year. For the purpose of this regulation chapter, owners of  facilities that have installed secondary wastewater treatment (intended to  achieve BOD and TSS monthly average concentrations equal to or less than 30  milligrams per liter) are assumed to achieve an annual average total nitrogen  effluent concentration of 18.7 milligrams per liter and an annual average total  phosphorus effluent concentration of 2.5 milligrams per liter. Permitted design  capacities for facilities that, before July 1, 2005, were required to comply  with more stringent nutrient limits shall be calculated using the more  stringent values.
    "Permitted facility" means a facility whose  owner is authorized by this general permit to discharge total nitrogen or  total phosphorus. For the sole purpose of generating point source nitrogen  credits or point source phosphorus credits, "permitted facility"  shall also mean the Blue Plains wastewater treatment facility operated by the  District of Columbia Water and Sewer Authority.
    "Permittee" means a person authorized by this  general permit to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus.
    "Point source nitrogen credit" means the difference  between (i) the waste load wasteload allocation for a permitted  facility specified as an annual mass load of total nitrogen and (ii) the  monitored annual mass load of total nitrogen discharged by from  that facility, where clause (ii) is less than clause (i), and where the  difference is adjusted by the applicable delivery factor and expressed as  pounds per year of delivered total nitrogen load.
    "Point source phosphorus credit" means the  difference between (i) the waste load wasteload allocation for a  permitted facility specified as an annual mass load of total phosphorus and  (ii) the monitored annual mass load of total phosphorus discharged by from  that facility, where clause (ii) is less than clause (i), and where the  difference is adjusted by the applicable delivery factor and expressed as  pounds per year of delivered total phosphorus load. 
    "Quantification level (QL)" or  "QL" means the minimum levels, concentrations, or quantities of a  target variable (e.g., target analyte) that can be reported with a specified  degree of confidence in accordance with 1VAC30-45, Certification for  Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories, or 1VAC30-46, Accreditation for  Commercial Environmental Laboratories. 
    "Registration list" means a list maintained by the  department indicating all facilities that have are registered for  coverage under this general permit, by tributary, including their waste load  wasteload allocations, permitted design capacities, and delivery  factors as appropriate.
    "Significant discharger" means the owner of  (i) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed  upstream of the fall line with a design capacity of 0.5 million gallons per day  or greater, or an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities; (ii) a  sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream  of the fall line with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day or  greater, or an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities; (iii) a  planned or newly expanding sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake  Bay watershed upstream of the fall line that is was expected to be  in operation by December 31, 2010, with a permitted design of 0.5 million  gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load to be discharged from  industrial facilities; or (iv) a planned or newly expanding sewage treatment  works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the fall line  that is was expected to be in operation by December 31, 2010,  with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day or greater, or an  equivalent load to be discharged from industrial facilities.
    "State-of-the-art nutrient removal technology"  means (i) technology that will achieve an annual average total nitrogen  effluent concentration of three milligrams per liter and an annual average  total phosphorus effluent concentration of 0.3 milligrams per liter or (ii)  equivalent load reductions in total nitrogen and total phosphorus through  recycle or reuse of wastewater as determined by the department.
    "Tributaries" means those river basins for which  separate tributary strategies were prepared pursuant to § 2.2-218 of the Code  of Virginia listed in the Chesapeake Bay TMDL and includes the  Potomac, Rappahannock, York, and James River Basins, and the Eastern Coastal  Shore Basin, which encompasses the creeks and rivers of the Eastern  Shore of Virginia that are west of Route 13 and drain into the Chesapeake Bay.
    "VPDES" means Virginia Pollutant Discharge  Elimination System.
    "Waste load "Wasteload  allocation" means  the most limiting of (i) the water quality-based  annual mass load of total nitrogen or annual mass load of total phosphorus  allocated to individual facilities pursuant to 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60  C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality  Management Planning Regulation or its successor, or permitted capacity in the  case of nonsignificant dischargers; (ii) the water quality-based annual mass  load of total nitrogen or annual mass load of total phosphorus acquired  pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:15 of the Code of Virginia for new or expanded  facilities; or (iii) applicable total nitrogen or total phosphorus waste  load wasteload allocations under the Chesapeake Bay total maximum  daily loads (TMDLs) to restore or protect the water quality and beneficial uses  of the Chesapeake Bay or its tidal tributaries.
    9VAC25-820-15. Applicability of incorporated references  based on the dates that they became effective.
    Except as noted, when a regulation of the U.S.  Environmental Protection Agency set forth in Title 40 of the Code of Federal  Regulations is referenced or adopted in this chapter and incorporated by  reference that regulation shall be as it exists and has been published as of  July 1, 2014.
    9VAC25-820-20. Purpose, applicability, delegation of authority.
    A. This regulation fulfills the statutory requirement for the  General VPDES Watershed Permit for Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus  discharges and nutrient trading in the Chesapeake Bay watershed issued  by the board pursuant to the Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.) and § 62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia.
    B. This general permit regulation governs owners of  facilities holding individual VPDES permits or that otherwise meet  meeting the definition of "existing facility"  that discharge or propose to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus to  the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries.
    C. The director may perform any act of the board provided  under this regulation, except as limited by § 62.1-44.14 of the Code of  Virginia.
    9VAC25-820-30. Relation to existing VPDES permits issued in  accordance with 9VAC25-31. 
    A. This general permit shall control in lieu of conflicting  or duplicative mass loading effluent limitations, monitoring or reporting  requirements for total nitrogen and total phosphorus contained in individual  VPDES permits for facilities covered by this general permit, where these  requirements are based upon standards, criteria, waste load wasteload  allocations, policy, or guidance established to restore or protect the water  quality and beneficial uses of the Chesapeake Bay or its tidal tributaries. 
    B. This general permit shall not control in lieu of more  stringent water quality-based effluent limitations for total nitrogen or total  phosphorus in individual permits where those limitations are necessary to  protect local water quality, or more stringent technology-based effluent concentration  limitations in the individual permit for any facility that has installed  technology for the control of nitrogen and phosphorus whether by new  construction, expansion, or upgrade. 
    C. The compliance schedule in this general permit shall  control in lieu of conflicting or duplicative schedule requirements contained  in individual VPDES permits for facilities covered by this general permit,  where those requirements address mass loading of total nitrogen or total  phosphorus and are based upon standards, criteria, waste load wasteload  allocations, policy, or guidance established to restore or protect the water  quality and beneficial uses of the Chesapeake Bay or its tidal tributaries. 
    9VAC25-820-40. Compliance plans. 
    A. By July 1, 2012 2017, every owner or  operator of a facility subject to reduced individual total nitrogen or  total phosphorus waste load allocations in the Chesapeake Bay Total Maximum  Daily Load for Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Sediment dated December 29, 2010, (as  identified in 9VAC25-820-80) 9VAC25-820-80 and subject to a limit  effective date after January 1, 2017, as defined in Part I C 1 of 9VAC25-820-70  shall either individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange  Association submit compliance plans to the department for approval.
    1. The compliance plans shall contain any capital projects and  implementation schedules needed to achieve total nitrogen and phosphorus  reductions sufficient to comply with the individual and combined waste load  wasteload allocations of all the permittees in the tributary as soon as  possible. Permittees submitting individual plans are not required to account  for other facilities' activities. 
    2. As part of the compliance plan development, permittees  shall either:
    a. Demonstrate that the additional capital projects in anticipated  by subdivision 1 of this subsection are necessary to ensure continued  compliance with these allocations through by the applicable  deadline for the tributary to which the facility discharges (Part I C of the  permit), or 
    b. Request that their individual waste load wasteload  allocations become effective on January 1, 2012 2017. 
    3. The compliance plans may rely on the exchange of point  source credits in accordance with this general permit, but not the acquisition  of credits through payments into the Water Quality Improvement Nutrient  Offset Fund (§ 10.1-2128 et seq. 10.1-2128.2 of the Code  of Virginia), to achieve compliance with the individual and combined waste  load wasteload allocations in each tributary. 
    B. Every owner or operator of a facility required to submit a  registration statement shall either individually or through the Virginia  Nutrient Credit Exchange Association submit annual compliance plan updates to  the department for approval as required by Part I D of this the general  permit. 
    9VAC25-820-50. Transfer of permit coverage. 
    A. This Coverage under the general permit shall  be transferred by the current permittee to a new owner or operator concurrently  with the transfer of the individual permit(s) permit or permits  in accordance with 9VAC25-31-380. If the current permittee holds an aggregated  waste load allocation for multiple facilities in accordance with Part I B 2 of this  the general permit, the current permittee shall submit a revised  registration statement for any facilities retained and the new owner shall  submit a registration statement for the facilities transferred. 
    B. All conditions of this the general permit,  including, but not limited to, the submittal of a registration statement,  annual nutrient allocation compliance and reporting requirements, shall apply  to the new owner or operator immediately upon the transfer date. 
    9VAC25-820-60. Termination of permit coverage. 
    The owner or operator shall terminate coverage under this  general permit concurrently with any request for termination of the individual permit(s)  permit or permits in accordance with 9VAC25-31-370. 
    9VAC25-820-70. General permit.
    Any owner whose registration statement is accepted by the  board will receive the following general permit and shall comply with the  requirements therein of the general permit.
    General Permit No.: VAN000000 
  Effective Date: January 1, 2012 2017
  Amended Effective Date: November 21, 2012
  Expiration Date: December 31, 2016 2021
    GENERAL PERMIT FOR TOTAL NITROGEN AND TOTAL PHOSPHORUS  DISCHARGES AND NUTRIENT TRADING IN THE CHESAPEAKE WATERSHED IN VIRGINIA 
  AUTHORIZATION TO DISCHARGE UNDER THE VIRGINIA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION  SYSTEM AND THE VIRGINIA STATE WATER CONTROL LAW 
    In compliance with the provisions of the Clean Water Act, as  amended, and pursuant to the State Water Control Law and regulations adopted  pursuant thereto to it, owners of facilities holding a VPDES  individual permit or owners of facilities that otherwise meet the definition of  an existing facility, with total nitrogen and/or or total  phosphorus discharges, or both to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries,  are authorized to discharge to surface waters and exchange credits for total  nitrogen and/or or total phosphorus, or both.
    The authorized discharge shall be in accordance with the  registration statement filed with DEQ, this cover page, Part I-Special  Conditions Applicable to All Facilities, Part II-Special Conditions Applicable  to New and Expanded Facilities, and Part III-Conditions Applicable to All VPDES  Permits, as set forth herein.
    PART I 
    SPECIAL CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL FACILITIES
    A. Authorized activities. 
    1. Authorization to discharge for owners of facilities  required to register.
    a. Every owner or operator of a facility required to submit a  registration statement to the department by November 1, 2011 2016,  and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit, shall be authorized  to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus subject to the requirements of  this general permit upon the department's approval of the registration  statement. 
    b. Any owner or operator of a facility required to submit a  registration statement with the department at the time he makes application  with the department for a new discharge or expansion that is subject to an  offset or technology-based requirement in Part II of this general permit, shall  be authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus subject to the  requirements of this general permit upon the department's approval of the  registration statement. 
    c. Upon the department's approval of the registration  statement, a facility will be included in the registration list maintained by  the department.
    2. Authorization to discharge for owners of facilities  not required to register. Any owner of a facility authorized by a Virginia  Pollutant Discharge Elimination System VPDES permit and not required  by this general permit to submit a registration statement shall be deemed to be  authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus under this general  permit at the time it is issued. Owners or operators of facilities that are deemed  to be permitted under this subsection shall have no obligation under this  general permit prior to submitting a registration statement and securing  coverage under this general permit based upon such registration statement.
    3. Continuation of permit coverage.
    a. Any owner authorized to discharge under this general permit  and who submits a complete registration statement for the reissued general  permit by November 1, 2016 2021, in accordance with Part III A  M or who is not required to register in accordance with Part I A 2 is  authorized to continue to discharge under the terms of this general permit  until such time as the board either:
    (1) Issues coverage to the owner under the reissued general  permit, or
    (2) Notifies the owner that the discharge is not eligible  for coverage under the reissued this general permit is  denied. 
    b. When the owner that was covered under the expiring or  expired general permit has violated or is violating the conditions of that  permit, the board may choose to do any or all of the following:
    (1) Initiate enforcement action based upon the 2012  general permit that has been continued,
    (2) Issue a notice of intent to deny coverage under the amended  reissued general permit if. If the general permit coverage  is denied, the owner would then be required to cease the activities  discharges authorized by the administratively continued coverage  under the terms of the 2012 general permit or be subject to enforcement  action for operating without a permit, or
    (3) Take other actions authorized by the State Water Control  Law.
    B. Waste load Wasteload allocations.
    1. Waste load Wasteload allocations allocated to  permitted facilities pursuant to 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C,  9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality  Management Planning Regulation, or applicable total maximum daily loads TMDLs,  or waste load wasteload allocations acquired by owners of  new and expanding facilities to offset new or increased delivered total  nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion  under Part II B of this general permit, and existing loads calculated from the  permitted design capacity of expanding facilities not previously covered by  this general permit, shall be incorporated into the registration list  maintained by the department. The waste load wasteload  allocations contained in this list shall be enforceable as annual mass load limits  in this general permit. Credits shall not be generated by facilities whose  operations were previously authorized by a Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA)  permit that was issued before July 1, 2005.
    2. Except as described in subdivisions 2 c and 2 d of this  subsection, an owner or operator of two or more facilities covered by this  general permit and located in discharging to the same tributary  may apply for and receive an aggregated mass load limit for delivered total  nitrogen and an aggregated mass load limit for delivered total phosphorus  reflecting the total of the water quality-based total nitrogen and total  phosphorus waste load wasteload allocations or permitted design  capacities established for such facilities individually.
    a. The permittee (and all of the individual facilities covered  under a single registration) shall be deemed to be in compliance when the  aggregate mass load discharged by the facilities is less than the aggregate  load limit.
    b. The permittee will be eligible to generate credits only if  the aggregate mass load discharged by the facilities is less than the total of  the waste load wasteload allocations assigned to any of the  affected facilities.
    c. The aggregation of mass load limits shall not affect any  requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations.
    d. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a  Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005,  cannot be aggregated with other facilities under common ownership or operation.
    e. Operation under an aggregated mass load limit in accordance  with this section shall not be deemed credit acquisition as described in Part I  J 2 of this general permit.
    3. An owner who that consolidates two or more  facilities located in discharging to the same tributary into a  single regional facility may apply for and receive an aggregated mass load  limit for delivered total nitrogen and an aggregated mass load limit for  delivered total phosphorus, subject to the following conditions:
    a. If all of the affected facilities have waste load wasteload  allocations in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C,  9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning  Regulation, the aggregate mass load limit shall be calculated by adding the waste  load wasteload allocations of the affected facilities. The regional  facility shall be eligible to generate credits.
    b. If any, but not all, of the affected facilities has a waste  load wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C,  9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality  Management Planning Regulation, the aggregate mass load limit shall be  calculated by adding:
    (1) Waste load Wasteload allocations of those  facilities that have waste load wasteload allocations in  9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and  9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation;
    (2) Permitted design capacities assigned to affected  industrial facilities; and
    (3) Loads from affected sewage treatment works that do not  have a waste load wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C,  9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the  Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, defined as the lesser of a  previously calculated permitted design capacity, or the values calculated by  the following formulae:
    Nitrogen Load (lbs/day) = flow x 8.0 mg/l x 8.345 x 365  days/year
    Phosphorus Load (lbs/day) = flow x 1.0 mg/l x 8.345 x 365  days/year
    Flows used in the preceding formulae shall be the design flow  of the treatment works from which the affected facility currently discharges.
    The regional facility shall be eligible to generate credits.
    c. If none of the affected facilities have a waste load  wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70  C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management  Planning Regulation, the aggregate mass load limit shall be calculated by  adding the respective permitted design capacities for the affected facilities. The  regional facility shall not be eligible to generate credits.
    d. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a  Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005,  may be consolidated with other facilities under common ownership or operation,  but their allocations cannot be transferred to the regional facility.
    e. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a  VPA permit that was issued before July 1, 2005, can become regional facilities,  but they cannot receive additional allocations beyond those permitted in Part  II B 1 d of this general permit.
    4. Unless otherwise noted, the nitrogen and phosphorus waste  load wasteload allocations assigned to permitted facilities are  considered total loads, including nutrients present in the intake water  from the river, as applicable. On a case-by-case basis, an industrial  discharger may demonstrate to the satisfaction of the board that a portion of  the nutrient load originates in its intake water. This demonstration shall be  consistent with the assumptions and methods used to derive the allocations  through the Chesapeake Bay models. In these cases, the board may limit the  permitted discharge to the net nutrient load portion of the assigned waste  load wasteload allocation.
    5. Bioavailability. Unless otherwise noted, the entire  nitrogen and phosphorus waste load wasteload allocations assigned  to permitted facilities are considered to be bioavailable to organisms in the  receiving stream. On a case-by-case basis, a discharger may demonstrate to the  satisfaction of the board that a portion of the nutrient load is not  bioavailable; this demonstration shall not be based on the ability of the  nutrient to resist degradation at the wastewater treatment plant, but instead,  on the ability of the nutrient to resist degradation within a natural  environment for the amount of time that it is expected to remain in the bay  watershed. This demonstration shall also be consistent with the assumptions and  methods used to derive the allocations through the Chesapeake Bay models. In  these cases, the board may limit the permitted discharge to the bioavailable  portion of the assigned waste load wasteload allocation.
    C. Schedule of compliance.
    1. The following schedule of compliance pertaining to the load  allocations for total nitrogen and total phosphorus applies to the facilities  listed in 9VAC25-820-80.
    a. Compliance shall be achieved as soon as possible, but no  later than the following dates, subject to any compliance plan-based adjustment  by the board pursuant to subdivision 1 b of this subsection, for each parameter  upgrade phase: 
           | Tributary
 | Parameter
 | Final Effluent Limits Effective Date
 | 
       | James River
 | Nitrogen
 | January 1, 2017
 | 
       | York River
 | Phosphorus
 | January 1, 2016
 | 
  
     
           | Upgrade Phase | Limit Effective Date | 
       | Phase I Total Nitrogen | January 1, 2017 | 
       | Phase 2 Total Nitrogen | January 1, 2022 | 
       | Phase 2 Total Phosphorus | January 1, 2017 | 
  
    b. Following submission of compliance plans and compliance  plan updates required by 9VAC25-820-40, the board shall reevaluate the schedule  of compliance in subdivision 1 a of this subsection, taking into account the  information in the compliance plans and the factors in § 62.1-44.19:14 C 2  of the Code of Virginia. When warranted based on such information and factors,  the board shall adjust the schedule in subdivision 1 a of this subsection as  appropriate by modification or reissuance of this general permit. 
    2. The registration list shall contain individual dates for  compliance (as defined in Part I J 1 a-b of this general permit) with  wasteload allocations for dischargers, as follows: 
    a. Facilities Owners of facilities listed in  9VAC25-820-80 will have individual dates for compliance based on their  respective compliance plans, that may be earlier than the basin upgrade  phase schedule listed in subdivision 1 of this subsection.
    b. Facilities Owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-70  9VAC25-820-80 that waive their compliance schedules in accordance with  9VAC25-820-40 A 2 b shall have an individual compliance date of January 1, 2012  2017.
    c. Upon completion of the projects contained in their  compliance plans, owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 may receive  a revised individual compliance date of January 1 for the calendar year  immediately following the year in which a Certificate to Operate was issued for  the capital projects, but not later than the basin upgrade phase  schedule listed in subdivision 1 of this subsection.
    d. New Owners of new and expanded facilities  will have individual dates for compliance corresponding to the date that  coverage under this general permit was extended to discharges from the  facility. 
    3. The 39 significant dischargers in the James River  Basin shall meet aggregate discharged waste load wasteload  allocations of 8,968,864 lbs/yr TN and 545,558 lbs/yr TP by January 1, 2023.
    D. Annual update of compliance plan. Every owner or operator  of a facility required to submit a registration statement shall either  individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association  submit updated compliance plans to the department no later than February 1 of  each year. The compliance plans shall contain sufficient information to document  a plan for the facility to achieve and maintain compliance with  applicable total nitrogen and total phosphorus individual waste load  wasteload allocations on the registration list and aggregate waste  load wasteload allocations in Part I C 3. Compliance plans for owners  of facilities that were required to submit a registration statement with  the department under Part I G 1 a may rely on the acquisition of point source  credits in accordance with Part I J of this general permit, but not the  acquisition of credits through payments into the Water Quality Improvement  Nutrient Offset Fund, to achieve compliance with the individual and  combined waste load wasteload allocations in each tributary.  Compliance plans for expansions or new discharges for owners of  facilities that are required to submit a registration statement with the  department under Part I G 1 b and c may rely on the acquisition of allocation  in accordance with Part II B of this general permit to achieve compliance with  the individual and combined waste load wasteload allocations in  each tributary. 
    E. Monitoring requirements. 
    1. Discharges shall be monitored by the permittee during  weekdays as specified below unless the department determines that weekday only  sampling results in a non-representative load. Weekend monitoring and/or  or alternative monthly load calculations to address production schedules  or seasonal flows shall be submitted to the department for review and approval  on a case-by-case basis. Facilities that exhibit instantaneous discharge flows  that vary from the daily average discharge flow by less than 10% may submit a  proposal to the department to use an alternative sample type; such proposals  shall be reviewed and approved by the department on a case-by-case basis.
         
                 | Parameter | Sample Type and Collection Frequency | 
       | STP design flow | ≥20.0 MGD | 5.0 - 19.999 MGD | 1.0 - 19.9991.0 - 4.999 MGD
 | 0.5 - 0.999 MGD | 0.040 - 0.9990.040 - 0.499 MGD
 | < 0.040 MGD | 
       | Effluent TN load limit for industrial facilities |   | >350,000 lb/yr | >100,000100,000 - 349,999 lb/yr
 | 50,000 - 99,999 lb/yr | 487 - 99,999487 - 49,999 lb/yr
 | < 487 lb/yr | 
       | Effluent TP load limit for industrial facilities |   | >35,000 lb/yr | >10,00010,000 - 34,999 lb/yr
 | 5,000 - 9,999 lb/yr | 37 - 9,99937 - 4,999 lb/yr
 | < 37 lb/yr | 
       | Flow | Totalizing, Indicating, and Recording | 1/Day, see individual VPDES permit for sample type | 
       | Nitrogen Compounds (Total Nitrogen = TKN + NO2-    (as N) + NO3- (as N)) | 24 HC 3 Days/Week
 | 24 HC2/Week*
 | 24 HC 1/Week
 | 8 HC4/Month**
 | 8 HC 2/Month, > 7 days apart
 | 1/MonthGrab
 | 
       | Total Phosphorus  | 24 HC 3 Days/Week
 | 24 HC2/Week*
 | 24 HC 1/Week
 | 8 HC4/Month**
 | 8 HC 2/Month, > 7 days apart
 | 1/MonthGrab
 | 
       | *Two 24-hour flow composited samples taken in the same    calendar week that are then composited by flow into a single weekly composite    sample for analysis shall be considered to be in compliance with this    requirement. **Two sets of two 8-hour flow composited samples taken at    least one day apart but in the same calendar week that are then composited by    flow into two weekly composite samples per month for analysis shall be    considered to be in compliance with this requirement. | 
       |  |  |  |  |  |  |  |  |  | 
  
         
          2. Monitoring for compliance with effluent limitations shall  be performed in a manner identical to that used to determine compliance with  effluent limitations established in the individual VPDES permit unless  specified otherwise in subdivisions 3, 4, and 5 of Part I E. Monitoring or  sampling shall be conducted according to analytical laboratory methods approved  under 40 CFR Part 136, unless other test or sample collection procedures have  been requested by the permittee and approved by the department in writing. All  analysis for compliance with effluent limitations shall be conducted in  accordance with 1VAC30-45, Certification for Noncommercial Environmental  Laboratories, or 1VAC30-46, Accreditation for Commercial Environmental  Laboratories. Monitoring may be performed by the permittee at frequencies more  stringent than listed above in subdivision 1 of Part I E;  however, the permittee shall report all results of such monitoring.
    3. Loading values greater than or equal to 10 pounds reported  in accordance with Part I E and F of this general permit shall be calculated  and reported to the nearest pound without regard to mathematical rules of  precision. Loading values of less than 10 pounds reported in accordance with  Part I E and F of this general permit shall be calculated and reported to at  least two significant digits with the exception that all complete calendar year  annual loads shall be reported to the nearest pound.
    4. Data shall be reported on a form provided by the  department, by the same date each month as is required by the facility's  owner's individual VPDES permit. The total monthly load shall be  calculated in accordance with the following formula: 
    
    where: 
    ML = total monthly load (lb/mo) = average daily load for the  calendar month multiplied by the number of days of the calendar month on which  a discharge occurred 
    DL = daily load = daily concentration (expressed as mg/l to  the nearest 0.01 mg/l) multiplied by the flow volume of effluent discharged  during the 24-hour period (expressed as MGD to at least the nearest 0.01 MGD  and in no case less than two significant digits), multiplied by 8.345. Daily  loads greater than or equal to 10 pounds may be rounded to the nearest whole  number to convert to pounds per day (lbs/day). Daily loads less than or equal  to 10 pounds may be rounded to no fewer than two significant fiqures. 
    s = number of days in the calendar month in which a sample was  collected and analyzed
    d = number of discharge days in the calendar month
    For total phosphorus, all daily concentration data below the  quantification level (QL) for the analytical method used should shall  be treated as half the QL. All daily concentration data equal to or above the  QL for the analytical method used shall be treated as it is reported. If all  data are below the QL, then the average shall be reported as half the QL.
    For total nitrogen (TN), if none of the daily concentration  data for the respective species (i.e., TKN, nitrates/nitrites) are equal to or  above the QL for the respective analytical methods used, the daily TN  concentration value reported shall equal one half of the largest QL used for  the respective species. If one of the data is equal to or above the QL, the  daily TN concentration value shall be treated as that data point as reported. If  more than one of the data is above the QL, the daily TN concentration value  shall equal the sum of the data points as reported.
    The quantification levels shall be less than or equal to  the following concentrations:
           | Parameter | Quantification Level | 
       | TKN | 0.50 mg/l | 
       | Nitrite | 0.10 mg/l | 
       | Nitrate | 0.20 mg/l | 
       | Nitrite + Nitrate | 0.20 mg/l | 
  
    Higher QLs may be approved on a case-by-case basis where a  higher QL routinely results in reportable results of the species in question or  is otherwise technically appropriate based on standard lab practices. 
    The total year-to-date mass load shall be calculated in  accordance with the following formula: 
    
    where: 
    AL-YTD = calendar year-to-date annual load (lb/yr) 
    ML = total monthly load (lb/mo)
    The total annual mass load shall be calculated in accordance  with the following formula:
    
    where:
    AL = calendar year annual load (lb/yr)
    ML = total monthly load (lb/mo)
    5. The department may authorize a chemical usage evaluation as  an alternative means of determining nutrient loading for outfalls where the  only source of nutrients is those that found in the surface water  intake and chemical additives used by the facility. Such an evaluation shall be  submitted to the department for review and approval on a case-by-case basis.  Implementation of approved chemical usage evaluations shall satisfy the  requirements specified under Part I E 1 and 2.
    F. Annual reporting. 
    On or before February 1, annually, each permittee shall file a  discharge monitoring report with the department identifying the annual mass  load of total nitrogen and the annual mass load of total phosphorus discharged  by the permitted facility during the previous calendar year. 
    G. Requirement to register; exclusions. 
    1. The following owners or operators are required to register  for coverage under this general permit: 
    a. Every owner or operator of an existing facility authorized  by a Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System VPDES permit  to discharge 100,000 gallons or more per day from a sewage treatment work, or  an equivalent load from an industrial facility, directly into tidal waters, or  500,000 gallons or more per day from a sewage treatment work works,  or an equivalent load from an industrial facility, directly into nontidal  waters, shall submit a registration statement to the department by November 1, 2011  2016, and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit in  accordance with Part III B M. The conditions of this general  permit will apply to such owner and operator upon approval of a registration  statement. 
    b. Any owner or operator of a facility authorized by a  Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit to discharge 40,000 gallons  or more per day from a sewage treatment work works, or an  equivalent load from an industrial facility, directly into tidal or nontidal  waters shall submit a registration statement with the department at the time he  makes application for an individual permit with the department for a new  discharge or expansion that is subject to an offset requirement in Part II of  this general permit or to a technology-based requirement in  9VAC25-40-70, and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit in  accordance with Part III B M. The conditions of this general  permit will apply to such owner or operator beginning on the start January  1 of the calendar year immediately following approval of a registration  statement and issuance or modification of the individual permit.
    c. Any owner or operator of a facility treating domestic  sewage authorized by a Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System VPDES  permit with a discharge greater than 1,000 gallons per day up to and including  39,999 gallons per day that has did not commenced commence  the discharge of pollutants prior to January 1, 2011, shall submit a  registration statement with the department at the time he makes application for  an individual permit with the department or prior to commencing a discharge, which  ever whichever occurs first, and thereafter upon the reissuance of  this general permit in accordance with Part III B M.
    2. All other categories of discharges are excluded from  registration under this general permit. 
    H. Registration statement. 
    1. The registration statement shall contain the following  information: 
    a. Name, mailing address and telephone number, e-mail email  address and fax number of the owner (and facility operator, if different from  the owner) applying for permit coverage; 
    b. Name (or other identifier), address, city or county,  contact name, phone number, e-mail email address and fax number  for the facility for which the registration statement is submitted; 
    c. VPDES permit numbers for all permits assigned to the  facility, or pursuant to which the discharge is authorized; 
    d. If applying for an aggregated waste load wasteload  allocation in accordance with Part I B 2 of this permit, a list of  all affected facilities and the VPDES permit numbers assigned to these  facilities; 
    e. For new and expanded facilities, a plan to offset new or  increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads,  including the amount of waste load wasteload allocation acquired.  Waste load Wasteload allocations or credits sufficient to offset  projected nutrient loads must be provided for period of at least five years;  and 
    f. For existing facilities, the amount of a facility's waste  load wasteload allocation transferred to or from another facility to  offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus  loads from a new discharge or expansion. 
    2. The registration statement shall be submitted to the DEQ  Central Office, Office of Water VPDES Permits and Compliance  Assistance. 
    3. An amended registration statement shall be submitted to  DEQ immediately upon the acquisition or transfer of a facility's waste  load wasteload allocation to offset new or increased delivered total  nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or  expansion. 
    I. Public notice for registration statements proposing  modifications or incorporations of new waste load allocations or delivery  factors. 
    1. All public notices issued pursuant to a proposed  modification or incorporation of a (i) new waste load wasteload  allocation to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered  total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion, or (ii)  delivery factor, shall be published once a week for two consecutive  weeks in a major local newspaper of general circulation serving the locality  where the facility is located informing the public that the owner of the  facility intends to apply for coverage under this general permit. At a minimum,  the notice shall include: 
    a. A statement of the owner owner's or  operator's intent to register for coverage under this general permit; 
    b. A brief description of the facility and its location; 
    c. The amount of waste load wasteload allocation  that will be acquired or transferred if applicable; 
    d. The delivery factor for a new discharge or expansion; 
    e. If applicable, any proposed nonpoint source to point  source trading ratio less than 2:1 proposed under Part II B 1 b (1).
    e. f. A statement that the purpose of the public  participation is to acquaint the public with the technical aspects of the  facility and how the standards and the requirements of this chapter will be  met, to identify issues of concern, to facilitate communication, and to  establish a dialogue between the owner or operator and persons who may be  affected by the discharge from the facility; 
    f. g. An announcement of a 30-day comment period  and the name, telephone number, and address of the owner's or operator's  representative who can be contacted by the interested persons to answer  questions; 
    g. h. The name, telephone number, and address of  the DEQ representative who can be contacted by the interested persons to answer  questions, or where comments shall be sent; and 
    h. i. The location where copies of the  documentation to be submitted to the department in support of this general  permit notification and any supporting documents can be viewed and copied. 
    2. The owner or operator shall place a copy of the  documentation and support documents in a location accessible to the public in  the vicinity of the proposed facility. 
    3. The public shall be provided 30 days to comment on the  technical and the regulatory aspects of the proposal. The comment period will  begin on the date the notice is published in the local newspaper. 
    J. Compliance with waste load wasteload  allocations. 
    1. Methods of compliance. The owner of the permitted  facility shall comply with its waste load wasteload allocation  contained in the registration list maintained by the department. The owner  of the permitted facility shall be in compliance with its waste load  wasteload allocation if: 
    a. The annual mass load is less than or equal to the  applicable waste load wasteload allocation assigned to the  facility in this general permit (or permitted design capacity for expanded  facilities without allocations); 
    b. The owner of the permitted facility acquires  sufficient point source nitrogen or phosphorus credits in accordance with  subdivision 2 of this subsection; provided, however, that the acquisition of  nitrogen or phosphorus credits pursuant to this section shall not alter or  otherwise affect the individual waste load wasteload allocations  for each permitted facility; or 
    c. In the event it he is unable to meet the  individual waste load wasteload allocation pursuant to  subdivision 1 a or 1 b of this subsection, the owner of the permitted  facility acquires sufficient nitrogen or phosphorus credits through payments  made into the Water Quality Improvement Nutrient Offset Fund  pursuant to subdivision 3 of this subsection; provided, however, that the  acquisition of nitrogen or phosphorus credits pursuant to this section shall  not alter or otherwise affect the individual waste load wasteload  allocations for each permitted facility. 
    2. Credit acquisition from owners of permitted  facilities. A permittee may acquire point source nitrogen credits or point  source phosphorus credits from one or more owners of permitted  facilities only if: 
    a. The credits are generated and applied to a compliance  obligation in the same calendar year; 
    b. The credits are generated by one or more permitted  facilities in the same tributary, except that owners of permitted  facilities in the Eastern Coastal Shore Basin may also acquire  credits from owners of permitted facilities in the Potomac and  Rappahannock tributaries. Owners of Eastern Coastal Shore  Basin facilities may acquire credits from the owners of Potomac  tributary facilities at a trading ratio of 1:1. A trading ratio  of 1.3:1 shall apply to the acquisition of credits from the owners of a  Rappahannock tributary facility by the owner of an Eastern Coastal  Shore Basin facility; 
    c. The exchange or acquisition of credits does not affect any  requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations as determined  by the board; 
    d. The credits are acquired no later than June 1 immediately  following the calendar year in which the credits are applied; 
    e. The credits are generated by a facility that has been  constructed, and has discharged from treatment works whose design flow or  equivalent industrial activity is the basis for the facility's waste load  wasteload allocations (until a facility is constructed and has commenced  operation, such credits are held, and may be sold, by the Water Quality  Improvement Nutrient Offset Fund; and 
    f. No later than June 1 immediately following the calendar  year in which the credits are applied, the permittee certifies on a credit  exchange notification form supplied by the department that he has acquired  sufficient credits to satisfy his compliance obligations. The permittee shall  comply with the terms and conditions contained in the credit exchange  notification form submitted to the department. 
    3. Credit acquisitions from the Water Quality Improvement  Nutrient Offset Fund. Until such time as the board finds that no  allocations are reasonably available in an individual tributary, permittees  that cannot meet their total nitrogen or total phosphorus effluent limit may  acquire nitrogen or phosphorus credits through payments made into the Virginia  Water Quality Improvement Nutrient Offset Fund established in § 10.1-2128  10.1-2128.2 of the Code of Virginia only if, no later than June 1  immediately following the calendar year in which the credits are to be applied,  the permittee certifies on a form supplied by the department that he has  diligently sought, but has been unable to acquire, sufficient credits to  satisfy his compliance obligations through the acquisition of point source  nitrogen or phosphorus credits with other permitted facilities, and that he has  acquired sufficient credits to satisfy his compliance obligations through one or  more payments made in accordance with the terms of this general permit. Such  certification may include, but not be limited to, providing a record of  solicitation or demonstration that point source allocations are not available  for sale in the tributary in which the permittee permittee's facility  is located. Payments to the Water Quality Improvement Nutrient Offset  Fund shall be in the amount of $6.04 $4.60 for each pound of  nitrogen and $15.08 $10.10 for each pound of phosphorus and shall  be subject to the following requirements: 
    a. The credits are generated and applied to a compliance  obligation in the same calendar year.
    b. The credits are generated in the same tributary, except  that owners of permitted facilities in the Eastern Coastal Shore  Basin may also acquire credits from the owners of facilities that discharge  to the Potomac and Rappahannock tributaries. Owners of Eastern Coastal  Shore Basin facilities may acquire credits from the owners of  facilities that discharge to a Potomac tributary at a trading ratio of 1:1.  A trading ratio of 1.3:1 shall apply to the acquisition of credits from the  owners of facilities that discharge to a Rappahannock tributary by the  owners of an Eastern Coastal Shore Basin facility.
    c. The acquisition of credits does not affect any requirement  to comply with local water quality-based limitations, as determined by the  board. 
    4. This general permit neither requires, nor prohibits a  municipality or regional sewerage authority's development and implementation of  trading programs among industrial users, which are consistent with the  pretreatment regulatory requirements at 40 CFR Part 403 and the municipality's  or authority's individual VPDES permit. 
    PART II
    SPECIAL CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO NEW AND EXPANDED FACILITIES 
    A. Offsetting mass loads discharged by new and expanded  facilities. 
    1. An owner or operator of a new or expanded facility shall  comply with the applicable requirements of this section as a condition of the  facility's coverage under this general permit. 
    a. An owner or operator of a facility authorized by a Virginia  Pollutant Discharge Elimination System VPDES permit first issued  before July 1, 2005, that expands his the facility to discharge  40,000 gallons or more per day, or an equivalent load, shall demonstrate to the  department that he has acquired waste load wasteload allocations  sufficient to offset any increase in his delivered total nitrogen and delivered  total phosphorus loads resulting from any expansion beyond his permitted  capacity as of July 1, 2005. 
    b. An owner or operator of a facility authorized by a Virginia  Pollutant Discharge Elimination System VPDES permit first issued on  or after July 1, 2005, to discharge 40,000 gallons or more per day, or an  equivalent load, shall demonstrate to the department that he has acquired waste  load wasteload allocations sufficient to offset his delivered total  nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads. 
    c. An owner or operator of a facility treating domestic sewage  authorized by a Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System VPDES  permit with a discharge greater than 1,000 gallons per day up to and including  39,999 gallons per day that has did not commenced commence  the discharge of pollutants prior to January 1, 2011, shall demonstrate to the  department that he has acquired waste load wasteload allocations  sufficient to offset his delivered total nitrogen and delivered phosphorus  loads prior to commencing the discharge, except when the facility is for  short-term temporary use only as determined by the department or when  treatment of domestic sewage is not the primary purpose of the facility.
    2. Offset calculations shall address the proposed discharge  that exceeds: 
    a. The applicable waste load wasteload  allocation assigned to discharges from the facility in this general  permit, for expanding significant dischargers with a waste load wasteload  allocation listed in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110  C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation; 
    b. The permitted design capacity, for all other expanding  dischargers; and 
    c. Zero, for facilities with a new discharge. 
    3. An owner or operator of multiple facilities located in  that discharge into the same tributary, and assigned an aggregate mass  load limit in accordance with Part I B 2 of this general permit, that  undertakes construction of new or expanded facilities, shall be required to  acquire waste load wasteload allocations sufficient to offset any  increase in delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads  resulting from any expansion beyond the aggregate mass load limit assigned  these facilities. 
    B. Acquisition of waste load wasteload allocations.  Waste load wasteload allocations required by this section to  offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus  loads shall be acquired in accordance with this section. 
    1. Such allocations may be acquired from one or a combination  of the following: 
    a. Acquisition of all or a portion of the waste load wasteload  allocations or point source nitrogen or point source phosphorus credits from the  owners of one or more permitted facilities, based on delivered pounds by  the respective trading parties as listed by the department; 
    b. Acquisition of credits certified by the board pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:20 of the Code of Virginia or certified by the Soil and Water  Conservation Board pursuant to § 10.1-603.15:2 of the Code of Virginia.  Credits used to offset new or increased nutrient loads under this subdivision  shall be: 
    (1) Subject to a trading ratio of two pounds reduced for every  pound to be discharged if certified as a nonpoint source credit by the Soil  and Water Conservation Board board pursuant to § 10.1-603.15:2  62.1-44.19:20 of the Code of Virginia;. On a case-by-case  basis the board may approve nonpoint source to source trading ratios of less  than 2:1 (but not less than 1:1) when the applicant demonstrates factors that  ameliorate the presumed 2:1 uncertainty ratio for credits generation by  nonpoint sources such as:
    (a) When direct and representative monitoring of the  pollutant loadings from a nonpoint source is performed in a manner and at a  frequency similar to that performed at VPDES point sources and there is  consistency in the effectiveness of the operation of the nonpoint source best  management practice (BMP) approaching that of a conventional point source.
    (b) When nonpoint source credits are generated from land  conservation that ensures permanent protection through a conservation easement  or other instrument attached to the deed and when load reductions can be  reliably determined.
    (2) Calculated using best management practices efficiency  rates and attenuation rates, as established by the latest science and relevant  technical information, and approved by the board; 
    (3) Based on appropriate delivery factors, as established by  the latest science and relevant technical information, and approved by the  board; 
    (4) Demonstrated to have achieved reductions beyond those  already required by or funded under federal or state law, or by Virginia's  Chesapeake Bay TMDL Watershed Implementation Plan; 
    (5) Included as Generated in accordance with  conditions of the facility's individual Virginia Pollutant Discharge  Elimination System VPDES permit; and
    (6) In the case of allocations credits generated  by land use conversions and urban source reduction controls (BMPs), the  credits shall represent nutrient reductions beyond those in place as of  July 1, 2005;
    c. Until such time as the board finds that no allocations are  reasonably available in an individual tributary, acquisition of allocations  through payments made into the Virginia Water Quality Improvement Nutrient  Offset Fund established in § 10.1-2128 10.1-2128.2 of the  Code of Virginia; or 
    d. Acquisition of allocations through such other means as may  be approved by the department on a case-by-case basis. This includes  allocations granted by the board to an owner or operator of a facility that is  authorized by a VPA permit to land apply domestic sewage if:
    (1) The VPA permit was issued before July 1, 2005;
    (2) The allocation does not exceed the facility's permitted  design capacity as of July 1, 2005;
    (3) The waste treated by the facility that is covered under  the VPA permit will be treated and discharged pursuant to a VPDES permit for a  new discharge; and
    (4) The owner or operator installs state-of-the-art nutrient  removal technology at such a facility.
    2. Acquisition of allocations or point source nitrogen or  point source phosphorus credits is subject to the following conditions: 
    a. The allocations or credits shall be generated and applied  to an offset obligation in the same calendar year in which the credit is  generated; 
    b. The allocations or credits shall be generated in the same  tributary; 
    c. Such acquisition does not affect any requirement to comply  with local water quality-based limitations, as determined by the board; 
    d. The allocations are authenticated (i.e., verified to have  been generated) by the permittee as required by the facility's individual Virginia  Pollutant Discharge Elimination VPDES permit, utilizing procedures  approved by the board, no later than February 1 immediately following the  calendar year in which the allocations are applied; and
    e. If obtained from the owner of a permitted point  source, the allocations shall be generated by a facility that has been  constructed, and has discharged from treatment works whose design flow or  equivalent industrial activity is the basis for the facility's waste load  wasteload allocations.
    f. Such allocations or credits shall be provided secured  for a period of five years with each registration under the general permit.
    3. Priority of options. The board shall give priority to  allocations or credits acquired in accordance with subdivisions 1 a, b, and d  of this subsection. The board shall approve allocations acquired in accordance  with subdivision 1 c of this subsection only after the owner or operator has  demonstrated that he has made a good faith effort to acquire sufficient  allocations in accordance with subdivisions 1 a and 1 b of this subsection, and  that such allocations are not reasonably available taking into account timing,  cost and other relevant factors. Such demonstration may include, but not be  limited to, providing a record of solicitation, or other demonstration that  point source allocations or nonpoint source allocations are not available for  sale in the tributary in which the permittee permittee's facility  discharge is located. 
    4. Annual allocation acquisitions from the Water Quality  Improvement Nutrient Offset Fund. The cost for each pound of  nitrogen and each pound of phosphorus shall be determined at the time payment  is made to the WQIF Nutrient Offset Fund, based on the higher of  (i) the estimated cost of achieving a reduction of one pound of nitrogen or  phosphorus at the facility that is securing the allocation, or comparable  facility, for each pound of allocation acquired; or (ii) the average cost, as  determined by the Department of Conservation and Recreation department  on an annual basis, of reducing two pounds of nitrogen or phosphorus from  nonpoint sources in the same tributary for each pound of allocation acquired. 
    PART III
    CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL VPDES PERMITS 
    A. Duty to comply. The permittee must comply with all  conditions of the permit. Any permit noncompliance constitutes a violation of  the law and the Clean Water Act, except that noncompliance with certain  provisions of the permit may constitute a violation of the law but not the  Clean Water Act. Permit noncompliance is grounds for enforcement action; for  permit termination, revocation and reissuance, or modification; or denial of a  permit renewal application.
    B. Duty to register for reissued general permit. If the  permittee wishes to continue an activity regulated by the general permit after  its expiration date, the permittee must register for coverage under the new  general permit, when it is reissued by the department.
    C. Need to halt or reduce activity not a defense. It shall  not be a defense for a permittee in an enforcement action that it would have  been necessary to halt or reduce the permitted activity in order to maintain  compliance with the conditions of the permit.
    D. Duty to mitigate. The permittee shall take all  reasonable steps to minimize or prevent any discharge in violation of the  permit that has a reasonable likelihood of adversely affecting human health or  the environment.
    E. Proper operation and maintenance. The permittee shall  at all times properly operate and maintain all facilities and systems of  treatment and control (and related appurtenances) that are installed or used by  the permittee to achieve compliance with the conditions of the permit. Proper  operation and maintenance also includes adequate laboratory controls and  appropriate quality assurance procedures. This provision requires the operation  of back-up or auxiliary facilities or similar systems that are installed by a  permittee only when the operation is necessary to achieve compliance with the  conditions of the permit.
    F. Permit actions. Permits may be modified, revoked and  reissued, or terminated for cause. The filing of a request by the permittee for  a permit modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination, or a  notification of planned changes or anticipated noncompliance does not stay any  permit condition.
    G. Property rights. Permits do not convey any property  rights of any sort, or any exclusive privilege.
    H. Duty to provide information. The permittee shall  furnish to the department, within a reasonable time, any information that the  board may request to determine whether cause exists for modifying, revoking and  reissuing, or terminating the permit or to determine compliance with the  permit. The board may require the permittee to furnish, upon request, such  plans, specifications, and other pertinent information as may be necessary to  determine the effect of the wastes from his discharge on the quality of state  waters, or such other information as may be necessary to accomplish the  purposes of the law. The permittee shall also furnish to the department upon  request, copies of records required to be kept by the permit, pertaining to  activities related to the permitted facility.
    I. Inspection and entry. The permittee shall allow the  director, or an authorized representative (including an authorized contractor  acting as a representative of the administrator), upon presentation of  credentials and other documents as may be required by law, to:
    1. Enter upon the permittee's premises where a regulated  facility or activity is located or conducted, or where records must be kept  under the conditions of the permit;
    2. Have access to and copy, at reasonable times, any records  that must be kept under the conditions of the permit;
    3. Inspect at reasonable times any facilities, equipment  (including monitoring and control equipment), practices, or operations  regulated or required under the permit; and
    4. Sample or monitor at reasonable times, for the purposes  of assuring permit compliance or as otherwise authorized by the Clean Water Act  and the law, any substances or parameters at any location.
    J. Monitoring and records.
    1. Samples and measurements taken for the purpose of monitoring  shall be representative of the monitored activity.
    2. The permittee shall retain records of all monitoring  information, including all calibration and maintenance records and all original  strip chart recordings for continuous monitoring instrumentation, copies of all  reports required by the permit, and records of all data used to complete the  application for the permit, for a period of at least three years from the date  of the sample, measurement, report or application. This period of retention shall  be extended automatically during the course of any unresolved litigation  regarding the regulated activity or regarding control standards applicable to  the permittee, or as requested by the board. 
    3. Records of monitoring information shall include:
    a. The date, exact place, and time of sampling or  measurements;
    b. The individual(s) who performed the sampling or  measurements;
    c. The date(s) analyses were performed;
    d. The individual(s) who performed the analyses;
    e. The analytical techniques or methods used; and
    f. The results of such analyses.
    4. Monitoring results must be conducted according to test  procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or alternative EPA-approved methods,  unless other test procedures have been specified in the permit.
    K. Signatory requirements. All applications, reports, or  information submitted to the department shall be signed and certified as  required by 9VAC25-31-110.
    L. Reporting requirements.
    1. The permittee shall give notice to the department as  soon as possible of any planned physical alterations or additions to the  permitted facility. Notice is required only when:
    a. The alteration or addition to a permitted facility may  meet one of the criteria for determining whether a facility is a new source in  9VAC25-31-180 A; or
    b. The alteration or addition could significantly change  the nature or increase the quantity of pollutants discharged. This notification  applies to pollutants that are subject neither to effluent limitations in the  permit, nor to notification requirements under 9VAC25-31-200 A 1.
    2. The permittee shall give advance notice to the  department of any planned changes in the permitted facility or activity that  may result in noncompliance with permit requirements.
    3. Permits are not transferable to any person except after  notice to the department. The board may require modification or revocation and  reissuance of permits to change the name of the permittee and incorporate such  other requirements as may be necessary under the law or the Clean Water Act.
    4. Monitoring results shall be reported at the intervals  specified in the permit.
    a. Monitoring results must be reported on a Discharge  Monitoring Report (DMR).
    b. If the permittee monitors any pollutant specifically  addressed by the permit more frequently than required by the permit using test  procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136, or as specified in the permit, the  results of this monitoring shall be included in the calculation and reporting  of the data submitted in the DMR specified by the department.
    c. Calculations for all limitations that require averaging  of measurements shall utilize an arithmetic mean unless otherwise specified in  the permit.
    5. Reports of compliance or noncompliance with, or any  progress reports on, interim and final requirements contained in any compliance  schedule of the permit shall be submitted no later than 14 days following each  schedule date.
    6. If any unusual or extraordinary discharge including a  bypass or upset should occur from a facility and such discharge enters or could  be expected to enter state waters, the owner shall promptly notify, in no case  later than 24 hours, the department by telephone after the discovery of such  discharge. This notification shall provide all available details of the  incident, including any adverse affects on aquatic life and the known number of  fish killed. The permittee shall reduce the report to writing and shall submit  it to the department within five days of discovery of the discharge in  accordance with subdivision 7 a of this subsection. Unusual and extraordinary  discharges include but are not limited to any discharge resulting from:
    a. Unusual spillage of materials resulting directly or  indirectly from processing operations;
    b. Breakdown of processing or accessory equipment;
    c. Failure or taking out of service of the treatment work  or auxiliary facilities (such as sewer lines or wastewater pump stations); and
    d. Flooding or other acts of nature.
    7. Twenty-four-hour reporting.
    a. The permittee shall report any noncompliance that may  endanger health or the environment. Any information shall be provided orally  within 24 hours from the time the permittee becomes aware of the circumstances.  A written submission shall also be provided within five days of the time the  permittee becomes aware of the circumstances. The written submission shall  contain a description of the noncompliance and its cause; the period of  noncompliance, including exact dates and times, and if the noncompliance has  not been corrected, the anticipated time it is expected to continue; and steps  taken or planned to reduce, eliminate, and prevent reoccurrence of the  noncompliance.
    b. The following shall be included as information that must  be reported within 24 hours under this subdivision.
    (1) Any unanticipated bypass that exceeds any effluent  limitation in the permit.
    (2) Any upset that exceeds any effluent limitation in the  permit.
    (3) Violation of a maximum daily discharge limitation for  any of the pollutants listed in the permit to be reported within 24 hours.
    c. The board may waive the written report on a case-by-case  basis for reports under this subdivision if the oral report has been received  within 24 hours.
    8. The permittee shall report all instances of  noncompliance not reported under subdivisions 4, 5, 6, and 7 of this  subsection, in writing at the time the next monitoring reports are submitted.  The reports shall contain the information listed in subdivision 7 of this  subsection.
    9. Where the permittee becomes aware that it failed to  submit any relevant facts in a permit application, or submitted incorrect  information in a permit application or in any report to the department, it  shall promptly submit such facts or information.
    M. Bypass. 
    1. The permittee may allow any bypass to occur that does  not cause effluent limitations to be exceeded, but only if it also is for  essential maintenance to assure efficient operation. These bypasses are not  subject to the provisions of subdivisions 2 and 3 of this subsection.
    2. Notice.
    a. Anticipated bypass. If the permittee knows in advance of  the need for a bypass, it shall submit prior notice, if possible at least 10  days before the date of the bypass.
    b. Unanticipated bypass. The permittee shall submit notice  of an unanticipated bypass as required in subdivision L 7 of this section  (24-hour notice).
    3. Prohibition of bypass.
    a. Bypass is prohibited, and the board may take enforcement  action against a permittee for bypass, unless: 
    (1) Bypass was unavoidable to prevent loss of life,  personal injury, or severe property damage;
    (2) There were no feasible alternatives to the bypass, such  as the use of auxiliary treatment facilities, retention of untreated wastes, or  maintenance during normal periods of equipment downtime. This condition is not  satisfied if adequate back-up equipment should have been installed in the  exercise of reasonable engineering judgment to prevent a bypass that occurred  during normal periods of equipment downtime or preventive maintenance; and 
    (3) The permittee submitted notices as required under  subdivision 2 of this subsection.
    b. The board may approve an anticipated bypass, after  considering its adverse effects, if the board determines that it will meet the  three conditions listed above in subdivision 3 a of this subsection.
    N. Upset. 
    1. An upset constitutes an affirmative defense to an action  brought for noncompliance with such technology-based permit effluent  limitations if the requirements of subdivision 2 of this subsection are met. No  determination made during administrative review of claims that noncompliance  was caused by upset, and before an action for noncompliance, is final  administrative action subject to judicial review.
    2. A permittee who wishes to establish the affirmative  defense of upset shall demonstrate, through properly signed, contemporaneous  operating logs, or other relevant evidence that:
    a. An upset occurred and that the permittee can identify  the cause(s) of the upset;
    b. The permitted facility was at the time being properly  operated;
    c. The permittee submitted notice of the upset as required  in subdivision L 7 b (2) of this section (24-hour notice); and
    d. The permittee complied with any remedial measures  required under subsection D of this section.
    3. In any enforcement proceeding, the permittee seeking to  establish the occurrence of an upset has the burden of proof.
    A. Monitoring. 
    1. Samples and measurements taken as required by this  permit shall be representative of the monitored activity. 
    2. Monitoring shall be conducted according to procedures  approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or alternative methods approved by the U.S.  Environmental Protection Agency, unless other procedures have been specified in  this permit. 
    3. The permittee shall periodically calibrate and perform  maintenance procedures on all monitoring and analytical instrumentation at  intervals that will ensure accuracy of measurements. 
    4. Samples taken as required by this permit shall be  analyzed in accordance with 1VAC30-45 (Certification for Noncommercial  Environmental Laboratories) or 1VAC30-46 (Accreditation for Commercial  Environmental Laboratories).
    B. Records. 
    1. Records of monitoring information shall include: 
    a. The date, exact place, and time of sampling or  measurements; 
    b. The individuals who performed the sampling or  measurements; 
    c. The dates and times analyses were performed; 
    d. The individuals who performed the analyses; 
    e. The analytical techniques or methods used; and 
    f. The results of such analyses. 
    2. Except for records of monitoring information required by  this permit related to the permittee's sewage sludge use and disposal  activities, which shall be retained for a period of at least five years, the  permittee shall retain records of all monitoring information, including all  calibration and maintenance records and all original strip chart recordings for  continuous monitoring instrumentation, copies of all reports required by this  permit, and records of all data used to complete the registration statement for  this permit, for a period of at least three years from the date of the sample,  measurement, report, or request for coverage. This period of retention shall be  extended automatically during the course of any unresolved litigation regarding  the regulated activity or regarding control standards applicable to the  permittee or as requested by the board. 
    C. Reporting monitoring results. Monitoring results under  this permit are not required to be submitted to the department. However, should  the board request that the permittee submit monitoring results, the following  subdivisions apply:
    1. The permittee shall submit the results of the monitoring  required by this permit not later than the 10th day of the month after  monitoring takes place, unless another reporting schedule is specified  elsewhere in this permit. Monitoring results shall be submitted to the  department's regional office. 
    2. Monitoring results shall be reported on a Discharge  Monitoring Report (DMR) or on forms provided, approved, or specified by the  department. 
    3. If the permittee monitors any pollutant specifically  addressed by this permit more frequently than required by this permit using  test procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or using other test procedures  approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency or using procedures  specified in this permit, the results of this monitoring shall be included in  the calculation and reporting of the data submitted on the DMR or reporting  form specified by the department. 
    4. Calculations for all limitations that require averaging of  measurements shall utilize an arithmetic mean unless otherwise specified in  this permit. 
    D. Duty to provide information. The permittee shall  furnish to the department, within a reasonable time, any information that the  board may request to determine whether cause exists for modifying, revoking and  reissuing, or terminating coverage under this permit or to determine compliance  with this permit. The board may require the permittee to furnish, upon request,  such plans, specifications, and other pertinent information as may be necessary  to determine the effect of the wastes from the discharge on the quality of  state waters or such other information as may be necessary to accomplish the  purposes of the State Water Control Law. The permittee shall also furnish to  the department, upon request, copies of records required to be kept by this  permit. 
    E. Compliance schedule reports. Reports of compliance or  noncompliance with, or any progress reports on, interim and final requirements  contained in any compliance schedule of this permit shall be submitted no later  than 14 days following each schedule date. 
    F. Unauthorized discharges. Except in compliance with this  permit or another permit issued by the board, it shall be unlawful for any  person to: 
    1. Discharge into state waters sewage, industrial wastes,  other wastes, or any noxious or deleterious substances; or 
    2. Otherwise alter the physical, chemical, or biological  properties of such state waters and make them detrimental to the public health,  to animal or aquatic life, or to the use of such waters for domestic or  industrial consumption, for recreation, or for other uses. 
    G. Reports of unauthorized discharges. Any permittee that  discharges or causes or allows a discharge of sewage, industrial waste, other  wastes, or any noxious or deleterious substance into or upon state waters in  violation of Part III F, or that discharges or causes or allows a discharge  that may reasonably be expected to enter state waters in violation of Part III  F, shall notify the department of the discharge immediately upon discovery of  the discharge, but in no case later than 24 hours after said discovery. A  written report of the unauthorized discharge shall be submitted to the  department within five days of discovery of the discharge. The written report  shall contain: 
    1. A description of the nature and location of the  discharge; 
    2. The cause of the discharge; 
    3. The date on which the discharge occurred; 
    4. The length of time that the discharge continued; 
    5. The volume of the discharge; 
    6. If the discharge is continuing, how long it is expected  to continue; 
    7. If the discharge is continuing, what the expected total  volume of the discharge will be; and 
    8. Any steps planned or taken to reduce, eliminate, and  prevent a recurrence of the present discharge or any future discharge not  authorized by this permit. 
    Discharges reportable to the department under the  immediate reporting requirements of other regulations are exempted from this  requirement. 
    H. Reports of unusual or extraordinary discharges. If any  unusual or extraordinary discharge including a bypass or upset should occur  from a treatment works and the discharge enters or could be expected to enter  state waters, the permittee shall promptly notify, in no case later than 24  hours, the department by telephone after the discovery of the discharge. This  notification shall provide all available details of the incident, including any  adverse effects on aquatic life and the known number of fish killed. The  permittee shall reduce the report to writing and shall submit it to the  department within five days of discovery of the discharge in accordance with  Part III I 2. Unusual and extraordinary discharges include, but are not limited  to, any discharge resulting from: 
    1. Unusual spillage of materials resulting directly or  indirectly from processing operations; 
    2. Breakdown of processing or accessory equipment; 
    3. Failure or taking out of service some or all of the  treatment works; and 
    4. Flooding or other acts of nature. 
    I. Reports of noncompliance. The permittee shall report  any noncompliance that may adversely affect state waters or may endanger public  health. 
    1. An oral report shall be provided within 24 hours from  the time the permittee becomes aware of the circumstances. The following shall  be included as information that shall be reported within 24 hours under this  paragraph: 
    a. Any unanticipated bypass; and 
    b. Any upset that causes a discharge to surface waters. 
    2. A written report shall be submitted within five days and  shall contain: 
    a. A description of the noncompliance and its cause; 
    b. The period of noncompliance, including exact dates and  times, and if the noncompliance has not been corrected, the anticipated time it  is expected to continue; and 
    c. Steps taken or planned to reduce, eliminate, and prevent  reoccurrence of the noncompliance. 
    The board may waive the written report on a case-by-case  basis for reports of noncompliance under Part III I if the oral report has been  received within 24 hours and no adverse impact on state waters has been  reported. 
    3. The permittee shall report all instances of  noncompliance not reported under Part III I 1 or 2, in writing, at the time the  next monitoring reports are submitted. The reports shall contain the  information listed in Part III I 2. 
    NOTE: The immediate (within 24 hours) reports required in  Part III G, H, and I may be made to the department's regional office. Reports  may be made by telephone, FAX, or online at http://www.deq.virginia.gov/Programs/PollutionResponsePreparedness/MakingaReport.aspx.  For reports outside normal working hours, a message may be left and this shall  fulfill the immediate reporting requirement. For emergencies, the Virginia  Department of Emergency Management maintains a 24-hour telephone service at  1-800-468-8892. 
    J. Notice of planned changes. 
    1. The permittee shall give notice to the department as  soon as possible of any planned physical alterations or additions to the  permitted facility. Notice is required only when: 
    a. The permittee plans alteration or addition to any  building, structure, facility, or installation from which there is or may be a  discharge of pollutants, the construction of which commenced: 
    (1) After promulgation of standards of performance under §  306 of the Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.) that are applicable to such  source; or 
    (2) After proposal of standards of performance in  accordance with § 306 of the Clean Water Act that are applicable to such  source, but only if the standards are promulgated in accordance with § 306  within 120 days of their proposal; 
    b. The alteration or addition could significantly change  the nature or increase the quantity of pollutants discharged. This notification  applies to pollutants that are subject neither to effluent limitations nor to  notification requirements specified elsewhere in this permit; or 
    c. The alteration or addition results in a significant  change in the permittee's sludge use or of disposal practices, and such  alteration, addition, or change may justify the application of permit  conditions that are different from or absent in the existing permit, including  notification of additional use or of disposal sites not reported during the  permit application process or not reported pursuant to an approved land  application plan. 
    2. The permittee shall give advance notice to the  department of any planned changes in the permitted facility or activity that  may result in noncompliance with permit requirements. 
    K. Signatory requirements. 
    1. Registration statement. All registration statements  shall be signed as follows: 
    a. For a corporation: by a responsible corporate officer.  For the purpose of this section, a responsible corporate officer means (i) a  president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge  of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar  policy-making or decision-making functions for the corporation or (ii) the  manager of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities, provided  the manager is authorized to make management decisions that govern the  operation of the regulated facility including having the explicit or implicit  duty of making major capital investment recommendations and initiating and  directing other comprehensive measures to assure long term environmental  compliance with environmental laws and regulations; the manager can ensure that  the necessary systems are established or other actions taken to gather complete  and accurate information for permit registration requirements; and where  authority to sign documents has been assigned or delegated to the manager in  accordance with corporate procedures; 
    b. For a partnership or sole proprietorship: by a general  partner or the proprietor, respectively; or 
    c. For a municipality, state, federal, or other public  agency: by either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official.  For purposes of this section, a principal executive officer of a public agency  includes (i) the chief executive officer of the agency or (ii) a senior  executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a  principal geographic unit of the agency. 
    2. Reports, etc. All reports required by permits and other  information requested by the board shall be signed by a person described in  Part III K 1 or by a duly authorized representative of that person. A person is  a duly authorized representative only if: 
    a. The authorization is made in writing by a person  described in Part III K 1; 
    b. The authorization specifies either an individual or a  position having responsibility for the overall operation of the regulated  facility or activity such as the position of plant manager, operator of a well  or a well field, superintendent, position of equivalent responsibility, or an  individual or position having overall responsibility for environmental matters  for the company. A duly authorized representative may thus be either a named  individual or any individual occupying a named position; and 
    c. The written authorization is submitted to the  department. 
    3. Changes to authorization. If an authorization under Part  III K 2 is no longer accurate because a different individual or position has  responsibility for the overall operation of the facility, a new authorization  satisfying the requirements of Part III K 2 shall be submitted to the  department prior to or together with any reports, or information to be signed  by an authorized representative. 
    4. Certification. Any person signing a document under Part  III K 1 or 2 shall make the following certification: 
    "I certify under penalty of law that this document and  all attachments were prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance  with a system designed to assure that qualified personnel properly gather and  evaluate the information submitted. Based on my inquiry of the person or  persons who manage the system, or those persons directly responsible for  gathering the information, the information submitted is, to the best of my  knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are  significant penalties for submitting false information, including the  possibility of fine and imprisonment for knowing violations." 
    L. Duty to comply. The permittee shall comply with all  conditions of this permit. Any permit noncompliance constitutes a violation of  the State Water Control Law and the Clean Water Act, except that noncompliance  with certain provisions of this permit may constitute a violation of the State  Water Control Law but not the Clean Water Act. Permit noncompliance is grounds  for enforcement action; for permit termination, revocation and reissuance, or  modification; or denial of a permit coverage renewal application. 
    The permittee shall comply with effluent standards or  prohibitions established under § 307(a) of the Clean Water Act for toxic  pollutants and with standards for sewage sludge use or disposal established  under § 405(d) of the Clean Water Act within the time provided in the  regulations that establish these standards or prohibitions or standards for  sewage sludge use or disposal, even if this permit has not yet been modified to  incorporate the requirement. 
    M. Duty to reapply. If the permittee wishes to continue an  activity regulated by this permit after the expiration date of this permit, the  permittee shall submit a new registration statement at least 60 days before the  expiration date of the existing permit, unless permission for a later date has  been granted by the board. The board shall not grant permission for registration  statements to be submitted later than the expiration date of the existing  permit. 
    N. Effect of a permit. This permit does not convey any  property rights in either real or personal property or any exclusive  privileges, nor does it authorize any injury to private property or invasion of  personal rights or any infringement of federal, state, or local law or  regulations. 
    O. State law. Nothing in this permit shall be construed to  preclude the institution of any legal action under, or relieve the permittee  from any responsibilities, liabilities, or penalties established pursuant to,  any other state law or regulation or under authority preserved by § 510 of the  Clean Water Act. Except as provided in permit conditions on  "bypassing" (Part III U) and "upset" (Part III V), nothing  in this permit shall be construed to relieve the permittee from civil and  criminal penalties for noncompliance. 
    P. Oil and hazardous substance liability. Nothing in this  permit shall be construed to preclude the institution of any legal action or  relieve the permittee from responsibilities, liabilities, or penalties to which  the permittee is or may be subject under §§ 62.1-44.34:14  through 62.1-44.34:23  of the State Water Control Law. 
    Q. Proper operation and maintenance. The permittee shall  at all times properly operate and maintain all facilities and systems of  treatment and control (and related appurtenances) that are installed or used by  the permittee to achieve compliance with the conditions of this permit. Proper  operation and maintenance also include effective plant performance, adequate  funding, adequate staffing, and adequate laboratory and process controls,  including appropriate quality assurance procedures. This provision requires the  operation of back-up or auxiliary facilities or similar systems that are  installed by the permittee only when the operation is necessary to achieve  compliance with the conditions of this permit. 
    R. Disposal of solids or sludges. Solids, sludges, or  other pollutants removed in the course of treatment or management of pollutants  shall be disposed of in a manner so as to prevent any pollutant from such  materials from entering state waters. 
    S. Duty to mitigate. The permittee shall take all  reasonable steps to minimize or prevent any discharge or sludge use or disposal  in violation of this permit that has a reasonable likelihood of adversely  affecting human health or the environment. 
    T. Need to halt or reduce activity not a defense. It shall  not be a defense for a permittee in an enforcement action that it would have  been necessary to halt or reduce the permitted activity in order to maintain  compliance with the conditions of this permit. 
    U. Bypass. 
    1. "Bypass" means the intentional diversion of  waste streams from any portion of a treatment facility. The permittee may allow  any bypass to occur that does not cause effluent limitations to be exceeded,  but only if it also is for essential maintenance to ensure efficient operation.  These bypasses are not subject to the provisions of Part III U 2 and 3. 
    2. Notice. 
    a. Anticipated bypass. If the permittee knows in advance of  the need for a bypass, prior notice shall be submitted, if possible, at least  10 days before the date of the bypass. 
    b. Unanticipated bypass. The permittee shall submit notice  of an unanticipated bypass as required in Part III I. 
    3. Prohibition of bypass. 
    a. Bypass is prohibited, and the board may take enforcement  action against a permittee for bypass, unless: 
    (1) Bypass was unavoidable to prevent loss of life,  personal injury, or severe property damage; 
    (2) There were no feasible alternatives to the bypass, such  as the use of auxiliary treatment facilities, retention of untreated wastes, or  maintenance during normal periods of equipment downtime. This condition is not  satisfied if adequate back-up equipment should have been installed in the  exercise of reasonable engineering judgment to prevent a bypass that occurred  during normal periods of equipment downtime or preventive maintenance; and 
    (3) The permittee submitted notices as required under Part  III U 2. 
    b. The board may approve an anticipated bypass after  considering its adverse effects if the board determines that it will meet the  three conditions listed in Part III U 3 a. 
    V. Upset. 
    1. An upset, defined in 9VAC25-31-10, constitutes an  affirmative defense to an action brought for noncompliance with  technology-based permit effluent limitations if the requirements of Part III V  2 are met. A determination made during administrative review of claims that  noncompliance was caused by upset, and before an action for noncompliance, is  not a final administrative action subject to judicial review. 
    2. A permittee who wishes to establish the affirmative  defense of upset shall demonstrate through properly signed, contemporaneous  operating logs, or other relevant evidence that: 
    a. An upset occurred and that the permittee can identify  the cause or causes of the upset; 
    b. The permitted facility was at the time being properly  operated; 
    c. The permittee submitted notice of the upset as required  in Part III I; and 
    d. The permittee complied with remedial measures required  under Part III S. 
    3. In any enforcement proceeding the permittee seeking to  establish the occurrence of an upset has the burden of proof. 
    W. Inspection and entry. The permittee shall allow the  director, or an authorized representative, upon presentation of credentials and  other documents as may be required by law, to: 
    1. Enter upon the permittee's premises where a regulated  facility or activity is located or conducted, or where records must be kept under  the conditions of this permit; 
    2. Have access to and copy, at reasonable times, any  records that must be kept under the conditions of this permit; 
    3. Inspect at reasonable times facilities, equipment  (including monitoring and control equipment), practices, or operations  regulated or required under this permit; and 
    4. Sample or monitor at reasonable times, for the purposes  of assuring permit compliance or as otherwise authorized by the Clean Water Act  and the State Water Control Law, substances or parameters at any location. 
    For purposes of this section, the time for inspection  shall be deemed reasonable during regular business hours and whenever the  facility is discharging. Nothing contained herein shall make an inspection  unreasonable during an emergency. 
    X. Permit actions. Permits may be modified, revoked and  reissued, or terminated for cause. The filing of a request by the permittee for  a permit modification, revocation and reissuance, termination, or notification  of planned changes or anticipated noncompliance does not stay any permit  condition. 
    Y. Transfer of permits. Permits are not transferable to  any person except after notice to the department. Coverage under this permit  may be automatically transferred to a new permittee if: 
    1. The current permittee notifies the department within 30  days of the transfer of the title to the facility or property, unless  permission for a later date has been granted by the board; 
    2. The notice includes a written agreement between the  existing and new permittees containing a specific date for transfer of permit  responsibility, coverage, and liability between them; and 
    3. The board does not notify the existing permittee and the  proposed new permittee of its intent to deny the new permittee coverage under  the permit. If this notice is not received, the transfer is effective on the  date specified in the agreement described in Part III Y 2. 
    Z. Severability. The provisions of this permit are  severable, and if any provision of this permit or the application of any provision  of this permit to any circumstance is held invalid, the application of such  provision to other circumstances, and the remainder of this permit, shall not  be affected thereby.
     
         
          9VAC25-820-80. Facilities subject to reduced individual total  nitrogen and total phosphorus waste load wasteload allocations.
    The facilities identified in this section are subject to  reduced individual total nitrogen and total phosphorus waste load wasteload  allocations as indicated.
           | Facility
 | Registration No.
 | Basin
 | Reduced Waste Load    Allocation 
 | 
       | Caroline Co. Regional STP
 | VAN030045
 | York
 | 609 lbs/yr TP
 | 
       | Gordonsville STP
 | VAN030046
 | York
 | 1,145 lbs/yr TP
 | 
       | Hanover County Aggregate1    
 | VAN030051
 | York
 | 11,390 lbs/yr TP (delivered)    
 | 
       | White Birch Paper - Bear    Island LLC Division
 | VAN030133
 | York
 | 10,233 lbs/yr TP
 | 
       | Western Refinery - Yorktown    
 | VAN030047
 | York
 | 17,689 lbs/yr TP
 | 
       | HRSD York River Aggregate2    
 | VAN030052
 | York
 | 19,315 lbs/yr TP (delivered)    
 | 
       | Parham Landing WWTP
 | VAN030048
 | York
 | 2,436 lbs/yr TP
 | 
       | RockTenn CP LLC - West    Point 
 | VAN030049
 | York
 | 56,038 lbs/yr TP
 | 
       | HRSD James River Aggregate3    
 | VAN040090
 | James 
 | 4,400,000 lbs/yr TN    (delivered) 
 | 
  
    1Hanover County Aggregate includes Ashland STP  (VA0024899), Doswell WWTP (VA0029521), and Totopotomoy WWTP (VA0089915)
    2HRSD York River Aggregate includes York River STP  (VA0081311), West Point STP (VA0075434), and King William STP (VA0028819).
           | Facility | VPDES No. | Phase 1Total Nitrogen (lbs/yr)
 | Phase 2Total Nitrogen (lbs/yr)
 | Phase 2 Total Phosphorus (lbs/yr)
 | 
       | Buena Vista STP | VA0020991 | N/A | N/A | 2,778 | 
       | Covington STP | VA0025542 | N/A | N/A | 3,705 | 
       | GP Big Island LLC | VA0003026 | N/A | N/A | 40,273 | 
       | Mohawk Industries, Inc. | VA0004677 | N/A | N/A | 9,880 | 
       | Lexington - Rockbridge Regional WQCF | VA0088161 | N/A | N/A | 3,705 | 
       | Alleghany County - Low Moor STP | VA0027979 | N/A | N/A | 617 | 
       | Lower Jackson River STP | VA0090671 | N/A | N/A | 1,852 | 
       | Clifton Forge STP | VA0022772 | N/A | N/A | 2,470 | 
       | MeadWestvaco | VA0003646 | N/A | N/A | 96,771 | 
       | Amherst - Rutledge Creek WWTP | VA0031321 | N/A | N/A | 741 | 
       | BWX Technologies Inc. | VA0003697 | N/A | N/A | 1,235 | 
       | Greif Inc. | VA0006408 | N/A | N/A | 24,082 | 
       | Lake Monticello STP | VA0024945 | N/A | N/A | 1,229 | 
       | Lynchburg STP (DWF only) | VA0024970 | N/A | N/A | 27,169 | 
       | RWSA - Moores Creek Regional STP | VA0025518 | N/A | N/A | 18,525 | 
       | Powhatan CC STP | VA0020699 | N/A | N/A | 581 | 
       | Crewe WWTP | VA0020303 | N/A | N/A | 617 | 
       | Farmville WWTP | VA0083135 | N/A | N/A | 2,964 | 
       | Richmond WWTP (DWF only) | VA0063177 | N/A | N/A | 55,574 | 
       | E. I. DuPont - Spruance  | VA0004669 | N/A | N/A | 6,339 | 
       | Chesterfield County - Falling Creek WWTP | VA0024996 | N/A | N/A | 12,473 | 
       | Chesterfield County - Proctors Creek WWTP | VA0060194 | N/A | N/A | 33,344 | 
       | Dominion - Chesterfield (Net) | VA0004146 | N/A | N/A | 170 | 
       | Henrico County WWTP | VA0063690 | N/A | N/A | 92,623 | 
       | The Sustainability Park LLC | VA0002780 | N/A | N/A | 1,556 | 
       | Philip Morris USA - Park 500 | VA0026557 | N/A | N/A | 2,149 | 
       | Honeywell - Hopewell | VA0005291 | N/A | N/A | 41,841 | 
       | Hopewell Regional WTF | VA0066630 | N/A | N/A | 61,749 | 
       | South Central WW Authority WWTF | VA0025437 | N/A | N/A | 28,404 | 
       | Tyson Foods - Glen Allen | VA0004031 | N/A | N/A | 409 | 
       | Chickahominy WWTP | VA0088480 | N/A | N/A | 123 | 
       | HRSD - Boat Harbor STP | VA0081256 | N/A | N/A | 43,177 | 
       | HRSD - James River STP | VA0081272 | N/A | N/A | 34,541 | 
       | HRSD - Williamsburg STP | VA0081302 | N/A | N/A | 38,859 | 
       | HRSD - Nansemond STP | VA0081299 | N/A | N/A | 51,812 | 
       | HRSD - Army Base STP | VA0081230 | N/A | N/A | 31,087 | 
       | HRSD - Virginia Initiative Plant WWTP | VA0081281 | N/A | N/A | 69,083 | 
       | HRSD - Chesapeake - Elizabeth STP | VA0081264 | N/A | N/A | 41,450 | 
       | HRSD Aggregate Nutrient Discharge* | N/A | 4,400,000 | 3,400,000 | 310,010 | 
       | JH Miles and Company | VA0003263 | N/A | N/A | 17,437 | 
       | 3*HRSD James River    Aggregate includes Boat Harbor STP (VA0081256), James River STP (VA0081272),    Williamsburg STP (VA0081302), Nansemond STP (VA0081299), Army Base STP    (VA0081230), Virginia Initiative STP (VA0081281), and Chesapeake -    Elizabeth STP (VA0081264).
 | 
  
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4273; Filed November 17, 2015, 1:11 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-20. Regulations for the  Conduct of Human Research (amending 12VAC5-20-10, 12VAC5-20-30 through 12VAC5-20-130).  
    Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-12.1 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: January 14, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Dev Nair, Director, Division of Policy  and Evaluation, Office of Family Health, Department of Health, 109 Governor  Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 864-7662, or email  dev.nair@vdh.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments (i) revise the definitions of "human  research," "informed consent," and "legally authorized  representative" to be consistent with § 32.1-162.16 of the Code of  Virginia and 45 CFR Part 46; (ii) provide additional clarity on committee  review procedures; (iii) require that the research review committee ensure  compliance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and  federal and state regulations regarding disclosure of personal health  information and change committee membership from seven to five; (iv) clarify  the informed consent requirements; and (v) revise the required reporting dates  for the research review committee to report yearly activities and for the  commissioner to report the listing of institutions that are subject to federal  regulations regarding human subject research and are exempt from 12VAC5-20.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No  public comments were received by the promulgating agency. 
    12VAC5-20-10. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms, when used in this  chapter, shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise: 
    "Affiliated with the institution" means employed by  or contracting with the institution or directly or indirectly involved in the  management thereof. 
    "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the  Department of Health. 
    "Committee" means human research committee  assembled pursuant to 12VAC5-20-70 of this chapter by any institution defined  herein. 
    "Department" means the Department of Health. 
    "Human research" means any systematic investigation  utilizing human participants who may be exposed to physical or psychological  injury as a consequence of participation and which departs from the application  of established and accepted therapeutic methods appropriate to meet the  participants' needs, including research development, testing, and  evaluation, utilizing human subjects that is designed to develop or contribute  to generalized knowledge. Human research shall not be deemed to include  research exempt from federal research regulation pursuant to 45 CFR 46.101(b).  
    "Informed consent" means the knowing and voluntary  agreement, without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit,  duress, or other form of constraint or coercion, of a person who is capable of  exercising free power of choice. For the purposes of human research, the  basic elements of information necessary to such consent shall include: 
    1. A reasonable and comprehensible explanation to the  person of the proposed procedures or protocols to be followed, their purposes,  including descriptions of any attendant discomforts, and risks and benefits  reasonably to be expected; 
    2. A disclosure of any appropriate alternative procedures  or therapies that might be advantageous for the individual; 
    3. An instruction that the person may withdraw his consent  and discontinue participation in the human research at any time without  prejudice to him; 
    4. An explanation of any costs or compensation which may  accrue to the person and, if applicable, the availability of third party  reimbursement for the proposed procedures or protocols; and 
    5. An offer to answer any inquiries by any individual  concerning the procedures and protocols. 
    In addition to the required elements, the information  provided to the individual should also include the following: 
    1. A statement that the study involves research, and an  explanation that includes identification of any procedures which are  experimental; the expected duration of the individual's participation; and a  statement describing the extent, if any, to which confidentiality of records  identifying the participant will be maintained; and if any data from this study  are published, the individual will not be identified without his written  permission; 
    2. A statement that there may be other risks not yet  identified; 
    3. A disclosure of any appropriate alternative procedures  or therapies that might be advantageous for the individual; 
    4. A statement that participation is voluntary, refusal to  participate will involve no penalty or loss of benefits to which the individual  is otherwise entitled, and the individual may discontinue participation at any  time without penalty or loss of benefits to which he is otherwise entitled; 
    5. An explanation of whom to contact for answers to  pertinent questions about the research and research participants' rights, and  whom to contact in the event of a research-related injury; and 
    6. For research involving more than minimal risk, an  explanation as to whether any compensation or medical care is available if  injury occurs and, if so, what is included or where further information may be  obtained. 
    Information should be provided in a manner that is  understandable to the individual with regard to his educational level and  language of greatest fluency. 
    "Institution" or "agency" means any  facility, program, or organization owned or operated by the Commonwealth, by  any political subdivision, or by any person, firm, corporation, association, or  other legal entity. 
    "Legally authorized representative" means, in  the following specified order of priority, (i) the parent or parents having  custody of a prospective participant subject of human research who is  a minor; (ii) the agent appointed under an advance directive as defined in  § 54.1-2982 of the Code of Virginia, executed by the person who is the prospective  subject of human research, provided the advance directive authorizes the agent  to make decisions regarding the person's participation in human research; (iii)  the legal guardian of a prospective participant subject of human  research; (iv) the spouse of a prospective subject of human research, except  where a suit for divorce has been filed and the divorce decree is not yet  final; (v) an adult child of a prospective subject of human research; (vi) a  parent of a prospective subject of human research when the individual is an  adult; (vii) an adult brother or sister of a prospective subject of human  research; or (viii) any person or judicial or other body authorized  by law or regulation to consent on behalf of a prospective participant subject  of human research to such person's participation in the particular human  research. For the purposes of this chapter, any person authorized by law or  regulation to consent on behalf of a prospective participant subject  to his such subject's participation in the particular human  research shall include an attorney-in-fact appointed under a durable power of  attorney, to the extent the power grants the authority to make such a decision.  The attorney-in-fact shall not be employed by the person, institution or agency  conducting the human research. No official or employee of the institution or  agency conducting or authorizing the research shall be qualified to act as a  legally authorized representative. 
    "Minimal risk" means that the risks of harm or  discomfort anticipated in the proposed research are not greater, considering  probability and magnitude, than those ordinarily encountered in daily life or  during the performance of routine physical or psychological examinations,  or tests, or treatments. 
    [ "Minor increase over minimal risk" means  there is only slightly more than minimal risk; potential harms are transient  and reversible with respect to any harm; and there is an extremely small  probability that the subject will experience severe pain, discomfort, stress,  or harm. ]
    "Nontherapeutic research" means human research in  which there is no reasonable expectation of direct benefit to the physical or  mental condition of the participant subject. 
    "Protected health information" or  "PHI" means individually identifiable health information that is  created or received by or on behalf of the institution or agency that is  maintained or transmitted in any medium, including electronic media. PHI  excludes individually identifiable health information in:
    1. Education records covered by the Family Educational  Rights and Privacy Act, as amended, 20 USC § 1232g;
    2. Records described at 20 USC § 1232g(a)(4)(B)(iv)  (educational records not otherwise covered under the Family Educational Rights  and Privacy Act in subdivision 1 of this definition); or
    3. Employment records held by a covered entity in its role  as an employer.
    "Subject" or "human subject" means a  living person about whom an investigator (whether professional or student)  conducting research obtains (i) data through intervention or interaction with  the person or (ii) identifiable private information.
    12VAC5-20-30. Applicability. 
    This chapter shall apply to the department, including any  local health department and to any facility operated, funded or licensed by the  department which that conducts or which proposes to  conduct or authorize research which uses using human participants  subjects. 
    12VAC5-20-40. Policy. 
    A. No human research may shall be conducted  without informing the participant subject or his legally  authorized representative of the procedures, risks, and discomforts of the  research. The consent of the participant subject or his legally  authorized representative to participate in the research shall be subscribed to  in writing by the participant subject or his legally authorized  representative and supported by the signature of a witness not involved in the  conduct of the research, except as provided for in 12VAC5-20-100 F and H of  this chapter. Special arrangements shall be made for those who need  assistance in understanding the consequences of participating in the research. 
    B. Each human research activity shall be reviewed and  approved by a committee as set forth in 12VAC5-20-70 of this chapter  composed of representatives of varied backgrounds who shall assure the  competent, complete, and professional review of human research activities. 
    C. Every person engaged in the conduct of human research or  proposing to conduct human research shall associate himself with an institution  or agency having a research review committee, and the human research which he  conducts or proposes to conduct shall be subject to review and approval by such  committee in the manner set forth in these regulations this chapter.  
    D. Nontherapeutic research using patients or residents within  an institution as defined herein is forbidden unless it is determined by the  research review committee that such nontherapeutic research will shall  not present greater than minimal risk. 
    E. The individual person, institution, or agency  conducting the human research shall be required to notify all participants  subjects of human research of the risks caused by the research which  that are discovered after the research has concluded. If consent has  been obtained by the signature of the legally authorized representative, the legally  authorized representative shall also be notified. 
    F.  No official or employee of the institution or  agency conducting or authorizing the human research shall be qualified to act  as a legally authorized representative for a subject of the particular human  research.
    12VAC5-20-50. Review process for department. 
    A. Prior to the initiation of a human research project by any  component of the department, a description of the proposed human research  project shall be submitted to a research review committee established by the  department for review and approval. The description shall include a statement  of the purpose of the proposed project and justification thereof, the criteria  for inclusion of a participant as a subject in the research  project, a description of what will be done to the participants subjects,  and a copy of the informed consent statement. 
    B. The committee shall report by January March  31 of each year to the commissioner on activities of the committee during the  previous calendar year. Such reports shall include: 
    1. A description of each human research project reviewed and whether  it was approved or disapproved; 
    2. Any significant deviations from proposals as approved; 
    3. A list of committee members, their qualifications for  service on the committee, and their institutional affiliation; and 
    4. A copy of the minutes of any committee meetings conducted. 
    C. The chairman chair of the committee shall  report as soon as possible to the commissioner any violation of the research  protocol which that led the committee to either suspend or  terminate the research. 
    D. The commissioner may inspect the records of the committee.  
    E. The commissioner shall report at least annually to the  Governor and General Assembly on the human research projects conducted by any  component of the department as annually reported to the commissioner by the  committee. 
    12VAC5-20-60. Review process for institutions or agencies  funded or licensed by the department. 
    A. Prior to the initiation of a human research project by any  institution or agency funded or licensed by the department, a description of  the proposed human research project shall be submitted to a research review  committee for review and approval. The description shall include a statement of  the purpose of the proposed project and justification thereof, the criteria for  inclusion of a participant subject in the research project, a  description of what will be done to the participants subjects,  and a copy of the informed consent statement. 
    B. When more than one such institution or agency is involved  in a research project, the cooperating entities may enter into joint review. 
    C. Such institutions or agencies having a committee shall  report by January March 31 of each year to the commissioner on  activities of the committee during the previous calendar year. Such reports  shall include: 
    1. A description of each human research project reviewed and whether  it was approved or disapproved; 
    2. Any significant deviations from proposals as approved; 
    3. A list of committee members, their qualifications for  service on the committee, and their institutional affiliation; and 
    4. A copy of the minutes of any committee meetings conducted. 
    D. The chairman chair of the committee shall  report as soon as possible to the head of such institution or agency and to the  commissioner any violation of the research protocol which led the committee to either  suspend or terminate the research. 
    E. The commissioner may inspect the records of the committee.  
    F. The commissioner shall report at least annually to the  Governor and General Assembly on the human research projects conducted by such  institutions or agencies as annually reported to the commissioner by the  relevant research review committees. 
    12VAC5-20-70. Composition of research review committee. 
    A. Each committee shall have at least seven five  members, appointed by the head of the institution, with varying backgrounds to  provide complete and adequate review of activities commonly conducted by the  institution. The committee shall be sufficiently qualified through the  maturity, experience, and diversity of its members, including consideration of  race, gender and cultural background, to promote respect for its advice and  counsel in safeguarding the rights and welfare of participants subjects  in human research. In addition to possessing the professional competence  necessary to review specific activities, the committee shall be able to  ascertain the acceptability of applications and proposals in terms of  institutional commitments and regulations, applicable law, standards of  professional conduct and practice, and community attitudes. If a committee  regularly reviews research that has an impact on patients or residents within  an institution as defined herein or other vulnerable category of participants  subjects, [ the committee shall have in its membership one or  more individuals who are primarily concerned with the welfare of these  participants ] subjects [ and who have  appropriate experience to serve in that capacity such as children,  prisoners, pregnant women, or handicapped or mentally disabled persons,  consideration shall be given to the inclusion of one or more individuals who  are knowledgeable about and experienced in working with these subjects ].  
    B. No committee shall consist entirely of members of one  profession, and at least one member must shall be an individual  whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas (e.g., lawyers, ethicists,  members of the clergy). 
    C. Each committee shall include at least one member who is  not otherwise affiliated with the institution and who is not part of the  immediate family of a person who is affiliated with the institution. 
    D. No member of a committee shall participate in the  committee's initial or continuing review of any project in which the member has  a conflicting interest, except to provide information requested by the  committee. The committee has responsibility for determining whether a member  has a conflicting interest. The committee size shall be maintained at no fewer  than seven five persons by appointment of a substitute  representative for each member with a conflicting interest. 
    E. A committee may, at its discretion, invite individuals  with competence in special areas to assist in the review of complex issues  which require expertise beyond or in addition to that available on the  committee. These individuals may shall not vote with the  committee. 
    F. A quorum of the committee shall consist of a majority of  its members including at least one member whose primary concerns are in  nonscientific areas. 
    G. The committee and the institution shall establish  procedures and rules of operation necessary to fulfill the requirements of this  chapter. 
    12VAC5-20-80. Elements of committee review process. 
    A. No human research shall be conducted or authorized by a  person, institution, or agency unless a research review committee has reviewed  and approved the proposed human research project giving consideration to: 
    1. The adequacy of the description of the potential  benefits and risks involved and the adequacy of the methodology of the human  research;
    2. The degree of the risk and, if the human research is  nontherapeutic, whether it presents greater than minimal risk;
    3. Whether the rights and welfare of the human subjects  involved are adequately protected;
    4. Whether the risks to the human subjects are outweighed  by the potential benefits to them;
    5. Whether the risks to subjects are minimized (i) by using  procedures that are consistent with sound human research design and that do not  unnecessarily expose subjects to risk and (ii) whenever appropriate, by using  currently accepted procedures for diagnostic or treatment purposes;
    6. Whether additional safeguards have been included in the  study to protect the rights and welfare of the subjects when some or all of the  subjects are likely to be incapable of providing informed consent or are  otherwise vulnerable to coercion or undue [ influence  inducement ], such as children, prisoners, pregnant women, mentally  disabled persons, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons;
    7. Whether the informed consent is to be obtained by  methods that are adequate and appropriate and whether the written consent form  is adequate and appropriate in both content and language for the particular  human research and for the particular subjects of the human research;
    8. Whether the persons proposing to supervise or conduct  the particular human research are appropriately competent and qualified;
    9. Whether criteria for selection of subjects are  equitable; and
    10. Whether the human research conforms with other  requirements of the department, where applicable.
    A. B. The committee shall consider a  research proposals proposal within 45 days after its  submission to the committee. In order for the research proposal to be  approved, it shall receive the approval of a majority of those the  committee members present at a meeting in for which a quorum  exists. A committee shall notify investigators and the institution in writing  of its decision to approve or disapprove the proposed research activity,  proposal or of modifications required to secure committee approval. 
    B. C. During the committee review of research projects  proposals, no personal identifiers of present or potential subjects  shall be stated. 
    C. D. The committee shall approve or  develop a written description of the procedure to be followed when a subject  has a complaint about a research project in which he is participating or has  participated. 
    D. E. Any subject who has a complaint about a  research project in which he is participating or has participated shall be  referred to the committee to determine if there has been a violation of the protocol.  
    F. The committee shall have the authority to suspend or  terminate approval of research that is not being conducted in accordance with  the committee requirements or that has been associated with unexpected serious  harm to the subjects. Any suspension or termination of approval shall include a  statement of the reasons for the committee's action and shall be reported  promptly to the investigator, appropriate institutional officials, the  department or agency head, and the commissioner.
    G. The chair of the committee shall provide a written  report to the head of the institution of any violation of the human research  protocol that led the committee to suspend or terminate the human research.
    E. H. The committee shall require reports from  approved research projects at least annually to ensure conformity with the  approved proposal. The frequency of such reports shall be consistent with the  nature and degree of risk of each research project. The committee shall also  require a report from the research project at the conclusion of the research  project. 
    I. The committee shall ensure compliance with the Health  Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (42 USC § 1320d  et seq.), if applicable, and federal and state regulations regarding the use  and disclosure of PHI created for human research. In particular, authorization  shall be obtained for the use and disclosure of PHI created for the purpose of  human research, except as otherwise permitted by 45 CFR 164.512(i).
    J. When cooperating institutions conduct some or all of  the human research involving some or all of the subjects of the human research,  each cooperating institution shall be responsible for safeguarding the rights  and welfare of the subjects and for complying with this chapter, provided however,  in complying with this chapter, institutions may enter into joint review, rely  upon the review of another qualified committee, or come to similar agreements  aimed at avoiding duplication of effort. Any such agreement shall be in writing  and designate a lead institution, which shall be the institution responsible  for reporting and handling any possible misconduct in the human research. Such  agreements shall be entered into by the committee chair with the approval of a  majority of the committee members. If an institution or agency does not have a  research review committee, such agreements shall be approved and entered into  by the chief executive officer of the institution or his designee.
    12VAC5-20-90. Expedited review of human research projects. 
    A. The committee is authorized to conduct an expedited review  of a human research project which that involves no more than  minimal risk to the subjects if: and involves only research  procedures listed in one or more categories established by the Secretary of Health  and Human Services and published in the Federal Register pursuant to 45 CFR  46.110. 
    B. The committee also is authorized to conduct an  expedited review of a human research project that involves no more than minimal  risk to the subjects if:
    1. Another institution's or agency's human research review  committee has reviewed and approved the project; or 
    2. The review involves only minor changes in previously  approved research and the changes occur during the approved project period. 
    C. An expedited review may be carried out by the chair of  the committee or by one or more experienced reviewers designated by the chair  from among the committee members. In reviewing the research project, the  reviewers may exercise all of the authorities of the committee except that the  reviewers may not disapprove the research project. A research project may be  disapproved only after review by the full committee in accordance to the  procedures set forth in 12VAC5-20-80.
    B. D. Each committee which that  uses an expedited review procedure shall adopt a method for keeping all members  advised of research proposals which projects that have been  approved under the procedure. 
    12VAC5-20-100. Informed consent. 
    A. "Informed consent" means the knowing and  voluntary agreement, without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud,  deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or coercion, of a person who is  capable of exercising free power of choice. For the purposes of human research,  the basic elements of information necessary to determine the existence of  such consent shall include the following: 
    1. A reasonable and comprehensible explanation to the person  of the proposed procedures or protocols to be followed, their purposes,  including descriptions of any attendant discomforts, and risks and benefits  reasonably to be expected, how the results of the human research are  disseminated, and how the identity of the person is protected; 
    2. A disclosure of any appropriate alternative procedures or  therapies that might be advantageous for the individual person,  together with their side effects, risks, and benefits; 
    3. A description of any adverse consequences and risks to  be expected and an indication of whether there may be other significant risks  not yet identified;
    3. 4. An instruction that the person may  withdraw his consent and discontinue participation in the human research at any  time without prejudice to him or fear of reprisal; 
    4. 5. An explanation of any costs or  compensation that may accrue to the person and, if applicable, the availability  of third party reimbursement for the proposed procedures or protocols or any  medical care that may be available if an injury occurs; 
    5. 6. An offer to answer any inquiries by any  individual the person or, if applicable, his legally authorized representative  concerning the procedures and protocols and a description of the ways in  which concerns may be raised or questions asked; 
    6. 7. A statement that the study involves  research, and an explanation that includes identification of any procedures  that are experimental; the expected duration of the individual's person's  participation; a statement describing the extent, if any, to which  confidentiality of records identifying the participant will be maintained; and  if any data from this study are published, the individual person  will not be identified without his written permission; 
    7. [ 8. A statement that there may be  other risks not yet identified; ]
    [ 8. 9. ] A disclosure of any  appropriate alternative procedures or therapies that might be advantageous for  the individual person; 
    [ 9. 10. ] A statement that  participation is voluntary, refusal to participate will involve no penalty or  loss of benefits to which the individual person is otherwise  entitled, and the individual person may discontinue participation  at any time without penalty or loss of benefits to which he is otherwise  entitled; 
    [ 10. 11. ] An explanation of whom to  contact for answers to pertinent questions about the research and research  participants' rights, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related  injury; and 
    [ 11. 12. ] For research involving  more than minimal risk, an explanation as to whether any compensation or  medical care is available if injury occurs and, if so, what is included or  where further information may be obtained. 
    Information shall be provided in a manner that is  understandable to the individual person with regard to his  educational level and language of greatest fluency. 
    B. No human research shall be conducted in the absence of  informed consent subscribed to in writing by the person or by the person's  authorized representative except as provided for in subsection E of this  section. If the person is capable of providing informed consent, written  consent shall be provided by the person and witnessed. If the person is  incapable of making an informed decision as defined in § 54.1-2982 of the  Code of Virginia, at the time consent is required, written consent shall be  provided by the person's legally authorized representative and witnessed. If  the person is a minor otherwise capable of rendering informed consent, the  consent shall be provided by both the minor and his legally authorized  representative. An investigator shall seek such consent only under  circumstances that provide the person who is the prospective subject or the  representative sufficient opportunity to consider whether to participate and  that minimize the possibility of coercion or undue influence. The information  that is given to the person or, if applicable, the person's legally authorized  representative shall be in language understandable to the person or  representative.
    C. No person shall participate in human research unless  the informed consent requirement in this section is met. No informed consent  shall include any language through which the person waives or appears to waive  any of his legal rights, including any release of any person, institution, or  agency or any agents therof from liability for negligence. No person shall be  forced to participate in any human research if the investigator conducting the  human research knows that participation in the human research is protested by  the person.
    D. No legally authorized representative shall consent to  nontherapeutic human research unless it is determined by the research review  committee that such nontherapeutic research will present no more than a minor  increase over minimal risk to the subject [ and (i) the  intervention or procedure presents experiences to subjects that are reasonably  commensurate with those inherent in their actual or expected medical, dental,  psychological, social, or educational situations; and (ii) the intervention or  procedure is likely to yield generalizable knowledge about the subject's  disorder or condition, which is of vital importance for the understanding or  amelioration of the subject's disorder or condition ]. A legally  authorized representative may not consent to participation in human research on  behalf of a subject if the legally authorized representative knows, or upon  reasonable inquiry ought to know, that any aspect of the human research  protocol is contrary to the religious beliefs or basic values of the subject,  whether expressed orally or in writing.
    E. The research review committee may approve a consent  procedure that does not include or that alters some or all of the elements of  informed consent set forth in this section, or that waives the requirements to  obtain informed consent provided the committee finds and documents that: 
    1. The human research involves no more than minimal risk to  the subjects;
    2. The omission, waiver, or alteration will not adversely  affect the rights and welfare of the subjects;
    3. The human research could not practicably be performed  without the omission, waiver, or alterations; and
    4. After participation, the subjects shall be provided with  additional pertinent information, whenever appropriate.
    B. F. Consent may take the form of either of  the following: 
    1. A written consent document that embodies the elements of  informed consent required by this section. This form may be read to the subject  or the subject's legally authorized representative, but, in any event, the  investigator shall give either the subject or the representative adequate  opportunity to read it before it is signed and witnessed; or 
    2. A short form written consent document stating that the  elements of informed consent required by this section have been presented  orally to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. When  this method is used, there shall be a witness to the oral presentation. Also,  the committee shall approve a written summary of what is to be said to the  subject or the representative. Only the short form itself written  consent is to be signed by the subject or the representative.  However, the witness shall sign both the short form written consent and  a copy of the summary, and the person actually obtaining consent shall sign a  copy of the summary. A copy of the summary and a copy of the short form written  consent shall be given to the subject or the representative. 
    G. The research review committee may waive the requirement  in subsection B of this section for the investigator to obtain a written  informed consent form for some or all subjects if it finds that the only record  linking the subject and the human research would be the consent document and  the principal risk would be potential harm resulting from a breach of  confidentiality. Each subject shall be asked whether the subject wants  documentation linking the subject with the human research, and the subject's wishes  shall govern. In cases where the documentation requirement is waived, the  committee may require the investigator to provide subjects with a written  statement explaining the human research.
    12VAC5-20-110. Categories of human research exempt from regulation.  
    Research activities in which the only involvement of human participants  will be subjects is in one or more of the following categories are  exempt from this chapter: 
    1. The surveillance and investigation by the department into  all preventable diseases and epidemics in the Commonwealth and into the means  for the prevention of such diseases and epidemics conducted pursuant to § 32.1-39  of the Code of Virginia. 
    2. Research designed to study on a large scale anonymous vital  records and registry data collected pursuant to the Code of Virginia, Chapter 7  (§ 32.1-249 et seq.) of Title 32.1 (Vital Records), § 32.1-64.1 (Virginia  Hearing Impairment Identification and Monitoring System), § 32.1-69.1 (Viginia  (Virginia Congenital Anomalies Reporting and Education System), § 32.1-70  (Statewide Cancer Registry), § 32.1-71.l (Statewide Alzheimer's Disease and  Related Disorders Registry), § 32.1-46.01 (Virginia Immunization  Information System), and §§ § 32.116.1 and 32.116.1:2  (Emergency Medical Services Patient Care Information System). 
    3. Research or student learning outcomes assessment conducted  in educational settings such as research involving: 
    a. Regular or special education instructional strategies;  [ or ] 
    b. The effectiveness of or the comparison among instructional  techniques, curricula, or classroom management methods; or 
    c. The use of educational tests, whether cognitive,  diagnostic, aptitude, or achievement, if the data from such tests are recorded  in a manner so that participants subjects cannot be identified,  directly or through identifiers linked to the participants subjects.  
    4. Research involving survey or interview procedures unless  responses are recorded in such a manner that the participants subjects  can be identified, directly or through identifiers linked to the participants  subjects, and either: 
    a. The participant's subject's responses, if  they became known outside the research, could reasonably place the participant  at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to his financial  standing, employability, or reputation; or 
    b. The research deals with sensitive aspects of the participant's  subject's own behavior such as sexual behavior, drug or alcohol use, or  illegal conduct. 
    5. Research involving survey or interview procedures, when the  respondents are elected or appointed public officials or candidates for public  office. 
    6. Research involving solely the observation of public  behavior, including observation by participants, unless observations are  recorded in such a manner that the participants subjects can be  identified, directly or through identifiers linked to the participants subjects,  and either: 
    a. The observations recorded about the individual subject,  if they became known outside the research, could reasonably place the participant  subject at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to his  financial standing, employability, or reputation; or 
    b. The research deals with sensitive aspects of the participant's  subject's own behavior, such as sexual behavior, drug or alcohol use, or  illegal conduct. 
    7. Research involving the collection or study of existing  data, documents, records, or pathological specimens, if these sources are  publicly available or if the information is recorded by the investigator in a  manner so that participants subjects cannot be identified,  directly or through identifiers linked to the participants subjects.  
    12VAC5-20-120. Committee records. 
    A. Documentation of committee activities shall be prepared  and maintained by each such committee and shall include the following: 
    1. Copies of all research proposals reviewed, scientific  evaluations that may accompany the proposals, approved sample consent  documents, progress reports submitted by investigators, and reports of injuries  to participants subjects; 
    2. Minutes of committee meetings which shall be in  sufficient detail to show attendance at the meetings; actions taken by the  committee; the vote on these actions each action, including the  number of members voting for, against, and abstaining; the basis for requiring  changes in or disapproving research; and a written summary of the discussion of  controversial issues and their resolution; 
    3. Records of continuing review activities; 
    4. Copies of all correspondence between the committee and the  investigators; 
    5. A list of committee members; 
    6. Written procedures for the committee; and 
    7. Statements of significant new findings provided to participants  subjects. 
    B. The records required by this chapter shall be retained for  at least three years, and records relating to research which that  is conducted shall be retained for at least three years after completion of the  research. All records shall be accessible for inspection and copying by  authorized employees or agents of the department at reasonable times and in a  reasonable manner. 
    C. An Each research review committee of a state  institution or agency shall ensure that an overview of approved human  research projects and the results of such projects will be are  made public on the department's such institution's or agency's  website unless otherwise exempt from disclosure under the Virginia Freedom of  Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    12VAC5-20-130. Applicability of federal policies. 
    Human research at institutions which are that is  subject to policies and regulations for the protection of human participants  subjects promulgated by any agency of the federal government shall be  exempt from this chapter. Such institutions Institutions where  research is performed that is subject to federal policies and regulation  shall notify the commissioner annually, by January March  31, of their compliance with the policies and regulations of federal  agencies. The commissioner shall identify institutions exempt from this chapter  as reported in accordance with this section in the annual report to the  Governor and the General Assembly provided in accordance with 12VAC5-20-60 F.  
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3401; Filed November 13, 2015, 1:04 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 12VAC5-71. Regulations  Governing Virginia Newborn Screening Services (amending 12VAC5-71-10, 12VAC5-71-30,  12VAC5-71-150; adding 12VAC5-71-210 through 12VAC5-71-260).
    12VAC5-191. State Plan for the Children with Special Health  Care Needs Program (amending 12VAC5-191-260). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-67 of the Code  of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Dev Nair, Director, Division of Policy  and Evaluation, Department of Health, 109 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 864-7662, FAX (804) 864-7647, or email  dev.nair@vdh.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 32.1-12 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the State Board of Health to make, adopt, promulgate, and enforce  regulations.
    Section 32.1-65.1 of the Code of Virginia states that the Board  of Health shall require every hospital in Virginia having a newborn nursery to  screen infants for critical congenital heart disease.
    Section 32.1-67 of the Code of Virginia requires the Board of  Health to promulgate regulations as may be necessaryto implement Newborn  Screening Services and the Children with Special Health Care Needs Program.
    Chapters 4 and 175 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly required the  Board of Health to promulgate emergency regulations for critical congenital  heart disease (CCHD) screening. This regulatory action seeks to make those  changes permanent.
    Purpose: Congenital heart defects are the most common  birth defects in the United States, affecting about one in every 110 babies. A  few babies born with congenital heart defects have more serious forms of heart  disease, which are referred to as critical congenital heart disease (CCHD),  affecting approximately two of every 1,000 births. CCHDs are heart defects that  result in abnormal blood flow and oxygen deprivation. These defects require  intervention within the first year of life and delayed diagnosis can result in  death. Screening newborns for CCHD using pulse oximetry has been recommended  through the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Recommended Uniform  Screening Panel. The screening is simple, quick, and painless. A sensor wrapped  around the baby's right hand or either foot measures the amount of oxygen in  the baby's blood.
    The purpose of the proposed regulatory action is to ensure that  all Virginia hospitals with newborn nurseries implement CCHD screening, and to  ensure that newborns diagnosed with CCHD are reported to VDH so that they may  be linked to care coordination services through the "Care Connections for  Children" program.
    Substance: These proposed amendments to the newborn  screening regulations require all hospitals with a newborn nursery to screen  newborns for CCHD within 24 to 48 hours of birth. Specifically they add the  following elements to the existing regulations:
    1. Hospitals are required to develop protocols for screening,  timely evaluation, and timely referral of newborns with abnormal screening  results.
    2. Requirements that a licensed practitioner perform the  screening and setting forth when the screening is to occur. If screening is not  indicated, documentation requirements are set forth for the medical record.  Hospitals are required to develop screening protocols for specialty and  subspecialty nurseries.
    3. Requirements that all screening results must be entered into  the medical record and the electronic birth certificate system. This section  also requires health care providers to report abnormal screening results  immediately and to evaluate the newborn in a timely manner. Newborns shall not  be discharged unless a cause for the abnormal screening result has been  determined or CCHD has been ruled out. Parents or guardians and the infant's  primary care provider after discharge from the hospital shall be notified of  any abnormal results and any diagnoses.
    4. Hospitals must report individuals diagnosed with CCHD to the  Virginia Department of Health (VDH) so that the newborn's parent or guardian  may be referred to care coordination services through the Care Connection for  Children.
    5. A section specifying what documents shall be provided when  requested by the VaCARES system at VDH, and specifying the confidentiality  rules for these documents.
    6. A section that permits parents to refuse CCHD screening  based upon religious practices or tenets, and to specify that the hospital must  report the refusal to VDH.
    Issues: These proposed amendments will permanently add  CCHD screening requirements to the regulations for newborn screening. The  primary advantage to VDH, the public, and the Commonwealth is that the  regulations will ensure that every infant born in a hospital with a newborn  nursery will be screened for CCHD and that those who screen positive will have  further evaluation and follow up as needed. The majority of hospitals that  would be affected by these regulations already provide screening for CCHD  voluntarily. These proposed amendments set minimum standards for this screening.  There are no disadvantages to the public or the Commonwealth.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to  Chapter 4 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly, the proposed regulations permanently  require hospitals with a newborn nursery to screen all infants born in Virginia  for critical congenital heart disease within 24 to 48 hours after birth using  pulse-oximetry.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Pursuant to Chapter 4 of the 2014  Acts of Assembly, the proposed regulations permanently require hospitals with a  newborn nursery to screen all infants born in Virginia for critical congenital  heart disease (CCHD) within 24 to 48 hours after birth using pulse-oximetry.
    More specifically, the proposed changes require that hospitals  develop protocols for the screening of all newborns for CCHD, and that they  have protocols for the follow-up and referral for any infants that have  positive screens. Newborns that have an abnormal screen will not be discharged  from the hospital until the cause of the abnormal screen has been evaluated and  an appropriate plan for care is in place. Any diagnosis resulting from an  abnormal screen will be entered in the electronic birth certificate, and the  attending physician will notify the parent and the primary care provider of the  diagnosis. Infants who are diagnosed with CCHD will be referred to the Care  Connections for Children program for care coordination services. A parent may  refuse to have their child screened on the basis of religious practices or  tenets. Such refusal must be documented in writing. These requirements were  already implemented on December 24, 2014 under emergency regulations.
    CCHD is a serious health condition affecting newborns that can  result in death if not diagnosed and treated early. According to the Virginia  Department of Health (VDH), congenital heart defects are the most common birth  defects in the United States, affecting about one in every 110 babies. A few  babies born with congenital heart defects have more serious forms of heart  disease, which are referred to as critical congenital heart disease (affecting  approximately 2 of every 1,000 births). CCHDs are heart defects that result in  abnormal blood flow and oxygen deprivation. These defects require intervention  within the first year of life and delayed diagnosis can result in death. Screening  newborns for CCHD using pulse oximetry has been recommended through the U.S.  Department of Health and Human Services Recommended Uniform Screening Panel.  The screening is simple, quick, and painless. A sensor wrapped around the  baby's right hand or either foot measures the amount of oxygen in the baby’s  blood.
    The purpose of the proposed regulatory action is to ensure that  all Virginia hospitals with newborn nurseries implement CCHD screening, and to  ensure that newborns diagnosed with CCHD are reported to VDH so that they may  be linked to care coordination services through the Care Connections for  Children program. Increased CCHD detection at birth hospitals through screening  may lead to decreased hospital costs and avoid some deaths during infancy.1  Initial actions to educate hospitals and develop a tracking and recording  system for CCHD were supported by a $299,000 federal grant.
    Additional reporting of screening results and confirmed cases  that are required by these regulations occurs through existing systems  (electronic birth certificate and VaCARES); therefore additional costs to  implement these regulations are projected to be minimal. Based on a recent  study in New Jersey, the estimated screening time per newborn was just over  nine minutes and the associated labor and equipment costs per newborn screened  were $6.68 and $6.82, respectively, yielding a total estimate of $13.50 per  newborn.2 Similarly, initial VDH estimates suggest CCHD screening  time is 9 minutes and 45 seconds on average and the average cost of CCHD  screening is $13.28 in Virginia.3
    Screening infants for CCHD is considered a best practice and  was already adopted by 51 of the 55 hospitals prior to the requirements enacted  by the 2014 General Assembly. Thus, most hospitals in Virginia are already  voluntarily performing this screening. The proposed amendments would require  the four additional hospitals to implement the screening.
    The administrative costs to VDH for referral to the Care  Connections for Children program to obtain care coordination services are  considered small and will be absorbed by agency's existing resources.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. These regulations apply to 55  hospitals in Virginia of which 51 were already performing required screening  voluntarily prior to emergency regulations. There were approximately 101,700  infants born in Virginia and approximately 142 newborns were diagnosed with  CCHD in 2014.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed changes apply  throughout the Commonwealth.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect employment as most hospitals were already  voluntarily performing the proposed screening.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendments are unlikely to significantly affect the use and value of private  property as most hospitals were already voluntarily performing the proposed  screening.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses:
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. Only a few of the 55 hospitals in  Virginia may be considered as small businesses. None of the four hospitals that  had not been voluntarily performing the CCHD screening is believed to be a  small business. Thus, no significant effect on small businesses is expected.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed  screening is not expected to have an adverse impact on small businesses. 
    Adverse Impacts:
    Businesses: Since all but four hospitals were already  performing required screening, the prosed regulations impose some additional  compliance costs on only four hospitals.
    Localities: The proposed amendments will not adversely affect  localities.
    Other Entities: No significant impact on other entities is  expected. Additional administrative costs of the required screening will be  absorbed by VDH's existing resources.
    ____________________________________
    1 Peterson et al., Hospitalizations, Costs, and  Mortality among Infants with Critical Congenital Heart Disease: How Important  Is Timely Detection? Birth Defects Research, 2013, Oct, 97(10):664-72.
    2 Peterson et al., A public health economic assessment  of hospitals' cost to screen newborns for critical congenital heart disease.  Public Health Reports, 2014, Jan-Feb, 129 (1):86-93.
    3 These estimates are preliminary and subject to change.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Health concurs with the findings of the analysis prepared by the  Department of Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments require hospitals with a newborn  nursery to screen all infants born in Virginia for critical congenital heart  disease (CCHD) within 24 to 48 hours after birth using pulse oximetry. The  proposed amendments (i) require that hospitals develop protocols for screening,  timely evaluation, and timely referral of newborns with abnormal screening  results; (ii) require that a licensed practitioner perform the screening; (iii)  establish when the screening is to occur, and if screening is not indicated,  documentation requirements for the medical record; (iv) require hospitals to  develop screening protocols for specialty and subspecialty nurseries; (v)  require that all screening results are entered into the medical record and the  electronic birth certificate system, and that health care providers report  abnormal screening results immediately; (vi) prohibit the discharge of a  newborn with an abnormal screen until the cause of the abnormal screen has been  evaluated and an appropriate plan for care is in place; (vii) require that  hospitals report individuals diagnosed with CCHD to the department for referral   to care coordination services through the Care Connection for Children;  (viii) specify documents that must be provided in response to a request by the  department's VaCARES system and the confidentiality rules for these documents;  and (ix) permit parents to refuse CCHD screening based upon religious practices  or tenets, and specify that the hospital must report the refusal to the  department. 
    This regulatory action also includes proposed amendments to  the State Plan for the Children with Special Health Care Needs Program  (12VAC5-191), so that those regulations remain consistent with 12VAC5-71.
    12VAC5-71-10. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms when used in this regulation  chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise: 
    "Abnormal screening results" means, in  12VAC5-71-210 through 12VAC5-71-250 only, all results that indicate the newborn  has not passed the screening test.
    "Attending physician" means the physician in charge  of the infant's care. 
    "Board" means the State Board of Health. 
    "Business days" means Monday through Friday from  9 a.m. to 5 p.m., excluding federal and state holidays. 
    "Care Connection for Children" means a statewide  network of centers of excellence for children with special health care needs  (CSHCN) that provides leadership in the enhancement of specialty medical  services, care coordination, medical insurance benefits evaluation and  coordination, management of the CSHCN pool of funds, information and referral  to CSHCN resources, family-to-family support, and training and consultation  with community providers on CSHCN issues. 
    "Care coordination" means a process that links  individuals and their families to services and resources in a coordinated  effort to maximize their potential and provide them with optimal health care. 
    "Certified nurse midwife" means a person licensed  to practice as a nurse practitioner in the Commonwealth pursuant to  § 54.1-2957 of the Code of Virginia and in accordance with Part II  (18VAC90-30-60 et seq.) of 18VAC90-30 and 18VAC90-30-121, subject to  18VAC90-30-160. 
    "Chief executive officer" means a job descriptive  term used to identify the individual appointed by the governing body to act in  its behalf in the overall management of the hospital. Job titles may include  administrator, superintendent, director, executive director, president,  vice-president, and executive vice-president. 
    "Child" means a person less than 18 years of age  and includes a biological or an adopted child, as well as a child placed for  adoption or foster care unless otherwise treated as a separate unit for the  purposes of determining eligibility and charges under these regulations. 
    "Commissioner" means the State Health Commissioner,  his duly designated officer, or agent. 
    "Confirmatory testing" means a test or a panel of  tests performed following a screened-abnormal result to verify a diagnosis. 
    "Core panel conditions" means those heritable  disorders and genetic diseases considered appropriate for newborn screening.  The conditions in the core panel are similar in that they have (i) specific and  sensitive screening tests, (iii) a sufficiently well understood natural history,  and (iii) available and efficacious treatments. 
    "Critical congenital heart disease" or  "CCHD" means a congenital heart disease that places a newborn at  significant risk of disability or death if not diagnosed and treated soon after  birth. The disease may include, but is not limited to, hypoplastic left heart  syndrome, pulmonary atresia (with intact septum), tetralogy of fallot, total  anomalous pulmonary venous return, transposition of the great arteries,  tricuspid atresia, and truncus arteriosus.
    "CCHD screening" means the application of  screening technology to detect CCHD.
    "Department" means the state Department of Health. 
    "Dried-blood-spot specimen" means a clinical blood  sample collected from an infant by heel stick method and placed directly onto specially  manufactured absorbent specimen collection (filter) paper. 
    "Echocardiogram" means a test that uses an  ultrasound to provide an image of the heart.
    "Guardian" means a parent-appointed,  court-appointed, or clerk-appointed guardian of the person. 
    "Healthcare provider" means a person who is  licensed to provide health care as part of his job responsibilities and who has  the authority to order newborn dried-blood-spot screening tests. 
    "Heritable disorders and genetic diseases" means  pathological conditions (i.e., interruption, cessation or disorder of body  functions, systems, or organs) that are caused by an absent or defective gene  or gene product, or by a chromosomal aberration. 
    "Hospital" means any facility as defined in § 32.1-123 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Infant" means a child less than 12 months of age. 
    "Licensed practitioner" means a licensed health  care provider who is permitted, within the scope of his practice pursuant to  Chapter 29 (§ 54.1-2900 et seq.) or Chapter 30 (§ 54.1-3000 et seq.)  of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, to provide care to a newborn.
    "Low protein modified foods" means foods that are  (i) specially formulated to have less than one gram of protein per serving,  (ii) intended to be used under the direction of a physician for the dietary  treatment of an inherited metabolic disease, (iii) not natural foods that are  naturally low in protein, and (iv) prescribed as medically necessary for the  therapeutic treatment of inherited metabolic diseases. 
    "Metabolic formula" means nutritional substances  that are (i) prescribed by a health professional with appropriate prescriptive  authority; (ii) specifically designed and formulated to be consumed or  administered internally under the supervision of such health professional;  (iii) specifically designed, processed, or formulated to be distinct in one or  more nutrients that are present in natural food; and (iv) intended for the  medical and nutritional management of patients with limited capacity to  metabolize ordinary foodstuffs or limited capacity to metabolize certain  nutrients contained in ordinary foodstuffs. 
    "Metabolic supplements" means certain dietary or  nutritional substances intended to be used under the direction of a physician  for the nutritional management of inherited metabolic diseases. 
    "Midwife" means a person licensed as a nurse  practitioner in the category of certified nurse midwife by the Boards of  Nursing and Medicine or licensed as a midwife by the Board of Medicine. 
    "Newborn" means an infant who is 28 days old or less  who was born in Virginia. 
    "Newborn nursery" means a general level,  intermediate level, or specialty level newborn service as defined in  12VAC5-410-443 B 1, B 2, and B 3.
    "Nurse" means a person holding a current license as  a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse by the Virginia Board of Nursing  or a current multistate licensure privilege to practice in Virginia as a  registered nurse or licensed practical nurse. 
    "Parent" means a biological parent, adoptive  parent, or stepparent. 
    "Pediatric Comprehensive Sickle Cell Clinic  Network" means a statewide network of clinics that are located in major  medical centers and provide comprehensive medical and support services for  newborns and children living with sickle cell disease and other genetically  related hemoglobinopathies. 
    "Physician" means a person licensed to practice  medicine or osteopathic medicine in the Commonwealth pursuant to Chapter 29 (§ 54.1-2900 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and in accordance with  applicable regulations. 
    "Pool of funds" means funds designated for payment  of direct health care services. Access to the pool is not an entitlement and is  subject to availability of funds and guidelines that govern its eligibility and  coverage of services. Pool of funds is a mix of federal Title V funds and state  matching funds. 
    "Population-based" means preventive interventions  and personal health services developed and available for the entire infant and  child health population of the Commonwealth rather than for individuals in a  one-on-one situation. 
    "Preterm infant" means an infant whose birth occurs  by the end of the last day of the 36th week following the onset of the last  menstrual period. 
    "Repeat specimen" means an additional newborn  dried-blood-spot screening specimen submitted to the testing laboratory  voluntarily or by request. 
    "Resident" means an individual who resides within  the geographical boundaries of the Commonwealth. 
    "Satisfactory specimen" means a newborn  dried-blood-spot screening specimen that has been determined to be acceptable  for laboratory analyses by the testing laboratory. 
    "Screened-abnormal" means a newborn  dried-blood-spot screening test result that is outside the established normal  range or normal value for that test method. 
    "Screening technology" means pulse oximetry  testing in the right hand and either foot. Screening technology shall also  include alternate medically accepted tests that measure the percentage of blood  oxygen saturation, follow medical guideline consensus and recommendations issued  by the American Academy of Pediatrics, and are approved by the State Board of  Health.
    "Specialty level nursery" means the same as  defined in 12VAC5-410-443 B 3 and as further defined as Level III by the Levels  of Neonatal Care, written by the American Academy of Pediatrics Committee on  Fetus and Newborn.
     "Subspecialty level nursery" means the  same as defined in 12VAC5-410-443 B 4.
    "Testing laboratory" means the laboratory that has  been selected by the department to perform newborn dried-blood-spot screening  tests services. 
    "Total parenteral nutrition" or "TPN"  means giving nutrients through a vein for babies who cannot be fed by mouth. 
    "Treatment" means appropriate management including  genetic counseling, medical consultation, and pharmacological and dietary  management for infants diagnosed with a disease listed in 12VAC5-71-30 D. 
    "Unsatisfactory specimen" means a newborn  dried-blood-spot screening specimen that is inadequate for performing an  accurate analysis. 
    "Virginia Genetics Advisory Committee" means a  formal group that advises the department on issues pertaining to access to  clinical genetics services across the Commonwealth and the provision of genetic  awareness, quality services, and education for consumers and providers. 
    "Virginia Newborn Screening System" means a  coordinated and comprehensive group of services, including education,  screening, follow up, diagnosis, treatment and management, and program  evaluation, managed by the department's Virginia Newborn Screening Program and  Virginia Early Hearing Detection and Intervention Program for safeguarding the  health of children born in Virginia. 
    "Virginia Sickle Cell Awareness Program" means a  statewide program for the education and screening of individuals for the  disease of sickle cell anemia or the sickle cell trait and for such other  genetically related hemoglobinopathies. 
    12VAC5-71-30. Core panel of heritable disorders and genetic  diseases. 
    A. The Virginia Newborn Screening System, which includes the  Virginia Newborn Screening Program and, the Virginia Early  Hearing Detection and Intervention Program, and Virginia critical congenital  heart disease screening, shall ensure that the core panel of heritable  disorders and genetic diseases for which newborn screening is conducted is  consistent with but not necessarily identical to the U.S. Department of Health  and Human Services Secretary's Recommended Uniform Screening Panel.
    B. The department shall review, at least biennially, national  recommendations and guidelines and may propose changes to the core panel of  heritable disorders and genetic diseases for which newborn dried-blood-spot  screening tests are conducted. 
    C. The Virginia Genetics Advisory Committee may be consulted  and provide advice to the commissioner on proposed changes to the core panel of  heritable disorders and genetic diseases for which newborn dried-blood-spot  screening tests are conducted. 
    D. Infants under six months of age who are born in Virginia  shall be screened in accordance with the provisions set forth in this chapter  for the following heritable disorders and genetic diseases, which are  identified through newborn dried-blood-spot screening tests: 
    1. Argininosuccinic aciduria (ASA); 
    2. Beta-Ketothiolase deficiency (BKT); 
    3. Biotinidase deficiency (BIOT); 
    4. Carnitine uptake defect (CUD); 
    5. Classical galactosemia (galactose-1-phosphate  uridyltransferase deficiency) (GALT); 
    6. Citrullinemia type I (CIT-I); 
    7. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH); 
    8. Cystic fibrosis (CF); 
    9. Glutaric acidemia type I (GA I); 
    10. Hb S beta-thalassemia (Hb F,S,A); 
    11. Hb SC-disease (Hb F,S,C); 
    12. Hb SS-disease (sickle cell anemia) (Hb F, S);
    13. Homocystinuria (HCY); 
    14. Isovaleric acidemia (IVA); 
    15. Long chain L-3-Hydroxy acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency  (LCHAD); 
    16. Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD); 
    17. Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCAD); 
    18. Methylmalonic acidemia (Methylmalonyl-CoA mutase  deficiency) (MUT); 
    19. Methylmalonic acidemia (Adenosylcobalamin synthesis  deficiency) (CBL A, CBL B); 
    20. Multiple carboxylase deficiency (MCD); 
    21. Phenylketonuria (PKU); 
    22. Primary congenital hypothyroidism (CH);
    23. Propionic acidemia (PROP); 
    24. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID);
    25. Tyrosinemia type I (TYR I); 
    26. Trifunctional protein deficiency (TFP); 
    27. Very long-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (VLCAD);  
    28. 3-hydroxy 3-methyl glutaric aciduria (HMG); and 
    29. 3-Methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase deficiency (3-MCC). 
    E. Infants born in Virginia shall be screened for hearing  loss in accordance with provisions set forth in §§ 32.1-64.1 and 32.1-64.2 of  the Code of Virginia and as governed by 12VAC5-80. 
    F. Newborns born in Virginia shall be screened for  critical congenital heart disease in accordance with provisions set forth in §§ 32.1-65.1 and 32.1-67 of the Code of Virginia and as governed by 12VAC5-71-210  through 12VAC5-71-260.
    12VAC5-71-150. Responsibilities of the Care Connection for  Children network. 
    A. The Care Connection for Children network shall provide the  following services: 
    1. Care coordination services for residents of the  Commonwealth who are diagnosed with selected heritable disorders or,  genetic diseases, or critical congenital heart disease and are referred  to the network by the Virginia Newborn Screening Program. 
    2. Other network services for eligible individuals in  accordance with the § 32.1-77 of the Code of Virginia and  applicable regulations. 
    B. The Care Connection for Children network shall provide  data as needed by the department's newborn screening program. 
    12VAC5-71-210. Critical congenital heart disease screening  protocols.
    A. Hospitals shall develop protocols for critical  congenital heart disease screening in accordance with this section,  12VAC5-71-220 through 12VAC5-71-260, and national recommendations from the  American Academy of Pediatrics. 
    B. Hospitals shall develop protocols for the physical  evaluation by licensed practitioners of newborns with abnormal screening  results.
    C. Hospitals shall develop protocols for the referral of  newborns with abnormal screening results, if needed, after evaluation.
    12VAC5-71-220. Critical congenital heart disease screening.
    A. A licensed practitioner shall perform the CCHD  screening.
    B. Except as specified in subsection C of this section and  12VAC5-71-260, CCHD screening shall be performed on every newborn in the birth  hospital between 24 and 48 hours of life, or if the newborn is discharged from  the hospital before reaching 24 hours of life, the CCHD screening shall be  performed as late as practical before discharge.
    C. If CCHD screening is not indicated, the reason shall be  documented in the newborn's medical record. The reasons include but are not  limited to:
    1. The newborn's current clinical evaluation has included  an echocardiogram that ruled out CCHD;
    2. The newborn has confirmed CCHD; or
    3. The newborn is under the care of a specialty level or  subspecialty level nursery.
    D. Hospitals shall develop protocols for screening  newborns in specialty level nurseries and subspecialty level nurseries. 
    12VAC5-71-230. Critical congenital heart disease screening  results.
    A. Recording results.
    1. All CCHD screening results shall be recorded in the  newborn's medical record.
    2. All CCHD screening results shall be entered into the  electronic birth certificate system with the following information:
    a. CCHD screening completed, CCHD pass or fail, and pulse  oximetry values; or
    b. Not screened pursuant to 12VAC5-71-220 C.
    B. Abnormal screening results.
    1. Abnormal screening results shall be reported by the  authorized health care provider who conducted the screening to the attending  physician or his designee. 
    2. A newborn shall be evaluated by an attending physician  or his designee according to the timeframes within the hospital protocol  developed in accordance with 12VAC5-71-210.
    3. A newborn shall not be discharged from care until:
    a. A cause for the abnormal screening result has been  determined and a plan is in place for immediate evaluation at another medical  facility; or
    b. An echocardiogram has been performed and read, and an  appropriate clinical plan has been developed.
    4. Any diagnosis arising from abnormal screening results  shall be entered into the electronic birth certificate system.
    5. The attending physician or his designee shall provide  notification of abnormal results and any diagnoses to the newborn's parent or  guardian and to the primary care provider in charge of the newborn's care after  the newborn leaves the hospital.
    12VAC5-71-240. Referral for care coordination.
    A. For any person diagnosed under 12VAC5-71-210 through  12VAC5-71-250, the chief administrative officer of every hospital, as defined  in § 32.1-123 of the Code of Virginia, shall make or cause to be made a  report to the commissioner in accordance with § 32.1-69.1 of the Code of  Virginia.
    B. Upon receiving the notification described in subsection  A of this section, the Newborn Screening Program at the Virginia Department of  Health shall refer the newborn's parent or guardian to the Care Connection for  Children network for care coordination services.
    12VAC5-71-250. Congenital heart disease screening records.
    A. The screening of newborns pursuant to this chapter is a  population-based public health surveillance program as defined by the Health  Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191; 110  Stat. 2033).
    B. Upon request, a hospital shall make available to the  Virginia Congenital Anomalies Reporting and Education System (VaCARES):
    1. Medical records;
    2. Records of laboratory tests; and
    3. Any other information that VaCARES considers necessary  to:
    a. Determine final outcomes of abnormal CCHD screening  results; or
    b. Evaluate CCHD screening activities in the Commonwealth,  including performance of follow-up evaluations and diagnostic tests, initiation  of treatment when necessary, and surveillance of the accuracy and efficacy of  the screening.
    C. Information that the Virginia Department of Health  receives under this section is confidential and may only be used or disclosed:
    1. For research and collective statistical purposes  pursuant to § 32.1-67.1 of the Code of Virginia;
    2. For state or federally mandated statistical reports;
    3. To ensure that the information received by the Virginia  Department of Health is accurate and reliable; or
    4. For reporting to the Virginia Congenital Anomalies  Reporting and Education System pursuant to § 32.1-69.1 of the Code of  Virginia and 12VAC5-191-280. The Newborn Screening Program shall refer the  newborn's parent or guardian to the Care Connection for Children network for  care coordination services.
    D. The hospital administrator shall ensure that CCHD  screening is included in the perinatal quality assurance program and provide  the results of the quality improvement program to the Virginia Department of  Health upon request. 
    12VAC5-71-260. Parent or guardian refusal for screening.
    A. In the instance of parent or guardian refusal of the  CCHD screening based on religious practices or tenets, the parent or guardian  refusal shall be documented on a refusal form provided by the Virginia  Department of Health and made a part of the newborn's medical record.
    B. The administrator of the hospital shall ensure that the  Newborn Screening Program at the Virginia Department of Health is notified in  writing of the parent or guardian refusal within five days of the newborn's  birth. 
     
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (12VAC5-71)
    Notification  of Parental Refusal of Dried-Blood-Spot and Critical Congenital Heart Disease  Screening (undated)
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC5-71)
    Levels  of Neonatal Care, Policy Statement from Committee on Fetus and Newborn,  American Academy of Pediatrics, August 27, 2012
    12VAC5-191-260. Scope and content of the Virginia Newborn  Screening System.
    A. The Virginia Newborn Screening System consists of two  three components: (i) Virginia Newborn Screening Services and,  (ii) Virginia Early Hearing Detection and Intervention Program, and (iii)  Virginia critical congenital heart disease screening.
    B. Virginia Newborn Screening Services.
    1. Mission. The Virginia Newborn Screening Services prevents mental  retardation intellectual disability, permanent disability, or death  through early identification and treatment of infants who are  affected by selected inherited disorders.
    2. Scope of services. The Virginia Newborn Screening Services  provides a coordinated and comprehensive system of services to assure that all  infants receive a screening test after birth for selected inherited metabolic,  endocrine, and hematological disorders as defined in Regulations Governing the  Virginia Newborn Screening and Treatment Program Services,  12VAC5-70 12VAC5-71.
    These population-based, direct, and enabling services are  provided through:
    a. Biochemical dried bloodspot screening tests.
    b. Follow up of abnormal results.
    c. Diagnosis.
    d. Education to health professionals and families.
    e. Expert consultation on abnormal results, diagnostic  testing, and medical and dietary management for health professionals.
    Medical and dietary management is provided for the diagnosed  cases and includes assistance in accessing specialty medical services and  referral to Care Connection for Children.
    The screening and management for specified diseases are  governed by Regulations Governing the Virginia Newborn Screening and  Treatment Program Services, 12VAC5-70 12VAC5-71.
    3. Criteria to receive Virginia Newborn Screening Services.  All infants born in the Commonwealth are eligible for the screening test for  selected inherited disorders.
    4. Goal. The Title V national performance measures, as  required by the federal Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA-Pub. L.  (Public Law 103-62), are used to establish the program goals. The  following goal shall change as needed to be consistent with the Title V  national performance measures:
    All infants will receive appropriate newborn bloodspot  screening, follow up testing, and referral to services.
    C. Virginia Early Hearing Detection and Intervention Program.
    1. Mission. The Virginia Early Hearing Detection and  Intervention Program promotes early detection of and intervention for infants  with congenital hearing loss to maximize linguistic and communicative  competence and literacy development. 
    2. Scope of services. The Virginia Early Hearing Detection and  Intervention Program provides services to assure that all infants receive a  hearing screening after birth, that infants needing further testing are  referred to appropriate facilities, that families have the information that  they need to make decisions for their children, and that infants and young  children diagnosed with a hearing loss receive appropriate and timely  intervention services. These population-based and enabling services are  provided through:
    a. Technical assistance and education to new parents.
    b. Collaboration with physicians and primary care providers.
    c. Technical assistance and education to birthing facilities  and those persons performing home births.
    d. Collaboration with audiologists.
    e. Education to health professionals and general public.
    Once diagnosed, the infants are referred to early intervention  services. The screening and management for hearing loss are governed by the  regulation, Regulations for Administration of the Virginia Hearing  Impairment Identification and Monitoring System, 12VAC5-80.
    3. Criteria to receive services from the Virginia Early  Hearing Detection and Intervention Program.
    a. All infants born in the Commonwealth are eligible for the  hearing screening.
    b. All infants who are residents of the Commonwealth and their  families are eligible for the Virginia Early Hearing Detection and Intervention  Program.
    4. Goals. The Title V national performance measures, as  required by the federal Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA-Pub. L.  (Public Law 103-62), are used to establish the program goals. The  following goals shall change as needed to be consistent with the Title V  national performance measures:
    All infants will receive screening for hearing loss no later  than one month of age, achieve identification of congenital hearing loss by  three months of age, and enroll in appropriate intervention by six months of  age.
    D. Virginia critical congenital heart disease screening.
    1. Mission. Virginia critical congenital heart disease  screening promotes early detection of and intervention for newborns with  critical congenital heart disease to maximize positive health outcomes and help  prevent disability and death early in life. 
    2. Scope of services. Newborns receive a critical  congenital heart disease screening 24 to 48 hours after birth in a hospital  with a newborn nursery, as provided in §§ 32.1-67 and 32.1-69.1 of the  Code of Virginia and the regulations governing critical congenital heart  disease screening (12VAC5-71-210 through 12VAC5-71-260). These population-based,  direct, and enabling services are provided through:
    a. Critical congenital heart disease screening tests using  pulse oximetry or other screening technology as defined in 12VAC5-71-10;
    b. Hospital reporting of test results pursuant to  § 32.1-69.1 of the Code of Virginia and 12VAC5-191-280; and
    c. Follow-up, referral processes, and services, as  appropriate, through Care Connection for Children.
    3. The screening and management for newborn critical  congenital heart disease are governed by the regulations governing critical  congenital heart disease screening (12VAC5-71-210 through 12VAC5-71-260).
    4. Criteria to receive critical congenital heart disease  screening. Except as specified in 12VAC5-71-220 C and 12VAC5-71-260, all  newborns born in the Commonwealth in a hospital with a newborn nursery shall  receive the screening test for critical congenital heart disease 24 to 48 hours  after birth using pulse oximetry or other screening technology.
    5. Goal. Except as specified in 12VAC5-71-220 C and  12VAC5-71-260, all newborns born in the Commonwealth in a hospital with a  newborn nursery shall receive appropriate critical congenital heart disease  screening 24 to 48 hours after birth. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4176; Filed November 13, 2015, 2:11 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 12VAC5-71. Regulations  Governing Virginia Newborn Screening Services (amending 12VAC5-71-10, 12VAC5-71-30,  12VAC5-71-150; adding 12VAC5-71-210 through 12VAC5-71-260).
    12VAC5-191. State Plan for the Children with Special Health  Care Needs Program (amending 12VAC5-191-260). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-67 of the Code  of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Dev Nair, Director, Division of Policy  and Evaluation, Department of Health, 109 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 864-7662, FAX (804) 864-7647, or email  dev.nair@vdh.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 32.1-12 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the State Board of Health to make, adopt, promulgate, and enforce  regulations.
    Section 32.1-65.1 of the Code of Virginia states that the Board  of Health shall require every hospital in Virginia having a newborn nursery to  screen infants for critical congenital heart disease.
    Section 32.1-67 of the Code of Virginia requires the Board of  Health to promulgate regulations as may be necessaryto implement Newborn  Screening Services and the Children with Special Health Care Needs Program.
    Chapters 4 and 175 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly required the  Board of Health to promulgate emergency regulations for critical congenital  heart disease (CCHD) screening. This regulatory action seeks to make those  changes permanent.
    Purpose: Congenital heart defects are the most common  birth defects in the United States, affecting about one in every 110 babies. A  few babies born with congenital heart defects have more serious forms of heart  disease, which are referred to as critical congenital heart disease (CCHD),  affecting approximately two of every 1,000 births. CCHDs are heart defects that  result in abnormal blood flow and oxygen deprivation. These defects require  intervention within the first year of life and delayed diagnosis can result in  death. Screening newborns for CCHD using pulse oximetry has been recommended  through the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Recommended Uniform  Screening Panel. The screening is simple, quick, and painless. A sensor wrapped  around the baby's right hand or either foot measures the amount of oxygen in  the baby's blood.
    The purpose of the proposed regulatory action is to ensure that  all Virginia hospitals with newborn nurseries implement CCHD screening, and to  ensure that newborns diagnosed with CCHD are reported to VDH so that they may  be linked to care coordination services through the "Care Connections for  Children" program.
    Substance: These proposed amendments to the newborn  screening regulations require all hospitals with a newborn nursery to screen  newborns for CCHD within 24 to 48 hours of birth. Specifically they add the  following elements to the existing regulations:
    1. Hospitals are required to develop protocols for screening,  timely evaluation, and timely referral of newborns with abnormal screening  results.
    2. Requirements that a licensed practitioner perform the  screening and setting forth when the screening is to occur. If screening is not  indicated, documentation requirements are set forth for the medical record.  Hospitals are required to develop screening protocols for specialty and  subspecialty nurseries.
    3. Requirements that all screening results must be entered into  the medical record and the electronic birth certificate system. This section  also requires health care providers to report abnormal screening results  immediately and to evaluate the newborn in a timely manner. Newborns shall not  be discharged unless a cause for the abnormal screening result has been  determined or CCHD has been ruled out. Parents or guardians and the infant's  primary care provider after discharge from the hospital shall be notified of  any abnormal results and any diagnoses.
    4. Hospitals must report individuals diagnosed with CCHD to the  Virginia Department of Health (VDH) so that the newborn's parent or guardian  may be referred to care coordination services through the Care Connection for  Children.
    5. A section specifying what documents shall be provided when  requested by the VaCARES system at VDH, and specifying the confidentiality  rules for these documents.
    6. A section that permits parents to refuse CCHD screening  based upon religious practices or tenets, and to specify that the hospital must  report the refusal to VDH.
    Issues: These proposed amendments will permanently add  CCHD screening requirements to the regulations for newborn screening. The  primary advantage to VDH, the public, and the Commonwealth is that the  regulations will ensure that every infant born in a hospital with a newborn  nursery will be screened for CCHD and that those who screen positive will have  further evaluation and follow up as needed. The majority of hospitals that  would be affected by these regulations already provide screening for CCHD  voluntarily. These proposed amendments set minimum standards for this screening.  There are no disadvantages to the public or the Commonwealth.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to  Chapter 4 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly, the proposed regulations permanently  require hospitals with a newborn nursery to screen all infants born in Virginia  for critical congenital heart disease within 24 to 48 hours after birth using  pulse-oximetry.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Pursuant to Chapter 4 of the 2014  Acts of Assembly, the proposed regulations permanently require hospitals with a  newborn nursery to screen all infants born in Virginia for critical congenital  heart disease (CCHD) within 24 to 48 hours after birth using pulse-oximetry.
    More specifically, the proposed changes require that hospitals  develop protocols for the screening of all newborns for CCHD, and that they  have protocols for the follow-up and referral for any infants that have  positive screens. Newborns that have an abnormal screen will not be discharged  from the hospital until the cause of the abnormal screen has been evaluated and  an appropriate plan for care is in place. Any diagnosis resulting from an  abnormal screen will be entered in the electronic birth certificate, and the  attending physician will notify the parent and the primary care provider of the  diagnosis. Infants who are diagnosed with CCHD will be referred to the Care  Connections for Children program for care coordination services. A parent may  refuse to have their child screened on the basis of religious practices or  tenets. Such refusal must be documented in writing. These requirements were  already implemented on December 24, 2014 under emergency regulations.
    CCHD is a serious health condition affecting newborns that can  result in death if not diagnosed and treated early. According to the Virginia  Department of Health (VDH), congenital heart defects are the most common birth  defects in the United States, affecting about one in every 110 babies. A few  babies born with congenital heart defects have more serious forms of heart  disease, which are referred to as critical congenital heart disease (affecting  approximately 2 of every 1,000 births). CCHDs are heart defects that result in  abnormal blood flow and oxygen deprivation. These defects require intervention  within the first year of life and delayed diagnosis can result in death. Screening  newborns for CCHD using pulse oximetry has been recommended through the U.S.  Department of Health and Human Services Recommended Uniform Screening Panel.  The screening is simple, quick, and painless. A sensor wrapped around the  baby's right hand or either foot measures the amount of oxygen in the baby’s  blood.
    The purpose of the proposed regulatory action is to ensure that  all Virginia hospitals with newborn nurseries implement CCHD screening, and to  ensure that newborns diagnosed with CCHD are reported to VDH so that they may  be linked to care coordination services through the Care Connections for  Children program. Increased CCHD detection at birth hospitals through screening  may lead to decreased hospital costs and avoid some deaths during infancy.1  Initial actions to educate hospitals and develop a tracking and recording  system for CCHD were supported by a $299,000 federal grant.
    Additional reporting of screening results and confirmed cases  that are required by these regulations occurs through existing systems  (electronic birth certificate and VaCARES); therefore additional costs to  implement these regulations are projected to be minimal. Based on a recent  study in New Jersey, the estimated screening time per newborn was just over  nine minutes and the associated labor and equipment costs per newborn screened  were $6.68 and $6.82, respectively, yielding a total estimate of $13.50 per  newborn.2 Similarly, initial VDH estimates suggest CCHD screening  time is 9 minutes and 45 seconds on average and the average cost of CCHD  screening is $13.28 in Virginia.3
    Screening infants for CCHD is considered a best practice and  was already adopted by 51 of the 55 hospitals prior to the requirements enacted  by the 2014 General Assembly. Thus, most hospitals in Virginia are already  voluntarily performing this screening. The proposed amendments would require  the four additional hospitals to implement the screening.
    The administrative costs to VDH for referral to the Care  Connections for Children program to obtain care coordination services are  considered small and will be absorbed by agency's existing resources.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. These regulations apply to 55  hospitals in Virginia of which 51 were already performing required screening  voluntarily prior to emergency regulations. There were approximately 101,700  infants born in Virginia and approximately 142 newborns were diagnosed with  CCHD in 2014.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed changes apply  throughout the Commonwealth.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect employment as most hospitals were already  voluntarily performing the proposed screening.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendments are unlikely to significantly affect the use and value of private  property as most hospitals were already voluntarily performing the proposed  screening.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses:
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. Only a few of the 55 hospitals in  Virginia may be considered as small businesses. None of the four hospitals that  had not been voluntarily performing the CCHD screening is believed to be a  small business. Thus, no significant effect on small businesses is expected.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed  screening is not expected to have an adverse impact on small businesses. 
    Adverse Impacts:
    Businesses: Since all but four hospitals were already  performing required screening, the prosed regulations impose some additional  compliance costs on only four hospitals.
    Localities: The proposed amendments will not adversely affect  localities.
    Other Entities: No significant impact on other entities is  expected. Additional administrative costs of the required screening will be  absorbed by VDH's existing resources.
    ____________________________________
    1 Peterson et al., Hospitalizations, Costs, and  Mortality among Infants with Critical Congenital Heart Disease: How Important  Is Timely Detection? Birth Defects Research, 2013, Oct, 97(10):664-72.
    2 Peterson et al., A public health economic assessment  of hospitals' cost to screen newborns for critical congenital heart disease.  Public Health Reports, 2014, Jan-Feb, 129 (1):86-93.
    3 These estimates are preliminary and subject to change.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Health concurs with the findings of the analysis prepared by the  Department of Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments require hospitals with a newborn  nursery to screen all infants born in Virginia for critical congenital heart  disease (CCHD) within 24 to 48 hours after birth using pulse oximetry. The  proposed amendments (i) require that hospitals develop protocols for screening,  timely evaluation, and timely referral of newborns with abnormal screening  results; (ii) require that a licensed practitioner perform the screening; (iii)  establish when the screening is to occur, and if screening is not indicated,  documentation requirements for the medical record; (iv) require hospitals to  develop screening protocols for specialty and subspecialty nurseries; (v)  require that all screening results are entered into the medical record and the  electronic birth certificate system, and that health care providers report  abnormal screening results immediately; (vi) prohibit the discharge of a  newborn with an abnormal screen until the cause of the abnormal screen has been  evaluated and an appropriate plan for care is in place; (vii) require that  hospitals report individuals diagnosed with CCHD to the department for referral   to care coordination services through the Care Connection for Children;  (viii) specify documents that must be provided in response to a request by the  department's VaCARES system and the confidentiality rules for these documents;  and (ix) permit parents to refuse CCHD screening based upon religious practices  or tenets, and specify that the hospital must report the refusal to the  department. 
    This regulatory action also includes proposed amendments to  the State Plan for the Children with Special Health Care Needs Program  (12VAC5-191), so that those regulations remain consistent with 12VAC5-71.
    12VAC5-71-10. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms when used in this regulation  chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise: 
    "Abnormal screening results" means, in  12VAC5-71-210 through 12VAC5-71-250 only, all results that indicate the newborn  has not passed the screening test.
    "Attending physician" means the physician in charge  of the infant's care. 
    "Board" means the State Board of Health. 
    "Business days" means Monday through Friday from  9 a.m. to 5 p.m., excluding federal and state holidays. 
    "Care Connection for Children" means a statewide  network of centers of excellence for children with special health care needs  (CSHCN) that provides leadership in the enhancement of specialty medical  services, care coordination, medical insurance benefits evaluation and  coordination, management of the CSHCN pool of funds, information and referral  to CSHCN resources, family-to-family support, and training and consultation  with community providers on CSHCN issues. 
    "Care coordination" means a process that links  individuals and their families to services and resources in a coordinated  effort to maximize their potential and provide them with optimal health care. 
    "Certified nurse midwife" means a person licensed  to practice as a nurse practitioner in the Commonwealth pursuant to  § 54.1-2957 of the Code of Virginia and in accordance with Part II  (18VAC90-30-60 et seq.) of 18VAC90-30 and 18VAC90-30-121, subject to  18VAC90-30-160. 
    "Chief executive officer" means a job descriptive  term used to identify the individual appointed by the governing body to act in  its behalf in the overall management of the hospital. Job titles may include  administrator, superintendent, director, executive director, president,  vice-president, and executive vice-president. 
    "Child" means a person less than 18 years of age  and includes a biological or an adopted child, as well as a child placed for  adoption or foster care unless otherwise treated as a separate unit for the  purposes of determining eligibility and charges under these regulations. 
    "Commissioner" means the State Health Commissioner,  his duly designated officer, or agent. 
    "Confirmatory testing" means a test or a panel of  tests performed following a screened-abnormal result to verify a diagnosis. 
    "Core panel conditions" means those heritable  disorders and genetic diseases considered appropriate for newborn screening.  The conditions in the core panel are similar in that they have (i) specific and  sensitive screening tests, (iii) a sufficiently well understood natural history,  and (iii) available and efficacious treatments. 
    "Critical congenital heart disease" or  "CCHD" means a congenital heart disease that places a newborn at  significant risk of disability or death if not diagnosed and treated soon after  birth. The disease may include, but is not limited to, hypoplastic left heart  syndrome, pulmonary atresia (with intact septum), tetralogy of fallot, total  anomalous pulmonary venous return, transposition of the great arteries,  tricuspid atresia, and truncus arteriosus.
    "CCHD screening" means the application of  screening technology to detect CCHD.
    "Department" means the state Department of Health. 
    "Dried-blood-spot specimen" means a clinical blood  sample collected from an infant by heel stick method and placed directly onto specially  manufactured absorbent specimen collection (filter) paper. 
    "Echocardiogram" means a test that uses an  ultrasound to provide an image of the heart.
    "Guardian" means a parent-appointed,  court-appointed, or clerk-appointed guardian of the person. 
    "Healthcare provider" means a person who is  licensed to provide health care as part of his job responsibilities and who has  the authority to order newborn dried-blood-spot screening tests. 
    "Heritable disorders and genetic diseases" means  pathological conditions (i.e., interruption, cessation or disorder of body  functions, systems, or organs) that are caused by an absent or defective gene  or gene product, or by a chromosomal aberration. 
    "Hospital" means any facility as defined in § 32.1-123 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Infant" means a child less than 12 months of age. 
    "Licensed practitioner" means a licensed health  care provider who is permitted, within the scope of his practice pursuant to  Chapter 29 (§ 54.1-2900 et seq.) or Chapter 30 (§ 54.1-3000 et seq.)  of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, to provide care to a newborn.
    "Low protein modified foods" means foods that are  (i) specially formulated to have less than one gram of protein per serving,  (ii) intended to be used under the direction of a physician for the dietary  treatment of an inherited metabolic disease, (iii) not natural foods that are  naturally low in protein, and (iv) prescribed as medically necessary for the  therapeutic treatment of inherited metabolic diseases. 
    "Metabolic formula" means nutritional substances  that are (i) prescribed by a health professional with appropriate prescriptive  authority; (ii) specifically designed and formulated to be consumed or  administered internally under the supervision of such health professional;  (iii) specifically designed, processed, or formulated to be distinct in one or  more nutrients that are present in natural food; and (iv) intended for the  medical and nutritional management of patients with limited capacity to  metabolize ordinary foodstuffs or limited capacity to metabolize certain  nutrients contained in ordinary foodstuffs. 
    "Metabolic supplements" means certain dietary or  nutritional substances intended to be used under the direction of a physician  for the nutritional management of inherited metabolic diseases. 
    "Midwife" means a person licensed as a nurse  practitioner in the category of certified nurse midwife by the Boards of  Nursing and Medicine or licensed as a midwife by the Board of Medicine. 
    "Newborn" means an infant who is 28 days old or less  who was born in Virginia. 
    "Newborn nursery" means a general level,  intermediate level, or specialty level newborn service as defined in  12VAC5-410-443 B 1, B 2, and B 3.
    "Nurse" means a person holding a current license as  a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse by the Virginia Board of Nursing  or a current multistate licensure privilege to practice in Virginia as a  registered nurse or licensed practical nurse. 
    "Parent" means a biological parent, adoptive  parent, or stepparent. 
    "Pediatric Comprehensive Sickle Cell Clinic  Network" means a statewide network of clinics that are located in major  medical centers and provide comprehensive medical and support services for  newborns and children living with sickle cell disease and other genetically  related hemoglobinopathies. 
    "Physician" means a person licensed to practice  medicine or osteopathic medicine in the Commonwealth pursuant to Chapter 29 (§ 54.1-2900 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and in accordance with  applicable regulations. 
    "Pool of funds" means funds designated for payment  of direct health care services. Access to the pool is not an entitlement and is  subject to availability of funds and guidelines that govern its eligibility and  coverage of services. Pool of funds is a mix of federal Title V funds and state  matching funds. 
    "Population-based" means preventive interventions  and personal health services developed and available for the entire infant and  child health population of the Commonwealth rather than for individuals in a  one-on-one situation. 
    "Preterm infant" means an infant whose birth occurs  by the end of the last day of the 36th week following the onset of the last  menstrual period. 
    "Repeat specimen" means an additional newborn  dried-blood-spot screening specimen submitted to the testing laboratory  voluntarily or by request. 
    "Resident" means an individual who resides within  the geographical boundaries of the Commonwealth. 
    "Satisfactory specimen" means a newborn  dried-blood-spot screening specimen that has been determined to be acceptable  for laboratory analyses by the testing laboratory. 
    "Screened-abnormal" means a newborn  dried-blood-spot screening test result that is outside the established normal  range or normal value for that test method. 
    "Screening technology" means pulse oximetry  testing in the right hand and either foot. Screening technology shall also  include alternate medically accepted tests that measure the percentage of blood  oxygen saturation, follow medical guideline consensus and recommendations issued  by the American Academy of Pediatrics, and are approved by the State Board of  Health.
    "Specialty level nursery" means the same as  defined in 12VAC5-410-443 B 3 and as further defined as Level III by the Levels  of Neonatal Care, written by the American Academy of Pediatrics Committee on  Fetus and Newborn.
     "Subspecialty level nursery" means the  same as defined in 12VAC5-410-443 B 4.
    "Testing laboratory" means the laboratory that has  been selected by the department to perform newborn dried-blood-spot screening  tests services. 
    "Total parenteral nutrition" or "TPN"  means giving nutrients through a vein for babies who cannot be fed by mouth. 
    "Treatment" means appropriate management including  genetic counseling, medical consultation, and pharmacological and dietary  management for infants diagnosed with a disease listed in 12VAC5-71-30 D. 
    "Unsatisfactory specimen" means a newborn  dried-blood-spot screening specimen that is inadequate for performing an  accurate analysis. 
    "Virginia Genetics Advisory Committee" means a  formal group that advises the department on issues pertaining to access to  clinical genetics services across the Commonwealth and the provision of genetic  awareness, quality services, and education for consumers and providers. 
    "Virginia Newborn Screening System" means a  coordinated and comprehensive group of services, including education,  screening, follow up, diagnosis, treatment and management, and program  evaluation, managed by the department's Virginia Newborn Screening Program and  Virginia Early Hearing Detection and Intervention Program for safeguarding the  health of children born in Virginia. 
    "Virginia Sickle Cell Awareness Program" means a  statewide program for the education and screening of individuals for the  disease of sickle cell anemia or the sickle cell trait and for such other  genetically related hemoglobinopathies. 
    12VAC5-71-30. Core panel of heritable disorders and genetic  diseases. 
    A. The Virginia Newborn Screening System, which includes the  Virginia Newborn Screening Program and, the Virginia Early  Hearing Detection and Intervention Program, and Virginia critical congenital  heart disease screening, shall ensure that the core panel of heritable  disorders and genetic diseases for which newborn screening is conducted is  consistent with but not necessarily identical to the U.S. Department of Health  and Human Services Secretary's Recommended Uniform Screening Panel.
    B. The department shall review, at least biennially, national  recommendations and guidelines and may propose changes to the core panel of  heritable disorders and genetic diseases for which newborn dried-blood-spot  screening tests are conducted. 
    C. The Virginia Genetics Advisory Committee may be consulted  and provide advice to the commissioner on proposed changes to the core panel of  heritable disorders and genetic diseases for which newborn dried-blood-spot  screening tests are conducted. 
    D. Infants under six months of age who are born in Virginia  shall be screened in accordance with the provisions set forth in this chapter  for the following heritable disorders and genetic diseases, which are  identified through newborn dried-blood-spot screening tests: 
    1. Argininosuccinic aciduria (ASA); 
    2. Beta-Ketothiolase deficiency (BKT); 
    3. Biotinidase deficiency (BIOT); 
    4. Carnitine uptake defect (CUD); 
    5. Classical galactosemia (galactose-1-phosphate  uridyltransferase deficiency) (GALT); 
    6. Citrullinemia type I (CIT-I); 
    7. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH); 
    8. Cystic fibrosis (CF); 
    9. Glutaric acidemia type I (GA I); 
    10. Hb S beta-thalassemia (Hb F,S,A); 
    11. Hb SC-disease (Hb F,S,C); 
    12. Hb SS-disease (sickle cell anemia) (Hb F, S);
    13. Homocystinuria (HCY); 
    14. Isovaleric acidemia (IVA); 
    15. Long chain L-3-Hydroxy acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency  (LCHAD); 
    16. Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD); 
    17. Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCAD); 
    18. Methylmalonic acidemia (Methylmalonyl-CoA mutase  deficiency) (MUT); 
    19. Methylmalonic acidemia (Adenosylcobalamin synthesis  deficiency) (CBL A, CBL B); 
    20. Multiple carboxylase deficiency (MCD); 
    21. Phenylketonuria (PKU); 
    22. Primary congenital hypothyroidism (CH);
    23. Propionic acidemia (PROP); 
    24. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID);
    25. Tyrosinemia type I (TYR I); 
    26. Trifunctional protein deficiency (TFP); 
    27. Very long-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (VLCAD);  
    28. 3-hydroxy 3-methyl glutaric aciduria (HMG); and 
    29. 3-Methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase deficiency (3-MCC). 
    E. Infants born in Virginia shall be screened for hearing  loss in accordance with provisions set forth in §§ 32.1-64.1 and 32.1-64.2 of  the Code of Virginia and as governed by 12VAC5-80. 
    F. Newborns born in Virginia shall be screened for  critical congenital heart disease in accordance with provisions set forth in §§ 32.1-65.1 and 32.1-67 of the Code of Virginia and as governed by 12VAC5-71-210  through 12VAC5-71-260.
    12VAC5-71-150. Responsibilities of the Care Connection for  Children network. 
    A. The Care Connection for Children network shall provide the  following services: 
    1. Care coordination services for residents of the  Commonwealth who are diagnosed with selected heritable disorders or,  genetic diseases, or critical congenital heart disease and are referred  to the network by the Virginia Newborn Screening Program. 
    2. Other network services for eligible individuals in  accordance with the § 32.1-77 of the Code of Virginia and  applicable regulations. 
    B. The Care Connection for Children network shall provide  data as needed by the department's newborn screening program. 
    12VAC5-71-210. Critical congenital heart disease screening  protocols.
    A. Hospitals shall develop protocols for critical  congenital heart disease screening in accordance with this section,  12VAC5-71-220 through 12VAC5-71-260, and national recommendations from the  American Academy of Pediatrics. 
    B. Hospitals shall develop protocols for the physical  evaluation by licensed practitioners of newborns with abnormal screening  results.
    C. Hospitals shall develop protocols for the referral of  newborns with abnormal screening results, if needed, after evaluation.
    12VAC5-71-220. Critical congenital heart disease screening.
    A. A licensed practitioner shall perform the CCHD  screening.
    B. Except as specified in subsection C of this section and  12VAC5-71-260, CCHD screening shall be performed on every newborn in the birth  hospital between 24 and 48 hours of life, or if the newborn is discharged from  the hospital before reaching 24 hours of life, the CCHD screening shall be  performed as late as practical before discharge.
    C. If CCHD screening is not indicated, the reason shall be  documented in the newborn's medical record. The reasons include but are not  limited to:
    1. The newborn's current clinical evaluation has included  an echocardiogram that ruled out CCHD;
    2. The newborn has confirmed CCHD; or
    3. The newborn is under the care of a specialty level or  subspecialty level nursery.
    D. Hospitals shall develop protocols for screening  newborns in specialty level nurseries and subspecialty level nurseries. 
    12VAC5-71-230. Critical congenital heart disease screening  results.
    A. Recording results.
    1. All CCHD screening results shall be recorded in the  newborn's medical record.
    2. All CCHD screening results shall be entered into the  electronic birth certificate system with the following information:
    a. CCHD screening completed, CCHD pass or fail, and pulse  oximetry values; or
    b. Not screened pursuant to 12VAC5-71-220 C.
    B. Abnormal screening results.
    1. Abnormal screening results shall be reported by the  authorized health care provider who conducted the screening to the attending  physician or his designee. 
    2. A newborn shall be evaluated by an attending physician  or his designee according to the timeframes within the hospital protocol  developed in accordance with 12VAC5-71-210.
    3. A newborn shall not be discharged from care until:
    a. A cause for the abnormal screening result has been  determined and a plan is in place for immediate evaluation at another medical  facility; or
    b. An echocardiogram has been performed and read, and an  appropriate clinical plan has been developed.
    4. Any diagnosis arising from abnormal screening results  shall be entered into the electronic birth certificate system.
    5. The attending physician or his designee shall provide  notification of abnormal results and any diagnoses to the newborn's parent or  guardian and to the primary care provider in charge of the newborn's care after  the newborn leaves the hospital.
    12VAC5-71-240. Referral for care coordination.
    A. For any person diagnosed under 12VAC5-71-210 through  12VAC5-71-250, the chief administrative officer of every hospital, as defined  in § 32.1-123 of the Code of Virginia, shall make or cause to be made a  report to the commissioner in accordance with § 32.1-69.1 of the Code of  Virginia.
    B. Upon receiving the notification described in subsection  A of this section, the Newborn Screening Program at the Virginia Department of  Health shall refer the newborn's parent or guardian to the Care Connection for  Children network for care coordination services.
    12VAC5-71-250. Congenital heart disease screening records.
    A. The screening of newborns pursuant to this chapter is a  population-based public health surveillance program as defined by the Health  Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191; 110  Stat. 2033).
    B. Upon request, a hospital shall make available to the  Virginia Congenital Anomalies Reporting and Education System (VaCARES):
    1. Medical records;
    2. Records of laboratory tests; and
    3. Any other information that VaCARES considers necessary  to:
    a. Determine final outcomes of abnormal CCHD screening  results; or
    b. Evaluate CCHD screening activities in the Commonwealth,  including performance of follow-up evaluations and diagnostic tests, initiation  of treatment when necessary, and surveillance of the accuracy and efficacy of  the screening.
    C. Information that the Virginia Department of Health  receives under this section is confidential and may only be used or disclosed:
    1. For research and collective statistical purposes  pursuant to § 32.1-67.1 of the Code of Virginia;
    2. For state or federally mandated statistical reports;
    3. To ensure that the information received by the Virginia  Department of Health is accurate and reliable; or
    4. For reporting to the Virginia Congenital Anomalies  Reporting and Education System pursuant to § 32.1-69.1 of the Code of  Virginia and 12VAC5-191-280. The Newborn Screening Program shall refer the  newborn's parent or guardian to the Care Connection for Children network for  care coordination services.
    D. The hospital administrator shall ensure that CCHD  screening is included in the perinatal quality assurance program and provide  the results of the quality improvement program to the Virginia Department of  Health upon request. 
    12VAC5-71-260. Parent or guardian refusal for screening.
    A. In the instance of parent or guardian refusal of the  CCHD screening based on religious practices or tenets, the parent or guardian  refusal shall be documented on a refusal form provided by the Virginia  Department of Health and made a part of the newborn's medical record.
    B. The administrator of the hospital shall ensure that the  Newborn Screening Program at the Virginia Department of Health is notified in  writing of the parent or guardian refusal within five days of the newborn's  birth. 
     
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (12VAC5-71)
    Notification  of Parental Refusal of Dried-Blood-Spot and Critical Congenital Heart Disease  Screening (undated)
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC5-71)
    Levels  of Neonatal Care, Policy Statement from Committee on Fetus and Newborn,  American Academy of Pediatrics, August 27, 2012
    12VAC5-191-260. Scope and content of the Virginia Newborn  Screening System.
    A. The Virginia Newborn Screening System consists of two  three components: (i) Virginia Newborn Screening Services and,  (ii) Virginia Early Hearing Detection and Intervention Program, and (iii)  Virginia critical congenital heart disease screening.
    B. Virginia Newborn Screening Services.
    1. Mission. The Virginia Newborn Screening Services prevents mental  retardation intellectual disability, permanent disability, or death  through early identification and treatment of infants who are  affected by selected inherited disorders.
    2. Scope of services. The Virginia Newborn Screening Services  provides a coordinated and comprehensive system of services to assure that all  infants receive a screening test after birth for selected inherited metabolic,  endocrine, and hematological disorders as defined in Regulations Governing the  Virginia Newborn Screening and Treatment Program Services,  12VAC5-70 12VAC5-71.
    These population-based, direct, and enabling services are  provided through:
    a. Biochemical dried bloodspot screening tests.
    b. Follow up of abnormal results.
    c. Diagnosis.
    d. Education to health professionals and families.
    e. Expert consultation on abnormal results, diagnostic  testing, and medical and dietary management for health professionals.
    Medical and dietary management is provided for the diagnosed  cases and includes assistance in accessing specialty medical services and  referral to Care Connection for Children.
    The screening and management for specified diseases are  governed by Regulations Governing the Virginia Newborn Screening and  Treatment Program Services, 12VAC5-70 12VAC5-71.
    3. Criteria to receive Virginia Newborn Screening Services.  All infants born in the Commonwealth are eligible for the screening test for  selected inherited disorders.
    4. Goal. The Title V national performance measures, as  required by the federal Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA-Pub. L.  (Public Law 103-62), are used to establish the program goals. The  following goal shall change as needed to be consistent with the Title V  national performance measures:
    All infants will receive appropriate newborn bloodspot  screening, follow up testing, and referral to services.
    C. Virginia Early Hearing Detection and Intervention Program.
    1. Mission. The Virginia Early Hearing Detection and  Intervention Program promotes early detection of and intervention for infants  with congenital hearing loss to maximize linguistic and communicative  competence and literacy development. 
    2. Scope of services. The Virginia Early Hearing Detection and  Intervention Program provides services to assure that all infants receive a  hearing screening after birth, that infants needing further testing are  referred to appropriate facilities, that families have the information that  they need to make decisions for their children, and that infants and young  children diagnosed with a hearing loss receive appropriate and timely  intervention services. These population-based and enabling services are  provided through:
    a. Technical assistance and education to new parents.
    b. Collaboration with physicians and primary care providers.
    c. Technical assistance and education to birthing facilities  and those persons performing home births.
    d. Collaboration with audiologists.
    e. Education to health professionals and general public.
    Once diagnosed, the infants are referred to early intervention  services. The screening and management for hearing loss are governed by the  regulation, Regulations for Administration of the Virginia Hearing  Impairment Identification and Monitoring System, 12VAC5-80.
    3. Criteria to receive services from the Virginia Early  Hearing Detection and Intervention Program.
    a. All infants born in the Commonwealth are eligible for the  hearing screening.
    b. All infants who are residents of the Commonwealth and their  families are eligible for the Virginia Early Hearing Detection and Intervention  Program.
    4. Goals. The Title V national performance measures, as  required by the federal Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA-Pub. L.  (Public Law 103-62), are used to establish the program goals. The  following goals shall change as needed to be consistent with the Title V  national performance measures:
    All infants will receive screening for hearing loss no later  than one month of age, achieve identification of congenital hearing loss by  three months of age, and enroll in appropriate intervention by six months of  age.
    D. Virginia critical congenital heart disease screening.
    1. Mission. Virginia critical congenital heart disease  screening promotes early detection of and intervention for newborns with  critical congenital heart disease to maximize positive health outcomes and help  prevent disability and death early in life. 
    2. Scope of services. Newborns receive a critical  congenital heart disease screening 24 to 48 hours after birth in a hospital  with a newborn nursery, as provided in §§ 32.1-67 and 32.1-69.1 of the  Code of Virginia and the regulations governing critical congenital heart  disease screening (12VAC5-71-210 through 12VAC5-71-260). These population-based,  direct, and enabling services are provided through:
    a. Critical congenital heart disease screening tests using  pulse oximetry or other screening technology as defined in 12VAC5-71-10;
    b. Hospital reporting of test results pursuant to  § 32.1-69.1 of the Code of Virginia and 12VAC5-191-280; and
    c. Follow-up, referral processes, and services, as  appropriate, through Care Connection for Children.
    3. The screening and management for newborn critical  congenital heart disease are governed by the regulations governing critical  congenital heart disease screening (12VAC5-71-210 through 12VAC5-71-260).
    4. Criteria to receive critical congenital heart disease  screening. Except as specified in 12VAC5-71-220 C and 12VAC5-71-260, all  newborns born in the Commonwealth in a hospital with a newborn nursery shall  receive the screening test for critical congenital heart disease 24 to 48 hours  after birth using pulse oximetry or other screening technology.
    5. Goal. Except as specified in 12VAC5-71-220 C and  12VAC5-71-260, all newborns born in the Commonwealth in a hospital with a  newborn nursery shall receive appropriate critical congenital heart disease  screening 24 to 48 hours after birth. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4176; Filed November 13, 2015, 2:11 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Fast-Track Regulation
     
    Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-217. Regulations of the  Patient Level Data System (amending 12VAC5-217-10, 12VAC5-217-20,  12VAC5-217-70; adding 12VAC5-217-15; repealing 12VAC5-217-30, 12VAC5-217-80,  12VAC5-217-90). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-276.6 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Effective Date: February 1, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Debbie Condrey, Chief Information  Officer, Department of Health, 109 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 864-7118, or email debbie.condrey@vdh.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The regulation is promulgated under the authority  of § 32.1-12 and Chapter 7.2 (§ 32.1-276.2 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the  Code of Virginia. Section 32.1-12 grants the board the legal authority "to  make, adopt, promulgate, and enforce such regulations necessary to carry out  the provisions" of Title 32.1. Section 32.1-276.2 requires the board to  administer the health care data reporting initiatives established by Chapter  7.2 of Title 32.1.
    Purpose: To fulfill the statutory mandate to review  regulations and to protect the citizens of the Commonwealth, the department conducted  a periodic review of 12VAC5-217, Regulations of the Patient Level Data System,  pursuant to Executive Order 14 (2010). As a result of this review, the  department determined it was necessary to use the regulatory process to amend  these regulations. The amendments are necessary to protect the health, safety,  and welfare of citizens because they correct outdated citations and enhance the  clarity of the regulations in order to achieve improvements that will be  reasonable and prudent, and will not impose an unnecessary burden on the  Virginia Department of Health or the public.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: These amendments  simply update the regulations to reflect current practice. The department does  not expect that this regulatory action will be controversial.
    Substance: 
    12VAC5-217-10. Definitions - Correct three definitions and  remove an unnecessary definition. 
    12VAC5-217-15. Requirements of processed, verified data -  Create a new section. The substance of this section comes from the previous definition  of "processed verified data." The definition had numerous substantive  requirements that were not appropriate to be located in the definitions  section. 
    12VAC5-217-20. Reporting requirements for patient level data  elements - Remove outdated citations; add language to ensure the section does  not become outdated due to later publications from the National Uniform Billing  Committee; and add language clarifying that reporting requirements require a  complete filing submitted in electronic format. 
    12VAC5-217-30. Options for filing format - Repeal this section.  
    12VAC5217-70. Establishment of annual fee - Amend this section  to reflect current practice. 
    12VAC5-217-80. Payment of fee to nonprofit organization -  Repeal this section. 
    12VAC5-217-90. Waiver or reduction of fee - Repeal this  section.
    Issues: The purpose of the proposed regulatory action is  to comply with the Code of Virginia and to remove outdated regulations that no  longer reflect current practice. There are no known disadvantages to the public,  the regulated entities, business entities, or the Commonwealth. The advantage  is greater clarity of the regulations.
    Small Business Impact Review Report of Findings: This  regulatory action serves as the report of the findings of the regulatory review  pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Health (Board) proposes to: 1) update definitions for consistency with the Code  of Virginia, 2) repeal obsolete language, 3) move text for improved  organization, 4) amend language for clarity, and 5) place in the regulation the  current policy that inpatient hospitals that submit data pursuant to this  regulation are not assessed fees if the data is processed, verified, and timely  in accordance with standards established by the Board.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Updating definitions for consistency  with the Code of Virginia, repealing obsolete language, improving organization  of text, and amending language to improve clarity are all moderately beneficial  in that they may reduce some potential confusion amongst the interested public.
    Inpatient hospitals are required to submit specified patient  level data for each hospital inpatient, including a separate record for each  infant, if applicable. Inpatient hospitals are defined as a hospital providing  inpatient care and licensed pursuant to Article 1 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of  Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia, a hospital licensed pursuant  to Article 2 (§ 32.2-403 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 37.2 of the Code of  Virginia, a hospital operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services for the care and treatment of individuals with mental  illness, or a hospital operated by the University of Virginia or Virginia  Commonwealth University Health System Authority.
    It is current Board policy to not assess fees to inpatient  hospitals who submit data that is processed, verified, and timely in accordance  with standards established by the Board. Establishing this policy in regulation  does not change what occurs in practice but does provide a modest benefit in  that it provides clarity for interested parties.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments  concern 105 licensed hospitals in the Commonwealth, as well as the nonprofit  organization Virginia Health Information.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do not  disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments will  not significantly affect employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendments will not significantly affect the use and value of private property.  
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  amendments will not significantly affect costs for small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments will not  affect real estate development costs.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Virginia Department of Health concurs with the findings of the Department of  Planning and Budget's economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    The amendments clarify and simplify the regulation, update  definitions, and eliminate three unnecessary sections.
    12VAC5-217-10. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms, when used in this chapter,  shall have the following meanings: 
    "Board" means the Virginia Board of Health. 
    "Complete filing" means that patient level data of  at least 99% of a hospital's inpatient discharges for a calendar year quarter  are submitted. 
    "Inpatient hospital" means a hospital providing  inpatient care and licensed pursuant to Article 1 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of  Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia, a hospital licensed pursuant  to Chapter 8 (§ 37.1-179 et seq.) of Title 37.1 Article 2 (§ 37.2-403  et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia, a hospital  operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services for  the care and treatment of individuals with mental illness, or a hospital  operated by the University of Virginia or Virginia Commonwealth University Health  System Authority. 
    "Nonprofit organization" means a nonprofit,  tax-exempt health data organization with the characteristics, expertise,  and capacity to execute the powers and duties set forth for such entity in  Chapter 7.2 (§ 32.1-276.2 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia  and with which the Commissioner of Health has entered into a contract as  required by § 32.1-276.4 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Processed, verified data" means data on inpatient  records which have been subjected to edits that fulfill the  requirements specified in 12VAC5-217-15. These edits shall be applied to  data elements which are on the UB-92 Billing Form (or a successor Billing Form  adopted by the Virginia Uniform Billing Committee for use by inpatient  hospitals in Virginia). The edits shall have been agreed to by the board and  the nonprofit organization. Inpatient records containing invalid UB-92 codes or  all blank fields for any of the data elements subjected to edits shall be  designated as error records. To be considered processed and verified, a  complete filing of all records which are submitted by an inpatient hospital in  aggregate per calendar year quarter and which are subjected to these edits must  be free of error at a prescribed minimum rate. The prescribed minimum error  rate shall be 95% overall, with patient identifier separately calculated at 95%  or a minimum rate recommended by the board of directors of the nonprofit  organization and approved by the Virginia Board of Health. The error rate shall  be calculated on only those fields designated in 12VAC5-217-20 or as  subsequently approved by the board through the process specified in  12VAC5-217-20. 
    "System" means the Virginia Patient Level Data  System. 
    12VAC5-217-15. Requirements of processed, verified data.
    Inpatient hospitals shall submit only processed, verified  data from inpatient records. To be considered processed and verified, a  complete filing of all records that are submitted by an inpatient hospital in  aggregate per calendar year quarter must be free of error at a prescribed  minimum rate. The prescribed minimum accuracy rate shall be 95% overall, with  patient identifier separately calculated at 95%. The accuracy rate shall be  calculated on only those fields designated in 12VAC5-217-20. Inpatient records  containing invalid codes or blank fields for any of the data elements shall be  designated as error records.
    12VAC5-217-20. Reporting requirements for patient level data  elements. 
    Every inpatient hospital shall submit a complete filing of  each patient level data element listed below in the table in this  section for each hospital inpatient, including a separate record for each  infant, if applicable. Most of these data elements are currently collected from  a UB-92 Uniform Billing Form located in the latest publication  of the Uniform Billing Manual prepared by the National Uniform Billing  Committee. The column for a "Form Locator" indicates where the  data element is located on the UB-92. For elements collected on the UB-92, the  column "Page Number" refers to the Uniform Billing Manual (UB-92),  revised May, 1993. The Uniform Billing Form and the Uniform Billing  Manual are located on the National Uniform Billing Committee's website at www.nubc.org. The Uniform Billing Manual UB-92,  prepared for Virginia hospitals by the Virginia Uniform Billing Committee,  provides a detailed field description and any special instructions instruction  pertaining to that element. An asterisk (*) indicates when the required data  element is either not on the UB-92 billing form or in the Uniform  Billing Manual. The instructions provided under that particular data element  should then be followed. If a successor billing form to the UB-92 form is  adopted by the Virginia Uniform Billing Committee for use by inpatient  hospitals in Virginia, information pertaining to the data elements listed below  should be derived from that successor billing form. Inpatient hospitals  that submit patient level data directly to the board or the nonprofit  organization shall submit it in an electronic data format. 
           | Data Element | Form Locator
 | Page Number
 | 
       | 1. Hospital identifier.*Enter the six-digit Medicare provider number or a number assigned by the board    or its designee.
 | *
 | *
 | 
       | 2. Attending physician identifier. Enter the nationally assigned physician identification number, either the    Uniform Physician Identification Number (UPIN) or National Provider    Identifier (NPI) as approved by the board for the physician assigned as the    attending physician for an inpatient.
 | 82
 | 82-1 and 82-2
 | 
       | 3. Other physician identifier. Enter the nationally assigned physician identification number, either the    Uniform Physician Identification Number (UPIN) or National Provider Identifier    (NPI) as approved by the board for the physician identified as the operating    physician for the principal procedure reported.
 | 83 A & B
 | 83-1 and 83-2
 | 
       | 4. Payor identifier. | 50 A, B, C
 | 50-1 through 50-11
 | 
       | 5. Employer nameidentifier. | 65 A
 | 65-1
 | 
       | 6. Patient identifier.*Enter the nine-digit social security number of the patient. If a social    security number has not been assigned, leave blank. The nine-digit social    security number is not required for patients under four years of age.
 | *
 | *
 | 
       | 7a. Patient sex. | 15
 | 15-1
 | 
       | 7b. Race code.*If an inpatient hospital collects information regarding the choices    listed below, the appropriate one-digit code reflecting the race of the    patient should be entered. If a hospital only collects information for    categories 0, 1, or 2, then the appropriate code should be entered from those    three selections.
 | *
 | *
 | 
       | 0 = White |   |   | 
       | 1 = Black |   |   | 
       | 2 = Other |   |   | 
       | 3 = Asian |   |   | 
       | 4 = American Indian |   |   | 
       | 5 = White Hispanic |   |   | 
       | 6 = Black Hispanic |   |   | 
       | 7c. Date of birth. | 14
 | 14-1
 | 
       | 7d. ZipStreet address, city or county, and zip    code. | 13
 | 13-1
 | 
       | 7e. Patient relationship to insured.
 | 59 A, B, C
 | 59-1 through 59-3
 | 
       | 7f.7e. Employment status code.
 | 64 A, B, C
 | 64-1 and 64-2
 | 
       | 7g.7f. Patient status (i.e., discharge).Inpatient codes only.
 | 22
 | 22-1 and 22-2
 | 
       | 7h.7g. Birth weight (for infants)*Enter the birth weight of newborns in grams.
 | *
 | *
 | 
       | 8a. Admission type. | 19
 | 19-1 and 19-2
 | 
       | 8b. Admission source. | 20
 | 20-1 through 20-3
 | 
       | 8c. Admission date. | 17
 | 17-1
 | 
       | 8d. Admission hour. | 18
 | 18-1
 | 
       | 8e. Admission diagnosis code. | 76
 | 76-1
 | 
       | 9a. Discharge date. Only enter date of discharge.
 | *
 | *
 | 
       | 10. Principal diagnosis code.Enter secondary diagnoses (up to eight).
 In addition, include diagnoses recorded in the comments section for DX6-DX9.
 | 6768-75
 | 67-1 and 67-268-1
 | 
       | 11. External cause of injury code (E-code).Record all external cause of injury codes in secondary diagnoses position    after recording all treated secondary diagnoses.
 | 77
 | 77-1
 | 
       | 12. Co-morbid conditions existing but not treated.  |  |  | 
       | 12.13. Principal procedure code and date.Enter other procedures and dates (up to five). In addition, include    procedures recorded in the comments section for PX4-PX6.
 | 8081 A-E
 | 80-181-1
 | 
       | 13.14. Revenue code (up to 23).Units of service (up to 23).
 Units of service charges (up to 23).
 | 4246
 47
 | 42-1 through 42-5646-1
 47-1
 | 
       | 14.15. Total charges (by revenue code    category or by HCPCS code).(R.C. Code 001 is for total charges. See page 47-1.)
 | 47
 | 47-1
 | 
  
    12VAC5-217-30. Options for filing format. (Repealed.)  
    Inpatient hospitals of 100 beds or more that submit  patient level data directly to the board or the nonprofit organization shall  submit it in an electronic data format. Hospitals of less than 100 beds that  submit patient level data directly to the board or the nonprofit organization  may directly submit it in electronic data format or in hard copy. If hard copy  is utilized the hospital shall submit, for each inpatient discharged, a copy of  the UB-92 and an addendum sheet for those data elements not collected on the  UB-92 or defined in the Uniform Billing Manual. These hospitals must submit all  patient level data in electronic data format by January 1, 1995. 
    If a hospital submits processed, verified data directly to  the nonprofit organization, it shall be in electronic format. 
    12VAC5-217-70. Establishment of annual fee. 
    The board shall not assess any fee against any health care  provider that submits data under this chapter that is processed, verified, and  timely in accordance with standards established by the board. The board shall  prescribe a reasonable fee not to exceed $1.00 per discharge for each inpatient  hospital submitting patient level data pursuant to this chapter that is not  processed, verified, or timely to cover the cost of the reasonable expenses  in processing and verifying such data. The fee shall be established and  reviewed annually by the board. Payment of the fee by a hospital shall be at  the time quarterly inpatient data is submitted. 
    12VAC5-217-80. Payment of fee to nonprofit organization.  (Repealed.) 
    If an inpatient hospital chooses to submit its patient  level data directly to the nonprofit organization, that hospital may pay the  fee described in 12VAC5-217-70 to the nonprofit organization at the time it  submits its quarterly data. If a hospital pays its fee directly to the  nonprofit organization, the requirements of a fee to be paid to the board, as  described in 12VAC5-217-70, shall be waived by the board. 
    12VAC5-217-90. Waiver or reduction of fee. (Repealed.)  
    If a hospital submits processed, verified patient level  data to the nonprofit organization, the nonprofit organization may, in its  discretion, grant a waiver or reduction of the fee if it determines that the  hospital has submitted properly processed, verified data. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-3632; Filed November 13, 2015, 2:44 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-407. Procedures for the  Submission of Health Maintenance Organization Quality of Care Performance  Information (amending 12VAC5-407-10, 12VAC5-407-50 through  12VAC5-407-100; repealing 12VAC5-407-30, 12VAC5-407-40, 12VAC5-407-120). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-276.5 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Effective Date: February 1, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Debbie Condrey, Chief Information  Officer, Department of Health, 109 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219,  telephone (804) 864-7118, FAX (804) 864-7156, or email  debbie.condrey@vdh.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The regulation is promulgated under the authority  of §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-276.5 of the Code of Virginia. Section 32.1-12  grants the board the legal authority "to make, adopt, promulgate, and  enforce such regulations necessary to carry out the provisions" of Title  32.1 of the Code of Virginia. Subsection B of § 32.1-276.5 requires health  maintenance organizations (HMOs) to submit annually to the Commissioner of  Health audited data consistent with the latest version of the Health Employer  Data and Information Set (HEDIS) as collected by the National Committee for  Quality Assurance (NCQA). Subsection B of § 32.1-276.5 requires that the  board promulgate regulations to implement this requirement. 
    Purpose: To fulfill the statutory mandate to review  regulations and to protect the citizens of the Commonwealth, the department  conducted a periodic review of 12VAC5-407, "Procedures for the Submission  of Health Maintenance Organization Quality of Care Performance  Information" pursuant to Executive Order 14 (2010). As a result of this  review, the department determined it was necessary to use the regulatory  process to amend these regulations. The amendments are essential to protect the  health, safety, and welfare of citizens because they enhance the clarity of the  regulations in order to achieve improvements that will be reasonable and  prudent and will not impose an unnecessary burden on the Virginia Department of  Health or the public.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: These amendments  simply clarify confusing language, eliminate unnecessary sections within the  existing regulations, and correct the statutory authority for the chapter. This  regulatory action does not propose any substantive changes. These amendments  have also been created with input from stakeholders. Therefore, the department  does not expect that this regulatory action will be controversial.
    Substance: 
    12VAC5-407-10. Definitions -- Remove the unnecessary definition  of "Code." Correct the definitions of "HEDIS" and  "Nonprofit Organization." 
    12VAC5-407-30 Reporting requirements for HMO -- Remove an  unnecessary section.
    12VAC5-407-40 Exceptions to HEDIS reporting -- Remove an  unnecessary section.
    12VAC5-407-50 Reporting methods and exemption from reporting --  Restructure the section for improved clarity. 
    12VAC5-407-60 Audited data required -- Change the section into  active voice and remove unnecessary language from the section. 
    12VAC5-407-70 Process for data submission -- Clarify language. 
    12VAC-407-80 Fees -- Clarify language and update terminology. 
    12VAC5-407-90 Late charge -- Change terminology for consistency  across the regulations. 
    12VAC5-407-100 Duties of the nonprofit organization -- Clarify  language. 
    12VAC5-407-120 Other duties of the board -- Remove an  unnecessary section.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the agency, the  Commonwealth, and the public of the proposed regulatory action will be clearer  and less burdensome regulations. There are no known disadvantages to the  agency, the Commonwealth, or the public.
    Small Business Impact Review Report of Findings:   This regulatory action serves as the report of the findings of the regulatory  review pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State  Board of Health (Board) proposes to: 1) update definitions, 2) amend language  to improve clarity, and 3) remove obsolete language.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Code of Virginia § 32.1-276.5 (B)  requires health maintenance organizations (HMOs) to annually submit audited  data to the State Health Commissioner and the Board to promulgate regulation to  implement this requirement. The Regulations for the Submission of Health  Maintenance Organization Quality of Care Performance Information are such  regulation.
    None of the Board's proposed amendments change requirements in  practice. Proposed language changes will enable readers of the regulation to  more accurately understand requirements in practice. Thus the proposed  amendments will likely produce a small net benefit.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments  pertain to the 10 HMOs with active licenses to operate in the Commonwealth of  Virginia. None of these firms are small businesses.1
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do not  disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments will  not affect employment. 
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendments will not significantly affect the use and value of private property.  
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  amendments will not significantly affect small businesses. 
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed amendments will not significantly affect small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments will not  affect real estate development costs.
    _____________________________
    1 Data source: Virginia Department of Health
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Virginia Department of Health concurs with the findings of the economic impact  analysis.
    Summary:
    The amendments clarify and simplify the regulation, update  definitions and titles, and eliminate three unnecessary sections.
    Part I 
  Definitions and General Information 
    12VAC5-407-10. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Board" means State Board of Health. 
    "Code" means the Code of Virginia. 
    "Commissioner" means the State Health Commissioner.  
    "Consumer" means any person (i) whose occupation is  other than the administration of health activities or the provision of health  services,; (ii) who has no fiduciary obligation to a health care  institution or other health agency or to any organization, public or private,  whose principal activity is an adjunct to the provision of health services,;  or (iii) who has no material financial interest in the rendering of health  services. 
    "Department" means the State Virginia  Department of Health. 
    "Health maintenance organization" or  "HMO" means any person who undertakes to provide or to arrange for  one or more health care plans pursuant to Chapter 43 (§ 38.2-4300 et seq.) of  Title 38.2 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "HEDIS" means the Health Plan Employer Data  and Information Set, also known as the Healthcare Effectiveness Data and  Information Set, a set of standardized performance measures sponsored,  supported collected and maintained by the National Committee for  Quality Assurance. 
    "NCQA" means the National Committee for Quality  Assurance. 
    "Nonprofit organization" means a nonprofit,  tax-exempt health data organization with the characteristics, expertise, and  capacity to execute the powers and duties set forth for such entity in this  chapter Chapter 7.2 (§ 32.1-276.2 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of  Virginia and that enters into a contract for the compilation, storage,  analysis, and evaluation of data pursuant to Chapter 7.2 of Title 32.1.
    Part II 
  Quality of Care Data Reporting 
    12VAC5-407-30. Reporting requirements for HMO data. (Repealed.)  
    A. Every HMO shall make available to the commissioner  those HEDIS or any other quality of care or performance information set, or a  subset thereof. 
    B. The board may contract directly with NCQA to purchase  the selected HEDIS measures on behalf of the HMOs. 
    12VAC5-407-40. Exception to HEDIS reporting. (Repealed.)  
    A. The board may approve and require quality of care data  other than the HEDIS measures provided that reasonable notice is given to the  HMOs in writing. 
    12VAC5-407-50. Reporting methods and exemption from  reporting. 
    A. Every HMO with an active license in the Commonwealth shall  be required to submit the HEDIS or any other quality of care or performance  information set approved by the board unless granted a written exemption by the  commissioner. 
    B. The following methods shall be used for data  submission: 
    1. If the HMO submits data to NCQA, the commissioner may  purchase HEDIS data or any other quality of care or performance information set  from NCQA. 
    2. If the HMO does not submit data to NCQA, or the  commissioner elects not to purchase HEDIS data from the NCQA, then the HMO  shall submit the performance information sets approved by the board to the  nonprofit organization in accordance with the timeframes established in  12VAC5-407-70. 
    B. C. An HMO may, in writing, petition the  commissioner for an exemption. The commissioner, at his discretion, may grant a  waiver from reporting the HEDIS or any other approved quality of care or  performance information set. In considering a petition for waiver, the  commissioner may give due consideration to the HMO's (i) sample size; (ii)  number of covered lives; (iii) length of operating experience in Virginia; (iv)  accreditation status with respect to NCQA or other national accrediting  organizations; or (v) any other relevant factors he deems appropriate. 
    C. D. An HMO that can demonstrate that it does  not meet NCQA's minimum sample size requirements to collect statistically valid  information on at least 50% of the HEDIS effectiveness of care measures or  performance information sets approved by the board shall be exempt from reporting  the HEDIS quality of care or performance sets during the reporting period. The  HMO shall submit documentation to the commissioner each reporting period to  demonstrate that it meets the criteria for obtaining an exemption from  reporting. 
    D. Options for data submission. 
    1. The commissioner may purchase HEDIS data or any other  quality of care or performance information set from NCQA that includes all HMOs  operating in the Commonwealth that submit HEDIS data to NCQA. 
    2. HMOs that do not submit data directly to NCQA must  submit the performance information sets approved by the board to the nonprofit  organization in accordance with the timeframes established in 12VAC5-407-70. 
    3. If the budget pursuant to 12VAC5-407-100 E includes a  cost benefit for direct submission of HEDIS data or any other quality of care  or performance information set, the commissioner may thereafter require direct  submission. 
    12VAC5-407-60. Audited data required. 
    A. Data submitted by HMOs is required to be shall  submit HEDIS or other quality of care or performance information set approved  by the board that has been verified by an independent auditing organization  with no financial interest in or managerial association with the HMO. The  HMO shall submit an audit report with the data. 
    B. HMOs whose performance information set is audited by an  NCQA-certified HEDIS compliance auditor will have a notice to that effect  published with their HEDIS data. 
    C. HMOs whose performance information set is not audited  by NCQA-certified auditors will have a notice to that effect published with  their HEDIS data. 
    12VAC5-407-70. Process for data submission. 
    A. Before January 1 of each year, the commissioner shall  submit to each HMO in writing the process required for data submission, obtaining  a waiver from reporting and the amount of the fee to be paid the fee  associated with data submission, and the process for obtaining a waiver.  HMOs providing HEDIS or any other quality of care or performance information  set directly to the commissioner nonprofit organization shall  submit the data by September 15 of each year. 
    B. The nonprofit organization board shall direct  the nonprofit organization to publish annually the quality information data  before December 31. 
    12VAC5-407-80. Fees. 
    A. For each HMO required to provide information pursuant to  this chapter, the board shall prescribe a reasonable fee to cover the cost of  collecting and making available such data. The commissioner may purchase HEDIS  data or other quality of care or performance information set on behalf of all  the actively licensed HMOs in the Commonwealth that are participating in HEDIS  and divide the cost among the HMOs. Each HMO shall pay an equal share of the  cost to the board for purchase of the HEDIS data directly from NCQA. The  remainder of the cost associated with making the data available shall be  divided among the participating HMOs in a tiered format based on the number of  enrollees per HMO. 
    B. Fees described in subsection A of this section shall not  exceed $3,000 per HMO per year. 
    C. The payment of such fees shall be on September 15 of each  year or later if determined by an agreement between the board and the  nonprofit organization. The nonprofit organization providing services  pursuant to an agreement or contract as provided in § 32.1-276.4 of the Code of  Virginia shall be authorized to charge and collect the fees prescribed by  the board in subsection A of  this section when the data are  provided directly to the nonprofit organization. Such fees shall not exceed the  amount authorized by the board. 
    D. The nonprofit organization providing services pursuant  to an agreement or contract as provided in § 32.1-276.4 of the Code of Virginia  shall be authorized to charge and collect reasonable fees approved by the board  for making available to any individual or entity who requests the HEDIS  data or other approved quality of care data; however, the commissioner, the  State Corporation Commission, and the Commissioner of Mental Health, Mental  Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services shall be entitled to receive relevant and  appropriate data from the nonprofit organization at no charge. 
    E. HMOs shall be entitled to receive relevant and  appropriate HMO data as defined by and from the nonprofit organization, with  input from the HMO industry at no charge. The board shall direct the  nonprofit organization to solicit input from the HMO industry to determine  relevant and appropriate data that the industry shall receive at no charge.
    12VAC5-407-90. Late charge. 
    A. A late charge of $25 per working day shall be paid to the  board by an HMO that has not received an exemption from the commissioner as  provided for in 12VAC5-407-50 and that has not paid the assessed fees by  September 15 or later if determined by an agreement between the board and  the nonprofit. The late fee charge may not be assessed until  completion of a 30-day grace period for submitting the data. 
    B. Late charges may be waived by the board, in its  discretion, if an HMO can show that an extenuating circumstance exists.  Examples of an extenuating circumstance may include, but are not limited to,  the installation of a new computerized system, a bankruptcy proceeding, or  change of ownership in the HMO. 
    Part III 
  Duties of the Board and the Nonprofit Organization 
    12VAC5-407-100. Contract with Duties of the  nonprofit organization. 
    The contract entered into by the board and the nonprofit  organization pursuant to Chapter 7.2 (§ 32.1-276.2 et seq.) of Title 32.1  of the Code of Virginia shall provide: 
    A. The commissioner shall negotiate and contract with a  nonprofit organization pursuant to § 32.1-276.4 of the Code of Virginia for  compiling, storing, and making 1. The nonprofit organization shall  compile, store, and make available to consumers the data submitted by HMOs pursuant  to 12VAC5-407-30 and 12VAC5-407-40. 
    B. 2. The nonprofit organization shall assist  the board in developing a summary plan and budget to collect and make available  HMO HEDIS or any other quality of care performance information set results for  consumers. The nonprofit organization shall present the summary plan and budget  on a biennial basis to the board for approval. The commissioner, at his  discretion, shall also review the summary plan on a periodic basis to determine  its effectiveness. 
    C. 3. The nonprofit organization shall collect  the HEDIS data in the most cost-effective manner available. 
    D. 4. The nonprofit organization will shall  prepare a biennial summary plan in identifying the measures selected for  reporting. The summary plan shall include: 
    1. a. The rationale for selecting each measure  to be made available to consumers; 
    2. b. The goal of reporting each measure; 
    3. c. The cost and benefit of collecting the  measures and making them available to consumers; and 
    4. d. The scope of dissemination of information  in paper or electronic format and the target audience. 
    E. 5. The nonprofit organization shall prepare a  biennial budget that includes a cost-benefit analysis of purchasing HEDIS data from  NCQA or obtaining the information performance sets directly from the HMOs. 
    F. 6. The nonprofit organization will shall  present the summary plan and budget to the board for review and approval on a  biennial basis. 
    G. 7. The nonprofit organization shall organize,  present, and make available to consumers all data required by the board  to be reported to the commissioner. This data shall also be available on the  nonprofit's website.
    12VAC5-407-120. Other duties of the board. (Repealed.)
    The board shall (i) maintain records of its activities  relating to the dissemination of data reported by HMOs and (ii) collect and  account for all fees, as described in this chapter, and deposit the moneys so  collected into a special fund from which the expenses attributed to this  chapter shall be paid. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-3763; Filed November 13, 2015, 2:46 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Emergency Regulation
    Title of Regulation:  12VAC30-40. Eligibility Conditions and Requirements (amending 12VAC30-40-290; adding  12VAC30-40-370). 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325  of the Code of Virginia; 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
    Effective Dates: November 23, 2015, through May 22,  2017.
    Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,  Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad  Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)  786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
    Preamble:
    Section 2.2-4011 of the Code of Virginia states that  agencies may adopt emergency regulations in situations in which Virginia  statutory law or the appropriation act requires that a regulation be effective  in 280 days or less from its enactment, and the regulation is not exempt under  the provisions of § 2.2-4006 A 4. Item 307 T of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of  the Assembly included such an enactment clause and directed the agency to  modify its Medicaid eligibility regulations to permit persons who were  involuntarily sterilized to retain their compensation without the compensation  affecting their eligibility.  
    This emergency regulation requires that payments made to  compensate individuals who were involuntarily sterilized pursuant to the  Virginia Eugenical Sterilization Act and who are living as of February 1, 2015,  (i) are disregarded for the purpose of Medicaid eligibility determinations and  (ii) increase the basic personal needs allowance. 
    12VAC30-40-290. More liberal methods of treating resources  under § 1902(r)(2) of the Act: § 1902(f) states.
    A. Resources to meet burial expenses. Resources set aside to  meet the burial expenses of an applicant/recipient or that individual's spouse  are excluded from countable assets. In determining eligibility for benefits for  individuals, disregarded from countable resources is an amount not in excess of  $3,500 for the individual and an amount not in excess of $3,500 for his spouse  when such resources have been set aside to meet the burial expenses of the individual  or his spouse. The amount disregarded shall be reduced by:
    1. The face value of life insurance on the life of an  individual owned by the individual or his spouse if the cash surrender value of  such policies has been excluded from countable resources; and
    2. The amount of any other revocable or irrevocable trust,  contract, or other arrangement specifically designated for the purpose of  meeting the individual's or his spouse's burial expenses.
    B. Cemetery plots. Cemetery plots are not counted as resources  regardless of the number owned.
    C. Life rights. Life rights to real property are not counted  as a resource. The purchase of a life right in another individual's home is  subject to transfer of asset rules. See 12VAC30-40-300.
    D. Reasonable effort to sell.
    1. For purposes of this section, "current market  value" is defined as the current tax assessed value. If the property is  listed by a realtor, then the realtor may list it at an amount higher than the  tax assessed value. In no event, however, shall the realtor's list price exceed  150% of the assessed value.
    2. A reasonable effort to sell is considered to have been  made:
    a. As of the date the property becomes subject to a realtor's  listing agreement if:
    (1) It is listed at a price at current market value; and
    (2) The listing realtor verifies that it is unlikely to sell  within 90 days of listing given the particular circumstances involved (e.g.,  owner's fractional interest; zoning restrictions; poor topography; absence of  road frontage or access; absence of improvements; clouds on title, right of way  or easement; local market conditions); or
    b. When at least two realtors refuse to list the property. The  reason for refusal must be that the property is unsaleable at current market  value. Other reasons for refusal are not sufficient; or
    c. When the applicant has personally advertised his property  at or below current market value for 90 days by use of a "Sale By  Owner" sign located on the property and by other reasonable efforts, such  as newspaper advertisements, or reasonable inquiries with all adjoining  landowners or other potential interested purchasers.
    3. Notwithstanding the fact that the recipient made a  reasonable effort to sell the property and failed to sell it, and although the  recipient has become eligible, the recipient must make a continuing reasonable  effort to sell by:
    a. Repeatedly renewing any initial listing agreement until the  property is sold. If the list price was initially higher than the tax-assessed  value, the listed sales price must be reduced after 12 months to no more than  100% of the tax-assessed value.
    b. In the case where at least two realtors have refused to  list the property, the recipient must personally try to sell the property by  efforts described in subdivision 2 c of this subsection for 12 months.
    c. In the case of a recipient who has personally advertised  his property for a year without success (the newspaper advertisements and  "for sale" sign do not have to be continuous; these efforts must be  done for at least 90 days within a 12-month period), the recipient must then:
    (1) Subject his property to a realtor's listing agreement at  price or below current market value; or
    (2) Meet the requirements of subdivision 2 b of this  subsection which are that the recipient must try to list the property and at  least two realtors refuse to list it because it is unsaleable at current market  value; other reasons for refusal to list are not sufficient.
    4. If the recipient has made a continuing effort to sell the  property for 12 months, then the recipient may sell the property between 75%  and 100% of its tax assessed value and such sale shall not result in  disqualification under the transfer of property rules. If the recipient  requests to sell his property at less than 75% of assessed value, he must submit  documentation from the listing realtor, or knowledgeable source if the property  is not listed with a realtor, that the requested sale price is the best price  the recipient can expect to receive for the property at this time. Sale at such  a documented price shall not result in disqualification under the transfer of  property rules. The proceeds of the sale will be counted as a resource in  determining continuing eligibility.
    5. Once the applicant has demonstrated that his property is  unsaleable by following the procedures in subdivision 2 of this subsection, the  property is disregarded in determining eligibility starting the first day of  the month in which the most recent application was filed, or up to three months  prior to this month of application if retroactive coverage is requested and the  applicant met all other eligibility requirements in the period. A recipient  must continue his reasonable efforts to sell the property as required in  subdivision 3 of this subsection.
    E. Automobiles. Ownership of one motor vehicle does not  affect eligibility. If more than one vehicle is owned, the individual's equity  in the least valuable vehicle or vehicles must be counted. The value of the  vehicles is the wholesale value listed in the National Automobile Dealers Official  Used Car Guide (NADA) Book, Eastern Edition (update monthly). In the event the  vehicle is not listed, the value assessed by the locality for tax purposes may  be used. The value of the additional motor vehicles is to be counted in  relation to the amount of assets that could be liquidated that may be retained.
    F. Life, retirement, and other related types of insurance  policies. Life, retirement, and other related types of insurance policies with  face values totaling $1,500 or less on any one person 21 years old and over are  not considered resources. When the face values of such policies of any one  person exceeds $1,500, the cash surrender value of the policies is counted as a  resource.
    G. Long-term care partnership insurance policy (partnership  policy). Resources equal to the amount of benefits paid on the insured's behalf  by the long-term care insurer through a Virginia issued long-term care  partnership insurance policy shall be disregarded. A long-term care partnership  insurance policy shall meet the following requirements:
    1. The policy is a qualified long-term care partnership  insurance policy as defined in § 7702B(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
    2. The policy meets the requirements of the National  Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) Long-Term Care Insurance Model  Regulation and Long-Term Care Insurance Model Act as those requirements are set  forth in § 1917(b)(5)(A) of the Social Security Act (42 USC § 1396p).
    3. The policy was issued no earlier than May 1, 2007.
    4. The insured individual was a resident of a partnership  state when coverage first became effective under the policy. If the policy is  later exchanged for a different long-term care policy, the individual was a  resident of a partnership state when coverage under the earliest policy became  effective.
    5. The policy meets the inflation protection requirements set  forth in § 1917(b)(1)(C)(iii)(IV) of the Social Security Act.
    6. The Insurance Commissioner requires the issuer of the  partnership policy to make regular reports to the federal Secretary of Health  and Human Services that include notification of the date benefits provided  under the policy were paid and the amount paid, the date the policy terminates,  and such other information as the secretary determines may be appropriate to  the administration of such partnerships. Such information shall also be made  available to the Department of Medical Assistance Services upon request. 
    7. The state does not impose any requirement affecting the  terms or benefits of a partnership policy that the state does not also impose  on nonpartnership policies.
    8. The policy meets all the requirements of the Bureau of  Insurance of the State Corporation Commission described in 14VAC5-200.
    H. Reserved.
    I. Resource exemption for Aid to Dependent Children  categorically and medically needy (the Act §§ 1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(III),  (IV), (VI), (VII); §§ 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII), (IX); §  1902(a)(10)(C)(i)(III)). For ADC-related cases, both categorically and  medically needy, any individual or family applying for or receiving assistance  may have or establish one interest-bearing savings or investment account per  assistance unit not to exceed $5,000 if the applicant, applicants, recipient or  recipients designate that the account is reserved for purposes related to self-sufficiency.  Any funds deposited in the account shall be exempt when determining eligibility  for medical assistance for so long as the funds and interest remain on deposit  in the account. Any amounts withdrawn and used for purposes related to  self-sufficiency shall be exempt. For purposes of this section, purposes  related to self-sufficiency shall include, but are not limited to, (i) paying  for tuition, books, and incidental expenses at any elementary, secondary, or  vocational school, or any college or university; (ii) for making down payment  on a primary residence; or (iii) for establishment of a commercial operation  that is owned by a member of the medical assistance unit.
    J. Disregard of resources. The Commonwealth of Virginia will  disregard all resources for qualified children covered under  §§ 1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(I), 1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(III), 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII),  and 1905(n) of the Social Security Act.
    K. Household goods and personal effects. The Commonwealth of  Virginia will disregard the value of household goods and personal effects.  Household goods are items of personal property customarily found in the home  and used in connection with the maintenance, use and occupancy of the premises  as a home. Examples of household goods are furniture, appliances, televisions,  carpets, cooking and eating utensils and dishes. Personal effects are items of  personal property that are worn or carried by an individual or that have an  intimate relation to the individual. Examples of personal property include  clothing, jewelry, personal care items, prosthetic devices and educational or  recreational items such as books, musical instruments, or hobby materials.
    L. Determining eligibility based on resources. When  determining Medicaid eligibility, an individual shall be eligible in a month if  his countable resources were at or below the resource standard on any day of  such month.
    M. Working individuals with disabilities eligible for  assistance under § 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV) of the Act who wish to increase  their personal resources while maintaining eligibility for Medicaid shall  establish Work Incentive (WIN) accounts. The Commonwealth will disregard up to  the current annual SSI (Social Security Act, § 1619(b)) threshold amount  (as established for Virginia by the Social Security Administration) held in WIN  accounts for workers with disabilities eligible for assistance under  § 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV) of the Act. To be eligible for this resource  disregard, WIN accounts are subject to the following provisions:
    1. Deposits to this account shall derive solely from the  individual's income earned after electing to enroll in the Medicaid Buy-In  (MBI) program.
    2. The balance of this account shall not exceed the current  annual SSI (Social Security Act § 1619(b)) threshold amount (as established  for Virginia by the Social Security Administration).
    3. This account will be held separate from nonexempt resources  in accounts for which prior approval has been obtained from the department, and  for which the owner authorizes regular monitoring and reporting including  deposits, withdrawals, and other information deemed necessary by the department  for the proper administration of this provision.
    4. A spouse's resources will not be deemed to the applicant  when determining whether or not the individual meets the financial eligibility  requirements for eligibility under this section.
    5. Resources accumulated in the Work Incentive account shall  be disregarded in determining eligibility for aged, blind, and disabled  Medicaid-covered groups for one year after the individual leaves the Medicaid  Buy-In program.
    6. In addition, excluded from the resource and asset limit  include amounts deposited in the following types of IRS-approved accounts  established as WIN accounts: retirement accounts, medical savings accounts,  medical reimbursement accounts, education accounts and independence accounts.  Assets retained in these WIN accounts shall be disregarded for all future  Medicaid eligibility determinations for aged, blind, or disabled  Medicaid-covered groups.
    N. For all aged, blind, or disabled individuals, both  categorically needy and medically needy, the Commonwealth shall disregard as  resources amounts received as payment for involuntary sterilization under the  Virginia Eugenical Sterilization Act, beyond the allowable nine-month exclusion  by the SSI program's resource methodologies. 
    12VAC30-40-370. Variations from the basic personal needs  allowance.
    For victims of Virginia's eugenical program, the  Commonwealth shall, in addition to the basic personal needs allowance (PNA),  increase the basic PNA by amounts received as payments for involuntary  sterilization under the Virginia Eugenical Sterilization Act. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4351; Filed November 23, 2015, 10:36 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration,  and Scope of Medical and Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-190).
    12VAC30-141. Family Access to Medical Insurance Security  Plan (amending 12VAC30-141-820). 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of  Virginia; 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory  Coordinator, Department of Medical Assistance Services, Policy Division, 600  East Broad Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-6043,  FAX (804) 786-1680, TTY (800) 343-0634, or email  victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia grants  to the Board of Medical Assistance Services the authority to administer and  amend the Plan for Medical Assistance. Section 32.1-324 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS)  to administer and amend the Plan for Medical Assistance according to the  board's requirements. The Medicaid authority as established by § 1902(a)  of the Social Security Act (42 USC § 1396a) provides governing authority  for payments for services.
    In addition, Item 301 LLLL 2 of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts  of Assembly provides that "The Department of Medical Assistance Services  is authorized to amend the State Plan under Title XIX of the Social Security  Act to add coverage for comprehensive dental services to pregnant women  receiving services under the Medicaid program to include: (i) diagnostic, (ii)  preventive, (iii) restorative, (iv) endodontics, (v) periodontics, (vi)  prosthodontics both removable and fixed, (vii) oral surgery, and (viii)  adjunctive general services." An emergency regulation for this purpose is  currently in effect. This proposed regulation would replace the emergency  regulation.
    Purpose: Prior to this action, only those individuals  covered through the Family Access to Medical Insurance Security Plan (FAMIS) or  those younger than the age of 21 years who were covered through Medicaid were  provided dental services. Dental emergency coverage for adults was also  provided. Services are provided to individuals younger than 21 years of age as  long as they are routine diagnostic, preventive, or restorative procedures  necessary for oral health provided by or under the direct supervision of a  dentist in accordance with the State Dental Practice Act.
    Due to the need of pregnant women to receive dental care, the  Governor approved emergency regulations to provide dental care for about 45,000  adult pregnant women enrolled in Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS who already receive  publicly funded Medicaid/FAMIS MOMS health care services. This action seeks to  utilize the authority granted by the Governor to make permanent the dental  services regulation to allow the department to continue to carry out the  Governor's directive.
    Substance: In the past, DMAS covered routine dental  services through the Smiles for Children (SFC) program only for individuals  younger than 21 years of age. Dental services are required by the FAMIS program  (12VAC30-141-500 and 12VAC30-141-830) and by the Early and Periodic Screening,  Diagnosis, and Treatment (EPSDT) Program (42 CFR 440.40(b) and  12VAC30-50-40 B). The covered services are diagnostic x-rays and exams;  preventive cleanings; restorative fillings; endodontics (root canals);  periodontics (gum-related treatments); prosthodontics, both removable and fixed  (crowns, bridges, partials, and dentures); orthodontia; oral surgery  (extractions and other oral surgeries); and adjunctive general services (all covered  services that do not fall into specific professional categories). DMAS also  covers emergency dental care, with the associated diagnostic tests, for adults.  
    Control of dental disease during pregnancy has been shown to  have positive effect on a pregnancy's outcome. Both the American Congress of  Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) and the American Dental Association  (ADA) have published position papers supporting the need for and safety of oral  health care during pregnancy.
    In furtherance of the Governor's Healthy Virginia Plan, DMAS is  working in concert with its dental benefits administrator, DentaQuest, to  design an oral health program for adult pregnant women who are enrolled in  Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS. The service categories are inclusive of those provided  in Virginia's Smiles for Children (SFC) program and, in comparison, are similar  in scope to dental services available through the Virginia Department of Human  Resources dental benefits for state employees, with the exception of  orthodontia services, which will not be covered. 
    Services for adult pregnant women will include the following  when deemed medically appropriate: diagnostic x-rays and exams; preventive  cleanings; restorative fillings; endodontics (root canals); periodontics  (gum-related treatment); prosthodontics, both removable and fixed (crowns,  bridges, partials, and dentures); oral surgery (extractions and other oral  surgeries); and adjunctive general services (all covered services that do not  fall into specific professional categories). The appropriateness of particular  services for an individual pregnant woman will be determined by the dental  provider based on the term of the woman's pregnancy.
    DMAS estimates that approximately 45,000 adult pregnant women  will be eligible for this service. Based on the average per individual  expenditure for dental services, DMAS estimates that this new coverage may cost  approximately $600,000 in state fiscal year (SFY) 2015 (beginning March 1,  2015) and $3.2 million in SFY 2016. The funds for this service derive from  the state general fund and federal matching funds claimed by DMAS.
    Issues: Control of dental disease during and after  pregnancies may have a positive effect on the overall health of mothers and  infants. The advantages to indigent pregnant women will be the availability of  dental services. The advantage to the Commonwealth and citizens will be the  improved health outcomes with the related cost savings. The disadvantage is a  slight increase in Commonwealth expenditures. However, this cost is partially  offset by the matching funds received from the Centers for Medicare and  Medicaid Services.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to  the 2015 Acts of Assembly, Chapter 6651, Item 301 LLLL(2), the Board  of Medical Assistance Services (Board) proposes to add adult pregnant women to  the individuals eligible to receive full dental services (excluding  orthodontia) through Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS. An emergency regulation for this purpose  is currently in effect. This proposed regulation would replace the emergency  regulation.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Prior to the legislation and  emergency regulation, the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) only  covered comprehensive dental services including orthodontia (12VAC30-50-190 and  42 CFR 440.100) for individuals under the age of 19 who were covered  through the Family Access to Medical Insurance Security (FAMIS) plan and for  individuals up to the age of 21 as a required element of the Early and Periodic  Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment program (12VAC30-50-130(B) and 42 CFR  440.40(b)). Only emergency dental care with the associated diagnostic tests was  covered for adults (ages 21 and older). The Board proposes to cover dental  care, excluding orthodontia, for adult pregnant women enrolled in Medicaid and  FAMIS MOMS.
    Peer-reviewed studies have found that improved oral health  during pregnancy decreases transmission of potentially cariogenic bacteria to  infants.2 Both the American Congress of Obstetricians and  Gynecologists3 and the American Dental Association4 have  published position papers supporting the need for and safety of oral health  care during pregnancy. Thus, providing dental services through Medicaid for  adult pregnant women will provide significant health benefits for both the  women and their babies.
    DMAS calculates that approximately 45,000 adult women are  pregnant and enrolled in Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS at any point within a year.  The agency also estimates that the state share of the costs of this program  would be approximately $1.6 million for fiscal year 2016. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendment  affects dental practices, the dental benefits administrator DentaQuest, and the  approximate 45,000 women who are pregnant and enrolled in Medicaid and FAMIS  MOMS at any point within a year.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendment does  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendment may  moderately increase staffing needs for dental practices. 
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendment will create additional business for dental practices.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendment will not  affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of  the Code of Virginia, small business is defined as "a business entity,  including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii)  employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less  than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendment is unlikely to  increase costs for small businesses.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed  amendment will not adversely affect small businesses.
    Adverse Impacts: Businesses: The proposed amendment will not  adversely affect businesses.
    Localities: The proposed amendment will not adversely affect  localities.
    Other Entities: The proposed amendment will cost the  Commonwealth (taxpayers) approximately $1.6 million annually.
    ____________________________________________
    1This is the 2015 Appropriation Act.
    2Meyer K, Geurtsen W, Gunay H. "An early oral  health care program starting during pregnancy: results of a prospective  clinical long-term study." Clin Oral Investig 2010;14:257–64.
    Gomez SS,Weber AA.  "Effectiveness of a caries preventive program in pregnant women and new  mothers on their offspring." Int J Paediatr Dent 2001;11:117–22.
    Kohler B, Andreen I, Jonsson B.  "The effect of caries-preventive measures in mothers on dental caries and  the oral presence of the bacteria Streptococcus mutans and lactobacilli in  their children." Arch Oral Biol 1984;29:879–83.
    3"Oral health care during pregnancy and through the  lifespan." Committee Opinion No. 569. American College of Obstetricians  and Gynecologists. Obstet Gynecol 2013;122:417–22.
    4"Pregnant dental patients: Health groups spread word  that dental care is safe, necessary." American Dental Association. ADA  News May 20, 2013.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of  Planning and Budget regarding the regulations concerning Dental Services for  Pregnant Women. The agency raises no issues with this analysis. 
    Summary:
    Pursuant to Item 301 LLLL 2 of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts  of Assembly, the proposed amendments add adult pregnant women to the individuals  eligible to receive full dental services, excluding orthodontia, through  Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS. 
    12VAC30-50-190. Dental services. 
    A. Dental services are limited to recipients under shall  be covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age in fulfillment of  the treatment requirements under the Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis,  and Treatment (EPSDT) Program and defined as routine diagnostic, preventive, or  restorative procedures necessary for oral health provided by or under the  direct supervision of a dentist in accordance with the State Dental Practice  Act. 
    1. The state agency will provide any medically necessary  dental service to individuals younger than 21 years of age.
    B. 2. Certain dental services, as  described in the agency's Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children, copyright  2005) March 13, 2014), prepared by DMAS' dental benefits  administrator, require preauthorization or prepayment review by the state  agency or its designee. 
    3. Dental services for individuals younger than the age of  21 years that do not require preauthorization or prepayment review are initial,  periodic, and emergency examinations; required radiography necessary to develop  a treatment plan; patient education; dental prophylaxis; fluoride treatments;  routine amalgam and composite restorations; stainless steel crowns,  prefabricated steel post and temporary (polycarbonate crowns) and stainless  steel bands; crown recementation; pulpotomies; emergency endodontics for  temporary relief of pain; pulp capping; sedative fillings; therapeutic apical  closure; topical palliative treatment for dental pain; removal of foreign body;  simple extractions; root recovery; incision and drainage of abscess; surgical  exposure of the tooth to aid eruption; sequestrectomy for osteomyelitis; and  oral antral fistula closure. 
    C. B. Dental services determined by the  dental provider to be medically appropriate for an adult woman during the term  of her pregnancy and through the end of the month following the 60th day  postpartum shall be provided to a Medicaid-enrolled pregnant woman. The dental  services that shall be covered are (i) diagnostic x-rays and exams; (ii)  preventive cleanings; (iii) restorative fillings; (iv) endodontics (root  canals); (v) periodontics (gum-related treatments); (vi) prosthodontics, both  removable and fixed (crowns, bridges, partial plates, and dentures); (vii) oral  surgery (tooth extractions and other oral surgeries); and (viii) adjunctive  general services (all covered services that do not fall into specific professional  categories). These services require prepayment review by the state agency or  its designee.
    C. The For the dental services covered for  Medicaid-enrolled adult pregnant women, the state agency may place  appropriate limits on a service based on medical necessity, for utilization  control, or both. Examples of service limitations are: examinations,  prophylaxis, fluoride treatment (once/six months); space maintenance  appliances; bitewing x-ray—two films (once/12 months); routine amalgam and  composite restorations (once/three years); dentures (once/five years);  extractions, orthodontics, tooth guidance appliances, permanent crowns  and bridges, endodontics, patient education and sealants (once). 
    D. Limited oral surgery procedures, as defined and covered  under Title XVIII (Medicare), are covered for all recipients, and require  preauthorization or prepayment review by the state agency or its designee as  described in the agency's Office Reference Manual located on the DMAS website  at: (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf)  http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf.
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE  (12VAC30-50) 
    Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth  Edition DSM-IV-TR, copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
    Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,  1996, HCIA, Inc.
    Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,  American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and  Gynecologists
    Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and  Addenda
    Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by  DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2005  (www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf).  
    Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by  DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2010, dated March 13, 2014 (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf)
    Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of  Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,  American Society of Addiction Medicine
    Virginia  Medicaid Durable Medical Equipment and Supplies Provider Manual, Appendix B  (rev. 1/11), Department of Medical Assistance Services
    Human  Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, Department of  Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (rev. 5/13)
    12VAC30-141-820. Benefit packages. 
    Pregnant women covered through FAMIS MOMS may receive the  same medical and dental services and are subject to the same limitations  on services as pregnant women (see 12VAC30-50-190) covered by the  Medicaid program as defined in 12VAC30-10-140 and 12VAC30-50-10. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4215; Filed November 13, 2015, 12:28 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC30-80. Methods and  Standards for Establishing Payment Rates; Other Types of Care (amending 12VAC30-80-30, 12VAC30-80-300). 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of  Virginia; 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Effective Date: January 29, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,  Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad Street, Suite 1300,  Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804) 786-1680, or email  emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia grants  the Board of Medical Assistance Services the authority to administer and amend  the State Plan for Medical Assistance. Section 32.1-324 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS)  to administer and amend the State Plan for Medical Assistance according to the  board's requirements. The Medicaid authority as established by § 1902(a)  of the Social Security Act (42 USC § 1396a) provides governing authority  for payments for services.
    In addition, Item 301 B 4 of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of  Assembly states that "the department shall have the authority to amend the  State Plan for Medical Assistance to increase physician supplemental payments  for physician practice plans affiliated with Type One hospitals up to the average  commercial rates as demonstrated by University of Virginia Health System and  Virginia Commonwealth University Health System..."
    Purpose: The purpose of this action is to revise the  maximum reimbursement to 201% of the Medicare rate for Type I physicians, based  on updated information on the average commercial rate furnished by state  academic health systems. This regulatory action is essential to protect the  health, safety, and welfare of citizens by maintaining funding for Medicaid and  indigent care costs at state academic health centers, and thereby helping to  ensure that these facilities remain open and continue to provide this care.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: This proposed  regulatory change is being promulgated through the fast-track rulemaking  process because it is expected to be noncontroversial. DMAS consulted with the  affected providers, who are satisfied with supplemental payment calculation and  methodology. Therefore, no opposition is expected as a result of this  fast-track regulatory action.
    Substance: Supplemental payments to Type I physicians  are calculated as the difference between the maximum payment allowed, the  average commercial rate (ACR), and the payment otherwise made for physician  services. The ACR has increased over time, and regulatory language did not  reflect such increases.
    The amendments state that effective April 8, 2014, the  supplemental payment amount for Type I physicians shall be the difference  between the Medicaid payments otherwise made for physician services and 201% of  Medicare rates.
    Issues: There are no disadvantages to the public in this  action. The advantage of these supplemental payments to these affected  institutions is that such payments help fund Medicaid and indigent care costs  at the state academic health centers. The advantage to the Commonwealth is that  these supplemental payments may facilitate these affected institutions  remaining in business across the state.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The proposed  regulation revises the maximum reimbursement for Type One physicians to 201% of  the Medicare rate.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Federal regulations allow Virginia  Medicaid to make supplemental payments for Type One physicians. A Type One  physician is a member of a practice group organized by or under the control of  a state academic health system or an academic health system that operates under  state authority. Type One physicians affected by this change are the physicians  affiliated with the University of Virginia (UVA) and the Virginia Commonwealth  University (VCU).
    Supplemental payments are calculated as the difference between  the maximum payment allowed and regular payments. The maximum payment allowed  by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS) is the average commercial rate  (ACR). As the payments made by commercial providers change over time so does  the ACR. The ACR has increased from 143% of the Medicare rate in 2002, to 181%  in 2012, and to 197% of the Medicare rate in 2013. The current regulation  reflects 181% of the Medicare rate. However, the ACR went up to 201% of the  Medicare rate in 2014 and CMS approved the change to the 201% rate on January  27, 2015. Pursuant to the 2015 Acts of Assembly, Chapter 665, Item 301 B 4, the  new ACR has been retroactively applied to payments since April 8, 2014. The  proposed change will incorporate the new ACR in the regulations.
    The proposed ACR equates to a $3.4 million increase that  affected funds hospitals receive for Type One physicians. Since one-half of  Virginia Medicaid is funded by federal matching funds, the state's share of  this amount is $1.7 million. However, the increase in the supplemental payments  to Type One physicians is offset by an equivalent reduction in the need for the  Disproportionate Share Hospital (DSH) payments Medicaid makes to the teaching  hospitals. In other words, while the composition of the payments made to the  Type One hospitals changes because of the new ACR, the overall total payment  received by them from Medicaid remains the same absent any other changes. Thus,  the proposed ACR does not cause an increase in overall payments to the teaching  hospitals.
    Even though the new ACR does not increase the total payment to  the teaching hospitals, the proposed regulation is beneficial in the sense that  it more accurately reflects the components of the total payment Type One  hospitals receive from Medicaid.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed new ACR applies  to two physician practice plans: one for UVA and one for VCU.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed changes apply to  two teaching hospitals which are located in the City of Richmond and the City  of Charlottesville.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not  affect employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. No impact on  the use and value of private property is expected.
    Real Estate Development Costs. No impact on real estate  development costs is expected.
    Small Businesses: 
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. The proposed regulation does not  impose costs or other effects on small businesses.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No adverse impact  on small businesses is expected.
    Adverse Impacts: 
    Businesses: The proposed regulation does not have an impact on  non-small businesses.
    Localities: The proposed regulation does not adversely affect  localities.
    Other Entities: The proposed regulation does not adversely  affect other entities.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of  Planning and Budget. The agency raises no issues with this analysis.
    Summary:
    Pursuant to Item 301 B 4 of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of  Assembly, the amendments revise the maximum reimbursement rate for Type I  physicians to 201% of the Medicare rate.
    12VAC30-80-30. Fee-for-service providers.
    A. Payment for the following services, except for physician  services, shall be the lower of the state agency fee schedule (12VAC30-80-190  has information about the state agency fee schedule) or actual charge (charge  to the general public):
    1. Physicians' services. Payment for physician services shall  be the lower of the state agency fee schedule or actual charge (charge to the  general public). The following limitations shall apply to emergency physician  services.
    a. Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in  this subdivision 1 shall have the following meanings when applied to emergency  services unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "All-inclusive" means all emergency service and  ancillary service charges claimed in association with the emergency department  visit, with the exception of laboratory services.
    "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance  Services consistent with Chapter 10 (§ 32.1-323 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of  the Code of Virginia.
    "Emergency physician services" means services that  are necessary to prevent the death or serious impairment of the health of the  recipient. The threat to the life or health of the recipient necessitates the  use of the most accessible hospital available that is equipped to furnish the  services.
    "Recent injury" means an injury that has occurred  less than 72 hours prior to the emergency department visit.
    b. Scope. DMAS shall differentiate, as determined by the  attending physician's diagnosis, the kinds of care routinely rendered in  emergency departments and reimburse physicians for nonemergency care rendered  in emergency departments at a reduced rate.
    (1) DMAS shall reimburse at a reduced and all-inclusive  reimbursement rate for all physician services rendered in emergency departments  that DMAS determines are nonemergency care.
    (2) Services determined by the attending physician to be  emergencies shall be reimbursed under the existing methodologies and at the  existing rates.
    (3) Services determined by the attending physician that may be  emergencies shall be manually reviewed. If such services meet certain criteria,  they shall be paid under the methodology in subdivision 1 b (2) of this  subsection. Services not meeting certain criteria shall be paid under the  methodology in subdivision 1 b (1) of this subsection. Such criteria shall  include, but not be limited to:
    (a) The initial treatment following a recent obvious injury.
    (b) Treatment related to an injury sustained more than 72  hours prior to the visit with the deterioration of the symptoms to the point of  requiring medical treatment for stabilization.
    (c) The initial treatment for medical emergencies including  indications of severe chest pain, dyspnea, gastrointestinal hemorrhage,  spontaneous abortion, loss of consciousness, status epilepticus, or other  conditions considered life threatening.
    (d) A visit in which the recipient's condition requires  immediate hospital admission or the transfer to another facility for further  treatment or a visit in which the recipient dies.
    (e) Services provided for acute vital sign changes as  specified in the provider manual.
    (f) Services provided for severe pain when combined with one  or more of the other guidelines.
    (4) Payment shall be determined based on ICD diagnosis codes  and necessary supporting documentation. As used here, the term "ICD"  is defined in 12VAC30-95-5.
    (5) DMAS shall review on an ongoing basis the effectiveness of  this program in achieving its objectives and for its effect on recipients,  physicians, and hospitals. Program components may be revised subject to  achieving program intent objectives, the accuracy and effectiveness of the ICD  code designations, and the impact on recipients and providers. As used here,  the term "ICD" is defined in 12VAC30-95-5.
    2. Dentists' services.
    3. Mental health services including: (i) community mental  health services, (ii) services of a licensed clinical psychologist, or (iii)  mental health services provided by a physician.
    a. Services provided by licensed clinical psychologists shall  be reimbursed at 90% of the reimbursement rate for psychiatrists.
    b. Services provided by independently enrolled licensed  clinical social workers, licensed professional counselors or licensed clinical  nurse specialists-psychiatric shall be reimbursed at 75% of the reimbursement  rate for licensed clinical psychologists.
    4. Podiatry.
    5. Nurse-midwife services.
    6. Durable medical equipment (DME) and supplies.
    Definitions. The following words and terms when used in this  section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "DMERC" means the Durable Medical Equipment Regional  Carrier rate as published by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services at http://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Medicare-Fee-for-Service-Payment/DMEPOSFeeSched/DMEPOS-Fee-Schedule.html.
    "HCPCS" means the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding  System, Medicare's National Level II Codes, HCPCS 2006 (Eighteenth edition), as  published by Ingenix, as may be periodically updated.
    a. Obtaining prior authorization shall not guarantee Medicaid  reimbursement for DME. 
    b. The following shall be the reimbursement method used for  DME services:
    (1) If the DME item has a DMERC rate, the reimbursement rate  shall be the DMERC rate minus 10%. For dates of service on or after July 1,  2014, DME items subject to the Medicare competitive bidding program shall be  reimbursed the lower of:
    (a) The current DMERC rate minus 10% or 
    (b) The average of the Medicare competitive bid rates in  Virginia markets.
    (2) For DME items with no DMERC rate, the agency shall use the  agency fee schedule amount. The reimbursement rates for DME and supplies shall  be listed in the DMAS Medicaid Durable Medical Equipment (DME) and Supplies  Listing and updated periodically. The agency fee schedule shall be available on  the agency website at www.dmas.virginia.gov.
    (3) If a DME item has no DMERC rate or agency fee schedule  rate, the reimbursement rate shall be the manufacturer's net charge to the  provider, less shipping and handling, plus 30%. The manufacturer's net charge  to the provider shall be the cost to the provider minus all available discounts  to the provider. Additional information specific to how DME providers,  including manufacturers who are enrolled as providers, establish and document  their cost or costs for DME codes that do not have established rates can be  found in the relevant agency guidance document. 
    c. DMAS shall have the authority to amend the agency fee  schedule as it deems appropriate and with notice to providers. DMAS shall have  the authority to determine alternate pricing, based on agency research, for any  code that does not have a rate.
    d. The reimbursement for incontinence supplies shall be by  selective contract. Pursuant to § 1915(a)(1)(B) of the Social Security Act  and 42 CFR 431.54(d), the Commonwealth assures that adequate  services/devices shall be available under such arrangements.
    e. Certain durable medical equipment used for intravenous  therapy and oxygen therapy shall be bundled under specified procedure codes and  reimbursed as determined by the agency. Certain services/durable medical  equipment such as service maintenance agreements shall be bundled under  specified procedure codes and reimbursed as determined by the agency.
    (1) Intravenous therapies. The DME for a single therapy,  administered in one day, shall be reimbursed at the established service day  rate for the bundled durable medical equipment and the standard pharmacy  payment, consistent with the ingredient cost as described in 12VAC30-80-40, plus  the pharmacy service day and dispensing fee. Multiple applications of the same  therapy shall be included in one service day rate of reimbursement. Multiple  applications of different therapies administered in one day shall be reimbursed  for the bundled durable medical equipment service day rate as follows: the most  expensive therapy shall be reimbursed at 100% of cost; the second and all  subsequent most expensive therapies shall be reimbursed at 50% of cost.  Multiple therapies administered in one day shall be reimbursed at the pharmacy  service day rate plus 100% of every active therapeutic ingredient in the  compound (at the lowest ingredient cost methodology) plus the appropriate  pharmacy dispensing fee.
    (2) Respiratory therapies. The DME for oxygen therapy shall  have supplies or components bundled under a service day rate based on oxygen  liter flow rate or blood gas levels. Equipment associated with respiratory  therapy may have ancillary components bundled with the main component for  reimbursement. The reimbursement shall be a service day per diem rate for  rental of equipment or a total amount of purchase for the purchase of  equipment. Such respiratory equipment shall include, but not be limited to,  oxygen tanks and tubing, ventilators, noncontinuous ventilators, and suction  machines. Ventilators, noncontinuous ventilators, and suction machines may be  purchased based on the individual patient's medical necessity and length of  need.
    (3) Service maintenance agreements. Provision shall be made  for a combination of services, routine maintenance, and supplies, to be known  as agreements, under a single reimbursement code only for equipment that is  recipient owned. Such bundled agreements shall be reimbursed either monthly or  in units per year based on the individual agreement between the DME provider  and DMAS. Such bundled agreements may apply to, but not necessarily be limited  to, either respiratory equipment or apnea monitors.
    7. Local health services.
    8. Laboratory services (other than inpatient hospital). The agency's  rates for clinical laboratory services were set as of July 1, 2014, and are  effective for services on or after that date.
    9. Payments to physicians who handle laboratory specimens, but  do not perform laboratory analysis (limited to payment for handling).
    10. X-ray services.
    11. Optometry services.
    12. Medical supplies and equipment.
    13. Home health services. Effective June 30, 1991, cost  reimbursement for home health services is eliminated. A rate per visit by  discipline shall be established as set forth by 12VAC30-80-180.
    14. Physical therapy; occupational therapy; and speech,  hearing, language disorders services when rendered to noninstitutionalized  recipients.
    15. Clinic services, as defined under 42 CFR 440.90.
    16. Supplemental payments for services provided by Type I  physicians.
    a. In addition to payments for physician services specified  elsewhere in this State Plan, DMAS provides supplemental payments to Type I  physicians for furnished services provided on or after July 2, 2002. A Type I  physician is a member of a practice group, organized by or under the control of  a state academic health system or an academic health system that operates under  a state authority and includes a hospital, who has entered into contractual  agreements for the assignment of payments in accordance with 42 CFR  447.10.
    b. Effective July 2, 2002, the supplemental payment amount for  Type I physician services shall be the difference between the Medicaid payments  otherwise made for Type I physician services and Medicare rates. Effective  August 13, 2002, the supplemental payment amount for Type I physician services  shall be the difference between the Medicaid payments otherwise made for  physician services and 143% of Medicare rates. Effective January 3, 2012, the  supplemental payment amount for Type I physician services shall be the  difference between the Medicaid payments otherwise made for physician services  and 181% of Medicare rates. Effective January 1, 2013, the supplemental  payment amount for Type I physician services shall be the difference between  the Medicaid payments otherwise made for physician services and 197% of  Medicare rates. Effective April 8, 2014, the supplemental payment amount for  Type I physician services shall be the difference between the Medicaid payments  otherwise made for physician services and 201% of Medicare rates.
    c. The methodology for determining the Medicare  equivalent of the average commercial rate is described in 12VAC30-80-300.
    c. d. Supplemental payments shall be made  quarterly no later than 90 days after the end of the quarter.
    17. Supplemental payments for services provided by physicians  at Virginia freestanding children's hospitals.
    a. In addition to payments for physician services specified  elsewhere in this State Plan, DMAS provides supplemental payments to Virginia  freestanding children's hospital physicians providing services at freestanding  children's hospitals with greater than 50% Medicaid inpatient utilization in  state fiscal year 2009 for furnished services provided on or after July 1,  2011. A freestanding children's hospital physician is a member of a practice  group (i) organized by or under control of a qualifying Virginia freestanding  children's hospital, or (ii) who has entered into contractual agreements for  provision of physician services at the qualifying Virginia freestanding  children's hospital and that is designated in writing by the Virginia  freestanding children's hospital as a practice plan for the quarter for which  the supplemental payment is made subject to DMAS approval. The freestanding  children's hospital physicians also must have entered into contractual  agreements with the practice plan for the assignment of payments in accordance  with 42 CFR 447.10.
    b. Effective July 1, 2011, the supplemental payment amount for  freestanding children's hospital physician services shall be the difference  between the Medicaid payments otherwise made for freestanding children's  hospital physician services and 143% of Medicare rates as defined in the  supplemental payment calculation for Type I physician services subject to the  following reduction. Final payments shall be reduced on a prorated basis so  that total payments for freestanding children's hospital physician services are  $400,000 less annually than would be calculated based on the formula in the  previous sentence. Payments shall be made on the same schedule as Type I  physicians. 
    18. Supplemental payments to nonstate government-owned or  operated clinics. 
    a. In addition to payments for clinic services specified  elsewhere in the regulations, DMAS provides supplemental payments to qualifying  nonstate government-owned or operated clinics for outpatient services provided  to Medicaid patients on or after July 2, 2002. Clinic means a facility that is  not part of a hospital but is organized and operated to provide medical care to  outpatients. Outpatient services include those furnished by or under the  direction of a physician, dentist or other medical professional acting within the  scope of his license to an eligible individual. Effective July 1, 2005, a  qualifying clinic is a clinic operated by a community services board. The state  share for supplemental clinic payments will be funded by general fund  appropriations. 
    b. The amount of the supplemental payment made to each  qualifying nonstate government-owned or operated clinic is determined by: 
    (1) Calculating for each clinic the annual difference between  the upper payment limit attributed to each clinic according to subdivision 18 d  of this subsection and the amount otherwise actually paid for the services by  the Medicaid program; 
    (2) Dividing the difference determined in subdivision 18 b (1)  of this subsection for each qualifying clinic by the aggregate difference for  all such qualifying clinics; and 
    (3) Multiplying the proportion determined in subdivision 18 b  (2) of this subsection by the aggregate upper payment limit amount for all such  clinics as determined in accordance with 42 CFR 447.321 less all payments made  to such clinics other than under this section. 
    c. Payments for furnished services made under this section may  be made in one or more installments at such times, within the fiscal year or  thereafter, as is determined by DMAS. 
    d. To determine the aggregate upper payment limit referred to  in subdivision 18 b (3) of this subsection, Medicaid payments to nonstate  government-owned or operated clinics will be divided by the "additional  factor" whose calculation is described in Attachment 4.19-B, Supplement 4  (12VAC30-80-190 B 2) in regard to the state agency fee schedule for RBRVS  Resource Based Relative Value Scale. Medicaid payments will be estimated  using payments for dates of service from the prior fiscal year adjusted for  expected claim payments. Additional adjustments will be made for any program  changes in Medicare or Medicaid payments.
    19. Personal assistance services (PAS) for individuals  enrolled in the Medicaid Buy-In program described in 12VAC30-60-200. These  services are reimbursed in accordance with the state agency fee schedule  described in 12VAC30-80-190. The state agency fee schedule is published on the  DMAS website at http://www.dmas.virginia.gov. 
    B. Hospice services payments must be no lower than the  amounts using the same methodology used under Part A of Title XVIII, and take  into account the room and board furnished by the facility, equal to at least  95% of the rate that would have been paid by the state under the plan for  facility services in that facility for that individual. Hospice services shall  be paid according to the location of the service delivery and not the location  of the agency's home office.
    12VAC30-80-300. Medicare equivalent of average commercial rate.
    Physician supplemental payment amounts shall be calculated  using the Medicare equivalent of the average commercial rate (ACR) methodology  prescribed by CMS. The following methodology describes the calculation of the  supplemental payment. To compute the ACR by commercial payers, calculate the  average amount reimbursed for each procedure code (e.g., CPT or HCPCS) by the  top five commercial payers for a specified base period. Data from Medicare,  Workers' Compensation, and other noncommercial payers and codes not reimbursed  by Medicaid are excluded. 
    (Payer 1 + Payer 2 + Payer 3 + Payer 4 + Payer 5) / (5) =  Average Commercial Reimbursement
    To compute the reimbursement ceiling, multiply the average  reimbursement rate as determined by the number of claims recorded in Medicaid  Management Information System (MMIS) for each procedure code that was rendered  to Medicaid members by eligible physicians during the base period. Add the  product for all procedure codes. This total represents the total reimbursement  ceiling. 
    (Average Commercial Reimbursement) X (Medicaid Count) = Total  Reimbursement Ceiling for each Procedure Code
    Sum of Total Reimbursement Ceiling for each Procedure Code =  Total Reimbursement Ceiling
    To determine the Medicare equivalent to the reimbursement  ceiling, for each of the billing codes used to determine the reimbursement  ceiling, multiply the Medicare rate by the number of claims recorded in MMIS  for each procedure code that was rendered to Medicaid members during the base  period. Add the product for all procedure codes. This sum represents the total  Medicare reimbursement that would have been received. Divide the reimbursement  ceiling (commercial payment) by Medicare reimbursement. This ratio expresses  the ACR as a percentage of Medicare.
    (Medicare Rate) X (Medicaid Count) = Total Medicare  Reimbursement for each Procedure Code
    Sum of Total Medicare Reimbursement for each Procedure Code =  Total Medicare Reimbursement
    (Total Reimbursement Ceiling) / (Total Medicare Reimbursement) =  Medicare equivalent of the ACR 
    This single ratio is applied to the Medicare rates for  reimbursable Medicaid practitioner services to determine the total allowable  Medicaid payment, including both the regular base payment and supplemental  payment.
    (Medicare equivalent of the ACR) X (Medicare rate per CPT Code  for all applicable CPT Codes) = Total Allowable Medicaid Payment
    Total Allowable Medicaid Payment – Medicaid Base Payment =  Maximum Supplemental Payment
    The Medicare equivalent of the ACR demonstration shall be  updated every three years. Only the professional component of radiology  services and clinical laboratory services is included in the ACR calculation.  Claims with a technical component are excluded from the demonstration.   
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4376; Filed November 13, 2015, 12:43 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC30-120. Waivered Services (amending 12VAC30-120-360 through 12VAC30-120-395,  12VAC30-120-400, 12VAC30-120-410, 12VAC30-120-420). 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of  Virginia; 42 USC § 1396.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory  Coordinator, Department of Medical Assistance Services, Division of Policy and  Research, 600 East Broad Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone  (804) 371-6043, FAX (804) 786-1680, or email victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia grants  to the Board of Medical Assistance Services the authority to administer and  amend the Plan for Medical Assistance. Section 32.1-324 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS)  to administer and amend the Plan for Medical Assistance according to the  board's requirements. The Medicaid authority as established by § 1902(a) of the  Social Security Act (42 USC § 1396a) provides governing authority for  payments for services.
    DMAS operates its managed care program under the authority of  § 1915(b) of the Social Security Act, which permits the waiving of  Medicaid individuals' freedom of choice of providers of health care to enable  mandatory enrollment in managed care. DMAS sought federal approval of these  changes to § 1915(b) of the Social Security Act waiver and received  Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services approval dated July 14, 2014. This  action amends the regulations to conform to the federally approved waiver  changes.
    DMAS operates its home and community-based care waivers (such  as the Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction waiver) under the authority  of § 1915(c) of the Act that permits the waiving of the comparability rule  (42 CFR 440. 240), which requires that services covered for any eligible  individual in a covered group must be covered for all individuals in that  group. These waivers enable the coverage of specific services, such as personal  care, respite care, adult day health care, etc., to enable individuals to avoid  institutionalization and remain in their homes and communities.
    Purpose: The purpose of this regulation is to implement  several mandates from various legislative actions to (i) require qualifying  individuals in the Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction Waiver to also  be enrolled in Medicaid contracted managed care organizations and (ii) require  expedited enrollment for Medicaid individuals into Medicaid contracted managed  care organizations, especially for pregnant women. These regulatory changes  will improve the health and welfare of the affected Medicaid individuals by  providing care coordination and well-person preventive services in addition to  routine acute care.
    These regulations apply to managed care organizations (MCOs).  Small business requirements do not apply to managed care organizations because  managed care organizations do not meet the definition of small businesses.
    Substance: Medallion II, a mandatory managed care  organization program, expanded throughout the Commonwealth the use of managed  care for the delivery of health care to Medicaid recipients. Medallion II was  created for the purposes of further improving access to care, promoting disease  prevention, ensuring quality care, and reducing Medicaid expenditures. The  program requires mandatory enrollment into a contracted MCO for certain  specified groups of Medicaid individuals (12VAC30-120-370 A). Also, certain  specified groups of individuals are excluded from managed care enrollment  (12VAC30-120-370 B). MCOs provide the Commonwealth with the most value per  taxpayer dollar for the provision of high quality health care and provide an  integrated, comprehensive delivery system to individuals enrolled in Medicaid.
    In 2007, the managed care health plans began providing acute  care coverage for approximately 4,600 home and community-based (HCB) waiver  participants through the Acute and Long Term Care (ALTC) Phase 1 program. This  included individuals enrolled in the Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction  (EDCD) Waiver, the Intellectual Disability (ID) Waiver, the Individuals and  Family Developmental Disabilities Support (IFDDS) Waiver, the Day Support (DS)  Waiver, and the Alzheimer's Assisted Living (AAL) Waiver. Under the Phase 1  program, if an MCO-enrolled Medicaid member subsequently becomes eligible for  and enrolled into one of five HCB waivers, then he remains enrolled with the  MCO for primary and acute care services while all long-term care waiver  services, such as personal care, respite care, personal emergency response  systems, and environmental modifications, are covered under the fee-for-service  reimbursement system.
    Item 297 MMMM 1 of the 2011 appropriation act directed DMAS to  seek federal authority through amendments to the State Plan under Title XIX of  the Social Security Act, and any necessary waivers, to allow individuals  enrolled in home and community-based care waivers to also be enrolled in  contracted Medallion II managed care organizations for the purposes of  receiving acute and medical care services
    On December 1, 2014, DMAS launched the Health and Acute Care  Program (HAP). This initiative allows eligible EDCD Waiver individuals to  receive their acute and primary medical care through one of the managed care  health plans, and, concurrently, the individual's HCB care waiver services,  including transportation to the waivered services, are paid for through the  Medicaid fee-for-service system as a "carved out" service. These  individuals participate concurrently in § 1915(b) and § 1915(c) waivers.  As part of the HAP initiative, approximately 2,700 individuals enrolled in the  EDCD Waiver, who received acute medical services in the fee-for-service program  and who were eligible for managed care (i.e., do not have any managed care  exclusions), were transitioned into managed care in December 2014. The ALTC  program was rebranded as HAP for approximately 7,300 individuals enrolled in  both the § 1915(b) and § 1915(c) waivers.
    Item 307 FFF of the 2012 appropriation act authorized DMAS to  seek federal authority through amendments to the State Plans under Title XIX  and Title XXI of the Social Security Act, and appropriate waivers to such, to  develop and implement programmatic and system changes that allow expedited  enrollment of Medicaid eligible recipients into Medicaid managed care, most  importantly for pregnant women.
    In an effort to ensure that newly eligible Medicaid  individuals, especially pregnant women, have quicker access to the managed care  delivery system, DMAS shortened the period of time between an individual being  identified as Medicaid eligible and that individual's enrollment into a managed  care organization. This new process reduces disruptions to continuity of care  by minimizing the movement of individuals between the fee-for-service and the  managed care delivery systems.
    Issues: The primary advantage of this regulatory action  is that the expedited enrollment component of this regulation will ensure that  Medicaid individuals who are eligible for managed care get placed into an MCO  sooner than the previous "pre-assignment" methodology allowed,  resulting in less time waiting to enroll in an MCO. Both expedited enrollment  and the additional population becoming eligible for managed care ensure access  to care coordination and additional services offered by the MCOs that are not  available under Medicaid fee-for-service. Another advantage is that this  regulation is projected to create savings for DMAS and the Commonwealth.
    DMAS does not anticipate any disadvantages to the public or the  Commonwealth.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Medical Assistance Services (Board) proposes to amend its regulation for  mandatory capitated managed care to make several clarifying changes and two  substantive changes. The Board proposes substantive changes to shorten the time  it takes to move people from fee-for-service Medicaid to managed care and to  require individuals with Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction (EDCD) waivers  who are not exempt to receive their acute and primary health care through  managed care. 
    Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for these  proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Current regulation contains many  references to the Medallion II program of managed care, which has been replaced  by Medallion III. The Board proposes to remove references to Medallion II, as  they are now obsolete, and to add more generic language that references  mandatory managed care. At the same time, the Board proposes to harmonize  language that refers to individuals who receive health care under this program  by referring to them as "members" in all instances. No entity is  likely to incur costs on account of clarifying changes such as these. Interested  parties are, however, likely to benefit as these changes are likely to make  regulatory text easier to understand.
    Current regulation has rules for individuals who newly sign up  for Medicaid that establish how they will be pre-assigned a mandatory managed  care plan and how they can go about selecting a different plan. Board staff  reports that the pre-assignment process, and subsequent movement from  fee-for-service Medicaid to a managed care plan, currently takes approximately  45-60 days. The Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) has received  federal approval to shorten this process (by about 15 days) and the Board now  proposes to amend this regulation to facilitate this change. Board staff  reports that this change may lead to long term costs saving for taxpayers but  also reports that any savings are currently unquantifiable. Budget forecasts  from DMAS completed in fiscal year 2015 did, however, include projected savings  of $1,589,635 in fiscal year 2015 and $3,180,949 in fiscal year 2016. Board  staff reports that pregnant women who are eligible for Medicaid will likely see  a more immediate benefit from this change as it will allow them to have quicker  access to DMAS's managed care delivery system, which may reduce disruptions to  the continuity of their care.
    Currently, managed care eligible individuals who receive  long-term care waivers from the Commonwealth, except for the subset of  individuals who have EDCD waivers, are mandated to receive their primary and  acute care through a managed care plan unless they fall into a group that is  excluded from participating in mandatory managed care1. The Board  proposes to extend this mandate in regulation to also cover individuals with  EDCD waivers (who were actually transitioned into managed care programs in  December of 2014). Since these individuals are already covered by Medicaid, it  is unlikely that moving them into managed care plans for their primary and  acute care caused taxpayers to incur any additional costs. To the extent that  costs savings may be expected for individuals who receive care from a managed  care plan when compared to the cost of fee-for-service plans, taxpayers may see  some long term but as yet not quantifiable cost savings.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. Board staff reports that  these changes will affect any individuals who are newly enrolled in Medicaid,  as they will be able to move more quickly into a managed care program, and all  2,700 individuals who have an EDCD waiver.
    Localities Particularly Affected. No locality in the  Commonwealth will be particularly affected by these proposed changes. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed changes are  unlikely to impact employment in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These  proposed changes will likely have no impact on the use or value of private  property.
    Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed changes will  likely not affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: 
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. No small businesses will incur costs  on account of these regulatory changes.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No small  businesses will incur costs on account of these regulatory changes.
    Adverse Impacts: 
    Businesses: No businesses will incur costs on account of these  regulatory changes.
    Localities: These proposed changes are unlikely to adversely  impact localities.
    Other Entities: These proposed changes are unlikely to  adversely impact any other entity in the Commonwealth.
    _________________________________________________
    1Individuals are excluded from participating in  mandatory managed care if 1) they are receiving inpatient care in a state  mental hospital; 2) they are approved by DMAS for receiving inpatient care in a  long-term hospital, nursing facility or intermediate care facility for  individuals with intellectual disabilities; 3) they are placed on spend-down;  4) they are participating in the family planning waiver or are in a federal  waiver program for home-based and community-based Medicaid coverage prior to  managed care enrollment; 5) they are under age 21 and are approved for DMAS  residential facility Level C programs as defined in 12VAC30-130-860; 6) they  are pregnant women in the third trimester of pregnancy who request exclusion because  their current obstetrical providers do not participate in the managed care  organization to which the pregnant woman would be assigned; 7) they are  individuals other than students who permanently live outside their area of  residence for more than 60 consecutive days except individuals placed outside  their area of residence for medically necessary services funded by the managed  care plan to which they are assigned; 8) they are receiving hospice services in  accordance with DMAS criteria; 9) they have other comprehensive group or  individual health insurance coverage; 10) they request exclusion and are  inpatient at a hospital (other than a state mental hospital, long-term care  hospital, nursing facility or intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual  disabilities) at the scheduled time of managed care enrollment or they are  scheduled for an inpatient hospital stay or surgery within 30 calendar days of  the effective date of their managed care enrollment; 11) they request exclusion  because they have been diagnosed with a terminal condition and have a life  expectancy of six months of less; 12) they are between the ages of birth and  three years old, are certified by the Department of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services as eligible for services under the Disabilities  Education Act and are granted an exception by DMAS; 13) they have an  eligibility period of less than three months; 14) they are enrolled in the  Commonwealth's Title XXI SCHIP program; 15) they have an eligibility period that  is only retroactive or 16) they are children enrolled in the Virginia  Birth-Related Neurological Injury Compensation Program.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of Planning  and Budget regarding the regulations concerning Mandatory Capitated Managed  Care. The agency raises no issues with this analysis.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments (i) require individuals who are  enrolled in the Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction Waiver and who are  excluded from participating in mandatory managed care to be enrolled in  Medicaid contracted managed care organizations and to receive all acute care  services through the mandatory managed care delivery system and (ii) provide for  expedited enrollment for Medicaid individuals into Medicaid contracted managed  care organizations, especially for pregnant women. 
    Part VI 
  Medallion II Mandatory Managed Care
    12VAC30-120-360. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this part shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Action" means the denial or limited authorization  of a requested service, including the type or level of service; the reduction,  suspension, or termination of a previously authorized service; the denial, in  whole or in part, of payment for a service; the failure to provide services in  a timely manner, as defined by the state; or the failure of an MCO to act  within the timeframes provided in 42 CFR 438.408(b). 
    "Appeal" means a request for review of an action,  as "action" is defined in this section. 
    "Area of residence" means the individual's member's  address in the Medicaid eligibility file. 
    "Capitation payment" means a payment the  department makes periodically to a contractor on behalf of each individual  enrolled under a contract for the provision of medical services under the State  Plan, regardless of whether the particular individual receives services during  the period covered by the payment. 
    "Covered services" means Medicaid services as  defined in the State Plan for Medical Assistance. 
    "Disenrollment" means the process of changing  enrollment from one Medallion II Managed Care Organization (MCO) plan to  another MCO, if applicable. 
    "DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance  Services. 
    "Enrollee" or "enrollees" means people  having current Medicaid eligibility who shall be in the process of being  authorized by DMAS to be enrolled in Medallion II.
    "Early Intervention" means EPSDT Early Intervention  services provided pursuant to Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities  Education Act (IDEA) of 2004 as set forth in 12VAC30-50-131.
    "Eligible person" means any person eligible for  Virginia Medicaid in accordance with the State Plan for Medical Assistance  under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. 
    "Emergency medical condition" means a medical  condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity  (including severe pain) that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average  knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of  immediate medical attention to result in the following: 
    1. Placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a  pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious  jeopardy, 
    2. Serious impairment to bodily functions, or 
    3. Serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part. 
    "Emergency services" means covered inpatient and  outpatient services that are furnished by a provider that is qualified to  furnish these services and that are needed to evaluate or stabilize an  emergency medical condition. 
    "Enrollment broker" means an independent contractor  that enrolls individuals in the contractor's plan and is responsible for the  operation and documentation of a toll-free individual service helpline. The  responsibilities of the enrollment broker include, but shall not be limited to,  individual education and MCO enrollment, assistance with and tracking of  individuals' complaints resolutions, and may include individual marketing and  outreach. 
    "Exclusion from Medallion II" "Exclude"  means the removal of an enrollee a member from the Medallion  II mandatory managed care program on a temporary or permanent basis.  
    "External quality review organization" or  "EQRO" means an organization that meets the competence and  independence requirements set forth in 42 CFR 438.354 and performs  external quality reviews, other external quality review related activities as  set forth in 42 CFR 438.358, or both. 
    "Grievance" means an expression of dissatisfaction  about any matter other than an action, as "action" is defined in this  section. 
    "Health care plan" means any arrangement in  which any managed care organization undertakes to provide, arrange for, pay  for, or reimburse any part of the cost of any health care services. 
    "Health care professional" means a provider as  defined in 42 CFR 438.2. 
    "Individual" or "individuals" means people  a person or persons who are eligible for Medicaid but, who  are not yet undergoing enrollment nor for mandatory managed care, and  who are not enrolled in a mandatory managed care organization.
    "Managed care organization" or "MCO" means  an entity that meets the participation and solvency criteria defined in 42 CFR  Part 438 and has an executed contractual agreement with DMAS to provide  services covered under the Medallion II mandatory managed care  program. Covered services for Medallion II mandatory managed care  program individuals must shall be as accessible (in terms of  timeliness, amount, duration, and scope) as compared to other Medicaid  individuals served within the geographic area. 
    "Member" or "members" means people who  have current Medicaid eligibility who are also enrolled in Medallion II mandatory  managed care. 
    "Network" means doctors, hospitals or other health  care providers who participate or contract with an MCO contractor and,  as a result, agree to accept a mutually-agreed mutually agreed  upon sum or fee schedule as payment in full for covered services that are  rendered to eligible participants. 
    "Newborn enrollment period" means the period from  the child's date of birth plus the next two calendar months. 
    "Nonparticipating provider" means a health care  entity or health care professional not in the contractor's participating  provider network. 
    "Participant" or "participants" means  an individual or individuals having current Medicaid eligibility who shall be  authorized by DMAS to be a member or members of Medallion II.
    "PCP of record" means a primary care physician of  record with whom the recipient has an established history and such history is  documented in the individual's records.
    "Post-stabilization care services" means covered  services related to an emergency medical condition that are provided after an  enrollee is stabilized in order to maintain the stabilized condition or to  improve or resolve the enrollee's condition. 
    "Potential enrollee" means a Medicaid individual  who is subject to mandatory enrollment or may voluntarily elect to enroll in a  given managed care program, but is not yet an enrollee of a specific MCO. 
    "Retractions" means the departure of an enrolled  managed care organization from any one or more localities as provided for in  12VAC30-120-370.
    "Rural exception" means a rural area designated in  the § 1915(b) managed care waiver, pursuant to § 1932(a)(3)(B) of the  Social Security Act and 42 CFR § 438.52(b) and recognized by the Centers  for Medicare and Medicaid Services, wherein qualifying Medallion II mandatory  managed care members are mandated to enroll in the one available contracted  MCO.
    "School health services" means those physical  therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, psychiatric and psychological  services rendered to children who qualify for these services under the federal  Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 USC § 1471 et seq.) by (i)  employees of the school divisions or (ii) providers that subcontract with  school divisions, as described in 12VAC30-50-130. 
    "Spend-down" means the process of reducing  countable income by deducting incurred medical expenses for medically needy  individuals, as determined in the State Plan for Medical Assistance. 
    12VAC30-120-370. Medallion II enrollees Mandatory  managed care members.
    A. DMAS shall determine enrollment in Medallion II mandatory  managed care. Medicaid eligible persons not meeting the exclusion criteria  set out in this section must shall participate in the Medallion  II mandatory managed care program. Enrollment in Medallion II is  mandatory managed care shall not be a guarantee of continuing  eligibility for services and benefits under the Virginia Medical Assistance  Services Program. 
    1. DMAS reserves the right to exclude from participation  in the Medallion II mandatory managed care program any member who  has been consistently noncompliant with the policies and procedures of managed  care or who is threatening to providers, MCOs, or DMAS. There must be  sufficient documentation from various providers, the MCO, and DMAS of these  noncompliance issues and any attempts at resolution. Members excluded from Medallion  II mandatory managed care through this provision may appeal the  decision to DMAS.
    2. Qualifying individuals enrolled in the Elderly or  Disabled with Consumer Direction (EDCD) Waiver pursuant to Part IX  (12VAC30-120-900 et seq.) of this chapter who do not meet any exclusions in  subsection B of this section shall be required to enroll in managed care and  shall receive all acute care services through the mandatory managed care  delivery system. For these individuals, services provided under 12VAC30-120-380  A 2 shall continue to be provided through the DMAS fee-for-service system. 
    B. The following individuals shall be excluded (as defined in  12VAC30-120-360) from participating in Medallion II mandatory managed  care as defined in the § 1915(b) managed care waiver. Individuals  excluded from Medallion II mandatory managed care shall include  the following: 
    1. Individuals who are inpatients in state mental hospitals;
    2. Individuals who are approved by DMAS as inpatients in  long-stay hospitals, nursing facilities, or intermediate care facilities for  individuals with intellectual disabilities;
    3. Individuals who are placed on spend-down;
    4. Individuals who are participating in the family planning  waiver, or in federal waiver programs for home-based and community-based  Medicaid coverage prior to managed care enrollment (except eligible EDCD  members);
    5. Individuals under age 21 who are approved for DMAS  residential facility Level C programs as defined in 12VAC30-130-860;
    6. Newly eligible individuals who are in the third trimester  of pregnancy and who request exclusion within a department-specified timeframe  of the effective date of their MCO enrollment. Exclusion may be granted only if  the member's obstetrical provider (e.g. (i.e., physician,  hospital, or midwife) does not participate with the enrollee's member's  assigned MCO. Exclusion requests made during the third trimester may be made by  the member, MCO, or provider. DMAS shall determine if the request meets the  criteria for exclusion. Following the end of the pregnancy, these individuals  shall be required to enroll to the extent they remain eligible for Medicaid;
    7. Individuals, other than students, who permanently live  outside their area of residence for greater than 60 consecutive days except  those individuals placed there for medically necessary services funded by the  MCO;
    8. Individuals who receive hospice services in accordance with  DMAS criteria;
    9. Individuals with other comprehensive group or individual  health insurance coverage, including Medicare, insurance provided to military  dependents, and any other insurance purchased through the Health Insurance  Premium Payment Program (HIPP);
    10. Individuals requesting exclusion who are inpatients in  hospitals, other than those listed in subdivisions 1 and 2 of this subsection,  at the scheduled time of MCO enrollment or who are scheduled for inpatient  hospital stay or surgery within 30 calendar days of the MCO enrollment  effective date. The exclusion shall remain effective until the first day of the  month following discharge. This exclusion reason shall not apply to members  admitted to the hospital while already enrolled in a department-contracted MCO;  
    11. Individuals who request exclusion during preassignment  assignment to an MCO or within a time set by DMAS from the effective  date of their MCO enrollment, who have been diagnosed with a terminal condition  and who have a life expectancy of six months or less. The client's individual's  physician must certify the life expectancy;
    12. Certain individuals between birth and age three certified  by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services as eligible  for services pursuant to Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education  Act (20 USC § 1471 et seq.) who are granted an exception by DMAS to the  mandatory Medallion II managed care enrollment;
    13. Individuals who have an eligibility period that is less  than three months;
    14. Individuals who are enrolled in the Commonwealth's Title  XXI SCHIP program;
    15. Individuals who have an eligibility period that is only  retroactive; and
    16. Children enrolled in the Virginia Birth-Related  Neurological Injury Compensation Program established pursuant to Chapter 50  (§ 38.2-5000 et seq.) of Title 38.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    C. Members enrolled with a MCO who subsequently meet one or  more of the criteria of subsections A and subsection B of this  section during MCO enrollment shall be excluded from MCO participation as  determined by DMAS, with the exception of those who subsequently become  participants in the federal long-term care waiver programs, as otherwise  defined elsewhere in this chapter, for home-based and community-based Medicaid  coverage (AIDS, (IFDDS, MR/ID ID, EDCD, Day  Support, or Alzheimer's, or as may be amended from time to time). These individuals  members shall receive acute and primary medical services via the MCO and  shall receive waiver services and related transportation to waiver services via  the fee-for-service program.
    Individuals excluded from mandatory managed care enrollment  shall receive Medicaid services under the current fee-for-service system. When  individuals no longer meet the criteria for exclusion, they shall be required  to enroll in the appropriate managed care program.
    D. Individuals who are enrolled in localities that qualify  for the rural exception may meet exclusion criteria if their PCP of record, as  defined in 12VAC30-120-360, cannot or will not participate with the one MCO in  the locality. Individual requests to be excluded from MCO participation in  localities meeting the qualification for the rural exception must be made to  DMAS for consideration on a case-by-case basis. Recipients Members  enrolled in MCO rural exception areas shall not have open enrollment periods  and shall not be afforded the 90-day window after initial enrollment during  which they may make a health plan or program change.
    Individuals excluded from mandatory managed care enrollment shall  receive Medicaid services under the current fee-for-service system. When  individuals no longer meet the criteria for exclusion, they shall be required  to enroll in the appropriate managed care program. 
    E. Medallion II Mandatory managed care plans  shall be offered to individuals, and individuals shall be enrolled in those  plans, exclusively through an independent enrollment broker under contract to  DMAS.
    F. Clients Members shall be enrolled as  follows:
    1. All eligible individuals, except those meeting one of the  exclusions of subsection B of this section, shall be enrolled in Medallion  II mandatory managed care.
    2. Individuals shall receive a Medicaid card from DMAS,  and shall be provided authorized medical care in accordance with DMAS'  procedures after Medicaid eligibility has been determined to exist.
    3. Once individuals are enrolled in Medicaid, they will  receive a letter indicating that they may select one of the contracted MCOs.  These letters shall indicate a preassigned an assigned MCO,  determined as provided in subsection F of this section, in which the individual  member will be enrolled if he does not make a selection within a period  specified by DMAS of not less than 30 days. Members who are enrolled in one  mandatory MCO program who immediately become eligible for another mandatory MCO  program are able to maintain consistent enrollment with their currently  assigned MCO, if available. These members will receive a notification letter  including information regarding their ability to change health plans under the  new program.
    4. Any newborn whose mother is enrolled with an MCO at the  time of birth shall be considered a member of that same MCO for the newborn  enrollment period.
    a. This requirement does not preclude the member, once  he is assigned a Medicaid identification number, from disenrolling from one MCO  to enrolling with another in accordance with subdivision H 1 of this  section.
    b. The newborn's continued enrollment with the MCO is  not contingent upon the mother's enrollment. Additionally, if the MCO's  contract is terminated in whole or in part, the MCO shall continue newborn  coverage if the child is born while the contract is active, until the newborn  receives a Medicaid number or for the newborn enrollment period, whichever  timeframe is earlier. Children who do not receive a Medicaid identification  number prior to the end of the newborn enrollment period will be disenrolled.  Newborns who remain eligible for participation in Medallion II mandatory  managed care will be reenrolled in an MCO through the preassignment assignment  process upon receiving a Medicaid identification number.
    c. Any newborn whose mother is enrolled in an MCO at the  time of birth shall receive a Medicaid identification number prior to the end  of the newborn enrollment period in order to maintain the newborn's enrollment  in an MCO.
    5. Individuals who lose then regain eligibility for Medallion  II mandatory managed care within 60 days will be reenrolled into  their previous MCO without going through preassignment assignment  and selection.
    G. Individuals who do not select an MCO as described in  subdivision F 3 of this section shall be assigned to an MCO as follows:
    1. Individuals are assigned through a system algorithm based  upon the client's member's history with a contracted MCO.
    2. Individuals not assigned pursuant to subdivision 1 of this  subsection shall be assigned to the MCO of another family member, if  applicable.
    3. Individuals who live in rural exception areas as defined in  12VAC30-120-360 must shall enroll with the one available MCO.  These persons individuals shall receive a preassignment an  assignment notification for enrollment into the MCO. Individuals in rural  exception areas who are assigned to the one MCO may request exclusion from MCO  participation if their PCP of record, as defined in 12VAC30-120-360, cannot or  will not participate with the one MCO in the locality. Individual requests to  be excluded from MCO participation in rural exception localities must be made  to DMAS for consideration on a case-by-case basis. 
    4. All other individuals shall be assigned to an MCO on a basis  of approximately equal number by MCO in each locality.
    5. All eligible members are automatically assigned to a  contracted MCO in their localities. Members are allowed 90 days after the  effective date of new or initial enrollment to change to another MCO that  participates in the geographic area where the member lives. Recipients Members  residing in localities qualifying for a rural exception shall not be  afforded the 90-day window after initial enrollment during which they may make  a health plan or program change.
    6. DMAS shall have the discretion to utilize an alternate  strategy for enrollment or transition of enrollment from the method described  in this section for expansions, retractions, or changes to client member  populations, geographical areas, procurements, or any or all of these; such  alternate strategy shall comply with federal waiver requirements.
    H. Following their initial enrollment into an MCO, members  shall be restricted to the MCO until the next open enrollment period, unless  appropriately disenrolled or excluded by the department (as defined in  12VAC30-120-360).
    1. During the first 90 calendar days of enrollment in a new or  initial MCO, a member may disenroll from that MCO to enroll into another MCO  for any reason. Such disenrollment shall be effective no later than the first  day of the second month after the month in which the member requests  disenrollment.
    2. During the remainder of the enrollment period, the member  may only disenroll from one MCO into another MCO upon determination by DMAS  that good cause exists as determined under subsection I J of this  section.
    I. The department shall conduct an annual open enrollment for  all Medallion II mandatory managed care members with the  exception of those clients members who live in a designated rural  exception area. The open enrollment period shall be the 60 calendar days before  the end of the enrollment period. Prior to the open enrollment period, DMAS  will inform the member of the opportunity to remain with the current MCO or  change to another MCO, without cause, for the following year. Enrollment  selections will be effective on the first day of the next month following the  open enrollment period. Members who do not make a choice during the open  enrollment period will remain with their current MCO selection.
    J. Disenrollment for cause may be requested at any time.
    1. After the first 90 days of enrollment in an MCO, members must  may request disenrollment from DMAS based on cause. The request may be  made orally or in writing to DMAS and must shall cite the reason  or reasons why the member wishes to disenroll. Cause for disenrollment  shall include the following:
    a. A member's desire to seek services from a federally  qualified health center that is not under contract with the member's current  MCO, and the member requests a change to another MCO that subcontracts with the  desired federally qualified health center;
    b. Performance or nonperformance of service to the member by  an MCO or one or more of its providers that is deemed by the department's external  quality review organizations to be below the generally accepted community  practice of health care. This may include poor quality care;
    c. Lack of access to a PCP or necessary specialty services  covered under the State Plan or lack of access to providers experienced in  dealing with the member's health care needs;
    d. A member has a combination of complex medical factors that,  in the sole discretion of DMAS, would be better served under another contracted  MCO;
    e. The member moves out of the MCO's service area;
    f. The MCO does not, because of moral or religious objections,  cover the service the member seeks;
    g. The member needs related services to be performed at the  same time; not all related services are available within the network, and the  member's primary care provider or another provider determines that receiving  the services separately would subject the member to unnecessary risk; or
    h. Other reasons as determined by DMAS through written policy  directives.
    2. DMAS shall determine whether cause exists for  disenrollment. Written responses shall be provided within a timeframe set by  department policy; however, the effective date of an approved disenrollment  shall be no later than the first day of the second month following the month in  which the member files the request, in compliance with 42 CFR 438.56.
    3. Cause for disenrollment shall be deemed to exist and the  disenrollment shall be granted if DMAS fails to take final action on a valid  request prior to the first day of the second month after the request.
    4. The DMAS determination concerning cause for disenrollment  may be appealed by the member in accordance with the department's client  appeals process at 12VAC30-110-10 through 12VAC30-110-380 12VAC30-110-370.
    5. The current MCO shall provide, within two working days of a  request from DMAS, information necessary to determine cause.
    6. Members enrolled with a MCO who subsequently meet one or  more of the exclusions in subsection B of this section during MCO enrollment  shall be excluded as appropriate by DMAS, with the exception of those who  subsequently become individuals participating in the IFDDS, ID, EDCD,  Day Support, or Alzheimer's federal waiver programs for home-based and  community-based Medicaid coverage. These members shall receive acute and  primary medical services via the MCO and shall receive waiver services and  related transportation to waiver services via the fee-for-service program.
    12VAC30-120-380. Medallion II MCO responsibilities.
    A. The MCO shall provide, at a minimum, all medically  necessary covered services provided under the State Plan for Medical Assistance  and further defined by written DMAS regulations, policies and instructions,  except as otherwise modified or excluded in this part.
    1. Nonemergency services provided by hospital emergency  departments shall be covered by MCOs in accordance with rates negotiated  between the MCOs and the hospital emergency departments.
    2. Services that shall be provided outside the MCO network  shall include, but are not limited to, those services identified and defined by  the contract between DMAS and the MCO. Services reimbursed by DMAS include, but  shall not be limited to, dental and orthodontic services for children up to age  21; for all others, dental services (as described in 12VAC30-50-190),  school health services (as defined in 12VAC30-120-360), community mental  health services (rehabilitative, targeted case management and the following  substance abuse treatment services: emergency services (crisis); intensive  outpatient services; day treatment services; substance abuse case management  services; and opioid treatment services), as defined in 12VAC30-50-228  and 12VAC30-50-491, EPSDT Early Intervention services provided pursuant  to Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) of 2004 (as  defined in 12VAC30-50-131 and 12VAC30-50-415), and long-term care  services provided under the § 1915(c) home-based and community-based waivers  including related transportation to such authorized waiver services.
    3. The MCOs shall pay for emergency services and family  planning services and supplies whether they such services are  provided inside or outside the MCO network.
    B. EPSDT services shall be covered by the MCO and defined by  the contract between DMAS and the MCO. The MCO shall have the authority to  determine the provider of service for EPSDT screenings.
    C. The MCOs shall report data to DMAS under the contract  requirements, which may include data reports, report cards for clients members,  and ad hoc quality studies performed by the MCO or third parties.
    D. Documentation requirements.
    1. The MCO shall maintain records as required by federal and  state law and regulation and by DMAS policy. The MCO shall furnish such  required information to DMAS, the Attorney General of Virginia or his  authorized representatives, or the State Medicaid Fraud Control Unit on request  and in the form requested.
    2. Each MCO shall have written policies regarding enrollee  member rights and shall comply with any applicable federal and state  laws that pertain to enrollee member rights and shall ensure that  its staff and affiliated providers take those rights into account when  furnishing services to enrollees members in accordance with 42  CFR 438.100.
    E. The MCO shall ensure that the health care provided to its clients  members meets all applicable federal and state mandates, community  standards for quality, and standards developed pursuant to the DMAS managed  care quality program.
    F. The MCOs shall promptly provide or arrange for the  provision of all required services as specified in the contract between the state  Commonwealth and the contractor MCO. Medical evaluations  shall be available within 48 hours for urgent care and within 30 calendar days  for routine care. On-call clinicians shall be available 24 hours per day, seven  days per week.
    G. The MCOs must shall meet standards specified  by DMAS for sufficiency of provider networks as specified in the contract  between the state Commonwealth and the contractor MCO.
    H. Each MCO and its subcontractors shall have in place, and  follow, written policies and procedures for processing requests for initial and  continuing authorizations of service. Each MCO and its subcontractors shall  ensure that any decision to deny a service authorization request or to  authorize a service in an amount, duration, or scope that is less than  requested, be made by a health care professional who has appropriate clinical  expertise in treating the enrollee's member's condition or  disease. Each MCO and its subcontractors shall have in effect mechanisms to  ensure consistent application of review criteria for authorization decisions  and shall consult with the requesting provider when appropriate.
    I. In accordance with 42 CFR 447.50 through 42 CFR 447.60,  MCOs shall not impose any cost sharing obligations on enrollees members  except as set forth in 12VAC30-20-150 and 12VAC30-20-160.
    J. An MCO may not prohibit, or otherwise restrict, a health  care professional acting within the lawful scope of practice, from advising or  advocating on behalf of an enrollee a member who is his patient  in accordance with 42 CFR 438.102.
    K. An MCO that would otherwise be required to reimburse for  or provide coverage of a counseling or referral service is not required to do  so if the MCO objects to the service on moral or religious grounds and  furnishes information about the service it does not cover in accordance with 42 CFR  438.102.
    12VAC30-120-390. Payment rate for Medallion II MCOs. 
    The payment rate to MCOs that participate in the mandatory  managed care program shall be set by negotiated contracts and in accordance  with 42 CFR 438.6 and other pertinent federal regulations. 
    12VAC30-120-395. Payment rate for preauthorized or emergency  care provided by out-of-network providers. 
    The MCOs shall pay for preauthorized or emergency services  when provided outside the MCO network. Preauthorized or emergency services  provided to a Medallion II client managed care member by a  provider or facility not participating in the MCO's network will be reimbursed  according to the current Medicaid fee schedule. This reimbursement shall be  considered payment in full to the provider or facility of emergency services. 
    12VAC30-120-400. Quality control and utilization review. 
    A. DMAS shall rigorously monitor the quality of care provided  by the MCOs. DMAS may contract with one or more external quality review  organizations to perform focused studies on the quality of care provided by the  MCOs. The external organizations may utilize data or other tools to ensure contract  compliance and quality improvement activities. Specifically, DMAS shall monitor  to determine if the MCO: 
    1. Fails substantially to provide the medically necessary  items and services required under law or under the contract to be provided to  an enrolled recipient and the failure has adversely affected (or has  substantial likelihood of adversely affecting) the individual. 
    2. Engages in any practice that discriminates against  individuals on the basis of their health status or requirements for health care  services, including expulsion or refusal to reenroll an individual, or any  practice that could reasonably be expected to have the effect of denying or  discouraging enrollment (except as permitted by § 1903(m) of the Social  Security Act (42 USC § 1396b(m))) by eligible individuals whose  medical conditions or histories indicate a need for substantial future medical  services. 
    3. Misrepresents or falsifies information that it furnishes,  under § 1903(m) of the Social Security Act (42 USC § 1396b(m))  to CMS, DMAS, an individual, or any other entity. 
    4. Fails to comply with the requirements of 42 CFR  417.479(d) through (g) relating to physician incentive plans, or fails to  submit to DMAS its physician incentive plans as required or requested in 42 CFR  434.70. 
    5. Imposes on enrollees members premiums or  charges that are in excess of the premiums or charges permitted under the  Medicaid program. 
    B. DMAS shall ensure that data on performance and patient  results are collected. 
    C. DMAS shall ensure that quality outcomes information is  provided to MCOs. DMAS shall ensure that changes which are determined to be  needed as a result of quality control or utilization review are made. 
    12VAC30-120-410. Sanctions. 
    A. If DMAS determines that an MCO is not in compliance with  applicable state or federal laws, regulations (including but not limited to the  requirements of or pursuant to 12VAC30-120-380 E, or 42 CFR 438, Subpart  I), or their Medallion II the MCO contract, DMAS may impose  sanctions on the MCO. The sanctions may include, but are not limited to: 
    1. Limiting enrollments in the MCO by freezing voluntary recipient  member enrollments; 
    2. Freezing DMAS assignment of recipients members  to the MCO; 
    3. Limiting MCO enrollment to specific areas; 
    4. Denying, withholding, or retracting payments to the MCO; 
    5. Terminating the MCO's Medallion II contract; 
    6. Intermediate sanctions including, but not limited to, the  maximum civil money penalties specified in 42 CFR Part 438, Subpart I, for  the violations set forth therein, or in accordance therewith; and 
    7. Civil monetary penalties as specified in 42 CFR  438.704. 
    B. In the case of an MCO that has repeatedly failed to meet  the requirements of §§ 1903(m) and 1932 of the Social Security Act, DMAS  shall, regardless of what other sanctions are imposed, impose the following  sanctions: 
    1. Appoint a temporary manager to: 
    a. Oversee the operation of the Medicaid managed care  organization upon a finding by DMAS that there is continued egregious behavior  by the organization or there is a substantial risk to the health of enrollees  members; or 
    b. Assure the health of the organization's enrollees members  if there is a need for temporary management while (i) there is an orderly  termination or reorganization of the organization or (ii) improvements are made  to remedy the violations found under subsection A of this section. Temporary  management under this subdivision may not be terminated until DMAS has  determined that the MCO has the capability to ensure that the violations shall  not recur. 
    2. Permit individuals members who are enrolled  with the MCO to disenroll without cause. If this sanction is imposed, DMAS  shall be responsible for notifying such individuals members of  the right to disenroll. 
    C. Prior to terminating a contract as permitted under  subdivision A 5 of this section, DMAS shall provide the MCO with a hearing.  DMAS may shall not provide an MCO with a pretermination hearing  before the appointment of a temporary manager under subdivision B 1 of this  section. 
    D. Prior to imposing any sanction other than termination of  the MCO's contract, DMAS shall provide the MCO with notice, develop procedures  with which the MCO must comply to eliminate specific sanctions, and provide  such other due process protections as the Commonwealth may provide. 
    E. In accordance with the terms of the contract, MCOs shall  have the right to appeal any adverse action taken by DMAS. For appeal  procedures not addressed by the contract, the MCO shall proceed in accordance  with the appeals provisions of the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300  et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Pursuant to §§ 2.2-4364 and 2.2-4365 of the  Code of Virginia, DMAS shall establish an administrative appeals procedure  through which the MCO may elect to appeal decisions on disputes arising during  the performance of its contract. Pursuant to § 2.2-4365 of the Code of  Virginia, such appeal shall be heard by a hearing officer; however, in no event  shall the hearing officer be an employee of DMAS. In conducting the  administrative appeal, the hearing officer shall follow the hearing procedure  used in § 2.2-4020 of the Code of Virginia. 
    F. When DMAS determines that an MCO committed one of the  violations specified in 12VAC30-120-400 A, DMAS shall implement the provisions  of 42 CFR 434.67. 
    1. Any sanction imposed pursuant to this subsection shall be  binding upon the MCO. 
    2. The MCO shall have the appeals rights for any sanction  imposed pursuant to this subsection as specified in 42 CFR 434.67. 
    12VAC30-120-420. Client Member grievances and  appeals. 
    A. The MCOs shall, whenever an enrolled client's a  member's request for covered services is reduced, denied or terminated, or  payment for services is denied, provide a written notice in accordance with the  notice provisions specified in 42 CFR 438.404 and 42 CFR 438.210(c), as defined  by the contract between DMAS and the MCO, and any other statutory or regulatory  requirements. 
    B. MCOs shall, at the initiation of either new client member  enrollment or new provider/subcontractor contracts, or at the request of the enrollee  member, provide to every enrollee member the information  described in 42 CFR 438.10(g) concerning grievance/appeal rights and  procedures. 
    C. Disputes between the MCO and the client member  concerning any aspect of service delivery, including medical necessity and  specialist referral, shall be resolved through a verbal or written  grievance/appeals process operated by the MCO or through the DMAS appeals  process. A provider who has the enrollee's member's written  consent may act on behalf of an enrollee a member in the MCO  grievance/appeals or the DMAS appeals process. 
    1. The enrollee member, provider, or  representative acting on behalf of the enrollee member with the enrollee's  member's written consent may file an oral or written grievance or appeal  with the MCO. The MCO must accept grievances or appeals submitted within 30  days from the date of the notice of adverse action. Oral requests for appeals  must be followed up in writing within 10 business days by the enrollee member,  provider, or the representative acting on behalf of the enrollee member  with the enrollee's member's consent, unless the request is for  an expedited appeal. The enrollee member may also file a written  request for a standard or expedited appeal with the DMAS Appeals Division  within 30 days of the client's member's receipt of the notice of  adverse action, in accordance with 42 CFR 431, Subpart E,;  42 CFR Part 438, Subpart F,; and 12VAC30-110 12VAC30-110-10  through 12VAC30-110-370. 
    2. As specified in 12VAC30-110-100, pending the resolution of  a grievance or appeal filed by a client member or his  representative (including a provider acting on behalf of the client) member),  coverage shall not be terminated or reduced for the client member  for any reason which is the subject of the grievance or appeal. 
    3. The MCO shall ensure that the individuals employees  or agents who make decisions on MCO grievances and appeals were not involved  in any previous level of review or decision making, and where the reason for  the grievance or appeal involves clinical issues, relates to a denial or a  request for an expedited appeal, or where the appeal is based on a lack of  medical necessity, shall ensure that the decision makers are health care  professionals with the appropriate clinical expertise in treating the enrollee's  member's condition or disease. 
    D. The MCO shall develop written materials describing the  grievance/appeals system and its procedures and operation. 
    E. The MCO shall maintain a recordkeeping and tracking system  for complaints, grievances, and appeals that includes a copy of the original  complaint, grievance, or appeal; the decision; and the nature of the decision.  This system shall distinguish Medicaid from commercial enrollees members,  if the MCO does not have a separate system for Medicaid enrollees members.  
    F. At the time of enrollment and at the time of any adverse  actions, the MCO shall notify the client member, in writing,  that: 
    1. Medical necessity, specialist referral or other service  delivery issues may be resolved through a system of grievances and appeals,  within the MCO or through the DMAS client appeals process; 
    2. Clients Members have the right to appeal  directly to DMAS; and 
    3. The MCO shall promptly provide grievance or appeal forms,  reasonable assistance and written procedures to clients members  who wish to register written grievances or appeals. 
    G. The MCO shall issue grievance/appeal decisions as defined  by the contract between DMAS and the MCO. Oral grievance decisions are not  required to be in writing. 
    H. The MCO shall issue standard appeal decisions within 30  days from the date of initial receipt of the appeal in accordance with 42 CFR  438.408 and as defined by the contract between DMAS and the MCO. The appeal  decision shall be in writing and shall include, but shall not be limited to,  the following: 
    1. The decision reached, the results and the date of the  decision reached by the MCO; 
    2. The reasons for the decision; 
    3. The policies or procedures that provide the basis for the  decision; 
    4. A clear explanation of further appeal rights and a  timeframe for filing an appeal; and 
    5. For appeals that involve the termination, suspension, or  reduction of a previously authorized course of treatment, the right to continue  to receive benefits in accordance with 42 CFR 438.420 pending a hearing, and  how to request continuation of benefits. 
    I. An expedited appeal decision shall be issued as  expeditiously as the enrollee's member's condition requires and  within three business days in cases of medical emergencies in which delay could  result in death or serious injury to a client member. Extensions  to these timeframes shall be allowed in accordance with 42 CFR 438.408 and as  defined by the contract between DMAS and the MCO. Written confirmation of the  decision shall promptly follow the verbal notice of the expedited decision. 
    J. Any appeal decision issued by the MCO may be appealed by  the client member to DMAS in accordance with the department's  Client Appeals regulations at 12VAC30-110-10 through 12VAC30-110-380 12VAC30-110-370.  DMAS shall conduct an evidentiary hearing in accordance with the Client Appeals  regulations at 12VAC30-110-10 through 12VAC30-110-380 12VAC30-110-370  and shall not base any appealed decision on the record established by any  appeal decision of the MCO. The MCO shall comply with the DMAS appeal decision.  The DMAS decision in these matters shall be final and shall not be subject to  appeal by the MCO. 
    K. The MCO shall provide information necessary for any DMAS  appeal within timeframes established by DMAS. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4135; Filed November 13, 2015, 1:01 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration,  and Scope of Medical and Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-190).
    12VAC30-141. Family Access to Medical Insurance Security  Plan (amending 12VAC30-141-820). 
    Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of  Virginia; 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory  Coordinator, Department of Medical Assistance Services, Policy Division, 600  East Broad Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-6043,  FAX (804) 786-1680, TTY (800) 343-0634, or email  victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia grants  to the Board of Medical Assistance Services the authority to administer and  amend the Plan for Medical Assistance. Section 32.1-324 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS)  to administer and amend the Plan for Medical Assistance according to the  board's requirements. The Medicaid authority as established by § 1902(a)  of the Social Security Act (42 USC § 1396a) provides governing authority  for payments for services.
    In addition, Item 301 LLLL 2 of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts  of Assembly provides that "The Department of Medical Assistance Services  is authorized to amend the State Plan under Title XIX of the Social Security  Act to add coverage for comprehensive dental services to pregnant women  receiving services under the Medicaid program to include: (i) diagnostic, (ii)  preventive, (iii) restorative, (iv) endodontics, (v) periodontics, (vi)  prosthodontics both removable and fixed, (vii) oral surgery, and (viii)  adjunctive general services." An emergency regulation for this purpose is  currently in effect. This proposed regulation would replace the emergency  regulation.
    Purpose: Prior to this action, only those individuals  covered through the Family Access to Medical Insurance Security Plan (FAMIS) or  those younger than the age of 21 years who were covered through Medicaid were  provided dental services. Dental emergency coverage for adults was also  provided. Services are provided to individuals younger than 21 years of age as  long as they are routine diagnostic, preventive, or restorative procedures  necessary for oral health provided by or under the direct supervision of a  dentist in accordance with the State Dental Practice Act.
    Due to the need of pregnant women to receive dental care, the  Governor approved emergency regulations to provide dental care for about 45,000  adult pregnant women enrolled in Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS who already receive  publicly funded Medicaid/FAMIS MOMS health care services. This action seeks to  utilize the authority granted by the Governor to make permanent the dental  services regulation to allow the department to continue to carry out the  Governor's directive.
    Substance: In the past, DMAS covered routine dental  services through the Smiles for Children (SFC) program only for individuals  younger than 21 years of age. Dental services are required by the FAMIS program  (12VAC30-141-500 and 12VAC30-141-830) and by the Early and Periodic Screening,  Diagnosis, and Treatment (EPSDT) Program (42 CFR 440.40(b) and  12VAC30-50-40 B). The covered services are diagnostic x-rays and exams;  preventive cleanings; restorative fillings; endodontics (root canals);  periodontics (gum-related treatments); prosthodontics, both removable and fixed  (crowns, bridges, partials, and dentures); orthodontia; oral surgery  (extractions and other oral surgeries); and adjunctive general services (all covered  services that do not fall into specific professional categories). DMAS also  covers emergency dental care, with the associated diagnostic tests, for adults.  
    Control of dental disease during pregnancy has been shown to  have positive effect on a pregnancy's outcome. Both the American Congress of  Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) and the American Dental Association  (ADA) have published position papers supporting the need for and safety of oral  health care during pregnancy.
    In furtherance of the Governor's Healthy Virginia Plan, DMAS is  working in concert with its dental benefits administrator, DentaQuest, to  design an oral health program for adult pregnant women who are enrolled in  Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS. The service categories are inclusive of those provided  in Virginia's Smiles for Children (SFC) program and, in comparison, are similar  in scope to dental services available through the Virginia Department of Human  Resources dental benefits for state employees, with the exception of  orthodontia services, which will not be covered. 
    Services for adult pregnant women will include the following  when deemed medically appropriate: diagnostic x-rays and exams; preventive  cleanings; restorative fillings; endodontics (root canals); periodontics  (gum-related treatment); prosthodontics, both removable and fixed (crowns,  bridges, partials, and dentures); oral surgery (extractions and other oral  surgeries); and adjunctive general services (all covered services that do not  fall into specific professional categories). The appropriateness of particular  services for an individual pregnant woman will be determined by the dental  provider based on the term of the woman's pregnancy.
    DMAS estimates that approximately 45,000 adult pregnant women  will be eligible for this service. Based on the average per individual  expenditure for dental services, DMAS estimates that this new coverage may cost  approximately $600,000 in state fiscal year (SFY) 2015 (beginning March 1,  2015) and $3.2 million in SFY 2016. The funds for this service derive from  the state general fund and federal matching funds claimed by DMAS.
    Issues: Control of dental disease during and after  pregnancies may have a positive effect on the overall health of mothers and  infants. The advantages to indigent pregnant women will be the availability of  dental services. The advantage to the Commonwealth and citizens will be the  improved health outcomes with the related cost savings. The disadvantage is a  slight increase in Commonwealth expenditures. However, this cost is partially  offset by the matching funds received from the Centers for Medicare and  Medicaid Services.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to  the 2015 Acts of Assembly, Chapter 6651, Item 301 LLLL(2), the Board  of Medical Assistance Services (Board) proposes to add adult pregnant women to  the individuals eligible to receive full dental services (excluding  orthodontia) through Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS. An emergency regulation for this purpose  is currently in effect. This proposed regulation would replace the emergency  regulation.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Prior to the legislation and  emergency regulation, the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) only  covered comprehensive dental services including orthodontia (12VAC30-50-190 and  42 CFR 440.100) for individuals under the age of 19 who were covered  through the Family Access to Medical Insurance Security (FAMIS) plan and for  individuals up to the age of 21 as a required element of the Early and Periodic  Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment program (12VAC30-50-130(B) and 42 CFR  440.40(b)). Only emergency dental care with the associated diagnostic tests was  covered for adults (ages 21 and older). The Board proposes to cover dental  care, excluding orthodontia, for adult pregnant women enrolled in Medicaid and  FAMIS MOMS.
    Peer-reviewed studies have found that improved oral health  during pregnancy decreases transmission of potentially cariogenic bacteria to  infants.2 Both the American Congress of Obstetricians and  Gynecologists3 and the American Dental Association4 have  published position papers supporting the need for and safety of oral health  care during pregnancy. Thus, providing dental services through Medicaid for  adult pregnant women will provide significant health benefits for both the  women and their babies.
    DMAS calculates that approximately 45,000 adult women are  pregnant and enrolled in Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS at any point within a year.  The agency also estimates that the state share of the costs of this program  would be approximately $1.6 million for fiscal year 2016. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendment  affects dental practices, the dental benefits administrator DentaQuest, and the  approximate 45,000 women who are pregnant and enrolled in Medicaid and FAMIS  MOMS at any point within a year.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendment does  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendment may  moderately increase staffing needs for dental practices. 
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendment will create additional business for dental practices.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendment will not  affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of  the Code of Virginia, small business is defined as "a business entity,  including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii)  employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less  than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendment is unlikely to  increase costs for small businesses.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed  amendment will not adversely affect small businesses.
    Adverse Impacts: Businesses: The proposed amendment will not  adversely affect businesses.
    Localities: The proposed amendment will not adversely affect  localities.
    Other Entities: The proposed amendment will cost the  Commonwealth (taxpayers) approximately $1.6 million annually.
    ____________________________________________
    1This is the 2015 Appropriation Act.
    2Meyer K, Geurtsen W, Gunay H. "An early oral  health care program starting during pregnancy: results of a prospective  clinical long-term study." Clin Oral Investig 2010;14:257–64.
    Gomez SS,Weber AA.  "Effectiveness of a caries preventive program in pregnant women and new  mothers on their offspring." Int J Paediatr Dent 2001;11:117–22.
    Kohler B, Andreen I, Jonsson B.  "The effect of caries-preventive measures in mothers on dental caries and  the oral presence of the bacteria Streptococcus mutans and lactobacilli in  their children." Arch Oral Biol 1984;29:879–83.
    3"Oral health care during pregnancy and through the  lifespan." Committee Opinion No. 569. American College of Obstetricians  and Gynecologists. Obstet Gynecol 2013;122:417–22.
    4"Pregnant dental patients: Health groups spread word  that dental care is safe, necessary." American Dental Association. ADA  News May 20, 2013.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of  Planning and Budget regarding the regulations concerning Dental Services for  Pregnant Women. The agency raises no issues with this analysis. 
    Summary:
    Pursuant to Item 301 LLLL 2 of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts  of Assembly, the proposed amendments add adult pregnant women to the individuals  eligible to receive full dental services, excluding orthodontia, through  Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS. 
    12VAC30-50-190. Dental services. 
    A. Dental services are limited to recipients under shall  be covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age in fulfillment of  the treatment requirements under the Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis,  and Treatment (EPSDT) Program and defined as routine diagnostic, preventive, or  restorative procedures necessary for oral health provided by or under the  direct supervision of a dentist in accordance with the State Dental Practice  Act. 
    1. The state agency will provide any medically necessary  dental service to individuals younger than 21 years of age.
    B. 2. Certain dental services, as  described in the agency's Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children, copyright  2005) March 13, 2014), prepared by DMAS' dental benefits  administrator, require preauthorization or prepayment review by the state  agency or its designee. 
    3. Dental services for individuals younger than the age of  21 years that do not require preauthorization or prepayment review are initial,  periodic, and emergency examinations; required radiography necessary to develop  a treatment plan; patient education; dental prophylaxis; fluoride treatments;  routine amalgam and composite restorations; stainless steel crowns,  prefabricated steel post and temporary (polycarbonate crowns) and stainless  steel bands; crown recementation; pulpotomies; emergency endodontics for  temporary relief of pain; pulp capping; sedative fillings; therapeutic apical  closure; topical palliative treatment for dental pain; removal of foreign body;  simple extractions; root recovery; incision and drainage of abscess; surgical  exposure of the tooth to aid eruption; sequestrectomy for osteomyelitis; and  oral antral fistula closure. 
    C. B. Dental services determined by the  dental provider to be medically appropriate for an adult woman during the term  of her pregnancy and through the end of the month following the 60th day  postpartum shall be provided to a Medicaid-enrolled pregnant woman. The dental  services that shall be covered are (i) diagnostic x-rays and exams; (ii)  preventive cleanings; (iii) restorative fillings; (iv) endodontics (root  canals); (v) periodontics (gum-related treatments); (vi) prosthodontics, both  removable and fixed (crowns, bridges, partial plates, and dentures); (vii) oral  surgery (tooth extractions and other oral surgeries); and (viii) adjunctive  general services (all covered services that do not fall into specific professional  categories). These services require prepayment review by the state agency or  its designee.
    C. The For the dental services covered for  Medicaid-enrolled adult pregnant women, the state agency may place  appropriate limits on a service based on medical necessity, for utilization  control, or both. Examples of service limitations are: examinations,  prophylaxis, fluoride treatment (once/six months); space maintenance  appliances; bitewing x-ray—two films (once/12 months); routine amalgam and  composite restorations (once/three years); dentures (once/five years);  extractions, orthodontics, tooth guidance appliances, permanent crowns  and bridges, endodontics, patient education and sealants (once). 
    D. Limited oral surgery procedures, as defined and covered  under Title XVIII (Medicare), are covered for all recipients, and require  preauthorization or prepayment review by the state agency or its designee as  described in the agency's Office Reference Manual located on the DMAS website  at: (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf)  http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf.
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE  (12VAC30-50) 
    Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth  Edition DSM-IV-TR, copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
    Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,  1996, HCIA, Inc.
    Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,  American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and  Gynecologists
    Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and  Addenda
    Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by  DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2005  (www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf).  
    Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by  DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2010, dated March 13, 2014 (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf)
    Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of  Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,  American Society of Addiction Medicine
    Virginia  Medicaid Durable Medical Equipment and Supplies Provider Manual, Appendix B  (rev. 1/11), Department of Medical Assistance Services
    Human  Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, Department of  Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (rev. 5/13)
    12VAC30-141-820. Benefit packages. 
    Pregnant women covered through FAMIS MOMS may receive the  same medical and dental services and are subject to the same limitations  on services as pregnant women (see 12VAC30-50-190) covered by the  Medicaid program as defined in 12VAC30-10-140 and 12VAC30-50-10. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4215; Filed November 13, 2015, 12:28 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AND DEVELOPMENTAL SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC35-115. Regulations to  Assure the Rights of Individuals Receiving Services from Providers Licensed,  Funded, or Operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental  Services (amending 12VAC35-115-10, 12VAC35-115-30,  12VAC35-115-50, 12VAC35-115-60, 12VAC35-115-90, 12VAC35-115-100,  12VAC35-115-110, 12VAC35-115-130, 12VAC35-115-145, 12VAC35-115-150,  12VAC35-115-180, 12VAC35-115-190, 12VAC35-115-200, 12VAC35-115-210,  12VAC35-115-230; adding 12VAC35-115-105, 12VAC35-115-175, 12VAC35-115-260,  12VAC35-115-270; repealing 12VAC35-115-140, 12VAC35-115-170, 12VAC35-115-250). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 37.2-203 and 37.2-400 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    December 16, 2015 - 9 a.m. - Department of Behavioral  Health and Developmental Services, 13th Floor, Large Conference Room, Jefferson  Building, 1220 Bank Street, Richmond, VA 23219
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Deb Lochart, Director, Office of Human  Rights, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, Jefferson  Building, 1220 Bank Street, 13th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)  786-0032, FAX (804) 371-2308, or email deb.lochart@dbhds.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The State Board of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services has the authority to promulgate the amendments pursuant  to §§ 37.2-203 and 37.2-400 of the Code of Virginia. Section 37.2-203 of the  Code of Virginia authorizes the board to adopt regulations that may be  necessary to carry out the provisions of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia and  other laws of the Commonwealth administered by the commissioner or the  department. Section 37.2-400 of the Code of Virginia provides the board with  authority to adopt regulations pertaining to rights of individuals receiving services  in a hospital, training center, other facility, or program operated, funded or  licensed by the department.
    Purpose: The purpose of the revisions to the human  rights regulations is to streamline the human rights system from the current  administrative model to a more efficient model, thus improving the ability of  the Office of Human Rights to perform its mandated responsibilities of  oversight and advocacy and maximize resources, in a manner that promotes the  vision for individuals receiving services of recovery, self-determination,  empowerment, and community integration while protecting their health, safety,  and welfare. 
    The regulatory changes will reduce the number of local human  rights committees (LHRCs) and fundamentally modify their role and function by  shifting from a focus on provider administrative and support activities to  review and approval of planned restrictions to the rights of individuals  receiving services. The regulatory changes also reorganize and simplify the  information regarding the complaint process to clarify expectations and  underscore the individuals' due process rights.
    The proposed amendments are intended to:
    1. Increase the availability and flexibility of human rights  advocates for direct involvement with individuals receiving services and other  critical functions by clarifying (i) the administrative responsibilities of the  Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services with regards to the  operation of the human rights system, (ii) the role of the human rights advocate,  (iii) the role of the local human rights committee (LHRC), and (iv) the role of  the State Human Rights Committee (SHRC).
    2. Simplify the administrative processes regarding the dispute  resolution process, the behavior treatment plan review, and substitute  decision-making and eliminate redundant or duplicative activities.
    3. Enhance the user friendliness of the regulations by  reorganizing and reducing the size of the regulation and simplifying the  language of the regulation.
    Substance: The substantive proposed amendments include:
    1. Operational functions of the system have been removed from  LHRCs, providers, and the SHRC and placed with the department.
    2. The department has an increased responsibility for the  overall functioning of the human rights system by supporting LHRCs with  resources, training, and consultation. 
    3. The department, in consultation with the SHRC, will set the  number of local human rights committees. 
    4. LHRC duties will now focus on individual rights (e.g.,  complaints, behavior plans, and variances), and the LHRC duties will not  include monitoring providers (e.g., review of policies, reporting requirements,  attendance requirements, etc.).
    5. Expanded LHRC review of all restrictions lasting longer than  seven days and any plans that proposed to restrict an individual's rights. 
    6. Human rights advocates will have increased responsibilities  to train all stakeholders on regulatory protections.
    7. Providers will no longer affiliate with an LHRC, rather  providers will access the committee in their locality if there is an issue that  requires review. Providers will no longer be required to attend LHRC meetings.
    8. Complaint processes are consolidated into one section.
    9. The use of prone restraints is prohibited.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is a  streamlined, more efficient human rights system that shifts from the current  administrative model to one that more directly promotes and supports the  individual receiving services. There are more than 70 local human rights  committees (LHRCs) across the Commonwealth. The regulatory changes will reduce  the number of LHRCs and fundamentally modify their role and function by  shifting from a focus on provider administrative and support activities to  review and approval of planned restrictions to the rights of individuals  receiving services. The proposed amendments also reorganize and simplify the  information regarding the complaint process to clarify expectations and  underscore the individuals' due process rights. There is no known disadvantage  to the public, the department, or the Commonwealth.
    Small Business Impact Review Report of Findings: This  regulatory action serves as the report of the findings of the regulatory review  pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State  Board of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (Board) proposes to amend  its regulation that governs procedures for protecting the human rights of individuals  who are receiving mental health services, developmental services or substance  abuse services through providers that are licensed or operated by the  Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS). The Board  specifically proposes to update obsolete language in this regulation and  consolidate all processes for human rights complaints into one place in the  regulation. The Board also proposes to change the regulatory responsibilities  of local human rights committees (LHRCs) so that they will no longer handle  administrative tasks but will instead have more authority to oversee treatment  plans that contain restrictions on human rights as defined by this regulation.
    Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for most of  the Board's proposed regulatory changes. For at least one proposed change,  there is insufficient information to ascertain whether benefits will likely  outweigh costs. 
    Estimated Economic Impact. Currently this regulation contains  many obsolete references to terms no longer commonly used by DBHDS and has  various rules for the rights and responsibilities of care providers and clients  as well as complaint procedures scattered throughout various regulatory  sections. The Board now proposes to update obsolete regulatory language and to  gather all rules for the human right complaint process into one section of this  regulation. No entity is likely to incur any costs on account of these changes.  These changes will, however, benefit interested parties in that the regulatory language  now reflects currently used terminology and all rules for the human rights  complaint process will be more easily found because they will all be in one  place.
    The current regulation also contains rules for providers and  the 80 LHRCs in the Commonwealth to interact and cooperate. Included in these  rules are the requirements that providers supply all monetary support needed by  the LHRCs, attend LHRC meetings and get LHRC approval for any treatment plans  that include physical restraint of clients. Board staff reports that, while all  LHRCs receive support from their provider assignees, only about half of LHRCs  (about 40) actually have an explicit dollar cost attached that providers had to  pay. These costs range between $25 and $450 annually. Board staff reports that  LHRCs currently handle many administrative and operational tasks that the Board  believes could better be handled by DBHDS which would leave LHRCs more time to  expand their oversight of more client treatment plans and to provide more  client support during the complaint process. 
    Accordingly, the Board proposes to reorganize and amend these  regulations so that DBHDS is responsible for administrative and training tasks  currently provided through provider funding. Board staff reports that the Board  anticipates reducing the number of LHRCs from the current 80 to fewer than 10.  Under this proposed regulation, LHRCs will be responsible for approving  treatment plans where human rights as defined by this regulation may be  impacted in addition to approving any treatment plans that include plans for  physical restraint. Providers that currently pay an explicit amount per year to  support their affiliate LHRCs will see savings of between $25 and $450 per  year. Providers that do not currently pay explicit dollar amounts but instead  volunteer staff to provide administrative help and pay for other support like  gas cards for LHRC members on an ad hoc basis will save the value of their  staff's paid time spent on LHRC administration plus the costs of any other ad  hoc support currently provided. These cost savings may be partially or  completely offset by increased travel costs for providers to attend meetings  with a drastically reduced number of LHRCs that presumably would be housed  farther from at least some assigned providers. Provider savings may also be  offset by increased travel and staff costs associated with gaining approval for  treatment plans that may impact clients human rights to freedom of movement,  freedom to communicate, associate and meet privately with anyone the client  chooses, freedom to have and spend personal money or any of the other human  rights listed in 12VAC35-115-100.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. This proposed regulation will  affect all service providers licensed or operated by the Board as well as the  clients they serve. Board staff estimates that approximately 900 providers will  be affected and that all of these providers would qualify as small businesses.  Additionally, Board staff reports that there are approximately 55 public  facilities that will be affected.
    Localities Particularly Affected. No localities will be  particularly affected by this proposed regulatory change.
    Projected Impact on Employment. This regulatory action will  likely have little impact on employment in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. This  regulatory action will likely have no impact on the use or value of private  property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. Small business  service providers may see some cost savings as they will no longer be  responsible for fully funding the operations of the LHRCs to which they are  assigned. However, any savings may be partially or completely offset by  increased time and travel costs incurred if they have to travel greater  distances to attend LHRC meetings that would likely be farther away once the  number of LHRCs is drastically cut.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. There are likely no alternative methods that would both satisfy the  Board's aims and further reduce travel and time costs that either service  providers or members of LHRCs will likely have to incur.
    Real Estate Development Costs. This regulatory action will  likely have no effect on real estate development costs in the Commonwealth.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency concurs with the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of  Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments (i) increase the availability and  flexibility of human rights advocates for direct involvement with individuals  receiving services and other critical functions by clarifying the  administrative responsibilities of the department with regards to the operation  of the human rights system and clarifying the roles of the human rights  advocate, the local human rights committee (LHRC), and the State Human Rights  Committee (SHRC); (ii) modify the regulatory responsibilities of LHRCs, which  will no longer handle administrative tasks but will have more authority to  oversee treatment plans that contain restrictions on human rights; (iii)  simplify the administrative processes regarding the dispute resolution process,  the behavior treatment plan review, and substitute decision-making and  eliminate redundant or duplicative activities; (iv) consolidate complaint processes  into one section of the regulation; (v) prohibit the use of prone restraints;  and (vi) update and simplify language.
    Part I 
  General Provisions 
    12VAC35-115-10. Authority and applicability. 
    A. The Code of Virginia authorizes these regulations to  further define and protect the rights of individuals receiving services from  providers of mental health, mental retardation developmental, or  substance abuse services in Virginia. The regulations require This  chapter requires providers of services to take specific actions to protect  the rights of each individual. The regulations establish This chapter  establishes remedies when rights are violated or are in dispute,  and provide provides a structure for support of these rights.
    B. Providers subject to these regulations this  chapter include:
    1. Facilities operated by the department under Chapters 3  (§ 37.2-300 et seq.) and 7 (§ 37.2-700 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the  Code of Virginia;
    2. Sexually violent predator programs established under  § 37.2-909 of the Code of Virginia;
    3. Community services boards that provide services under  Chapter 5 (§ 37.2-500 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia;
    4. Behavioral health authorities that provide services under  Chapter 6 (§ 37.2-600 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia;
    5. Public or private providers that operate programs or  facilities licensed by the department under Article 2 (§ 37.2-403 et seq.)  of Chapter 4 of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia except those operated by the  Department of Corrections; and
    6. Any other providers receiving funding from the department.  Providers of services under Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities  Education Act (IDEA), 20 USC §§ 1431-1444, that are subject to these  regulations this chapter solely by receipt of Part C funds from or  through the department shall comply with all applicable IDEA regulations found  in 34 CFR Part 303 in lieu of these regulations this chapter. 
    C. Unless another law takes precedence otherwise  provided by law, these regulations apply this chapter applies  to all individuals who are receiving services from a public or private provider  of services operated, licensed, or funded by the Department of  Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, except those operated by the  Department of Corrections.
    D. These regulations apply This chapter applies  to individuals under forensic status and individuals committed to the custody  of the department as sexually violent predators, except to the extent that the  commissioner may determine these regulations are this chapter is  not applicable to them. The exemption must shall be in writing  and based solely on the need to protect individuals receiving services,  employees, or the general public. The commissioner shall give the State Human  Rights Committee (SHRC) chairperson prior notice of all exemptions and provide  the written exemption to the SHRC for its information. These exemptions shall  be time limited and services shall not be compromised.
    12VAC35-115-30. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Abuse" means any act or failure to act by an  employee or other person responsible for the care of an individual in a  facility or program operated, licensed, or funded by the department, excluding  those operated by the Department of Corrections, that was performed or was  failed to be performed knowingly, recklessly, or intentionally, and that caused  or might have caused physical or psychological harm, injury, or death to a  person receiving care or treatment for mental illness, mental retardation  intellectual disability, or substance abuse. Examples of abuse include  acts such as:
    1. Rape, sexual assault, or other criminal sexual behavior;
    2. Assault or battery;
    3. Use of language that demeans, threatens, intimidates,  or humiliates the person;
    4. Misuse or misappropriation of the person's assets, goods,  or property;
    5. Use of excessive force when placing a person in physical or  mechanical restraint;
    6. Use of physical or mechanical restraints on a person that  is not in compliance with federal and state laws, regulations, and policies,;  professionally accepted standards of practice,; or the person's  individualized services plan; and
    7. Use of more restrictive or intensive services or denial of  services to punish the person or that is not consistent with his individualized  services plan. See § 37.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Advance directive" means a document voluntarily  executed in accordance with § 54.1-2983 of the Code of Virginia or the  laws of another state where executed (§ 54.1-2993 of the Code of  Virginia). This may include a wellness recovery action plan (WRAP) or similar  document as long as it is executed in accordance with § 54.1-2983 of the  Code of Virginia or the laws of another state. A WRAP or similar document may  identify the health care agent who is authorized to act as the individual's  substitute decision maker.
    "Authorization" means a document signed by the  individual receiving services or that individual's authorized representative  that authorizes the provider to disclose identifying information about the  individual. An authorization must shall be voluntary. To be  voluntary, the authorization must shall be given by the  individual receiving services or his authorized representative freely and  without undue inducement,; any element of force, fraud, deceit,  or duress,; or any form of constraint or coercion.
    "Authorized representative" means a person  permitted by law or these regulations this chapter to authorize  the disclosure of information or to consent to treatment and services or  participation in human research. The decision-making authority of an authorized  representative recognized or designated under these regulations this  chapter is limited to decisions pertaining to the designating provider.  Legal guardians, attorneys-in-fact, or health care agents appointed pursuant to  § 54.1-2983 of the Code of Virginia may have decision-making authority  beyond such provider.
    "Behavior intervention" means those principles and  methods employed by a provider to help an individual to achieve a positive  outcome and to address challenging behavior in a constructive and safe manner.  Behavior management principles and methods must be employed in accordance with  the individualized services plan and written policies and procedures governing  service expectations, treatment goals, safety, and security.
    "Behavioral treatment plan," "functional  plan," or "behavioral support plan" means any set  of documented procedures that are an integral part of the individualized  services plan and are developed on the basis of a systematic data collection,  such as a functional assessment, for the purpose of assisting an individual to  achieve the following:
    1. Improved behavioral functioning and effectiveness;
    2. Alleviation of symptoms of psychopathology; or
    3. Reduction of challenging behaviors.
    "Board" means the Board of Behavioral Health and  Developmental Services.
    "Caregiver" means an employee or contractor who  provides care and support services; medical services; or other treatment,  rehabilitation, or habilitation services.
    "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the  Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
    "Community services board" or "CSB" means  the public body established pursuant to § 37.2-501 of the Code of Virginia  that provides mental health, mental retardation developmental,  and substance abuse services to individuals within each city and county that  established it. For the purpose of these regulations, community services board  also includes a behavioral health authority established pursuant to  § 37.2-602 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Complaint" means an allegation of a violation of these  regulations this chapter or a provider's policies and procedures related  to these regulations this chapter. 
    "Consent" means the voluntary agreement of an  individual or that individual's authorized representative to specific services.  
    Consent must shall be given freely and without  undue inducement,; any element of force, fraud, deceit, or duress,;  or any form of constraint or coercion. Consent may be expressed through any  means appropriate for the individual, including verbally, through physical  gestures or behaviors, in Braille or American Sign Language, in writing, or through  other methods.
    "Department" means the Department of Behavioral  Health and Developmental Services.
    "Director" means the chief executive officer of any  provider delivering services. In organizations that also include services not  covered by these regulations this chapter, the director is the  chief executive officer of the services or services licensed, funded, or  operated by the department. 
    "Discharge plan" means the written plan that  establishes the criteria for an individual's discharge from a service and  identifies and coordinates delivery of any services needed after discharge.
    "Disclosure" means the release by a provider of  information identifying an individual.
    "Emergency" means a situation that requires a  person to take immediate action to avoid harm, injury, or death to an  individual or to others.
    "Exploitation" means the misuse or misappropriation  of the individual's assets, goods, or property. Exploitation is a type of  abuse. (See § 37.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.) Exploitation also  includes the use of a position of authority to extract personal gain from an  individual. Exploitation includes violations of 12VAC35-115-120 (Work)  and 12VAC35-115-130 (Research). Exploitation does not include the  billing of an individual's third party payer for services. Exploitation also  does not include instances of use or appropriation of an individual's assets,  goods or property when permission is given by the individual or his authorized  representative:
    1. With full knowledge of the consequences;
    2. With no inducements; and
    3. Without force, misrepresentation, fraud, deceit, duress of  any form, constraint, or coercion.
    "Governing body of the provider" means the person  or group of persons with final authority to establish policy. For the  purpose of these regulations, the governing body of a CSB means the public body  established according to Chapter 5 (§ 37.2-500 et seq.) or Chapter 6 (§ 37.2-600 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia, and shall include  administrative policy community services boards, operating community services  boards, local government departments with policy-advisory boards, and the board  of a behavioral health authority. 
    "Habilitation" means the provision of  individualized services conforming to current acceptable professional practice  that enhance the strengths of, teach functional skills to, or reduce or  eliminate challenging behaviors of an individual. These services occur in an  environment that suits the individual's needs, responds to his preferences, and  promotes social interaction and adaptive behaviors. 
    "Health care operations" means any activities of  the provider to the extent that the activities are related to its provision of  health care services. Examples include:
    1. Conducting quality assessment and improvement activities,  case management and care coordination, contacting of health care providers and  patients with information about treatment alternatives, and related functions  that do not include treatment;
    2. Reviewing the competence or qualifications of health care professionals,  evaluating practitioner and provider performance, and training, licensing or  credentialing activities;
    3. Conducting or arranging for medical review, legal services,  and auditing functions, including fraud and abuse detection and compliance programs;  and
    4. Other activities contained within the definition of health  care operations in the Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable  Health Information, 45 CFR 164.501.
    "Health plan" means an individual or group plan  that provides or pays the cost of medical care, including any entity that meets  the definition of "health plan" in the Standards for Privacy of  Individually Identifiable Health Information, 45 CFR 160.103.
    "Historical research" means the review of  information that identifies individuals receiving services for the purpose of  evaluating or otherwise collecting data of general historical significance. See  12VAC35-115-80 B (Confidentiality).
    "Human research" means any systematic  investigation, including research development, testing, and evaluation,  utilizing human subjects, that is designed to develop or contribute to  generalized knowledge. Human research shall not include research exempt from  federal research regulations pursuant to 45 CFR 46.101(b).
    "Human rights advocate" means a person employed by  the commissioner upon recommendation of the State Human Rights Director to help  individuals receiving services exercise their rights under this chapter. See  12VAC35-115-250 C.
    "Independent review committee" means a committee  appointed or accessed by a provider to review and approve the clinical efficacy  of the provider's behavioral treatment plans and associated data collection  procedures. An independent review committee shall be composed of professionals  with training and experience in applied behavioral analysis who are not  involved in the development of the plan or directly providing services to the  individual.
    "Individual" means a person who is receiving  services. This term includes the terms "consumer,"  "patient," "resident," "recipient," and  "client."
    "Individualized services plan" or "ISP"  means a comprehensive and regularly updated written plan that describes the  individual's needs, the measurable goals and objectives to address those needs,  and strategies to reach the individual's goals. An ISP is person-centered,  empowers the individual, and is designed to meet the needs and preferences of  the individual. The ISP is developed through a partnership between the  individual and the provider and includes an individual's treatment plan,  habilitation plan, person-centered plan, or plan of care. 
    "Informed consent" means the voluntary written  agreement of an individual, or that individual's authorized representative to  surgery, electroconvulsive treatment, use of psychotropic medications, or any  other treatment or service that poses a risk of harm greater than that  ordinarily encountered in daily life or for participation in human research. To  be voluntary, informed consent must be given freely and without undue  inducement,; any element of force, fraud, deceit, or duress,;  or any form of constraint or coercion.
    "Inspector general" means a person appointed by  the Governor to provide oversight by inspecting, monitoring, and reviewing the  quality of services that providers deliver.
    "Investigating authority" means any person or  entity that is approved by the provider to conduct investigations of abuse and  neglect.
    "Licensed professional" means a physician, licensed  clinical psychologist, licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical  social worker, licensed or certified substance abuse treatment practitioner, or  certified psychiatric nurse specialist practitioner.
    "Local Human Rights Committee human rights  committee" or "LHRC" means a group of at least five people  appointed by the State Human Rights Committee. See 12VAC35-115-250 D for  membership and duties.
    "Neglect" means failure by a person, program, or  facility operated, licensed, or funded by the department, excluding those  operated by the Department of Corrections, responsible for providing services  to do so, including nourishment, treatment, care, goods, or services necessary  to the health, safety, or welfare of a person an individual  receiving care or treatment for mental illness, mental retardation intellectual  disability, or substance abuse. See § 37.2-100 of the Code of  Virginia.
    "Next friend" means a person designated in  accordance with 12VAC35-115-146 B to serve as the authorized representative of  an individual who has been determined to lack capacity to consent or authorize  the disclosure of identifying information, when required under these  regulations this chapter.
    "Peer-on-peer aggression" means a physical act,  verbal threat, or demeaning expression by an individual against or to  another individual that causes physical or emotional harm to that individual.  Examples include hitting, kicking, scratching, and other threatening behavior.  Such instances may constitute potential neglect.
    "Person centered" means focusing on the needs and  preferences of the individual, empowering and supporting the individual in  defining the direction for his life, and promoting self-determination,  community involvement, and recovery. 
    "Program rules" means the operational rules and  expectations that providers establish to promote the general safety and well-being  of all individuals in the program and to set standards for how individuals will  interact with one another in the program. Program rules include any expectation  that produces a consequence for the individual within the program. Program  rules may be included in a handbook or policies and shall be available to the  individual.
    "Protection and advocacy agency" means the state  agency designated under the federal Protection and Advocacy for Individuals  with Mental Illness Act (PAIMI) Act and the Developmental  Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act (DD) Act. The  protection and advocacy agency is the Virginia Office for Protection and  Advocacy disAbility Law Center of Virginia (dLCV).
    "Provider" means any person, entity, or  organization offering services that is licensed, funded, or operated by the  department.
    "Psychotherapy notes" means comments,  recorded in any medium by a health care provider who is a mental health  professional, documenting and analyzing the contents of conversation  during a private counseling session with an individual or a group, joint,  or family counseling session that are separated from the rest of the  individual's health record. "Psychotherapy notes" shall  not include annotations relating to medication and prescription monitoring,  counseling session start and stop times, treatment modalities and frequencies,  clinical test results, or any summary of any symptoms, diagnosis, prognosis,  functional status, treatment plan, or the individual's progress to date.
    "Research review committee" or "institutional  review board" means a committee of professionals that provides complete  and adequate review of research activities. The committee shall be sufficiently  qualified through maturity, experience, and diversity of its members, including  consideration of race, gender, and cultural background, to promote respect for  its advice and counsel in safeguarding the rights and welfare of participants  in human research. (See § 37.2-402 of the Code of Virginia and  12VAC35-180.)
    "Restraint" means the use of a mechanical device,  medication, physical intervention, or hands-on hold to prevent an individual  from moving his body to engage in a behavior that places him or others at  imminent risk. There are three kinds of restraints:
    1. Mechanical restraint means the use of a mechanical device  that cannot be removed by the individual to restrict the freedom of movement or  functioning of a limb or a portion of an individual's body when that behavior  places him or others at imminent risk.
    2. Pharmacological restraint means the use of a medication  that is administered involuntarily for the emergency control of an individual's  behavior when that individual's behavior places him or others at imminent risk  and the administered medication is not a standard treatment for the  individual's medical or psychiatric condition.
    3. Physical restraint, also referred to as manual hold, means  the use of a physical intervention or hands-on hold to prevent an individual  from moving his body when that individual's behavior places him or others at  imminent risk.
    "Restraints for behavioral purposes" means using a  physical hold, medication, or a mechanical device to control behavior or  involuntarily restrict the freedom of movement of an individual in an instance  when all of the following conditions are met: (i) there is an emergency, (ii)  nonphysical interventions are not viable, and (iii) safety issues require an  immediate response.
    "Restraints for medical purposes" means using a  physical hold, medication, or mechanical device to limit the mobility of an  individual for medical, diagnostic, or surgical purposes, such as routine  dental care or radiological procedures and related postprocedure care  processes, when use of the restraint is not the accepted clinical practice for  treating the individual's condition.
    "Restraints for protective purposes" means using a  mechanical device to compensate for a physical or cognitive deficit when the  individual does not have the option to remove the device. The device may limit  an individual's movement, for example, bed rails or a gerichair, and prevent  possible harm to the individual or it may create a passive barrier, such as a  helmet to protect the individual. 
    "Restriction" means anything that limits or  prevents an individual from freely exercising his rights and privileges.
    "SCC" means a specially constituted committee  serving an intermediate care facility as described in the Centers for Medicare  and Medicaid Services (CMS) Conditions of Participation (42 CFR 483.440(f)(3)).
    "Seclusion" means the involuntary placement of an  individual alone in an area secured by a door that is locked or held shut by a  staff person, by physically blocking the door, or by any other physical or  verbal means, so that the individual cannot leave it.
    "Serious injury" means any injury resulting in  bodily hurt, damage, harm, or loss that requires medical attention by a  licensed physician.
    "Services" means care, treatment, training,  habilitation, interventions, or other supports, including medical care,  delivered by a provider licensed, operated or funded by the department.
    "Services record" means all written and electronic  information that a provider keeps about an individual who receives services.
    "State Human Rights Committee" or "SHRC"  means a committee of nine members appointed by the board that is accountable  for the duties prescribed in 12VAC35-115-250 E 12VAC35-115-270.  See 12VAC35-115-250 E 12VAC35-115-270 C 8 for membership and  duties.
    "State Human Rights Director human rights  director" means the person employed by and reporting to the  commissioner who is responsible for carrying out the functions prescribed in 12VAC35-115-250  F 12VAC35-115-260 D .
    "Time out" means the involuntary removal of an  individual by a staff person from a source of reinforcement to a different,  open location for a specified period of time or until the problem behavior has  subsided to discontinue or reduce the frequency of problematic behavior.
    "Treatment" means the individually planned, sound,  and therapeutic interventions that are intended to improve or maintain  functioning of an individual receiving services delivered by providers  licensed, funded, or operated by the department. In order to be  considered sound and therapeutic, the treatment must shall  conform to current acceptable professional practice.
    Part III 
  Explanation of Individual Rights and Provider Duties 
    12VAC35-115-50. Dignity. 
    A. Each individual has a right to exercise his legal, civil,  and human rights, including constitutional rights, statutory rights, and the  rights contained in these regulations this chapter, except as  specifically limited herein in this chapter or otherwise by law.  Each individual has a right to have services that he receives respond to his  needs and preferences and be person-centered. Each individual also has the  right to be protected, respected, and supported in exercising these rights.  Providers shall not partially or totally take away or limit these rights solely  because an individual has a mental illness, mental retardation, health  or substance use disorder or an intellectual disability and is receiving  services for these conditions or has any physical or sensory condition that may  pose a barrier to communication or mobility.
    B. In receiving all services, each individual has the right  to:
    1. Use his preferred or legal name. The use of an individual's  preferred name may be limited when a licensed professional makes the  determination that the use of the name will result in demonstrable harm or have  significant negative impact on the program itself or the individual's  treatment, progress, and recovery. The director or his designee shall discuss  the issue with the individual and inform the human rights advocate of the  reasons for any restriction prior to implementation and the reasons for the  restriction shall be documented in the individual's services record. The need  for the restriction shall be reviewed by the team every month and documented in  the services record.
    2. Be protected from harm including abuse, neglect, and  exploitation.
    3. Have help in learning about, applying for, and fully using  any public service or benefit to which he may be entitled. These services and  benefits include educational or vocational services, housing assistance,  services or benefits under Titles II, XVI, XVIII, and XIX of the Social  Security Act, United States Veterans Benefits, and services from legal and  advocacy agencies.
    4. Have opportunities to communicate in private with lawyers,  judges, legislators, clergy, licensed health care practitioners, authorized  representatives, advocates, the Office of the State Inspector General (§ 2.2-308  of the Code of Virginia), and employees of the protection and advocacy agency.
    5. Be provided with general information about program  services, policies, and rules in writing and in the manner, format and language  easily understood by the individual.
    6. Be afforded the opportunity to have an individual of his  choice notified of his general condition, location, and transfer to another  facility.
    C. In services provided in residential and inpatient  settings, each individual has the right to:
    1. Have sufficient and suitable clothing for his exclusive  use.
    2. Receive nutritionally adequate, varied, and appetizing  meals that are prepared and served under sanitary conditions, are served at  appropriate times and temperatures, and are consistent with any individualized  diet program.
    3. Live in a humane, safe, sanitary environment that gives  each individual, at a minimum:
    a. Reasonable privacy and private storage space;
    b. An adequate number of private, operating toilets, sinks,  showers, and tubs that are designed to accommodate individuals' physical needs;
    c. Direct outside air provided by a window that opens or by an  air conditioner;
    d. Windows or skylights in all major areas used by  individuals;
    e. Clean air, free of bad odors; and
    f. Room temperatures that are comfortable year round and  compatible with health requirements.
    4. Practice a religion and participate in religious services  subject to their availability, provided that such services are not dangerous to  the individual or others and do not infringe on the freedom of others.
    a. Religious services or practices that present a danger of  bodily injury to any individual or interfere with another individual's  religious beliefs or practices may be limited. The director or his designee  shall discuss the issue with the individual and inform the human rights  advocate of the reasons for any restriction prior to implementation. The  reasons for the restriction shall be documented in the individual's services  record. 
    b. Participation in religious services or practices may be  reasonably limited by the provider in accordance with other general rules  limiting privileges or times or places of activities.
    5. Have paper, pencil and stamps provided free of charge for  at least one letter every day upon request. However, if an individual has funds  to buy paper, pencils, and stamps to send a letter every day, the provider does  not have to pay for them.
    6. Communicate privately with any person by mail and have help  in writing or reading mail as needed.
    a. An individual's access to mail may be limited only if the  provider has reasonable cause to believe that the mail contains illegal  material or anything dangerous. If so, the director or his designee may open  the mail, but not read it, in the presence of the individual.
    b. An individual's ability to communicate by mail may be  limited if, in the judgment of a licensed professional, the individual's  communication with another person or persons will result in demonstrable harm  to the individual's mental health.
    c. The director or his designee shall discuss the issue with  the individual and inform the human rights advocate of the reasons for any  restriction prior to implementation and the reasons for the restriction shall  be documented in the individual's services record. The need for the restriction  shall be reviewed by the team every month and documented in the services  record.
    7. Communicate privately with any person by telephone and have  help in doing so. Use of the telephone may be limited to certain times and  places to make sure that other individuals have equal access to the telephone  and that they can eat, sleep, or participate in an activity without being  disturbed.
    a. An individual's access to the telephone may be limited only  if, in the judgment of a licensed professional, communication with another  person or persons will result in demonstrable harm to the individual or  significantly affect his treatment.
    b. The director or his designee shall discuss the issue with  the individual and inform the human rights advocate of the reasons for any  restriction prior to implementation and the reasons for the restriction shall  be documented in the individual's services record. The need for the restriction  shall be reviewed by the team every month and documented in the individual's  services record.
    c. Residential substance abuse services providers that are not  inpatient hospital settings or crisis stabilization programs may develop  policies and procedures that limit the use of the telephone during the initial  phase of treatment when sound therapeutic practice requires restriction,  subject to the following conditions:
    (1) Prior to implementation and when it proposes any changes  or revisions, the provider shall submit policies and procedures, program  handbooks, or program rules to the LHRC and the human rights advocate for  review and approval.
    (2) When an individual applies for admission, the provider  shall notify him of these restrictions.
    8. Have or refuse visitors.
    a. An individual's access to visitors may be limited or  supervised only when, in the judgment of a licensed professional, the visits  result in demonstrable harm to the individual or significantly affect the  individual's treatment or when the visitors are suspected of bringing  contraband or threatening harm to the individual in any other way.
    b. The director or his designee shall discuss the issue with  the individual and inform the human rights advocate of the reasons for any  restriction prior to implementation and the restriction shall be documented in  the individual's services record. The need for the restriction shall be  reviewed by the team every month and documented in the individual's services  record.
    c. Residential substance abuse service providers that are not  inpatient hospital settings or crisis stabilization programs may develop  policies and procedures that limit visitors during the initial phase of  treatment when sound therapeutic practice requires the restriction, subject to  the following conditions:
    (1) Prior to implementation and when proposing any changes or  revisions, the provider shall submit policies and procedures, program  handbooks, or program rules to the LHRC and the human rights advocate for  review and approval.
    (2) The provider shall notify individuals who apply for  admission of these restrictions.
    9. Nothing in these provisions shall prohibit a provider from  stopping, reporting, or intervening to prevent any criminal act.
    D. The provider's duties.
    1. Providers shall recognize, respect, support, and protect  the dignity rights of each individual at all times. In the case of a minor,  providers shall take into consideration the expressed preferences of the minor  and the parent or guardian.
    2. Providers shall develop, carry out, and regularly monitor  policies and procedures that assure the protection of each individual's rights.
    3. Providers shall assure the following relative to abuse,  neglect, and exploitation:
    a. Policies and procedures governing harm, abuse, neglect, and  exploitation of individuals receiving their services shall require that, as a  condition of employment or volunteering, any employee, volunteer, consultant,  or student who knows of or has reason to believe that an individual may have  been abused, neglected, or exploited at any location covered by these  regulations, this chapter shall immediately report this information  directly to the director.
    b. The director shall immediately take necessary steps to  protect the individual until an investigation is complete. This may include the  following actions:
    (1) Direct the employee or employees involved to have no  further contact with the individual. In the case of incidents of peer-on-peer  aggression, protect the individuals from the aggressor in accordance with sound  therapeutic practice and these regulations this chapter.
    (2) Temporarily reassign or transfer the employee or employees  involved to a position that has no direct contact with individuals receiving  services.
    (3) Temporarily suspend the involved employee or employees  pending completion of an investigation.
    c. The director shall immediately notify the human rights  advocate and the individual's authorized representative. In no case shall  notification be later than 24 hours after the receipt of the initial allegation  of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
    d. In no case shall the director punish or retaliate  against an employee, volunteer, consultant, or student for reporting an  allegation of abuse, neglect, or exploitation to an outside entity.
    e. The director shall initiate an impartial investigation  within 24 hours of receiving a report of potential abuse or neglect. The  investigation shall be conducted by a person trained to do investigations and  who is not involved in the issues under investigation.
    (1) The investigator shall make a final report to the  director or the investigating authority and to the human rights advocate within  10 working days of appointment. Exceptions to this time frame may be requested  and approved by the department if submitted prior to the close of the sixth  day.
    (2) The director or investigating authority shall, based on  the investigator's report and any other available information, decide whether  the abuse, neglect or exploitation occurred. Unless otherwise provided by law,  the standard for deciding whether abuse, neglect, or exploitation has occurred  is preponderance of the evidence.
    (3) If abuse, neglect or exploitation occurred, the  director shall take any action required to protect the individual and other  individuals. All actions must be documented and reported as required by  12VAC35-115-230.
    (4) In all cases, the director shall provide his written  decision, including actions taken as a result of the investigation, within  seven working days following the completion of the investigation to the  individual or the individual's authorized representative, the human rights  advocate, the investigating authority, and the involved employee or employees.  The decision shall be in writing and in the manner, format, and language that  is most easily understood by the individual. 
    (5) If the individual affected by the alleged abuse,  neglect, or exploitation or his authorized representative is not satisfied with  the director's actions, he or his authorized representative, or anyone acting  on his behalf, may file a petition for an LHRC hearing under 12VAC35-115-180.
    f. The director shall cooperate with any external  investigation, including those conducted by the Office of the State Inspector  General (§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia), the protection and advocacy  agency, or other regulatory or enforcement agencies.
    g. If at any time the director has reason to suspect that  an individual may have been abused or neglected, the director shall immediately  report this information to the appropriate local Department of Social Services  (see §§ 63.2-1509 and 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia) and cooperate fully  with any investigation that results.
    h. If at any time the director has reason to suspect that  the abusive, neglectful or exploitive act is a crime, the director or his  designee shall immediately contact the appropriate law-enforcement authorities  and cooperate fully with any investigation that results.
    4. Providers shall afford the individual the opportunity to  have an individual of his choice notified of his general condition, location,  and transfer to another facility.
    12VAC35-115-60. Services. 
    A. Each individual receiving services shall receive those  services according to law and sound therapeutic practice.
    B. The provider's duties.
    1. Providers shall develop, carry out, and regularly monitor  policies and procedures prohibiting discrimination in the provision of  services. Providers shall comply with all state and federal laws, including any  applicable provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act (42 USC  § 12101 et seq.), that prohibit discrimination on the basis of race,  color, religion, ethnicity, age, sex, disability, or ability to pay. These  policies and procedures shall require, at a minimum, the following:
    a. An individual or anyone acting on his behalf may  complain to the director if he believes that his services have been limited or  denied due to discrimination.
    b. If an individual complains of discrimination, the  director shall assure that an appropriate investigation is conducted  immediately. The director shall make a decision, take action, and document the  action within 10 working days of receipt of the complaint.
    c. A written copy of the decision and the director's action  shall be forwarded to the individual and his authorized representative, the  human rights advocate, and any employee or employees involved.
    d. If the individual or his authorized representative is  not satisfied with the director's decision or action, he may file a petition  for an LHRC hearing under 12VAC35-115-180.
    2. Providers shall ensure that all services, including medical  services and treatment, are at all times delivered in accordance with sound  therapeutic practice. Providers may deny or limit an individual's access to  services if sound therapeutic practice requires limiting the service to  individuals of the same sex or similar age, disability, or legal status.
    3. Providers shall develop and implement policies and  procedures that address emergencies. These policies and procedures shall:
    a. Identify what caregivers may do to respond to an emergency;
    b. Identify qualified clinical staff who are accountable for  assessing emergency conditions and determining the appropriate intervention;
    c. Require that the director immediately notify the  individual's authorized representative and the advocate if an emergency results  in harm or injury to any individual; and
    d. Require documentation in the individual's services record  of all facts and circumstances surrounding the emergency.
    4. Providers shall assign a specific person or group of  persons to carry out each of the following activities:
    a. Medical, mental health, and behavioral screenings and  assessments, as applicable, upon admission and during the provision of  services;
    b. Preparation, implementation, and appropriate changes  modifications to an individual's services plan ISP based  on the ongoing review of the medical, mental, and behavioral needs of  the individual; 
    c. Preparation and implementation of an individual's discharge  plan; and
    d. Review of every use of seclusion or restraint by a  qualified professional who is involved in providing services to the individual.
    5. Providers shall not deliver any service to an individual  without a services plan an ISP that is tailored specifically to  the needs and expressed preferences of the individual and, in the case of a  minor, the minor and the minor's parent or guardian or other person  authorized to consent to treatment pursuant to § 54.1-2969 A of the Code  of Virginia. Services provided in response to emergencies or crises shall  be deemed part of the services plan ISP and thereafter documented  in the individual's services plan ISP.
    6. Providers shall write the services plan ISP  and discharge plan in clear, understandable language.
    7. When preparing or changing an individual's services ISP  or discharge plan, providers shall ensure that all services received by the  individual are integrated. With the individual's or the individual's authorized  representative's authorization, providers may involve family members in services  and discharge planning. When the individual or his authorized representative  requests such involvement, the provider shall take all reasonable steps to do  so. In the case of services to minors, the parent or guardian or other person  authorized to consent to treatment pursuant to § 54.1-2969 A of the Code  of Virginia shall be involved in service and discharge planning.
    8. Providers shall ensure that the entries in an individual's  services record are at all times authentic, accurate, complete, timely, and  pertinent.
    12VAC35-115-90. Access to and amendment of services records. 
    A. With respect to his own services record, each individual  and his authorized representative has the right to:
    1. See, read, and get a copy of his own services record,  except information that is privileged pursuant to § 8.01-581.17 of the  Code of Virginia, and information compiled by the provider in reasonable  anticipation of or for use in a civil, criminal, or administrative action or  proceeding;
    2. Let certain other people see, read, or get a copy of his  own services record if the individual is restricted by law from seeing,  reading, or receiving a copy;
    3. Challenge, request to amend, or receive an explanation of  anything in his services record; and 
    4. Let anyone who sees his record, regardless of whether  amendments to the record have been made, know that the individual has tried to  amend the record or explain his position and what happened as a result.
    B. Except in the following circumstances, With  respect to the services records of minors must have their parent's or  guardian's permission before they can access their services record:
    1. A minor must have the permission of a parent, guardian,  or other person standing in loco parentis before he can access his services  record. He may access his services record without the this  permission of a parent only if the records pertain to treatment for  sexually transmitted or reportable contagious diseases, family planning  or pregnancy, outpatient care, treatment or rehabilitation for substance use  disorders, mental illness or emotional disturbance, or inpatient psychiatric  hospitalization when a minor is 14 years of age or older and has consented to  the admission.
    2. A parent may access his minor child's services record  unless prohibited by 42 CFR Part 2, parental rights have been  terminated, a court order provides otherwise, or the minor's treating physician  or clinical psychologist has determined, in the exercise of professional  judgment, that the disclosure to the parent would be reasonably likely  to cause substantial harm to the minor or another person.
    C. The provider's duties.
    1. Providers shall tell each individual and his authorized  representative how he can access and request amendment of his own services  record.
    2. Providers shall permit each individual to see his services  record when he requests it and to request amendments if necessary.
    a. Access to all or a part of an individual's services record  may be denied or limited only if a physician or a clinical psychologist  involved in providing services to the individual talks to the individual,  examines the services record as a result of the individual's request for  access, and signs and puts in the services record permanently a written  statement that he thinks access to the services record by the individual at  this time would be reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of  the individual or another person or that the services record makes reference to  a person other than a health care provider and the access requested would be  reasonably likely to cause substantial harm to the referenced person. The  physician or clinical psychologist must shall also tell the  individual as much about his services record as he can without risking harm to  the individual.
    b. If access is denied in whole or in part, the provider shall  give the individual or his authorized representative a written statement that  explains the basis for the denial, the individual's review rights, as set forth  in the following subdivisions, how he may exercise them, and how the individual  may file a complaint with the provider or the United States U.S.  Department of Health and Human Services, if applicable. If restrictions or  time limits are placed on access, the individual shall be notified of the  restrictions and time limits and conditions for their removal. These time  limits and conditions also shall be specified in the services record.
    (1) If the individual requests a review of denial of access,  the provider shall designate a physician or clinical psychologist who was not  directly involved in the denial to review the decision to deny access. The  physician or clinical psychologist must shall determine within a  reasonable period of time whether or not to deny the access requested in  accordance with the standard in subdivision 2 a of this subsection. The  provider must shall promptly provide the individual notice of the  physician's or psychologist's determination and provide or deny access in  accordance with that determination.
    (2) At the individual's option, the individual may designate  at his own expense a reviewing physician or clinical psychologist who was not  directly involved in the denial to review the decision to deny access in  accordance with the standard in subdivision 2 a of this subsection. If the  individual chooses this option, the provider is not required to designate a  physician or clinical psychologist to review the decision. 
    c. If the provider limits or refuses to let an individual see  his services record, the provider shall also notify the advocate and tell the  individual that he can ask to have a lawyer or authorized insurer of his  choice see his record. If the individual makes this request, the provider shall  disclose the record to that lawyer or authorized insurer  (§ 8.01-413 of the Code of Virginia).
    3. Providers shall, without charge, give individuals any help  they may need to read and understand their services record and request  amendments to it.
    4. If an individual asks to challenge, amend, or explain any  information contained in his services record, the provider shall investigate  and file in the services record a written report concerning the individual's  request.
    a. If the report finds that the services record is incomplete,  inaccurate, not pertinent, not timely, or not necessary, the provider shall:
    (1) Either mark that part of the services record clearly to  say so, or else remove that part of the services record and file it separately  with an appropriate cross reference to indicate that the information was  removed;
    (2) Not disclose the original services record without separate  specific authorization or legal authority (e.g., if compelled by subpoena or  other court order);
    (3) Obtain the individual's identification of and agreement to  have the provider notify the relevant persons of the amendment; and 
    (4) Promptly notify in writing all persons who have received  the incorrect information and all persons identified by the individual that the  services record has been corrected.
    b. If a request to amend the services record is denied, the  provider shall give the individual a written statement containing the basis for  the denial and notify the individual of his right to submit a statement of  disagreement and how to submit such a statement. The provider shall also give  the individual (i) a statement that if a statement of disagreement is not  submitted that the individual may request the provider to disclose the request  for amendment and the denial with future disclosures of information and (ii) a  description of how the individual may complain to the provider or the Secretary  of Health and Human Services, if applicable. Upon request, the provider shall  file in the services record the individual's statement explaining his  position of disagreement. If needed, the provider shall help the  individual to write this statement. If a statement is filed, the provider  shall:
    (1) Give all persons who have copies of the record a copy of  the individual's statement.
    (2) Clearly note in any later disclosure of the record that it  is disputed and include a copy of the statement with the disputed record.
    12VAC35-115-100. Restrictions on freedoms of everyday life. 
    A. From admission until discharge from a service, each  individual is entitled to:
    1. Enjoy all the freedoms of everyday life that are consistent  with his need for services, his protection, and the protection of others, and  that do not interfere with his services or the services of others. These  freedoms include:
    a. Freedom to move within the service setting, its grounds,  and the community;
    b. Freedom to communicate, associate, and meet privately with  anyone the individual chooses;
    c. Freedom to have and spend personal money;
    d. Freedom to see, hear, or receive television, radio, books,  and newspapers, whether privately owned or in a library or public area of the  service setting;
    e. Freedom to keep and use personal clothing and other  personal items;
    f. Freedom to use recreational facilities and enjoy the  outdoors; and
    g. Freedom to make purchases in canteens, vending machines, or  stores selling a basic selection of food and clothing.
    2. Receive services in that setting and under those conditions  that are least restrictive of his freedom.
    B. The provider's duties.
    1. Providers shall encourage each individual's participation  in normal activities and conditions of everyday living and support each  individual's freedoms.
    2. Providers shall not limit or restrict any individual's  freedom more than is needed to achieve a therapeutic benefit, maintain a safe  and orderly environment, or intervene in an emergency.
    3. Providers shall not impose any restriction on an individual  unless the restriction is justified and carried out according to these  regulations this chapter or otherwise required by law. If a provider  imposes a restriction pursuant to this chapter, except as provided in  12VAC35-115-50, the following conditions shall be met:
    a. A qualified professional involved in providing services  has, in advance, assessed and documented all possible alternatives to the  proposed restriction, taking into account the individual's medical and mental  condition, behavior, preferences, nursing and medication needs, and ability to  function independently.
    b. A qualified professional involved in providing services  has, in advance, determined that the proposed restriction is necessary for  effective treatment of the individual or to protect him or others from personal  harm, injury, or death.
    c. A qualified professional involved in providing services  has, in advance, documented in the individual's services record the specific  reason for the restriction.
    d. A qualified professional involved in providing services has  explained, and provided written notice so that the individual can  understand, the reason for the restriction, the criteria for removal,  and the individual's right to a fair review of whether the restriction is  permissible.
    e. A qualified professional regularly reviews the restriction  and that the restriction is discontinued when the individual has met the  criteria for removal.
    f. 4. If a court has ordered the provider to  impose the restriction or if the provider is otherwise required by law to  impose the restriction, the restriction shall be documented in the individual's  services record.
    5. Providers shall obtain approval of the LHRC of any  restriction imposed on an individual's rights under this subsection or  12VAC35-115-50 that lasts longer than seven days or is imposed multiple times  during a 30-day time period. If the LHRC finds that the restriction is not  being implemented in accordance with this chapter, the director shall be  notified, and the LHRC shall provide recommendations.
    4. 6. Providers may develop and enforce written  program rules, but only if the rules do not conflict with these regulations  this chapter or any individual's services plan ISP and are  needed to maintain a safe and orderly environment.
    5. 7. Providers shall, in the development of  these program rules:
    a. Get as many suggestions as possible from all individuals  who are expected to obey the rules;
    b. Apply these rules in the same way to each individual;
    c. Give the rules to and review them with each individual and  his authorized representative in a way that the individual can understand them,  including explaining possible consequences for violating them;
    d. Post the rules in summary form in all areas to which  individuals and their families have regular access;
    e. Submit the rules to the LHRC for review and approval upon  request of the advocate or LHRC; and
    f. Prohibit individuals from disciplining other individuals,  except as part of an organized self-government program conducted according to a  written policy approved in advance by the LHRC.
    12VAC35-115-105. Behavioral treatment plans.
    A. A behavioral treatment plan is used to assist an  individual to improve participation in normal activities and conditions of  everyday living, reduce challenging behaviors, alleviate symptoms of  psychopathology, and maintain a safe and orderly environment.
    B. Providers may use individualized restrictions such as  restraint or time out in a behavioral treatment plan to address challenging behaviors  that present an immediate danger to the individual or others, but only after a  licensed professional has conducted a detailed and systematic assessment of the  behavior and the situations in which the behavior occurs. Providers shall  document in the individual's services record that the lack of success or  probable success of less restrictive procedures attempted or considered, and  the risks associated with not treating the behavior, are greater than any risks  associated with the use of the proposed restrictions.
    C. Providers shall develop any behavioral treatment plan  according to their policies and procedures, which ensure that:
    1. Behavioral treatment plans are initiated, developed,  carried out, and monitored by professionals who are qualified by expertise,  training, education, or credentials to do so;
    2. Behavioral treatment plans include nonrestrictive  procedures and environmental modifications that address the targeted behavior;  and
    3. Behavioral treatment plans are submitted to an  independent review committee, prior to implementation, for review and approval  of the technical adequacy of the plan and data collection procedures.
    D. Providers shall submit any behavioral treatment plan  that involves the use of restraint or time out in an intermediate care  facility, and its independent review committee approval, to the SCC under  42 CFR 483.440(f)(3) for the SCC's approval prior to implementation. 
    E. Providers shall submit any behavioral treatment plan  that does not require SCC approval, and its independent review committee  approval, to the LHRC, which shall determine whether the plan is in accordance  with this chapter prior to implementation. 
    F. If either the LHRC or SCC finds that the behavioral  treatment plan violates the rights of the individual or is not being  implemented in accordance with this chapter, the LHRC or SCC shall notify the  director and provide recommendations regarding the proposed plan.
    G. Behavioral treatment plans involving the use of  restraint or time out shall be reviewed quarterly by the independent review  committee and the LHRC or SCC to determine if the use of restraint has resulted  in improvements in functioning of the individual.
    H. Providers shall not use seclusion in a behavioral  treatment plan.
    12VAC35-115-110. Use of seclusion, restraint, and time out. 
    A. Each individual is entitled to be completely free from any  unnecessary use of seclusion, restraint, or time out.
    B. The voluntary use of mechanical supports to achieve proper  body position, balance, or alignment so as to allow greater freedom of movement  or to improve normal body functioning in a way that would not be possible  without the use of such a mechanical support, and the voluntary use of  protective equipment are not considered restraints.
    C. The provider's duties.
    1. Providers shall meet with the individual or his authorized  representative upon admission to the service to discuss and document in the  individual's services record, his preferred interventions in the event his  behaviors or symptoms become a danger to himself or others and under what  circumstances, if any, the intervention may include seclusion, restraint, or  time out.
    2. Providers shall document in the individual's services  record all known contraindications to the use of seclusion, time out, or any form  of physical or mechanical restraint, including medical contraindications and a  history of trauma and shall flag the record to alert and communicate this  information to staff.
    3. Only residential facilities for children that are licensed  under the Regulations for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46) and  inpatient hospitals may use seclusion and only in an emergency.
    4. Providers shall not use seclusion, restraint, or time out  as a punishment or reprisal or for the convenience of staff.
    5. Providers shall not use seclusion or restraint solely  because criminal charges are pending against the individual.
    6. Providers shall not use a restraint that places the  individual's body in a prone (face down) position.
    6. 7. Providers shall not use seclusion or  restraint for any behavioral, medical, or protective purpose unless other less  restrictive techniques have been considered and documentation is placed in the individual's  services plan ISP that these less restrictive techniques did not or  would not succeed in reducing or eliminating behaviors that are self-injurious  or dangerous to other people or that no less restrictive measure was possible  in the event of a sudden emergency.
    7. 8. Providers that use seclusion, restraint,  or time out shall develop written policies and procedures that comply with  applicable federal and state laws and regulations, accreditation, and  certification standards, third party payer requirements, and sound therapeutic  practice. These policies and procedures shall include at least the following  requirements:
    a. Individuals shall be given the opportunity for motion and  exercise, to eat at normal meal times and take fluids, to use the restroom, and  to bathe as needed.
    b. Trained, qualified staff shall monitor the individual's  medical and mental condition continuously while the restriction is being used.
    c. Each use of seclusion, restraint, or time out shall end  immediately when criteria for removal are met.
    d. Incidents of seclusion and restraint, including the  rationale for and the type and duration of the restraint, are shall  be reported to the department as provided in 12VAC35-115-230 C.
    8. Providers shall submit all proposed seclusion,  restraint, and time out policies and procedures to the LHRC for review and  comment before implementing them, when proposing changes, or upon request of  the human rights advocate, the LHRC, or the SHRC.
    9. Providers shall comply with all applicable state and  federal laws and regulations, certification and accreditation standards, and  third party requirements as they relate to seclusion and restraint.
    a. Whenever an inconsistency exists between these  regulations this chapter and federal laws or regulations,  accreditation or certification standards, or the requirements of third party  payers, the provider shall comply with the higher standard.
    b. Providers shall notify the department whenever a  regulatory, accreditation, or certification agency or third party payer  identifies problems in the provider's compliance with any applicable seclusion  and restraint standard.
    10. Providers shall ensure that only staff who have been  trained in the proper and safe use of seclusion, restraint, and time out  techniques may initiate, monitor, and discontinue their use.
    11. Providers shall ensure that a qualified professional who  is involved in providing services to the individual reviews every use of  physical restraint as soon as possible after it is carried out and documents  the results of his review in the individual's services record.
    12. Providers shall ensure that review and approval by a  qualified professional for the use or continuation of restraint for medical or  protective purposes is documented in the individual's services record.  Documentation includes:
    a. Justification for any restraint;
    b. Time-limited approval for the use or continuation of  restraint; and 
    c. Any physical or psychological conditions that would place  the individual at greater risk during restraint.
    13. Providers may use seclusion or mechanical restraint for  behavioral purposes in an emergency only if a qualified professional involved  in providing services to the individual has, within one hour of the initiation  of the procedure:
    a. Conducted a face-to-face assessment of the individual  placed in seclusion or mechanical restraint and documented that alternatives to  the proposed use of seclusion or mechanical restraint have not been successful  in changing the behavior or were not attempted, taking into account the  individual's medical and mental condition, behavior, preferences, nursing and  medication needs, and ability to function independently;
    b. Determined that the proposed seclusion or mechanical  restraint is necessary to protect the individual or others from harm, injury,  or death;
    c. Documented in the individual's services record the specific  reason for the seclusion or mechanical restraint;
    d. Documented in the individual's services record the  behavioral criteria that the individual must meet for release from seclusion or  mechanical restraint; and
    e. Explained to the individual, in a way that he can  understand, the reason for using mechanical restraint or seclusion, the  criteria for its removal, and the individual's right to a fair review of  whether the mechanical restraint or seclusion was permissible.
    14. Providers shall limit each approval for restraint for  behavioral purposes or seclusion to four hours for individuals age 18 and  older, two hours for children and adolescents ages nine through 17, and one  hour for children under age nine.
    15. Providers shall not issue standing orders for the use of  seclusion or restraint for behavioral purposes. 
    16. Providers shall ensure that no individual is in time out  for more than 30 minutes per episode.
    17. Providers shall monitor the use of restraint for  behavioral purposes or seclusion through continuous face-to-face observation,  rather than by an electronic surveillance device.
    18. Providers may use restraint or time out in a behavioral  treatment plan to address behaviors that present an immediate danger to the  individual or others, but only after a qualified professional has conducted a  detailed and systematic assessment of the behavior and the situations in which  the behavior occurs.
    a. Providers shall develop any behavioral treatment plan  involving the use of restraint or time out for behavioral purposes according to  its policies and procedures, which ensure that:
    (1) Behavioral treatment plans are initiated, developed,  carried out, and monitored by professionals who are qualified by expertise,  training, education, or credentials to do so.
    (2) Behavioral treatment plans include nonrestrictive  procedures and environmental modifications that address the targeted behavior.
    (3) Behavioral treatment plans are submitted to and  approved by an independent review committee comprised of professionals with training  and experience in applied behavior analysis who have assessed the technical  adequacy of the plan and data collection procedures.
    b. Providers shall document in the individual's services  record that the lack of success, or probable success, of less restrictive  procedures attempted and the risks associated with not treating the behavior  are greater than any risks associated with the use of restraint.
    c. Prior to the implementation of any behavioral treatment  plan involving the use of restraint or time out, the provider shall obtain  approval of the LHRC. If the LHRC finds that the plan violates or has the  potential to violate the rights of the individual, the LHRC shall notify and  make recommendations to the director. 
    d. Behavioral treatment plans involving the use of  restraint or time out shall be reviewed quarterly by the independent review  committee and by, the LHRC to determine if the use of restraint has  resulted in improvements in functioning of the individual.
    19.Providers may not use seclusion in a behavioral  treatment plan.
    12VAC35-115-130. Research. 
    A. Each individual has a right to choose to participate or  not participate in human research.
    B. The provider's duties.
    1. Providers shall obtain prior, written, informed consent of  the individual or his authorized representative before any individual begins to  participate in human research unless the research is exempt under  § 32.1-162.17 of the Code of Virginia.
    2. Providers shall comply with all other applicable state and  federal laws and regulations regarding human research, including the provisions  under Chapter 5.1 (§ 32.1-162.16 et seq.) of Title 32.1 and  § 37.2-402 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations adopted  under § 37.2-402 of the Code of Virginia.
    3. Providers shall obtain review and approval from an  institutional review board or research review committee prior to performing or  participating in a human research protocol. Documentation of this review and  approval shall be maintained and made available on request by the individual or  his authorized representative. 
    4. Prior to participation by individuals in any human research  project, the provider shall inform and provide a copy of the institutional  review board or research review committee approval to the LHRC. Once the  research has been initiated, the provider shall update the LHRC periodically on  the status of the individual's participation.
    12VAC35-115-140. Complaint and fair hearing. (Repealed.)  
    A. Each individual has a right to:
    1. Complain that the provider has violated any of the  rights assured under these regulations;
    2. Have a timely and fair review of any complaint according  to the procedures in Part V (12VAC35-115-150 et seq.) of this chapter;
    3. Have someone file a complaint on his behalf;
    4. Use these and other complaint procedures; and
    5. Complain under any other applicable law, including  complain to the protection and advocacy agency.
    B. The provider's duties.
    1. If an individual makes a complaint, the provider shall  make every attempt to resolve the complaint at the earliest possible step.
    2. Providers shall not take, threaten to take, permit, or  condone any action to retaliate against anyone filing a complaint or prevent  anyone from filing a complaint or helping an individual to file a complaint.
    3. Providers shall assist the complainant in understanding  the full complaint process, the options for resolution including the formal and  informal processes, and the confidentiality elements involved.
    Part IV 
  Substitute Decision Making
    12VAC35-115-145. Determination of capacity to give consent or  authorization.
    If the capacity of an individual to consent to treatment,  services, or research, or to authorize the disclosure of  information is in doubt, the provider shall obtain an evaluation from conducted  by or under the supervision of a licensed professional who is qualified  by expertise, training, education, or credentials and not directly involved  with the individual to determine whether the individual has capacity to consent  or to authorize the disclosure of information.
    1. Capacity evaluations shall be obtained for all individuals  who may lack capacity, even if they request that an authorized representative  be designated or agree to submit to a recommended course of treatment.
    2. In conducting this evaluation, the professional may seek  comments from representatives accompanying the individual pursuant to  12VAC35-115-70 A 4 about the individual's capacity to consent or to authorize  disclosure.
    3. Providers shall determine the need for an evaluation of an  individual's capacity to consent or authorize disclosure of information and the  need for a substitute decision maker whenever the individual's condition  warrants, the individual requests such a review, at least every six months, and  at discharge, except for individuals receiving acute inpatient services.
    a. If the individual's record indicates that the individual is  not expected to obtain or regain capacity, the provider shall document annually  that it has reviewed the individual's capacity to make decisions and whether  there has been any change in that capacity.
    b. Providers of acute inpatient services shall determine the  need for an evaluation of an individual's capacity to consent or authorize  disclosure of information whenever the individual's condition warrants or at  least at every treatment team meeting. Results of such reviews shall be  documented in the treatment team notes and communicated to the individual and  his authorized representative.
    4. Capacity evaluations shall be conducted in accordance with  accepted standards of professional practice and shall indicate the specific  type of decision for which the individual's capacity is being evaluated (e.g.,  medical) and shall indicate what specific type of decision the individual has  or does not have the capacity to make. Capacity evaluations shall address the  type of supports that might be used to increase the individual's  decision-making capabilities. 
    5. If the individual or his family objects to the results of  the qualified licensed professional's determination, the provider  shall immediately inform the human rights advocate.
    a. If the individual or family member wishes to obtain an  independent evaluation of the individual's capacity, he may do so at his own  expense and within reasonable timeframes consistent with his circumstances. If  the individual or family member cannot pay for an independent evaluation, the  individual may request that the LHRC consider the need for an independent  evaluation pursuant to 12VAC35-115-200 B. The provider shall take no action for  which consent or authorization is required, except in an emergency, pending the  results of the independent evaluation. The provider shall take no steps to  designate an authorized representative until the independent evaluation is  complete.
    b. If the independent evaluation is consistent with the  provider's evaluation, the provider's evaluation is binding, and the provider  shall implement it accordingly.
    c. If the independent evaluation is not consistent with the  provider's evaluation, the matter shall be referred to the LHRC for review and  decision under 12VAC35-115-200 through 12VAC35-115-250 and  12VAC35-115-210.
    Part V 
  Complaint Resolution, Hearing, and Appeal Procedures 
    12VAC35-115-150. General provisions. 
    A. Any action taken by the judicial system or  administrative hearing bodies is not subject to review under the human rights  complaint resolution process.
    A. B. The parties to any complaint are the  individual and the director. Each party can also have anyone else represent him  during resolution of the complaint. The director shall make every effort to  resolve the complaint at the earliest possible stage. 
    B. C. Meetings, reviews, Reviews  and hearings will generally be closed to other people unless the individual  making the complaint requests that other people attend or if an open meeting is  required by the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of  the Code of Virginia). 1. The LHRC and SHRC may conduct a closed hearing  to protect the confidentiality of persons who are not a party to the complaint,  but only if a closed meeting is otherwise allowed under the Virginia Freedom of  Information Act (see § 2.2-3711 of the Code of Virginia).
    2. If any person alleges that implementation of an LHRC  recommendation would violate the individual's rights or those of other  individuals, the person may file a petition for a hearing with the SHRC,  according to 12VAC35-115-210.
    C. D. In no event shall a pending hearing,  review, or appeal prevent a director from taking corrective action based on the  advice of the provider's legal counsel that such action is required by law or he  otherwise if the director thinks such action is correct and  justified.
    D. E. The LHRC or SHRC, on the motion of any party  or on its own motion, may, for good cause, extend any time periods before or  after the expiration of that time period. No director may extend any time  periods for any actions he is required to take under these procedures without  prior approval of the LHRC or SHRC.
    E. F. Except in the case of emergency  proceedings, if a time period in which action must be taken under this part is  not extended by the LHRC or SHRC, the failure of a party to act within that  time period shall waive that party's further rights under these procedures.
    F. G. In making their recommendations  regarding complaint resolution, the LHRC and the SHRC shall identify any rights  or regulations that the provider violated and any policies, practices, or  conditions that contributed to the violations. They shall also recommend  appropriate corrective actions, including changes in policies, practices, or  conditions, to prevent further violations of the rights assured under these  regulations this chapter.
    G. H. If it is impossible to carry out the  recommendations of the LHRC or the SHRC within a specified time, the LHRC or  the SHRC, as appropriate, shall recommend any necessary interim action that  gives appropriate and possible immediate remedies.
    H. I. Any action plan submitted by the director  or commissioner in the course of these proceedings shall fully address final  and interim recommendations made by the LHRC or the SHRC and identify financial  or other constraints, if any, that prevent efforts to fully remedy the  violation.
    I. J. All communication with the individual  during the complaint resolution process shall be in the manner, format, and  language most easily understood by the individual. 
    12VAC35-115-170. Complaint resolution process. (Repealed.)  
    A. Anyone who believes that a provider has violated an  individual's rights under these regulations may report it to the director or  the human rights advocate for resolution.
    1. If the report is made only to the director, the director  or his designee shall immediately notify the human rights advocate. If the  report is made on a weekend or holiday, then the director or his designee shall  notify the human rights advocate on the next business day.
    2. If the report is made only to the human rights advocate,  the human rights advocate shall immediately notify the director. If the report  is made on a weekend or holiday, then the human rights advocate shall notify  the director on the next business day. 
    3. The human rights advocate or the director or his  designee shall discuss the report with the individual and notify the individual  of his right to pursue a complaint through the process established in these  regulations. The steps in the informal and formal complaint process established  in these regulations shall be thoroughly explained to the individual. The human  rights advocate or the director or his designee shall ask the individual if he  understands the complaint process and the choice that he has before asking the  individual how he wishes to pursue the complaint. The individual shall then be  given the choice of pursuing the complaint through the informal or formal  complaint process. If the individual does not make a choice, the complaint  shall be managed through the informal process.
    4. The following steps apply if the complaint is pursued  through the informal process:
    Step 1: The director or his designee shall attempt to  resolve the complaint immediately. If the complaint is resolved, no further  action is required.
    Step 2: If the complaint is not resolved within five  working days, the director or his designee shall refer it for resolution under  the formal process. The individual may extend the informal process five-day  time frame for good cause. All such extensions shall be reported to the human  rights advocate by the director or his designee.
    5. The following steps apply if the complaint is pursued  through the formal process:
    Step 1: The director or his designee shall try to resolve  the complaint by meeting with the individual, any representative the individual  chooses, the human rights advocate, and others as appropriate within 24 hours  of receipt of the complaint or the next business day if that day is a weekend  or holiday. The director or his designee shall conduct an investigation of the  complaint, if necessary.
    Step 2: The director or his designee shall give the  individual and his chosen representative a written preliminary decision and,  where appropriate, an action plan for resolving the complaint within 10 working  days of receiving the complaint. Along with the action plan, the director shall  provide written notice to the individual about the time frame for the  individual's response pursuant to Step 3 of this subdivision, information on  how to contact the human rights advocate for assistance with the process, and a  statement the complaint will be closed if the individual does not respond.
    Step 3: If the individual disagrees with the director's  preliminary decision or action plan, he can respond to the director in writing  within five working days after receiving the preliminary decision and action plan.  If the individual has not responded within five working days, the complaint  will be closed.
    Step 4: If the individual disagrees with the preliminary  decision or action plan and reports his disagreement to the director in writing  within five working days after receiving the decision or action plan, the  director shall investigate further as appropriate and shall make a final  decision regarding the complaint. The director shall forward a written copy of  his final decision and action plan to the individual, his chosen  representative, and the human rights advocate within five working days after  the director receives the individual's written response. Along with the action  plan, the director shall provide written notice to the individual about the  time frame for the individual's response pursuant to Step 5 of this  subdivision, information about how to contact the human rights advocate for  assistance with the process, and a statement that if the individual does not  respond that the complaint will be closed.
    Step 5: If the individual disagrees with the director's  final decision or action plan, he may file a petition for a hearing by the LHRC  using the procedures prescribed in 12VAC35-115-180. If the individual has  accepted the relief offered by the director, the matter is not subject to  further review.
    B. If at any time during the formal complaint process the  human rights advocate concludes that there is substantial risk that serious or  irreparable harm will result if the complaint is not resolved immediately, the  human rights advocate shall inform the director, the provider, the provider's  governing body, and the LHRC. Steps 1 through 5 of subdivision A 5 of this  section shall not be followed. Instead, the LHRC shall conduct a hearing  according to the special procedures for emergency hearings in 12VAC35-115-180.
    12VAC35-115-175. Human rights complaint process.
    A. Each individual has a right to:
    1. Make a complaint that the provider has violated any of  the rights assured under this chapter;
    2. Have a timely and fair review of any complaint in  accordance with this chapter and the program's human rights complaint  resolution policies and procedures;
    3. Have someone file a complaint on his behalf;
    4. Use these and other complaint procedures; and
    5. Make a complaint under any other applicable law,  including to the protection and advocacy agency.
    B. The individual shall:
    1. Be contacted by the director or the director's designee  regarding the complaint within 24 hours;
    2. Have access to a human rights advocate for assistance  with the complaint;
    3. Be protected from retaliation and harm;
    4. Have the complaint reviewed, investigated, and resolved  as soon as possible;
    5. Receive a report with the director's decision and action  plan within 10 working days; and
    6. Be notified in writing of his right to and the process  for appealing the director's decision and action plan to the LHRC.
    C. Upon receipt of a complaint, providers shall:
    1. Notify the department of the complaint as soon as  possible, but no later than the next business day;
    2. Initiate an impartial investigation into, or resolution  of, the complaint as soon as possible, but no later than the next business day;
    3. Take all steps necessary to ensure that individuals  involved in the complaint are protected from retaliation and harm;
    4. Assist the individual making a complaint in  understanding the human rights complaint process, the provider's complaint  resolution policies and procedures, and the confidentiality of involved  information; 
    5. Ensure that all communications to the individual are in  the manner, format, and language most easily understood by the individual;
    6. Adhere to the reporting requirements in 12VAC35-115-230;  and
    7. Report the director's decision and action plan within 10  working days to the individual, authorized representative, if applicable, and  human rights advocate.
    D. All providers shall have complaint resolution policies  and procedures that address all of the requirements of subsection C of this  section. 
    E. Provider complaint resolution policies and procedures  shall be in writing and approved by the department prior to implementation. The  policies and procedures shall:
    1. Ensure that anyone who believes that a provider has  violated an individual's rights under this chapter can report it to the director  or the human rights advocate for resolution;
    2. Ensure that employees shall not take, threaten to take,  permit, or condone any action (i) to punish or retaliate against anyone filing  a complaint or (ii) to prevent anyone from filing or helping an individual file  a complaint either under this chapter or with an outside entity;
    3. Ensure that every attempt is made to resolve an  individual's complaint as quickly as possible;
    4. Provide opportunities for timely negotiation and  resolution for all complaints, including the additional requirements related to  abuse, neglect, or exploitation in subsection F of this section;
    5. Establish a process for designating the director's  responsibilities to ensure timely complaint reporting and resolution;
    6. Detail the program's complaint review or investigation  process, including (i) specific actions the program will take to protect the  individual and gather and document relevant information and (ii) how and when  the individual and his authorized representative, if applicable, will receive  updates on the progress of the review;
    7. Detail notification requirements and deadlines including  procedures for providing:
    a. The program's complaint policies and procedures to all  individuals and authorized representatives at admission to service;
    b. Written notification to the individual regarding his  right to and the process to appeal the director's decision and action plan to  the LHRC; and
    8. Detail staff training requirements regarding the  program's complaint resolution process and requirements.
    F. Additional requirements for complaints involving abuse,  neglect, or exploitation:
    1. The program director shall take immediate steps to  protect the individual until the investigation is complete, including  appropriate personnel actions.
    2. Any instance of seclusion or restraint that does not  comply with this chapter or an approved variance, or that results in injury to  an individual, shall be reported to the authorized representative, as  applicable, and the department in accordance with the requirements for  reporting allegations of abuse.
    3. The program director shall notify the department and  authorized representative, if applicable, of an allegation of abuse or neglect  within 24 hours of the receipt of the allegation.
    4. The program director shall ensure that the investigation  is conducted by a person trained to do investigations and who is not involved  in the issues under investigation.
    5. The investigator shall provide a written report of the  results of the investigation of abuse or neglect to the director and to the  human rights advocate within 10 working days from the date the investigation  began unless an extension has been granted.
    6. The program director shall decide, based on the  investigator's report and any other available information, whether the abuse,  neglect, or exploitation occurred. Unless otherwise provided by law, the  standard for deciding whether abuse, neglect, or exploitation has occurred is  preponderance of the evidence.
    7. The program director shall submit the final decision and  action plan, if applicable, to the individual, authorized representative, if  applicable, and human rights advocate within 10 working days of its completion.
    G. If the human rights advocate concludes that there is  substantial risk that serious or irreparable harm will result if the complaint  is not resolved immediately, the human rights advocate shall inform the  director, the provider's governing body, and the LHRC. The LHRC shall conduct a  hearing according to the special procedures for emergency hearings in  12VAC35-115-190.
    H. The director shall cooperate fully with any abuse or  neglect complaint investigation conducted by a local department of social  services.
    I. If at any time the director has reason to suspect that  the abusive, neglectful, or exploitive act is a crime and that it occurred on  the program premises, the director or designee shall immediately contact the  appropriate law-enforcement authorities and cooperate fully with any  investigation that may result.
    12VAC35-115-180. Local Human Rights Committee human  rights committee hearing and review procedures. 
    A. Any individual or his authorized representative who  does not accept the relief offered by the director or disagrees with (i) a  director's final decision and action plan resulting from the complaint  resolution; (ii) a director's final action following a report of abuse,  neglect, or exploitation; or (iii) a director's final decision following a  complaint of discrimination in the provision of services may request an LHRC  hearing by following the steps provided in subsections B through I of this  section. Any individual or his authorized representative who disagrees  with a director's final decision or action plan resulting from any complaint  resolution process under this chapter may request an LHRC hearing by following  the process described in this section.
    B. Step 1: The individual or his authorized  representative must shall file the petition for a hearing with  the chairperson of the LHRC within 10 working days of from receipt of  the director's action plan or final decision on the complaint.
    1. The petition for hearing must shall be in  writing. It should shall contain all facts and arguments  surrounding the complaint and reference any section of the regulations this  chapter that the individual believes the provider violated.
    2. The human rights advocate or any person the individual  chooses may help the individual in filing the petition. If the individual  chooses a person other than the human rights advocate to help him, he and his chosen  representative may request the human rights advocate's assistance in filing the  petition.
    C. Step 2: The LHRC chair shall forward a copy of the  petition to the director and the human rights advocate as soon as he receives  it. A copy of the petition shall also be forwarded to the provider's governing  body.
    D. Step 3: Within five working days, the director  shall submit to the LHRC:
    1. A written response to everything contained in the petition;  and
    2. A copy of the entire written record of the complaint.
    E. Step 4: The LHRC shall hold a hearing within 20  working days of receiving the petition. hearing procedures:
    1. The LHRC shall hold a hearing within 20 working days of  receiving the petition.
    2. The parties shall have at least five working days'  notice of the hearing.
    2. 3. The director or his designee shall attend  the hearing.
    3. 4. The individual or his authorized  representative making the complaint shall attend the hearing.
    5. The hearing is an informal process and, as such, the  rules of legal proceedings are not applicable.
    4. 6. At the hearing, the parties and chosen  representatives and designees have the right to present witnesses and other  evidence and the opportunity to be heard.
    7. The hearing shall be conducted in a nonadversarial  manner.
    a. Each party shall be provided the opportunity to present  its facts.
    b. Each party shall direct questions to the LHRC rather  than to the other party.
    c. The LHRC shall ask questions, as appropriate, to each  party.
    F. Step 5: Within 10 working days after the hearing  ends, the LHRC shall give its written findings of fact and recommendations to  the parties and their representatives. Whenever appropriate, the LHRC shall  identify information that it believes the director shall take into account in  making decisions concerning discipline or termination of personnel.
    G. Step 6: Within five working days of receiving the  LHRC's findings and recommendations, the director shall give the individual,  the individual's chosen representative, the human rights advocate, the governing  body, and the LHRC a written action plan he intends to take implement  to respond to the LHRC's findings and recommendations. Along with the action  plan, the director shall provide written notice to the individual about the time  frame timeframe for the individual's response pursuant to Step 7  (subsection H of this section) and a statement that if the individual does  not respond that, then the complaint will be closed. The plan  shall not be implemented for five working days after it is submitted, unless the  individual agrees to its implementation sooner.
    H. Step 7: The individual, his chosen representative,  the human rights advocate, or the LHRC may object to the action plan within  five working days by stating the objection and what the director can do to  resolve the objection.
    1. If an objection is made, the director may not implement the  action plan, or until the objection is resolved. The provider may,  however, implement only that any portion of the plan that  to which the individual making the complaint agrees to, until he  resolves the objection as requested or appeals to the SHRC for a decision under  12VAC35-115-210.
    2. If no one objects to the action plan, the director shall  begin to implement the plan on the sixth working day after he submitted it,  or as otherwise provided in the plan.
    I. Step 8: If an objection to the action plan is made  and the director does not resolve the objection to the action plan to the  individual's satisfaction within two working days following its receipt by the  director, the individual may appeal to the SHRC under 12VAC35-115-210.
    12VAC35-115-190. Special procedures for emergency hearings by  the LHRC. 
    A. If the human rights advocate informs the LHRC of a  substantial risk that serious and irreparable harm will result if a complaint  is not resolved immediately, the LHRC shall hold and conclude a preliminary  hearing within 72 hours of receiving this information.
    1. The director or his designee and the human rights advocate  shall attend the hearing. The individual and his authorized representative may  attend the hearing.
    2. The hearing shall be conducted according to the procedures  in 12VAC35-115-180, but it shall be concluded conducted on an  expedited basis.
    B. At the end of the hearing, the LHRC shall make preliminary  findings and, if a violation is found, shall make preliminary recommendations  to the director, the provider, and the provider's governing body.
    C. The director shall formulate and carry out an action plan  within 24 hours of receiving the LHRC's preliminary recommendations. A copy of  the plan shall be sent to the human rights advocate, the individual, his  authorized representative, and the governing body.
    D. If the individual or the human rights advocate objects  within 24 hours to the LHRC findings or recommendations or to the director's  action plan, the LHRC shall conduct a full hearing within five working days of  the objection, following the procedures outlined in 12VAC35-115-180. This  objection shall be made in writing to the LHRC chairperson, with a copy  sent to the director.
    E. Either party may appeal the LHRC's decision to the SHRC  under 12VAC35-115-210.
    12VAC35-115-200. Special procedures for LHRC reviews involving  consent and authorization. 
    A. The individual, his authorized representative, or anyone  acting on the individual's behalf may request in writing that the LHRC review  the following situations and issue a decision:
    1. If an individual his authorized representative  objects at any time to the appointment of a specific person as his  authorized representative or any decision for which consent or authorization is  required and has been given by his authorized representative, other than a  legal guardian, he may ask the LHRC to decide whether his capacity was properly  evaluated, the authorized representative was properly appointed, or his  authorized representative's decision was made based on the individual's basic  values and any preferences previously expressed by the individual to the extent  that they are known, and if unknown or unclear in the individual's best  interests.
    a. The provider shall take no action for which consent or  authorization is required if the individual objects, except in an emergency or  as otherwise permitted by law, pending the LHRC review.
    b. If the LHRC determines that the individual's capacity was  properly evaluated, the authorized representative is properly designated, or  the authorized representative's decision was made based on the individual's  basic values and any preferences previously expressed by the individual to the  extent that they are known, or if unknown or unclear in the individual's best  interests, then the provider may proceed according to the decision of the  authorized representative.
    c. If the LHRC determines that the individual's capacity was  not properly evaluated or the authorized representative was not properly  designated, then the provider shall take no action for which consent is  required except in an emergency or as otherwise required or permitted by law,  until the capacity review and authorized representative designation is are  properly done.
    d. If the LHRC determines that the authorized representative's  decision was not made based on the individual's basic values and any preferences  preference previously expressed by the individual to the extent known,  and if unknown or unclear, made in the individual's best interests, then  the provider shall take steps to remove the authorized representative pursuant  to 12VAC35-115-146.
    2. If an individual or his family member has obtained an independent  evaluation of the individual's capacity to consent to treatment or services or  to participate in human research under 12VAC35-115-70, or to  authorize the disclosure of information under 12VAC35-115-90 12VAC35-115-80,  and the opinion of that evaluator conflicts with the opinion of the provider's  evaluator, the LHRC may be requested to decide which evaluation will control.
    a. If the LHRC agrees that the individual lacks the capacity  to consent to treatment or services or authorize disclosure of information, the  director may begin or continue treatment or research or disclose information,  but only with the appropriate consent or authorization of the authorized  representative. The LHRC shall advise the individual of his right to appeal  this determination to the SHRC under 12VAC35-115-210.
    b. If the LHRC does not agree that the individual lacks the  capacity to consent to treatment or services or authorize disclosure of  information, the director shall not begin any treatment or research, or  disclose information without the individual's consent or authorization, or  shall take immediate steps to discontinue any actions begun without the consent  or authorization of the individual. The director may appeal to the SHRC under  12VAC35-115-210 but may not take any further action until the SHRC issues its  opinion.
    3. If a director makes a decision that affects an individual  and the individual believes that the decision requires his personal consent or  authorization or that of his authorized representative, he may object and ask  the LHRC to decide whether consent or authorization is required.
    Regardless of the individual's capacity to consent to  treatment or services or to authorize disclosure of information, if the  LHRC determines that a decision made by a director requires consent or  authorization that was not obtained, the director shall immediately rescind  the stop such action unless and until such consent or authorization  is obtained. The director may appeal to the SHRC under 12VAC35-115-210 but may  not take any further action until the SHRC issues its opinion.
    B. Before making such a decision, the LHRC shall review the  action proposed by the director, any determination of lack of capacity, the  opinion of the independent evaluator if applicable, and the individual's or his  authorized representative's reasons for objecting to that determination. To  facilitate its review, the LHRC may ask that a physician or licensed clinical  psychologist not employed by the provider evaluate the individual at the  provider's expense and give an opinion about his capacity to consent to  treatment or to authorize disclosure of information.
    The LHRC shall notify all parties and the human rights  advocate of the decision within 10 working days of the initial request.
    12VAC35-115-210. State Human Rights Committee appeals  procedures. 
    A. Any party may appeal to the SHRC if he is not satisfied  disagrees with any of the following:
    1. An LHRC's final findings of fact, conclusions, and  recommendations following a hearing;
    2. A director's final action plan following an LHRC hearing;
    3. An LHRC's final decision regarding the capacity of an  individual to consent to treatment, services, or research or to  authorize disclosure of information; or
    4. An LHRC's final decision concerning whether consent or  authorization is needed for the director to take a certain action.
    The steps for filing an appeal are provided in subsections B  through I D of this section.
    B. Step 1: Appeals shall be filed in writing with the  SHRC by a party within 10 working days of receipt of the final decision or  action plan.
    1. The appeal shall explain the reasons for disagreement  with the final decision or action is not satisfactory plan.
    2. The human rights advocate or any other person may help in  filing the appeal. If the individual chooses a person other than the human  rights advocate to help him, he and his chosen representative may request the  human rights advocate's help in filing the appeal.
    3. The party appealing must shall give a copy of  the appeal to the other party, the human rights advocate, and the LHRC.
    4. If the director is the party appealing, he shall first  request and get written permission to appeal from the commissioner or governing  body of the provider, as appropriate. If the director does not get this written  permission and note the appeal within 10 working days, his right to appeal is  waived.
    C. Step 2: If the director is appealing, the  individual may file a written statement with the SHRC within five working days  after receiving a copy of the appeal. If the individual is appealing, the  director shall file a written statement with the SHRC within five working days  after receiving a copy of the appeal.
    D. Step 3: Within five working days of noting or being  notified of an appeal, the director shall forward a complete record of the LHRC  hearing to the SHRC. The record shall include, at a minimum:
    1. The original petition or information filed with the LHRC  and any statement filed by the director in response;
    2. Parts of the individual's services record that the LHRC  considered and any other parts of the services record submitted to, but not  considered by, the LHRC that either party considers relevant;
    3. All written documents and materials presented to and  considered by the LHRC, including any independent evaluations conducted;
    4. A tape or transcript of the LHRC proceedings, if available;
    5. The LHRC's findings of fact, conclusions, and  recommendations;
    6. The director's action plan, if any; and
    7. Any written objections to the action plan or its  implementation.
    E. Step 4: The SHRC shall hear the appeal at its next  scheduled meeting after the chairperson receives the appeal.
    1. The SHRC shall give the parties at least 10 working days'  notice of the appeal hearing.
    2. The following rules govern appeal hearings:
    a. The SHRC shall not hear any new evidence.
    b. The SHRC is bound by the LHRC's findings of fact subject  to subdivision 3 of this subsection unless it makes a determination that  those findings of fact are clearly wrong or that the hearing procedures of the  LHRC were inadequate.
    c. The SHRC shall limit its review to whether the facts, as  found by the LHRC, establish a violation of these regulations this  chapter and a determination of whether the LHRC's recommendations or the  action plan adequately address the alleged violation.
    d. All parties and their representatives shall have the  opportunity to appear before the SHRC to present their positions and answer  questions the SHRC may have.
    e. The SHRC shall notify the Office of the State Inspector  General (§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia) of the appeal.
    3. If the SHRC decides that the LHRC's findings of fact are  clearly wrong or that the hearing procedures employed by the LHRC were  inadequate, the SHRC may:
    a. Send the case back to the LHRC for another hearing to be  completed within a time period specified by the SHRC; or
    b. Conduct its own fact-finding hearing. If the SHRC chooses  to conduct its own fact-finding hearing, it may appoint a subcommittee of at  least three of its members as fact finders. The fact-finding hearing shall be  conducted within 30 working days of the SHRC's initial hearing.
    In either case, the parties shall have 15 working days' notice  of the date of the hearing and the opportunity to be heard and to present  witnesses and other evidence.
    F. Step 5: Within 20 working days after the SHRC  appeal hearing, the SHRC shall submit a report, decision containing  its findings of fact, if applicable, and its conclusions and  recommendations to the commissioner and to the provider's governing body, with  copies to the parties, the LHRC, and the human rights advocate.
    G. Step 6: Within 10 working days after receiving the  SHRC's report decision, in the case of appeals involving a state  facility, the commissioner shall submit an outline of actions to be taken in  response to the SHRC's recommendations. In the case of appeals involving CSBs  and private providers, the commissioner and the provider's governing body  director shall each outline in writing the action or actions they  that will take be taken in response to the recommendations  of the SHRC. They shall also explain any reasons for not carrying out any of  the recommended actions. Copies of their responses shall be forwarded to the  SHRC, the LHRC, the director, the human rights advocate, and the individual.
    H. Step 7: If the SHRC objects in writing to the  commissioner's or governing body's director's proposed actions, or  both, their actions shall be postponed. The commissioner or governing  body, or both, director shall meet with the SHRC at its next  regularly scheduled meeting to attempt to arrange a mutually agreeable  resolution.
    I. Step 8: Final determination regarding the action  plan shall be as follows:
    1. In the case of services provided directly by the  department, the commissioner's action plan shall be final and binding on all  parties. However, when the SHRC believes the commissioner's action plan is  incompatible with the purpose of these regulations this chapter,  it shall notify the board, the protection and advocacy agency, and the Office  of the State Inspector General (§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia).
    2. In the case of services delivered by all other  providers, the action plan of the provider's governing body director  shall be reviewed by the commissioner. If the commissioner determines that the  provider has failed to develop and carry out an acceptable action plan, the  commissioner shall notify the protection and advocacy agency and shall inform  the SHRC of the sanctions the department will impose against the provider.
    J. Step 9: Upon completion of the process outlined in subsections  B through I of this section, the SHRC shall notify the parties and the  human rights advocate of the final outcome of the complaint.
    Part VII 
  Reporting Requirements 
    12VAC35-115-230. Provider requirements for reporting to the  department.
    A. Providers shall collect, maintain, and report the  following information concerning abuse, neglect, and exploitation:
    1. The director of a facility operated by the department shall  report allegations of abuse and neglect via the web-based reporting  application in accordance with all applicable operating instructions issued  by the commissioner or his designee.
    2. The director of a service licensed or funded by the  department shall report each allegation of abuse or neglect to the assigned  human rights advocate via the web-based reporting application within  24 hours from the of receipt of the allegation (see 12VAC35-115-50)  12VAC35-115-175).
    3. The investigating authority shall provide a written report  of the results of the investigation of abuse or neglect to the director and  human rights advocate within 10 working days from the date the investigation  began unless an exemption extension has been granted by the  department (see 12VAC35-115-50) 12VAC35-115-175). This report  shall include:
    a. Whether abuse, neglect, or exploitation occurred;
    b. The type of abuse; and
    c. Whether the act resulted in physical or psychological  injury.
    B. Providers shall collect, maintain, and report the  following information concerning deaths and serious injuries:
    1. The director of a facility operated by the department shall  report to the department deaths and serious injuries in accordance with all  applicable operating instructions issued by the commissioner or his designee.
    2. The director of a service licensed or funded by the  department shall report deaths and serious injuries in writing to the  department within 24 hours of discovery and by telephone to the authorized  representative within 24 hours.
    3. All reports of death and serious injuries shall include:
    a. Date and place of the death or serious injury;
    b. Nature of the injuries and treatment required; and
    c. Circumstances of the death or serious injury.
    C. Providers shall collect, maintain and report the following  information concerning seclusion and restraint:
    1. The director of a facility operated by the department shall  report each instance of seclusion or restraint or both in accordance with all  applicable operating instructions issued by the commissioner or his designee.
    2. The director of a service licensed or funded by the  department shall submit an annual report of each instance of seclusion or  restraint or both by the 15th of January each year, or more frequently if  requested by the department.
    3. Each instance of seclusion or restraint or both shall be  compiled on a monthly basis and the report shall include:
    a. Type(s) Type or types, to include:
    (1) Physical restraint (manual hold);
    (2) Mechanical restraint;
    (3) Pharmacological restraint; and or
    (4) Seclusion.
    b. Rationale for the use of seclusion or restraint, to  include:
    (1) Behavioral purpose;
    (2) Medical purpose; or
    (3) Protective purpose.
    c. Duration of the seclusion or restraint, as follows:
    (1) The duration of seclusion and restraint used for  behavioral purposes is defined as the actual time the individual is in  seclusion or restraint from the time of initiation of seclusion or restraint  until the individual is released.
    (2) The duration of restraint for medical and protective  purposes is defined as the length of the episode as indicated in the order.
    4. Any instance of seclusion or restraint that does not comply  with these regulations this chapter or approved variances, or  that results in injury to an individual, shall be reported to the authorized  representative, as applicable, and the assigned human rights advocate to  the department via the web-based reporting application within 24 hours.
    D. The director Providers shall provide report  to the human rights advocate and the LHRC information on the type,  resolution level, and findings of each complaint of a human rights  violation, including a description and its conclusions, and report on  implementation of variances, in accordance with the LHRC meeting  schedule or as requested by the advocate.
    E. Reports required under this section shall be submitted to  the department on forms or in an automated format or both developed by the  department.
    F. The department shall compile all data reported under this  section and make this data available to the public and the Office of the State  Inspector General (§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia) upon request.
    1. The department shall provide the compiled data in writing  or by electronic means.
    2. The department shall remove all provider-identifying  information and all information that could be used to identify a person as an  individual receiving services.
    G. In the reporting, compiling, and releasing of  information and statistical data provided under this section, the department  and all providers shall take all measures necessary to ensure that any  information identifying individuals is not released disclosed to  the public, including encryption of data transferred by electronic means.
    H. Nothing in this section is to be construed as requiring  the reporting of proceedings, minutes, records, or reports of any committee  or nonprofit entity providing a centralized credentialing service which  that are identified as privileged pursuant to § 8.01-581.17 of the Code  of Virginia.
    I. Providers shall report to the Department of Health  Professions, Enforcement Division, violations of these regulations this  chapter that constitute reportable conditions under §§ 54.1-2400.4, 54.1-2400.6,  and 54.1-2909 of the Code of Virginia state law.
    Part IX 
  Responsibilities and Duties 
    12VAC35-115-250. Offices, composition and duties. (Repealed.)  
    A. Providers and their directors shall:
    1. Identify a person or persons accountable for helping  individuals to exercise their rights and resolve complaints regarding services.
    2. Comply with all state laws governing the reporting of  abuse and neglect and all procedures set forth in these regulations for  reporting allegations of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
    3. Require competency-based training on these regulations  upon employment and at least annually thereafter. Documentation of such  competency shall be maintained in the employee's personnel file.
    4. Take all steps necessary to assure compliance with these  regulations in all services provided.
    5. Communicate information about the availability of a  human rights advocate to individuals and authorized representatives.
    6. Assure one LHRC affiliation within the region as defined  by the SHRC. The SHRC may require multi-site providers to have more than one  LHRC affiliation within a region if the SHRC determines that additional  affiliations are necessary to protect individuals' human rights.
    7. Assure that the appropriate staff attend LHRC meetings  in accordance with the LHRC meeting schedule to report on human rights  activities, to impart information to the LHRC at the request of the human  rights advocate or LHRC, and discuss specific concerns or issues with the LHRC.
    8. Cooperate with the human rights advocate and the LHRC to  investigate and correct conditions or practices interfering with the free  exercise of individuals' human rights and make sure that all employees  cooperate with the human rights advocate and the LHRC in carrying out their  duties under these regulations. Notwithstanding the requirements for complaints  pursuant to Part V (12VAC35-115-150 et seq.) of this chapter, the provider  shall submit a written response indicating intended action to any written  recommendation made by the human rights advocate or LHRC within 15 days of the  receipt of such recommendation.
    9. Provide the advocate unrestricted access to individuals  and individual services records whenever the human rights advocate deems access  necessary to carry out rights protection, complaint resolution, and advocacy.
    10. Submit to the human rights advocate for review and  comment any proposed policies, procedures, or practices that may affect  individual human rights.
    11. Comply with requests by the SHRC, LHRC, and human  rights advocate for information, policies, procedures, and written reports  regarding compliance with these regulations.
    12. Name a liaison to the LHRC, who shall give the LHRC  suitable meeting accommodations, clerical support and equipment, and assure the  availability of records and employee witnesses upon the request of the LHRC.  Oversight and assistance with the LHRC's substantive implementation of these  regulations shall be provided by the SHRC. See subsection E of this section.
    13. Submit applications for variances to these regulations  only as a last resort.
    14. Post in program locations information about the  existence and purpose of the human rights program.
    15. Not influence or attempt to influence the appointment  of any person to an LHRC associated with the provider or director.
    16. Perform any other duties required under these  regulations.
    B. Employees of the provider shall, as a condition of  employment:
    1. Become familiar with these regulations, comply with them  in all respects, and help individuals understand and assert their rights.
    2. Protect individuals from any form of abuse, neglect, or  exploitation (i) by not abusing, neglecting or exploiting any individual; (ii)  by not permitting or condoning anyone else abusing, neglecting, or exploiting  any individual; and (iii) by reporting all suspected abuse, neglect, or  exploitation to the director. Protecting individuals receiving services from  abuse also includes using the minimum force necessary to restrain an  individual.
    3. Cooperate with any investigation, meeting, hearing, or  appeal held under these regulations. Cooperation includes giving statements or  sworn testimony.
    4. Perform any other duties required under these  regulations.
    C. The human rights advocate shall:
    1. Represent any individual making a complaint or, upon  request, consult with and help any other representative the individual chooses.
    2. Monitor the implementation of an advocacy system for  individuals receiving services from the provider or providers to which the  advocate is assigned.
    3. Promote and monitor provider compliance with these and  other applicable individual rights laws, regulations, and policies.
    4. Investigate and try to prevent or correct, informally or  formally, any alleged rights violations by interviewing, mediating,  negotiating, advising, and consulting with providers and their respective  governing bodies, directors, and employees.
    5. Whenever necessary, file a written complaint with the  LHRC for an individual or, where general conditions or practices interfere with  individuals' rights, for a group of individuals.
    6. Investigate and examine all conditions or practices that  may interfere with the free exercise of individuals' rights.
    7. Help the individual or the individual's chosen  representative during any meeting, hearing, appeal, or other proceeding under  these regulations unless the individual or his chosen representative chooses  not to involve the human rights advocate.
    8. Provide orientation, training, and technical assistance  to the LHRCs for which he is responsible.
    9. Tell the LHRC about any recommendations made to the  director, the provider, the provider's governing body, the state human rights  director, or the department for changes in policies, procedures, or practices  that have the potential to adversely affect the rights of individuals.
    10. Make recommendations to the state human rights director  concerning the employment and supervision of other advocates where appropriate.
    11. Submit regular reports to the state human rights  director, the LHRC, and the SHRC about provider implementation of and  compliance with these regulations.
    12. Provide consultation to individuals, providers and  their governing bodies, directors, and employees regarding individuals' rights,  providers' duties, and complaint resolution.
    13. Perform any other duties required under these  regulations.
    D. The Local Human Rights Committee shall:
    1. Consist of five or more members appointed by the SHRC.
    a. Membership shall be broadly representative of  professional and consumer interests. At least two members shall be individuals  who are receiving or have received public or private mental health, mental  retardation, or substance abuse treatment or habilitation services within five  years of their initial appointment. At least one-third of the members shall be  consumers or family members of consumers. Remaining appointments shall include  persons with interest, knowledge, or training in the mental health, mental  retardation, or substance abuse field.
    b. At least one member shall be a health care provider.
    c. No current employee of the department or a provider shall  serve as a member of any LHRC that serves an oversight function for the  employing facility or provider.
    d. Initial appointments to an LHRC shall be staggered, with  approximately one-third of the members appointed for a term of three years,  approximately one-third for a term of two years, and the remainder for a term  of one year. After that, all appointments shall be for a term of three years.
    e. A person may be appointed for no more than two  consecutive three-year terms. A person appointed to fill a vacancy may serve  out that term and then be eligible for two additional consecutive terms.
    f. Nominations for membership to LHRCs shall be submitted  directly to the SHRC through the state human rights director at the  department's Office of Human Rights.
    2. Permit affiliations of local providers in accordance  with the recommendations from the human rights advocate. SHRC approval is  required for the denial of an affiliation request.
    3. Receive complaints of alleged rights violations filed by  or for individuals receiving services from providers with which the LHRC is  affiliated and hold hearings according to the procedures set forth in Part V  (12VAC35-115-150 et seq.) of this chapter.
    4. Conduct investigations as requested by the SHRC.
    5. Upon the request of the human rights advocate, provider,  director, or an individual or individuals, or on its own initiative, an LHRC  may review any existing or proposed policies, procedures, practices, or  behavioral treatment plans that could jeopardize the rights of individuals receiving  services from the provider with which the LHRC is affiliated. In conducting  this review, the LHRC may consult with any human rights advocate, employee of  the provider, or anyone else. After this review, the LHRC shall make  recommendations to the director concerning changes in these plans, policies,  procedures, and practices.
    6. Receive, review, and act on applications for variances  to these regulations according to 12VAC35-115-220.
    7. Receive, review and comment on all behavioral treatment  plans involving the use of restraint or time out and seclusion, restraint, or  time out policies for affiliated providers.
    8. Adopt written bylaws that address procedures for  conducting business, electing the chairperson, secretary, and other officers,  designating standing committees, and setting the frequency of meetings.
    9. Elect from its own members a chairperson to coordinate  the activities of the LHRC and to preside at regular committee meetings and any  hearings held pursuant to these regulations.
    10. Conduct a meeting every quarter or more frequently as  necessary to adhere to all time lines as set forth in these regulations.
    11. Require members to recuse themselves from all cases  wherein they have a financial or other conflict of interest.
    12. The LHRC may delegate summary decision-making authority  to a subcommittee when expedited decisions are required before the next  scheduled LHRC meeting to avoid seriously compromising an individual's quality  of care, habilitation, or quality of life. The decision of the subcommittee  shall be reviewed by the full LHRC at its next meeting.
    13. Perform any other duties required under these  regulations.
    E. The State Human Rights Committee shall:
    1. Consist of nine members appointed by the board.
    a. Members shall be broadly representative of professional  and consumer interests and of geographic areas in the Commonwealth. At least  two members shall be individuals who are receiving or have received public or  private mental health, mental retardation, or substance abuse treatment or  habilitation services within five years of their initial appointment. At least  one-third of the members shall be consumers or family members of consumers.  Remaining appointments shall include persons with interest, knowledge, or  training in the mental health, mental retardation, or substance abuse field.
    b. At least one member shall be a health care professional.
    c. No member can be an employee or board member of the  department or a CSB.
    d. If there is a vacancy, interim appointments may be made  for the remainder of the unexpired term.
    e. A person may be appointed for no more than two  consecutive three-year terms. A person appointed to fill a vacancy may serve  out that term, and then be eligible for two additional consecutive terms.
    2. Elect a chairperson from its own members who shall:
    a. Coordinate the activities of the SHRC;
    b. Preside at regular meetings, hearings, and appeals; and
    c. Have direct access to the commissioner and the board in  carrying out these duties.
    3. Upon request of the commissioner, human rights advocate,  provider, director, or an individual or individuals, or on its own initiative,  a SHRC may review any existing or proposed policies, procedures, or practices  that could jeopardize the rights of individuals receiving services from any  provider. In conducting this review, the SHRC may consult with any human rights  advocate, employee of the director, or anyone else. After this review, the SHRC  shall make recommendations to the director or commissioner concerning changes  in these policies, procedures, and practices.
    4. Determine the appropriate number and geographical  boundaries of LHRCs and consolidate LHRCs serving only one provider into  regional LHRCs whenever consolidation would assure greater protection of rights  under these regulations.
    5. Appoint members of LHRCs with the advice of the  respective LHRC, human rights advocate, and the state human rights director.
    6. Advise the commissioner about the employment of the  state human rights director and human rights advocates.
    7. Conduct at least eight regular meetings per year.
    8. Review decisions of LHRCs and, if appropriate, hold  hearings and make recommendations to the commissioner, the board, and  providers' governing bodies regarding alleged violations of individuals' rights  according to the procedures specified in these regulations.
    9. Provide oversight and assistance to LHRCs in the  performance of their duties hereunder, including the development of guidance  documents such as sample bylaws, affiliation agreements, and minutes to increase  operational consistency among LHRCs.
    10. Review denials of LHRC affiliations.
    11. Notify the commissioner and the state human rights  director whenever it determines that its recommendations in a particular case  are of general interest and applicability to providers, human rights advocates,  or LHRCs and assure the availability of the opinion or report to providers,  human rights advocates, and LHRCs as appropriate. No document made available  shall identify the name of individuals or employees in a particular case.
    12. Grant or deny variances according to the procedures  specified in Part VI (12VAC35-115-220) of this chapter and review approved  variances at least once every year.
    13. Make recommendations to the board concerning proposed  revisions to these regulations.
    14. Make recommendations to the commissioner concerning  revisions to any existing or proposed laws, regulations, policies, procedures,  and practices to ensure the protection of individuals' rights.
    15. Review the scope and content of training programs  designed by the department to promote responsible performance of the duties  assigned under these regulations by providers, employees, human rights  advocates, and LHRC members, and, where appropriate, make recommendations to  the commissioner.
    16. Evaluate the implementation of these regulations and  make any necessary and appropriate recommendations to the board, the  commissioner, and the state human rights director concerning interpretation and  enforcement of the regulations.
    17. Submit to the board and publish an annual report of its  activities and the status of human rights in mental health, mental retardation,  and substance abuse treatment and services in Virginia and make recommendations  for improvement.
    18. Adopt written bylaws that address procedures for  conducting business; making membership recommendations to the board; electing a  chairperson, vice chairperson, secretary, and other officers; appointing  members of LHRCs; designating standing committees and their responsibilities;  establishing ad hoc committees; and setting the frequency of meetings.
    19. Review and approve the bylaws of LHRCs.
    20. Require members to recuse themselves from all cases  where they have a financial or other conflict of interest.
    21. Perform any other duties required under these  regulations.
    F. The state human rights director shall:
    1. Lead the implementation of the statewide human rights  program and make ongoing recommendations to the commissioner, the SHRC, and  LHRCs for continuous improvements in the program.
    2. Advise the commissioner concerning the employment and  retention of human rights advocates.
    3. Advise providers, directors, advocates, LHRCs, the SHRC,  and the commissioner concerning their responsibilities under these regulations  and other applicable laws, regulations, policies, and departmental instructions  that protect individuals' rights.
    4. Organize, coordinate, and oversee training programs  designed to promote responsible performance of the duties assigned under these  regulations.
    5. Periodically visit service settings to monitor the free  exercise of rights enumerated in these regulations.
    6. Supervise human rights advocates in the performance of  their duties under these regulations.
    7. Support the SHRC and LHRCs in carrying out their duties  under these regulations.
    8. Review LHRC decisions and recommendations for general  applicability and provide suggestions for training to appropriate entities.
    9. Monitor implementation of corrective action plans  approved by the SHRC.
    10. Perform any other duties required under these  regulations.
    G. The commissioner shall:
    1. Employ the state human rights director after  consultation with the SHRC.
    2. Employ advocates following consultation with the state  human rights director.
    3. Provide or arrange for assistance and training necessary  to carry out and enforce these regulations.
    4. Cooperate with the SHRC and the state human rights  director to investigate providers and correct conditions or practices that  interfere with the free exercise of individuals' rights.
    5. Advise and consult with the SHRC and the state human  rights director concerning the appointment of members of LHRCs.
    6. Maintain current and regularly updated data and perform  regular trend analyses to identify the need for corrective action in the areas  of abuse, neglect, and exploitation; seclusion and restraint; complaints;  deaths and serious injuries; and variance applications.
    7. Assure regular monitoring and enforcement of these  regulations, including authorizing unannounced compliance reviews at any time.
    8. Perform any other duties required under these  regulations.
    H. The board shall:
    1. Adopt regulations that further define the rights of  individuals receiving services from providers covered by these regulations.
    2. Appoint members of the SHRC.
    3. Review and approve the bylaws of the SHRC.
    4. Perform any other duties required under these  regulations.
    12VAC35-115-260. Provider and department responsibilities.
    A. Providers, through their directors, shall:
    1. Designate a person or persons responsible for helping  individuals exercise their rights and resolve complaints regarding services;
    2. Take all steps necessary to perform duties required by,  and ensure compliance with, this chapter in all services provided;
    3. Post information in program locations about the  existence and purpose of the human rights program;
    4. Communicate information about the availability of a  human rights advocate to individuals and authorized representatives, in  accordance with 12VAC35-115-40 B 1 and B 2;
    5. Ensure access, as needed, to the LHRC for all  individuals receiving services;
    6. Provide the human rights advocate unrestricted access to  an individual and his services records whenever the advocate deems access is  necessary to carry out rights protection, complaint resolution, and advocacy on  behalf of the individual;
    7. Require competency-based training of employees on this  chapter upon employment and at least annually thereafter. Documentation of such  competency shall be maintained in the employee's personnel file;
    8. Comply with all state laws governing the reporting of  abuse and neglect and all procedures set forth in this chapter for reporting  allegations of abuse, neglect, or exploitation;
    9. Submit to the human rights advocate for review and  comment proposed policies, procedures, or practices that may affect individual  human rights;
    10. Ensure appointment of a designated liaison to, and  appropriate staff participation with, the LHRC, as required;
    11. Cooperate with the human rights advocate and the LHRC  to investigate and correct conditions or practices interfering with the free  exercise of individuals' human rights and make sure that all employees  cooperate with the human rights advocate, the LHRC, and the SHRC in carrying  out their duties under this chapter;
    12. Comply with requests by the SHRC, LHRC, or human rights  advocate for information, policies, procedures, and written reports regarding  compliance with this chapter;
    13. Ensure the availability of records and employee  witnesses upon the request of the LHRC or SHRC;
    14. Submit applications for variances to this chapter only  as a last resort; and
    15. Not influence or attempt to influence the appointment  of any person to an LHRC affiliated with the provider or director.
    B. Employees of the provider shall, as a condition of employment:
    1. Become familiar with this chapter, comply with it in all  respects, and help individuals understand and assert their rights;
    2. Protect individuals from any form of abuse, neglect, or  exploitation by: 
    a. Not abusing, neglecting, or exploiting any individual; 
    b. Using the minimum force necessary to restrain an  individual;
    c. Not permitting or condoning anyone else abusing,  neglecting, or exploiting any individual; and
    d. Reporting all suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation  to the director; and
    3. Cooperate with any investigation, meeting, hearing, or  appeal held under this chapter. Cooperation includes giving statements or sworn  testimony.
    C. Department human rights advocates shall: 
    1. Represent any individual making a complaint or, upon  request, consult with and help any other representative the individual chooses;
    2. Provide training to individuals, family members, and  providers on this chapter;
    3. Investigate and try to prevent or correct any alleged  rights violation by interviewing, mediating, negotiating, advising, or  consulting with providers and their respective governing bodies, directors, and  employees;
    4. Provide orientation, training, and technical assistance  to the LHRCs for which he is responsible; and
    5 Investigate and examine all conditions or practices that  may interfere with the free exercise of individuals' rights.
    D. The department shall:
    1. Employ the state human rights director to lead statewide  implementation of the human rights program;
    2. Determine, in consultation with the SHRC, the  appropriate number and geographical boundaries of LHRCs;
    3. Develop information, assistance, training tools, and  other resources for individuals and constituents on this chapter;
    4. Provide for regular monitoring and enforcement of this chapter,  including conducting unannounced compliance reviews at any time;
    5. Cooperate with and provide support to the SHRC and  LHRCs, including:
    a. Training SHRC and LHRC members on their  responsibilities, roles, and functions under this chapter;
    b. Providing access to topic area consultants as needed to  support their fulfilling of their duties under this chapter; and
    c. Providing necessary support for SHRC and LHRC  investigations, meetings, and hearings; and
    6. Maintain current and regularly updated data and perform  regular trend analyses to identify the need for corrective action in the areas  of abuse, neglect, and exploitation; seclusion and restraint; complaints;  deaths and serious injuries; and variance applications.
    12VAC35-115-270. State Human Rights Committee and local  human rights committees responsibilities.
    A. Local human rights committees shall:
    1. Review any restriction on the rights of any individual  imposed pursuant to 12VAC35-115-50 or 12VAC35-115-100 that lasts longer than  seven days or is imposed multiple times during a 30-day period for providers  within the LHRC's jurisdiction in accordance with 12VAC35-115-100 B 5;
    2. Review next friend designations in accordance with  12VAC35-115-146 B 2;
    3. Hold hearings according to the procedures set forth in  Part V (12VAC35-115-150 et seq.) of this chapter for any individual served by a  provider under the LHRC's jurisdiction;
    4. Review behavioral treatment plans in accordance with  12VAC35-115-105;
    5. Receive, review, and act on applications for variances  to this chapter in accordance with 12VAC35-115-220;
    6. Consist of five or more members appointed by the SHRC.
    a. Membership shall be broadly representative of  professional and consumer interests as required in § 37.2-204 of the Code  of Virginia.
    b. At least one member shall be a health care provider.
    c. No current employee of the department or a provider  shall serve as a member of any LHRC that serves an oversight function for the  employing facility or provider.
    d. Members shall recuse themselves from all cases in which  they have a financial or other conflict of interest.
    e. Initial appointments to an LHRC shall be staggered, with  approximately one-third of the members appointed for terms of three years,  approximately one-third for terms of two years, and the remainder for a term or  terms of one year. After that, all appointments shall be for terms of three  years.
    f. A person may be appointed for no more than two  consecutive three-year terms. A person appointed to fill a vacancy may serve  out that term and then be eligible for two additional consecutive terms.
    g. Nominations for membership to LHRCs shall be submitted  directly to the SHRC through the state human rights director at the  department's Office of Human Rights;
    7. Elect a chairperson from its own members who shall:
    a. Coordinate the activities of the LHRC; and
    b. Preside at regular meetings and hearings held pursuant  to this chapter;
    8. Meet every quarter or more frequently as necessary to  adhere to all timelines as set forth in this chapter; and
    9. Adopt written bylaws that address procedures for  conducting business; electing the chairperson, secretary, and other officers;  designating standing committees; and setting the frequency of meetings.
    B. Local human rights committees may delegate authority to  a subcommittee when expedited decisions are required before the next scheduled  LHRC meeting to avoid seriously compromising an individual's quality of care,  habilitation, or quality of life. The decision of the subcommittee shall be  reviewed by the full LHRC at its next meeting.
    C. The State Human Rights Committee shall:
    1. Perform the following responsibilities with respect to  the operation of LHRCs:
    a. Appoint LHRC members with the advice of the respective  LHRC, human rights advocate, and the state human rights director;
    b. Review and approve the bylaws of LHRCs; and
    c. Provide oversight to and assist LHRCs in the performance  of their duties under this chapter, including the development of guidance  documents;
    2. Review LHRC decisions when required by this chapter and,  if appropriate, hold hearings and make recommendations to the commissioner, the  board, and providers' governing bodies regarding alleged violations of  individuals' rights according to the procedures specified in this chapter;
    3. Notify the commissioner and the state human rights  director whenever it determines that its recommendations in a particular case  are of general interest and applicability to providers, human rights advocates,  or LHRCs and ensure that:
    a. Its recommendations are communicated to providers, human  rights advocates, and LHRCs as appropriate; and
    b. The communication of its recommendations does not  identify the name of individuals or employees in a particular case;
    4. Grant or deny variances according to the procedures specified  in Part VI (12VAC35-115-220) of this chapter and review approved variances at  least once every year;
    5. Submit to the board and publish an annual report of its  activities and the status of human rights in services licensed, funded, or  operated by the department and make recommendations for improvement;
    6. Evaluate the implementation of this chapter and make  necessary and appropriate recommendations to the board, the commissioner, and  the state human rights director concerning its interpretation and enforcement;
    7. Review and make recommendations to the department and  board, as appropriate, concerning:
    a. The scope and content of training programs designed by  the department to promote responsible performance of the duties assigned under  this chapter;
    b. Existing or proposed policies, procedures, or practices  that could jeopardize the rights of individuals receiving services from any  provider;
    c. Proposed revisions to this chapter; and
    d. Revisions to existing or proposed laws, regulations,  policies, procedures, and practices that are needed to ensure the protection of  individuals' rights;
    8. Consist of nine members appointed by the board.
    a. Members shall be broadly representative of professional  and consumer interests as required in § 37.2-204 of the Code of Virginia;
    b. Members shall recuse themselves from all cases in which  they have a financial or other conflict of interest;
    c. If there is a vacancy, interim appointments may be made  by the board for the remainder of the unexpired term;
    d. A person may be appointed for no more than two  consecutive three-year terms. A person appointed to fill a vacancy may serve  out that term and then be eligible for two additional consecutive terms; and
    e. No current employee of the department, a CSB, or a  behavioral health authority may serve as a member of the SHRC;
    9. Elect a chairperson from its own members who shall:
    a. Coordinate the activities of the SHRC;
    b. Preside at regular meetings, hearings, and appeals; and
    c. Have direct access to the commissioner and the board in  carrying out these duties;
    10. Conduct at least eight regular meetings per year; and
    11. Adopt written bylaws that address procedures for  conducting business; making membership recommendations to the board; electing a  chairperson, vice chairperson, secretary, and other officers; appointing  members of LHRCs; designating standing committees and their responsibilities;  establishing ad hoc committees; and setting the frequency of meetings.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3502; Filed November 17, 2015, 11:53 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AND DEVELOPMENTAL SERVICES
Emergency Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC35-240. Victims of  Sterilization Fund Administration (adding 12VAC35-240-10 through  12VAC35-240-70). 
    Statutory Authority: § 37.2-203 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Dates: November 21, 2015, through May 20,  2017.
    Agency Contact: Ruth Anne Walker, Regulatory  Coordinator, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services,  Jefferson Building, 1220 Bank Street, 11th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone  (804) 225-2252, FAX (804) 786-8623, or email  ruthanne.walker@dbhds.virginia.gov.
    Preamble:
    Item 307 T of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly  establishes compensation for individuals who were involuntarily sterilized  pursuant to the 1924 Virginia Eugenical Sterilization Act and who are living as  of February 1, 2015. The act enacts requirements for the compensation program,  including funding limits on claims and a requirement that disbursements be based  on the date at which sufficient documentation is provided, authorizes the  Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) to pay  claims, and requires DBHDS to adopt emergency regulations to implement the act.
    The emergency regulation establishes (i) eligibility  criteria, (ii) submission of claims, (iii) compensation, (iv) appropriate  documentation for verification, and (v) an administrative process for handling  claims.
    CHAPTER 240
  VICTIMS OF STERILIZATION FUND PROGRAM
    12VAC35-240-10. Definitions.
    "Act" means Chapter 394 of the 1924 Acts of  Assembly passed by the Virginia General Assembly on March 20, 1924, known as  the Virginia Eugenical Sterilization Act, which provided for the sexual  sterilization of individuals admitted to state institutions in certain cases.
    "Application" means the Application Form for  Filing a Claim for Compensation for Victims of the 1924 Eugenical Sterilization  Act made available by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental  Services.
    "Claimant" means any person claiming eligibility  who applies for compensation pursuant to this chapter. 
    "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the  Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
    "Lawfully authorized representative" means (i) a  person who is permitted by law or regulation to act on behalf of an individual  or (ii) a personal representative of an estate, as defined in § 64.2-100  of the Code of Virginia, of an individual who died on or after February 1,  2015.
    "Review panel" means a minimum of three  department staff members who are appointed by the commissioner to make final  determinations on applications for claims that have been deemed complete pursuant  to this chapter.
    "Sterilization" means a medical procedure or  form of birth control that leaves a male or female unable to reproduce or  conceive children and was done pursuant to the Act. 
    12VAC35-240-20. Eligibility criteria.
    An individual or his lawfully authorized representative is  eligible to request compensation under this chapter if the individual was:
    1. Involuntarily sterilized pursuant to the Act;
    2. Sterilized while a patient at Eastern State Hospital;  Western State Hospital; Central State Hospital; Southwestern Virginia Mental  Health Institute, formerly known as Southwestern State Hospital; or the Central  Virginia Training Center, formerly known as the State Colony for Epileptics and  Feeble-Minded; and
    3. Living as of February 1, 2015. 
    12VAC35-240-30. Claims for compensation.
    A. Any individual who meets the eligibility criteria, or  his lawfully authorized representative, if applicable, may submit a claim for  compensation.
    B. Claimants shall submit applications with proof of  identity and proof that the eligibility criteria are met. When an application  is submitted for an individual who died on or after February 1, 2015, the  application shall include a certified copy of a state issued death certificate.
    C. To establish the claimant's proof of identity, a copy  of one or more of the following documents bearing a photographic image of the  claimant's face and signature shall be submitted with the application form:
    1. A state issued driver's license.
    2. A state issued identification card.
    3. A United States passport.
    4. A foreign passport with Visa, I-94 or I-94W.
    5. A United States military card, active or retired member.
    D. To establish proof of involuntary sterilization  pursuant to the Act, a copy of one or more of the following shall be submitted  with the application:
    1. Letter notifying a parent, guardian, or a lawfully  authorized representative that the involuntary sterilization procedure was  performed on the claimant.
    2. Progress notes from the claimant's hospital record  documenting that the involuntary sterilization procedure was performed on the  claimant.
    3. Case summary from the claimant's hospital record  documenting that the involuntary sterilization procedure was performed on the  claimant.
    4. Physician's order for involuntary sterilization from the  claimant's hospital record.
    5. Operative record of involuntary sterilization from the  claimant's hospital record.
    6. Involuntary sterilization record summary from the  claimant's hospital record.
    7. Nurses' notes documenting post-operative care was  provided to the individual claimant after involuntary sterilization of the  claimant.
    8. Other documents that show that the involuntary  sterilization procedure was performed on the claimant pursuant to the Act.
    E. Any person submitting a claim on behalf of a claimant  shall provide documentation that he is the claimant's lawfully authorized  representative.
    F. All applications shall be notarized by a notary public.
    G. The department shall not accept more than one  application in a single mailing.
    H. Applications shall be submitted to the department  through the United States Postal Service. The department shall not accept any  application that is submitted in any other manner including by any shipping  company, electronically, delivered by courier service, or in person.
    I. The department shall send a notice that the application  was received to the claimant or his lawfully authorized representative in  writing within seven calendar days of receipt of the application.
    12VAC35-240-40. Screening.
    A. The department shall screen the application and  accompanying documentation for completeness. 
    B. If the department determines an application to be  incomplete, it shall notify the claimant or his lawfully authorized  representative that the application is not complete in writing by certified  mail no later than seven calendar days following the screening of the  application. The notification shall specify the additional documentation  required to complete the application.
    C. If the application is incomplete, the claimant shall have  60 calendar days from the receipt of the notification to submit the required  documentation. If the required documentation is not received within 60 calendar  days, the application will be closed, and the claimant will be required to  submit a new application. 
    D. No application shall be considered by the review panel  or otherwise acted on until the department determines it to be complete with  all required documentation. Completed applications shall be submitted to the  review panel for consideration.
    12VAC35-240-50. Review panel.
    A. The commissioner shall appoint a review panel to  consider applications and make final determinations of eligibility for  compensation pursuant to this chapter.
    B. The review panel shall consider completed applications  in the order in which the applications are determined to be complete according  to date and time of receipt of all required documentation.
    C. The claimant or his lawfully authorized representative  shall be notified of the decision of the review panel in writing by certified  mail within seven calendar days of the decision.
    12VAC35-240-60. Requests for reconsideration.
    A. Any claimant, or his lawfully authorized  representative, who disagrees with the determination of the department may  submit a written request for reconsideration to the commissioner, or his  designee, within 30 calendar days of the date of the written notice of denial  of a claim pursuant to this chapter.
    B. The commissioner, or his designee, shall provide an  opportunity for the claimant, or his lawfully authorized representative, to  submit for review any additional information or reasons why his claim should be  approved as requested. 
    C. The commissioner, or his designee, after reviewing all  submitted materials shall render a written decision on the request for  reconsideration within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the request and shall  notify the claimant or his lawfully authorized representative in writing. The  commissioner's decision shall be binding.
    D. Claimants may obtain further review of the decision in  accordance with the Virginia Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et  seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    12VAC35-240-70. Compensation.
    A. Compensation per verified claim shall be $25,000 and  shall be contingent on the availability of funding. All eligible claims shall  be compensated in the order in which they are determined by the review panel to  be verified and eligible for compensation.
    B. Should funding be exhausted prior to the payment of all  verified claims, the department shall continue to accept and review  applications. Claims determined to be verified after funding has been exhausted  shall be maintained by the department according to the date and time the review  panel determines a claim is verified and eligible for compensation. Any such claim  shall not be denied but the claimant shall be notified in writing that his  claim has been determined eligible for compensation, that funding has been  exhausted, and that his application will be maintained by the department.
    C. Should additional program funding become available, the  department shall first compensate claims with verified applications in the  order in which they were verified and maintained by the department pursuant to  subsection B of this section.
        NOTICE: The following  form used in administering the regulation was filed by the agency. The form is  not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of the form to access it. The  form is also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office  of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor,  Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (12VAC35-240)
    Application  for Filing a Claim for Compensation for Victims of the 1924 Virginia Eugenical  Sterilization Act, VESC Form 1004 (undated, filed 11/2015)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4471; Filed November 21, 2015, 8:54 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF DENTISTRY
Fast-Track Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 18VAC60-21. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Dentistry (amending 18VAC60-21-200).
    18VAC60-25. Regulations Governing the Practice of Dental  Hygiene (amending 18VAC60-25-10, 18VAC60-25-130,  18VAC60-25-140, 18VAC60-25-150). 
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Effective Date: January 28, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Sandra Reen, Executive Director, Board  of Dentistry, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone  (804) 367-4538, FAX (804) 527-4428, or email sandra.reen@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia  provides the Board of Dentistry the authority to promulgate regulations to  administer the regulatory system.
    The statutory authority for the board to promulgate regulations  to determine the qualifications for initial licensure is found in Chapter 27  (§ 54.1-2700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    Purpose: In commenting on the petition for rulemaking  that led to this regulatory action, the Commission on Dental Accreditation  (CODA) noted that the two commissions agree that the educational programs are  equivalent and that no further education is required for eligibility for  licensure. The commissioners and staff regularly attend meetings of each  commission and participate annually in at least one site visit conducted by the  other agency to ensure that accreditation processes in each country continue to  be equivalent. With the assurances of equivalency by CODA, the board is  confident that graduates of educational programs accredited by the Commission  on Dental Accreditation of Canada are as prepared to practice with safety and competency  as the graduates of programs in the United States.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: Since the  Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association has a  longstanding reciprocal agreement with the Commission on Dental Accreditation  of Canada, the board does not believe this proposal will be controversial. It  is using the fast-track rulemaking process to facilitate licensure for any  applicant who was educated in Canada and may want to locate his practice in the  Commonwealth.
    Substance: As requested by a petitioner, the board has  amended its regulations to recognize accreditation by the Commission on Dental  Accreditation of Canada in addition to the Commission on Dental Accreditation  of the American Dental Association for licensure by examination as a dentist or  a dental hygienist and for licensure by credentials for dentist.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is the  potential for an increased supply of dentists and dental hygienists to meet the  dental care needs of the citizens of the Commonwealth. There are no  disadvantages; the two commissions have had reciprocal recognition of  educational programs for several decades. There are no advantages or  disadvantages to the agency or the Commonwealth.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to a  petition for rulemaking, the Board of Dentistry (Board) proposes to recognize  dental and dental hygiene programs accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation  of Canada as meeting the education requirements for licensure in Virginia. 
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  this proposed change.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, this regulation requires  that applicants for licensure hold a diploma or certificate from a dental  program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American  Dental Association (ADA). The Board proposes to also recognize diplomas and  certifications from dental and dental hygiene programs accredited by the  Commission on Dental Accreditation of Canada as their accreditation  requirements (and education programs they approve) are essentially equivalent  to those approved by the ADA. Recognition of Canadian dental programs will  benefit future applicants for licensure as this will add to the number of  approved programs that aspiring dental professionals may choose from. This  change will also allow individuals who have already gotten degrees or  certifications from programs accredited by the Commission on Dental  Accreditation of Canada to gain licensure and work in Virginia without having  to complete additional costly education. No entities are likely to incur  additional costs on account of this regulatory change.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. This proposed change will  affect all individuals who have received, or will receive, their dental or  dental hygiene education from a program accredited by the Commission on Dental  Accreditation of Canada and who want to be licensed in Virginia. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. This proposed change will not  particularly affect any locality in the Commonwealth. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. This proposed change may  increase the number or dentists and dental hygienists who meet the requirements  for licensure in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. This proposed  change will likely have no impact on the use or value of private property.
    Real Estate Development Costs. This proposed change will likely  not affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: 
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. No small businesses will incur costs  on account of this regulatory change.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No small  businesses will incur costs on account of this regulatory change.
    Adverse Impacts:
    Businesses: This proposed change is unlikely to adversely  impact any business in the Commonwealth.
    Localities: This proposed change is unlikely to adversely  impact localities.
    Other Entities: This proposed change is unlikely to adversely  impact any other entities in the Commonwealth.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board  of Dentistry concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget  for the proposed amendments relating to the addition of the Commission on  Dental Accreditation of Canada.
    Summary:
    The amendments recognize dental and dental hygiene programs  accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of Canada as meeting the  education requirements for licensure in Virginia.
    18VAC60-21-200. Education.
    An applicant for unrestricted dental licensure shall be a  graduate of and a holder of a diploma or a certificate from a dental program  accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association  or the Commission on Dental Accreditation of Canada, which consists of  either a pre-doctoral dental education program or at least a 12-month  post-doctoral advanced general dentistry program or a post-doctoral dental  program of at least 24 months in any other specialty that includes a clinical  component.
    Part I
  General Provisions
    18VAC60-25-10. Definitions.
    A. The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the meanings ascribed to them in § 54.1-2700 of the Code of  Virginia: 
    "Board"
    "Dental hygiene"
    "Dental hygienist"
    "Dentist"
    "Dentistry"
    "License"
    B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise: 
    "Active practice" means clinical practice as a  dental hygienist for at least 600 hours per year.
    "ADA" means the American Dental Association. 
    "Analgesia" means the diminution or elimination of  pain in the conscious patient. 
    "CDAC" means the Commission on Dental  Accreditation of Canada.
    "CODA" means the Commission on Dental Accreditation  of the American Dental Association.
    "Code" means the Code of Virginia.
    "Dental assistant I" means any unlicensed person  under the direction of a dentist or a dental hygienist who renders assistance  for services provided to the patient as authorized under this chapter but shall  not include an individual serving in purely an administrative, secretarial, or  clerical capacity. 
    "Dental assistant II" means a person under the  direction and direct supervision of a dentist who is registered to perform  reversible, intraoral procedures as specified in 18VAC60-21-150 and  18VAC60-21-160. 
    "Direction" means the level of supervision (i.e.,  direct, indirect, or general) that a dentist is required to exercise with a  dental hygienist or that a dental hygienist is required to exercise with a  dental assistant to direct and oversee the delivery of treatment and related  services.
    "General supervision" means that a dentist  completes a periodic comprehensive examination of the patient and issues a  written order for hygiene treatment that states the specific services to be  provided by a dental hygienist during one or more subsequent appointments when the  dentist may or may not be present. Issuance of the order authorizes the dental  hygienist to supervise a dental assistant performing duties delegable to dental  assistants I.
    "Indirect supervision" means the dentist examines  the patient at some point during the appointment and is continuously present in  the office to advise and assist a dental hygienist or a dental assistant who is  (i) delivering hygiene treatment, (ii) preparing the patient for examination or  treatment by the dentist, or (iii) preparing the patient for dismissal  following treatment.
    "Inhalation" means a technique of administration in  which a gaseous or volatile agent, including nitrous oxide, is introduced into  the pulmonary tree and whose primary effect is due to absorption through the pulmonary  bed. 
    "Inhalation analgesia" means the inhalation of  nitrous oxide and oxygen to produce a state of reduced sensibility to pain  without the loss of consciousness. 
    "Local anesthesia" means the elimination of  sensation, especially pain, in one part of the body by the topical application  or regional injection of a drug.
    "Monitoring" means to observe, interpret, assess,  and record appropriate physiologic functions of the body during sedative  procedures and general anesthesia appropriate to the level of sedation as  provided in Part VI (18VAC60-21-260 et seq.) of Regulations Governing the  Practice of Dentistry.
    "Nonsurgical laser" means a laser that is not  capable of cutting or removing hard tissue, soft tissue, or tooth structure. 
    "Parenteral" means a technique of administration in  which the drug bypasses the gastrointestinal tract (i.e., intramuscular,  intravenous, intranasal, submucosal, subcutaneous, or intraocular).
    "Topical oral anesthetic" means any drug, available  in creams, ointments, aerosols, sprays, lotions, or jellies, that can be used  orally for the purpose of rendering the oral cavity insensitive to pain without  affecting consciousness.
    Part IV
  Requirements for Licensure
    18VAC60-25-130. General application requirements.
    A. All applications for licensure by examination or  credentials, temporary permits, or faculty licenses shall include: 
    1. Verification of completion of a dental hygiene degree or  certificate from a CODA or CDAC accredited program; 
    2. An original grade card from the National Board Dental  Hygiene Examination issued by the Joint Commission on National Dental  Examinations; 
    3. A current report from the U.S. Department of Health and  Human Services National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); and
    4. Attestation of having read and understood the laws and the  regulations governing the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene in Virginia  and of the applicant's intent to remain current with such laws and regulations.
    B. If documentation required for licensure cannot be produced  by the entity from which it is required, the board, in its discretion, may  accept other evidence of qualification for licensure.
    18VAC60-25-140. Licensure by examination.
    A. An applicant for licensure by examination shall have:
    1. Graduated from or have been issued a certificate by a CODA or  CDAC accredited program of dental hygiene;
    2. Successfully completed the National Board Dental Hygiene  Examination given by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations; and
    3. Successfully completed a board-approved clinical competency  examination in dental hygiene.
    B. If the candidate has failed any section of a  board-approved examination three times, the candidate shall complete a minimum  of seven hours of additional clinical training in each section of the  examination to be retested in order to be approved by the board to sit for the  examination a fourth time.
    C. Applicants who successfully completed a board-approved  examination five or more years prior to the date of receipt of their  applications for licensure by the board may be required to retake a  board-approved examination or take board-approved continuing education that  meets the requirements of 18VAC60-25-190, unless they demonstrate that they  have maintained clinical, unrestricted, and active practice in a jurisdiction  of the United States for 48 of the past 60 months immediately prior to  submission of an application for licensure. 
    18VAC60-25-150. Licensure by credentials.
    An applicant for dental hygiene licensure by credentials  shall:
    1. Have graduated from or have been issued a certificate by a  CODA or CDAC accredited program of dental hygiene;
    2. Be currently licensed to practice dental hygiene in another  jurisdiction of the United States and have clinical, ethical, and active  practice for 24 of the past 48 months immediately preceding application for  licensure;
    3. Be certified to be in good standing from each state in  which he is currently licensed or has ever held a license;
    4. Have successfully completed a clinical competency examination  substantially equivalent to that required for licensure by examination;
    5. Not have committed any act that would constitute a  violation of § 54.1-2706 of the Code; and
    6. Have successfully completed the dental hygiene examination  of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations prior to making  application to the board.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-31; Filed October 23, 2015, 4:08 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF DENTISTRY
Fast-Track Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 18VAC60-21. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Dentistry (amending 18VAC60-21-200).
    18VAC60-25. Regulations Governing the Practice of Dental  Hygiene (amending 18VAC60-25-10, 18VAC60-25-130,  18VAC60-25-140, 18VAC60-25-150). 
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Effective Date: January 28, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Sandra Reen, Executive Director, Board  of Dentistry, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone  (804) 367-4538, FAX (804) 527-4428, or email sandra.reen@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia  provides the Board of Dentistry the authority to promulgate regulations to  administer the regulatory system.
    The statutory authority for the board to promulgate regulations  to determine the qualifications for initial licensure is found in Chapter 27  (§ 54.1-2700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    Purpose: In commenting on the petition for rulemaking  that led to this regulatory action, the Commission on Dental Accreditation  (CODA) noted that the two commissions agree that the educational programs are  equivalent and that no further education is required for eligibility for  licensure. The commissioners and staff regularly attend meetings of each  commission and participate annually in at least one site visit conducted by the  other agency to ensure that accreditation processes in each country continue to  be equivalent. With the assurances of equivalency by CODA, the board is  confident that graduates of educational programs accredited by the Commission  on Dental Accreditation of Canada are as prepared to practice with safety and competency  as the graduates of programs in the United States.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: Since the  Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association has a  longstanding reciprocal agreement with the Commission on Dental Accreditation  of Canada, the board does not believe this proposal will be controversial. It  is using the fast-track rulemaking process to facilitate licensure for any  applicant who was educated in Canada and may want to locate his practice in the  Commonwealth.
    Substance: As requested by a petitioner, the board has  amended its regulations to recognize accreditation by the Commission on Dental  Accreditation of Canada in addition to the Commission on Dental Accreditation  of the American Dental Association for licensure by examination as a dentist or  a dental hygienist and for licensure by credentials for dentist.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is the  potential for an increased supply of dentists and dental hygienists to meet the  dental care needs of the citizens of the Commonwealth. There are no  disadvantages; the two commissions have had reciprocal recognition of  educational programs for several decades. There are no advantages or  disadvantages to the agency or the Commonwealth.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to a  petition for rulemaking, the Board of Dentistry (Board) proposes to recognize  dental and dental hygiene programs accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation  of Canada as meeting the education requirements for licensure in Virginia. 
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  this proposed change.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, this regulation requires  that applicants for licensure hold a diploma or certificate from a dental  program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American  Dental Association (ADA). The Board proposes to also recognize diplomas and  certifications from dental and dental hygiene programs accredited by the  Commission on Dental Accreditation of Canada as their accreditation  requirements (and education programs they approve) are essentially equivalent  to those approved by the ADA. Recognition of Canadian dental programs will  benefit future applicants for licensure as this will add to the number of  approved programs that aspiring dental professionals may choose from. This  change will also allow individuals who have already gotten degrees or  certifications from programs accredited by the Commission on Dental  Accreditation of Canada to gain licensure and work in Virginia without having  to complete additional costly education. No entities are likely to incur  additional costs on account of this regulatory change.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. This proposed change will  affect all individuals who have received, or will receive, their dental or  dental hygiene education from a program accredited by the Commission on Dental  Accreditation of Canada and who want to be licensed in Virginia. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. This proposed change will not  particularly affect any locality in the Commonwealth. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. This proposed change may  increase the number or dentists and dental hygienists who meet the requirements  for licensure in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. This proposed  change will likely have no impact on the use or value of private property.
    Real Estate Development Costs. This proposed change will likely  not affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: 
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. No small businesses will incur costs  on account of this regulatory change.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No small  businesses will incur costs on account of this regulatory change.
    Adverse Impacts:
    Businesses: This proposed change is unlikely to adversely  impact any business in the Commonwealth.
    Localities: This proposed change is unlikely to adversely  impact localities.
    Other Entities: This proposed change is unlikely to adversely  impact any other entities in the Commonwealth.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board  of Dentistry concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget  for the proposed amendments relating to the addition of the Commission on  Dental Accreditation of Canada.
    Summary:
    The amendments recognize dental and dental hygiene programs  accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of Canada as meeting the  education requirements for licensure in Virginia.
    18VAC60-21-200. Education.
    An applicant for unrestricted dental licensure shall be a  graduate of and a holder of a diploma or a certificate from a dental program  accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association  or the Commission on Dental Accreditation of Canada, which consists of  either a pre-doctoral dental education program or at least a 12-month  post-doctoral advanced general dentistry program or a post-doctoral dental  program of at least 24 months in any other specialty that includes a clinical  component.
    Part I
  General Provisions
    18VAC60-25-10. Definitions.
    A. The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the meanings ascribed to them in § 54.1-2700 of the Code of  Virginia: 
    "Board"
    "Dental hygiene"
    "Dental hygienist"
    "Dentist"
    "Dentistry"
    "License"
    B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise: 
    "Active practice" means clinical practice as a  dental hygienist for at least 600 hours per year.
    "ADA" means the American Dental Association. 
    "Analgesia" means the diminution or elimination of  pain in the conscious patient. 
    "CDAC" means the Commission on Dental  Accreditation of Canada.
    "CODA" means the Commission on Dental Accreditation  of the American Dental Association.
    "Code" means the Code of Virginia.
    "Dental assistant I" means any unlicensed person  under the direction of a dentist or a dental hygienist who renders assistance  for services provided to the patient as authorized under this chapter but shall  not include an individual serving in purely an administrative, secretarial, or  clerical capacity. 
    "Dental assistant II" means a person under the  direction and direct supervision of a dentist who is registered to perform  reversible, intraoral procedures as specified in 18VAC60-21-150 and  18VAC60-21-160. 
    "Direction" means the level of supervision (i.e.,  direct, indirect, or general) that a dentist is required to exercise with a  dental hygienist or that a dental hygienist is required to exercise with a  dental assistant to direct and oversee the delivery of treatment and related  services.
    "General supervision" means that a dentist  completes a periodic comprehensive examination of the patient and issues a  written order for hygiene treatment that states the specific services to be  provided by a dental hygienist during one or more subsequent appointments when the  dentist may or may not be present. Issuance of the order authorizes the dental  hygienist to supervise a dental assistant performing duties delegable to dental  assistants I.
    "Indirect supervision" means the dentist examines  the patient at some point during the appointment and is continuously present in  the office to advise and assist a dental hygienist or a dental assistant who is  (i) delivering hygiene treatment, (ii) preparing the patient for examination or  treatment by the dentist, or (iii) preparing the patient for dismissal  following treatment.
    "Inhalation" means a technique of administration in  which a gaseous or volatile agent, including nitrous oxide, is introduced into  the pulmonary tree and whose primary effect is due to absorption through the pulmonary  bed. 
    "Inhalation analgesia" means the inhalation of  nitrous oxide and oxygen to produce a state of reduced sensibility to pain  without the loss of consciousness. 
    "Local anesthesia" means the elimination of  sensation, especially pain, in one part of the body by the topical application  or regional injection of a drug.
    "Monitoring" means to observe, interpret, assess,  and record appropriate physiologic functions of the body during sedative  procedures and general anesthesia appropriate to the level of sedation as  provided in Part VI (18VAC60-21-260 et seq.) of Regulations Governing the  Practice of Dentistry.
    "Nonsurgical laser" means a laser that is not  capable of cutting or removing hard tissue, soft tissue, or tooth structure. 
    "Parenteral" means a technique of administration in  which the drug bypasses the gastrointestinal tract (i.e., intramuscular,  intravenous, intranasal, submucosal, subcutaneous, or intraocular).
    "Topical oral anesthetic" means any drug, available  in creams, ointments, aerosols, sprays, lotions, or jellies, that can be used  orally for the purpose of rendering the oral cavity insensitive to pain without  affecting consciousness.
    Part IV
  Requirements for Licensure
    18VAC60-25-130. General application requirements.
    A. All applications for licensure by examination or  credentials, temporary permits, or faculty licenses shall include: 
    1. Verification of completion of a dental hygiene degree or  certificate from a CODA or CDAC accredited program; 
    2. An original grade card from the National Board Dental  Hygiene Examination issued by the Joint Commission on National Dental  Examinations; 
    3. A current report from the U.S. Department of Health and  Human Services National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); and
    4. Attestation of having read and understood the laws and the  regulations governing the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene in Virginia  and of the applicant's intent to remain current with such laws and regulations.
    B. If documentation required for licensure cannot be produced  by the entity from which it is required, the board, in its discretion, may  accept other evidence of qualification for licensure.
    18VAC60-25-140. Licensure by examination.
    A. An applicant for licensure by examination shall have:
    1. Graduated from or have been issued a certificate by a CODA or  CDAC accredited program of dental hygiene;
    2. Successfully completed the National Board Dental Hygiene  Examination given by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations; and
    3. Successfully completed a board-approved clinical competency  examination in dental hygiene.
    B. If the candidate has failed any section of a  board-approved examination three times, the candidate shall complete a minimum  of seven hours of additional clinical training in each section of the  examination to be retested in order to be approved by the board to sit for the  examination a fourth time.
    C. Applicants who successfully completed a board-approved  examination five or more years prior to the date of receipt of their  applications for licensure by the board may be required to retake a  board-approved examination or take board-approved continuing education that  meets the requirements of 18VAC60-25-190, unless they demonstrate that they  have maintained clinical, unrestricted, and active practice in a jurisdiction  of the United States for 48 of the past 60 months immediately prior to  submission of an application for licensure. 
    18VAC60-25-150. Licensure by credentials.
    An applicant for dental hygiene licensure by credentials  shall:
    1. Have graduated from or have been issued a certificate by a  CODA or CDAC accredited program of dental hygiene;
    2. Be currently licensed to practice dental hygiene in another  jurisdiction of the United States and have clinical, ethical, and active  practice for 24 of the past 48 months immediately preceding application for  licensure;
    3. Be certified to be in good standing from each state in  which he is currently licensed or has ever held a license;
    4. Have successfully completed a clinical competency examination  substantially equivalent to that required for licensure by examination;
    5. Not have committed any act that would constitute a  violation of § 54.1-2706 of the Code; and
    6. Have successfully completed the dental hygiene examination  of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations prior to making  application to the board.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-31; Filed October 23, 2015, 4:08 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS AND ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 18VAC160-20. Board for  Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals Regulations (repealing 18VAC160-20-10 through  18VAC160-20-150).
    18VAC160-30. Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators  Licensing Regulations (adding 18VAC160-30-10 through  18VAC160-30-370).
    18VAC160-40. Onsite Sewage System Professionals Licensing  Regulations (adding 18VAC160-40-10 through 18VAC160-40-510).
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-2301 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    January 28, 2016 - 10 a.m. - Department of Professional  and Occupational Regulation, Perimeter Center, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 200, Board  Room 2, Richmond, Virginia 23233
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Trisha Henshaw, Executive Director,  Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone  (804) 367-8595, FAX (866) 350-5354, or email waterwasteoper@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Subdivision 5 of § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia states that the board has the power and duty  "To promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process  Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) necessary to assure continued competency, to  prevent deceptive or misleading practices by practitioners and to effectively  administer the regulatory system administered by the regulatory board."
    Section 54.1-2301 of the Code of Virginia provides the  authority for the board to promulgate regulations for the licensure of onsite  sewage system professionals, waterworks operators, and wastewater works  operators. The content of the regulations is pursuant to the board's  discretion, but shall not be in conflict with the purposes of the statutory  authority.
    Section 54.1-2301 D of the Code of Virginia states that,  "The Board, in consultation with the Board of Health, shall adopt  regulations for the licensure of (i) onsite soil evaluators; (ii) installers of  alternative onsite sewage systems, as defined in § 32.1-163; and (iii)  operators of alternative onsite sewage systems, as defined in § 32.1-163.  Such regulations shall include requirements for (a) minimum education and  training, including approved training courses; (b) relevant work experience;  (c) demonstrated knowledge and skill; (d) application fees to cover the costs  of the program, renewal fees, and schedules; (e) the division of onsite soil  evaluators into classes, one of which shall be restricted to the design of  conventional onsite sewage systems; (f) the division of sewage system  installers into classes, one of which shall be restricted to the installation  of conventional onsite sewage systems; and (g) other criteria the Board deems  necessary."
    Purpose: The regulations have not undergone a thorough  and complete review since the inclusion of the onsite sewage system  professional regulations in 2009. A thorough review was necessary to ensure  that the regulation complements the current standards and practices of the  profession and ancillary agencies involved in the regulation of waterworks,  wastewater works, and onsite sewage systems; provides minimal burdens on  regulants while still protecting the public's health and safety; and reflect  current procedures and policies of the department. The regulations were  developed to achieve their intended objective in the most efficient,  cost-effective manner, and are clearly written and understandable.
    Substance: 
    1. Repeal the board's current regulations.
    2. Add new regulations that govern the practice of waterworks  and wastewater works operators to ensure minimally qualified individuals meet  requirements for licensure that are more aligned with current true-to-life education  and experience of new and renewing applicants and update certain standards of  practice as they relate to the industry.
    3. Add new regulations that govern the practice of onsite  sewage system operators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite soil  evaluators to ensure minimally qualified individuals meet requirements for  licensure that are more aligned with current true-to-life education and  experience of new and renewing applicants and update certain standards of  practice as they relate to the industry.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that the  revisions will improve the clarity of the regulations and ensure consistency  with current board practices, legal requirements, and standards of practice in  the industry all to better protect the health, safety, and welfare of citizens  of the Commonwealth.
    The primary advantage to the Commonwealth is that the revisions  to the regulations reflect the importance that Virginia places on ensuring the  regulations are the least burdensome but also provide protection to the  citizens of the Commonwealth. No disadvantages to the Commonwealth could be  identified.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board for  Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals Regulations (18VAC160-20) includes rules for licensing waterworks  and wastewater works operators and onsite sewage system professionals. The  Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals (Board) proposes to repeal this regulation and promulgate two new  regulations: 1) Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators Licensing  Requirements (18VAC160-30) for the licensing of waterworks and wastewater works  operators, and 2) Onsite Sewage System Professionals Licensing Regulations  (18VAC160-40) for the licensing of onsite sewage system professionals. As part  of this action the Board proposes several changes concerning licensure. In  particular, the Board proposes to introduce new master and journeyman  categories for onsite sewage system professional licensees.
    Result of Analysis. There is insufficient data to accurately  compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs. Detailed analysis of  the benefits and costs can be found in the next section.
    Estimated Economic Impact.1 The current regulation  includes the following licenses for onsite sewage system professionals:  conventional onsite soil evaluator, alternative onsite soil evaluator,  conventional onsite sewage system installer, alternative onsite sewage system  installer, conventional onsite sewage system operator, and alternative onsite  sewage operator. According to the Department of Professional and Occupational  Regulation, a major contention in the onsite sewage system industry –  especially among those who have been in the industry for many years (decades or  more) – has been the examination requirement for licensure. There are  apparently individuals who have learned to perform certain skills in the field  competently, but are not able to pass written tests. Due to the presence of  these long-standing individuals the Board adopted policies in 2009 for  installers, 2010/2011 for operators, and 2011 for onsite soil evaluators that  have allowed unlicensed individuals to work without a licensee present; this  has presented numerous complaints and challenges in ensuring that people  performing the regulated work are minimally competent.2 To balance  the concerns regarding the examination with the Board's duty to the public of  ensuring minimum competency of those engaging in the profession to protect the  health, safety, and welfare of the public, the Board's proposed Onsite Sewage  System Professionals Licensing Regulations (18VAC160-40) include separate  master and journeyman categories for each license listed above.3
    The "Master" is defined as "an individual who  possesses the minimum skills and competency to install or maintain onsite  sewage systems or evaluate soil sites as suitable for conventional and  alternative onsite sewage systems, and to design conventional and alternative  onsite sewage systems." The master licensure categories are essentially  equivalent to the licenses in the current regulation, with the exception that  masters will have supervisory responsibility of journeymen. Currently licensed  individuals would become masters once the proposed Onsite Sewage System  Professionals Licensing Regulations become effective. "Journeyman" is  defined as "an individual who possesses the minimum skills and competency  to assist with the installation or maintenance of onsite sewage systems or  assisting in the evaluation of soil sites as suitable for conventional and  alternative onsite sewage systems, and to design conventional onsite sewage  systems under the direct supervision of a master licensee." Unlike  masters, journeymen are not required to pass an exam.
    Code of Virginia § 54.1-2302 states that "No person shall  operate a waterworks or wastewater works, perform the duties of an onsite soil  evaluator, or install or operate an alternative onsite sewage system, without a  valid license." Enforcing the Code of Virginia and requiring individuals to  become licensed as a journeyman in order to assist with the installation or  maintenance of onsite sewage systems or assisting in the evaluation of soil  sites as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems, and  to design conventional onsite sewage systems under the direct supervision of a  master licensee will in practice cost these individuals $50 per annum ($100 for  two-year license) plus the time and dollar cost of continuing professional  education. Improper maintenance, installation, or design of onsite sewage  systems can potentially contaminate groundwater and otherwise become a public  health hazard. Licensing and regulating journeyman may reduce the health risk  for the public. The extent to which this would reduce public health risk is not  currently known.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments  affect the 4,472 licensed waterworks and wastewater works operators and 1,182  licensed onsite sewage system professionals in the Commonwealth, individuals  who have been permitted to work on onsite sewage systems without a licensee  present, the firms and public entities that employ them, as well as future  licensure applicants.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to require  journeyman licensure for individuals who assist with the installation or  maintenance of onsite sewage systems or assist in the evaluation of soil sites  as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems, and to  design conventional onsite sewage systems, may dissuade a small number of  individuals from working in the industry.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendments are unlikely to significantly affect the use and value of private  property.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: 
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. The proposal to require journeyman  licensure will moderately increase costs for those onsite sewage system  workers, and perhaps the small firms that employ them if they reimburse their  licensure fees and continuing professional education costs.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed  amendments will not adversely affect small businesses.
    Adverse Impacts: 
    Businesses: The proposal to require journeyman licensure will  moderately increase costs for those onsite sewage system workers, and perhaps  the firms that employ them if they reimburse their licensure fees and  continuing professional education costs.
    Localities: The proposed amendments are unlikely to adversely  affect localities.
    Other Entities: The proposed amendments are unlikely to  adversely affect other entities.
    _____________________________________
    1 In a separate action (Action 4141) that was initiated  prior to this action (Action 4226), the Board proposed to increase the two-year  licensure renewal fee from $80 to $100 for all waterworks and wastewater works  operators and onsite sewage system professionals. This proposed action (4226)  includes the higher renewal fees ($100); in other words, for the purposes of  this analysis it is assumed that Action 4141 will go into effect with the fee  increase prior to this action. If 4226 were to go into effect first, it would  effectively increase renewal fees for licensees by $20 per two-year licensure  period.
    2 Source: Department of Professional and Occupational  Regulation
    3 This concept is present in similarly regulated  professions, including trades (master/journeyman), water well service providers  (trainee/master/journeyman), and professional engineers and land surveyors  (in-training).
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency concurs with the analysis with approval.
    Regarding the development of master and journeyman license  categories and the concern of an adverse impact, the board considered  alternative methods of regulation to achieve the board's responsibility to  protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public through the license  mandate codified in § 54.1-2302 of the Code of Virginia1, and  reiterated in the 18VAC160-20-74 C2 effective July 1, 2009. As  referenced in the economic impact analysis, the board adopted policies during  the early implementation of the program to allow many in the industry to  continue working without a license while under the supervision of a  license-holder.
    From July 1, 2009, (the effective date of the initial onsite  sewage system professional licensing regulations) until June 30, 2010,  individuals were able to apply for a four-year, nonrenewable interim license  based on experience and training alone. Once the interim licenses ended, many  in the industry found that they would have to take a licensing examination in  order to obtain a new license and continue working in the profession. A number  of constituents sought legislative remedies3 due to concerns with  the examination. Concerns that were voiced included illiteracy, the  applicability of exam content areas, difficulty with passing an examination  after so many years, etc. An exam review of all content areas was held, with  subject matter experts from the applicable professions, to review all exam  questions, references, and applicability to the profession in late 2014. Also  in 2014, an extension (SB 657) to the interim license for alternative onsite  sewage system installers passed to allow such individuals additional time to  take and pass the examination.
    When the board was conducting a general review of its regulations,  among other important items, the board carefully considered the current license  requirements along with its statutory responsibility to protect the public. One  alternative the board considered was to require all individuals performing the  duties identified in the statute as requiring a license4, to meet  the current license requirements for the applicable classification and category  of license, which requires an examination for all license types. This would  result in an increased cost5 to all individuals requiring licensure  through application fees, examination fees, and, for some, the cost of study  classes and/or materials. Alternatively, the board decided to utilize a license  system currently in place for other, similar programs6. This would  allow those who are performing the work described in § 54.1-2302 of the  Code of Virginia, which mandates a license, but are not in a supervisory or  responsible charge capacity, to continue performing such work after having  demonstrated minimum competency to the board for a license. This also allows  the board to take disciplinary action, if necessary, against the licensee  actually performing the regulated activity as, currently, the board cannot take  disciplinary action against an individual who is performing the work but is not  a licensee of the board. As noted in the economic impact analysis for this  action, "Licensing and regulating journeyman may reduce the health risk to  the public."
    Through this revision to the regulations, the board also  provided additional options to qualify for licensure, including the acceptance  of more degree options and opportunities to qualify for licensure with  experience and training and, in some cases, no examination.
    _________________________________________
    1 "No person shall operate a waterworks or  wastewater works, perform the duties of an onsite soil evaluator, or install or  operate an alternative onsite sewage system, without a valid license."
    2 "No individual shall act as a conventional onsite  soil evaluator, alternative onsite soil evaluator, conventional onsite sewage  system installer, alternative onsite sewage system installer, conventional  onsite sewage system operator, or alternative onsite sewage system operator  without possessing a valid license issued by the board. Issuance of an  alternative license shall void the previously issued conventional license and  shall authorize the alternative licensee to perform duties on both conventional  and alternative onsite sewage systems consistent with the license category. The  board shall issue a license only after an individual has met all experience and  examination requirements as set forth in this chapter."
    3 SB 662 (2012), HB 1482 (2013), HB 253 (2014), SB 657  (2014)
    4 "No person shall . . . perform the duties of an  onsite soil evaluator, or install or operate an alternative onsite sewage  system, without a valid license."  "No individual shall act as a  conventional onsite soil evaluator, alternative onsite soil evaluator,  conventional onsite sewage system installer, alternative onsite sewage system  installer, conventional onsite sewage system operator, or alternative onsite  sewage system operator without possessing a valid license issued by the  board."
    5 Currently $100 application fee, $85 examination fee,  plus cost of renewal and continuing education to maintain the license. Licenses  are renewed every two years, which requires submittal of the renewal fee and  certification of compliance with CPE.
    6 This concept is present in similarly regulated  professions, including trades (master/journeyman), water well service providers  (trainee/master/journeyman), and professional engineers and land surveyors  (in-training).
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments repeal the existing regulations and  create two new chapters: 18VAC160-30 (regulations for the licensing of  waterworks and wastewater works operators) and 18VAC160-40 (regulations for the  licensing of onsite sewage system professionals).
    The proposed regulations include (i) definitions; (ii)  fees; (iii) standards of practice and conduct; (iv) qualifications for  licensure; (v) requirements for application, examination, continuing education,  and renewal and reinstatement of licenses; and (vi) approval and maintenance of  training courses. This proposal introduces new master and journeyman categories  for onsite sewage system professional licensees.
    CHAPTER 30
  WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS LICENSING REGULATIONS
    Part I
    Definitions
    18VAC160-30-10. Definitions.
    A. Section 54.1-2300 of the Code of Virginia provides  definitions of the following terms and phrases as used in this chapter:
    "Board"
    "Onsite sewage system"
    "Operator"
    "Owner"
    "Wastewater works 
    "Waterworks"
    B. The following words, terms, and phrases when used in  this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Applicant" means an individual who submits an  application with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
    "Application" means a completed,  board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required  documentation. 
    "Category" means a profession under the board's  purview, which includes waterworks and wastewater works as applicable to the  licensure of waterworks and wastewater works operators.
    "Classification" means the division within each  category of license as it relates to the classified facility. Class 1  represents the highest classification for each category of license. 
    "Contact hour" means 50 minutes of participation  in a structured training activity. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Professional and Occupational Regulation. 
    "DEQ" means the Virginia Department of  Environmental Quality. 
    "Direct supervision" means being immediately  available and fully responsible for the provision of waterworks and wastewater  works operation regulated pursuant to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of  Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter. 
    "Direct supervisor" means a licensed waterworks  or wastewater works operator who assumes the responsibility of direct  supervision.
    "Licensee" means an individual holding a valid  license issued by the board. 
    "Licensure" means a method of regulation whereby  the Commonwealth, through the issuance of a license, authorizes a person  possessing the character and minimum skills to engage in the practice of a  profession or occupation that without such license is unlawful to practice. 
    "Maintenance" or "maintain" means  performing adjustments to equipment and controls and in-kind replacement of  normal wear and tear parts such as light bulbs, fuses, filters, pumps, motors,  or other like components. Maintenance includes pumping the tanks or cleaning  the building sewer on a periodic basis. Maintenance shall not include  replacement of tanks, drainfield piping, or distribution boxes or work  requiring a construction permit and a licensed onsite sewage system installer. 
    "Operate" means the act of (i) placing into or  taking out of service a unit process or unit processes or (ii) making or  causing adjustments in the operation of a unit process at a treatment works. 
    "Renewal" means the process and requirements for  periodically approving the continuance of a license.
    "Training credit" means a unit of board-approved  training or formal education completed by an individual that may be used to  substitute for experience when applying for a license. 
    "Treatment works" means any device or system  used in the storage, treatment, disposal, or reclamation of sewage or  combinations of sewage and industrial wastes including, but not limited to,  pumping power and other equipment and appurtenances, septic tanks, and any  works, including land, that are or will be (i) an integral part of the  treatment processes or (ii) used for ultimate disposal or residues or effluent  resulting from such treatment. 
    "VDH" means the Virginia Department of Health. 
    Part II
    Entry
    18VAC160-30-20. Application procedures.
    A. All applicants seeking licensure shall submit an  application with the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC160-30-40. Application  shall be made on forms provided by the board or its agent.
    By submitting the application to the department, the  applicant certifies that the applicant has read and understands the applicable  statutes and the board's regulations.
    The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by  the board does not indicate approval of the application by the board.
    B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations  with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify  information supplied. All applications shall be completed in accordance with  the instructions contained herein and on the application. Applications will not  be considered complete until all required documents are received by the board.  An applicant will not be permitted to sit for the applicable board-approved  examination until the application is complete and approved.
    C. The applicant will be notified within 30 days of the  board's receipt of an initial application if the application is incomplete. An  individual who fails to complete the application process within 12 months of  receipt of the application in the board's office must submit a new application.  An applicant has 12 months from approval of the application to pass the board-approved  examination. Failure to pass the board-approved examination within 12 months of  approval will result in the applicant being required to submit a new  application to be considered for licensure.
    D. The applicant shall immediately report all changes in  information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to issuance of  the license or expiration of the application or examination period. 
    18VAC160-30-30. General fee requirements.
    All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated. The date  on which the fee is received by the department or its agent will determine  whether the fee is on time. Checks or money orders shall be made payable to the  Treasurer of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-30-40. Fee schedule.
           | Fee Type | Fee Amount | When Due | 
       | Initial application (for each profession, class, and    category of license) | $100 | With application | 
       | Renewal (for each profession, class, and category of    license) | $100 | With renewal application | 
       | Reinstatement (for each profession, class, and category    of license) | $125 (renewal fee + $25 reinstatement fee) | With reinstatement application | 
  
    18VAC160-30-50. Examination fee.
    The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to  charges to the department by an outside vendor based on a contract entered into  in compliance with Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of  the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in  accordance with this contract. 
    18VAC160-30-60. General requirements for licensure.
    A. In addition to the specific qualifications for each  category and classification of licensure, each applicant for licensure shall  meet the requirements provided in this section. 
    1. The applicant shall be at least 18 years old. 
    2. The applicant shall disclose his mailing address. A post  office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is  also provided.
    3. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of  Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information. 
    a. All felony convictions.
    b. All misdemeanor convictions in any jurisdiction that  occurred within three years of the date of application.
    Any plea of nolo contendere or finding of guilt regardless  of adjudication or deferred adjudication shall be considered a conviction for  the purposes of this section. The record of conviction certified or  authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of  the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of  such guilt. 
    B. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any  applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. The applicant shall report suspensions, revocations, or  surrendering of a license, certification, or registration in connection with a  disciplinary action or that has been the subject of discipline in any  jurisdiction prior to applying for licensure. The board, at its discretion, may  deny licensure to any applicant based on prior suspensions, revocations, or  surrender of licenses based on disciplinary action by any jurisdiction. 
    18VAC160-30-70. Examination procedures and conduct.
    A. Upon approval of the application, the board will notify  the applicant of his eligibility to take the applicable examination. The  license will not be issued prior to receipt of a passing score for the  applicable examination. 
    B. An applicant who does not receive a passing score  within one year after the date of approval of the application by the board to  sit for the examination, must submit a new application and meet the entry  requirement in effect at the time of submittal of the new application. 
    C. The applicant shall follow all rules established by the  board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such rules shall include all  written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and all  instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of  examination. Failure to comply with all rules established by the board and the  testing organization with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds  for denial of the application, voiding of examination scores, or any  combination thereof. 
    18VAC160-30-80. Individuals certified or licensed in another  jurisdiction.
    Any applicant holding a valid license or certificate in  another jurisdiction who meets the requirements of this chapter, including  having equivalent experience and education, shall pass the appropriate Virginia  examination to become licensed. 
    18VAC160-30-90. License required.
    A. No individual shall serve as an operator of a  waterworks or wastewater works without possessing a valid category of license  issued by the board in a classification equal to or greater than the  classification of the waterworks or wastewater works to be operated. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold two licenses  of different classifications in the same category. 
    C. Experience used to qualify for licensure must be  obtained under the direct supervision of an operator holding a valid license of  the same category and of a classification equal to or higher than the  classification of the waterworks or wastewater works at which the experience  was gained. 
    D. Except as provided in subsection E of this section,  experience limited solely to the operation and maintenance of wastewater  collection systems and water distribution systems, laboratory work, plant  maintenance, and other nonoperating duties shall not be counted as experience  as an operator or an operator-in-training. 
    E. Experience operating and maintaining water distribution  systems shall only be considered for Class 5 or Class 6 waterworks operator  license applicants. 
    F. Provisional licensure alone shall not authorize an  individual to serve as the operator of a classified waterworks or wastewater  works facility. 
    18VAC160-30-100. Full-time experience or equivalent.
    For the purposes of this part, experience requirements are  expressed in terms of calendar periods of full-time employment as an operator  or as an operator-in-training at a waterworks or wastewater works in the same  category for which licensure is sought.
    1. A year of full-time employment is defined as a minimum  of 1,760 hours during a 12-month period or a minimum of 220 workdays in a  12-month period. A workday is defined as attendance at a waterworks or  wastewater works to the extent required for proper operation. More than 1,760  hours or 220 workdays during a 12-month period will not be considered as more  than one year of full-time employment.
    2. Partial credit may be given for actual hours of work or  workdays experience if the applicant works as an operator or as an  operator-in-training less than full time.
     
         
          18VAC160-30-110. Qualifications for examination approval.
    A. An applicant for licensure as a waterworks or  wastewater works operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of  the following qualifications has been met.
           | TABLE 1Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Experience and Education
 | 
       | Classes | Education Required | Current License | Minimum Experience | Facility Type | Experience with Substitutions | 
       | Class 6(Waterworks Operator Only)
 | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Six months | Class 6 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 6 or higher facility | N/A | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 5(Waterworks Operator Only)
 | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Six months | Class 5 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 5 or higher facility | N/A | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 4 | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Six months | Class 4 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 4 or higher facility | N/A | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 3 | Bachelor's or master's degree | N/A | Six months | Class 4 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | Associate's degree | N/A | Nine months | Class 4 or higher facility | Six months | 
       | High school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 4 or higher facility | Six months | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | Class 4 license | Three years | Class 3 or higher facility | One and one-half years | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 2 | Bachelor's or master's degree | N/A | One year | Class 3 or higher facility | Six months | 
       | Associate's degree | N/A | 18 months | Class 3 or higher facility | Nine months | 
       | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Two years | Class 3 or higher facility | One year | 
       | No High school diploma or GED | Class 3 license | Five years | Class 2 or higher facility | Three and one-half years | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 1 | Bachelor's or master's degree | Class 2 license | Two years | Class 2 or higher facility | One year | 
       | Associate's degree | Class 2 license | Three years | Class 2 or higher facility | One and one-half years | 
       | High school diploma or GED | Class 2 license | Four years | Class 2 or higher facility | Two years | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | Class 2 license | Nine years | Class 2 or higher facility | Four and one-half years | 
       | Where applicable, the current license held, minimum    experience, and the facility type must coincide with the category of license    for which the application is being submitted. | 
  
         
          B. The direct supervisor shall certify the experience on  the application form as accurate and relevant to the classification and  category of license for which is being submitted. In the event that a licensed  operator is not available to certify the experience of the applicant, the  experience may be certified by a representative of the facility owner with  first-hand knowledge of the applicant's experience. 
    18VAC160-30-120. Provisional licensure for nonclassified  facility operation.
    An applicant for licensure as a provisional waterworks or  wastewater works operator shall furnish acceptable documentation of having met  all of the requirements of 18VAC160-30-110 except that the experience  requirement may be met through experience gained as an operator or operator-in-training  of a nonclassified facility. Such experience must be gained under the following  conditions:
    1. The experience is obtained at a nonclassified facility  that is comparable in size and in treatment process as described in  18VAC160-30-360 and 18VAC160-30-370, as applicable. 
    2. The experience is obtained while performing  nonclassified facility operation duties that provide experience comparable to  that obtained at a classified facility. Experience limited solely to the  operation and maintenance of wastewater collection systems and water  distribution systems, laboratory work, plant maintenance, and other  nonoperating duties shall not be counted as qualifying experience for Class 1,  Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 provisional licenses but may be counted for a  provisional Class 5 or Class 6 license.
    3. Any individual holding a provisional license may apply  for licensure by submitting evidence of having met 50% of the experience  required by 18VAC160-30-110 and submitting the appropriate application. 
    18VAC160-30-130. Experience substitutions.
    A. Experience obtained as a master alternative onsite  sewage system operator may be substituted for the Class 4 wastewater works  operator in training experience requirements. 
    B. 18VAC160-30-110 A provides the maximum experience  substitutions that may be applied for each applicable class of license. 
    1. Experience gained in either waterworks or wastewater  works operations may be substituted for up to one-half of the required  experience in the alternate category so long as the experience was gained in an  equivalent or higher class of facility. 
    2. Education may be substituted for part of the required  experience in the category of license applied for at a rate of one month of  experience credit for each semester hour of college credit. Coursework must be  relevant to the category and classification of the license being sought. The  college credit must be from an accredited college or university that is  approved or accredited by the Commission of Colleges, a regional or national  accreditation association, or by an accreditation agency that is recognized by  the U.S. Secretary of Education. 
    3. Board-approved waterworks or wastewater works operator  training may be substituted for experience at a rate of one month experience  for each training credit approved by the board. 
    C. Substitutions shall not exceed 50% of the total  experience required for licensure. 
    18VAC160-30-140. Education.
    A. Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on  completion of an associate's, bachelor's, or master's degree shall submit an  official transcript from the school where the applicable degree was obtained.  Only degrees from an accredited college or university that is approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges, a regional or national accreditation  association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S.  Secretary of Education will be considered. Formal education used to meet a  specific education requirement for license entry cannot also be used as a  training credit for experience substitution.
    B. The following degrees shall be considered to qualify in  accordance with 18VAC160-30-110:
    1. Bachelor's or master's degree in engineering or  engineering technology in a related physical, biological, environmental, or  chemical science;
    2. Bachelor's degree in a related physical, biological,  environmental, or chemical science that includes a minimum 40 semester credit  hours in any combination of science and math;
    3. Master's degree in a related physical, biological,  environmental, or chemical science, and a bachelor's degree in any major such  that the combined degrees include a minimum 40 semester credit hours in any  combination of science and math; or
    4. Associate's degree in waterworks, in wastewater works,  or in a related physical, biological, environmental, or chemical science that  includes a minimum of 20 credit hours in any combination of science and math.
    Part III
  Renewal and Reinstatement
    18VAC160-30-150. Expiration and renewal.
    A. Licenses for waterworks operators shall expire on the  last day of February of each odd-numbered year. Licenses for wastewater works  operators shall expire on the last day of February of each even-numbered year.
    B. Prior to the expiration date shown on the license, the  board shall mail a renewal notice to the licensee's address of record. The  licensee shall return to the board a renewal notice and the applicable renewal  fee. Failure to receive a renewal notice from the board does not relieve the  licensee of the obligation to renew. If the licensee fails to receive the  renewal notice, a copy of the license may be submitted with the required fee as  an application for renewal. 
    C. By submitting the renewal or reinstatement fee, the  licensee is certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice  and Conduct (Part VI (18VAC160-30-290 et seq.) of this chapter), as established  by the board. In addition, by submitting the renewal or reinstatement fee,  licensees are certifying compliance with the continuing professional education  requirements of this chapter. 
    18VAC160-30-160. Reinstatement.
    A. If all of the requirements for renewal of the license  as specified in 18VAC160-30-150 are not completed within 30 days of the license  expiration date, a reinstatement fee shall be required as established in 18VAC160-30-40.
    B. A license may be reinstated for up to one year  following the expiration date of the license. Any licensee who fails to  reinstate the license within 12 months after the expiration date shall apply  for a new license and meet entry requirements in effect at the time of the  submittal of the new application. Such individual shall be deemed to be  eligible to sit for the examination for the same category and classification of  license as the expired license. 
    C. Any regulated activity conducted subsequent to the  license expiration date may constitute unlicensed activity and be subject to  the prosecution under Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-30-170. Status of license during period prior to  reinstatement.
    A licensee who applies for reinstatement of the license  shall be subject to all laws and regulations as if the licensee had been  continuously licensed. The licensee shall remain under and be subject to the  disciplinary authority of the board during this entire period. 
    18VAC160-30-180. Board discretion to deny renewal or  reinstatement.
    The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license  for the same reasons as the board may refuse initial licensure or discipline a  licensee. 
    The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license  if the licensee has been subject to a disciplinary proceeding and has not met  the terms of an agreement for licensure, has not satisfied all sanctions, or  has not fully paid monetary penalties and costs, imposed by the board.
    Part IV
  Continuing Professional Education
    18VAC160-30-190. Continuing professional education.
    A. Each licensee shall have completed the following number  of continuing professional education (CPE) contact hours during each renewal  cycle. CPE provisions do not apply for the renewal of licenses that were held  for less than two years on the date of expiration
    1. Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 waterworks and wastewater  works operators shall obtain a minimum of 20 contact hours.
    2. Class 4 waterworks and wastewater works operators shall  obtain a minimum of 16 contact hours.
    3. Class 5 waterworks operators shall obtain a minimum of  eight contact hours.
    4. Class 6 operators shall obtain a minimum of four contact  hours. 
    B. CPE contact hours completed during the license period  immediately prior to the expiration date of the license shall be acceptable in  order to renew the license. CPE contact hours completed during a licensing  renewal cycle to satisfy the CPE requirements of the preceding licensing  renewal cycle shall be valid only for that preceding license renewal cycle and  shall not be accepted for any subsequent renewal cycles. 
    C. The licensee will not receive CPE credit for completing  the same continuing education course with the same content more than once during  a license period.
    D. A licensee may receive CPE credit for teaching a course  that otherwise meets the requirements of this chapter; however, additional  credit shall not be given for subsequent offerings of a course or activity with  the same content within the same licensing cycle. In addition, a licensee may  receive two hours of CPE no more than once during a single licensing cycle for  the initial development or substantial updating of the CPE course.
    E. Safety subjects shall not count for more than one half  of the total required CPE hours.
    18VAC160-30-200. CPE subject matter for waterworks  operators.
    A. The following course topics will be accepted for CPE  credit for waterworks operators:
    1. Waterworks operations;
    2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment  processes and systems;
    3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    4. Security and safety procedures;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative processes and procedures applicable to  licensure; and
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession.
    B. Of the total 20 hours required, a minimum of five  content hours pertaining to utility management is required of Class 1 and Class  2 waterworks operators. 
    18VAC160-30-210. CPE subject matter for wastewater works  operators.
    A. The following course topics will be accepted for CPE  credit for wastewater works operators:
    1. Wastewater works operations;
    2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment  processes and systems;
    3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    4. Security and safety procedures;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative processes and procedures applicable to  licensure; and
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession.
    B. Of the total 20 hours required, a minimum of five  content hours pertaining to utility management is required of Class 1 and Class  2 wastewater works operators. 
    18VAC160-30-220. Use of training credits and formal  education for CPE credit.
    Any course approved by the board for substitution as  training credits or formal education semester hours, as provided for in Part V  (18VAC160-30-240 et seq.) of this chapter, shall also be acceptable on an  hour-for-hour basis for CPE contact hours. One semester hour of college credit  shall equal 15 CPE contact hours, and one-quarter hour of college credit shall  equal 10 CPE credit hours.
    18VAC160-30-230. Maintenance of CPE.
    A. For a period of at least two years following the end of  the license renewal cycle for which the CPE was taken, the following evidence  shall be maintained to document completion of the required hours of CPE:
    1. Evidence of completion of a structured training  activity, which shall consist of the name, address, and telephone number of the  sponsor;
    2. The dates the licensee participated in the training;
    3. Description of the subject matter presented; and
    4. A statement from the sponsor verifying the number of  hours completed. 
    B. The board may conduct an audit of its licensees to  ensure compliance with the applicable CPE requirements. Licensees who are  selected for audit shall provide the necessary documentation stipulated in this  section.
    Part V
  Training Course Approval
    18VAC160-30-240. Approval of training courses.
    A. Training courses may be substituted for experience  pursuant to the provisions of Part II (18VAC160-30-20 et seq.) of this chapter.  With the exception of training courses provided pursuant to 18VAC160-30-280,  training courses that may be substituted for required experience must be  approved by the board prior to commencing.
    B. Each training provider seeking course approval shall  submit an application for approval on a form provided by the board. Training  courses for which experience credit may be granted must be conducted in general  conformance with the guidelines of the International Association for Continuing  Education and Training (association). The board reserves the right to waive any  of the requirements of the association's guidelines on a case-by-case basis.  Only classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time will be used to compute  training credits. No credit will be given for breaks, meals, or receptions. 
    1. Organization. The board will only approve training  offered by a sponsor that is an identifiable organization with a mission  statement outlining its functions, structure, process, and philosophy and that  has a staff of one or more persons with the authority to administer and  coordinate a training course. 
    2. Training course records. The board will only approve  training offered by a sponsor that maintains training course records for all  participants for a minimum of seven years and that has a written policy on  retention and release of training course records. 
    3. Instructors. The board will only approve training  conducted by personnel who have demonstrated competence in the subject being  taught, an understanding of the learning objective, and knowledge of the  learning process to be used. 
    4. Objectives. The board will only approve courses that  have a series of stated objectives that are pertinent to the tasks performed by  a licensee. The training course content must be consistent with those  objectives. 
    5. Course completion requirements. For successful  completion of a training course, participants must attend 90% or more of the  class contact time and must demonstrate their learning through written  examinations, completion of a project, oral examination, or other similar  assessment technique.
    18VAC160-30-250. Application for training course approval.
    A.  The board shall consider the following  information, to be submitted by the course sponsor or instructor on forms  provided by the board: 
    1. Course information. 
    a. Course title; 
    b. Planned audience; 
    c. Name of sponsor; 
    d. Name, physical address, email address, and phone number  of contact person; 
    e. Scheduled presentation dates; 
    f. Detailed course schedule, hour-by-hour, including start  and ending times;
    g. List of planned breaks; 
    h. Scheduled presentation location; and 
    i. Identification of the category and classification of  license to which the course is applicable and relevancy to the identified  license type. 
    2. Instructor qualifications. 
    a. Name of instructor; 
    b. Title;
    c. Employer; 
    d. Board license number or numbers, if applicable; and 
    e. Summary of qualifications to teach the course. 
    3. Training materials. 
    a. Course objectives. A listing of the course objectives  stated in terms of the skills and knowledge the participant will be able to  demonstrate as a result of the training. 
    b. Course outline. A detailed outline showing the planned  activities that will occur during the training course, including major topics,  planned presentation sequence, laboratory and field activities, audiovisual  presentation, and other major activities. 
    c. Course reference materials. A list of the name,  publisher, and publication date for commercially available publications. For  reference materials developed by the course sponsor or available exclusively  through the course, a copy of the reference. 
    d. Audiovisual support materials. A listing of any  commercially available audiovisual support material that will be used in the  program. A brief description of any sponsor or instructor generated audiovisual  material that will be used. 
    e. Handouts. Identification of all commercially available  handout materials that will be used, as well as copies of all other planned  handouts. 
    4. Determination of successful completion. A description of  the means that will be used to assess the learning of each participant to  determine successful completion of the training program, such as examinations,  projects, personal evaluations by the instructor, or other recognized  evaluation techniques. Correspondence and other distance learning courses must  include appropriate testing procedures to verify completion of the course.
    B. Recurring training programs. If there are plans to  present the same course of instruction routinely at multiple locations with  only minor modifications and changes, the board may approve the overall program  rather than individual presentations if so requested by the sponsor. 
    1. The board shall consider all of the information listed  in subsection A of this section except those items related to specific  offerings of the course.
    2. Board approval will apply only to those specific  offerings certified by the sponsoring organization as having been conducted by  instructors meeting the established criteria and in accordance with the  board-approved course outlines and objectives.
    18VAC160-30-260. Maintenance of training approval.
    A. At times established by the board, the board may  require that course providers that have previously obtained course approval  provide the board with evidence, in a form set forth by the board, that the  provider continues to comply with the requirements of this chapter. Failure to  continue to comply with the board's requirements or respond to such a request  may result in the board withdrawing its approval. 
    B. Substantial modifications or changes to the information  provided in 18VAC160-30-240 and 18VAC160-30-250 must be reported to the board  within 30 days of the change. Failure to report the changes as required may  result in the withdrawal of approval by the board.
    C. Any change of the address of the training provider  shall be reported in writing within 30 days of the change.
    D. The board may conduct an audit of the training provider  to ensure compliance with this chapter.
    18VAC160-30-270. Withdrawal of approval.
    The board may withdraw approval of any provider for the  following reasons: 
    1. The courses being offered no longer meet the standards  established by the board. 
    2. The provider, through an agent or otherwise, advertises  its services in a fraudulent or deceptive way. 
    3. The provider, instructor, or designee of the provider  falsifies any information relating to the application for approval, course  information, and student records.
    4. The provider fails to respond to the board or any of its  agents.
    18VAC160-30-280. Training courses offered by certain  entities; board approval not required.
    A. Training courses provided by (i) federal, state, or  local government agencies; (ii) accredited colleges or universities approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges; (iii) a regional or national  accreditation association; or (iv) an accrediting agency that is recognized by  the U.S. Secretary of Education do not require board approval to be used for  experience substitution, provided the training course information submitted to  the board includes the following:
    1. The course must include the continuing education units  awarded by the entity.
    2. The course must be related to the license category and  classification, if applicable, for which experience substitution is sought.
    B. The board may request additional information from the  provider as necessary to ensure compliance with this section. If such assurance  cannot be made by the board, the training course may not be used for experience  substitution, or the provider may pursue board approval pursuant to this  chapter.
    Part VI
  Standards of Practice and Conduct
    18VAC160-30-290. Grounds for disciplinary action.
    The board may place a licensee on probation; impose a  monetary penalty in accordance with § 54.1-202 A of the Code of Virginia;  or revoke, suspend, or refuse to renew any license when the licensee has been  found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of  the regulations of the board or Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1  of the Code of Virginia.
    18VAC160-30-300. Maintenance of license.
    A. No license issued by the board shall be assigned or  otherwise transferred. 
    B. A licensee shall report, in writing, all changes of  address and name to the board within 30 days of the change and shall return the  license to the board. In addition to the address of record, a physical address  is required for each license. If the licensee holds more than one license, the  licensee shall inform the board of all licenses, certificates, and  registrations affected by the address change. The board shall not be  responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices or correspondence due  to the licensee's failure to report a change of address.
    C. Any change in any of the requirements and  qualifications for licensure found in Part II (18VAC160-30-20 et seq.) or Part  III (18VAC160-30-150 et seq.) of this chapter shall be reported to the board  within 30 days of the change.
    18VAC160-30-310. Notice of adverse action.
    A. Licensees shall notify the board of the following  actions against the licensee: 
    1. Any disciplinary action taken by any jurisdiction,  board, or administrative body of competent jurisdiction, including but not  limited to any reprimand, license or certificate revocation, suspension or  denial, monetary penalty, requirement for remedial education, or other  corrective action. 
    2. Any voluntary surrendering of a related license,  certificate, or registration done in connection with a disciplinary action in  another jurisdiction.
    3. Any conviction, finding of guilt, or plea of guilty,  regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication, in any jurisdiction of the  United States of any misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, stealing, sexual  offense, drug distribution, or physical injury or relating to the practice of  the profession, or of any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the  time for appeal having lapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the  requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo  contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this section.
    B. The notice must be made to the board in writing within  30 days of the action. A copy of the order or other supporting documentation  must accompany the notice. The record of conviction, finding, or case decision  shall be considered prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt.
    18VAC160-30-320. Prohibited acts.
    The following acts are prohibited and any violation may  result in disciplinary action by the board:
    1. Violating, inducing another to violate, cooperating with  another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent,  partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1  (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), or 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et  seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or any of the regulations of the  board. 
    2. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by  another.
    3. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license by false or  fraudulent representation, or maintaining or renewing a license by false or  fraudulent representation.
    4. A licensee having been convicted, found guilty, or  disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in  18VAC160-30-310. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of  § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
    5. Failing to inform the board in writing within 30 days  that the licensee was convicted, found guilty, or disciplined in any  jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC160-30-310.
    6. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or  application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of  the licensee's duties. 
    7. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional  assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education,  experience, training, or any combination thereof.
    8. Failing to report a change as required by  18VAC160-30-300.
    9. Negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice  of the profession.
    10. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of  fraud or deceit in providing professional services. 
    11. Failing to adequately supervise and review work  performed by licensed or unlicensed employees under direct supervision of the  licensee.
    12. Submitting or recording or assisting another in the  submission or recording of false or misleading operational information relating  to the performance and monitoring requirements of a waterworks or wastewater  works.
    13. Failing to act in providing waterworks and wastewater  works operator services in a manner that safeguards the interests of the  public.
    18VAC160-30-330. Conflicts of interest.
    The licensee shall: 
    1. Promptly and fully inform an employer or client of any  business association, interest, or circumstance that may influence the  licensee's judgment or the quality of service.
    2. Not accept compensation, financial or otherwise, from  more than one party for services on or pertaining to the same project, unless  the circumstances are fully disclosed to and agreed to by all interested  parties in writing.
    3. Neither solicit nor accept financial or other valuable  consideration from material or equipment suppliers for specifying their  products or services.
    4. Not solicit or accept gratuities, directly or  indirectly, from contractors or their agents or other parties dealing with a  client or employer in connection with work for which the licensee is responsible.  
    18VAC160-30-340. Licensee responsibility.
    A. The primary obligation of the licensee is to the  public. If the licensee's judgment is overruled and not adhered to when  advising appropriate parties of circumstances of a substantial threat to the  public health, safety, or welfare, the licensee shall inform the employer or  client, as applicable, of the possible consequences and notify appropriate  authorities. 
    B. The licensee shall not knowingly associate in a  business venture with, or permit the use of the licensee's name by, any person  where there is reason to believe that person is engaging in activity of a  fraudulent or dishonest nature or is violating any law or regulation of the  board. 
    C. A licensee who has direct knowledge that another  individual may be violating any of the provisions of this chapter or the  provisions of Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia shall immediately inform the board in writing and shall cooperate in  furnishing any further information or assistance that may be required. 
    18VAC160-30-350. Response to inquiry and provision of  records.
    A. A licensee must respond within 10 days to a request by  the board or any of its agents regarding any complaint filed with the  department.
    B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a licensee of  the board shall produce to the board or any of its agents within 10 days of the  request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to  a complaint filed in which the licensee was involved, or for which the licensee  is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a  showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day  period. 
    C. A licensee shall not provide a false, misleading, or  incomplete response to the board or any of its agents seeking information in  the investigation of a complaint filed with the board.
    D. With the exception of the requirements of subsections A  and B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or  its agent within 21 days.
    18VAC160-30-360. Wastewater works.
    A. A Class 4 wastewater works licensee may operate any  wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works employing biological mechanical  methods (i.e., mechanical treatment process defined as those containing aerated  and mixed flows using electrical or outside energy sources) with a design  hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000 gallons per day but equal to or less than  .04 MGD; 
    2. A wastewater works employing natural treatment methods  (referenced in 9VAC25-790-870 as land treatment utilizing a secondary process  for pretreatment followed by irrigation, overland flow  infiltration-percolation, or combination thereof or aquatic ponds or  constructed wetlands) with a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000  gallons per day but equal to or less than 1.0 MGD; or
    3. Any other wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a  Class 4 wastewater works. 
    B. A Class 3 wastewater  works licensee may operate any wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods  consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated  lagoons, (iii) constructed wetlands, (iv) filters or other attached growth  contractors, (v) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, or (vi)  processes utilizing land treatment having a design hydraulic capacity greater  than 0.04 MGD, but equal to or less than 0.5 MGD;
    2. A wastewater works using natural treatment methods  (referenced in 9VAC25-790-870 as land treatment utilizing a secondary process  for pretreatment followed by irrigation, overland flow  infiltration-percolation, or combination thereof or aquatic ponds or  constructed wetlands) with a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1.0 MGD;
    3. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment  methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breakpoint  chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v)  flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, or (viii) demineralization  (i.e., ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) having a design  hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000 gallons per day but equal to or less than  0.1 MGD; or
    4. A wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class 3  or Class 4 wastewater works facility. 
    C. A Class 2 wastewater works licensee may operate any  wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods  consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated  lagoons or constructed wetlands, (iii) filters or other attached growth  contactors, (iv) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, or (v)  processes utilizing land application having a design hydraulic capacity greater  than 0.5 MGD but equal to or less than 5.0 MGD;
    2. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment  methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breakpoint  chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v)  flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, (viii) demineralization (i.e.,  ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) and having a hydraulic  capacity greater than 0.1 MGD but equal to or less than 2.5 MGD; or
    3. A wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class  2, Class 3, or Class 4 wastewater works. 
    D. A Class 1 wastewater works licensee may operate any  wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods  consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated  lagoons or constructed wetlands, (iii) filters or other attached growth  contactors, (iv) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, (v) processes  utilizing land treatment and having a hydraulic capacity greater than 5.0 MGD;
    2. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment  methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breaking  chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v)  flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, (viii) demineralization  (i.e., ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) and having a design  capacity greater than 2.5 MGD;
    3. A wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class  1, Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 wastewater works.
    18VAC160-30-370. Waterworks.
    A. A Class 6 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks serving fewer than 400 persons that  provides no treatment or employs one or more of the following treatment  processes: (i) hypochlorination for disinfection, (ii) corrosion control with  calcite or magnesium oxide contactors or solution feed except with caustic, or  (iii) sequestration by solution feed; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 6 waterworks.
    B. A Class 5 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks serving 400 or more persons that provides  no treatment or employs one or more of the following treatment processes: (i)  hypochlorination for disinfection, (ii) corrosion control with calcite or  magnesium oxide contactors or solution feed except with caustic, or (iii)  sequestration by solution feed; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 5 waterworks.
    C. A Class 4 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than  5,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity of less than 0.5 MGD and  employing one or more of the following: (i) disinfection other than with  hypochlorination, (ii) caustic soda feed, (iii) iron and manganese removal,  (iv) ion exchange, (v) slow sand filtration, (vi) aeration, (vii)  rechlorination other than with hypochlorination, (viii) activated carbon  contactors, (ix) membrane or other filtration technologies without chemical  coagulation, or (x) fluoridation with a saturator; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 4 waterworks. 
    D. A Class 3 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than  5,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity less than 0.5 MGD,  whichever is greater, and employing conventional filtration or chemical  coagulation in combination with membrane filtration;
    2. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 5,000 or more  persons or having a treatment facility capacity of 0.5 MGD or more, whichever  is greater, and employing one or more of the following: (i) disinfection other  than with hypochlorination, (ii) caustic soda feed, (iii) iron and manganese  removal, (iv) ion exchange, (v) slow sand filtration, (vi) aeration, (vii)  rechlorination other than with hypochlorination, (viii) activated carbon contactors,  (ix) membrane or other filtration technologies without chemical coagulation, or  (x) fluoridation with a saturator or acid feed;
    3. A waterworks or treatment facility employing  fluoridation with other than a saturator not considered a Class 1 or Class 2  waterworks; or
    4. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 3 waterworks. 
    E. A Class 2 waterworks  licensee may operate any waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 5,000 or more  persons but fewer than 50,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity  of 0.5 MGD or more but less than 5.0 MGD, whichever range applies, and  employing rapid rate conventional filtration chemical coagulation in  combination with membrane filtration;
    2. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than  50,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity of less than 5.0 MGD  employing high rate conventional  filtration; or
    3. A waterworks classified by the VDH as a Class 2  waterworks.
    F. A Class 1 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 50,000 or  more persons or having a treatment facility capacity of 5.0 MGD or more and  employing conventional filtration or chemical coagulation in combination with  membrane filtration; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 1 waterworks.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (18VAC160-30)
    Waterworks  Operator License Application, A436-1955LIC-v3 (eff. 7/2016)
    Provisional  Waterworks Operator License Application, A436-1955PLIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Wastewater  Works Operator License Application, A436-1965LIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Provisional  Wastewater Works Operator License Application, A436-1965PLIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Waterworks  and Wastewater Works Operator - Upgrade Provisional License Application,  A436-1955_65UPG-v3 (eff. 7/2016)
    Out-of-State  Facility Description and Experience Verification Application, A436-19STATE_EXP-v3  (eff. 4/2015)
    Waterworks  and Wastewater Works Operator Experience Verification Application,  A436-19WWEXP-v3 (eff. 1/2014)
    Provisional  Description and Experience Verification Application, A436-1955_65PEXP-v3 (eff.  12/2014)
    Continuing  Professional Education (CPE) Application - Certificate of Completion,  A436-19CPE-v3 (eff. 10/2015)
    Training  Course Approval Application, A465-19CRS-v2 (eff. 5/2013)
    Education  and Training Substitution Form, A436-19EDTR-v3 (eff. 1/2014)
    CHAPTER 40
  ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS LICENSING REGULATIONS
    Part I
  Definitions
    18VAC160-40-10. Definitions.
    A. Section 54.1-2300 of the Code of Virginia provides  definitions of the following terms and phrases as used in this chapter:
    "Board"
    "Onsite sewage system"
    "Operator"
    "Wastewater works"
    B. The following words, terms, and phrases when used in  this chapter shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise:
    "Alternative onsite sewage system" means a  treatment works that is not a conventional onsite sewage system and does not  result in a point source discharge.
    "Alternative onsite sewage system installer"  means an individual licensed by the board to construct, install, and repair  conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems. 
    "Alternative onsite sewage system operator"  means an individual licensed by the board to operate and maintain conventional  and alternative onsite sewage systems. 
    "Alternative onsite soil evaluator" means an  individual licensed by the board to evaluate soils and soil properties in  relationship to the effect of these properties on the use and management of  these soils and the locations for conventional and alternative onsite sewage  systems, to certify in accordance with applicable state regulations and local  ordinances that sites are suitable for conventional and alternative onsite  sewage systems, and to design conventional and alternative onsite sewage  systems suitable for the soils. 
    "Applicant" means an individual who submits an  application with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
    "Application" means a completed,  board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required  documentation. 
    "Authorized onsite soil evaluator" means an  individual holding an authorized onsite soil evaluator certification issued by  the Virginia Department of Health that was valid on June 30, 2009. 
    "Category" means journeyman or master as applicable  to the professionals under the board's purview. 
    "Class" means conventional or alternative as  applicable to the professionals under the board's purview. 
    "Contact hour" means 50 minutes of participation  in a structured training activity. 
    "Conventional onsite sewage system" means a  treatment works consisting of one or more septic tanks with gravity, pumped, or  siphoned conveyance to a gravity distributed subsurface drainfield. 
    "Conventional onsite sewage system installer"  means an individual licensed by the board to construct, install, and repair  conventional onsite sewage systems. 
    "Conventional onsite sewage system operator"  means an individual licensed by the board to operate and maintain a  conventional onsite sewage system.
    "Conventional onsite soil evaluator" means an  individual licensed by the board to evaluate soils and soil properties in  relationship to the effects of these properties on the use and management of  these soils as the locations for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems,  to certify in accordance with applicable state regulations and local ordinances  that sites are suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems,  and to design conventional onsite sewage systems suitable for the soils. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Professional and Occupational Regulation. 
    "Direct supervision" means being immediately  available and fully responsible for the provision of onsite sewage system  services regulated pursuant to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1  and this chapter. 
    "Interim license" refers to the initial issuance  of professional licenses during the implementation of the onsite sewage system  professional licensure program. Such licenses were limited to four years and  not renewable. 
    "Journeyman" means an individual who possesses  the minimum skills and competency to assist with the installation or  maintenance of onsite sewage systems or assist in the evaluation of soil sites  as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems and to  design conventional onsite sewage systems under the direct supervision of a  master licensee.
    "Licensee" means an individual holding a valid  license issued by the board. 
    "Licensure" means a method of regulation whereby  the Commonwealth, through the issuance of a license, authorizes a person  possessing the character and minimum skills to engage in the practice of a  profession or occupation that without such license is unlawful to practice. 
    "Maintenance" or "maintain" means  performing adjustments to equipment and controls and in-kind replacement of  normal wear and tear parts such as light bulbs, fuses, filters, pumps, motors,  or other like components. Maintenance includes pumping the tanks or cleaning  the building sewer on a periodic basis. Maintenance shall not include  replacement of tanks, drainfield piping, or distribution boxes or work  requiring a construction permit and a licensed onsite sewage system installer. 
    "Master" means an individual who possess the  minimum skills and competency to install or maintain onsite sewage system or  evaluate soil sites as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage  systems and to design conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems. 
    "Operate" means the act of (i) placing into or  taking out of service a unit process or unit processes or (ii) making or  causing adjustments in the operation of a unit process at a treatment works. 
    "Profession" means the practice of onsite soil  evaluation, onsite sewage system installation, and onsite sewage system  operation. 
    "Professional" means an onsite sewage system  installer, onsite sewage system operator, or onsite soil evaluator who is  licensed pursuant to the provisions of this chapter and is in good standing  with the board to practice his profession in this Commonwealth. 
    "Renewal" means the process and requirements for  periodically approving the continuance of a license.
    "Sewage" means water-carried and  nonwater-carried human excrement or kitchen, laundry, shower, bath, or lavatory  wastes separately or together with such underground, surface, storm, or other  water and liquid industrial wastes as may be present from residences,  buildings, vehicles, industrial establishments, or other places. 
    "Training credit" means a unit of board-approved  training or formal education completed by an individual that may be used to  substitute for experience when applying for a license. 
    "Treatment works" means any device or system  used in the storage, treatment, disposal, or reclamation of sewage or  combinations of sewage and industrial wastes including, but not limited to,  pumping power and other equipment and appurtenances, septic tanks and any  works, including land, that are or will be (i) an integral part of the  treatment processes or (ii) used for ultimate disposal or residues or effluent  resulting from such treatment. 
    "VDH" means the Virginia Department of Health. 
    Part II
  Entry
    18VAC160-40-20. Application procedures.
    A. All applicants seeking licensure shall submit an  application with the appropriate fee in 18VAC160-40-40. Applications shall be  made on forms provided by the board. 
    By submitting the application to the department, the  applicant certified that the applicant has read and understands the applicable  statutes and the board's regulations. 
    The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by  the board does not indicate approval of the application by the board. 
    B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations  with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify  information supplied. All applications shall be completed in accordance with  the instructions contained herein and on the application. Applications will not  be considered complete until all required documents are received by the board.  If an examination is required for licensure, the applicant will not be  permitted to sit for the applicable board-approved examination until the  application is complete and approved. 
    C. The applicant will be notified within 30 days of the  board's receipt of an initial application if the application is incomplete. An  individual who fails to complete the process within 12 months of receipt of the  application in the board's office must submit a new application. If applicable,  the applicant has 12 months from approval of the application to pass the  board-approved examination. Failure to pass the board-approved examination  within 12 months of approval will result in the applicant being required to  submit a new application to be considered for licensure. 
    D. The applicant shall immediately report all changes in  information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to the issuance  of the license or expiration of the application or examination period. 
    18VAC160-40-30. General fee requirements.
    All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated. The  date on which the fee is received by the department or its agent will determine  whether the fee is on time. Checks or money orders shall be made payable to the  Treasurer of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-40-40. Fee schedule.
           | Fee Type | Fee Amount | When Due | 
       | Initial application (for each profession, class, and    category of license) | $100 | With application | 
       | Renewal (for each profession, class, and category of    license) | $100 | With renewal application | 
       | Reinstatement (for each profession, class, and category    of license) | $125 (renewal fee + $25 reinstatement fee) | With reinstatement application | 
  
    18VAC160-40-50. Examination fee.
    The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to  charges to the department by an outside vendor based on a contract entered into  in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq.  of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in  accordance with this contract. 
    18VAC160-40-60. General requirements for licensure.
    A. In addition to the specific qualifications for each  profession, class, and category of licensure, each applicant for licensure  shall meet the requirements provided in this section:
    1. The applicant shall be at least 18 years old. 
    2. The applicant shall disclose his mailing address. A post  office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is  provided. 
    3. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia,  each applicant shall disclose the following information:
    a. All felony convictions.
    b. All misdemeanor convictions that occurred within three  years of the date of application. 
    Any plea of nolo contendere or finding of guilt regardless  of adjudication or deferred adjudication shall be considered a conviction for  the purposes of this section. The record of conviction certified or  authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of  the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of  such guilt. 
    B. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any  applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. The applicant shall report suspensions, revocations, or  surrendering of a license, certification, or registration in connection with a  disciplinary action or that has been subject of discipline in any jurisdiction  prior to applying for licensure. The board at its discretion may deny licensure  to any applicant based on prior suspensions, revocations, or surrender or  licenses based on disciplinary action by any jurisdiction. 
    18VAC160-40-70. Education and training for experience.
    A. Each individual applying for a license may receive  credit for up to half of the required experience for:
    1. Satisfactory completion of postsecondary courses in  wastewater, biology, chemistry, geology, hydraulics, hydrogeology, or soil  science at the rate of one month per semester hour or two-thirds of a month per  quarter hour; or
    2. Satisfactory completion of board-approved onsite sewage  system installer or operator or onsite soil evaluation training courses, as  applicable to the license sought, at the rate of one month for each training  credit earned. Up to one training credit is awarded for each 10 hours of  classroom contact time or for each 20 hours of laboratory exercises and field  trip contact time. Training credit is not earned for breaks, meals, receptions,  and time other than classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time. 
    B. Education used to meet the education requirements to  qualify for licensure may not be substituted for experience. 
    18VAC160-40-80. Examination procedures and conduct.
    A. Upon approval of the application, the board will notify  the applicant of his eligibility to take the applicable examination. The  license will not be issued prior to the receipt of a passing score for the  applicable examination. 
    B. An applicant who does not receive a passing score  within one year after the date of approval of the application by the board to  sit for the examination must submit a new application and meet entry  requirements in effect at the time of the submittal of the new application. 
    C. In those instances where the applicant is required to  take an examination for licensure, the applicant shall follow all rules  established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such rules  shall include written instructions communicated prior to the examination date  and instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date  of the examination. Failure to comply with all rules established by the board  and the testing organization with regard to conduct at the examination shall be  grounds for denial of the application, voiding of examination scores, or any  combination thereof.
    18VAC160-40-90. Individuals certified or licensed in another  jurisdiction.
    Any applicant holding a valid license or certificate in  another jurisdiction shall meet the requirements of this chapter, including  having equivalent experience and education. The applicant shall pass the  appropriate Virginia examination in those instances where an examination for  licensure is required. 
    18VAC160-40-100. Full-time experience or equivalent.
    For the purpose of this part, experience requirements are  expressed in terms of calendar periods of full-time employment as an operator,  installer, or onsite soil evaluator in the same class for which licensure is  sought. 
    1. A year of full-time employment is defined as a minimum  of 1,760 hours during a 12-month period or a minimum of 220 workdays in a  12-month period. A workday is defined as performing or assisting in the duties  of an installer, operator, or onsite soil evaluator to the extent required for  the proper installation or maintenance of onsite sewage systems or the  evaluation of soil and soil properties for suitability as locations for onsite  sewage systems. More than 1,760 hours or 220 workdays during a 12-month period  will not be considered as more than one year of full-time employment. 
    2. Partial credit may be given for actual hours of work or  workdays experience if the applicant works less than full time. 
    Part III
  Onsite Sewage System Installers
    18VAC160-40-110. License required.
    A. No individual shall install a conventional or  alternative onsite sewage system without a valid master onsite sewage system  installer license issued by the board. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid master  and journeyman onsite sewage system installer licenses in the same class.  Issuance of a master onsite sewage system installer license in a specific class  shall void the journeyman onsite sewage system installer license in the same  class. 
    C. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid  conventional and alternative master onsite sewage system installer licenses or  convention and alternative journeyman licenses. Issuance of a master  alternative onsite sewage system installer license shall void the conventional  onsite sewage system installer license. 
    D. A journeyman onsite sewage system installer must work  under the direct supervision of a licensed master onsite sewage system  installer. A master onsite sewage system installer is responsible for supervising  the provision of onsite sewage system installations by any journeyman onsite  sewage system installers under his direct supervision.
    E. Experience used to qualify for licensure cannot be  verified by a journeyman onsite sewage system installer. 
     
         
          18VAC160-40-120. Qualifications for journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one  of the following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director,    or officer of a properly licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system    (SDS) specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors | No | No | Six months of full-time    experience assisting with the installation of conventional or alternative    onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an onsite    soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer,    or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 2. | None | No | No | One year of full-time experience assisting with the    installation of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage    system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-130. Qualifications for master conventional  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master conventional onsite  sewage system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director, or officer of a properly    licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system (SDS) specialty issued by    the Virginia Board for Contractors  | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board covering basic    installation of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems | One year of full-time experience installing conventional    or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 2.  | Employee, owner, director, or officer of a properly    licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system (SDS) specialty issued by    the Virginia Board for Contractors | Yes | No | Two years of full-time experience installing conventional    or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 3. | Interim installer or journeyman license | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board covering basic    installation of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems | Two years of full-time experience installing conventional    or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 4. | Interim installer or journeyman installer license | Yes | No | Three years of full-time experience installing    conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of    the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-140. Qualification for exemption from  examination for master conventional onsite sewage system installer applicants.
    Applicants seeking licensure as a conventional onsite  sewage system installer may be exempt from the examination, provided the board  receives the applicable application before July 1, 2016, and the applicant:
    1. Is able to satisfactorily demonstrate that he has been  actively engaged in performing the duties of a conventional onsite sewage  system installer for at least eight years within the 12-year period immediately  preceding the date of the application. Documentation of qualifying experience  may be verified by a conventional or alternative onsite soil evaluator, a  conventional or alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional  engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July  1, 2009; and
    2. Meets the requirements of 18VAC160-40-60.
    18VAC160-40-150. Qualifications for journeyman alternative  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as an alternative onsite sewage  system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director,    or officer of a properly licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system    (SDS) specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors  | No | No | One year of full-time    experience assisting with the installation of alternative onsite sewage    systems verified by one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil    evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009 | 
       | 2. | None | No | No | Two years of full-time    experience assisting with the installation of alternative onsite sewage    systems verified by one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil    evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-160. Qualifications for master alternative  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master alternative onsite  sewage system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director,    or officer of a properly licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system    (SDS) specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors | Yes | No | Two years of full-time    experience installing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or    more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative    onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | 20 hours of training    approved by the board covering basic installation of alternative onsite    sewage systems | Three years of full-time    experience installing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or    more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative    onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 3. | Interim alternative onsite sewage system installer or conventional    onsite sewage system installer license | Yes | No | 18 months of full-time experience installing alternative onsite sewage    systems verified by one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil    evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009 | 
       | 4. | No | Yes | 20 hours of training    approved by the board covering the basic installation of alternative onsite    sewage systems | 18 months of full-time    experience installing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or    more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative    onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    Part IV
  Onsite Sewage System Operators
    18VAC160-40-170. License required.
    A. No individual shall operate a conventional or  alternative onsite sewage system without a valid master onsite sewage system  operator license issued by the board. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid master  and onsite sewage system operator licenses in the same class. Issuance of a  master onsite sewage system operator license in a specific class shall void the  journeyman onsite sewage system operator license in the same class. 
    C. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid  conventional and alternative onsite sewage system operator licenses or  conventional and alternative journeyman onsite sewage system operator licenses.  Issuance of a master alternative onsite sewage system operator license shall  void the conventional onsite sewage system operator license. 
    D. A journeyman onsite sewage system operator must work  under the direct supervision of a licensed master onsite sewage system  operator. An onsite sewage system operator is responsible for supervising the  operation of the onsite sewage system by any journeyman onsite sewage system  operator under his responsibility. 
    E. Experience used to qualify for licensure cannot be  verified by a journeyman onsite sewage system operator. 
    18VAC160-40-180. Qualifications for journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that the  following qualification has been met:
           | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | None | No | No | Six months of full-time    experience assisting with the operation and maintenance of conventional or    alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following:    an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system operator, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009  | 
  
    18VAC160-40-190. Qualifications for master conventional  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master conventional onsite  sewage system operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Wastewater works operator license | Yes | No | None | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | 10 hours of education approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of conventional onsite sewage systems | Six months of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 3.  | No | Yes | No | One year of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-200. Qualification for exemption from  examination for master conventional onsite sewage system operator applicants.
    Applicants seeking licensure as a master conventional  onsite sewage system operator may be exempt from the examination provided the  applicant:
    1. Is able to satisfactorily demonstrate that he has been  actively engaged in performing the duties of a conventional onsite sewage  system operator for at least four years. Documentation of qualifying experience  may be verified by a conventional or alternative soil evaluation, a  conventional or alternative onsite sewage system operator, a professional  engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July  1, 2009; and 
    2. Meets the requirements of 18VAC160-40-60.
    18VAC160-40-210. Qualifications for journeyman alternative  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman alternative  onsite sewage operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | None | No | 20 hours of education approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | One year of full-time experience assisting with the    operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an    alternative sewage system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 2. | None | No | None | Two years of full-time experience assisting with the    operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an    alternative sewage system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-220. Qualifications for master alternative  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master alternative onsite  sewage system operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Held or holds a conventional onsite sewage system    operator license | Yes | 10 hours of training approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | One year of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 2. | Held or holds a conventional onsite sewage system    operator license | Yes | No | One year of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 3. | None | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | Two years of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 4. | Wastewater works operator license | Yes | No | Six months of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 5. | Wastewater works operator license | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board in basics of    operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | No | 
  
    Part V
  Onsite Soil Evaluator
    18VAC160-40-230. License required.
    A. Notwithstanding the provisions of Chapter 4 (§ 54.1-400  et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, no individual shall evaluate  soils and soil properties for suitability as locations for or design  conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems without possessing a valid  license issued by the board. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold master and  journeyman onsite soil evaluator licenses in the same class. Issuance of a  master onsite soil evaluator license in a specific class shall void the  journeyman onsite soil evaluator license in the same class. 
    C. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid  conventional and alternative onsite soil evaluator licenses or conventional and  alternative journeyman onsite soil evaluator licenses. Issuance of an  alternative master onsite soil evaluator license shall void the conventional  onsite soil evaluator license. 
    D. A journeyman onsite soil evaluator must work under the  direct supervision of a master onsite soil evaluator. A master onsite soil  evaluator of an equal or greater class is responsible for supervising the  provision of onsite soil evaluations and designs by any journeyman onsite soil  evaluator under his responsibility. 
    E. Experience to qualify for licensure cannot be verified  by a journeyman onsite soil evaluator. 
    18VAC160-40-240. Qualifications for journeyman conventional  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman conventional  onsite soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Virginia professional soil scientist license | No | No | No | 
       | 2. | No | No | No | One and one-half years of full-time experience assisting    in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design of conventional    onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized    soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer,    or an onsite soil evaluator  | 
       | 3. | No | No | VDH onsite system training | One year of full-time experience assisting in the    evaluation of site and soil conditions and design of conventional onsite    sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or    an onsite soil evaluator | 
  
    18VAC160-40-250. Qualifications for master conventional  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master conventional onsite  soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following  qualifications has been met:
           |   | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | No | Yes | Master's or bachelor's degree | One and one-half years of full-time experience evaluating    site and soil conditions and designing conventional onsite sewage systems    verified by one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator    certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an onsite    soil evaluator  | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | Associate's degree | Three years of full-time    experience evaluating site and soil conditions and designing conventional    onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional    engineer, or an onsite soil evaluator | 
       | 3. | No | Yes | VDH onsite sewage system program | Two years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing conventional onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an onsite soil    evaluator | 
       | 4. | Journeyman or interim conventional onsite soil evaluator | Yes | No | Three years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing conventional onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an onsite soil    evaluator | 
  
    18VAC160-40-260. Qualifications for journeyman alternative  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman alternative  onsite soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been meet:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Virginia professional soil scientist license | No | No | One year of full-time experience assisting in the    evaluation of site and soil conditions and design of alternative onsite    sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized onsite    soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer,    or an alternative soil evaluator  | 
       | 2. | Possess or held either a    valid interim alternative onsite soil evaluator license or a conventional    onsite soil evaluator license | No | No | One year of full-time    experience assisting in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design    of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative soil evaluator | 
       | 3. | An authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | No | No | One year of full-time    experience assisting in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design    of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative soil evaluator | 
       | 4. | No | No | No | Two years of full-time    experience assisting in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design    of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative soil evaluator | 
  
    18VAC160-40-270. Qualifications for master alternative  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master alternative onsite  soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following  qualifications has been met: 
           |   | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | No | Yes | Master's or bachelor's degree | One and one-half years of full-time experience evaluating    site and soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems    verified by one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator    certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an    alternative onsite soil evaluator  | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | Associate's degree | Three years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
       | 3. | Held or holds a conventional onsite soil evaluator    license | Yes | No | Two years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
       | 4. | No | Yes | No | Three years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
       | 5. | An authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH    before July 1, 2009 | Yes | No | Two years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
  
         
          18VAC160-40-280. Acceptable degree programs and verification  procedures.
    A. Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on  completion of an associate's, bachelor's, or master's degree shall submit an  official transcript form the school where the applicable degree was obtained.  Only degrees from an accredited college or university that is approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges, a regional or national accreditation  association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S.  Secretary of Education will be considered. The following degrees shall be  considered to qualify in accordance with 18VAC160-40-250 and 18VAC160-40-270:
    1. Bachelor's or master's degree in soil science, biology,  chemistry, engineering, environmental science, geology, agronomy, earth  science, or environmental health.
    2. Associate's degree in wastewater works, environmental  science, or engineering technology.
    3. Bachelor's degree in a related physical, biological,  environmental, or chemical science that includes a minimum of 40 semester  credit hours in any combination of science and math.
    B. Any applicant who has earned a degree from an  institution outside of the United States shall have the degree authenticated  and evaluated by an education credential evaluation services. The board  reserves the right to reject any evaluation submitted by the applicant. 
    Part VI
  Renewal and Reinstatement
    18VAC160-40-290. Expiration and renewal.
    A. A license shall expire two years from the last day of  the month in which it was issued. 
    B. Prior to the expiration date shown on the license, the  board shall mail a renewal notice to the licensee's address of record. The  licensee shall return a renewal notice and the applicable renewal fee. Failure  to receive a renewal notice from the board does not relieve the licensee of the  obligation to renew. If the licensee fails to receive the renewal notice, a  copy of the license may be submitted with the required fee as an application  for renewal. 
    C. By submitting the renewal fee, the licensee is  certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice and Conduct  (Part VI (18VAC160-40-440 et seq.) of this chapter) as established by the  board. In addition, by submitting the renewal fee, licensees are certifying  compliance with the continuing professional education requirements of this  chapter. 
    18VAC160-40-300. Reinstatement.
    A. If all the requirements for renewal of the license as  specified in 18VAC160-40-290 are not completed within 30 days of the license  expiration date, a reinstatement fee shall be required as established in  18VAC160-40-40.
    B. A license may be reinstated for up to one year  following the expiration date of the license. Any licensee who fails to  reinstate the license within 12 months after the expiration date shall apply  for a new license and meet entry requirements in effect at the time of  submittal of the new application. The individual shall be deemed to be eligible  to sit for the examination for the same profession, class, and category of  license as the expired license, if an examination is applicable. 
    C. By submitting the reinstatement fee, the licensee is  certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice and Conduct  (Part VI (18VAC160-40-440 et seq.) of this chapter) as established by the  board. In addition, by submitting the reinstatement fee, licensees are certifying  compliance with the continued professional education requirements of this  chapter. 
    D. Any regulated activity conducted subsequent to the  license expiration date may constitute unlicensed activity and be subject to  prosecution under Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et eq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    18VAC160-40-310. Status of license during period prior to  reinstatement.
    A licensee who applies for reinstatement of the license  shall be subject to all laws and regulations as if the regulant had been  continuously licensed. The licensee shall remain under and be subject to the  disciplinary authority of the board during the entire period. 
    18VAC160-40-320. Board discretion to deny renewal or  reinstatement.
    A. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of license  for the same reasons as the board may refuse initial licensure or discipline a  licensee. 
    B. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a  licensee if the licensee has been subject to a disciplinary proceeding and has  not met the terms of an agreement for licensure, has not satisfied all  sanctions, or has not fully paid monetary penalties and costs imposed by the  board. 
    Part VII
  Continuing Professional Education
    18VAC160-40-330. Continuing professional education.
    A. Each licensee shall have completed the following number  of continuing professional education (CPE) contact hours during each renewal  cycle. CPE provisions do not apply to licenses that were held for less than two  years on the date of expiration. 
    1. Master alternative and conventional onsite soil  evaluators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite sewage system operators  shall obtain a minimum of 20 contact hours.
    2. Journeyman alternative and conventional onsite soil  evaluators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite sewage system operators  shall obtain a minimum of 10 contact hours. 
    B. CPE courses completed during the license period  immediately prior to the expiration date of the license shall be acceptable in  order to renew the license. CPE courses completed during a license renewal  cycle to satisfy the CPE requirements of the preceding licensing renewal cycle  shall be valid only for that preceding license renewal cycle and shall not be  accepted for subsequent renewal cycles. 
    C. The licensee will not receive credit for completing the  same CPE course with the same content more than once during a license period. 
    D. A licensee may receive CPE credit for teaching a course  that otherwise meets the requirements of this chapter; however, additional  credit shall not be given for subsequent offering of a course or activity with  the same content within the same licensing cycle. In addition a licensee may  receive two hours of CPE no more than once during a single licensing cycle for  the initial development or substantial updating of a CPE course. 
    E. For all licenses, safety subjects shall not count for  more than one half of the total required CPE hours. 
    18VAC160-40-340. CPE subject matter for onsite sewage system  installers.
    The following course topics will be accepted for CPE  credit for onsite sewage installers:
    1. Sewage system installation;
    2. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    3. Security and safety procedures;
    4. General science and mathematical principles;
    5. Administrative knowledge and procedures applicable to  the profession;
    6. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession;
    7. Monitoring, evaluating and adjusting treatment processes  (alternative onsite sewage system installers only); and
    8. Management and supervision principles (master onsite  sewage system installer only, maximum of five credit hours).
    18VAC160-40-350. CPE subject matter for onsite sewage system  operators.
    The following course topics will be accepted for credit  for onsite sewage system operators:
    1. Onsite system operations;
    2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment  processes;
    3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    4. Security and safety procedures;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative knowledge applicable to the profession;
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession; and
    8. Management and supervision principles (applicable to  master onsite sewage system operations only, maximum of five credit hours).
    18VAC160-40-360. CPE subject matter for onsite soil evaluators.
    The following course topics will be accepted for  credit for onsite soil evaluators:
    1. Site and soil evaluations;
    2. Security and safety procedures;
    3. System design;
    4. Inspections;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative knowledge and procedures applicable to  the profession;
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession; and
    8. Management and supervision principles (applicable to  master onsite soil evaluators only, maximum of five contact hours).
    18VAC160-40-370. Use of training credits and formal  education for CPE credit.
    Any course approved by the board for substitution as  training credits or formal education semester hours, as provided for in  18VAC160-40-70 or 18VAC160-40-280, shall also be acceptable on an hour-for-hour  basis for CPE contact hours. One semester hour of college credit shall equal 15  CPE contact hours, and one-quarter hour of college credit shall equal 10 CPE  hours. The training credits or formal education must be applicable to the  license for which CPE credit is sought. 
    18VAC160-40-380. Maintenance of CPE.
    A. For a period of at least two years following the end of  the license renewal cycle for which the CPE was taken, the following evidence  shall be maintained to document completion of the required CPE.
    1. Evidence of completion of a structured training  activity, which shall consist of the name, address, and telephone number of the  sponsor;
    2. The dates the licensee participated in the training;
    3. Description of the subject matter presented; and 
    4. A statement from the sponsor verifying the number of  hours completed.
    B. The board may conduct an audit of its licensees to  ensure compliance with the applicable CPE requirements. Licensees who are  selected for audit shall provide the necessary documentation stipulated in this  section. 
    Part VIII
  Training Course Approval
    18VAC160-40-390. Approval of training courses.
    A. Training courses may be substituted for experience  pursuant to the provisions of 18VAC160-40-70. With the exception of training  courses provided pursuant to 18VAC160-40-330, training courses that may be  substituted for required experience must be approved by the board prior to  commencing in accordance with the provisions of this section.
    B. Each training provider seeking course approval shall  submit an application for approval on a form provided by the board. Training  courses for which experience credit may be granted must be conducted in general  conformance with the guidelines of the International Association for Continued  Education and Training (association). The board reserves the right to waive any  of the requirements of the association's guidelines on a case-by-case basis.  Only classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time will be used to compute  training credits. No credit will be given for breaks, meals, or receptions. 
    1. Organization. The board will only approve training  offered by a sponsor that is an identifiable organization with a mission  statement outlining its functions structure, process, and philosophy and that  has a staff of one or more persons with the authority to administer and  coordinate the training course. 
    2. Training course records. The board will only approve  training offered by a sponsor that maintains records for all participants for a  minimum of seven years and that has a written policy on retention and release  of records. 
    3. Instructors. The board will only approve training  conducted by personnel who have demonstrated competency in the subject being  taught, an understanding of the learning objective, and knowledge of the  learning process to be used. 
    4. Objectives. The board will only approve courses that  have a series of stated objectives that are pertinent to the tasks performed by  the licensee. The training course content must be consistent with those  objectives. 
    5. Course completion requirements. For successful  completion of a training course, participants must attend 90% or more of the  class contact time and must demonstrate their learning through written  examinations, completion of a project, oral examination, or other similar  assessment techniques. 
    18VAC160-40-400. Application for training course approval.
    A. The board shall consider the following information, to  be submitted by the course sponsor or instructor on forms provided by the  board:
    1. Course information.
    a. Course title;
    b. Planned audience;
    c. Name of sponsor;
    d. Name, physical address, email address, and phone number  of contact person;
    e. Scheduled presentation dates;
    f. Detailed course schedule, hour-by-hour including begin  and end times;
    g. List of planned breaks;
    h. Scheduled presentation location; and
    i. Identification of the profession, category, and class of  license to which the course is applicable and relevancy to the identified  license type.
    2. Instructor qualifications.
    a. Name of instructor;
    b. Title;
    c. Employer;
    d. Board license number or numbers, if applicable; and
    e. Summary of qualifications to teach the course.
    3. Training materials.
    a. Course objectives. A listing of the course objectives  stated in terms of the skills and knowledge the participant will be able to  demonstrate as a result of the training. 
    b. Course outline. A detailed outline showing the planned  activities that will occur during the training course, including major topics,  planned presentation sequence, laboratory and field activities, audiovisual  presentations, and other major activities. 
    c. Course reference materials. A list of the name,  publisher, and publication date for commercially available publications. For  reference materials developed by the course sponsor or available exclusively  through the course, a copy of the reference. 
    d. Audiovisual support materials. A listing of any  commercially available audiovisual support material that will be used in the  program. A brief description of any sponsor or instructor generated audiovisual  material that will be used. 
    e. Handouts. Identification of all commercially available  handout materials that will be used, as well as copies other planned handouts. 
    4. Determination of successful completion. A description of  the means that will be used to assess the learning of each participant to  determine successful completion of training program, such as examinations,  projects, personal evaluations by the instructor, or other recognized  evaluation techniques. Correspondence and other distance learning courses must  include appropriate testing procedures to verify completion of the course. 
    B. Recurring training programs. If there are plans to  present the same course of instruction routinely at multiple locations with  only minor modifications and changes, the board may approve the overall program  rather than individual presentations if so required by the sponsor. 
    1. The board shall consider all of the information listed  in subsection A of this section except those items related to specific  offerings of the course.
    2. Board approval will apply only to those specific  offerings certified by the sponsoring organization as having been conducted by  instructors meeting the established criteria and in accordance with the  board-approved course outlines and objectives. 
    18VAC160-40-410. Maintenance of training course approval.
    A. At times established by the board, the board may  require that course providers that have previously obtained course approval  provide the board with evidence, in a form set forth by the board, that the  provider continues to comply with the requirements of this chapter. Failure to  continue to comply with the board's requirements or respond to such a request  may result in the board withdrawing its approval. 
    B. Substantial modifications or changes to the information  provided in 18VAC160-40-390 and 18VAC160-40-400 must be reported to the board  within 30 days of the change. Failure to report the changes as required may  result in the withdrawal of approval by the board. 
    C. Any change of address of the training provider shall be  reported in writing within 30 days of the change. 
    D. The board may conduct an audit of the training provider  to ensure continued compliance with this chapter. 
    18VAC160-40-420. Withdrawal of approval.
    The board may withdraw approval of any provider for the  following reasons:
    1. The course or courses being offered no longer meet the  standards established by the board. 
    2. The provider, through an agent or otherwise, advertises  its services in a fraudulent or deceptive way.
    3. The provider, instructor, or designee of the provider  falsifies any information relating to the application for approval, course  information, or student records. 
    4. The provider fails to respond to the board or any of its  agents.
    18VAC160-40-430. Training course offered by certain  entities, board approval not required.
    A. Training courses provided by (i) federal, state, or  local government agencies; (ii) accredited colleges or universities approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges; (iii) a regional or national  accreditation association; or (iv) an accrediting agency that is recognized by  the U.S. Secretary of Education do not require board approval to be used for  experience substitution, provided the training course information submitted to  the board includes the following:
    1. The course must include the continuing education hours  awarded by the entity.
    2. The course must be related to the profession, category,  or class, if applicable, for which experience substitution is sought.
    B. The board may require additional information from the  provider as necessary to ensure compliance with this section. If such assurance  cannot be made by the board, the training course may not be used for experience  substitution, or the provider may pursue board approval pursuant to this  chapter. 
    Part IX
  Standards of Practice and Conduct
    18VAC160-40-440. Grounds for disciplinary action.
    The board may place a licensee on probation; impose a  monetary penalty in accordance in § 54.1-202 A of the Code of Virginia; or  revoke, suspend, or refuse to renew any license when the licensee has been  found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of  the regulations of the board or Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et.seq.) of Title 54.1  of the Code of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-40-450. Maintenance of license.
    A. No license issued by the board shall be assigned or  otherwise transferred. 
    B. A licensee shall report, in writing, all changes of the  address of record and name to the board within 30 days of the change and shall  return the license to the board. In addition to the address of record, a  physical address is required for each license. If the licensee holds more than  one license, the licensee shall inform the board of all licenses, certificates,  and registrations affected by the name or address change. The board shall not  be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices or correspondence  due to the licensee's failure to report a change of name or address.
    C. Any change in any of the requirements and  qualifications for licensure found in Part II (18VAC160-40-20 et seq.), III  (18VAC160-40-110 et seq.), or IV (18VAC160-40-170 et seq.) of this chapter  shall be reported to the board within 30 days of the change. 
    18VAC160-40-460. Notice of adverse action.
    A. Licensees shall notify the board of the following  actions against the licensee. 
    1. Any disciplinary action taken by any jurisdiction,  board, or administrative body of competent jurisdiction, including but not  limited to any reprimand, license or certificate revocation, suspension or  denial, monetary penalty, requirement for remedial education, or other  corrective action. 
    2. Any voluntary surrendering of a related license,  certificate, or registration done in connection with a disciplinary action in  another jurisdiction. 
    3. Any conviction, finding of guilt, or plea of guilty,  regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication, in any jurisdiction of the  United States of any misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, stealing, sexual  offense, drug distribution, physical injury, or relating to the practice of the  profession or of any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the  time for appeal having lapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the  requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo  contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this section. 
    B. Notices to the board must be made in writing within 30  days of the action. A copy of the order or other supporting documentation must  accompany the notice. The record of conviction finding or case decision shall be  considered prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt.
    18VAC160-40-470. Prohibited acts.
    The following acts are prohibited and any violation may  result in disciplinary action by the board:
    1. Violating, inducing another to violate, cooperating with  another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent,  partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1  (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), or 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.)  of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or any of the regulations of the board. 
    2. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by  another. 
    3. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license by false or  fraudulent representation, or maintaining or renewing a license by false or  fraudulent representation. 
    4. A licensee having been convicted, found guilty, or  disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in  18VAC160-40-460. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of  § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    5. Failing to inform the board in writing within 30 days  that the licensee was convicted or found guilty or disciplined in any  jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC160-40-460. 
    6. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or  application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of  the licensee's duties. 
    7. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional  assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education,  experience, training, or any combination thereof. 
    8. Failing to report a change as required by  18VAC160-40-450.
    9. Negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice  of the profession. 
    10. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of  fraud or deceit in advertising, soliciting, or in providing professional  services. 
    11. Failing to adequately supervise and review work performed  by unlicensed employees or journeyman licensees under the direct supervision of  the master licensee. 
    12. Failure to obtain any permit, approval, or other  document required by VDH related to the design, installation, repair, or  operation of an onsite sewage system. 
    13. Knowingly signing plans, drawings, reports,  specifications, maps, or other documents related to an onsite sewage system not  prepared or reviewed and approved by the licensee. 
    14. Knowingly misrepresenting factual information in expressing  a professional opinion. 
    15. Failing to act in providing professional services in a  manner that safeguards the interests of the public. 
    18VAC160-40-480. Conflicts of interest.
    The licensee shall:
    1. Promptly and fully inform an employer or client of any  business association, interest, or circumstance that may influence the  licensee's judgment of the quality of service.
    2. Not accept compensation, financial or otherwise, from  more than one party for services on or pertaining to the same project, unless  the circumstances are fully disclosed to and agreed to by all interested  parties in writing. 
    3. Neither solicit nor accept financial or other valuable  consideration from material or equipment suppliers for specifying their  products or services. 
    4. Not solicit or accept gratuities, directly or  indirectly, from contractors or their agents or other parties dealing with a  client or employer in connection with work for which the licensee is  responsible.
    18VAC160-40-490. Licensee responsibility.
    A. The primary obligation of the licensee is to the  public. If the licensee's judgment is overruled and not adhered to when  advising appropriate parties of circumstances of a substantial threat to the  public health, safety, or welfare, the licensee shall inform the employer and  client, as applicable, of the possible consequences and notify appropriate  authorities. 
    B. The licensee shall not knowingly associate in a  business venture with, or permit the use of the licensee's name by, any person  or firm where there is reason to believe that person or firm is engaging in  activity of a fraudulent or dishonest nature or is violating any law or  regulation of the board. 
    C. A licensee who has direct knowledge that another  individual or firm may be violating any of the provisions of this chapter or  the provisions of Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia shall immediately inform the board in writing and shall cooperate in  furnishing any further information or assistance that may be required.
    D. Except as provided in subsection E of this section, a  licensee shall not utilize the evaluations, design, drawings, or work of  another licensee without the knowledge and written consent of the licensee or  organization of ownership that originated the design, drawings, or work. 
    E. A licensee who relies on information in VDH files or  has received permission to modify or otherwise utilize the evaluation, design,  drawings, or work of another licensee pursuant to subsection D or E of this  section may certify that work only after a thorough review of the evaluation,  design, drawings or work and after he determines that he is willing to assume  full responsibility for all design, drawings, or work on which he relies for  his opinion. 
    18VAC160-40-500. Response to inquiry and provision of  records.
    A. A licensee must respond within 10 days to a request by  the board or any of its agents regarding any complaint filed with the  department. 
    B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a licensee of  the board shall produce to the board or any of its agents within 10 days of the  request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to  a complaint filed in which the licensee was involved, or for which the licensee  is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a  showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day  period.
    C. A licensee shall not provide a false, misleading, or  incomplete response to the board or any of its agents seeking information in  the investigation of a complaint filed with the board. 
    D. With the exception of the requirements of subsection A  or B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or its  agent within 21 days. 
    18VAC160-40-510. Master licensee's professional  responsibilities.
    A. Any work performed by a journeyman regulated pursuant  to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and  this chapter shall be under the direct supervision of the master. Such master  and journeyman shall have an employment or written contractual relationship. 
    B. Each master shall maintain documentation of the  employment or contractual relationship with each journeyman under the master's  direct supervision. Such documentation shall be kept for a minimum of five  years and shall include, at a minimum, the beginning and ending dates of the  employment or contractual relationship. 
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (18VAC160-40)
    Onsite  Soil Evaluator - License Application, A465-1940LIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Onsite  Sewage System Operator License Application, A465-1942LIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Waiver  of Examination - Master Conventional Onsite Sewage System Operator License  Application, A436-1942WAIV-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Onsite  Sewage System Installer License Application, A465-1944LIC-v3 (eff. 7/2016)
    Onsite  Sewage System Applicant Experience Verification Application, A436-19OSSPEXP-v4  (eff. 7/2016)
    Continuing  Professional Education (CPE) Application - Certificate of Completion,  A436-19CPE-v3 (eff. 10/2015)
    Training  Course Approval Application, A465-19CRS-v2 (eff. 5/2013)
    Education  and Training Substitution Form, A436-19EDTR-v3 (eff. 1/2014)
    Suspension  of Examination - License Application Conventional Onsite Sewage System  Installer, A436-1944WAIVE-v4 (eff. 8/2015)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4114; Filed November 13, 2015, 11:50 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS AND ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 18VAC160-20. Board for  Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals Regulations (repealing 18VAC160-20-10 through  18VAC160-20-150).
    18VAC160-30. Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators  Licensing Regulations (adding 18VAC160-30-10 through  18VAC160-30-370).
    18VAC160-40. Onsite Sewage System Professionals Licensing  Regulations (adding 18VAC160-40-10 through 18VAC160-40-510).
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-2301 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    January 28, 2016 - 10 a.m. - Department of Professional  and Occupational Regulation, Perimeter Center, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 200, Board  Room 2, Richmond, Virginia 23233
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Trisha Henshaw, Executive Director,  Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone  (804) 367-8595, FAX (866) 350-5354, or email waterwasteoper@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Subdivision 5 of § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia states that the board has the power and duty  "To promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process  Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) necessary to assure continued competency, to  prevent deceptive or misleading practices by practitioners and to effectively  administer the regulatory system administered by the regulatory board."
    Section 54.1-2301 of the Code of Virginia provides the  authority for the board to promulgate regulations for the licensure of onsite  sewage system professionals, waterworks operators, and wastewater works  operators. The content of the regulations is pursuant to the board's  discretion, but shall not be in conflict with the purposes of the statutory  authority.
    Section 54.1-2301 D of the Code of Virginia states that,  "The Board, in consultation with the Board of Health, shall adopt  regulations for the licensure of (i) onsite soil evaluators; (ii) installers of  alternative onsite sewage systems, as defined in § 32.1-163; and (iii)  operators of alternative onsite sewage systems, as defined in § 32.1-163.  Such regulations shall include requirements for (a) minimum education and  training, including approved training courses; (b) relevant work experience;  (c) demonstrated knowledge and skill; (d) application fees to cover the costs  of the program, renewal fees, and schedules; (e) the division of onsite soil  evaluators into classes, one of which shall be restricted to the design of  conventional onsite sewage systems; (f) the division of sewage system  installers into classes, one of which shall be restricted to the installation  of conventional onsite sewage systems; and (g) other criteria the Board deems  necessary."
    Purpose: The regulations have not undergone a thorough  and complete review since the inclusion of the onsite sewage system  professional regulations in 2009. A thorough review was necessary to ensure  that the regulation complements the current standards and practices of the  profession and ancillary agencies involved in the regulation of waterworks,  wastewater works, and onsite sewage systems; provides minimal burdens on  regulants while still protecting the public's health and safety; and reflect  current procedures and policies of the department. The regulations were  developed to achieve their intended objective in the most efficient,  cost-effective manner, and are clearly written and understandable.
    Substance: 
    1. Repeal the board's current regulations.
    2. Add new regulations that govern the practice of waterworks  and wastewater works operators to ensure minimally qualified individuals meet  requirements for licensure that are more aligned with current true-to-life education  and experience of new and renewing applicants and update certain standards of  practice as they relate to the industry.
    3. Add new regulations that govern the practice of onsite  sewage system operators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite soil  evaluators to ensure minimally qualified individuals meet requirements for  licensure that are more aligned with current true-to-life education and  experience of new and renewing applicants and update certain standards of  practice as they relate to the industry.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that the  revisions will improve the clarity of the regulations and ensure consistency  with current board practices, legal requirements, and standards of practice in  the industry all to better protect the health, safety, and welfare of citizens  of the Commonwealth.
    The primary advantage to the Commonwealth is that the revisions  to the regulations reflect the importance that Virginia places on ensuring the  regulations are the least burdensome but also provide protection to the  citizens of the Commonwealth. No disadvantages to the Commonwealth could be  identified.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board for  Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals Regulations (18VAC160-20) includes rules for licensing waterworks  and wastewater works operators and onsite sewage system professionals. The  Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals (Board) proposes to repeal this regulation and promulgate two new  regulations: 1) Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators Licensing  Requirements (18VAC160-30) for the licensing of waterworks and wastewater works  operators, and 2) Onsite Sewage System Professionals Licensing Regulations  (18VAC160-40) for the licensing of onsite sewage system professionals. As part  of this action the Board proposes several changes concerning licensure. In  particular, the Board proposes to introduce new master and journeyman  categories for onsite sewage system professional licensees.
    Result of Analysis. There is insufficient data to accurately  compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs. Detailed analysis of  the benefits and costs can be found in the next section.
    Estimated Economic Impact.1 The current regulation  includes the following licenses for onsite sewage system professionals:  conventional onsite soil evaluator, alternative onsite soil evaluator,  conventional onsite sewage system installer, alternative onsite sewage system  installer, conventional onsite sewage system operator, and alternative onsite  sewage operator. According to the Department of Professional and Occupational  Regulation, a major contention in the onsite sewage system industry –  especially among those who have been in the industry for many years (decades or  more) – has been the examination requirement for licensure. There are  apparently individuals who have learned to perform certain skills in the field  competently, but are not able to pass written tests. Due to the presence of  these long-standing individuals the Board adopted policies in 2009 for  installers, 2010/2011 for operators, and 2011 for onsite soil evaluators that  have allowed unlicensed individuals to work without a licensee present; this  has presented numerous complaints and challenges in ensuring that people  performing the regulated work are minimally competent.2 To balance  the concerns regarding the examination with the Board's duty to the public of  ensuring minimum competency of those engaging in the profession to protect the  health, safety, and welfare of the public, the Board's proposed Onsite Sewage  System Professionals Licensing Regulations (18VAC160-40) include separate  master and journeyman categories for each license listed above.3
    The "Master" is defined as "an individual who  possesses the minimum skills and competency to install or maintain onsite  sewage systems or evaluate soil sites as suitable for conventional and  alternative onsite sewage systems, and to design conventional and alternative  onsite sewage systems." The master licensure categories are essentially  equivalent to the licenses in the current regulation, with the exception that  masters will have supervisory responsibility of journeymen. Currently licensed  individuals would become masters once the proposed Onsite Sewage System  Professionals Licensing Regulations become effective. "Journeyman" is  defined as "an individual who possesses the minimum skills and competency  to assist with the installation or maintenance of onsite sewage systems or  assisting in the evaluation of soil sites as suitable for conventional and  alternative onsite sewage systems, and to design conventional onsite sewage  systems under the direct supervision of a master licensee." Unlike  masters, journeymen are not required to pass an exam.
    Code of Virginia § 54.1-2302 states that "No person shall  operate a waterworks or wastewater works, perform the duties of an onsite soil  evaluator, or install or operate an alternative onsite sewage system, without a  valid license." Enforcing the Code of Virginia and requiring individuals to  become licensed as a journeyman in order to assist with the installation or  maintenance of onsite sewage systems or assisting in the evaluation of soil  sites as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems, and  to design conventional onsite sewage systems under the direct supervision of a  master licensee will in practice cost these individuals $50 per annum ($100 for  two-year license) plus the time and dollar cost of continuing professional  education. Improper maintenance, installation, or design of onsite sewage  systems can potentially contaminate groundwater and otherwise become a public  health hazard. Licensing and regulating journeyman may reduce the health risk  for the public. The extent to which this would reduce public health risk is not  currently known.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments  affect the 4,472 licensed waterworks and wastewater works operators and 1,182  licensed onsite sewage system professionals in the Commonwealth, individuals  who have been permitted to work on onsite sewage systems without a licensee  present, the firms and public entities that employ them, as well as future  licensure applicants.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to require  journeyman licensure for individuals who assist with the installation or  maintenance of onsite sewage systems or assist in the evaluation of soil sites  as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems, and to  design conventional onsite sewage systems, may dissuade a small number of  individuals from working in the industry.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendments are unlikely to significantly affect the use and value of private  property.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: 
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. The proposal to require journeyman  licensure will moderately increase costs for those onsite sewage system  workers, and perhaps the small firms that employ them if they reimburse their  licensure fees and continuing professional education costs.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed  amendments will not adversely affect small businesses.
    Adverse Impacts: 
    Businesses: The proposal to require journeyman licensure will  moderately increase costs for those onsite sewage system workers, and perhaps  the firms that employ them if they reimburse their licensure fees and  continuing professional education costs.
    Localities: The proposed amendments are unlikely to adversely  affect localities.
    Other Entities: The proposed amendments are unlikely to  adversely affect other entities.
    _____________________________________
    1 In a separate action (Action 4141) that was initiated  prior to this action (Action 4226), the Board proposed to increase the two-year  licensure renewal fee from $80 to $100 for all waterworks and wastewater works  operators and onsite sewage system professionals. This proposed action (4226)  includes the higher renewal fees ($100); in other words, for the purposes of  this analysis it is assumed that Action 4141 will go into effect with the fee  increase prior to this action. If 4226 were to go into effect first, it would  effectively increase renewal fees for licensees by $20 per two-year licensure  period.
    2 Source: Department of Professional and Occupational  Regulation
    3 This concept is present in similarly regulated  professions, including trades (master/journeyman), water well service providers  (trainee/master/journeyman), and professional engineers and land surveyors  (in-training).
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency concurs with the analysis with approval.
    Regarding the development of master and journeyman license  categories and the concern of an adverse impact, the board considered  alternative methods of regulation to achieve the board's responsibility to  protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public through the license  mandate codified in § 54.1-2302 of the Code of Virginia1, and  reiterated in the 18VAC160-20-74 C2 effective July 1, 2009. As  referenced in the economic impact analysis, the board adopted policies during  the early implementation of the program to allow many in the industry to  continue working without a license while under the supervision of a  license-holder.
    From July 1, 2009, (the effective date of the initial onsite  sewage system professional licensing regulations) until June 30, 2010,  individuals were able to apply for a four-year, nonrenewable interim license  based on experience and training alone. Once the interim licenses ended, many  in the industry found that they would have to take a licensing examination in  order to obtain a new license and continue working in the profession. A number  of constituents sought legislative remedies3 due to concerns with  the examination. Concerns that were voiced included illiteracy, the  applicability of exam content areas, difficulty with passing an examination  after so many years, etc. An exam review of all content areas was held, with  subject matter experts from the applicable professions, to review all exam  questions, references, and applicability to the profession in late 2014. Also  in 2014, an extension (SB 657) to the interim license for alternative onsite  sewage system installers passed to allow such individuals additional time to  take and pass the examination.
    When the board was conducting a general review of its regulations,  among other important items, the board carefully considered the current license  requirements along with its statutory responsibility to protect the public. One  alternative the board considered was to require all individuals performing the  duties identified in the statute as requiring a license4, to meet  the current license requirements for the applicable classification and category  of license, which requires an examination for all license types. This would  result in an increased cost5 to all individuals requiring licensure  through application fees, examination fees, and, for some, the cost of study  classes and/or materials. Alternatively, the board decided to utilize a license  system currently in place for other, similar programs6. This would  allow those who are performing the work described in § 54.1-2302 of the  Code of Virginia, which mandates a license, but are not in a supervisory or  responsible charge capacity, to continue performing such work after having  demonstrated minimum competency to the board for a license. This also allows  the board to take disciplinary action, if necessary, against the licensee  actually performing the regulated activity as, currently, the board cannot take  disciplinary action against an individual who is performing the work but is not  a licensee of the board. As noted in the economic impact analysis for this  action, "Licensing and regulating journeyman may reduce the health risk to  the public."
    Through this revision to the regulations, the board also  provided additional options to qualify for licensure, including the acceptance  of more degree options and opportunities to qualify for licensure with  experience and training and, in some cases, no examination.
    _________________________________________
    1 "No person shall operate a waterworks or  wastewater works, perform the duties of an onsite soil evaluator, or install or  operate an alternative onsite sewage system, without a valid license."
    2 "No individual shall act as a conventional onsite  soil evaluator, alternative onsite soil evaluator, conventional onsite sewage  system installer, alternative onsite sewage system installer, conventional  onsite sewage system operator, or alternative onsite sewage system operator  without possessing a valid license issued by the board. Issuance of an  alternative license shall void the previously issued conventional license and  shall authorize the alternative licensee to perform duties on both conventional  and alternative onsite sewage systems consistent with the license category. The  board shall issue a license only after an individual has met all experience and  examination requirements as set forth in this chapter."
    3 SB 662 (2012), HB 1482 (2013), HB 253 (2014), SB 657  (2014)
    4 "No person shall . . . perform the duties of an  onsite soil evaluator, or install or operate an alternative onsite sewage  system, without a valid license."  "No individual shall act as a  conventional onsite soil evaluator, alternative onsite soil evaluator,  conventional onsite sewage system installer, alternative onsite sewage system  installer, conventional onsite sewage system operator, or alternative onsite  sewage system operator without possessing a valid license issued by the  board."
    5 Currently $100 application fee, $85 examination fee,  plus cost of renewal and continuing education to maintain the license. Licenses  are renewed every two years, which requires submittal of the renewal fee and  certification of compliance with CPE.
    6 This concept is present in similarly regulated  professions, including trades (master/journeyman), water well service providers  (trainee/master/journeyman), and professional engineers and land surveyors  (in-training).
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments repeal the existing regulations and  create two new chapters: 18VAC160-30 (regulations for the licensing of  waterworks and wastewater works operators) and 18VAC160-40 (regulations for the  licensing of onsite sewage system professionals).
    The proposed regulations include (i) definitions; (ii)  fees; (iii) standards of practice and conduct; (iv) qualifications for  licensure; (v) requirements for application, examination, continuing education,  and renewal and reinstatement of licenses; and (vi) approval and maintenance of  training courses. This proposal introduces new master and journeyman categories  for onsite sewage system professional licensees.
    CHAPTER 30
  WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS LICENSING REGULATIONS
    Part I
    Definitions
    18VAC160-30-10. Definitions.
    A. Section 54.1-2300 of the Code of Virginia provides  definitions of the following terms and phrases as used in this chapter:
    "Board"
    "Onsite sewage system"
    "Operator"
    "Owner"
    "Wastewater works 
    "Waterworks"
    B. The following words, terms, and phrases when used in  this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Applicant" means an individual who submits an  application with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
    "Application" means a completed,  board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required  documentation. 
    "Category" means a profession under the board's  purview, which includes waterworks and wastewater works as applicable to the  licensure of waterworks and wastewater works operators.
    "Classification" means the division within each  category of license as it relates to the classified facility. Class 1  represents the highest classification for each category of license. 
    "Contact hour" means 50 minutes of participation  in a structured training activity. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Professional and Occupational Regulation. 
    "DEQ" means the Virginia Department of  Environmental Quality. 
    "Direct supervision" means being immediately  available and fully responsible for the provision of waterworks and wastewater  works operation regulated pursuant to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of  Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter. 
    "Direct supervisor" means a licensed waterworks  or wastewater works operator who assumes the responsibility of direct  supervision.
    "Licensee" means an individual holding a valid  license issued by the board. 
    "Licensure" means a method of regulation whereby  the Commonwealth, through the issuance of a license, authorizes a person  possessing the character and minimum skills to engage in the practice of a  profession or occupation that without such license is unlawful to practice. 
    "Maintenance" or "maintain" means  performing adjustments to equipment and controls and in-kind replacement of  normal wear and tear parts such as light bulbs, fuses, filters, pumps, motors,  or other like components. Maintenance includes pumping the tanks or cleaning  the building sewer on a periodic basis. Maintenance shall not include  replacement of tanks, drainfield piping, or distribution boxes or work  requiring a construction permit and a licensed onsite sewage system installer. 
    "Operate" means the act of (i) placing into or  taking out of service a unit process or unit processes or (ii) making or  causing adjustments in the operation of a unit process at a treatment works. 
    "Renewal" means the process and requirements for  periodically approving the continuance of a license.
    "Training credit" means a unit of board-approved  training or formal education completed by an individual that may be used to  substitute for experience when applying for a license. 
    "Treatment works" means any device or system  used in the storage, treatment, disposal, or reclamation of sewage or  combinations of sewage and industrial wastes including, but not limited to,  pumping power and other equipment and appurtenances, septic tanks, and any  works, including land, that are or will be (i) an integral part of the  treatment processes or (ii) used for ultimate disposal or residues or effluent  resulting from such treatment. 
    "VDH" means the Virginia Department of Health. 
    Part II
    Entry
    18VAC160-30-20. Application procedures.
    A. All applicants seeking licensure shall submit an  application with the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC160-30-40. Application  shall be made on forms provided by the board or its agent.
    By submitting the application to the department, the  applicant certifies that the applicant has read and understands the applicable  statutes and the board's regulations.
    The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by  the board does not indicate approval of the application by the board.
    B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations  with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify  information supplied. All applications shall be completed in accordance with  the instructions contained herein and on the application. Applications will not  be considered complete until all required documents are received by the board.  An applicant will not be permitted to sit for the applicable board-approved  examination until the application is complete and approved.
    C. The applicant will be notified within 30 days of the  board's receipt of an initial application if the application is incomplete. An  individual who fails to complete the application process within 12 months of  receipt of the application in the board's office must submit a new application.  An applicant has 12 months from approval of the application to pass the board-approved  examination. Failure to pass the board-approved examination within 12 months of  approval will result in the applicant being required to submit a new  application to be considered for licensure.
    D. The applicant shall immediately report all changes in  information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to issuance of  the license or expiration of the application or examination period. 
    18VAC160-30-30. General fee requirements.
    All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated. The date  on which the fee is received by the department or its agent will determine  whether the fee is on time. Checks or money orders shall be made payable to the  Treasurer of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-30-40. Fee schedule.
           | Fee Type | Fee Amount | When Due | 
       | Initial application (for each profession, class, and    category of license) | $100 | With application | 
       | Renewal (for each profession, class, and category of    license) | $100 | With renewal application | 
       | Reinstatement (for each profession, class, and category    of license) | $125 (renewal fee + $25 reinstatement fee) | With reinstatement application | 
  
    18VAC160-30-50. Examination fee.
    The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to  charges to the department by an outside vendor based on a contract entered into  in compliance with Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of  the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in  accordance with this contract. 
    18VAC160-30-60. General requirements for licensure.
    A. In addition to the specific qualifications for each  category and classification of licensure, each applicant for licensure shall  meet the requirements provided in this section. 
    1. The applicant shall be at least 18 years old. 
    2. The applicant shall disclose his mailing address. A post  office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is  also provided.
    3. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of  Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information. 
    a. All felony convictions.
    b. All misdemeanor convictions in any jurisdiction that  occurred within three years of the date of application.
    Any plea of nolo contendere or finding of guilt regardless  of adjudication or deferred adjudication shall be considered a conviction for  the purposes of this section. The record of conviction certified or  authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of  the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of  such guilt. 
    B. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any  applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. The applicant shall report suspensions, revocations, or  surrendering of a license, certification, or registration in connection with a  disciplinary action or that has been the subject of discipline in any  jurisdiction prior to applying for licensure. The board, at its discretion, may  deny licensure to any applicant based on prior suspensions, revocations, or  surrender of licenses based on disciplinary action by any jurisdiction. 
    18VAC160-30-70. Examination procedures and conduct.
    A. Upon approval of the application, the board will notify  the applicant of his eligibility to take the applicable examination. The  license will not be issued prior to receipt of a passing score for the  applicable examination. 
    B. An applicant who does not receive a passing score  within one year after the date of approval of the application by the board to  sit for the examination, must submit a new application and meet the entry  requirement in effect at the time of submittal of the new application. 
    C. The applicant shall follow all rules established by the  board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such rules shall include all  written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and all  instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of  examination. Failure to comply with all rules established by the board and the  testing organization with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds  for denial of the application, voiding of examination scores, or any  combination thereof. 
    18VAC160-30-80. Individuals certified or licensed in another  jurisdiction.
    Any applicant holding a valid license or certificate in  another jurisdiction who meets the requirements of this chapter, including  having equivalent experience and education, shall pass the appropriate Virginia  examination to become licensed. 
    18VAC160-30-90. License required.
    A. No individual shall serve as an operator of a  waterworks or wastewater works without possessing a valid category of license  issued by the board in a classification equal to or greater than the  classification of the waterworks or wastewater works to be operated. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold two licenses  of different classifications in the same category. 
    C. Experience used to qualify for licensure must be  obtained under the direct supervision of an operator holding a valid license of  the same category and of a classification equal to or higher than the  classification of the waterworks or wastewater works at which the experience  was gained. 
    D. Except as provided in subsection E of this section,  experience limited solely to the operation and maintenance of wastewater  collection systems and water distribution systems, laboratory work, plant  maintenance, and other nonoperating duties shall not be counted as experience  as an operator or an operator-in-training. 
    E. Experience operating and maintaining water distribution  systems shall only be considered for Class 5 or Class 6 waterworks operator  license applicants. 
    F. Provisional licensure alone shall not authorize an  individual to serve as the operator of a classified waterworks or wastewater  works facility. 
    18VAC160-30-100. Full-time experience or equivalent.
    For the purposes of this part, experience requirements are  expressed in terms of calendar periods of full-time employment as an operator  or as an operator-in-training at a waterworks or wastewater works in the same  category for which licensure is sought.
    1. A year of full-time employment is defined as a minimum  of 1,760 hours during a 12-month period or a minimum of 220 workdays in a  12-month period. A workday is defined as attendance at a waterworks or  wastewater works to the extent required for proper operation. More than 1,760  hours or 220 workdays during a 12-month period will not be considered as more  than one year of full-time employment.
    2. Partial credit may be given for actual hours of work or  workdays experience if the applicant works as an operator or as an  operator-in-training less than full time.
     
         
          18VAC160-30-110. Qualifications for examination approval.
    A. An applicant for licensure as a waterworks or  wastewater works operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of  the following qualifications has been met.
           | TABLE 1Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Experience and Education
 | 
       | Classes | Education Required | Current License | Minimum Experience | Facility Type | Experience with Substitutions | 
       | Class 6(Waterworks Operator Only)
 | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Six months | Class 6 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 6 or higher facility | N/A | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 5(Waterworks Operator Only)
 | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Six months | Class 5 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 5 or higher facility | N/A | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 4 | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Six months | Class 4 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 4 or higher facility | N/A | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 3 | Bachelor's or master's degree | N/A | Six months | Class 4 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | Associate's degree | N/A | Nine months | Class 4 or higher facility | Six months | 
       | High school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 4 or higher facility | Six months | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | Class 4 license | Three years | Class 3 or higher facility | One and one-half years | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 2 | Bachelor's or master's degree | N/A | One year | Class 3 or higher facility | Six months | 
       | Associate's degree | N/A | 18 months | Class 3 or higher facility | Nine months | 
       | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Two years | Class 3 or higher facility | One year | 
       | No High school diploma or GED | Class 3 license | Five years | Class 2 or higher facility | Three and one-half years | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 1 | Bachelor's or master's degree | Class 2 license | Two years | Class 2 or higher facility | One year | 
       | Associate's degree | Class 2 license | Three years | Class 2 or higher facility | One and one-half years | 
       | High school diploma or GED | Class 2 license | Four years | Class 2 or higher facility | Two years | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | Class 2 license | Nine years | Class 2 or higher facility | Four and one-half years | 
       | Where applicable, the current license held, minimum    experience, and the facility type must coincide with the category of license    for which the application is being submitted. | 
  
         
          B. The direct supervisor shall certify the experience on  the application form as accurate and relevant to the classification and  category of license for which is being submitted. In the event that a licensed  operator is not available to certify the experience of the applicant, the  experience may be certified by a representative of the facility owner with  first-hand knowledge of the applicant's experience. 
    18VAC160-30-120. Provisional licensure for nonclassified  facility operation.
    An applicant for licensure as a provisional waterworks or  wastewater works operator shall furnish acceptable documentation of having met  all of the requirements of 18VAC160-30-110 except that the experience  requirement may be met through experience gained as an operator or operator-in-training  of a nonclassified facility. Such experience must be gained under the following  conditions:
    1. The experience is obtained at a nonclassified facility  that is comparable in size and in treatment process as described in  18VAC160-30-360 and 18VAC160-30-370, as applicable. 
    2. The experience is obtained while performing  nonclassified facility operation duties that provide experience comparable to  that obtained at a classified facility. Experience limited solely to the  operation and maintenance of wastewater collection systems and water  distribution systems, laboratory work, plant maintenance, and other  nonoperating duties shall not be counted as qualifying experience for Class 1,  Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 provisional licenses but may be counted for a  provisional Class 5 or Class 6 license.
    3. Any individual holding a provisional license may apply  for licensure by submitting evidence of having met 50% of the experience  required by 18VAC160-30-110 and submitting the appropriate application. 
    18VAC160-30-130. Experience substitutions.
    A. Experience obtained as a master alternative onsite  sewage system operator may be substituted for the Class 4 wastewater works  operator in training experience requirements. 
    B. 18VAC160-30-110 A provides the maximum experience  substitutions that may be applied for each applicable class of license. 
    1. Experience gained in either waterworks or wastewater  works operations may be substituted for up to one-half of the required  experience in the alternate category so long as the experience was gained in an  equivalent or higher class of facility. 
    2. Education may be substituted for part of the required  experience in the category of license applied for at a rate of one month of  experience credit for each semester hour of college credit. Coursework must be  relevant to the category and classification of the license being sought. The  college credit must be from an accredited college or university that is  approved or accredited by the Commission of Colleges, a regional or national  accreditation association, or by an accreditation agency that is recognized by  the U.S. Secretary of Education. 
    3. Board-approved waterworks or wastewater works operator  training may be substituted for experience at a rate of one month experience  for each training credit approved by the board. 
    C. Substitutions shall not exceed 50% of the total  experience required for licensure. 
    18VAC160-30-140. Education.
    A. Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on  completion of an associate's, bachelor's, or master's degree shall submit an  official transcript from the school where the applicable degree was obtained.  Only degrees from an accredited college or university that is approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges, a regional or national accreditation  association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S.  Secretary of Education will be considered. Formal education used to meet a  specific education requirement for license entry cannot also be used as a  training credit for experience substitution.
    B. The following degrees shall be considered to qualify in  accordance with 18VAC160-30-110:
    1. Bachelor's or master's degree in engineering or  engineering technology in a related physical, biological, environmental, or  chemical science;
    2. Bachelor's degree in a related physical, biological,  environmental, or chemical science that includes a minimum 40 semester credit  hours in any combination of science and math;
    3. Master's degree in a related physical, biological,  environmental, or chemical science, and a bachelor's degree in any major such  that the combined degrees include a minimum 40 semester credit hours in any  combination of science and math; or
    4. Associate's degree in waterworks, in wastewater works,  or in a related physical, biological, environmental, or chemical science that  includes a minimum of 20 credit hours in any combination of science and math.
    Part III
  Renewal and Reinstatement
    18VAC160-30-150. Expiration and renewal.
    A. Licenses for waterworks operators shall expire on the  last day of February of each odd-numbered year. Licenses for wastewater works  operators shall expire on the last day of February of each even-numbered year.
    B. Prior to the expiration date shown on the license, the  board shall mail a renewal notice to the licensee's address of record. The  licensee shall return to the board a renewal notice and the applicable renewal  fee. Failure to receive a renewal notice from the board does not relieve the  licensee of the obligation to renew. If the licensee fails to receive the  renewal notice, a copy of the license may be submitted with the required fee as  an application for renewal. 
    C. By submitting the renewal or reinstatement fee, the  licensee is certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice  and Conduct (Part VI (18VAC160-30-290 et seq.) of this chapter), as established  by the board. In addition, by submitting the renewal or reinstatement fee,  licensees are certifying compliance with the continuing professional education  requirements of this chapter. 
    18VAC160-30-160. Reinstatement.
    A. If all of the requirements for renewal of the license  as specified in 18VAC160-30-150 are not completed within 30 days of the license  expiration date, a reinstatement fee shall be required as established in 18VAC160-30-40.
    B. A license may be reinstated for up to one year  following the expiration date of the license. Any licensee who fails to  reinstate the license within 12 months after the expiration date shall apply  for a new license and meet entry requirements in effect at the time of the  submittal of the new application. Such individual shall be deemed to be  eligible to sit for the examination for the same category and classification of  license as the expired license. 
    C. Any regulated activity conducted subsequent to the  license expiration date may constitute unlicensed activity and be subject to  the prosecution under Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-30-170. Status of license during period prior to  reinstatement.
    A licensee who applies for reinstatement of the license  shall be subject to all laws and regulations as if the licensee had been  continuously licensed. The licensee shall remain under and be subject to the  disciplinary authority of the board during this entire period. 
    18VAC160-30-180. Board discretion to deny renewal or  reinstatement.
    The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license  for the same reasons as the board may refuse initial licensure or discipline a  licensee. 
    The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license  if the licensee has been subject to a disciplinary proceeding and has not met  the terms of an agreement for licensure, has not satisfied all sanctions, or  has not fully paid monetary penalties and costs, imposed by the board.
    Part IV
  Continuing Professional Education
    18VAC160-30-190. Continuing professional education.
    A. Each licensee shall have completed the following number  of continuing professional education (CPE) contact hours during each renewal  cycle. CPE provisions do not apply for the renewal of licenses that were held  for less than two years on the date of expiration
    1. Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 waterworks and wastewater  works operators shall obtain a minimum of 20 contact hours.
    2. Class 4 waterworks and wastewater works operators shall  obtain a minimum of 16 contact hours.
    3. Class 5 waterworks operators shall obtain a minimum of  eight contact hours.
    4. Class 6 operators shall obtain a minimum of four contact  hours. 
    B. CPE contact hours completed during the license period  immediately prior to the expiration date of the license shall be acceptable in  order to renew the license. CPE contact hours completed during a licensing  renewal cycle to satisfy the CPE requirements of the preceding licensing  renewal cycle shall be valid only for that preceding license renewal cycle and  shall not be accepted for any subsequent renewal cycles. 
    C. The licensee will not receive CPE credit for completing  the same continuing education course with the same content more than once during  a license period.
    D. A licensee may receive CPE credit for teaching a course  that otherwise meets the requirements of this chapter; however, additional  credit shall not be given for subsequent offerings of a course or activity with  the same content within the same licensing cycle. In addition, a licensee may  receive two hours of CPE no more than once during a single licensing cycle for  the initial development or substantial updating of the CPE course.
    E. Safety subjects shall not count for more than one half  of the total required CPE hours.
    18VAC160-30-200. CPE subject matter for waterworks  operators.
    A. The following course topics will be accepted for CPE  credit for waterworks operators:
    1. Waterworks operations;
    2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment  processes and systems;
    3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    4. Security and safety procedures;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative processes and procedures applicable to  licensure; and
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession.
    B. Of the total 20 hours required, a minimum of five  content hours pertaining to utility management is required of Class 1 and Class  2 waterworks operators. 
    18VAC160-30-210. CPE subject matter for wastewater works  operators.
    A. The following course topics will be accepted for CPE  credit for wastewater works operators:
    1. Wastewater works operations;
    2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment  processes and systems;
    3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    4. Security and safety procedures;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative processes and procedures applicable to  licensure; and
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession.
    B. Of the total 20 hours required, a minimum of five  content hours pertaining to utility management is required of Class 1 and Class  2 wastewater works operators. 
    18VAC160-30-220. Use of training credits and formal  education for CPE credit.
    Any course approved by the board for substitution as  training credits or formal education semester hours, as provided for in Part V  (18VAC160-30-240 et seq.) of this chapter, shall also be acceptable on an  hour-for-hour basis for CPE contact hours. One semester hour of college credit  shall equal 15 CPE contact hours, and one-quarter hour of college credit shall  equal 10 CPE credit hours.
    18VAC160-30-230. Maintenance of CPE.
    A. For a period of at least two years following the end of  the license renewal cycle for which the CPE was taken, the following evidence  shall be maintained to document completion of the required hours of CPE:
    1. Evidence of completion of a structured training  activity, which shall consist of the name, address, and telephone number of the  sponsor;
    2. The dates the licensee participated in the training;
    3. Description of the subject matter presented; and
    4. A statement from the sponsor verifying the number of  hours completed. 
    B. The board may conduct an audit of its licensees to  ensure compliance with the applicable CPE requirements. Licensees who are  selected for audit shall provide the necessary documentation stipulated in this  section.
    Part V
  Training Course Approval
    18VAC160-30-240. Approval of training courses.
    A. Training courses may be substituted for experience  pursuant to the provisions of Part II (18VAC160-30-20 et seq.) of this chapter.  With the exception of training courses provided pursuant to 18VAC160-30-280,  training courses that may be substituted for required experience must be  approved by the board prior to commencing.
    B. Each training provider seeking course approval shall  submit an application for approval on a form provided by the board. Training  courses for which experience credit may be granted must be conducted in general  conformance with the guidelines of the International Association for Continuing  Education and Training (association). The board reserves the right to waive any  of the requirements of the association's guidelines on a case-by-case basis.  Only classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time will be used to compute  training credits. No credit will be given for breaks, meals, or receptions. 
    1. Organization. The board will only approve training  offered by a sponsor that is an identifiable organization with a mission  statement outlining its functions, structure, process, and philosophy and that  has a staff of one or more persons with the authority to administer and  coordinate a training course. 
    2. Training course records. The board will only approve  training offered by a sponsor that maintains training course records for all  participants for a minimum of seven years and that has a written policy on  retention and release of training course records. 
    3. Instructors. The board will only approve training  conducted by personnel who have demonstrated competence in the subject being  taught, an understanding of the learning objective, and knowledge of the  learning process to be used. 
    4. Objectives. The board will only approve courses that  have a series of stated objectives that are pertinent to the tasks performed by  a licensee. The training course content must be consistent with those  objectives. 
    5. Course completion requirements. For successful  completion of a training course, participants must attend 90% or more of the  class contact time and must demonstrate their learning through written  examinations, completion of a project, oral examination, or other similar  assessment technique.
    18VAC160-30-250. Application for training course approval.
    A.  The board shall consider the following  information, to be submitted by the course sponsor or instructor on forms  provided by the board: 
    1. Course information. 
    a. Course title; 
    b. Planned audience; 
    c. Name of sponsor; 
    d. Name, physical address, email address, and phone number  of contact person; 
    e. Scheduled presentation dates; 
    f. Detailed course schedule, hour-by-hour, including start  and ending times;
    g. List of planned breaks; 
    h. Scheduled presentation location; and 
    i. Identification of the category and classification of  license to which the course is applicable and relevancy to the identified  license type. 
    2. Instructor qualifications. 
    a. Name of instructor; 
    b. Title;
    c. Employer; 
    d. Board license number or numbers, if applicable; and 
    e. Summary of qualifications to teach the course. 
    3. Training materials. 
    a. Course objectives. A listing of the course objectives  stated in terms of the skills and knowledge the participant will be able to  demonstrate as a result of the training. 
    b. Course outline. A detailed outline showing the planned  activities that will occur during the training course, including major topics,  planned presentation sequence, laboratory and field activities, audiovisual  presentation, and other major activities. 
    c. Course reference materials. A list of the name,  publisher, and publication date for commercially available publications. For  reference materials developed by the course sponsor or available exclusively  through the course, a copy of the reference. 
    d. Audiovisual support materials. A listing of any  commercially available audiovisual support material that will be used in the  program. A brief description of any sponsor or instructor generated audiovisual  material that will be used. 
    e. Handouts. Identification of all commercially available  handout materials that will be used, as well as copies of all other planned  handouts. 
    4. Determination of successful completion. A description of  the means that will be used to assess the learning of each participant to  determine successful completion of the training program, such as examinations,  projects, personal evaluations by the instructor, or other recognized  evaluation techniques. Correspondence and other distance learning courses must  include appropriate testing procedures to verify completion of the course.
    B. Recurring training programs. If there are plans to  present the same course of instruction routinely at multiple locations with  only minor modifications and changes, the board may approve the overall program  rather than individual presentations if so requested by the sponsor. 
    1. The board shall consider all of the information listed  in subsection A of this section except those items related to specific  offerings of the course.
    2. Board approval will apply only to those specific  offerings certified by the sponsoring organization as having been conducted by  instructors meeting the established criteria and in accordance with the  board-approved course outlines and objectives.
    18VAC160-30-260. Maintenance of training approval.
    A. At times established by the board, the board may  require that course providers that have previously obtained course approval  provide the board with evidence, in a form set forth by the board, that the  provider continues to comply with the requirements of this chapter. Failure to  continue to comply with the board's requirements or respond to such a request  may result in the board withdrawing its approval. 
    B. Substantial modifications or changes to the information  provided in 18VAC160-30-240 and 18VAC160-30-250 must be reported to the board  within 30 days of the change. Failure to report the changes as required may  result in the withdrawal of approval by the board.
    C. Any change of the address of the training provider  shall be reported in writing within 30 days of the change.
    D. The board may conduct an audit of the training provider  to ensure compliance with this chapter.
    18VAC160-30-270. Withdrawal of approval.
    The board may withdraw approval of any provider for the  following reasons: 
    1. The courses being offered no longer meet the standards  established by the board. 
    2. The provider, through an agent or otherwise, advertises  its services in a fraudulent or deceptive way. 
    3. The provider, instructor, or designee of the provider  falsifies any information relating to the application for approval, course  information, and student records.
    4. The provider fails to respond to the board or any of its  agents.
    18VAC160-30-280. Training courses offered by certain  entities; board approval not required.
    A. Training courses provided by (i) federal, state, or  local government agencies; (ii) accredited colleges or universities approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges; (iii) a regional or national  accreditation association; or (iv) an accrediting agency that is recognized by  the U.S. Secretary of Education do not require board approval to be used for  experience substitution, provided the training course information submitted to  the board includes the following:
    1. The course must include the continuing education units  awarded by the entity.
    2. The course must be related to the license category and  classification, if applicable, for which experience substitution is sought.
    B. The board may request additional information from the  provider as necessary to ensure compliance with this section. If such assurance  cannot be made by the board, the training course may not be used for experience  substitution, or the provider may pursue board approval pursuant to this  chapter.
    Part VI
  Standards of Practice and Conduct
    18VAC160-30-290. Grounds for disciplinary action.
    The board may place a licensee on probation; impose a  monetary penalty in accordance with § 54.1-202 A of the Code of Virginia;  or revoke, suspend, or refuse to renew any license when the licensee has been  found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of  the regulations of the board or Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1  of the Code of Virginia.
    18VAC160-30-300. Maintenance of license.
    A. No license issued by the board shall be assigned or  otherwise transferred. 
    B. A licensee shall report, in writing, all changes of  address and name to the board within 30 days of the change and shall return the  license to the board. In addition to the address of record, a physical address  is required for each license. If the licensee holds more than one license, the  licensee shall inform the board of all licenses, certificates, and  registrations affected by the address change. The board shall not be  responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices or correspondence due  to the licensee's failure to report a change of address.
    C. Any change in any of the requirements and  qualifications for licensure found in Part II (18VAC160-30-20 et seq.) or Part  III (18VAC160-30-150 et seq.) of this chapter shall be reported to the board  within 30 days of the change.
    18VAC160-30-310. Notice of adverse action.
    A. Licensees shall notify the board of the following  actions against the licensee: 
    1. Any disciplinary action taken by any jurisdiction,  board, or administrative body of competent jurisdiction, including but not  limited to any reprimand, license or certificate revocation, suspension or  denial, monetary penalty, requirement for remedial education, or other  corrective action. 
    2. Any voluntary surrendering of a related license,  certificate, or registration done in connection with a disciplinary action in  another jurisdiction.
    3. Any conviction, finding of guilt, or plea of guilty,  regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication, in any jurisdiction of the  United States of any misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, stealing, sexual  offense, drug distribution, or physical injury or relating to the practice of  the profession, or of any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the  time for appeal having lapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the  requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo  contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this section.
    B. The notice must be made to the board in writing within  30 days of the action. A copy of the order or other supporting documentation  must accompany the notice. The record of conviction, finding, or case decision  shall be considered prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt.
    18VAC160-30-320. Prohibited acts.
    The following acts are prohibited and any violation may  result in disciplinary action by the board:
    1. Violating, inducing another to violate, cooperating with  another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent,  partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1  (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), or 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et  seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or any of the regulations of the  board. 
    2. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by  another.
    3. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license by false or  fraudulent representation, or maintaining or renewing a license by false or  fraudulent representation.
    4. A licensee having been convicted, found guilty, or  disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in  18VAC160-30-310. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of  § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
    5. Failing to inform the board in writing within 30 days  that the licensee was convicted, found guilty, or disciplined in any  jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC160-30-310.
    6. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or  application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of  the licensee's duties. 
    7. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional  assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education,  experience, training, or any combination thereof.
    8. Failing to report a change as required by  18VAC160-30-300.
    9. Negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice  of the profession.
    10. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of  fraud or deceit in providing professional services. 
    11. Failing to adequately supervise and review work  performed by licensed or unlicensed employees under direct supervision of the  licensee.
    12. Submitting or recording or assisting another in the  submission or recording of false or misleading operational information relating  to the performance and monitoring requirements of a waterworks or wastewater  works.
    13. Failing to act in providing waterworks and wastewater  works operator services in a manner that safeguards the interests of the  public.
    18VAC160-30-330. Conflicts of interest.
    The licensee shall: 
    1. Promptly and fully inform an employer or client of any  business association, interest, or circumstance that may influence the  licensee's judgment or the quality of service.
    2. Not accept compensation, financial or otherwise, from  more than one party for services on or pertaining to the same project, unless  the circumstances are fully disclosed to and agreed to by all interested  parties in writing.
    3. Neither solicit nor accept financial or other valuable  consideration from material or equipment suppliers for specifying their  products or services.
    4. Not solicit or accept gratuities, directly or  indirectly, from contractors or their agents or other parties dealing with a  client or employer in connection with work for which the licensee is responsible.  
    18VAC160-30-340. Licensee responsibility.
    A. The primary obligation of the licensee is to the  public. If the licensee's judgment is overruled and not adhered to when  advising appropriate parties of circumstances of a substantial threat to the  public health, safety, or welfare, the licensee shall inform the employer or  client, as applicable, of the possible consequences and notify appropriate  authorities. 
    B. The licensee shall not knowingly associate in a  business venture with, or permit the use of the licensee's name by, any person  where there is reason to believe that person is engaging in activity of a  fraudulent or dishonest nature or is violating any law or regulation of the  board. 
    C. A licensee who has direct knowledge that another  individual may be violating any of the provisions of this chapter or the  provisions of Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia shall immediately inform the board in writing and shall cooperate in  furnishing any further information or assistance that may be required. 
    18VAC160-30-350. Response to inquiry and provision of  records.
    A. A licensee must respond within 10 days to a request by  the board or any of its agents regarding any complaint filed with the  department.
    B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a licensee of  the board shall produce to the board or any of its agents within 10 days of the  request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to  a complaint filed in which the licensee was involved, or for which the licensee  is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a  showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day  period. 
    C. A licensee shall not provide a false, misleading, or  incomplete response to the board or any of its agents seeking information in  the investigation of a complaint filed with the board.
    D. With the exception of the requirements of subsections A  and B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or  its agent within 21 days.
    18VAC160-30-360. Wastewater works.
    A. A Class 4 wastewater works licensee may operate any  wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works employing biological mechanical  methods (i.e., mechanical treatment process defined as those containing aerated  and mixed flows using electrical or outside energy sources) with a design  hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000 gallons per day but equal to or less than  .04 MGD; 
    2. A wastewater works employing natural treatment methods  (referenced in 9VAC25-790-870 as land treatment utilizing a secondary process  for pretreatment followed by irrigation, overland flow  infiltration-percolation, or combination thereof or aquatic ponds or  constructed wetlands) with a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000  gallons per day but equal to or less than 1.0 MGD; or
    3. Any other wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a  Class 4 wastewater works. 
    B. A Class 3 wastewater  works licensee may operate any wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods  consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated  lagoons, (iii) constructed wetlands, (iv) filters or other attached growth  contractors, (v) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, or (vi)  processes utilizing land treatment having a design hydraulic capacity greater  than 0.04 MGD, but equal to or less than 0.5 MGD;
    2. A wastewater works using natural treatment methods  (referenced in 9VAC25-790-870 as land treatment utilizing a secondary process  for pretreatment followed by irrigation, overland flow  infiltration-percolation, or combination thereof or aquatic ponds or  constructed wetlands) with a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1.0 MGD;
    3. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment  methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breakpoint  chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v)  flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, or (viii) demineralization  (i.e., ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) having a design  hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000 gallons per day but equal to or less than  0.1 MGD; or
    4. A wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class 3  or Class 4 wastewater works facility. 
    C. A Class 2 wastewater works licensee may operate any  wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods  consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated  lagoons or constructed wetlands, (iii) filters or other attached growth  contactors, (iv) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, or (v)  processes utilizing land application having a design hydraulic capacity greater  than 0.5 MGD but equal to or less than 5.0 MGD;
    2. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment  methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breakpoint  chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v)  flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, (viii) demineralization (i.e.,  ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) and having a hydraulic  capacity greater than 0.1 MGD but equal to or less than 2.5 MGD; or
    3. A wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class  2, Class 3, or Class 4 wastewater works. 
    D. A Class 1 wastewater works licensee may operate any  wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods  consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated  lagoons or constructed wetlands, (iii) filters or other attached growth  contactors, (iv) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, (v) processes  utilizing land treatment and having a hydraulic capacity greater than 5.0 MGD;
    2. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment  methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breaking  chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v)  flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, (viii) demineralization  (i.e., ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) and having a design  capacity greater than 2.5 MGD;
    3. A wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class  1, Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 wastewater works.
    18VAC160-30-370. Waterworks.
    A. A Class 6 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks serving fewer than 400 persons that  provides no treatment or employs one or more of the following treatment  processes: (i) hypochlorination for disinfection, (ii) corrosion control with  calcite or magnesium oxide contactors or solution feed except with caustic, or  (iii) sequestration by solution feed; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 6 waterworks.
    B. A Class 5 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks serving 400 or more persons that provides  no treatment or employs one or more of the following treatment processes: (i)  hypochlorination for disinfection, (ii) corrosion control with calcite or  magnesium oxide contactors or solution feed except with caustic, or (iii)  sequestration by solution feed; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 5 waterworks.
    C. A Class 4 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than  5,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity of less than 0.5 MGD and  employing one or more of the following: (i) disinfection other than with  hypochlorination, (ii) caustic soda feed, (iii) iron and manganese removal,  (iv) ion exchange, (v) slow sand filtration, (vi) aeration, (vii)  rechlorination other than with hypochlorination, (viii) activated carbon  contactors, (ix) membrane or other filtration technologies without chemical  coagulation, or (x) fluoridation with a saturator; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 4 waterworks. 
    D. A Class 3 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than  5,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity less than 0.5 MGD,  whichever is greater, and employing conventional filtration or chemical  coagulation in combination with membrane filtration;
    2. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 5,000 or more  persons or having a treatment facility capacity of 0.5 MGD or more, whichever  is greater, and employing one or more of the following: (i) disinfection other  than with hypochlorination, (ii) caustic soda feed, (iii) iron and manganese  removal, (iv) ion exchange, (v) slow sand filtration, (vi) aeration, (vii)  rechlorination other than with hypochlorination, (viii) activated carbon contactors,  (ix) membrane or other filtration technologies without chemical coagulation, or  (x) fluoridation with a saturator or acid feed;
    3. A waterworks or treatment facility employing  fluoridation with other than a saturator not considered a Class 1 or Class 2  waterworks; or
    4. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 3 waterworks. 
    E. A Class 2 waterworks  licensee may operate any waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 5,000 or more  persons but fewer than 50,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity  of 0.5 MGD or more but less than 5.0 MGD, whichever range applies, and  employing rapid rate conventional filtration chemical coagulation in  combination with membrane filtration;
    2. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than  50,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity of less than 5.0 MGD  employing high rate conventional  filtration; or
    3. A waterworks classified by the VDH as a Class 2  waterworks.
    F. A Class 1 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 50,000 or  more persons or having a treatment facility capacity of 5.0 MGD or more and  employing conventional filtration or chemical coagulation in combination with  membrane filtration; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 1 waterworks.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (18VAC160-30)
    Waterworks  Operator License Application, A436-1955LIC-v3 (eff. 7/2016)
    Provisional  Waterworks Operator License Application, A436-1955PLIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Wastewater  Works Operator License Application, A436-1965LIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Provisional  Wastewater Works Operator License Application, A436-1965PLIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Waterworks  and Wastewater Works Operator - Upgrade Provisional License Application,  A436-1955_65UPG-v3 (eff. 7/2016)
    Out-of-State  Facility Description and Experience Verification Application, A436-19STATE_EXP-v3  (eff. 4/2015)
    Waterworks  and Wastewater Works Operator Experience Verification Application,  A436-19WWEXP-v3 (eff. 1/2014)
    Provisional  Description and Experience Verification Application, A436-1955_65PEXP-v3 (eff.  12/2014)
    Continuing  Professional Education (CPE) Application - Certificate of Completion,  A436-19CPE-v3 (eff. 10/2015)
    Training  Course Approval Application, A465-19CRS-v2 (eff. 5/2013)
    Education  and Training Substitution Form, A436-19EDTR-v3 (eff. 1/2014)
    CHAPTER 40
  ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS LICENSING REGULATIONS
    Part I
  Definitions
    18VAC160-40-10. Definitions.
    A. Section 54.1-2300 of the Code of Virginia provides  definitions of the following terms and phrases as used in this chapter:
    "Board"
    "Onsite sewage system"
    "Operator"
    "Wastewater works"
    B. The following words, terms, and phrases when used in  this chapter shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise:
    "Alternative onsite sewage system" means a  treatment works that is not a conventional onsite sewage system and does not  result in a point source discharge.
    "Alternative onsite sewage system installer"  means an individual licensed by the board to construct, install, and repair  conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems. 
    "Alternative onsite sewage system operator"  means an individual licensed by the board to operate and maintain conventional  and alternative onsite sewage systems. 
    "Alternative onsite soil evaluator" means an  individual licensed by the board to evaluate soils and soil properties in  relationship to the effect of these properties on the use and management of  these soils and the locations for conventional and alternative onsite sewage  systems, to certify in accordance with applicable state regulations and local  ordinances that sites are suitable for conventional and alternative onsite  sewage systems, and to design conventional and alternative onsite sewage  systems suitable for the soils. 
    "Applicant" means an individual who submits an  application with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
    "Application" means a completed,  board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required  documentation. 
    "Authorized onsite soil evaluator" means an  individual holding an authorized onsite soil evaluator certification issued by  the Virginia Department of Health that was valid on June 30, 2009. 
    "Category" means journeyman or master as applicable  to the professionals under the board's purview. 
    "Class" means conventional or alternative as  applicable to the professionals under the board's purview. 
    "Contact hour" means 50 minutes of participation  in a structured training activity. 
    "Conventional onsite sewage system" means a  treatment works consisting of one or more septic tanks with gravity, pumped, or  siphoned conveyance to a gravity distributed subsurface drainfield. 
    "Conventional onsite sewage system installer"  means an individual licensed by the board to construct, install, and repair  conventional onsite sewage systems. 
    "Conventional onsite sewage system operator"  means an individual licensed by the board to operate and maintain a  conventional onsite sewage system.
    "Conventional onsite soil evaluator" means an  individual licensed by the board to evaluate soils and soil properties in  relationship to the effects of these properties on the use and management of  these soils as the locations for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems,  to certify in accordance with applicable state regulations and local ordinances  that sites are suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems,  and to design conventional onsite sewage systems suitable for the soils. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Professional and Occupational Regulation. 
    "Direct supervision" means being immediately  available and fully responsible for the provision of onsite sewage system  services regulated pursuant to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1  and this chapter. 
    "Interim license" refers to the initial issuance  of professional licenses during the implementation of the onsite sewage system  professional licensure program. Such licenses were limited to four years and  not renewable. 
    "Journeyman" means an individual who possesses  the minimum skills and competency to assist with the installation or  maintenance of onsite sewage systems or assist in the evaluation of soil sites  as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems and to  design conventional onsite sewage systems under the direct supervision of a  master licensee.
    "Licensee" means an individual holding a valid  license issued by the board. 
    "Licensure" means a method of regulation whereby  the Commonwealth, through the issuance of a license, authorizes a person  possessing the character and minimum skills to engage in the practice of a  profession or occupation that without such license is unlawful to practice. 
    "Maintenance" or "maintain" means  performing adjustments to equipment and controls and in-kind replacement of  normal wear and tear parts such as light bulbs, fuses, filters, pumps, motors,  or other like components. Maintenance includes pumping the tanks or cleaning  the building sewer on a periodic basis. Maintenance shall not include  replacement of tanks, drainfield piping, or distribution boxes or work  requiring a construction permit and a licensed onsite sewage system installer. 
    "Master" means an individual who possess the  minimum skills and competency to install or maintain onsite sewage system or  evaluate soil sites as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage  systems and to design conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems. 
    "Operate" means the act of (i) placing into or  taking out of service a unit process or unit processes or (ii) making or  causing adjustments in the operation of a unit process at a treatment works. 
    "Profession" means the practice of onsite soil  evaluation, onsite sewage system installation, and onsite sewage system  operation. 
    "Professional" means an onsite sewage system  installer, onsite sewage system operator, or onsite soil evaluator who is  licensed pursuant to the provisions of this chapter and is in good standing  with the board to practice his profession in this Commonwealth. 
    "Renewal" means the process and requirements for  periodically approving the continuance of a license.
    "Sewage" means water-carried and  nonwater-carried human excrement or kitchen, laundry, shower, bath, or lavatory  wastes separately or together with such underground, surface, storm, or other  water and liquid industrial wastes as may be present from residences,  buildings, vehicles, industrial establishments, or other places. 
    "Training credit" means a unit of board-approved  training or formal education completed by an individual that may be used to  substitute for experience when applying for a license. 
    "Treatment works" means any device or system  used in the storage, treatment, disposal, or reclamation of sewage or  combinations of sewage and industrial wastes including, but not limited to,  pumping power and other equipment and appurtenances, septic tanks and any  works, including land, that are or will be (i) an integral part of the  treatment processes or (ii) used for ultimate disposal or residues or effluent  resulting from such treatment. 
    "VDH" means the Virginia Department of Health. 
    Part II
  Entry
    18VAC160-40-20. Application procedures.
    A. All applicants seeking licensure shall submit an  application with the appropriate fee in 18VAC160-40-40. Applications shall be  made on forms provided by the board. 
    By submitting the application to the department, the  applicant certified that the applicant has read and understands the applicable  statutes and the board's regulations. 
    The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by  the board does not indicate approval of the application by the board. 
    B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations  with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify  information supplied. All applications shall be completed in accordance with  the instructions contained herein and on the application. Applications will not  be considered complete until all required documents are received by the board.  If an examination is required for licensure, the applicant will not be  permitted to sit for the applicable board-approved examination until the  application is complete and approved. 
    C. The applicant will be notified within 30 days of the  board's receipt of an initial application if the application is incomplete. An  individual who fails to complete the process within 12 months of receipt of the  application in the board's office must submit a new application. If applicable,  the applicant has 12 months from approval of the application to pass the  board-approved examination. Failure to pass the board-approved examination  within 12 months of approval will result in the applicant being required to  submit a new application to be considered for licensure. 
    D. The applicant shall immediately report all changes in  information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to the issuance  of the license or expiration of the application or examination period. 
    18VAC160-40-30. General fee requirements.
    All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated. The  date on which the fee is received by the department or its agent will determine  whether the fee is on time. Checks or money orders shall be made payable to the  Treasurer of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-40-40. Fee schedule.
           | Fee Type | Fee Amount | When Due | 
       | Initial application (for each profession, class, and    category of license) | $100 | With application | 
       | Renewal (for each profession, class, and category of    license) | $100 | With renewal application | 
       | Reinstatement (for each profession, class, and category    of license) | $125 (renewal fee + $25 reinstatement fee) | With reinstatement application | 
  
    18VAC160-40-50. Examination fee.
    The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to  charges to the department by an outside vendor based on a contract entered into  in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq.  of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in  accordance with this contract. 
    18VAC160-40-60. General requirements for licensure.
    A. In addition to the specific qualifications for each  profession, class, and category of licensure, each applicant for licensure  shall meet the requirements provided in this section:
    1. The applicant shall be at least 18 years old. 
    2. The applicant shall disclose his mailing address. A post  office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is  provided. 
    3. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia,  each applicant shall disclose the following information:
    a. All felony convictions.
    b. All misdemeanor convictions that occurred within three  years of the date of application. 
    Any plea of nolo contendere or finding of guilt regardless  of adjudication or deferred adjudication shall be considered a conviction for  the purposes of this section. The record of conviction certified or  authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of  the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of  such guilt. 
    B. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any  applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. The applicant shall report suspensions, revocations, or  surrendering of a license, certification, or registration in connection with a  disciplinary action or that has been subject of discipline in any jurisdiction  prior to applying for licensure. The board at its discretion may deny licensure  to any applicant based on prior suspensions, revocations, or surrender or  licenses based on disciplinary action by any jurisdiction. 
    18VAC160-40-70. Education and training for experience.
    A. Each individual applying for a license may receive  credit for up to half of the required experience for:
    1. Satisfactory completion of postsecondary courses in  wastewater, biology, chemistry, geology, hydraulics, hydrogeology, or soil  science at the rate of one month per semester hour or two-thirds of a month per  quarter hour; or
    2. Satisfactory completion of board-approved onsite sewage  system installer or operator or onsite soil evaluation training courses, as  applicable to the license sought, at the rate of one month for each training  credit earned. Up to one training credit is awarded for each 10 hours of  classroom contact time or for each 20 hours of laboratory exercises and field  trip contact time. Training credit is not earned for breaks, meals, receptions,  and time other than classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time. 
    B. Education used to meet the education requirements to  qualify for licensure may not be substituted for experience. 
    18VAC160-40-80. Examination procedures and conduct.
    A. Upon approval of the application, the board will notify  the applicant of his eligibility to take the applicable examination. The  license will not be issued prior to the receipt of a passing score for the  applicable examination. 
    B. An applicant who does not receive a passing score  within one year after the date of approval of the application by the board to  sit for the examination must submit a new application and meet entry  requirements in effect at the time of the submittal of the new application. 
    C. In those instances where the applicant is required to  take an examination for licensure, the applicant shall follow all rules  established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such rules  shall include written instructions communicated prior to the examination date  and instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date  of the examination. Failure to comply with all rules established by the board  and the testing organization with regard to conduct at the examination shall be  grounds for denial of the application, voiding of examination scores, or any  combination thereof.
    18VAC160-40-90. Individuals certified or licensed in another  jurisdiction.
    Any applicant holding a valid license or certificate in  another jurisdiction shall meet the requirements of this chapter, including  having equivalent experience and education. The applicant shall pass the  appropriate Virginia examination in those instances where an examination for  licensure is required. 
    18VAC160-40-100. Full-time experience or equivalent.
    For the purpose of this part, experience requirements are  expressed in terms of calendar periods of full-time employment as an operator,  installer, or onsite soil evaluator in the same class for which licensure is  sought. 
    1. A year of full-time employment is defined as a minimum  of 1,760 hours during a 12-month period or a minimum of 220 workdays in a  12-month period. A workday is defined as performing or assisting in the duties  of an installer, operator, or onsite soil evaluator to the extent required for  the proper installation or maintenance of onsite sewage systems or the  evaluation of soil and soil properties for suitability as locations for onsite  sewage systems. More than 1,760 hours or 220 workdays during a 12-month period  will not be considered as more than one year of full-time employment. 
    2. Partial credit may be given for actual hours of work or  workdays experience if the applicant works less than full time. 
    Part III
  Onsite Sewage System Installers
    18VAC160-40-110. License required.
    A. No individual shall install a conventional or  alternative onsite sewage system without a valid master onsite sewage system  installer license issued by the board. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid master  and journeyman onsite sewage system installer licenses in the same class.  Issuance of a master onsite sewage system installer license in a specific class  shall void the journeyman onsite sewage system installer license in the same  class. 
    C. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid  conventional and alternative master onsite sewage system installer licenses or  convention and alternative journeyman licenses. Issuance of a master  alternative onsite sewage system installer license shall void the conventional  onsite sewage system installer license. 
    D. A journeyman onsite sewage system installer must work  under the direct supervision of a licensed master onsite sewage system  installer. A master onsite sewage system installer is responsible for supervising  the provision of onsite sewage system installations by any journeyman onsite  sewage system installers under his direct supervision.
    E. Experience used to qualify for licensure cannot be  verified by a journeyman onsite sewage system installer. 
     
         
          18VAC160-40-120. Qualifications for journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one  of the following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director,    or officer of a properly licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system    (SDS) specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors | No | No | Six months of full-time    experience assisting with the installation of conventional or alternative    onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an onsite    soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer,    or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 2. | None | No | No | One year of full-time experience assisting with the    installation of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage    system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-130. Qualifications for master conventional  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master conventional onsite  sewage system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director, or officer of a properly    licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system (SDS) specialty issued by    the Virginia Board for Contractors  | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board covering basic    installation of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems | One year of full-time experience installing conventional    or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 2.  | Employee, owner, director, or officer of a properly    licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system (SDS) specialty issued by    the Virginia Board for Contractors | Yes | No | Two years of full-time experience installing conventional    or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 3. | Interim installer or journeyman license | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board covering basic    installation of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems | Two years of full-time experience installing conventional    or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 4. | Interim installer or journeyman installer license | Yes | No | Three years of full-time experience installing    conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of    the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-140. Qualification for exemption from  examination for master conventional onsite sewage system installer applicants.
    Applicants seeking licensure as a conventional onsite  sewage system installer may be exempt from the examination, provided the board  receives the applicable application before July 1, 2016, and the applicant:
    1. Is able to satisfactorily demonstrate that he has been  actively engaged in performing the duties of a conventional onsite sewage  system installer for at least eight years within the 12-year period immediately  preceding the date of the application. Documentation of qualifying experience  may be verified by a conventional or alternative onsite soil evaluator, a  conventional or alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional  engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July  1, 2009; and
    2. Meets the requirements of 18VAC160-40-60.
    18VAC160-40-150. Qualifications for journeyman alternative  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as an alternative onsite sewage  system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director,    or officer of a properly licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system    (SDS) specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors  | No | No | One year of full-time    experience assisting with the installation of alternative onsite sewage    systems verified by one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil    evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009 | 
       | 2. | None | No | No | Two years of full-time    experience assisting with the installation of alternative onsite sewage    systems verified by one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil    evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-160. Qualifications for master alternative  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master alternative onsite  sewage system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director,    or officer of a properly licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system    (SDS) specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors | Yes | No | Two years of full-time    experience installing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or    more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative    onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | 20 hours of training    approved by the board covering basic installation of alternative onsite    sewage systems | Three years of full-time    experience installing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or    more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative    onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 3. | Interim alternative onsite sewage system installer or conventional    onsite sewage system installer license | Yes | No | 18 months of full-time experience installing alternative onsite sewage    systems verified by one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil    evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009 | 
       | 4. | No | Yes | 20 hours of training    approved by the board covering the basic installation of alternative onsite    sewage systems | 18 months of full-time    experience installing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or    more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative    onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    Part IV
  Onsite Sewage System Operators
    18VAC160-40-170. License required.
    A. No individual shall operate a conventional or  alternative onsite sewage system without a valid master onsite sewage system  operator license issued by the board. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid master  and onsite sewage system operator licenses in the same class. Issuance of a  master onsite sewage system operator license in a specific class shall void the  journeyman onsite sewage system operator license in the same class. 
    C. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid  conventional and alternative onsite sewage system operator licenses or  conventional and alternative journeyman onsite sewage system operator licenses.  Issuance of a master alternative onsite sewage system operator license shall  void the conventional onsite sewage system operator license. 
    D. A journeyman onsite sewage system operator must work  under the direct supervision of a licensed master onsite sewage system  operator. An onsite sewage system operator is responsible for supervising the  operation of the onsite sewage system by any journeyman onsite sewage system  operator under his responsibility. 
    E. Experience used to qualify for licensure cannot be  verified by a journeyman onsite sewage system operator. 
    18VAC160-40-180. Qualifications for journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that the  following qualification has been met:
           | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | None | No | No | Six months of full-time    experience assisting with the operation and maintenance of conventional or    alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following:    an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system operator, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009  | 
  
    18VAC160-40-190. Qualifications for master conventional  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master conventional onsite  sewage system operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Wastewater works operator license | Yes | No | None | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | 10 hours of education approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of conventional onsite sewage systems | Six months of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 3.  | No | Yes | No | One year of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-200. Qualification for exemption from  examination for master conventional onsite sewage system operator applicants.
    Applicants seeking licensure as a master conventional  onsite sewage system operator may be exempt from the examination provided the  applicant:
    1. Is able to satisfactorily demonstrate that he has been  actively engaged in performing the duties of a conventional onsite sewage  system operator for at least four years. Documentation of qualifying experience  may be verified by a conventional or alternative soil evaluation, a  conventional or alternative onsite sewage system operator, a professional  engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July  1, 2009; and 
    2. Meets the requirements of 18VAC160-40-60.
    18VAC160-40-210. Qualifications for journeyman alternative  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman alternative  onsite sewage operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | None | No | 20 hours of education approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | One year of full-time experience assisting with the    operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an    alternative sewage system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 2. | None | No | None | Two years of full-time experience assisting with the    operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an    alternative sewage system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-220. Qualifications for master alternative  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master alternative onsite  sewage system operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Held or holds a conventional onsite sewage system    operator license | Yes | 10 hours of training approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | One year of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 2. | Held or holds a conventional onsite sewage system    operator license | Yes | No | One year of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 3. | None | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | Two years of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 4. | Wastewater works operator license | Yes | No | Six months of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 5. | Wastewater works operator license | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board in basics of    operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | No | 
  
    Part V
  Onsite Soil Evaluator
    18VAC160-40-230. License required.
    A. Notwithstanding the provisions of Chapter 4 (§ 54.1-400  et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, no individual shall evaluate  soils and soil properties for suitability as locations for or design  conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems without possessing a valid  license issued by the board. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold master and  journeyman onsite soil evaluator licenses in the same class. Issuance of a  master onsite soil evaluator license in a specific class shall void the  journeyman onsite soil evaluator license in the same class. 
    C. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid  conventional and alternative onsite soil evaluator licenses or conventional and  alternative journeyman onsite soil evaluator licenses. Issuance of an  alternative master onsite soil evaluator license shall void the conventional  onsite soil evaluator license. 
    D. A journeyman onsite soil evaluator must work under the  direct supervision of a master onsite soil evaluator. A master onsite soil  evaluator of an equal or greater class is responsible for supervising the  provision of onsite soil evaluations and designs by any journeyman onsite soil  evaluator under his responsibility. 
    E. Experience to qualify for licensure cannot be verified  by a journeyman onsite soil evaluator. 
    18VAC160-40-240. Qualifications for journeyman conventional  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman conventional  onsite soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Virginia professional soil scientist license | No | No | No | 
       | 2. | No | No | No | One and one-half years of full-time experience assisting    in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design of conventional    onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized    soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer,    or an onsite soil evaluator  | 
       | 3. | No | No | VDH onsite system training | One year of full-time experience assisting in the    evaluation of site and soil conditions and design of conventional onsite    sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or    an onsite soil evaluator | 
  
    18VAC160-40-250. Qualifications for master conventional  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master conventional onsite  soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following  qualifications has been met:
           |   | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | No | Yes | Master's or bachelor's degree | One and one-half years of full-time experience evaluating    site and soil conditions and designing conventional onsite sewage systems    verified by one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator    certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an onsite    soil evaluator  | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | Associate's degree | Three years of full-time    experience evaluating site and soil conditions and designing conventional    onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional    engineer, or an onsite soil evaluator | 
       | 3. | No | Yes | VDH onsite sewage system program | Two years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing conventional onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an onsite soil    evaluator | 
       | 4. | Journeyman or interim conventional onsite soil evaluator | Yes | No | Three years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing conventional onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an onsite soil    evaluator | 
  
    18VAC160-40-260. Qualifications for journeyman alternative  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman alternative  onsite soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been meet:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Virginia professional soil scientist license | No | No | One year of full-time experience assisting in the    evaluation of site and soil conditions and design of alternative onsite    sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized onsite    soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer,    or an alternative soil evaluator  | 
       | 2. | Possess or held either a    valid interim alternative onsite soil evaluator license or a conventional    onsite soil evaluator license | No | No | One year of full-time    experience assisting in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design    of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative soil evaluator | 
       | 3. | An authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | No | No | One year of full-time    experience assisting in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design    of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative soil evaluator | 
       | 4. | No | No | No | Two years of full-time    experience assisting in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design    of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative soil evaluator | 
  
    18VAC160-40-270. Qualifications for master alternative  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master alternative onsite  soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following  qualifications has been met: 
           |   | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | No | Yes | Master's or bachelor's degree | One and one-half years of full-time experience evaluating    site and soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems    verified by one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator    certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an    alternative onsite soil evaluator  | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | Associate's degree | Three years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
       | 3. | Held or holds a conventional onsite soil evaluator    license | Yes | No | Two years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
       | 4. | No | Yes | No | Three years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
       | 5. | An authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH    before July 1, 2009 | Yes | No | Two years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
  
         
          18VAC160-40-280. Acceptable degree programs and verification  procedures.
    A. Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on  completion of an associate's, bachelor's, or master's degree shall submit an  official transcript form the school where the applicable degree was obtained.  Only degrees from an accredited college or university that is approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges, a regional or national accreditation  association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S.  Secretary of Education will be considered. The following degrees shall be  considered to qualify in accordance with 18VAC160-40-250 and 18VAC160-40-270:
    1. Bachelor's or master's degree in soil science, biology,  chemistry, engineering, environmental science, geology, agronomy, earth  science, or environmental health.
    2. Associate's degree in wastewater works, environmental  science, or engineering technology.
    3. Bachelor's degree in a related physical, biological,  environmental, or chemical science that includes a minimum of 40 semester  credit hours in any combination of science and math.
    B. Any applicant who has earned a degree from an  institution outside of the United States shall have the degree authenticated  and evaluated by an education credential evaluation services. The board  reserves the right to reject any evaluation submitted by the applicant. 
    Part VI
  Renewal and Reinstatement
    18VAC160-40-290. Expiration and renewal.
    A. A license shall expire two years from the last day of  the month in which it was issued. 
    B. Prior to the expiration date shown on the license, the  board shall mail a renewal notice to the licensee's address of record. The  licensee shall return a renewal notice and the applicable renewal fee. Failure  to receive a renewal notice from the board does not relieve the licensee of the  obligation to renew. If the licensee fails to receive the renewal notice, a  copy of the license may be submitted with the required fee as an application  for renewal. 
    C. By submitting the renewal fee, the licensee is  certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice and Conduct  (Part VI (18VAC160-40-440 et seq.) of this chapter) as established by the  board. In addition, by submitting the renewal fee, licensees are certifying  compliance with the continuing professional education requirements of this  chapter. 
    18VAC160-40-300. Reinstatement.
    A. If all the requirements for renewal of the license as  specified in 18VAC160-40-290 are not completed within 30 days of the license  expiration date, a reinstatement fee shall be required as established in  18VAC160-40-40.
    B. A license may be reinstated for up to one year  following the expiration date of the license. Any licensee who fails to  reinstate the license within 12 months after the expiration date shall apply  for a new license and meet entry requirements in effect at the time of  submittal of the new application. The individual shall be deemed to be eligible  to sit for the examination for the same profession, class, and category of  license as the expired license, if an examination is applicable. 
    C. By submitting the reinstatement fee, the licensee is  certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice and Conduct  (Part VI (18VAC160-40-440 et seq.) of this chapter) as established by the  board. In addition, by submitting the reinstatement fee, licensees are certifying  compliance with the continued professional education requirements of this  chapter. 
    D. Any regulated activity conducted subsequent to the  license expiration date may constitute unlicensed activity and be subject to  prosecution under Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et eq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    18VAC160-40-310. Status of license during period prior to  reinstatement.
    A licensee who applies for reinstatement of the license  shall be subject to all laws and regulations as if the regulant had been  continuously licensed. The licensee shall remain under and be subject to the  disciplinary authority of the board during the entire period. 
    18VAC160-40-320. Board discretion to deny renewal or  reinstatement.
    A. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of license  for the same reasons as the board may refuse initial licensure or discipline a  licensee. 
    B. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a  licensee if the licensee has been subject to a disciplinary proceeding and has  not met the terms of an agreement for licensure, has not satisfied all  sanctions, or has not fully paid monetary penalties and costs imposed by the  board. 
    Part VII
  Continuing Professional Education
    18VAC160-40-330. Continuing professional education.
    A. Each licensee shall have completed the following number  of continuing professional education (CPE) contact hours during each renewal  cycle. CPE provisions do not apply to licenses that were held for less than two  years on the date of expiration. 
    1. Master alternative and conventional onsite soil  evaluators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite sewage system operators  shall obtain a minimum of 20 contact hours.
    2. Journeyman alternative and conventional onsite soil  evaluators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite sewage system operators  shall obtain a minimum of 10 contact hours. 
    B. CPE courses completed during the license period  immediately prior to the expiration date of the license shall be acceptable in  order to renew the license. CPE courses completed during a license renewal  cycle to satisfy the CPE requirements of the preceding licensing renewal cycle  shall be valid only for that preceding license renewal cycle and shall not be  accepted for subsequent renewal cycles. 
    C. The licensee will not receive credit for completing the  same CPE course with the same content more than once during a license period. 
    D. A licensee may receive CPE credit for teaching a course  that otherwise meets the requirements of this chapter; however, additional  credit shall not be given for subsequent offering of a course or activity with  the same content within the same licensing cycle. In addition a licensee may  receive two hours of CPE no more than once during a single licensing cycle for  the initial development or substantial updating of a CPE course. 
    E. For all licenses, safety subjects shall not count for  more than one half of the total required CPE hours. 
    18VAC160-40-340. CPE subject matter for onsite sewage system  installers.
    The following course topics will be accepted for CPE  credit for onsite sewage installers:
    1. Sewage system installation;
    2. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    3. Security and safety procedures;
    4. General science and mathematical principles;
    5. Administrative knowledge and procedures applicable to  the profession;
    6. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession;
    7. Monitoring, evaluating and adjusting treatment processes  (alternative onsite sewage system installers only); and
    8. Management and supervision principles (master onsite  sewage system installer only, maximum of five credit hours).
    18VAC160-40-350. CPE subject matter for onsite sewage system  operators.
    The following course topics will be accepted for credit  for onsite sewage system operators:
    1. Onsite system operations;
    2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment  processes;
    3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    4. Security and safety procedures;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative knowledge applicable to the profession;
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession; and
    8. Management and supervision principles (applicable to  master onsite sewage system operations only, maximum of five credit hours).
    18VAC160-40-360. CPE subject matter for onsite soil evaluators.
    The following course topics will be accepted for  credit for onsite soil evaluators:
    1. Site and soil evaluations;
    2. Security and safety procedures;
    3. System design;
    4. Inspections;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative knowledge and procedures applicable to  the profession;
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession; and
    8. Management and supervision principles (applicable to  master onsite soil evaluators only, maximum of five contact hours).
    18VAC160-40-370. Use of training credits and formal  education for CPE credit.
    Any course approved by the board for substitution as  training credits or formal education semester hours, as provided for in  18VAC160-40-70 or 18VAC160-40-280, shall also be acceptable on an hour-for-hour  basis for CPE contact hours. One semester hour of college credit shall equal 15  CPE contact hours, and one-quarter hour of college credit shall equal 10 CPE  hours. The training credits or formal education must be applicable to the  license for which CPE credit is sought. 
    18VAC160-40-380. Maintenance of CPE.
    A. For a period of at least two years following the end of  the license renewal cycle for which the CPE was taken, the following evidence  shall be maintained to document completion of the required CPE.
    1. Evidence of completion of a structured training  activity, which shall consist of the name, address, and telephone number of the  sponsor;
    2. The dates the licensee participated in the training;
    3. Description of the subject matter presented; and 
    4. A statement from the sponsor verifying the number of  hours completed.
    B. The board may conduct an audit of its licensees to  ensure compliance with the applicable CPE requirements. Licensees who are  selected for audit shall provide the necessary documentation stipulated in this  section. 
    Part VIII
  Training Course Approval
    18VAC160-40-390. Approval of training courses.
    A. Training courses may be substituted for experience  pursuant to the provisions of 18VAC160-40-70. With the exception of training  courses provided pursuant to 18VAC160-40-330, training courses that may be  substituted for required experience must be approved by the board prior to  commencing in accordance with the provisions of this section.
    B. Each training provider seeking course approval shall  submit an application for approval on a form provided by the board. Training  courses for which experience credit may be granted must be conducted in general  conformance with the guidelines of the International Association for Continued  Education and Training (association). The board reserves the right to waive any  of the requirements of the association's guidelines on a case-by-case basis.  Only classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time will be used to compute  training credits. No credit will be given for breaks, meals, or receptions. 
    1. Organization. The board will only approve training  offered by a sponsor that is an identifiable organization with a mission  statement outlining its functions structure, process, and philosophy and that  has a staff of one or more persons with the authority to administer and  coordinate the training course. 
    2. Training course records. The board will only approve  training offered by a sponsor that maintains records for all participants for a  minimum of seven years and that has a written policy on retention and release  of records. 
    3. Instructors. The board will only approve training  conducted by personnel who have demonstrated competency in the subject being  taught, an understanding of the learning objective, and knowledge of the  learning process to be used. 
    4. Objectives. The board will only approve courses that  have a series of stated objectives that are pertinent to the tasks performed by  the licensee. The training course content must be consistent with those  objectives. 
    5. Course completion requirements. For successful  completion of a training course, participants must attend 90% or more of the  class contact time and must demonstrate their learning through written  examinations, completion of a project, oral examination, or other similar  assessment techniques. 
    18VAC160-40-400. Application for training course approval.
    A. The board shall consider the following information, to  be submitted by the course sponsor or instructor on forms provided by the  board:
    1. Course information.
    a. Course title;
    b. Planned audience;
    c. Name of sponsor;
    d. Name, physical address, email address, and phone number  of contact person;
    e. Scheduled presentation dates;
    f. Detailed course schedule, hour-by-hour including begin  and end times;
    g. List of planned breaks;
    h. Scheduled presentation location; and
    i. Identification of the profession, category, and class of  license to which the course is applicable and relevancy to the identified  license type.
    2. Instructor qualifications.
    a. Name of instructor;
    b. Title;
    c. Employer;
    d. Board license number or numbers, if applicable; and
    e. Summary of qualifications to teach the course.
    3. Training materials.
    a. Course objectives. A listing of the course objectives  stated in terms of the skills and knowledge the participant will be able to  demonstrate as a result of the training. 
    b. Course outline. A detailed outline showing the planned  activities that will occur during the training course, including major topics,  planned presentation sequence, laboratory and field activities, audiovisual  presentations, and other major activities. 
    c. Course reference materials. A list of the name,  publisher, and publication date for commercially available publications. For  reference materials developed by the course sponsor or available exclusively  through the course, a copy of the reference. 
    d. Audiovisual support materials. A listing of any  commercially available audiovisual support material that will be used in the  program. A brief description of any sponsor or instructor generated audiovisual  material that will be used. 
    e. Handouts. Identification of all commercially available  handout materials that will be used, as well as copies other planned handouts. 
    4. Determination of successful completion. A description of  the means that will be used to assess the learning of each participant to  determine successful completion of training program, such as examinations,  projects, personal evaluations by the instructor, or other recognized  evaluation techniques. Correspondence and other distance learning courses must  include appropriate testing procedures to verify completion of the course. 
    B. Recurring training programs. If there are plans to  present the same course of instruction routinely at multiple locations with  only minor modifications and changes, the board may approve the overall program  rather than individual presentations if so required by the sponsor. 
    1. The board shall consider all of the information listed  in subsection A of this section except those items related to specific  offerings of the course.
    2. Board approval will apply only to those specific  offerings certified by the sponsoring organization as having been conducted by  instructors meeting the established criteria and in accordance with the  board-approved course outlines and objectives. 
    18VAC160-40-410. Maintenance of training course approval.
    A. At times established by the board, the board may  require that course providers that have previously obtained course approval  provide the board with evidence, in a form set forth by the board, that the  provider continues to comply with the requirements of this chapter. Failure to  continue to comply with the board's requirements or respond to such a request  may result in the board withdrawing its approval. 
    B. Substantial modifications or changes to the information  provided in 18VAC160-40-390 and 18VAC160-40-400 must be reported to the board  within 30 days of the change. Failure to report the changes as required may  result in the withdrawal of approval by the board. 
    C. Any change of address of the training provider shall be  reported in writing within 30 days of the change. 
    D. The board may conduct an audit of the training provider  to ensure continued compliance with this chapter. 
    18VAC160-40-420. Withdrawal of approval.
    The board may withdraw approval of any provider for the  following reasons:
    1. The course or courses being offered no longer meet the  standards established by the board. 
    2. The provider, through an agent or otherwise, advertises  its services in a fraudulent or deceptive way.
    3. The provider, instructor, or designee of the provider  falsifies any information relating to the application for approval, course  information, or student records. 
    4. The provider fails to respond to the board or any of its  agents.
    18VAC160-40-430. Training course offered by certain  entities, board approval not required.
    A. Training courses provided by (i) federal, state, or  local government agencies; (ii) accredited colleges or universities approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges; (iii) a regional or national  accreditation association; or (iv) an accrediting agency that is recognized by  the U.S. Secretary of Education do not require board approval to be used for  experience substitution, provided the training course information submitted to  the board includes the following:
    1. The course must include the continuing education hours  awarded by the entity.
    2. The course must be related to the profession, category,  or class, if applicable, for which experience substitution is sought.
    B. The board may require additional information from the  provider as necessary to ensure compliance with this section. If such assurance  cannot be made by the board, the training course may not be used for experience  substitution, or the provider may pursue board approval pursuant to this  chapter. 
    Part IX
  Standards of Practice and Conduct
    18VAC160-40-440. Grounds for disciplinary action.
    The board may place a licensee on probation; impose a  monetary penalty in accordance in § 54.1-202 A of the Code of Virginia; or  revoke, suspend, or refuse to renew any license when the licensee has been  found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of  the regulations of the board or Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et.seq.) of Title 54.1  of the Code of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-40-450. Maintenance of license.
    A. No license issued by the board shall be assigned or  otherwise transferred. 
    B. A licensee shall report, in writing, all changes of the  address of record and name to the board within 30 days of the change and shall  return the license to the board. In addition to the address of record, a  physical address is required for each license. If the licensee holds more than  one license, the licensee shall inform the board of all licenses, certificates,  and registrations affected by the name or address change. The board shall not  be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices or correspondence  due to the licensee's failure to report a change of name or address.
    C. Any change in any of the requirements and  qualifications for licensure found in Part II (18VAC160-40-20 et seq.), III  (18VAC160-40-110 et seq.), or IV (18VAC160-40-170 et seq.) of this chapter  shall be reported to the board within 30 days of the change. 
    18VAC160-40-460. Notice of adverse action.
    A. Licensees shall notify the board of the following  actions against the licensee. 
    1. Any disciplinary action taken by any jurisdiction,  board, or administrative body of competent jurisdiction, including but not  limited to any reprimand, license or certificate revocation, suspension or  denial, monetary penalty, requirement for remedial education, or other  corrective action. 
    2. Any voluntary surrendering of a related license,  certificate, or registration done in connection with a disciplinary action in  another jurisdiction. 
    3. Any conviction, finding of guilt, or plea of guilty,  regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication, in any jurisdiction of the  United States of any misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, stealing, sexual  offense, drug distribution, physical injury, or relating to the practice of the  profession or of any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the  time for appeal having lapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the  requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo  contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this section. 
    B. Notices to the board must be made in writing within 30  days of the action. A copy of the order or other supporting documentation must  accompany the notice. The record of conviction finding or case decision shall be  considered prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt.
    18VAC160-40-470. Prohibited acts.
    The following acts are prohibited and any violation may  result in disciplinary action by the board:
    1. Violating, inducing another to violate, cooperating with  another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent,  partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1  (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), or 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.)  of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or any of the regulations of the board. 
    2. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by  another. 
    3. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license by false or  fraudulent representation, or maintaining or renewing a license by false or  fraudulent representation. 
    4. A licensee having been convicted, found guilty, or  disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in  18VAC160-40-460. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of  § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    5. Failing to inform the board in writing within 30 days  that the licensee was convicted or found guilty or disciplined in any  jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC160-40-460. 
    6. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or  application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of  the licensee's duties. 
    7. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional  assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education,  experience, training, or any combination thereof. 
    8. Failing to report a change as required by  18VAC160-40-450.
    9. Negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice  of the profession. 
    10. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of  fraud or deceit in advertising, soliciting, or in providing professional  services. 
    11. Failing to adequately supervise and review work performed  by unlicensed employees or journeyman licensees under the direct supervision of  the master licensee. 
    12. Failure to obtain any permit, approval, or other  document required by VDH related to the design, installation, repair, or  operation of an onsite sewage system. 
    13. Knowingly signing plans, drawings, reports,  specifications, maps, or other documents related to an onsite sewage system not  prepared or reviewed and approved by the licensee. 
    14. Knowingly misrepresenting factual information in expressing  a professional opinion. 
    15. Failing to act in providing professional services in a  manner that safeguards the interests of the public. 
    18VAC160-40-480. Conflicts of interest.
    The licensee shall:
    1. Promptly and fully inform an employer or client of any  business association, interest, or circumstance that may influence the  licensee's judgment of the quality of service.
    2. Not accept compensation, financial or otherwise, from  more than one party for services on or pertaining to the same project, unless  the circumstances are fully disclosed to and agreed to by all interested  parties in writing. 
    3. Neither solicit nor accept financial or other valuable  consideration from material or equipment suppliers for specifying their  products or services. 
    4. Not solicit or accept gratuities, directly or  indirectly, from contractors or their agents or other parties dealing with a  client or employer in connection with work for which the licensee is  responsible.
    18VAC160-40-490. Licensee responsibility.
    A. The primary obligation of the licensee is to the  public. If the licensee's judgment is overruled and not adhered to when  advising appropriate parties of circumstances of a substantial threat to the  public health, safety, or welfare, the licensee shall inform the employer and  client, as applicable, of the possible consequences and notify appropriate  authorities. 
    B. The licensee shall not knowingly associate in a  business venture with, or permit the use of the licensee's name by, any person  or firm where there is reason to believe that person or firm is engaging in  activity of a fraudulent or dishonest nature or is violating any law or  regulation of the board. 
    C. A licensee who has direct knowledge that another  individual or firm may be violating any of the provisions of this chapter or  the provisions of Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia shall immediately inform the board in writing and shall cooperate in  furnishing any further information or assistance that may be required.
    D. Except as provided in subsection E of this section, a  licensee shall not utilize the evaluations, design, drawings, or work of  another licensee without the knowledge and written consent of the licensee or  organization of ownership that originated the design, drawings, or work. 
    E. A licensee who relies on information in VDH files or  has received permission to modify or otherwise utilize the evaluation, design,  drawings, or work of another licensee pursuant to subsection D or E of this  section may certify that work only after a thorough review of the evaluation,  design, drawings or work and after he determines that he is willing to assume  full responsibility for all design, drawings, or work on which he relies for  his opinion. 
    18VAC160-40-500. Response to inquiry and provision of  records.
    A. A licensee must respond within 10 days to a request by  the board or any of its agents regarding any complaint filed with the  department. 
    B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a licensee of  the board shall produce to the board or any of its agents within 10 days of the  request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to  a complaint filed in which the licensee was involved, or for which the licensee  is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a  showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day  period.
    C. A licensee shall not provide a false, misleading, or  incomplete response to the board or any of its agents seeking information in  the investigation of a complaint filed with the board. 
    D. With the exception of the requirements of subsection A  or B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or its  agent within 21 days. 
    18VAC160-40-510. Master licensee's professional  responsibilities.
    A. Any work performed by a journeyman regulated pursuant  to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and  this chapter shall be under the direct supervision of the master. Such master  and journeyman shall have an employment or written contractual relationship. 
    B. Each master shall maintain documentation of the  employment or contractual relationship with each journeyman under the master's  direct supervision. Such documentation shall be kept for a minimum of five  years and shall include, at a minimum, the beginning and ending dates of the  employment or contractual relationship. 
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (18VAC160-40)
    Onsite  Soil Evaluator - License Application, A465-1940LIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Onsite  Sewage System Operator License Application, A465-1942LIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Waiver  of Examination - Master Conventional Onsite Sewage System Operator License  Application, A436-1942WAIV-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Onsite  Sewage System Installer License Application, A465-1944LIC-v3 (eff. 7/2016)
    Onsite  Sewage System Applicant Experience Verification Application, A436-19OSSPEXP-v4  (eff. 7/2016)
    Continuing  Professional Education (CPE) Application - Certificate of Completion,  A436-19CPE-v3 (eff. 10/2015)
    Training  Course Approval Application, A465-19CRS-v2 (eff. 5/2013)
    Education  and Training Substitution Form, A436-19EDTR-v3 (eff. 1/2014)
    Suspension  of Examination - License Application Conventional Onsite Sewage System  Installer, A436-1944WAIVE-v4 (eff. 8/2015)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4114; Filed November 13, 2015, 11:50 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS AND ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 18VAC160-20. Board for  Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals Regulations (repealing 18VAC160-20-10 through  18VAC160-20-150).
    18VAC160-30. Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators  Licensing Regulations (adding 18VAC160-30-10 through  18VAC160-30-370).
    18VAC160-40. Onsite Sewage System Professionals Licensing  Regulations (adding 18VAC160-40-10 through 18VAC160-40-510).
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-2301 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    January 28, 2016 - 10 a.m. - Department of Professional  and Occupational Regulation, Perimeter Center, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 200, Board  Room 2, Richmond, Virginia 23233
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Trisha Henshaw, Executive Director,  Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone  (804) 367-8595, FAX (866) 350-5354, or email waterwasteoper@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Subdivision 5 of § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia states that the board has the power and duty  "To promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process  Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) necessary to assure continued competency, to  prevent deceptive or misleading practices by practitioners and to effectively  administer the regulatory system administered by the regulatory board."
    Section 54.1-2301 of the Code of Virginia provides the  authority for the board to promulgate regulations for the licensure of onsite  sewage system professionals, waterworks operators, and wastewater works  operators. The content of the regulations is pursuant to the board's  discretion, but shall not be in conflict with the purposes of the statutory  authority.
    Section 54.1-2301 D of the Code of Virginia states that,  "The Board, in consultation with the Board of Health, shall adopt  regulations for the licensure of (i) onsite soil evaluators; (ii) installers of  alternative onsite sewage systems, as defined in § 32.1-163; and (iii)  operators of alternative onsite sewage systems, as defined in § 32.1-163.  Such regulations shall include requirements for (a) minimum education and  training, including approved training courses; (b) relevant work experience;  (c) demonstrated knowledge and skill; (d) application fees to cover the costs  of the program, renewal fees, and schedules; (e) the division of onsite soil  evaluators into classes, one of which shall be restricted to the design of  conventional onsite sewage systems; (f) the division of sewage system  installers into classes, one of which shall be restricted to the installation  of conventional onsite sewage systems; and (g) other criteria the Board deems  necessary."
    Purpose: The regulations have not undergone a thorough  and complete review since the inclusion of the onsite sewage system  professional regulations in 2009. A thorough review was necessary to ensure  that the regulation complements the current standards and practices of the  profession and ancillary agencies involved in the regulation of waterworks,  wastewater works, and onsite sewage systems; provides minimal burdens on  regulants while still protecting the public's health and safety; and reflect  current procedures and policies of the department. The regulations were  developed to achieve their intended objective in the most efficient,  cost-effective manner, and are clearly written and understandable.
    Substance: 
    1. Repeal the board's current regulations.
    2. Add new regulations that govern the practice of waterworks  and wastewater works operators to ensure minimally qualified individuals meet  requirements for licensure that are more aligned with current true-to-life education  and experience of new and renewing applicants and update certain standards of  practice as they relate to the industry.
    3. Add new regulations that govern the practice of onsite  sewage system operators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite soil  evaluators to ensure minimally qualified individuals meet requirements for  licensure that are more aligned with current true-to-life education and  experience of new and renewing applicants and update certain standards of  practice as they relate to the industry.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that the  revisions will improve the clarity of the regulations and ensure consistency  with current board practices, legal requirements, and standards of practice in  the industry all to better protect the health, safety, and welfare of citizens  of the Commonwealth.
    The primary advantage to the Commonwealth is that the revisions  to the regulations reflect the importance that Virginia places on ensuring the  regulations are the least burdensome but also provide protection to the  citizens of the Commonwealth. No disadvantages to the Commonwealth could be  identified.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board for  Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals Regulations (18VAC160-20) includes rules for licensing waterworks  and wastewater works operators and onsite sewage system professionals. The  Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System  Professionals (Board) proposes to repeal this regulation and promulgate two new  regulations: 1) Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators Licensing  Requirements (18VAC160-30) for the licensing of waterworks and wastewater works  operators, and 2) Onsite Sewage System Professionals Licensing Regulations  (18VAC160-40) for the licensing of onsite sewage system professionals. As part  of this action the Board proposes several changes concerning licensure. In  particular, the Board proposes to introduce new master and journeyman  categories for onsite sewage system professional licensees.
    Result of Analysis. There is insufficient data to accurately  compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs. Detailed analysis of  the benefits and costs can be found in the next section.
    Estimated Economic Impact.1 The current regulation  includes the following licenses for onsite sewage system professionals:  conventional onsite soil evaluator, alternative onsite soil evaluator,  conventional onsite sewage system installer, alternative onsite sewage system  installer, conventional onsite sewage system operator, and alternative onsite  sewage operator. According to the Department of Professional and Occupational  Regulation, a major contention in the onsite sewage system industry –  especially among those who have been in the industry for many years (decades or  more) – has been the examination requirement for licensure. There are  apparently individuals who have learned to perform certain skills in the field  competently, but are not able to pass written tests. Due to the presence of  these long-standing individuals the Board adopted policies in 2009 for  installers, 2010/2011 for operators, and 2011 for onsite soil evaluators that  have allowed unlicensed individuals to work without a licensee present; this  has presented numerous complaints and challenges in ensuring that people  performing the regulated work are minimally competent.2 To balance  the concerns regarding the examination with the Board's duty to the public of  ensuring minimum competency of those engaging in the profession to protect the  health, safety, and welfare of the public, the Board's proposed Onsite Sewage  System Professionals Licensing Regulations (18VAC160-40) include separate  master and journeyman categories for each license listed above.3
    The "Master" is defined as "an individual who  possesses the minimum skills and competency to install or maintain onsite  sewage systems or evaluate soil sites as suitable for conventional and  alternative onsite sewage systems, and to design conventional and alternative  onsite sewage systems." The master licensure categories are essentially  equivalent to the licenses in the current regulation, with the exception that  masters will have supervisory responsibility of journeymen. Currently licensed  individuals would become masters once the proposed Onsite Sewage System  Professionals Licensing Regulations become effective. "Journeyman" is  defined as "an individual who possesses the minimum skills and competency  to assist with the installation or maintenance of onsite sewage systems or  assisting in the evaluation of soil sites as suitable for conventional and  alternative onsite sewage systems, and to design conventional onsite sewage  systems under the direct supervision of a master licensee." Unlike  masters, journeymen are not required to pass an exam.
    Code of Virginia § 54.1-2302 states that "No person shall  operate a waterworks or wastewater works, perform the duties of an onsite soil  evaluator, or install or operate an alternative onsite sewage system, without a  valid license." Enforcing the Code of Virginia and requiring individuals to  become licensed as a journeyman in order to assist with the installation or  maintenance of onsite sewage systems or assisting in the evaluation of soil  sites as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems, and  to design conventional onsite sewage systems under the direct supervision of a  master licensee will in practice cost these individuals $50 per annum ($100 for  two-year license) plus the time and dollar cost of continuing professional  education. Improper maintenance, installation, or design of onsite sewage  systems can potentially contaminate groundwater and otherwise become a public  health hazard. Licensing and regulating journeyman may reduce the health risk  for the public. The extent to which this would reduce public health risk is not  currently known.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments  affect the 4,472 licensed waterworks and wastewater works operators and 1,182  licensed onsite sewage system professionals in the Commonwealth, individuals  who have been permitted to work on onsite sewage systems without a licensee  present, the firms and public entities that employ them, as well as future  licensure applicants.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to require  journeyman licensure for individuals who assist with the installation or  maintenance of onsite sewage systems or assist in the evaluation of soil sites  as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems, and to  design conventional onsite sewage systems, may dissuade a small number of  individuals from working in the industry.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  amendments are unlikely to significantly affect the use and value of private  property.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: 
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,  small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,  that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500  full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. The proposal to require journeyman  licensure will moderately increase costs for those onsite sewage system  workers, and perhaps the small firms that employ them if they reimburse their  licensure fees and continuing professional education costs.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed  amendments will not adversely affect small businesses.
    Adverse Impacts: 
    Businesses: The proposal to require journeyman licensure will  moderately increase costs for those onsite sewage system workers, and perhaps  the firms that employ them if they reimburse their licensure fees and  continuing professional education costs.
    Localities: The proposed amendments are unlikely to adversely  affect localities.
    Other Entities: The proposed amendments are unlikely to  adversely affect other entities.
    _____________________________________
    1 In a separate action (Action 4141) that was initiated  prior to this action (Action 4226), the Board proposed to increase the two-year  licensure renewal fee from $80 to $100 for all waterworks and wastewater works  operators and onsite sewage system professionals. This proposed action (4226)  includes the higher renewal fees ($100); in other words, for the purposes of  this analysis it is assumed that Action 4141 will go into effect with the fee  increase prior to this action. If 4226 were to go into effect first, it would  effectively increase renewal fees for licensees by $20 per two-year licensure  period.
    2 Source: Department of Professional and Occupational  Regulation
    3 This concept is present in similarly regulated  professions, including trades (master/journeyman), water well service providers  (trainee/master/journeyman), and professional engineers and land surveyors  (in-training).
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  agency concurs with the analysis with approval.
    Regarding the development of master and journeyman license  categories and the concern of an adverse impact, the board considered  alternative methods of regulation to achieve the board's responsibility to  protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public through the license  mandate codified in § 54.1-2302 of the Code of Virginia1, and  reiterated in the 18VAC160-20-74 C2 effective July 1, 2009. As  referenced in the economic impact analysis, the board adopted policies during  the early implementation of the program to allow many in the industry to  continue working without a license while under the supervision of a  license-holder.
    From July 1, 2009, (the effective date of the initial onsite  sewage system professional licensing regulations) until June 30, 2010,  individuals were able to apply for a four-year, nonrenewable interim license  based on experience and training alone. Once the interim licenses ended, many  in the industry found that they would have to take a licensing examination in  order to obtain a new license and continue working in the profession. A number  of constituents sought legislative remedies3 due to concerns with  the examination. Concerns that were voiced included illiteracy, the  applicability of exam content areas, difficulty with passing an examination  after so many years, etc. An exam review of all content areas was held, with  subject matter experts from the applicable professions, to review all exam  questions, references, and applicability to the profession in late 2014. Also  in 2014, an extension (SB 657) to the interim license for alternative onsite  sewage system installers passed to allow such individuals additional time to  take and pass the examination.
    When the board was conducting a general review of its regulations,  among other important items, the board carefully considered the current license  requirements along with its statutory responsibility to protect the public. One  alternative the board considered was to require all individuals performing the  duties identified in the statute as requiring a license4, to meet  the current license requirements for the applicable classification and category  of license, which requires an examination for all license types. This would  result in an increased cost5 to all individuals requiring licensure  through application fees, examination fees, and, for some, the cost of study  classes and/or materials. Alternatively, the board decided to utilize a license  system currently in place for other, similar programs6. This would  allow those who are performing the work described in § 54.1-2302 of the  Code of Virginia, which mandates a license, but are not in a supervisory or  responsible charge capacity, to continue performing such work after having  demonstrated minimum competency to the board for a license. This also allows  the board to take disciplinary action, if necessary, against the licensee  actually performing the regulated activity as, currently, the board cannot take  disciplinary action against an individual who is performing the work but is not  a licensee of the board. As noted in the economic impact analysis for this  action, "Licensing and regulating journeyman may reduce the health risk to  the public."
    Through this revision to the regulations, the board also  provided additional options to qualify for licensure, including the acceptance  of more degree options and opportunities to qualify for licensure with  experience and training and, in some cases, no examination.
    _________________________________________
    1 "No person shall operate a waterworks or  wastewater works, perform the duties of an onsite soil evaluator, or install or  operate an alternative onsite sewage system, without a valid license."
    2 "No individual shall act as a conventional onsite  soil evaluator, alternative onsite soil evaluator, conventional onsite sewage  system installer, alternative onsite sewage system installer, conventional  onsite sewage system operator, or alternative onsite sewage system operator  without possessing a valid license issued by the board. Issuance of an  alternative license shall void the previously issued conventional license and  shall authorize the alternative licensee to perform duties on both conventional  and alternative onsite sewage systems consistent with the license category. The  board shall issue a license only after an individual has met all experience and  examination requirements as set forth in this chapter."
    3 SB 662 (2012), HB 1482 (2013), HB 253 (2014), SB 657  (2014)
    4 "No person shall . . . perform the duties of an  onsite soil evaluator, or install or operate an alternative onsite sewage  system, without a valid license."  "No individual shall act as a  conventional onsite soil evaluator, alternative onsite soil evaluator,  conventional onsite sewage system installer, alternative onsite sewage system  installer, conventional onsite sewage system operator, or alternative onsite  sewage system operator without possessing a valid license issued by the  board."
    5 Currently $100 application fee, $85 examination fee,  plus cost of renewal and continuing education to maintain the license. Licenses  are renewed every two years, which requires submittal of the renewal fee and  certification of compliance with CPE.
    6 This concept is present in similarly regulated  professions, including trades (master/journeyman), water well service providers  (trainee/master/journeyman), and professional engineers and land surveyors  (in-training).
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments repeal the existing regulations and  create two new chapters: 18VAC160-30 (regulations for the licensing of  waterworks and wastewater works operators) and 18VAC160-40 (regulations for the  licensing of onsite sewage system professionals).
    The proposed regulations include (i) definitions; (ii)  fees; (iii) standards of practice and conduct; (iv) qualifications for  licensure; (v) requirements for application, examination, continuing education,  and renewal and reinstatement of licenses; and (vi) approval and maintenance of  training courses. This proposal introduces new master and journeyman categories  for onsite sewage system professional licensees.
    CHAPTER 30
  WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS LICENSING REGULATIONS
    Part I
    Definitions
    18VAC160-30-10. Definitions.
    A. Section 54.1-2300 of the Code of Virginia provides  definitions of the following terms and phrases as used in this chapter:
    "Board"
    "Onsite sewage system"
    "Operator"
    "Owner"
    "Wastewater works 
    "Waterworks"
    B. The following words, terms, and phrases when used in  this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Applicant" means an individual who submits an  application with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
    "Application" means a completed,  board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required  documentation. 
    "Category" means a profession under the board's  purview, which includes waterworks and wastewater works as applicable to the  licensure of waterworks and wastewater works operators.
    "Classification" means the division within each  category of license as it relates to the classified facility. Class 1  represents the highest classification for each category of license. 
    "Contact hour" means 50 minutes of participation  in a structured training activity. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Professional and Occupational Regulation. 
    "DEQ" means the Virginia Department of  Environmental Quality. 
    "Direct supervision" means being immediately  available and fully responsible for the provision of waterworks and wastewater  works operation regulated pursuant to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of  Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter. 
    "Direct supervisor" means a licensed waterworks  or wastewater works operator who assumes the responsibility of direct  supervision.
    "Licensee" means an individual holding a valid  license issued by the board. 
    "Licensure" means a method of regulation whereby  the Commonwealth, through the issuance of a license, authorizes a person  possessing the character and minimum skills to engage in the practice of a  profession or occupation that without such license is unlawful to practice. 
    "Maintenance" or "maintain" means  performing adjustments to equipment and controls and in-kind replacement of  normal wear and tear parts such as light bulbs, fuses, filters, pumps, motors,  or other like components. Maintenance includes pumping the tanks or cleaning  the building sewer on a periodic basis. Maintenance shall not include  replacement of tanks, drainfield piping, or distribution boxes or work  requiring a construction permit and a licensed onsite sewage system installer. 
    "Operate" means the act of (i) placing into or  taking out of service a unit process or unit processes or (ii) making or  causing adjustments in the operation of a unit process at a treatment works. 
    "Renewal" means the process and requirements for  periodically approving the continuance of a license.
    "Training credit" means a unit of board-approved  training or formal education completed by an individual that may be used to  substitute for experience when applying for a license. 
    "Treatment works" means any device or system  used in the storage, treatment, disposal, or reclamation of sewage or  combinations of sewage and industrial wastes including, but not limited to,  pumping power and other equipment and appurtenances, septic tanks, and any  works, including land, that are or will be (i) an integral part of the  treatment processes or (ii) used for ultimate disposal or residues or effluent  resulting from such treatment. 
    "VDH" means the Virginia Department of Health. 
    Part II
    Entry
    18VAC160-30-20. Application procedures.
    A. All applicants seeking licensure shall submit an  application with the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC160-30-40. Application  shall be made on forms provided by the board or its agent.
    By submitting the application to the department, the  applicant certifies that the applicant has read and understands the applicable  statutes and the board's regulations.
    The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by  the board does not indicate approval of the application by the board.
    B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations  with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify  information supplied. All applications shall be completed in accordance with  the instructions contained herein and on the application. Applications will not  be considered complete until all required documents are received by the board.  An applicant will not be permitted to sit for the applicable board-approved  examination until the application is complete and approved.
    C. The applicant will be notified within 30 days of the  board's receipt of an initial application if the application is incomplete. An  individual who fails to complete the application process within 12 months of  receipt of the application in the board's office must submit a new application.  An applicant has 12 months from approval of the application to pass the board-approved  examination. Failure to pass the board-approved examination within 12 months of  approval will result in the applicant being required to submit a new  application to be considered for licensure.
    D. The applicant shall immediately report all changes in  information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to issuance of  the license or expiration of the application or examination period. 
    18VAC160-30-30. General fee requirements.
    All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated. The date  on which the fee is received by the department or its agent will determine  whether the fee is on time. Checks or money orders shall be made payable to the  Treasurer of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-30-40. Fee schedule.
           | Fee Type | Fee Amount | When Due | 
       | Initial application (for each profession, class, and    category of license) | $100 | With application | 
       | Renewal (for each profession, class, and category of    license) | $100 | With renewal application | 
       | Reinstatement (for each profession, class, and category    of license) | $125 (renewal fee + $25 reinstatement fee) | With reinstatement application | 
  
    18VAC160-30-50. Examination fee.
    The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to  charges to the department by an outside vendor based on a contract entered into  in compliance with Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of  the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in  accordance with this contract. 
    18VAC160-30-60. General requirements for licensure.
    A. In addition to the specific qualifications for each  category and classification of licensure, each applicant for licensure shall  meet the requirements provided in this section. 
    1. The applicant shall be at least 18 years old. 
    2. The applicant shall disclose his mailing address. A post  office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is  also provided.
    3. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of  Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information. 
    a. All felony convictions.
    b. All misdemeanor convictions in any jurisdiction that  occurred within three years of the date of application.
    Any plea of nolo contendere or finding of guilt regardless  of adjudication or deferred adjudication shall be considered a conviction for  the purposes of this section. The record of conviction certified or  authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of  the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of  such guilt. 
    B. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any  applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. The applicant shall report suspensions, revocations, or  surrendering of a license, certification, or registration in connection with a  disciplinary action or that has been the subject of discipline in any  jurisdiction prior to applying for licensure. The board, at its discretion, may  deny licensure to any applicant based on prior suspensions, revocations, or  surrender of licenses based on disciplinary action by any jurisdiction. 
    18VAC160-30-70. Examination procedures and conduct.
    A. Upon approval of the application, the board will notify  the applicant of his eligibility to take the applicable examination. The  license will not be issued prior to receipt of a passing score for the  applicable examination. 
    B. An applicant who does not receive a passing score  within one year after the date of approval of the application by the board to  sit for the examination, must submit a new application and meet the entry  requirement in effect at the time of submittal of the new application. 
    C. The applicant shall follow all rules established by the  board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such rules shall include all  written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and all  instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of  examination. Failure to comply with all rules established by the board and the  testing organization with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds  for denial of the application, voiding of examination scores, or any  combination thereof. 
    18VAC160-30-80. Individuals certified or licensed in another  jurisdiction.
    Any applicant holding a valid license or certificate in  another jurisdiction who meets the requirements of this chapter, including  having equivalent experience and education, shall pass the appropriate Virginia  examination to become licensed. 
    18VAC160-30-90. License required.
    A. No individual shall serve as an operator of a  waterworks or wastewater works without possessing a valid category of license  issued by the board in a classification equal to or greater than the  classification of the waterworks or wastewater works to be operated. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold two licenses  of different classifications in the same category. 
    C. Experience used to qualify for licensure must be  obtained under the direct supervision of an operator holding a valid license of  the same category and of a classification equal to or higher than the  classification of the waterworks or wastewater works at which the experience  was gained. 
    D. Except as provided in subsection E of this section,  experience limited solely to the operation and maintenance of wastewater  collection systems and water distribution systems, laboratory work, plant  maintenance, and other nonoperating duties shall not be counted as experience  as an operator or an operator-in-training. 
    E. Experience operating and maintaining water distribution  systems shall only be considered for Class 5 or Class 6 waterworks operator  license applicants. 
    F. Provisional licensure alone shall not authorize an  individual to serve as the operator of a classified waterworks or wastewater  works facility. 
    18VAC160-30-100. Full-time experience or equivalent.
    For the purposes of this part, experience requirements are  expressed in terms of calendar periods of full-time employment as an operator  or as an operator-in-training at a waterworks or wastewater works in the same  category for which licensure is sought.
    1. A year of full-time employment is defined as a minimum  of 1,760 hours during a 12-month period or a minimum of 220 workdays in a  12-month period. A workday is defined as attendance at a waterworks or  wastewater works to the extent required for proper operation. More than 1,760  hours or 220 workdays during a 12-month period will not be considered as more  than one year of full-time employment.
    2. Partial credit may be given for actual hours of work or  workdays experience if the applicant works as an operator or as an  operator-in-training less than full time.
     
         
          18VAC160-30-110. Qualifications for examination approval.
    A. An applicant for licensure as a waterworks or  wastewater works operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of  the following qualifications has been met.
           | TABLE 1Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Experience and Education
 | 
       | Classes | Education Required | Current License | Minimum Experience | Facility Type | Experience with Substitutions | 
       | Class 6(Waterworks Operator Only)
 | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Six months | Class 6 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 6 or higher facility | N/A | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 5(Waterworks Operator Only)
 | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Six months | Class 5 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 5 or higher facility | N/A | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 4 | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Six months | Class 4 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 4 or higher facility | N/A | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 3 | Bachelor's or master's degree | N/A | Six months | Class 4 or higher facility | N/A | 
       | Associate's degree | N/A | Nine months | Class 4 or higher facility | Six months | 
       | High school diploma or GED | N/A | One year | Class 4 or higher facility | Six months | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | Class 4 license | Three years | Class 3 or higher facility | One and one-half years | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 2 | Bachelor's or master's degree | N/A | One year | Class 3 or higher facility | Six months | 
       | Associate's degree | N/A | 18 months | Class 3 or higher facility | Nine months | 
       | High school diploma or GED | N/A | Two years | Class 3 or higher facility | One year | 
       | No High school diploma or GED | Class 3 license | Five years | Class 2 or higher facility | Three and one-half years | 
       |  |  | 
       | Class 1 | Bachelor's or master's degree | Class 2 license | Two years | Class 2 or higher facility | One year | 
       | Associate's degree | Class 2 license | Three years | Class 2 or higher facility | One and one-half years | 
       | High school diploma or GED | Class 2 license | Four years | Class 2 or higher facility | Two years | 
       | No high school diploma or GED | Class 2 license | Nine years | Class 2 or higher facility | Four and one-half years | 
       | Where applicable, the current license held, minimum    experience, and the facility type must coincide with the category of license    for which the application is being submitted. | 
  
         
          B. The direct supervisor shall certify the experience on  the application form as accurate and relevant to the classification and  category of license for which is being submitted. In the event that a licensed  operator is not available to certify the experience of the applicant, the  experience may be certified by a representative of the facility owner with  first-hand knowledge of the applicant's experience. 
    18VAC160-30-120. Provisional licensure for nonclassified  facility operation.
    An applicant for licensure as a provisional waterworks or  wastewater works operator shall furnish acceptable documentation of having met  all of the requirements of 18VAC160-30-110 except that the experience  requirement may be met through experience gained as an operator or operator-in-training  of a nonclassified facility. Such experience must be gained under the following  conditions:
    1. The experience is obtained at a nonclassified facility  that is comparable in size and in treatment process as described in  18VAC160-30-360 and 18VAC160-30-370, as applicable. 
    2. The experience is obtained while performing  nonclassified facility operation duties that provide experience comparable to  that obtained at a classified facility. Experience limited solely to the  operation and maintenance of wastewater collection systems and water  distribution systems, laboratory work, plant maintenance, and other  nonoperating duties shall not be counted as qualifying experience for Class 1,  Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 provisional licenses but may be counted for a  provisional Class 5 or Class 6 license.
    3. Any individual holding a provisional license may apply  for licensure by submitting evidence of having met 50% of the experience  required by 18VAC160-30-110 and submitting the appropriate application. 
    18VAC160-30-130. Experience substitutions.
    A. Experience obtained as a master alternative onsite  sewage system operator may be substituted for the Class 4 wastewater works  operator in training experience requirements. 
    B. 18VAC160-30-110 A provides the maximum experience  substitutions that may be applied for each applicable class of license. 
    1. Experience gained in either waterworks or wastewater  works operations may be substituted for up to one-half of the required  experience in the alternate category so long as the experience was gained in an  equivalent or higher class of facility. 
    2. Education may be substituted for part of the required  experience in the category of license applied for at a rate of one month of  experience credit for each semester hour of college credit. Coursework must be  relevant to the category and classification of the license being sought. The  college credit must be from an accredited college or university that is  approved or accredited by the Commission of Colleges, a regional or national  accreditation association, or by an accreditation agency that is recognized by  the U.S. Secretary of Education. 
    3. Board-approved waterworks or wastewater works operator  training may be substituted for experience at a rate of one month experience  for each training credit approved by the board. 
    C. Substitutions shall not exceed 50% of the total  experience required for licensure. 
    18VAC160-30-140. Education.
    A. Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on  completion of an associate's, bachelor's, or master's degree shall submit an  official transcript from the school where the applicable degree was obtained.  Only degrees from an accredited college or university that is approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges, a regional or national accreditation  association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S.  Secretary of Education will be considered. Formal education used to meet a  specific education requirement for license entry cannot also be used as a  training credit for experience substitution.
    B. The following degrees shall be considered to qualify in  accordance with 18VAC160-30-110:
    1. Bachelor's or master's degree in engineering or  engineering technology in a related physical, biological, environmental, or  chemical science;
    2. Bachelor's degree in a related physical, biological,  environmental, or chemical science that includes a minimum 40 semester credit  hours in any combination of science and math;
    3. Master's degree in a related physical, biological,  environmental, or chemical science, and a bachelor's degree in any major such  that the combined degrees include a minimum 40 semester credit hours in any  combination of science and math; or
    4. Associate's degree in waterworks, in wastewater works,  or in a related physical, biological, environmental, or chemical science that  includes a minimum of 20 credit hours in any combination of science and math.
    Part III
  Renewal and Reinstatement
    18VAC160-30-150. Expiration and renewal.
    A. Licenses for waterworks operators shall expire on the  last day of February of each odd-numbered year. Licenses for wastewater works  operators shall expire on the last day of February of each even-numbered year.
    B. Prior to the expiration date shown on the license, the  board shall mail a renewal notice to the licensee's address of record. The  licensee shall return to the board a renewal notice and the applicable renewal  fee. Failure to receive a renewal notice from the board does not relieve the  licensee of the obligation to renew. If the licensee fails to receive the  renewal notice, a copy of the license may be submitted with the required fee as  an application for renewal. 
    C. By submitting the renewal or reinstatement fee, the  licensee is certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice  and Conduct (Part VI (18VAC160-30-290 et seq.) of this chapter), as established  by the board. In addition, by submitting the renewal or reinstatement fee,  licensees are certifying compliance with the continuing professional education  requirements of this chapter. 
    18VAC160-30-160. Reinstatement.
    A. If all of the requirements for renewal of the license  as specified in 18VAC160-30-150 are not completed within 30 days of the license  expiration date, a reinstatement fee shall be required as established in 18VAC160-30-40.
    B. A license may be reinstated for up to one year  following the expiration date of the license. Any licensee who fails to  reinstate the license within 12 months after the expiration date shall apply  for a new license and meet entry requirements in effect at the time of the  submittal of the new application. Such individual shall be deemed to be  eligible to sit for the examination for the same category and classification of  license as the expired license. 
    C. Any regulated activity conducted subsequent to the  license expiration date may constitute unlicensed activity and be subject to  the prosecution under Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-30-170. Status of license during period prior to  reinstatement.
    A licensee who applies for reinstatement of the license  shall be subject to all laws and regulations as if the licensee had been  continuously licensed. The licensee shall remain under and be subject to the  disciplinary authority of the board during this entire period. 
    18VAC160-30-180. Board discretion to deny renewal or  reinstatement.
    The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license  for the same reasons as the board may refuse initial licensure or discipline a  licensee. 
    The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license  if the licensee has been subject to a disciplinary proceeding and has not met  the terms of an agreement for licensure, has not satisfied all sanctions, or  has not fully paid monetary penalties and costs, imposed by the board.
    Part IV
  Continuing Professional Education
    18VAC160-30-190. Continuing professional education.
    A. Each licensee shall have completed the following number  of continuing professional education (CPE) contact hours during each renewal  cycle. CPE provisions do not apply for the renewal of licenses that were held  for less than two years on the date of expiration
    1. Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 waterworks and wastewater  works operators shall obtain a minimum of 20 contact hours.
    2. Class 4 waterworks and wastewater works operators shall  obtain a minimum of 16 contact hours.
    3. Class 5 waterworks operators shall obtain a minimum of  eight contact hours.
    4. Class 6 operators shall obtain a minimum of four contact  hours. 
    B. CPE contact hours completed during the license period  immediately prior to the expiration date of the license shall be acceptable in  order to renew the license. CPE contact hours completed during a licensing  renewal cycle to satisfy the CPE requirements of the preceding licensing  renewal cycle shall be valid only for that preceding license renewal cycle and  shall not be accepted for any subsequent renewal cycles. 
    C. The licensee will not receive CPE credit for completing  the same continuing education course with the same content more than once during  a license period.
    D. A licensee may receive CPE credit for teaching a course  that otherwise meets the requirements of this chapter; however, additional  credit shall not be given for subsequent offerings of a course or activity with  the same content within the same licensing cycle. In addition, a licensee may  receive two hours of CPE no more than once during a single licensing cycle for  the initial development or substantial updating of the CPE course.
    E. Safety subjects shall not count for more than one half  of the total required CPE hours.
    18VAC160-30-200. CPE subject matter for waterworks  operators.
    A. The following course topics will be accepted for CPE  credit for waterworks operators:
    1. Waterworks operations;
    2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment  processes and systems;
    3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    4. Security and safety procedures;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative processes and procedures applicable to  licensure; and
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession.
    B. Of the total 20 hours required, a minimum of five  content hours pertaining to utility management is required of Class 1 and Class  2 waterworks operators. 
    18VAC160-30-210. CPE subject matter for wastewater works  operators.
    A. The following course topics will be accepted for CPE  credit for wastewater works operators:
    1. Wastewater works operations;
    2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment  processes and systems;
    3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    4. Security and safety procedures;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative processes and procedures applicable to  licensure; and
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession.
    B. Of the total 20 hours required, a minimum of five  content hours pertaining to utility management is required of Class 1 and Class  2 wastewater works operators. 
    18VAC160-30-220. Use of training credits and formal  education for CPE credit.
    Any course approved by the board for substitution as  training credits or formal education semester hours, as provided for in Part V  (18VAC160-30-240 et seq.) of this chapter, shall also be acceptable on an  hour-for-hour basis for CPE contact hours. One semester hour of college credit  shall equal 15 CPE contact hours, and one-quarter hour of college credit shall  equal 10 CPE credit hours.
    18VAC160-30-230. Maintenance of CPE.
    A. For a period of at least two years following the end of  the license renewal cycle for which the CPE was taken, the following evidence  shall be maintained to document completion of the required hours of CPE:
    1. Evidence of completion of a structured training  activity, which shall consist of the name, address, and telephone number of the  sponsor;
    2. The dates the licensee participated in the training;
    3. Description of the subject matter presented; and
    4. A statement from the sponsor verifying the number of  hours completed. 
    B. The board may conduct an audit of its licensees to  ensure compliance with the applicable CPE requirements. Licensees who are  selected for audit shall provide the necessary documentation stipulated in this  section.
    Part V
  Training Course Approval
    18VAC160-30-240. Approval of training courses.
    A. Training courses may be substituted for experience  pursuant to the provisions of Part II (18VAC160-30-20 et seq.) of this chapter.  With the exception of training courses provided pursuant to 18VAC160-30-280,  training courses that may be substituted for required experience must be  approved by the board prior to commencing.
    B. Each training provider seeking course approval shall  submit an application for approval on a form provided by the board. Training  courses for which experience credit may be granted must be conducted in general  conformance with the guidelines of the International Association for Continuing  Education and Training (association). The board reserves the right to waive any  of the requirements of the association's guidelines on a case-by-case basis.  Only classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time will be used to compute  training credits. No credit will be given for breaks, meals, or receptions. 
    1. Organization. The board will only approve training  offered by a sponsor that is an identifiable organization with a mission  statement outlining its functions, structure, process, and philosophy and that  has a staff of one or more persons with the authority to administer and  coordinate a training course. 
    2. Training course records. The board will only approve  training offered by a sponsor that maintains training course records for all  participants for a minimum of seven years and that has a written policy on  retention and release of training course records. 
    3. Instructors. The board will only approve training  conducted by personnel who have demonstrated competence in the subject being  taught, an understanding of the learning objective, and knowledge of the  learning process to be used. 
    4. Objectives. The board will only approve courses that  have a series of stated objectives that are pertinent to the tasks performed by  a licensee. The training course content must be consistent with those  objectives. 
    5. Course completion requirements. For successful  completion of a training course, participants must attend 90% or more of the  class contact time and must demonstrate their learning through written  examinations, completion of a project, oral examination, or other similar  assessment technique.
    18VAC160-30-250. Application for training course approval.
    A.  The board shall consider the following  information, to be submitted by the course sponsor or instructor on forms  provided by the board: 
    1. Course information. 
    a. Course title; 
    b. Planned audience; 
    c. Name of sponsor; 
    d. Name, physical address, email address, and phone number  of contact person; 
    e. Scheduled presentation dates; 
    f. Detailed course schedule, hour-by-hour, including start  and ending times;
    g. List of planned breaks; 
    h. Scheduled presentation location; and 
    i. Identification of the category and classification of  license to which the course is applicable and relevancy to the identified  license type. 
    2. Instructor qualifications. 
    a. Name of instructor; 
    b. Title;
    c. Employer; 
    d. Board license number or numbers, if applicable; and 
    e. Summary of qualifications to teach the course. 
    3. Training materials. 
    a. Course objectives. A listing of the course objectives  stated in terms of the skills and knowledge the participant will be able to  demonstrate as a result of the training. 
    b. Course outline. A detailed outline showing the planned  activities that will occur during the training course, including major topics,  planned presentation sequence, laboratory and field activities, audiovisual  presentation, and other major activities. 
    c. Course reference materials. A list of the name,  publisher, and publication date for commercially available publications. For  reference materials developed by the course sponsor or available exclusively  through the course, a copy of the reference. 
    d. Audiovisual support materials. A listing of any  commercially available audiovisual support material that will be used in the  program. A brief description of any sponsor or instructor generated audiovisual  material that will be used. 
    e. Handouts. Identification of all commercially available  handout materials that will be used, as well as copies of all other planned  handouts. 
    4. Determination of successful completion. A description of  the means that will be used to assess the learning of each participant to  determine successful completion of the training program, such as examinations,  projects, personal evaluations by the instructor, or other recognized  evaluation techniques. Correspondence and other distance learning courses must  include appropriate testing procedures to verify completion of the course.
    B. Recurring training programs. If there are plans to  present the same course of instruction routinely at multiple locations with  only minor modifications and changes, the board may approve the overall program  rather than individual presentations if so requested by the sponsor. 
    1. The board shall consider all of the information listed  in subsection A of this section except those items related to specific  offerings of the course.
    2. Board approval will apply only to those specific  offerings certified by the sponsoring organization as having been conducted by  instructors meeting the established criteria and in accordance with the  board-approved course outlines and objectives.
    18VAC160-30-260. Maintenance of training approval.
    A. At times established by the board, the board may  require that course providers that have previously obtained course approval  provide the board with evidence, in a form set forth by the board, that the  provider continues to comply with the requirements of this chapter. Failure to  continue to comply with the board's requirements or respond to such a request  may result in the board withdrawing its approval. 
    B. Substantial modifications or changes to the information  provided in 18VAC160-30-240 and 18VAC160-30-250 must be reported to the board  within 30 days of the change. Failure to report the changes as required may  result in the withdrawal of approval by the board.
    C. Any change of the address of the training provider  shall be reported in writing within 30 days of the change.
    D. The board may conduct an audit of the training provider  to ensure compliance with this chapter.
    18VAC160-30-270. Withdrawal of approval.
    The board may withdraw approval of any provider for the  following reasons: 
    1. The courses being offered no longer meet the standards  established by the board. 
    2. The provider, through an agent or otherwise, advertises  its services in a fraudulent or deceptive way. 
    3. The provider, instructor, or designee of the provider  falsifies any information relating to the application for approval, course  information, and student records.
    4. The provider fails to respond to the board or any of its  agents.
    18VAC160-30-280. Training courses offered by certain  entities; board approval not required.
    A. Training courses provided by (i) federal, state, or  local government agencies; (ii) accredited colleges or universities approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges; (iii) a regional or national  accreditation association; or (iv) an accrediting agency that is recognized by  the U.S. Secretary of Education do not require board approval to be used for  experience substitution, provided the training course information submitted to  the board includes the following:
    1. The course must include the continuing education units  awarded by the entity.
    2. The course must be related to the license category and  classification, if applicable, for which experience substitution is sought.
    B. The board may request additional information from the  provider as necessary to ensure compliance with this section. If such assurance  cannot be made by the board, the training course may not be used for experience  substitution, or the provider may pursue board approval pursuant to this  chapter.
    Part VI
  Standards of Practice and Conduct
    18VAC160-30-290. Grounds for disciplinary action.
    The board may place a licensee on probation; impose a  monetary penalty in accordance with § 54.1-202 A of the Code of Virginia;  or revoke, suspend, or refuse to renew any license when the licensee has been  found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of  the regulations of the board or Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1  of the Code of Virginia.
    18VAC160-30-300. Maintenance of license.
    A. No license issued by the board shall be assigned or  otherwise transferred. 
    B. A licensee shall report, in writing, all changes of  address and name to the board within 30 days of the change and shall return the  license to the board. In addition to the address of record, a physical address  is required for each license. If the licensee holds more than one license, the  licensee shall inform the board of all licenses, certificates, and  registrations affected by the address change. The board shall not be  responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices or correspondence due  to the licensee's failure to report a change of address.
    C. Any change in any of the requirements and  qualifications for licensure found in Part II (18VAC160-30-20 et seq.) or Part  III (18VAC160-30-150 et seq.) of this chapter shall be reported to the board  within 30 days of the change.
    18VAC160-30-310. Notice of adverse action.
    A. Licensees shall notify the board of the following  actions against the licensee: 
    1. Any disciplinary action taken by any jurisdiction,  board, or administrative body of competent jurisdiction, including but not  limited to any reprimand, license or certificate revocation, suspension or  denial, monetary penalty, requirement for remedial education, or other  corrective action. 
    2. Any voluntary surrendering of a related license,  certificate, or registration done in connection with a disciplinary action in  another jurisdiction.
    3. Any conviction, finding of guilt, or plea of guilty,  regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication, in any jurisdiction of the  United States of any misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, stealing, sexual  offense, drug distribution, or physical injury or relating to the practice of  the profession, or of any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the  time for appeal having lapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the  requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo  contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this section.
    B. The notice must be made to the board in writing within  30 days of the action. A copy of the order or other supporting documentation  must accompany the notice. The record of conviction, finding, or case decision  shall be considered prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt.
    18VAC160-30-320. Prohibited acts.
    The following acts are prohibited and any violation may  result in disciplinary action by the board:
    1. Violating, inducing another to violate, cooperating with  another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent,  partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1  (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), or 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et  seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or any of the regulations of the  board. 
    2. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by  another.
    3. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license by false or  fraudulent representation, or maintaining or renewing a license by false or  fraudulent representation.
    4. A licensee having been convicted, found guilty, or  disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in  18VAC160-30-310. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of  § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
    5. Failing to inform the board in writing within 30 days  that the licensee was convicted, found guilty, or disciplined in any  jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC160-30-310.
    6. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or  application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of  the licensee's duties. 
    7. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional  assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education,  experience, training, or any combination thereof.
    8. Failing to report a change as required by  18VAC160-30-300.
    9. Negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice  of the profession.
    10. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of  fraud or deceit in providing professional services. 
    11. Failing to adequately supervise and review work  performed by licensed or unlicensed employees under direct supervision of the  licensee.
    12. Submitting or recording or assisting another in the  submission or recording of false or misleading operational information relating  to the performance and monitoring requirements of a waterworks or wastewater  works.
    13. Failing to act in providing waterworks and wastewater  works operator services in a manner that safeguards the interests of the  public.
    18VAC160-30-330. Conflicts of interest.
    The licensee shall: 
    1. Promptly and fully inform an employer or client of any  business association, interest, or circumstance that may influence the  licensee's judgment or the quality of service.
    2. Not accept compensation, financial or otherwise, from  more than one party for services on or pertaining to the same project, unless  the circumstances are fully disclosed to and agreed to by all interested  parties in writing.
    3. Neither solicit nor accept financial or other valuable  consideration from material or equipment suppliers for specifying their  products or services.
    4. Not solicit or accept gratuities, directly or  indirectly, from contractors or their agents or other parties dealing with a  client or employer in connection with work for which the licensee is responsible.  
    18VAC160-30-340. Licensee responsibility.
    A. The primary obligation of the licensee is to the  public. If the licensee's judgment is overruled and not adhered to when  advising appropriate parties of circumstances of a substantial threat to the  public health, safety, or welfare, the licensee shall inform the employer or  client, as applicable, of the possible consequences and notify appropriate  authorities. 
    B. The licensee shall not knowingly associate in a  business venture with, or permit the use of the licensee's name by, any person  where there is reason to believe that person is engaging in activity of a  fraudulent or dishonest nature or is violating any law or regulation of the  board. 
    C. A licensee who has direct knowledge that another  individual may be violating any of the provisions of this chapter or the  provisions of Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia shall immediately inform the board in writing and shall cooperate in  furnishing any further information or assistance that may be required. 
    18VAC160-30-350. Response to inquiry and provision of  records.
    A. A licensee must respond within 10 days to a request by  the board or any of its agents regarding any complaint filed with the  department.
    B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a licensee of  the board shall produce to the board or any of its agents within 10 days of the  request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to  a complaint filed in which the licensee was involved, or for which the licensee  is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a  showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day  period. 
    C. A licensee shall not provide a false, misleading, or  incomplete response to the board or any of its agents seeking information in  the investigation of a complaint filed with the board.
    D. With the exception of the requirements of subsections A  and B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or  its agent within 21 days.
    18VAC160-30-360. Wastewater works.
    A. A Class 4 wastewater works licensee may operate any  wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works employing biological mechanical  methods (i.e., mechanical treatment process defined as those containing aerated  and mixed flows using electrical or outside energy sources) with a design  hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000 gallons per day but equal to or less than  .04 MGD; 
    2. A wastewater works employing natural treatment methods  (referenced in 9VAC25-790-870 as land treatment utilizing a secondary process  for pretreatment followed by irrigation, overland flow  infiltration-percolation, or combination thereof or aquatic ponds or  constructed wetlands) with a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000  gallons per day but equal to or less than 1.0 MGD; or
    3. Any other wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a  Class 4 wastewater works. 
    B. A Class 3 wastewater  works licensee may operate any wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods  consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated  lagoons, (iii) constructed wetlands, (iv) filters or other attached growth  contractors, (v) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, or (vi)  processes utilizing land treatment having a design hydraulic capacity greater  than 0.04 MGD, but equal to or less than 0.5 MGD;
    2. A wastewater works using natural treatment methods  (referenced in 9VAC25-790-870 as land treatment utilizing a secondary process  for pretreatment followed by irrigation, overland flow  infiltration-percolation, or combination thereof or aquatic ponds or  constructed wetlands) with a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1.0 MGD;
    3. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment  methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breakpoint  chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v)  flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, or (viii) demineralization  (i.e., ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) having a design  hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000 gallons per day but equal to or less than  0.1 MGD; or
    4. A wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class 3  or Class 4 wastewater works facility. 
    C. A Class 2 wastewater works licensee may operate any  wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods  consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated  lagoons or constructed wetlands, (iii) filters or other attached growth  contactors, (iv) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, or (v)  processes utilizing land application having a design hydraulic capacity greater  than 0.5 MGD but equal to or less than 5.0 MGD;
    2. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment  methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breakpoint  chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v)  flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, (viii) demineralization (i.e.,  ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) and having a hydraulic  capacity greater than 0.1 MGD but equal to or less than 2.5 MGD; or
    3. A wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class  2, Class 3, or Class 4 wastewater works. 
    D. A Class 1 wastewater works licensee may operate any  wastewater works as follows:
    1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods  consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated  lagoons or constructed wetlands, (iii) filters or other attached growth  contactors, (iv) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, (v) processes  utilizing land treatment and having a hydraulic capacity greater than 5.0 MGD;
    2. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment  methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breaking  chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v)  flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, (viii) demineralization  (i.e., ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) and having a design  capacity greater than 2.5 MGD;
    3. A wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class  1, Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 wastewater works.
    18VAC160-30-370. Waterworks.
    A. A Class 6 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks serving fewer than 400 persons that  provides no treatment or employs one or more of the following treatment  processes: (i) hypochlorination for disinfection, (ii) corrosion control with  calcite or magnesium oxide contactors or solution feed except with caustic, or  (iii) sequestration by solution feed; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 6 waterworks.
    B. A Class 5 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks serving 400 or more persons that provides  no treatment or employs one or more of the following treatment processes: (i)  hypochlorination for disinfection, (ii) corrosion control with calcite or  magnesium oxide contactors or solution feed except with caustic, or (iii)  sequestration by solution feed; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 5 waterworks.
    C. A Class 4 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than  5,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity of less than 0.5 MGD and  employing one or more of the following: (i) disinfection other than with  hypochlorination, (ii) caustic soda feed, (iii) iron and manganese removal,  (iv) ion exchange, (v) slow sand filtration, (vi) aeration, (vii)  rechlorination other than with hypochlorination, (viii) activated carbon  contactors, (ix) membrane or other filtration technologies without chemical  coagulation, or (x) fluoridation with a saturator; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 4 waterworks. 
    D. A Class 3 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than  5,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity less than 0.5 MGD,  whichever is greater, and employing conventional filtration or chemical  coagulation in combination with membrane filtration;
    2. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 5,000 or more  persons or having a treatment facility capacity of 0.5 MGD or more, whichever  is greater, and employing one or more of the following: (i) disinfection other  than with hypochlorination, (ii) caustic soda feed, (iii) iron and manganese  removal, (iv) ion exchange, (v) slow sand filtration, (vi) aeration, (vii)  rechlorination other than with hypochlorination, (viii) activated carbon contactors,  (ix) membrane or other filtration technologies without chemical coagulation, or  (x) fluoridation with a saturator or acid feed;
    3. A waterworks or treatment facility employing  fluoridation with other than a saturator not considered a Class 1 or Class 2  waterworks; or
    4. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 3 waterworks. 
    E. A Class 2 waterworks  licensee may operate any waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 5,000 or more  persons but fewer than 50,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity  of 0.5 MGD or more but less than 5.0 MGD, whichever range applies, and  employing rapid rate conventional filtration chemical coagulation in  combination with membrane filtration;
    2. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than  50,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity of less than 5.0 MGD  employing high rate conventional  filtration; or
    3. A waterworks classified by the VDH as a Class 2  waterworks.
    F. A Class 1 waterworks licensee may operate any  waterworks as follows:
    1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 50,000 or  more persons or having a treatment facility capacity of 5.0 MGD or more and  employing conventional filtration or chemical coagulation in combination with  membrane filtration; or
    2. A waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 1 waterworks.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (18VAC160-30)
    Waterworks  Operator License Application, A436-1955LIC-v3 (eff. 7/2016)
    Provisional  Waterworks Operator License Application, A436-1955PLIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Wastewater  Works Operator License Application, A436-1965LIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Provisional  Wastewater Works Operator License Application, A436-1965PLIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Waterworks  and Wastewater Works Operator - Upgrade Provisional License Application,  A436-1955_65UPG-v3 (eff. 7/2016)
    Out-of-State  Facility Description and Experience Verification Application, A436-19STATE_EXP-v3  (eff. 4/2015)
    Waterworks  and Wastewater Works Operator Experience Verification Application,  A436-19WWEXP-v3 (eff. 1/2014)
    Provisional  Description and Experience Verification Application, A436-1955_65PEXP-v3 (eff.  12/2014)
    Continuing  Professional Education (CPE) Application - Certificate of Completion,  A436-19CPE-v3 (eff. 10/2015)
    Training  Course Approval Application, A465-19CRS-v2 (eff. 5/2013)
    Education  and Training Substitution Form, A436-19EDTR-v3 (eff. 1/2014)
    CHAPTER 40
  ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS LICENSING REGULATIONS
    Part I
  Definitions
    18VAC160-40-10. Definitions.
    A. Section 54.1-2300 of the Code of Virginia provides  definitions of the following terms and phrases as used in this chapter:
    "Board"
    "Onsite sewage system"
    "Operator"
    "Wastewater works"
    B. The following words, terms, and phrases when used in  this chapter shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise:
    "Alternative onsite sewage system" means a  treatment works that is not a conventional onsite sewage system and does not  result in a point source discharge.
    "Alternative onsite sewage system installer"  means an individual licensed by the board to construct, install, and repair  conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems. 
    "Alternative onsite sewage system operator"  means an individual licensed by the board to operate and maintain conventional  and alternative onsite sewage systems. 
    "Alternative onsite soil evaluator" means an  individual licensed by the board to evaluate soils and soil properties in  relationship to the effect of these properties on the use and management of  these soils and the locations for conventional and alternative onsite sewage  systems, to certify in accordance with applicable state regulations and local  ordinances that sites are suitable for conventional and alternative onsite  sewage systems, and to design conventional and alternative onsite sewage  systems suitable for the soils. 
    "Applicant" means an individual who submits an  application with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
    "Application" means a completed,  board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required  documentation. 
    "Authorized onsite soil evaluator" means an  individual holding an authorized onsite soil evaluator certification issued by  the Virginia Department of Health that was valid on June 30, 2009. 
    "Category" means journeyman or master as applicable  to the professionals under the board's purview. 
    "Class" means conventional or alternative as  applicable to the professionals under the board's purview. 
    "Contact hour" means 50 minutes of participation  in a structured training activity. 
    "Conventional onsite sewage system" means a  treatment works consisting of one or more septic tanks with gravity, pumped, or  siphoned conveyance to a gravity distributed subsurface drainfield. 
    "Conventional onsite sewage system installer"  means an individual licensed by the board to construct, install, and repair  conventional onsite sewage systems. 
    "Conventional onsite sewage system operator"  means an individual licensed by the board to operate and maintain a  conventional onsite sewage system.
    "Conventional onsite soil evaluator" means an  individual licensed by the board to evaluate soils and soil properties in  relationship to the effects of these properties on the use and management of  these soils as the locations for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems,  to certify in accordance with applicable state regulations and local ordinances  that sites are suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems,  and to design conventional onsite sewage systems suitable for the soils. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Professional and Occupational Regulation. 
    "Direct supervision" means being immediately  available and fully responsible for the provision of onsite sewage system  services regulated pursuant to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1  and this chapter. 
    "Interim license" refers to the initial issuance  of professional licenses during the implementation of the onsite sewage system  professional licensure program. Such licenses were limited to four years and  not renewable. 
    "Journeyman" means an individual who possesses  the minimum skills and competency to assist with the installation or  maintenance of onsite sewage systems or assist in the evaluation of soil sites  as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems and to  design conventional onsite sewage systems under the direct supervision of a  master licensee.
    "Licensee" means an individual holding a valid  license issued by the board. 
    "Licensure" means a method of regulation whereby  the Commonwealth, through the issuance of a license, authorizes a person  possessing the character and minimum skills to engage in the practice of a  profession or occupation that without such license is unlawful to practice. 
    "Maintenance" or "maintain" means  performing adjustments to equipment and controls and in-kind replacement of  normal wear and tear parts such as light bulbs, fuses, filters, pumps, motors,  or other like components. Maintenance includes pumping the tanks or cleaning  the building sewer on a periodic basis. Maintenance shall not include  replacement of tanks, drainfield piping, or distribution boxes or work  requiring a construction permit and a licensed onsite sewage system installer. 
    "Master" means an individual who possess the  minimum skills and competency to install or maintain onsite sewage system or  evaluate soil sites as suitable for conventional and alternative onsite sewage  systems and to design conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems. 
    "Operate" means the act of (i) placing into or  taking out of service a unit process or unit processes or (ii) making or  causing adjustments in the operation of a unit process at a treatment works. 
    "Profession" means the practice of onsite soil  evaluation, onsite sewage system installation, and onsite sewage system  operation. 
    "Professional" means an onsite sewage system  installer, onsite sewage system operator, or onsite soil evaluator who is  licensed pursuant to the provisions of this chapter and is in good standing  with the board to practice his profession in this Commonwealth. 
    "Renewal" means the process and requirements for  periodically approving the continuance of a license.
    "Sewage" means water-carried and  nonwater-carried human excrement or kitchen, laundry, shower, bath, or lavatory  wastes separately or together with such underground, surface, storm, or other  water and liquid industrial wastes as may be present from residences,  buildings, vehicles, industrial establishments, or other places. 
    "Training credit" means a unit of board-approved  training or formal education completed by an individual that may be used to  substitute for experience when applying for a license. 
    "Treatment works" means any device or system  used in the storage, treatment, disposal, or reclamation of sewage or  combinations of sewage and industrial wastes including, but not limited to,  pumping power and other equipment and appurtenances, septic tanks and any  works, including land, that are or will be (i) an integral part of the  treatment processes or (ii) used for ultimate disposal or residues or effluent  resulting from such treatment. 
    "VDH" means the Virginia Department of Health. 
    Part II
  Entry
    18VAC160-40-20. Application procedures.
    A. All applicants seeking licensure shall submit an  application with the appropriate fee in 18VAC160-40-40. Applications shall be  made on forms provided by the board. 
    By submitting the application to the department, the  applicant certified that the applicant has read and understands the applicable  statutes and the board's regulations. 
    The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by  the board does not indicate approval of the application by the board. 
    B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations  with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify  information supplied. All applications shall be completed in accordance with  the instructions contained herein and on the application. Applications will not  be considered complete until all required documents are received by the board.  If an examination is required for licensure, the applicant will not be  permitted to sit for the applicable board-approved examination until the  application is complete and approved. 
    C. The applicant will be notified within 30 days of the  board's receipt of an initial application if the application is incomplete. An  individual who fails to complete the process within 12 months of receipt of the  application in the board's office must submit a new application. If applicable,  the applicant has 12 months from approval of the application to pass the  board-approved examination. Failure to pass the board-approved examination  within 12 months of approval will result in the applicant being required to  submit a new application to be considered for licensure. 
    D. The applicant shall immediately report all changes in  information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to the issuance  of the license or expiration of the application or examination period. 
    18VAC160-40-30. General fee requirements.
    All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated. The  date on which the fee is received by the department or its agent will determine  whether the fee is on time. Checks or money orders shall be made payable to the  Treasurer of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-40-40. Fee schedule.
           | Fee Type | Fee Amount | When Due | 
       | Initial application (for each profession, class, and    category of license) | $100 | With application | 
       | Renewal (for each profession, class, and category of    license) | $100 | With renewal application | 
       | Reinstatement (for each profession, class, and category    of license) | $125 (renewal fee + $25 reinstatement fee) | With reinstatement application | 
  
    18VAC160-40-50. Examination fee.
    The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to  charges to the department by an outside vendor based on a contract entered into  in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq.  of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in  accordance with this contract. 
    18VAC160-40-60. General requirements for licensure.
    A. In addition to the specific qualifications for each  profession, class, and category of licensure, each applicant for licensure  shall meet the requirements provided in this section:
    1. The applicant shall be at least 18 years old. 
    2. The applicant shall disclose his mailing address. A post  office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is  provided. 
    3. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia,  each applicant shall disclose the following information:
    a. All felony convictions.
    b. All misdemeanor convictions that occurred within three  years of the date of application. 
    Any plea of nolo contendere or finding of guilt regardless  of adjudication or deferred adjudication shall be considered a conviction for  the purposes of this section. The record of conviction certified or  authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of  the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of  such guilt. 
    B. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any  applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. The applicant shall report suspensions, revocations, or  surrendering of a license, certification, or registration in connection with a  disciplinary action or that has been subject of discipline in any jurisdiction  prior to applying for licensure. The board at its discretion may deny licensure  to any applicant based on prior suspensions, revocations, or surrender or  licenses based on disciplinary action by any jurisdiction. 
    18VAC160-40-70. Education and training for experience.
    A. Each individual applying for a license may receive  credit for up to half of the required experience for:
    1. Satisfactory completion of postsecondary courses in  wastewater, biology, chemistry, geology, hydraulics, hydrogeology, or soil  science at the rate of one month per semester hour or two-thirds of a month per  quarter hour; or
    2. Satisfactory completion of board-approved onsite sewage  system installer or operator or onsite soil evaluation training courses, as  applicable to the license sought, at the rate of one month for each training  credit earned. Up to one training credit is awarded for each 10 hours of  classroom contact time or for each 20 hours of laboratory exercises and field  trip contact time. Training credit is not earned for breaks, meals, receptions,  and time other than classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time. 
    B. Education used to meet the education requirements to  qualify for licensure may not be substituted for experience. 
    18VAC160-40-80. Examination procedures and conduct.
    A. Upon approval of the application, the board will notify  the applicant of his eligibility to take the applicable examination. The  license will not be issued prior to the receipt of a passing score for the  applicable examination. 
    B. An applicant who does not receive a passing score  within one year after the date of approval of the application by the board to  sit for the examination must submit a new application and meet entry  requirements in effect at the time of the submittal of the new application. 
    C. In those instances where the applicant is required to  take an examination for licensure, the applicant shall follow all rules  established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such rules  shall include written instructions communicated prior to the examination date  and instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date  of the examination. Failure to comply with all rules established by the board  and the testing organization with regard to conduct at the examination shall be  grounds for denial of the application, voiding of examination scores, or any  combination thereof.
    18VAC160-40-90. Individuals certified or licensed in another  jurisdiction.
    Any applicant holding a valid license or certificate in  another jurisdiction shall meet the requirements of this chapter, including  having equivalent experience and education. The applicant shall pass the  appropriate Virginia examination in those instances where an examination for  licensure is required. 
    18VAC160-40-100. Full-time experience or equivalent.
    For the purpose of this part, experience requirements are  expressed in terms of calendar periods of full-time employment as an operator,  installer, or onsite soil evaluator in the same class for which licensure is  sought. 
    1. A year of full-time employment is defined as a minimum  of 1,760 hours during a 12-month period or a minimum of 220 workdays in a  12-month period. A workday is defined as performing or assisting in the duties  of an installer, operator, or onsite soil evaluator to the extent required for  the proper installation or maintenance of onsite sewage systems or the  evaluation of soil and soil properties for suitability as locations for onsite  sewage systems. More than 1,760 hours or 220 workdays during a 12-month period  will not be considered as more than one year of full-time employment. 
    2. Partial credit may be given for actual hours of work or  workdays experience if the applicant works less than full time. 
    Part III
  Onsite Sewage System Installers
    18VAC160-40-110. License required.
    A. No individual shall install a conventional or  alternative onsite sewage system without a valid master onsite sewage system  installer license issued by the board. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid master  and journeyman onsite sewage system installer licenses in the same class.  Issuance of a master onsite sewage system installer license in a specific class  shall void the journeyman onsite sewage system installer license in the same  class. 
    C. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid  conventional and alternative master onsite sewage system installer licenses or  convention and alternative journeyman licenses. Issuance of a master  alternative onsite sewage system installer license shall void the conventional  onsite sewage system installer license. 
    D. A journeyman onsite sewage system installer must work  under the direct supervision of a licensed master onsite sewage system  installer. A master onsite sewage system installer is responsible for supervising  the provision of onsite sewage system installations by any journeyman onsite  sewage system installers under his direct supervision.
    E. Experience used to qualify for licensure cannot be  verified by a journeyman onsite sewage system installer. 
     
         
          18VAC160-40-120. Qualifications for journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one  of the following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director,    or officer of a properly licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system    (SDS) specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors | No | No | Six months of full-time    experience assisting with the installation of conventional or alternative    onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an onsite    soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer,    or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 2. | None | No | No | One year of full-time experience assisting with the    installation of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage    system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-130. Qualifications for master conventional  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master conventional onsite  sewage system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director, or officer of a properly    licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system (SDS) specialty issued by    the Virginia Board for Contractors  | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board covering basic    installation of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems | One year of full-time experience installing conventional    or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 2.  | Employee, owner, director, or officer of a properly    licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system (SDS) specialty issued by    the Virginia Board for Contractors | Yes | No | Two years of full-time experience installing conventional    or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 3. | Interim installer or journeyman license | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board covering basic    installation of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems | Two years of full-time experience installing conventional    or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 4. | Interim installer or journeyman installer license | Yes | No | Three years of full-time experience installing    conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of    the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system installer, a    professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by    VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-140. Qualification for exemption from  examination for master conventional onsite sewage system installer applicants.
    Applicants seeking licensure as a conventional onsite  sewage system installer may be exempt from the examination, provided the board  receives the applicable application before July 1, 2016, and the applicant:
    1. Is able to satisfactorily demonstrate that he has been  actively engaged in performing the duties of a conventional onsite sewage  system installer for at least eight years within the 12-year period immediately  preceding the date of the application. Documentation of qualifying experience  may be verified by a conventional or alternative onsite soil evaluator, a  conventional or alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional  engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July  1, 2009; and
    2. Meets the requirements of 18VAC160-40-60.
    18VAC160-40-150. Qualifications for journeyman alternative  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as an alternative onsite sewage  system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director,    or officer of a properly licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system    (SDS) specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors  | No | No | One year of full-time    experience assisting with the installation of alternative onsite sewage    systems verified by one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil    evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009 | 
       | 2. | None | No | No | Two years of full-time    experience assisting with the installation of alternative onsite sewage    systems verified by one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil    evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-160. Qualifications for master alternative  onsite sewage system installer licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master alternative onsite  sewage system installer shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | 1. | Employee, owner, director,    or officer of a properly licensed contractor with a sewage disposal system    (SDS) specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors | Yes | No | Two years of full-time    experience installing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or    more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative    onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | 20 hours of training    approved by the board covering basic installation of alternative onsite    sewage systems | Three years of full-time    experience installing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or    more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative    onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 3. | Interim alternative onsite sewage system installer or conventional    onsite sewage system installer license | Yes | No | 18 months of full-time experience installing alternative onsite sewage    systems verified by one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil    evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage system installer, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009 | 
       | 4. | No | Yes | 20 hours of training    approved by the board covering the basic installation of alternative onsite    sewage systems | 18 months of full-time    experience installing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or    more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative    onsite sewage system installer, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    Part IV
  Onsite Sewage System Operators
    18VAC160-40-170. License required.
    A. No individual shall operate a conventional or  alternative onsite sewage system without a valid master onsite sewage system  operator license issued by the board. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid master  and onsite sewage system operator licenses in the same class. Issuance of a  master onsite sewage system operator license in a specific class shall void the  journeyman onsite sewage system operator license in the same class. 
    C. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid  conventional and alternative onsite sewage system operator licenses or  conventional and alternative journeyman onsite sewage system operator licenses.  Issuance of a master alternative onsite sewage system operator license shall  void the conventional onsite sewage system operator license. 
    D. A journeyman onsite sewage system operator must work  under the direct supervision of a licensed master onsite sewage system  operator. An onsite sewage system operator is responsible for supervising the  operation of the onsite sewage system by any journeyman onsite sewage system  operator under his responsibility. 
    E. Experience used to qualify for licensure cannot be  verified by a journeyman onsite sewage system operator. 
    18VAC160-40-180. Qualifications for journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman conventional  onsite sewage system operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that the  following qualification has been met:
           | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying    Experience | 
       | None | No | No | Six months of full-time    experience assisting with the operation and maintenance of conventional or    alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following:    an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage system operator, a professional    engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009  | 
  
    18VAC160-40-190. Qualifications for master conventional  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master conventional onsite  sewage system operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Wastewater works operator license | Yes | No | None | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | 10 hours of education approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of conventional onsite sewage systems | Six months of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 3.  | No | Yes | No | One year of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an onsite soil evaluator, an onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-200. Qualification for exemption from  examination for master conventional onsite sewage system operator applicants.
    Applicants seeking licensure as a master conventional  onsite sewage system operator may be exempt from the examination provided the  applicant:
    1. Is able to satisfactorily demonstrate that he has been  actively engaged in performing the duties of a conventional onsite sewage  system operator for at least four years. Documentation of qualifying experience  may be verified by a conventional or alternative soil evaluation, a  conventional or alternative onsite sewage system operator, a professional  engineer, or an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July  1, 2009; and 
    2. Meets the requirements of 18VAC160-40-60.
    18VAC160-40-210. Qualifications for journeyman alternative  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman alternative  onsite sewage operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | None | No | 20 hours of education approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | One year of full-time experience assisting with the    operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an    alternative sewage system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 2. | None | No | None | Two years of full-time experience assisting with the    operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an    alternative sewage system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
  
    18VAC160-40-220. Qualifications for master alternative  onsite sewage system operator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master alternative onsite  sewage system operator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Held or holds a conventional onsite sewage system    operator license | Yes | 10 hours of training approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | One year of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009  | 
       | 2. | Held or holds a conventional onsite sewage system    operator license | Yes | No | One year of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 3. | None | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board covering the    basics of operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | Two years of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 4. | Wastewater works operator license | Yes | No | Six months of full-time experience in the operation and    maintenance of onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an alternative onsite soil evaluator, an alternative onsite sewage    system operator, a professional engineer, or an authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | 
       | 5. | Wastewater works operator license | Yes | 20 hours of training approved by the board in basics of    operation and maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems | No | 
  
    Part V
  Onsite Soil Evaluator
    18VAC160-40-230. License required.
    A. Notwithstanding the provisions of Chapter 4 (§ 54.1-400  et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, no individual shall evaluate  soils and soil properties for suitability as locations for or design  conventional or alternative onsite sewage systems without possessing a valid  license issued by the board. 
    B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold master and  journeyman onsite soil evaluator licenses in the same class. Issuance of a  master onsite soil evaluator license in a specific class shall void the  journeyman onsite soil evaluator license in the same class. 
    C. An individual cannot simultaneously hold valid  conventional and alternative onsite soil evaluator licenses or conventional and  alternative journeyman onsite soil evaluator licenses. Issuance of an  alternative master onsite soil evaluator license shall void the conventional  onsite soil evaluator license. 
    D. A journeyman onsite soil evaluator must work under the  direct supervision of a master onsite soil evaluator. A master onsite soil  evaluator of an equal or greater class is responsible for supervising the  provision of onsite soil evaluations and designs by any journeyman onsite soil  evaluator under his responsibility. 
    E. Experience to qualify for licensure cannot be verified  by a journeyman onsite soil evaluator. 
    18VAC160-40-240. Qualifications for journeyman conventional  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman conventional  onsite soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following has been met:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Virginia professional soil scientist license | No | No | No | 
       | 2. | No | No | No | One and one-half years of full-time experience assisting    in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design of conventional    onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized    soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer,    or an onsite soil evaluator  | 
       | 3. | No | No | VDH onsite system training | One year of full-time experience assisting in the    evaluation of site and soil conditions and design of conventional onsite    sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or    an onsite soil evaluator | 
  
    18VAC160-40-250. Qualifications for master conventional  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master conventional onsite  soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following  qualifications has been met:
           |   | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | No | Yes | Master's or bachelor's degree | One and one-half years of full-time experience evaluating    site and soil conditions and designing conventional onsite sewage systems    verified by one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator    certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an onsite    soil evaluator  | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | Associate's degree | Three years of full-time    experience evaluating site and soil conditions and designing conventional    onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized    onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional    engineer, or an onsite soil evaluator | 
       | 3. | No | Yes | VDH onsite sewage system program | Two years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing conventional onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an onsite soil    evaluator | 
       | 4. | Journeyman or interim conventional onsite soil evaluator | Yes | No | Three years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing conventional onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an onsite soil    evaluator | 
  
    18VAC160-40-260. Qualifications for journeyman alternative  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a journeyman alternative  onsite soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the  following qualifications has been meet:
           |  | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | Virginia professional soil scientist license | No | No | One year of full-time experience assisting in the    evaluation of site and soil conditions and design of alternative onsite    sewage systems verified by one or more of the following: an authorized onsite    soil evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer,    or an alternative soil evaluator  | 
       | 2. | Possess or held either a    valid interim alternative onsite soil evaluator license or a conventional    onsite soil evaluator license | No | No | One year of full-time    experience assisting in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design    of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative soil evaluator | 
       | 3. | An authorized onsite soil    evaluator certified by VDH before July 1, 2009 | No | No | One year of full-time    experience assisting in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design    of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative soil evaluator | 
       | 4. | No | No | No | Two years of full-time    experience assisting in the evaluation of site and soil conditions and design    of alternative onsite sewage systems verified by one or more of the    following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH before July    1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative soil evaluator | 
  
    18VAC160-40-270. Qualifications for master alternative  onsite soil evaluator licenses.
    An applicant for licensure as a master alternative onsite  soil evaluator shall furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following  qualifications has been met: 
           |   | Prerequisites | Exam Required | Education Required | Documented Qualifying Experience | 
       | 1. | No | Yes | Master's or bachelor's degree | One and one-half years of full-time experience evaluating    site and soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems    verified by one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator    certified by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an    alternative onsite soil evaluator  | 
       | 2. | No | Yes | Associate's degree | Three years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
       | 3. | Held or holds a conventional onsite soil evaluator    license | Yes | No | Two years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
       | 4. | No | Yes | No | Three years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
       | 5. | An authorized onsite soil evaluator certified by VDH    before July 1, 2009 | Yes | No | Two years of full-time experience evaluating site and    soil conditions and designing alternative onsite sewage systems verified by    one or more of the following: an authorized onsite soil evaluator certified    by VDH before July 1, 2009, a professional engineer, or an alternative onsite    soil evaluator | 
  
         
          18VAC160-40-280. Acceptable degree programs and verification  procedures.
    A. Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on  completion of an associate's, bachelor's, or master's degree shall submit an  official transcript form the school where the applicable degree was obtained.  Only degrees from an accredited college or university that is approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges, a regional or national accreditation  association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S.  Secretary of Education will be considered. The following degrees shall be  considered to qualify in accordance with 18VAC160-40-250 and 18VAC160-40-270:
    1. Bachelor's or master's degree in soil science, biology,  chemistry, engineering, environmental science, geology, agronomy, earth  science, or environmental health.
    2. Associate's degree in wastewater works, environmental  science, or engineering technology.
    3. Bachelor's degree in a related physical, biological,  environmental, or chemical science that includes a minimum of 40 semester  credit hours in any combination of science and math.
    B. Any applicant who has earned a degree from an  institution outside of the United States shall have the degree authenticated  and evaluated by an education credential evaluation services. The board  reserves the right to reject any evaluation submitted by the applicant. 
    Part VI
  Renewal and Reinstatement
    18VAC160-40-290. Expiration and renewal.
    A. A license shall expire two years from the last day of  the month in which it was issued. 
    B. Prior to the expiration date shown on the license, the  board shall mail a renewal notice to the licensee's address of record. The  licensee shall return a renewal notice and the applicable renewal fee. Failure  to receive a renewal notice from the board does not relieve the licensee of the  obligation to renew. If the licensee fails to receive the renewal notice, a  copy of the license may be submitted with the required fee as an application  for renewal. 
    C. By submitting the renewal fee, the licensee is  certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice and Conduct  (Part VI (18VAC160-40-440 et seq.) of this chapter) as established by the  board. In addition, by submitting the renewal fee, licensees are certifying  compliance with the continuing professional education requirements of this  chapter. 
    18VAC160-40-300. Reinstatement.
    A. If all the requirements for renewal of the license as  specified in 18VAC160-40-290 are not completed within 30 days of the license  expiration date, a reinstatement fee shall be required as established in  18VAC160-40-40.
    B. A license may be reinstated for up to one year  following the expiration date of the license. Any licensee who fails to  reinstate the license within 12 months after the expiration date shall apply  for a new license and meet entry requirements in effect at the time of  submittal of the new application. The individual shall be deemed to be eligible  to sit for the examination for the same profession, class, and category of  license as the expired license, if an examination is applicable. 
    C. By submitting the reinstatement fee, the licensee is  certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice and Conduct  (Part VI (18VAC160-40-440 et seq.) of this chapter) as established by the  board. In addition, by submitting the reinstatement fee, licensees are certifying  compliance with the continued professional education requirements of this  chapter. 
    D. Any regulated activity conducted subsequent to the  license expiration date may constitute unlicensed activity and be subject to  prosecution under Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et eq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    18VAC160-40-310. Status of license during period prior to  reinstatement.
    A licensee who applies for reinstatement of the license  shall be subject to all laws and regulations as if the regulant had been  continuously licensed. The licensee shall remain under and be subject to the  disciplinary authority of the board during the entire period. 
    18VAC160-40-320. Board discretion to deny renewal or  reinstatement.
    A. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of license  for the same reasons as the board may refuse initial licensure or discipline a  licensee. 
    B. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a  licensee if the licensee has been subject to a disciplinary proceeding and has  not met the terms of an agreement for licensure, has not satisfied all  sanctions, or has not fully paid monetary penalties and costs imposed by the  board. 
    Part VII
  Continuing Professional Education
    18VAC160-40-330. Continuing professional education.
    A. Each licensee shall have completed the following number  of continuing professional education (CPE) contact hours during each renewal  cycle. CPE provisions do not apply to licenses that were held for less than two  years on the date of expiration. 
    1. Master alternative and conventional onsite soil  evaluators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite sewage system operators  shall obtain a minimum of 20 contact hours.
    2. Journeyman alternative and conventional onsite soil  evaluators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite sewage system operators  shall obtain a minimum of 10 contact hours. 
    B. CPE courses completed during the license period  immediately prior to the expiration date of the license shall be acceptable in  order to renew the license. CPE courses completed during a license renewal  cycle to satisfy the CPE requirements of the preceding licensing renewal cycle  shall be valid only for that preceding license renewal cycle and shall not be  accepted for subsequent renewal cycles. 
    C. The licensee will not receive credit for completing the  same CPE course with the same content more than once during a license period. 
    D. A licensee may receive CPE credit for teaching a course  that otherwise meets the requirements of this chapter; however, additional  credit shall not be given for subsequent offering of a course or activity with  the same content within the same licensing cycle. In addition a licensee may  receive two hours of CPE no more than once during a single licensing cycle for  the initial development or substantial updating of a CPE course. 
    E. For all licenses, safety subjects shall not count for  more than one half of the total required CPE hours. 
    18VAC160-40-340. CPE subject matter for onsite sewage system  installers.
    The following course topics will be accepted for CPE  credit for onsite sewage installers:
    1. Sewage system installation;
    2. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    3. Security and safety procedures;
    4. General science and mathematical principles;
    5. Administrative knowledge and procedures applicable to  the profession;
    6. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession;
    7. Monitoring, evaluating and adjusting treatment processes  (alternative onsite sewage system installers only); and
    8. Management and supervision principles (master onsite  sewage system installer only, maximum of five credit hours).
    18VAC160-40-350. CPE subject matter for onsite sewage system  operators.
    The following course topics will be accepted for credit  for onsite sewage system operators:
    1. Onsite system operations;
    2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment  processes;
    3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
    4. Security and safety procedures;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative knowledge applicable to the profession;
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession; and
    8. Management and supervision principles (applicable to  master onsite sewage system operations only, maximum of five credit hours).
    18VAC160-40-360. CPE subject matter for onsite soil evaluators.
    The following course topics will be accepted for  credit for onsite soil evaluators:
    1. Site and soil evaluations;
    2. Security and safety procedures;
    3. System design;
    4. Inspections;
    5. General science and mathematical principles;
    6. Administrative knowledge and procedures applicable to  the profession;
    7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession; and
    8. Management and supervision principles (applicable to  master onsite soil evaluators only, maximum of five contact hours).
    18VAC160-40-370. Use of training credits and formal  education for CPE credit.
    Any course approved by the board for substitution as  training credits or formal education semester hours, as provided for in  18VAC160-40-70 or 18VAC160-40-280, shall also be acceptable on an hour-for-hour  basis for CPE contact hours. One semester hour of college credit shall equal 15  CPE contact hours, and one-quarter hour of college credit shall equal 10 CPE  hours. The training credits or formal education must be applicable to the  license for which CPE credit is sought. 
    18VAC160-40-380. Maintenance of CPE.
    A. For a period of at least two years following the end of  the license renewal cycle for which the CPE was taken, the following evidence  shall be maintained to document completion of the required CPE.
    1. Evidence of completion of a structured training  activity, which shall consist of the name, address, and telephone number of the  sponsor;
    2. The dates the licensee participated in the training;
    3. Description of the subject matter presented; and 
    4. A statement from the sponsor verifying the number of  hours completed.
    B. The board may conduct an audit of its licensees to  ensure compliance with the applicable CPE requirements. Licensees who are  selected for audit shall provide the necessary documentation stipulated in this  section. 
    Part VIII
  Training Course Approval
    18VAC160-40-390. Approval of training courses.
    A. Training courses may be substituted for experience  pursuant to the provisions of 18VAC160-40-70. With the exception of training  courses provided pursuant to 18VAC160-40-330, training courses that may be  substituted for required experience must be approved by the board prior to  commencing in accordance with the provisions of this section.
    B. Each training provider seeking course approval shall  submit an application for approval on a form provided by the board. Training  courses for which experience credit may be granted must be conducted in general  conformance with the guidelines of the International Association for Continued  Education and Training (association). The board reserves the right to waive any  of the requirements of the association's guidelines on a case-by-case basis.  Only classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time will be used to compute  training credits. No credit will be given for breaks, meals, or receptions. 
    1. Organization. The board will only approve training  offered by a sponsor that is an identifiable organization with a mission  statement outlining its functions structure, process, and philosophy and that  has a staff of one or more persons with the authority to administer and  coordinate the training course. 
    2. Training course records. The board will only approve  training offered by a sponsor that maintains records for all participants for a  minimum of seven years and that has a written policy on retention and release  of records. 
    3. Instructors. The board will only approve training  conducted by personnel who have demonstrated competency in the subject being  taught, an understanding of the learning objective, and knowledge of the  learning process to be used. 
    4. Objectives. The board will only approve courses that  have a series of stated objectives that are pertinent to the tasks performed by  the licensee. The training course content must be consistent with those  objectives. 
    5. Course completion requirements. For successful  completion of a training course, participants must attend 90% or more of the  class contact time and must demonstrate their learning through written  examinations, completion of a project, oral examination, or other similar  assessment techniques. 
    18VAC160-40-400. Application for training course approval.
    A. The board shall consider the following information, to  be submitted by the course sponsor or instructor on forms provided by the  board:
    1. Course information.
    a. Course title;
    b. Planned audience;
    c. Name of sponsor;
    d. Name, physical address, email address, and phone number  of contact person;
    e. Scheduled presentation dates;
    f. Detailed course schedule, hour-by-hour including begin  and end times;
    g. List of planned breaks;
    h. Scheduled presentation location; and
    i. Identification of the profession, category, and class of  license to which the course is applicable and relevancy to the identified  license type.
    2. Instructor qualifications.
    a. Name of instructor;
    b. Title;
    c. Employer;
    d. Board license number or numbers, if applicable; and
    e. Summary of qualifications to teach the course.
    3. Training materials.
    a. Course objectives. A listing of the course objectives  stated in terms of the skills and knowledge the participant will be able to  demonstrate as a result of the training. 
    b. Course outline. A detailed outline showing the planned  activities that will occur during the training course, including major topics,  planned presentation sequence, laboratory and field activities, audiovisual  presentations, and other major activities. 
    c. Course reference materials. A list of the name,  publisher, and publication date for commercially available publications. For  reference materials developed by the course sponsor or available exclusively  through the course, a copy of the reference. 
    d. Audiovisual support materials. A listing of any  commercially available audiovisual support material that will be used in the  program. A brief description of any sponsor or instructor generated audiovisual  material that will be used. 
    e. Handouts. Identification of all commercially available  handout materials that will be used, as well as copies other planned handouts. 
    4. Determination of successful completion. A description of  the means that will be used to assess the learning of each participant to  determine successful completion of training program, such as examinations,  projects, personal evaluations by the instructor, or other recognized  evaluation techniques. Correspondence and other distance learning courses must  include appropriate testing procedures to verify completion of the course. 
    B. Recurring training programs. If there are plans to  present the same course of instruction routinely at multiple locations with  only minor modifications and changes, the board may approve the overall program  rather than individual presentations if so required by the sponsor. 
    1. The board shall consider all of the information listed  in subsection A of this section except those items related to specific  offerings of the course.
    2. Board approval will apply only to those specific  offerings certified by the sponsoring organization as having been conducted by  instructors meeting the established criteria and in accordance with the  board-approved course outlines and objectives. 
    18VAC160-40-410. Maintenance of training course approval.
    A. At times established by the board, the board may  require that course providers that have previously obtained course approval  provide the board with evidence, in a form set forth by the board, that the  provider continues to comply with the requirements of this chapter. Failure to  continue to comply with the board's requirements or respond to such a request  may result in the board withdrawing its approval. 
    B. Substantial modifications or changes to the information  provided in 18VAC160-40-390 and 18VAC160-40-400 must be reported to the board  within 30 days of the change. Failure to report the changes as required may  result in the withdrawal of approval by the board. 
    C. Any change of address of the training provider shall be  reported in writing within 30 days of the change. 
    D. The board may conduct an audit of the training provider  to ensure continued compliance with this chapter. 
    18VAC160-40-420. Withdrawal of approval.
    The board may withdraw approval of any provider for the  following reasons:
    1. The course or courses being offered no longer meet the  standards established by the board. 
    2. The provider, through an agent or otherwise, advertises  its services in a fraudulent or deceptive way.
    3. The provider, instructor, or designee of the provider  falsifies any information relating to the application for approval, course  information, or student records. 
    4. The provider fails to respond to the board or any of its  agents.
    18VAC160-40-430. Training course offered by certain  entities, board approval not required.
    A. Training courses provided by (i) federal, state, or  local government agencies; (ii) accredited colleges or universities approved or  accredited by the Commission on Colleges; (iii) a regional or national  accreditation association; or (iv) an accrediting agency that is recognized by  the U.S. Secretary of Education do not require board approval to be used for  experience substitution, provided the training course information submitted to  the board includes the following:
    1. The course must include the continuing education hours  awarded by the entity.
    2. The course must be related to the profession, category,  or class, if applicable, for which experience substitution is sought.
    B. The board may require additional information from the  provider as necessary to ensure compliance with this section. If such assurance  cannot be made by the board, the training course may not be used for experience  substitution, or the provider may pursue board approval pursuant to this  chapter. 
    Part IX
  Standards of Practice and Conduct
    18VAC160-40-440. Grounds for disciplinary action.
    The board may place a licensee on probation; impose a  monetary penalty in accordance in § 54.1-202 A of the Code of Virginia; or  revoke, suspend, or refuse to renew any license when the licensee has been  found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of  the regulations of the board or Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et.seq.) of Title 54.1  of the Code of Virginia. 
    18VAC160-40-450. Maintenance of license.
    A. No license issued by the board shall be assigned or  otherwise transferred. 
    B. A licensee shall report, in writing, all changes of the  address of record and name to the board within 30 days of the change and shall  return the license to the board. In addition to the address of record, a  physical address is required for each license. If the licensee holds more than  one license, the licensee shall inform the board of all licenses, certificates,  and registrations affected by the name or address change. The board shall not  be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices or correspondence  due to the licensee's failure to report a change of name or address.
    C. Any change in any of the requirements and  qualifications for licensure found in Part II (18VAC160-40-20 et seq.), III  (18VAC160-40-110 et seq.), or IV (18VAC160-40-170 et seq.) of this chapter  shall be reported to the board within 30 days of the change. 
    18VAC160-40-460. Notice of adverse action.
    A. Licensees shall notify the board of the following  actions against the licensee. 
    1. Any disciplinary action taken by any jurisdiction,  board, or administrative body of competent jurisdiction, including but not  limited to any reprimand, license or certificate revocation, suspension or  denial, monetary penalty, requirement for remedial education, or other  corrective action. 
    2. Any voluntary surrendering of a related license,  certificate, or registration done in connection with a disciplinary action in  another jurisdiction. 
    3. Any conviction, finding of guilt, or plea of guilty,  regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication, in any jurisdiction of the  United States of any misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, stealing, sexual  offense, drug distribution, physical injury, or relating to the practice of the  profession or of any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the  time for appeal having lapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the  requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo  contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this section. 
    B. Notices to the board must be made in writing within 30  days of the action. A copy of the order or other supporting documentation must  accompany the notice. The record of conviction finding or case decision shall be  considered prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt.
    18VAC160-40-470. Prohibited acts.
    The following acts are prohibited and any violation may  result in disciplinary action by the board:
    1. Violating, inducing another to violate, cooperating with  another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent,  partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1  (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), or 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.)  of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or any of the regulations of the board. 
    2. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by  another. 
    3. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license by false or  fraudulent representation, or maintaining or renewing a license by false or  fraudulent representation. 
    4. A licensee having been convicted, found guilty, or  disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in  18VAC160-40-460. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of  § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. 
    5. Failing to inform the board in writing within 30 days  that the licensee was convicted or found guilty or disciplined in any  jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC160-40-460. 
    6. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or  application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of  the licensee's duties. 
    7. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional  assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education,  experience, training, or any combination thereof. 
    8. Failing to report a change as required by  18VAC160-40-450.
    9. Negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice  of the profession. 
    10. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of  fraud or deceit in advertising, soliciting, or in providing professional  services. 
    11. Failing to adequately supervise and review work performed  by unlicensed employees or journeyman licensees under the direct supervision of  the master licensee. 
    12. Failure to obtain any permit, approval, or other  document required by VDH related to the design, installation, repair, or  operation of an onsite sewage system. 
    13. Knowingly signing plans, drawings, reports,  specifications, maps, or other documents related to an onsite sewage system not  prepared or reviewed and approved by the licensee. 
    14. Knowingly misrepresenting factual information in expressing  a professional opinion. 
    15. Failing to act in providing professional services in a  manner that safeguards the interests of the public. 
    18VAC160-40-480. Conflicts of interest.
    The licensee shall:
    1. Promptly and fully inform an employer or client of any  business association, interest, or circumstance that may influence the  licensee's judgment of the quality of service.
    2. Not accept compensation, financial or otherwise, from  more than one party for services on or pertaining to the same project, unless  the circumstances are fully disclosed to and agreed to by all interested  parties in writing. 
    3. Neither solicit nor accept financial or other valuable  consideration from material or equipment suppliers for specifying their  products or services. 
    4. Not solicit or accept gratuities, directly or  indirectly, from contractors or their agents or other parties dealing with a  client or employer in connection with work for which the licensee is  responsible.
    18VAC160-40-490. Licensee responsibility.
    A. The primary obligation of the licensee is to the  public. If the licensee's judgment is overruled and not adhered to when  advising appropriate parties of circumstances of a substantial threat to the  public health, safety, or welfare, the licensee shall inform the employer and  client, as applicable, of the possible consequences and notify appropriate  authorities. 
    B. The licensee shall not knowingly associate in a  business venture with, or permit the use of the licensee's name by, any person  or firm where there is reason to believe that person or firm is engaging in  activity of a fraudulent or dishonest nature or is violating any law or  regulation of the board. 
    C. A licensee who has direct knowledge that another  individual or firm may be violating any of the provisions of this chapter or  the provisions of Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia shall immediately inform the board in writing and shall cooperate in  furnishing any further information or assistance that may be required.
    D. Except as provided in subsection E of this section, a  licensee shall not utilize the evaluations, design, drawings, or work of  another licensee without the knowledge and written consent of the licensee or  organization of ownership that originated the design, drawings, or work. 
    E. A licensee who relies on information in VDH files or  has received permission to modify or otherwise utilize the evaluation, design,  drawings, or work of another licensee pursuant to subsection D or E of this  section may certify that work only after a thorough review of the evaluation,  design, drawings or work and after he determines that he is willing to assume  full responsibility for all design, drawings, or work on which he relies for  his opinion. 
    18VAC160-40-500. Response to inquiry and provision of  records.
    A. A licensee must respond within 10 days to a request by  the board or any of its agents regarding any complaint filed with the  department. 
    B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a licensee of  the board shall produce to the board or any of its agents within 10 days of the  request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to  a complaint filed in which the licensee was involved, or for which the licensee  is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a  showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day  period.
    C. A licensee shall not provide a false, misleading, or  incomplete response to the board or any of its agents seeking information in  the investigation of a complaint filed with the board. 
    D. With the exception of the requirements of subsection A  or B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or its  agent within 21 days. 
    18VAC160-40-510. Master licensee's professional  responsibilities.
    A. Any work performed by a journeyman regulated pursuant  to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and  this chapter shall be under the direct supervision of the master. Such master  and journeyman shall have an employment or written contractual relationship. 
    B. Each master shall maintain documentation of the  employment or contractual relationship with each journeyman under the master's  direct supervision. Such documentation shall be kept for a minimum of five  years and shall include, at a minimum, the beginning and ending dates of the  employment or contractual relationship. 
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (18VAC160-40)
    Onsite  Soil Evaluator - License Application, A465-1940LIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Onsite  Sewage System Operator License Application, A465-1942LIC-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Waiver  of Examination - Master Conventional Onsite Sewage System Operator License  Application, A436-1942WAIV-v2 (eff. 7/2016)
    Onsite  Sewage System Installer License Application, A465-1944LIC-v3 (eff. 7/2016)
    Onsite  Sewage System Applicant Experience Verification Application, A436-19OSSPEXP-v4  (eff. 7/2016)
    Continuing  Professional Education (CPE) Application - Certificate of Completion,  A436-19CPE-v3 (eff. 10/2015)
    Training  Course Approval Application, A465-19CRS-v2 (eff. 5/2013)
    Education  and Training Substitution Form, A436-19EDTR-v3 (eff. 1/2014)
    Suspension  of Examination - License Application Conventional Onsite Sewage System  Installer, A436-1944WAIVE-v4 (eff. 8/2015)
    VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4114; Filed November 13, 2015, 11:50 a.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
STATE BOARD OF SOCIAL SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 22VAC40-700. Child Protective  Services Central Registry Information (repealing 22VAC40-700-10, 22VAC40-700-20,  22VAC40-700-30).
    22VAC40-705. Child Protective Services (amending 22VAC40-705-10, 22VAC40-705-30 through 22VAC40-705-80,  22VAC40-705-110 through 22VAC40-705-140, 22VAC40-705-160, 22VAC40-705-180).
    22VAC40-720. Child Protective Services Release of  Information to Family Advocacy Representatives of the United States Armed  Forces (repealing 22VAC40-720-10, 22VAC40-720-20). 
    Statutory Authority: § 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Mary Walter, Child Protective Services  Consultant, Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 726-7569, FAX (804) 726-7499, or email mary.walter@dss.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section § 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia gives  the State Board of Social Services the responsibility to make rules and  regulations to carry out the purposes of social services. Chapter 15  (§ 63.2-1500 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia provides the  authority for the Child Protective Services (CPS) program.
    Purpose: This regulatory action is essential to protect  the health, safety, and welfare of children at risk for child abuse or neglect.  The goal of this regulatory action is to conduct a review of 22VAC40-705, amend  existing CPS requirements and add new requirements to make the CPS regulation  consistent with the Code of Virginia, clarify and strengthen the CPS program  while balancing the rights of alleged abusers with protecting children and  families, and reduce the number of regulations the public may have to review to  find CPS information.
    Substance: The provisions of the repealed regulations  (22VAC40-700 and 22VAC40-720) will be incorporated into 22VAC40-705. The two repealed  regulations include requirements for reporting to the Military Family Advocacy  Program and retention time of names of abusers and victims involved in founded  investigations within the CPS central registry. This action will reduce the  total number of regulations for the CPS program from four to two. A separate  regulation, 22VAC40-730, provides requirements specific to conducting  investigations of child abuse and neglect in an out-of-family setting by a  nonfamilial caretaker. 
    Statutory changes made in 2013 necessitate additions and  amendments to the regulation. These include provisions for (i) suspending  sexual abuse and child death investigations if reports generated outside the  local agency are necessary to make a disposition and (ii) notification to local  school boards for all founded investigations that involve any school employee. 
    Substantive proposed changes include adding: 
    • Definitions for "near fatality" and "response  time";
    • The requirement for reports to be acted upon and the victim  child to be interviewed within the determined response time; 
    • The federal requirement to notify relatives within 30 days of  removal; 
    • A requirement for a risk assessment to be completed for all  investigations; 
    • Provision for suspending certain investigations; 
    • Retention requirements for serious sexual abuse records; 
    • A requirement to notify school boards for all employees in  founded investigations and notify the individual of this action; and 
    • Training requirements for all CPS staff. 
    Substantive proposed changes include removing:
    • A requirement to invalidate reports for substance exposed  infant if mother sought counseling;
    • Directive for not rendering founded dispositions for  substance exposed infants; and
    • Reference to exact timeframes for emergency removals.
    Proposed amendments clarify the definition of mental abuse or  neglect, responsibilities for mandated reporting of substance abuse exposure  for newborns, release of information to the Military Family Advocacy, release  of information when there is a legitimate interest, and release of information  while there is a pending criminal investigation. General proposed changes (i)  improve the consistency of terminology used within this regulation, such as the  use of the term "electronic recording" versus "audio  taping"; (ii) adjust numbering, order, and format to improve the  organization and flow of requirements; and (iii) correct statutory references  to ensure the most current and accurate citation.
    Issues: One of the primary advantages to the public and  individual private citizens will be a clearer understanding of the processes  involved when making a report to CPS and the actions that are taken by CPS. The  public will benefit from having CPS staff receiving current, best practice  training annually. Local departments of social services (LDSS) will benefit  from amendments to the regulation that provide clarity and enhance existing  requirements. The public, the Commonwealth, and LDSS will benefit from having fewer  regulations. There are no disadvantages to the Commonwealth. LDSS will need to  support the training of local staff when the revised regulation is finalized.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State  Board of Social Services (Board) proposes to repeal 22VAC40-700 and 22VAC40-720  and consolidate the rules contained in these regulations into 22VAC40-705 so  that all rules relating to child protective services are in one regulation. The  Board also proposes to make many clarifying changes, as well as several  substantive changes, to current language contained in 22VAC40-705. The  substantive changes proposed by the Board include: 
    1) Removing language that requires child protective services  workers to have some indication of abuse or neglect other than prenatal drug or  alcohol exposure to make a finding that a newborn has been abused or neglected  and 
    2) Requiring child protective services (CPS) workers and  supervisors to complete a minimum of 24 hours of continuing education annually.
    Result of Analysis. Benefits outweigh costs for most proposed  regulatory changes. For two regulatory changes, there is insufficient  information to ascertain whether benefits will outweigh costs.
    Estimated Economic Impact. The Board proposes to make many  clarifying changes to this regulation. None of these clarifying changes impose  new restrictions or requirements on any entity but instead are aimed at making  regulatory text more understandable. Consequently, no entity is likely to incur  any costs on account of these changes; to the extent that CPS rules are made  less opaque, affected entities will likely benefit from them.
    Currently, regulations require child protective services  workers to have some indication of abuse or neglect other than prenatal drug or  alcohol exposure to make a finding that a newborn has been abused or neglected.  The Board proposes to remove this requirement from regulation while leaving it  in DSS policy at the behest of the Attorney General's Office. In general,  language that is part of the Virginia Administrative Code is more protective of  the public than language that is in agency policy because it is normally  legally binding and because regulatory language can normally only be changed  through a process that provides public notice and opportunities for the public  to affect the proposed changes, but agencies do not necessarily follow a  similar process when policy is changed. Because of this, parents of drug  exposed infants and members of the general public who might want an opportunity  to become involved when there is a shift in the rules Local Department of  Social Services (LDSS) work under will likely be worse off if this language is  removed from the regulation. There is insufficient information to gauge whether  benefits that might accrue on account of this change would outweigh the costs  for these individuals. 
    Current regulations do not require CPS workers to complete any  continuing education. The Board now proposes to require all CPS workers and  supervisors to complete 24 hours of continuing education annually. Board staff  reports that local LDSS do not normally have to pay for continuing education  classes because there are many class options available at no additional cost to  them. They can, for instance have CPS staff take online classes available  through the Commonwealth's online Knowledge Center, or staff can participate in  online and face-to-face classes and seminars offered through the State  Department of Social Services as well as other state and federal agencies.  Board staff reports that CPS workers and supervisors will be paid for time  spent completing required continuing education. This means that LDSS will incur  implicit costs for time that workers and supervisors spend meeting this  proposed requirement instead of completing their normal job tasks. The value of  that time can be calculated by multiplying the number of CPS workers and  supervisors by their hourly wages then by the 24 hours of newly required  continuing education. Exact numbers of CPS workers and supervisors are not  available but would be a subset of the total number of equivalent Family  Service Specialists that are in the employ of LDSS (2,245).1 These  workers have an average salary of roughly $48,000 per year (or roughly $23 per  hour).2 Using these numbers, implicit cost of LDSS time spent in  annual training for each affected CPS worker and supervisor would be roughly  $552. To the extent that continuing education helps CPS workers complete their  job tasks more efficiently or improves outcomes for CPS programs, LDSSs will  benefit from this requirement. There is insufficient information to ascertain  whether any such benefit will outweigh the costs listed above. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. These proposed regulatory  changes will affect all 120 LDSSs and their CPS workers and supervisors, as  well as families who are the subject of abuse or neglect investigations and  other individuals who might be interested in the rules that govern child  protective services.
    Localities Particularly Affected. These proposed regulatory  changes will affect all 120 LDSS.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These proposed  regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use and value of private  property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. These proposed  regulatory changes affect LDSSs and members of the public but are unlikely to  directly affect any small business in the Commonwealth.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. These proposed regulatory changes affect LDSSs and members of the  public but are unlikely to directly affect any small business in the  Commonwealth.
    Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory  changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs.
    ___________________
            Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Social Services concurs with the economic impact analysis  prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    Proposed amendments include adding (i) definitions for  "near fatality" and "response time," (ii) a requirement for  reports to be acted upon and the victim child to be interviewed within a  determined response time, (iii) a federal requirement to notify relatives  within 30 days of removal, (iv) a requirement for a risk assessment to be  completed for all investigations, (v) provisions for suspending certain  investigations, (vi) retention requirements for serious sexual abuse records,  (vii) a requirement to notify school boards for all employees in founded  investigations and to notify the individual of this action, (viii) and training  requirements for all Child Protective Services staff. 
    Proposed amendments include removing (i) a requirement to  invalidate reports for substance exposed infant if the mother sought  counseling, (ii) the directive for not rendering founded dispositions for  substance exposed infants, and (iii) a reference to exact timeframes for  emergency removals.
    Proposed amendments generally (i) clarify the definition of  "mental abuse or neglect," the responsibilities for mandated  reporting of substance abuse exposure for newborns, the release of information  to the Military Family Advocacy, the release of information when there is a  legitimate interest, and the release of information while there is a pending  criminal investigation; (ii) reorganize and renumber sections for clarity; and  (iii) update references to the Code of Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. 
    "Abuser or neglector" means any person who is found  to have committed the abuse and/or neglect of a child pursuant to Chapter 15 (§ 63.2-1500 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Administrative appeal rights" means the child  protective services appeals procedures for a local level informal conference  and a state level hearing pursuant to § 63.2-1526 of the Code of Virginia,  under which an individual who is found to have committed abuse and/or neglect  may request that the local department's records be amended.
    "Alternative treatment options" means treatments  used to prevent or treat illnesses or promote health and well-being outside the  realm of modern conventional medicine.
    "Appellant" means anyone who has been found to be  an abuser and/or neglector and appeals the founded disposition to the director  of the local department of social services, an administrative hearing officer,  or to circuit court. 
    "Assessment" means the process by which child  protective services workers determine a child's and family's needs. 
    "Caretaker" means any individual having the  responsibility of providing care for a child and includes the following: (i)  parent or other person legally responsible for the child's care; (ii) any other  person who has assumed caretaking responsibility by virtue of an agreement with  the legally responsible person; (iii) persons responsible by virtue of their  positions of conferred authority; and (iv) adult persons residing in the home  with the child. 
    "Case record" means a collection of information  maintained by a local department, including written material, letters,  documents, tapes, photographs, film or other materials regardless of physical  form about a specific child protective services investigation, family or  individual. 
    "Central Registry" means a subset of the child  abuse and neglect information system and is the name index with identifying  information of individuals named as an abuser and/or neglector in founded child  abuse and/or neglect complaints or reports not currently under administrative  appeal, maintained by the department. 
    "Certified substance abuse counselor" means a  person certified to provide substance abuse counseling in a state-approved  public or private substance abuse program or facility. 
    "Child abuse and neglect information system" means  the computer system which that collects and maintains information  regarding incidents of child abuse and neglect involving parents or other  caretakers. The computer system is composed of three parts: the statistical  information system with nonidentifying information, the Central Registry of  founded complaints not on appeal, and a database that can be accessed only by  the department and local departments that contains all nonpurged CPS reports.  This system is the official state automated system. 
    "Child protective services" means the  identification, receipt and immediate response to complaints and reports of  alleged child abuse and/or neglect for children under 18 years of age. It also  includes assessment, and arranging for and providing necessary protective and  rehabilitative services for a child and his family when the child has been  found to have been abused or neglected or is at risk of being abused or  neglected. 
    "Child protective services worker" means one who is  qualified by virtue of education, training and supervision and is employed by  the local department to respond to child protective services complaints and  reports of alleged child abuse and/or neglect. 
    "Chronically and irreversibly comatose" means a  condition caused by injury, disease or illness in which a patient has suffered  a loss of consciousness with no behavioral evidence of self-awareness or  awareness of surroundings in a learned manner other than reflexive activity of  muscles and nerves for low-level conditioned response and from which to a  reasonable degree of medical probability there can be no recovery. 
    "Collateral" means a person whose personal or  professional knowledge may help confirm or rebut the allegations of child abuse  and/or neglect or whose involvement may help ensure the safety of the child. 
    "Complaint" means any information or allegation of  child abuse and/or neglect made orally or in writing pursuant to § 63.2-100  of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Consultation" means the process by which the  alleged abuser and/or neglector may request an informal meeting to discuss the  investigative findings with the local department prior to the local department  rendering a founded disposition of abuse and/or neglect against that person  pursuant to § 63.2-1526 A of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Controlled substance" means a drug, substance or  marijuana as defined in § 18.2-247 of the Code of Virginia including those  terms as they are used or defined in the Drug Control Act, Chapter 34  (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. The term does  not include alcoholic beverages or tobacco as those terms are defined or used  in Title 3.1 or Title 4.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Social Services. 
    "Differential response system" means that local  departments of social services may respond to valid reports or complaints of  child abuse or neglect by conducting either a family assessment or an  investigation. 
    "Disposition" means the determination of whether or  not child abuse and/or neglect has occurred. 
    "Documentation" means information and materials,  written or otherwise, concerning allegations, facts and evidence. 
    "Family Advocacy Program representative" means the  professional employed by the United States Armed Forces who has responsibility  for the program designed to address prevention, identification, evaluation,  treatment, rehabilitation, follow-up and reporting of family violence, pursuant  to 22VAC40-720-20 22VAC40-705-140. 
    "Family assessment" means the collection of  information necessary to determine: 
    1. The immediate safety needs of the child; 
    2. The protective and rehabilitative services needs of the  child and family that will deter abuse or neglect; 
    3. Risk of future harm to the child; and 
    4. Alternative plans for the child's safety if protective and  rehabilitative services are indicated and the family is unable or unwilling to  participate in services. These arrangements may be made in consultation with  the caretaker(s) of the child. 
    "First source" means any direct evidence  establishing or helping to establish the existence or nonexistence of a fact.  Indirect evidence and anonymous complaints do no constitute first source  evidence. 
    "Founded" means that a review of the facts shows by  a preponderance of the evidence that child abuse and/or neglect has occurred. A  determination that a case is founded shall be based primarily on first source  evidence; in no instance shall a determination that a case is founded be based  solely on indirect evidence or an anonymous complaint. 
    "He" means he or she.
    "His" means his or her.
    "Identifying information" means name, social  security number, address, race, sex, and date of birth.
    "Indirect evidence" means any statement made  outside the presence of the child protective services worker and relayed to the  child protective services worker as proof of the contents of the statement.
    "Informed opinion" means that the child has been  informed and understands the benefits and risks, to the extent known, of the treatment  recommended by conventional medical providers for his condition and the  alternative treatment being considered as well as the basis of efficacy for  each, or lack thereof.
    "Investigation" means the collection of information  to determine:
    1. The immediate safety needs of the child;
    2. The protective and rehabilitative services needs of the  child and family that will deter abuse or neglect;
    3. Risk of future harm to the child;
    4. Alternative plans for the child's safety if protective and  rehabilitative services are indicated and the family is unable or unwilling to  participate in services;
    5. Whether or not abuse or neglect has occurred;
    6. If abuse or neglect has occurred, who abused or neglected  the child; and
    7. A finding of either founded or unfounded based on the facts  collected during the investigation.
    "Investigative narrative" means the written account  of the investigation contained in the child protective services case record.
    "Legitimate interest" means a lawful, demonstrated  privilege to access the information as defined in § 63.2-104 63.2-105  of the Code of Virginia.
    "Licensed substance abuse treatment practitioner"  means a person who (i) is trained in and engages in the practice of substance  abuse treatment with individuals or groups of individuals suffering from the  effects of substance abuse or dependence, and in the prevention of substance  abuse or dependence and (ii) is licensed to provide advanced substance abuse  treatment and independent, direct and unsupervised treatment to such individuals  or groups of individuals, and to plan, evaluate, supervise, and direct  substance abuse treatment provided by others.
    "Life-threatening condition" means a condition that  if left untreated more likely than not will result in death and for which the  recommended medical treatments carry a probable chance of impairing the health  of the individual or a risk of terminating the life of the individual.
    "Local department" means the city or county local  agency of social services or department of public welfare in the Commonwealth  of Virginia responsible for conducting investigations or family assessments of  child abuse and/or neglect complaints or reports pursuant to § 63.2-1503 of the  Code of Virginia.
    "Local department of jurisdiction" means the local  department in the city or county in Virginia where the alleged victim child  resides or in which the alleged abuse and/or neglect is believed to have  occurred. If neither of these is known, then the local department of  jurisdiction shall be the local department in the county or city where the  abuse and/or neglect was discovered.
    "Mandated reporters" means those persons who are  required to report suspicions of child abuse and/or neglect pursuant to § 63.2-1509  of the Code of Virginia.
    "Monitoring" means contacts with the child, family  and collaterals which provide information about the child's safety and the  family's compliance with the service plan.
    "Multidisciplinary teams" means any organized group  of individuals representing, but not limited to, medical, mental health, social  work, education, legal and law enforcement, which will assist local departments  in the protection and prevention of child abuse and neglect pursuant to § 63.2-1503 K of the Code of Virginia. Citizen representatives may also be  included.
    "Near fatality" means an act that, as certified  by a physician, places the child in serious or critical condition. Serious or  critical condition is a life-threatening condition or injury. 
    "Notification" means informing designated and  appropriate individuals of the local department's actions and the individual's  rights.
    "Particular medical treatment" means a process or  procedure that is recommended by conventional medical providers and accepted by  the conventional medical community.
    "Preponderance of evidence" means the evidence as a  whole shows that the facts are more probable and credible than not. It is  evidence which is of greater weight or more convincing than the evidence  offered in opposition. 
    "Purge" means to delete or destroy any reference  data and materials specific to subject identification contained in records  maintained by the department and the local department pursuant to §§ 63.2-1513  and 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Reasonable diligence" means the exercise of  justifiable and appropriate persistent effort. 
    "Report" means either a complaint as defined in  this section or an official document on which information is given concerning  abuse and neglect. A Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia,  a report is required to be made by persons designated herein and by local  departments in those situations in which a response to a complaint from the  general public reveals suspected child abuse and/or neglect pursuant to subdivision  5 of the definition of abused or neglected child in § 63.2-100 of the  Code of Virginia.
    "Response time" means the urgency in which a  valid report of suspected child abuse or neglect is initiated by the local  department based on the child's immediate safety or other factors.
    "Safety plan" means an immediate course of action  designed to protect a child from abuse or neglect.
    "Service plan" means a plan of action to address  the service needs of a child and/or his family in order to protect a child and  his siblings, to prevent future abuse and neglect, and to preserve the family  life of the parents and children whenever possible.
    "State automated system" means the "child  abuse and neglect information system" as previously defined.
    "Substance abuse counseling or treatment services"  are services provided to individuals for the prevention, diagnosis, treatment,  or palliation of chemical dependency, which may include attendant medical and  psychiatric complications of chemical dependency.
    "Sufficiently mature" is determined on a  case-by-case basis and means that a child has no impairment of his cognitive  ability and is of a maturity level capable of having intelligent views on the  subject of his health condition and medical care.
    "Terminal condition" means a condition caused by  injury, disease or illness from which to a reasonable degree of medical  probability a patient cannot recover and (i) the patient's death is imminent or  (ii) the patient is chronically and irreversibly comatose. 
    "Unfounded" means that a review of the facts does  not show by a preponderance of the evidence that child abuse or neglect  occurred. 
    "Valid report or complaint" means the local  department of social services has evaluated the information and allegations of  the report or complaint and determined that the local department shall conduct  an investigation or family assessment because the following elements are  present: 
    1. The alleged victim child or children are under the age of  18 at the time of the complaint or report; 
    2. The alleged abuser is the alleged victim child's parent or  other caretaker; 
    3. The local department receiving the complaint or report is a  local department of jurisdiction; and 
    4. The circumstances described allege suspected child abuse or  neglect. 
    "Withholding of medically indicated treatment"  means the failure to respond to the infant's life-threatening condition by  providing treatment (including appropriate nutrition, hydration, and  medication) which in the treating physician's or physicians' reasonable medical  judgment will most likely be effective in ameliorating or correcting all such  conditions. 
    22VAC40-705-30. Types of abuse and neglect.
    A. Physical abuse occurs when a caretaker creates or  inflicts, threatens to create or inflict, or allows to be created or inflicted upon  a child a physical injury by other than accidental means or creates a  substantial risk of death, disfigurement, or impairment of bodily functions,  including, but not limited to, a child who is with his parent or other person  responsible for his care either (i) during the manufacture or attempted  manufacture of a Schedule I or II controlled substance or (ii) during the  unlawful sale of such substance by that child's parents or other person  responsible for his care, where such manufacture, or attempted manufacture or  unlawful sale would constitute a felony violation of § 18.2-248 of the  Code of Virginia.
    B. Physical neglect occurs when there is the failure to  provide food, clothing, shelter, necessary medical treatment, or  supervision for a child to the extent that the child's health or safety is  endangered. This also includes abandonment and situations where the parent's or  caretaker's own incapacitating behavior or absence prevents or severely limits  the performing of child caring tasks pursuant to § 63.2-100 of the Code of  Virginia. This also includes a child under the age of 18 years whose  parent or other person responsible for his care knowingly leaves the child  alone in the same dwelling as a person, not related by blood or marriage, who  has been convicted of an offense against a minor for which registration is  required as a violent sexual offender pursuant to § 9.1-902 of the Code of  Virginia. In situations where the neglect is the result of family poverty and  there are no outside resources available to the family, the parent or caretaker  shall not be determined to have neglected the child; however, the local  department may provide appropriate services to the family. 
    1. Physical neglect may include multiple occurrences or a  one-time critical or severe event that results in a threat to health or safety.  
    2. Physical neglect may include failure to thrive. 
    a. Failure to thrive occurs as a syndrome of infancy and early  childhood which that is characterized by growth failure, signs of  severe malnutrition, and variable degrees of developmental retardation. 
    b. Failure to thrive can only be diagnosed by a physician and  is caused by nonorganic factors. 
    3. Physical neglect may include medical neglect.
    C. a. Medical neglect occurs when there is the  failure by the caretaker to obtain or follow through with a complete regimen of  medical, mental, or dental care for a condition which that  if untreated could result in illness or developmental delays pursuant to § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia. However, a decision by parents or other  persons legally responsible for the child to refuse a particular medical  treatment for a child with a life-threatening condition shall not be  deemed a refusal to provide necessary care if (i) such decision is made jointly  by the parents or other person legally responsible for the child and the child;  (ii) the child has reached 14 years of age and sufficiently mature to have an  informed opinion on the subject of his medical treatment; (iii) the parents or  other person legally responsible for the child and the child have considered  alternative treatment options; and (iv) the parents or other person legally  responsible for the child and the child believe in good faith that such  decision is in the child's best interest. 
    b. Medical neglect also includes withholding of  medically indicated treatment.
    1. (1) A child who, in good faith, is under  treatment solely by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the  tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination pursuant  to § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia shall not for that reason alone be  considered a neglected child in accordance with § 63.2-100 of the Code of  Virginia.
    2. (2) For the purposes of this regulation  chapter, "withholding of medically indicated treatment" does  not include the failure to provide treatment (other than appropriate nutrition,  hydration, or medication) to an infant when in the treating physician's or  physicians' reasonable medical judgment:
    a. (a) The infant is chronically and  irreversibly comatose;
    b. (b) The infant has a terminal condition and  the provision of such treatment would: (1) Merely (i) merely  prolong dying; (2) Not (ii) not be effective in ameliorating or  correcting all of the infant's life-threatening conditions; (3) Otherwise  (iii) otherwise be futile in terms of the survival of the infant; or (4)  Be (iv) be virtually futile in terms of the survival of the infant  and the treatment itself under such circumstances would be inhumane.
    D. C. Mental abuse or neglect occurs when a  caretaker creates or inflicts, threatens to create or inflict, or allows to be  created or inflicted upon a child a mental injury by other than accidental  means or creates a substantial risk of impairment of mental functions.
    1. Mental abuse or neglect includes acts of omission by the  caretaker resulting in harm to a child's psychological or emotional health or  development. 
    2. Professional documentation supporting a nexus between  the actions or inactions of the caretaker and the mental dysfunction or threat  of dysfunction demonstrated by the child is required in order to make a founded  disposition. 
    3. Mental abuse or neglect may include failure to  thrive.
    1. a. Failure to thrive occurs as a syndrome of  infancy and early childhood which that is characterized by growth  failure, signs of severe malnutrition, and variable degrees of developmental  retardation.
    2. b. Failure to thrive can only be diagnosed by  a physician and is caused by nonorganic factors.
    E. D. Sexual abuse occurs when there is the  child's parents or other persons responsible for the care commits or allows to  be committed any act of sexual exploitation or any sexual act upon a child  in violation of the law which is committed or allowed to be committed by the  child's parents or other persons responsible for the care of the child pursuant  to § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-40. Complaints and reports of suspected child abuse  and/or neglect.
    A. Persons who are mandated to report are those individuals  defined in § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia.
    1. Mandated reporters shall report immediately any suspected  abuse or neglect that they learn of in their professional capacity. No  person shall be required to make a report pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code  of Virginia if unless the person has actual knowledge that the same  matter has already been reported to the local department or the department's  toll-free child abuse and neglect hotline.
    2. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia, if  information is received by a teacher, staff member, resident, intern, or nurse  in the course of his professional services mandated reporters in a  hospital, school, or other similar institution, such person may in  place of said report, immediately notify make reports of suspected abuse  or neglect immediately to the person in charge of the institution or  department, or his designee, who shall then make such report forthwith If  the initial report of suspected abuse or neglect is made to the person in  charge of the institution or department, or his designee, such person shall (i)  notify the teacher, staff member, resident, intern, or nurse who made the  initial report when the report of suspected child abuse or neglect is made to  the local department or to the department's toll-free child abuse and neglect  hotline; (ii) provide the name of the individual receiving the report; and  (iii) forward any communication resulting from the report, including any  information about any actions taken regarding the report, to the person who  made the initial report. on the mandated reporters' behalf. This person  shall notify the mandated reporter when and to whom he made the report, as well  as forward any other communication resulting from the report, including any  action taken, to the mandated reporter.
    3. Mandated reporters shall disclose all information that is  the basis for the suspicion of child abuse or neglect and shall make available,  upon request, to the local department any records and reports that document the  basis for the complaint and/or report.
    4. A Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 D of the Code of  Virginia, a mandated reporter's failure to report as soon as possible, but  no longer than 24 hours after having reason to suspect a reportable offense of  child abuse or neglect, shall result in a fine. In cases evidencing  acts of rape, sodomy, or object sexual penetration as defined in Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2 of the Code of Virginia, a person  who knowingly and intentionally fails to make the report required pursuant  to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia shall be guilty of a Class 1  misdemeanor.
    5. A person who knowingly and intentionally fails to make a  report in cases of rape, sodomy, or object sexual penetration shall be guilty  of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
    5. 6. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 B of the Code of  Virginia, a "reason certain specified facts indicating that a  newborn may have been exposed to a controlled substance prior to birth are  sufficient to suspect that a child is abused or neglected".  This shall include (i) a finding made by a health care provider within six  weeks of the birth of a child that the results of toxicology studies of the  child indicate the presence of a controlled substance that was not prescribed  for the mother by a physician; (ii) a finding made by a health care provider  within six weeks of the birth of a child that the child was born dependent on a  controlled substance that was not prescribed by a physician for the mother and  has demonstrated withdrawal symptoms; (iii) a diagnosis made by a health care  provider at any time following a child's birth that the child has an illness,  disease, or condition which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty, is  attributable to in utero exposure to a controlled substance that was not prescribed  by a physician for the mother or the child; or (iv) a diagnosis made by a  health care provider at any time following a child's birth that the child has a  fetal alcohol spectrum disorder attributable to in utero exposure to alcohol. When  "reason to suspect" is based upon this subsection, such fact shall be  included in the report along with the facts relied upon by the person making  the report. Any report made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of Virginia  constitutes a valid report of abuse or neglect and requires a child protective  services investigation or family assessment, unless the mother sought treatment  or counseling as required in this section and pursuant to § 63.2-1505 B of the  Code of Virginia.
    a. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia, whenever a  health care provider makes a finding pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of  Virginia, then the health care provider or his designee must make a report to  child protective services immediately. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 D of the Code  of Virginia, a health care provider who fails to make a report pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of Virginia is subject to a fine. 
    b. When a report or complaint alleging abuse or neglect is  made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A B of the Code of Virginia, then  the local department must immediately assess the infant's circumstances and any  threat to the infant's health and safety. Pursuant to 22VAC40-705-110 A, the  local department must conduct an initial safety assessment. 
    c. When a report or complaint alleging abuse or neglect is  made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A B of the Code of Virginia, then  the local department must immediately determine whether to petition a juvenile  and domestic relations district court for any necessary services or court  orders needed to ensure the safety and health of the infant. 
    d. Within five days of receipt of a report made pursuant to  § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of Virginia, the local department shall invalidate  the complaint if the following two conditions are met: (i) the mother of the  infant sought substance abuse counseling or treatment during her pregnancy  prior to the infant's birth and (ii) there is no evidence of child abuse and/or  neglect by the mother after the infant's birth. 
    (1) The local department must notify the mother immediately  upon receipt of a complaint made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of  Virginia. This notification must include a statement informing the mother that,  if the mother fails to present evidence within five days of receipt of the  complaint that she sought substance abuse counseling/treatment during the  pregnancy, the report will be accepted as valid and an investigation or family  assessment initiated.
    (2) If the mother sought counseling or treatment but did  not receive such services, then the local department must determine whether the  mother made a substantive effort to receive substance abuse treatment before  the child's birth. If the mother made a substantive effort to receive treatment  or counseling prior to the child's birth, but did not receive such services due  to no fault of her own, then the local department should invalidate the  complaint or report. 
    (3) d. If the mother sought or received  substance abuse counseling or treatment, but there is evidence, other than  exposure to a controlled substance, that the child may be abused or neglected,  then the local department may initiate the shall conduct an  investigation or family assessment. 
    e. Substance abuse counseling or treatment includes, but is  not limited to, education about the impact of alcohol, controlled substances  and other drugs on the fetus and on the maternal relationship; education about  relapse prevention to recognize personal and environmental cues which that  may trigger a return to the use of alcohol or other drugs. 
    f. The substance abuse counseling or treatment should attempt  to serve the purposes of improving the pregnancy outcome, treating the  substance abuse disorder, strengthening the maternal relationship with existing  children and the infant, and achieving and maintaining a sober and drug-free  lifestyle. 
    g. The substance abuse counseling or treatment services must  be provided by a professional. Professional substance abuse treatment or  counseling may be provided by a certified substance abuse counselor or a licensed  substance abuse treatment practitioner. 
    h. Facts indicating that the infant may have been exposed  to controlled substances prior to birth are not sufficient, in and of  themselves, to render a founded disposition of abuse or neglect. The local  department must establish, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the infant  was abused or neglected according to the statutory and regulatory definitions  of abuse and neglect. 
    i. h. The local department may provide  assistance to the mother in locating and receiving substance abuse counseling  or treatment. 
    B. Persons who may report child abuse and/or neglect include  any individual who suspects that a child is being abused and/or neglected  pursuant to § 63.2-1510 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. Complaints and reports of child abuse and/or neglect may  be made anonymously. An anonymous complaint, standing alone, shall not meet  the preponderance of evidence standard necessary to support a founded  determination.
    D. Any person making a complaint and/or report of child abuse  and/or neglect shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability in  connection therewith, unless the court decides it is proven that  such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent pursuant to § 63.2-1512  of the Code of Virginia.
    E. When the identity of the reporter is known to the  department or local department, these agencies shall make every effort to  protect not disclose the reporter's identity. Upon request, the  local department shall advise the person who was the subject of an unfounded  investigation if the complaint or report was made anonymously.
    F. If a person suspects that he is the subject of a report or  complaint of child abuse and/or neglect made in bad faith or with malicious  intent, that person may petition the court for access to the record including  the identity of the reporter or complainant pursuant to § 63.2-1514 of the Code  of Virginia.
    G. Any person age 14 years or older who makes or causes to be  made a knowingly false complaint or report of child abuse and/or neglect and is  convicted shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor for a first offense pursuant  to § 63.2-1513 of the Code of Virginia. 
    1. A subsequent conviction results in a Class 6 felony. 
    2. Upon receipt of notification of such conviction, the  department will retain a list of convicted reporters. 
    3. The subject of the records may have the records purged upon  presentation of proof a certified copy of such conviction. 
    H. To make a complaint or report of child abuse and/or  neglect, a person may telephone the department's toll-free child abuse and  neglect hotline or contact a local department of jurisdiction pursuant to § 63.2-1510  of the Code of Virginia. 
    1. The local department of jurisdiction that first receives a  complaint or report of child abuse and/or neglect shall assume responsibility  to ensure that a family assessment or an investigation is conducted. 
    2. A local department may ask another local department that is  a local department of jurisdiction to assist in conducting the family  assessment or investigation. If assistance is requested, the local department  shall comply. 
    3. A local department may ask another local department through  a cooperative agreement to assist in conducting the family assessment or  investigation. 
    4. If a local department employee is suspected of abusing  and/or neglecting a child, the complaint or report of child abuse and/or  neglect shall be made to the juvenile and domestic relations district court of  the county or city where the alleged abuse and/or neglect was discovered. The judge  shall assign the report to a local department that is not the employer of the  subject of the report, or, if the judge believes that no local department in  a reasonable geographic distance can be impartial in responding to the reported  case, the judge shall assign the report to the court service unit of his court  for evaluation pursuant to §§ 63.2-1509 and 63.2-1510 of the Code of  Virginia. The judge may consult with the department in selecting a local  department to respond. 
    5. In cases where an employee at a private or  state-operated hospital, institution, or other facility or an employee of a  school board is suspected of abusing or neglecting a child in such hospital,  institution, or other facility or public school, the local department shall  request the department and the relevant private or state-operated hospital,  institution, or other facility or school board to assist in conducting a joint  investigation in accordance with regulations adopted by the board, in  consultation with the Departments of Education, Health, Medical Assistance  Services, Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, Juvenile Justice, and  Corrections.
    22VAC40-705-50. Actions to be taken upon receipt of a complaint  or report. 
    A. All complaints and reports of suspected child abuse and/or  neglect shall be recorded in the child abuse and neglect information system and  either screened out or determined to be valid within five days of  upon receipt and if valid, acted on within the determined response  time. A record of all reports and complaints made to a local department or  to the department, regardless of whether the report or complaint was found to  be a valid complaint of abuse and/or neglect, shall be retained for one year  from the date of the complaint unless a subsequent report is made. 
    B. In all valid complaints or reports of child abuse and/or  neglect the local department of social services shall determine whether to  conduct an investigation or a family assessment. A valid complaint or report is  one in which:
    1. The alleged victim child or children are under the age of  18 years at the time of the complaint and/or report;
    2. The alleged abuser is the alleged victim child's parent or  other caretaker;
    3. The local department receiving the complaint or report is a  local department of jurisdiction; and
    4. The circumstances described allege suspected child abuse  and/or neglect as defined in § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
    C. The local department shall not conduct a family assessment  or investigate complaints or reports of child abuse and/or neglect that fail to  meet all of the criteria in subsection B of this section.
    D. The local department shall report certain cases of  suspected child abuse or neglect to the local attorney for the Commonwealth and  the local law-enforcement agency pursuant to § 63.2-1503 D of the Code of  Virginia.
    E. Pursuant to § 63.2-1503 J D of the Code  of Virginia, the local departments department shall  develop, where practical, a memoranda of understanding for responding to  reports of child abuse and neglect with local law enforcement and the local  office of the commonwealth's attorney.
    F. The local department shall report to the following when  the death of a child is involved:
    1. When abuse and/or neglect is suspected in any case  involving the death of a child, the local department shall report the case  immediately to the regional medical examiner and the local law-enforcement  agency pursuant to § 63.2-1503 E of the Code of Virginia.
    2. When abuse and/or neglect is suspected in any case  involving the death of a child, the local department shall report the case  immediately to the attorney for the Commonwealth and the local law-enforcement  agency pursuant to § 63.2-1503 D of the Code of Virginia.
    3. The local department shall contact the department  immediately upon receiving a complaint involving the death of a child and at  the conclusion of the investigation.
    4. The department shall immediately, upon receipt of  information, report on all child fatalities to the state board in a manner  consistent with department policy and procedures approved by the board. At a  minimum, the report shall contain information regarding any prior statewide  child protective services involvement of the family, alleged perpetrator, or  victim.
    G. Valid complaints or reports shall be screened for high  priority based on the following:
    1. The immediate danger to the child;
    2. The severity of the type of abuse or neglect alleged;
    3. The age of the child;
    4. The circumstances surrounding the alleged abuse or neglect;  
    5. The physical and mental condition of the child; and 
    6. Reports made by mandated reporters. 
    H. The local department shall initiate an immediate response but  not later than within the determined response time. The response shall be a  family assessment or an investigation. Any valid report may be investigated,  but in accordance with § 63.2-1506 C of the Code of Virginia, those cases  shall be investigated that involve: (i) sexual abuse, (ii) a child  fatality, (iii) abuse or neglect resulting in a serious injury as defined in  § 18.2-371.1 of the Code of Virginia, (iv) a child having been taken into  the custody of the local department of social services, or (v) a caretaker at a  state-licensed child day care center, religiously exempt child day center,  regulated family day home, private or public school, or hospital or any  institution. 
    1. The purpose of an investigation is to collect the  information necessary to determine or assess the following: 
    a. Immediate safety needs of the child; 
    b. Whether or not abuse or neglect has occurred; 
    c. Who abused or neglected the child; 
    d. To what extent the child is at risk of future harm,  either immediate or longer term; 
    e. What types of services can meet the needs of this child or  family; and 
    f. If services are indicated and the family appears to be  unable or unwilling to participate in services, what alternate plans will  provide for the child's safety.
    2. The purpose of a family assessment is to engage the family  in a process to collect the information necessary to determine or assess the  following:
    a. Immediate safety needs of the child;
    b. The extent to which the child is at risk of future harm,  either immediate or longer term;
    c. The types of services that can meet the needs of this child  or family; and
    d. If services are indicated and the family appears to be  unable or unwilling to participate in services, the plans that will be  developed in consultation with the family to provide for the child's safety.  These arrangements may be made in consultation with the caretaker(s) of the  child.
    3. The local department shall use reasonable diligence to  locate any child for whom a report or complaint of suspected child abuse and/or  neglect has been received and determined valid or and persons who  are the subject of a valid report if the whereabouts of such persons are  unknown to the local department pursuant to § 63.2-1503 F of the Code of  Virginia.
    4. The local department shall document its attempts to locate  the child and family.
    5. In the event the alleged victim child or children cannot be  found, the time the child cannot be found shall not be computed as part of the  45-60-day time frame to complete the investigation, pursuant to subdivision B  5 of § 63.2-1505 of the Code of Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-60. Authorities of local departments. 
    When responding to valid complaints or reports, local  departments have the following authorities: 
    1. To talk to any child suspected of being abused and/or  neglected, or child's siblings, without the consent of and outside the presence  of the parent or other caretaker, as set forth by § 63.2-1518 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    2. To take or arrange for photographs and x-rays of a child  who is the subject of a complaint without the consent of and outside the  presence of the parent or other caretaker, as set forth in § 63.2-1520 of  the Code of Virginia. 
    3. To take a child into custody on an emergency removal for  up to 72-96 hours under such circumstances as set forth in § 63.2-1517  of the Code of Virginia. 
    a. A child protective services (CPS) worker planning to  take a child into 72-96-hour emergency custody shall first consult with  a supervisor. However, this requirement shall not delay action on the CPS  child protective services worker's part if a supervisor cannot be  contacted and the situation requires immediate action. 
    b. When circumstances warrant that a child be taken into  emergency custody during a family assessment, the report shall be reassigned  immediately to an investigation. 
    c. Any person who takes a child into custody pursuant to  § 63.2-1517 of the Code of Virginia shall be immune from any civil or  criminal liability in connection therewith, unless it is proven that such  person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent. 
    d. The local department shall have the authority to have a  complete medical examination made of the child including a written medical  report and, when appropriate, photographs and x-rays pursuant to  § 63.2-1520 of the Code of Virginia. 
    e. When a child in 72-96-hour emergency custody  is in need of immediate medical or surgical treatment, the local director of  social services or his designee(s) designee may consent to such  treatment when the parent does not provide consent and a court order is not  immediately obtainable. 
    f. When a child is not in the local department's custody, the  local department cannot consent to medical or surgical treatment of the child. 
    g. When a child is removed, every effort must be made to  obtain an emergency removal order within four hours. Reasons for not doing so  shall be stated in the petition for an emergency removal order. 
    h. Every effort shall be made to provide notice of the removal  in person to the parent or guardian as soon as practicable. 
    i. Within 30 days of removing a child from the custody of  the parents or legal guardians, the local department shall exercise due  diligence to identify and notify in writing all maternal and paternal  grandparents and other adult relatives of the child and explain the options  they have to participate in the care and placement of the child, unless the  local department determines such notification is not in the best interest of  the child. These notifications shall be documented in the state automated  system. When notification to any of these relatives is not made, the child  protective services worker shall document the reasons in the state automated  system.
    22VAC40-705-70. Collection of information.
    A. When conducting an investigation the local department  shall seek first-source information about the allegation of child abuse and/or  neglect. When applicable, the local department shall include in the case  record: police reports; depositions; photographs; physical, medical and  psychological reports; and any electronic recordings of interviews.
    B. When completing a family assessment, the local department  shall gather all relevant information in collaboration with the family, to the  degree possible, in order to determine the child and family services needs  related to current safety or future risk of harm to the child.
    C. All information collected for a family assessment or an  investigation must be entered in the state automated system and maintained  according to § 63.2-1514 for unfounded investigations or family assessments or  according to 22VAC40-700-30 22VAC40-705-130 for founded  investigations. The automated record entered in the statewide automation  state automated system is the official record. When documentation is not  available in electronic form, it must be maintained in the hard copy portion of  the record. Any hard copy information, including photographs and recordings,  shall be noted as an addendum to the official record.
    22VAC40-705-80. Family assessment and investigation contacts.
    A. During the course of the family assessment, the child  protective services (CPS) worker shall make and record document  in writing in the state automated system the following contacts and  observations. When any of these contacts or observations is not made, the  child protective services worker shall document in writing why the specific  contact or observation was not made.
    1. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview with and observe the alleged victim child and  siblings within the determined response time.
    2. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview with and observe all minor siblings residing in the  home.
    2. 3. The child protective services worker shall  conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged victim child's parents or  guardians and/or any caretaker named in the report.
    3. 4. The child protective services worker shall  observe the family environment, contact pertinent collaterals, and review  pertinent records in consultation with the family.
    B. During the course of the investigation, the child  protective services (CPS) worker shall make and record document  in writing in the state automated system the following contacts and  observations. When any of these contacts or observations is not made, the CPS  child protective services worker shall record document in  writing why the specific contact or observation was not made.
    1. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview with and observation of the alleged victim child and  siblings within the determined response time. All interviews with alleged  victim children must be electronically recorded except when the child  protective services worker determines that:
    a. The child's safety may be endangered by electronically  recording his statement;
    b. The age and/or developmental capacity of the child makes  electronic recording impractical;
    c. A child refuses to participate in the interview if  electronic recording occurs; or
    d. In the context of a team investigation with law-enforcement  personnel, the team or team leader determines that audio taping electronic  recording is not appropriate. 
    e. The victim provided new information as part of a family  assessment and it would be detrimental to reinterview the victim and the child  protective services worker provides a detailed narrative of the interview in  the investigation record.
    In the case of an interview conducted with a nonverbal child  where none of the above exceptions apply, it is appropriate to electronically  record the questions being asked by the child protective services worker and to  describe, either verbally or in writing, the child's responses. A child  protective services worker shall document in detail in the record and discuss  with supervisory personnel the basis for a decision not to electronically  record an interview with the alleged victim child.
    A child protective services finding may be based on the  written narrative of the child protective services worker in cases where an  electronic recording is unavailable due to equipment failure or the above  exceptions.
    2. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview and observe all minor siblings residing in the home.
    2. 3. The child protective services (CPS)  worker shall conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged abuser and/or  neglector.
    a. The CPS child protective services worker  shall inform the alleged abuser and/or neglector of his right to tape electronically  record any communication pursuant to § 63.2-1516 of the Code of Virginia.
    b. If requested by the alleged abuser and/or neglector, the  local department shall provide the necessary equipment in order to  electronically record the interview and retain a copy of the electronic  recording.
    3. 4. The child protective services worker shall  conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged victim child's parents or  guardians.
    4. 5. The child protective services worker shall  observe the environment where the alleged victim child lives. This requirement  may be waived in complaints of child abuse and neglect involving caretakers in  state licensed and religiously exempted child care centers, regulated and  unregulated family day care homes, private and public schools, group  residential facilities, hospitals or institutions.
    5. 6. The child protective services worker shall  observe the site where the alleged incident took place.
    6. 7. The child protective services worker shall  conduct interviews with collaterals who have pertinent information relevant to  the investigation and the safety of the child.
    7. 8. Pursuant to § 63.2-1505 of the Code of  Virginia, local departments may obtain and consider statewide criminal history  record information from the Central Criminal Records Exchange on any individual  who is the subject of a child abuse and neglect investigation where there is  evidence of child abuse or neglect and the local department is evaluating the  safety of the home and whether removal is necessary to ensure the child's  safety. The local department may also obtain a criminal record check on all  adult household members residing in the home of the alleged abuser and/or  neglector and where the child visits. Pursuant to § 19.2-389 of the Code  of Virginia, local departments are authorized to receive criminal history  information on the person who is the subject of the investigation as well as  other adult members of the household for the purposes in § 63.2-1505 of the  Code of Virginia. The results of the criminal record history search may be  admitted into evidence if a child abuse or neglect petition is filed in  connection with the child's removal. Local departments are prohibited from  dissemination of this information excepted as authorized by the Code of  Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-110. Assessments in family assessments and  investigations. 
    A. In both family assessments and investigations the child  protective services worker shall conduct an initial safety assessment of  the child's circumstances and threat of danger or harm, and where appropriate  shall make a safety plan to provide for the protection of the child. 
    B. In all founded cases and in completed family  assessments and investigations, the child protective services worker  shall make conduct a risk assessment to determine whether or not  the child is in jeopardy of future abuse and/or neglect and whether or not  intervention is necessary to protect the child. 
    C. In investigations, the child protective services worker  shall make a dispositional assessment after collecting and synthesizing assessing  information about the alleged abuse or neglect. 
    D. In all investigations with a founded disposition, the  child protective services worker shall assess the severity of the abuse or  neglect and shall assign a level. The three levels of founded dispositions are:
    1. Level 1. This level includes those injuries or  conditions, real or threatened, that result in or were likely to have resulted  in serious harm to a child. 
    2. Level 2. This level includes injuries or conditions,  real or threatened, that result in or were likely to have resulted in moderate  harm to a child. 
    3. Level 3. This level includes injuries or conditions,  real or threatened, that result in or were likely to have resulted in minimal  harm to a child.
    22VAC40-705-120. Complete the family assessment or  investigation Extensions; suspensions; track changes; local conferences.
    A. The local department shall promptly notify the alleged  abuser and/or neglector and the alleged victim's parents or guardians of any  extension of the deadline for the completion of the family assessment or  investigation pursuant to § 63.2-1506 B 3 or subdivision 5 of § 63.2-1505 B 5 or § 63.2-1506 B 3 of the Code of Virginia. The child  protective services worker shall document the notifications and the reason for  the need for additional time in the case record.
    B. At the completion of the family assessment, the subject  of the report shall be notified orally and in writing of the results of the  assessment. Pursuant to § 63.2-1505 B 5 of the Code of Virginia, in an  investigation involving the death of a child or alleged sexual abuse of a child  while waiting for records that are necessary to make a finding and the records  are not available to the local department due to circumstances beyond the local  department's control, the time during which the records are unavailable shall  not be computed as part of the determination deadlines set out in § 63.2-1505  B 5 of the Code of Virginia. When such unavailability of records occurs, the  local department shall promptly notify the alleged abuser or neglector and the  alleged victim's parents or guardians that the records are unavailable and the  effect of the unavailability on the completion of the investigation. The child  protective services worker shall document the notifications and the reason for  the suspension in the case record. Upon receipt of the records necessary to  make a finding, the local department shall complete the investigation. 
    C. The subject of the report shall be notified immediately if  during the course of completing the family assessment the situation is  reassessed and determined to meet the requirements, as specified in § 63.2-1506  B 7 of the Code of Virginia, to be investigated.
    D. The subject of the report or complaint may consult with  the local department to hear and refute evidence collected during the  investigation. Whenever a criminal charge is also filed against the alleged  abuser for the same conduct involving the same victim child as investigated by  the local department, sharing the evidence prior to the court hearing is  prohibited. No information gathered during a joint investigation with law  enforcement shall be released by the local department unless authorized by the  investigating law-enforcement agency or the local attorney for the Commonwealth  pursuant to § 63.2-1516.1 B of the Code of Virginia.
    E. Local conference.
    1. If the alleged abuser and/or neglector is found to have  committed abuse or neglect, that alleged abuser and/or neglector may, within 30  days of being notified of that determination, submit a written request for an  amendment of the determination and the local department's related records  pursuant to § 63.2-1526 A of the Code of Virginia. The local department shall  conduct an informal conference in an effort to examine the local department's  disposition and reasons for it and consider additional information about the  investigation and disposition presented by the alleged abuser and/or neglector.
    2. The local conference shall be conducted in accordance with  22VAC40-705-190. 
    22VAC40-705-130. Report family assessment or investigation  conclusions. 
    A. Unfounded investigation. 
    A. 1. Pursuant to § 63.2-1514 of the Code  of Virginia, the local department shall report all unfounded case dispositions  to the child abuse and neglect information system when disposition is made. 
    1. 2. The department shall retain unfounded  complaints or reports with an unfounded disposition in the child abuse  and neglect information system to provide local departments with information  regarding prior investigations. 
    2. 3. This record shall be kept separate from  the Central Registry and accessible only to the department and to local  departments. 
    3. 4. The record of the unfounded case investigation  with an unfounded disposition shall be purged one year after the date of  the complaint or report if there are no subsequent founded or unfounded  complaints and/or reports regarding the individual against whom allegations of  abuse and/or neglect were made or regarding the same child in that one year. 
    4. The record of the family assessment shall be purged  three years after the date of the complaint or report if there are no  subsequent complaints and/or reports regarding the individual against whom  allegations of abuse and/or neglect were made or regarding the same child in  those three years. 
    5. If the individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made or if the same child is involved in subsequent complaints  and/or reports, the information from all complaints and/or reports shall be  maintained until the last purge date has been reached. 
    6. 5. The individual against whom an  unfounded disposition for allegations of abuse and/or neglect were  was made may request in writing that the local department retain the  record for an additional period of up to two years. 
    7. 6. The individual against whom allegations of  abuse and/or neglect were made may request in writing that both the local  department and the department shall immediately purge the record after a  court rules upon presentation of a certified copy of a court order that  there has been a civil action that determined that the complaint or  report was made in bad faith or with malicious intent pursuant to  § 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia. 
    B. Founded investigation.
    B. 1. The local department shall report all  founded case dispositions to the child abuse and neglect information  system for inclusion in the Central Registry pursuant to subdivision 5 of § 63.2-1505  § 63.2-1515 of the Code of Virginia and 22VAC40-700-30. 
    2. Identifying information about the abuser and/or  neglector and the victim child or children reported include demographic  information, type of abuse or neglect, and date of the complaint. 
    3. The identifying information shall be retained based  on the determined level of severity of the abuse or neglect pursuant to the  regulation dealing with retention in the Central Registry, 22VAC40-700-30 22VAC40-705-110:
    a. Eighteen years past the date of the complaint for all  complaints determined by the local department to be founded as Level 1. 
    b. Seven years past the date of the complaint for all  complaints determined by the local department to be founded as Level 2. 
    c. Three years past the date of the complaint for all  complaints determined by the local department to be founded as Level 3. 
    4. Pursuant to § 63.2-1514 A of the Code of Virginia,  all records related to founded, Level 1 dispositions of sexual abuse shall be  maintained by the local department for a period of 25 years from the date of  the complaint. This applies to all investigations with founded dispositions on  or after July 1, 2010. This retention timeframe will not be reflected in the  Central Registry past the purge dates set out in this subsection. 
    C. Family assessments.
    1. The record of the family assessment shall be purged  three years after the date of the complaint or report if there are no  subsequent complaints or reports regarding the individual against whom  allegations of abuse or neglect were made or regarding the same child in those  three years.
    2. The individual against whom allegations of abuse or  neglect were made may request in writing that both the local department and the  department shall immediately purge the record upon presentation of a certified  copy of a court order that there has been a civil action that determined that  the complaint or report was made in bad faith or with malicious intent pursuant  to § 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. In all family assessments or investigations, if the  individual against whom the allegations of abuse or neglect is involved in any  subsequent complaint or report, the information from all complaints or reports  shall be maintained until the last purge date has been reached. 
    22VAC40-705-140. Notification of findings.
    A. Upon completion of the investigation or family  assessment the local child protective services worker shall make  notifications as provided in this section.
    B. Individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made.
    1. When the disposition is unfounded, the child protective  services worker shall inform the individual against whom allegations of abuse  and/or neglect were made of this finding. This notification shall be in writing  with a copy to be maintained in the case record. The individual against whom  allegations of abuse and/or neglect were made shall be informed that he may  have access to the case record and that the case record shall be retained by  the local department for one year unless requested in writing by such  individual that the local department retain the record for up to an additional  two years.
    a. If the individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made or the subject child is involved in subsequent complaints,  the information from all complaints shall be retained until the last purge date  has been reached.
    b. The local worker shall notify the individual against whom  allegations of abuse and/or neglect were made of the procedures set forth in § 63.2-1514  of the Code of Virginia regarding reports or complaints alleged to be made  in bad faith or with malicious intent.
    c. When In accordance with § 32.1-283.1 D of  the Code of Virginia when an unfounded disposition is made in an  investigation that involves a child death, the child protective services  worker shall inform the individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made that the case record will be retained for the longer of 12  months or until the State Child Fatality Review Team has completed its review  of the case pursuant to § 32.1-283.1 D of the Code of Virginia.
    2. When the abuser and/or neglector in a founded complaint  disposition is a foster parent of the victim child, the local department  shall place a copy of this notification letter in the child's foster care  record and in the foster home provider record. 
    3. When the abuser or neglector in a founded disposition is  a full-time, part-time, permanent, or temporary employee of a school division,  the local department shall notify the relevant school board of the founded  complaint pursuant to § 63.2-1505 B 7 of the Code of Virginia.
    4. The local department shall notify the Superintendent of  Public Instruction when an individual holding a license issued by the Board of  Education is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect and  shall transmit identifying information regarding such individual if the local  department knows the person holds a license issued by the Board of Education  and after all rights to any appeal provided by § 63.2-1526 of the Code of  Virginia have been exhausted.
    3. 5. No disposition of founded or unfounded  shall be made in a family assessment. At the completion of the family  assessment the subject of the report shall be notified orally and in writing of  the results of the assessment. The child protective services worker shall  notify the individual against whom allegations of abuse or neglect were made of  the procedures set forth in § 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia regarding  reports or complaints alleged to be made in bad faith or with malicious intent.
    C. Subject child's parents or guardian.
    1. When the disposition is unfounded, the child protective  services worker shall inform the parents or guardian of the subject child in  writing, when they are not the individuals against whom allegations of child  abuse and/or neglect were made, that the complaint investigation  involving their child was determined to be resulted in an  unfounded disposition and the length of time the child's name and  information about the case will be maintained. The child protective services  worker shall file a copy in the case record.
    2. When the disposition is founded, the child protective  services worker shall inform the parents or guardian of the child in writing,  when they are not the abuser and/or neglector, that the complaint involving  their child was determined to be founded and the length of time the child's  name and information about the case will be retained in the Central Registry.  The child protective services worker shall file a copy in the case record.
    3. When the founded case disposition of abuse or  neglect does not name the parents or guardians of the child as the abuser or  neglector and when the abuse or neglect occurred in a licensed or unlicensed  day care center, a regulated family day home, a private or public school, a  child-caring institution or a residential facility for juveniles, the parent or  guardian must be consulted and must give permission for the child's name to be  entered into the central registry pursuant to § 63.2-1515 of the Code of  Virginia.
    D. Complainant. 
    1. When an unfounded disposition is made, the child protective  services worker shall notify the complainant, when known, in writing that the  complaint was investigated and determined to be unfounded. The worker shall  file a copy in the case record.
    2. When a founded disposition is made, the child protective  services worker shall notify the complainant, when known, in writing that the  complaint was investigated and necessary action was taken. The local worker  shall file a copy in the case record.
    3. When a family assessment is completed, the child protective  services worker shall notify the complainant, when known, that the complaint  was assessed and necessary action taken.
    E. Family Advocacy Program. 
    When a founded disposition is made, the child protective  services worker shall notify the Family Advocacy Program representative in  writing as set forth in 22VAC40-720-20. When a family assessment is conducted  and the family is determined to be in need of services, the child protective  services worker may notify the Family Advocacy Program representative in  writing as set forth in 22VAC40-720-20. 
    1. Pursuant to § 63.2-1503 N of the Code of Virginia,  in all investigations with a founded disposition or family assessment that  involve an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or members of  his household, information regarding the disposition, type of abuse or neglect,  and the identity of the abuser or neglector shall be provided to the  appropriate Family Advocacy Program representative. This notification shall be  made in writing within 30 days after the administrative appeal rights of the  abuser or neglector have been exhausted or forfeited.
    2. The military member shall be advised that this  information regarding the founded disposition or family assessment is being  provided to the Family Advocacy Program representative and shall be given a  copy of the written notification sent to the Family Advocacy Program  representative. 
    3. Pursuant to § 63.2-105 of the Code of Virginia,  when an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or a member of his  household is involved in an investigation, family assessment, or provision of  services case, any information regarding child protective services reports,  complaints, investigations, family assessments, and follow up may be shared  with the appropriate Family Advocacy Program representative of the United  States Armed Forces when the local department determines such release to be in  the best interest of the child. In these situations, coordination between child  protective services and the Family Advocacy Program is intended to facilitate  identification, treatment, and service provision to the military family. 
    4. When needed by the Family Advocacy Program  representative to facilitate treatment and service provision to the military  family, any other additional information not prohibited from being released by  state or federal law or regulation shall also be provided to the Family  Advocacy Program representative when the local department determines such  release to be in the best interest of the child. 
    22VAC40-705-160. Releasing information. 
    A. In the following instances of mandatory disclosure the  local department shall release child protective services information. The local  department may do so without any written release. 
    1. Report to attorney for the Commonwealth and law enforcement  pursuant to § 63.2-1503 D of the Code of Virginia. 
    2. Report to the regional medical examiner's office  pursuant to §§ 32.1-283.1 C and § 63.2-1503 E F of the  Code of Virginia. 
    3. If a court mandates disclosure of information from a  child abuse and neglect case record, the local department must comply with the  request. The local department may challenge a court action for the disclosure  of the case record or any contents thereof. Upon exhausting legal recourse, the  local department shall comply with the court order. 
    4. When a family assessment or investigation is completed,  the child protective services worker shall notify the complainant/reporter that  either a complaint/report is unfounded or that necessary action is being taken.  
    5. 3. Any individual, including an individual  against whom allegations of child abuse and/or neglect were made, may exercise  his Privacy Protection Act Government Data Collection and  Dissemination Practices Act (§ 2.2-3800 et seq. of the Code of Virginia)  rights to access personal information related to himself which that  is contained in the case record including, with the individual's notarized  consent, a search of the Central Registry pursuant to § 2.2-3704 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    6. 4. When the material requested includes  personal information about other individuals, the local department shall be  afforded a reasonable time in which to redact those parts of the record  relating to other individuals. 
    7. 5. Pursuant to the Child Abuse Prevention and  Treatment Act, as amended (42 USC § 5101 et seq.), and federal regulations (45 CFR  Part 1340), the local department shall provide case-specific information about  child abuse and neglect reports and investigations to citizen review panels  when requested. 
    8. 6. Pursuant to the Child Abuse Prevention and  Treatment Act, as amended (42 USC § 5101 et seq.), the department shall develop  guidelines to allow for public disclosure in instances of child fatality or  near fatality. 
    9. 7. An individual's right to access  information under the Privacy Protection Act Government Data  Collection and Dissemination Practices Act is stayed during criminal  prosecution pursuant to § 2.2-3802 63.2-1526 C of the Code of  Virginia. 
    10. 8. The local department shall disclose and  release to the United States Armed Forces Family Advocacy Program child  protective services information as required pursuant to 22VAC40-720-20 22VAC40-705-140.  
    11. 9. Child protective services shall, on  request by the Division of Child Support Enforcement, supply information  pursuant to § 63.2-103 of the Code of Virginia. 
    12. 10. The local department shall release child  protective services information to a court appointed special advocate pursuant  to § 9.1-156 A of the Code of Virginia. 
    13. 11. The local department shall release child  protective services information to a court-appointed guardian ad litem pursuant  to § 16.1-266 E G of the Code of Virginia. 
    B. The local department may use discretion in disclosing or  releasing child protective services case record information, investigative and  on-going services to parties having a legitimate interest when the local  department deems disclosure to be in the best interest of the child. The local  department may disclose such information without a court order and without a  written release pursuant to § 63.2-105 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. The local department shall not release the identity of  persons reporting incidents of child abuse or neglect, unless court ordered, in  accordance with § 63.2-1526 of the Code of Virginia, 42 USC § 5101 et seq., and  federal regulations (45 CFR Part 1340). 
    D. C. Prior to disclosing information to any  individuals or organizations, and to be consistent with § 63.2-104 63.2-105  of the Code of Virginia, pursuant to § 63.2-1500 of the Code of Virginia,  the local department must be satisfied that consider the factors  described in subdivisions 1, 2, and 3 of this subsection as some of the factors  necessary to determine whether a person has a legitimate interest and the  disclosure of information is in the best interest of the child: 
    1. The information will be used only for the purpose for which  it is made available; 
    2. Such purpose shall be related to the goal of child  protective or rehabilitative services; and 
    3. The confidential character of the information will be  preserved to the greatest extent possible. 
    D. In the following instances, the local department shall  not release child protective services information:
    1. The local department shall not release the identity of  persons reporting incidents of child abuse or neglect, unless court ordered, in  accordance with § 63.2-1526 of the Code of Virginia, 42 USC § 5101 et seq., and  federal regulations (45 CFR Part 1340).
    2. In all complaints or reports that are being investigated  jointly with law enforcement, no information shall be released by the local  department unless authorized by the law-enforcement officer or his supervisor  or the attorney for the Commonwealth pursuant to § 63.2-1516.1 B of the Code of  Virginia. 
    22VAC40-705-180. Training.
    A. The department shall implement a uniform training plan for  child protective services workers and supervisors. The plan shall establish  minimum standards for all child protective services workers and supervisors in  the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    B. Workers and supervisors shall complete skills and  policy training specific to child abuse and neglect investigations and family  assessments within the first two years of their employment.
    C. All child protective services workers and supervisors shall  complete a minimum of 24 contact hours of continuing education or training  annually. This requirement begins after completion of initial training mandates  and no later than three years from the date of hire.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3636; Filed November 12, 2015, 8:49 a.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
STATE BOARD OF SOCIAL SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 22VAC40-700. Child Protective  Services Central Registry Information (repealing 22VAC40-700-10, 22VAC40-700-20,  22VAC40-700-30).
    22VAC40-705. Child Protective Services (amending 22VAC40-705-10, 22VAC40-705-30 through 22VAC40-705-80,  22VAC40-705-110 through 22VAC40-705-140, 22VAC40-705-160, 22VAC40-705-180).
    22VAC40-720. Child Protective Services Release of  Information to Family Advocacy Representatives of the United States Armed  Forces (repealing 22VAC40-720-10, 22VAC40-720-20). 
    Statutory Authority: § 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Mary Walter, Child Protective Services  Consultant, Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 726-7569, FAX (804) 726-7499, or email mary.walter@dss.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section § 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia gives  the State Board of Social Services the responsibility to make rules and  regulations to carry out the purposes of social services. Chapter 15  (§ 63.2-1500 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia provides the  authority for the Child Protective Services (CPS) program.
    Purpose: This regulatory action is essential to protect  the health, safety, and welfare of children at risk for child abuse or neglect.  The goal of this regulatory action is to conduct a review of 22VAC40-705, amend  existing CPS requirements and add new requirements to make the CPS regulation  consistent with the Code of Virginia, clarify and strengthen the CPS program  while balancing the rights of alleged abusers with protecting children and  families, and reduce the number of regulations the public may have to review to  find CPS information.
    Substance: The provisions of the repealed regulations  (22VAC40-700 and 22VAC40-720) will be incorporated into 22VAC40-705. The two repealed  regulations include requirements for reporting to the Military Family Advocacy  Program and retention time of names of abusers and victims involved in founded  investigations within the CPS central registry. This action will reduce the  total number of regulations for the CPS program from four to two. A separate  regulation, 22VAC40-730, provides requirements specific to conducting  investigations of child abuse and neglect in an out-of-family setting by a  nonfamilial caretaker. 
    Statutory changes made in 2013 necessitate additions and  amendments to the regulation. These include provisions for (i) suspending  sexual abuse and child death investigations if reports generated outside the  local agency are necessary to make a disposition and (ii) notification to local  school boards for all founded investigations that involve any school employee. 
    Substantive proposed changes include adding: 
    • Definitions for "near fatality" and "response  time";
    • The requirement for reports to be acted upon and the victim  child to be interviewed within the determined response time; 
    • The federal requirement to notify relatives within 30 days of  removal; 
    • A requirement for a risk assessment to be completed for all  investigations; 
    • Provision for suspending certain investigations; 
    • Retention requirements for serious sexual abuse records; 
    • A requirement to notify school boards for all employees in  founded investigations and notify the individual of this action; and 
    • Training requirements for all CPS staff. 
    Substantive proposed changes include removing:
    • A requirement to invalidate reports for substance exposed  infant if mother sought counseling;
    • Directive for not rendering founded dispositions for  substance exposed infants; and
    • Reference to exact timeframes for emergency removals.
    Proposed amendments clarify the definition of mental abuse or  neglect, responsibilities for mandated reporting of substance abuse exposure  for newborns, release of information to the Military Family Advocacy, release  of information when there is a legitimate interest, and release of information  while there is a pending criminal investigation. General proposed changes (i)  improve the consistency of terminology used within this regulation, such as the  use of the term "electronic recording" versus "audio  taping"; (ii) adjust numbering, order, and format to improve the  organization and flow of requirements; and (iii) correct statutory references  to ensure the most current and accurate citation.
    Issues: One of the primary advantages to the public and  individual private citizens will be a clearer understanding of the processes  involved when making a report to CPS and the actions that are taken by CPS. The  public will benefit from having CPS staff receiving current, best practice  training annually. Local departments of social services (LDSS) will benefit  from amendments to the regulation that provide clarity and enhance existing  requirements. The public, the Commonwealth, and LDSS will benefit from having fewer  regulations. There are no disadvantages to the Commonwealth. LDSS will need to  support the training of local staff when the revised regulation is finalized.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State  Board of Social Services (Board) proposes to repeal 22VAC40-700 and 22VAC40-720  and consolidate the rules contained in these regulations into 22VAC40-705 so  that all rules relating to child protective services are in one regulation. The  Board also proposes to make many clarifying changes, as well as several  substantive changes, to current language contained in 22VAC40-705. The  substantive changes proposed by the Board include: 
    1) Removing language that requires child protective services  workers to have some indication of abuse or neglect other than prenatal drug or  alcohol exposure to make a finding that a newborn has been abused or neglected  and 
    2) Requiring child protective services (CPS) workers and  supervisors to complete a minimum of 24 hours of continuing education annually.
    Result of Analysis. Benefits outweigh costs for most proposed  regulatory changes. For two regulatory changes, there is insufficient  information to ascertain whether benefits will outweigh costs.
    Estimated Economic Impact. The Board proposes to make many  clarifying changes to this regulation. None of these clarifying changes impose  new restrictions or requirements on any entity but instead are aimed at making  regulatory text more understandable. Consequently, no entity is likely to incur  any costs on account of these changes; to the extent that CPS rules are made  less opaque, affected entities will likely benefit from them.
    Currently, regulations require child protective services  workers to have some indication of abuse or neglect other than prenatal drug or  alcohol exposure to make a finding that a newborn has been abused or neglected.  The Board proposes to remove this requirement from regulation while leaving it  in DSS policy at the behest of the Attorney General's Office. In general,  language that is part of the Virginia Administrative Code is more protective of  the public than language that is in agency policy because it is normally  legally binding and because regulatory language can normally only be changed  through a process that provides public notice and opportunities for the public  to affect the proposed changes, but agencies do not necessarily follow a  similar process when policy is changed. Because of this, parents of drug  exposed infants and members of the general public who might want an opportunity  to become involved when there is a shift in the rules Local Department of  Social Services (LDSS) work under will likely be worse off if this language is  removed from the regulation. There is insufficient information to gauge whether  benefits that might accrue on account of this change would outweigh the costs  for these individuals. 
    Current regulations do not require CPS workers to complete any  continuing education. The Board now proposes to require all CPS workers and  supervisors to complete 24 hours of continuing education annually. Board staff  reports that local LDSS do not normally have to pay for continuing education  classes because there are many class options available at no additional cost to  them. They can, for instance have CPS staff take online classes available  through the Commonwealth's online Knowledge Center, or staff can participate in  online and face-to-face classes and seminars offered through the State  Department of Social Services as well as other state and federal agencies.  Board staff reports that CPS workers and supervisors will be paid for time  spent completing required continuing education. This means that LDSS will incur  implicit costs for time that workers and supervisors spend meeting this  proposed requirement instead of completing their normal job tasks. The value of  that time can be calculated by multiplying the number of CPS workers and  supervisors by their hourly wages then by the 24 hours of newly required  continuing education. Exact numbers of CPS workers and supervisors are not  available but would be a subset of the total number of equivalent Family  Service Specialists that are in the employ of LDSS (2,245).1 These  workers have an average salary of roughly $48,000 per year (or roughly $23 per  hour).2 Using these numbers, implicit cost of LDSS time spent in  annual training for each affected CPS worker and supervisor would be roughly  $552. To the extent that continuing education helps CPS workers complete their  job tasks more efficiently or improves outcomes for CPS programs, LDSSs will  benefit from this requirement. There is insufficient information to ascertain  whether any such benefit will outweigh the costs listed above. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. These proposed regulatory  changes will affect all 120 LDSSs and their CPS workers and supervisors, as  well as families who are the subject of abuse or neglect investigations and  other individuals who might be interested in the rules that govern child  protective services.
    Localities Particularly Affected. These proposed regulatory  changes will affect all 120 LDSS.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These proposed  regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use and value of private  property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. These proposed  regulatory changes affect LDSSs and members of the public but are unlikely to  directly affect any small business in the Commonwealth.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. These proposed regulatory changes affect LDSSs and members of the  public but are unlikely to directly affect any small business in the  Commonwealth.
    Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory  changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs.
    ___________________
            Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Social Services concurs with the economic impact analysis  prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    Proposed amendments include adding (i) definitions for  "near fatality" and "response time," (ii) a requirement for  reports to be acted upon and the victim child to be interviewed within a  determined response time, (iii) a federal requirement to notify relatives  within 30 days of removal, (iv) a requirement for a risk assessment to be  completed for all investigations, (v) provisions for suspending certain  investigations, (vi) retention requirements for serious sexual abuse records,  (vii) a requirement to notify school boards for all employees in founded  investigations and to notify the individual of this action, (viii) and training  requirements for all Child Protective Services staff. 
    Proposed amendments include removing (i) a requirement to  invalidate reports for substance exposed infant if the mother sought  counseling, (ii) the directive for not rendering founded dispositions for  substance exposed infants, and (iii) a reference to exact timeframes for  emergency removals.
    Proposed amendments generally (i) clarify the definition of  "mental abuse or neglect," the responsibilities for mandated  reporting of substance abuse exposure for newborns, the release of information  to the Military Family Advocacy, the release of information when there is a  legitimate interest, and the release of information while there is a pending  criminal investigation; (ii) reorganize and renumber sections for clarity; and  (iii) update references to the Code of Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. 
    "Abuser or neglector" means any person who is found  to have committed the abuse and/or neglect of a child pursuant to Chapter 15 (§ 63.2-1500 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Administrative appeal rights" means the child  protective services appeals procedures for a local level informal conference  and a state level hearing pursuant to § 63.2-1526 of the Code of Virginia,  under which an individual who is found to have committed abuse and/or neglect  may request that the local department's records be amended.
    "Alternative treatment options" means treatments  used to prevent or treat illnesses or promote health and well-being outside the  realm of modern conventional medicine.
    "Appellant" means anyone who has been found to be  an abuser and/or neglector and appeals the founded disposition to the director  of the local department of social services, an administrative hearing officer,  or to circuit court. 
    "Assessment" means the process by which child  protective services workers determine a child's and family's needs. 
    "Caretaker" means any individual having the  responsibility of providing care for a child and includes the following: (i)  parent or other person legally responsible for the child's care; (ii) any other  person who has assumed caretaking responsibility by virtue of an agreement with  the legally responsible person; (iii) persons responsible by virtue of their  positions of conferred authority; and (iv) adult persons residing in the home  with the child. 
    "Case record" means a collection of information  maintained by a local department, including written material, letters,  documents, tapes, photographs, film or other materials regardless of physical  form about a specific child protective services investigation, family or  individual. 
    "Central Registry" means a subset of the child  abuse and neglect information system and is the name index with identifying  information of individuals named as an abuser and/or neglector in founded child  abuse and/or neglect complaints or reports not currently under administrative  appeal, maintained by the department. 
    "Certified substance abuse counselor" means a  person certified to provide substance abuse counseling in a state-approved  public or private substance abuse program or facility. 
    "Child abuse and neglect information system" means  the computer system which that collects and maintains information  regarding incidents of child abuse and neglect involving parents or other  caretakers. The computer system is composed of three parts: the statistical  information system with nonidentifying information, the Central Registry of  founded complaints not on appeal, and a database that can be accessed only by  the department and local departments that contains all nonpurged CPS reports.  This system is the official state automated system. 
    "Child protective services" means the  identification, receipt and immediate response to complaints and reports of  alleged child abuse and/or neglect for children under 18 years of age. It also  includes assessment, and arranging for and providing necessary protective and  rehabilitative services for a child and his family when the child has been  found to have been abused or neglected or is at risk of being abused or  neglected. 
    "Child protective services worker" means one who is  qualified by virtue of education, training and supervision and is employed by  the local department to respond to child protective services complaints and  reports of alleged child abuse and/or neglect. 
    "Chronically and irreversibly comatose" means a  condition caused by injury, disease or illness in which a patient has suffered  a loss of consciousness with no behavioral evidence of self-awareness or  awareness of surroundings in a learned manner other than reflexive activity of  muscles and nerves for low-level conditioned response and from which to a  reasonable degree of medical probability there can be no recovery. 
    "Collateral" means a person whose personal or  professional knowledge may help confirm or rebut the allegations of child abuse  and/or neglect or whose involvement may help ensure the safety of the child. 
    "Complaint" means any information or allegation of  child abuse and/or neglect made orally or in writing pursuant to § 63.2-100  of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Consultation" means the process by which the  alleged abuser and/or neglector may request an informal meeting to discuss the  investigative findings with the local department prior to the local department  rendering a founded disposition of abuse and/or neglect against that person  pursuant to § 63.2-1526 A of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Controlled substance" means a drug, substance or  marijuana as defined in § 18.2-247 of the Code of Virginia including those  terms as they are used or defined in the Drug Control Act, Chapter 34  (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. The term does  not include alcoholic beverages or tobacco as those terms are defined or used  in Title 3.1 or Title 4.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Social Services. 
    "Differential response system" means that local  departments of social services may respond to valid reports or complaints of  child abuse or neglect by conducting either a family assessment or an  investigation. 
    "Disposition" means the determination of whether or  not child abuse and/or neglect has occurred. 
    "Documentation" means information and materials,  written or otherwise, concerning allegations, facts and evidence. 
    "Family Advocacy Program representative" means the  professional employed by the United States Armed Forces who has responsibility  for the program designed to address prevention, identification, evaluation,  treatment, rehabilitation, follow-up and reporting of family violence, pursuant  to 22VAC40-720-20 22VAC40-705-140. 
    "Family assessment" means the collection of  information necessary to determine: 
    1. The immediate safety needs of the child; 
    2. The protective and rehabilitative services needs of the  child and family that will deter abuse or neglect; 
    3. Risk of future harm to the child; and 
    4. Alternative plans for the child's safety if protective and  rehabilitative services are indicated and the family is unable or unwilling to  participate in services. These arrangements may be made in consultation with  the caretaker(s) of the child. 
    "First source" means any direct evidence  establishing or helping to establish the existence or nonexistence of a fact.  Indirect evidence and anonymous complaints do no constitute first source  evidence. 
    "Founded" means that a review of the facts shows by  a preponderance of the evidence that child abuse and/or neglect has occurred. A  determination that a case is founded shall be based primarily on first source  evidence; in no instance shall a determination that a case is founded be based  solely on indirect evidence or an anonymous complaint. 
    "He" means he or she.
    "His" means his or her.
    "Identifying information" means name, social  security number, address, race, sex, and date of birth.
    "Indirect evidence" means any statement made  outside the presence of the child protective services worker and relayed to the  child protective services worker as proof of the contents of the statement.
    "Informed opinion" means that the child has been  informed and understands the benefits and risks, to the extent known, of the treatment  recommended by conventional medical providers for his condition and the  alternative treatment being considered as well as the basis of efficacy for  each, or lack thereof.
    "Investigation" means the collection of information  to determine:
    1. The immediate safety needs of the child;
    2. The protective and rehabilitative services needs of the  child and family that will deter abuse or neglect;
    3. Risk of future harm to the child;
    4. Alternative plans for the child's safety if protective and  rehabilitative services are indicated and the family is unable or unwilling to  participate in services;
    5. Whether or not abuse or neglect has occurred;
    6. If abuse or neglect has occurred, who abused or neglected  the child; and
    7. A finding of either founded or unfounded based on the facts  collected during the investigation.
    "Investigative narrative" means the written account  of the investigation contained in the child protective services case record.
    "Legitimate interest" means a lawful, demonstrated  privilege to access the information as defined in § 63.2-104 63.2-105  of the Code of Virginia.
    "Licensed substance abuse treatment practitioner"  means a person who (i) is trained in and engages in the practice of substance  abuse treatment with individuals or groups of individuals suffering from the  effects of substance abuse or dependence, and in the prevention of substance  abuse or dependence and (ii) is licensed to provide advanced substance abuse  treatment and independent, direct and unsupervised treatment to such individuals  or groups of individuals, and to plan, evaluate, supervise, and direct  substance abuse treatment provided by others.
    "Life-threatening condition" means a condition that  if left untreated more likely than not will result in death and for which the  recommended medical treatments carry a probable chance of impairing the health  of the individual or a risk of terminating the life of the individual.
    "Local department" means the city or county local  agency of social services or department of public welfare in the Commonwealth  of Virginia responsible for conducting investigations or family assessments of  child abuse and/or neglect complaints or reports pursuant to § 63.2-1503 of the  Code of Virginia.
    "Local department of jurisdiction" means the local  department in the city or county in Virginia where the alleged victim child  resides or in which the alleged abuse and/or neglect is believed to have  occurred. If neither of these is known, then the local department of  jurisdiction shall be the local department in the county or city where the  abuse and/or neglect was discovered.
    "Mandated reporters" means those persons who are  required to report suspicions of child abuse and/or neglect pursuant to § 63.2-1509  of the Code of Virginia.
    "Monitoring" means contacts with the child, family  and collaterals which provide information about the child's safety and the  family's compliance with the service plan.
    "Multidisciplinary teams" means any organized group  of individuals representing, but not limited to, medical, mental health, social  work, education, legal and law enforcement, which will assist local departments  in the protection and prevention of child abuse and neglect pursuant to § 63.2-1503 K of the Code of Virginia. Citizen representatives may also be  included.
    "Near fatality" means an act that, as certified  by a physician, places the child in serious or critical condition. Serious or  critical condition is a life-threatening condition or injury. 
    "Notification" means informing designated and  appropriate individuals of the local department's actions and the individual's  rights.
    "Particular medical treatment" means a process or  procedure that is recommended by conventional medical providers and accepted by  the conventional medical community.
    "Preponderance of evidence" means the evidence as a  whole shows that the facts are more probable and credible than not. It is  evidence which is of greater weight or more convincing than the evidence  offered in opposition. 
    "Purge" means to delete or destroy any reference  data and materials specific to subject identification contained in records  maintained by the department and the local department pursuant to §§ 63.2-1513  and 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Reasonable diligence" means the exercise of  justifiable and appropriate persistent effort. 
    "Report" means either a complaint as defined in  this section or an official document on which information is given concerning  abuse and neglect. A Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia,  a report is required to be made by persons designated herein and by local  departments in those situations in which a response to a complaint from the  general public reveals suspected child abuse and/or neglect pursuant to subdivision  5 of the definition of abused or neglected child in § 63.2-100 of the  Code of Virginia.
    "Response time" means the urgency in which a  valid report of suspected child abuse or neglect is initiated by the local  department based on the child's immediate safety or other factors.
    "Safety plan" means an immediate course of action  designed to protect a child from abuse or neglect.
    "Service plan" means a plan of action to address  the service needs of a child and/or his family in order to protect a child and  his siblings, to prevent future abuse and neglect, and to preserve the family  life of the parents and children whenever possible.
    "State automated system" means the "child  abuse and neglect information system" as previously defined.
    "Substance abuse counseling or treatment services"  are services provided to individuals for the prevention, diagnosis, treatment,  or palliation of chemical dependency, which may include attendant medical and  psychiatric complications of chemical dependency.
    "Sufficiently mature" is determined on a  case-by-case basis and means that a child has no impairment of his cognitive  ability and is of a maturity level capable of having intelligent views on the  subject of his health condition and medical care.
    "Terminal condition" means a condition caused by  injury, disease or illness from which to a reasonable degree of medical  probability a patient cannot recover and (i) the patient's death is imminent or  (ii) the patient is chronically and irreversibly comatose. 
    "Unfounded" means that a review of the facts does  not show by a preponderance of the evidence that child abuse or neglect  occurred. 
    "Valid report or complaint" means the local  department of social services has evaluated the information and allegations of  the report or complaint and determined that the local department shall conduct  an investigation or family assessment because the following elements are  present: 
    1. The alleged victim child or children are under the age of  18 at the time of the complaint or report; 
    2. The alleged abuser is the alleged victim child's parent or  other caretaker; 
    3. The local department receiving the complaint or report is a  local department of jurisdiction; and 
    4. The circumstances described allege suspected child abuse or  neglect. 
    "Withholding of medically indicated treatment"  means the failure to respond to the infant's life-threatening condition by  providing treatment (including appropriate nutrition, hydration, and  medication) which in the treating physician's or physicians' reasonable medical  judgment will most likely be effective in ameliorating or correcting all such  conditions. 
    22VAC40-705-30. Types of abuse and neglect.
    A. Physical abuse occurs when a caretaker creates or  inflicts, threatens to create or inflict, or allows to be created or inflicted upon  a child a physical injury by other than accidental means or creates a  substantial risk of death, disfigurement, or impairment of bodily functions,  including, but not limited to, a child who is with his parent or other person  responsible for his care either (i) during the manufacture or attempted  manufacture of a Schedule I or II controlled substance or (ii) during the  unlawful sale of such substance by that child's parents or other person  responsible for his care, where such manufacture, or attempted manufacture or  unlawful sale would constitute a felony violation of § 18.2-248 of the  Code of Virginia.
    B. Physical neglect occurs when there is the failure to  provide food, clothing, shelter, necessary medical treatment, or  supervision for a child to the extent that the child's health or safety is  endangered. This also includes abandonment and situations where the parent's or  caretaker's own incapacitating behavior or absence prevents or severely limits  the performing of child caring tasks pursuant to § 63.2-100 of the Code of  Virginia. This also includes a child under the age of 18 years whose  parent or other person responsible for his care knowingly leaves the child  alone in the same dwelling as a person, not related by blood or marriage, who  has been convicted of an offense against a minor for which registration is  required as a violent sexual offender pursuant to § 9.1-902 of the Code of  Virginia. In situations where the neglect is the result of family poverty and  there are no outside resources available to the family, the parent or caretaker  shall not be determined to have neglected the child; however, the local  department may provide appropriate services to the family. 
    1. Physical neglect may include multiple occurrences or a  one-time critical or severe event that results in a threat to health or safety.  
    2. Physical neglect may include failure to thrive. 
    a. Failure to thrive occurs as a syndrome of infancy and early  childhood which that is characterized by growth failure, signs of  severe malnutrition, and variable degrees of developmental retardation. 
    b. Failure to thrive can only be diagnosed by a physician and  is caused by nonorganic factors. 
    3. Physical neglect may include medical neglect.
    C. a. Medical neglect occurs when there is the  failure by the caretaker to obtain or follow through with a complete regimen of  medical, mental, or dental care for a condition which that  if untreated could result in illness or developmental delays pursuant to § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia. However, a decision by parents or other  persons legally responsible for the child to refuse a particular medical  treatment for a child with a life-threatening condition shall not be  deemed a refusal to provide necessary care if (i) such decision is made jointly  by the parents or other person legally responsible for the child and the child;  (ii) the child has reached 14 years of age and sufficiently mature to have an  informed opinion on the subject of his medical treatment; (iii) the parents or  other person legally responsible for the child and the child have considered  alternative treatment options; and (iv) the parents or other person legally  responsible for the child and the child believe in good faith that such  decision is in the child's best interest. 
    b. Medical neglect also includes withholding of  medically indicated treatment.
    1. (1) A child who, in good faith, is under  treatment solely by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the  tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination pursuant  to § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia shall not for that reason alone be  considered a neglected child in accordance with § 63.2-100 of the Code of  Virginia.
    2. (2) For the purposes of this regulation  chapter, "withholding of medically indicated treatment" does  not include the failure to provide treatment (other than appropriate nutrition,  hydration, or medication) to an infant when in the treating physician's or  physicians' reasonable medical judgment:
    a. (a) The infant is chronically and  irreversibly comatose;
    b. (b) The infant has a terminal condition and  the provision of such treatment would: (1) Merely (i) merely  prolong dying; (2) Not (ii) not be effective in ameliorating or  correcting all of the infant's life-threatening conditions; (3) Otherwise  (iii) otherwise be futile in terms of the survival of the infant; or (4)  Be (iv) be virtually futile in terms of the survival of the infant  and the treatment itself under such circumstances would be inhumane.
    D. C. Mental abuse or neglect occurs when a  caretaker creates or inflicts, threatens to create or inflict, or allows to be  created or inflicted upon a child a mental injury by other than accidental  means or creates a substantial risk of impairment of mental functions.
    1. Mental abuse or neglect includes acts of omission by the  caretaker resulting in harm to a child's psychological or emotional health or  development. 
    2. Professional documentation supporting a nexus between  the actions or inactions of the caretaker and the mental dysfunction or threat  of dysfunction demonstrated by the child is required in order to make a founded  disposition. 
    3. Mental abuse or neglect may include failure to  thrive.
    1. a. Failure to thrive occurs as a syndrome of  infancy and early childhood which that is characterized by growth  failure, signs of severe malnutrition, and variable degrees of developmental  retardation.
    2. b. Failure to thrive can only be diagnosed by  a physician and is caused by nonorganic factors.
    E. D. Sexual abuse occurs when there is the  child's parents or other persons responsible for the care commits or allows to  be committed any act of sexual exploitation or any sexual act upon a child  in violation of the law which is committed or allowed to be committed by the  child's parents or other persons responsible for the care of the child pursuant  to § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-40. Complaints and reports of suspected child abuse  and/or neglect.
    A. Persons who are mandated to report are those individuals  defined in § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia.
    1. Mandated reporters shall report immediately any suspected  abuse or neglect that they learn of in their professional capacity. No  person shall be required to make a report pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code  of Virginia if unless the person has actual knowledge that the same  matter has already been reported to the local department or the department's  toll-free child abuse and neglect hotline.
    2. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia, if  information is received by a teacher, staff member, resident, intern, or nurse  in the course of his professional services mandated reporters in a  hospital, school, or other similar institution, such person may in  place of said report, immediately notify make reports of suspected abuse  or neglect immediately to the person in charge of the institution or  department, or his designee, who shall then make such report forthwith If  the initial report of suspected abuse or neglect is made to the person in  charge of the institution or department, or his designee, such person shall (i)  notify the teacher, staff member, resident, intern, or nurse who made the  initial report when the report of suspected child abuse or neglect is made to  the local department or to the department's toll-free child abuse and neglect  hotline; (ii) provide the name of the individual receiving the report; and  (iii) forward any communication resulting from the report, including any  information about any actions taken regarding the report, to the person who  made the initial report. on the mandated reporters' behalf. This person  shall notify the mandated reporter when and to whom he made the report, as well  as forward any other communication resulting from the report, including any  action taken, to the mandated reporter.
    3. Mandated reporters shall disclose all information that is  the basis for the suspicion of child abuse or neglect and shall make available,  upon request, to the local department any records and reports that document the  basis for the complaint and/or report.
    4. A Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 D of the Code of  Virginia, a mandated reporter's failure to report as soon as possible, but  no longer than 24 hours after having reason to suspect a reportable offense of  child abuse or neglect, shall result in a fine. In cases evidencing  acts of rape, sodomy, or object sexual penetration as defined in Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2 of the Code of Virginia, a person  who knowingly and intentionally fails to make the report required pursuant  to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia shall be guilty of a Class 1  misdemeanor.
    5. A person who knowingly and intentionally fails to make a  report in cases of rape, sodomy, or object sexual penetration shall be guilty  of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
    5. 6. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 B of the Code of  Virginia, a "reason certain specified facts indicating that a  newborn may have been exposed to a controlled substance prior to birth are  sufficient to suspect that a child is abused or neglected".  This shall include (i) a finding made by a health care provider within six  weeks of the birth of a child that the results of toxicology studies of the  child indicate the presence of a controlled substance that was not prescribed  for the mother by a physician; (ii) a finding made by a health care provider  within six weeks of the birth of a child that the child was born dependent on a  controlled substance that was not prescribed by a physician for the mother and  has demonstrated withdrawal symptoms; (iii) a diagnosis made by a health care  provider at any time following a child's birth that the child has an illness,  disease, or condition which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty, is  attributable to in utero exposure to a controlled substance that was not prescribed  by a physician for the mother or the child; or (iv) a diagnosis made by a  health care provider at any time following a child's birth that the child has a  fetal alcohol spectrum disorder attributable to in utero exposure to alcohol. When  "reason to suspect" is based upon this subsection, such fact shall be  included in the report along with the facts relied upon by the person making  the report. Any report made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of Virginia  constitutes a valid report of abuse or neglect and requires a child protective  services investigation or family assessment, unless the mother sought treatment  or counseling as required in this section and pursuant to § 63.2-1505 B of the  Code of Virginia.
    a. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia, whenever a  health care provider makes a finding pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of  Virginia, then the health care provider or his designee must make a report to  child protective services immediately. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 D of the Code  of Virginia, a health care provider who fails to make a report pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of Virginia is subject to a fine. 
    b. When a report or complaint alleging abuse or neglect is  made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A B of the Code of Virginia, then  the local department must immediately assess the infant's circumstances and any  threat to the infant's health and safety. Pursuant to 22VAC40-705-110 A, the  local department must conduct an initial safety assessment. 
    c. When a report or complaint alleging abuse or neglect is  made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A B of the Code of Virginia, then  the local department must immediately determine whether to petition a juvenile  and domestic relations district court for any necessary services or court  orders needed to ensure the safety and health of the infant. 
    d. Within five days of receipt of a report made pursuant to  § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of Virginia, the local department shall invalidate  the complaint if the following two conditions are met: (i) the mother of the  infant sought substance abuse counseling or treatment during her pregnancy  prior to the infant's birth and (ii) there is no evidence of child abuse and/or  neglect by the mother after the infant's birth. 
    (1) The local department must notify the mother immediately  upon receipt of a complaint made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of  Virginia. This notification must include a statement informing the mother that,  if the mother fails to present evidence within five days of receipt of the  complaint that she sought substance abuse counseling/treatment during the  pregnancy, the report will be accepted as valid and an investigation or family  assessment initiated.
    (2) If the mother sought counseling or treatment but did  not receive such services, then the local department must determine whether the  mother made a substantive effort to receive substance abuse treatment before  the child's birth. If the mother made a substantive effort to receive treatment  or counseling prior to the child's birth, but did not receive such services due  to no fault of her own, then the local department should invalidate the  complaint or report. 
    (3) d. If the mother sought or received  substance abuse counseling or treatment, but there is evidence, other than  exposure to a controlled substance, that the child may be abused or neglected,  then the local department may initiate the shall conduct an  investigation or family assessment. 
    e. Substance abuse counseling or treatment includes, but is  not limited to, education about the impact of alcohol, controlled substances  and other drugs on the fetus and on the maternal relationship; education about  relapse prevention to recognize personal and environmental cues which that  may trigger a return to the use of alcohol or other drugs. 
    f. The substance abuse counseling or treatment should attempt  to serve the purposes of improving the pregnancy outcome, treating the  substance abuse disorder, strengthening the maternal relationship with existing  children and the infant, and achieving and maintaining a sober and drug-free  lifestyle. 
    g. The substance abuse counseling or treatment services must  be provided by a professional. Professional substance abuse treatment or  counseling may be provided by a certified substance abuse counselor or a licensed  substance abuse treatment practitioner. 
    h. Facts indicating that the infant may have been exposed  to controlled substances prior to birth are not sufficient, in and of  themselves, to render a founded disposition of abuse or neglect. The local  department must establish, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the infant  was abused or neglected according to the statutory and regulatory definitions  of abuse and neglect. 
    i. h. The local department may provide  assistance to the mother in locating and receiving substance abuse counseling  or treatment. 
    B. Persons who may report child abuse and/or neglect include  any individual who suspects that a child is being abused and/or neglected  pursuant to § 63.2-1510 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. Complaints and reports of child abuse and/or neglect may  be made anonymously. An anonymous complaint, standing alone, shall not meet  the preponderance of evidence standard necessary to support a founded  determination.
    D. Any person making a complaint and/or report of child abuse  and/or neglect shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability in  connection therewith, unless the court decides it is proven that  such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent pursuant to § 63.2-1512  of the Code of Virginia.
    E. When the identity of the reporter is known to the  department or local department, these agencies shall make every effort to  protect not disclose the reporter's identity. Upon request, the  local department shall advise the person who was the subject of an unfounded  investigation if the complaint or report was made anonymously.
    F. If a person suspects that he is the subject of a report or  complaint of child abuse and/or neglect made in bad faith or with malicious  intent, that person may petition the court for access to the record including  the identity of the reporter or complainant pursuant to § 63.2-1514 of the Code  of Virginia.
    G. Any person age 14 years or older who makes or causes to be  made a knowingly false complaint or report of child abuse and/or neglect and is  convicted shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor for a first offense pursuant  to § 63.2-1513 of the Code of Virginia. 
    1. A subsequent conviction results in a Class 6 felony. 
    2. Upon receipt of notification of such conviction, the  department will retain a list of convicted reporters. 
    3. The subject of the records may have the records purged upon  presentation of proof a certified copy of such conviction. 
    H. To make a complaint or report of child abuse and/or  neglect, a person may telephone the department's toll-free child abuse and  neglect hotline or contact a local department of jurisdiction pursuant to § 63.2-1510  of the Code of Virginia. 
    1. The local department of jurisdiction that first receives a  complaint or report of child abuse and/or neglect shall assume responsibility  to ensure that a family assessment or an investigation is conducted. 
    2. A local department may ask another local department that is  a local department of jurisdiction to assist in conducting the family  assessment or investigation. If assistance is requested, the local department  shall comply. 
    3. A local department may ask another local department through  a cooperative agreement to assist in conducting the family assessment or  investigation. 
    4. If a local department employee is suspected of abusing  and/or neglecting a child, the complaint or report of child abuse and/or  neglect shall be made to the juvenile and domestic relations district court of  the county or city where the alleged abuse and/or neglect was discovered. The judge  shall assign the report to a local department that is not the employer of the  subject of the report, or, if the judge believes that no local department in  a reasonable geographic distance can be impartial in responding to the reported  case, the judge shall assign the report to the court service unit of his court  for evaluation pursuant to §§ 63.2-1509 and 63.2-1510 of the Code of  Virginia. The judge may consult with the department in selecting a local  department to respond. 
    5. In cases where an employee at a private or  state-operated hospital, institution, or other facility or an employee of a  school board is suspected of abusing or neglecting a child in such hospital,  institution, or other facility or public school, the local department shall  request the department and the relevant private or state-operated hospital,  institution, or other facility or school board to assist in conducting a joint  investigation in accordance with regulations adopted by the board, in  consultation with the Departments of Education, Health, Medical Assistance  Services, Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, Juvenile Justice, and  Corrections.
    22VAC40-705-50. Actions to be taken upon receipt of a complaint  or report. 
    A. All complaints and reports of suspected child abuse and/or  neglect shall be recorded in the child abuse and neglect information system and  either screened out or determined to be valid within five days of  upon receipt and if valid, acted on within the determined response  time. A record of all reports and complaints made to a local department or  to the department, regardless of whether the report or complaint was found to  be a valid complaint of abuse and/or neglect, shall be retained for one year  from the date of the complaint unless a subsequent report is made. 
    B. In all valid complaints or reports of child abuse and/or  neglect the local department of social services shall determine whether to  conduct an investigation or a family assessment. A valid complaint or report is  one in which:
    1. The alleged victim child or children are under the age of  18 years at the time of the complaint and/or report;
    2. The alleged abuser is the alleged victim child's parent or  other caretaker;
    3. The local department receiving the complaint or report is a  local department of jurisdiction; and
    4. The circumstances described allege suspected child abuse  and/or neglect as defined in § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
    C. The local department shall not conduct a family assessment  or investigate complaints or reports of child abuse and/or neglect that fail to  meet all of the criteria in subsection B of this section.
    D. The local department shall report certain cases of  suspected child abuse or neglect to the local attorney for the Commonwealth and  the local law-enforcement agency pursuant to § 63.2-1503 D of the Code of  Virginia.
    E. Pursuant to § 63.2-1503 J D of the Code  of Virginia, the local departments department shall  develop, where practical, a memoranda of understanding for responding to  reports of child abuse and neglect with local law enforcement and the local  office of the commonwealth's attorney.
    F. The local department shall report to the following when  the death of a child is involved:
    1. When abuse and/or neglect is suspected in any case  involving the death of a child, the local department shall report the case  immediately to the regional medical examiner and the local law-enforcement  agency pursuant to § 63.2-1503 E of the Code of Virginia.
    2. When abuse and/or neglect is suspected in any case  involving the death of a child, the local department shall report the case  immediately to the attorney for the Commonwealth and the local law-enforcement  agency pursuant to § 63.2-1503 D of the Code of Virginia.
    3. The local department shall contact the department  immediately upon receiving a complaint involving the death of a child and at  the conclusion of the investigation.
    4. The department shall immediately, upon receipt of  information, report on all child fatalities to the state board in a manner  consistent with department policy and procedures approved by the board. At a  minimum, the report shall contain information regarding any prior statewide  child protective services involvement of the family, alleged perpetrator, or  victim.
    G. Valid complaints or reports shall be screened for high  priority based on the following:
    1. The immediate danger to the child;
    2. The severity of the type of abuse or neglect alleged;
    3. The age of the child;
    4. The circumstances surrounding the alleged abuse or neglect;  
    5. The physical and mental condition of the child; and 
    6. Reports made by mandated reporters. 
    H. The local department shall initiate an immediate response but  not later than within the determined response time. The response shall be a  family assessment or an investigation. Any valid report may be investigated,  but in accordance with § 63.2-1506 C of the Code of Virginia, those cases  shall be investigated that involve: (i) sexual abuse, (ii) a child  fatality, (iii) abuse or neglect resulting in a serious injury as defined in  § 18.2-371.1 of the Code of Virginia, (iv) a child having been taken into  the custody of the local department of social services, or (v) a caretaker at a  state-licensed child day care center, religiously exempt child day center,  regulated family day home, private or public school, or hospital or any  institution. 
    1. The purpose of an investigation is to collect the  information necessary to determine or assess the following: 
    a. Immediate safety needs of the child; 
    b. Whether or not abuse or neglect has occurred; 
    c. Who abused or neglected the child; 
    d. To what extent the child is at risk of future harm,  either immediate or longer term; 
    e. What types of services can meet the needs of this child or  family; and 
    f. If services are indicated and the family appears to be  unable or unwilling to participate in services, what alternate plans will  provide for the child's safety.
    2. The purpose of a family assessment is to engage the family  in a process to collect the information necessary to determine or assess the  following:
    a. Immediate safety needs of the child;
    b. The extent to which the child is at risk of future harm,  either immediate or longer term;
    c. The types of services that can meet the needs of this child  or family; and
    d. If services are indicated and the family appears to be  unable or unwilling to participate in services, the plans that will be  developed in consultation with the family to provide for the child's safety.  These arrangements may be made in consultation with the caretaker(s) of the  child.
    3. The local department shall use reasonable diligence to  locate any child for whom a report or complaint of suspected child abuse and/or  neglect has been received and determined valid or and persons who  are the subject of a valid report if the whereabouts of such persons are  unknown to the local department pursuant to § 63.2-1503 F of the Code of  Virginia.
    4. The local department shall document its attempts to locate  the child and family.
    5. In the event the alleged victim child or children cannot be  found, the time the child cannot be found shall not be computed as part of the  45-60-day time frame to complete the investigation, pursuant to subdivision B  5 of § 63.2-1505 of the Code of Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-60. Authorities of local departments. 
    When responding to valid complaints or reports, local  departments have the following authorities: 
    1. To talk to any child suspected of being abused and/or  neglected, or child's siblings, without the consent of and outside the presence  of the parent or other caretaker, as set forth by § 63.2-1518 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    2. To take or arrange for photographs and x-rays of a child  who is the subject of a complaint without the consent of and outside the  presence of the parent or other caretaker, as set forth in § 63.2-1520 of  the Code of Virginia. 
    3. To take a child into custody on an emergency removal for  up to 72-96 hours under such circumstances as set forth in § 63.2-1517  of the Code of Virginia. 
    a. A child protective services (CPS) worker planning to  take a child into 72-96-hour emergency custody shall first consult with  a supervisor. However, this requirement shall not delay action on the CPS  child protective services worker's part if a supervisor cannot be  contacted and the situation requires immediate action. 
    b. When circumstances warrant that a child be taken into  emergency custody during a family assessment, the report shall be reassigned  immediately to an investigation. 
    c. Any person who takes a child into custody pursuant to  § 63.2-1517 of the Code of Virginia shall be immune from any civil or  criminal liability in connection therewith, unless it is proven that such  person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent. 
    d. The local department shall have the authority to have a  complete medical examination made of the child including a written medical  report and, when appropriate, photographs and x-rays pursuant to  § 63.2-1520 of the Code of Virginia. 
    e. When a child in 72-96-hour emergency custody  is in need of immediate medical or surgical treatment, the local director of  social services or his designee(s) designee may consent to such  treatment when the parent does not provide consent and a court order is not  immediately obtainable. 
    f. When a child is not in the local department's custody, the  local department cannot consent to medical or surgical treatment of the child. 
    g. When a child is removed, every effort must be made to  obtain an emergency removal order within four hours. Reasons for not doing so  shall be stated in the petition for an emergency removal order. 
    h. Every effort shall be made to provide notice of the removal  in person to the parent or guardian as soon as practicable. 
    i. Within 30 days of removing a child from the custody of  the parents or legal guardians, the local department shall exercise due  diligence to identify and notify in writing all maternal and paternal  grandparents and other adult relatives of the child and explain the options  they have to participate in the care and placement of the child, unless the  local department determines such notification is not in the best interest of  the child. These notifications shall be documented in the state automated  system. When notification to any of these relatives is not made, the child  protective services worker shall document the reasons in the state automated  system.
    22VAC40-705-70. Collection of information.
    A. When conducting an investigation the local department  shall seek first-source information about the allegation of child abuse and/or  neglect. When applicable, the local department shall include in the case  record: police reports; depositions; photographs; physical, medical and  psychological reports; and any electronic recordings of interviews.
    B. When completing a family assessment, the local department  shall gather all relevant information in collaboration with the family, to the  degree possible, in order to determine the child and family services needs  related to current safety or future risk of harm to the child.
    C. All information collected for a family assessment or an  investigation must be entered in the state automated system and maintained  according to § 63.2-1514 for unfounded investigations or family assessments or  according to 22VAC40-700-30 22VAC40-705-130 for founded  investigations. The automated record entered in the statewide automation  state automated system is the official record. When documentation is not  available in electronic form, it must be maintained in the hard copy portion of  the record. Any hard copy information, including photographs and recordings,  shall be noted as an addendum to the official record.
    22VAC40-705-80. Family assessment and investigation contacts.
    A. During the course of the family assessment, the child  protective services (CPS) worker shall make and record document  in writing in the state automated system the following contacts and  observations. When any of these contacts or observations is not made, the  child protective services worker shall document in writing why the specific  contact or observation was not made.
    1. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview with and observe the alleged victim child and  siblings within the determined response time.
    2. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview with and observe all minor siblings residing in the  home.
    2. 3. The child protective services worker shall  conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged victim child's parents or  guardians and/or any caretaker named in the report.
    3. 4. The child protective services worker shall  observe the family environment, contact pertinent collaterals, and review  pertinent records in consultation with the family.
    B. During the course of the investigation, the child  protective services (CPS) worker shall make and record document  in writing in the state automated system the following contacts and  observations. When any of these contacts or observations is not made, the CPS  child protective services worker shall record document in  writing why the specific contact or observation was not made.
    1. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview with and observation of the alleged victim child and  siblings within the determined response time. All interviews with alleged  victim children must be electronically recorded except when the child  protective services worker determines that:
    a. The child's safety may be endangered by electronically  recording his statement;
    b. The age and/or developmental capacity of the child makes  electronic recording impractical;
    c. A child refuses to participate in the interview if  electronic recording occurs; or
    d. In the context of a team investigation with law-enforcement  personnel, the team or team leader determines that audio taping electronic  recording is not appropriate. 
    e. The victim provided new information as part of a family  assessment and it would be detrimental to reinterview the victim and the child  protective services worker provides a detailed narrative of the interview in  the investigation record.
    In the case of an interview conducted with a nonverbal child  where none of the above exceptions apply, it is appropriate to electronically  record the questions being asked by the child protective services worker and to  describe, either verbally or in writing, the child's responses. A child  protective services worker shall document in detail in the record and discuss  with supervisory personnel the basis for a decision not to electronically  record an interview with the alleged victim child.
    A child protective services finding may be based on the  written narrative of the child protective services worker in cases where an  electronic recording is unavailable due to equipment failure or the above  exceptions.
    2. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview and observe all minor siblings residing in the home.
    2. 3. The child protective services (CPS)  worker shall conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged abuser and/or  neglector.
    a. The CPS child protective services worker  shall inform the alleged abuser and/or neglector of his right to tape electronically  record any communication pursuant to § 63.2-1516 of the Code of Virginia.
    b. If requested by the alleged abuser and/or neglector, the  local department shall provide the necessary equipment in order to  electronically record the interview and retain a copy of the electronic  recording.
    3. 4. The child protective services worker shall  conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged victim child's parents or  guardians.
    4. 5. The child protective services worker shall  observe the environment where the alleged victim child lives. This requirement  may be waived in complaints of child abuse and neglect involving caretakers in  state licensed and religiously exempted child care centers, regulated and  unregulated family day care homes, private and public schools, group  residential facilities, hospitals or institutions.
    5. 6. The child protective services worker shall  observe the site where the alleged incident took place.
    6. 7. The child protective services worker shall  conduct interviews with collaterals who have pertinent information relevant to  the investigation and the safety of the child.
    7. 8. Pursuant to § 63.2-1505 of the Code of  Virginia, local departments may obtain and consider statewide criminal history  record information from the Central Criminal Records Exchange on any individual  who is the subject of a child abuse and neglect investigation where there is  evidence of child abuse or neglect and the local department is evaluating the  safety of the home and whether removal is necessary to ensure the child's  safety. The local department may also obtain a criminal record check on all  adult household members residing in the home of the alleged abuser and/or  neglector and where the child visits. Pursuant to § 19.2-389 of the Code  of Virginia, local departments are authorized to receive criminal history  information on the person who is the subject of the investigation as well as  other adult members of the household for the purposes in § 63.2-1505 of the  Code of Virginia. The results of the criminal record history search may be  admitted into evidence if a child abuse or neglect petition is filed in  connection with the child's removal. Local departments are prohibited from  dissemination of this information excepted as authorized by the Code of  Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-110. Assessments in family assessments and  investigations. 
    A. In both family assessments and investigations the child  protective services worker shall conduct an initial safety assessment of  the child's circumstances and threat of danger or harm, and where appropriate  shall make a safety plan to provide for the protection of the child. 
    B. In all founded cases and in completed family  assessments and investigations, the child protective services worker  shall make conduct a risk assessment to determine whether or not  the child is in jeopardy of future abuse and/or neglect and whether or not  intervention is necessary to protect the child. 
    C. In investigations, the child protective services worker  shall make a dispositional assessment after collecting and synthesizing assessing  information about the alleged abuse or neglect. 
    D. In all investigations with a founded disposition, the  child protective services worker shall assess the severity of the abuse or  neglect and shall assign a level. The three levels of founded dispositions are:
    1. Level 1. This level includes those injuries or  conditions, real or threatened, that result in or were likely to have resulted  in serious harm to a child. 
    2. Level 2. This level includes injuries or conditions,  real or threatened, that result in or were likely to have resulted in moderate  harm to a child. 
    3. Level 3. This level includes injuries or conditions,  real or threatened, that result in or were likely to have resulted in minimal  harm to a child.
    22VAC40-705-120. Complete the family assessment or  investigation Extensions; suspensions; track changes; local conferences.
    A. The local department shall promptly notify the alleged  abuser and/or neglector and the alleged victim's parents or guardians of any  extension of the deadline for the completion of the family assessment or  investigation pursuant to § 63.2-1506 B 3 or subdivision 5 of § 63.2-1505 B 5 or § 63.2-1506 B 3 of the Code of Virginia. The child  protective services worker shall document the notifications and the reason for  the need for additional time in the case record.
    B. At the completion of the family assessment, the subject  of the report shall be notified orally and in writing of the results of the  assessment. Pursuant to § 63.2-1505 B 5 of the Code of Virginia, in an  investigation involving the death of a child or alleged sexual abuse of a child  while waiting for records that are necessary to make a finding and the records  are not available to the local department due to circumstances beyond the local  department's control, the time during which the records are unavailable shall  not be computed as part of the determination deadlines set out in § 63.2-1505  B 5 of the Code of Virginia. When such unavailability of records occurs, the  local department shall promptly notify the alleged abuser or neglector and the  alleged victim's parents or guardians that the records are unavailable and the  effect of the unavailability on the completion of the investigation. The child  protective services worker shall document the notifications and the reason for  the suspension in the case record. Upon receipt of the records necessary to  make a finding, the local department shall complete the investigation. 
    C. The subject of the report shall be notified immediately if  during the course of completing the family assessment the situation is  reassessed and determined to meet the requirements, as specified in § 63.2-1506  B 7 of the Code of Virginia, to be investigated.
    D. The subject of the report or complaint may consult with  the local department to hear and refute evidence collected during the  investigation. Whenever a criminal charge is also filed against the alleged  abuser for the same conduct involving the same victim child as investigated by  the local department, sharing the evidence prior to the court hearing is  prohibited. No information gathered during a joint investigation with law  enforcement shall be released by the local department unless authorized by the  investigating law-enforcement agency or the local attorney for the Commonwealth  pursuant to § 63.2-1516.1 B of the Code of Virginia.
    E. Local conference.
    1. If the alleged abuser and/or neglector is found to have  committed abuse or neglect, that alleged abuser and/or neglector may, within 30  days of being notified of that determination, submit a written request for an  amendment of the determination and the local department's related records  pursuant to § 63.2-1526 A of the Code of Virginia. The local department shall  conduct an informal conference in an effort to examine the local department's  disposition and reasons for it and consider additional information about the  investigation and disposition presented by the alleged abuser and/or neglector.
    2. The local conference shall be conducted in accordance with  22VAC40-705-190. 
    22VAC40-705-130. Report family assessment or investigation  conclusions. 
    A. Unfounded investigation. 
    A. 1. Pursuant to § 63.2-1514 of the Code  of Virginia, the local department shall report all unfounded case dispositions  to the child abuse and neglect information system when disposition is made. 
    1. 2. The department shall retain unfounded  complaints or reports with an unfounded disposition in the child abuse  and neglect information system to provide local departments with information  regarding prior investigations. 
    2. 3. This record shall be kept separate from  the Central Registry and accessible only to the department and to local  departments. 
    3. 4. The record of the unfounded case investigation  with an unfounded disposition shall be purged one year after the date of  the complaint or report if there are no subsequent founded or unfounded  complaints and/or reports regarding the individual against whom allegations of  abuse and/or neglect were made or regarding the same child in that one year. 
    4. The record of the family assessment shall be purged  three years after the date of the complaint or report if there are no  subsequent complaints and/or reports regarding the individual against whom  allegations of abuse and/or neglect were made or regarding the same child in  those three years. 
    5. If the individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made or if the same child is involved in subsequent complaints  and/or reports, the information from all complaints and/or reports shall be  maintained until the last purge date has been reached. 
    6. 5. The individual against whom an  unfounded disposition for allegations of abuse and/or neglect were  was made may request in writing that the local department retain the  record for an additional period of up to two years. 
    7. 6. The individual against whom allegations of  abuse and/or neglect were made may request in writing that both the local  department and the department shall immediately purge the record after a  court rules upon presentation of a certified copy of a court order that  there has been a civil action that determined that the complaint or  report was made in bad faith or with malicious intent pursuant to  § 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia. 
    B. Founded investigation.
    B. 1. The local department shall report all  founded case dispositions to the child abuse and neglect information  system for inclusion in the Central Registry pursuant to subdivision 5 of § 63.2-1505  § 63.2-1515 of the Code of Virginia and 22VAC40-700-30. 
    2. Identifying information about the abuser and/or  neglector and the victim child or children reported include demographic  information, type of abuse or neglect, and date of the complaint. 
    3. The identifying information shall be retained based  on the determined level of severity of the abuse or neglect pursuant to the  regulation dealing with retention in the Central Registry, 22VAC40-700-30 22VAC40-705-110:
    a. Eighteen years past the date of the complaint for all  complaints determined by the local department to be founded as Level 1. 
    b. Seven years past the date of the complaint for all  complaints determined by the local department to be founded as Level 2. 
    c. Three years past the date of the complaint for all  complaints determined by the local department to be founded as Level 3. 
    4. Pursuant to § 63.2-1514 A of the Code of Virginia,  all records related to founded, Level 1 dispositions of sexual abuse shall be  maintained by the local department for a period of 25 years from the date of  the complaint. This applies to all investigations with founded dispositions on  or after July 1, 2010. This retention timeframe will not be reflected in the  Central Registry past the purge dates set out in this subsection. 
    C. Family assessments.
    1. The record of the family assessment shall be purged  three years after the date of the complaint or report if there are no  subsequent complaints or reports regarding the individual against whom  allegations of abuse or neglect were made or regarding the same child in those  three years.
    2. The individual against whom allegations of abuse or  neglect were made may request in writing that both the local department and the  department shall immediately purge the record upon presentation of a certified  copy of a court order that there has been a civil action that determined that  the complaint or report was made in bad faith or with malicious intent pursuant  to § 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. In all family assessments or investigations, if the  individual against whom the allegations of abuse or neglect is involved in any  subsequent complaint or report, the information from all complaints or reports  shall be maintained until the last purge date has been reached. 
    22VAC40-705-140. Notification of findings.
    A. Upon completion of the investigation or family  assessment the local child protective services worker shall make  notifications as provided in this section.
    B. Individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made.
    1. When the disposition is unfounded, the child protective  services worker shall inform the individual against whom allegations of abuse  and/or neglect were made of this finding. This notification shall be in writing  with a copy to be maintained in the case record. The individual against whom  allegations of abuse and/or neglect were made shall be informed that he may  have access to the case record and that the case record shall be retained by  the local department for one year unless requested in writing by such  individual that the local department retain the record for up to an additional  two years.
    a. If the individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made or the subject child is involved in subsequent complaints,  the information from all complaints shall be retained until the last purge date  has been reached.
    b. The local worker shall notify the individual against whom  allegations of abuse and/or neglect were made of the procedures set forth in § 63.2-1514  of the Code of Virginia regarding reports or complaints alleged to be made  in bad faith or with malicious intent.
    c. When In accordance with § 32.1-283.1 D of  the Code of Virginia when an unfounded disposition is made in an  investigation that involves a child death, the child protective services  worker shall inform the individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made that the case record will be retained for the longer of 12  months or until the State Child Fatality Review Team has completed its review  of the case pursuant to § 32.1-283.1 D of the Code of Virginia.
    2. When the abuser and/or neglector in a founded complaint  disposition is a foster parent of the victim child, the local department  shall place a copy of this notification letter in the child's foster care  record and in the foster home provider record. 
    3. When the abuser or neglector in a founded disposition is  a full-time, part-time, permanent, or temporary employee of a school division,  the local department shall notify the relevant school board of the founded  complaint pursuant to § 63.2-1505 B 7 of the Code of Virginia.
    4. The local department shall notify the Superintendent of  Public Instruction when an individual holding a license issued by the Board of  Education is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect and  shall transmit identifying information regarding such individual if the local  department knows the person holds a license issued by the Board of Education  and after all rights to any appeal provided by § 63.2-1526 of the Code of  Virginia have been exhausted.
    3. 5. No disposition of founded or unfounded  shall be made in a family assessment. At the completion of the family  assessment the subject of the report shall be notified orally and in writing of  the results of the assessment. The child protective services worker shall  notify the individual against whom allegations of abuse or neglect were made of  the procedures set forth in § 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia regarding  reports or complaints alleged to be made in bad faith or with malicious intent.
    C. Subject child's parents or guardian.
    1. When the disposition is unfounded, the child protective  services worker shall inform the parents or guardian of the subject child in  writing, when they are not the individuals against whom allegations of child  abuse and/or neglect were made, that the complaint investigation  involving their child was determined to be resulted in an  unfounded disposition and the length of time the child's name and  information about the case will be maintained. The child protective services  worker shall file a copy in the case record.
    2. When the disposition is founded, the child protective  services worker shall inform the parents or guardian of the child in writing,  when they are not the abuser and/or neglector, that the complaint involving  their child was determined to be founded and the length of time the child's  name and information about the case will be retained in the Central Registry.  The child protective services worker shall file a copy in the case record.
    3. When the founded case disposition of abuse or  neglect does not name the parents or guardians of the child as the abuser or  neglector and when the abuse or neglect occurred in a licensed or unlicensed  day care center, a regulated family day home, a private or public school, a  child-caring institution or a residential facility for juveniles, the parent or  guardian must be consulted and must give permission for the child's name to be  entered into the central registry pursuant to § 63.2-1515 of the Code of  Virginia.
    D. Complainant. 
    1. When an unfounded disposition is made, the child protective  services worker shall notify the complainant, when known, in writing that the  complaint was investigated and determined to be unfounded. The worker shall  file a copy in the case record.
    2. When a founded disposition is made, the child protective  services worker shall notify the complainant, when known, in writing that the  complaint was investigated and necessary action was taken. The local worker  shall file a copy in the case record.
    3. When a family assessment is completed, the child protective  services worker shall notify the complainant, when known, that the complaint  was assessed and necessary action taken.
    E. Family Advocacy Program. 
    When a founded disposition is made, the child protective  services worker shall notify the Family Advocacy Program representative in  writing as set forth in 22VAC40-720-20. When a family assessment is conducted  and the family is determined to be in need of services, the child protective  services worker may notify the Family Advocacy Program representative in  writing as set forth in 22VAC40-720-20. 
    1. Pursuant to § 63.2-1503 N of the Code of Virginia,  in all investigations with a founded disposition or family assessment that  involve an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or members of  his household, information regarding the disposition, type of abuse or neglect,  and the identity of the abuser or neglector shall be provided to the  appropriate Family Advocacy Program representative. This notification shall be  made in writing within 30 days after the administrative appeal rights of the  abuser or neglector have been exhausted or forfeited.
    2. The military member shall be advised that this  information regarding the founded disposition or family assessment is being  provided to the Family Advocacy Program representative and shall be given a  copy of the written notification sent to the Family Advocacy Program  representative. 
    3. Pursuant to § 63.2-105 of the Code of Virginia,  when an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or a member of his  household is involved in an investigation, family assessment, or provision of  services case, any information regarding child protective services reports,  complaints, investigations, family assessments, and follow up may be shared  with the appropriate Family Advocacy Program representative of the United  States Armed Forces when the local department determines such release to be in  the best interest of the child. In these situations, coordination between child  protective services and the Family Advocacy Program is intended to facilitate  identification, treatment, and service provision to the military family. 
    4. When needed by the Family Advocacy Program  representative to facilitate treatment and service provision to the military  family, any other additional information not prohibited from being released by  state or federal law or regulation shall also be provided to the Family  Advocacy Program representative when the local department determines such  release to be in the best interest of the child. 
    22VAC40-705-160. Releasing information. 
    A. In the following instances of mandatory disclosure the  local department shall release child protective services information. The local  department may do so without any written release. 
    1. Report to attorney for the Commonwealth and law enforcement  pursuant to § 63.2-1503 D of the Code of Virginia. 
    2. Report to the regional medical examiner's office  pursuant to §§ 32.1-283.1 C and § 63.2-1503 E F of the  Code of Virginia. 
    3. If a court mandates disclosure of information from a  child abuse and neglect case record, the local department must comply with the  request. The local department may challenge a court action for the disclosure  of the case record or any contents thereof. Upon exhausting legal recourse, the  local department shall comply with the court order. 
    4. When a family assessment or investigation is completed,  the child protective services worker shall notify the complainant/reporter that  either a complaint/report is unfounded or that necessary action is being taken.  
    5. 3. Any individual, including an individual  against whom allegations of child abuse and/or neglect were made, may exercise  his Privacy Protection Act Government Data Collection and  Dissemination Practices Act (§ 2.2-3800 et seq. of the Code of Virginia)  rights to access personal information related to himself which that  is contained in the case record including, with the individual's notarized  consent, a search of the Central Registry pursuant to § 2.2-3704 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    6. 4. When the material requested includes  personal information about other individuals, the local department shall be  afforded a reasonable time in which to redact those parts of the record  relating to other individuals. 
    7. 5. Pursuant to the Child Abuse Prevention and  Treatment Act, as amended (42 USC § 5101 et seq.), and federal regulations (45 CFR  Part 1340), the local department shall provide case-specific information about  child abuse and neglect reports and investigations to citizen review panels  when requested. 
    8. 6. Pursuant to the Child Abuse Prevention and  Treatment Act, as amended (42 USC § 5101 et seq.), the department shall develop  guidelines to allow for public disclosure in instances of child fatality or  near fatality. 
    9. 7. An individual's right to access  information under the Privacy Protection Act Government Data  Collection and Dissemination Practices Act is stayed during criminal  prosecution pursuant to § 2.2-3802 63.2-1526 C of the Code of  Virginia. 
    10. 8. The local department shall disclose and  release to the United States Armed Forces Family Advocacy Program child  protective services information as required pursuant to 22VAC40-720-20 22VAC40-705-140.  
    11. 9. Child protective services shall, on  request by the Division of Child Support Enforcement, supply information  pursuant to § 63.2-103 of the Code of Virginia. 
    12. 10. The local department shall release child  protective services information to a court appointed special advocate pursuant  to § 9.1-156 A of the Code of Virginia. 
    13. 11. The local department shall release child  protective services information to a court-appointed guardian ad litem pursuant  to § 16.1-266 E G of the Code of Virginia. 
    B. The local department may use discretion in disclosing or  releasing child protective services case record information, investigative and  on-going services to parties having a legitimate interest when the local  department deems disclosure to be in the best interest of the child. The local  department may disclose such information without a court order and without a  written release pursuant to § 63.2-105 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. The local department shall not release the identity of  persons reporting incidents of child abuse or neglect, unless court ordered, in  accordance with § 63.2-1526 of the Code of Virginia, 42 USC § 5101 et seq., and  federal regulations (45 CFR Part 1340). 
    D. C. Prior to disclosing information to any  individuals or organizations, and to be consistent with § 63.2-104 63.2-105  of the Code of Virginia, pursuant to § 63.2-1500 of the Code of Virginia,  the local department must be satisfied that consider the factors  described in subdivisions 1, 2, and 3 of this subsection as some of the factors  necessary to determine whether a person has a legitimate interest and the  disclosure of information is in the best interest of the child: 
    1. The information will be used only for the purpose for which  it is made available; 
    2. Such purpose shall be related to the goal of child  protective or rehabilitative services; and 
    3. The confidential character of the information will be  preserved to the greatest extent possible. 
    D. In the following instances, the local department shall  not release child protective services information:
    1. The local department shall not release the identity of  persons reporting incidents of child abuse or neglect, unless court ordered, in  accordance with § 63.2-1526 of the Code of Virginia, 42 USC § 5101 et seq., and  federal regulations (45 CFR Part 1340).
    2. In all complaints or reports that are being investigated  jointly with law enforcement, no information shall be released by the local  department unless authorized by the law-enforcement officer or his supervisor  or the attorney for the Commonwealth pursuant to § 63.2-1516.1 B of the Code of  Virginia. 
    22VAC40-705-180. Training.
    A. The department shall implement a uniform training plan for  child protective services workers and supervisors. The plan shall establish  minimum standards for all child protective services workers and supervisors in  the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    B. Workers and supervisors shall complete skills and  policy training specific to child abuse and neglect investigations and family  assessments within the first two years of their employment.
    C. All child protective services workers and supervisors shall  complete a minimum of 24 contact hours of continuing education or training  annually. This requirement begins after completion of initial training mandates  and no later than three years from the date of hire.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3636; Filed November 12, 2015, 8:49 a.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
STATE BOARD OF SOCIAL SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 22VAC40-700. Child Protective  Services Central Registry Information (repealing 22VAC40-700-10, 22VAC40-700-20,  22VAC40-700-30).
    22VAC40-705. Child Protective Services (amending 22VAC40-705-10, 22VAC40-705-30 through 22VAC40-705-80,  22VAC40-705-110 through 22VAC40-705-140, 22VAC40-705-160, 22VAC40-705-180).
    22VAC40-720. Child Protective Services Release of  Information to Family Advocacy Representatives of the United States Armed  Forces (repealing 22VAC40-720-10, 22VAC40-720-20). 
    Statutory Authority: § 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: February 12, 2016.
    Agency Contact: Mary Walter, Child Protective Services  Consultant, Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA  23219, telephone (804) 726-7569, FAX (804) 726-7499, or email mary.walter@dss.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section § 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia gives  the State Board of Social Services the responsibility to make rules and  regulations to carry out the purposes of social services. Chapter 15  (§ 63.2-1500 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia provides the  authority for the Child Protective Services (CPS) program.
    Purpose: This regulatory action is essential to protect  the health, safety, and welfare of children at risk for child abuse or neglect.  The goal of this regulatory action is to conduct a review of 22VAC40-705, amend  existing CPS requirements and add new requirements to make the CPS regulation  consistent with the Code of Virginia, clarify and strengthen the CPS program  while balancing the rights of alleged abusers with protecting children and  families, and reduce the number of regulations the public may have to review to  find CPS information.
    Substance: The provisions of the repealed regulations  (22VAC40-700 and 22VAC40-720) will be incorporated into 22VAC40-705. The two repealed  regulations include requirements for reporting to the Military Family Advocacy  Program and retention time of names of abusers and victims involved in founded  investigations within the CPS central registry. This action will reduce the  total number of regulations for the CPS program from four to two. A separate  regulation, 22VAC40-730, provides requirements specific to conducting  investigations of child abuse and neglect in an out-of-family setting by a  nonfamilial caretaker. 
    Statutory changes made in 2013 necessitate additions and  amendments to the regulation. These include provisions for (i) suspending  sexual abuse and child death investigations if reports generated outside the  local agency are necessary to make a disposition and (ii) notification to local  school boards for all founded investigations that involve any school employee. 
    Substantive proposed changes include adding: 
    • Definitions for "near fatality" and "response  time";
    • The requirement for reports to be acted upon and the victim  child to be interviewed within the determined response time; 
    • The federal requirement to notify relatives within 30 days of  removal; 
    • A requirement for a risk assessment to be completed for all  investigations; 
    • Provision for suspending certain investigations; 
    • Retention requirements for serious sexual abuse records; 
    • A requirement to notify school boards for all employees in  founded investigations and notify the individual of this action; and 
    • Training requirements for all CPS staff. 
    Substantive proposed changes include removing:
    • A requirement to invalidate reports for substance exposed  infant if mother sought counseling;
    • Directive for not rendering founded dispositions for  substance exposed infants; and
    • Reference to exact timeframes for emergency removals.
    Proposed amendments clarify the definition of mental abuse or  neglect, responsibilities for mandated reporting of substance abuse exposure  for newborns, release of information to the Military Family Advocacy, release  of information when there is a legitimate interest, and release of information  while there is a pending criminal investigation. General proposed changes (i)  improve the consistency of terminology used within this regulation, such as the  use of the term "electronic recording" versus "audio  taping"; (ii) adjust numbering, order, and format to improve the  organization and flow of requirements; and (iii) correct statutory references  to ensure the most current and accurate citation.
    Issues: One of the primary advantages to the public and  individual private citizens will be a clearer understanding of the processes  involved when making a report to CPS and the actions that are taken by CPS. The  public will benefit from having CPS staff receiving current, best practice  training annually. Local departments of social services (LDSS) will benefit  from amendments to the regulation that provide clarity and enhance existing  requirements. The public, the Commonwealth, and LDSS will benefit from having fewer  regulations. There are no disadvantages to the Commonwealth. LDSS will need to  support the training of local staff when the revised regulation is finalized.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis: 
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State  Board of Social Services (Board) proposes to repeal 22VAC40-700 and 22VAC40-720  and consolidate the rules contained in these regulations into 22VAC40-705 so  that all rules relating to child protective services are in one regulation. The  Board also proposes to make many clarifying changes, as well as several  substantive changes, to current language contained in 22VAC40-705. The  substantive changes proposed by the Board include: 
    1) Removing language that requires child protective services  workers to have some indication of abuse or neglect other than prenatal drug or  alcohol exposure to make a finding that a newborn has been abused or neglected  and 
    2) Requiring child protective services (CPS) workers and  supervisors to complete a minimum of 24 hours of continuing education annually.
    Result of Analysis. Benefits outweigh costs for most proposed  regulatory changes. For two regulatory changes, there is insufficient  information to ascertain whether benefits will outweigh costs.
    Estimated Economic Impact. The Board proposes to make many  clarifying changes to this regulation. None of these clarifying changes impose  new restrictions or requirements on any entity but instead are aimed at making  regulatory text more understandable. Consequently, no entity is likely to incur  any costs on account of these changes; to the extent that CPS rules are made  less opaque, affected entities will likely benefit from them.
    Currently, regulations require child protective services  workers to have some indication of abuse or neglect other than prenatal drug or  alcohol exposure to make a finding that a newborn has been abused or neglected.  The Board proposes to remove this requirement from regulation while leaving it  in DSS policy at the behest of the Attorney General's Office. In general,  language that is part of the Virginia Administrative Code is more protective of  the public than language that is in agency policy because it is normally  legally binding and because regulatory language can normally only be changed  through a process that provides public notice and opportunities for the public  to affect the proposed changes, but agencies do not necessarily follow a  similar process when policy is changed. Because of this, parents of drug  exposed infants and members of the general public who might want an opportunity  to become involved when there is a shift in the rules Local Department of  Social Services (LDSS) work under will likely be worse off if this language is  removed from the regulation. There is insufficient information to gauge whether  benefits that might accrue on account of this change would outweigh the costs  for these individuals. 
    Current regulations do not require CPS workers to complete any  continuing education. The Board now proposes to require all CPS workers and  supervisors to complete 24 hours of continuing education annually. Board staff  reports that local LDSS do not normally have to pay for continuing education  classes because there are many class options available at no additional cost to  them. They can, for instance have CPS staff take online classes available  through the Commonwealth's online Knowledge Center, or staff can participate in  online and face-to-face classes and seminars offered through the State  Department of Social Services as well as other state and federal agencies.  Board staff reports that CPS workers and supervisors will be paid for time  spent completing required continuing education. This means that LDSS will incur  implicit costs for time that workers and supervisors spend meeting this  proposed requirement instead of completing their normal job tasks. The value of  that time can be calculated by multiplying the number of CPS workers and  supervisors by their hourly wages then by the 24 hours of newly required  continuing education. Exact numbers of CPS workers and supervisors are not  available but would be a subset of the total number of equivalent Family  Service Specialists that are in the employ of LDSS (2,245).1 These  workers have an average salary of roughly $48,000 per year (or roughly $23 per  hour).2 Using these numbers, implicit cost of LDSS time spent in  annual training for each affected CPS worker and supervisor would be roughly  $552. To the extent that continuing education helps CPS workers complete their  job tasks more efficiently or improves outcomes for CPS programs, LDSSs will  benefit from this requirement. There is insufficient information to ascertain  whether any such benefit will outweigh the costs listed above. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. These proposed regulatory  changes will affect all 120 LDSSs and their CPS workers and supervisors, as  well as families who are the subject of abuse or neglect investigations and  other individuals who might be interested in the rules that govern child  protective services.
    Localities Particularly Affected. These proposed regulatory  changes will affect all 120 LDSS.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These proposed  regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use and value of private  property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. These proposed  regulatory changes affect LDSSs and members of the public but are unlikely to  directly affect any small business in the Commonwealth.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. These proposed regulatory changes affect LDSSs and members of the  public but are unlikely to directly affect any small business in the  Commonwealth.
    Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory  changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs.
    ___________________
            Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Social Services concurs with the economic impact analysis  prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    Proposed amendments include adding (i) definitions for  "near fatality" and "response time," (ii) a requirement for  reports to be acted upon and the victim child to be interviewed within a  determined response time, (iii) a federal requirement to notify relatives  within 30 days of removal, (iv) a requirement for a risk assessment to be  completed for all investigations, (v) provisions for suspending certain  investigations, (vi) retention requirements for serious sexual abuse records,  (vii) a requirement to notify school boards for all employees in founded  investigations and to notify the individual of this action, (viii) and training  requirements for all Child Protective Services staff. 
    Proposed amendments include removing (i) a requirement to  invalidate reports for substance exposed infant if the mother sought  counseling, (ii) the directive for not rendering founded dispositions for  substance exposed infants, and (iii) a reference to exact timeframes for  emergency removals.
    Proposed amendments generally (i) clarify the definition of  "mental abuse or neglect," the responsibilities for mandated  reporting of substance abuse exposure for newborns, the release of information  to the Military Family Advocacy, the release of information when there is a  legitimate interest, and the release of information while there is a pending  criminal investigation; (ii) reorganize and renumber sections for clarity; and  (iii) update references to the Code of Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. 
    "Abuser or neglector" means any person who is found  to have committed the abuse and/or neglect of a child pursuant to Chapter 15 (§ 63.2-1500 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Administrative appeal rights" means the child  protective services appeals procedures for a local level informal conference  and a state level hearing pursuant to § 63.2-1526 of the Code of Virginia,  under which an individual who is found to have committed abuse and/or neglect  may request that the local department's records be amended.
    "Alternative treatment options" means treatments  used to prevent or treat illnesses or promote health and well-being outside the  realm of modern conventional medicine.
    "Appellant" means anyone who has been found to be  an abuser and/or neglector and appeals the founded disposition to the director  of the local department of social services, an administrative hearing officer,  or to circuit court. 
    "Assessment" means the process by which child  protective services workers determine a child's and family's needs. 
    "Caretaker" means any individual having the  responsibility of providing care for a child and includes the following: (i)  parent or other person legally responsible for the child's care; (ii) any other  person who has assumed caretaking responsibility by virtue of an agreement with  the legally responsible person; (iii) persons responsible by virtue of their  positions of conferred authority; and (iv) adult persons residing in the home  with the child. 
    "Case record" means a collection of information  maintained by a local department, including written material, letters,  documents, tapes, photographs, film or other materials regardless of physical  form about a specific child protective services investigation, family or  individual. 
    "Central Registry" means a subset of the child  abuse and neglect information system and is the name index with identifying  information of individuals named as an abuser and/or neglector in founded child  abuse and/or neglect complaints or reports not currently under administrative  appeal, maintained by the department. 
    "Certified substance abuse counselor" means a  person certified to provide substance abuse counseling in a state-approved  public or private substance abuse program or facility. 
    "Child abuse and neglect information system" means  the computer system which that collects and maintains information  regarding incidents of child abuse and neglect involving parents or other  caretakers. The computer system is composed of three parts: the statistical  information system with nonidentifying information, the Central Registry of  founded complaints not on appeal, and a database that can be accessed only by  the department and local departments that contains all nonpurged CPS reports.  This system is the official state automated system. 
    "Child protective services" means the  identification, receipt and immediate response to complaints and reports of  alleged child abuse and/or neglect for children under 18 years of age. It also  includes assessment, and arranging for and providing necessary protective and  rehabilitative services for a child and his family when the child has been  found to have been abused or neglected or is at risk of being abused or  neglected. 
    "Child protective services worker" means one who is  qualified by virtue of education, training and supervision and is employed by  the local department to respond to child protective services complaints and  reports of alleged child abuse and/or neglect. 
    "Chronically and irreversibly comatose" means a  condition caused by injury, disease or illness in which a patient has suffered  a loss of consciousness with no behavioral evidence of self-awareness or  awareness of surroundings in a learned manner other than reflexive activity of  muscles and nerves for low-level conditioned response and from which to a  reasonable degree of medical probability there can be no recovery. 
    "Collateral" means a person whose personal or  professional knowledge may help confirm or rebut the allegations of child abuse  and/or neglect or whose involvement may help ensure the safety of the child. 
    "Complaint" means any information or allegation of  child abuse and/or neglect made orally or in writing pursuant to § 63.2-100  of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Consultation" means the process by which the  alleged abuser and/or neglector may request an informal meeting to discuss the  investigative findings with the local department prior to the local department  rendering a founded disposition of abuse and/or neglect against that person  pursuant to § 63.2-1526 A of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Controlled substance" means a drug, substance or  marijuana as defined in § 18.2-247 of the Code of Virginia including those  terms as they are used or defined in the Drug Control Act, Chapter 34  (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. The term does  not include alcoholic beverages or tobacco as those terms are defined or used  in Title 3.1 or Title 4.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Social Services. 
    "Differential response system" means that local  departments of social services may respond to valid reports or complaints of  child abuse or neglect by conducting either a family assessment or an  investigation. 
    "Disposition" means the determination of whether or  not child abuse and/or neglect has occurred. 
    "Documentation" means information and materials,  written or otherwise, concerning allegations, facts and evidence. 
    "Family Advocacy Program representative" means the  professional employed by the United States Armed Forces who has responsibility  for the program designed to address prevention, identification, evaluation,  treatment, rehabilitation, follow-up and reporting of family violence, pursuant  to 22VAC40-720-20 22VAC40-705-140. 
    "Family assessment" means the collection of  information necessary to determine: 
    1. The immediate safety needs of the child; 
    2. The protective and rehabilitative services needs of the  child and family that will deter abuse or neglect; 
    3. Risk of future harm to the child; and 
    4. Alternative plans for the child's safety if protective and  rehabilitative services are indicated and the family is unable or unwilling to  participate in services. These arrangements may be made in consultation with  the caretaker(s) of the child. 
    "First source" means any direct evidence  establishing or helping to establish the existence or nonexistence of a fact.  Indirect evidence and anonymous complaints do no constitute first source  evidence. 
    "Founded" means that a review of the facts shows by  a preponderance of the evidence that child abuse and/or neglect has occurred. A  determination that a case is founded shall be based primarily on first source  evidence; in no instance shall a determination that a case is founded be based  solely on indirect evidence or an anonymous complaint. 
    "He" means he or she.
    "His" means his or her.
    "Identifying information" means name, social  security number, address, race, sex, and date of birth.
    "Indirect evidence" means any statement made  outside the presence of the child protective services worker and relayed to the  child protective services worker as proof of the contents of the statement.
    "Informed opinion" means that the child has been  informed and understands the benefits and risks, to the extent known, of the treatment  recommended by conventional medical providers for his condition and the  alternative treatment being considered as well as the basis of efficacy for  each, or lack thereof.
    "Investigation" means the collection of information  to determine:
    1. The immediate safety needs of the child;
    2. The protective and rehabilitative services needs of the  child and family that will deter abuse or neglect;
    3. Risk of future harm to the child;
    4. Alternative plans for the child's safety if protective and  rehabilitative services are indicated and the family is unable or unwilling to  participate in services;
    5. Whether or not abuse or neglect has occurred;
    6. If abuse or neglect has occurred, who abused or neglected  the child; and
    7. A finding of either founded or unfounded based on the facts  collected during the investigation.
    "Investigative narrative" means the written account  of the investigation contained in the child protective services case record.
    "Legitimate interest" means a lawful, demonstrated  privilege to access the information as defined in § 63.2-104 63.2-105  of the Code of Virginia.
    "Licensed substance abuse treatment practitioner"  means a person who (i) is trained in and engages in the practice of substance  abuse treatment with individuals or groups of individuals suffering from the  effects of substance abuse or dependence, and in the prevention of substance  abuse or dependence and (ii) is licensed to provide advanced substance abuse  treatment and independent, direct and unsupervised treatment to such individuals  or groups of individuals, and to plan, evaluate, supervise, and direct  substance abuse treatment provided by others.
    "Life-threatening condition" means a condition that  if left untreated more likely than not will result in death and for which the  recommended medical treatments carry a probable chance of impairing the health  of the individual or a risk of terminating the life of the individual.
    "Local department" means the city or county local  agency of social services or department of public welfare in the Commonwealth  of Virginia responsible for conducting investigations or family assessments of  child abuse and/or neglect complaints or reports pursuant to § 63.2-1503 of the  Code of Virginia.
    "Local department of jurisdiction" means the local  department in the city or county in Virginia where the alleged victim child  resides or in which the alleged abuse and/or neglect is believed to have  occurred. If neither of these is known, then the local department of  jurisdiction shall be the local department in the county or city where the  abuse and/or neglect was discovered.
    "Mandated reporters" means those persons who are  required to report suspicions of child abuse and/or neglect pursuant to § 63.2-1509  of the Code of Virginia.
    "Monitoring" means contacts with the child, family  and collaterals which provide information about the child's safety and the  family's compliance with the service plan.
    "Multidisciplinary teams" means any organized group  of individuals representing, but not limited to, medical, mental health, social  work, education, legal and law enforcement, which will assist local departments  in the protection and prevention of child abuse and neglect pursuant to § 63.2-1503 K of the Code of Virginia. Citizen representatives may also be  included.
    "Near fatality" means an act that, as certified  by a physician, places the child in serious or critical condition. Serious or  critical condition is a life-threatening condition or injury. 
    "Notification" means informing designated and  appropriate individuals of the local department's actions and the individual's  rights.
    "Particular medical treatment" means a process or  procedure that is recommended by conventional medical providers and accepted by  the conventional medical community.
    "Preponderance of evidence" means the evidence as a  whole shows that the facts are more probable and credible than not. It is  evidence which is of greater weight or more convincing than the evidence  offered in opposition. 
    "Purge" means to delete or destroy any reference  data and materials specific to subject identification contained in records  maintained by the department and the local department pursuant to §§ 63.2-1513  and 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Reasonable diligence" means the exercise of  justifiable and appropriate persistent effort. 
    "Report" means either a complaint as defined in  this section or an official document on which information is given concerning  abuse and neglect. A Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia,  a report is required to be made by persons designated herein and by local  departments in those situations in which a response to a complaint from the  general public reveals suspected child abuse and/or neglect pursuant to subdivision  5 of the definition of abused or neglected child in § 63.2-100 of the  Code of Virginia.
    "Response time" means the urgency in which a  valid report of suspected child abuse or neglect is initiated by the local  department based on the child's immediate safety or other factors.
    "Safety plan" means an immediate course of action  designed to protect a child from abuse or neglect.
    "Service plan" means a plan of action to address  the service needs of a child and/or his family in order to protect a child and  his siblings, to prevent future abuse and neglect, and to preserve the family  life of the parents and children whenever possible.
    "State automated system" means the "child  abuse and neglect information system" as previously defined.
    "Substance abuse counseling or treatment services"  are services provided to individuals for the prevention, diagnosis, treatment,  or palliation of chemical dependency, which may include attendant medical and  psychiatric complications of chemical dependency.
    "Sufficiently mature" is determined on a  case-by-case basis and means that a child has no impairment of his cognitive  ability and is of a maturity level capable of having intelligent views on the  subject of his health condition and medical care.
    "Terminal condition" means a condition caused by  injury, disease or illness from which to a reasonable degree of medical  probability a patient cannot recover and (i) the patient's death is imminent or  (ii) the patient is chronically and irreversibly comatose. 
    "Unfounded" means that a review of the facts does  not show by a preponderance of the evidence that child abuse or neglect  occurred. 
    "Valid report or complaint" means the local  department of social services has evaluated the information and allegations of  the report or complaint and determined that the local department shall conduct  an investigation or family assessment because the following elements are  present: 
    1. The alleged victim child or children are under the age of  18 at the time of the complaint or report; 
    2. The alleged abuser is the alleged victim child's parent or  other caretaker; 
    3. The local department receiving the complaint or report is a  local department of jurisdiction; and 
    4. The circumstances described allege suspected child abuse or  neglect. 
    "Withholding of medically indicated treatment"  means the failure to respond to the infant's life-threatening condition by  providing treatment (including appropriate nutrition, hydration, and  medication) which in the treating physician's or physicians' reasonable medical  judgment will most likely be effective in ameliorating or correcting all such  conditions. 
    22VAC40-705-30. Types of abuse and neglect.
    A. Physical abuse occurs when a caretaker creates or  inflicts, threatens to create or inflict, or allows to be created or inflicted upon  a child a physical injury by other than accidental means or creates a  substantial risk of death, disfigurement, or impairment of bodily functions,  including, but not limited to, a child who is with his parent or other person  responsible for his care either (i) during the manufacture or attempted  manufacture of a Schedule I or II controlled substance or (ii) during the  unlawful sale of such substance by that child's parents or other person  responsible for his care, where such manufacture, or attempted manufacture or  unlawful sale would constitute a felony violation of § 18.2-248 of the  Code of Virginia.
    B. Physical neglect occurs when there is the failure to  provide food, clothing, shelter, necessary medical treatment, or  supervision for a child to the extent that the child's health or safety is  endangered. This also includes abandonment and situations where the parent's or  caretaker's own incapacitating behavior or absence prevents or severely limits  the performing of child caring tasks pursuant to § 63.2-100 of the Code of  Virginia. This also includes a child under the age of 18 years whose  parent or other person responsible for his care knowingly leaves the child  alone in the same dwelling as a person, not related by blood or marriage, who  has been convicted of an offense against a minor for which registration is  required as a violent sexual offender pursuant to § 9.1-902 of the Code of  Virginia. In situations where the neglect is the result of family poverty and  there are no outside resources available to the family, the parent or caretaker  shall not be determined to have neglected the child; however, the local  department may provide appropriate services to the family. 
    1. Physical neglect may include multiple occurrences or a  one-time critical or severe event that results in a threat to health or safety.  
    2. Physical neglect may include failure to thrive. 
    a. Failure to thrive occurs as a syndrome of infancy and early  childhood which that is characterized by growth failure, signs of  severe malnutrition, and variable degrees of developmental retardation. 
    b. Failure to thrive can only be diagnosed by a physician and  is caused by nonorganic factors. 
    3. Physical neglect may include medical neglect.
    C. a. Medical neglect occurs when there is the  failure by the caretaker to obtain or follow through with a complete regimen of  medical, mental, or dental care for a condition which that  if untreated could result in illness or developmental delays pursuant to § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia. However, a decision by parents or other  persons legally responsible for the child to refuse a particular medical  treatment for a child with a life-threatening condition shall not be  deemed a refusal to provide necessary care if (i) such decision is made jointly  by the parents or other person legally responsible for the child and the child;  (ii) the child has reached 14 years of age and sufficiently mature to have an  informed opinion on the subject of his medical treatment; (iii) the parents or  other person legally responsible for the child and the child have considered  alternative treatment options; and (iv) the parents or other person legally  responsible for the child and the child believe in good faith that such  decision is in the child's best interest. 
    b. Medical neglect also includes withholding of  medically indicated treatment.
    1. (1) A child who, in good faith, is under  treatment solely by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the  tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination pursuant  to § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia shall not for that reason alone be  considered a neglected child in accordance with § 63.2-100 of the Code of  Virginia.
    2. (2) For the purposes of this regulation  chapter, "withholding of medically indicated treatment" does  not include the failure to provide treatment (other than appropriate nutrition,  hydration, or medication) to an infant when in the treating physician's or  physicians' reasonable medical judgment:
    a. (a) The infant is chronically and  irreversibly comatose;
    b. (b) The infant has a terminal condition and  the provision of such treatment would: (1) Merely (i) merely  prolong dying; (2) Not (ii) not be effective in ameliorating or  correcting all of the infant's life-threatening conditions; (3) Otherwise  (iii) otherwise be futile in terms of the survival of the infant; or (4)  Be (iv) be virtually futile in terms of the survival of the infant  and the treatment itself under such circumstances would be inhumane.
    D. C. Mental abuse or neglect occurs when a  caretaker creates or inflicts, threatens to create or inflict, or allows to be  created or inflicted upon a child a mental injury by other than accidental  means or creates a substantial risk of impairment of mental functions.
    1. Mental abuse or neglect includes acts of omission by the  caretaker resulting in harm to a child's psychological or emotional health or  development. 
    2. Professional documentation supporting a nexus between  the actions or inactions of the caretaker and the mental dysfunction or threat  of dysfunction demonstrated by the child is required in order to make a founded  disposition. 
    3. Mental abuse or neglect may include failure to  thrive.
    1. a. Failure to thrive occurs as a syndrome of  infancy and early childhood which that is characterized by growth  failure, signs of severe malnutrition, and variable degrees of developmental  retardation.
    2. b. Failure to thrive can only be diagnosed by  a physician and is caused by nonorganic factors.
    E. D. Sexual abuse occurs when there is the  child's parents or other persons responsible for the care commits or allows to  be committed any act of sexual exploitation or any sexual act upon a child  in violation of the law which is committed or allowed to be committed by the  child's parents or other persons responsible for the care of the child pursuant  to § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-40. Complaints and reports of suspected child abuse  and/or neglect.
    A. Persons who are mandated to report are those individuals  defined in § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia.
    1. Mandated reporters shall report immediately any suspected  abuse or neglect that they learn of in their professional capacity. No  person shall be required to make a report pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code  of Virginia if unless the person has actual knowledge that the same  matter has already been reported to the local department or the department's  toll-free child abuse and neglect hotline.
    2. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia, if  information is received by a teacher, staff member, resident, intern, or nurse  in the course of his professional services mandated reporters in a  hospital, school, or other similar institution, such person may in  place of said report, immediately notify make reports of suspected abuse  or neglect immediately to the person in charge of the institution or  department, or his designee, who shall then make such report forthwith If  the initial report of suspected abuse or neglect is made to the person in  charge of the institution or department, or his designee, such person shall (i)  notify the teacher, staff member, resident, intern, or nurse who made the  initial report when the report of suspected child abuse or neglect is made to  the local department or to the department's toll-free child abuse and neglect  hotline; (ii) provide the name of the individual receiving the report; and  (iii) forward any communication resulting from the report, including any  information about any actions taken regarding the report, to the person who  made the initial report. on the mandated reporters' behalf. This person  shall notify the mandated reporter when and to whom he made the report, as well  as forward any other communication resulting from the report, including any  action taken, to the mandated reporter.
    3. Mandated reporters shall disclose all information that is  the basis for the suspicion of child abuse or neglect and shall make available,  upon request, to the local department any records and reports that document the  basis for the complaint and/or report.
    4. A Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 D of the Code of  Virginia, a mandated reporter's failure to report as soon as possible, but  no longer than 24 hours after having reason to suspect a reportable offense of  child abuse or neglect, shall result in a fine. In cases evidencing  acts of rape, sodomy, or object sexual penetration as defined in Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2 of the Code of Virginia, a person  who knowingly and intentionally fails to make the report required pursuant  to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia shall be guilty of a Class 1  misdemeanor.
    5. A person who knowingly and intentionally fails to make a  report in cases of rape, sodomy, or object sexual penetration shall be guilty  of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
    5. 6. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 B of the Code of  Virginia, a "reason certain specified facts indicating that a  newborn may have been exposed to a controlled substance prior to birth are  sufficient to suspect that a child is abused or neglected".  This shall include (i) a finding made by a health care provider within six  weeks of the birth of a child that the results of toxicology studies of the  child indicate the presence of a controlled substance that was not prescribed  for the mother by a physician; (ii) a finding made by a health care provider  within six weeks of the birth of a child that the child was born dependent on a  controlled substance that was not prescribed by a physician for the mother and  has demonstrated withdrawal symptoms; (iii) a diagnosis made by a health care  provider at any time following a child's birth that the child has an illness,  disease, or condition which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty, is  attributable to in utero exposure to a controlled substance that was not prescribed  by a physician for the mother or the child; or (iv) a diagnosis made by a  health care provider at any time following a child's birth that the child has a  fetal alcohol spectrum disorder attributable to in utero exposure to alcohol. When  "reason to suspect" is based upon this subsection, such fact shall be  included in the report along with the facts relied upon by the person making  the report. Any report made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of Virginia  constitutes a valid report of abuse or neglect and requires a child protective  services investigation or family assessment, unless the mother sought treatment  or counseling as required in this section and pursuant to § 63.2-1505 B of the  Code of Virginia.
    a. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia, whenever a  health care provider makes a finding pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of  Virginia, then the health care provider or his designee must make a report to  child protective services immediately. Pursuant to § 63.2-1509 D of the Code  of Virginia, a health care provider who fails to make a report pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of Virginia is subject to a fine. 
    b. When a report or complaint alleging abuse or neglect is  made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A B of the Code of Virginia, then  the local department must immediately assess the infant's circumstances and any  threat to the infant's health and safety. Pursuant to 22VAC40-705-110 A, the  local department must conduct an initial safety assessment. 
    c. When a report or complaint alleging abuse or neglect is  made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A B of the Code of Virginia, then  the local department must immediately determine whether to petition a juvenile  and domestic relations district court for any necessary services or court  orders needed to ensure the safety and health of the infant. 
    d. Within five days of receipt of a report made pursuant to  § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of Virginia, the local department shall invalidate  the complaint if the following two conditions are met: (i) the mother of the  infant sought substance abuse counseling or treatment during her pregnancy  prior to the infant's birth and (ii) there is no evidence of child abuse and/or  neglect by the mother after the infant's birth. 
    (1) The local department must notify the mother immediately  upon receipt of a complaint made pursuant to § 63.2-1509 A of the Code of  Virginia. This notification must include a statement informing the mother that,  if the mother fails to present evidence within five days of receipt of the  complaint that she sought substance abuse counseling/treatment during the  pregnancy, the report will be accepted as valid and an investigation or family  assessment initiated.
    (2) If the mother sought counseling or treatment but did  not receive such services, then the local department must determine whether the  mother made a substantive effort to receive substance abuse treatment before  the child's birth. If the mother made a substantive effort to receive treatment  or counseling prior to the child's birth, but did not receive such services due  to no fault of her own, then the local department should invalidate the  complaint or report. 
    (3) d. If the mother sought or received  substance abuse counseling or treatment, but there is evidence, other than  exposure to a controlled substance, that the child may be abused or neglected,  then the local department may initiate the shall conduct an  investigation or family assessment. 
    e. Substance abuse counseling or treatment includes, but is  not limited to, education about the impact of alcohol, controlled substances  and other drugs on the fetus and on the maternal relationship; education about  relapse prevention to recognize personal and environmental cues which that  may trigger a return to the use of alcohol or other drugs. 
    f. The substance abuse counseling or treatment should attempt  to serve the purposes of improving the pregnancy outcome, treating the  substance abuse disorder, strengthening the maternal relationship with existing  children and the infant, and achieving and maintaining a sober and drug-free  lifestyle. 
    g. The substance abuse counseling or treatment services must  be provided by a professional. Professional substance abuse treatment or  counseling may be provided by a certified substance abuse counselor or a licensed  substance abuse treatment practitioner. 
    h. Facts indicating that the infant may have been exposed  to controlled substances prior to birth are not sufficient, in and of  themselves, to render a founded disposition of abuse or neglect. The local  department must establish, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the infant  was abused or neglected according to the statutory and regulatory definitions  of abuse and neglect. 
    i. h. The local department may provide  assistance to the mother in locating and receiving substance abuse counseling  or treatment. 
    B. Persons who may report child abuse and/or neglect include  any individual who suspects that a child is being abused and/or neglected  pursuant to § 63.2-1510 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. Complaints and reports of child abuse and/or neglect may  be made anonymously. An anonymous complaint, standing alone, shall not meet  the preponderance of evidence standard necessary to support a founded  determination.
    D. Any person making a complaint and/or report of child abuse  and/or neglect shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability in  connection therewith, unless the court decides it is proven that  such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent pursuant to § 63.2-1512  of the Code of Virginia.
    E. When the identity of the reporter is known to the  department or local department, these agencies shall make every effort to  protect not disclose the reporter's identity. Upon request, the  local department shall advise the person who was the subject of an unfounded  investigation if the complaint or report was made anonymously.
    F. If a person suspects that he is the subject of a report or  complaint of child abuse and/or neglect made in bad faith or with malicious  intent, that person may petition the court for access to the record including  the identity of the reporter or complainant pursuant to § 63.2-1514 of the Code  of Virginia.
    G. Any person age 14 years or older who makes or causes to be  made a knowingly false complaint or report of child abuse and/or neglect and is  convicted shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor for a first offense pursuant  to § 63.2-1513 of the Code of Virginia. 
    1. A subsequent conviction results in a Class 6 felony. 
    2. Upon receipt of notification of such conviction, the  department will retain a list of convicted reporters. 
    3. The subject of the records may have the records purged upon  presentation of proof a certified copy of such conviction. 
    H. To make a complaint or report of child abuse and/or  neglect, a person may telephone the department's toll-free child abuse and  neglect hotline or contact a local department of jurisdiction pursuant to § 63.2-1510  of the Code of Virginia. 
    1. The local department of jurisdiction that first receives a  complaint or report of child abuse and/or neglect shall assume responsibility  to ensure that a family assessment or an investigation is conducted. 
    2. A local department may ask another local department that is  a local department of jurisdiction to assist in conducting the family  assessment or investigation. If assistance is requested, the local department  shall comply. 
    3. A local department may ask another local department through  a cooperative agreement to assist in conducting the family assessment or  investigation. 
    4. If a local department employee is suspected of abusing  and/or neglecting a child, the complaint or report of child abuse and/or  neglect shall be made to the juvenile and domestic relations district court of  the county or city where the alleged abuse and/or neglect was discovered. The judge  shall assign the report to a local department that is not the employer of the  subject of the report, or, if the judge believes that no local department in  a reasonable geographic distance can be impartial in responding to the reported  case, the judge shall assign the report to the court service unit of his court  for evaluation pursuant to §§ 63.2-1509 and 63.2-1510 of the Code of  Virginia. The judge may consult with the department in selecting a local  department to respond. 
    5. In cases where an employee at a private or  state-operated hospital, institution, or other facility or an employee of a  school board is suspected of abusing or neglecting a child in such hospital,  institution, or other facility or public school, the local department shall  request the department and the relevant private or state-operated hospital,  institution, or other facility or school board to assist in conducting a joint  investigation in accordance with regulations adopted by the board, in  consultation with the Departments of Education, Health, Medical Assistance  Services, Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, Juvenile Justice, and  Corrections.
    22VAC40-705-50. Actions to be taken upon receipt of a complaint  or report. 
    A. All complaints and reports of suspected child abuse and/or  neglect shall be recorded in the child abuse and neglect information system and  either screened out or determined to be valid within five days of  upon receipt and if valid, acted on within the determined response  time. A record of all reports and complaints made to a local department or  to the department, regardless of whether the report or complaint was found to  be a valid complaint of abuse and/or neglect, shall be retained for one year  from the date of the complaint unless a subsequent report is made. 
    B. In all valid complaints or reports of child abuse and/or  neglect the local department of social services shall determine whether to  conduct an investigation or a family assessment. A valid complaint or report is  one in which:
    1. The alleged victim child or children are under the age of  18 years at the time of the complaint and/or report;
    2. The alleged abuser is the alleged victim child's parent or  other caretaker;
    3. The local department receiving the complaint or report is a  local department of jurisdiction; and
    4. The circumstances described allege suspected child abuse  and/or neglect as defined in § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
    C. The local department shall not conduct a family assessment  or investigate complaints or reports of child abuse and/or neglect that fail to  meet all of the criteria in subsection B of this section.
    D. The local department shall report certain cases of  suspected child abuse or neglect to the local attorney for the Commonwealth and  the local law-enforcement agency pursuant to § 63.2-1503 D of the Code of  Virginia.
    E. Pursuant to § 63.2-1503 J D of the Code  of Virginia, the local departments department shall  develop, where practical, a memoranda of understanding for responding to  reports of child abuse and neglect with local law enforcement and the local  office of the commonwealth's attorney.
    F. The local department shall report to the following when  the death of a child is involved:
    1. When abuse and/or neglect is suspected in any case  involving the death of a child, the local department shall report the case  immediately to the regional medical examiner and the local law-enforcement  agency pursuant to § 63.2-1503 E of the Code of Virginia.
    2. When abuse and/or neglect is suspected in any case  involving the death of a child, the local department shall report the case  immediately to the attorney for the Commonwealth and the local law-enforcement  agency pursuant to § 63.2-1503 D of the Code of Virginia.
    3. The local department shall contact the department  immediately upon receiving a complaint involving the death of a child and at  the conclusion of the investigation.
    4. The department shall immediately, upon receipt of  information, report on all child fatalities to the state board in a manner  consistent with department policy and procedures approved by the board. At a  minimum, the report shall contain information regarding any prior statewide  child protective services involvement of the family, alleged perpetrator, or  victim.
    G. Valid complaints or reports shall be screened for high  priority based on the following:
    1. The immediate danger to the child;
    2. The severity of the type of abuse or neglect alleged;
    3. The age of the child;
    4. The circumstances surrounding the alleged abuse or neglect;  
    5. The physical and mental condition of the child; and 
    6. Reports made by mandated reporters. 
    H. The local department shall initiate an immediate response but  not later than within the determined response time. The response shall be a  family assessment or an investigation. Any valid report may be investigated,  but in accordance with § 63.2-1506 C of the Code of Virginia, those cases  shall be investigated that involve: (i) sexual abuse, (ii) a child  fatality, (iii) abuse or neglect resulting in a serious injury as defined in  § 18.2-371.1 of the Code of Virginia, (iv) a child having been taken into  the custody of the local department of social services, or (v) a caretaker at a  state-licensed child day care center, religiously exempt child day center,  regulated family day home, private or public school, or hospital or any  institution. 
    1. The purpose of an investigation is to collect the  information necessary to determine or assess the following: 
    a. Immediate safety needs of the child; 
    b. Whether or not abuse or neglect has occurred; 
    c. Who abused or neglected the child; 
    d. To what extent the child is at risk of future harm,  either immediate or longer term; 
    e. What types of services can meet the needs of this child or  family; and 
    f. If services are indicated and the family appears to be  unable or unwilling to participate in services, what alternate plans will  provide for the child's safety.
    2. The purpose of a family assessment is to engage the family  in a process to collect the information necessary to determine or assess the  following:
    a. Immediate safety needs of the child;
    b. The extent to which the child is at risk of future harm,  either immediate or longer term;
    c. The types of services that can meet the needs of this child  or family; and
    d. If services are indicated and the family appears to be  unable or unwilling to participate in services, the plans that will be  developed in consultation with the family to provide for the child's safety.  These arrangements may be made in consultation with the caretaker(s) of the  child.
    3. The local department shall use reasonable diligence to  locate any child for whom a report or complaint of suspected child abuse and/or  neglect has been received and determined valid or and persons who  are the subject of a valid report if the whereabouts of such persons are  unknown to the local department pursuant to § 63.2-1503 F of the Code of  Virginia.
    4. The local department shall document its attempts to locate  the child and family.
    5. In the event the alleged victim child or children cannot be  found, the time the child cannot be found shall not be computed as part of the  45-60-day time frame to complete the investigation, pursuant to subdivision B  5 of § 63.2-1505 of the Code of Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-60. Authorities of local departments. 
    When responding to valid complaints or reports, local  departments have the following authorities: 
    1. To talk to any child suspected of being abused and/or  neglected, or child's siblings, without the consent of and outside the presence  of the parent or other caretaker, as set forth by § 63.2-1518 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    2. To take or arrange for photographs and x-rays of a child  who is the subject of a complaint without the consent of and outside the  presence of the parent or other caretaker, as set forth in § 63.2-1520 of  the Code of Virginia. 
    3. To take a child into custody on an emergency removal for  up to 72-96 hours under such circumstances as set forth in § 63.2-1517  of the Code of Virginia. 
    a. A child protective services (CPS) worker planning to  take a child into 72-96-hour emergency custody shall first consult with  a supervisor. However, this requirement shall not delay action on the CPS  child protective services worker's part if a supervisor cannot be  contacted and the situation requires immediate action. 
    b. When circumstances warrant that a child be taken into  emergency custody during a family assessment, the report shall be reassigned  immediately to an investigation. 
    c. Any person who takes a child into custody pursuant to  § 63.2-1517 of the Code of Virginia shall be immune from any civil or  criminal liability in connection therewith, unless it is proven that such  person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent. 
    d. The local department shall have the authority to have a  complete medical examination made of the child including a written medical  report and, when appropriate, photographs and x-rays pursuant to  § 63.2-1520 of the Code of Virginia. 
    e. When a child in 72-96-hour emergency custody  is in need of immediate medical or surgical treatment, the local director of  social services or his designee(s) designee may consent to such  treatment when the parent does not provide consent and a court order is not  immediately obtainable. 
    f. When a child is not in the local department's custody, the  local department cannot consent to medical or surgical treatment of the child. 
    g. When a child is removed, every effort must be made to  obtain an emergency removal order within four hours. Reasons for not doing so  shall be stated in the petition for an emergency removal order. 
    h. Every effort shall be made to provide notice of the removal  in person to the parent or guardian as soon as practicable. 
    i. Within 30 days of removing a child from the custody of  the parents or legal guardians, the local department shall exercise due  diligence to identify and notify in writing all maternal and paternal  grandparents and other adult relatives of the child and explain the options  they have to participate in the care and placement of the child, unless the  local department determines such notification is not in the best interest of  the child. These notifications shall be documented in the state automated  system. When notification to any of these relatives is not made, the child  protective services worker shall document the reasons in the state automated  system.
    22VAC40-705-70. Collection of information.
    A. When conducting an investigation the local department  shall seek first-source information about the allegation of child abuse and/or  neglect. When applicable, the local department shall include in the case  record: police reports; depositions; photographs; physical, medical and  psychological reports; and any electronic recordings of interviews.
    B. When completing a family assessment, the local department  shall gather all relevant information in collaboration with the family, to the  degree possible, in order to determine the child and family services needs  related to current safety or future risk of harm to the child.
    C. All information collected for a family assessment or an  investigation must be entered in the state automated system and maintained  according to § 63.2-1514 for unfounded investigations or family assessments or  according to 22VAC40-700-30 22VAC40-705-130 for founded  investigations. The automated record entered in the statewide automation  state automated system is the official record. When documentation is not  available in electronic form, it must be maintained in the hard copy portion of  the record. Any hard copy information, including photographs and recordings,  shall be noted as an addendum to the official record.
    22VAC40-705-80. Family assessment and investigation contacts.
    A. During the course of the family assessment, the child  protective services (CPS) worker shall make and record document  in writing in the state automated system the following contacts and  observations. When any of these contacts or observations is not made, the  child protective services worker shall document in writing why the specific  contact or observation was not made.
    1. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview with and observe the alleged victim child and  siblings within the determined response time.
    2. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview with and observe all minor siblings residing in the  home.
    2. 3. The child protective services worker shall  conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged victim child's parents or  guardians and/or any caretaker named in the report.
    3. 4. The child protective services worker shall  observe the family environment, contact pertinent collaterals, and review  pertinent records in consultation with the family.
    B. During the course of the investigation, the child  protective services (CPS) worker shall make and record document  in writing in the state automated system the following contacts and  observations. When any of these contacts or observations is not made, the CPS  child protective services worker shall record document in  writing why the specific contact or observation was not made.
    1. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview with and observation of the alleged victim child and  siblings within the determined response time. All interviews with alleged  victim children must be electronically recorded except when the child  protective services worker determines that:
    a. The child's safety may be endangered by electronically  recording his statement;
    b. The age and/or developmental capacity of the child makes  electronic recording impractical;
    c. A child refuses to participate in the interview if  electronic recording occurs; or
    d. In the context of a team investigation with law-enforcement  personnel, the team or team leader determines that audio taping electronic  recording is not appropriate. 
    e. The victim provided new information as part of a family  assessment and it would be detrimental to reinterview the victim and the child  protective services worker provides a detailed narrative of the interview in  the investigation record.
    In the case of an interview conducted with a nonverbal child  where none of the above exceptions apply, it is appropriate to electronically  record the questions being asked by the child protective services worker and to  describe, either verbally or in writing, the child's responses. A child  protective services worker shall document in detail in the record and discuss  with supervisory personnel the basis for a decision not to electronically  record an interview with the alleged victim child.
    A child protective services finding may be based on the  written narrative of the child protective services worker in cases where an  electronic recording is unavailable due to equipment failure or the above  exceptions.
    2. The child protective services worker shall conduct a  face-to-face interview and observe all minor siblings residing in the home.
    2. 3. The child protective services (CPS)  worker shall conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged abuser and/or  neglector.
    a. The CPS child protective services worker  shall inform the alleged abuser and/or neglector of his right to tape electronically  record any communication pursuant to § 63.2-1516 of the Code of Virginia.
    b. If requested by the alleged abuser and/or neglector, the  local department shall provide the necessary equipment in order to  electronically record the interview and retain a copy of the electronic  recording.
    3. 4. The child protective services worker shall  conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged victim child's parents or  guardians.
    4. 5. The child protective services worker shall  observe the environment where the alleged victim child lives. This requirement  may be waived in complaints of child abuse and neglect involving caretakers in  state licensed and religiously exempted child care centers, regulated and  unregulated family day care homes, private and public schools, group  residential facilities, hospitals or institutions.
    5. 6. The child protective services worker shall  observe the site where the alleged incident took place.
    6. 7. The child protective services worker shall  conduct interviews with collaterals who have pertinent information relevant to  the investigation and the safety of the child.
    7. 8. Pursuant to § 63.2-1505 of the Code of  Virginia, local departments may obtain and consider statewide criminal history  record information from the Central Criminal Records Exchange on any individual  who is the subject of a child abuse and neglect investigation where there is  evidence of child abuse or neglect and the local department is evaluating the  safety of the home and whether removal is necessary to ensure the child's  safety. The local department may also obtain a criminal record check on all  adult household members residing in the home of the alleged abuser and/or  neglector and where the child visits. Pursuant to § 19.2-389 of the Code  of Virginia, local departments are authorized to receive criminal history  information on the person who is the subject of the investigation as well as  other adult members of the household for the purposes in § 63.2-1505 of the  Code of Virginia. The results of the criminal record history search may be  admitted into evidence if a child abuse or neglect petition is filed in  connection with the child's removal. Local departments are prohibited from  dissemination of this information excepted as authorized by the Code of  Virginia.
    22VAC40-705-110. Assessments in family assessments and  investigations. 
    A. In both family assessments and investigations the child  protective services worker shall conduct an initial safety assessment of  the child's circumstances and threat of danger or harm, and where appropriate  shall make a safety plan to provide for the protection of the child. 
    B. In all founded cases and in completed family  assessments and investigations, the child protective services worker  shall make conduct a risk assessment to determine whether or not  the child is in jeopardy of future abuse and/or neglect and whether or not  intervention is necessary to protect the child. 
    C. In investigations, the child protective services worker  shall make a dispositional assessment after collecting and synthesizing assessing  information about the alleged abuse or neglect. 
    D. In all investigations with a founded disposition, the  child protective services worker shall assess the severity of the abuse or  neglect and shall assign a level. The three levels of founded dispositions are:
    1. Level 1. This level includes those injuries or  conditions, real or threatened, that result in or were likely to have resulted  in serious harm to a child. 
    2. Level 2. This level includes injuries or conditions,  real or threatened, that result in or were likely to have resulted in moderate  harm to a child. 
    3. Level 3. This level includes injuries or conditions,  real or threatened, that result in or were likely to have resulted in minimal  harm to a child.
    22VAC40-705-120. Complete the family assessment or  investigation Extensions; suspensions; track changes; local conferences.
    A. The local department shall promptly notify the alleged  abuser and/or neglector and the alleged victim's parents or guardians of any  extension of the deadline for the completion of the family assessment or  investigation pursuant to § 63.2-1506 B 3 or subdivision 5 of § 63.2-1505 B 5 or § 63.2-1506 B 3 of the Code of Virginia. The child  protective services worker shall document the notifications and the reason for  the need for additional time in the case record.
    B. At the completion of the family assessment, the subject  of the report shall be notified orally and in writing of the results of the  assessment. Pursuant to § 63.2-1505 B 5 of the Code of Virginia, in an  investigation involving the death of a child or alleged sexual abuse of a child  while waiting for records that are necessary to make a finding and the records  are not available to the local department due to circumstances beyond the local  department's control, the time during which the records are unavailable shall  not be computed as part of the determination deadlines set out in § 63.2-1505  B 5 of the Code of Virginia. When such unavailability of records occurs, the  local department shall promptly notify the alleged abuser or neglector and the  alleged victim's parents or guardians that the records are unavailable and the  effect of the unavailability on the completion of the investigation. The child  protective services worker shall document the notifications and the reason for  the suspension in the case record. Upon receipt of the records necessary to  make a finding, the local department shall complete the investigation. 
    C. The subject of the report shall be notified immediately if  during the course of completing the family assessment the situation is  reassessed and determined to meet the requirements, as specified in § 63.2-1506  B 7 of the Code of Virginia, to be investigated.
    D. The subject of the report or complaint may consult with  the local department to hear and refute evidence collected during the  investigation. Whenever a criminal charge is also filed against the alleged  abuser for the same conduct involving the same victim child as investigated by  the local department, sharing the evidence prior to the court hearing is  prohibited. No information gathered during a joint investigation with law  enforcement shall be released by the local department unless authorized by the  investigating law-enforcement agency or the local attorney for the Commonwealth  pursuant to § 63.2-1516.1 B of the Code of Virginia.
    E. Local conference.
    1. If the alleged abuser and/or neglector is found to have  committed abuse or neglect, that alleged abuser and/or neglector may, within 30  days of being notified of that determination, submit a written request for an  amendment of the determination and the local department's related records  pursuant to § 63.2-1526 A of the Code of Virginia. The local department shall  conduct an informal conference in an effort to examine the local department's  disposition and reasons for it and consider additional information about the  investigation and disposition presented by the alleged abuser and/or neglector.
    2. The local conference shall be conducted in accordance with  22VAC40-705-190. 
    22VAC40-705-130. Report family assessment or investigation  conclusions. 
    A. Unfounded investigation. 
    A. 1. Pursuant to § 63.2-1514 of the Code  of Virginia, the local department shall report all unfounded case dispositions  to the child abuse and neglect information system when disposition is made. 
    1. 2. The department shall retain unfounded  complaints or reports with an unfounded disposition in the child abuse  and neglect information system to provide local departments with information  regarding prior investigations. 
    2. 3. This record shall be kept separate from  the Central Registry and accessible only to the department and to local  departments. 
    3. 4. The record of the unfounded case investigation  with an unfounded disposition shall be purged one year after the date of  the complaint or report if there are no subsequent founded or unfounded  complaints and/or reports regarding the individual against whom allegations of  abuse and/or neglect were made or regarding the same child in that one year. 
    4. The record of the family assessment shall be purged  three years after the date of the complaint or report if there are no  subsequent complaints and/or reports regarding the individual against whom  allegations of abuse and/or neglect were made or regarding the same child in  those three years. 
    5. If the individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made or if the same child is involved in subsequent complaints  and/or reports, the information from all complaints and/or reports shall be  maintained until the last purge date has been reached. 
    6. 5. The individual against whom an  unfounded disposition for allegations of abuse and/or neglect were  was made may request in writing that the local department retain the  record for an additional period of up to two years. 
    7. 6. The individual against whom allegations of  abuse and/or neglect were made may request in writing that both the local  department and the department shall immediately purge the record after a  court rules upon presentation of a certified copy of a court order that  there has been a civil action that determined that the complaint or  report was made in bad faith or with malicious intent pursuant to  § 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia. 
    B. Founded investigation.
    B. 1. The local department shall report all  founded case dispositions to the child abuse and neglect information  system for inclusion in the Central Registry pursuant to subdivision 5 of § 63.2-1505  § 63.2-1515 of the Code of Virginia and 22VAC40-700-30. 
    2. Identifying information about the abuser and/or  neglector and the victim child or children reported include demographic  information, type of abuse or neglect, and date of the complaint. 
    3. The identifying information shall be retained based  on the determined level of severity of the abuse or neglect pursuant to the  regulation dealing with retention in the Central Registry, 22VAC40-700-30 22VAC40-705-110:
    a. Eighteen years past the date of the complaint for all  complaints determined by the local department to be founded as Level 1. 
    b. Seven years past the date of the complaint for all  complaints determined by the local department to be founded as Level 2. 
    c. Three years past the date of the complaint for all  complaints determined by the local department to be founded as Level 3. 
    4. Pursuant to § 63.2-1514 A of the Code of Virginia,  all records related to founded, Level 1 dispositions of sexual abuse shall be  maintained by the local department for a period of 25 years from the date of  the complaint. This applies to all investigations with founded dispositions on  or after July 1, 2010. This retention timeframe will not be reflected in the  Central Registry past the purge dates set out in this subsection. 
    C. Family assessments.
    1. The record of the family assessment shall be purged  three years after the date of the complaint or report if there are no  subsequent complaints or reports regarding the individual against whom  allegations of abuse or neglect were made or regarding the same child in those  three years.
    2. The individual against whom allegations of abuse or  neglect were made may request in writing that both the local department and the  department shall immediately purge the record upon presentation of a certified  copy of a court order that there has been a civil action that determined that  the complaint or report was made in bad faith or with malicious intent pursuant  to § 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. In all family assessments or investigations, if the  individual against whom the allegations of abuse or neglect is involved in any  subsequent complaint or report, the information from all complaints or reports  shall be maintained until the last purge date has been reached. 
    22VAC40-705-140. Notification of findings.
    A. Upon completion of the investigation or family  assessment the local child protective services worker shall make  notifications as provided in this section.
    B. Individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made.
    1. When the disposition is unfounded, the child protective  services worker shall inform the individual against whom allegations of abuse  and/or neglect were made of this finding. This notification shall be in writing  with a copy to be maintained in the case record. The individual against whom  allegations of abuse and/or neglect were made shall be informed that he may  have access to the case record and that the case record shall be retained by  the local department for one year unless requested in writing by such  individual that the local department retain the record for up to an additional  two years.
    a. If the individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made or the subject child is involved in subsequent complaints,  the information from all complaints shall be retained until the last purge date  has been reached.
    b. The local worker shall notify the individual against whom  allegations of abuse and/or neglect were made of the procedures set forth in § 63.2-1514  of the Code of Virginia regarding reports or complaints alleged to be made  in bad faith or with malicious intent.
    c. When In accordance with § 32.1-283.1 D of  the Code of Virginia when an unfounded disposition is made in an  investigation that involves a child death, the child protective services  worker shall inform the individual against whom allegations of abuse and/or  neglect were made that the case record will be retained for the longer of 12  months or until the State Child Fatality Review Team has completed its review  of the case pursuant to § 32.1-283.1 D of the Code of Virginia.
    2. When the abuser and/or neglector in a founded complaint  disposition is a foster parent of the victim child, the local department  shall place a copy of this notification letter in the child's foster care  record and in the foster home provider record. 
    3. When the abuser or neglector in a founded disposition is  a full-time, part-time, permanent, or temporary employee of a school division,  the local department shall notify the relevant school board of the founded  complaint pursuant to § 63.2-1505 B 7 of the Code of Virginia.
    4. The local department shall notify the Superintendent of  Public Instruction when an individual holding a license issued by the Board of  Education is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect and  shall transmit identifying information regarding such individual if the local  department knows the person holds a license issued by the Board of Education  and after all rights to any appeal provided by § 63.2-1526 of the Code of  Virginia have been exhausted.
    3. 5. No disposition of founded or unfounded  shall be made in a family assessment. At the completion of the family  assessment the subject of the report shall be notified orally and in writing of  the results of the assessment. The child protective services worker shall  notify the individual against whom allegations of abuse or neglect were made of  the procedures set forth in § 63.2-1514 of the Code of Virginia regarding  reports or complaints alleged to be made in bad faith or with malicious intent.
    C. Subject child's parents or guardian.
    1. When the disposition is unfounded, the child protective  services worker shall inform the parents or guardian of the subject child in  writing, when they are not the individuals against whom allegations of child  abuse and/or neglect were made, that the complaint investigation  involving their child was determined to be resulted in an  unfounded disposition and the length of time the child's name and  information about the case will be maintained. The child protective services  worker shall file a copy in the case record.
    2. When the disposition is founded, the child protective  services worker shall inform the parents or guardian of the child in writing,  when they are not the abuser and/or neglector, that the complaint involving  their child was determined to be founded and the length of time the child's  name and information about the case will be retained in the Central Registry.  The child protective services worker shall file a copy in the case record.
    3. When the founded case disposition of abuse or  neglect does not name the parents or guardians of the child as the abuser or  neglector and when the abuse or neglect occurred in a licensed or unlicensed  day care center, a regulated family day home, a private or public school, a  child-caring institution or a residential facility for juveniles, the parent or  guardian must be consulted and must give permission for the child's name to be  entered into the central registry pursuant to § 63.2-1515 of the Code of  Virginia.
    D. Complainant. 
    1. When an unfounded disposition is made, the child protective  services worker shall notify the complainant, when known, in writing that the  complaint was investigated and determined to be unfounded. The worker shall  file a copy in the case record.
    2. When a founded disposition is made, the child protective  services worker shall notify the complainant, when known, in writing that the  complaint was investigated and necessary action was taken. The local worker  shall file a copy in the case record.
    3. When a family assessment is completed, the child protective  services worker shall notify the complainant, when known, that the complaint  was assessed and necessary action taken.
    E. Family Advocacy Program. 
    When a founded disposition is made, the child protective  services worker shall notify the Family Advocacy Program representative in  writing as set forth in 22VAC40-720-20. When a family assessment is conducted  and the family is determined to be in need of services, the child protective  services worker may notify the Family Advocacy Program representative in  writing as set forth in 22VAC40-720-20. 
    1. Pursuant to § 63.2-1503 N of the Code of Virginia,  in all investigations with a founded disposition or family assessment that  involve an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or members of  his household, information regarding the disposition, type of abuse or neglect,  and the identity of the abuser or neglector shall be provided to the  appropriate Family Advocacy Program representative. This notification shall be  made in writing within 30 days after the administrative appeal rights of the  abuser or neglector have been exhausted or forfeited.
    2. The military member shall be advised that this  information regarding the founded disposition or family assessment is being  provided to the Family Advocacy Program representative and shall be given a  copy of the written notification sent to the Family Advocacy Program  representative. 
    3. Pursuant to § 63.2-105 of the Code of Virginia,  when an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or a member of his  household is involved in an investigation, family assessment, or provision of  services case, any information regarding child protective services reports,  complaints, investigations, family assessments, and follow up may be shared  with the appropriate Family Advocacy Program representative of the United  States Armed Forces when the local department determines such release to be in  the best interest of the child. In these situations, coordination between child  protective services and the Family Advocacy Program is intended to facilitate  identification, treatment, and service provision to the military family. 
    4. When needed by the Family Advocacy Program  representative to facilitate treatment and service provision to the military  family, any other additional information not prohibited from being released by  state or federal law or regulation shall also be provided to the Family  Advocacy Program representative when the local department determines such  release to be in the best interest of the child. 
    22VAC40-705-160. Releasing information. 
    A. In the following instances of mandatory disclosure the  local department shall release child protective services information. The local  department may do so without any written release. 
    1. Report to attorney for the Commonwealth and law enforcement  pursuant to § 63.2-1503 D of the Code of Virginia. 
    2. Report to the regional medical examiner's office  pursuant to §§ 32.1-283.1 C and § 63.2-1503 E F of the  Code of Virginia. 
    3. If a court mandates disclosure of information from a  child abuse and neglect case record, the local department must comply with the  request. The local department may challenge a court action for the disclosure  of the case record or any contents thereof. Upon exhausting legal recourse, the  local department shall comply with the court order. 
    4. When a family assessment or investigation is completed,  the child protective services worker shall notify the complainant/reporter that  either a complaint/report is unfounded or that necessary action is being taken.  
    5. 3. Any individual, including an individual  against whom allegations of child abuse and/or neglect were made, may exercise  his Privacy Protection Act Government Data Collection and  Dissemination Practices Act (§ 2.2-3800 et seq. of the Code of Virginia)  rights to access personal information related to himself which that  is contained in the case record including, with the individual's notarized  consent, a search of the Central Registry pursuant to § 2.2-3704 of the Code  of Virginia. 
    6. 4. When the material requested includes  personal information about other individuals, the local department shall be  afforded a reasonable time in which to redact those parts of the record  relating to other individuals. 
    7. 5. Pursuant to the Child Abuse Prevention and  Treatment Act, as amended (42 USC § 5101 et seq.), and federal regulations (45 CFR  Part 1340), the local department shall provide case-specific information about  child abuse and neglect reports and investigations to citizen review panels  when requested. 
    8. 6. Pursuant to the Child Abuse Prevention and  Treatment Act, as amended (42 USC § 5101 et seq.), the department shall develop  guidelines to allow for public disclosure in instances of child fatality or  near fatality. 
    9. 7. An individual's right to access  information under the Privacy Protection Act Government Data  Collection and Dissemination Practices Act is stayed during criminal  prosecution pursuant to § 2.2-3802 63.2-1526 C of the Code of  Virginia. 
    10. 8. The local department shall disclose and  release to the United States Armed Forces Family Advocacy Program child  protective services information as required pursuant to 22VAC40-720-20 22VAC40-705-140.  
    11. 9. Child protective services shall, on  request by the Division of Child Support Enforcement, supply information  pursuant to § 63.2-103 of the Code of Virginia. 
    12. 10. The local department shall release child  protective services information to a court appointed special advocate pursuant  to § 9.1-156 A of the Code of Virginia. 
    13. 11. The local department shall release child  protective services information to a court-appointed guardian ad litem pursuant  to § 16.1-266 E G of the Code of Virginia. 
    B. The local department may use discretion in disclosing or  releasing child protective services case record information, investigative and  on-going services to parties having a legitimate interest when the local  department deems disclosure to be in the best interest of the child. The local  department may disclose such information without a court order and without a  written release pursuant to § 63.2-105 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. The local department shall not release the identity of  persons reporting incidents of child abuse or neglect, unless court ordered, in  accordance with § 63.2-1526 of the Code of Virginia, 42 USC § 5101 et seq., and  federal regulations (45 CFR Part 1340). 
    D. C. Prior to disclosing information to any  individuals or organizations, and to be consistent with § 63.2-104 63.2-105  of the Code of Virginia, pursuant to § 63.2-1500 of the Code of Virginia,  the local department must be satisfied that consider the factors  described in subdivisions 1, 2, and 3 of this subsection as some of the factors  necessary to determine whether a person has a legitimate interest and the  disclosure of information is in the best interest of the child: 
    1. The information will be used only for the purpose for which  it is made available; 
    2. Such purpose shall be related to the goal of child  protective or rehabilitative services; and 
    3. The confidential character of the information will be  preserved to the greatest extent possible. 
    D. In the following instances, the local department shall  not release child protective services information:
    1. The local department shall not release the identity of  persons reporting incidents of child abuse or neglect, unless court ordered, in  accordance with § 63.2-1526 of the Code of Virginia, 42 USC § 5101 et seq., and  federal regulations (45 CFR Part 1340).
    2. In all complaints or reports that are being investigated  jointly with law enforcement, no information shall be released by the local  department unless authorized by the law-enforcement officer or his supervisor  or the attorney for the Commonwealth pursuant to § 63.2-1516.1 B of the Code of  Virginia. 
    22VAC40-705-180. Training.
    A. The department shall implement a uniform training plan for  child protective services workers and supervisors. The plan shall establish  minimum standards for all child protective services workers and supervisors in  the Commonwealth of Virginia.
    B. Workers and supervisors shall complete skills and  policy training specific to child abuse and neglect investigations and family  assessments within the first two years of their employment.
    C. All child protective services workers and supervisors shall  complete a minimum of 24 contact hours of continuing education or training  annually. This requirement begins after completion of initial training mandates  and no later than three years from the date of hire.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3636; Filed November 12, 2015, 8:49 a.m. 
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
STATE BOARD OF SOCIAL SERVICES
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 22VAC40-780. Elimination of  Financial Eligibility Criteria for Direct Social Services (amending 22VAC40-780-60). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-217 and 63.2-614 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: January 13, 2016.
    Effective Date: February 1, 2016. 
    Agency Contact: Phyl Parrish, Policy, Legislation and  Regulatory Manager, Department of Social Services, 801 East Main Street,  Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 726-7926, FAX (804) 726-7499, or email  phyl.parrish@dss.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia provides  the authority for the State Board of Social Services to adopt regulations to  carry out the purpose of Title 63.2. Section 63.2-319 of the Code of Virginia  requires local departments of social services (LDSS) to provide child welfare  and other services. Section 63.2-407 of the Code of Virginia provides that  counties and cities may provide public assistance and social services as  authorized by the State Board of Social Services.
    Purpose: The purpose of the regulatory action is to  change the title of the regulation to make it more accurately reflect the  regulation's content and purpose. It is also to remove unnecessary language  that may cause individuals to think the regulation addresses services delivered  as part of public assistance programs. This regulation is essential in that it  provides authority for LDSS to provide direct services impacting the safety of  children and the welfare of children and their families.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: The fast-track  rulemaking process is appropriate for the promulgation of this regulatory  action because the two changes being made are simple and intended to clarify,  and it is unlikely anyone would comment on them. In the past two periodic  reviews of this regulation, including the most recent one ending June 8, 2015,  no comments were received.
    Substance: The title of the regulation is being changed  from "Elimination of Financial Eligibility for Direct Social  Services" to "Eligibility for Direct Social Services." In  22VAC40-780-60, a sentence stating that all persons needing social services may  be served on a universal access basis, except for services delivered as part of  an employment services program, is being changed to remove the reference to employment  services programs.
    Issues: The regulation is being changed to clarify the  title and remove unnecessary language. More clarity in the regulation is an  advantage to the public and to the LDSS that use this regulation for authority  for their provision of direct social services. There are no disadvantages to  the public or the Commonwealth.
    Small Business Impact Review Report of Findings: This  regulatory action serves as the report of the findings of the regulatory review  pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Social Services (Board) proposes to change this regulation's title and  eliminate language that is unrelated to the purposes of this regulation. 
    Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for these  proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. This regulation's current title is  "Elimination of Financial Eligibility Criteria for Direct Social  Services" and the regulation currently contains a part of a sentence that  refers to employment services programs, which fall under public assistance  programs not direct social services. The Board proposes to change the title of  this regulation to "Eligibility for Direct Social Services" and to  remove the reference to employment services programs from the regulatory text.  No entities are likely to incur costs on account of either of these changes.  Both changes will likely increase the clarity of the regulation as they remove language  that might cause confusion.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. Board staff reports that  these changes will affect all 120 local Departments of Social Services and any  of their clients who qualify for direct social services.
    Localities Particularly Affected. No locality in the  Commonwealth will be particularly affected by these proposed changes. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed changes are  unlikely to impact employment in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These  proposed changes will likely have no impact on the use or value of private  property.
    Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed changes will  likely not affect real estate development costs.
    Small Businesses: 
    Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia, small business is defined as "a  business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and  operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross  annual sales of less than $6 million."
    Costs and Other Effects. No small  businesses will incur costs on account of these regulatory changes.
    Alternative Method that Minimizes  Adverse Impact. No small businesses will incur costs on account of these  regulatory changes.
    Adverse Impacts:
    Businesses: No businesses will incur costs on account of these  regulatory changes.
    Localities: These proposed changes are unlikely to adversely  impact localities.
    Other Entities: These proposed changes are unlikely to  adversely impact any other entity in the Commonwealth.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Social Services concurs with the economic impact analysis  prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    The amendments (i) change the title of the regulation and  (ii) remove unnecessary language in 22VAC40-780-60 referring to employment  services programs, which are benefit or public assistance programs rather than  social services programs.
    CHAPTER 780 
  ELIMINATION OF FINANCIAL ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR DIRECT SOCIAL  SERVICES 
    22VAC40-780-60. Universal access. 
    Local departments of social services may choose one of two  options in providing direct services on a universal access basis: 
    1. All persons needing direct services may be served on a  universal access basis except for services delivered as a part of employment  services programs; or 
    2. Only persons needing the following services may be served  on a universal access basis: 
    a. Intake services; 
    b. Family services (services provided to prevent child abuse  and neglect, independent adoptions, and court activities); 
    c. Adult protective services; 
    d. Child protective services; 
    e. Foster care or adoption services; or
    f. Adult services (services provided to elderly and  incapacitated adults at risk of abuse, neglect, or exploitation). 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4436; Filed November 12, 2015, 8:57 a.m.