The Virginia Register OF
REGULATIONS is an official state publication issued every other week
throughout the year. Indexes are published quarterly, and are cumulative for
the year. The Virginia Register has several functions. The new and
amended sections of regulations, both as proposed and as finally adopted, are
required by law to be published in the Virginia Register. In addition,
the Virginia Register is a source of other information about state
government, including petitions for rulemaking, emergency regulations,
executive orders issued by the Governor, and notices of public hearings on
regulations.
ADOPTION,
AMENDMENT, AND REPEAL OF REGULATIONS
An
agency wishing to adopt, amend, or repeal regulations must first publish in the
Virginia Register a notice of intended regulatory action; a basis,
purpose, substance and issues statement; an economic impact analysis prepared
by the Department of Planning and Budget; the agency’s response to the economic
impact analysis; a summary; a notice giving the public an opportunity to
comment on the proposal; and the text of the proposed regulation.
Following
publication of the proposal in the Virginia Register, the promulgating agency
receives public comments for a minimum of 60 days. The Governor reviews the
proposed regulation to determine if it is necessary to protect the public
health, safety and welfare, and if it is clearly written and easily
understandable. If the Governor chooses to comment on the proposed regulation,
his comments must be transmitted to the agency and the Registrar no later than
15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment period. The
Governor’s comments, if any, will be published in the Virginia Register.
Not less than 15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment
period, the agency may adopt the proposed regulation.
The
Joint Commission on Administrative Rules (JCAR) or the appropriate standing
committee of each house of the General Assembly may meet during the
promulgation or final adoption process and file an objection with the Registrar
and the promulgating agency. The objection will be published in the Virginia
Register. Within 21 days after receipt by the agency of a legislative
objection, the agency shall file a response with the Registrar, the objecting
legislative body, and the Governor.
When
final action is taken, the agency again publishes the text of the regulation as
adopted, highlighting all changes made to the proposed regulation and
explaining any substantial changes made since publication of the proposal. A
30-day final adoption period begins upon final publication in the Virginia
Register.
The
Governor may review the final regulation during this time and, if he objects,
forward his objection to the Registrar and the agency. In addition to or in
lieu of filing a formal objection, the Governor may suspend the effective date
of a portion or all of a regulation until the end of the next regular General
Assembly session by issuing a directive signed by a majority of the members of
the appropriate legislative body and the Governor. The Governor’s objection or
suspension of the regulation, or both, will be published in the Virginia
Register. If the Governor finds that changes made to the proposed
regulation have substantial impact, he may require the agency to provide an
additional 30-day public comment period on the changes. Notice of the
additional public comment period required by the Governor will be published in
the Virginia Register.
The
agency shall suspend the regulatory process for 30 days when it receives
requests from 25 or more individuals to solicit additional public comment,
unless the agency determines that the changes have minor or inconsequential
impact.
A
regulation becomes effective at the conclusion of the 30-day final adoption
period, or at any other later date specified by the promulgating agency, unless
(i) a legislative objection has been filed, in which event the regulation,
unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after
the expiration of the 21-day objection period; (ii) the Governor exercises his
authority to require the agency to provide for additional public comment, in
which event the regulation, unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date
specified, which shall be after the expiration of the period for which the
Governor has provided for additional public comment; (iii) the Governor and the
General Assembly exercise their authority to suspend the effective date of a
regulation until the end of the next regular legislative session; or (iv) the
agency suspends the regulatory process, in which event the regulation, unless
withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after the
expiration of the 30-day public comment period and no earlier than 15 days from
publication of the readopted action.
A
regulatory action may be withdrawn by the promulgating agency at any time
before the regulation becomes final.
FAST-TRACK
RULEMAKING PROCESS
Section
2.2-4012.1 of the Code of Virginia provides an exemption from certain
provisions of the Administrative Process Act for agency regulations deemed by
the Governor to be noncontroversial. To use this process, Governor's
concurrence is required and advance notice must be provided to certain
legislative committees. Fast-track regulations will become effective on the
date noted in the regulatory action if no objections to using the process are
filed in accordance with § 2.2-4012.1.
EMERGENCY
REGULATIONS
Pursuant
to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of Virginia, an agency, upon consultation
with the Attorney General, and at the discretion of the Governor, may adopt
emergency regulations that are necessitated by an emergency situation. An
agency may also adopt an emergency regulation when Virginia statutory law or
the appropriation act or federal law or federal regulation requires that a
regulation be effective in 280 days or less from its enactment. The emergency regulation becomes operative upon its
adoption and filing with the Registrar of Regulations, unless a later date is
specified. Emergency regulations are limited to no more than 18 months in
duration; however, may be extended for six months under certain circumstances
as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D. Emergency regulations are published as
soon as possible in the Register.
During
the time the emergency status is in effect, the agency may proceed with the
adoption of permanent regulations through the usual procedures. To begin
promulgating the replacement regulation, the agency must (i) file the Notice of
Intended Regulatory Action with the Registrar within 60 days of the effective
date of the emergency regulation and (ii) file the proposed regulation with the
Registrar within 180 days of the effective date of the emergency regulation. If
the agency chooses not to adopt the regulations, the emergency status ends when
the prescribed time limit expires.
STATEMENT
The
foregoing constitutes a generalized statement of the procedures to be followed.
For specific statutory language, it is suggested that Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006
et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia be examined
carefully.
CITATION
TO THE VIRGINIA REGISTER
The Virginia
Register is cited by volume, issue, page number, and date. 29:5 VA.R. 1075-1192
November 5, 2012, refers to Volume 29, Issue 5, pages 1075 through 1192 of
the Virginia Register issued on
November 5, 2012.
The
Virginia Register of Regulations is
published pursuant to Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2
of the Code of Virginia.
Members
of the Virginia Code Commission: John
S. Edwards, Chair; James M. LeMunyon, Vice Chair; Gregory D.
Habeeb; Ryan T. McDougle; Robert L. Calhoun; Carlos L. Hopkins; Leslie
L. Lilley; E.M. Miller, Jr.; Thomas M. Moncure, Jr.; Christopher R. Nolen;
Timothy Oksman; Charles S. Sharp; Mark J. Vucci.
Staff
of the Virginia Register: Jane
D. Chaffin, Registrar of Regulations; Karen Perrine, Assistant
Registrar; Anne Bloomsburg, Regulations Analyst; Rhonda Dyer, Publications
Assistant; Terri Edwards, Operations Staff Assistant.
PUBLICATION SCHEDULE AND DEADLINES
Vol. 33 Iss. 10 - January 09, 2017
January 2017 through February 2018
Volume: Issue
|
Material Submitted By Noon*
|
Will Be Published On
|
33:10
|
December 19, 2016 (Monday)
|
January 9, 2017
|
33:11
|
January 4, 2017
|
January 23, 2017
|
33:12
|
January 18, 2017
|
February 6, 2017
|
33:13
|
February 1, 2017
|
February 20, 2017
|
33:14
|
February 15, 2017
|
March 6, 2017
|
33:15
|
March 1, 2017
|
March 20, 2017
|
33:16
|
March 15, 2017
|
April 3, 2017
|
33:17
|
March 29, 2017
|
April 17, 2017
|
33:18
|
April 12, 2017
|
May 1, 2017
|
33:19
|
April 26, 2017
|
May 15, 2017
|
33:20
|
May 10, 2017
|
May 29, 2017
|
33:21
|
May 24, 2017
|
June 12, 2017
|
33:22
|
June 7, 2017
|
June 26, 2017
|
33:23
|
June 21, 2017
|
July 10, 2017
|
33:24
|
July 5, 2017
|
July 24, 2017
|
33:25
|
July 19, 2017
|
August 7, 2017
|
33:26
|
August 2, 2017
|
August 21, 2017
|
34:1
|
August 16, 2017
|
September 4, 2017
|
34:2
|
August 30, 2017
|
September 18, 2017
|
34:3
|
September 13, 2017
|
October 2, 2017
|
34:4
|
September 27, 2017
|
October 16, 2017
|
34:5
|
October 11, 2017
|
October 30, 2017
|
34:6
|
October 25, 2017
|
November 13, 2017
|
34:7
|
November 8, 2017
|
November 27, 2017
|
34:8
|
November 21, 2017 (Tuesday)
|
December 11, 2017
|
34:9
|
December 6, 2017
|
December 25, 2017
|
34:10
|
December 19, 2017 (Tuesday)
|
January 8, 2018
|
34:11
|
January 3, 2018
|
January 22, 2018
|
34:12
|
January 17, 2018
|
February 5, 2018
|
*Filing deadlines are Wednesdays
unless otherwise specified.
PETITIONS FOR RULEMAKING
Vol. 33 Iss. 10 - January 09, 2017
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Agency Decision
Title of Regulation:
9VAC25-260. Water Quality Standards.
Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of
Virginia; 33 USC § 1251 et seq.; 40 CFR Part 131.
Name of Petitioner: McChesney Goodall, IV.
Nature of Petitioner's Request: Designate a segment of
Laurel Fork in Highland County, the majority of which is within the property
boundary of Rifle Ridge Farm, LP, as Exceptional State Waters.
Agency Decision: Request granted.
Statement of Reason for Decision: The State Water
Control Board, at its meeting on December 12, 2016, authorized the Department of
Environmental Quality to initiate a rulemaking to consider amending the Water
Quality Standards regulation (9VAC25-260-30 A 3) to designate the petitioned
segment of Laurel Fork as exceptional state waters. A Notice of Intended
Regulatory Action will be submitted early in 2017.
Agency Contact: David Whitehurst, Department of
Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,
telephone (804) 698-4121, or email david.whitehurst@deq.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-04; Filed December 16, 2016, 1:45 p.m.
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TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND
OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF PHYSICAL THERAPY
Initial Agency Notice
Title of Regulation:
18VAC112-20. Regulations Governing the Practice of Physical Therapy.
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3473
through 54.1-3483 of the Code of Virginia.
Name of Petitioner: Peggy Belmont.
Nature of Petitioner's Request: To expand the list of
Type I approved providers for continuing education to include the Virginia
Occupational Therapy Association and the American Occupational Therapy Association.
Agency Plan for Disposition of Request: The petition has
been filed with the Registrar of Regulations and will be published on January
9, 2017. Comment on the petition may be sent by email or regular mail or posted
on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall at www.townhall.virginia.gov; comment will
be requested until February 8, 2017. Following receipt of all comments on the
petition to amend regulations, the board will decide whether to make any
changes to the regulatory language. This matter will be on the board's agenda
for its meeting scheduled for February 21, 2017, and the petitioner will be
informed of the board's decision after that meeting.
Public Comment Deadline: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Elaine J. Yeatts, Regulatory
Coordinator, Department of Health Professions, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite
300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-4688, or email
elaine.yeatts@dhp.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-08; Filed December 13, 2016, 3:14 p.m.
NOTICES OF INTENDED REGULATORY ACTION
Vol. 33 Iss. 10 - January 09, 2017
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
Permits for Stationary Sources (Rev. K16)
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the
Code of Virginia that the Air Pollution Control Board intends to consider
amending 9VAC5-80, Permits for Stationary Sources (Rev. K16). Title V of
the 1990 Clean Air Act requires that states develop permit fee programs to pay
for all of the direct and indirect costs of the state's Title V Permit Program.
Virginia's Title V Permit Program is projected to become underfunded in fiscal
year (FY) 2018 because air emission fee revenue is decreasing and because the
fee schedule does not reflect actual costs of the program. The intent of this
regulatory action is to comply with state and federal requirements to fully
fund Virginia's Title V Permit Program. The goal of this proposed action is to
increase Title V fees enough to fully fund the Title V program, to restructure
the existing Title V fee schedule to better reflect actual costs of the
program, and to make other amendments determined to be necessary including
clarification of the regulatory text.
The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the proposed
action after publication in the Virginia Register.
Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1308 of the Code of
Virginia; §§ 110, 112, 165, 173, 182, and Title V of the federal Clean Air
Act; 40 CFR Parts 51, 61, 63, 63, 70, and 72.
Public Comment Deadline: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Gary E. Graham, Department of
Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,
telephone (804) 698-4103, or email gary.graham@deq.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4981; Filed December 16, 2016, 6:42 p.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
General Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Permit for Potable Water Treatment Plants
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the
Code of Virginia that the State Water Control Board intends to consider
amending 9VAC25-860, General Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System
(VPDES) Permit for Potable Water Treatment Plants. The purpose of the
proposed action is to establish appropriate and necessary permitting
requirements for discharges of wastewater from potable water treatment plants.
The proposed regulation will set forth standard language for effluent
limitations and monitoring requirements necessary to regulate this category of
dischargers. These discharges are considered to be point sources of pollutants
and thus are subject to regulation under the VPDES permit program. The permit
regulation specifies requirements that protect water quality below the
discharge and that is essential to protect the health, safety, or welfare of
citizens.
The primary issue that needs to be addressed is that the
existing general permit expires on June 30, 2018, and must be reissued in order
to continue making it available after that date. Other issues that need
consideration are: whether authorization to discharge should consider
facilities with groundwater contamination, whether the registration statement
requirements need to be clarified, whether the numerical limits and special
conditions are still appropriate, whether land application requirements for
water treatment residuals should be added, and whether the whole effluent
toxicity requirements need to be adjusted. The regulation will also be reviewed
for clarity based on questions raised during the implementation of the 2013
permit, if any additional conditions or other revisions are needed to make the
potable water treatment plant general permit consistent with other types of
general permits reissued since 2013, or any other issues raised during public
comment and technical advisory committee discussions.
In addition, pursuant to Executive Order 17 (2014) and §
2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, the agency is conducting a periodic review
and small business impact review of this regulation to determine whether this
regulation should be terminated, amended, or retained in its current form.
Public comment is sought on the review of any issue relating to this
regulation, including whether the regulation (i) is necessary for the
protection of public health, safety, and welfare or for the economic
performance of important governmental functions; (ii) minimizes the economic
impact on small businesses in a manner consistent with the stated objectives of
applicable law; (iii) is designed to achieve its intended objective in the most
efficient, cost-effective manner; (iv) is clearly written and easily
understandable; (v) overlaps, duplicates, or conflicts with federal or state
law or regulation; and (vi) whether technology, economic conditions, or other
factors have changed in the area affected by the regulation since the last
review.
The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the proposed
action after publication in the Virginia Register.
Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of
Virginia.
Public Comment Deadline: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Elleanore Daub, Department of
Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,
telephone (804) 698-4067, FAX (804) 698-4032, TTY (804) 698-4021, or email
elleanore.daub@deq.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-5011; Filed December 16, 2016, 8:37 a.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
Family Access to Medical Insurance Security Plan
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the
Code of Virginia that the Board of Medical Assistance Services intends to
consider amending 12VAC30-141, Family Access to Medical Insurance Security
Plan. The purpose of the proposed action is to update the FAMIS and FAMIS
MOMS regulations after a periodic review. Regulations currently in place
describe the implementation and oversight of the state's Children's Health
Insurance Program (CHIP) (known in Virginia as the Family Access to Medical Insurance
Security (FAMIS) Plan) and the CHIP waiver program for pregnant women known as
FAMIS MOMS. Effective January 1, 2014, the Affordable Care Act required
eligibility for health coverage under all health insurance affordability
programs, including CHIP, to be based on a new modified adjusted gross income
(MAGI) methodology. Calculating an applicant's MAGI eligibility entails
defining household composition and executing income-counting procedures based
on U.S. Internal Revenue Service rules. Federal law requires these changes to
be made in the State Child Health Plan under Title XXI of the Social Security
Act. Amendments under consideration would incorporate the required changes in
eligibility determination standards and updates to operational processes supporting
eligibility and renewal actions. Because the FAMIS MOMS program operates as a
CHIP waiver, corresponding regulations related to FAMIS MOMS are also affected.
The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the
proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register.
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
Virginia.
Public Comment Deadline: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
Department of Medical Assistance Services, Policy Division, 600 East Broad
Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)
786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4662; Filed December 19, 2016, 11:57 a.m.
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
Auxiliary Grants Program
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the
Code of Virginia that the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services
intends to consider amending 22VAC30-80, Auxiliary Grants Program. The
purpose of the proposed action is to add supportive housing as an option for
individuals receiving the auxiliary grant. The regulation needs to be amended
to provide clear guidance regarding the supportive housing setting, which is a
new living arrangement that individuals who receive auxiliary payments may
choose, in accordance with Chapter 567 of the 2016 Acts of Assembly. The goals
of this amended regulation are to (i) add information about supportive housing
as a new setting for auxiliary grants, (ii) define requirements for providers
of the supportive housing setting, (iii) clarify providers responsibilities for
each setting, and (iv) update terminology and other provisions for the
Auxiliary Grant Program.
The agency does not intend to hold a public hearing on the
proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register.
Statutory Authority: §§ 51.5-131 and 51.5-160 of the
Code of Virginia.
Public Comment Deadline: February 9, 2017.
Agency Contact: Tishaun Harris-Ugworji, Program
Consultant, Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services, 8004 Franklin
Farms Drive, Richmond, VA 23229, telephone (804) 662-7531, or email
tishaun.harrisugworji@dars.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4816; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:22 p.m.
REGULATIONS
Vol. 33 Iss. 10 - January 09, 2017
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF GAME AND INLAND FISHERIES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Board of Game and Inland Fisheries is claiming an exemption from the
Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of
Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-30. Definitions and
Miscellaneous: Importation, Possession, Sale, Etc., of Animals (amending 4VAC15-30-40).
Statutory Authority: § 29.1-501 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: Phil Smith, Regulatory Coordinator,
Department of Game and Inland Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400,
Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 367-8341, or email
phil.smith@dgif.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendment allows anglers to legally harvest
grass carp from public waters of the Commonwealth, except from department-owned
or department-controlled lakes, provided that anglers ensure that harvested
grass carp are dead.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
4VAC15-30-40. Importation requirements, possession and sale of
nonnative (exotic) animals.
EDITOR'S NOTE:
Subsections A through G of 4VAC15-30-40 are not amended; therefore, the text of
those subsections is not set out.
H. Exception for grass carp. Anglers may legally harvest
grass carp of the family Cyprinidae from public waters of the Commonwealth,
except from department-owned or department-controlled lakes, provided that
anglers ensure that harvested grass carp are dead.
I. All other nonnative (exotic) animals. All other
nonnative (exotic) animals not listed in subsection A of this section may be
possessed, purchased, and sold; provided, that such animals shall be subject to
all applicable local, state, and federal laws and regulations, including those
that apply to threatened/endangered species, and further provided, that such
animals shall not be liberated within the Commonwealth.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4796; Filed December 19, 2016, 6:17 p.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF GAME AND INLAND FISHERIES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Game and Inland Fisheries is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-320. Fish: Fishing Generally (amending 4VAC15-320-25, 4VAC15-320-120).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: Phil Smith, Regulatory Coordinator, Department of Game and Inland Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 367-8341, or email phil.smith@dgif.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) correctly identify the railroad bridge over Big Walker Creek associated with the New River smallmouth bass protected slot limit; (ii) create a seasonal 40-inch to 48-inch protected slot limit on muskellunge on the New River from Claytor Dam downstream to the Virginia/West Virginia state line; (iii) reduce the geographic coverage associated with the limitation on harvesting large animals in the daily creel limit for blue catfish to the James River below the fall line and its tidal tributaries, the York River and its tributaries including the Mattaponi River and Pamunkey River, and Kerr Reservoir; (iv) implement a five-fish per day creel limit on longnose gar and bowfin for anglers using hook and line or bowfishing tackle; (v) implement a statewide recreational minimum size limit and increase the daily creel limit for American eels, while providing an exception to the daily creel limit to those individuals holding permits for the harvest of eels for sale from Back Bay or North Landing River, or both, in the City of Virginia Beach; (vi) remove the requirement of a special daily permit for fishing on a portion of Big Tumbling Creek on the Clinch Mountain Wildlife Management Area (Smyth County) where a seasonal catch and release area will be implemented effective January 1, 2018; and (vii) incorporate an amendment pertaining to American shad and hickory shad that was adopted by the board in 2014.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of Regulations.
4VAC15-320-25. Creel and length limits.
The creel limits (including live possession) and the length limits for the various species of fish shall be as follows, unless otherwise excepted by posted rules at department-owned or department-controlled waters (see 4VAC15-320-100 D).
Type of fish | Subtype or location | Creel and length limits | Geographic exceptions | Creel or length limits for exceptions |
largemouth bass, smallmouth bass, spotted bass | | 5 per day in the aggregate (combined); No statewide length limits | Lakes |
Briery Creek Lake | No bass 16 to 24 inches, only 1 per day longer than 24 inches |
Buggs Island (Kerr) | Only 2 of 5 bass less than 14 inches |
Claytor Lake | No bass less than 12 inches |
Flannagan Reservoir | No bass less than 12 inches |
Lake Gaston | Only 2 of 5 bass less than 14 inches |
Leesville Reservoir | Only 2 of 5 bass less than 14 inches |
Lake Moomaw | No bass less than 12 inches |
Philpott Reservoir | No bass less than 12 inches |
Quantico Marine Base waters | No bass 12 to 15 inches |
Smith Mt. Lake and its tributaries below Niagara Dam | Only 2 of 5 bass less than 14 inches |
Rivers |
Clinch River – within the boundaries of Scott, Wise, Russell, or Tazewell counties | No bass less than 20 inches, only 1 bass per day longer than 20 inches |
Dan River and tributaries downstream from the Union Street Dam, Danville | Only 2 of 5 bass less than 14 inches |
James River – Confluence of the Jackson and Cowpasture rivers (Botetourt County) downstream to the 14th Street Bridge in Richmond | No bass 14 to 22 inches, only 1 per day longer than 22 inches |
New River – Fields Dam (Grayson County) downstream to the VA - WV state line and its tributaries Little River downstream from Little River Dam in Montgomery County, Big Walker Creek from the Norfolkand WesternSouthern Railroad Bridge downstream to the New River, and Wolf Creek from the Narrows dam downstream to the New River in Giles County (This does not include Claytor Lake, which is delineated as: The upper end of the island at Allisonia downstream to the dam) | No bass 14 to 22 inches, only 1 per day longer than 22 inches |
North Fork Holston River - Rt. 91 bridge upstream of Saltville, VA downstream to the VA - TN state line | No bass less than 20 inches, only 1 per day longer than 20 inches |
North Fork Shenandoah River – Rt. 42 bridge, Rockingham Co. downstream to the confluence with S. Fork Shenandoah at Front Royal | No bass 11 to 14 inches |
Potomac River - Virginia tidal tributaries above Rt. 301 bridge | No bass less than 15 inches from March 1 through June 15 |
Roanoke (Staunton) River - and its tributaries below Difficult Creek, Charlotte Co. | Only 2 of 5 bass less than 14 inches |
Shenandoah River – | |
Confluence of South Fork and North Fork rivers, Front Royal, downstream, to the Warren Dam, near Front Royal | No bass 11 to 14 inches |
Base of Warren Dam, near Front Royal downstream to Rt. 17/50 bridge | No bass 14 to 20 inches, only 1 per day longer than 20 inches |
Rt. 17/50 bridge downstream to VA - WV state line | No bass 11 to 14 inches |
South Fork Shenandoah River - | |
Confluence of North and South rivers, below Port Republic, downstream to Shenandoah Dam, near Town of Shenandoah | No bass 11 to 14 inches |
Base of Shenandoah Dam, near Town of Shenandoah, downstream to Luray Dam, near Luray | No bass 14 to 20 inches, only 1 per day longer than 20 inches |
Base of Luray Dam, near Luray, downstream to the confluence with North Fork of Shenandoah, Front Royal | No bass 11 to 14 inches |
Staunton River - | |
Leesville Dam (Campbell County) downstream to the mouth of Difficult Creek, Charlotte County | No smallmouth bass less than 20 inches, only 1 per day longer than 20 inches |
striped bass | landlocked striped bass and landlocked striped bass x white bass hybrids | 4 per day in the aggregate; No fish less than 20 inches | Buggs Island (Kerr) reservoir including the Staunton River to Leesville Dam and the Dan River to Union Street Dam (Danville) | October 1 - May 31: 2 per day in the aggregate; No striped bass or hybrid striped bass less than 24 inches; June 1 - September 30: 4 per day in the aggregate; No length limit |
Smith Mountain Lake and its tributaries, including the Roanoke River upstream to Niagara Dam | 2 per day in the aggregate; November 1 - May 31: No striped bass 30 to 40 inches; June 1 - October 31: No length limit |
Lake Gaston | 4 per day in the aggregate October 1 - May 31: No striped bass or hybrid striped bass less than 20 inches June 1 - September 30: No length limit |
anadromous (coastal) striped bass above the fall line in all coastal rivers of the Chesapeake Bay | Creel and length limits shall be set by the Virginia Marine Resources Commission for recreational fishing in tidal waters | | |
anadromous (coastal) in the Meherrin, Nottoway, Blackwater (Chowan Drainage), North Landing and Northwest Rivers and their tributaries plus Back Bay | 2 per day; No striped bass less than 18 inches | | |
white bass | | 5 per day; No statewide length limits | | |
walleye | | 5 per day in the aggregate; No walleye or saugeye less than 18 inches | New River upstream of Buck Dam in Carroll County | No walleye less than 20 inches |
Claytor Lake and the New River upstream of Claytor Lake Dam to Buck Dam in Carroll County | February 1 - May 31: 2 walleye per day; no walleye 19 to 28 inches; June 1 - January 31: 5 walleye per day; no walleye less than 20 inches |
sauger | | 2 per day; No statewide length limits | | |
yellow perch | | No statewide daily limit; No statewide length limits | Lake Moomaw | 10 per day |
chain pickerel | | 5 per day; No statewide length limits | Gaston and Buggs Island (Kerr) reservoirs | No daily limit |
northern pike | | 2 per day; No pike less than 20 inches | | |
muskellunge | | 2 per day; No muskellunge less than 30 inches | New River - Fields Dam (Grayson County) downstream tothe VA - WV state lineClaytor Dam, including Claytor Lake | 1 per day No muskellunge less than 42 inches |
New River - Claytor Dam downstream to the VA - WV state line | 1 per day June 1 - last day of February: No muskellunge [ less than 42 40 to 48 ] inches; March 1 - May 31: No muskellunge less than 48 inches |
bluegill (bream) and other sunfish excluding crappie, rock bass (redeye) and Roanoke bass | | 50 per day in the aggregate; No statewide length limits | Gaston and Buggs Island (Kerr) reservoirs and that portion of the New River from the VA - NC state line downstream to the confluence of the New and Little Rivers in Grayson County | No daily limit |
crappie (black or white) | | 25 per day in the aggregate; No statewide length limits | Gaston and Buggs Island (Kerr) reservoirs and that portion of the New River from the VA - NC state line downstream to the confluence of the New and Little Rivers in Grayson County | No daily limit |
Flannagan and South Holston reservoirs | No crappie less than 10 inches |
rock bass (redeye) | | 25 per day; No statewide length limits | Gaston and Buggs Island (Kerr) reservoirs and that portion of the New River from the VA - NC state line downstream to the confluence of the New and Little Rivers in Grayson County. | No daily limit |
Nottoway and Meherrin rivers and their tributaries | 5 per day in the aggregate with Roanoke bass; No rock bass less than 8 inches |
Roanoke bass | | No statewide daily limit; No statewide length limits | Nottoway and Meherrin rivers and their tributaries | 5 per day in the aggregate with rock bass; No Roanoke bass less than 8 inches |
trout | See 4VAC15-330. Fish: Trout Fishing. |
catfish | channel, white, and flathead catfish | 20 per day; No length limits | All rivers below the fall line | No daily limit |
blue catfish | 20 per day, only 1 blue catfish per day longer than 32 inches; No statewide length limits | Kerr Reservoir | 20 per day, except only 1 blue catfish per day longer than 32 inches |
James River and its tributaries below the fall line and York River and its tributaries (including the Pamunkey River and Mattaponi River) below the fall line | No daily limit, except only 1 blue catfish per day longer than 32 inches |
All rivers below the fall lineother than the James River and its tributaries and the York River and its tributaries | No daily limit, except only 1 blue catfish per day longer than 32 inches |
yellow, brown, and black bullheads | No daily limit; No length limits | | |
American shad and hickory shad | [ James River above the fall line (14th Street Bridge), the Meherrin River above Emporia Dam, the Chickahominy River above Walkers Dam, the Appomattox River above Harvell Dam, the Pamunkey River and the Mattaponi River above the Rt. 360 bridge, and the Rappahannock River above the Rt. 1 bridge, and ] Virginia waters of Lake Gaston and Buggs Island (Kerr) Reservoir and tributaries to include the Dan and Staunton rivers | No possession (catch and release only) | | |
Above and below the fall line in all coastal rivers of the Chesapeake Bay | Creel and length limits shall be the same as those set by the Virginia Marine Resources Commission for these species in tidal rivers | | |
Meherrin River below Emporia Dam Nottoway River, Blackwater River (Chowan Drainage), North Landing and Northwest rivers, and their tributaries plus Back Bay | 10 per day in the aggregate No length limits | | |
anadromous (coastal) alewife and blueback herring | Above and below the fall line in all coastal rivers of the Chesapeake Bay | Creel and length limits shall be the same as those set by the Virginia Marine Resources Commission for these species in tidal rivers | | |
Meherrin River, Nottoway River, Blackwater River (Chowan Drainage), North Landing and Northwest rivers, and their tributaries plus Back Bay | No possession | | |
red drum | Back Bay and tributaries including Lake Tecumseh and the North Landing River and its tributaries | 1 per day; No drum less than 18 inches or greater than 27 inches | | |
spotted sea trout (speckled trout) | Back Bay and tributaries including Lake Tecumseh and the North Landing River and its tributaries | 4 per day; No sea trout less than 14 inches | | |
grey trout (weakfish) | Back Bay and tributaries including Lake Tecumseh and North Landing River and its tributaries | 1 per day; No grey trout less than 12 inches | | |
southern flounder | Back Bay and tributaries including Lake Tecumseh and the North Landing River and its tributaries | 6 per day; No flounder less than 15 inches | | |
northern snakehead | | Anglers may possess snakeheads taken from Virginia waters if they immediately kill the fish and notify the headquarters or a regional office of the department; notification may be made by telephoning (804) 367-2925 No statewide daily limit No statewide length limits | | |
longnose gar | | 5 per day; No statewide length limits | | |
bowfin | | 5 per day; No statewide length limits | | |
American eel | | 25 per day; No eel less than 9 inches | Back Bay and North Landing River | No possession limit for those individuals possessing a permit obtained under 4VAC15-340-80 |
other native or naturalized nongame fish | See 4VAC15-360-10. Fish: Aquatic Invertebrates, Amphibians, Reptiles, and Nongame Fish. Taking aquatic invertebrates, amphibians, reptiles and nongame fish for private use. |
endangered or threatened fish | See 4VAC15-20-130. Definitions and Miscellaneous: In General. Endangered and threatened species; adoption of federal list; additional species enumerated. |
nonnative (exotic) fish | See 4VAC15-30-40. Definitions and Miscellaneous: Importation, Possession, Sale, Etc., of Animals. Importation requirements, possession and sale of nonnative (exotic) animals. |
4VAC15-320-120. Special daily permit for fishing in Clinch Mountain Wildlife Management Area, Douthat State Park Lake and, Crooked Creek, and Wilson Creeks Creek.
A. It shall be unlawful to fish in the portion of Big Tumbling Creek within the Clinch Mountain Wildlife Management Area (except in Little Tumbling Creek and Laurel Bed Lake), in Douthat State Park Lake and in Wilson Creek both above the lake to the park boundary and downstream to the lower USFS boundary, and in the Crooked Creek fee fishing area in Carroll County without having first paid to the department for such privilege a daily use fee. Such daily use fee shall be in addition to all other license fees provided by law. Upon payment of the daily use fee the department shall issue a special permit that shall be signed and carried by the person fishing.
B. This fee will be required from the first Saturday in April through September 30 at for the portion of Big Tumbling Creek within the Clinch Mountain Wildlife Management Area (except Little Tumbling Creek and Laurel Bed Lake) and at Crooked Creek fee fishing area in Carroll County, and from the first Saturday in April through June 15 and from September 15 through October 31 at Douthat State Park Lake and Wilson Creek, except that the director may temporarily suspend fee requirements if conditions cause suspension of trout stocking. During the remainder of the year, these waters Douthat State Park Lake, Wilson Creek, and the Crooked Creek fee fishing area in Carroll County will revert to designated stocked trout waters and a trout license will be required except as provided in 4VAC15-20-190, and [ beginning on January 1, 2018, ] the portion of Big Tumbling Creek within the Clinch Mountain Wildlife Management Area will revert to a seasonal catch and release area subject to 4VAC15-330-150. No fishing is permitted in these waters for five days preceding the opening day.
C. Upon payment of the daily use fee the department shall issue a special permit that shall be signed and carried by the person fishing.
D. Fishing shall begin at 9 a.m. on opening day at all fee areas. After opening day, fishing times will be as posted at each fee area.
E. The department may recognize clearly marked "children only" fishing areas within any department fee fishing area. Within these "children only" areas, children 12 years old or younger may fish without the daily use fee if accompanied by a fully licensed adult who has purchased a valid daily permit. No person older than 12 years of age may fish in these children-only areas. Also, children 12 years of age and younger can fish without a permit in all three fee fishing areas if under the direct supervision of a permitted adult. However, the combined daily creel limit for both adult and child/children child or children in such a party shall not exceed six trout. During the fee fishing season these waters will be subject to 4VAC15-330-60, 4VAC15-330-80, and 4VAC15-330-90, as it relates to designated stocked trout waters.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4797; Filed December 20, 2016, 3:14 a.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF GAME AND INLAND FISHERIES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Board of Game and Inland Fisheries is claiming an exemption from the
Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of
Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-330. Fish: Trout Fishing (amending 4VAC15-330-120, 4VAC15-330-130,
4VAC15-330-150, 4VAC15-330-160; adding 4VAC15-330-210).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502
of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: Phil Smith, Regulatory Coordinator,
Department of Game and Inland Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400,
Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 367-8341, or email
phil.smith@dgif.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) remove requirements of 16-inch minimum
size limits and artificial lures only for fishing for trout in a designated
section of the South River and establish this area for fly fishing only, with a
20-inch minimum size for trout; (ii) create a seasonal catch-and-release
section on Big Tumbling Creek (Smyth County) open annually to fishing for trout
with the use of artificial lures only from October 1 until five days prior to
the first Saturday in April, effective January 2018; (iii) create a
catch-and-release fishery on a portion of South River in the City of Waynesboro,
open to fishing for trout with the use of artificial lures only; (iv) establish
delayed harvest trout waters on three streams in Lee, Scott, and Wise Counties
and remove a portion of South River in the City of Waynesboro from the delayed
harvest trout program; and (v) develop youth-only stocked trout waters where
only youth 15 years of age and younger can fish specific waters from April 1
through June 15.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
4VAC15-330-120. Special provisions applicable to certain
portions of Buffalo Creek, Dan River, Pound River, Roaring Run, South River,
and South Fork Holston River.
A. It shall be lawful year around to fish using only
artificial lures with single hooks in that portion of Buffalo Creek in
Rockbridge County from the confluence of Colliers Creek upstream 2.9 miles to
the confluence of North and South Buffalo Creeks, in that portion of South
River from the N. Oak Lane Bridge in Waynesboro upstream to a sign posted 1.5
miles above the State Route 632 (Shalom Road) Bridge, in that portion of
the Dan River in Patrick County from Talbott Dam approximately six miles
downstream to a sign posted just upstream from the confluence of Dan River and
Townes Reservoir, in that portion of the Pound River from a sign posted 0.4
miles below the Flannagan Dam, downstream 1.2 miles to a sign posted just upstream
of the confluence of the Pound River and the Russell Fork River, in that
portion of the South Fork Holston River in Smyth County from a sign posted at
the upper Jefferson National Forest boundary downstream approximately four
miles to a sign posted 500 feet upstream of the concrete dam at Buller Fish
Culture Station, and in that portion of Roaring Run in Botetourt County from a
sign posted at the third footbridge above the Roaring Run Furnace Day Use Area
upstream approximately one mile to a sign posted at the Botetourt/Alleghany
County line.
B. The daily creel limit in these waters shall be two trout a
day year around and the size limit shall be 16 inches or more in length. All
trout caught in these waters under 16 inches in length shall be immediately returned
to the water unharmed. It shall be unlawful for any person to have in his
possession any bait or any trout under 16 inches in length in these areas.
4VAC15-330-130. Special provision applicable to certain
portions of Mossy Creek and South River.
It shall be lawful year around to fish using only artificial
flies with single hooks in that portion of Mossy Creek in Augusta County
upstream from the Augusta/Rockingham County line to a sign posted at the
confluence of Joseph's Spring and in that portion of South River from the
North Oak Lane Bridge in Waynesboro upstream to a sign posted 1.5 miles above
the State Route 632 (Shalom Road) Bridge. The daily creel limit in these
waters shall be one trout a day year around and the size limit shall be 20
inches or more in length. All trout caught in these waters under 20 inches in
length shall be immediately returned to the water unharmed. It shall be
unlawful for any person to have in his possession any bait or any trout under
20 inches in length in this area.
4VAC15-330-150. Special provision applicable to Stewarts Creek
Trout Management Area; certain portions of the Dan, Rapidan, South Fork Holston
and Staunton rivers, the Brumley Creek, East Fork of Chestnut Creek, Little
Stony Creek, Little Tumbling Creek, Big Tumbling Creek, North Creek,
Roaring Fork, Spring Run, Stony Creek, Venrick Run, South River, and
their tributaries.
It shall be lawful year around to fish for trout using only
artificial lures with single hooks within:
1. The Stewarts Creek Trout Management Area in Carroll County.
2. The Rapidan and Staunton rivers and their tributaries
upstream from a sign at the Lower Shenandoah National Park boundary in Madison
County.
3. The Dan River and its tributaries between the Townes Dam
and the Pinnacles Hydroelectric Project powerhouse in Patrick County.
4. The East Fork of Chestnut Creek (Farmer's (Farmers
Creek) and its tributaries upstream from the Blue Ridge Parkway in Grayson and
Carroll Counties.
5. Roaring Fork and its tributaries upstream from the
southwest boundary of Beartown Wilderness Area in Tazewell County.
6. That section of the South Fork Holston River and its
tributaries from the concrete dam at Buller Fish Culture Station downstream to
the lower boundary of the Buller Fish Culture Station in Smyth County.
7. North Creek and its tributaries upstream from a sign at the
George Washington National Forest North Creek Campground in Botetourt County.
8. Spring Run from it confluence with Cowpasture River
upstream to a posted sign at the discharge for Coursey Springs Hatchery in Bath
County.
9. Venrick Run and its tributaries within the Big Survey
Wildlife Management Area and Town of Wytheville property in Wythe County.
10. Brumley Creek and its tributaries from the Hidden Valley
Wildlife Management Area boundary upstream to the Hidden Valley Lake Dam in
Washington County.
11. Stony Creek (Mountain Fork) and its tributaries within the
Jefferson National Forest in Wise and Scott Counties from the outlet of High
Knob Lake downstream to the confluence of Chimney Rock Fork and Stony Creek.
12. Little Stony Creek and its tributaries within the
Jefferson National Forest in Scott County from the Falls of Little Stony Creek
downstream to a posted sign at the Hanging Rock Recreation Area.
13. Little Tumbling Creek and its tributaries within the
Clinch Mountain Wildlife Management Area in Smyth and Tazewell Counties
downstream to the concrete bridge.
14. [ Effective January 1, 2018, ] Big
Tumbling Creek and its tributaries within the Clinch Mountain Wildlife
Management Area in Smyth County from a sign starting at the foot of the
mountain and extending upstream seasonally from October 1 until five days prior
to the first Saturday in April.
15. South River in the City of Waynesboro from the Arch
Avenue Bridge downstream 2.2 miles to the Second Street Bridge.
All trout caught in these waters must be immediately returned
to the water. No trout or bait may be in possession at any time in these areas.
4VAC15-330-160. Special provisions applicable to certain
portions of Accotink Creek, Back Creek, Big Moccasin Creek, Chestnut
Creek, Hardware River, Holliday Creek, Holmes Run, Indian Creek, North
River, Passage Creek, Peak Creek, Pedlar River, North Fork of Pound and Pound
rivers, Middle Fork of Powell River, and Roanoke River, and South
River.
It shall be lawful to fish from October 1 through May 31,
both dates inclusive, using only artificial lures in Accotink Creek (Fairfax
County) from King Arthur Road downstream 3.1 miles to Route 620 (Braddock
Road), in Back Creek (Bath County) from the Route 600 bridge just below the
Virginia Power Back Creek Dam downstream 1.5 miles to the Route 600 bridge at
the lower boundary of the Virginia Power Recreational Area, in Big Moccasin
Creek (Scott County) from the Virginia Department of Transportation foot bridge
downstream approximately 1.9 miles to the Wadlow Gap Bridge, in Chestnut
Creek (Carroll County) from the U.S. Route 58 bridge downstream 11.4 miles to
the confluence with New River, in the Hardware River (Fluvanna County) from the
Route 646 bridge upstream 3.0 miles to Muleshoe Bend as posted, in Holliday
Creek (Appomattox/Buckingham Counties) from the Route 640 crossing downstream
2.8 miles to a sign posted at the headwaters of Holliday Lake, in Holmes Run
(Fairfax County) from the Lake Barcroft Dam downstream 1.2 miles to a sign
posted at the Alexandria City line, in Indian Creek within the boundaries of
Wilderness Road State Park (Lee County), in the North River (Augusta
County) from the base of Elkhorn Dam downstream 1.5 miles to a sign posted at
the head of Staunton City Reservoir, in Passage Creek (Warren County) from the
lower boundary of the Front Royal State Hatchery upstream 0.9 miles to the
Shenandoah/Warren County line, in Peak Creek (Pulaski County) from the
confluence of Tract Fork downstream 2.7 miles to the Route 99 bridge, in the
Pedlar River (Amherst County) from the City of Lynchburg/George Washington
National Forest boundary line (below Lynchburg Reservoir) downstream 2.7 miles
to the boundary line of the George Washington National Forest, in North Fork of
Pound and Pound rivers from the base of North Fork of Pound Dam downstream to
the confluence with Indian Creek, in the Middle Fork of Powell River (Wise
County) from the old train trestle at the downstream boundary of Appalachia
extending approximately 1.9 miles downstream to the trestle just upstream of
the Town of Big Stone Gap, in the Roanoke River (Roanoke County) from
the Route 760 bridge (Diuguids Lane) upstream 1.0 miles to a sign posted at the
upper end of Green Hill Park (Roanoke County), and in the Roanoke River
(City of Salem) from the Route 419 bridge upstream 2.2 miles to the Colorado
Street bridge, and in the South River from the Second Street Bridge upstream
2.4 miles to the base of Rife Loth Dam in the City of Waynesboro. From
October 1 through May 31, all trout caught in these waters must be immediately
returned to the water unharmed, and it shall be unlawful for any person to have
in possession any bait or trout. During the period of June 1 through September
30, the above restrictions will not apply.
4VAC15-330-210. Special provisions applicable to youth-only
stocked trout waters.
Waters selected by the director for inclusion into the
Youth-Only Stocked Trout Program will be considered youth-only stocked trout
waters from April 1 through June 15. Only youth 15 years of age and younger may
participate in the program. The daily trout creel limit shall be three. From
June 16 through March 31, statewide fishing regulations and licensing
requirements apply. Adults (17 years of age and older) are not required to have
a freshwater fishing license or a trout license to assist youth fishing in
youth-only stocked trout waters. Adults assisting youth (15 years of age and
younger) while fishing in youth-only stocked trout waters may:
1. Bait the hook;
2. Assist in casting; and
3. Assist with removing the fish from the hook or line.
Adults may not assist with catching a fish (setting the
hook or retrieving the fish).
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4798; Filed December 19, 2016, 11:39 p.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF GAME AND INLAND FISHERIES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Board of Game and Inland Fisheries is claiming an exemption from the
Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of
Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-340. Fish: Seines and
Nets (amending 4VAC15-340-30, 4VAC15-340-70,
4VAC15-340-80).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502
of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: Phil Smith, Regulatory Coordinator,
Department of Game and Inland Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400,
Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 367-8341, or email
phil.smith@dgif.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) remove the summer portion of the Back
Bay and North Landing River gill net season, which was July 1 through November
1, for "striped" mullet only, and allow the harvest of striped mullet
during the remainder of the gill net season from November 1 through March 31;
(ii) modify the minimum size and creel limit for any American eels that are harvested
with eel pots for personal use in the waters of Back Bay and the North Landing
River; and (iii) modify the minimum size for American eels harvested with eel
pots for commercial purposes in the waters of Back Bay and the North Landing
River.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
4VAC15-340-30. Gill nets.
A. Authorization to take fish. A gill net permit shall
authorize the holder thereof to take nongame fish during the times and in the
waters and for the purposes provided for in this section. Such gill net shall
not be more than 300 feet in length. The mesh size shall be not less than
[ 1 inch one-inch ] bar or square mesh (three-inch
stretch mesh). Applicants must annually purchase tags for each net the
applicant intends to operate and attach a department tag to each net prior to
use. A single permit will be issued to the permittee and shall list each tag
number the permittee has been issued. All nets must be checked daily and all
game fish returned to the wild.
B. Permit holder to be present when gill net is being set and
checked for fish. The holder of a gill net permit must be present with the net
at all times when it is being set and checked for fish. The holder may have
others to assist him, and such persons assisting are not required to have a
permit. However, those assisting the permittee must meet the fishing license
requirements of the Commonwealth.
C. Times and places permitted in Virginia Beach City; fish
which may be taken. Gill nets may be used in Virginia Beach City in Back Bay
and its natural tributaries (not including Lake Tecumseh and Red Wing Lake) and
North Landing River from the North Carolina line to Pungo Ferry (not including
Blackwater River) for the taking of mullet only for table use and also for
sale from July 1 through November 1, both dates inclusive; and for the
taking of other nongame fish, except mullet, alewife, and
blueback herring, for table use and also for sale from November 1 through March
31, both dates inclusive. The harvest limit for anadromous American and hickory
shad shall be 10 per day, in the aggregate. Gill nets set in Back Bay waters
shall be at least 300 feet from any other net and at least 300 feet from the
shoreline. All such nets must be marked at both ends and at least every 100
feet along the length of the net with a five-inch by 12-inch minimum dimensions
float.
4VAC15-340-70. Eel pots for taking American eels for personal
use.
A. The director may issue, deny, modify, suspend, or revoke
annual eel pot permits for American eels designated for personal use. Such
permits shall authorize the taking of American eels for personal use only (not
for sale) with eel pots from waters designated in this section. Such permits
shall be valid so long as the harvest of eels in the Commonwealth is not
prohibited by other state or federal law or regulation.
B. It shall be unlawful for a permit holder to possess
elvers.
C. It shall be unlawful for permit holders fishing eel pots
to take any species other than American eels.
D. It shall be unlawful to place, set, or fish any eel pot
that has a mesh less than 1/2-inch by 1/2-inch and does not contain at least
one unrestricted 4-inch by 4-inch escape panel of 1/2-inch by 1-inch mesh.
Buoys of all pots set must be marked by permanent means with the permit
holder's name, address, and phone number.
E. American eels may be taken with eel pots in Back Bay and
its natural tributaries (not including Lake Tecumseh and Red Wing Lake) and
North Landing River and its natural tributaries from the North Carolina line to
the Great Bridge locks.
F. It shall be unlawful for any permit holder to possess more
than 50 25 eels daily. When fishing from a boat or vessel where
the entire catch is held in a common hold or container, the daily possession
limit shall be for the boat or vessel and shall be equal to the number of
permit holders on board multiplied by 50 25. The captain or operator
of the boat or vessel shall be responsible for any boat or vessel possession
limit. Any eel taken after the daily possession limit has been reached shall be
returned to the water immediately. Possession of any quantity of eels that
exceeds the daily possession limit described in this subsection shall be
presumed to be for commercial purposes.
G. For the purposes of this section, the term
"elver" shall mean any American eel of less than six nine
inches in total length.
4VAC15-340-80. Eel pots for taking American eels for sale.
A. The director may issue, deny, modify, suspend, or revoke
annual eel pot permits designated for the sale of American eels. Such permits
shall authorize the taking of American eels for sale, as specified, with eel
pots from waters designated in this section. Such permits shall be valid so
long as the harvest of American eels in the Commonwealth is not prohibited by
other state or federal law or regulation. To be eligible, applicants must
document harvest of at least one pound of American eels from Back Bay or North
Landing River or their tributaries via reports submitted through the Virginia
Marine Resources Commission Mandatory Harvest Reporting Program during the
period January 1, 2007, to December 31, 2012, both dates inclusive. Applicants
must document the reported harvest occurred while the applicant held a valid
commercial fish pot or eel pot license issued by the Virginia Marine Resources
Commission.
B. It shall be unlawful for permit holders to possess elvers
any American eel less than nine inches [ in ] total length.
C. It shall be unlawful for permit holders fishing eel pots
to take any species other than American eels.
D. It shall be unlawful to place, set, or fish any eel pot
that has a mesh less than 1/2-inch by 1/2-inch and does not contain at least
one unrestricted 4-inch by 4-inch escape panel consisting of 1/2-inch by 1-inch
mesh.
E. The permit holder's last name and Virginia Department of
Game and Inland Fisheries American eel pot number must be permanently attached
to buoys of all eel pots set. The maximum number of pots authorized per permit
holder under this permit shall be 300.
F. American eels may be taken with eel pots in Back Bay and
its natural tributaries (not including Lake Tecumseh and Red Wing Lake) and in
North Landing River and its natural tributaries from the North Carolina line to
the Great Bridge locks.
G. It shall be unlawful for any person to ship or otherwise
transport any package, box, or other receptacle containing fish taken under an
eel pot permit unless the same bears the permit holder's name and address.
H. Failure to comply with the daily harvest and sales
reporting requirements as detailed in conditions of the permit shall be
unlawful and may result in immediate permit revocation. It shall be the permit
holder's responsibility to report "No Activity" when no activity
occurs during a monthly reporting period.
I. For the purposes of this section, the term
"elver" shall mean any American eel of less than six inches in total
length.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4799; Filed December 19, 2016, 7:03 p.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF GAME AND INLAND FISHERIES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Board of Game and Inland Fisheries is claiming an exemption from the
Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of
Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-350. Fish: Gigs, Grab
Hooks, Trotlines, Snares, Etc. (amending 4VAC15-350-70).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502
of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: Phil Smith, Regulatory Coordinator,
Department of Game and Inland Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400,
Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 367-8341, or email
phil.smith@dgif.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) remove longnose gar and bowfin from, and
add grass carp to, the list of species that can be taken in unlimited numbers
with bow and arrow or crossbow, under certain circumstances, and (ii) establish
creel limits for longnose gar and bowfin.
4VAC15-350-70. Taking common carp, grass carp, northern
snakehead, bowfin, catfish, and gar with bow and arrow or crossbow.
A. Season. Except as otherwise provided by local legislation
or as posted, it shall be lawful to take common carp, northern snakehead, and
gar from the public inland waters of the Commonwealth, grass carp from
public inland waters of the Commonwealth except department-owned or
department-controlled lakes, and bowfin and catfish from below the fall
line in tidal rivers of the Chesapeake Bay, except waters stocked with trout,
by means of bow and arrow or crossbow.
B. Poison arrows or explosive-head arrows prohibited. It
shall be unlawful to use poison arrows or arrows with explosive heads at any
time for the purpose of taking common carp, grass carp, northern
snakehead, bowfin, catfish, or gar in the public inland waters of the
Commonwealth.
C. Fishing license required. All persons taking fish in the
manner mentioned in this section shall be required to have a regular fishing
license.
D. Creel limits. Common carp, grass carp, northern
snakehead, bowfin, and catfish, and gar – unlimited,
provided that any angler taking northern snakehead immediately kill such fish
and notify the department, as soon as practicable, of such actions and
provided that any angler taking grass carp ensure that harvested fish are dead.
The creel limit for bowfin and longnose gar shall be five fish per day.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4800; Filed December 19, 2016, 7:29 p.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF GAME AND INLAND FISHERIES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Board of Game and Inland Fisheries is claiming an exemption from the
Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of
Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-360. Fish: Aquatic
Invertebrates, Amphibians, Reptiles, and Nongame Fish (amending 4VAC15-360-10).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502
of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: Phil Smith, Regulatory Coordinator,
Department of Game and Inland Fisheries, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400,
Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 367-8341, or email
phil.smith@dgif.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments remove longnose gar and bowfin from the list
of species that can be taken in unlimited numbers and add grass carp to the
list of species that can be taken in unlimited numbers, except in certain
circumstances.
4VAC15-360-10. Taking aquatic invertebrates, amphibians,
reptiles, and nongame fish for private use.
A. Possession limits. Except as otherwise provided for in
§ 29.1-418 of the Code of Virginia, 4VAC15-20-130, [ subdivision 8
of ] 4VAC15-320-40, and the sections of this chapter, it shall
be lawful to capture and possess live for private use and not for sale no more
than five individuals of any single native or naturalized (as defined in
4VAC15-20-50) species of amphibian and reptile and 20 individuals of any single
native or naturalized (as defined in 4VAC15-20-50) species of aquatic
invertebrate and nongame fish unless specifically listed below:
1. The following species may be taken in unlimited numbers
from inland waters statewide: carp, bowfin, longnose gar, mullet, yellow
bullhead, brown bullhead, black bullhead, flat bullhead, snail bullhead, white
sucker, northern hogsucker, gizzard shad, threadfin shad, blueback herring (see
4VAC15-320-25 for anadromous blueback herring limits), white perch, yellow
perch, alewife (see 4VAC15-320-25 for anadromous alewife limits), stoneroller
(hornyhead), fathead minnow, golden shiner, goldfish, and Asian clams. Grass
carp may only be harvested in unlimited numbers from public inland waters of
the Commonwealth other than department-owned or department-controlled lakes.
Anglers taking grass carp must ensure that all harvested grass carp are dead.
2. See 4VAC15-320-25 for American shad, hickory shad, channel
catfish, white catfish, flathead catfish, and blue catfish limits.
3. For the purpose of this chapter, "fish bait"
shall be defined as native or naturalized species of minnows and chubs
(Cyprinidae), salamanders (each under six inches in total length), crayfish,
and hellgrammites. The possession limit for taking "fish bait" shall
be 50 individuals in aggregate, unless said person has purchased "fish
bait" and has a receipt specifying the number of individuals purchased by
species, except salamanders and crayfish which cannot be sold pursuant to the
provisions of 4VAC15-360-60 and 4VAC15-360-70. However, stonerollers
(hornyheads), fathead minnows, golden shiners, and goldfish may be taken and
possessed in unlimited numbers as provided for in subdivision 1 of this
subsection.
4. The daily limit for bullfrogs shall be 15 and for snapping
turtles shall be five. Snapping turtles shall only be taken from June 1st
1 to September 30th 30. Bullfrogs and snapping turtles may
not be taken from the banks or waters of designated stocked trout waters.
5. The following species may not be taken in any number for
private use: candy darter, eastern hellbender, diamondback terrapin, and spotted
turtle.
6. Native amphibians and reptiles, as defined in 4VAC15-20-50,
that are captured within the Commonwealth and possessed live for private use
and not for sale may be liberated under the following conditions:
a. Period of captivity does not exceed 30 days;
b. Animals must be liberated at the site of capture;
c. Animals must have been housed separately from other
wild-caught and domestic animals; and
d. Animals that demonstrate symptoms of disease or illness or
that have sustained injury during their captivity may not be released.
B. Methods of taking species in subsection A of this
section. Except as otherwise provided for in the Code of Virginia,
4VAC15-20-130, 4VAC15-320-40, and other regulations of the board, and except in
any waters where the use of nets is prohibited, the species listed in
subsection A of this section may only be taken (i) by hand, hook
and line,; (ii) with a seine not exceeding four feet in depth by
10 feet in length,; (iii) with an umbrella type net not exceeding
five by five feet square,; (iv) by small minnow traps with throat
openings no larger than one inch in diameter,; (v) with cast nets,;
and (vi) with hand-held bow nets with diameter not to exceed 20 inches
and handle length not to exceed eight feet (such cast net and hand-held bow
nets when so used shall not be deemed dip nets under the provisions of
§ 29.1-416 of the Code of Virginia). Gizzard shad and white perch may also
be taken from below the fall line in all tidal rivers of the Chesapeake Bay
using a gill net in accordance with Virginia Marine Resources Commission
recreational fishing regulations. Bullfrogs may also be taken by gigging or bow
and arrow and, from private waters, by firearms no larger than .22 caliber
rimfire. Snapping turtles may be taken for personal use with hoop nets not
exceeding six feet in length with a throat opening not exceeding 36 inches.
C. Areas restricted from taking mollusks. Except as provided
for in §§ 29.1-418 and 29.1-568 of the Code of Virginia, it shall be
unlawful to take the spiny riversnail (Io fluvialis) in the Tennessee drainage
in Virginia (Clinch, Powell, and the North, South, and Middle
Forks of the Holston Rivers and tributaries). It shall be unlawful to take
mussels from any inland waters of the Commonwealth.
D. Areas restricted from taking salamanders. Except as
provided for in §§ 29.1-418 and 29.1-568 of the Code of Virginia, it shall
be unlawful to take salamanders in Grayson Highlands State Park and on National
Forest lands in the Jefferson National Forest in those portions of Grayson,
Smyth, and Washington Counties bounded on the east by State Route 16, on
the north by State Route 603 and on the south and west by U.S. Route 58.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4801; Filed December 19, 2016, 8:09 p.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Emergency Regulation
Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-252. Pertaining to the
Taking of Striped Bass (amending 4VAC20-252-150).
Statutory Authority: §§ 28.2-201 and 28.2-210 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective
Dates:
December 15, 2016, through January 14, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator,
Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News,
VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
Preamble:
The amendment changes the individual commercial harvest
quota for the coastal area of Virginia for all open seasons and for all legal
gear from 138,640 to 136,141 pounds of striped bass.
4VAC20-252-150. Individual commercial harvest quota.
A. The commercial harvest quota for the Chesapeake area shall
be determined annually by the Marine Resources Commission. The total allowable
level of all commercial harvest of striped bass from the Chesapeake Bay and its
tributaries and the Potomac River tributaries of Virginia for all open seasons
and for all legal gear shall be 1,064,997 pounds of whole fish. At such time as
the total commercial harvest of striped bass from the Chesapeake area is
projected to reach 1,064,997 pounds, and announced as such, it shall be
unlawful for any person to land or possess striped bass caught for commercial
purposes from the Chesapeake area.
B. The commercial harvest quota for the coastal area of
Virginia shall be determined annually by the Marine Resources Commission. The
total allowable level of all commercial harvest of striped bass from the
coastal area for all open seasons and for all legal gear shall be 138,640
136,141 pounds of whole fish. At such time as the total commercial
harvest of striped bass from the coastal area is projected to reach 138,640
136,141 pounds, and announced as such, it shall be unlawful for any
person to land or possess striped bass caught for commercial purposes from the
coastal area.
C. For the purposes of assigning an individual's tags for
commercial harvests in the Chesapeake area as described in 4VAC20-252-160, the
individual commercial harvest quota of striped bass in pounds shall be
converted to an estimate in numbers of fish per individual harvest quota based
on the average weight of striped bass harvested by the permitted individual
during the previous fishing year. The number of striped bass tags issued to
each individual will equal the estimated number of fish to be landed by that
individual harvest quota, plus a number of striped bass tags equal to 10% of
the total allotment determined for each individual.
D. For the purposes of assigning an individual's tags for
commercial harvests in the coastal area of Virginia as described in
4VAC20-252-160, the individual commercial harvest quota of striped bass in
pounds shall be converted to a quota in numbers of fish per individual commercial
harvest quota, based on the reported average coastal area harvest weight of
striped bass harvested by the permitted individual during the previous fishing
year, except as described in subsection E of this section. The number of
striped bass tags issued to each individual will equal the estimated number of
fish to be landed by that individual harvest quota, plus a number of striped
bass tags equal to 10% of the total allotment determined for each individual.
E. For any individual whose reported average coastal area
harvest weight of striped bass in the previous fishing year was less than 12
pounds, a 12-pound minimum weight shall be used to convert that individual's
harvest quota of striped bass, in pounds of fish, to harvest quota in number of
fish.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-5003; Filed December 14, 2016, 11:41 a.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Marine Resources Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative
Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 11 of the Code of Virginia;
however, the commission is required to publish the full text of final
regulations.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-252. Pertaining to the
Taking of Striped Bass (amending 4VAC20-252-20, 4VAC20-252-50,
4VAC20-252-60, 4VAC20-252-70).
Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator,
Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News,
VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The recreational reporting requirements are amended to (i)
establish an individual, a charter or headboat, and a private vessel
recreational permit; (ii) require that the permit identification number and the
water body where the striped bass were caught and harvested or released be
reported; (iii) require reporting within seven days of the trip; and (iv)
require recording of lack of participation. The same recreational requirements
for the regular season of striped bass also apply to the trophy-size season.
4VAC20-252-20. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Chesapeake area" means the area that includes the
Chesapeake Bay and its tributaries and the Potomac River tributaries.
"Chesapeake Bay and its tributaries" means all
tidal waters of the Chesapeake Bay and its tributaries within Virginia,
westward of the shoreward boundary of the Territorial Sea, excluding the
coastal area and the Potomac River tributaries as defined by this section.
"Coastal area" means the area that includes
Virginia's portion of the Territorial Sea, plus all of the creeks, bays,
inlets, and tributaries on the seaside of Accomack County, Northampton County
(including areas east of the causeway from Fisherman Island to the mainland),
and the City of Virginia Beach (including federal areas and state parks,
fronting on the Atlantic Ocean and east and south of the point where the
shoreward boundary of the Territorial Sea joins the mainland at Cape Henry).
"Commission" means the Marine Resources Commission.
"Commercial fishing" or "fishing
commercially" or "commercial fishery" means fishing by any
person where the catch is for sale, barter, trade, or any commercial purpose,
or is intended for sale, barter, trade, or any commercial purpose.
"Great Wicomico-Tangier Striped Bass Management
Area" means the area that includes the Great Wicomico River and those
Virginia waters bounded by a line beginning at Dameron Marsh at NAD 83 North
Latitude 37-46.9535, West Longitude 76-17.1294; thence extending to the
southernmost point of Tangier Island, and thence north to a point on the
Virginia-Maryland state boundary at NAD 83 North Latitude 37-57.0407, West
Longitude 75-58.5043, thence westerly along the Virginia-Maryland state
boundary to Smith Point.
"Potomac River tributaries" means all the
tributaries of the Potomac River that are within Virginia's jurisdiction
beginning with, and including, Flag Pond thence upstream to the District of
Columbia boundary.
"Recreational fishing" or "fishing
recreationally" or "recreational fishery" means fishing by any
person, whether licensed or exempted from licensing, where the catch is not for
sale, barter, trade, or any commercial purpose, or is not intended for sale,
barter, trade, or any commercial purpose.
"Recreational vessel" means any private vessel,
charter vessel, or headboat vessel.
"Share" means a percentage of the striped bass
commercial harvest quota.
"Spawning reaches" means sections within the
spawning rivers as follows:
1. James River from a line connecting Dancing Point and New
Sunken Meadow Creek upstream to a line connecting City Point and Packs Point.
2. Pamunkey River from the Route 33 Bridge at West Point
upstream to a line connecting Liberty Hall and the opposite shore.
3. Mattaponi River from the Route 33 Bridge at West Point
upstream to the Route 360 bridge at Aylett.
4. Rappahannock River from the Route 360 Bridge at
Tappahannock upstream to the Route 1 Falmouth Bridge.
"Spear" or "spearing" means to fish while
the person is fully submerged under the water's surface with a mechanically
aided device designed to accelerate a barbed spear.
"Striped bass" means any fish of the species Morone
saxatilis, including any hybrid of the species Morone saxatilis.
4VAC20-252-50. Concerning recreational fishing: general.
A. It shall be unlawful for any person fishing recreationally
to take, catch, or attempt to take or catch any striped bass by any gear or
method other than hook and line, rod and reel, hand line, or spearing.
B. It shall be unlawful for any person fishing recreationally
to possess any striped bass while fishing in an area where or at a time when
there is no open recreational striped bass season, except as described in
4VAC20-252-115. Striped bass caught contrary to this provision shall be
returned to the water immediately.
C. It shall be unlawful for any person fishing recreationally
to possess, land, and retain any striped bass in excess of the possession limit
applicable for the area and season being fished within the 24-hour period of 12
a.m. through 11:59 p.m. Striped bass taken in excess of the possession limit
shall be returned to the water immediately.
When fishing from a boat or vessel where the entire catch is
held in a common hold or container, the possession limit shall be for the boat
or vessel and shall be equal to the number of persons on board legally eligible
to fish multiplied by the applicable personal possession limit. The captain or
operator of the boat or vessel shall be responsible for any boat or vessel
possession limit.
D. It shall be unlawful to combine possession limits when
there is more than one area or season open at the same time.
E. It shall be unlawful for any person while actively fishing
pursuant to a recreational fishery to possess any striped bass that are smaller
than the minimum size limit or larger than the maximum size limit for the area
and season then open and being fished, except as described in 4VAC20-252-115.
Any striped bass caught that does not meet the applicable size limit shall be
returned to the water immediately.
F. It shall be unlawful for any person to sell, offer for
sale, trade, or barter any striped bass taken by hook and line, rod and
reel, hand line, or spearing provided, however, this provision shall not apply
to persons possessing a commercial hook-and-line license and a striped bass
permit and meeting the other requirements of this chapter.
G. It shall be unlawful for any person fishing recreationally
to transfer any striped bass to another person, while on the water or while
fishing from a pier or shore.
H. It shall be unlawful for the captain of any charter boat
or charter vessel to take hook-and-line, rod-and-reel, hand line, or spear
fishermen for hire unless the captain has obtained a Striped Bass Charter Boat
Permit from the commission and is a Coast Guard charter licensee.
I. Striped bass charter boat permittees shall report to the
commission, on forms provided by the commission, all daily quantities permit
identification number, the number of striped bass caught and,
whether harvested, and daily fishing hours for themselves or their
customers, respectively or released; the water body where any striped
bass is caught; and the number of anglers on board, captain included, within
seven days after the trip occurred. The written report shall be
forwarded It shall be unlawful for any striped bass charter boat
permittee to fail to report (i) trips where striped bass are targeted but not
successfully caught or (ii) the permittee's lack of participation in the
fishery to the commission no later than 15 days following the last day of
any open season. In addition, striped bass charter boat permittees engaging in
the Bay and Coastal Spring Trophy-size Striped Bass Recreational Fishery and
the Potomac River Tributaries Spring Striped Bass Recreational Fishery shall
provide the report required by 4VAC20-252-60 and 4VAC20-252-70, respectively.
4VAC20-252-60. Bay and Coastal Spring Trophy-size Striped Bass
Recreational Fisheries.
A. The open season for the Bay Spring Trophy-size Striped
Bass Recreational Fishery shall be May 1 through June 15, inclusive.
B. The area open for the Bay Spring Trophy-size Striped Bass
Recreational Fishery shall be the Chesapeake Bay and its tributaries, except
the spawning reaches of the James, Pamunkey, Mattaponi, and Rappahannock
Rivers.
C. The open season for the Coastal Spring Trophy-size Striped
Bass Recreational Fishery shall be May 1 through May 15, inclusive.
D. The area open for the Coastal Spring Trophy-size Striped
Bass Recreational Fishery is the coastal area as described in 4VAC20-252-20.
E. The minimum size limit for the fisheries described in this
section shall be 36 inches total length.
F. The possession limit for the fisheries described in this
section shall be one fish per person.
G. It shall be unlawful for any person, 16 years of age or
older, participating in the Bay and Coastal Spring Trophy-size striped bass
recreational fisheries to fail to obtain a Spring Recreational Striped Bass
Trophy Permit from the commission prior to any participation, except when
fishing from a legally licensed headboat or charter boat an Individual,
Private Vessel, or Charter-Headboat Spring Recreational Striped Bass Trophy
Permit.
H. It shall be unlawful for any spring recreational striped
bass trophy permittee or any charter boat striped bass permittee to fail to
report the take, harvest, or trips where striped bass are caught,
whether harvest or released, or the possession of any trophy-size striped
bass, as described in subsection E of this section, on forms provided by the
commission within seven days after the trip occurred. It shall be unlawful
for any permittee to fail to report trips where striped bass are targeted but
not successfully caught by the 15th day after the close of the Bay and
Coastal Spring Trophy-size striped bass recreational fisheries. The report
requirements shall be as follows:
1. Any spring recreational striped bass trophy permittees
or charter boat striped bass permittees individual spring recreational
striped bass trophy permittee shall provide the permittee name, his
own commission permit identification number,; the
commission permit identification number of the recreational vessel the
individual is fishing from, if applicable; the date of any harvest,;
the number of individuals on board; the water body where the trophy-size
striped bass was caught,; and number of trophy-size
striped bass kept or released, and the length of each trophy-size striped
bass kept or released. Any weight information on any kept or released
trophy-size striped bass may be provided voluntarily by the permittees.
2. Any private vessel or charter-headboat spring
recreational striped bass trophy permittee shall provide the recreational
vessel's commission permit identification number, date of any harvest, number
of individuals on board, and number of trophy-size striped bass kept or released.
Any such permittee must report all trips made by the vessel to which the permit
applies where trophy-size bass are caught or targeted even if the permittee was
not on board the vessel during every such trip.
2. 3. Any spring recreational striped bass trophy
permittees or charter boat striped bass permittees permittee who did
not participate in the Bay and Coastal Spring Trophy-size striped bass
recreational seasons shall notify the commission of their his
lack of participation by the 15th day after the close of the Bay and Coastal
Spring Trophy-size striped bass recreational seasons on forms provided by the
commission.
I. It shall be unlawful for any permittee, as described in
4VAC20-252-50 H and subsection G of this section, to fail to report either the
harvest of trophy-size striped bass or no harvest activity within 15 days of
the closing of the Bay and Coastal Spring Trophy-size striped bass recreational
seasons.
4VAC20-252-70. Potomac River tributaries spring trophy-size
striped bass recreational fishery.
A. The open season for the Potomac River tributaries spring
striped bass recreational fishery shall correspond to the open season as
established by the Potomac River Fisheries Commission for the mainstem Potomac
River spring fishery.
B. The area open for this fishery shall be those tributaries
of the Potomac River that are within Virginia's jurisdiction beginning with,
and including, Flag Pond thence upstream to the Route 301 bridge.
C. The minimum size limit for this fishery shall correspond
to the minimum size limit as established by the Potomac River Fisheries
Commission for the mainstem Potomac River spring trophy-size fishery.
D. The possession limit for this fishery shall be one fish
per person.
E. It shall be unlawful for any person, 16 years of age or
older, participating in the Potomac River tributaries spring trophy-size
striped bass recreational fishery to fail to obtain a Spring Recreational
Striped Bass Trophy Permit from the commission prior to any participation,
except when fishing from a legally licensed headboat or charter boat an
Individual, Private Vessel, or Charter-Headboat Spring Recreational Striped
Bass Trophy Permit.
F. It shall be unlawful for any spring recreational striped
bass trophy permittee or any charter boat striped bass permittee to fail to
report the take, harvest, or trips where striped bass are caught,
whether harvested or released, or the possession of any trophy-size striped
bass, as described in this section, on forms provided by the commission within
seven days after the trip occurred. It shall be unlawful for any permittee to
fail to report trips where striped bass are targeted but not successfully
caught by the 15th day after the close of the Potomac River tributaries
spring trophy-size striped bass recreational fishery. The report requirements
shall be as follows:
1. Any spring recreational striped bass trophy permittees
or charter boat striped bass permittees individual spring recreational
striped bass trophy permittee shall provide the permittee name,
commission permit identification number,; the commission permit
identification number of the recreational vessel the individual is fishing
from, if applicable; the date of any harvest,; the water body
where the trophy-size striped bass was caught,; the number of
individuals on board; and number of trophy-size striped bass kept or
released, and the length of each trophy-size striped bass kept or released.
Any weight information on any kept or released trophy-size striped bass may be
provided voluntarily by the permittees.
2. Any private vessel or charter-headboat spring
recreational striped bass trophy permittee shall provide the vessel's
commission permit identification number; the date of any harvest; the number of
individuals on board; and the number of trophy-size striped bass kept or
released. Any such permittee must report all trips made by the vessel to which
the permit applies where trophy-size bass are caught or targeted even if the
permittee was not on board the vessel during every such trip.
2. 3. Any spring recreational striped bass
trophy permittees or charter boat striped bass permittees permittee
who did not participate in the Potomac River tributaries spring trophy-size
striped bass recreational season shall notify the commission of their his
lack of participation by the 15th day after the close of the Potomac River
tributaries spring trophy-size striped bass recreational season on forms
provided by the commission.
G. It shall be unlawful for any permittee, as described in
4VAC20-252-50 H and 4VAC20-252-60 G, to fail to report either the harvest of
trophy-size striped bass or no harvest activity within 15 days of the closing
of the Potomac River tributaries spring trophy-size striped bass recreational
season.
NOTICE: The following
form used in administering the regulation was filed by the agency. The form is
not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The form is also available from the agency contact or may be viewed
at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd
Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (4VAC20-252)
2015 Striped Bass Charter Boat Fishing Reporting Form
(rev. 12/14)
2015 Trophy-Size Striped Bass Season Charter Boat Fishing
Reporting Form (rev. 12/14)
Spring Striped Bass Recreational Trophy-Size Report Form
(rev. 3/2015)
2017
Recreational/Charter Reporting Form (undated, filed 12/2016)
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-5007; Filed December 20, 2016, 11:05 a.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Emergency Regulation
Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-510. Pertaining to
Amberjack and Cobia (amending 4VAC20-510-25).
Statutory Authority: §§ 28.2-201 and 28.2-210 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Dates: December 15, 2016, through January 14,
2017.
Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator,
Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News,
VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
Preamble:
The amendments close the commercial fishing season for
cobia from December 15, 2016, through December 31, 2016.
4VAC20-510-25. Commercial fishery possession limits and
cobia fishing season.
A. It shall be unlawful for any person fishing
commercially to possess more than two amberjack or more than two cobia at any
time, except as described in 4VAC20-510-33. Any amberjack or cobia caught after
the possession limit has been reached shall be returned to the water
immediately. When fishing from any boat or vessel where the entire catch is
held in a common hold or container, the possession limit shall be for the boat
or vessel and shall be equal to the number of persons on board legally eligible
to fish multiplied by two. The captain or operator of the boat or vessel shall
be responsible for any boat or vessel possession limit.
B. The 2016 commercial fishery season for cobia shall
extend from January 1, 2016, through December 14, 2016.
C. It shall be unlawful for any person fishing
commercially to harvest, possess, or land cobia in 2016 except during the
lawful 2016 commercial fishery season described in subsection B of this
section.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-5008; Filed December 14, 2016, 11:42 a.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Marine Resources Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative
Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 11 of the Code of Virginia;
however, the commission is required to publish the full text of final regulations.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-510. Pertaining to
Amberjack and Cobia (adding 4VAC20-510-12, 4VAC20-510-15).
Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator,
Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News,
VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments define "recreational vessel" and
prohibit landing of cobia recreationally without a permit. The regulation adds
the requirements for reporting cobia and requires a permittee to report the
trips where cobia are caught.
4VAC20-510-12. Definitions.
The following term when used in this chapter shall have
the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Recreational vessel" means any private vessel,
charter vessel, or headboat vessel.
4VAC20-510-15. Recreational cobia permit and mandatory
reporting.
A. It shall be unlawful for any person to possess or land
any cobia harvested recreationally without first having obtained an Individual,
Private Vessel, or Charter-Headboat Recreational Cobia Permit from the Marine
Resources Commission (commission).
B. It shall be unlawful for any permittee to fail to
report trips where cobia are caught, whether harvested or released, or the
possession of any cobia in accordance with this section on forms provided by
the commission within seven days after the trip occurred. It shall be unlawful
for any permittee to fail to report trips where cobia were targeted but not
successfully caught by the 15th day after the close of the recreational cobia
fishery season. The reporting requirements shall be as follows:
1. Any individual recreational cobia permittee shall
provide his own commission permit identification number; the commission permit
identification number of the recreational vessel the individual is fishing
from, if applicable; the date of any harvest; and the number of cobia kept or
released.
2. Any private vessel or charter-headboat recreational
cobia permittee shall provide the vessel's commission permit identification
number; the date of any harvest; the number of individuals on board; and the number
of cobia kept or released. Any such permittee must report all trips made by the
vessel to which the permit applies where cobia are caught or targeted even if
the permittee was not on board the vessel during every such trip.
3. Any permittee who did not participate in the
recreational cobia season shall notify the commission of his lack of
participation by the 15th day after the close of the recreational cobia season
on forms provided by the commission.
4. Any permittee who fails to report the harvest of cobia
shall be ineligible to receive an Individual, Private Vessel, or
Charter-Headboat Recreational Cobia Permit in the year following the year in
which that permittee failed to report. Any permittee who did not participate in
the recreational cobia season and fails to report no activity shall also be
ineligible to receive an Individual, Private Vessel, or Charter-Headboat
Recreational Cobia Permit in the year following the year where that permittee
failed to report.
NOTICE: The following
form used in administering the regulation was filed by the agency. The form is
not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of the form with a hyperlink to
access it. The form is also available from the agency contact or may be viewed
at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd
Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (4VAC20-510)
2017
Recreational Reporting Form (filed 12/2016)
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-5004; Filed December 19, 2016, 2:20 p.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: TheMarine Resources Commission is claiming an exemption from the AdministrativeProcess Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 11 of the Code of Virginia;however, the commission is required to publish the full text of finalregulations.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-1090. Pertaining toLicensing Requirements and License Fees (amending 4VAC20-1090-30).
Statutory Authority: § 28-2-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: December 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: JenniferFarmer, Regulatory Coordinator, Marine Resources Commission, 2600 WashingtonAvenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News, VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, or emailjennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments increase certain commercial and recreationalfees effective December 1, 2017.
4VAC20-1090-30. License fees.
The following listing of license fees applies to any personwho purchases a license for the purposes of harvesting for commercial purposes,or fishing for recreational purposes, during any calendar year. The fees listedbelow include a $1.00 agent fee.
1. COMMERCIAL LICENSES |
Commercial Fisherman Registration License | $190.00 $226.00
|
Commercial Fisherman Registration License for a person 70years or older | $90.00 $107.00
|
Delayed Entry Registration | $190.00 $226.00
|
Delayed Entry Registration License for a person 70 years orolder | $90.00 $107.00
|
Seafood Landing License for each boat or vessel | $175.00 $209.00
|
For each Commercial Fishing Pier over or upon subaqueous beds (mandatory) | $83.00 $99.00
|
Seafood Buyer's License -- For each boat or motor vehicle | $63.00 $75.00
|
Seafood Buyer's License -- For each place of business | $126.00 $150.00
|
Clam Aquaculture Product Owner's Permit | $10.00 $15.00
|
Oyster Aquaculture Product Owner's Permit | $10.00 $15.00
|
Clam Aquaculture Harvester's Permit | $5.00 $10.00
|
Oyster Aquaculture Harvester's Permit | $5.00 $10.00
|
Nonresident Harvester's License | $444.00 $530.00
|
2. OYSTER RESOURCE USER FEES |
Any licensed commercial fisherman harvesting oysters by hand | $50.00 |
For any harvester using one ormore gear types to harvest oysters or for any registered commercial fishermanwho solely harvests or possesses any bushel limit described in 4VAC20-720-80,only one oyster resource user fee, per year, shall be paid | $300.00 |
On any business shucking or packing no more than 1,000 gallonsof oysters | $500.00 |
On any business shucking or packing more than 1,000 but nomore than 10,000 gallons of oysters | $1,000.00 |
On any business shucking or packing more than 10,000 but nomore than 25,000 gallons of oysters | $2,000.00 |
On any business shucking or packing more than 25,000 gallonsof oysters | $4,000.00 |
On any oyster buyer using a single truck or location | $100.00 |
On any oyster buyer using multiple trucks or locations | $300.00 |
Commercial aquaculture operation, on riparian assignment orgeneral oyster planting grounds | $50.00 |
3. OYSTER HARVESTING, SHUCKING, RELAY, AND BUYERS LICENSES |
Any person purchasing oysters caught from the public groundsof the Commonwealth or the Potomac River, for a single place of business withone boat or motor vehicle used for buying oysters | $50.00 $55.00
|
Any person purchasing oysters caught from the public groundsof the Commonwealth or the Potomac River, for a single place of business withmultiple boats or motor vehicles used for buying oysters | $100.00 $105.00
|
For each person taking oysters by hand, or with ordinary tongs | $10.00 $33.00
|
For each single-rigged patent tong boat taking oysters | $35.00 $116.00
|
For each double-rigged patent tong boat taking oysters | $70.00 $114.00
|
Oyster Dredge Public Ground | $50.00 $72.00
|
Oyster Hand Scrape | $50.00 $72.00
|
To shuck and pack oysters, for any number of gallons under1,000 | $12.00 $17.00
|
To shuck and pack oysters, for 1,000 gallons, up to 10,000 | $33.00 $39.00
|
To shuck and pack oysters, for 10,000 gallons, up to 25,000 | $74.00 $88.00
|
To shuck and pack oysters, for 25,000 gallons, up to 50,000 | $124.00 $148.00
|
To shuck and pack oysters, for 50,000 gallons, up to 100,000 | $207.00 $247.00
|
To shuck and pack oysters, for 100,000 gallons, up to 200,000 | $290.00 $346.00
|
To shuck and pack oysters, for 200,000 gallons or over | $456.00 $544.00
|
One-day permit to relay condemned shellfish from a generaloyster planting ground | $150.00 |
4. BLUE CRAB HARVESTING AND SHEDDING LICENSES, EXCLUSIVE OFCRAB POT LICENSES |
For each person taking or catching crabs by dip nets | $13.00 $18.00
|
For ordinary trotlines | $13.00 $18.00
|
For patent trotlines | $51.00 $60.00
|
For each single-rigged crab-scrape boat | $26.00 $31.00
|
For each double-rigged crab-scrape boat | $53.00 $63.00
|
For up to 210 peeler pots | $36.00 $43.00
|
For up to 20 tanks and floats for shedding crabs | $9.00 $14.00
|
For more than 20 tanks or floats for shedding crabs | $19.00 $24.00
|
For each crab trap or crab pound | $8.00 $13.00
|
5. CRAB POT LICENSES |
For up to 85 crab pots | $48.00 $57.00
|
For over 85 but not more than127 crab pots | $79.00 $94.00
|
For over 127 but not more than 170 crab pots | $79.00 $94.00
|
For over 170 but not more than 255 crab pots | $79.00 $94.00
|
For over 255 but not more than 425 crab pots | $127.00 $151.00
|
6. HORSESHOE CRAB AND LOBSTER LICENSES |
For each person harvesting horseshoe crabs by hand | $16.00 |
For each boat engaged in fishing for or landing of lobsterusing less than 200 pots | $41.00 $48.00
|
For each boat engaged in fishing for or landing of lobsterusing 200 pots or more | $166.00 $198.00
|
7. CLAM HARVESTING LICENSES |
For each person taking or harvesting clams by hand, rake, orwith ordinary tongs | $24.00 $29.00
|
For each single-rigged patent tong boat taking clams | $58.00 $69.00
|
For each double-rigged patent tong boat taking clams | $84.00 $100.00
|
For each boat using clam dredge (hand) | $19.00 $24.00
|
For each boat using clam dredge (power) | $44.00 $52.00
|
For each boat using hydraulic dredge to catch soft shell clams | $83.00 |
For each person taking surf clams | $124.00 |
Water Rake Permit | $24.00 $29.00
|
8. CONCH (WHELK) HARVESTING LICENSES |
For each boat using a conch dredge | $58.00 $69.00
|
For each person taking channeled whelk by conch pot | $51.00 $60.00
|
9. FINFISH HARVESTING LICENSES |
Each pound net | $41.00 $48.00
|
Each stake gill net of 1,200 feet in length or under, with afixed location | $24.00 $29.00
|
All other gill nets up to 600feet | $16.00 $21.00
|
All other gill nets over 600 feet and up to 1,200 feet | $24.00 $29.00
|
Each person using a cast net or throw net or similar device | $13.00 $18.00
|
Each fyke net head, weir, or similar device | $13.00 $18.00
|
For fish trotlines | $19.00 $24.00
|
Each person using or operating a fish dip net | $9.00 $14.00
|
On each haul seine used for catching fish, under 500 yards inlength | $48.00 $57.00
|
On each haul seine used for catching fish, from 500 yards inlength to 1,000 yards in length | $146.00 $174.00
|
For each person using commercial hook and line | $31.00 $37.00
|
For each person using commercial hook and line for catchingstriped bass only | $31.00 $37.00
|
For up to 100 fish pots | $19.00 $24.00
|
For over 100 but not more than 300 fish pots | $24.00 $29.00
|
For over 300 fish pots | $62.00 $74.00
|
For up to 100 eel pots | $19.00 $24.00
|
For over 100 but not more than 300 eel pots | $24.00 $29.00
|
For over 300 eel pots | $62.00 $74.00
|
10. MENHADEN HARVESTING LICENSES Any person purchasing more than one of the followinglicenses, as described in this subsection, for the same vessel, shall pay afee equal to that for a single license for the same vessel. |
On each boat or vessel under 70 gross tons fishing for thepurse seine menhaden reduction sector | $249.00 $257.00
|
On each vessel 70 gross tons or over fishing for the purseseine menhaden reduction sector | $996.00 $1,029.00
|
On each boat or vessel under 70 gross tons fishing for thepurse seine menhaden bait sector | $249.00 $257.00
|
On each vessel 70 gross tons or over fishing for the purseseine menhaden bait sector | $996.00 $1,029.00
|
11. COMMERCIAL GEAR FORRECREATIONAL USE |
Up to five crab pots with a terrapin excluder device | $36.00 $41.00
|
Up to five crab pots without a terrapin excluder device | $46.00 $51.00
|
Crab trotline (300 feet maximum) | $10.00 $15.00
|
One crab trap or crab pound | $6.00 $11.00
|
One gill net up to 300 feet in length | $9.00 $14.00
|
Fish dip net | $7.00 $12.00
|
Fish cast net | $10.00 $15.00
|
Up to two eel pots | $10.00 $15.00
|
12. SALTWATER RECREATIONAL FISHING LICENSE |
Individual, resident | $17.50 |
Individual, nonresident | $25.00 |
Temporary 10-Day, resident | $10.00 |
Temporary 10-Day, nonresident | $10.00 |
Recreational boat, resident | $48.00 |
Recreational boat, nonresident, provided a nonresident may notpurchase a recreational boat license unless his boat is registered inVirginia | $76.00 |
Head Boat/Charter Boat, resident, six or less passengers | $190.00 |
Head Boat/Charter Boat, nonresident, six or less passengers | $380.00 |
Head Boat/Charter Boat, resident, more than six passengers,plus $5.00 per person, over six persons | $190.00 |
Head Boat/Charter Boat, nonresident, more than six passengers,plus $5.00 per person, over six persons | $380.00 |
Rental Boat, resident, per boat, with maximum fee of $703 | $14.00 |
Rental Boat, nonresident, per boat, with maximum fee of $1270 | $18.00 |
Commercial Fishing Pier (Optional) | $632.00 |
Disabled Resident Lifetime Saltwater License | $10.00 |
Disabled Nonresident Lifetime Saltwater License | $10.00 |
Reissuance of Saltwater Recreational Boat License | $5.00 |
13. COMBINED SPORTFISHING LICENSE This license is to fish in all inland waters and tidalwaters of the Commonwealth during open season. |
Residents | $39.50 |
Nonresidents | $71.00 |
14. COMBINED SPORTFISHING TRIP LICENSE This license is to fish in all inland waters and tidalwaters of the Commonwealth during open season for five consecutive days. |
Residents | $24.00 |
Nonresidents | $31.00 |
15. TIDAL BOAT SPORTFISHING LICENSE |
Residents | $126.00 |
Nonresidents | $201.00 |
16. LIFETIME SALTWATER RECREATIONAL FISHING LICENSES |
Individual Resident Lifetime License | $276.00 |
Individual Nonresident Lifetime License | $500.00 |
Individual Resident Lifetime License age 45 - 50 | $132.00 |
Individual Nonresident Lifetime License age 45 - 50 | $240.00 |
Individual Resident Lifetime License age 51 - 55 | $99.00 |
Individual Nonresident Lifetime License 51 - 55 | $180.00 |
Individual Resident Lifetime License age 56 - 60 | $66.00 |
Individual Nonresident Lifetime License age 56 - 60 | $120.00 |
Individual Resident Lifetime License age 61 - 64 | $35.00 |
Individual Nonresident Lifetime License age 61 - 64 | $60.00 |
Individual Resident Lifetime License age 65 and older | $5.00 |
| | |
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-5006; Filed December 14, 2016, 11:42 a.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Marine Resources Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative
Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 11 of the Code of Virginia;
however, the commission is required to publish the full text of final
regulations.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-1120. Pertaining to
Tilefish and Grouper (amending 4VAC20-1120-20, 4VAC20-1120-31,
4VAC20-1120-32).
Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator,
Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News,
VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments divide the recreational permit by
individual, private, or charter-headboat and modify the recreational mandatory
harvest reporting requirements. Changes to the reporting requirements include
reporting of tilefish or grouper within seven days after the trip occurs and
reporting of the Marine Resources Commission permit identification number and
number of tilefish or grouper kept and released. A permittee who does not
participate in the tilefish and grouper recreational fishery season must report
that information by the 15th day after the close of the recreational fishery
season. A permittee who does not report or reports no activity will not be
eligible to receive a permit in the subsequent year.
4VAC20-1120-20. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Commercial fishing" or "fishing
commercially" or "commercial fishery" means fishing by any
person where the catch is for sale, barter, trade, or any commercial purpose,
or is intended for sale, barter, trade, or any commercial purpose.
"Grouper" means any of the following species:
Black grouper, Mycteroperca bonaci
Coney, Cephalopholis fulva
Gag grouper, Mycteroperca microlepis
Goliath grouper, Epinephelus itajara
Graysby, Cephalopholis cruentata
Misty grouper, Epinephelus mystacinus
Nassau grouper, Epinephelus striatus
Red grouper, Epinephelus morio
Red Hind, Epinephelus guttatus
Rock Hind, Epinephelus adscensionis
Scamp, Mycteroperca phenax
Snowy grouper, Epinephelus niveatus
Speckled Hind, Epinephelus drummondhayi
Tiger grouper, Mycteroperca tigris
Warsaw grouper, Epinephelus nigritus
Wreckfish, Polyprion americanus
Yellowedge grouper, Epinephelus flavolimbatus
Yellowfin grouper, Mycteroperca venenosa
Yellowmouth grouper, Mycteroperca interstitialis
"Recreational fishing" or "fishing
recreationally" or "recreationally fishing" means fishing by any
person, whether licensed or exempted from licensing, where the catch is not for
sale, barter, trade, or any commercial purpose, or is not intended for sale,
barter, trade, or any commercial purpose.
"Recreational vessel" means any private vessel,
charter vessel, or headboat vessel.
"Tilefish" means any of the following species:
Blueline tilefish, Caulolatilus microps
Golden tilefish, Lopholatilus chamaeleonticeps
Sand tilefish, Malacanthus plumieri
4VAC20-1120-31. Recreational landing permit.
It shall be unlawful to possess aboard or to land from any
private recreational fishing vessel, charter boat, or head boat, any
tilefish or grouper harvested recreationally without first having obtained a
an Individual, Private Vessel, or Charter-Headboat Tilefish and Grouper
Landing Permit for that vessel from the Marine Resources Commission. Such
permit shall be completed in full by the vessel owner or operator, approved by
the commissioner or his designee, and a copy shall be kept with the permittee
while tilefish or grouper is in the possession of that permittee.
4VAC20-1120-32. Recreational mandatory harvest reporting.
A. It shall be unlawful for any registered Tilefish and
Grouper Landing Permittee tilefish and grouper landing permittee, as
described in 4VAC20-1120-31, to fail to fully report harvests and
related information as set forth in this chapter and as provided by
4VAC20-610-60 trips where tilefish or grouper are caught, whether
harvested or released, or the possession of any tilefish or grouper in
accordance with this section, on forms provided by the Marine Resources
Commission (commission) within seven days after the trip occurred. It shall be
unlawful for any permittee to fail to report trips where tilefish or grouper
were targeted but not successfully caught, and reports shall be made using
forms provided by the commission by the 15th day after the close of the
tilefish and grouper recreational fishery seasons.
B. Registered tilefish and grouper Landing Permittees
shall complete a daily form that accurately enumerates and legibly describes
that permittee's daily harvest from Virginia tidal and federal waters. The form
used to record daily harvest shall be that provided by the commission or
approved by the commission.
C. Registered tilefish and grouper Landing Permittees
shall submit a monthly harvest report to the commission no later than the fifth
day of the following month. This report shall be accompanied by the daily
harvest records described in subsection D of this section. Completed forms
shall be mailed or delivered to the commission or other designated locations.
D. The monthly harvest report and daily harvest records
from registered B. Any individual tilefish and grouper Landing
Permittees landing permittee shall include submit a report
including the name and signature commission permit identification
number of the registered tilefish and grouper Landing Permittee and his
license number landing permittee; commission permit
identification number of the vessel the individual is fishing from, if
applicable; date of harvest; city or county of landing; water body
fished; gear type and amount used; number of hours fished; number of
individuals on board, including captain; species harvested; number of
discard by species; live weight of each individual species harvested; and
vessel identification (Coast Guard documentation number, Virginia license
number, or hull/VIN number) and the number of tilefish and grouper, by
species, kept and released.
C. Any private vessel or charter-headboat recreational
tilefish and grouper landing permittee shall provide the vessel's commission
permit identification number; date of any harvest; number of individuals on
board; and number of tilefish and grouper, by species, kept and released. Any
such permittee must report all trips made by the vessel to which the permit
applies where tilefish and grouper are caught or targeted even if the permittee
was not on board the vessel during every such trip.
D. Any permittee who did not participate in the tilefish
and grouper recreational fishery season shall notify the commission of his lack
of participation by the 15th day after the close of the tilefish and grouper
recreational fishery seasons.
E. Any permittee who fails to report the harvest of any
tilefish or grouper shall be ineligible to receive the permit in the year
following the year in which that permittee failed to report. Any permittee who
did not participate in the recreational tilefish and grouper recreational
fishery seasons and fails to report no activity shall also be ineligible to
receive the permit in the year following the year in which that permittee
failed to report.
NOTICE: The following
form used in administering the regulation was filed by the agency. The form is
not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of the form with a hyperlink to
access it. The form is also available from the agency contact or may be viewed
at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd
Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (4VAC20-1120)
2017
Recreational Reporting Form (undated, filed 12/2016)
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-5005; Filed December 19, 2016, 2:40 p.m.
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SERVICES BOARD
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 6VAC20-180. Crime Prevention
Specialists (amending 6VAC20-180-10, 6VAC20-180-20,
6VAC20-180-30).
Statutory Authority: §§ 9.1-102 and 9.1-161 of the Code
of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: February 10, 2017.
Effective Date: February 27, 2017.
Agency Contact: Barbara Peterson-Wilson, Law Enforcement
Program Coordinator, Department of Criminal Justice Services, 1100 Bank Street,
Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 225-4503, FAX (804) 786-0410, or email
barbara.peterson-wilson@dcjs.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 9.1-161 of the Code of Virginia provides
that the Criminal Justice Services Board shall adopt regulations establishing
minimum standards for certification of crime prevention specialists. Such
regulations shall require that the chief law-enforcement officer of the
locality or the campus police departments of institutions of higher education
established by Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1 of the
Code of Virginia wherein the person serves shall approve the certification
before a candidate for certification may serve as a crime prevention
specialist.
Purpose: The regulation is being amended for the purpose
and goal of correcting regulatory citations, providing clarifying language, and
removing redundant language. This regulation is essential to protect the health,
safety, and welfare of citizens. The regulation sets forth the process for
becoming a certified crime prevention specialist. Certified crime prevention
specialists work with law enforcement, businesses, and citizens in their
communities to provide security assessments, training on topics such as
personal safety, crime prevention for seniors, school safety and security, and
establish Neighborhood Watch programs. The work of crime prevention specialists
reduces crimes within communities, which protects the health, safety, and
welfare of citizens.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
Department of Criminal Justice Services and the Criminal Justice Services Board
anticipate the proposed amendments to be noncontroversial and appropriate for a
fast-track rulemaking action because the amendments do not change the current
requirements to become a certified crime prevention specialist.
Substance: The amendments clarify the following: (i)
employees of private colleges and universities are eligible to be trained and
certified as a crime prevention specialist and (ii) agency heads may delegate
the authority to designate employees to be trained and certified as crime
prevention specialist. The amendments remove an incorrect citation,
6VAC20-80-10, referencing the definition section of Rules Relating to
Certification of Criminal Justice Instructors and replace it with 6VAC20-80-20,
which identifies the requirements for general instructor certification. The
amendments also change a citation to Title 23 of the Code of Virginia to the
correct citation in Title 23.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Issues: The advantages to the public and the
Commonwealth include the ability to reference the correct citations in the
Virginia Administrative Code and Code of Virginia, clarification of confusing
language, and the removal of redundant language where appropriate. There are no
disadvantages to the public or the Commonwealth.
Small Business Impact Review Report of Findings:
This regulatory action serves as the report of the findings of the regulatory
review pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Criminal
Justice Services Board (Board) proposes to amend its regulation for the crime
prevention specialists to update out of date references to regulation and to
the Code of Virginia (COV). The Board also proposes to remove a listing of who
is eligible to be a trained as a crime prevention specialist because the list
does not include all eligible groups.
Result of Analysis. Benefits outweigh costs for all proposed
changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. This regulation sets forth the
process to become a certified crime prevention specialist. Board staff reports
that "Certified crime prevention specialists work with law enforcement,
businesses and citizens in their communities to: provide security assessments
and training on topics such as personal safety, crime prevention for seniors
and school safety and security" Crime prevention specialists also work in
communities to help establish Neighborhood Watch programs.
The Board proposes several changes to this regulation that do
not change current rules or practice. Specifically, the Board proposes to
update references to the COV and to regulation where referenced standards have
been moved since this regulation was last updated. The Board also proposes to
remove language that contains a list of who can receive crime prevention
specialist training because that list does not include all eligible groups and
is, therefore, misleading. Other language in the regulation specifies that
"the agency administrator of any local, state or federal government agency
or college or university" may designate employees for certification
training. Changes such as these do not impose any costs on any affected entity
but provide the benefit of additional clarity to interested parties reading the
regulation.
Businesses and Entities Affected. These proposed regulatory
changes will affect all sworn and non-sworn law-enforcement officers as well as
individuals working in schools, on college campuses and in universities who are
eligible to be certified as crime prevention specialists. Board staff reports
that there are currently twelve certified crime prevention communities1
and four certified crime prevention campuses2 in
the Commonwealth; all of these are required to have at least one certified
crime prevention specialist.
Localities Particularly Affected. The Cities of Galax, Hampton,
Newport News, Roanoke, and Virginia Beach, the Counties of Chesterfield,
Fairfax, Hanover and Henrico and the Towns of Christianburg, Herndon and
Smithfield are crime prevention communities and will be particularly affected
by these proposed regulatory changes.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect employment in the Commonwealth.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use or value of private
property in the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. No small businesses will be adversely
affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No small
businesses will be adversely affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. No businesses will be adversely affected by these
proposed regulatory changes.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Other Entities. No other entities are likely to be adversely
affected by these proposed changes.
_________________________________________
1 These crime prevention communities are the Cities of
Galax, Hampton, Newport News, Roanoke, and Virginia Beach, the Counties of
Chesterfield, Fairfax, Hanover, Henrico and the Towns of Christianburg, Herndon
and Smithfield.
2 These four campuses are those for Virginia
Commonwealth University, Virginia Polytechnic Institute and State University,
University of Richmond and Christopher Newport University.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Department of Criminal Justice Services (DCJS) concurs generally with the
economic impact analysis provided by the Department of Planning and Budget. The
revisions do not change the requirements for becoming a crime prevention
specialist; therefore, there is no economic impact to certified crime
prevention specialists, certified crime prevention communities, or certified
crime prevention campuses.
Summary:
The amendments (i) clarify that an employee of a private
college or university is eligible to be trained and certified as a crime
prevention specialist, (ii) clarify that an agency head may delegate the
authority to designate employees to be trained and certified as a crime
prevention specialist, and (iii) correct citations to the Virginia
Administrative Code and the Code of Virginia.
6VAC20-180-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Agency administrator" means any chief of police,
sheriff, or any agency head of local, state, federal and college or university
law-enforcement agencies sworn under § 23-232.1 23.1-810 of the
Code of Virginia.
"Crime prevention services" means providing for the
anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and the initiation of
an activity to remove or reduce the opportunity for crime.
"Department" means the Department of Criminal
Justice Services.
"Employee" means any sworn or civilian individual,
including auxiliaries, reserve-deputies, and volunteers employed by a local,
state, or federal government agency, or college or university in the
Commonwealth of Virginia.
"General law-enforcement instructor" means an
individual who has complied with all of the applicable standards for
certification or recertification, whichever applies, contained in 6VAC20-80-10
6VAC20-80-20, and is eligible to instruct, teach, or lecture
approved or mandated training.
"Local, state, or federal government agency"
means any political unit or identifiable subunit through which an individual or
body that governs, exercises its authority, performs its functions, and which
has as its principal duty or duties the administration of public policy.
6VAC20-180-20. Duties of a crime prevention specialist.
The duties of crime prevention specialists are shall
be in accordance with § 9.1-161 of the Code of Virginia and include the
following:
1. To provide citizens within their jurisdiction information
concerning personal safety and the security of property, and other matters
relating to the reduction of criminal opportunity.
2. To provide business establishments within their
jurisdiction information concerning business and employee security, and other
matters relating to the reduction of criminal activity, including but not
limited to, internal and external theft, environmental design, and computer
security.
3. To provide citizens or businesses within their jurisdiction
assistance in forming and maintaining neighborhood or business watch groups or
other community-based crime prevention programs.
4. To provide assistance to other units of government within
their jurisdiction in developing plans and procedures related to the reduction
of criminal activity in government and the community.
5. To promote the reduction and prevention of crime within
their jurisdiction and the Commonwealth.
6VAC20-180-30. Eligibility.
A. Any employee (sworn, nonsworn, or volunteer) of a
local, state or federal government agency who serves in a law-enforcement,
crime prevention, or criminal justice capacity is eligible to be trained and
certified as a crime prevention specialist.
B. A. The agency administrator or his
designee of any local, state, or federal government agency or
college or university may designate one or more eligible employees in
his department or office who serve in a law-enforcement, crime prevention, or
criminal justice capacity to be trained and certified as crime prevention
specialists. Applicants for recertification shall be recommended by the
agency administrator or his designee. Application shall be made on the
Crime Prevention Specialist Certification Application-Form A.
C. B. All crime prevention specialist
applicants provided for in this chapter shall be approved only upon
recommendation of a law-enforcement agency having jurisdiction where the crime
prevention specialist shall serve.
D. C. This chapter does not limit or prohibit
the chief executive of any local, state or federal government agency from
assigning personnel to crime prevention tasks who are not certified as crime
prevention specialists.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4900; Filed December 8, 2016, 8:38 p.m.
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
BOARD OF JUVENILE JUSTICE
Proposed Regulation
Title of Regulation: 6VAC35-160. Regulations
Governing Juvenile Record Information and the Virginia Juvenile Justice
Information System (amending 6VAC35-160-10, 6VAC35-160-30 through
6VAC35-160-70, 6VAC35-160-90, 6VAC35-160-100, 6VAC35-160-110, 6VAC35-160-130,
6VAC35-160-150, 6VAC35-160-170, 6VAC35-160-180, 6VAC35-160-210, 6VAC35-160-220,
6VAC35-160-260, 6VAC35-160-280 through 6VAC35-160-360; repealing
6VAC35-160-390).
Statutory Authority: §§ 16.1-223 and 66-10 of the
Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: March 10, 2017.
Agency Contact: Janet P. Van Cuyk, Legislative and
Research Manager, Department of Juvenile Justice, 600 East Main Street, 20th
Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 588-3879, FAX (804) 371-6490, or
email janet.vancuyk@djj.virginia.gov.
Basis: The Board of Juvenile Justice is entrusted with
general authority to promulgate regulations by § 66-10 of the Code of
Virginia, which provides that the board may "promulgate such regulations
as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this title and other laws of
the Commonwealth." Sections 16.1-222 and 16.1-223 of the Code of Virginia
specifically address the establishment of the Virginia Juvenile Justice
Information System and the board's related authority to promulgate regulations
governing the security and confidentiality of any data submission.
Purpose: The regulation applies to the juvenile record
information of all juveniles supervised by or in the care and custody of the
department. The purpose of the proposed amendments is to maintain the
confidentiality requirements of § 16.1-300 of the Code of Virginia and to
ensure that the regulation is consistent with the security requirements for
juvenile information set out in the Commonwealth of Virginia Information
Technology Resource Management (COV ITRM) Standards.
The proposed amendments will ensure that background checks are
required for individuals who have access to juvenile record information and
that Department of Juvenile Justice (DJJ) regulations are consistent with the
COV ITRM statewide technology standards. These standards are intended to ensure
that juvenile record data are collected, disseminated, and processed in a
manner that protects the security and confidentiality of the data. These
amendments are therefore necessary to protect the safety and welfare of the
general public.
Substance: The proposed amendments (i) require
background checks for those individuals who will have access to juvenile record
information; and (ii) as DJJ is subject to COV ITRM Standards, replace
references to DJJ data policies with references to these statewide technology
standards. While the existing regulation does not mandate background checks
before individuals may access juvenile records, DJJ's policy requires such
background checks. In addition, the proposed amendments remove antiquated terms
and requirements and provide clarifying language for previously vague
processes.
Issues: The proposed amendments provide several
advantages to the general public. The ITRM standards, after which the proposed
amendments to the regulation are modeled, ensure that juvenile record data are
collected, disseminated, and processed in a manner that protects the security
and confidentiality of the data and thereby protects the general public. The
regulation provides a mechanism for individuals or their representatives to
challenge juvenile record information, and the proposed amendments clarify the
process.
Additionally, the proposed amendments benefit the department,
state and locally operated court service units, secure juvenile detention
centers, juvenile group homes, and other public and child welfare agencies by
providing them with specific, up-to-date guidance regarding (i) the processes
for requesting juvenile record information, (ii) the manner in which challenges
concerning juvenile record information must be handled, and (iii) the process
by which juvenile record information may be expunged.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. As the result
of a comprehensive review, the Board of Juvenile Justice (Board) proposes to
amend its regulation governing juvenile records. The Board proposes numerous
clarifying changes and several substantive changes; the substantive changes to
this regulation include requiring background checks for all individuals who are
given access to the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System (VJJIS) and
adding references to Commonwealth of Virginia Information Technology Resource
Management (COV ITRM) standards.1
Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for this
proposed change.
Estimated Economic Impact. This regulation governs access to
the records of juveniles in the care of the Department of Juvenile Justice
(DJJ). As the result of a comprehensive review the Board now proposes many
changes to this regulation. Most of these amendments will not change any rights
or obligations for regulated entities but are, instead, meant to bring the
regulations up to date and clarify current requirements. For example, current
language includes references to authorized employees who are able to access
juvenile records. Since private contractors are also authorized, in some
instances,2 to access records, these references were not as
inclusive as they could be. The Board now proposes to replace the word
"employees" with "individuals." No entity is likely to
incur costs on account of this type of change. Affected entities will benefit
from the additional clarity these changes bring.
In addition to these clarifying changes, the Board proposes two
substantive changes to this regulation. Currently, the regulation allows for,
but does not require, background checks for all individuals who will have
access to juvenile records. The Board now proposes to require background checks
for all such individuals. Board staff reports that, even though current regulatory
language does not require these background checks, DJJ policy does. Because of
this, no affected entities are likely to incur costs on account of this change.
To the extent that requiring background checks may make authorized individuals
less likely to misuse the information that they can access, juveniles in
custody will likely benefit from this change.
Current regulation contains several specific protocols for
accessing information. For instance, current regulation contains language
referencing DJJ's general requirements for remote access of records. As DJJ is
subject to COV ITRM Standards,3 the Board now proposes to replace
references to DJJ data policies with references to these statewide policies. No
entity is likely to incur costs on account of this change; as this change will
add clarity and eliminate the possibility that DJJ's data requirements would
become obsolete as statewide requirements change, interested parties will
benefit from it.
Businesses and Entities Affected. Board staff reports that this
regulation sets juvenile data access rules for participating agencies.
Participating agencies include 34 state and locally operated court services
units, two DJJ operated juvenile correctional facilities, 24 locally operated
secure detention centers, any juvenile group homes in the Commonwealth that are
funded (in whole or in part) by the Virginia Juvenile Community Crime Control
Act and any other entities that provide services or treatment to juveniles
either through contract with DJJ or under the auspices of the Virginia Juvenile
Community Crime Control Act. All of these entities and all juveniles whose
information is in the VJJIS will be affected by these proposed regulatory
changes.
Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be particularly
affected by these regulatory changes.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to have any impact on employment in the Commonwealth.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. This proposed
regulation is unlikely to have any impact on the use or value of private
property.
Real Estate Development Costs. This proposed regulation is
unlikely to affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. No small business is likely to incur
compliance costs on account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No small
business is likely to incur compliance costs on account of these proposed
regulatory changes.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. No business is likely to incur compliance costs on
account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Localities. No locality is likely to be adversely affected by
these proposed regulatory changes.
Other Entities. No other entities are likely to suffer any
adverse impact on account of this proposed regulation.
____________________________________
1 These are Virginia Information Technology Agency
(VITA) information security standards.
2 For instance, mental health care providers who contract
with DJJ would be authorized to access the records of their clients.
3 These standards and a relevant glossary can be
accessed at: http://vita.virginia.gov/library/default.aspx?id=537
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
of Juvenile Justice has reviewed the Department of Planning and Budget's
economic impact analysis. The agency is in agreement with the analysis.
Summary:
The proposed amendments include (i) requiring background
checks for those individuals who will have access to juvenile record
information, (ii) replacing references to Department of Juvenile Justice data
policies with references to the Information Technology Resource Management
standards, which are the technology standards for all executive agencies of the
Commonwealth, (iii) removing outdated terms and requirements, and (iv)
clarifying processes that were previously vague.
Part I
General Provisions
6VAC35-160-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Access" means the ability directly to obtain
information concerning an individual juvenile contained in manual or automated
files.
"Commonwealth of Virginia Information Technology
Resource Management Standards" or "COV ITRM Standards" means the
information technology standards applicable to all executive branch agencies
that manage, develop, purchase, and use information technology resources in the
Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Data owner" means a Department of Juvenile
Justice employee who is responsible for the policy and practice decisions
regarding data as identified by COV ITRM Standard Security (SEC) 501–08.
"Department" means the Department of Juvenile
Justice.
"Destroy" means to totally eliminate and eradicate
by various methods, including, but not limited to, shredding,
incinerating, or pulping.
"Dissemination" means any transfer of juvenile
record information, whether orally, in writing, or by electronic means to any
person other than an employee of a participating agency who has a right to
the is authorized to receive the information under § 16.1-300 of the
Code of Virginia and who is not barred from receiving the information by other
applicable law.
"Expunge" means to destroy all records concerning
an individual juvenile, or all personal identifying information related
to an individual juvenile that is included in aggregated files and databases,
in accordance with a court order or the Code of Virginia.
"Juvenile record information" means any information
in the possession of a participating agency pertaining to the case of a
juvenile who is or has been the subject of an action by an intake officer as
provided by § 16.1-260 of the Code of Virginia, as well as to personal
identifying information concerning such a juvenile in any database or other
aggregated compilation of records. The term does not apply to statistical or
analytical records or reports in which individuals are not identified and from
which their identities are not ascertainable.
"Need to know" means the principle that a user
should access only the specific information necessary to perform a particular
function in the exercise of his official duties. Once access to an application
is authorized, the authorized data user is still obligated to assess the
appropriateness of each specific access on a need-to-know basis only
necessary to perform official job duties and responsibilities.
"Participating agency" means the Department of
Juvenile Justice department, including state-operated court service
units, or; any locally operated court service unit, secure
juvenile detention home, center, or juvenile group home or
emergency shelter; or any public agency, child welfare agency, private
organization, facility, or person who is treating or providing services
to a child pursuant to a contract with the department or pursuant to the
Virginia Juvenile Community Crime Control Act as set out in Article 12.1 (§ 16.1-309.2
et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 16.1 of the Code of Virginia, that is approved
by the department to have direct access to juvenile record information through
the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System VJJIS or any of
its component or derivative information systems. The term "participating
agency" does not include any court.
"Remote access" means a connection to the
department's systems from a remote location other than a department facility.
"Telecommunication connection" means the
infrastructure used to establish a remote access to department information
technology systems.
"Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System (VJJIS)"
or "VJJIS" means the equipment, facilities, agreements and
procedures used to collect, process, preserve or disseminate juvenile record
information in accordance with § 16.1-224 or § 16.1-300 of the Code
of Virginia. The operations of the system may be performed manually or by using
electronic computers or other automated data processing equipment.
"VJJIS functional administrator" means a
Department of Juvenile Justice employee who is responsible for overseeing the
operation of a specific component of the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information
System. Such persons are sometimes referred to as "functional
proponents" of particular information reporting systems. The functional
administrator is not to be confused with the department's overall administrator
of the VJJIS.
Part II
Participating Agencies in the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System
VJJIS
6VAC35-160-30. Designation as a participating agency.
A. The department, including its central administration,
department-operated facilities, and state-operated court service units,
is considered a single participating agency for purposes of this regulation.
B. Locally operated court services units, and
secure juvenile detention homes and boot camps as defined in § 16.1-228
of the Code of Virginia centers shall be participating agencies in
the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System VJJIS.
C. Any other agency that is eligible to receive juvenile
record information under § 16.1-300 of the Code of Virginia may apply to the
department for status as a participating agency.
6VAC35-160-40. Signed memorandum of agreement and nondisclosure
agreement required.
The department shall develop a written memorandum
of agreement and a nondisclosure agreement with each other
participating agency delineating the participating agency's access to and
responsibility for information contained in the Virginia Juvenile Justice
Information System VJJIS.
6VAC35-160-50. Data submissions.
A. All participating agencies shall submit data and other
information as required by department policy procedures to ensure
that juvenile record information is complete, accurate, current, and
consistent.
B. Administrators of participating agencies are responsible
for ensuring that entries into the juvenile justice information system VJJIS
are accurate, timely, and in a form prescribed by the department.
C. All information entered into the Virginia Juvenile
Justice Information System VJJIS shall become part of a juvenile's
record and shall be subject to the confidentiality provisions of § 16.1-300 of
the Code of Virginia.
6VAC35-160-60. Access provided to participating agencies.
A. In accordance with policies statutes,
regulations, and procedures governing confidentiality of information and
system security, the department may limit or expand the scope of access granted
to participating agencies.
B. When individuals or participating agencies are providing
treatment or rehabilitative services to a juvenile as part of an agreement with
the department, their access to juvenile record information shall be limited to
that portion of the information that is relevant to the provision of the
treatment or service. Once access to an application is authorized, the
authorized data user is still obligated to assess the appropriateness of each
specific access on a need-to-know basis.
C. An individual's juvenile record information shall be made
available only to participating agencies currently supervising or providing
services to the juvenile, and only upon presentation of the unique
identifying number assigned to the juvenile. Once access to an application is
authorized, the authorized data user is still obligated to assess the
appropriateness of each specific access on a need-to-know basis.
6VAC35-160-70. Designation of authorized individuals.
A. Each participating agency shall determine what positions
in the agency require regular access to juvenile record information as part of
their job responsibilities and as documented in the employee work profile.
B. In accordance with applicable law and regulations, the
The department may shall require a background check of any
individual who will be given access to the VJJIS system through any
participating agency. The department may deny access to any person based on the
results of such background investigation or due to the person's violation of
the provisions of these regulations this chapter or other
security requirements established for the collection, storage, or dissemination
of juvenile record information.
C. Only authorized employees individuals shall
have direct access to juvenile record information.
D. Use of juvenile record information by an unauthorized employee
individual, or for a purpose or activity other than one for which the
person is authorized to receive juvenile record information, will shall
be considered an unauthorized dissemination.
E. Persons who are given access to juvenile record
information shall be required to sign an agreement information
security agreement in accordance with department procedure stating that
they will use and disseminate the information only in compliance with law and these
regulations, this chapter and that they understand that there are
criminal and civil penalties for unauthorized dissemination.
6VAC35-160-90. Security of physical records.
A. A participating agency that possesses physical records or
files containing juvenile record information shall institute procedures to
ensure the physical security of such juvenile record information from
unauthorized access, disclosure, dissemination, theft, sabotage, fire, flood,
wind, or other natural or man-made disasters.
B. Only authorized persons who are clearly identified
shall have access to areas where juvenile record information is collected,
stored, processed, or disseminated. Locks, guards, or other
appropriate means shall be used to control access.
6VAC35-160-100. Requirements when records are automated.
Participating agencies having automated juvenile record
information files shall:
1. Designate a system administrator data owner
to maintain and control authorized user accounts, system management, and the implementation
of security measures;
2. Maintain "backup" copies of juvenile record
information, preferably off-site;
3. Develop a disaster recovery plan, which shall be
available for inspection and review by the department;
4. Carefully control system specifications and
documentation to prevent unauthorized access and dissemination 2.
Develop and implement a logical access procedure to prevent unauthorized access
and dissemination; and
5. 3. Develop procedures for discarding old
computers to ensure that information contained on those computers is not
available to unauthorized persons. All data must be completely erased or
otherwise made unreadable in accordance with COV ITRM Standard SEC 514–04,
Removal of Commonwealth Data from Electronic Media Standard, or any successor
COV ITRM standard that addresses the removal of Commonwealth data from
electronic media.
6VAC35-160-110. Access controls for computer security.
A. Where juvenile record information is computerized, logical
access controls shall be put in place to ensure that records can be queried,
updated, or destroyed only from approved system user accounts. Industry
standard levels of encryption shall be required to protect all confidential
juvenile record information moving through any network.
B. The logical access controls described in
subsection A of this section shall be known only to the employees of the
participating agency who are responsible for control of the juvenile record
information system or to individuals and agencies operating under a specific
agreement with the participating agency to provide such security programs. The
access controls shall be kept under maximum security conditions secure.
C. Computer operations, whether dedicated or shared, that
support juvenile record information shall operate in accordance with procedures
developed or approved by the department.
D. Juvenile record information shall be stored by the
computer in such a manner that it cannot be modified, destroyed, accessed,
changed, purged, or overlaid in any fashion except via an approved
system user account.
6VAC35-160-130. Security of telecommunications.
A. Ordinarily, dedicated telecommunications lines shall be
required for direct or remote access to computer systems containing juvenile
record information. However, the The department may permit the use
of a nondedicated means of data transmission to access juvenile record
information when there are adequate and verifiable safeguards in place to
restrict access to juvenile record information to authorized persons. Industry
standard levels of encryption shall be required to protect all juvenile record
information moving through any network.
B. Where remote access of juvenile record information is
permitted, remote access devices must be secure. Remote access devices capable
of receiving or transmitting juvenile record information shall be secured
during periods of operation. When the remote access device is unattended, the
device shall be made inoperable for purposes of accessing juvenile record
information by implementing a screen saver lockout period after a maximum of
15 minutes of inactivity for devices as required by COV ITRM Standards SEC
501–09 or any successor COV ITRM Standard that addresses information security.
In addition, appropriate identification of the remote access device operator
shall be required.
C. Telecommunications facilities The
telecommunications connection used in connection with the remote
access device shall also be secured. The telecommunications facilities Telecommunication
connections shall be reasonably protected from possible tampering or
tapping.
6VAC35-160-150. Correcting errors.
Participating agencies shall immediately notify the
appropriate VJJIS functional administrator data owner when it is
found that incorrect information has been entered into the juvenile justice
information system VJJIS. The VJJIS functional administrator data
owner will make arrangements to correct the information as soon as
practicable in accordance with department procedures.
6VAC35-160-170. Information to be disseminated only in
accordance with law applicable statutes and regulation regulations.
A. In accordance with § 16.1-223 of the Code of Virginia,
data stored in the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System VJJIS
shall be confidential. Information from such data that identifies an individual
juvenile may be released only in accordance with § 16.1-300 of the Code of
Virginia, applicable federal law, and this regulation chapter.
B. Unauthorized dissemination of juvenile record information
will result in subject the disseminator's being subject disseminator
to the administrative sanctions described in 6VAC35-160-380. Unlawful
dissemination also may be prosecuted as a Class 3 misdemeanor under § 16.1-309
of the Code of Virginia or as a Class 2 misdemeanor under § 16.1-225 of
the Code of Virginia.
C. Additional disclosure limitations are provided in the
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (42 USC §§ 1320d-5 and
1320d-6) and the federal substance abuse law (42 USC § 290dd2(f)).
6VAC35-160-180. Fees.
Participating agencies may charge a reasonable fee for search
and copying time expended when an individual or a nonparticipating agency
requests juvenile record information. The participating agency shall inform the
requester of the fees to be charged, and shall obtain written
agreement from the requester to pay such costs prior to initiating the search
for requested information. Any release shall be in accordance with
applicable statutes and regulations.
6VAC35-160-210. Determining requestor's eligibility to receive
the information.
A. Upon receipt of a request for juvenile record information,
an appropriately designated person shall determine whether the requesting
agency or individual is eligible to receive juvenile record information as
provided in § 16.1-300 of the Code of Virginia, federal law, and this regulation
chapter.
B. The determination as to whether a person, agency or
institution has a "legitimate interest" in a juvenile's
case shall be based on the criteria specified in subdivision A 7 of § 16.1-300
A 7 of the Code of Virginia.
C. When there is a request to disseminate health records or
substance abuse treatment records, the person responding to the request shall
determine whether the requested information is protected by the Health
Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 or by the federal law
on substance abuse treatment records (42 USC § 290dd-2 and 42 CFR Part 2),
and may consult with designated department personnel in making this
determination. Health records and substance abuse treatment records shall be
disseminated only in strict compliance with the applicable federal statutory
requirements, the Code of Virginia, and this chapter.
6VAC35-160-220. Responding to requests.
A. Once it is determined that a requestor is entitled to
juvenile record information, a designated individual shall inform the requestor
of the procedures for reviewing the juvenile record information, including the
general restrictions on the use of the data, when the record will be available,
and any costs that may be involved.
B. When the request for juvenile record information is made
by an individual's parent, guardian, legal custodian or other person standing
in loco parentis, the request shall be referred to designated personnel of the
department. (See 6VAC35-160-230.)
C. Before beginning the search for the requested juvenile
record information, a designated individual shall inform the requester of any
fees that will be charged pursuant to 6VAC35-160-180 and shall obtain the
consent of the requester to pay any charges associated with providing the
requested information.
D. C. All records containing sensitive data (e.g.,
name, date of birth, social security number, or address) shall be encrypted
prior to electronic dissemination. Except as provided in subsection B of
this section, requested records shall be provided as soon as practicable, but
in any case within seven 10 business days unless compliance with
other applicable regulations requires a longer response time.
E. D. If the request for information is made to
a participating agency and the participating agency does not have access to the
particular information requested, the requestor shall be so notified and
shall be told how to request the information from the appropriate source, if
known.
F. E. Personnel of the participating agency
shall provide reasonable assistance to the individual or his attorney to help
understand the record.
G. F. The person releasing the record shall
also inform the individual of his right to challenge the record as provided
in 6VAC35-160-280.
H. G. If no record can be found, a statement
shall be furnished to this effect.
6VAC35-160-260. Reporting unauthorized disseminations.
A. Participating agencies shall notify the department when
they observe any violations of the above dissemination regulations contained
in this part. The department will shall investigate and
respond to the violation as provided in law and this chapter.
B. A participating agency that knowingly fails to report a
violation may be subject to an immediate audit of its entire
dissemination log and procedures to ensure that disseminations are being
appropriately managed.
Part IV
Challenge To to and Correction of Juvenile Record Information
6VAC35-160-280. Challenge.
A. Individuals, or persons acting on an individual's behalf
as provided for by law, may challenge their own juvenile record information by
completing documentation provided by the department and forwarding it to the functional
proponent data owner who is responsible for the applicable component
of the the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System VJJIS as
prescribed in department procedures.
B. When a record that is maintained by the VJJIS is
challenged, both the manual and the automated record shall be flagged with the
message "CHALLENGED RECORD." The individual shall be given an
opportunity to make provide a brief written statement
describing how the information contained in the record is alleged to be
inaccurate. When a challenged record is disseminated while under challenge, the
record shall carry both the flagged message and the individual's statement, if
one has been provided.
C. The VJJIS functional administrator data owner
or designee shall examine the individual's record to determine if a data entry
error was made. If a data entry error is not obvious, the VJJIS functional
administrator data owner shall send a copy of the challenge form and
any relevant information to all agencies that could have originated the
information under challenge, and shall ask them to examine their files to
determine the validity of the challenge.
D. The participating agencies shall examine their source
data, the contents of the challenge, and information supplied by the VJJIS for
any discrepancies or errors, and shall advise the VJJIS functional
administrator data owner of the results of the examination.
E. If a modification of a VJJIS record is required, the VJJIS
functional administrator data owner shall ensure that the required
change is made and shall notify all participating agencies that were asked to
examine their records in connection with the challenge.
F. Participating agencies that, pursuant to 6VAC35-160-220,
have disseminated an erroneous or incomplete record shall in turn notify all
entities that have received the erroneous juvenile record information as
recorded on the agency's dissemination log.
G. The participating agency that received the challenge shall
notify the individual or person acting on the individual's behalf of the
results of the challenge and the right to request an administrative review and
appeal those results.
6VAC35-160-290. Administrative review of challenge results.
A. If not satisfied with the results of the challenge, the
individual or those acting on his behalf may, within 30 calendar days,
request in writing an administrative review of the challenge by the Director
director of the Department of Juvenile Justice department.
B. Within 30 days of receiving the written request for the
administrative review, the Director director of the Department
of Juvenile Justice department, or a designee who is not the VJJIS
functional administrator data owner who responded to the challenge,
shall review the challenge, the findings of the review, and the action
taken by the VJJIS functional administrator data owner. If the
administrative review supports correction of the juvenile record information,
the correction shall be made as prescribed above in this section.
6VAC35-160-300. Removal of a challenge designation.
When juvenile the challenge to the juvenile's
record information is determined to be correct has been resolved,
either as a result of a challenge or an administrative review of the challenge,
the VJJIS functional administrator data owner shall notify the
affected participating agencies to remove the challenge designation from their
files.
Part V
Expungement
6VAC35-160-310. Expungement requirements.
When a court orders or law requires the expungement of
an individual's juvenile records, all records and personal identifying
information associated with the expungement order shall be destroyed in
accordance with the court order or statutory requirement. Nonidentifying
information may be kept in databases or other aggregated files for statistical
purposes.
6VAC35-160-320. Notification to participating agencies.
The VJJIS functional administrator data owner
shall notify all participating agencies to purge their records of any reference
to the person whose record has been ordered expunged. The notification shall
include a copy of the applicable court order, along with notice of the
penalties imposed by law for disclosure of such personal identifying
information (see § 16.1-309 of the Code of Virginia).
6VAC35-160-330. Procedures for expunging juvenile record
information.
A. Paper versions of records that have been ordered expunged
shall be destroyed by shredding, incinerating, pulping, or otherwise
totally eradicating the record.
B. Computerized versions of records that have been ordered
expunged shall be deleted from all databases and electronic files in such a way
that the records cannot be accessed or recreated through ordinary use of any
equipment or software that is part of the Virginia Juvenile Justice
Information System VJJIS and in accordance with the ITRM SEC 514–03
Removal of Electronic Data from Electronic Media standard.
C. If personal identifying information concerning the
subject individual is included in records that are not ordered expunged, the personal
identifying information relating to the individual whose records have been
ordered expunged shall be obliterated on the original, or a new document
shall be created eliminating the personal identifying references to the
individual whose record has been ordered expunged.
6VAC35-160-340. Confirmation notice required to VJJIS
functional administrator data owner.
Within 30 calendar days of receiving expungement
instructions from the VJJIS functional administrator data owner,
the participating agency shall expunge the juvenile record information in
accordance with 6VAC35-160-330 and shall notify the VJJIS functional
administrator data owner when the records have been expunged. The
notification to the VJJIS functional administrator data owner
shall indicate that juvenile records were expunged in accordance with court
order and shall not identify the juvenile whose records where were expunged.
6VAC35-160-350. Expungement order received directly by
participating agency.
When a participating agency receives an expungement order
directly from a court, the participating agency shall promptly comply with the
expungement order in accordance with 6VAC35-160-330 and shall notify the VJJIS
functional administrator data owner of the court-ordered
expungement. The VJJIS functional administrator shall data owner,
upon receipt of such notification, obtain a copy of the order from the
appropriate court shall contact the appropriate court and determine the
validity of the notification, as applicable.
Part VI
Disposition of Records in the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information
System
6VAC35-160-355. Record retention.
All records in the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information
System VJJIS shall be retained and disposed of in accordance with
the applicable records retention schedules approved by the Library of Virginia.
When a participating agency or a unit of a participating agency disposes of
records in the physical possession of the participating agency or the unit of a
participating agency, the person who disposes of such records shall notify the VJJIS
functional administrator data owner to remove that same information
from VJJIS.
Part VII
Enforcement
6VAC35-160-360. Oversight by the Department of Juvenile
Justice department.
A. The Department of Juvenile Justice department
shall have the responsibility for monitoring compliance with this chapter and
for taking enforcement action as provided in this chapter or by law applicable
state and federal statutes and regulations.
B. The department shall have the right to audit, monitor, and
inspect any facilities, equipment, software, systems, or procedures established
pursuant to required by this chapter.
6VAC35-160-390. Annual report to the board. (Repealed.)
The department shall annually report to the board on the
status of the Juvenile Justice Information System, including a summary of (i)
any known security breaches and corrective actions taken; (ii) any audits
conducted, whether random or for cause; and (iii) any challenges received alleging
erroneous information and the outcome of any investigation in response to such
a challenge.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4311; Filed December 15, 2016, 4:02 p.m.
TITLE 7. ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT
DEPARTMENT OF SMALL BUSINESS AND SUPPLIER DIVERSITY
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Department of Small Business and Supplier Diversity is claiming an exemption
from the Administrative Process Act in accordance with subdivision 8 of
§ 2.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia, which exempts regulations implementing
certification programs for small, women-owned, and minority-owned businesses
and employment services organizations from the Administrative Process Act
pursuant to subdivision B 2 of § 2.2-4002 of the Code of Virginia.
Title of Regulation: 7VAC13-20. Regulations to Govern
the Certification of Small, Women-Owned, and Minority-Owned Businesses (amending 7VAC13-20-10, 7VAC13-20-150,
7VAC13-20-190, 7VAC13-20-220).
Statutory Authority: § 2.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Reba O'Connor, Regulatory Coordinator,
Department of Small Business and Supplier Diversity, 101 North 14th Street,
Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 593-2005, or email
reba.oconnor@sbsd.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) add a definition of "gross
receipts," (ii) remove incorrect language regarding application of the
Administrative Process Act, and (iii) remove a provision prohibiting a business
whose certification has been revoked from reapplying for certification after
revocation.
7VAC13-20-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Affiliate" means a business that is connected in
some way, whether financially or legally, to a business that has applied to the
department for certification as a small, women-owned, or minority-owned
business (see the federal Small Business Administration regulations, 13 CFR
Part 121). The following requirements, conditions, and factors are applicable:
1. Businesses are affiliates of each other when, either
directly or indirectly:
a. One business controls or has the power to control the
other;
b. A third party controls or has the power to control both;
c. An identity of interest between or among parties exists
such that affiliation may be found; or
d. One business or company has ownership, direct or indirect,
of 10% or more of the voting stock of another business. (See the Investment
Company Act, 15 USC § 80a-2.)
2. In determining whether affiliation exists, it is necessary
to consider all appropriate factors, including common ownership, common
management, and contractual relationships. Affiliates must be considered
together in determining whether a concern meets small business size criteria
and the statutory cap on the participation of firms in the small, women-owned,
or minority-owned business certification program.
"Agent" means a person that (i) has the authority
to act on behalf of a principal in transactions with third parties; (ii) is
subject to the principal's control; and (iii) does not have title to the
principal's property.
"Appeal" means a written request by an applicant to
reconsider a denial or revocation of certification.
"Applicant" means any business that applies to the
department for certification or recertification as a small, women-owned, or
minority-owned business.
"Application" means the documents the department
requires the applicant to submit in the course of certification or
recertification, including the application form the applicant submits under
penalty of perjury, which may include any additional documentation that the
department requests that the applicant submit, and any information or report
that the department generates during or upon completion of an onsite visit.
"Broker" means a person who acts as an intermediary
between a buyer and seller.
"Business" means any legal entity organized in the
United States or a commonwealth or territory of the United States that
regularly engages in lawful commercial transactions for profit.
"Certification" means the same as that term is
defined in § 2.2-1604 of the Code of Virginia.
"Certified" means the status accorded to an
applicant upon the department's determination that the applicant has satisfied
the requirements for certification as a small, women-owned, or minority-owned
business.
"Control" means the power to direct the operation
and management of a business as evidenced through governance documents and
actual day-to-day operation.
"Corporation" means a legal entity that is incorporated
under the law of a state, the United States, or a commonwealth or territory of
the United States.
"Day" means any day except Saturday, Sunday, and
legal state holidays unless otherwise noted.
"Dealer" means a person or business that has the
exclusive or nonexclusive authority to sell specified goods or services on
behalf of another business.
"Department" means the Department of Small Business
and Supplier Diversity.
"Director" means the Director of the Department of
Small Business and Supplier Diversity or his designee.
"Expiration" means the date on which the director
specifies that a certified business will cease to be certified.
"Franchise" means a contractual arrangement
characterized by the authorization granted to someone to sell or distribute a
company's goods or services in a certain area.
"Franchisee" means a business or group of
businesses established or operated under a franchise agreement.
"Gross receipts" means the amount reported as
gross receipts of sales by the applicant on line 1 or 1(A) of the applicable
federal income tax return as filed with the United States Internal Revenue
Service.
"Individual" means a natural person.
"Joint venture" means a formal association of two
or more persons or businesses for the purpose of carrying out a time-limited,
single business enterprise for profit, in which the associated persons or
businesses combine their property, capital, efforts, skills, or knowledge, and in
which the associated persons or businesses exercise control and management and
share in profits and losses in proportion to their contribution to the business
enterprise.
"Limited liability company" means a specific type
of legal entity that is in compliance with the applicable requirements of the
law of its state of formation.
"Manufacturer's representative" means an agent
whose principal is a manufacturer or group of manufacturers.
"Minority individual" means the same as that term
is defined in § 2.2-1604 of the Code of Virginia.
"Onsite visit" means a visit by department
representatives to the applicant's physical place of business to verify the
applicant's representations submitted to the department in the course of
certification or recertification.
"Ownership" means an equity, a partnership, or a
membership interest in a business.
"Partnership" means an association of two or more
persons to carry on as co-owners a business for profit.
"Person" means a natural person or a business.
"Principal" means a person who contracts with
another to act on the contracting person's behalf subject to that person's
control.
"Principal place of business" means the physical
business location where the business maintains its headquarters, where the
business's books and records are kept, and where the natural persons who
direct, control, and manage the business's day-to-day operations are located.
If the offices from which management is directed and where the business records
are kept are in different locations, the department will determine the
principal place of business.
"Pro forma" means as a matter of form or assumed
information.
"Recertification" means the process by which a
business applies to the department for renewed or continued status as a
certified business.
"Record" means the materials submitted in support
of an application for certification or recertification, which may include the
application, supporting documentation, and additional materials obtained by the
department in the course of the application, certification, or recertification
process.
"Sole proprietorship" means a business whose assets
are wholly owned by a single person.
"Virginia-based business" means a business that has
its principal place of business in Virginia.
7VAC13-20-150. Procedures for initial certification.
A. Any business that meets the criteria for certification may
file an official application with the department.
B. The application will be reviewed initially for
completeness. The department may conduct an onsite visit of the business to
obtain or clarify any information. The onsite visit may be scheduled or
unannounced.
C. The department may request the applicant to provide
additional information or documentation to provide clarification and
substantiation of certain criteria or to resolve any ambiguities or
inconsistencies in an application.
D. The department may impose a time limit in which the
applicant must provide the requested information. A reasonable extension may be
given by the department for good cause shown by the applicant. Requests for
time extensions must be made to the department in writing and should specify
the length of time for which the extension is being requested and the reasons
for the request. Failure to provide such information or documentation shall render
the application administratively closed.
E. After reviewing the application, the department shall
issue either a notice of certification or a notice of denial of certification
stating the reasons for denial and offering the applicant the opportunity
for an informal hearing pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia.
F. A business certified by the department under this section
shall be certified for a period of three years unless (i) the certification is
revoked before the end of the three-year period, (ii) the business is no longer
in business, or (iii) the business is no longer eligible as a small,
women-owned, or minority-owned business.
G. The applicant shall be responsible for notifying the
department immediately of any change in legal structure, ownership, control,
management, or status of the business within 30 calendar days of such change.
Failure to do so may be grounds for revocation of certification.
H. It shall be the responsibility of the applicant, the
certified business, or both to notify the department of any change of name,
address, or contact information and to keep the department informed of the
current address and contact information. Changes of name and address must be
reported to the department in writing within 30 calendar days of such change.
Failure to do so within 30 calendar days of such change may be grounds for
revocation of certification. The department shall not be liable or responsible
if a certified business fails to receive notices, communications, or
correspondence based upon the certified business's failure to notify the
department of any change of address or to provide correct address and contact
information.
7VAC13-20-190. Notice of denial.
The department shall notify the applicant of the denial of
its application for certification or recertification in writing no later than
15 days from the date of the decision by the department. The notice shall state
the reasons for the denial of certification or recertification and offer the
applicant the opportunity to appeal the decision as provided in the
Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
7VAC13-20-220. Reapplication.
A. A business whose application for certification has been
denied may reapply for the same category of certification 12 months after the
date on which the business receives the notice of denial if no appeal is filed
or 12 months after the appeal is exhausted. An applicant denied certification
as a women-owned or minority-owned business may reapply for certification as a
small business without delay if otherwise eligible.
B. The applicant may request a waiver of the 12-month
reapplication period from the department director by submitting a written
request for reconsideration and providing a reasonable basis for the waiver.
The director or his designee, in his discretion, shall render a final decision
regarding the request for reconsideration and waiver within 30 days, which
determination shall not constitute a case decision subject to appeal.
C. A business whose certification has been revoked may not
reapply for certification in the same classification.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4995; Filed December 8, 2016, 3:50 p.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE AIR POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
following regulatory action is exempt from Article 2 of the Administrative
Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code of Virginia,
which excludes regulations that are necessary to meet the requirements of
federal law or regulations, provided such regulations do not differ materially
from those required by federal law or regulation. The State Air Pollution
Control Board will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any
interested person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
Titles of Regulations: 9VAC5-20. General Provisions
(Rev. H16) (amending 9VAC5-20-21).
9VAC5-40. Existing Stationary Sources (Rev. H16) (amending 9VAC5-40-5800; adding 9VAC5-40-5925
through 9VAC5-40-5990).
Statutory Authority:
9VAC5-20: § 10.1-1308 of the Code of Virginia; §§ 108,
109, and 302 of the federal Clean Air Act; 40 CFR Parts 50, 53, and 58.
9VAC5-40: § 10.1-1308 of the Code of Virginia; §§ 110,
111, 123, 129, 171, 172, and 182 of the federal Clean Air Act; 40 CFR Parts 51
and 60.
Effective Date: February 22, 2017.
Agency Contact: Karen G. Sabasteanski, Department of
Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,
telephone (804) 698-4426, FAX (804) 698-4510, or email
karen.sabasteanski@deq.virginia.gov.
Summary:
Currently, air pollution from landfills is regulated in
Virginia under Article 43, Emission Standards for Municipal Solid Waste
Landfills (9VAC5-40-5800 et seq.). Article 43 was originally designed to
control two separate pollutants: (i) ozone in the Northern Virginia ozone
nonattainment area as required by § 110 of the Clean Air Act and implemented by
40 CFR Part 51 and (ii) nonmethane organic compounds as required by § 111
of the federal Clean Air Act and implemented by Subpart Cc of 40 CFR Part 60,
which is applicable statewide. On August 29, 2016 (81 FR 59276), the U.S.
Environmental Protection Agency promulgated new emissions guidelines for
municipal solid waste landfills as Subpart Cf of 40 CFR Part 60. The amendments
were made to reduce emissions of landfill gas, which contains both nonmethane
organic compounds and methane. To adopt the requirements of Subpart Cf while
maintaining the state-only requirements specific to the Northern Virginia ozone
nonattainment area, a new Article 43.1 is being promulgated. This action will
enable the adoption of the new statewide standards without affecting the more
restrictive requirements of Article 43 applicable to the nonattainment area.
9VAC5-20-21. Documents incorporated by reference.
A. The Administrative Process Act and Virginia Register Act
provide that state regulations may incorporate documents by reference.
Throughout these regulations, documents of the types specified below have been
incorporated by reference.
1. United States Code.
2. Code of Virginia.
3. Code of Federal Regulations.
4. Federal Register.
5. Technical and scientific reference documents.
Additional information on key federal regulations and
nonstatutory documents incorporated by reference and their availability may be
found in subsection E of this section.
B. Any reference in these regulations to any provision of the
Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) shall be considered as the adoption by
reference of that provision. The specific version of the provision adopted by
reference shall be that contained in the CFR (2016) in effect July 1, 2016. For
the purposes of Article 43.1 (9VAC5-40-5925 et seq.) of 9VAC5-40 (Existing
Stationary Sources), the EPA regulations promulgated at Subpart Cf (40 CFR
60.30f et seq., Emission Guidelines and Compliance Times for Municipal Solid
Waste Landfills) of 40 CFR Part 60, as published in the Federal Register of
August 29, 2016 (81 FR 59276) and effective on October 28, 2016, is the version
incorporated by reference into this article and Article 43.1. In making
reference to the Code of Federal Regulations, 40 CFR Part 35 means Part 35 of
Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations; 40 CFR 35.20 means § 35.20 in
Part 35 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
C. Failure to include in this section any document referenced
in the regulations shall not invalidate the applicability of the referenced
document.
D. Copies of materials incorporated by reference in this
section may be examined by the public at the central office of the Department
of Environmental Quality, Eighth Floor, 629 East Main Street, Richmond,
Virginia, between 8:30 a.m. and 4:30 p.m. of each business day.
E. Information on federal regulations and nonstatutory
documents incorporated by reference and their availability may be found below
in this subsection.
1. Code of Federal Regulations.
a. The provisions specified below from the Code of Federal
Regulations (CFR) are incorporated herein by reference.
(1) 40 CFR Part 50 -- National Primary and Secondary Ambient
Air Quality Standards.
(a) Appendix A-1 -- Reference Measurement Principle and
Calibration Procedure for the Measurement of Sulfur Dioxide in the Atmosphere
(Ultraviolet Fluorescence Method).
(b) Appendix A-2 -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Sulfur Dioxide in the Atmosphere (Pararosaniline Method).
(c) Appendix B -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Suspended Particulate Matter in the Atmosphere (High-Volume Method).
(d) Appendix C -- Measurement Principle and Calibration
Procedure for the Continuous Measurement of Carbon Monoxide in the Atmosphere
(Non-Dispersive Infrared Photometry).
(e) Appendix D -- Measurement Principle and Calibration
Procedure for the Measurement of Ozone in the Atmosphere.
(f) Appendix E -- Reserved.
(g) Appendix F -- Measurement Principle and Calibration
Procedure for the Measurement of Nitrogen Dioxide in the Atmosphere (Gas Phase
Chemiluminescence).
(h) Appendix G -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Lead in Suspended Particulate Matter Collected from Ambient Air.
(i) Appendix H -- Interpretation of the National Ambient Air Quality
Standards for Ozone.
(j) Appendix I -- Interpretation of the 8-Hour Primary and
Secondary National Ambient Air Quality Standards for Ozone.
(k) Appendix J -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Particulate Matter as PM10 in the Atmosphere.
(l) Appendix K -- Interpretation of the National Ambient Air
Quality Standards for Particulate Matter.
(m) Appendix L -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Fine Particulate Matter as PM2.5 in the Atmosphere.
(n) Appendix M -- Reserved.
(o) Appendix N -- Interpretation of the National Ambient Air
Quality Standards for PM2.5.
(p) Appendix O -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Coarse Particulate Matter as PM in the Atmosphere.
(q) Appendix P -- Interpretation of the Primary and Secondary
National Ambient Air Quality Standards for Ozone.
(r) Appendix Q -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Lead in Suspended Particulate Matter as PM10 Collected from Ambient
Air.
(s) Appendix R -- Interpretation of the National Ambient Air
Quality Standards for Lead.
(t) Appendix S -- Interpretation of the Primary National
Ambient Air Quality Standards for Oxides of Nitrogen (Nitrogen Dioxide).
(u) Appendix T -- Interpretation of the Primary National
Ambient Air Quality Standards for Oxides of Sulfur (Sulfur Dioxide).
(v) Appendix U -- Interpretation of the Primary and Secondary
National Ambient Air Quality Standards for Ozone.
(2) 40 CFR Part 51 -- Requirements for Preparation, Adoption,
and Submittal of Implementation Plans.
(a) Appendix M -- Recommended Test Methods for State
Implementation Plans.
(b) Appendix S -- Emission Offset Interpretive Ruling.
(c) Appendix W -- Guideline on Air Quality Models (Revised).
(d) Appendix Y -- Guidelines for BART Determinations Under the
Regional Haze Rule.
(3) 40 CFR Part 55 -- Outer Continental Shelf Air Regulations.
(4) 40 CFR Part 58 -- Ambient Air Quality Surveillance.
Appendix A -- Quality Assurance Requirements for SLAMS, SPMs
and PSD Air Monitoring.
(5) 40 CFR Part 59 -- National Volatile Organic Compound
Emission Standards for Consumer and Commercial Products.
(a) Subpart C -- National Volatile Organic Compound Emission
Standards for Consumer Products.
(b) Subpart D -- National Volatile Organic Compound Emission
Standards for Architectural Coatings, Appendix A -- Determination of Volatile
Matter Content of Methacrylate Multicomponent Coatings Used as Traffic Marking
Coatings.
(6) 40 CFR Part 60 -- Standards of Performance for New
Stationary Sources.
The specific provisions of 40 CFR Part 60 incorporated by
reference are found in Article 5 (9VAC5-50-400 et seq.) of Part II of 9VAC5-50
(New and Modified Stationary Sources).
(7) 40 CFR Part 61 -- National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants.
The specific provisions of 40 CFR Part 61 incorporated by
reference are found in Article 1 (9VAC5-60-60 et seq.) of Part II of 9VAC5-60
(Hazardous Air Pollutant Sources).
(8) 40 CFR Part 63 -- National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories.
The specific provisions of 40 CFR Part 63 incorporated by
reference are found in Article 2 (9VAC5-60-90 et seq.) of Part II of 9VAC5-60
(Hazardous Air Pollutant Sources).
(9) 40 CFR Part 64 -- Compliance Assurance Monitoring.
(10) 40 CFR Part 72 -- Permits Regulation.
(11) 40 CFR Part 73 -- Sulfur Dioxide Allowance System.
(12) 40 CFR Part 74 -- Sulfur Dioxide Opt-Ins.
(13) 40 CFR Part 75 -- Continuous Emission Monitoring.
(14) 40 CFR Part 76 -- Acid Rain Nitrogen Oxides Emission
Reduction Program.
(15) 40 CFR Part 77 -- Excess Emissions.
(16) 40 CFR Part 78 -- Appeal Procedures for Acid Rain
Program.
(17) 40 CFR Part 152 Subpart I -- Classification of
Pesticides.
(18) 49 CFR Part 172 -- Hazardous Materials Table. Special
Provisions, Hazardous Materials Communications, Emergency Response Information,
and Training Requirements, Subpart E, Labeling.
(19) 29 CFR Part 1926 Subpart F -- Fire Protection and
Prevention.
b. Copies may be obtained from Superintendent of Documents,
P.O. Box 371954, Pittsburgh, PA 15250-7954; telephone (202) 783-3238.
2. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
a. The following documents from the U.S. Environmental
Protection Agency are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Reich Test, Atmospheric Emissions from Sulfuric Acid
Manufacturing Processes, Public Health Service Publication No. PB82250721,
1980.
(2) Compilation of Air Pollutant Emission Factors (AP-42).
Volume I: Stationary and Area Sources, stock number 055-000-00500-1, 1995;
Supplement A, stock number 055-000-00551-6, 1996; Supplement B, stock number
055-000-00565, 1997; Supplement C, stock number 055-000-00587-7, 1997;
Supplement D, 1998; Supplement E, 1999.
(3) "Guidelines for Determining Capture Efficiency"
(GD-35), Emissions Monitoring and Analysis Division, Office of Air Quality
Planning and Standards, January 9, 1995.
b. Copies of the document identified in subdivision E 2 a (1)
of this section, and Volume I and Supplements A through C of the document
identified in subdivision E 2 a (2) of this section, may be obtained from U.S.
Department of Commerce, National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal
Road, Springfield, VA 22161; telephone 1-800-553-6847. Copies
of Supplements D and E of the document identified in subdivision E 2 a (2) of
this section may be obtained online from EPA's Technology Transfer Network at
http://www.epa.gov/ttn/index.html. Copies of the document identified in
subdivision E 2 a (3) of this section are only available online from EPA's
Technology Transfer Network at http://www.epa.gov/ttn/emc/guidlnd.html.
3. United States government.
a. The following document from the United States government is
incorporated herein by reference: Standard Industrial Classification Manual,
1987 (U.S. Government Printing Office stock number 041-001-00-314-2).
b. Copies may be obtained from Superintendent of Documents,
P.O. Box 371954, Pittsburgh, PA 15250-7954; telephone (202) 512-1800.
4. American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM).
a. The documents specified below from the American Society for
Testing and Materials are incorporated herein by reference.
(1) D323-99a, "Standard Test Method for Vapor
Pressure of Petroleum Products (Reid Method)."
(2) D97-96a, "Standard Test Method for Pour Point
of Petroleum Products."
(3) D129-00, "Standard Test Method for Sulfur in
Petroleum Products (General Bomb Method)."
(4) D388-99, "Standard Classification of Coals by
Rank."
(5) D396-98, "Standard Specification for Fuel
Oils."
(6) D975-98b, "Standard Specification for Diesel
Fuel Oils."
(7) D1072-90(1999), "Standard Test Method for Total
Sulfur in Fuel Gases."
(8) D1265-97, "Standard Practice for Sampling
Liquefied Petroleum (LP) Gases (Manual Method)."
(9) D2622-98, "Standard Test Method for Sulfur in
Petroleum Products by Wavelength Dispersive X-Ray Fluorescence
Spectrometry."
(10) D4057-95(2000), "Standard Practice for Manual
Sampling of Petroleum and Petroleum Products."
(11) D4294-98, "Standard Test Method for Sulfur in
Petroleum and Petroleum Products by Energy-Dispersive X-Ray Fluorescence
Spectroscopy."
(12) D523-89, "Standard Test Method for Specular
Gloss" (1999).
(13) D1613-02, "Standard Test Method for Acidity in
Volatile Solvents and Chemical Intermediates Used in Paint, Varnish, Lacquer
and Related Products" (2002).
(14) D1640-95, "Standard Test Methods for Drying,
Curing, or Film Formation of Organic Coatings at Room Temperature" (1999).
(15) E119-00a, "Standard Test Methods for Fire
Tests of Building Construction Materials" (2000).
(16) E84-01, "Standard Test Method for Surface
Burning Characteristics of Building Construction Materials" (2001).
(17) D4214-98, "Standard Test Methods for
Evaluating the Degree of Chalking of Exterior Paint Films" (1998).
(18) D86-04b, "Standard Test Method for
Distillation of Petroleum Products at Atmospheric Pressure" (2004).
(19) D4359-90, "Standard Test Method for
Determining Whether a Material is a Liquid or a Solid" (reapproved 2000).
(20) E260-96, "Standard Practice for Packed Column
Gas Chromatography" (reapproved 2001).
(21) D3912-95, "Standard Test Method for Chemical
Resistance of Coatings Used in Light-Water Nuclear Power Plants"
(reapproved 2001).
(22) D4082-02, "Standard Test Method for Effects of
Gamma Radiation on Coatings for Use in Light-Water Nuclear Power Plants."
(23) F852-99, "Standard Specification for Portable
Gasoline Containers for Consumer Use" (reapproved 2006).
(24) F976-02, "Standard Specification for Portable
Kerosine and Diesel Containers for Consumer Use."
(25) D4457-02, "Standard Test Method for
Determination of Dichloromethane and 1,1,1-Trichloroethane in Paints and
Coatings by Direct Injection into a Gas Chromatograph" (reapproved 2008).
(26) D3792-05, "Standard Test Method for Water
Content of Coatings by Direct Injection Into a Gas Chromatograph."
(27) D2879-97, "Standard Test Method for Vapor
Pressure-Temperature Relationship and Initial Decomposition Temperature of
Liquids by Isoteniscope" (reapproved 2007).
b. Copies may be obtained from American Society for Testing
Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; telephone
(610) 832-9585.
5. American Petroleum Institute (API).
a. The following document from the American Petroleum
Institute is incorporated herein by reference: Evaporative Loss from Floating
Roof Tanks, API MPMS Chapter 19, April 1, 1997.
b. Copies may be obtained from American Petroleum Institute,
1220 L Street, Northwest, Washington, DC 20005; telephone (202) 682-8000.
6. American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists
(ACGIH).
a. The following document from the ACGIH is incorporated
herein by reference: 1991-1992 Threshold Limit Values for Chemical Substances
and Physical Agents and Biological Exposure Indices (ACGIH Handbook).
b. Copies may be obtained from ACGIH, 1330 Kemper Meadow
Drive, Suite 600, Cincinnati, OH 45240; telephone (513) 742-2020.
7. National Fire Prevention Association (NFPA).
a. The documents specified below from the National Fire
Prevention Association are incorporated herein by reference.
(1) NFPA 385, Standard for Tank Vehicles for Flammable and
Combustible Liquids, 2000 Edition.
(2) NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code, 2000
Edition.
(3) NFPA 30A, Code for Motor Fuel Dispensing Facilities and
Repair Garages, 2000 Edition.
b. Copies may be obtained from the National Fire Prevention
Association, One Batterymarch Park, P.O. Box 9101, Quincy, MA 02269-9101;
telephone (617) 770-3000.
8. American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME).
a. The documents specified below from the American Society of
Mechanical Engineers are incorporated herein by reference.
(1) ASME Power Test Codes: Test Code for Steam Generating
Units, Power Test Code 4.1-1964 (R1991).
(2) ASME Interim Supplement 19.5 on Instruments and Apparatus:
Application, Part II of Fluid Meters, 6th edition (1971).
(3) Standard for the Qualification and Certification of
Resource Recovery Facility Operators, ASME QRO-1-1994.
b. Copies may be obtained from the American Society of
Mechanical Engineers, Three Park Avenue, New York, NY 10016; telephone (800)
843-2763.
9. American Hospital Association (AHA).
a. The following document from the American Hospital
Association is incorporated herein by reference: An Ounce of Prevention: Waste
Reduction Strategies for Health Care Facilities, AHA Catalog no. W5-057007,
1993.
b. Copies may be obtained from American Hospital Association,
One North Franklin, Chicago, IL 60606; telephone (800) 242-2626.
10. Bay Area Air Quality Management District (BAAQMD).
a. The following documents from the Bay Area Air Quality
Management District are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Method 41, "Determination of Volatile Organic
Compounds in Solvent-Based Coatings and Related Materials Containing
Parachlorobenzotrifluoride" (December 20, 1995).
(2) Method 43, "Determination of Volatile Methylsiloxanes
in Solvent-Based Coatings, Inks, and Related Materials" (November 6,
1996).
b. Copies may be obtained from Bay Area Air Quality Management
District, 939 Ellis Street, San Francisco, CA 94109, telephone (415) 771-6000.
11. South Coast Air Quality Management District (SCAQMD).
a. The following documents from the South Coast Air Quality
Management District are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Method 303-91, "Determination of Exempt
Compounds," in Manual SSMLLABM, "Laboratory Methods of Analysis for
Enforcement Samples" (1996).
(2) Method 318-95, "Determination of Weight Percent
Elemental Metal in Coatings by X-Ray Diffraction," in Manual SSMLLABM,
"Laboratory Methods of Analysis for Enforcement Samples" (1996).
(3) Rule 1174 Ignition Method Compliance Certification
Protocol (February 28, 1991).
(4) Method 304-91, "Determination of Volatile
Organic Compounds (VOC) in Various Materials," in Manual SSMLLABM,
"Laboratory Methods of Analysis for Enforcement Samples" (1996).
(5) Method 316A-92, "Determination of Volatile
Organic Compounds (VOC) in Materials Used for Pipes and Fittings" in
Manual SSMLLABM, "Laboratory Methods of Analysis for Enforcement
Samples" (1996).
(6) "General Test Method for Determining Solvent Losses
from Spray Gun Cleaning Systems," October 3, 1989.
b. Copies may be obtained from South Coast Air Quality
Management District, 21865 E. Copley Drive, Diamond Bar, CA 91765, telephone
(909) 396-2000.
12. California Air Resources Board (CARB).
a. The following documents from the California Air Resources
Board are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Test Method 510, "Automatic Shut-Off Test Procedure
for Spill-Proof Systems and Spill-Proof Spouts" (July 6, 2000).
(2) Test Method 511, "Automatic Closure Test Procedure
for Spill-Proof Systems and Spill-Proof Spouts" (July 6, 2000).
(3) Method 100, "Procedures for Continuous Gaseous
Emission Stack Sampling" (July 28, 1997).
(4) Test Method 513, "Determination of Permeation Rate
for Spill-Proof Systems" (July 6, 2000).
(5) Method 310, "Determination of Volatile Organic
Compounds (VOC) in Consumer Products and Reactive Organic Compounds in Aerosol
Coating Products (Including Appendices A and B)" (May 5, 2005).
(6) California Code of Regulations, Title 17, Division 3,
Chapter 1, Subchapter 8.5, Article 1, § 94503.5 (2003).
(7) California Code of Regulations, Title 17, Division 3,
Chapter 1, Subchapter 8.5, Article 2, §§ 94509 and 94511 (2003).
(8) California Code of Regulations, Title 17, Division 3,
Chapter 1, Subchapter 8.5, Article 4, §§ 94540-94555 (2003).
(9) "Certification Procedure 501 for Portable Fuel
Containers and Spill-Proof Spouts, CP-501" (July 26, 2006).
(10) "Test Procedure for Determining Integrity of
Spill-Proof Spouts and Spill-Proof Systems, TP-501" (July 26, 2006).
(11) "Test Procedure for Determining Diurnal Emissions
from Portable Fuel Containers, TP-502" (July 26, 2006).
b. Copies may be obtained from California Air Resources Board,
P.O. Box 2815, Sacramento, CA 95812, telephone (906) 322-3260 or (906)
322-2990.
13. American Architectural Manufacturers Association.
a. The following documents from the American Architectural
Manufacturers Association are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Voluntary Specification 2604-02, "Performance
Requirements and Test Procedures for High Performance Organic Coatings on
Aluminum Extrusions and Panels" (2002).
(2) Voluntary Specification 2605-02, "Performance
Requirements and Test Procedures for Superior Performing Organic Coatings on
Aluminum Extrusions and Panels" (2002).
b. Copies may be obtained from American Architectural
Manufacturers Association, 1827 Walden Office Square, Suite 550, Schaumburg, IL
60173, telephone (847) 303-5664.
14. American Furniture Manufacturers Association.
a. The following document from the American Furniture
Manufacturers Association is incorporated herein by reference: Joint Industry
Fabrics Standards Committee, Woven and Knit Residential Upholstery Fabric
Standards and Guidelines (January 2001).
b. Copies may be obtained from American Furniture
Manufacturers Association, P.O. Box HP-7, High Point, NC 27261; telephone (336)
884-5000.
15. Petroleum Equipment Institute.
a. The following document from the Petroleum Equipment
Institute is incorporated herein by reference: Recommended Practices for
Installation and Testing of Vapor-Recovery Systems at Vehicle-Fueling Sites,
PEI/RP300-09 (2009).
b. Copies may be obtained from Petroleum Equipment Institute,
6931 S. 66th E. Avenue, Suite 310, Tulsa, OK 74133; telephone (918) 494-9696;
www.pei.org.
16. American Architectural Manufacturers Association (AAMA).
a. The following documents from the American Architectural
Manufacturers Association are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Voluntary Specification, Performance Requirements and Test
Procedures for High Performance Organic Coatings on Aluminum Extrusions and
Panels, publication number AAMA 2604-05.
(2) Voluntary Specification, Performance Requirements and Test
Procedures for Superior Performing Organic Coatings on Aluminum Extrusions and
Panels, publication number AAMA 2605-05.
b. Copies may be obtained from American Architectural
Manufacturers Association, 1827 Walden Office Square, Suite 550, Schaumburg, IL
60173-4268; telephone (847) 303-5774.
Article 43
Emission Standards for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills (Rule 4-43)
9VAC5-40-5800. Applicability and designation of affected
facility.
A. The affected facility to which the provisions of this
article apply is each municipal solid waste (MSW) landfill which commenced
construction, reconstruction, or modification before May 30, 1991.
B. The provisions of this article apply throughout the
Commonwealth of Virginia.
C. For purposes of obtaining a federal operating permit, the
owner of an MSW landfill subject to this article with a design capacity less
than 2.5 million megagrams or 2.5 million cubic meters is not subject to the
requirement to obtain a federal operating permit for the landfill, unless the
landfill is otherwise subject to federal operating permit requirements. For
purposes of submitting a timely application for a federal operating permit, the
owner of an MSW landfill subject to this article with a design capacity greater
than or equal to 2.5 million megagrams and 2.5 million cubic meters on the
effective date of EPA approval of the board's program under § 111(d) of the
federal Clean Air Act, and otherwise not subject to federal operating permit
requirements, shall submit an operating permit application as provided in
9VAC5-80-80 C, even if the design capacity report is submitted earlier.
D. When an MSW landfill subject to this article becomes
closed, the owner is no longer subject to the requirement to maintain a federal
operating permit for the landfill if the landfill is not otherwise subject to
federal operating permit requirements and if either of the following conditions
is met:
1. The landfill was never subject to the requirement for a
control system under 9VAC5-40-5820 C 2; or
2. The owner meets the conditions for control system removal
specified in 9VAC5-40-5820 C 2 e.
E. Activities required by or conducted pursuant to a CERCLA,
RCRA, or board remedial action are not considered construction, reconstruction,
or modification for the purposes of this article.
F. Each affected facility with a design capacity greater
than 2.5 million megagrams or 2.5 million cubic meters shall demonstrate
compliance with this article by demonstrating compliance with the provisions of
Article 43.1 (9VAC5-40-5925 et seq.) of this chapter.
Article 43.1
Emission Standards for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills for which Construction,
Reconstruction, or Modification was Commenced on or before July 17, 2014 (Rule
4-43.1)
9VAC5-40-5925. Applicability and designation of affected
facility.
A. The affected facility to which the provisions of this
article apply is each existing municipal solid waste (MSW) landfill for which
construction, reconstruction, or modification was commenced on or before July
17, 2014, and as further defined in Subpart Cf (40 CFR 60.30f et seq.) of 40
CFR Part 60.
B. The provisions of this article apply throughout the
Commonwealth of Virginia.
C. The owner of an MSW landfill shall obtain a federal
operating permit as required by 40 CFR 60.31f(c). When an MSW landfill is
closed, the owner is no longer subject to the requirement to maintain a federal
operating permit if the conditions of 40 CFR 60.31f(d) are met.
D. For each MSW landfill in the closed landfill subcategory,
the reporting provisions of 9VAC5-40-5975 may be met as provided in 40 CFR
60.31f(e).
9VAC5-40-5930. Definitions.
A. For the purpose of applying this article in the context
of the Regulations for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution and related uses,
the words or terms shall have the meanings given them in subsection C of this
section.
B. As used in this article, all terms not defined herein
shall have the meanings given them in 9VAC5-10 (General Definitions), unless
otherwise required by context.
C. Terms shall have the meanings given them in 40 CFR
60.41f, except for the following:
"Administrator" means the board.
9VAC5-40-5935. Emission limits and emission standards.
A. The owner of each MSW landfill having a design capacity
greater than or equal to 2.5 million megagrams by mass and 2.5 million cubic
meters by volume that meets the conditions of 40 CFR 60.33f(a)(1) through (4)
shall collect and control MSW landfill emissions in accordance with the
provisions of 40 CFR 60.33f(b)(1) through (3), and 40 CFR 60.33f(c)(1) through
(4) except as provided in 40 CFR 60.24.
B. The owner of each MSW landfill with a design capacity
less than 2.5 million megagrams and 2.5 million cubic meters shall submit an
initial design capacity report to the administrator as provided in 40 CFR
60.38f(a).The landfill may calculate design capacity in either megagrams or
cubic meters for comparison with the exemption values. Any density conversions shall
be documented and submitted with the report. Submittal of the initial design
capacity report fulfills the requirements of this article except as provided in
40 CFR 60.33f(d)(1) and (2).
C. The owner of each MSW landfill with a design capacity
greater than 2.5 million megagrams and 2.5 million cubic meters shall either
install a collection and control system as provided in subsection A of this
section or calculate an initial NMOC emission rate for the landfill using the
procedures specified in 40 CFR 60.35f(a). The NMOC emission rate shall be
recalculated annually, except as provided in 40 CFR 60.38f(c)(3). The owner
shall follow the procedures specified in 40 CFR 60.33f(e)(1) through (3).
D. The owner of each MSW landfill may cap, remove, or
decommission the collection and control system used to comply with subsection A
of this section if the criteria of 40 CFR 60.33f(f)(1) through (4) are met.
E. An active collection system used to comply with
subsection A of this section shall meet the specifications for active
collection system of 40 CFR 60.40f(a) through (c).
9VAC5-40-5940. Standard for visible emissions and fugitive
dust/emissions.
The provisions of Article 1 (9VAC5-40-60 et seq.) of
9VAC5-40 (Emission Standards for Visible Emissions and Fugitive Dust/Emissions,
Rule 4-1) apply, with the exception of 9VAC5-40-80 (Standard for visible
emissions), 9VAC5-40-100 (Monitoring), 9VAC5-40-110 (Test methods and
procedures), and 9VAC5-40-120 (Waivers).
9VAC5-40-5945. Standard for odor.
The provisions of Article 2 (9VAC5-40-130 et seq.) of
9VAC5-40 (Emission Standards for Odor, Rule 4-2) apply.
9VAC5-40-5950. Compliance schedule.
The provisions of 40 CFR 60.32f apply.
9VAC5-40-5955. Operating requirements.
The owner of an MSW landfill with a gas collection and control
system used to comply with the provisions of 40 CFR 60.33f(b) and (c) shall
meet the requirements of 40 CFR 60.34f(a) through (g).
9VAC5-40-5960. Compliance.
A. With regard to the emissions limits in 9VAC5-40-5940
and 9VAC5-40-5945, the provisions of 9VAC5-40-20 (Compliance) apply.
B. With regard to the emission limits in 9VAC5-40-5935 and
9VAC5-40-5955, the following provisions apply:
1. 9VAC5-40-20 B, C, D, and E;
2. To the extent specified in the federal regulations cited
in subdivision 3 of this subsection, 40 CFR 60.7, 40 CFR 60.8, 40 CFR 60.11,
and 40 CFR 60.13; and
3. 40 CFR 60.32f and 40 CFR 60.36f(a) through (e).
9VAC5-40-5965. Test methods and procedures, monitoring of
operations.
A. With regard to the emissions standards in 9VAC5-40-5940
and 9VAC5-40-5945, the provisions of 9VAC5-40-30 (Emission testing) and
9VAC5-40-40 (Monitoring) apply.
B. With regard to the emission limits in 9VAC5-40-5935 and
9VAC5-40-5955, the following provisions apply:
1. 9VAC5-40-30 D and G;
2. 9VAC5-40-40 A and F;
3. 40 CFR 60.8(b) through (f), with the exception of
paragraph (a);
4. 40 CFR 60.13; and
5. 40 CFR 60.35f(a) through (e), and 40 CFR 60.37f(a)
through (h), except as provided in 40 CFR 60.38f(d)(2).
9VAC5-40-5970. Reporting and recordkeeping.
A. With regard to the emissions standards in 9VAC5-40-5940
and 9VAC5-40-5945, the provisions of 9VAC5-40-50 (Notification, records and
reporting) apply.
B. With regard to the emission limits in 9VAC5-40-5935 and
9VAC5-40-5955, the following provisions apply:
1. 9VAC5-40-50 F and H;
2. 40 CFR 60.7; and
3. 40 CFR 60.38f(a) through (m) except as provided in 40
CFR 60.24 and 40 CFR 60.38f(d)(2), and 40 CFR 60.39f(a) through (j).
9VAC5-40-5975. Registration.
The provisions of 9VAC5-20-160 (Registration) apply.
9VAC5-40-5980. Facility and control equipment maintenance or
malfunction.
A. With regard to the emissions standards in 9VAC5-40-5940
and 9VAC5-40-5945, the provisions of 9VAC5-20-180 (Facility and control
equipment maintenance or malfunction) apply.
B. With regard to the emission limits in 9VAC5-40-5935 and
9VAC5-40-5955, the following provisions apply:
1. 9VAC5-20-180 with the exception of subsections E, F, and
G; and
2. 40 CFR 60.36f(e) and 40 CFR 60.37f(h).
9VAC5-40-5985. Other permits.
A permit may be required prior to beginning any of the
activities specified below if the provisions of 9VAC5-50 (New and Modified
Stationary Sources) and 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) apply. Owners
contemplating such action should review those provisions and contact the
appropriate regional office for guidance on whether those provisions apply.
1. Construction of a facility.
2. Reconstruction (replacement of more than half) of a
facility.
3. Modification (any physical change to equipment) of a
facility.
4. Relocation of a facility.
5. Reactivation (re-startup) of a facility.
6. Operation of a facility.
9VAC5-40-5990. Documents incorporated by reference.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency regulations
promulgated at Subpart Cf (40 CFR 60.30f et seq., Emission Guidelines and
Compliance Times for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills) of 40 CFR Part 60 are
incorporated by reference into this article. The specific version of the
provisions incorporated by reference shall be that contained in the CFR in
effect as specified in 9VAC5-20-21.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4894; Filed December 16, 2016, 10:51 a.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE AIR POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
following regulatory action is exempt from Article 2 of the Administrative
Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code of Virginia,
which excludes regulations that are necessary to meet the requirements of
federal law or regulations, provided such regulations do not differ materially
from those required by federal law or regulation. The State Air Pollution
Control Board will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any
interested person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
Titles of Regulations: 9VAC5-20. General Provisions
(Rev. H16) (amending 9VAC5-20-21).
9VAC5-40. Existing Stationary Sources (Rev. H16) (amending 9VAC5-40-5800; adding 9VAC5-40-5925
through 9VAC5-40-5990).
Statutory Authority:
9VAC5-20: § 10.1-1308 of the Code of Virginia; §§ 108,
109, and 302 of the federal Clean Air Act; 40 CFR Parts 50, 53, and 58.
9VAC5-40: § 10.1-1308 of the Code of Virginia; §§ 110,
111, 123, 129, 171, 172, and 182 of the federal Clean Air Act; 40 CFR Parts 51
and 60.
Effective Date: February 22, 2017.
Agency Contact: Karen G. Sabasteanski, Department of
Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,
telephone (804) 698-4426, FAX (804) 698-4510, or email
karen.sabasteanski@deq.virginia.gov.
Summary:
Currently, air pollution from landfills is regulated in
Virginia under Article 43, Emission Standards for Municipal Solid Waste
Landfills (9VAC5-40-5800 et seq.). Article 43 was originally designed to
control two separate pollutants: (i) ozone in the Northern Virginia ozone
nonattainment area as required by § 110 of the Clean Air Act and implemented by
40 CFR Part 51 and (ii) nonmethane organic compounds as required by § 111
of the federal Clean Air Act and implemented by Subpart Cc of 40 CFR Part 60,
which is applicable statewide. On August 29, 2016 (81 FR 59276), the U.S.
Environmental Protection Agency promulgated new emissions guidelines for
municipal solid waste landfills as Subpart Cf of 40 CFR Part 60. The amendments
were made to reduce emissions of landfill gas, which contains both nonmethane
organic compounds and methane. To adopt the requirements of Subpart Cf while
maintaining the state-only requirements specific to the Northern Virginia ozone
nonattainment area, a new Article 43.1 is being promulgated. This action will
enable the adoption of the new statewide standards without affecting the more
restrictive requirements of Article 43 applicable to the nonattainment area.
9VAC5-20-21. Documents incorporated by reference.
A. The Administrative Process Act and Virginia Register Act
provide that state regulations may incorporate documents by reference.
Throughout these regulations, documents of the types specified below have been
incorporated by reference.
1. United States Code.
2. Code of Virginia.
3. Code of Federal Regulations.
4. Federal Register.
5. Technical and scientific reference documents.
Additional information on key federal regulations and
nonstatutory documents incorporated by reference and their availability may be
found in subsection E of this section.
B. Any reference in these regulations to any provision of the
Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) shall be considered as the adoption by
reference of that provision. The specific version of the provision adopted by
reference shall be that contained in the CFR (2016) in effect July 1, 2016. For
the purposes of Article 43.1 (9VAC5-40-5925 et seq.) of 9VAC5-40 (Existing
Stationary Sources), the EPA regulations promulgated at Subpart Cf (40 CFR
60.30f et seq., Emission Guidelines and Compliance Times for Municipal Solid
Waste Landfills) of 40 CFR Part 60, as published in the Federal Register of
August 29, 2016 (81 FR 59276) and effective on October 28, 2016, is the version
incorporated by reference into this article and Article 43.1. In making
reference to the Code of Federal Regulations, 40 CFR Part 35 means Part 35 of
Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations; 40 CFR 35.20 means § 35.20 in
Part 35 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
C. Failure to include in this section any document referenced
in the regulations shall not invalidate the applicability of the referenced
document.
D. Copies of materials incorporated by reference in this
section may be examined by the public at the central office of the Department
of Environmental Quality, Eighth Floor, 629 East Main Street, Richmond,
Virginia, between 8:30 a.m. and 4:30 p.m. of each business day.
E. Information on federal regulations and nonstatutory
documents incorporated by reference and their availability may be found below
in this subsection.
1. Code of Federal Regulations.
a. The provisions specified below from the Code of Federal
Regulations (CFR) are incorporated herein by reference.
(1) 40 CFR Part 50 -- National Primary and Secondary Ambient
Air Quality Standards.
(a) Appendix A-1 -- Reference Measurement Principle and
Calibration Procedure for the Measurement of Sulfur Dioxide in the Atmosphere
(Ultraviolet Fluorescence Method).
(b) Appendix A-2 -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Sulfur Dioxide in the Atmosphere (Pararosaniline Method).
(c) Appendix B -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Suspended Particulate Matter in the Atmosphere (High-Volume Method).
(d) Appendix C -- Measurement Principle and Calibration
Procedure for the Continuous Measurement of Carbon Monoxide in the Atmosphere
(Non-Dispersive Infrared Photometry).
(e) Appendix D -- Measurement Principle and Calibration
Procedure for the Measurement of Ozone in the Atmosphere.
(f) Appendix E -- Reserved.
(g) Appendix F -- Measurement Principle and Calibration
Procedure for the Measurement of Nitrogen Dioxide in the Atmosphere (Gas Phase
Chemiluminescence).
(h) Appendix G -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Lead in Suspended Particulate Matter Collected from Ambient Air.
(i) Appendix H -- Interpretation of the National Ambient Air Quality
Standards for Ozone.
(j) Appendix I -- Interpretation of the 8-Hour Primary and
Secondary National Ambient Air Quality Standards for Ozone.
(k) Appendix J -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Particulate Matter as PM10 in the Atmosphere.
(l) Appendix K -- Interpretation of the National Ambient Air
Quality Standards for Particulate Matter.
(m) Appendix L -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Fine Particulate Matter as PM2.5 in the Atmosphere.
(n) Appendix M -- Reserved.
(o) Appendix N -- Interpretation of the National Ambient Air
Quality Standards for PM2.5.
(p) Appendix O -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Coarse Particulate Matter as PM in the Atmosphere.
(q) Appendix P -- Interpretation of the Primary and Secondary
National Ambient Air Quality Standards for Ozone.
(r) Appendix Q -- Reference Method for the Determination of
Lead in Suspended Particulate Matter as PM10 Collected from Ambient
Air.
(s) Appendix R -- Interpretation of the National Ambient Air
Quality Standards for Lead.
(t) Appendix S -- Interpretation of the Primary National
Ambient Air Quality Standards for Oxides of Nitrogen (Nitrogen Dioxide).
(u) Appendix T -- Interpretation of the Primary National
Ambient Air Quality Standards for Oxides of Sulfur (Sulfur Dioxide).
(v) Appendix U -- Interpretation of the Primary and Secondary
National Ambient Air Quality Standards for Ozone.
(2) 40 CFR Part 51 -- Requirements for Preparation, Adoption,
and Submittal of Implementation Plans.
(a) Appendix M -- Recommended Test Methods for State
Implementation Plans.
(b) Appendix S -- Emission Offset Interpretive Ruling.
(c) Appendix W -- Guideline on Air Quality Models (Revised).
(d) Appendix Y -- Guidelines for BART Determinations Under the
Regional Haze Rule.
(3) 40 CFR Part 55 -- Outer Continental Shelf Air Regulations.
(4) 40 CFR Part 58 -- Ambient Air Quality Surveillance.
Appendix A -- Quality Assurance Requirements for SLAMS, SPMs
and PSD Air Monitoring.
(5) 40 CFR Part 59 -- National Volatile Organic Compound
Emission Standards for Consumer and Commercial Products.
(a) Subpart C -- National Volatile Organic Compound Emission
Standards for Consumer Products.
(b) Subpart D -- National Volatile Organic Compound Emission
Standards for Architectural Coatings, Appendix A -- Determination of Volatile
Matter Content of Methacrylate Multicomponent Coatings Used as Traffic Marking
Coatings.
(6) 40 CFR Part 60 -- Standards of Performance for New
Stationary Sources.
The specific provisions of 40 CFR Part 60 incorporated by
reference are found in Article 5 (9VAC5-50-400 et seq.) of Part II of 9VAC5-50
(New and Modified Stationary Sources).
(7) 40 CFR Part 61 -- National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants.
The specific provisions of 40 CFR Part 61 incorporated by
reference are found in Article 1 (9VAC5-60-60 et seq.) of Part II of 9VAC5-60
(Hazardous Air Pollutant Sources).
(8) 40 CFR Part 63 -- National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories.
The specific provisions of 40 CFR Part 63 incorporated by
reference are found in Article 2 (9VAC5-60-90 et seq.) of Part II of 9VAC5-60
(Hazardous Air Pollutant Sources).
(9) 40 CFR Part 64 -- Compliance Assurance Monitoring.
(10) 40 CFR Part 72 -- Permits Regulation.
(11) 40 CFR Part 73 -- Sulfur Dioxide Allowance System.
(12) 40 CFR Part 74 -- Sulfur Dioxide Opt-Ins.
(13) 40 CFR Part 75 -- Continuous Emission Monitoring.
(14) 40 CFR Part 76 -- Acid Rain Nitrogen Oxides Emission
Reduction Program.
(15) 40 CFR Part 77 -- Excess Emissions.
(16) 40 CFR Part 78 -- Appeal Procedures for Acid Rain
Program.
(17) 40 CFR Part 152 Subpart I -- Classification of
Pesticides.
(18) 49 CFR Part 172 -- Hazardous Materials Table. Special
Provisions, Hazardous Materials Communications, Emergency Response Information,
and Training Requirements, Subpart E, Labeling.
(19) 29 CFR Part 1926 Subpart F -- Fire Protection and
Prevention.
b. Copies may be obtained from Superintendent of Documents,
P.O. Box 371954, Pittsburgh, PA 15250-7954; telephone (202) 783-3238.
2. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
a. The following documents from the U.S. Environmental
Protection Agency are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Reich Test, Atmospheric Emissions from Sulfuric Acid
Manufacturing Processes, Public Health Service Publication No. PB82250721,
1980.
(2) Compilation of Air Pollutant Emission Factors (AP-42).
Volume I: Stationary and Area Sources, stock number 055-000-00500-1, 1995;
Supplement A, stock number 055-000-00551-6, 1996; Supplement B, stock number
055-000-00565, 1997; Supplement C, stock number 055-000-00587-7, 1997;
Supplement D, 1998; Supplement E, 1999.
(3) "Guidelines for Determining Capture Efficiency"
(GD-35), Emissions Monitoring and Analysis Division, Office of Air Quality
Planning and Standards, January 9, 1995.
b. Copies of the document identified in subdivision E 2 a (1)
of this section, and Volume I and Supplements A through C of the document
identified in subdivision E 2 a (2) of this section, may be obtained from U.S.
Department of Commerce, National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal
Road, Springfield, VA 22161; telephone 1-800-553-6847. Copies
of Supplements D and E of the document identified in subdivision E 2 a (2) of
this section may be obtained online from EPA's Technology Transfer Network at
http://www.epa.gov/ttn/index.html. Copies of the document identified in
subdivision E 2 a (3) of this section are only available online from EPA's
Technology Transfer Network at http://www.epa.gov/ttn/emc/guidlnd.html.
3. United States government.
a. The following document from the United States government is
incorporated herein by reference: Standard Industrial Classification Manual,
1987 (U.S. Government Printing Office stock number 041-001-00-314-2).
b. Copies may be obtained from Superintendent of Documents,
P.O. Box 371954, Pittsburgh, PA 15250-7954; telephone (202) 512-1800.
4. American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM).
a. The documents specified below from the American Society for
Testing and Materials are incorporated herein by reference.
(1) D323-99a, "Standard Test Method for Vapor
Pressure of Petroleum Products (Reid Method)."
(2) D97-96a, "Standard Test Method for Pour Point
of Petroleum Products."
(3) D129-00, "Standard Test Method for Sulfur in
Petroleum Products (General Bomb Method)."
(4) D388-99, "Standard Classification of Coals by
Rank."
(5) D396-98, "Standard Specification for Fuel
Oils."
(6) D975-98b, "Standard Specification for Diesel
Fuel Oils."
(7) D1072-90(1999), "Standard Test Method for Total
Sulfur in Fuel Gases."
(8) D1265-97, "Standard Practice for Sampling
Liquefied Petroleum (LP) Gases (Manual Method)."
(9) D2622-98, "Standard Test Method for Sulfur in
Petroleum Products by Wavelength Dispersive X-Ray Fluorescence
Spectrometry."
(10) D4057-95(2000), "Standard Practice for Manual
Sampling of Petroleum and Petroleum Products."
(11) D4294-98, "Standard Test Method for Sulfur in
Petroleum and Petroleum Products by Energy-Dispersive X-Ray Fluorescence
Spectroscopy."
(12) D523-89, "Standard Test Method for Specular
Gloss" (1999).
(13) D1613-02, "Standard Test Method for Acidity in
Volatile Solvents and Chemical Intermediates Used in Paint, Varnish, Lacquer
and Related Products" (2002).
(14) D1640-95, "Standard Test Methods for Drying,
Curing, or Film Formation of Organic Coatings at Room Temperature" (1999).
(15) E119-00a, "Standard Test Methods for Fire
Tests of Building Construction Materials" (2000).
(16) E84-01, "Standard Test Method for Surface
Burning Characteristics of Building Construction Materials" (2001).
(17) D4214-98, "Standard Test Methods for
Evaluating the Degree of Chalking of Exterior Paint Films" (1998).
(18) D86-04b, "Standard Test Method for
Distillation of Petroleum Products at Atmospheric Pressure" (2004).
(19) D4359-90, "Standard Test Method for
Determining Whether a Material is a Liquid or a Solid" (reapproved 2000).
(20) E260-96, "Standard Practice for Packed Column
Gas Chromatography" (reapproved 2001).
(21) D3912-95, "Standard Test Method for Chemical
Resistance of Coatings Used in Light-Water Nuclear Power Plants"
(reapproved 2001).
(22) D4082-02, "Standard Test Method for Effects of
Gamma Radiation on Coatings for Use in Light-Water Nuclear Power Plants."
(23) F852-99, "Standard Specification for Portable
Gasoline Containers for Consumer Use" (reapproved 2006).
(24) F976-02, "Standard Specification for Portable
Kerosine and Diesel Containers for Consumer Use."
(25) D4457-02, "Standard Test Method for
Determination of Dichloromethane and 1,1,1-Trichloroethane in Paints and
Coatings by Direct Injection into a Gas Chromatograph" (reapproved 2008).
(26) D3792-05, "Standard Test Method for Water
Content of Coatings by Direct Injection Into a Gas Chromatograph."
(27) D2879-97, "Standard Test Method for Vapor
Pressure-Temperature Relationship and Initial Decomposition Temperature of
Liquids by Isoteniscope" (reapproved 2007).
b. Copies may be obtained from American Society for Testing
Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; telephone
(610) 832-9585.
5. American Petroleum Institute (API).
a. The following document from the American Petroleum
Institute is incorporated herein by reference: Evaporative Loss from Floating
Roof Tanks, API MPMS Chapter 19, April 1, 1997.
b. Copies may be obtained from American Petroleum Institute,
1220 L Street, Northwest, Washington, DC 20005; telephone (202) 682-8000.
6. American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists
(ACGIH).
a. The following document from the ACGIH is incorporated
herein by reference: 1991-1992 Threshold Limit Values for Chemical Substances
and Physical Agents and Biological Exposure Indices (ACGIH Handbook).
b. Copies may be obtained from ACGIH, 1330 Kemper Meadow
Drive, Suite 600, Cincinnati, OH 45240; telephone (513) 742-2020.
7. National Fire Prevention Association (NFPA).
a. The documents specified below from the National Fire
Prevention Association are incorporated herein by reference.
(1) NFPA 385, Standard for Tank Vehicles for Flammable and
Combustible Liquids, 2000 Edition.
(2) NFPA 30, Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code, 2000
Edition.
(3) NFPA 30A, Code for Motor Fuel Dispensing Facilities and
Repair Garages, 2000 Edition.
b. Copies may be obtained from the National Fire Prevention
Association, One Batterymarch Park, P.O. Box 9101, Quincy, MA 02269-9101;
telephone (617) 770-3000.
8. American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME).
a. The documents specified below from the American Society of
Mechanical Engineers are incorporated herein by reference.
(1) ASME Power Test Codes: Test Code for Steam Generating
Units, Power Test Code 4.1-1964 (R1991).
(2) ASME Interim Supplement 19.5 on Instruments and Apparatus:
Application, Part II of Fluid Meters, 6th edition (1971).
(3) Standard for the Qualification and Certification of
Resource Recovery Facility Operators, ASME QRO-1-1994.
b. Copies may be obtained from the American Society of
Mechanical Engineers, Three Park Avenue, New York, NY 10016; telephone (800)
843-2763.
9. American Hospital Association (AHA).
a. The following document from the American Hospital
Association is incorporated herein by reference: An Ounce of Prevention: Waste
Reduction Strategies for Health Care Facilities, AHA Catalog no. W5-057007,
1993.
b. Copies may be obtained from American Hospital Association,
One North Franklin, Chicago, IL 60606; telephone (800) 242-2626.
10. Bay Area Air Quality Management District (BAAQMD).
a. The following documents from the Bay Area Air Quality
Management District are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Method 41, "Determination of Volatile Organic
Compounds in Solvent-Based Coatings and Related Materials Containing
Parachlorobenzotrifluoride" (December 20, 1995).
(2) Method 43, "Determination of Volatile Methylsiloxanes
in Solvent-Based Coatings, Inks, and Related Materials" (November 6,
1996).
b. Copies may be obtained from Bay Area Air Quality Management
District, 939 Ellis Street, San Francisco, CA 94109, telephone (415) 771-6000.
11. South Coast Air Quality Management District (SCAQMD).
a. The following documents from the South Coast Air Quality
Management District are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Method 303-91, "Determination of Exempt
Compounds," in Manual SSMLLABM, "Laboratory Methods of Analysis for
Enforcement Samples" (1996).
(2) Method 318-95, "Determination of Weight Percent
Elemental Metal in Coatings by X-Ray Diffraction," in Manual SSMLLABM,
"Laboratory Methods of Analysis for Enforcement Samples" (1996).
(3) Rule 1174 Ignition Method Compliance Certification
Protocol (February 28, 1991).
(4) Method 304-91, "Determination of Volatile
Organic Compounds (VOC) in Various Materials," in Manual SSMLLABM,
"Laboratory Methods of Analysis for Enforcement Samples" (1996).
(5) Method 316A-92, "Determination of Volatile
Organic Compounds (VOC) in Materials Used for Pipes and Fittings" in
Manual SSMLLABM, "Laboratory Methods of Analysis for Enforcement
Samples" (1996).
(6) "General Test Method for Determining Solvent Losses
from Spray Gun Cleaning Systems," October 3, 1989.
b. Copies may be obtained from South Coast Air Quality
Management District, 21865 E. Copley Drive, Diamond Bar, CA 91765, telephone
(909) 396-2000.
12. California Air Resources Board (CARB).
a. The following documents from the California Air Resources
Board are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Test Method 510, "Automatic Shut-Off Test Procedure
for Spill-Proof Systems and Spill-Proof Spouts" (July 6, 2000).
(2) Test Method 511, "Automatic Closure Test Procedure
for Spill-Proof Systems and Spill-Proof Spouts" (July 6, 2000).
(3) Method 100, "Procedures for Continuous Gaseous
Emission Stack Sampling" (July 28, 1997).
(4) Test Method 513, "Determination of Permeation Rate
for Spill-Proof Systems" (July 6, 2000).
(5) Method 310, "Determination of Volatile Organic
Compounds (VOC) in Consumer Products and Reactive Organic Compounds in Aerosol
Coating Products (Including Appendices A and B)" (May 5, 2005).
(6) California Code of Regulations, Title 17, Division 3,
Chapter 1, Subchapter 8.5, Article 1, § 94503.5 (2003).
(7) California Code of Regulations, Title 17, Division 3,
Chapter 1, Subchapter 8.5, Article 2, §§ 94509 and 94511 (2003).
(8) California Code of Regulations, Title 17, Division 3,
Chapter 1, Subchapter 8.5, Article 4, §§ 94540-94555 (2003).
(9) "Certification Procedure 501 for Portable Fuel
Containers and Spill-Proof Spouts, CP-501" (July 26, 2006).
(10) "Test Procedure for Determining Integrity of
Spill-Proof Spouts and Spill-Proof Systems, TP-501" (July 26, 2006).
(11) "Test Procedure for Determining Diurnal Emissions
from Portable Fuel Containers, TP-502" (July 26, 2006).
b. Copies may be obtained from California Air Resources Board,
P.O. Box 2815, Sacramento, CA 95812, telephone (906) 322-3260 or (906)
322-2990.
13. American Architectural Manufacturers Association.
a. The following documents from the American Architectural
Manufacturers Association are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Voluntary Specification 2604-02, "Performance
Requirements and Test Procedures for High Performance Organic Coatings on
Aluminum Extrusions and Panels" (2002).
(2) Voluntary Specification 2605-02, "Performance
Requirements and Test Procedures for Superior Performing Organic Coatings on
Aluminum Extrusions and Panels" (2002).
b. Copies may be obtained from American Architectural
Manufacturers Association, 1827 Walden Office Square, Suite 550, Schaumburg, IL
60173, telephone (847) 303-5664.
14. American Furniture Manufacturers Association.
a. The following document from the American Furniture
Manufacturers Association is incorporated herein by reference: Joint Industry
Fabrics Standards Committee, Woven and Knit Residential Upholstery Fabric
Standards and Guidelines (January 2001).
b. Copies may be obtained from American Furniture
Manufacturers Association, P.O. Box HP-7, High Point, NC 27261; telephone (336)
884-5000.
15. Petroleum Equipment Institute.
a. The following document from the Petroleum Equipment
Institute is incorporated herein by reference: Recommended Practices for
Installation and Testing of Vapor-Recovery Systems at Vehicle-Fueling Sites,
PEI/RP300-09 (2009).
b. Copies may be obtained from Petroleum Equipment Institute,
6931 S. 66th E. Avenue, Suite 310, Tulsa, OK 74133; telephone (918) 494-9696;
www.pei.org.
16. American Architectural Manufacturers Association (AAMA).
a. The following documents from the American Architectural
Manufacturers Association are incorporated herein by reference:
(1) Voluntary Specification, Performance Requirements and Test
Procedures for High Performance Organic Coatings on Aluminum Extrusions and
Panels, publication number AAMA 2604-05.
(2) Voluntary Specification, Performance Requirements and Test
Procedures for Superior Performing Organic Coatings on Aluminum Extrusions and
Panels, publication number AAMA 2605-05.
b. Copies may be obtained from American Architectural
Manufacturers Association, 1827 Walden Office Square, Suite 550, Schaumburg, IL
60173-4268; telephone (847) 303-5774.
Article 43
Emission Standards for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills (Rule 4-43)
9VAC5-40-5800. Applicability and designation of affected
facility.
A. The affected facility to which the provisions of this
article apply is each municipal solid waste (MSW) landfill which commenced
construction, reconstruction, or modification before May 30, 1991.
B. The provisions of this article apply throughout the
Commonwealth of Virginia.
C. For purposes of obtaining a federal operating permit, the
owner of an MSW landfill subject to this article with a design capacity less
than 2.5 million megagrams or 2.5 million cubic meters is not subject to the
requirement to obtain a federal operating permit for the landfill, unless the
landfill is otherwise subject to federal operating permit requirements. For
purposes of submitting a timely application for a federal operating permit, the
owner of an MSW landfill subject to this article with a design capacity greater
than or equal to 2.5 million megagrams and 2.5 million cubic meters on the
effective date of EPA approval of the board's program under § 111(d) of the
federal Clean Air Act, and otherwise not subject to federal operating permit
requirements, shall submit an operating permit application as provided in
9VAC5-80-80 C, even if the design capacity report is submitted earlier.
D. When an MSW landfill subject to this article becomes
closed, the owner is no longer subject to the requirement to maintain a federal
operating permit for the landfill if the landfill is not otherwise subject to
federal operating permit requirements and if either of the following conditions
is met:
1. The landfill was never subject to the requirement for a
control system under 9VAC5-40-5820 C 2; or
2. The owner meets the conditions for control system removal
specified in 9VAC5-40-5820 C 2 e.
E. Activities required by or conducted pursuant to a CERCLA,
RCRA, or board remedial action are not considered construction, reconstruction,
or modification for the purposes of this article.
F. Each affected facility with a design capacity greater
than 2.5 million megagrams or 2.5 million cubic meters shall demonstrate
compliance with this article by demonstrating compliance with the provisions of
Article 43.1 (9VAC5-40-5925 et seq.) of this chapter.
Article 43.1
Emission Standards for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills for which Construction,
Reconstruction, or Modification was Commenced on or before July 17, 2014 (Rule
4-43.1)
9VAC5-40-5925. Applicability and designation of affected
facility.
A. The affected facility to which the provisions of this
article apply is each existing municipal solid waste (MSW) landfill for which
construction, reconstruction, or modification was commenced on or before July
17, 2014, and as further defined in Subpart Cf (40 CFR 60.30f et seq.) of 40
CFR Part 60.
B. The provisions of this article apply throughout the
Commonwealth of Virginia.
C. The owner of an MSW landfill shall obtain a federal
operating permit as required by 40 CFR 60.31f(c). When an MSW landfill is
closed, the owner is no longer subject to the requirement to maintain a federal
operating permit if the conditions of 40 CFR 60.31f(d) are met.
D. For each MSW landfill in the closed landfill subcategory,
the reporting provisions of 9VAC5-40-5975 may be met as provided in 40 CFR
60.31f(e).
9VAC5-40-5930. Definitions.
A. For the purpose of applying this article in the context
of the Regulations for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution and related uses,
the words or terms shall have the meanings given them in subsection C of this
section.
B. As used in this article, all terms not defined herein
shall have the meanings given them in 9VAC5-10 (General Definitions), unless
otherwise required by context.
C. Terms shall have the meanings given them in 40 CFR
60.41f, except for the following:
"Administrator" means the board.
9VAC5-40-5935. Emission limits and emission standards.
A. The owner of each MSW landfill having a design capacity
greater than or equal to 2.5 million megagrams by mass and 2.5 million cubic
meters by volume that meets the conditions of 40 CFR 60.33f(a)(1) through (4)
shall collect and control MSW landfill emissions in accordance with the
provisions of 40 CFR 60.33f(b)(1) through (3), and 40 CFR 60.33f(c)(1) through
(4) except as provided in 40 CFR 60.24.
B. The owner of each MSW landfill with a design capacity
less than 2.5 million megagrams and 2.5 million cubic meters shall submit an
initial design capacity report to the administrator as provided in 40 CFR
60.38f(a).The landfill may calculate design capacity in either megagrams or
cubic meters for comparison with the exemption values. Any density conversions shall
be documented and submitted with the report. Submittal of the initial design
capacity report fulfills the requirements of this article except as provided in
40 CFR 60.33f(d)(1) and (2).
C. The owner of each MSW landfill with a design capacity
greater than 2.5 million megagrams and 2.5 million cubic meters shall either
install a collection and control system as provided in subsection A of this
section or calculate an initial NMOC emission rate for the landfill using the
procedures specified in 40 CFR 60.35f(a). The NMOC emission rate shall be
recalculated annually, except as provided in 40 CFR 60.38f(c)(3). The owner
shall follow the procedures specified in 40 CFR 60.33f(e)(1) through (3).
D. The owner of each MSW landfill may cap, remove, or
decommission the collection and control system used to comply with subsection A
of this section if the criteria of 40 CFR 60.33f(f)(1) through (4) are met.
E. An active collection system used to comply with
subsection A of this section shall meet the specifications for active
collection system of 40 CFR 60.40f(a) through (c).
9VAC5-40-5940. Standard for visible emissions and fugitive
dust/emissions.
The provisions of Article 1 (9VAC5-40-60 et seq.) of
9VAC5-40 (Emission Standards for Visible Emissions and Fugitive Dust/Emissions,
Rule 4-1) apply, with the exception of 9VAC5-40-80 (Standard for visible
emissions), 9VAC5-40-100 (Monitoring), 9VAC5-40-110 (Test methods and
procedures), and 9VAC5-40-120 (Waivers).
9VAC5-40-5945. Standard for odor.
The provisions of Article 2 (9VAC5-40-130 et seq.) of
9VAC5-40 (Emission Standards for Odor, Rule 4-2) apply.
9VAC5-40-5950. Compliance schedule.
The provisions of 40 CFR 60.32f apply.
9VAC5-40-5955. Operating requirements.
The owner of an MSW landfill with a gas collection and control
system used to comply with the provisions of 40 CFR 60.33f(b) and (c) shall
meet the requirements of 40 CFR 60.34f(a) through (g).
9VAC5-40-5960. Compliance.
A. With regard to the emissions limits in 9VAC5-40-5940
and 9VAC5-40-5945, the provisions of 9VAC5-40-20 (Compliance) apply.
B. With regard to the emission limits in 9VAC5-40-5935 and
9VAC5-40-5955, the following provisions apply:
1. 9VAC5-40-20 B, C, D, and E;
2. To the extent specified in the federal regulations cited
in subdivision 3 of this subsection, 40 CFR 60.7, 40 CFR 60.8, 40 CFR 60.11,
and 40 CFR 60.13; and
3. 40 CFR 60.32f and 40 CFR 60.36f(a) through (e).
9VAC5-40-5965. Test methods and procedures, monitoring of
operations.
A. With regard to the emissions standards in 9VAC5-40-5940
and 9VAC5-40-5945, the provisions of 9VAC5-40-30 (Emission testing) and
9VAC5-40-40 (Monitoring) apply.
B. With regard to the emission limits in 9VAC5-40-5935 and
9VAC5-40-5955, the following provisions apply:
1. 9VAC5-40-30 D and G;
2. 9VAC5-40-40 A and F;
3. 40 CFR 60.8(b) through (f), with the exception of
paragraph (a);
4. 40 CFR 60.13; and
5. 40 CFR 60.35f(a) through (e), and 40 CFR 60.37f(a)
through (h), except as provided in 40 CFR 60.38f(d)(2).
9VAC5-40-5970. Reporting and recordkeeping.
A. With regard to the emissions standards in 9VAC5-40-5940
and 9VAC5-40-5945, the provisions of 9VAC5-40-50 (Notification, records and
reporting) apply.
B. With regard to the emission limits in 9VAC5-40-5935 and
9VAC5-40-5955, the following provisions apply:
1. 9VAC5-40-50 F and H;
2. 40 CFR 60.7; and
3. 40 CFR 60.38f(a) through (m) except as provided in 40
CFR 60.24 and 40 CFR 60.38f(d)(2), and 40 CFR 60.39f(a) through (j).
9VAC5-40-5975. Registration.
The provisions of 9VAC5-20-160 (Registration) apply.
9VAC5-40-5980. Facility and control equipment maintenance or
malfunction.
A. With regard to the emissions standards in 9VAC5-40-5940
and 9VAC5-40-5945, the provisions of 9VAC5-20-180 (Facility and control
equipment maintenance or malfunction) apply.
B. With regard to the emission limits in 9VAC5-40-5935 and
9VAC5-40-5955, the following provisions apply:
1. 9VAC5-20-180 with the exception of subsections E, F, and
G; and
2. 40 CFR 60.36f(e) and 40 CFR 60.37f(h).
9VAC5-40-5985. Other permits.
A permit may be required prior to beginning any of the
activities specified below if the provisions of 9VAC5-50 (New and Modified
Stationary Sources) and 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) apply. Owners
contemplating such action should review those provisions and contact the
appropriate regional office for guidance on whether those provisions apply.
1. Construction of a facility.
2. Reconstruction (replacement of more than half) of a
facility.
3. Modification (any physical change to equipment) of a
facility.
4. Relocation of a facility.
5. Reactivation (re-startup) of a facility.
6. Operation of a facility.
9VAC5-40-5990. Documents incorporated by reference.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency regulations
promulgated at Subpart Cf (40 CFR 60.30f et seq., Emission Guidelines and
Compliance Times for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills) of 40 CFR Part 60 are
incorporated by reference into this article. The specific version of the
provisions incorporated by reference shall be that contained in the CFR in
effect as specified in 9VAC5-20-21.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4894; Filed December 16, 2016, 10:51 a.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE AIR POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
following regulatory action is exempt from Article 2 of the Administrative
Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code of Virginia,
which excludes regulations that are necessary to meet the requirements of
federal law or regulations, provided such regulations do not differ materially
from those required by federal law or regulation. The State Air Pollution
Control Board will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any
interested person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
Titles of Regulations: 9VAC5-50. New and Modified
Stationary Sources (Rev. J16) (amending 9VAC5-50-400, 9VAC5-50-410).
9VAC5-60. Hazardous Air Pollutant Sources (Rev. J16) (amending 9VAC5-60-60, 9VAC5-60-70,
9VAC5-60-90, 9VAC5-60-100).
Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1308 of the Code of
Virginia; §§ 110, 111, 123, 129, 171, 172, and 182 of the federal Clean
Air Act; 40 CFR Parts 51 and 60.
Effective Date: February 22, 2017.
Agency Contact: Karen G. Sabasteanski, Department of
Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,
telephone (804) 698-4426, FAX (804) 698-4510, or email
karen.sabasteanski@deq.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments update state regulations that incorporate by
reference certain federal regulations to reflect the Code of Federal
Regulations as published on July 1, 2016. The new standards in the federal
regulations that are being incorporated into the regulations by reference
include the following:
1. One new (Subpart OOOOa, Standards of Performance for
Crude Oil and Natural Gas Facilities for which Construction, Modification, or
Reconstruction Commenced after September 18, 2015) source performance standard
is not being incorporated at this time; this standard is listed with a note
that enforcement of the standard rests with the Environmental Protection
Agency. In addition, Subparts T, U, V, W, X, CCCC, and OOOO were amended. The
date of the Code of Federal Regulations book being incorporated by reference is
being updated to the latest version.
2. No new National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants (NESHAPs) are being incorporated; however, a number of typographical
errors have been corrected under Subpart M. The date of the Code of Federal
Regulations book being incorporated by reference is being updated to the latest
version.
3. Three new maximum achievable control technology
standards are being added: Subpart NN, Wool Fiberglass Manufacturing at Area
Sources (40 CFR 63.880 through 40 CFR 63.899); Subpart JJJJJ, Brick and
Structural Clay Products Manufacturing (40 CFR 63.8380 through 40 CFR 63.8515);
and Subpart KKKKK, Ceramics Manufacturing (40 CFR 63.8530 through 40 CFR
63.8665). In addition, Subparts AA, BB, CC, and DD are amended. The date of the
Code of Federal Regulations book being incorporated by reference is being
updated to the latest version.
Article 5
Environmental Protection Agency Standards of Performance for New Stationary
Sources (Rule 5-5)
9VAC5-50-400. General.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Regulations on
Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources (NSPSs), as promulgated in
40 CFR Part 60 and designated in 9VAC5-50-410 are, unless indicated otherwise,
incorporated by reference into the regulations of the board as amended by the
word or phrase substitutions given in 9VAC5-50-420. The complete text of the
subparts in 9VAC5-50-410 incorporated herein by reference is contained in 40
CFR Part 60. The 40 CFR section numbers appearing under each subpart in
9VAC5-50-410 identify the specific provisions of the subpart incorporated by
reference. The specific version of the provision adopted by reference shall be
that contained in the CFR (2015) (2016) in effect July 1, 2015
2016. In making reference to the Code of Federal Regulations, 40 CFR
Part 60 means Part 60 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations; 40 CFR
60.1 means 60.1 in Part 60 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
9VAC5-50-410. Designated standards of performance.
Subpart A - General Provisions.
40 CFR 60.1 through 40 CFR 60.3, 40 CFR 60.7, 40 CFR 60.8, 40
CFR 60.11 through 40 CFR 60.15, 40 CFR 60.18 through 40 CFR 60.19
(applicability, definitions, units and abbreviations,
notification and recordkeeping, performance tests, compliance, circumvention,
monitoring requirements, modification, reconstruction, general control device
requirements, and general notification and reporting requirements)
Subpart B - Not applicable.
Subpart C - Not applicable.
Subpart Ca - Reserved.
Subpart Cb - Not applicable.
Subpart Cc - Not applicable.
Subpart Cd - Not applicable.
Subpart Ce - Not applicable.
Subpart D - Fossil Fuel-Fired Steam Generators.
40 CFR 60.40 through 40 CFR 60.46
(fossil fuel-fired steam generating units of more than 250
million Btu per hour heat input rate and fossil fuel-fired and wood
residue-fired steam generating units capable of firing fossil fuel at a heat
input rate of more than 250 million Btu per hour)
Subpart Da - Electric Utility Steam Generating Units.
40 CFR 60.40Da through 40 CFR 60.52Da
(electric utility steam generating units capable of combusting
more than 250 million Btu per hour heat input of fossil fuel (either alone or
in combination with any other fuel), and for which construction,
reconstruction, or modification is commenced after September 18, 1978)
Subpart Db - Industrial-Commercial-Institutional Steam
Generating Units.
40 CFR 60.40b through 40 CFR 60.49b
(industrial-commercial-institutional steam generating units
which have a heat input capacity from combusted fuels of more than 100 million
Btu per hour)
Subpart Dc - Small Industrial-Commercial-Institutional Steam
Generating Units.
40 CFR 60.40c through 40 CFR 60.48c
(industrial-commercial-institutional steam generating units
which have a heat input capacity of 100 million Btu per hour or less, but
greater than or equal to 10 million Btu per hour)
Subpart E - Incinerators.
40 CFR 60.50 through 40 CFR 60.54
(incinerator units of more than 50 tons per day charging rate)
Subpart Ea - Municipal Waste Combustors for which Construction
is Commenced after December 20, 1989, and on or before September 20, 1994.
40 CFR 60.50a through 40 CFR 60.59a
(municipal waste combustor units with a capacity greater than
250 tons per day of municipal-type solid waste or refuse-derived fuel)
Subpart Eb - Large Municipal Combustors for which Construction
is Commenced after September 20, 1994, or for which Modification or
Reconstruction is Commenced after June 19, 1996.
40 CFR 60.50b through 40 CFR 60.59b
(municipal waste combustor units with a capacity greater than
250 tons per day of municipal-type solid waste or refuse-derived fuel)
Subpart Ec - Hospital/Medical/Infectious Waste Incinerators for
which Construction is Commenced after June 20, 1996.
40 CFR 60.50c through 40 CFR 60.58c
(hospital/medical/infectious waste incinerators that combust
any amount of hospital waste and medical/infectious waste or both)
Subpart F - Portland Cement Plants.
40 CFR 60.60 through 40 CFR 60.66
(kilns, clinker coolers, raw mill systems, finish mill
systems, raw mill dryers, raw material storage, clinker storage, finished
product storage, conveyor transfer points, bagging and bulk loading and
unloading systems)
Subpart G - Nitric Acid Plants.
40 CFR 60.70 through 40 CFR 60.74
(nitric acid production units)
Subpart Ga - Nitric Acid Plants for which Construction,
Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after October 14, 2011.
40 CFR 60.70a through 40 CFR 60.77a
(nitric acid production units producing weak nitric acid by
either the pressure or atmospheric pressure process)
Subpart H - Sulfuric Acid Plants.
40 CFR 60.80 through 40 CFR 60.85
(sulfuric acid production units)
Subpart I - Hot Mix Asphalt Facilities.
40 CFR 60.90 through 40 CFR 60.93
(dryers; systems for screening, handling, storing and weighing
hot aggregate; systems for loading, transferring and storing mineral filler;
systems for mixing asphalt; and the loading, transfer and storage systems associated
with emission control systems)
Subpart J - Petroleum Refineries.
40 CFR 60.100 through 40 CFR 60.106
(fluid catalytic cracking unit catalyst regenerators, fluid
catalytic cracking unit incinerator-waste heat boilers and fuel gas combustion
devices)
Subpart Ja - Petroleum Refineries for which Construction,
Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after May 14, 2007.
40 CFR 60.100a through 40 CFR 60.109a
(fluid catalytic cracking units, fluid coking units, delayed
coking units, fuel gas combustion devices, including flares and process
heaters, and sulfur recovery plants)
Subpart K - Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids for which
Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after June 11, 1973,
and prior to May 19, 1978.
40 CFR 60.110 through 40 CFR 60.113
(storage vessels with a capacity greater than 40,000 gallons)
Subpart Ka - Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids for which
Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after May 18, 1978, and
prior to July 23, 1984.
40 CFR 60.110a through 40 CFR 60.115a
(storage vessels with a capacity greater than 40,000 gallons)
Subpart Kb - Volatile Organic Liquid Storage Vessels (Including
Petroleum Liquid Storage Vessels) for which Construction, Reconstruction, or
Modification Commenced after July 23, 1984.
40 CFR 60.110b through 40 CFR 60.117b
(storage vessels with capacity greater than or equal to 10,566
gallons)
Subpart L - Secondary Lead Smelters.
40 CFR 60.120 through 40 CFR 60.123
(pot furnaces of more than 550 pound charging capacity, blast
(cupola) furnaces and reverberatory furnaces)
Subpart M - Secondary Brass and Bronze Production Plants.
40 CFR 60.130 through 40 CFR 60.133
(reverberatory and electric furnaces of 2205 pound or greater
production capacity and blast (cupola) furnaces of 550 pounds per hour or
greater production capacity)
Subpart N - Primary Emissions from Basic Oxygen Process
Furnaces for which Construction is Commenced after June 11, 1973.
40 CFR 60.140 through 40 CFR 60.144
(basic oxygen process furnaces)
Subpart Na - Secondary Emissions from Basic Oxygen Process
Steelmaking Facilities for which Construction is Commenced after January 20,
1983.
40 CFR 60.140a through 40 CFR 60.145a
(facilities in an iron and steel plant: top-blown BOPFs and
hot metal transfer stations and skimming stations used with bottom-blown or
top-blown BOPFs)
Subpart O - Sewage Treatment Plants.
40 CFR 60.150 through 40 CFR 60.154
(incinerators that combust wastes containing more than 10%
sewage sludge (dry basis) produced by municipal sewage treatment plants or
incinerators that charge more than 2205 pounds per day municipal sewage sludge
(dry basis))
Subpart P - Primary Copper Smelters.
40 CFR 60.160 through 40 CFR 60.166
(dryers, roasters, smelting furnaces, and copper converters)
Subpart Q - Primary Zinc Smelters.
40 CFR 60.170 through 40 CFR 60.176
(roasters and sintering machines)
Subpart R - Primary Lead Smelters
40 CFR 60.180 through 40 CFR 60.186
(sintering machines, sintering machine discharge ends, blast
furnaces, dross reverberatory furnaces, electric smelting furnaces and
converters)
Subpart S - Primary Aluminum Reduction Plants.
40 CFR 60.190 through 40 CFR 60.195
(potroom groups and anode bake plants)
Subpart T - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Wet-Process
Phosphoric Acid Plants.
40 CFR 60.200 through 40 CFR 60.204 40 CFR
60.205
(reactors, filters, evaporators, and hot wells)
Subpart U - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Superphosphoric Acid
Plants.
40 CFR 60.210 through 40 CFR 60.214 40 CFR 60.215
(evaporators, hot wells, acid sumps, and cooling tanks)
Subpart V - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Diammonium Phosphate
Plants.
40 CFR 60.220 through 40 CFR 60.224 40 CFR 60.225
(reactors, granulators, dryers, coolers, screens, and mills)
Subpart W - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Triple
Superphosphate Plants.
40 CFR 60.230 through 40 CFR 60.234 40 CFR 60.235
(mixers, curing belts (dens), reactors, granulators, dryers,
cookers, screens, mills, and facilities which store run-of-pile triple
superphosphate)
Subpart X - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Granular Triple
Superphosphate Storage Facilities.
40 CFR 60.240 through 40 CFR 60.244 40 CFR 60.245
(storage or curing piles, conveyors, elevators, screens and
mills)
Subpart Y - Coal Preparation and Processing Plants.
40 CFR 60.250 through 40 CFR 60.258
(plants which process more than 200 tons per day: thermal
dryers, pneumatic coal-cleaning equipment (air tables), coal processing and
conveying equipment (including breakers and crushers), coal storage systems,
and coal transfer and loading systems)
Subpart Z - Ferroalloy Production Facilities.
40 CFR 60.260 through 40 CFR 60.266
(electric submerged arc furnaces which produce silicon metal,
ferrosilicon, calcium silicon, silicomanganese zirconium, ferrochrome silicon,
silvery iron, high-carbon ferrochrome, charge chrome, standard ferromanganese,
silicomanganese, ferromanganese silicon or calcium carbide; and dust-handling
equipment)
Subpart AA - Steel Plants: Electric Arc Furnaces Constructed
after October 21, 1974, and on or before August 17, 1983.
40 CFR 60.270 through 40 CFR 60.276
(electric arc furnaces and dust-handling systems that produce
carbon, alloy or specialty steels)
Subpart AAa - Steel Plants: Electric Arc Furnaces and
Argon-Oxygen Decarburization Vessels Constructed after August 17, 1983.
40 CFR 60.270a through 40 CFR 60.276a
(electric arc furnaces, argon-oxygen decarburization vessels,
and dust-handling systems that produce carbon, alloy, or specialty steels)
Subpart BB - Kraft Pulp Mills.
40 CFR 60.280 through 40 CFR 60.285
(digester systems, brown stock washer systems, multiple effect
evaporator systems, black liquor oxidation systems, recovery furnaces, smelt
dissolving tanks, lime kilns, condensate strippers and kraft pulping
operations)
Subpart BBa - Kraft Pulp Mill Affected Sources for which
Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after May 23, 2013.
40 CFR 60.280a through 40 CFR 60.288a
(digester systems, brown stock washer systems, multiple effect
evaporator systems, black liquor oxidation systems, recovery furnaces, smelt
dissolving tanks, lime kilns, condensate strippers, and kraft pulping
operations)
Subpart CC - Glass Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 60.290 through 40 CFR 60.296
(glass melting furnaces)
Subpart DD - Grain Elevators.
40 CFR 60.300 through 40 CFR 60.304
(grain terminal elevators/grain storage elevators: truck
unloading stations, truck loading stations, barge and ship unloading stations,
barge and ship loading stations, railcar unloading stations, railcar loading
stations, grain dryers, and all grain handling operations)
Subpart EE - Surface Coating of Metal Furniture.
40 CFR 60.310 through 40 CFR 60.316
(metal furniture surface coating operations in which organic
coatings are applied)
Subpart FF - Reserved.
Subpart GG - Stationary Gas Turbines.
40 CFR 60.330 through 40 CFR 60.335
(stationary gas turbines with a heat input at peak load equal
to or greater than 10 million Btu per hour, based on the lower heating value of
the fuel fired)
Subpart HH - Lime Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 60.340 through 40 CFR 60.344
(each rotary lime kiln)
Subparts II through JJ - Reserved.
Subpart KK - Lead-Acid Battery Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 60.370 through 40 CFR 60.374
(lead-acid battery manufacturing plants that produce or have
the design capacity to produce in one day (24 hours) batteries containing an
amount of lead equal to or greater than 6.5 tons: grid casting facilities,
paste mixing facilities, three-process operation facilities, lead oxide
manufacturing facilities, lead reclamation facilities, and other lead-emitting
operations)
Subpart LL - Metallic Mineral Processing Plants.
40 CFR 60.380 through 40 CFR 60.386
(each crusher and screen in open-pit mines; each crusher,
screen, bucket elevator, conveyor belt transfer point, thermal dryer, product
packaging station, storage bin, enclosed storage area, truck loading station,
truck unloading station, railcar loading station, and railcar unloading station
at the mill or concentrator with the following exceptions. All facilities
located in underground mines are exempted from the provisions of this subpart.
At uranium ore processing plants, all facilities subsequent to and including
the beneficiation of uranium ore are exempted from the provisions of this
subpart)
Subpart MM - Automobile and Light Duty Truck Surface Coating
Operations.
40 CFR 60.390 through 40 CFR 60.397
(prime coat operations, guide coat operations, and top-coat
operations)
Subpart NN - Phosphate Rock Plants.
40 CFR 60.400 through 40 CFR 60.404
(phosphate rock plants which have a maximum plant production
capacity greater than four tons per hour: dryers, calciners, grinders, and
ground rock handling and storage facilities, except those facilities producing
or preparing phosphate rock solely for consumption in elemental phosphorous
production)
Subpart OO - Reserved.
Subpart PP - Ammonium Sulfate Manufacture.
40 CFR 60.420 through 40 CFR 60.424
(ammonium sulfate dryer within an ammonium sulfate
manufacturing plant in the caprolactam by-product, synthetic, and coke oven
by-product sectors of the ammonium sulfate industry)
Subpart QQ - Graphic Arts Industry: Publication Rotogravure
Printing.
40 CFR 60.430 through 40 CFR 60.435
(publication rotogravure printing presses, except proof
presses)
Subpart RR - Pressure Sensitive Tape and Label Surface Coating
Operations.
40 CFR 60.440 through 40 CFR 60.447
(pressure sensitive tape and label material coating lines)
Subpart SS - Industrial Surface Coating: Large Appliances.
40 CFR 60.450 through 40 CFR 60.456
(surface coating operations in large appliance coating lines)
Subpart TT - Metal Coil Surface Coating.
40 CFR 60.460 through 40 CFR 60.466
(metal coil surface coating operations: each prime coat
operation, each finish coat operation, and each prime and finish coat operation
combined when the finish coat is applied wet on wet over the prime coat and
both coatings are cured simultaneously)
Subpart UU - Asphalt Processing and Asphalt Roofing
Manufacture.
40 CFR 60.470 through 40 CFR 60.474
(each saturator and each mineral handling and storage facility
at asphalt roofing plants; and each asphalt storage tank and each blowing still
at asphalt processing plants, petroleum refineries, and asphalt roofing plants)
Subpart VV - Equipment Leaks of Volatile Organic Compounds in
the Synthetic Organic Chemicals Manufacturing Industry for which Construction,
Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after January 5, 1981, and on or
before November 7, 2006.
40 CFR 60.480 through 40 CFR 60.489
(all equipment within a process unit in a synthetic organic
chemicals manufacturing plant)
Subpart VVa - Equipment Leaks of VOC in the Synthetic Organic
Chemicals Manufacturing Industry for which Construction, Reconstruction, or
Modification Commenced after November 7, 2006.
40 CFR 60.480a through 40 CFR 60.489a
(all equipment within a process unit in a synthetic organic
chemicals manufacturing plant)
Subpart WW - Beverage Can Surface Coating Industry.
40 CFR 60.490 through 40 CFR 60.496
(beverage can surface coating lines: each exterior base coat
operation, each overvarnish coating operation, and each inside spray coating
operation)
Subpart XX - Bulk Gasoline Terminals.
40 CFR 60.500 through 40 CFR 60.506
(total of all loading racks at a bulk gasoline terminal which
deliver liquid product into gasoline tank trucks)
Subparts YY through ZZ - Reserved.
Subpart AAA - New Residential Wood Heaters.
40 CFR 60.530 through 40 CFR 60.539b
(NOTE: In accordance with Chapter 471 of the 2015 Acts of
Assembly, authority to enforce the above standard is being retained by EPA and
the standard is not incorporated by reference into these regulations. A state
permit may be required of certain facilities if the provisions of 9VAC5-50 and
9VAC5-80 apply. Owners should review those provisions and contact the
appropriate regional office for guidance on whether those provisions apply.)
Subpart BBB - Rubber Tire Manufacturing Industry.
40 CFR 60.540 through 40 CFR 60.548
(each undertread cementing operation, each sidewall cementing
operation, each tread end cementing operation, each bead cementing operation,
each green tire spraying operation, each Michelin-A operation, each Michelin-B
operation, and each Michelin-C automatic operation)
Subpart CCC - Reserved.
Subpart DDD - Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Emissions from
the Polymer Manufacturing Industry.
40 CFR 60.560 through 40 CFR 60.566
(for polypropylene and polyethylene manufacturing using a
continuous process that emits continuously or intermittently: all equipment
used in the manufacture of these polymers. For polystyrene manufacturing using
a continuous process that emits continuously: each material recovery section.
For poly(ethylene terephthalate) manufacturing using a continuous process that
emits continuously: each polymerization reaction section; if dimethyl
terephthalate is used in the process, each material recovery section is also an
affected facility; if terephthalic acid is used in the process, each raw
materials preparation section is also an affected facility. For VOC emissions
from equipment leaks: each group of fugitive emissions equipment within any
process unit, excluding poly(ethylene terephthalate) manufacture.)
Subpart EEE - Reserved.
Subpart FFF - Flexible Vinyl and Urethane Coating and Printing.
40 CFR 60.580 through 40 CFR 60.585
(each rotogravure printing line used to print or coat flexible
vinyl or urethane products)
Subpart GGG - Equipment Leaks of VOC in Petroleum Refineries
for which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after January
4, 1983, and on or before November 7, 2006.
40 CFR 60.590 through 40 CFR 60.593
(each compressor, valve, pump pressure relief device, sampling
connection system, open-ended valve or line, and flange or other connector in
VOC service)
Subpart GGGa - Equipment Leaks of VOC in Petroleum Refineries
for which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after
November 7, 2006.
40 CFR 60.590a through 40 CFR 60.593a
(each compressor, valve, pump pressure relief device, sampling
connection system, open-ended valve or line, and flange or other connector in
VOC service)
Subpart HHH - Synthetic Fiber Production Facilities.
40 CFR 60.600 through 40 CFR 60.604
(each solvent-spun synthetic fiber process that produces more
than 500 megagrams of fiber per year)
Subpart III - Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Emissions from
the Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry (SOCMI) Air Oxidation
Unit Processes.
40 CFR 60.610 through 40 CFR 60.618
(each air oxidation reactor not discharging its vent stream
into a recovery system and each combination of an air oxidation reactor or two
or more air oxidation reactors and the recovery system into which the vent
streams are discharged)
Subpart JJJ - Petroleum Dry Cleaners.
40 CFR 60.620 through 40 CFR 60.625
(facilities located at a petroleum dry cleaning plant with a
total manufacturers' rated dryer capacity equal to or greater than 84 pounds:
petroleum solvent dry cleaning dryers, washers, filters, stills, and settling
tanks)
Subpart KKK - Equipment Leaks of VOC from Onshore Natural Gas
Processing Plants for which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification
Commenced after January 20, 1984, and on or before August 23, 2011.
40 CFR 60.630 through 40 CFR 60.636
(each compressor in VOC service or in wet gas service; each
pump, pressure relief device, open-ended valve or line, valve, and flange or
other connector that is in VOC service or in wet gas service, and any device or
system required by this subpart)
Subpart LLL - Sulfur Dioxide Emissions from Onshore Natural Gas
Processing for which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced
after January 20, 1984, and on or before August 23, 2011.
40 CFR 60.640 through 40 CFR 60.648
(facilities that process natural gas: each sweetening unit,
and each sweetening unit followed by a sulfur recovery unit)
Subpart MMM - Reserved.
Subpart NNN - Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Emissions from
Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry (SOCMI) Distillation
Operations.
40 CFR 60.660 through 40 CFR 60.668
(each distillation unit not discharging its vent stream into a
recovery system, each combination of a distillation unit or of two or more
units and the recovery system into which their vent streams are discharged)
Subpart OOO - Nonmetallic Mineral Processing Plants.
40 CFR 60.670 through 40 CFR 60.676
(facilities in fixed or portable nonmetallic mineral
processing plants: each crusher, grinding mill, screening operation, bucket
elevator, belt conveyor, bagging operation, storage bin, enclosed truck or
railcar loading station)
Subpart PPP - Wool Fiberglass Insulation Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 60.680 through 40 CFR 60.685
(each rotary spin wool fiberglass insulation manufacturing
line)
Subpart QQQ - VOC Emissions from Petroleum Refinery Wastewater
Systems.
40 CFR 60.690 through 40 CFR 60.699
(individual drain systems, oil-water separators, and aggregate
facilities in petroleum refineries)
Subpart RRR - Volatile Organic Compound Emissions from
Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry (SOCMI) Reactor Processes.
40 CFR 60.700 through 40 CFR 60.708
(each reactor process not discharging its vent stream into a
recovery system, each combination of a reactor process and the recovery system
into which its vent stream is discharged, and each combination of two or more
reactor processes and the common recovery system into which their vent streams
are discharged)
Subpart SSS - Magnetic Tape Coating Facilities.
40 CFR 60.710 through 40 CFR 60.718
(each coating operation and each piece of coating mix
preparation equipment)
Subpart TTT - Industrial Surface Coating: Surface Coating of
Plastic Parts for Business Machines.
40 CFR 60.720 through 40 CFR 60.726
(each spray booth in which plastic parts for use in the
manufacture of business machines receive prime coats, color coats, texture
coats, or touch-up coats)
Subpart UUU - Calciners and Dryers in Mineral Industries.
40 CFR 60.730 through 40 CFR 60.737
(each calciner and dryer at a mineral processing plant)
Subpart VVV - Polymeric Coating of Supporting Substrates
Facilities.
40 CFR 60.740 through 40 CFR 60.748
(each coating operation and any onsite coating mix preparation
equipment used to prepare coatings for the polymeric coating of supporting
substrates)
Subpart WWW - Municipal Solid Waste Landfills.
40 CFR 60.750 through 40 CFR 60.759
(municipal solid waste landfills for the containment of
household and Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Subtitle D wastes)
Subpart AAAA - Small Municipal Waste Combustors for which
Construction is Commenced after August 30, 1999, or for which Modification or
Reconstruction is Commenced after June 6, 2001.
40 CFR 60.1000 through 40 CFR 60.1465
(municipal waste combustor units with a capacity less than 250
tons per day and greater than 35 tons per day of municipal solid waste or
refuse-derived fuel)
Subpart BBBB - Not applicable.
Subpart CCCC - Commercial/Industrial Solid Waste Incinerators for
which Construction is Commenced after November 30, 1999, or for which
Modification or Construction is Commenced on or after June 1, 2001.
40 CFR 60.2000 through 40 CFR 60.2265
(an enclosed device using controlled flame combustion without
energy recovery that is a distinct operating unit of any commercial or
industrial facility, or an air curtain incinerator without energy recovery that
is a distinct operating unit of any commercial or industrial facility)
Subpart DDDD - Not applicable.
Subpart EEEE - Other Solid Waste Incineration Units for which
Construction is Commenced after December 9, 2004, or for which Modification or
Reconstruction is Commenced on or after June 16, 2006.
40 CFR 60.2880 through 40 CFR 60.2977
(very small municipal waste combustion units with the capacity
to combust less than 35 tons per day of municipal solid waste or refuse-derived
fuel, and institutional waste incineration units owned or operated by an
organization having a governmental, educational, civic, or religious purpose)
Subpart FFFF - Reserved.
Subpart GGGG - Reserved.
Subpart HHHH - Reserved.
Subpart IIII - Stationary Compression Ignition Internal
Combustion Engines.
40 CFR 60.4200 through 40 CFR 60.4219
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and the standard is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in
9VAC5-80-60 and subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating
Permits for Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary
Sources) or (ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to
Article 3 (9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain
Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart JJJJ - Stationary Spark Ignition Internal Combustion
Engines.
40 CFR 60.4230 through 40 CFR 60.4248
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and the standard is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in
9VAC5-80-60 and subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating
Permits for Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary
Sources) or (ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to
Article 3 (9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain
Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart KKKK - Stationary Combustion Turbines.
40 CFR 60.4300 through 40 CFR 60.4420
(stationary combustion turbine with a heat input at peak load
equal to or greater than 10.7 gigajoules (10 MMBtu) per hour)
Subpart LLLL - Sewage Sludge Incineration Units.
40 CFR 60.4760 through 40 CFR 60.4925
(an incineration unit combusting sewage sludge for the purpose
of reducing the volume of the sewage sludge by removing combustible matter,
including the sewage sludge feed system, auxiliary fuel feed system, grate
system, flue gas system, waste heat recovery equipment, and bottom ash system;
and all ash handling systems connected with the bottom ash handling system)
Subpart MMMM - Reserved.
Subpart NNNN - Reserved.
Subpart OOOO - Crude Oil and Natural Gas Production,
Transmission and Distribution for which Construction, Modification, or
Reconstruction Commenced after August 23, 2011, and on or before September 18,
2015.
40 CFR 60.5360 through 40 CFR 60.5430 40 CFR 60.5499
(facilities that operate gas wells, centrifugal compressors,
reciprocating compressors, pneumatic controllers, and storage vessels)
Subpart OOOOa - Crude Oil and Natural Gas Facilities for
which Construction, Modification, or Reconstruction Commenced after September
18, 2015.
40 CFR 60.5360a through 40 CFR 60.5499a
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations
for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and
subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for
Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or
(ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart PPPP - Reserved.
Subpart QQQQ - New Residential Hydronic Heaters and Forced-Air
Furnaces
40 CFR 60.5472 through 40 CFR 60.5483
(NOTE: In accordance with Chapter 471 of the 2015 Acts of
Assembly, authority to enforce the above standard is being retained by EPA and
the standard is not incorporated by reference into these regulations. A state
permit may be required of certain facilities if the provisions of 9VAC5-50 and
9VAC5-80 apply. Owners should review those provisions and contact the
appropriate regional office for guidance on whether those provisions apply.)
Subpart RRRR - Reserved.
Subpart SSSS - Reserved.
Subpart TTTT - Reserved.
Appendix A - Test methods.
Appendix B - Performance specifications.
Appendix C - Determination of Emission Rate Change.
Appendix D - Required Emission Inventory Information.
Appendix E - Reserved.
Appendix F - Quality Assurance Procedures.
Appendix G - Not applicable.
Appendix H - Reserved.
Appendix I - Removable label and owner's manual.
Part II
Emission Standards
Article 1
Environmental Protection Agency National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants (Rule 6-1)
9VAC5-60-60. General.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Regulations on
National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP), as
promulgated in 40 CFR Part 61 and designated in 9VAC5-60-70 are, unless
indicated otherwise, incorporated by reference into the regulations of the
board as amended by the word or phrase substitutions given in 9VAC5-60-80. The
complete text of the subparts in 9VAC5-60-70 incorporated herein by reference
is contained in 40 CFR Part 61. The 40 CFR section numbers appearing under each
subpart in 9VAC5-60-70 identify the specific provisions of the subpart
incorporated by reference. The specific version of the provision adopted by
reference shall be that contained in the CFR (2015) (2016) in
effect July 1, 2015 2016. In making reference to the Code of
Federal Regulations, 40 CFR Part 61 means Part 61 of Title 40 of the Code of
Federal Regulations; 40 CFR 61.01 means 61.01 in Part 61 of Title 40 of the
Code of Federal Regulations.
9VAC5-60-70. Designated emission standards.
Subpart A—General Provisions.
40 CFR 61.01 through 40 CFR 61.03, 40 CFR 61.05 through
40 CFR 61.10, 40 CFR 61.12 through 40 CFR 61.15, and 40 CFR 61.19
(applicability, definitions, units and abbreviations,
compliance, prohibited activities, determination of construction or
modification, application for approval of construction or modification,
approval of construction or modification, notification of startup, source
reporting and waiver request, emission tests, monitoring, modification, and
circumvention)
Subpart B—Radon Emissions from Underground Uranium Mines.
40 CFR 61.20 through 40 CFR 61.26
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart C—Beryllium.
40 CFR 61.30 through 40 CFR 61.34
Subpart D—Beryllium Rocket Motor Firing.
40 CFR 61.40 through 40 CFR 61.44
Subpart E—Mercury.
40 CFR 61.50 through 40 CFR 61.55
Subpart F—Vinyl Chloride.
40 CFR 61.60 through 40 CFR 61.71
Subpart G—(Reserved).
Subpart H—Emissions of Radionuclides Other than Radon from
Department of Energy (DOE) Facilities.
40 CFR 61.90 through 40 CFR 61.97
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart I—Radionuclide Emissions from Facilities Licensed by
the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and Federal Facilities Not Covered by
Subpart H.
40 CFR 61.100 through 40 CFR 61.109
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart J—Equipment Leaks (Fugitive Emission Sources) of
Benzene.
40 CFR 61.110 through 40 CFR 61.112
Subpart K—Radionuclide Emissions From from
Elemental Phosphorus Plants.
40 CFR 61.120 through 40 CFR 61.127
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being retained
by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations.)
Subpart L—Benzene Emissions From from Coke
By-Product Recovery Plants.
40 CFR 61.130 through 40 CFR 61.139
Subpart M—Asbestos.
40 CFR 61.140 through 40 CFR 61.157
(NOTE: Under § 40.1-51.20 of the Code of Virginia, the
Virginia Department of Labor and Industry also holds authority to enforce the
following: 40 CFR 61.140, Applicability; 40 CFR 61.141, Definitions; 40 CFR
Part 145 40 CFR 61.145, Standard for demolition and renovation; 40
CFR 61.146, Standard for spraying; 60 CFR Part 148 40 CFR 61.148,
Standard for insulating materials; 60 CFR Part 150 40 CFR 61.150,
Standard for waste disposal for manufacturing, fabricating, demolition,
renovation, and spraying operations except subsection (a)(4); and 40 CFR
Part 154 40 CFR 61.154, Standard for active waste disposal, except
subsection (d); and 40 CFR Part 156 40 CFR 61.156,
Cross-reference to other asbestos regulations.)
Subpart N—Inorganic Arsenic Emissions from Glass Manufacturing
Plants.
40 CFR 61.160 through 40 CFR 61.165
Subpart O—Inorganic Arsenic Emissions from Primary Copper
Smelters.
40 CFR 61.170 through 40 CFR 61.177
Subpart P—Inorganic Arsenic Emissions from Arsenic Trioxide
and Metallic Arsenic Production Facilities.
40 CFR 61.180 through 40 CFR 61.186
Subpart Q—Radon Emissions from Department of Energy
Facilities.
40 CFR 61.190 through 40 CFR 61.193
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart R—Radon Emissions from Phosphogypsum Stacks.
40 CFR 61.200 through 40 CFR 61.205
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart S—(Reserved).
Subpart T—Radon Emissions from the Disposal of Uranium Mill
Tailings.
40 CFR 61.220 through 40 CFR 61.225
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart U—(Reserved).
Subpart V—Equipment Leaks (Fugitive Emission Sources).
40 CFR 61.240 through 40 CFR 61.247
Subpart W—Radon Emissions from Operating Mill Tailings.
40 CFR 61.250 through 40 CFR 61.252
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart X—(Reserved).
Subpart Y—Benzene Emissions From from Benzene
Storage Vessels.
40 CFR 61.270 through 40 CFR 61.277
Subpart Z—(Reserved).
Subpart AA—(Reserved).
Subpart BB—Benzene Emissions from Benzene Transfer
Operations.
40 CFR 61.300 through 40 CFR 61.306
Subpart CC—(Reserved).
Subpart DD—(Reserved).
Subpart EE—(Reserved).
Subpart FF—Benzene Waste Operations.
40 CFR 61.340 through 40 CFR 61.358
Appendix A—Not applicable.
Appendix B—Test Methods.
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the following test methods is
being retained by EPA and they are not incorporated by reference into the
Regulations for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution.)
Method 111—Determination of polonium-210 emissions from
stationary sources. Method 114—Test methods for measuring radionuclide
emissions from stationary sources.
Method 115—Monitoring for radon-222 emissions.
Appendix C—Quality assurance procedures.
Appendix D—Methods for estimating radionuclide emissions.
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above methods is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into the Regulations
for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution.)
Appendix E—Compliance procedures methods for determining
compliance with Subpart I.
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above methods is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into the Regulations
for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution.)
Article 2
Environmental Protection Agency National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants for Source Categories (Rule 6-2)
9VAC5-60-90. General.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) National Emission
Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories (Maximum
Achievable Control Technologies, or MACTs) as promulgated in 40 CFR Part 63 and
designated in 9VAC5-60-100 are, unless indicated otherwise, incorporated by
reference into the regulations of the board as amended by the word or phrase
substitutions given in 9VAC5-60-110. The complete text of the subparts in
9VAC5-60-100 incorporated herein by reference is contained in 40 CFR Part 63.
The 40 CFR section numbers appearing under each subpart in 9VAC5-60-100
identify the specific provisions of the subpart incorporated by reference. The
specific version of the provision adopted by reference shall be that contained
in the CFR (2015) (2016) in effect July 1, 2015 2016.
In making reference to the Code of Federal Regulations, 40 CFR Part 63 means
Part 63 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations; 40 CFR 63.1 means 63.1
in Part 63 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
9VAC5-60-100. Designated emission standards.
Subpart A - General Provisions.
40 CFR 63.1 through 40 CFR 63.11; 40 CFR 63.16
(applicability, definitions, units and abbreviations,
prohibited activities and circumvention, construction and reconstruction,
compliance with standards and maintenance requirements, performance testing
requirements, monitoring requirements, notification requirements, recordkeeping
and reporting requirements, control device requirements, performance track
provisions)
Subpart B - Not applicable.
Subpart C - List of Hazardous Air Pollutants, Petitions
Process, Lesser Quantity Designations, Source Category List.
40 CFR 63.60, 40 CFR 63.61, 40 CFR 63.62 and 40 CFR 63.63
(deletion of caprolactam from the list of hazardous air
pollutants, deletion of methyl ethyl ketone from the list of hazardous air
pollutants, redefinition of glycol ethers listed as hazardous air pollutants,
deletion of ethylene glycol monobutyl ether)
Subpart D - Not applicable.
Subpart E - Not applicable.
Subpart F - Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants from the Synthetic
Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry.
40 CFR 63.100 through 40 CFR 63.106
(chemical manufacturing process units that manufacture as a
primary product one or more of a listed chemical; use as a reactant or
manufacture as a product, by-product, or co-product, one or more of a listed
organic hazardous air pollutant; and are located at a plant site that is a
major source as defined in § 112 of the federal Clean Air Act)
Subpart G - Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants From from
the Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry for Process Vents,
Storage Vessels, Transfer Operations, and Wastewater.
40 CFR 63.110 through 40 CFR 63.152
(all process vents, storage vessels, transfer operations, and
wastewater streams within a source subject to Subpart F, 40 CFR 63.100 through
40 CFR 63.106)
Subpart H - Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants for Equipment
Leaks.
40 CFR 63.160 through 40 CFR 63.182
(pumps, compressors, agitators, pressure relief devices,
sampling connection systems, open-ended valves or lines, valves, connectors,
surge control vessels, bottoms receivers, instrumentation systems, and control
devices or systems that are intended to operate in organic hazardous air
pollutant service 300 hours or more during the calendar year within a source
subject to the provisions of a specific subpart in 40 CFR Part 63)
Subpart I - Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants for Certain
Processes Subject to the Negotiated Regulation for Equipment Leaks.
40 CFR 63.190 through 40 CFR 63.192
(emissions of designated organic hazardous air pollutants from
processes specified in this subpart that are located at a plant site that is a
major source as defined in § 112 of the federal Clean Air Act)
Subpart J - Polyvinyl Chloride and Copolymers Production.
40 CFR 63.210 through 40 CFR 63.217
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart K - Reserved.
Subpart L - Coke Oven Batteries.
40 CFR 63.300 through 40 CFR 63.313
(existing by-product coke oven batteries at a coke plant, and
existing nonrecovery coke oven batteries located at a coke plant)
Subpart M - Perchlorethylene Dry Cleaning Facilities.
40 CFR 63.320 through 40 CFR 63.325
(each dry cleaning facility that uses perchlorethylene)
Subpart N - Chromium Emissions from Hard and Decorative
Chromium Electroplating and Chromium Anodizing Tanks.
40 CFR 63.340 through 40 CFR 63.347
(each chromium electroplating or chromium anodizing tank at
facilities performing hard chromium electroplating, decorative chromium
electroplating, or chromium anodizing)
Subpart O - Ethylene Oxide Commercial Sterilization and
Fumigation Operations.
40 CFR 63.360 through 40 CFR 63.367
(sterilization sources using ethylene oxide in sterilization
or fumigation operations)
Subpart P - Reserved.
Subpart Q - Industrial Process Cooling Towers.
40 CFR 63.400 through 40 CFR 63.406
(industrial process cooling towers that are operated with
chromium-based water treatment chemicals)
Subpart R - Gasoline Distribution Facilities.
40 CFR 63.420 through 40 CFR 63.429
(bulk gasoline terminals and pipeline breakout stations)
Subpart S - Pulp and Paper Industry.
40 CFR 63.440 through 40 CFR 63.458
(processes that produce pulp, paper, or paperboard, and use
the following processes and materials: kraft, soda, sulfite, or semi-chemical
pulping processes using wood; or mechanical pulping processes using wood; or
any process using secondary or nonwood fibers)
Subpart T - Halogenated Solvent Cleaning.
40 CFR 63.460 through 40 CFR 63.469
(each individual batch vapor, in-line vapor, in-line cold, and
batch cold solvent cleaning machine that uses any solvent containing methylene
chloride, perchlorethylene, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon
tetrachloride, or chloroform)
Subpart U - Group I Polymers and Resins.
40 CFR 63.480 through 40 CFR 63.506
(elastomer product process units that produce butyl rubber,
halobutyl rubber, epichlorohydrin elastomers, ethylene propylene rubber,
Hypalon™, neoprene, nitrile butadiene rubber, nitrile butadiene latex, polysulfide
rubber, polybutadiene rubber/styrene butadiene rubber by solution, styrene
butadiene latex, and styrene butadiene rubber by emulsion)
Subpart V - Reserved.
Subpart W - Epoxy Resins Production and Non-Nylon Polyamides
Production.
40 CFR 63.520 through 40 CFR 63.527
(manufacturers of basic liquid epoxy resins and wet strength
resins)
Subpart X - Secondary Lead Smelting.
40 CFR 63.541 through 40 CFR 60.552
(at all secondary lead smelters: blast, reverberatory, rotary,
and electric smelting furnaces; refining kettles; agglomerating furnaces;
dryers; process fugitive sources; and fugitive dust sources)
Subpart Y - Marine Tank Vessel Tank Loading Operations.
40 CFR 63.560 through 40 CFR 63.567
(marine tank vessel unloading operations at petroleum
refineries)
Subpart Z - Reserved.
Subpart AA - Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 63.600 through 40 CFR 63.610 40 CFR 63.611
(wet-process phosphoric acid process lines, evaporative
cooling towers, rock dryers, rock calciners, superphosphoric acid process
lines, purified acid process lines)
Subpart BB - Phosphate Fertilizers Production Plants.
40 CFR 63.620 through 40 CFR 63.631 40 CFR 63.632
(diammonium and monoammonium phosphate process lines, granular
triple superphosphate process lines, and granular triple superphosphate storage
buildings)
Subpart CC - Petroleum Refineries.
40 CFR 63.640 through 40 CFR 63.654 40 CFR 63.671
(storage tanks, equipment leaks, process vents, and wastewater
collection and treatment systems at petroleum refineries)
Subpart DD - Off-Site Waste and Recovery Operations.
40 CFR 63.680 through 40 CFR 63.697
(operations that treat, store, recycle, and dispose of waste
received from other operations that produce waste or recoverable materials as
part of their manufacturing processes)
Subpart EE - Magnetic Tape Manufacturing Operations.
40 CFR 63.701 through 40 CFR 63.708
(manufacturers of magnetic tape)
Subpart FF - Reserved.
Subpart GG - Aerospace Manufacturing and Rework Facilities.
40 CFR 63.741 through 40 CFR 63.752 40 CFR 63.759
(facilities engaged in the manufacture or rework of
commercial, civil, or military aerospace vehicles or components)
Subpart HH - Oil and Natural Gas Production Facilities.
40 CFR 63.760 through 40 CFR 63.779
(facilities that process, upgrade, or store hydrocarbon
liquids or natural gas; ancillary equipment and compressors intended to operate
in volatile hazardous air pollutant service)
Subpart II - Shipbuilding and Ship Repair (Surface Coating).
40 CFR 63.780 through 40 CFR 63.788
(shipbuilding and ship repair operations)
Subpart JJ - Wood Furniture Manufacturing Operations.
40 CFR 63.800 through 40 CFR 63.819
(finishing materials, adhesives, and strippable spray booth
coatings; storage, transfer, and application of coatings and solvents)
Subpart KK - Printing and Publishing Industry.
40 CFR 63.820 through 40 CFR 63.831
(publication rotogravure, product and packaging rotogravure,
and wide-web printing processes)
Subpart LL - Primary Aluminum Reduction Plants.
40 CFR 63.840 through 40 CFR 63.859
(each pitch storage tank, potline, paste production plant, or
anode bulk furnace associated with primary aluminum production)
Subpart MM - Chemical Recovery Combustion Sources at Kraft,
Soda, Sulfite and Stand-Alone Semichemical Pulp Mills.
40 CFR 63.860 through 40 CFR 63.868
(chemical recovery systems, direct and nondirect contact
evaporator recovery furnace systems, lime kilns, sulfite combustion units,
semichemical combustion units)
Subpart NN - Reserved Wool Fiberglass Manufacturing
at Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.880 through 40 CFR 63.899
(manufacture of wool fiberglass insulation materials
composed of glass fibers made from glass produced or melted at the same
facility where the manufacturing line is located)
Subpart OO - Tanks--Level 1.
40 CFR 63.900 through 40 CFR 63.907
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, fixed-roof tanks)
Subpart PP - Containers.
40 CFR 63.920 through 40 CFR 63.928
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, containers)
Subpart QQ - Surface Impoundments.
40 CFR 63.940 through 40 CFR 63.948
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, surface
impoundment covers and vents)
Subpart RR - Individual Drain Systems.
40 CFR 63.960 through 40 CFR 63.966
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, inspection and
maintenance of individual drain systems)
Subpart SS - Closed Vent Systems, Control Devices, Recovery
Devices and Routing to a Fuel Gas System or a Process.
40 CFR 63.980 through 40 CFR 63.999
(closed vent systems, control devices, recovery devices, and
routing to a fuel gas system or a process, when associated with facilities
subject to a referencing subpart)
Subpart TT - Equipment Leaks - Control Level 1.
40 CFR 63.1000 through 40 CFR 63.1018
(control of air emissions from equipment leaks when associated
with facilities subject to a referencing subpart)
Subpart UU - Equipment Leaks - Control Level 2.
40 CFR 63.1019 through 40 CFR 63.1039
(control of air emissions from equipment leaks when associated
with facilities subject to a referencing subpart: pumps, compressors,
agitators, pressure relief devices, sampling connection systems, open-ended
valves or lines, valves, connectors, instrumentation systems, closed vent
systems and control devices)
Subpart VV - Oil-Water Separators and Organic-Water Separators.
40 CFR 63.1040 through 40 CFR 63.1049
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, oil-water
separators and organic-water separator roofs and vents)
Subpart WW - Storage Vessels (Tanks) - Control Level 2.
40 CFR 63.1060 through 40 CFR 63.1066
(storage vessels associated with facilities subject to a
referencing subpart)
Subpart XX - Ethylene Manufacturing Process Units: Heat
Exchange Systems and Waste.
40 CFR 63.1080 through 40 CFR 63.1098
(any cooling tower system or once-through cooling water
system)
Subpart YY - Generic Maximum Achievable Control Technology
Standards.
40 CFR 63.1100 through 40 CFR 63.1113
(acetal resins production, acrylic and modacrylic fibers
production, hydrogen fluoride production, polycarbonate production)
Subpart ZZ - Reserved.
Subpart AAA - Reserved.
Subpart BBB - Reserved.
Subpart CCC - Steel Pickling - Hydrogen Chloride Process
Facilities and Hydrochloric Acid Regeneration Plants.
40 CFR 63.1155 through 40 CFR 63.1174
(steel pickling facilities that pickle carbon steel using
hydrochloric acid solution, hydrochloric acid regeneration plants)
Subpart DDD - Mineral Wool Production.
40 CFR 63.1175 through 40 CFR 63.1199
(cupolas and curing ovens at mineral wool manufacturing
facilities)
Subpart EEE - Hazardous Waste Combustors.
40 CFR 63.1200 through 40 CFR 63.1221
(hazardous waste combustors)
Subpart FFF - Reserved.
Subpart GGG - Pharmaceutical Production.
40 CFR 63.1250 through 40 CFR 63.1261
(pharmaceutical manufacturing operations)
Subpart HHH - Natural Gas Transmission and Storage Facilities.
40 CFR 63.1270 through 40 CFR 63.1289
(natural gas transmission and storage facilities that
transport or store natural gas prior to entering the pipeline to a local
distribution company or to a final end user)
Subpart III - Flexible Polyurethane Foam Production.
40 CFR 63.1290 through 40 CFR 63.1309
(flexible polyurethane foam or rebond processes)
Subpart JJJ - Group IV Polymers and Resins.
40 CFR 63.1310 through 40 CFR 63.1335
(facilities which manufacture acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
resin, styrene acrylonitrile resin, methyl methacrylate butadiene styrene
resin, polystyrene resin, poly(ethylene terephthalate) resin, or nitrile resin)
Subpart KKK - Reserved.
Subpart LLL - Portland Cement Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.1340 through 40 CFR 63.1359
(kilns; in-line kilns/raw mills; clinker coolers; raw mills;
finish mills; raw material dryers; raw material, clinker, or finished product
storage bins; conveying system transfer points; bagging systems; bulk loading
or unloading systems)
Subpart MMM - Pesticide Active Ingredient Production.
40 CFR 63.1360 through 40 CFR 63.1369
(pesticide active ingredient manufacturing process units,
waste management units, heat exchange systems, and cooling towers)
Subpart NNN - Wool Fiberglass Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.1380 through 40 CFR 63.1399
(glass melting furnaces, rotary spin wool fiberglass
manufacturing lines producing bonded wool fiberglass building insulation or
bonded heavy-density product)
Subpart OOO - Amino/Phenolic
Resins Production.
40 CFR 63.1400 through 40 CFR 63.1419
(unit operations, process vents, storage vessels, equipment
subject to leak provisions)
Subpart PPP - Polyether Polyols Production.
40 CFR 63.1420 through 40 CFR 63.1439
(polyether polyol manufacturing process units)
Subpart QQQ - Primary Copper Smelting.
40 CFR 63.1440 through 40 CFR 63.1-1459
(batch copper converters, including copper concentrate dryers,
smelting furnaces, slag cleaning vessels, copper converter departments, and the
entire group of fugitive emission sources)
Subpart RRR - Secondary Aluminum Production.
40 CFR 63.1500 through 40 CFR 63.1520
(scrap shredders; thermal chip dryers; scrap
dryers/delacquering kilns/decoating kilns; group 2, sweat, dross-only furnaces;
rotary dross coolers; processing units)
Subpart SSS - Reserved.
Subpart TTT - Primary Lead Smelting.
40 CFR 63.1541 through 40 CFR 63.1550
(sinter machines, blast furnaces, dross furnaces, process
fugitive sources, fugitive dust sources)
Subpart UUU - Petroleum Refineries: Catalytic Cracking Units,
Catalytic Reforming Units, and Sulfur Recovery Units.
40 CFR 63.1560 through 40 CFR 63.1579
(petroleum refineries that produce transportation and heating
fuels or lubricants, separate petroleum, or separate, crack, react, or reform
an intermediate petroleum stream, or recover byproducts from an intermediate
petroleum stream)
Subpart VVV - Publicly Owned Treatment Works.
40 CFR 63.1580 through 40 CFR 63.1595
(intercepting sewers, outfall sewers, sewage collection
systems, pumping, power, and other equipment)
Subpart WWW - Reserved.
Subpart XXX - Ferroalloys Production: Ferromanganese and
Silicomanganese.
40 CFR 63.1620 through 40 CFR 63.1679
(submerged arc furnaces, metal oxygen refining processes,
crushing and screening operations, fugitive dust sources)
Subpart YYY - Reserved.
Subpart ZZZ - Reserved.
Subpart AAAA - Municipal Solid Waste Landfills.
40 CFR 63.1930 through 40 CFR 63.1990
(municipal solid waste landfills that have accepted waste
since November 8, 1987, or have additional capacity for waste deposition)
Subpart BBBB - Reserved.
Subpart CCCC - Manufacturing of Nutritional Yeast.
40 CFR 63.2130 through 40 CFR 63.2192
(fermentation vessels)
Subpart DDDD - Plywood and Composite Wood Products.
40 CFR 63.2230 through 40 CFR 63.2292
(manufacture of plywood and composite wood products by bonding
wood material or agricultural fiber with resin under heat and pressure to form
a structural panel or engineered wood product)
Subpart EEEE - Organic Liquids Distribution (Nongasoline).
40 CFR 63.2330 through 40 CFR 63.2406
(transfer of noncrude oil liquids or liquid mixtures that
contain organic hazardous air pollutants, or crude oils downstream of the first
point of custody, via storage tanks, transfer racks, equipment leak components
associated with pipelines, and transport vehicles)
Subpart FFFF - Miscellaneous Organic Chemical Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.2430 through 40 CFR 63.2550
(reaction, recovery, separation, purification, or other
activity, operation, manufacture, or treatment that is used to produce a
product or isolated intermediate)
Subpart GGGG - Solvent Extraction for Vegetable Oil Production.
40 CFR 63.2830 through 40 CFR 63.2872
(vegetable oil production processes)
Subpart HHHH - Wet-formed Fiberglass Mat Production.
40 CFR 63.2980 through 63.3079
(wet-formed fiberglass mat drying and curing ovens)
Subpart IIII - Surface Coating of Automobiles and Light-Duty
Trucks.
40 CFR 63.3080 through 40 CFR 63.3176.
(application of topcoat to new automobile or new light-duty
truck bodies or body parts)
Subpart JJJJ - Paper and Other Web Coating.
40 CFR 63.3280 through 40 CFR 63.3420
(web coating lines engaged in the coating of metal webs used
in flexible packaging and in the coating of fabric substrates for use in
pressure-sensitive tape and abrasive materials)
Subpart KKKK - Surface Coating of Metal Cans.
40 CFR 63.3480 through 40 CFR 63.3561
(application of coatings to a substrate using spray guns or
dip tanks, including one-piece and two-piece draw and iron can body
coating; sheetcoating; three-piece can body assembly coating; and end coating)
Subpart LLLL - Reserved.
Subpart MMMM - Surface Coating of Miscellaneous Metal Parts and
Products.
40 CFR 63.3880 through 40 CFR 63.3981
(application of coatings to industrial, household, and
consumer products)
Subpart NNNN - Surface Coating of Large Appliances.
40 CFR 63.4080 through 40 CFR 63.4181
(surface coating of a large appliance part or product,
including cooking equipment; refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerated cabinets
and cases; laundry equipment; dishwashers, trash compactors, and water heaters;
and HVAC units, air-conditioning, air-conditioning and heating combination
units, comfort furnaces, and electric heat pumps)
Subpart OOOO - Printing,
Coating, and Dyeing of Fabrics and Other Textiles.
40 CFR 63.4280 through 40 CFR 63.4371
(printing, coating, slashing, dyeing, or finishing of fabric
and other textiles)
Subpart PPPP - Surface Coating of Plastic Parts and Products.
40 CFR 63.4480 through 40 CFR 63.4581
(application of coating to a substrate using spray guns or dip
tanks, including motor vehicle parts and accessories for automobiles, trucks,
recreational vehicles; sporting and recreational goods; toys; business machines;
laboratory and medical equipment; and household and other consumer products)
Subpart QQQQ - Surface Coating of Wood Building Products.
40 CFR 63.4680 through 40 CFR 63.4781
(finishing or laminating of wood building products used in the
construction of a residential, commercial, or institutional building)
Subpart RRRR - Surface Coating of Metal Furniture.
40 CFR 63.4880 through 40 CFR 63.4981
(application of coatings to substrate using spray guns and dip
tanks)
Subpart SSSS - Surface Coating of Metal Coil.
40 CFR 63.5080 through 40 CFR 63.5209
(organic coating to surface of metal coil, including web
unwind or feed sections, work stations, curing ovens, wet sections, and quench
stations)
Subpart TTTT - Leather Finishing Operations.
40 CFR 63.5280 through 40 CFR 63.5460
(multistage application of finishing materials to adjust and
improve the physical and aesthetic characteristics of leather surfaces)
Subpart UUUU - Cellulose Products Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.5480 through 40 CFR 63.5610
(cellulose food casing, rayon, cellulosic sponge, cellophane
manufacturing, methyl cellulose, hydroxypropyl methyl cellulose, hydroxypropyl
cellulose, hydroxyethyl cellulose, and carboxymethyl cellulose manufacturing
industries)
Subpart VVVV - Boat Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.5680 through 40 CFR 63.5779
(resin and gel coat operations, carpet and fabric adhesive
operations, aluminum recreational boat surface coating operations)
Subpart WWWW - Reinforced Plastic Composites Production.
40 CFR 63.5780 through 40 CFR 63.5935
(reinforced or nonreinforced plastic composites or plastic
molding compounds using thermostat resins and gel coats that contain styrene)
Subpart XXXX - Rubber Tire Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.5980 through 40 CFR 63.6015
(production of rubber tires and components including rubber
compounds, sidewalls, tread, tire beads, tire cord and liners)
Subpart YYYY - Stationary Combustion Turbines.
40 CFR 63.6080 through 40 CFR 63.6175
(simple cycle, regenerative/recuperative cycle, cogeneration
cycle, and combined cycle stationary combustion turbines)
Subpart ZZZZ - Stationary Reciprocating Internal Combustion
Engines.
40 CFR 63.6580 through 40 CFR 63.6675.
(any stationary internal combustion engine that uses
reciprocating motion to convert heat energy into mechanical work)
(NOTE: Authority to enforce provisions related to affected
facilities located at a major source as defined in 40 CFR 63.6675 is being
retained by the Commonwealth. Authority to enforce the area source provisions
of the above standard is being retained by EPA and are not incorporated by
reference into these regulations for any source that is not (i) a major source
as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq.,
Federal Operating Permits for Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80
(Permits for Stationary Sources) or (ii) an affected source as defined in
9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3 (9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating
Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart AAAAA - Lime Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 63.7080 through 40 CFR 63.7143.
(manufacture of lime product, including calcium oxide, calcium
oxide with magnesium oxide, or dead burned dolomite, by calcination of
limestone, dolomite, shells or other calcareous substances)
Subpart BBBBB - Semiconductor Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.7180 through 40 CFR 63.7195
(semiconductor manufacturing process units used to manufacture
p-type and n-type semiconductors and active solid-state devices from a wafer
substrate)
Subpart CCCCC - Coke Ovens: Pushing, Quenching, and Battery
Stacks.
40 CFR 63.7280 through 40 CFR 63.7352
(pushing, soaking, quenching, and battery stacks at coke oven
batteries)
Subpart DDDDD - Industrial,
Commercial, and Institutional Boilers and Process Heaters.
40 CFR 63.7480 through 40 CFR 63.7575
(industrial, commercial, and institutional boilers and process
heaters)
Subpart EEEEE - Iron and Steel Foundries.
40 CFR 63.7680 through 40 CFR 63.7765
(metal melting furnaces, scrap preheaters, pouring areas,
pouring stations, automated conveyor and pallet cooling lines, automated
shakeout lines, and mold and core making lines)
Subpart FFFFF - Integrated Iron and Steel Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.7780 through 40 CFR 63.7852
(each sinter plant, blast furnace, and basic oxygen process
furnace at an integrated iron and steel manufacturing facility)
Subpart GGGGG - Site Remediation.
40 CFR 63.7880 through 40 CFR 63.7957
(activities or processes used to remove, destroy, degrade,
transform, immobilize, or otherwise manage remediation material)
Subpart HHHHH - Miscellaneous Coating Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.7980 through 40 CFR 63.8105
(process vessels; storage tanks for feedstocks and products;
pumps, compressors, agitators, pressure relief devices, sampling connection systems,
open-ended valves or lines, valves, connectors, and instrumentation systems;
wastewater tanks and transfer racks)
Subpart IIIII - Mercury Cell Chlor-Alkali Plants.
40 CFR 63.8180 through 40 CFR 63.8266
(byproduct hydrogen streams, end box ventilation system vents,
and fugitive emission sources associated with cell rooms, hydrogen systems,
caustic systems, and storage areas for mercury-containing wastes)
Subpart JJJJJ - Brick and Structural Clay Products
Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.8380 through 40 CFR 63.8515
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations.
(facilities that manufacture brick, clay pipe, roof tile, extruded floor and
wall tile, and other extruded, dimensional clay products, and typically process
raw clay and shale, form the processed materials into bricks or shapes, and dry
and fire the bricks or shapes)
Subpart KKKKK - Ceramics Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.8530 through 40 CFR 63.8665
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations.
(facilities that manufacture pressed floor tile, pressed wall tile, other
pressed tile, or sanitaryware, and typically process clay, shale, and various
additives, form the processed materials into tile or sanitaryware shapes, and
dry and fire the ceramic products)
Subpart LLLLL - Asphalt Processing and Asphalt Roof
Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.8680 through 40 CFR 63.8698
(preparation of asphalt flux at stand-alone asphalt processing
facilities, petroleum refineries, and asphalt roofing facilities)
Subpart MMMMM - Flexible Polyurethane Foam Fabrication
Operations.
40 CFR 63.8780 through 40 CFR 63.8830
(flexible polyurethane foam fabrication plants using flame
lamination or loop slitter adhesives)
Subpart NNNNN - Hydrochloric Acid Production.
40 CFR 63.8980 through 40 CFR 63.9075
(HCl production facilities that produce a liquid HCl product)
Subpart OOOOO - Reserved.
Subpart PPPPP - Engine Test Cells and Stands.
40 CFR Subpart 63.9280 through 40 CFR 63.9375
(any apparatus used for testing uninstalled stationary or
uninstalled mobile (motive) engines)
Subpart QQQQQ - Friction Materials Manufacturing Facilities.
40 CFR 63.9480 through 40 CFR 63.9579
(friction materials manufacturing facilities that use a
solvent-based process)
Subpart RRRRR - Taconite Iron Ore Processing.
40 CFR 63.9580 through 40 CFR 63.9652
(ore crushing and handling, ore dryer stacks, indurating
furnace stacks, finished pellet handling, and fugitive dust)
Subpart SSSSS - Refractory Products Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.9780 through 40 CFR 63.9824
(manufacture of refractory products, including refractory
bricks and shapes, monolithics, kiln furniture, crucibles, and other materials
for liming furnaces and other high temperature process units)
Subpart TTTTT - Primary Magnesium Refining.
40 CFR 63.9880 through 40 CFR 63.9942
(spray dryer, magnesium chloride storage bin scrubber, melt/reactor
system, and launder off-gas system stacks)
Subpart UUUUU - Coal-fired and Oil-fired Electric Utility
Steam Generating Units.
40 CFR 63.9980 through 40 CFR 63.10042
(any furnace, boiler, or other device used for combusting fuel
for the purpose of producing steam, including fossil fuel-fired steam
generators associated with integrated gasification combined cycle gas turbines
and excluding nuclear steam generators, for the purpose of powering a generator
to produce electricity or electricity and other thermal energy)
Subpart VVVVV - Reserved.
Subpart WWWWW - Hospital Ethylene Oxide Sterilizer Area
Sources.
40 CFR 63.10382 through 40 CFR 63.10448
(any enclosed vessel that is filled with ethylene oxide gas or
an ethylene oxide/inert gas mixture for the purpose of sterilization)
Subpart XXXXX - Reserved.
Subpart YYYYY - Electric Arc Furnace Steelmaking Facility Area
Sources.
40 CFR 63.10680 through 40 CFR 63.10692
(a steel plant that produces carbon, alloy, or specialty
steels using an electric arc furnace)
Subpart ZZZZZ - Iron and Steel Foundries Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.10880 through 40 CFR 63.10906
(a facility that melts scrap, ingot, and/or other forms of
iron and/or steel and pours the resulting molten metal into molds to produce
final or near final shape products for introduction into commerce)
Subpart AAAAAA - Reserved.
Subpart BBBBBB - Gasoline Distribution Bulk Terminals, Bulk
Plants, and Pipeline Facilities, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11080 through 40 CFR 63.11100
(gasoline storage tanks, gasoline loading racks, vapor
collection-equipped gasoline cargo tanks, and equipment components in vapor or
liquid gasoline service)
Subpart CCCCCC - Gasoline Dispensing Facilities, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11110 through 40 CFR 63.11132
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations
for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and
subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for
Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or
(ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart DDDDDD - Polyvinyl Chloride and Copolymers Production
Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11140 through 40 CFR 63.11145
(plants that produce polyvinyl chloride or copolymers)
Subpart EEEEEE - Primary Copper Smelting Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11146 through 40 CFR 63.11152
(any installation or any intermediate process engaged in the
production of copper from copper sulfide ore concentrates through the use of
pyrometallurgical techniques)
Subpart FFFFFF - Secondary Copper Smelting Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11153 through 40 CFR 63.11159
(a facility that processes copper scrap in a blast furnace and
converter or that uses another pyrometallurgical purification process to
produce anode copper from copper scrap, including low-grade copper scrap)
Subpart GGGGGG - Primary Nonferrous Metals Area Sources--Zinc,
Cadmium, and Beryllium.
40 CFR 63.11160 through 40 CFR 63.11168
(cadmium melting furnaces used to melt cadmium or produce
cadmium oxide from the cadmium recovered in the zinc production; primary
beryllium production facilities engaged in the chemical processing of beryllium
ore to produce beryllium metal, alloy, or oxide, or performing any of the
intermediate steps in these processes; and primary zinc production facilities
engaged in the production, or any intermediate process in the production, of
zinc or zinc oxide from zinc sulfide ore concentrates through the use of
pyrometallurgical techniques)
Subpart
HHHHHH - Paint Stripping and Miscellaneous Surface Coating Operations Area
Sources.
40 CFR 63.11169 through 40 CFR 63.11180
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations
for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and
subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for
Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or
(ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart
IIIIII - Reserved.
Subpart
JJJJJJ - Industrial, Commercial, and Institutional Boiler Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11193 through 40 CFR 63.11226
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and is not incorporated by reference into these regulations for
any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and subject
to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Stationary
Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or (ii) an
affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart
KKKKKK - Reserved.
Subpart
LLLLLL - Acrylic and Modacrylic Fibers Production Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11393 through 40 CFR 63.11399
(production of either of the following synthetic fibers
composed of acrylonitrile units: acrylic fiber or modacrylic fiber)
Subpart
MMMMMM - Carbon Black Production Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11400 through 40 CFR 63.11406
(carbon black production process units including all waste
management units, maintenance wastewater, and equipment components that contain
or contact HAP that are associated with the carbon black production process
unit)
Subpart
NNNNNN - Chemical Manufacturing Area Sources: Chromium Compounds.
40 CFR 63.11407 through 40 CFR 63.11413
(any process that uses chromite ore as the basic feedstock to
manufacture chromium compounds, primarily sodium dichromate, chromic acid, and
chromic oxide)
Subpart
OOOOOO - Flexible Polyurethane Foam Production and Fabrication Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11414 through 40 CFR 63.11420
(a facility where pieces of flexible polyurethane foam are
cut, bonded, and/or laminated together or to other substrates)
Subpart
PPPPPP - Lead Acid Battery Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11421 through 40 CFR 63.11427
(grid casting facilities, paste mixing facilities,
three-process operation facilities, lead oxide manufacturing facilities, lead
reclamation facilities, and any other lead-emitting operation that is
associated with the lead acid battery manufacturing plant)
Subpart
QQQQQQ - Wood Preserving Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11428 through 40 CFR 63.11434
(pressure or thermal impregnation of chemicals into wood to
provide effective long-term resistance to attack by fungi, bacteria, insects,
and marine borers)
Subpart
RRRRRR - Clay Ceramics Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11435 through 40 CFR 63.11447
(manufacture of pressed tile, sanitaryware, dinnerware, or
pottery with an atomized glaze spray booth or kiln that fires glazed ceramic
ware)
Subpart
SSSSSS - Glass Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11448 through 40 CFR 63.11461
(manufacture of flat glass, glass containers, or pressed and
blown glass by melting a mixture of raw materials to produce molten glass and
form the molten glass into sheets, containers, or other shapes)
Subpart
TTTTTT - Secondary Nonferrous Metals Processing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11462 through 40 CFR 63.11474
(all crushing and screening operations at a secondary zinc
processing facility and all furnace melting operations located at any secondary
nonferrous metals processing facility)
Subpart
UUUUUU - Reserved.
Subpart
VVVVVV - Chemical Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11494 through 40 CFR 11503
(each chemical manufacturing process unit that uses as
feedstocks, generates as byproducts, or produces as products any of the
following: 1,3-butadiene; 1,3-dichloropropene; acetaldehyde; chloroform;
ethylene dichloride; methylene chloride; hexachlorobenzene; hydrazine;
quinoline; or compounds of arsenic, cadmium, chromium, lead, manganese, or
nickel)
Subpart
WWWWWW - Plating and Polishing Operations, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11504 through 40 CFR 63.11513
(new and existing tanks, thermal spraying equipment, and
mechanical polishing equipment used in non-chromium electroplating, electroless
or non-electrolytic plating, non-electrolytic metal coating, dry mechanical
polishing, electroforming, and electropolishing)
Subpart
XXXXXX - Nine Metal Fabrication and Finishing Source Categories, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11514 through 40 CFR 63.11523
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations
for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and
subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for
Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or
(ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart
YYYYYY - Ferroalloys Production Facilities, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11524 through 40 CFR 63.11543
(manufacture of silicon metal, ferrosilicon, ferrotitanium
using the aluminum reduction process, ferrovanadium, ferromolybdenum, calcium
silicon, silicomanganese zirconium, ferrochrome silicon, silvery iron,
high-carbon ferrochrome, charge chrome, standard ferromanganese,
silicomanganese, ferromanganese silicon, calcium carbide or other ferroalloy
products using electrometallurgical operations including electric arc furnaces
or other reaction vessels)
Subpart
ZZZZZZ - Aluminum, Copper, and Other Nonferrous Foundries, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11544 through 40 CFR 63.11558
(melting operations at aluminum, copper, and other nonferrous
foundries, including the collection of induction, reverberatory, crucible,
tower, or dry hearth furnaces used to melt metal ingot, alloyed ingot and/or
metal scrap to produce molten metal that is poured into molds to make castings)
Subpart
AAAAAAA - Asphalt Processing and Asphalt Roofing Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11559 through 40 CFR 63.11567
(asphalt processing operations that prepare asphalt flux at
standalone asphalt processing facilities, petroleum refineries, and asphalt
roofing facilities that include one or more asphalt flux blowing stills; and
asphalt roofing manufacturing operations that manufacture asphalt roofing
products through a series of sequential process steps depending upon whether
the type of substrate used is organic or inorganic)
Subpart
BBBBBBB - Chemical Preparations Industry Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11579 through 40 CFR 63.11588
(any facility-wide collection of chemical preparation
operations, including the collection of mixing, blending, milling, and
extruding equipment used to manufacture chemical preparations that contain
metal compounds for chromium, lead, manganese, and nickel)
Subpart
CCCCCCC - Paints and Allied Products Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11599 through 40 CFR 63.11638
(paints and allied products manufacturing processes,
including, weighing, blending, mixing, grinding, tinting, dilution or other
formulation, as well as cleaning operations, material storage and transfer, and
piping)
Subpart
DDDDDDD - Prepared Feeds Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11619 through 40 CFR 63.11638
(production of animal feed from the point in the process where
a material containing chromium or manganese is added, to the point where the
finished product leaves the facility, including areas where materials
containing chromium and manganese are stored, areas where materials containing
chromium and manganese are temporarily stored prior to addition to the feed at
the mixer, mixing and grinding processes, pelleting and pellet cooling
processes, packing and bagging processes, crumblers and screens, bulk loading
operations, and all conveyors and other equipment that transfer feed materials)
Subpart
EEEEEEE - Gold Mine Ore Processing and Production Area Sources
40 CFR 63.11640 through 40 CFR 63.11653
(any industrial facility engaged in the processing of gold
mine ore that uses any of the following processes: roasting operations,
autoclaves, carbon kilns, preg tanks, electrowinning, mercury retorts, or melt
furnaces)
Subpart
FFFFFFF - Reserved.
Subpart
GGGGGGG - Reserved.
Subpart
HHHHHHH - Polyvinyl Chloride and Copolymers Production.
40 CFR 63.11860 through 40 CFR 63.12000
(facility-wide collection of PVCPU, storage vessels, heat
exchange systems, surge control vessels, wastewater and process wastewater
treatment systems that are associated with producing polyvinyl chloride and
copolymers)
Appendix A - Test Methods.
Appendix B - Sources Defined for Early Reduction Provisions.
Appendix C - Determination of the Fraction Biodegraded (Fbio)
in a Biological Treatment Unit.
Appendix D - Alternative Validation Procedure for EPA Waste and
Wastewater Methods.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4898; Filed December 16, 2016, 10:48 a.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE AIR POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
following regulatory action is exempt from Article 2 of the Administrative
Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code of Virginia,
which excludes regulations that are necessary to meet the requirements of
federal law or regulations, provided such regulations do not differ materially
from those required by federal law or regulation. The State Air Pollution
Control Board will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any
interested person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
Titles of Regulations: 9VAC5-50. New and Modified
Stationary Sources (Rev. J16) (amending 9VAC5-50-400, 9VAC5-50-410).
9VAC5-60. Hazardous Air Pollutant Sources (Rev. J16) (amending 9VAC5-60-60, 9VAC5-60-70,
9VAC5-60-90, 9VAC5-60-100).
Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1308 of the Code of
Virginia; §§ 110, 111, 123, 129, 171, 172, and 182 of the federal Clean
Air Act; 40 CFR Parts 51 and 60.
Effective Date: February 22, 2017.
Agency Contact: Karen G. Sabasteanski, Department of
Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,
telephone (804) 698-4426, FAX (804) 698-4510, or email
karen.sabasteanski@deq.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments update state regulations that incorporate by
reference certain federal regulations to reflect the Code of Federal
Regulations as published on July 1, 2016. The new standards in the federal
regulations that are being incorporated into the regulations by reference
include the following:
1. One new (Subpart OOOOa, Standards of Performance for
Crude Oil and Natural Gas Facilities for which Construction, Modification, or
Reconstruction Commenced after September 18, 2015) source performance standard
is not being incorporated at this time; this standard is listed with a note
that enforcement of the standard rests with the Environmental Protection
Agency. In addition, Subparts T, U, V, W, X, CCCC, and OOOO were amended. The
date of the Code of Federal Regulations book being incorporated by reference is
being updated to the latest version.
2. No new National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants (NESHAPs) are being incorporated; however, a number of typographical
errors have been corrected under Subpart M. The date of the Code of Federal
Regulations book being incorporated by reference is being updated to the latest
version.
3. Three new maximum achievable control technology
standards are being added: Subpart NN, Wool Fiberglass Manufacturing at Area
Sources (40 CFR 63.880 through 40 CFR 63.899); Subpart JJJJJ, Brick and
Structural Clay Products Manufacturing (40 CFR 63.8380 through 40 CFR 63.8515);
and Subpart KKKKK, Ceramics Manufacturing (40 CFR 63.8530 through 40 CFR
63.8665). In addition, Subparts AA, BB, CC, and DD are amended. The date of the
Code of Federal Regulations book being incorporated by reference is being
updated to the latest version.
Article 5
Environmental Protection Agency Standards of Performance for New Stationary
Sources (Rule 5-5)
9VAC5-50-400. General.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Regulations on
Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources (NSPSs), as promulgated in
40 CFR Part 60 and designated in 9VAC5-50-410 are, unless indicated otherwise,
incorporated by reference into the regulations of the board as amended by the
word or phrase substitutions given in 9VAC5-50-420. The complete text of the
subparts in 9VAC5-50-410 incorporated herein by reference is contained in 40
CFR Part 60. The 40 CFR section numbers appearing under each subpart in
9VAC5-50-410 identify the specific provisions of the subpart incorporated by
reference. The specific version of the provision adopted by reference shall be
that contained in the CFR (2015) (2016) in effect July 1, 2015
2016. In making reference to the Code of Federal Regulations, 40 CFR
Part 60 means Part 60 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations; 40 CFR
60.1 means 60.1 in Part 60 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
9VAC5-50-410. Designated standards of performance.
Subpart A - General Provisions.
40 CFR 60.1 through 40 CFR 60.3, 40 CFR 60.7, 40 CFR 60.8, 40
CFR 60.11 through 40 CFR 60.15, 40 CFR 60.18 through 40 CFR 60.19
(applicability, definitions, units and abbreviations,
notification and recordkeeping, performance tests, compliance, circumvention,
monitoring requirements, modification, reconstruction, general control device
requirements, and general notification and reporting requirements)
Subpart B - Not applicable.
Subpart C - Not applicable.
Subpart Ca - Reserved.
Subpart Cb - Not applicable.
Subpart Cc - Not applicable.
Subpart Cd - Not applicable.
Subpart Ce - Not applicable.
Subpart D - Fossil Fuel-Fired Steam Generators.
40 CFR 60.40 through 40 CFR 60.46
(fossil fuel-fired steam generating units of more than 250
million Btu per hour heat input rate and fossil fuel-fired and wood
residue-fired steam generating units capable of firing fossil fuel at a heat
input rate of more than 250 million Btu per hour)
Subpart Da - Electric Utility Steam Generating Units.
40 CFR 60.40Da through 40 CFR 60.52Da
(electric utility steam generating units capable of combusting
more than 250 million Btu per hour heat input of fossil fuel (either alone or
in combination with any other fuel), and for which construction,
reconstruction, or modification is commenced after September 18, 1978)
Subpart Db - Industrial-Commercial-Institutional Steam
Generating Units.
40 CFR 60.40b through 40 CFR 60.49b
(industrial-commercial-institutional steam generating units
which have a heat input capacity from combusted fuels of more than 100 million
Btu per hour)
Subpart Dc - Small Industrial-Commercial-Institutional Steam
Generating Units.
40 CFR 60.40c through 40 CFR 60.48c
(industrial-commercial-institutional steam generating units
which have a heat input capacity of 100 million Btu per hour or less, but
greater than or equal to 10 million Btu per hour)
Subpart E - Incinerators.
40 CFR 60.50 through 40 CFR 60.54
(incinerator units of more than 50 tons per day charging rate)
Subpart Ea - Municipal Waste Combustors for which Construction
is Commenced after December 20, 1989, and on or before September 20, 1994.
40 CFR 60.50a through 40 CFR 60.59a
(municipal waste combustor units with a capacity greater than
250 tons per day of municipal-type solid waste or refuse-derived fuel)
Subpart Eb - Large Municipal Combustors for which Construction
is Commenced after September 20, 1994, or for which Modification or
Reconstruction is Commenced after June 19, 1996.
40 CFR 60.50b through 40 CFR 60.59b
(municipal waste combustor units with a capacity greater than
250 tons per day of municipal-type solid waste or refuse-derived fuel)
Subpart Ec - Hospital/Medical/Infectious Waste Incinerators for
which Construction is Commenced after June 20, 1996.
40 CFR 60.50c through 40 CFR 60.58c
(hospital/medical/infectious waste incinerators that combust
any amount of hospital waste and medical/infectious waste or both)
Subpart F - Portland Cement Plants.
40 CFR 60.60 through 40 CFR 60.66
(kilns, clinker coolers, raw mill systems, finish mill
systems, raw mill dryers, raw material storage, clinker storage, finished
product storage, conveyor transfer points, bagging and bulk loading and
unloading systems)
Subpart G - Nitric Acid Plants.
40 CFR 60.70 through 40 CFR 60.74
(nitric acid production units)
Subpart Ga - Nitric Acid Plants for which Construction,
Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after October 14, 2011.
40 CFR 60.70a through 40 CFR 60.77a
(nitric acid production units producing weak nitric acid by
either the pressure or atmospheric pressure process)
Subpart H - Sulfuric Acid Plants.
40 CFR 60.80 through 40 CFR 60.85
(sulfuric acid production units)
Subpart I - Hot Mix Asphalt Facilities.
40 CFR 60.90 through 40 CFR 60.93
(dryers; systems for screening, handling, storing and weighing
hot aggregate; systems for loading, transferring and storing mineral filler;
systems for mixing asphalt; and the loading, transfer and storage systems associated
with emission control systems)
Subpart J - Petroleum Refineries.
40 CFR 60.100 through 40 CFR 60.106
(fluid catalytic cracking unit catalyst regenerators, fluid
catalytic cracking unit incinerator-waste heat boilers and fuel gas combustion
devices)
Subpart Ja - Petroleum Refineries for which Construction,
Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after May 14, 2007.
40 CFR 60.100a through 40 CFR 60.109a
(fluid catalytic cracking units, fluid coking units, delayed
coking units, fuel gas combustion devices, including flares and process
heaters, and sulfur recovery plants)
Subpart K - Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids for which
Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after June 11, 1973,
and prior to May 19, 1978.
40 CFR 60.110 through 40 CFR 60.113
(storage vessels with a capacity greater than 40,000 gallons)
Subpart Ka - Storage Vessels for Petroleum Liquids for which
Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after May 18, 1978, and
prior to July 23, 1984.
40 CFR 60.110a through 40 CFR 60.115a
(storage vessels with a capacity greater than 40,000 gallons)
Subpart Kb - Volatile Organic Liquid Storage Vessels (Including
Petroleum Liquid Storage Vessels) for which Construction, Reconstruction, or
Modification Commenced after July 23, 1984.
40 CFR 60.110b through 40 CFR 60.117b
(storage vessels with capacity greater than or equal to 10,566
gallons)
Subpart L - Secondary Lead Smelters.
40 CFR 60.120 through 40 CFR 60.123
(pot furnaces of more than 550 pound charging capacity, blast
(cupola) furnaces and reverberatory furnaces)
Subpart M - Secondary Brass and Bronze Production Plants.
40 CFR 60.130 through 40 CFR 60.133
(reverberatory and electric furnaces of 2205 pound or greater
production capacity and blast (cupola) furnaces of 550 pounds per hour or
greater production capacity)
Subpart N - Primary Emissions from Basic Oxygen Process
Furnaces for which Construction is Commenced after June 11, 1973.
40 CFR 60.140 through 40 CFR 60.144
(basic oxygen process furnaces)
Subpart Na - Secondary Emissions from Basic Oxygen Process
Steelmaking Facilities for which Construction is Commenced after January 20,
1983.
40 CFR 60.140a through 40 CFR 60.145a
(facilities in an iron and steel plant: top-blown BOPFs and
hot metal transfer stations and skimming stations used with bottom-blown or
top-blown BOPFs)
Subpart O - Sewage Treatment Plants.
40 CFR 60.150 through 40 CFR 60.154
(incinerators that combust wastes containing more than 10%
sewage sludge (dry basis) produced by municipal sewage treatment plants or
incinerators that charge more than 2205 pounds per day municipal sewage sludge
(dry basis))
Subpart P - Primary Copper Smelters.
40 CFR 60.160 through 40 CFR 60.166
(dryers, roasters, smelting furnaces, and copper converters)
Subpart Q - Primary Zinc Smelters.
40 CFR 60.170 through 40 CFR 60.176
(roasters and sintering machines)
Subpart R - Primary Lead Smelters
40 CFR 60.180 through 40 CFR 60.186
(sintering machines, sintering machine discharge ends, blast
furnaces, dross reverberatory furnaces, electric smelting furnaces and
converters)
Subpart S - Primary Aluminum Reduction Plants.
40 CFR 60.190 through 40 CFR 60.195
(potroom groups and anode bake plants)
Subpart T - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Wet-Process
Phosphoric Acid Plants.
40 CFR 60.200 through 40 CFR 60.204 40 CFR
60.205
(reactors, filters, evaporators, and hot wells)
Subpart U - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Superphosphoric Acid
Plants.
40 CFR 60.210 through 40 CFR 60.214 40 CFR 60.215
(evaporators, hot wells, acid sumps, and cooling tanks)
Subpart V - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Diammonium Phosphate
Plants.
40 CFR 60.220 through 40 CFR 60.224 40 CFR 60.225
(reactors, granulators, dryers, coolers, screens, and mills)
Subpart W - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Triple
Superphosphate Plants.
40 CFR 60.230 through 40 CFR 60.234 40 CFR 60.235
(mixers, curing belts (dens), reactors, granulators, dryers,
cookers, screens, mills, and facilities which store run-of-pile triple
superphosphate)
Subpart X - Phosphate Fertilizer Industry: Granular Triple
Superphosphate Storage Facilities.
40 CFR 60.240 through 40 CFR 60.244 40 CFR 60.245
(storage or curing piles, conveyors, elevators, screens and
mills)
Subpart Y - Coal Preparation and Processing Plants.
40 CFR 60.250 through 40 CFR 60.258
(plants which process more than 200 tons per day: thermal
dryers, pneumatic coal-cleaning equipment (air tables), coal processing and
conveying equipment (including breakers and crushers), coal storage systems,
and coal transfer and loading systems)
Subpart Z - Ferroalloy Production Facilities.
40 CFR 60.260 through 40 CFR 60.266
(electric submerged arc furnaces which produce silicon metal,
ferrosilicon, calcium silicon, silicomanganese zirconium, ferrochrome silicon,
silvery iron, high-carbon ferrochrome, charge chrome, standard ferromanganese,
silicomanganese, ferromanganese silicon or calcium carbide; and dust-handling
equipment)
Subpart AA - Steel Plants: Electric Arc Furnaces Constructed
after October 21, 1974, and on or before August 17, 1983.
40 CFR 60.270 through 40 CFR 60.276
(electric arc furnaces and dust-handling systems that produce
carbon, alloy or specialty steels)
Subpart AAa - Steel Plants: Electric Arc Furnaces and
Argon-Oxygen Decarburization Vessels Constructed after August 17, 1983.
40 CFR 60.270a through 40 CFR 60.276a
(electric arc furnaces, argon-oxygen decarburization vessels,
and dust-handling systems that produce carbon, alloy, or specialty steels)
Subpart BB - Kraft Pulp Mills.
40 CFR 60.280 through 40 CFR 60.285
(digester systems, brown stock washer systems, multiple effect
evaporator systems, black liquor oxidation systems, recovery furnaces, smelt
dissolving tanks, lime kilns, condensate strippers and kraft pulping
operations)
Subpart BBa - Kraft Pulp Mill Affected Sources for which
Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after May 23, 2013.
40 CFR 60.280a through 40 CFR 60.288a
(digester systems, brown stock washer systems, multiple effect
evaporator systems, black liquor oxidation systems, recovery furnaces, smelt
dissolving tanks, lime kilns, condensate strippers, and kraft pulping
operations)
Subpart CC - Glass Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 60.290 through 40 CFR 60.296
(glass melting furnaces)
Subpart DD - Grain Elevators.
40 CFR 60.300 through 40 CFR 60.304
(grain terminal elevators/grain storage elevators: truck
unloading stations, truck loading stations, barge and ship unloading stations,
barge and ship loading stations, railcar unloading stations, railcar loading
stations, grain dryers, and all grain handling operations)
Subpart EE - Surface Coating of Metal Furniture.
40 CFR 60.310 through 40 CFR 60.316
(metal furniture surface coating operations in which organic
coatings are applied)
Subpart FF - Reserved.
Subpart GG - Stationary Gas Turbines.
40 CFR 60.330 through 40 CFR 60.335
(stationary gas turbines with a heat input at peak load equal
to or greater than 10 million Btu per hour, based on the lower heating value of
the fuel fired)
Subpart HH - Lime Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 60.340 through 40 CFR 60.344
(each rotary lime kiln)
Subparts II through JJ - Reserved.
Subpart KK - Lead-Acid Battery Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 60.370 through 40 CFR 60.374
(lead-acid battery manufacturing plants that produce or have
the design capacity to produce in one day (24 hours) batteries containing an
amount of lead equal to or greater than 6.5 tons: grid casting facilities,
paste mixing facilities, three-process operation facilities, lead oxide
manufacturing facilities, lead reclamation facilities, and other lead-emitting
operations)
Subpart LL - Metallic Mineral Processing Plants.
40 CFR 60.380 through 40 CFR 60.386
(each crusher and screen in open-pit mines; each crusher,
screen, bucket elevator, conveyor belt transfer point, thermal dryer, product
packaging station, storage bin, enclosed storage area, truck loading station,
truck unloading station, railcar loading station, and railcar unloading station
at the mill or concentrator with the following exceptions. All facilities
located in underground mines are exempted from the provisions of this subpart.
At uranium ore processing plants, all facilities subsequent to and including
the beneficiation of uranium ore are exempted from the provisions of this
subpart)
Subpart MM - Automobile and Light Duty Truck Surface Coating
Operations.
40 CFR 60.390 through 40 CFR 60.397
(prime coat operations, guide coat operations, and top-coat
operations)
Subpart NN - Phosphate Rock Plants.
40 CFR 60.400 through 40 CFR 60.404
(phosphate rock plants which have a maximum plant production
capacity greater than four tons per hour: dryers, calciners, grinders, and
ground rock handling and storage facilities, except those facilities producing
or preparing phosphate rock solely for consumption in elemental phosphorous
production)
Subpart OO - Reserved.
Subpart PP - Ammonium Sulfate Manufacture.
40 CFR 60.420 through 40 CFR 60.424
(ammonium sulfate dryer within an ammonium sulfate
manufacturing plant in the caprolactam by-product, synthetic, and coke oven
by-product sectors of the ammonium sulfate industry)
Subpart QQ - Graphic Arts Industry: Publication Rotogravure
Printing.
40 CFR 60.430 through 40 CFR 60.435
(publication rotogravure printing presses, except proof
presses)
Subpart RR - Pressure Sensitive Tape and Label Surface Coating
Operations.
40 CFR 60.440 through 40 CFR 60.447
(pressure sensitive tape and label material coating lines)
Subpart SS - Industrial Surface Coating: Large Appliances.
40 CFR 60.450 through 40 CFR 60.456
(surface coating operations in large appliance coating lines)
Subpart TT - Metal Coil Surface Coating.
40 CFR 60.460 through 40 CFR 60.466
(metal coil surface coating operations: each prime coat
operation, each finish coat operation, and each prime and finish coat operation
combined when the finish coat is applied wet on wet over the prime coat and
both coatings are cured simultaneously)
Subpart UU - Asphalt Processing and Asphalt Roofing
Manufacture.
40 CFR 60.470 through 40 CFR 60.474
(each saturator and each mineral handling and storage facility
at asphalt roofing plants; and each asphalt storage tank and each blowing still
at asphalt processing plants, petroleum refineries, and asphalt roofing plants)
Subpart VV - Equipment Leaks of Volatile Organic Compounds in
the Synthetic Organic Chemicals Manufacturing Industry for which Construction,
Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after January 5, 1981, and on or
before November 7, 2006.
40 CFR 60.480 through 40 CFR 60.489
(all equipment within a process unit in a synthetic organic
chemicals manufacturing plant)
Subpart VVa - Equipment Leaks of VOC in the Synthetic Organic
Chemicals Manufacturing Industry for which Construction, Reconstruction, or
Modification Commenced after November 7, 2006.
40 CFR 60.480a through 40 CFR 60.489a
(all equipment within a process unit in a synthetic organic
chemicals manufacturing plant)
Subpart WW - Beverage Can Surface Coating Industry.
40 CFR 60.490 through 40 CFR 60.496
(beverage can surface coating lines: each exterior base coat
operation, each overvarnish coating operation, and each inside spray coating
operation)
Subpart XX - Bulk Gasoline Terminals.
40 CFR 60.500 through 40 CFR 60.506
(total of all loading racks at a bulk gasoline terminal which
deliver liquid product into gasoline tank trucks)
Subparts YY through ZZ - Reserved.
Subpart AAA - New Residential Wood Heaters.
40 CFR 60.530 through 40 CFR 60.539b
(NOTE: In accordance with Chapter 471 of the 2015 Acts of
Assembly, authority to enforce the above standard is being retained by EPA and
the standard is not incorporated by reference into these regulations. A state
permit may be required of certain facilities if the provisions of 9VAC5-50 and
9VAC5-80 apply. Owners should review those provisions and contact the
appropriate regional office for guidance on whether those provisions apply.)
Subpart BBB - Rubber Tire Manufacturing Industry.
40 CFR 60.540 through 40 CFR 60.548
(each undertread cementing operation, each sidewall cementing
operation, each tread end cementing operation, each bead cementing operation,
each green tire spraying operation, each Michelin-A operation, each Michelin-B
operation, and each Michelin-C automatic operation)
Subpart CCC - Reserved.
Subpart DDD - Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Emissions from
the Polymer Manufacturing Industry.
40 CFR 60.560 through 40 CFR 60.566
(for polypropylene and polyethylene manufacturing using a
continuous process that emits continuously or intermittently: all equipment
used in the manufacture of these polymers. For polystyrene manufacturing using
a continuous process that emits continuously: each material recovery section.
For poly(ethylene terephthalate) manufacturing using a continuous process that
emits continuously: each polymerization reaction section; if dimethyl
terephthalate is used in the process, each material recovery section is also an
affected facility; if terephthalic acid is used in the process, each raw
materials preparation section is also an affected facility. For VOC emissions
from equipment leaks: each group of fugitive emissions equipment within any
process unit, excluding poly(ethylene terephthalate) manufacture.)
Subpart EEE - Reserved.
Subpart FFF - Flexible Vinyl and Urethane Coating and Printing.
40 CFR 60.580 through 40 CFR 60.585
(each rotogravure printing line used to print or coat flexible
vinyl or urethane products)
Subpart GGG - Equipment Leaks of VOC in Petroleum Refineries
for which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after January
4, 1983, and on or before November 7, 2006.
40 CFR 60.590 through 40 CFR 60.593
(each compressor, valve, pump pressure relief device, sampling
connection system, open-ended valve or line, and flange or other connector in
VOC service)
Subpart GGGa - Equipment Leaks of VOC in Petroleum Refineries
for which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced after
November 7, 2006.
40 CFR 60.590a through 40 CFR 60.593a
(each compressor, valve, pump pressure relief device, sampling
connection system, open-ended valve or line, and flange or other connector in
VOC service)
Subpart HHH - Synthetic Fiber Production Facilities.
40 CFR 60.600 through 40 CFR 60.604
(each solvent-spun synthetic fiber process that produces more
than 500 megagrams of fiber per year)
Subpart III - Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Emissions from
the Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry (SOCMI) Air Oxidation
Unit Processes.
40 CFR 60.610 through 40 CFR 60.618
(each air oxidation reactor not discharging its vent stream
into a recovery system and each combination of an air oxidation reactor or two
or more air oxidation reactors and the recovery system into which the vent
streams are discharged)
Subpart JJJ - Petroleum Dry Cleaners.
40 CFR 60.620 through 40 CFR 60.625
(facilities located at a petroleum dry cleaning plant with a
total manufacturers' rated dryer capacity equal to or greater than 84 pounds:
petroleum solvent dry cleaning dryers, washers, filters, stills, and settling
tanks)
Subpart KKK - Equipment Leaks of VOC from Onshore Natural Gas
Processing Plants for which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification
Commenced after January 20, 1984, and on or before August 23, 2011.
40 CFR 60.630 through 40 CFR 60.636
(each compressor in VOC service or in wet gas service; each
pump, pressure relief device, open-ended valve or line, valve, and flange or
other connector that is in VOC service or in wet gas service, and any device or
system required by this subpart)
Subpart LLL - Sulfur Dioxide Emissions from Onshore Natural Gas
Processing for which Construction, Reconstruction, or Modification Commenced
after January 20, 1984, and on or before August 23, 2011.
40 CFR 60.640 through 40 CFR 60.648
(facilities that process natural gas: each sweetening unit,
and each sweetening unit followed by a sulfur recovery unit)
Subpart MMM - Reserved.
Subpart NNN - Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Emissions from
Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry (SOCMI) Distillation
Operations.
40 CFR 60.660 through 40 CFR 60.668
(each distillation unit not discharging its vent stream into a
recovery system, each combination of a distillation unit or of two or more
units and the recovery system into which their vent streams are discharged)
Subpart OOO - Nonmetallic Mineral Processing Plants.
40 CFR 60.670 through 40 CFR 60.676
(facilities in fixed or portable nonmetallic mineral
processing plants: each crusher, grinding mill, screening operation, bucket
elevator, belt conveyor, bagging operation, storage bin, enclosed truck or
railcar loading station)
Subpart PPP - Wool Fiberglass Insulation Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 60.680 through 40 CFR 60.685
(each rotary spin wool fiberglass insulation manufacturing
line)
Subpart QQQ - VOC Emissions from Petroleum Refinery Wastewater
Systems.
40 CFR 60.690 through 40 CFR 60.699
(individual drain systems, oil-water separators, and aggregate
facilities in petroleum refineries)
Subpart RRR - Volatile Organic Compound Emissions from
Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry (SOCMI) Reactor Processes.
40 CFR 60.700 through 40 CFR 60.708
(each reactor process not discharging its vent stream into a
recovery system, each combination of a reactor process and the recovery system
into which its vent stream is discharged, and each combination of two or more
reactor processes and the common recovery system into which their vent streams
are discharged)
Subpart SSS - Magnetic Tape Coating Facilities.
40 CFR 60.710 through 40 CFR 60.718
(each coating operation and each piece of coating mix
preparation equipment)
Subpart TTT - Industrial Surface Coating: Surface Coating of
Plastic Parts for Business Machines.
40 CFR 60.720 through 40 CFR 60.726
(each spray booth in which plastic parts for use in the
manufacture of business machines receive prime coats, color coats, texture
coats, or touch-up coats)
Subpart UUU - Calciners and Dryers in Mineral Industries.
40 CFR 60.730 through 40 CFR 60.737
(each calciner and dryer at a mineral processing plant)
Subpart VVV - Polymeric Coating of Supporting Substrates
Facilities.
40 CFR 60.740 through 40 CFR 60.748
(each coating operation and any onsite coating mix preparation
equipment used to prepare coatings for the polymeric coating of supporting
substrates)
Subpart WWW - Municipal Solid Waste Landfills.
40 CFR 60.750 through 40 CFR 60.759
(municipal solid waste landfills for the containment of
household and Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Subtitle D wastes)
Subpart AAAA - Small Municipal Waste Combustors for which
Construction is Commenced after August 30, 1999, or for which Modification or
Reconstruction is Commenced after June 6, 2001.
40 CFR 60.1000 through 40 CFR 60.1465
(municipal waste combustor units with a capacity less than 250
tons per day and greater than 35 tons per day of municipal solid waste or
refuse-derived fuel)
Subpart BBBB - Not applicable.
Subpart CCCC - Commercial/Industrial Solid Waste Incinerators for
which Construction is Commenced after November 30, 1999, or for which
Modification or Construction is Commenced on or after June 1, 2001.
40 CFR 60.2000 through 40 CFR 60.2265
(an enclosed device using controlled flame combustion without
energy recovery that is a distinct operating unit of any commercial or
industrial facility, or an air curtain incinerator without energy recovery that
is a distinct operating unit of any commercial or industrial facility)
Subpart DDDD - Not applicable.
Subpart EEEE - Other Solid Waste Incineration Units for which
Construction is Commenced after December 9, 2004, or for which Modification or
Reconstruction is Commenced on or after June 16, 2006.
40 CFR 60.2880 through 40 CFR 60.2977
(very small municipal waste combustion units with the capacity
to combust less than 35 tons per day of municipal solid waste or refuse-derived
fuel, and institutional waste incineration units owned or operated by an
organization having a governmental, educational, civic, or religious purpose)
Subpart FFFF - Reserved.
Subpart GGGG - Reserved.
Subpart HHHH - Reserved.
Subpart IIII - Stationary Compression Ignition Internal
Combustion Engines.
40 CFR 60.4200 through 40 CFR 60.4219
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and the standard is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in
9VAC5-80-60 and subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating
Permits for Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary
Sources) or (ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to
Article 3 (9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain
Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart JJJJ - Stationary Spark Ignition Internal Combustion
Engines.
40 CFR 60.4230 through 40 CFR 60.4248
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and the standard is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in
9VAC5-80-60 and subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating
Permits for Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary
Sources) or (ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to
Article 3 (9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain
Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart KKKK - Stationary Combustion Turbines.
40 CFR 60.4300 through 40 CFR 60.4420
(stationary combustion turbine with a heat input at peak load
equal to or greater than 10.7 gigajoules (10 MMBtu) per hour)
Subpart LLLL - Sewage Sludge Incineration Units.
40 CFR 60.4760 through 40 CFR 60.4925
(an incineration unit combusting sewage sludge for the purpose
of reducing the volume of the sewage sludge by removing combustible matter,
including the sewage sludge feed system, auxiliary fuel feed system, grate
system, flue gas system, waste heat recovery equipment, and bottom ash system;
and all ash handling systems connected with the bottom ash handling system)
Subpart MMMM - Reserved.
Subpart NNNN - Reserved.
Subpart OOOO - Crude Oil and Natural Gas Production,
Transmission and Distribution for which Construction, Modification, or
Reconstruction Commenced after August 23, 2011, and on or before September 18,
2015.
40 CFR 60.5360 through 40 CFR 60.5430 40 CFR 60.5499
(facilities that operate gas wells, centrifugal compressors,
reciprocating compressors, pneumatic controllers, and storage vessels)
Subpart OOOOa - Crude Oil and Natural Gas Facilities for
which Construction, Modification, or Reconstruction Commenced after September
18, 2015.
40 CFR 60.5360a through 40 CFR 60.5499a
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations
for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and
subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for
Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or
(ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart PPPP - Reserved.
Subpart QQQQ - New Residential Hydronic Heaters and Forced-Air
Furnaces
40 CFR 60.5472 through 40 CFR 60.5483
(NOTE: In accordance with Chapter 471 of the 2015 Acts of
Assembly, authority to enforce the above standard is being retained by EPA and
the standard is not incorporated by reference into these regulations. A state
permit may be required of certain facilities if the provisions of 9VAC5-50 and
9VAC5-80 apply. Owners should review those provisions and contact the
appropriate regional office for guidance on whether those provisions apply.)
Subpart RRRR - Reserved.
Subpart SSSS - Reserved.
Subpart TTTT - Reserved.
Appendix A - Test methods.
Appendix B - Performance specifications.
Appendix C - Determination of Emission Rate Change.
Appendix D - Required Emission Inventory Information.
Appendix E - Reserved.
Appendix F - Quality Assurance Procedures.
Appendix G - Not applicable.
Appendix H - Reserved.
Appendix I - Removable label and owner's manual.
Part II
Emission Standards
Article 1
Environmental Protection Agency National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants (Rule 6-1)
9VAC5-60-60. General.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Regulations on
National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP), as
promulgated in 40 CFR Part 61 and designated in 9VAC5-60-70 are, unless
indicated otherwise, incorporated by reference into the regulations of the
board as amended by the word or phrase substitutions given in 9VAC5-60-80. The
complete text of the subparts in 9VAC5-60-70 incorporated herein by reference
is contained in 40 CFR Part 61. The 40 CFR section numbers appearing under each
subpart in 9VAC5-60-70 identify the specific provisions of the subpart
incorporated by reference. The specific version of the provision adopted by
reference shall be that contained in the CFR (2015) (2016) in
effect July 1, 2015 2016. In making reference to the Code of
Federal Regulations, 40 CFR Part 61 means Part 61 of Title 40 of the Code of
Federal Regulations; 40 CFR 61.01 means 61.01 in Part 61 of Title 40 of the
Code of Federal Regulations.
9VAC5-60-70. Designated emission standards.
Subpart A—General Provisions.
40 CFR 61.01 through 40 CFR 61.03, 40 CFR 61.05 through
40 CFR 61.10, 40 CFR 61.12 through 40 CFR 61.15, and 40 CFR 61.19
(applicability, definitions, units and abbreviations,
compliance, prohibited activities, determination of construction or
modification, application for approval of construction or modification,
approval of construction or modification, notification of startup, source
reporting and waiver request, emission tests, monitoring, modification, and
circumvention)
Subpart B—Radon Emissions from Underground Uranium Mines.
40 CFR 61.20 through 40 CFR 61.26
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart C—Beryllium.
40 CFR 61.30 through 40 CFR 61.34
Subpart D—Beryllium Rocket Motor Firing.
40 CFR 61.40 through 40 CFR 61.44
Subpart E—Mercury.
40 CFR 61.50 through 40 CFR 61.55
Subpart F—Vinyl Chloride.
40 CFR 61.60 through 40 CFR 61.71
Subpart G—(Reserved).
Subpart H—Emissions of Radionuclides Other than Radon from
Department of Energy (DOE) Facilities.
40 CFR 61.90 through 40 CFR 61.97
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart I—Radionuclide Emissions from Facilities Licensed by
the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and Federal Facilities Not Covered by
Subpart H.
40 CFR 61.100 through 40 CFR 61.109
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart J—Equipment Leaks (Fugitive Emission Sources) of
Benzene.
40 CFR 61.110 through 40 CFR 61.112
Subpart K—Radionuclide Emissions From from
Elemental Phosphorus Plants.
40 CFR 61.120 through 40 CFR 61.127
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being retained
by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations.)
Subpart L—Benzene Emissions From from Coke
By-Product Recovery Plants.
40 CFR 61.130 through 40 CFR 61.139
Subpart M—Asbestos.
40 CFR 61.140 through 40 CFR 61.157
(NOTE: Under § 40.1-51.20 of the Code of Virginia, the
Virginia Department of Labor and Industry also holds authority to enforce the
following: 40 CFR 61.140, Applicability; 40 CFR 61.141, Definitions; 40 CFR
Part 145 40 CFR 61.145, Standard for demolition and renovation; 40
CFR 61.146, Standard for spraying; 60 CFR Part 148 40 CFR 61.148,
Standard for insulating materials; 60 CFR Part 150 40 CFR 61.150,
Standard for waste disposal for manufacturing, fabricating, demolition,
renovation, and spraying operations except subsection (a)(4); and 40 CFR
Part 154 40 CFR 61.154, Standard for active waste disposal, except
subsection (d); and 40 CFR Part 156 40 CFR 61.156,
Cross-reference to other asbestos regulations.)
Subpart N—Inorganic Arsenic Emissions from Glass Manufacturing
Plants.
40 CFR 61.160 through 40 CFR 61.165
Subpart O—Inorganic Arsenic Emissions from Primary Copper
Smelters.
40 CFR 61.170 through 40 CFR 61.177
Subpart P—Inorganic Arsenic Emissions from Arsenic Trioxide
and Metallic Arsenic Production Facilities.
40 CFR 61.180 through 40 CFR 61.186
Subpart Q—Radon Emissions from Department of Energy
Facilities.
40 CFR 61.190 through 40 CFR 61.193
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart R—Radon Emissions from Phosphogypsum Stacks.
40 CFR 61.200 through 40 CFR 61.205
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart S—(Reserved).
Subpart T—Radon Emissions from the Disposal of Uranium Mill
Tailings.
40 CFR 61.220 through 40 CFR 61.225
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart U—(Reserved).
Subpart V—Equipment Leaks (Fugitive Emission Sources).
40 CFR 61.240 through 40 CFR 61.247
Subpart W—Radon Emissions from Operating Mill Tailings.
40 CFR 61.250 through 40 CFR 61.252
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart X—(Reserved).
Subpart Y—Benzene Emissions From from Benzene
Storage Vessels.
40 CFR 61.270 through 40 CFR 61.277
Subpart Z—(Reserved).
Subpart AA—(Reserved).
Subpart BB—Benzene Emissions from Benzene Transfer
Operations.
40 CFR 61.300 through 40 CFR 61.306
Subpart CC—(Reserved).
Subpart DD—(Reserved).
Subpart EE—(Reserved).
Subpart FF—Benzene Waste Operations.
40 CFR 61.340 through 40 CFR 61.358
Appendix A—Not applicable.
Appendix B—Test Methods.
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the following test methods is
being retained by EPA and they are not incorporated by reference into the
Regulations for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution.)
Method 111—Determination of polonium-210 emissions from
stationary sources. Method 114—Test methods for measuring radionuclide
emissions from stationary sources.
Method 115—Monitoring for radon-222 emissions.
Appendix C—Quality assurance procedures.
Appendix D—Methods for estimating radionuclide emissions.
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above methods is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into the Regulations
for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution.)
Appendix E—Compliance procedures methods for determining
compliance with Subpart I.
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above methods is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into the Regulations
for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution.)
Article 2
Environmental Protection Agency National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants for Source Categories (Rule 6-2)
9VAC5-60-90. General.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) National Emission
Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories (Maximum
Achievable Control Technologies, or MACTs) as promulgated in 40 CFR Part 63 and
designated in 9VAC5-60-100 are, unless indicated otherwise, incorporated by
reference into the regulations of the board as amended by the word or phrase
substitutions given in 9VAC5-60-110. The complete text of the subparts in
9VAC5-60-100 incorporated herein by reference is contained in 40 CFR Part 63.
The 40 CFR section numbers appearing under each subpart in 9VAC5-60-100
identify the specific provisions of the subpart incorporated by reference. The
specific version of the provision adopted by reference shall be that contained
in the CFR (2015) (2016) in effect July 1, 2015 2016.
In making reference to the Code of Federal Regulations, 40 CFR Part 63 means
Part 63 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations; 40 CFR 63.1 means 63.1
in Part 63 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
9VAC5-60-100. Designated emission standards.
Subpart A - General Provisions.
40 CFR 63.1 through 40 CFR 63.11; 40 CFR 63.16
(applicability, definitions, units and abbreviations,
prohibited activities and circumvention, construction and reconstruction,
compliance with standards and maintenance requirements, performance testing
requirements, monitoring requirements, notification requirements, recordkeeping
and reporting requirements, control device requirements, performance track
provisions)
Subpart B - Not applicable.
Subpart C - List of Hazardous Air Pollutants, Petitions
Process, Lesser Quantity Designations, Source Category List.
40 CFR 63.60, 40 CFR 63.61, 40 CFR 63.62 and 40 CFR 63.63
(deletion of caprolactam from the list of hazardous air
pollutants, deletion of methyl ethyl ketone from the list of hazardous air
pollutants, redefinition of glycol ethers listed as hazardous air pollutants,
deletion of ethylene glycol monobutyl ether)
Subpart D - Not applicable.
Subpart E - Not applicable.
Subpart F - Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants from the Synthetic
Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry.
40 CFR 63.100 through 40 CFR 63.106
(chemical manufacturing process units that manufacture as a
primary product one or more of a listed chemical; use as a reactant or
manufacture as a product, by-product, or co-product, one or more of a listed
organic hazardous air pollutant; and are located at a plant site that is a
major source as defined in § 112 of the federal Clean Air Act)
Subpart G - Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants From from
the Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry for Process Vents,
Storage Vessels, Transfer Operations, and Wastewater.
40 CFR 63.110 through 40 CFR 63.152
(all process vents, storage vessels, transfer operations, and
wastewater streams within a source subject to Subpart F, 40 CFR 63.100 through
40 CFR 63.106)
Subpart H - Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants for Equipment
Leaks.
40 CFR 63.160 through 40 CFR 63.182
(pumps, compressors, agitators, pressure relief devices,
sampling connection systems, open-ended valves or lines, valves, connectors,
surge control vessels, bottoms receivers, instrumentation systems, and control
devices or systems that are intended to operate in organic hazardous air
pollutant service 300 hours or more during the calendar year within a source
subject to the provisions of a specific subpart in 40 CFR Part 63)
Subpart I - Organic Hazardous Air Pollutants for Certain
Processes Subject to the Negotiated Regulation for Equipment Leaks.
40 CFR 63.190 through 40 CFR 63.192
(emissions of designated organic hazardous air pollutants from
processes specified in this subpart that are located at a plant site that is a
major source as defined in § 112 of the federal Clean Air Act)
Subpart J - Polyvinyl Chloride and Copolymers Production.
40 CFR 63.210 through 40 CFR 63.217
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these
regulations.)
Subpart K - Reserved.
Subpart L - Coke Oven Batteries.
40 CFR 63.300 through 40 CFR 63.313
(existing by-product coke oven batteries at a coke plant, and
existing nonrecovery coke oven batteries located at a coke plant)
Subpart M - Perchlorethylene Dry Cleaning Facilities.
40 CFR 63.320 through 40 CFR 63.325
(each dry cleaning facility that uses perchlorethylene)
Subpart N - Chromium Emissions from Hard and Decorative
Chromium Electroplating and Chromium Anodizing Tanks.
40 CFR 63.340 through 40 CFR 63.347
(each chromium electroplating or chromium anodizing tank at
facilities performing hard chromium electroplating, decorative chromium
electroplating, or chromium anodizing)
Subpart O - Ethylene Oxide Commercial Sterilization and
Fumigation Operations.
40 CFR 63.360 through 40 CFR 63.367
(sterilization sources using ethylene oxide in sterilization
or fumigation operations)
Subpart P - Reserved.
Subpart Q - Industrial Process Cooling Towers.
40 CFR 63.400 through 40 CFR 63.406
(industrial process cooling towers that are operated with
chromium-based water treatment chemicals)
Subpart R - Gasoline Distribution Facilities.
40 CFR 63.420 through 40 CFR 63.429
(bulk gasoline terminals and pipeline breakout stations)
Subpart S - Pulp and Paper Industry.
40 CFR 63.440 through 40 CFR 63.458
(processes that produce pulp, paper, or paperboard, and use
the following processes and materials: kraft, soda, sulfite, or semi-chemical
pulping processes using wood; or mechanical pulping processes using wood; or
any process using secondary or nonwood fibers)
Subpart T - Halogenated Solvent Cleaning.
40 CFR 63.460 through 40 CFR 63.469
(each individual batch vapor, in-line vapor, in-line cold, and
batch cold solvent cleaning machine that uses any solvent containing methylene
chloride, perchlorethylene, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon
tetrachloride, or chloroform)
Subpart U - Group I Polymers and Resins.
40 CFR 63.480 through 40 CFR 63.506
(elastomer product process units that produce butyl rubber,
halobutyl rubber, epichlorohydrin elastomers, ethylene propylene rubber,
Hypalon™, neoprene, nitrile butadiene rubber, nitrile butadiene latex, polysulfide
rubber, polybutadiene rubber/styrene butadiene rubber by solution, styrene
butadiene latex, and styrene butadiene rubber by emulsion)
Subpart V - Reserved.
Subpart W - Epoxy Resins Production and Non-Nylon Polyamides
Production.
40 CFR 63.520 through 40 CFR 63.527
(manufacturers of basic liquid epoxy resins and wet strength
resins)
Subpart X - Secondary Lead Smelting.
40 CFR 63.541 through 40 CFR 60.552
(at all secondary lead smelters: blast, reverberatory, rotary,
and electric smelting furnaces; refining kettles; agglomerating furnaces;
dryers; process fugitive sources; and fugitive dust sources)
Subpart Y - Marine Tank Vessel Tank Loading Operations.
40 CFR 63.560 through 40 CFR 63.567
(marine tank vessel unloading operations at petroleum
refineries)
Subpart Z - Reserved.
Subpart AA - Phosphoric Acid Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 63.600 through 40 CFR 63.610 40 CFR 63.611
(wet-process phosphoric acid process lines, evaporative
cooling towers, rock dryers, rock calciners, superphosphoric acid process
lines, purified acid process lines)
Subpart BB - Phosphate Fertilizers Production Plants.
40 CFR 63.620 through 40 CFR 63.631 40 CFR 63.632
(diammonium and monoammonium phosphate process lines, granular
triple superphosphate process lines, and granular triple superphosphate storage
buildings)
Subpart CC - Petroleum Refineries.
40 CFR 63.640 through 40 CFR 63.654 40 CFR 63.671
(storage tanks, equipment leaks, process vents, and wastewater
collection and treatment systems at petroleum refineries)
Subpart DD - Off-Site Waste and Recovery Operations.
40 CFR 63.680 through 40 CFR 63.697
(operations that treat, store, recycle, and dispose of waste
received from other operations that produce waste or recoverable materials as
part of their manufacturing processes)
Subpart EE - Magnetic Tape Manufacturing Operations.
40 CFR 63.701 through 40 CFR 63.708
(manufacturers of magnetic tape)
Subpart FF - Reserved.
Subpart GG - Aerospace Manufacturing and Rework Facilities.
40 CFR 63.741 through 40 CFR 63.752 40 CFR 63.759
(facilities engaged in the manufacture or rework of
commercial, civil, or military aerospace vehicles or components)
Subpart HH - Oil and Natural Gas Production Facilities.
40 CFR 63.760 through 40 CFR 63.779
(facilities that process, upgrade, or store hydrocarbon
liquids or natural gas; ancillary equipment and compressors intended to operate
in volatile hazardous air pollutant service)
Subpart II - Shipbuilding and Ship Repair (Surface Coating).
40 CFR 63.780 through 40 CFR 63.788
(shipbuilding and ship repair operations)
Subpart JJ - Wood Furniture Manufacturing Operations.
40 CFR 63.800 through 40 CFR 63.819
(finishing materials, adhesives, and strippable spray booth
coatings; storage, transfer, and application of coatings and solvents)
Subpart KK - Printing and Publishing Industry.
40 CFR 63.820 through 40 CFR 63.831
(publication rotogravure, product and packaging rotogravure,
and wide-web printing processes)
Subpart LL - Primary Aluminum Reduction Plants.
40 CFR 63.840 through 40 CFR 63.859
(each pitch storage tank, potline, paste production plant, or
anode bulk furnace associated with primary aluminum production)
Subpart MM - Chemical Recovery Combustion Sources at Kraft,
Soda, Sulfite and Stand-Alone Semichemical Pulp Mills.
40 CFR 63.860 through 40 CFR 63.868
(chemical recovery systems, direct and nondirect contact
evaporator recovery furnace systems, lime kilns, sulfite combustion units,
semichemical combustion units)
Subpart NN - Reserved Wool Fiberglass Manufacturing
at Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.880 through 40 CFR 63.899
(manufacture of wool fiberglass insulation materials
composed of glass fibers made from glass produced or melted at the same
facility where the manufacturing line is located)
Subpart OO - Tanks--Level 1.
40 CFR 63.900 through 40 CFR 63.907
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, fixed-roof tanks)
Subpart PP - Containers.
40 CFR 63.920 through 40 CFR 63.928
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, containers)
Subpart QQ - Surface Impoundments.
40 CFR 63.940 through 40 CFR 63.948
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, surface
impoundment covers and vents)
Subpart RR - Individual Drain Systems.
40 CFR 63.960 through 40 CFR 63.966
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, inspection and
maintenance of individual drain systems)
Subpart SS - Closed Vent Systems, Control Devices, Recovery
Devices and Routing to a Fuel Gas System or a Process.
40 CFR 63.980 through 40 CFR 63.999
(closed vent systems, control devices, recovery devices, and
routing to a fuel gas system or a process, when associated with facilities
subject to a referencing subpart)
Subpart TT - Equipment Leaks - Control Level 1.
40 CFR 63.1000 through 40 CFR 63.1018
(control of air emissions from equipment leaks when associated
with facilities subject to a referencing subpart)
Subpart UU - Equipment Leaks - Control Level 2.
40 CFR 63.1019 through 40 CFR 63.1039
(control of air emissions from equipment leaks when associated
with facilities subject to a referencing subpart: pumps, compressors,
agitators, pressure relief devices, sampling connection systems, open-ended
valves or lines, valves, connectors, instrumentation systems, closed vent
systems and control devices)
Subpart VV - Oil-Water Separators and Organic-Water Separators.
40 CFR 63.1040 through 40 CFR 63.1049
(for off-site waste and recovery operations, oil-water
separators and organic-water separator roofs and vents)
Subpart WW - Storage Vessels (Tanks) - Control Level 2.
40 CFR 63.1060 through 40 CFR 63.1066
(storage vessels associated with facilities subject to a
referencing subpart)
Subpart XX - Ethylene Manufacturing Process Units: Heat
Exchange Systems and Waste.
40 CFR 63.1080 through 40 CFR 63.1098
(any cooling tower system or once-through cooling water
system)
Subpart YY - Generic Maximum Achievable Control Technology
Standards.
40 CFR 63.1100 through 40 CFR 63.1113
(acetal resins production, acrylic and modacrylic fibers
production, hydrogen fluoride production, polycarbonate production)
Subpart ZZ - Reserved.
Subpart AAA - Reserved.
Subpart BBB - Reserved.
Subpart CCC - Steel Pickling - Hydrogen Chloride Process
Facilities and Hydrochloric Acid Regeneration Plants.
40 CFR 63.1155 through 40 CFR 63.1174
(steel pickling facilities that pickle carbon steel using
hydrochloric acid solution, hydrochloric acid regeneration plants)
Subpart DDD - Mineral Wool Production.
40 CFR 63.1175 through 40 CFR 63.1199
(cupolas and curing ovens at mineral wool manufacturing
facilities)
Subpart EEE - Hazardous Waste Combustors.
40 CFR 63.1200 through 40 CFR 63.1221
(hazardous waste combustors)
Subpart FFF - Reserved.
Subpart GGG - Pharmaceutical Production.
40 CFR 63.1250 through 40 CFR 63.1261
(pharmaceutical manufacturing operations)
Subpart HHH - Natural Gas Transmission and Storage Facilities.
40 CFR 63.1270 through 40 CFR 63.1289
(natural gas transmission and storage facilities that
transport or store natural gas prior to entering the pipeline to a local
distribution company or to a final end user)
Subpart III - Flexible Polyurethane Foam Production.
40 CFR 63.1290 through 40 CFR 63.1309
(flexible polyurethane foam or rebond processes)
Subpart JJJ - Group IV Polymers and Resins.
40 CFR 63.1310 through 40 CFR 63.1335
(facilities which manufacture acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
resin, styrene acrylonitrile resin, methyl methacrylate butadiene styrene
resin, polystyrene resin, poly(ethylene terephthalate) resin, or nitrile resin)
Subpart KKK - Reserved.
Subpart LLL - Portland Cement Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.1340 through 40 CFR 63.1359
(kilns; in-line kilns/raw mills; clinker coolers; raw mills;
finish mills; raw material dryers; raw material, clinker, or finished product
storage bins; conveying system transfer points; bagging systems; bulk loading
or unloading systems)
Subpart MMM - Pesticide Active Ingredient Production.
40 CFR 63.1360 through 40 CFR 63.1369
(pesticide active ingredient manufacturing process units,
waste management units, heat exchange systems, and cooling towers)
Subpart NNN - Wool Fiberglass Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.1380 through 40 CFR 63.1399
(glass melting furnaces, rotary spin wool fiberglass
manufacturing lines producing bonded wool fiberglass building insulation or
bonded heavy-density product)
Subpart OOO - Amino/Phenolic
Resins Production.
40 CFR 63.1400 through 40 CFR 63.1419
(unit operations, process vents, storage vessels, equipment
subject to leak provisions)
Subpart PPP - Polyether Polyols Production.
40 CFR 63.1420 through 40 CFR 63.1439
(polyether polyol manufacturing process units)
Subpart QQQ - Primary Copper Smelting.
40 CFR 63.1440 through 40 CFR 63.1-1459
(batch copper converters, including copper concentrate dryers,
smelting furnaces, slag cleaning vessels, copper converter departments, and the
entire group of fugitive emission sources)
Subpart RRR - Secondary Aluminum Production.
40 CFR 63.1500 through 40 CFR 63.1520
(scrap shredders; thermal chip dryers; scrap
dryers/delacquering kilns/decoating kilns; group 2, sweat, dross-only furnaces;
rotary dross coolers; processing units)
Subpart SSS - Reserved.
Subpart TTT - Primary Lead Smelting.
40 CFR 63.1541 through 40 CFR 63.1550
(sinter machines, blast furnaces, dross furnaces, process
fugitive sources, fugitive dust sources)
Subpart UUU - Petroleum Refineries: Catalytic Cracking Units,
Catalytic Reforming Units, and Sulfur Recovery Units.
40 CFR 63.1560 through 40 CFR 63.1579
(petroleum refineries that produce transportation and heating
fuels or lubricants, separate petroleum, or separate, crack, react, or reform
an intermediate petroleum stream, or recover byproducts from an intermediate
petroleum stream)
Subpart VVV - Publicly Owned Treatment Works.
40 CFR 63.1580 through 40 CFR 63.1595
(intercepting sewers, outfall sewers, sewage collection
systems, pumping, power, and other equipment)
Subpart WWW - Reserved.
Subpart XXX - Ferroalloys Production: Ferromanganese and
Silicomanganese.
40 CFR 63.1620 through 40 CFR 63.1679
(submerged arc furnaces, metal oxygen refining processes,
crushing and screening operations, fugitive dust sources)
Subpart YYY - Reserved.
Subpart ZZZ - Reserved.
Subpart AAAA - Municipal Solid Waste Landfills.
40 CFR 63.1930 through 40 CFR 63.1990
(municipal solid waste landfills that have accepted waste
since November 8, 1987, or have additional capacity for waste deposition)
Subpart BBBB - Reserved.
Subpart CCCC - Manufacturing of Nutritional Yeast.
40 CFR 63.2130 through 40 CFR 63.2192
(fermentation vessels)
Subpart DDDD - Plywood and Composite Wood Products.
40 CFR 63.2230 through 40 CFR 63.2292
(manufacture of plywood and composite wood products by bonding
wood material or agricultural fiber with resin under heat and pressure to form
a structural panel or engineered wood product)
Subpart EEEE - Organic Liquids Distribution (Nongasoline).
40 CFR 63.2330 through 40 CFR 63.2406
(transfer of noncrude oil liquids or liquid mixtures that
contain organic hazardous air pollutants, or crude oils downstream of the first
point of custody, via storage tanks, transfer racks, equipment leak components
associated with pipelines, and transport vehicles)
Subpart FFFF - Miscellaneous Organic Chemical Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.2430 through 40 CFR 63.2550
(reaction, recovery, separation, purification, or other
activity, operation, manufacture, or treatment that is used to produce a
product or isolated intermediate)
Subpart GGGG - Solvent Extraction for Vegetable Oil Production.
40 CFR 63.2830 through 40 CFR 63.2872
(vegetable oil production processes)
Subpart HHHH - Wet-formed Fiberglass Mat Production.
40 CFR 63.2980 through 63.3079
(wet-formed fiberglass mat drying and curing ovens)
Subpart IIII - Surface Coating of Automobiles and Light-Duty
Trucks.
40 CFR 63.3080 through 40 CFR 63.3176.
(application of topcoat to new automobile or new light-duty
truck bodies or body parts)
Subpart JJJJ - Paper and Other Web Coating.
40 CFR 63.3280 through 40 CFR 63.3420
(web coating lines engaged in the coating of metal webs used
in flexible packaging and in the coating of fabric substrates for use in
pressure-sensitive tape and abrasive materials)
Subpart KKKK - Surface Coating of Metal Cans.
40 CFR 63.3480 through 40 CFR 63.3561
(application of coatings to a substrate using spray guns or
dip tanks, including one-piece and two-piece draw and iron can body
coating; sheetcoating; three-piece can body assembly coating; and end coating)
Subpart LLLL - Reserved.
Subpart MMMM - Surface Coating of Miscellaneous Metal Parts and
Products.
40 CFR 63.3880 through 40 CFR 63.3981
(application of coatings to industrial, household, and
consumer products)
Subpart NNNN - Surface Coating of Large Appliances.
40 CFR 63.4080 through 40 CFR 63.4181
(surface coating of a large appliance part or product,
including cooking equipment; refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerated cabinets
and cases; laundry equipment; dishwashers, trash compactors, and water heaters;
and HVAC units, air-conditioning, air-conditioning and heating combination
units, comfort furnaces, and electric heat pumps)
Subpart OOOO - Printing,
Coating, and Dyeing of Fabrics and Other Textiles.
40 CFR 63.4280 through 40 CFR 63.4371
(printing, coating, slashing, dyeing, or finishing of fabric
and other textiles)
Subpart PPPP - Surface Coating of Plastic Parts and Products.
40 CFR 63.4480 through 40 CFR 63.4581
(application of coating to a substrate using spray guns or dip
tanks, including motor vehicle parts and accessories for automobiles, trucks,
recreational vehicles; sporting and recreational goods; toys; business machines;
laboratory and medical equipment; and household and other consumer products)
Subpart QQQQ - Surface Coating of Wood Building Products.
40 CFR 63.4680 through 40 CFR 63.4781
(finishing or laminating of wood building products used in the
construction of a residential, commercial, or institutional building)
Subpart RRRR - Surface Coating of Metal Furniture.
40 CFR 63.4880 through 40 CFR 63.4981
(application of coatings to substrate using spray guns and dip
tanks)
Subpart SSSS - Surface Coating of Metal Coil.
40 CFR 63.5080 through 40 CFR 63.5209
(organic coating to surface of metal coil, including web
unwind or feed sections, work stations, curing ovens, wet sections, and quench
stations)
Subpart TTTT - Leather Finishing Operations.
40 CFR 63.5280 through 40 CFR 63.5460
(multistage application of finishing materials to adjust and
improve the physical and aesthetic characteristics of leather surfaces)
Subpart UUUU - Cellulose Products Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.5480 through 40 CFR 63.5610
(cellulose food casing, rayon, cellulosic sponge, cellophane
manufacturing, methyl cellulose, hydroxypropyl methyl cellulose, hydroxypropyl
cellulose, hydroxyethyl cellulose, and carboxymethyl cellulose manufacturing
industries)
Subpart VVVV - Boat Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.5680 through 40 CFR 63.5779
(resin and gel coat operations, carpet and fabric adhesive
operations, aluminum recreational boat surface coating operations)
Subpart WWWW - Reinforced Plastic Composites Production.
40 CFR 63.5780 through 40 CFR 63.5935
(reinforced or nonreinforced plastic composites or plastic
molding compounds using thermostat resins and gel coats that contain styrene)
Subpart XXXX - Rubber Tire Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.5980 through 40 CFR 63.6015
(production of rubber tires and components including rubber
compounds, sidewalls, tread, tire beads, tire cord and liners)
Subpart YYYY - Stationary Combustion Turbines.
40 CFR 63.6080 through 40 CFR 63.6175
(simple cycle, regenerative/recuperative cycle, cogeneration
cycle, and combined cycle stationary combustion turbines)
Subpart ZZZZ - Stationary Reciprocating Internal Combustion
Engines.
40 CFR 63.6580 through 40 CFR 63.6675.
(any stationary internal combustion engine that uses
reciprocating motion to convert heat energy into mechanical work)
(NOTE: Authority to enforce provisions related to affected
facilities located at a major source as defined in 40 CFR 63.6675 is being
retained by the Commonwealth. Authority to enforce the area source provisions
of the above standard is being retained by EPA and are not incorporated by
reference into these regulations for any source that is not (i) a major source
as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq.,
Federal Operating Permits for Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80
(Permits for Stationary Sources) or (ii) an affected source as defined in
9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3 (9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating
Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart AAAAA - Lime Manufacturing Plants.
40 CFR 63.7080 through 40 CFR 63.7143.
(manufacture of lime product, including calcium oxide, calcium
oxide with magnesium oxide, or dead burned dolomite, by calcination of
limestone, dolomite, shells or other calcareous substances)
Subpart BBBBB - Semiconductor Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.7180 through 40 CFR 63.7195
(semiconductor manufacturing process units used to manufacture
p-type and n-type semiconductors and active solid-state devices from a wafer
substrate)
Subpart CCCCC - Coke Ovens: Pushing, Quenching, and Battery
Stacks.
40 CFR 63.7280 through 40 CFR 63.7352
(pushing, soaking, quenching, and battery stacks at coke oven
batteries)
Subpart DDDDD - Industrial,
Commercial, and Institutional Boilers and Process Heaters.
40 CFR 63.7480 through 40 CFR 63.7575
(industrial, commercial, and institutional boilers and process
heaters)
Subpart EEEEE - Iron and Steel Foundries.
40 CFR 63.7680 through 40 CFR 63.7765
(metal melting furnaces, scrap preheaters, pouring areas,
pouring stations, automated conveyor and pallet cooling lines, automated
shakeout lines, and mold and core making lines)
Subpart FFFFF - Integrated Iron and Steel Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.7780 through 40 CFR 63.7852
(each sinter plant, blast furnace, and basic oxygen process
furnace at an integrated iron and steel manufacturing facility)
Subpart GGGGG - Site Remediation.
40 CFR 63.7880 through 40 CFR 63.7957
(activities or processes used to remove, destroy, degrade,
transform, immobilize, or otherwise manage remediation material)
Subpart HHHHH - Miscellaneous Coating Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.7980 through 40 CFR 63.8105
(process vessels; storage tanks for feedstocks and products;
pumps, compressors, agitators, pressure relief devices, sampling connection systems,
open-ended valves or lines, valves, connectors, and instrumentation systems;
wastewater tanks and transfer racks)
Subpart IIIII - Mercury Cell Chlor-Alkali Plants.
40 CFR 63.8180 through 40 CFR 63.8266
(byproduct hydrogen streams, end box ventilation system vents,
and fugitive emission sources associated with cell rooms, hydrogen systems,
caustic systems, and storage areas for mercury-containing wastes)
Subpart JJJJJ - Brick and Structural Clay Products
Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.8380 through 40 CFR 63.8515
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations.
(facilities that manufacture brick, clay pipe, roof tile, extruded floor and
wall tile, and other extruded, dimensional clay products, and typically process
raw clay and shale, form the processed materials into bricks or shapes, and dry
and fire the bricks or shapes)
Subpart KKKKK - Ceramics Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.8530 through 40 CFR 63.8665
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations.
(facilities that manufacture pressed floor tile, pressed wall tile, other
pressed tile, or sanitaryware, and typically process clay, shale, and various
additives, form the processed materials into tile or sanitaryware shapes, and
dry and fire the ceramic products)
Subpart LLLLL - Asphalt Processing and Asphalt Roof
Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.8680 through 40 CFR 63.8698
(preparation of asphalt flux at stand-alone asphalt processing
facilities, petroleum refineries, and asphalt roofing facilities)
Subpart MMMMM - Flexible Polyurethane Foam Fabrication
Operations.
40 CFR 63.8780 through 40 CFR 63.8830
(flexible polyurethane foam fabrication plants using flame
lamination or loop slitter adhesives)
Subpart NNNNN - Hydrochloric Acid Production.
40 CFR 63.8980 through 40 CFR 63.9075
(HCl production facilities that produce a liquid HCl product)
Subpart OOOOO - Reserved.
Subpart PPPPP - Engine Test Cells and Stands.
40 CFR Subpart 63.9280 through 40 CFR 63.9375
(any apparatus used for testing uninstalled stationary or
uninstalled mobile (motive) engines)
Subpart QQQQQ - Friction Materials Manufacturing Facilities.
40 CFR 63.9480 through 40 CFR 63.9579
(friction materials manufacturing facilities that use a
solvent-based process)
Subpart RRRRR - Taconite Iron Ore Processing.
40 CFR 63.9580 through 40 CFR 63.9652
(ore crushing and handling, ore dryer stacks, indurating
furnace stacks, finished pellet handling, and fugitive dust)
Subpart SSSSS - Refractory Products Manufacturing.
40 CFR 63.9780 through 40 CFR 63.9824
(manufacture of refractory products, including refractory
bricks and shapes, monolithics, kiln furniture, crucibles, and other materials
for liming furnaces and other high temperature process units)
Subpart TTTTT - Primary Magnesium Refining.
40 CFR 63.9880 through 40 CFR 63.9942
(spray dryer, magnesium chloride storage bin scrubber, melt/reactor
system, and launder off-gas system stacks)
Subpart UUUUU - Coal-fired and Oil-fired Electric Utility
Steam Generating Units.
40 CFR 63.9980 through 40 CFR 63.10042
(any furnace, boiler, or other device used for combusting fuel
for the purpose of producing steam, including fossil fuel-fired steam
generators associated with integrated gasification combined cycle gas turbines
and excluding nuclear steam generators, for the purpose of powering a generator
to produce electricity or electricity and other thermal energy)
Subpart VVVVV - Reserved.
Subpart WWWWW - Hospital Ethylene Oxide Sterilizer Area
Sources.
40 CFR 63.10382 through 40 CFR 63.10448
(any enclosed vessel that is filled with ethylene oxide gas or
an ethylene oxide/inert gas mixture for the purpose of sterilization)
Subpart XXXXX - Reserved.
Subpart YYYYY - Electric Arc Furnace Steelmaking Facility Area
Sources.
40 CFR 63.10680 through 40 CFR 63.10692
(a steel plant that produces carbon, alloy, or specialty
steels using an electric arc furnace)
Subpart ZZZZZ - Iron and Steel Foundries Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.10880 through 40 CFR 63.10906
(a facility that melts scrap, ingot, and/or other forms of
iron and/or steel and pours the resulting molten metal into molds to produce
final or near final shape products for introduction into commerce)
Subpart AAAAAA - Reserved.
Subpart BBBBBB - Gasoline Distribution Bulk Terminals, Bulk
Plants, and Pipeline Facilities, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11080 through 40 CFR 63.11100
(gasoline storage tanks, gasoline loading racks, vapor
collection-equipped gasoline cargo tanks, and equipment components in vapor or
liquid gasoline service)
Subpart CCCCCC - Gasoline Dispensing Facilities, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11110 through 40 CFR 63.11132
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations
for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and
subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for
Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or
(ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart DDDDDD - Polyvinyl Chloride and Copolymers Production
Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11140 through 40 CFR 63.11145
(plants that produce polyvinyl chloride or copolymers)
Subpart EEEEEE - Primary Copper Smelting Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11146 through 40 CFR 63.11152
(any installation or any intermediate process engaged in the
production of copper from copper sulfide ore concentrates through the use of
pyrometallurgical techniques)
Subpart FFFFFF - Secondary Copper Smelting Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11153 through 40 CFR 63.11159
(a facility that processes copper scrap in a blast furnace and
converter or that uses another pyrometallurgical purification process to
produce anode copper from copper scrap, including low-grade copper scrap)
Subpart GGGGGG - Primary Nonferrous Metals Area Sources--Zinc,
Cadmium, and Beryllium.
40 CFR 63.11160 through 40 CFR 63.11168
(cadmium melting furnaces used to melt cadmium or produce
cadmium oxide from the cadmium recovered in the zinc production; primary
beryllium production facilities engaged in the chemical processing of beryllium
ore to produce beryllium metal, alloy, or oxide, or performing any of the
intermediate steps in these processes; and primary zinc production facilities
engaged in the production, or any intermediate process in the production, of
zinc or zinc oxide from zinc sulfide ore concentrates through the use of
pyrometallurgical techniques)
Subpart
HHHHHH - Paint Stripping and Miscellaneous Surface Coating Operations Area
Sources.
40 CFR 63.11169 through 40 CFR 63.11180
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations
for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and
subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for
Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or
(ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart
IIIIII - Reserved.
Subpart
JJJJJJ - Industrial, Commercial, and Institutional Boiler Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11193 through 40 CFR 63.11226
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and is not incorporated by reference into these regulations for
any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and subject
to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Stationary
Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or (ii) an
affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart
KKKKKK - Reserved.
Subpart
LLLLLL - Acrylic and Modacrylic Fibers Production Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11393 through 40 CFR 63.11399
(production of either of the following synthetic fibers
composed of acrylonitrile units: acrylic fiber or modacrylic fiber)
Subpart
MMMMMM - Carbon Black Production Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11400 through 40 CFR 63.11406
(carbon black production process units including all waste
management units, maintenance wastewater, and equipment components that contain
or contact HAP that are associated with the carbon black production process
unit)
Subpart
NNNNNN - Chemical Manufacturing Area Sources: Chromium Compounds.
40 CFR 63.11407 through 40 CFR 63.11413
(any process that uses chromite ore as the basic feedstock to
manufacture chromium compounds, primarily sodium dichromate, chromic acid, and
chromic oxide)
Subpart
OOOOOO - Flexible Polyurethane Foam Production and Fabrication Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11414 through 40 CFR 63.11420
(a facility where pieces of flexible polyurethane foam are
cut, bonded, and/or laminated together or to other substrates)
Subpart
PPPPPP - Lead Acid Battery Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11421 through 40 CFR 63.11427
(grid casting facilities, paste mixing facilities,
three-process operation facilities, lead oxide manufacturing facilities, lead
reclamation facilities, and any other lead-emitting operation that is
associated with the lead acid battery manufacturing plant)
Subpart
QQQQQQ - Wood Preserving Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11428 through 40 CFR 63.11434
(pressure or thermal impregnation of chemicals into wood to
provide effective long-term resistance to attack by fungi, bacteria, insects,
and marine borers)
Subpart
RRRRRR - Clay Ceramics Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11435 through 40 CFR 63.11447
(manufacture of pressed tile, sanitaryware, dinnerware, or
pottery with an atomized glaze spray booth or kiln that fires glazed ceramic
ware)
Subpart
SSSSSS - Glass Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11448 through 40 CFR 63.11461
(manufacture of flat glass, glass containers, or pressed and
blown glass by melting a mixture of raw materials to produce molten glass and
form the molten glass into sheets, containers, or other shapes)
Subpart
TTTTTT - Secondary Nonferrous Metals Processing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11462 through 40 CFR 63.11474
(all crushing and screening operations at a secondary zinc
processing facility and all furnace melting operations located at any secondary
nonferrous metals processing facility)
Subpart
UUUUUU - Reserved.
Subpart
VVVVVV - Chemical Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11494 through 40 CFR 11503
(each chemical manufacturing process unit that uses as
feedstocks, generates as byproducts, or produces as products any of the
following: 1,3-butadiene; 1,3-dichloropropene; acetaldehyde; chloroform;
ethylene dichloride; methylene chloride; hexachlorobenzene; hydrazine;
quinoline; or compounds of arsenic, cadmium, chromium, lead, manganese, or
nickel)
Subpart
WWWWWW - Plating and Polishing Operations, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11504 through 40 CFR 63.11513
(new and existing tanks, thermal spraying equipment, and
mechanical polishing equipment used in non-chromium electroplating, electroless
or non-electrolytic plating, non-electrolytic metal coating, dry mechanical
polishing, electroforming, and electropolishing)
Subpart
XXXXXX - Nine Metal Fabrication and Finishing Source Categories, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11514 through 40 CFR 63.11523
(NOTE: Authority to enforce the above standard is being
retained by EPA and it is not incorporated by reference into these regulations
for any source that is not (i) a major source as defined in 9VAC5-80-60 and
subject to Article 1 (9VAC5-80-50 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for
Stationary Sources) of Part II of 9VAC5-80 (Permits for Stationary Sources) or
(ii) an affected source as defined in 9VAC5-80-370 and subject to Article 3
(9VAC5-80-360 et seq., Federal Operating Permits for Acid Rain Sources) of Part
II of 9VAC5-80.)
Subpart
YYYYYY - Ferroalloys Production Facilities, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11524 through 40 CFR 63.11543
(manufacture of silicon metal, ferrosilicon, ferrotitanium
using the aluminum reduction process, ferrovanadium, ferromolybdenum, calcium
silicon, silicomanganese zirconium, ferrochrome silicon, silvery iron,
high-carbon ferrochrome, charge chrome, standard ferromanganese,
silicomanganese, ferromanganese silicon, calcium carbide or other ferroalloy
products using electrometallurgical operations including electric arc furnaces
or other reaction vessels)
Subpart
ZZZZZZ - Aluminum, Copper, and Other Nonferrous Foundries, Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11544 through 40 CFR 63.11558
(melting operations at aluminum, copper, and other nonferrous
foundries, including the collection of induction, reverberatory, crucible,
tower, or dry hearth furnaces used to melt metal ingot, alloyed ingot and/or
metal scrap to produce molten metal that is poured into molds to make castings)
Subpart
AAAAAAA - Asphalt Processing and Asphalt Roofing Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11559 through 40 CFR 63.11567
(asphalt processing operations that prepare asphalt flux at
standalone asphalt processing facilities, petroleum refineries, and asphalt
roofing facilities that include one or more asphalt flux blowing stills; and
asphalt roofing manufacturing operations that manufacture asphalt roofing
products through a series of sequential process steps depending upon whether
the type of substrate used is organic or inorganic)
Subpart
BBBBBBB - Chemical Preparations Industry Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11579 through 40 CFR 63.11588
(any facility-wide collection of chemical preparation
operations, including the collection of mixing, blending, milling, and
extruding equipment used to manufacture chemical preparations that contain
metal compounds for chromium, lead, manganese, and nickel)
Subpart
CCCCCCC - Paints and Allied Products Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11599 through 40 CFR 63.11638
(paints and allied products manufacturing processes,
including, weighing, blending, mixing, grinding, tinting, dilution or other
formulation, as well as cleaning operations, material storage and transfer, and
piping)
Subpart
DDDDDDD - Prepared Feeds Manufacturing Area Sources.
40 CFR 63.11619 through 40 CFR 63.11638
(production of animal feed from the point in the process where
a material containing chromium or manganese is added, to the point where the
finished product leaves the facility, including areas where materials
containing chromium and manganese are stored, areas where materials containing
chromium and manganese are temporarily stored prior to addition to the feed at
the mixer, mixing and grinding processes, pelleting and pellet cooling
processes, packing and bagging processes, crumblers and screens, bulk loading
operations, and all conveyors and other equipment that transfer feed materials)
Subpart
EEEEEEE - Gold Mine Ore Processing and Production Area Sources
40 CFR 63.11640 through 40 CFR 63.11653
(any industrial facility engaged in the processing of gold
mine ore that uses any of the following processes: roasting operations,
autoclaves, carbon kilns, preg tanks, electrowinning, mercury retorts, or melt
furnaces)
Subpart
FFFFFFF - Reserved.
Subpart
GGGGGGG - Reserved.
Subpart
HHHHHHH - Polyvinyl Chloride and Copolymers Production.
40 CFR 63.11860 through 40 CFR 63.12000
(facility-wide collection of PVCPU, storage vessels, heat
exchange systems, surge control vessels, wastewater and process wastewater
treatment systems that are associated with producing polyvinyl chloride and
copolymers)
Appendix A - Test Methods.
Appendix B - Sources Defined for Early Reduction Provisions.
Appendix C - Determination of the Fraction Biodegraded (Fbio)
in a Biological Treatment Unit.
Appendix D - Alternative Validation Procedure for EPA Waste and
Wastewater Methods.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4898; Filed December 16, 2016, 10:48 a.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Proposed Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The State Water Control Board is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 8 of the Code of Virginia, which exempts general permits issued by the State Water Control Board pursuant to State Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq.) and Chapters 24 (§ 62.1-242 et seq.) and 25 (§ 62.1-254 et seq.) of Title 62.1, if the board (i) provides a Notice of Intended Regulatory Action in conformance with the provisions of § 2.2-4007.01, (ii) following the passage of 30 days from the publication of the Notice of Intended Regulatory Action forms a technical advisory committee composed of relevant stakeholders, including potentially affected citizens groups, to assist in the development of the general permit, (iii) provides notice and receives oral and written comment as provided in § 2.2-4007.03, and (iv) conducts at least one public hearing on the proposed general permit.
Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-194. General Permit for Vehicle Wash Facilities and Laundry Facilities (amending 9VAC25-194-10, 9VAC25-194-15, 9VAC25-194-40 through 9VAC25-194-70).
Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of Virginia; § 402 of the Clean Water Act; 40 CFR Parts 122, 123, and 124.
Public Hearing Information:
February 9, 2017 - 2 p.m. - Department of Environmental Quality, Piedmont Regional Office, 4949-A Cox Road, Glen Allen, VA 24060
Public Comment Deadline: March 10, 2017.
Agency Contact: Elleanore Daub, Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4111, FAX (804) 698-4032, or email elleanore.daub@deq.virginia.gov.
Announcement of Periodic Review and Small Business Impact Review: Pursuant to Executive Order 17 (2014) and § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, the agency is conducting a periodic review and small business impact review of this regulation to determine whether this regulation should be terminated, amended, or retained in its current form. Public comment is sought on the review of any issue relating to this regulation, including whether the regulation (i) is necessary for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare or for the economical performance of important governmental functions; (ii) minimizes the economic impact on small businesses in a manner consistent with the stated objectives of applicable law; and (iii) is clearly written and easily understandable.
Summary:
The regulatory action amends and reissues the existing Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) general permit that expires October 15, 2017. The general permit contains limitations and monitoring requirements for point source discharge of wastewaters from vehicle wash facilities and laundry facilities. The general permit regulation is being reissued to continue making it available for these facilities to continue to discharge.
Substantive changes (i) clarify that vehicle washing includes towed small recreational boats (less than 8.6 feet beam and 25 feet in length); (ii) require permittees to notify the municipal separate storm sewer system (MS4) owners before obtaining coverage under the general permit if their discharges are into an MS4; (iii) clarify that inspections of the effluent include sheen, floating solids, visible foam, examination date and time, and examination personnel; and (iv) require the effluent to be free of sheens.
CHAPTER 194
VIRGINIA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION SYSTEM (VPDES) GENERAL PERMIT REGULATION FOR VEHICLE WASH FACILITIES AND LAUNDRY FACILITIES
9VAC25-194-10. Definitions.
The words and terms used in this chapter shall have the meanings defined in the State Water Control Law and 9VAC25-31-10 et seq. (VPDES Permit Regulation) unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, except that for the purposes of this chapter:
"Construction equipment" means trenchers, backhoes, boring equipment, bulldozers, and any other piece of earthmoving equipment; equipment used in the paving industry; and dump trucks.
"Department" or "DEQ" means the Department of Environmental Quality.
"Laundry" means any self-service facility where the washing of clothes is conducted as designated by SIC 7215. It does not include facilities that engage in dry cleaning.
"Total maximum daily load" or "TMDL" means a calculation of the maximum amount of a pollutant that a waterbody can receive and still meet water quality standards and an allocation of that amount to the pollutant's sources. A TMDL includes wasteload allocations (WLAs) for point source discharges, and load allocations (LAs) for nonpoint sources or natural background or both, and must include a margin of safety (MOS) and account for seasonal variations.
"Vehicle maintenance" means vehicle and equipment rehabilitation, mechanical repairs, painting, fueling, and lubrication.
"Vehicle wash" means any fixed or mobile facility where the manual, automatic, or self-service exterior washing of vehicles is conducted. It includes, but is not limited to, automobiles, trucks (except below), motor homes, buses, motorcycles, ambulances, fire trucks, tractor trailers, and other devices that convey passengers or goods on streets or highways. This definition also includes golf course equipment, and lawn maintenance equipment, and recreational boats less than 8.6 feet beam and 25 feet in length towed by a vehicle. It also includes any incidental floor cleaning wash waters associated with facilities that wash vehicles where the floor wash water also passes through the vehicle wash water treatment system. Vehicle wash does not mean engine, acid caustic metal brightener, or steam heated water washing. It does not include cleaning the interior of bulk carriers. It does not include tanker trucks, garbage trucks, logging trucks, livestock trucks, construction equipment, trains, boats and ships that are more than 8.6 feet beam and 25 feet in length, or aircraft. It does not include floor cleaning wash waters from vehicle maintenance areas.
9VAC25-194-15. Applicability of incorporated references based on the dates that they became effective.
Except as noted, when a regulation of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) set forth in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is referenced or adopted herein in this chapter and incorporated by reference, that regulation shall be as it exists and has been published as a final regulation in the Federal Register prior to as of July 1, 2012, with the effective date as published in the Federal Register notice or October 16, 2012, whichever is later 2016.
9VAC25-194-40. Effective date of the permit.
This general permit will become effective on October 16, 2012 2017. This general permit will expire on October 15, 2017 2022. This general permit is effective for any covered owner upon compliance with all the provisions of 9VAC25-194-50.
9VAC25-194-50. Authorization to discharge.
A. Any owner governed by this general permit is hereby authorized to discharge wastewater as described in 9VAC25-194-20 to surface waters of the Commonwealth of Virginia provided that the owner submits and receives acceptance by the board of the registration statement of 9VAC25-194-60, submits the required permit fee, complies with the effluent limitations and other requirements of 9VAC25-194-70, and provided that the board has not notified the owner that the discharge is not eligible for coverage in accordance with subsection B of this section.:
1. The owner files a registration statement in accordance with 9VAC25-194-60, and that registration statement is accepted by the board;
2. The owner submits the required permit fee;
3. The owner complies with the applicable effluent limitations and other requirements of 9VAC25-194-70; and
4. The owner has not been notified by the board that the discharge is not eligible for coverage under this permit in accordance with subsection B of this section.
B. The board will notify an owner that the discharge is not eligible for coverage under this general permit in the event of any of the following:
1. The owner is required to obtain an individual permit in accordance with 9VAC25-31-170 B 3 of the VPDES Permit Regulation;
2. Other board regulations prohibit such discharges The owner is proposing to discharge to state waters specifically named in other board regulations that prohibit such discharges;
3. The discharge violates or would violate the antidegradation policy in the Water Quality Standards at 9VAC25-260-30;
4. The discharge is not consistent with the assumptions and requirements of an approved TMDL; or
5. The discharge is to surface waters where there are central wastewater treatment facilities reasonably available, as determined by the board.
C. Mobile vehicle wash owners shall operate such that there is no discharge to surface waters and storm sewers unless they have coverage under this permit.
D. Compliance with this general permit constitutes compliance, for purposes of enforcement, with §§ 301, 302, 306, 307, 318, 403, and 405(a) through (b) of the federal Clean Water Act, and the State Water Control Law, and applicable regulations under either with the exceptions stated in 9VAC25-31-60 of the VPDES Permit Regulation. Approval for coverage under this general permit does not relieve any owner of the responsibility to comply with any other applicable federal, state, or local statute, ordinance, or regulation.
E. Continuation of permit coverage.
1. Any owner that was authorized to discharge under the car wash facilities general permit issued in 2007 2012, and that submits a complete registration statement on or before October 16, 2012 2017, is authorized to continue to discharge under the terms of the 2007 2012 general permit until such time as the board either:
a. Issues coverage to the owner under this general permit; or
b. Notifies the owner that the discharge is not eligible for coverage under this permit is denied.
2. When the owner that was covered under the expiring or expired general permit has violated or is violating the conditions of that permit, the board may choose to do any or all of the following:
a. Initiate enforcement action based upon the 2012 general permit that has been continued;
b. Issue a notice of intent to deny coverage under the amended reissued general permit. If the general permit coverage is denied, the owner would then be required to cease the discharges authorized by coverage under the 2012 continued general permit or be subject to enforcement action for discharging without a permit;
c. Issue an individual permit with appropriate conditions; or
d. Take other actions authorized by the VPDES Permit Regulation (9VAC25-31).
9VAC25-194-60. Registration statement.
A. Deadlines for submitting registration statements. The Any owner seeking coverage under this general permit shall submit a complete VPDES general permit registration statement in accordance with this section, which shall serve as a notice of intent for coverage under the general VPDES permit for vehicle wash facilities and laundry facilities.
1. New facilities. Any owner proposing a new discharge shall submit a complete registration statement at least 30 days prior to the date planned for commencing operation of the new commencement of the discharge.
2. Existing facilities.
a. Any owner covered by an individual VPDES permit who that is proposing to be covered by this general permit shall submit a complete registration statement at least 210 240 days prior to the expiration date of the individual VPDES permit.
b. Any owner that was authorized to discharge under the general VPDES permit for coin-operated laundries (9VAC25-810) that became effective on February 9, 2011, and who intends to continue coverage under this general permit, shall submit a complete registration statement to the board prior to September 16, 2012.
c. b. Any owner that was authorized to discharge under the general VPDES permit for car wash vehicle wash facilities (9VAC25-194) that became effective on October 16, 2007 2012, and who that intends to continue coverage under this general permit, shall submit a complete registration statement to the board prior to September 16, 2012 15, 2017.
d. c. Any owner of a vehicle wash facility covered under this permit who that had a monthly average flow rate of less than 5,000 gallons per day, and the flow rate increases above a monthly average flow rate of 5,000 gallons per day, shall submit an amended registration statement within 30 days of the increased flow.
B. Late registration statements. Registration statements for existing facilities covered under subdivision A 2 b of this section will be accepted, after October 15, 2017, but authorization to discharge will not be retroactive. Owners described in subdivisions subdivision A 2 b and c of this section that submit late registration statements after September 15, 2017, are authorized to discharge under the provisions of 9VAC25-194-50 E if a complete registration statement is submitted on or before October 16, 2012 2017.
C. The required registration statement shall contain the following information:
1. Facility name and mailing address, owner name and mailing address, telephone number, and email address (if available);
2. Facility street address (if different from mailing address);
3. Facility operator (local contact) name, address, telephone number, and email address (if available) if different than owner;
4. Does the facility discharge to surface waters? If "yes," name of receiving stream; if "no," describe the discharge;
5. Does the facility discharge to a Municipal Separate Storm Sewer System (MS4)? If "yes," the facility owner must notify the owner of the municipal separate storm sewer system of the existence of the discharge within 30 days of coverage under the general permit and provide the following information at the time of registration under this permit and include that notification with the registration statement. The notice shall include the following information: the name of the facility, a contact person and phone number, the location of the discharge, the nature of the discharge, and the facility's VPDES general permit number;
6. Does the facility have a current VPDES Permit? If "yes," provide permit number;
7. Does your locality require connection to central wastewater treatment facilities?
8. Are central wastewater treatment facilities available to serve the site? If "yes," the option of discharging to the central wastewater facility must be evaluated and the result of that evaluation reported here;
9. A USGS 7.5 minute topographic map or equivalent computer generated map showing the facility discharge location(s) and receiving stream;
10. Provide a brief description of the type of washing activity. Include (as applicable) the type of vehicles washed, number of vehicle washing bays, and the number of laundry machines;
11. Highest average monthly flow rate for each washing activity or combined washing activity, reported as gallons per day;
12. Facility line (water balance) drawing;
13. Description of wastewater treatment;
14. Information on use of chemicals at the facility. Include detergents, soaps, waxes, and other chemicals;
15. Will detergent used for washing vehicles contain more than 0.5% phosphorus by weight? and
16. The following certification:
"I certify under penalty of law that this document and all attachments were prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance with a system designed to assure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information submitted. Based on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the system or those persons directly responsible for gathering the information, the information submitted is to the best of my knowledge and belief true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information including the possibility of fine and imprisonment for knowing violations."
The registration statement shall be signed in accordance with 9VAC25-31-110 of the VPDES Permit Regulation.
9VAC25-194-70. General permit.
Any owner whose registration statement is accepted by the board will receive the following permit and shall comply with the requirements therein of the general permit and be subject to all requirements of 9VAC25-31 9VAC25-31-170 of the VPDES Permit Regulation.
General Permit No.: VAG75
Effective Date: October 16, 2012 2017
Expiration Date: October 15, 2017 2022
GENERAL PERMIT FOR VEHICLE WASH FACILITIES AND LAUNDRY FACILITIES
AUTHORIZATION TO DISCHARGE UNDER THE VIRGINIA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION SYSTEM AND THE VIRGINIA STATE WATER CONTROL LAW
In compliance with the provisions of the Clean Water Act, as amended, and pursuant to the State Water Control Law and regulations adopted pursuant thereto, owners of vehicle wash facilities and laundry facilities are authorized to discharge to surface waters within the boundaries of the Commonwealth of Virginia, except those specifically named in board regulations which prohibit such discharges.
The authorized discharge shall be in accordance with the information submitted with the registration statement, this cover page, Part I - Effluent Limitations and Monitoring Requirements, Part II - Conditions Applicable to All VPDES Permits, as set forth herein in this general permit.
Part I
A. EFFLUENT LIMITATIONS AND MONITORING REQUIREMENTS
1. During the period beginning with the permittee's coverage under this general permit and lasting until the permit's expiration date, the permittee is authorized to discharge wastewater originating from vehicle wash facilities that discharge a monthly average flow rate less than or equal to 5,000 gallons per day from outfall(s) outfalls:
Such discharges shall be limited and monitored by the permittee as specified below:
EFFLUENT CHARACTERISTICS | DISCHARGE LIMITATIONS | MONITORING REQUIREMENTS |
Minimum | Maximum | Frequency(3) | Sample Type |
Flow (GPD) | NA | NL | 1/Year | Estimate |
pH (S.U.) | 6.0(1) | 9.0(1) | 1/Year | Grab |
TSS (mg/l) | NA | 60(2) | 1/Year | 5G/8HC |
Oil and Grease (mg/l) | NA | 15 | 1/Year | Grab |
NL - No Limitation, monitoring requirement only NA - Not applicable 5G/8HC - Eight Hour Composite—Consisting of five grab samples collected at hourly intervals until the discharge ceases, or until a minimum of five grab samples have been collected. (1)Where the Water Quality Standards (9VAC25-260) establish alternate standards for pH in waters receiving the discharge, those standards shall be the maximum and minimum effluent limitations. (2)Limit given is expressed in two significant figures. (3)Discharge Monitoring Reports (DMRs) of yearly monitoring (January 1 to December 31) shall be submitted to the DEQ regional office no later than the 10th day of January of each year. The first DMR is due January 10, 2014. |
Part I
A. EFFLUENT LIMITATIONS AND MONITORING REQUIREMENTS
2. During the period beginning with the permittee's coverage under this general permit and lasting until the permit's expiration date, the permittee is authorized to discharge wastewater originating from vehicle wash facilities that discharge a monthly average flow rate greater than 5,000 gallons per day from outfall(s) outfalls:
Such discharges shall be limited and monitored by the permittee as specified below:
EFFLUENT CHARACTERISTICS | DISCHARGE LIMITATIONS | MONITORING REQUIREMENTS |
Minimum | Maximum | Frequency(3) | Sample Type |
Flow (GPD) | NA | NL | 1/6 Months | Estimate |
pH (S.U.) | 6.0(1) | 9.0(1) | 1/6 Months | Grab |
TSS (mg/l) | NA | 60(2) | 1/6 Months | 5G/8HC |
Oil and Grease (mg/l) | NA | 15 | 1/6 Months | Grab |
NL - No Limitation, monitoring requirement only NA - Not applicable 5G/8HC - Eight Hour Composite - Consisting of five grab samples collected at hourly intervals until the discharge ceases, or until a minimum of five grab samples have been collected. (1)Where the Water Quality Standards (9VAC25-260) establish alternate standards for pH in waters receiving the discharge, those standards shall be the maximum and minimum effluent limitations. (2)Limit given is expressed in two significant figures. (3)Samples shall be collected by December 31 and June 30 of each year and reported on the facility's Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR). DMRs shall be submitted by January 10 and July 10 of each year. |
Part I
A. EFFLUENT LIMITATIONS AND MONITORING REQUIREMENTS
3. During the period beginning with the permittee's coverage under this general permit and lasting until the permit's expiration date, the permittee is authorized to discharge wastewater originating from a laundry facility from outfall(s) outfalls:
Such discharges shall be limited and monitored by the permittee as specified below:
EFFLUENT CHARACTERISTICS | DISCHARGE LIMITATIONS | MONITORING REQUIREMENTS |
Minimum | Maximum | Frequency(3) | Sample Type |
Flow (GPD) | NA | NL | 1/Quarter | Estimate |
pH (S.U.) | 6.0(1) | 9.0(1) | 1/Quarter | Grab |
TSS (mg/l) | NA | 60(2) | 1/Quarter | Grab |
BOD5 (mg/l) | NA | 60(1), (2) | 1/Quarter | Grab |
Dissolved Oxygen (mg/l) | 6.0(1) | NA | 1/Quarter | Grab |
Temperature °C | NA | 32 (1), (4) | 1/6 Months | Immersion Stabilization |
Total Residual Chlorine (mg/l) | NA | .011(1) | 1/Quarter | Grab |
E. Coli(5) | NA | 235 CFU/100 ml | 1/6 Months | Grab |
Enterococci(6) | NA | 104 CFU/100 ml | 1/6 Months | Grab |
Fecal Coliform(7) | NA | 200 CFU/100 ml | 1/6 Months | Grab |
NL - No Limitation, monitoring requirement only NA - Not applicable CFU – ColonyForming Unitsforming units (1)Where the Water Quality Standards (9VAC25-260) establish alternate standards for pH, BOD5, DO, TRC and temperature in waters receiving the discharge, those standards shall be, as appropriate, the maximum and minimum effluent limitations. (2)Limit given is expressed in two significant figures. (3)Reports of quarterly monitoring shall be submitted to the DEQ regional office no later than the 10th day of April, July, October, and January. Reports of once per six months shall be submitted no later than the 10th day of January and the 10th day of July for samples collected by December 31 and June 30 of each year. (4)The effluent temperature shall not exceed a maximum 32°C for discharges to nontidal coastal and piedmont waters, 31°C for mountain and upper piedmont waters, 21°C for put and take trout waters, or 20°C for natural trout waters. For estuarine waters, nontidal coastal and piedmont waters, mountain and upper piedmont waters, and put and take trout waters, the effluent shall not cause an increase in temperature of the receiving stream of more than 3°C above the natural water temperature. For natural trout waters, the temperature of the effluent shall not cause an increase of 1°C above natural water temperature. The effluent shall not cause the temperature in the receiving stream to change more than 2°C per hour, except in the case of natural trout waters where the hourly temperature change shall not exceed 0.5°C. (5)Applies only when the discharge is into freshwater (see 9VAC25-260-140 C for the classes of waters and boundary designations). (6)Applies only when the discharge is into saltwater or the transition zone (see 9VAC25-260-140 C for the classes of waters and boundary designations). (7)Applies only when the discharge is into shellfish waters (see 9VAC25-260-160 for the description of what are shellfish waters). |
Part I
A. EFFLUENT LIMITATIONS AND MONITORING REQUIREMENTS.
4. During the period beginning with the permittee's coverage under this general permit and lasting until the permit's expiration date, the permittee is authorized to discharge wastewater originating from a combined vehicle wash and laundry facility from outfall(s) outfalls:
Such discharges shall be limited and monitored by the permittee as specified below:
EFFLUENT CHARACTERISTICS | DISCHARGE LIMITATIONS | MONITORING REQUIREMENTS |
Minimum | Maximum | Frequency(3) | Sample Type |
Flow (GPD) | NA | NL | 1/Quarter | Estimate |
pH (S.U.) | 6.0(1) | 9.0(1) | 1/Quarter | Grab |
TSS (mg/l) | NA | 60(2) | 1/Quarter | 5G/8HC |
BOD5 (mg/l) | NA | 60(1), (2) | 1/Quarter | Grab |
Oil&and Grease | NA | 15 | 1/6 Months | Grab |
Dissolved Oxygen (mg/l) | 6.0(1) | NA | 1/Quarter | Grab |
Temperature °C | NA | 32 (1), (4) | 1/6 Months | Immersion Stabilization |
Total Residual Chlorine (mg/l) | NA | .011(1) | 1/Quarter | Grab |
E. Coli(5) | NA | 235 CFU/100 ml | 1/6 Months | Grab |
Enterococci(6) | NA | 104 CFU/100 ml | 1/6 Months | Grab |
Fecal Coliform(7) | NA | 200 CFU/100 ml | 1/6 Months | Grab |
NL - No Limitation, monitoring requirement only NA - Not applicable CFU – ColonyForming Unitforming units (1)Where the Water Quality Standards (9VAC25-260) establish alternate standards for pH, BOD5, DO, TRC and temperature in waters receiving the discharge, those standards shall be, as appropriate, the maximum and minimum effluent limitations. (2)Limit given is expressed in two significant figures. (3)Reports of quarterly monitoring shall be submitted to the DEQ regional office no later than the 10th day of April, July, October, and January. Reports of once per six months shall be submitted no later than the 10th day of January and the 10th day of July for samples collected by December 31 and June 30 of each year. (4)The effluent temperature shall not exceed a maximum 32°C for discharges to nontidal coastal and piedmont waters, 31°C for mountain and upper piedmont waters, 21°C for put and take trout waters, or 20°C for natural trout waters. For estuarine waters, nontidal coastal and piedmont waters, mountain and upper piedmont waters, and put and take trout waters, the effluent shall not cause an increase in temperature of the receiving stream of more than 3°C above the natural water temperature. For natural trout waters, the temperature of the effluent shall not cause an increase of 1°C above natural water temperature. The effluent shall not cause the temperature in the receiving stream to change more than 2°C per hour, except in the case of natural trout waters where the hourly temperature change shall not exceed 0.5°C. (5)Applies only when the discharge is into freshwater (see 9VAC25-260-140 C for the classes of waters and boundary designations). (6)Applies only when the discharge is into saltwater or the transition zone (see 9VAC25-260-140 C for the classes of waters and boundary designations). (7)Applies only when the discharge is into shellfish waters (see 9VAC25-260-160 for the description of what are shellfish waters). |
B. Special conditions.
1. The permittee of a vehicle wash facility shall perform inspections visual examinations of the effluent including sheens, floating solids, or visible foam and maintenance of the wastewater treatment facilities at least once per week and document activities on this visual examination in the operational log. This operational log shall include the examination date and time, examination personnel, and the visual quality of the discharge and shall be made available for review by the department personnel upon request.
2. The effluent shall be free of sheens. There shall be no discharge of floating solids or visible foam in other than trace amounts.
3. No sewage shall be discharged from a point source to surface waters from this facility except under the provisions of another VPDES permit specifically issued for that purpose.
4. There shall be no chemicals added to the water or waste which may be discharged other than those listed on the owner's accepted registration statement, unless prior approval of the chemical(s) chemical is granted by the board.
5. Wastewater should be reused or recycled whenever feasible.
6. The permittee of a vehicle wash facility shall comply with the following solids management plan:
a. All settling basins shall be cleaned frequently in order to achieve effective treatment.
b. All solids shall be handled, stored, and disposed of so as to prevent a discharge to state waters of such solids.
7. Washing of vehicles or containers bearing residue of animal manure or toxic chemicals (fertilizers, organic chemicals, etc.) into the wastewater treatment system is prohibited. If the facility is a self-service operation, the permittee shall post this prohibition on a sign prominently located and of sufficient size to be easily read by all patrons.
8. If the facility has a vehicle wash discharge with a monthly average flow rate of less than 5,000 gallons per day, and the flow rate increases above a monthly average flow rate of 5,000 gallons per day, an amended registration statement shall be filed within 30 days of the increased flow.
9. Any A permittee submitting a registration statement in accordance with Part II M and discharging into a municipal separate storm sewer shall notify the owner of the municipal separate storm sewer system of the existence of the discharge within 30 days of coverage under the general permit and provide at the time of registration under this permit and include that notification with the registration statement. The notice shall include the following information: the name of the facility, a contact person and phone number, the location of the discharge, the nature of the discharge, and the facility's VPDES general permit number.
10. Approval for coverage under this general permit does not relieve any owner of the responsibility to comply with any other federal, state, or local statute, ordinance, or regulation.
11. The permittee shall notify the department as soon as they know the permittee knows or have has reason to believe:
a. That any activity has occurred or will occur that would result in the discharge, on a routine or frequent basis, of any toxic pollutant that is not limited in this permit, if that discharge will exceed the highest of the following notification levels:
(1) One hundred micrograms per liter of the toxic pollutant;
(2) Two hundred micrograms per liter for acrolein and acrylonitrile; five hundred micrograms per liter for 2,4-dinitrophenol and for 2-methyl-4,6-dinitrophenol; and one milligram per liter for antimony;
(3) Five times the maximum concentration value reported for that pollutant in the permit application; or
(4) The level established by the board.
b. That any activity has occurred or will occur that would result in any discharge, on a nonroutine or infrequent basis, of a toxic pollutant that is not limited in this permit, if that discharge will exceed the highest of the following notification levels:
(1) Five hundred micrograms per liter of the toxic pollutant;
(2) One milligram per liter for antimony;
(3) Ten times the maximum concentration value reported for that pollutant in the permit application; or
(4) The level established by the board.
12. Operation and maintenance manual requirement. The permittee shall develop and maintain an accurate operations and maintenance (O&M) manual for the vehicle wash wastewater treatment works. This manual shall detail the practices and procedures that will be followed to ensure compliance with the requirements of this permit. The permittee shall operate the treatment works in accordance with the O&M manual. The O&M manual shall be reviewed and updated at least annually and shall be signed and certified in accordance with Part II K of this permit. The O&M manual shall be made available for review by the department personnel upon request. The O&M manual shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, the following items, as appropriate:
a. Techniques to be employed in the collection, preservation, and analysis of effluent samples;
b. Discussion of best management practices, if applicable;
c. Treatment system operation, routine preventive maintenance of units within the treatment system, critical spare parts inventory, and recordkeeping;
d. A sludge/solids disposal management plan as required by Part I B 6; and
e. Procedures for performing the visual examination and maintenance required by Part I B 1 including example log sheets; and
e. Date(s) f. Date when the O&M manual was updated or reviewed and any changes that were made.
13. Compliance Reporting reporting under Part I A 1‑ 4.
a. The quantification levels (QL) shall be as follows:
| Effluent Characteristic | Quantification Level |
| BOD5 | 2 mg/l |
| TSS Oil and Grease | 1.0 mg/l 5.0 mg/l |
| Chlorine | 0.10 mg/l |
The QL is defined as the lowest concentration used to calibrate a measurement system in accordance with the procedures published for the test method.
b. Reporting. Any single datum required shall be reported as "<QL" if it is less than the QL in subdivision 13 a of this subdivision subsection. Otherwise, the numerical value shall be reported. The QL must be less than or equal to the QL in subdivision 13 a of this subsection.
c. Monitoring results shall be reported using the same number of significant digits as listed in the permit. Regardless of the rounding convention used by the permittee (e.g., five always rounding up or to the nearest even number), the permittee shall use the convention consistently and shall ensure that consulting laboratories employed by the permittee use the same convention.
14. Samples taken as required by this permit shall be analyzed in accordance with 1VAC30-45, Certification for Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories, or 1VAC30-46, Accreditation for Commercial Environmental Laboratories.
15. 14. The discharges authorized by this permit shall be controlled as necessary to meet applicable water quality standards in 9VAC25-260.
16. 15. Discharges to waters with an approved total maximum daily load (TMDL). Owners of facilities that are a source of the specified pollutant of concern to waters where an approved TMDL has been established shall implement measures and controls that are consistent with the assumptions and requirements of the TMDL.
17. 16. Notice of Termination termination.
a. The owner may terminate coverage under this general permit by filing a complete notice of termination. The notice of termination may be filed after one or more of the following conditions have been met:
(1) Operations have ceased at the facility and there are no longer wastewater discharges from vehicle wash or laundry activities from the facility;
(2) A new owner has assumed responsibility for the facility (NOTE: A notice of termination does not have to be submitted if a VPDES Change of Ownership Agreement form has been submitted);
(3) All discharges associated with this facility have been covered by an individual or an alternative VPDES permit; or
(4) Notice of termination Termination of coverage is requested for another reason provided the board agrees that coverage under this general permit is no longer needed.
b. The notice of termination shall contain the following information:
(1) Owner's name, mailing address, telephone number, and email address (if available);
(2) Facility name and location;
(3) VPDES vehicle wash facilities and laundry facilities general permit number; and
(4) The basis for submitting the notice of termination, including:
i. (a) A statement indicating that a new owner has assumed responsibility for the facility;
ii. (b) A statement indicating that operations have ceased at the facility and there are no longer wastewater discharges from vehicle wash or laundry activities from the facility;
iii. (c) A statement indicating that all wastewater discharges from vehicle wash facilities and laundry facilities have been covered by an individual VPDES permit; or
iv. (d) A statement indicating that termination of coverage is being requested for another reason (state the reason).
c. The following certification:
"I certify under penalty of law that all wastewater discharges from vehicle wash or laundry facilities from the identified facility that are authorized by this VPDES general permit have been eliminated, or covered under a VPDES individual or alternative permit, or that I am no longer the owner of the industrial activity, or permit coverage should be terminated for another reason listed above. I understand that by submitting this notice of termination, that I am no longer authorized to discharge wastewater from vehicle wash facilities or laundry facilities in accordance with the general permit, and that discharging pollutants in wastewater from vehicle wash facilities or laundry facilities to surface waters is unlawful where the discharge is not authorized by a VPDES permit. I also understand that the submittal of this notice of termination does not release an owner from liability for any violations of this permit or the Clean Water Act."
d. The notice of termination shall be signed in accordance with Part II K.
e. The notice of termination shall be submitted to the DEQ regional office serving the area where the vehicle wash or laundry facility is located.
Part II
CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL VPDES PERMITS
A. Monitoring.
1. Samples and measurements taken as required by this permit shall be representative of the monitored activity.
2. Monitoring shall be conducted according to procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or alternative methods approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency unless other procedures have been specified in this permit.
3. The permittee shall periodically calibrate and perform maintenance procedures on all monitoring and analytical instrumentation at intervals that will ensure accuracy of measurements.
4. Samples taken as required by this permit shall be analyzed in accordance with 1VAC30-45, Certification for Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories, or 1VAC30-46, Accreditation for Commercial Environmental Laboratories.
B. Records.
1. Records of monitoring information shall include:
a. The date, exact place, and time of sampling or measurements;
b. The individuals who performed the sampling or measurements;
c. The dates and times analyses were performed;
d. The individuals who performed the analyses;
e. The analytical techniques or methods used; and
f. The results of such analyses.
2. Except for records of monitoring information required by this permit related to the permittee's sewage sludge use and disposal activities, which shall be retained for a period of at least five years, the permittee shall retain records of all monitoring information, including all calibration and maintenance records and all original strip chart recordings for continuous monitoring instrumentation, copies of all reports required by this permit, and records of all data used to complete the registration statement for this permit, for a period of at least three years from the date of the sample, measurement, report or request for coverage. This period of retention shall be extended automatically during the course of any unresolved litigation regarding the regulated activity or regarding control standards applicable to the permittee, or as requested by the board.
C. Reporting monitoring results.
1. The permittee shall submit the results of the monitoring required by this permit not later than the 10th day of the month after monitoring takes place, unless another reporting schedule is specified elsewhere in this permit. Monitoring results shall be submitted to the department's regional office.
2. Monitoring results shall be reported on a Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR) or on forms provided, approved or specified by the department.
3. If the permittee monitors any pollutant specifically addressed by this permit more frequently than required by this permit using test procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or using other test procedures approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency or using procedures specified in this permit, the results of this monitoring shall be included in the calculation and reporting of the data submitted in the DMR or reporting form specified by the department.
4. Calculations for all limitations which require averaging of measurements shall utilize an arithmetic mean unless otherwise specified in this permit.
D. Duty to provide information. The permittee shall furnish to the department, within a reasonable time, any information which the board may request to determine whether cause exists for modifying, revoking and reissuing, or terminating this permit or to determine compliance with this permit. The board may require the permittee to furnish, upon request, such plans, specifications, and other pertinent information as may be necessary to determine the effect of the wastes from his discharge on the quality of state waters, or such other information as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of the State Water Control Law. The permittee shall also furnish to the department upon request, copies of records required to be kept by this permit.
E. Compliance schedule reports. Reports of compliance or noncompliance with, or any progress reports on, interim and final requirements contained in any compliance schedule of this permit shall be submitted no later than 14 days following each schedule date.
F. Unauthorized discharges. Except in compliance with this permit or another permit issued by the board, it shall be unlawful for any person to:
1. Discharge into state waters sewage, industrial wastes, other wastes, or any noxious or deleterious substances; or
2. Otherwise alter the physical, chemical or biological properties of such state waters and make them detrimental to the public health, or to animal or aquatic life, or to the use of such waters for domestic or industrial consumption, or for recreation, or for other uses.
G. Reports of unauthorized discharges. Any permittee who discharges or causes or allows a discharge of sewage, industrial waste, other wastes or any noxious or deleterious substance into or upon state waters in violation of Part II F;, or who discharges or causes or allows a discharge that may reasonably be expected to enter state waters in violation of Part II F, shall notify the department of the discharge immediately upon discovery of the discharge, but in no case later than 24 hours after said discovery. A written report of the unauthorized discharge shall be submitted to the department within five days of discovery of the discharge. The written report shall contain:
1. A description of the nature and location of the discharge;
2. The cause of the discharge;
3. The date on which the discharge occurred;
4. The length of time that the discharge continued;
5. The volume of the discharge;
6. If the discharge is continuing, how long it is expected to continue;
7. If the discharge is continuing, what the expected total volume of the discharge will be; and
8. Any steps planned or taken to reduce, eliminate and prevent a recurrence of the present discharge or any future discharges not authorized by this permit.
Discharges reportable to the department under the immediate reporting requirements of other regulations are exempted from this requirement.
H. Reports of unusual or extraordinary discharges. If any unusual or extraordinary discharge including a bypass or upset should occur from a treatment works and the discharge enters or could be expected to enter state waters, the permittee shall promptly notify, in no case later than 24 hours, the department by telephone after the discovery of the discharge. This notification shall provide all available details of the incident, including any adverse affects effects on aquatic life and the known number of fish killed. The permittee shall submit the report to the department in writing within five days of discovery of the discharge in accordance with Part II I 2. Unusual and extraordinary discharges include but are not limited to any discharge resulting from:
1. Unusual spillage of materials resulting directly or indirectly from processing operations;
2. Breakdown of processing or accessory equipment;
3. Failure or taking out of service some or all of the treatment works; and
4. Flooding or other acts of nature.
I. Reports of noncompliance. The permittee shall report any noncompliance which may adversely affect state waters or may endanger public health.
1. An oral report shall be provided within 24 hours from the time the permittee becomes aware of the circumstances. The following shall be included as information which shall be reported within 24 hours under this subsection:
a. Any unanticipated bypass; and
b. Any upset which causes a discharge to surface waters.
2. A written report shall be submitted within five days and shall contain:
a. A description of the noncompliance and its cause;
b. The period of noncompliance, including exact dates and times, and if the noncompliance has not been corrected, the anticipated time it is expected to continue; and
c. Steps taken or planned to reduce, eliminate, and prevent reoccurrence of the noncompliance.
The board may waive the written report on a case-by-case basis for reports of noncompliance under Part II I if the oral report has been received within 24 hours and no adverse impact on state waters has been reported.
3. The permittee shall report all instances of noncompliance not reported under Parts II I 1 or 2, in writing, at the time the next monitoring reports are submitted. The reports shall contain the information listed in Part II I 2.
NOTE: The immediate (within 24 hours) reports required in Part II G, H and I may be made to the department's regional office. Reports may be made by telephone, FAX, or online at http://www.deq.virginia.gov/prep/h2rpt.html http://www.deq.virginia.gov/Programs/PollutionResponsePreparedness/MakingaReport.aspx. For reports outside normal working hours, leave a message and this shall fulfill the immediate reporting requirement. For emergencies, the Virginia Department of Emergency Management maintains a 24-hour telephone service at 1-800-468-8892.
J. Notice of planned changes.
1. The permittee shall give notice to the department as soon as possible of any planned physical alterations or additions to the permitted facility. Notice is required only when:
a. The permittee plans alteration or addition to any building, structure, facility, or installation from which there is or may be a discharge of pollutants, the construction of which commenced:
(1) After promulgation of standards of performance under § 306 of the Clean Water Act which are applicable to such source; or
(2) After proposal of standards of performance in accordance with § 306 of the Clean Water Act which are applicable to such source, but only if the standards are promulgated in accordance with § 306 within 120 days of their proposal;
b. The alteration or addition could significantly change the nature or increase the quantity of pollutants discharged. This notification applies to pollutants which are subject neither to effluent limitations nor to notification requirements specified elsewhere in this permit; or
c. The alteration or addition results in a significant change in the permittee's sludge use or disposal practices, and such alteration, addition, or change may justify the application of permit conditions that are different from or absent in the existing permit, including notification of additional use or disposal sites not reported during the permit application process or not reported pursuant to an approved land application plan.
2. The permittee shall give advance notice to the department of any planned changes in the permitted facility or activity which may result in noncompliance with permit requirements.
K. Signatory requirements.
1. Registration statement. All registration statements shall be signed as follows:
a. For a corporation: by a responsible corporate officer. For the purpose of this section, a responsible corporate officer means: (i) a president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar policy-making or decision-making functions for the corporation, or (ii) the manager of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities, provided the manager is authorized to make management decisions that govern the operation of the regulated facility including having the explicit or implicit duty of making major capital investment recommendations, and initiating and directing other comprehensive measures to assure long-term environmental compliance with environmental laws and regulations; the manager can ensure that the necessary systems are established or actions taken to gather complete and accurate information for permit application requirements; and where authority to sign documents has been assigned or delegated to the manager in accordance with corporate procedures;
b. For a partnership or sole proprietorship: by a general partner or the proprietor, respectively; or
c. For a municipality, state, federal, or other public agency: by either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official. For purposes of this section, a principal executive officer of a public agency includes: (i) the chief executive officer of the agency, or (ii) a senior executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a principal geographic unit of the agency.
2. Reporting requirements. All reports required by permits and other information requested by the board shall be signed by a person described in Part II K 1 or by a duly authorized representative of that person. A person is a duly authorized representative only if:
a. The authorization is made in writing by a person described in Part II K 1;
b. The authorization specifies either an individual or a position having responsibility for the overall operation of the regulated facility or activity such as the position of plant manager, operator of a well or a well field, superintendent, position of equivalent responsibility, or an individual or position having overall responsibility for environmental matters for the company. A duly authorized representative may thus be either a named individual or any individual occupying a named position; and
c. The written authorization is submitted to the department.
3. Changes to authorization. If an authorization under Part II K 2 is no longer accurate because a different individual or position has responsibility for the overall operation of the facility, a new authorization satisfying the requirements of Part II K 2 shall be submitted to the department prior to or together with any reports or information to be signed by an authorized representative.
4. Certification. Any person signing a document under Part II K 1 or 2 shall make the following certification:
"I certify under penalty of law that this document and all attachments were prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance with a system designed to ensure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information submitted. Based on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the system, or those persons directly responsible for gathering the information, the information submitted is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment for knowing violations."
L. Duty to comply. The permittee shall comply with all conditions of this permit. Any permit noncompliance constitutes a violation of the State Water Control Law and the Clean Water Act, except that noncompliance with certain provisions of this permit may constitute a violation of the State Water Control Law but not the Clean Water Act. Permit noncompliance is grounds for enforcement action; for permit termination, revocation and reissuance, or modification; or denial of a permit renewal application.
The permittee shall comply with effluent standards or prohibitions established under § 307(a) of the Clean Water Act for toxic pollutants and with standards for sewage sludge use or disposal established under § 405(d) of the Clean Water Act within the time provided in the regulations that establish these standards or prohibitions or standards for sewage sludge use or disposal, even if this permit has not yet been modified to incorporate the requirement.
M. Duty to reapply. If the permittee wishes to continue an activity regulated by this permit after the expiration date of this permit, the permittee shall submit a new registration statement at least 30 days before the expiration date of the existing permit, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the board. The board shall not grant permission for registration statements to be submitted later than the expiration date of the existing permit.
N. Effect of a permit. This permit does not convey any property rights in either real or personal property or any exclusive privileges, nor does it authorize any injury to private property or invasion of personal rights, or any infringement of federal, state or local law or regulations.
O. State law. Nothing in this permit shall be construed to preclude the institution of any legal action under, or relieve the permittee from any responsibilities, liabilities, or penalties established pursuant to any other state law or regulation or under authority preserved by § 510 of the Clean Water Act. Except as provided in permit conditions on "bypassing" (Part II U) and "upset" (Part II V), nothing in this permit shall be construed to relieve the permittee from civil and criminal penalties for noncompliance.
P. Oil and hazardous substance liability. Nothing in this permit shall be construed to preclude the institution of any legal action or relieve the permittee from any responsibilities, liabilities, or penalties to which the permittee is or may be subject under Article 11 (§ 62.1-44.34:14 et seq.) of the State Water Control Law.
Q. Proper operation and maintenance. The permittee shall at all times properly operate and maintain all facilities and systems of treatment and control (and related appurtenances) which are installed or used by the permittee to achieve compliance with the conditions of this permit. Proper operation and maintenance also includes effective plant performance, adequate funding, adequate staffing, and adequate laboratory and process controls, including appropriate quality assurance procedures. This provision requires the operation of back-up or auxiliary facilities or similar systems which are installed by the permittee only when the operation is necessary to achieve compliance with the conditions of this permit.
R. Disposal of solids or sludges. Solids, sludges or other pollutants removed in the course of treatment or management of pollutants shall be disposed of in a manner so as to prevent any pollutant from such materials from entering state waters.
S. Duty to mitigate. The permittee shall take all reasonable steps to minimize or prevent any discharge or sludge use or disposal in violation of this permit which has a reasonable likelihood of adversely affecting human health or the environment.
T. Need to halt or reduce activity not a defense. It shall not be a defense for a permittee in an enforcement action that it would have been necessary to halt or reduce the permitted activity in order to maintain compliance with the conditions of this permit.
U. Bypass.
1. The permittee may allow any bypass to occur which does not cause effluent limitations to be exceeded, but only if it also is for essential maintenance to assure efficient operation. These bypasses are not subject to the provisions of Part II U 2 and U 3.
2. Notice.
a. Anticipated bypass. If the permittee knows in advance of the need for a bypass, prior notice shall be submitted, if possible, at least 10 days before the date of the bypass.
b. Unanticipated bypass. The permittee shall submit notice of an unanticipated bypass as required in Part II I.
3. Prohibition of bypass.
a. Bypass is prohibited, and the board may take enforcement action against a permittee for bypass, unless:
(1) Bypass was unavoidable to prevent loss of life, personal injury, or severe property damage;
(2) There were no feasible alternatives to the bypass, such as the use of auxiliary treatment facilities, retention of untreated wastes, or maintenance during normal periods of equipment downtime. This condition is not satisfied if adequate back-up equipment should have been installed in the exercise of reasonable engineering judgment to prevent a bypass which occurred during normal periods of equipment downtime or preventive maintenance; and
(3) The permittee submitted notices as required under Part II U 2.
b. The board may approve an anticipated bypass, after considering its adverse effects, if the board determines that it will meet the three conditions listed in Part II U 3 a.
V. Upset.
1. An upset constitutes an affirmative defense to an action brought for noncompliance with technology based permit effluent limitations if the requirements of Part II V 2 are met. A determination made during administrative review of claims that noncompliance was caused by upset, and before an action for noncompliance, is not a final administrative action subject to judicial review.
2. A permittee who wishes to establish the affirmative defense of upset shall demonstrate through properly signed, contemporaneous operating logs, or other relevant evidence that:
a. An upset occurred and that the permittee can identify the causes of the upset;
b. The permitted facility was at the time being properly operated;
c. The permittee submitted notice of the upset as required in Part II I; and
d. The permittee complied with any remedial measures required under Part II S.
3. In any enforcement proceeding the permittee seeking to establish the occurrence of an upset has the burden of proof.
W. Inspection and entry. The permittee shall allow the director, or an authorized representative, upon presentation of credentials and other documents as may be required by law to:
1. Enter upon the permittee's premises where a regulated facility or activity is located or conducted, or where records must be kept under the conditions of this permit;
2. Have access to and copy, at reasonable times, any records that must be kept under the conditions of this permit;
3. Inspect at reasonable times any facilities, equipment (including monitoring and control equipment), practices, or operations regulated or required under this permit; and
4. Sample or monitor at reasonable times, for the purposes of assuring permit compliance or as otherwise authorized by the Clean Water Act and the State Water Control Law, any substances or parameters at any location.
For purposes of this section, the time for inspection shall be deemed reasonable during regular business hours, and whenever the facility is discharging. Nothing contained herein shall make an inspection unreasonable during an emergency.
X. Permit actions. Permits may be modified, revoked and reissued, or terminated for cause. The filing of a request by the permittee for a permit modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination, or a notification of planned changes or anticipated noncompliance does not stay any permit condition.
Y. Transfer of permits.
1. Permits are not transferable to any person except after notice to the department. Except as provided in Part II Y 2, a permit may be transferred by the permittee to a new owner or operator only if the permit has been modified or revoked and reissued, or a minor modification made, to identify the new permittee and incorporate such other requirements as may be necessary under the State Water Control Law and the Clean Water Act.
2. As an alternative to transfers under Part II Y 1, this permit may be automatically transferred to a new permittee if:
a. The current permittee notifies the department within 30 days of the transfer of the title to the facility or property;
b. The notice includes a written agreement between the existing and new permittees containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between them; and
c. The board does not notify the existing permittee and the proposed new permittee of its intent to modify or revoke and reissue the permit. If this notice is not received, the transfer is effective on the date specified in the agreement mentioned in Part II Y 2 b.
Z. Severability. The provisions of this permit are severable, and, if any provision of this permit or the application of any provision of this permit to any circumstance, is held invalid, the application of such provision to other circumstances, and the remainder of this permit, shall not be affected thereby.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4617; Filed December 19, 2016, 10:44 a.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
State Water Control Board is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the
Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 8 of the Code
of Virginia, which exempts general permits issued by the State Water Control
Board pursuant to the State Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq.) and
Chapters 24 (§ 62.1-242 et seq.) and 25 (§ 62.1-254 et seq.) of
Title 62.1 if the board (i) provides a Notice of Intended Regulatory Action in
conformance with the provisions of § 2.2-4007.01; (ii) following the
passage of 30 days from the publication of the Notice of Intended Regulatory
Action forms a technical advisory committee composed of relevant stakeholders,
including potentially affected citizens groups, to assist in the development of
the general permit; (iii) provides notice and receives oral and written comment
as provided in § 2.2-4007.03; and (iv) conducts at least one public
hearing on the proposed general permit.
Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-820. General Virginia
Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Watershed Permit Regulation for
Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus Discharges and Nutrient Trading in the
Chesapeake Bay Watershed in Virginia (amending 9VAC25-820-10 through 9VAC25-820-80;
adding 9VAC25-820-15).
Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Allan Brockenbrough, Department of
Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,
telephone (804) 698-4147, FAX (804) 698-4032, or email
allan.brockenbrough@deq.virginia.gov.
Small Business Impact Review Report of Findings: This
regulatory action serves as the report of the findings of the regulatory review
pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Summary:
This action amends and reissues the general permit for
total nitrogen (TN) and total phosphorus (TP) discharges and nutrient trading
in the Chesapeake Bay watershed in Virginia. The regulation provides for the
permitting of TN and TP discharges in the Chesapeake Bay watershed and allows
for trading of nutrient credits to minimize costs to the regulated facilities
and allow for future growth. The amendments to the existing regulation update
and clarify definitions, effective dates, monitoring frequencies and sample
types, quantification level requirements, trading ratio provisions, and new wasteload
allocations for some facilities as required by the December 29, 2010,
Chesapeake Bay total maximum daily load with associated compliance schedule
requirements and conditions applicable to all Virginia Pollutant Discharge
Elimination System permits.
9VAC25-820-10. Definitions.
Except as defined below, the words and terms used in this
chapter shall have the meanings defined in the Virginia Pollution Pollutant
Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Permit Regulation (9VAC25-31).
"Annual mass load of total nitrogen" (expressed in
pounds per year) means the sum of the total monthly loads for all of the months
in one calendar year. See Part I E 4 of the general permit in 9VAC25-820-70 for
calculating total monthly load.
"Annual mass load of total phosphorus" (expressed
in pounds per year) means the sum of the total monthly loads for all of the
months in one calendar year. See Part I E 4 of the general permit in
9VAC25-820-70 for calculating total monthly load.
"Association" means the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange
Association authorized by § 62.1-44.19:17 of the Code of Virginia.
"Attenuation" means the rate at which nutrients are
reduced through natural processes during transport in water.
"Board" means the Virginia State Water Control
Board or State Water Control Board.
"Delivered total nitrogen load" means the
discharged mass load of total nitrogen from a point source that is adjusted by
the delivery factor for that point source.
"Delivered total phosphorus load" means the
discharged mass load of total phosphorus from a point source that is adjusted
by the delivery factor for that point source.
"Delivery factor" means an estimate of the number
of pounds of total nitrogen or total phosphorus delivered to tidal waters for
every pound discharged from a permitted facility, as determined by the
specific geographic location of the permitted facility, to account for
attenuation that occurs during riverine transport between the permitted
facility and tidal waters. Delivery factors shall be calculated using the Chesapeake
Bay Program watershed model. For the purpose of this regulation, delivery
factors with a value greater than 1.00 in the Chesapeake Bay Program watershed
model shall be considered to be equal to 1.00.
"Department" or "DEQ" means the
Department of Environmental Quality.
"Director" means the director of the Department
of Environmental Quality.
"Eastern Shore trading ratio" means the number
ratio of pounds of point source credits from another tributary that can
be acquired and applied by the owner of a facility in the Eastern Coastal
Shore Basin for every pound of point source total nitrogen or total
phosphorus discharged from the Eastern Shore Basin facility. Trading ratios
are expressed in the form "credits supplied: credits received."
"Equivalent load" means:
2,300 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 300 pounds per year
of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered
equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design
capacity of 0.04 million gallons per day,
5,700 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 760 pounds per year
of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered
equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design
capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day, and
28,500 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 3,800 pounds per
year of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered
equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design
capacity of 0.5 million gallons per day.
"Existing facility" means a facility holding
(i) subject to a current individual VPDES permit that from
which a discharge has either commenced discharge from, or for
which its owner has received a Certificate to Construct (for sewage
treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial
facilities) for the treatment works used to derive its waste load
wasteload allocation on or before July 1, 2005, or (ii) for which the
owner has a waste load wasteload allocation listed in 9VAC25-720-50
C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of
the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation. Existing facility shall also
mean and include any facility, without not subject to an
individual VPDES permit, for which its owner holds a separate waste
load wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality
Management Planning Regulation.
"Expansion" or "expands" means (i)
initiating construction at an existing treatment works after July 1, 2005, to
increase design flow capacity, except that the term does not apply in those
cases where a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or
equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) was issued
on or before July 1, 2005, or (ii) industrial production process changes or the
use of new treatment products at industrial facilities that increase the annual
mass load of total nitrogen or total phosphorus above the waste load wasteload
allocation.
"Facility" means a point source discharging from
which a discharge or proposing to proposed discharge of
total nitrogen or total phosphorus to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries exists.
This term does not include confined animal feeding operations, discharges of
storm water, return flows from irrigated agriculture, or vessels.
"General permit" means this general permit
authorized by § 62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia.
"Industrial facility" means any facility (as
defined above) other than sewage treatment works.
"Local water quality-based limitations" means
limitations intended to protect local water quality including applicable total
maximum daily load (TMDL) allocations, applicable Virginia Pollution Discharge
Elimination System (VPDES) permit limits, applicable limitations set forth in water
quality standards established under § 62.1-44.15 (3a) of the Code of
Virginia, or other limitations as established by the State Water Control Board.
"New discharge" means any discharge from a facility
that did not commence the discharge of pollutants prior to July 1, 2005,
except that the term does not apply in those cases where a Certificate to
Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for
discharges from industrial facilities) was issued to the facility on or before
July 1, 2005.
"Nonsignificant discharger" means (i) a sewage
treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the
fall line with a design capacity of less than 0.1 million gallons per day, or
less than an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities, or (ii) a
sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed upstream of
the fall line with a design capacity of less than 0.5 million gallons per day,
or less than an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities.
"Offset" means to acquire an annual waste load
wasteload allocation of total nitrogen or total phosphorus by for
a new or expanding facility to ensure that there is no net increase of
nutrients into the affected tributary of the Chesapeake Bay.
"Permitted design capacity" or "permitted
capacity" means the allowable load (pounds per year) assigned to an
existing facility that is a nonsignificant discharger, and that
does not have a waste load wasteload allocation listed in
9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and
9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation. The
permitted design capacity is calculated based on the design flow and installed
nutrient removal technology (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent
discharge from industrial facilities) at a facility that has either commenced
discharge, or for which an owner has received a Certificate to Construct
(for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from
industrial facilities) prior to July 1, 2005. This mass load is used for (i)
determining whether the owner of the expanding facility must offset
additional mass loading of nitrogen and phosphorus and (ii) determining whether
the owner of the facility must acquire credits at the end of a calendar
year. For the purpose of this regulation chapter, owners of
facilities that have installed secondary wastewater treatment (intended to
achieve BOD and TSS monthly average concentrations equal to or less than 30
milligrams per liter) are assumed to achieve an annual average total nitrogen
effluent concentration of 18.7 milligrams per liter and an annual average total
phosphorus effluent concentration of 2.5 milligrams per liter. Permitted design
capacities for facilities that, before July 1, 2005, were required to comply
with more stringent nutrient limits shall be calculated using the more
stringent values.
"Permitted facility" means a facility whose
owner is authorized by this general permit to discharge total nitrogen or
total phosphorus. For the sole purpose of generating point source nitrogen
credits or point source phosphorus credits, "permitted facility"
shall also mean the Blue Plains wastewater treatment facility operated by the
District of Columbia Water and Sewer Authority.
"Permittee" means a person authorized by this
general permit to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus.
"Point source nitrogen credit" means the difference
between (i) the waste load wasteload allocation for a permitted
facility specified as an annual mass load of total nitrogen and (ii) the
monitored annual mass load of total nitrogen discharged by from
that facility, where clause (ii) is less than clause (i), and where the
difference is adjusted by the applicable delivery factor and expressed as pounds
per year of delivered total nitrogen load.
"Point source phosphorus credit" means the
difference between (i) the waste load wasteload allocation for a
permitted facility specified as an annual mass load of total phosphorus and
(ii) the monitored annual mass load of total phosphorus discharged by from
that facility, where clause (ii) is less than clause (i), and where the
difference is adjusted by the applicable delivery factor and expressed as
pounds per year of delivered total phosphorus load.
"Quantification level (QL)" or
"QL" means the minimum levels, concentrations, or quantities of a
target variable (e.g., target analyte) that can be reported with a specified
degree of confidence in accordance with 1VAC30-45, Certification for
Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories, or 1VAC30-46, Accreditation for
Commercial Environmental Laboratories.
"Registration list" means a list maintained by the
department indicating all facilities that have are registered for
coverage under this general permit, by tributary, including their waste load
wasteload allocations, permitted design capacities, and delivery
factors as appropriate.
"Significant discharger" means the owner of
(i) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed
upstream of the fall line with a design capacity of 0.5 million gallons per day
or greater, or an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities; (ii) a
sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream
of the fall line with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day or
greater, or an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities; (iii) a
planned or newly expanding sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake
Bay watershed upstream of the fall line that is was expected to
be in operation by December 31, 2010, with a permitted design of 0.5 million
gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load to be discharged from
industrial facilities; or (iv) a planned or newly expanding sewage treatment
works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the fall line
that is was expected to be in operation by December 31, 2010,
with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day or greater, or an
equivalent load to be discharged from industrial facilities.
"State-of-the-art nutrient removal technology"
means (i) technology that will achieve an annual average total nitrogen
effluent concentration of three milligrams per liter and an annual average
total phosphorus effluent concentration of 0.3 milligrams per liter or (ii)
equivalent load reductions in total nitrogen and total phosphorus through
recycle or reuse of wastewater as determined by the department.
"Tributaries" means those river basins for which
separate tributary strategies were prepared pursuant to § 2.2-218 of the Code
of Virginia listed in the Chesapeake Bay TMDL and includes the
Potomac, Rappahannock, York, and James River Basins, and the Eastern Coastal
Shore Basin, which encompasses the creeks and rivers of the Eastern
Shore of Virginia that are west of Route 13 and drain into the Chesapeake Bay.
"VPDES" means Virginia Pollutant Discharge
Elimination System.
"Waste load "Wasteload
allocation" means the most limiting of (i) the water quality-based
annual mass load of total nitrogen or annual mass load of total phosphorus
allocated to individual facilities pursuant to 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60
C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality
Management Planning Regulation or its successor, or permitted capacity in the
case of nonsignificant dischargers; (ii) the water quality-based annual mass
load of total nitrogen or annual mass load of total phosphorus acquired
pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:15 of the Code of Virginia for new or expanded
facilities; or (iii) applicable total nitrogen or total phosphorus waste
load wasteload allocations under the Chesapeake Bay total maximum
daily loads (TMDLs) to restore or protect the water quality and beneficial uses
of the Chesapeake Bay or its tidal tributaries.
9VAC25-820-15. Applicability of incorporated references
based on the dates that they became effective.
Except as noted, when a regulation of the U.S.
Environmental Protection Agency set forth in Title 40 of the Code of Federal
Regulations is referenced or adopted in this chapter and incorporated by
reference that regulation shall be as it exists and has been published as of
July 1, 2014.
9VAC25-820-20. Purpose, applicability, delegation of authority.
A. This regulation fulfills the statutory requirement for the
General VPDES Watershed Permit for Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus
discharges and nutrient trading in the Chesapeake Bay watershed issued
by the board pursuant to the Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.) and §
62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia.
B. This general permit regulation governs owners of
facilities holding individual VPDES permits or that otherwise meet
meeting the definition of "existing facility"
that discharge or propose to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus to
the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries.
C. The director may perform any act of the board provided
under this regulation, except as limited by § 62.1-44.14 of the Code of
Virginia.
9VAC25-820-30. Relation to existing VPDES permits issued in
accordance with 9VAC25-31.
A. This general permit shall control in lieu of conflicting
or duplicative mass loading effluent limitations, monitoring or reporting
requirements for total nitrogen and total phosphorus contained in individual
VPDES permits for facilities covered by this general permit, where these
requirements are based upon standards, criteria, waste load wasteload
allocations, policy, or guidance established to restore or protect the water
quality and beneficial uses of the Chesapeake Bay or its tidal tributaries.
B. This general permit shall not control in lieu of more
stringent water quality-based effluent limitations for total nitrogen or total
phosphorus in individual permits where those limitations are necessary to
protect local water quality, or more stringent technology-based effluent
concentration limitations in the individual permit for any facility that has
installed technology for the control of nitrogen and phosphorus whether by new
construction, expansion, or upgrade.
C. The compliance schedule in this general permit shall
control in lieu of conflicting or duplicative schedule requirements contained
in individual VPDES permits for facilities covered by this general permit,
where those requirements address mass loading of total nitrogen or total
phosphorus and are based upon standards, criteria, waste load wasteload
allocations, policy, or guidance established to restore or protect the water
quality and beneficial uses of the Chesapeake Bay or its tidal tributaries.
9VAC25-820-40. Compliance plans.
A. By July 1, 2012 2017, every owner or
operator of a facility subject to reduced individual total nitrogen or
total phosphorus waste load allocations in the Chesapeake Bay Total Maximum
Daily Load for Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Sediment dated December 29, 2010, (as
identified in 9VAC25-820-80) 9VAC25-820-80 and subject to a limit
effective date after January 1, 2017, as defined in Part I C 1 of 9VAC25-820-70
shall either individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange
Association submit compliance plans to the department for approval.
1. The compliance plans shall contain any capital projects and
implementation schedules needed to achieve total nitrogen and phosphorus
reductions sufficient to comply with the individual and combined waste load
wasteload allocations of all the permittees in the tributary as soon as
possible. Permittees submitting individual plans are not required to account
for other facilities' activities.
2. As part of the compliance plan development, permittees
shall either:
a. Demonstrate that the additional capital projects in anticipated
by subdivision 1 of this subsection are necessary to ensure continued
compliance with these allocations through by the applicable
deadline for the tributary to which the facility discharges (Part I C of the
permit), or
b. Request that their individual waste load wasteload
allocations become effective on January 1, 2012 2017.
3. The compliance plans may rely on the exchange of point
source credits in accordance with this general permit, but not the acquisition
of credits through payments into the Water Quality Improvement Nutrient
Offset Fund (§ 10.1-2128 et seq. 10.1-2128.2 of the Code
of Virginia), to achieve compliance with the individual and combined waste
load wasteload allocations in each tributary.
B. Every owner [ or operator ] of a facility
required to submit a registration statement shall either individually or
through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association submit annual
compliance plan updates to the department for approval as required by Part I D
of this the general permit.
9VAC25-820-50. Transfer of permit coverage.
A. This Coverage under the general permit shall
be transferred by the current permittee to a new owner [ or operator ]
concurrently with the transfer of the individual permit(s) permit or
permits in accordance with 9VAC25-31-380. If the current permittee holds an
aggregated [ waste load wasteload ] allocation for
multiple facilities in accordance with Part I B 2 of this the
general permit, the current permittee shall submit a revised registration
statement for any facilities retained and the new owner shall submit a
registration statement for the facilities transferred.
B. All conditions of this the general permit,
including, but not limited to, the submittal of a registration statement,
annual nutrient allocation compliance and reporting requirements, shall apply
to the new owner [ or operator ] immediately upon the transfer
date.
9VAC25-820-60. Termination of permit coverage.
The owner [ or operator ] shall terminate
coverage under this general permit concurrently with any request for
termination of the individual permit(s) permit or permits in
accordance with 9VAC25-31-370.
9VAC25-820-70. General permit.
Any owner whose registration statement is accepted by the
board will receive the following general permit and shall comply with the
requirements therein of the general permit.
General Permit No.: VAN000000
Effective Date: January 1, 2012 2017
Amended Effective Date: November 21, 2012
Expiration Date: December 31, 2016 2021
GENERAL PERMIT FOR TOTAL NITROGEN AND TOTAL PHOSPHORUS
DISCHARGES AND NUTRIENT TRADING IN THE CHESAPEAKE WATERSHED IN VIRGINIA
AUTHORIZATION TO DISCHARGE UNDER THE VIRGINIA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION
SYSTEM AND THE VIRGINIA STATE WATER CONTROL LAW
In compliance with the provisions of the Clean Water Act, as
amended, and pursuant to the State Water Control Law and regulations adopted
pursuant thereto to it, owners of facilities holding a VPDES
individual permit or owners of facilities that otherwise meet the definition of
an existing facility, with total nitrogen and/or or total
phosphorus discharges, or both to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries,
are authorized to discharge to surface waters and exchange credits for total
nitrogen and/or or total phosphorus, or both.
The authorized discharge shall be in accordance with the
registration statement filed with DEQ, this cover page, Part I-Special
Conditions Applicable to All Facilities, Part II-Special Conditions Applicable
to New and Expanded Facilities, and Part III-Conditions Applicable to All VPDES
Permits, as set forth herein.
PART I
SPECIAL CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL FACILITIES
A. Authorized activities.
1. Authorization to discharge for owners of facilities
required to register.
a. Every owner [ or operator ] of a facility
required to submit a registration statement to the department by November 1, 2011
2016, and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit, shall
be authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus subject to the
requirements of this general permit upon the department's approval of the
registration statement.
b. Any owner [ or operator ] of a facility
required to submit a registration statement with the department at the time he
makes application with the department for a new discharge or expansion that is
subject to an offset or technology-based requirement in Part II of this general
permit, shall be authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus
subject to the requirements of this general permit upon the department's
approval of the registration statement.
c. Upon the department's approval of the registration
statement, a facility will be included in the registration list maintained by
the department.
2. Authorization to discharge for owners of facilities
not required to register. Any owner of a facility authorized by a Virginia
Pollutant Discharge Elimination System VPDES permit and not required
by this general permit to submit a registration statement shall be deemed to be
authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus under this general
permit at the time it is issued. Owners [ or operators ] of
facilities that are deemed to be permitted under this subsection shall have no
obligation under this general permit prior to submitting a registration
statement and securing coverage under this general permit based upon such
registration statement.
3. Continuation of permit coverage.
a. Any owner authorized to discharge under this general permit
and who submits a complete registration statement for the reissued general
permit by November 1, 2016 2021, in accordance with Part III A
M or who is not required to register in accordance with Part I A 2 is
authorized to continue to discharge under the terms of this general permit
until such time as the board either:
(1) Issues coverage to the owner under the reissued general
permit, or
(2) Notifies the owner that the discharge is not eligible
for coverage under the reissued this general permit is
denied.
b. When the owner that was covered under the expiring or
expired general permit has violated or is violating the conditions of that
permit, the board may choose to do any or all of the following:
(1) Initiate enforcement action based upon the 2012
general permit that has been continued,
(2) Issue a notice of intent to deny coverage under the amended
reissued general permit if. If the general permit coverage
is denied, the owner would then be required to cease the activities
discharges authorized by the administratively continued coverage
under the terms of the 2012 general permit or be subject to enforcement
action for operating without a permit, or
(3) Take other actions authorized by the State Water Control
Law.
B. Waste load Wasteload allocations.
1. Waste load Wasteload allocations allocated to
permitted facilities pursuant to 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C,
9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality
Management Planning Regulation, or applicable total maximum daily loads TMDLs,
or waste load wasteload allocations acquired by owners of
new and expanding facilities to offset new or increased delivered total
nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion
under Part II B of this general permit, and existing loads calculated from the
permitted design capacity of expanding facilities not previously covered by
this general permit, shall be incorporated into the registration list
maintained by the department. The waste load wasteload
allocations contained in this list shall be enforceable as annual mass load
limits in this general permit. Credits shall not be generated by facilities
whose operations were previously authorized by a Virginia Pollution Abatement
(VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005.
2. Except as described in subdivisions 2 c and 2 d of this
subsection, an owner [ or operator ] of two or more facilities
covered by this general permit and located in discharging to the
same tributary may apply for and receive an aggregated mass load limit for
delivered total nitrogen and an aggregated mass load limit for delivered total
phosphorus reflecting the total of the water quality-based total nitrogen and
total phosphorus waste load wasteload allocations or permitted
design capacities established for such facilities individually.
a. The permittee (and all of the individual facilities covered
under a single registration) shall be deemed to be in compliance when the
aggregate mass load discharged by the facilities is less than the aggregate
load limit.
b. The permittee will be eligible to generate credits only if
the aggregate mass load discharged by the facilities is less than the total of
the waste load wasteload allocations assigned to any of the
affected facilities.
c. The aggregation of mass load limits shall not affect any
requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations.
d. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a
Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005,
cannot be aggregated with other facilities under common ownership or operation.
e. Operation under an aggregated mass load limit in accordance
with this section shall not be deemed credit acquisition as described in Part I
J 2 of this general permit.
3. An owner who that consolidates two or more
facilities located in discharging to the same tributary into a
single regional facility may apply for and receive an aggregated mass load
limit for delivered total nitrogen and an aggregated mass load limit for
delivered total phosphorus, subject to the following conditions:
a. If all of the affected facilities have waste load wasteload
allocations in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C,
9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning
Regulation, the aggregate mass load limit shall be calculated by adding the waste
load wasteload allocations of the affected facilities. The regional
facility shall be eligible to generate credits.
b. If any, but not all, of the affected facilities has a waste
load wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C,
9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality
Management Planning Regulation, the aggregate mass load limit shall be
calculated by adding:
(1) Waste load Wasteload allocations of those
facilities that have waste load wasteload allocations in
9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and
9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation;
(2) Permitted design capacities assigned to affected
industrial facilities; and
(3) Loads from affected sewage treatment works that do not
have a waste load wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C,
9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the
Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, defined as the lesser of a
previously calculated permitted design capacity, or the values calculated by
the following formulae:
Nitrogen Load (lbs/day) = flow x 8.0 mg/l x 8.345 x 365
days/year
Phosphorus Load (lbs/day) = flow x 1.0 mg/l x 8.345 x 365
days/year
Flows used in the preceding formulae shall be the design flow
of the treatment works from which the affected facility currently discharges.
The regional facility shall be eligible to generate credits.
c. If none of the affected facilities have a waste load
wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70
C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management
Planning Regulation, the aggregate mass load limit shall be calculated by
adding the respective permitted design capacities for the affected facilities. The
regional facility shall not be eligible to generate credits.
d. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a
Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005,
may be consolidated with other facilities under common ownership or operation,
but their allocations cannot be transferred to the regional facility.
e. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a
VPA permit that was issued before July 1, 2005, can become regional facilities,
but they cannot receive additional allocations beyond those permitted in Part
II B 1 d of this general permit.
4. Unless otherwise noted, the nitrogen and phosphorus waste
load wasteload allocations assigned to permitted facilities are
considered total loads, including nutrients present in the intake water
from the river, as applicable. On a case-by-case basis, an industrial
discharger may demonstrate to the satisfaction of the board that a portion of
the nutrient load originates in its intake water. This demonstration shall be
consistent with the assumptions and methods used to derive the allocations
through the Chesapeake Bay models. In these cases, the board may limit the
permitted discharge to the net nutrient load portion of the assigned waste
load wasteload allocation.
5. Bioavailability. Unless otherwise noted, the entire
nitrogen and phosphorus waste load wasteload allocations assigned
to permitted facilities are considered to be bioavailable to organisms in the
receiving stream. On a case-by-case basis, a discharger may demonstrate to the
satisfaction of the board that a portion of the nutrient load is not
bioavailable; this demonstration shall not be based on the ability of the
nutrient to resist degradation at the wastewater treatment plant, but instead,
on the ability of the nutrient to resist degradation within a natural
environment for the amount of time that it is expected to remain in the [ bay
Chesapeake Bay ] watershed. This demonstration shall also be
consistent with the assumptions and methods used to derive the allocations
through the Chesapeake Bay models. In these cases, the board may limit the
permitted discharge to the bioavailable portion of the assigned waste load
wasteload allocation.
C. Schedule of compliance.
1. The following schedule of compliance pertaining to the load
allocations for total nitrogen and total phosphorus applies to the facilities
listed in 9VAC25-820-80.
a. Compliance shall be achieved as soon as possible, but no
later than the following dates, subject to any compliance plan-based adjustment
by the board pursuant to subdivision 1 b of this subsection, for each parameter
upgrade phase:
Tributary
|
Parameter
|
Final Effluent Limits Effective Date
|
James River
|
Nitrogen
|
January 1, 2017
|
York River
|
Phosphorus
|
January 1, 2016
|
Upgrade Phase
|
Limit Effective Date
|
Phase I Total Nitrogen
|
January 1, 2017
|
Phase 2 Total Nitrogen
|
January 1, 2022
|
Phase 2 Total Phosphorus
|
January 1, 2017
|
b. Following submission of compliance plans and compliance
plan updates required by 9VAC25-820-40, the board shall reevaluate the schedule
of compliance in subdivision 1 a of this subsection, taking into account the
information in the compliance plans and the factors in § 62.1-44.19:14 C 2
of the Code of Virginia. When warranted based on such information and factors,
the board shall adjust the schedule in subdivision 1 a of this subsection as
appropriate by modification or reissuance of this general permit.
2. The registration list shall contain individual dates for
compliance (as defined in Part I J 1 a-b of this general permit) with
wasteload allocations for dischargers, as follows:
a. Facilities Owners of facilities listed in
9VAC25-820-80 will have individual dates for compliance based on their
respective compliance plans, that may be earlier than the basin upgrade
phase schedule listed in subdivision 1 of this subsection.
b. Facilities Owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-70
9VAC25-820-80 that waive their compliance schedules in accordance with
9VAC25-820-40 A 2 b shall have an individual compliance date of January 1, 2012
2017.
c. Upon completion of the projects contained in their
compliance plans, owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 may
receive a revised individual compliance date of January 1 for the calendar year
immediately following the year in which a Certificate to Operate was issued for
the capital projects, but not later than the basin upgrade phase
schedule listed in subdivision 1 of this subsection.
d. New Owners of new and expanded facilities
will have individual dates for compliance corresponding to the date that
coverage under this general permit was extended to discharges from the
facility.
3. The 39 significant dischargers in the James River
Basin shall meet aggregate discharged waste load wasteload
allocations of 8,968,864 lbs/yr TN and 545,558 lbs/yr TP by January 1, 2023.
D. Annual update of compliance plan. Every owner [ or
operator ] of a facility required to submit a registration statement
shall either individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange
Association submit updated compliance plans to the department no later than
February 1 of each year. The compliance plans shall contain sufficient
information to document a plan for the facility to achieve and maintain
compliance with applicable total nitrogen and total phosphorus
individual waste load wasteload allocations on the registration
list and aggregate waste load wasteload allocations in Part I C
3. Compliance plans for owners of facilities that were required to
submit a registration statement with the department under Part I G 1 a may rely
on the acquisition of point source credits in accordance with Part I J of this
general permit, but not the acquisition of credits through payments into the Water
Quality Improvement Nutrient Offset Fund, to achieve compliance with
the individual and combined waste load wasteload allocations in
each tributary. Compliance plans for expansions or new discharges for owners
of facilities that are required to submit a registration statement with the
department under Part I G 1 b and c may rely on the acquisition of allocation
in accordance with Part II B of this general permit to achieve compliance with
the individual and combined waste load wasteload allocations in
each tributary.
E. Monitoring requirements.
1. Discharges shall be monitored by the permittee during
weekdays as specified [ in the table ] below unless the
department determines that weekday only sampling results in a
non-representative load. Weekend monitoring and/or or alternative
monthly load calculations to address production schedules or seasonal flows
shall be submitted to the department for review and approval on a case-by-case
basis. Facilities that exhibit instantaneous discharge flows that vary from the
daily average discharge flow by less than 10% may submit a proposal to the
department to use an alternative sample type; such proposals shall be reviewed
and approved by the department on a case-by-case basis.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4273; Filed December 19, 2016, 10:34 a.m.
TITLE 11. GAMING
VIRGINIA RACING COMMISSION
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Virginia Racing Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative
Process Act pursuant to subdivision B 21 of § 2.2-4002 of the Code of Virginia
when promulgating regulations relating to the Virginia Breeders Fund created
pursuant to § 59.1-372.
Title of Regulation: 11VAC10-130. Virginia Breeders
Fund (amending 11VAC10-130-10).
Statutory Authority: § 59.1-369 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2017.
Agency Contact: David S. Lermond, Jr., Regulatory
Coordinator, Virginia Racing Commission, 5707 Huntsman Road, Suite 201-B,
Richmond, VA 23250, telephone (804) 966-7404, or email
david.lermond@vrc.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The regulatory action amends the definition of "Virginia-bred
Standardbred horse."
Part I
Definitions
11VAC10-130-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Breeding season" means a period of time beginning
on February 1 and ending on August 1 of each year. For Standardbreds, the
breeding season means a period of time beginning February 15 and ending on July
15 of each year.
"Registered" means the completion of the process of
filing an application with the commission or its designee to satisfy the
requirements for participation in the Virginia Breeders Fund.
"Stallion owner" means an owner or lessee of record
of a stallion that covered mares in the Commonwealth of Virginia during the breeding
season in which it sired a Virginia-bred horse.
"Virginia-bred Arabian horse" means a registered
Arabian horse foaled in the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Virginia Arabian horse breeder" means the owner or
lessee of record of the mare at the time of foaling of a Virginia-bred Arabian
horse.
"Virginia Arabian sire" means a registered Arabian
stallion that covered mares only in the Commonwealth of Virginia during the
breeding season in which it sired a Virginia-bred Arabian horse.
"Virginia-bred Quarter Horse" means a registered
Quarter Horse foaled or conceived in the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Virginia Quarter Horse breeder" means the owner or
lessee of record of the mare at the time of conception of a Virginia-bred
Quarter Horse.
"Virginia Quarter Horse sire" means a registered
Quarter Horse stallion or registered Virginia Thoroughbred stallion that
covered mares only in the Commonwealth of Virginia during the breeding season
in which it sired a Virginia-bred Quarter Horse.
"Virginia resident" means a person legally required
to file a resident income tax return with the Commonwealth of Virginia or a
partnership, corporation, stable name or other entity that is solely owned by
Virginia residents and owners legally required to file resident income tax
returns with the Commonwealth.
"Virginia-bred Standardbred horse" means a
registered Standardbred horse sired by a Virginia Standardbred sire, a
registered Standardbred horse foaled in the Commonwealth of Virginia provided
that the foal-producing mare is domiciled in the Commonwealth from July 15
through December 31 of the year in which the horse is foaled, or a registered
Standardbred horse foaled in the Commonwealth provided that the foal-producing
mare is bred back that same breeding season to a Virginia Standardbred sire
with the following exceptions:
1. A registered Standardbred horse that is purchased in its
two-year-old year by a Virginia resident before April 1, 2007, prior to making
its first start in a nonqualifying race foal of a mare that is solely
owned by a Virginia resident at the time of conception; or
2. A registered Standardbred horse that is purchased or
owned by a Virginia resident after December 31, 2004, and before April 30,
2007, provided that the horse was sired by a Virginia Standardbred sire; or
foal of a mare purchased solely by a Virginia resident at a public auction.
3. A registered Standardbred horse that was foaled in the
Commonwealth of Virginia prior to April 30, 2007.
"Virginia Standardbred horse breeder" means the
owner or lessee of record of the mare at the time of conception of a
Virginia-bred Standardbred horse.
"Virginia Standardbred sire" means a registered
Standardbred stallion that stood only in the Commonwealth of Virginia during
the breeding season in which it sired a Virginia-bred Standardbred horse.
Shipment of semen for the breeding of mares outside the Commonwealth shall be
permitted so long as any resulting foals meet the requirements of this chapter
in all other respects.
"Virginia-bred Thoroughbred horse" means a
registered Thoroughbred horse foaled in Virginia.
"Virginia-sired Thoroughbred horse" means a
registered Thoroughbred horse sired by a Virginia Thoroughbred sire, but not
foaled in Virginia or not otherwise satisfying the requirements for a
Virginia-bred Thoroughbred horse.
"Virginia Thoroughbred horse breeder" means the
owner or lessee listed on The Jockey Club registration papers as the owner or
lessee of record of the mare at the time of foaling a Virginia-bred
Thoroughbred horse.
"Virginia Thoroughbred sire" means a registered
Thoroughbred stallion that covers mares, other than test mares, only in the
Commonwealth during the breeding season in which it sires a Virginia-bred
Thoroughbred horse, or only during that part of the breeding season after
entering the Commonwealth.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4843; Filed December 14, 2016, 2:46 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AND DEVELOPMENTAL SERVICES
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 12VAC35-115. Regulations to
Assure the Rights of Individuals Receiving Services from Providers Licensed,
Funded, or Operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (amending 12VAC35-115-10, 12VAC35-115-30,
12VAC35-115-50, 12VAC35-115-60, 12VAC35-115-90, 12VAC35-115-100,
12VAC35-115-110, 12VAC35-115-130, 12VAC35-115-145, 12VAC35-115-150,
12VAC35-115-180, 12VAC35-115-190, 12VAC35-115-200, 12VAC35-115-210, 12VAC35-115-230;
adding 12VAC35-115-105, 12VAC35-115-175, 12VAC35-115-260, 12VAC35-115-270;
repealing 12VAC35-115-140, 12VAC35-115-170, 12VAC35-115-250).
Statutory Authority: §§ 37.2-203 and 37.2-400 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 9, 2017.
Agency Contact: Deb Lochart, Director, Office of Human
Rights, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, Jefferson
Building, 1220 Bank Street, 13th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)
786-0032, FAX (804) 371-2308, or email deb.lochart@dbhds.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) increase the availability and
flexibility of human rights advocates for direct involvement with individuals
receiving services and other critical functions by clarifying the
administrative responsibilities of the department with regards to the operation
of the human rights system and clarifying the roles of the human rights
advocate, the local human rights committee (LHRC), and the State Human Rights
Committee (SHRC); (ii) modify the regulatory responsibilities of LHRCs, which
will no longer handle administrative tasks but will have more authority to
oversee treatment plans that contain restrictions on human rights; (iii)
simplify the administrative processes regarding the dispute resolution process,
the behavior treatment plan review, and substitute decision-making and
eliminate redundant or duplicative activities; (iv) consolidate complaint
processes into one section of the regulation; and (v) prohibit the use of prone
restraints.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
Part I
General Provisions
12VAC35-115-10. Authority and applicability.
A. The Code of Virginia authorizes these regulations to
further define and protect the rights of individuals receiving services from
providers of mental health, mental retardation developmental, or
substance abuse services in Virginia. The regulations require This
chapter requires providers of services to take specific actions to protect
the rights of each individual. The regulations establish This chapter
establishes remedies when rights are violated or are in dispute,
and provide provides a structure for support of these rights.
B. Providers subject to these regulations this
chapter include:
1. Facilities operated by the department under Chapters 3
(§ 37.2-300 et seq.) and 7 (§ 37.2-700 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the
Code of Virginia;
2. Sexually violent predator programs established under
§ 37.2-909 of the Code of Virginia;
3. Community services boards that provide services under
Chapter 5 (§ 37.2-500 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia;
4. Behavioral health authorities that provide services under
Chapter 6 (§ 37.2-600 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia;
5. Public or private providers that operate programs or
facilities licensed by the department under Article 2 (§ 37.2-403 et seq.)
of Chapter 4 of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia except those operated by the
Department of Corrections; and
6. Any other providers receiving funding from the department.
Providers of services under Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities
Education Act (IDEA), 20 USC §§ 1431-1444, that are subject to these
regulations this chapter solely by receipt of Part C funds from or
through the department shall comply with all applicable IDEA regulations found
in 34 CFR Part 303 in lieu of these regulations this chapter.
C. Unless another law takes precedence otherwise
provided by law, these regulations apply this chapter applies
to all individuals who are receiving services from a public or private provider
of services operated, licensed, or funded by the Department of
Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, except those operated by the
Department of Corrections.
D. These regulations apply This chapter applies
to individuals under forensic status and individuals committed to the custody
of the department as sexually violent predators, except to the extent that the
commissioner may determine these regulations are this chapter is
not applicable to them. The exemption must shall be in writing
and based solely on the need to protect individuals receiving services,
employees, or the general public. The commissioner shall give the State Human
Rights Committee (SHRC) chairperson prior notice of all exemptions and provide
the written exemption to the SHRC for its information. These exemptions shall
be time limited and services shall not be compromised.
12VAC35-115-30. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Abuse" means any act or failure to act by an
employee or other person responsible for the care of an individual in a
facility or program operated, licensed, or funded by the department, excluding
those operated by the Department of Corrections, that was performed or was
failed to be performed knowingly, recklessly, or intentionally, and that caused
or might have caused physical or psychological harm, injury, or death to a
person receiving care or treatment for mental illness, mental retardation
intellectual disability, or substance abuse. Examples of abuse include
acts such as:
1. Rape, sexual assault, or other criminal sexual behavior;
2. Assault or battery;
3. Use of language that demeans, threatens, intimidates,
or humiliates the person;
4. Misuse or misappropriation of the person's assets, goods,
or property;
5. Use of excessive force when placing a person in physical or
mechanical restraint;
6. Use of physical or mechanical restraints on a person that
is not in compliance with federal and state laws, regulations, and policies,;
professionally accepted standards of practice,; or the person's
individualized services plan; and
7. Use of more restrictive or intensive services or denial of
services to punish the person or that is not consistent with his individualized
services plan. See § 37.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
[ "Administrative hearing" means an
administrative proceeding held pursuant to Chapter 40 (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) of
Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia. ]
"Advance directive" means a document voluntarily
executed in accordance with § 54.1-2983 of the Code of Virginia or the
laws of another state where executed (§ 54.1-2993 of the Code of
Virginia). This may include a wellness recovery action plan (WRAP) or similar
document as long as it is executed in accordance with § 54.1-2983 of the
Code of Virginia or the laws of another state. A WRAP or similar document may
identify the health care agent who is authorized to act as the individual's
substitute decision maker.
"Authorization" means a document signed by the
individual receiving services or that individual's authorized representative
that authorizes the provider to disclose identifying information about the
individual. An authorization must shall be voluntary. To be
voluntary, the authorization must shall be given by the
individual receiving services or his authorized representative freely and
without undue inducement,; any element of force, fraud, deceit,
or duress,; or any form of constraint or coercion.
"Authorized representative" means a person
permitted by law or these regulations this chapter to authorize
the disclosure of information or to consent to treatment and services or
participation in human research. The decision-making authority of an authorized
representative recognized or designated under these regulations this
chapter is limited to decisions pertaining to the designating provider.
Legal guardians, attorneys-in-fact, or health care agents appointed pursuant to
§ 54.1-2983 of the Code of Virginia may have decision-making authority
beyond such provider.
"Behavior intervention" means those principles and
methods employed by a provider to help an individual to achieve a positive
outcome and to address challenging behavior in a constructive and safe manner.
Behavior management principles and methods must be employed in accordance with
the individualized services plan and written policies and procedures governing
service expectations, treatment goals, safety, and security.
"Behavioral treatment plan," "functional
plan," or "behavioral support plan" means any set
of documented procedures that are an integral part of the individualized
services plan and are developed on the basis of a systematic data collection,
such as a functional assessment, for the purpose of assisting an individual to
achieve the following:
1. Improved behavioral functioning and effectiveness;
2. Alleviation of symptoms of psychopathology; or
3. Reduction of challenging behaviors.
"Board" means the Board of Behavioral Health and
Developmental Services.
"Caregiver" means an employee or contractor who
provides care and support services; medical services; or other treatment,
rehabilitation, or habilitation services.
"Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the
Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
"Community services board" or "CSB" means
the public body established pursuant to § 37.2-501 of the Code of Virginia
that provides mental health, mental retardation developmental,
and substance abuse services to individuals within each city and county that
established it. For the purpose of these regulations, community services board
also includes a behavioral health authority established pursuant to
§ 37.2-602 of the Code of Virginia.
"Complaint" means an allegation of a violation of these
regulations this chapter or a provider's policies and procedures
related to these regulations this chapter.
"Consent" means the voluntary agreement of an
individual or that individual's authorized representative to specific services.
Consent must shall be given freely and without
undue inducement,; any element of force, fraud, deceit, or duress,;
or any form of constraint or coercion. Consent may be expressed through any
means appropriate for the individual, including verbally, through physical
gestures or behaviors, in Braille or American Sign Language, in writing, or
through other methods.
"Department" means the Department of Behavioral
Health and Developmental Services.
"Director" means the chief executive officer of any
provider delivering services. In organizations that also include services not
covered by these regulations this chapter, the director is the
chief executive officer of the services or services licensed, funded, or
operated by the department.
"Discharge plan" means the written plan that
establishes the criteria for an individual's discharge from a service and
identifies and coordinates delivery of any services needed after discharge.
"Disclosure" means the release by a provider of
information identifying an individual.
"Emergency" means a situation that requires a
person to take immediate action to avoid harm, injury, or death to an
individual or to others.
"Exploitation" means the misuse or misappropriation
of the individual's assets, goods, or property. Exploitation is a type of
abuse. (See § 37.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.) Exploitation also
includes the use of a position of authority to extract personal gain from an
individual. Exploitation includes violations of 12VAC35-115-120 (Work)
and 12VAC35-115-130 (Research). Exploitation does not include the
billing of an individual's third party payer for services. Exploitation also
does not include instances of use or appropriation of an individual's assets,
goods or property when permission is given by the individual or his authorized
representative:
1. With full knowledge of the consequences;
2. With no inducements; and
3. Without force, misrepresentation, fraud, deceit, duress of
any form, constraint, or coercion.
"Governing body of the provider" means the person
or group of persons with final authority to establish policy. For the
purpose of these regulations, the governing body of a CSB means the public body
established according to Chapter 5 (§ 37.2-500 et seq.) or Chapter 6 (§
37.2-600 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia, and shall include
administrative policy community services boards, operating community services
boards, local government departments with policy-advisory boards, and the board
of a behavioral health authority.
"Habilitation" means the provision of
individualized services conforming to current acceptable professional practice
that enhance the strengths of, teach functional skills to, or reduce or
eliminate challenging behaviors of an individual. These services occur in an
environment that suits the individual's needs, responds to his preferences, and
promotes social interaction and adaptive behaviors.
"Health care operations" means any activities of
the provider to the extent that the activities are related to its provision of
health care services. Examples include:
1. Conducting quality assessment and improvement activities,
case management and care coordination, contacting of health care providers and
patients with information about treatment alternatives, and related functions
that do not include treatment;
2. Reviewing the competence or qualifications of health care
professionals, evaluating practitioner and provider performance, and training,
licensing or credentialing activities;
3. Conducting or arranging for medical review, legal services,
and auditing functions, including fraud and abuse detection and compliance
programs; and
4. Other activities contained within the definition of health
care operations in the Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable
Health Information, 45 CFR 164.501.
"Health plan" means an individual or group plan
that provides or pays the cost of medical care, including any entity that meets
the definition of "health plan" in the Standards for Privacy of
Individually Identifiable Health Information, 45 CFR 160.103.
"Historical research" means the review of
information that identifies individuals receiving services for the purpose of
evaluating or otherwise collecting data of general historical significance.
[ See 12VAC35-115-80 B ] (Confidentiality).
"Human research" means any systematic
investigation, including research development, testing, and evaluation, utilizing
human subjects, that is designed to develop or contribute to generalized
knowledge. Human research shall not include research exempt from federal
research regulations pursuant to 45 CFR 46.101(b).
"Human rights advocate" means a person employed by
the commissioner upon recommendation of the State Human Rights Director to help
individuals receiving services exercise their rights under this chapter. See
[ 12VAC35-115-250 12VAC35-115-260 ] C.
"Independent review committee" means a committee
appointed or accessed by a provider to review and approve the clinical efficacy
of the provider's behavioral treatment plans and associated data collection
procedures. An independent review committee shall be composed of professionals
with training and experience in applied behavioral analysis who are not
involved in the development of the plan or directly providing services to the
individual.
"Individual" means a person who is receiving
services. This term includes the terms "consumer,"
"patient," "resident," "recipient," and
"client."
"Individualized services plan" or "ISP"
means a comprehensive and regularly updated written plan that describes the
individual's needs, the measurable goals and objectives to address those needs,
and strategies to reach the individual's goals. An ISP is person-centered,
empowers the individual, and is designed to meet the needs and preferences of
the individual. The ISP is developed through a partnership between the
individual and the provider and includes an individual's treatment plan, habilitation
plan, person-centered plan, or plan of care.
"Informed consent" means the voluntary written
agreement of an individual, or that individual's authorized representative
[ , ] to surgery, electroconvulsive treatment, use of
psychotropic medications, or any other treatment or service that poses a risk
of harm greater than that ordinarily encountered in daily life or for
participation in human research. To be voluntary, informed consent must be
given freely and without undue inducement,; any element of force,
fraud, deceit, or duress,; or any form of constraint or coercion.
"Inspector general" means a person appointed by
the Governor to provide oversight by inspecting, monitoring, and reviewing the
quality of services that providers deliver.
"Investigating authority" means any person or
entity that is approved by the provider to conduct investigations of abuse and
neglect.
"Licensed professional" means a [ licensed ]
physician, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional counselor,
licensed clinical social worker, licensed or certified substance abuse
treatment practitioner, or certified [ licensed ]
psychiatric nurse specialist practitioner.
"Local Human Rights Committee human rights
committee" or "LHRC" means a group of at least five people
appointed by the State Human Rights Committee. See [ 12VAC35-115-250 D
12VAC35-115-270 A ] for membership and duties.
"Neglect" means failure by a person, program, or facility
operated, licensed, or funded by the department, excluding those operated by
the Department of Corrections, responsible for providing services to do so,
including nourishment, treatment, care, goods, or services necessary to the
health, safety, or welfare of a person an individual receiving
care or treatment for mental illness, mental retardation intellectual
disability, or substance abuse. See § 37.2-100 of the Code of
Virginia.
"Next friend" means a person designated in
accordance with 12VAC35-115-146 B to serve as the authorized representative of
an individual who has been determined to lack capacity to consent or authorize
the disclosure of identifying information, when required under these
regulations this chapter.
"Peer-on-peer aggression" means a physical act,
verbal threat, or demeaning expression by an individual against or to
another individual that causes physical or emotional harm to that individual.
Examples include hitting, kicking, scratching, and other threatening behavior.
Such instances may constitute potential neglect.
"Person centered" means focusing on the needs and
preferences of the individual, empowering and supporting the individual in
defining the direction for his life, and promoting self-determination,
community involvement, and recovery.
"Program rules" means the operational rules and
expectations that providers establish to promote the general safety and
well-being of all individuals in the program and to set standards for how
individuals will interact with one another in the program. Program rules
include any expectation that produces a consequence for the individual within
the program. Program rules may be included in a handbook or policies and shall
be available to the individual.
"Protection and advocacy agency" means the state
agency designated under the federal Protection and Advocacy for Individuals
with Mental Illness Act (PAIMI) Act and the Developmental
Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act (DD) Act. The
protection and advocacy agency is the Virginia Office for Protection and
Advocacy disAbility Law Center of Virginia (dLCV).
"Provider" means any person, entity, or
organization offering services that is licensed, funded, or operated by the
department.
"Psychotherapy notes" means comments,
recorded in any medium by a health care provider who is a mental health
professional, documenting and analyzing the contents of conversation
during a private counseling session with an individual or a group, joint,
or family counseling session that are separated from the rest of the
individual's health record. "Psychotherapy notes" shall
not include annotations relating to medication and prescription monitoring,
counseling session start and stop times, treatment modalities and frequencies,
clinical test results, or any summary of any symptoms, diagnosis, prognosis,
functional status, treatment plan, or the individual's progress to date.
"Research review committee" or "institutional
review board" means a committee of professionals that provides complete
and adequate review of research activities. The committee shall be sufficiently
qualified through maturity, experience, and diversity of its members, including
consideration of race, gender, and cultural background, to promote respect for
its advice and counsel in safeguarding the rights and welfare of participants
in human research. (See § 37.2-402 of the Code of Virginia and
12VAC35-180.)
"Restraint" means the use of a mechanical device,
medication, physical intervention, or hands-on hold to prevent an individual
from moving his body to engage in a behavior that places him or others at
imminent risk. There are three kinds of restraints:
1. Mechanical restraint means the use of a mechanical device
that cannot be removed by the individual to restrict the freedom of movement or
functioning of a limb or a portion of an individual's body when that behavior
places him or others at imminent risk.
2. Pharmacological restraint means the use of a medication
that is administered involuntarily for the emergency control of an individual's
behavior when that individual's behavior places him or others at imminent risk
and the administered medication is not a standard treatment for the
individual's medical or psychiatric condition.
3. Physical restraint, also referred to as manual hold, means the
use of a physical intervention or hands-on hold to prevent an individual from
moving his body when that individual's behavior places him or others at
imminent risk.
"Restraints for behavioral purposes" means using a
physical hold, medication, or a mechanical device to control behavior or
involuntarily restrict the freedom of movement of an individual in an instance
when all of the following conditions are met: (i) there is an emergency, (ii)
nonphysical interventions are not viable, and (iii) safety issues require an
immediate response.
"Restraints for medical purposes" means using a
physical hold, medication, or mechanical device to limit the mobility of an
individual for medical, diagnostic, or surgical purposes, such as routine
dental care or radiological procedures and related postprocedure care
processes, when use of the restraint is not the accepted clinical practice for
treating the individual's condition.
"Restraints for protective purposes" means using a
mechanical device to compensate for a physical or cognitive deficit when the
individual does not have the option to remove the device. The device may limit
an individual's movement, for example, bed rails or a gerichair, and prevent
possible harm to the individual or it may create a passive barrier, such as a
helmet to protect the individual.
"Restriction" means anything that limits or
prevents an individual from freely exercising his rights and privileges.
"SCC" means a specially constituted committee
serving an intermediate care facility [ for individuals with
intellectual disabilities ] as described in the Centers for
Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Conditions of Participation (42 CFR
483.440(f)(3)).
"Seclusion" means the involuntary placement of an
individual alone in an area secured by a door that is locked or held shut by a
staff person, by physically blocking the door, or by any other physical or
verbal means, so that the individual cannot leave it.
"Serious injury" means any injury resulting in
bodily hurt, damage, harm, or loss that requires medical attention by a
licensed physician.
"Services" means care, treatment, training,
habilitation, interventions, or other supports, including medical care,
delivered by a provider licensed, operated or funded by the department.
"Services record" means all written and electronic
information that a provider keeps about an individual who receives services.
"State Human Rights Committee" or "SHRC"
means a committee of nine members appointed by the board that is accountable
for the duties prescribed in 12VAC35-115-250 E 12VAC35-115-270
[ C ]. [ See ] 12VAC35-115-250 E
[ 12VAC35-115-270 C 8 for membership and duties ].
"State Human Rights Director human rights
director" means the person employed by and reporting to the
commissioner who is responsible for carrying out the functions prescribed
[ for the position ] in 12VAC35-115-250 F 12VAC35-115-260
D.
"Time out" means the involuntary removal of an
individual by a staff person from a source of reinforcement to a different,
open location for a specified period of time or until the problem behavior has
subsided to discontinue or reduce the frequency of problematic behavior.
"Treatment" means the individually planned, sound,
and therapeutic interventions that are intended to improve or maintain
functioning of an individual receiving services delivered by providers
licensed, funded, or operated by the department. In order to be
considered sound and therapeutic, the treatment must shall
conform to current acceptable professional practice.
Part III
Explanation of Individual Rights and Provider Duties
12VAC35-115-50. Dignity.
A. Each individual has a right to exercise his legal, civil,
and human rights, including constitutional rights, statutory rights, and the
rights contained in these regulations this chapter, except as
specifically limited herein in this chapter or otherwise by law.
Each individual has a right to have services that he receives respond to his
needs and preferences and be person-centered. Each individual also has the
right to be protected, respected, and supported in exercising these rights.
Providers shall not partially or totally take away or limit these rights solely
because an individual has a mental illness, mental retardation, health
or substance use disorder or an intellectual disability and is receiving
services for these conditions or has any physical or sensory condition that may
pose a barrier to communication or mobility.
B. In receiving all services, each individual has the right
to:
1. Use his preferred or legal name. The use of an individual's
preferred name may be limited when a licensed professional makes the
determination that the use of the name will result in demonstrable harm or have
significant negative impact on the program itself or the individual's
treatment, progress, and recovery. The director or his designee shall discuss
the issue with the individual and inform the human rights advocate of the
reasons for any restriction prior to implementation and the reasons for the
restriction shall be documented in the individual's services record. The need
for the restriction shall be reviewed by the team every month and documented in
the services record.
2. Be protected from harm including abuse, neglect, and
exploitation.
3. Have help in learning about, applying for, and fully using
any public service or benefit to which he may be entitled. These services and
benefits include educational or vocational services, housing assistance,
services or benefits under Titles II, XVI, XVIII, and XIX of the Social
Security Act, United States Veterans Benefits, and services from legal and
advocacy agencies.
4. Have opportunities to communicate in private with lawyers,
judges, legislators, clergy, licensed health care practitioners, authorized
representatives, advocates, the Office of the State Inspector General
(§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia), and employees of the protection and
advocacy agency.
5. Be provided with general information about program
services, policies, and rules in writing and in the manner, format and language
easily understood by the individual.
6. Be afforded the opportunity to have an individual of his
choice notified of his general condition, location, and transfer to another
facility.
C. In services provided in residential and inpatient
settings, each individual has the right to:
1. Have sufficient and suitable clothing for his exclusive
use.
2. Receive nutritionally adequate, varied, and appetizing
meals that are prepared and served under sanitary conditions, are served at
appropriate times and temperatures, and are consistent with any individualized
diet program.
3. Live in a humane, safe, sanitary environment that gives
each individual, at a minimum:
a. Reasonable privacy and private storage space;
b. An adequate number of private, operating toilets, sinks, showers,
and tubs that are designed to accommodate individuals' physical needs;
c. Direct outside air provided by a window that opens or by an
air conditioner;
d. Windows or skylights in all major areas used by
individuals;
e. Clean air, free of bad odors; and
f. Room temperatures that are comfortable year round and
compatible with health requirements.
4. Practice a religion and participate in religious services
subject to their availability, provided that such services are not dangerous to
the individual or others and do not infringe on the freedom of others.
a. Religious services or practices that present a danger of
bodily injury to any individual or interfere with another individual's
religious beliefs or practices may be limited. The director or his designee
shall discuss the issue with the individual and inform the human rights
advocate of the reasons for any restriction prior to implementation. The
reasons for the restriction shall be documented in the individual's services
record.
b. Participation in religious services or practices may be
reasonably limited by the provider in accordance with other general rules
limiting privileges or times or places of activities.
5. Have paper, pencil and stamps provided free of charge for
at least one letter every day upon request. However, if an individual has funds
to buy paper, pencils, and stamps to send a letter every day, the provider does
not have to pay for them.
6. Communicate privately with any person by mail and have help
in writing or reading mail as needed.
a. An individual's access to mail may be limited only if the
provider has reasonable cause to believe that the mail contains illegal
material or anything dangerous. If so, the director or his designee may open
the mail, but not read it, in the presence of the individual.
b. An individual's ability to communicate by mail may be
limited if, in the judgment of a licensed professional, the individual's
communication with another person or persons will result in demonstrable harm
to the individual's mental health.
c. The director or his designee shall discuss the issue with
the individual and inform the human rights advocate of the reasons for any
restriction prior to implementation and the reasons for the restriction shall
be documented in the individual's services record. The need for the restriction
shall be reviewed by the team every month and documented in the services
record.
7. Communicate privately with any person by telephone and have
help in doing so. Use of the telephone may be limited to certain times and
places to make sure that other individuals have equal access to the telephone
and that they can eat, sleep, or participate in an activity without being
disturbed.
a. An individual's access to the telephone may be limited only
if, in the judgment of a licensed professional, communication with another
person or persons will result in demonstrable harm to the individual or
significantly affect his treatment.
b. The director or his designee shall discuss the issue with
the individual and inform the human rights advocate of the reasons for any
restriction prior to implementation and the reasons for the restriction shall
be documented in the individual's services record. The need for the restriction
shall be reviewed by the team every month and documented in the individual's
services record.
c. Residential substance abuse services providers that are not
inpatient hospital settings or crisis stabilization programs may develop
policies and procedures that limit the use of the telephone during the initial
phase of treatment when sound therapeutic practice requires restriction,
subject to the following conditions:
(1) Prior to implementation and when it proposes any changes
or revisions, the provider shall submit policies and procedures, program
handbooks, or program rules to the LHRC and the human rights advocate for
review and approval.
(2) When an individual applies for admission, the provider
shall notify him of these restrictions.
8. Have or refuse visitors.
a. An individual's access to visitors may be limited or
supervised only when, in the judgment of a licensed professional, the visits
result in demonstrable harm to the individual or significantly affect the
individual's treatment or when the visitors are suspected of bringing
contraband or threatening harm to the individual in any other way.
b. The director or his designee shall discuss the issue with
the individual and inform the human rights advocate of the reasons for any
restriction prior to implementation and the restriction shall be documented in
the individual's services record. The need for the restriction shall be
reviewed by the team every month and documented in the individual's services
record.
c. Residential substance abuse service providers that are not
inpatient hospital settings or crisis stabilization programs may develop
policies and procedures that limit visitors during the initial phase of
treatment when sound therapeutic practice requires the restriction, subject to
the following conditions:
(1) Prior to implementation and when proposing any changes or
revisions, the provider shall submit policies and procedures, program
handbooks, or program rules to the LHRC and the human rights advocate for
review and approval.
(2) The provider shall notify individuals who apply for
admission of these restrictions.
9. Nothing in these provisions shall prohibit a provider from
stopping, reporting, or intervening to prevent any criminal act.
D. The provider's duties.
1. Providers shall recognize, respect, support, and protect
the dignity rights of each individual at all times. In the case of a minor,
providers shall take into consideration the expressed preferences of the minor
and the parent or guardian.
2. Providers shall develop, carry out, and regularly monitor
policies and procedures that assure the protection of each individual's rights.
3. Providers shall assure the following relative to abuse,
neglect, and exploitation:
a. Policies and procedures governing harm, abuse, neglect, and
exploitation of individuals receiving their services shall require that, as a
condition of employment or volunteering, any employee, volunteer, consultant,
or student who knows of or has reason to believe that an individual may have
been abused, neglected, or exploited at any location covered by these
regulations, this chapter shall immediately report this information
directly to the director.
b. The director shall immediately take necessary steps to
protect the individual until an investigation is complete. This may include the
following actions:
(1) Direct the employee or employees involved to have no
further contact with the individual. In the case of incidents of peer-on-peer
aggression, protect the individuals from the aggressor in accordance with sound
therapeutic practice and these regulations this chapter.
(2) Temporarily reassign or transfer the employee or employees
involved to a position that has no direct contact with individuals receiving
services.
(3) Temporarily suspend the involved employee or employees
pending completion of an investigation.
c. The director shall immediately notify the human rights
advocate and the individual's authorized representative. In no case shall
notification be later than 24 hours after the receipt of the initial allegation
of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
d. In no case shall the director punish or retaliate
against an employee, volunteer, consultant, or student for reporting an
allegation of abuse, neglect, or exploitation to an outside entity.
e. The director shall initiate an impartial investigation
within 24 hours of receiving a report of potential abuse or neglect. The
investigation shall be conducted by a person trained to do investigations and
who is not involved in the issues under investigation.
(1) The investigator shall make a final report to the
director or the investigating authority and to the human rights advocate within
10 working days of appointment. Exceptions to this time frame may be requested
and approved by the department if submitted prior to the close of the sixth
day.
(2) The director or investigating authority shall, based on
the investigator's report and any other available information, decide whether
the abuse, neglect or exploitation occurred. Unless otherwise provided by law,
the standard for deciding whether abuse, neglect, or exploitation has occurred is
preponderance of the evidence.
(3) If abuse, neglect or exploitation occurred, the
director shall take any action required to protect the individual and other
individuals. All actions must be documented and reported as required by
12VAC35-115-230.
(4) In all cases, the director shall provide his written
decision, including actions taken as a result of the investigation, within
seven working days following the completion of the investigation to the
individual or the individual's authorized representative, the human rights
advocate, the investigating authority, and the involved employee or employees.
The decision shall be in writing and in the manner, format, and language that
is most easily understood by the individual.
(5) If the individual affected by the alleged abuse,
neglect, or exploitation or his authorized representative is not satisfied with
the director's actions, he or his authorized representative, or anyone acting
on his behalf, may file a petition for an LHRC hearing under 12VAC35-115-180.
f. The director shall cooperate with any external
investigation, including those conducted by the Office of the State Inspector
General (§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia), the protection and advocacy
agency, or other regulatory or enforcement agencies.
g. If at any time the director has reason to suspect that
an individual may have been abused or neglected, the director shall immediately
report this information to the appropriate local Department of Social Services
(see §§ 63.2-1509 and 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia) and cooperate
fully with any investigation that results.
h. If at any time the director has reason to suspect that
the abusive, neglectful or exploitive act is a crime, the director or his
designee shall immediately contact the appropriate law-enforcement authorities
and cooperate fully with any investigation that results.
4. Providers shall afford the individual the opportunity to
have an individual of his choice notified of his general condition, location,
and transfer to another facility.
12VAC35-115-60. Services.
A. Each individual receiving services shall receive those
services according to law and sound therapeutic practice.
B. The provider's duties.
1. Providers shall develop, carry out, and regularly monitor
policies and procedures prohibiting discrimination in the provision of
services. Providers shall comply with all state and federal laws, including any
applicable provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act (42 USC
§ 12101 et seq.), that prohibit discrimination [ on the basis of
race, color, religion, ethnicity, age, sex, disability, or ability to pay ].
These policies and procedures shall require, at a minimum, the following:
a. An individual or anyone acting on his behalf may
complain to the director if he believes that his services have been limited or
denied due to discrimination.
b. If an individual complains of discrimination, the
director shall assure that an appropriate investigation is conducted
immediately. The director shall make a decision, take action, and document the
action within 10 working days of receipt of the complaint.
c. A written copy of the decision and the director's action
shall be forwarded to the individual and his authorized representative, the
human rights advocate, and any employee or employees involved.
d. If the individual or his authorized representative is
not satisfied with the director's decision or action, he may file a petition
for an LHRC hearing under 12VAC35-115-180.
2. Providers shall ensure that all services, including medical
services and treatment, are at all times delivered in accordance with sound
therapeutic practice. Providers may deny or limit an individual's access to
services if sound therapeutic practice requires limiting the service to
individuals of the same sex or similar age, disability, or legal status.
3. Providers shall develop and implement policies and
procedures that address emergencies. These policies and procedures shall:
a. Identify what caregivers may do to respond to an emergency;
b. Identify qualified clinical staff who are accountable for
assessing emergency conditions and determining the appropriate intervention;
c. Require that the director immediately notify the
individual's authorized representative and the advocate if an emergency results
in harm or injury to any individual; and
d. Require documentation in the individual's services record
of all facts and circumstances surrounding the emergency.
4. Providers shall assign a specific person or group of
persons to carry out each of the following activities:
a. Medical, mental health, and behavioral screenings and
assessments, as applicable, upon admission and during the provision of
services;
b. Preparation, implementation, and appropriate changes
modifications to an individual's services plan ISP based
on the ongoing review of the medical, mental, and behavioral needs of
the individual;
c. Preparation and implementation of an individual's discharge
plan; and
d. Review of every use of seclusion or restraint by a
qualified professional who is involved in providing services to the individual.
5. Providers shall not deliver any service to an individual
without a services plan an ISP that is tailored specifically to
the needs and expressed preferences of the individual and, in the case of a
minor, the minor and the minor's parent or guardian or other person
authorized to consent to treatment pursuant to § 54.1-2969 A of the Code
of Virginia. Services provided in response to emergencies or crises shall
be deemed part of the services plan ISP and thereafter documented
in the individual's services plan ISP.
6. Providers shall write the services plan ISP
and discharge plan in clear, understandable language.
7. When preparing or changing an individual's services ISP
or discharge plan, providers shall ensure that all services received by the
individual are integrated. With the individual's or the individual's authorized
representative's authorization, providers may involve family members in
services and discharge planning. When the individual or his authorized
representative requests such involvement, the provider shall take all
reasonable steps to do so. In the case of services to minors, the parent or
guardian or other person authorized to consent to treatment pursuant to
§ 54.1-2969 A of the Code of Virginia shall be involved in service and
discharge planning.
8. Providers shall ensure that the entries in an individual's
services record are at all times authentic, accurate, complete, timely, and
pertinent.
12VAC35-115-90. Access to and amendment of services records.
A. With respect to his own services record, each individual
and his authorized representative has the right to:
1. See, read, and get a copy of his own services record,
except information that is privileged pursuant to § 8.01-581.17 of the
Code of Virginia, and information compiled by the provider in reasonable
anticipation of or for use in a civil, criminal, or administrative action or
proceeding;
2. Let certain other people see, read, or get a copy of his
own services record if the individual is restricted by law from seeing,
reading, or receiving a copy;
3. Challenge, request to amend, or receive an explanation of
anything in his services record; and
4. Let anyone who sees his record, regardless of whether
amendments to the record have been made, know that the individual has tried to
amend the record or explain his position and what happened as a result.
B. Except in the following circumstances, With
respect to the services records of minors must have their parent's or
guardian's permission before they can access their services record:
1. A minor must have the permission of a parent, guardian,
or other person standing in loco parentis before he can access his services
record. He may access his services record without the this
permission of a parent only if the records pertain to treatment for
sexually transmitted or reportable contagious diseases, family planning
or pregnancy, outpatient care, treatment or rehabilitation for substance use
disorders, mental illness or emotional disturbance, or inpatient psychiatric
hospitalization when a minor is 14 years of age or older and has consented to
the admission.
2. A parent may access his minor child's services record
unless prohibited by 42 CFR Part 2, parental rights have been
terminated, a court order provides otherwise, or the minor's treating physician
or clinical psychologist has determined, in the exercise of professional
judgment, that the disclosure to the parent would be reasonably likely
to cause substantial harm to the minor or another person.
C. The provider's duties.
1. Providers shall tell each individual and his authorized
representative how he can access and request amendment of his own services
record.
2. Providers shall permit each individual to see his services
record when he requests it and to request amendments if necessary.
a. Access to all or a part of an individual's services record
may be denied or limited only if a physician or a clinical psychologist
involved in providing services to the individual talks to the individual,
examines the services record as a result of the individual's request for
access, and signs and puts in the services record permanently a written
statement that he thinks access to the services record by the individual at
this time would be reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of
the individual or another person or that the services record makes reference to
a person other than a health care provider and the access requested would be
reasonably likely to cause substantial harm to the referenced person. The
physician or clinical psychologist must shall also tell the
individual as much about his services record as he can without risking harm to
the individual.
b. If access is denied in whole or in part, the provider shall
give the individual or his authorized representative a written statement that
explains the basis for the denial, the individual's review rights, as set forth
in the following subdivisions, how he may exercise them, and how the individual
may file a complaint with the provider or the United States U.S.
Department of Health and Human Services, if applicable. If restrictions or
time limits are placed on access, the individual shall be notified of the
restrictions and time limits and conditions for their removal. These time
limits [ restrictions and ] conditions also shall be
specified in the services record.
(1) If the individual requests a review of denial of access,
the provider shall designate a physician or clinical psychologist who was not
directly involved in the denial to review the decision to deny access. The
physician or clinical psychologist must shall determine within a
reasonable period of time whether or not to deny the access requested in
accordance with the standard in subdivision 2 a of this subsection. The
provider must shall promptly provide the individual notice of the
physician's or psychologist's determination and provide or deny access in
accordance with that determination.
(2) At the individual's option, the individual may designate
at his own expense a reviewing physician or clinical psychologist who was not
directly involved in the denial to review the decision to deny access in
accordance with the standard in subdivision 2 a of this subsection. If the
individual chooses this option, the provider is not required to designate a
physician or clinical psychologist to review the decision.
c. If the provider limits or refuses to let an individual see
his services record, the provider shall also notify the advocate and tell the
individual that he can ask to have a lawyer or authorized insurer of his
choice see his record. If the individual makes this request, the provider shall
disclose the record to that lawyer or authorized insurer
(§ 8.01-413 of the Code of Virginia).
3. Providers shall, without charge, give individuals any help
they may need to read and understand their services record and request
amendments to it.
4. If an individual asks to challenge, amend, or explain any
information contained in his services record, the provider shall investigate
and file in the services record a written report concerning the individual's
request.
a. If the report finds that the services record is incomplete,
inaccurate, not pertinent, not timely, or not necessary, the provider shall:
(1) Either mark that part of the services record clearly to
say so, or else remove that part of the services record and file it separately
with an appropriate cross reference to indicate that the information was
removed;
(2) Not disclose the original services record without separate
specific authorization or legal authority (e.g., if compelled by subpoena or
other court order);
(3) Obtain the individual's identification of and agreement to
have the provider notify the relevant persons of the amendment; and
(4) Promptly notify in writing all persons who have received
the incorrect information and all persons identified by the individual that the
services record has been corrected.
b. If a request to amend the services record is denied, the
provider shall give the individual a written statement containing the basis for
the denial and notify the individual of his right to submit a statement of
disagreement and how to submit such a statement. The provider shall also give
the individual (i) a statement that if a statement of disagreement is not
submitted that the individual may request the provider to disclose the request
for amendment and the denial with future disclosures of information and (ii) a
description of how the individual may complain to the provider or the Secretary
of Health and Human Services, if applicable. Upon request, the provider shall
file in the services record the individual's statement explaining his
position of disagreement. If needed, the provider shall help the
individual to write this statement. If a statement is filed, the provider
shall:
(1) Give all persons who have copies of the record a copy of
the individual's statement.
(2) Clearly note in any later disclosure of the record that it
is disputed and include a copy of the statement with the disputed record.
12VAC35-115-100. Restrictions on freedoms of everyday life.
A. From admission until discharge from a service, each
individual is entitled to:
1. Enjoy all the freedoms of everyday life that are consistent
with his need for services, his protection, and the protection of others, and
that do not interfere with his services or the services of others. These
freedoms include:
a. Freedom to move within the service setting, its grounds,
and the community;
b. Freedom to communicate, associate, and meet privately with
anyone the individual chooses;
c. Freedom to have and spend personal money;
d. Freedom to see, hear, or receive television, radio, books,
and newspapers, whether privately owned or in a library or public area of the
service setting;
e. Freedom to keep and use personal clothing and other
personal items;
f. Freedom to use recreational facilities and enjoy the
outdoors; and
g. Freedom to make purchases in canteens, vending machines, or
stores selling a basic selection of food and clothing.
2. Receive services in that setting and under those conditions
that are least restrictive of his freedom.
B. The provider's duties.
1. Providers shall encourage each individual's participation
in normal activities and conditions of everyday living and support each
individual's freedoms.
2. Providers shall not limit or restrict any individual's
freedom more than is needed to achieve a therapeutic benefit, maintain a safe
and orderly environment, or intervene in an emergency.
3. Providers shall not impose any restriction on an individual
unless the restriction is justified and carried out according to these
regulations this chapter or otherwise required by law. If a provider
imposes a restriction pursuant to this chapter, except as provided in
12VAC35-115-50, the following conditions shall be met:
a. A qualified professional involved in providing services
has, in advance, assessed and documented all possible alternatives to the
proposed restriction, taking into account the individual's medical and mental
condition, behavior, preferences, nursing and medication needs, and ability to
function independently.
b. A qualified professional involved in providing services
has, in advance, determined that the proposed restriction is necessary for
effective treatment of the individual or to protect him or others from personal
harm, injury, or death.
c. A qualified professional involved in providing services
has, in advance, documented in the individual's services record the specific
reason for the restriction.
d. A qualified professional involved in providing services has
explained, and provided written notice so that the individual can
understand, the reason for the restriction, the criteria for removal,
and the individual's right to a fair review of whether the restriction is
permissible.
e. A qualified professional regularly reviews the restriction
and that the restriction is discontinued when the individual has met the
criteria for removal.
f. 4. If a court has ordered the provider to
impose the restriction or if the provider is otherwise required by law to
impose the restriction, the restriction shall be documented in the individual's
services record.
5. Providers shall obtain approval of the LHRC of any
restriction imposed on an individual's rights under this subsection or
12VAC35-115-50 that lasts longer than seven days or is imposed [ multiple
three or more ] times during a 30-day time period. If the LHRC
finds that the restriction is not being implemented in accordance with this
chapter, the director shall be notified, and the LHRC shall provide
recommendations.
4. 6. Providers may develop and enforce written
program rules, but only if the rules do not conflict with these regulations
this chapter or any individual's services plan ISP and are
needed to maintain a safe and orderly environment.
5. 7. Providers shall, in the development of
these program rules:
a. Get as many suggestions as possible from all individuals
who are expected to obey the rules;
b. Apply these rules in the same way to each individual;
c. Give the rules to and review them with each individual and
his authorized representative in a way that the individual can understand them,
including explaining possible consequences for violating them;
d. Post the rules in summary form in all areas to which
individuals and their families have regular access;
e. Submit the rules to the LHRC for review and approval upon
request of the advocate or LHRC; and
f. Prohibit individuals from disciplining other individuals,
except as part of an organized self-government program conducted according to a
written policy approved in advance by the LHRC.
12VAC35-115-105. Behavioral treatment plans.
A. A behavioral treatment plan is used to assist an
individual to improve participation in normal activities and conditions of
everyday living, reduce challenging behaviors, alleviate symptoms of
psychopathology, and maintain a safe and orderly environment.
B. Providers may use individualized restrictions such as
restraint or time out in a behavioral treatment plan to address challenging
behaviors that present an immediate danger to the individual or others, but
only after a licensed professional has conducted a detailed and systematic
assessment of the behavior and the situations in which the behavior occurs.
Providers shall document in the individual's services record that the lack of
success or probable success of less restrictive procedures attempted or
considered, and the risks associated with not treating the behavior, are
greater than any risks associated with the use of the proposed restrictions.
C. Providers shall develop any behavioral treatment plan
according to their policies and procedures, which [ shall ]
ensure that:
1. Behavioral treatment plans are initiated, developed,
carried out, and monitored by professionals who are qualified by expertise,
training, education, or credentials to do so;
2. Behavioral treatment plans include nonrestrictive
procedures and environmental modifications that address the targeted behavior;
and
3. Behavioral treatment plans are submitted to an
independent review committee, prior to implementation, for review and approval
of the technical adequacy of the plan and data collection procedures.
D. [ Providers In addition to
any other requirements of 42 CFR 483.440(f)(3), providers that are intermediate
care facilities for individuals with intellectual disabilities ] shall
submit any behavioral treatment plan that involves the use of restraint or time
out [ in an intermediate care facility ], and
its independent review committee approval, to the SCC under 42 CFR
483.440(f)(3) for the SCC's approval prior to implementation.
E. Providers [ other than intermediate care
facilities for individuals with intellectual disabilities ] shall
submit any behavioral treatment plan that [ does not require SCC
approval involves the use of restraint or time out ],
and its independent review committee approval, to the LHRC, which shall
determine whether the plan is in accordance with this chapter prior to
implementation.
F. If either the LHRC or SCC finds that the behavioral
treatment plan violates the rights of the individual or is not being
implemented in accordance with this chapter, the LHRC or SCC shall notify the
director and provide recommendations regarding the proposed plan.
G. Behavioral treatment plans involving the use of
restraint or time out shall be reviewed quarterly by the independent review
committee and the LHRC or SCC to determine if the use of restraint has resulted
in improvements in functioning of the individual.
H. Providers shall not use seclusion in a behavioral
treatment plan.
12VAC35-115-110. Use of seclusion, restraint, and time out.
A. Each individual is entitled to be completely free from any
unnecessary use of seclusion, restraint, or time out.
B. The voluntary use of mechanical supports to achieve proper
body position, balance, or alignment so as to allow greater freedom of movement
or to improve normal body functioning in a way that would not be possible
without the use of such a mechanical support, and the voluntary use of protective
equipment are not considered restraints.
C. The provider's duties.
1. Providers shall meet with the individual or his authorized
representative upon admission to the service to discuss and document in the
individual's services record [ , ] his preferred interventions
in the event his behaviors or symptoms become a danger to himself or others and
under what circumstances, if any, the intervention may include seclusion,
restraint, or time out.
2. Providers shall document in the individual's services
record all known contraindications to the use of seclusion, time out, or any
form of physical or mechanical restraint, including medical contraindications
and a history of trauma [ , ] and shall flag the record to
alert and communicate this information to staff.
3. Only residential facilities for children that are licensed
under the Regulations for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46) and
inpatient hospitals may use seclusion and only in an emergency.
4. Providers shall not use seclusion, restraint, or time out
as a punishment or reprisal or for the convenience of staff.
5. Providers shall not use seclusion or restraint solely
because criminal charges are pending against the individual.
6. Providers shall not use a restraint that places the
individual's body in a prone (face down) position.
6. 7. Providers shall not use seclusion or
restraint for any behavioral, medical, or protective purpose unless other less
restrictive techniques have been considered and documentation is placed in the individual's
services plan ISP that these less restrictive techniques did not or
would not succeed in reducing or eliminating behaviors that are self-injurious
or dangerous to other people or that no less restrictive measure was possible
in the event of a sudden emergency.
7. 8. Providers that use seclusion, restraint,
or time out shall develop written policies and procedures that comply with
applicable federal and state laws and regulations, accreditation, and
certification standards, third party payer requirements, and sound therapeutic
practice. These policies and procedures shall include at least the following
requirements:
a. Individuals shall be given the opportunity for motion and
exercise, to eat at normal meal times and take fluids, to use the restroom, and
to bathe as needed.
b. Trained, qualified staff shall monitor the individual's
medical and mental condition continuously while the restriction is being used.
c. Each use of seclusion, restraint, or time out shall end
immediately when criteria for removal are met.
d. Incidents of seclusion and restraint, including the
rationale for and the type and duration of the restraint, are shall
be reported to the department as provided in 12VAC35-115-230 C.
8. Providers shall submit all proposed seclusion,
restraint, and time out policies and procedures to the LHRC for review and
comment before implementing them, when proposing changes, or upon request of
the human rights advocate, the LHRC, or the SHRC.
9. Providers shall comply with all applicable state and
federal laws and regulations, certification and accreditation standards, and
third party requirements as they relate to seclusion and restraint.
a. Whenever an inconsistency exists between these
regulations this chapter and federal laws or regulations,
accreditation or certification standards, or the requirements of third party
payers, the provider shall comply with the higher standard.
b. Providers shall notify the department whenever a
regulatory, accreditation, or certification agency or third party payer
identifies problems in the provider's compliance with any applicable seclusion
and restraint standard.
10. Providers shall ensure that only staff who have been
trained in the proper and safe use of seclusion, restraint, and time out
techniques may initiate, monitor, and discontinue their use.
11. Providers shall ensure that a qualified professional who
is involved in providing services to the individual reviews every use of
physical restraint as soon as possible after it is carried out and [ document
documents ] the results of his review in the individual's services
record.
12. Providers shall ensure that review and approval by a
qualified professional for the use or continuation of restraint for medical or
protective purposes is documented in the individual's services record.
Documentation includes:
a. Justification for any restraint;
b. Time-limited approval for the use or continuation of
restraint; and
c. Any physical or psychological conditions that would place
the individual at greater risk during restraint.
13. Providers may use seclusion or mechanical restraint for
behavioral purposes in an emergency only if a qualified professional involved
in providing services to the individual has, within one hour of the initiation
of the procedure:
a. Conducted a face-to-face assessment of the individual
placed in seclusion or mechanical restraint and documented that alternatives to
the proposed use of seclusion or mechanical restraint have not been successful
in changing the behavior or were not attempted, taking into account the
individual's medical and mental condition, behavior, preferences, nursing and
medication needs, and ability to function independently;
b. Determined that the proposed seclusion or mechanical
restraint is necessary to protect the individual or others from harm, injury,
or death;
c. Documented in the individual's services record the specific
reason for the seclusion or mechanical restraint;
d. Documented in the individual's services record the
behavioral criteria that the individual must meet for release from seclusion or
mechanical restraint; and
e. Explained to the individual, in a way that he can
understand, the reason for using mechanical restraint or seclusion, the
criteria for its removal, and the individual's right to a fair review of
whether the mechanical restraint or seclusion was permissible.
14. Providers shall limit each approval for restraint for
behavioral purposes or seclusion to four hours for individuals age 18 and
older, two hours for children and adolescents ages nine through 17, and one
hour for children under age nine.
15. Providers shall not issue standing orders for the use of
seclusion or restraint for behavioral purposes.
16. Providers shall ensure that no individual is in time out
for more than 30 minutes per episode.
17. Providers shall monitor the use of restraint for
behavioral purposes or seclusion through continuous face-to-face observation,
rather than by an electronic surveillance device.
18. Providers may use restraint or time out in a behavioral
treatment plan to address behaviors that present an immediate danger to the
individual or others, but only after a qualified professional has conducted a
detailed and systematic assessment of the behavior and the situations in which
the behavior occurs.
a. Providers shall develop any behavioral treatment plan
involving the use of restraint or time out for behavioral purposes according to
its policies and procedures, which ensure that:
(1) Behavioral treatment plans are initiated, developed,
carried out, and monitored by professionals who are qualified by expertise,
training, education, or credentials to do so.
(2) Behavioral treatment plans include nonrestrictive
procedures and environmental modifications that address the targeted behavior.
(3) Behavioral treatment plans are submitted to and
approved by an independent review committee comprised of professionals with
training and experience in applied behavior analysis who have assessed the
technical adequacy of the plan and data collection procedures.
b. Providers shall document in the individual's services
record that the lack of success, or probable success, of less restrictive
procedures attempted and the risks associated with not treating the behavior
are greater than any risks associated with the use of restraint.
c. Prior to the implementation of any behavioral treatment
plan involving the use of restraint or time out, the provider shall obtain
approval of the LHRC. If the LHRC finds that the plan violates or has the
potential to violate the rights of the individual, the LHRC shall notify and
make recommendations to the director.
d. Behavioral treatment plans involving the use of
restraint or time out shall be reviewed quarterly by the independent review
committee and by, the LHRC to determine if the use of restraint has resulted
in improvements in functioning of the individual.
19.Providers may not use seclusion in a behavioral
treatment plan.
12VAC35-115-130. Research.
A. Each individual has a right to choose to participate or
not participate in human research.
B. The provider's duties.
1. Providers shall obtain prior, written, informed consent of
the individual or his authorized representative before any individual begins to
participate in human research unless the research is exempt under
§ 32.1-162.17 of the Code of Virginia.
2. Providers shall comply with all other applicable state and
federal laws and regulations regarding human research, including the provisions
under Chapter 5.1 (§ 32.1-162.16 et seq.) of Title 32.1 and
§ 37.2-402 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations adopted
under § 37.2-402 of the Code of Virginia.
3. Providers shall obtain review and approval from an
institutional review board or research review committee prior to performing or
participating in a human research protocol. Documentation of this review and
approval shall be maintained and made available on request by the individual or
his authorized representative.
4. Prior to participation by individuals in any human research
project, the provider shall inform and provide a copy of the institutional
review board or research review committee approval to the LHRC. Once the
research has been initiated, the provider shall update the LHRC periodically on
the status of the individual's participation.
12VAC35-115-140. Complaint and fair hearing. (Repealed.)
A. Each individual has a right to:
1. Complain that the provider has violated any of the
rights assured under these regulations;
2. Have a timely and fair review of any complaint according
to the procedures in Part V (12VAC35-115-150 et seq.) of this chapter;
3. Have someone file a complaint on his behalf;
4. Use these and other complaint procedures; and
5. Complain under any other applicable law, including
complain to the protection and advocacy agency.
B. The provider's duties.
1. If an individual makes a complaint, the provider shall
make every attempt to resolve the complaint at the earliest possible step.
2. Providers shall not take, threaten to take, permit, or
condone any action to retaliate against anyone filing a complaint or prevent
anyone from filing a complaint or helping an individual to file a complaint.
3. Providers shall assist the complainant in understanding
the full complaint process, the options for resolution including the formal and
informal processes, and the confidentiality elements involved.
Part IV
Substitute Decision Making
12VAC35-115-145. Determination of capacity to give consent or
authorization.
If the capacity of an individual to consent to treatment,
services, or research, or to authorize the disclosure of
information is in doubt, the provider shall obtain an evaluation from conducted
by or under the supervision of a licensed professional who is qualified
by expertise, training, education, or credentials and not directly involved
with the individual to determine whether the individual has capacity to consent
or to authorize the disclosure of information.
1. Capacity evaluations shall be obtained for all individuals
who may lack capacity, even if they request that an authorized representative
be designated or agree to submit to a recommended course of treatment.
2. In conducting this evaluation, the professional may seek
comments from representatives accompanying the individual pursuant to
12VAC35-115-70 A 4 about the individual's capacity to consent or to authorize
disclosure.
3. Providers shall determine the need for an evaluation of an
individual's capacity to consent or authorize disclosure of information and the
need for a substitute decision maker whenever the individual's condition
warrants, the individual requests such a review, at least every six months, and
at discharge, except for individuals receiving acute inpatient services.
a. If the individual's record indicates that the individual is
not expected to obtain or regain capacity, the provider shall document annually
that it has reviewed the individual's capacity to make decisions and whether
there has been any change in that capacity.
b. Providers of acute inpatient services shall determine the
need for an evaluation of an individual's capacity to consent or authorize
disclosure of information whenever the individual's condition warrants or at
least at every treatment team meeting. Results of such reviews shall be
documented in the treatment team notes and communicated to the individual and
his authorized representative.
4. Capacity evaluations shall be conducted in accordance with
accepted standards of professional practice and shall indicate the specific
type of decision for which the individual's capacity is being evaluated (e.g.,
medical) and shall indicate what specific type of decision the individual has
or does not have the capacity to make. Capacity evaluations shall address the
type of supports that might be used to increase the individual's
decision-making capabilities.
5. If the individual or his family objects to the results of
the qualified licensed professional's determination, the provider
shall immediately inform the human rights advocate.
a. If the individual or family member wishes to obtain an
independent evaluation of the individual's capacity, he may do so at his own
expense and within reasonable timeframes consistent with his circumstances. If
the individual or family member cannot pay for an independent evaluation, the
individual may request that the LHRC consider the need for an independent evaluation
pursuant to 12VAC35-115-200 B. The provider shall take no action for which
consent or authorization is required, except in an emergency, pending the
results of the independent evaluation. The provider shall take no steps to
designate an authorized representative until the independent evaluation is
complete.
b. If the independent evaluation is consistent with the
provider's evaluation, the provider's evaluation is binding, and the provider
shall implement it accordingly.
c. If the independent evaluation is not consistent with the
provider's evaluation, the matter shall be referred to the LHRC for review and
decision under 12VAC35-115-200 through 12VAC35-115-250 [ and
12VAC35-115-210 ].
Part V
Complaint Resolution, Hearing, and Appeal Procedures
12VAC35-115-150. General provisions.
A. [ Any action taken by the judicial
system or Court orders or orders or decisions entered after an ]
administrative hearing [ bodies is are ] not
subject to review under the human rights complaint resolution process.
A. B. The parties to any complaint are the
individual and the director. Each party can also have anyone else represent him
during resolution of the complaint. The director shall make every effort to
resolve the complaint at the earliest possible stage.
B. C. Meetings, reviews, Reviews
and hearings will generally be closed to other people unless the individual
making the complaint requests that other people attend or if an open meeting is
required by the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of
the Code of Virginia). 1. The LHRC and SHRC may conduct a closed hearing
to protect the confidentiality of persons who are not a party to the complaint,
but only if a closed meeting is otherwise allowed under the Virginia Freedom of
Information Act (see § 2.2-3711 of the Code of Virginia).
2. If any person alleges that implementation of an LHRC
recommendation would violate the individual's rights or those of other
individuals, the person may file a petition for a hearing with the SHRC,
according to 12VAC35-115-210.
C. D. In no event shall a pending hearing,
review, or appeal prevent a director from taking corrective action based on the
advice of the provider's legal counsel that such action is required by law or he
otherwise if the director thinks such action is correct and
justified.
D. E. The LHRC or SHRC, on the motion of any
party or on its own motion, may, for good cause, extend any time periods before
or after the expiration of that time period. No director may extend any time
periods for any actions he is required to take under these procedures without
prior approval of the LHRC or SHRC.
E. F. Except in the case of emergency
proceedings, if a time period in which action must be taken under this part is
not extended by the LHRC or SHRC, the failure of a party to act within that
time period shall waive that party's further rights under these procedures.
F. G. In making their recommendations
regarding complaint resolution, the LHRC and the SHRC shall identify any rights
or regulations that the provider violated and any policies, practices, or
conditions that contributed to the violations. They shall also recommend
appropriate corrective actions, including changes in policies, practices, or
conditions, to prevent further violations of the rights assured under these
regulations this chapter.
G. H. If it is impossible to carry out the
recommendations of the LHRC or the SHRC within a specified time, the LHRC or
the SHRC, as appropriate, shall recommend any necessary interim action that
gives appropriate and possible immediate remedies.
H. I. Any action plan submitted by the director
or commissioner in the course of these proceedings shall fully address final
and interim recommendations made by the LHRC or the SHRC and identify financial
or other constraints, if any, that prevent efforts to fully remedy the
violation.
I. J. All communication with the individual
during the complaint resolution process shall be in the manner, format, and
language most easily understood by the individual.
12VAC35-115-170. Complaint resolution process. (Repealed.)
A. Anyone who believes that a provider has violated an
individual's rights under these regulations may report it to the director or
the human rights advocate for resolution.
1. If the report is made only to the director, the director
or his designee shall immediately notify the human rights advocate. If the
report is made on a weekend or holiday, then the director or his designee shall
notify the human rights advocate on the next business day.
2. If the report is made only to the human rights advocate,
the human rights advocate shall immediately notify the director. If the report
is made on a weekend or holiday, then the human rights advocate shall notify
the director on the next business day.
3. The human rights advocate or the director or his
designee shall discuss the report with the individual and notify the individual
of his right to pursue a complaint through the process established in these
regulations. The steps in the informal and formal complaint process established
in these regulations shall be thoroughly explained to the individual. The human
rights advocate or the director or his designee shall ask the individual if he
understands the complaint process and the choice that he has before asking the
individual how he wishes to pursue the complaint. The individual shall then be
given the choice of pursuing the complaint through the informal or formal
complaint process. If the individual does not make a choice, the complaint
shall be managed through the informal process.
4. The following steps apply if the complaint is pursued
through the informal process:
Step 1: The director or his designee shall attempt to
resolve the complaint immediately. If the complaint is resolved, no further
action is required.
Step 2: If the complaint is not resolved within five
working days, the director or his designee shall refer it for resolution under
the formal process. The individual may extend the informal process five-day
time frame for good cause. All such extensions shall be reported to the human
rights advocate by the director or his designee.
5. The following steps apply if the complaint is pursued
through the formal process:
Step 1: The director or his designee shall try to resolve
the complaint by meeting with the individual, any representative the individual
chooses, the human rights advocate, and others as appropriate within 24 hours
of receipt of the complaint or the next business day if that day is a weekend
or holiday. The director or his designee shall conduct an investigation of the
complaint, if necessary.
Step 2: The director or his designee shall give the
individual and his chosen representative a written preliminary decision and,
where appropriate, an action plan for resolving the complaint within 10 working
days of receiving the complaint. Along with the action plan, the director shall
provide written notice to the individual about the time frame for the
individual's response pursuant to Step 3 of this subdivision, information on
how to contact the human rights advocate for assistance with the process, and a
statement the complaint will be closed if the individual does not respond.
Step 3: If the individual disagrees with the director's
preliminary decision or action plan, he can respond to the director in writing
within five working days after receiving the preliminary decision and action
plan. If the individual has not responded within five working days, the
complaint will be closed.
Step 4: If the individual disagrees with the preliminary decision
or action plan and reports his disagreement to the director in writing within
five working days after receiving the decision or action plan, the director
shall investigate further as appropriate and shall make a final decision
regarding the complaint. The director shall forward a written copy of his final
decision and action plan to the individual, his chosen representative, and the
human rights advocate within five working days after the director receives the
individual's written response. Along with the action plan, the director shall
provide written notice to the individual about the time frame for the
individual's response pursuant to Step 5 of this subdivision, information about
how to contact the human rights advocate for assistance with the process, and a
statement that if the individual does not respond that the complaint will be
closed.
Step 5: If the individual disagrees with the director's
final decision or action plan, he may file a petition for a hearing by the LHRC
using the procedures prescribed in 12VAC35-115-180. If the individual has
accepted the relief offered by the director, the matter is not subject to
further review.
B. If at any time during the formal complaint process the
human rights advocate concludes that there is substantial risk that serious or
irreparable harm will result if the complaint is not resolved immediately, the
human rights advocate shall inform the director, the provider, the provider's
governing body, and the LHRC. Steps 1 through 5 of subdivision A 5 of this section
shall not be followed. Instead, the LHRC shall conduct a hearing according to
the special procedures for emergency hearings in 12VAC35-115-180.
12VAC35-115-175. Human rights complaint process.
A. Each individual has a right to:
1. Make a complaint that the provider has violated any of
the rights assured under this chapter;
2. Have a timely and fair review of any complaint in
accordance with this chapter and the program's human rights complaint
resolution policies and procedures;
3. Have someone file a complaint on his behalf;
4. Use these and other complaint procedures; and
5. Make a complaint under any other applicable law,
including to the protection and advocacy agency.
B. The individual shall:
1. Be contacted by the director or the director's designee
regarding the complaint within 24 hours;
2. Have access to a human rights advocate for assistance
with the complaint;
3. Be protected from retaliation and harm;
4. Have the complaint reviewed, investigated, and resolved
as soon as possible;
5. Receive a report with the director's decision and action
plan within 10 working days; and
6. Be notified in writing of his right to and the process
for appealing the director's decision and action plan to the LHRC.
C. Upon receipt of a complaint, providers shall:
1. Notify the department of the complaint as soon as
possible, but no later than the next business day;
2. [ Ensure that the director or the director's
designee contacts the individual regarding the complaint within 24 hours;
3. ] Initiate an impartial investigation into,
or resolution of, the complaint as soon as possible, but no later than the next
business day;
[ 3. 4. ] Take all steps
necessary to ensure that individuals involved in the complaint are protected
from retaliation and harm;
[ 4. 5. ] Assist the
individual making a complaint in understanding the human rights complaint
process, the provider's complaint resolution policies and procedures, and the
confidentiality of involved information;
[ 5. 6. ] Ensure that all
communications to the individual are in the manner, format, and language most
easily understood by the individual;
[ 6. 7. ] Adhere to the
reporting requirements in 12VAC35-115-230; and
[ 7. 8. ] Report the
director's decision and action plan within 10 working days to the individual,
authorized representative, if applicable, and human rights advocate.
D. All providers shall have complaint resolution policies
and procedures that address all of the requirements of [ subsection subsections ]
C [ and E ] of this section.
E. Provider complaint resolution policies and procedures
shall be in writing and approved by the department prior to implementation. The
policies and procedures shall:
1. Ensure that anyone who believes that a provider has
violated an individual's rights under this chapter can report it to the
director or the human rights advocate for resolution;
2. Ensure that employees shall not take, threaten to take,
permit, or condone any action (i) to punish or retaliate against anyone filing
a complaint or (ii) to prevent anyone from filing or helping an individual file
a complaint either under this chapter or with an outside entity;
3. Ensure that every attempt is made to resolve an
individual's complaint as quickly as possible;
4. Provide opportunities for timely negotiation and
resolution for all complaints, including the additional requirements related to
abuse, neglect, or exploitation in subsection F of this section;
5. Establish a process for designating the director's
responsibilities to ensure timely complaint reporting and resolution;
6. Detail the program's complaint review or investigation
process, including (i) specific actions the program will take to protect the
individual and gather and document relevant information and (ii) how and when
the individual and his authorized representative, if applicable, will receive
updates on the progress of the review;
7. Detail notification requirements and deadlines including
procedures for providing:
a. The program's complaint policies and procedures to all
individuals and authorized representatives at admission to service; [ and ]
b. Written notification to the individual regarding his
right to and the process to appeal the director's decision and action plan to
the LHRC; and
8. Detail staff training requirements regarding the program's
complaint resolution process and requirements.
F. Additional requirements for complaints involving abuse,
neglect, or exploitation:
1. The program director shall take immediate steps to
protect the individual until the investigation is complete, including
appropriate personnel actions.
2. Any instance of seclusion or restraint that does not
comply with this chapter or an approved variance, or that results in injury to
an individual, shall be reported to the authorized representative, as
applicable, and the department in accordance with the requirements for
reporting allegations of abuse.
3. The program director shall notify the department and
authorized representative, if applicable, of an allegation of abuse or neglect
within 24 hours of the receipt of the allegation.
4. The program director shall ensure that the investigation
is conducted by a person trained to do investigations and who is not involved
in the issues under investigation.
5. The investigator shall provide a written report of the
results of the investigation of abuse or neglect to the director and to the
human rights advocate within 10 working days from the date the investigation
began unless an extension has been granted.
6. The program director shall decide, based on the
investigator's report and any other available information, whether the abuse,
neglect, or exploitation occurred. Unless otherwise provided by law, the
standard for deciding whether abuse, neglect, or exploitation has occurred is
preponderance of the evidence.
7. The program director shall submit the final decision and
action plan, if applicable, to the individual, authorized representative, if
applicable, and human rights advocate within 10 working days of its completion.
G. If the human rights advocate concludes that there is
substantial risk that serious or irreparable harm will result if the complaint
is not resolved immediately, the human rights advocate shall inform the
director, the provider's governing body, and the LHRC. The LHRC shall conduct a
hearing according to the special procedures for emergency hearings in
12VAC35-115-190.
H. The director shall cooperate fully with any abuse or
neglect complaint investigation conducted by a local department of social
services.
I. If at any time the director has reason to suspect that
the abusive, neglectful, or exploitive act is a crime and that it occurred on
the program premises, the director or designee shall immediately contact the
appropriate law-enforcement authorities and cooperate fully with any
investigation that may result.
12VAC35-115-180. Local Human Rights Committee human
rights committee hearing and review procedures.
A. Any individual or his authorized representative who
does not accept the relief offered by the director or disagrees with (i) a
director's final decision and action plan resulting from the complaint
resolution; (ii) a director's final action following a report of abuse,
neglect, or exploitation; or (iii) a director's final decision following a
complaint of discrimination in the provision of services may request an LHRC
hearing by following the steps provided in subsections B through I of this
section. Any individual or his authorized representative who disagrees
with a director's final decision or action plan resulting from any complaint
resolution process under this chapter may request an LHRC hearing by following
the process described in this section.
B. Step 1: The individual or his authorized
representative must shall file the petition for a hearing with
the chairperson of the LHRC within 10 working days of from receipt of
the director's action plan or final decision on the complaint.
1. The petition for hearing must shall be in
writing. It should shall contain all facts and arguments
surrounding the complaint and reference any section of the regulations this
chapter that the individual believes the provider violated.
2. The human rights advocate or any person the individual
chooses may help the individual in filing the petition. If the individual
chooses a person other than the human rights advocate to help him, he and his
chosen representative may request the human rights advocate's assistance in
filing the petition.
C. Step 2: The LHRC chair shall forward a copy of the
petition to the director and the human rights advocate as soon as he receives
it. A copy of the petition shall also be forwarded to the provider's governing
body.
D. Step 3: Within five working days, the director
shall submit to the LHRC:
1. A written response to everything contained in the petition;
and
2. A copy of the entire written record of the complaint.
E. Step 4: The LHRC shall hold a hearing within 20
working days of receiving the petition. hearing procedures:
1. The LHRC shall hold a hearing within 20 working days of
receiving the petition.
2. The parties shall have at least five working days'
notice of the hearing.
2. 3. The director or his designee shall attend
the hearing.
3. 4. The individual or his authorized
representative making the complaint shall attend the hearing.
5. The hearing is an informal process and, as such, the
rules of [ legal proceedings evidence ] are
not applicable.
4. 6. At the hearing, the parties and chosen
representatives and designees have the right to present witnesses and other
evidence and the opportunity to be heard.
7. The hearing shall be conducted in a nonadversarial
manner.
a. Each party shall be provided the opportunity to present
its facts.
b. Each party shall direct questions to the LHRC rather
than to the other party.
c. The LHRC shall ask questions, as appropriate, to each
party.
F. Step 5: Within 10 working days after the hearing
ends, the LHRC shall give its written findings of fact and recommendations to
the parties and their representatives. Whenever appropriate, the LHRC shall
identify information that it believes the director shall take into account in
making decisions concerning discipline or termination of personnel.
G. Step 6: Within five working days of receiving the
LHRC's findings and recommendations, the director shall give the individual,
the individual's chosen representative, the human rights advocate, the
governing body, and the LHRC a written action plan he intends to take implement
to respond to the LHRC's findings and recommendations. Along with the action
plan, the director shall provide written notice to the individual about the time
frame timeframe for the individual's response pursuant to Step 7
(subsection H of this section) and a statement that if the individual does
not respond that, then the complaint will be closed. The plan
shall not be implemented for five working days after it is submitted, unless
the individual agrees to its implementation sooner.
H. Step 7: The individual, his chosen representative,
the human rights advocate, or the LHRC may object to the action plan within
five working days by stating the objection and what the director can do to
resolve the objection.
1. If an objection is made, the director may not implement the
action plan, or until the objection is resolved. The provider may,
however, implement only that any portion of the plan that
to which the individual making the complaint agrees to, until he
resolves the objection as requested or appeals to the SHRC for a decision under
12VAC35-115-210.
2. If no one objects to the action plan, the director shall
begin to implement the plan on the sixth working day after he submitted it,
or as otherwise provided in the plan.
I. Step 8: If an objection to the action plan is made
and the director does not resolve the objection to the action plan to the
individual's satisfaction within two working days following its receipt by the
director, the individual may appeal to the SHRC under 12VAC35-115-210.
12VAC35-115-190. Special procedures for emergency hearings by
the LHRC.
A. If the human rights advocate informs the LHRC of a
substantial risk that serious and irreparable harm will result if a complaint
is not resolved immediately, the LHRC shall hold and conclude a preliminary
hearing within 72 hours of receiving this information.
1. The director or his designee and the human rights advocate
shall attend the hearing. The individual and his authorized representative may
attend the hearing.
2. The hearing shall be conducted according to the procedures
in 12VAC35-115-180, but it shall be concluded conducted on an
expedited basis.
B. At the end of the hearing, the LHRC shall make preliminary
findings and, if a violation is found, shall make preliminary recommendations
to the director, the provider, and the provider's governing body.
C. The director shall formulate and carry out an action plan
within 24 hours of receiving the LHRC's preliminary recommendations. A copy of
the plan shall be sent to the human rights advocate, the individual, his
authorized representative, and the governing body.
D. If the individual or the human rights advocate objects
within 24 hours to the LHRC findings or recommendations or to the director's
action plan, the LHRC shall conduct a full hearing within five working days of
the objection, following the procedures outlined in 12VAC35-115-180. This
objection shall be made in writing to the LHRC chairperson, with a copy
sent to the director.
E. Either party may appeal the LHRC's decision to the SHRC
under 12VAC35-115-210.
12VAC35-115-200. Special procedures for LHRC reviews involving
consent and authorization.
A. The individual, his authorized representative, or anyone
acting on the individual's behalf may request in writing that the LHRC review
the following situations and issue a decision:
1. If an individual his authorized representative
objects at any time to the appointment of a specific person as his
authorized representative or any decision for which consent or authorization is
required and has been given by his authorized representative, other than a
legal guardian, he may ask the LHRC to decide whether his capacity was properly
evaluated, the authorized representative was properly appointed, or his
authorized representative's decision was made based on the individual's basic
values and any preferences previously expressed by the individual to the extent
that they are known, and if unknown or unclear in the individual's best
interests.
a. The provider shall take no action for which consent or
authorization is required if the individual objects, except in an emergency or
as otherwise permitted by law, pending the LHRC review.
b. If the LHRC determines that the individual's capacity was
properly evaluated, the authorized representative is properly designated, or
the authorized representative's decision was made based on the individual's
basic values and any preferences previously expressed by the individual to the
extent that they are known, or if unknown or unclear in the individual's best
interests, then the provider may proceed according to the decision of the
authorized representative.
c. If the LHRC determines that the individual's capacity was
not properly evaluated or the authorized representative was not properly
designated, then the provider shall take no action for which consent is
required except in an emergency or as otherwise required or permitted by law,
until the capacity review and authorized representative designation is are
properly done.
d. If the LHRC determines that the authorized representative's
decision was not made based on the individual's basic values and any preferences
preference previously expressed by the individual to the extent known,
and if unknown or unclear, made in the individual's best interests, then
the provider shall take steps to remove the authorized representative pursuant
to 12VAC35-115-146.
2. If an individual or his family member has obtained an
independent evaluation of the individual's capacity to consent to treatment or
services or to participate in human research under 12VAC35-115-70, or to
authorize the disclosure of information under 12VAC35-115-90 12VAC35-115-80,
and the opinion of that evaluator conflicts with the opinion of the provider's
evaluator, the LHRC may be requested to decide which evaluation will control.
a. If the LHRC agrees that the individual lacks the capacity
to consent to treatment or services or authorize disclosure of information, the
director may begin or continue treatment or research or disclose information,
but only with the appropriate consent or authorization of the authorized
representative. The LHRC shall advise the individual of his right to appeal
this determination to the SHRC under 12VAC35-115-210.
b. If the LHRC does not agree that the individual lacks the
capacity to consent to treatment or services or authorize disclosure of
information, the director shall not begin any treatment or research, or
disclose information without the individual's consent or authorization, or
shall take immediate steps to discontinue any actions begun without the consent
or authorization of the individual. The director may appeal to the SHRC under
12VAC35-115-210 but may not take any further action until the SHRC issues its
opinion.
3. If a director makes a decision that affects an individual
and the individual believes that the decision requires his personal consent or
authorization or that of his authorized representative, he may object and ask
the LHRC to decide whether consent or authorization is required.
Regardless of the individual's capacity to consent to
treatment or services or to authorize disclosure of information, if the
LHRC determines that a decision made by a director requires consent or
authorization that was not obtained, the director shall immediately rescind
the stop such action unless and until such consent or authorization
is obtained. The director may appeal to the SHRC under 12VAC35-115-210 but may
not take any further action until the SHRC issues its opinion.
B. Before making such a decision, the LHRC shall review the
action proposed by the director, any determination of lack of capacity, the
opinion of the independent evaluator if applicable, and the individual's or his
authorized representative's reasons for objecting to that determination. To
facilitate its review, the LHRC may ask that a physician or licensed clinical
psychologist not employed by the provider evaluate the individual at the
provider's expense and give an opinion about his capacity to consent to
treatment or to authorize disclosure of information.
The LHRC shall notify all parties and the human rights
advocate of the decision within 10 working days of the initial request.
12VAC35-115-210. State Human Rights Committee appeals
procedures.
A. Any party may appeal to the SHRC if he is not satisfied
disagrees with any of the following:
1. An LHRC's final findings of fact, conclusions, and
recommendations following a hearing;
2. A director's final action plan following an LHRC hearing;
3. An LHRC's final decision regarding the capacity of an
individual to consent to treatment, services, or research or to
authorize disclosure of information; or
4. An LHRC's final decision concerning whether consent or
authorization is needed for the director to take a certain action.
The steps for filing an appeal are provided in subsections B
[ through, C, and ] I D of this section.
B. Step 1: Appeals shall be filed in writing with the
SHRC by a party within 10 working days of receipt of the final decision or
action plan.
1. The appeal shall explain the reasons for disagreement
with the final decision or action is not satisfactory plan.
2. The human rights advocate or any other person may help in
filing the appeal. If the individual chooses a person other than the human
rights advocate to help him, he and his chosen representative may request the
human rights advocate's help in filing the appeal.
3. The party appealing must shall give a copy of
the appeal to the other party, the human rights advocate, and the LHRC.
4. If the director is the party appealing, he shall first request
and get written permission to appeal from the commissioner or governing body of
the provider, as appropriate. If the director does not get this written
permission and note the appeal within 10 working days, his right to appeal is
waived.
C. Step 2: If the director is appealing, the
individual may file a written statement with the SHRC within five working days
after receiving a copy of the appeal. If the individual is appealing, the
director shall file a written statement with the SHRC within five working days
after receiving a copy of the appeal.
D. Step 3: Within five working days of noting or being
notified of an appeal, the director shall forward a complete record of the LHRC
hearing to the SHRC. The record shall include, at a minimum:
1. The original petition or information filed with the LHRC
and any statement filed by the director in response;
2. Parts of the individual's services record that the LHRC
considered and any other parts of the services record submitted to, but not
considered by, the LHRC that either party considers relevant;
3. All written documents and materials presented to and
considered by the LHRC, including any independent evaluations conducted;
4. A tape or transcript of the LHRC proceedings, if available;
5. The LHRC's findings of fact, conclusions, and
recommendations;
6. The director's action plan, if any; and
7. Any written objections to the action plan or its
implementation.
E. Step 4: The SHRC shall hear the appeal at its next
scheduled meeting after the chairperson receives the appeal.
1. The SHRC shall give the parties at least 10 working days'
notice of the appeal hearing.
2. [ The SHRC shall notify the Office of the State
Inspector General (§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia) of the appeal.
3. ] The following rules govern appeal hearings:
a. The SHRC shall not hear any new evidence.
b. The SHRC is bound by the LHRC's findings of fact subject
to subdivision 3 of this subsection unless it makes a determination that
those findings of fact are clearly wrong or that the hearing procedures of the
LHRC were inadequate.
c. The SHRC shall limit its review to whether the facts, as
found by the LHRC, establish a violation of these regulations this
chapter and a determination of whether the LHRC's recommendations or the
action plan adequately address the alleged violation.
d. All parties and their representatives shall have the
opportunity to appear before the SHRC to present their positions and answer
questions the SHRC may have.
[ e. The SHRC shall notify the Office of the State
Inspector General (§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia) of the appeal.
3. 4. ] If the SHRC decides that the LHRC's
findings of fact are clearly wrong or that the hearing procedures employed by
the LHRC were inadequate, the SHRC may:
a. Send the case back to the LHRC for another hearing to be
completed within a time period specified by the SHRC; or
b. Conduct its own fact-finding hearing. If the SHRC chooses
to conduct its own fact-finding hearing, it may appoint a subcommittee of at
least three of its members as fact finders. The fact-finding hearing shall be
conducted within 30 working days of the SHRC's initial hearing.
In either case, the parties shall have 15 working days' notice
of the date of the hearing and the opportunity to be heard and to present
witnesses and other evidence.
F. Step 5: Within 20 working days after the SHRC
appeal hearing, the SHRC shall submit a report, decision containing
its findings of fact, if applicable, and its conclusions and
recommendations to the commissioner and to the provider's governing body, with
copies to the parties, the LHRC, and the human rights advocate.
G. Step 6: Within 10 working days after receiving the
SHRC's report decision, in the case of appeals involving a state
facility, the commissioner shall submit an outline of actions to be taken in
response to the SHRC's recommendations. In the case of appeals involving CSBs
and private providers, the commissioner and the provider's governing body
director shall each outline in writing the action or actions they
that will take be taken in response to the recommendations
of the SHRC. They shall also explain any reasons for not carrying out any of
the recommended actions. Copies of their responses shall be forwarded to the
SHRC, the LHRC, the director, the human rights advocate, and the individual.
H. Step 7: If the SHRC objects in writing to the
commissioner's or governing body's director's proposed actions, or
both, their actions shall be postponed. The commissioner or governing
body, or both, director shall meet with the SHRC at its next
regularly scheduled meeting to attempt to arrange a mutually agreeable
resolution.
I. Step 8: Final determination regarding the action
plan shall be as follows:
1. In the case of services provided directly by the
department, the commissioner's action plan shall be final and binding on all
parties. However, when the SHRC believes the commissioner's action plan is
incompatible with the purpose of these regulations this chapter,
it shall notify the board, the protection and advocacy agency, and the Office
of the State Inspector General (§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia).
2. In the case of services delivered by all other
providers, the action plan of the provider's governing body director
shall be reviewed by the commissioner. If the commissioner determines that the
provider has failed to develop and carry out an acceptable action plan, the
commissioner shall notify the protection and advocacy agency and shall inform
the SHRC of the sanctions the department will impose against the provider.
J. Step 9: Upon completion of the process outlined in subsections
B through I of this section, the SHRC shall notify the parties and the
human rights advocate of the final outcome of the complaint.
Part VII
Reporting Requirements
12VAC35-115-230. Provider requirements for reporting to the
department.
A. Providers shall collect, maintain, and report the
following information concerning abuse, neglect, and exploitation:
1. The director of a facility operated by the department shall
report allegations of abuse and neglect via the [ department's ]
web-based reporting application in accordance with all applicable
operating instructions issued by the commissioner or his designee.
2. The director of a service licensed or funded by the
department shall report each allegation of abuse or neglect to the assigned
human rights advocate via the [ department's ] web-based
reporting application within 24 hours from the of receipt of
the allegation (see 12VAC35-115-50) 12VAC35-115-175).
3. The investigating authority shall provide a written report
of the results of the investigation of abuse or neglect to the director and
human rights advocate [ via the department's web-based reporting application ]
within 10 working days from the date the investigation began unless an exemption
extension has been granted by the department (see 12VAC35-115-50)
12VAC35-115-175). This report shall include:
a. Whether abuse, neglect, or exploitation occurred;
b. The type of abuse; and
c. Whether the act resulted in physical or psychological
injury.
B. Providers shall collect, maintain, and report the
following information concerning deaths and serious injuries:
1. The director of a facility operated by the department shall
report to the department deaths and serious injuries in accordance with all
applicable operating instructions issued by the commissioner or his designee.
2. The director of a service licensed or funded by the
department shall report deaths and serious injuries in writing to the
department within 24 hours of discovery and by telephone to the authorized
representative within 24 hours.
3. All reports of death and serious injuries shall include:
a. Date and place of the death or serious injury;
b. Nature of the injuries and treatment required; and
c. Circumstances of the death or serious injury.
C. Providers shall collect, maintain and report the following
information concerning seclusion and restraint:
1. The director of a facility operated by the department shall
report each instance of seclusion or restraint or both in accordance with all
applicable operating instructions issued by the commissioner or his designee.
2. The director of a service licensed or funded by the
department shall submit an annual report of each instance of seclusion or
restraint or both by the 15th of January each year, or more frequently if
requested by the department.
3. Each instance of seclusion or restraint or both shall be
compiled on a monthly basis and the report shall include:
a. Type(s) Type or types, to include:
(1) Physical restraint (manual hold);
(2) Mechanical restraint;
(3) Pharmacological restraint; and or
(4) Seclusion.
b. Rationale for the use of seclusion or restraint, to
include:
(1) Behavioral purpose;
(2) Medical purpose; or
(3) Protective purpose.
c. Duration of the seclusion or restraint, as follows:
(1) The duration of seclusion and restraint used for
behavioral purposes is defined as the actual time the individual is in
seclusion or restraint from the time of initiation of seclusion or restraint
until the individual is released.
(2) The duration of restraint for medical and protective
purposes is defined as the length of the episode as indicated in the order.
4. Any instance of seclusion or restraint that does not comply
with these regulations this chapter or approved variances, or
that results in injury to an individual, shall be reported to the authorized
representative, as applicable, and the assigned human rights advocate to
the department via the [ department's ] web-based
reporting application within 24 hours.
D. The director Providers shall provide report
to the human rights advocate and the LHRC [ when requested ]
information on the type, resolution level, and findings of each
complaint of a human rights violation, including a description and its
conclusions, and report on implementation of variances, in
accordance with the LHRC meeting schedule [ or as requested by the
advocate ].
E. Reports required under this section shall be submitted to
the department on forms or in an automated format or both developed by the
department.
F. The department shall compile all data reported under this
section and make this data available to the public and the Office of the State
Inspector General (§ 2.2-308 of the Code of Virginia) upon request.
1. The department shall provide the compiled data in writing
or by electronic means.
2. The department shall remove all provider-identifying
information and all information that could be used to identify a person as an
individual receiving services.
G. In the reporting, compiling, and releasing of
information and statistical data provided under this section, the department
and all providers shall take all measures necessary to ensure that any
information identifying individuals is not released disclosed to
the public, including encryption of data transferred by electronic means.
H. Nothing in this section is to be construed as requiring
the reporting of proceedings, minutes, records, or reports of any committee
or nonprofit entity providing a centralized credentialing service which
that are identified as privileged pursuant to § 8.01-581.17 of the Code
of Virginia.
I. Providers shall report to the Department of Health
Professions, Enforcement Division, violations of these regulations this
chapter that constitute reportable conditions under §§ 54.1-2400.4,
54.1-2400.6, and 54.1-2909 of the Code of Virginia state law.
Part IX
Responsibilities and Duties
12VAC35-115-250. Offices, composition and duties. (Repealed.)
A. Providers and their directors shall:
1. Identify a person or persons accountable for helping
individuals to exercise their rights and resolve complaints regarding services.
2. Comply with all state laws governing the reporting of
abuse and neglect and all procedures set forth in these regulations for
reporting allegations of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
3. Require competency-based training on these regulations
upon employment and at least annually thereafter. Documentation of such
competency shall be maintained in the employee's personnel file.
4. Take all steps necessary to assure compliance with these
regulations in all services provided.
5. Communicate information about the availability of a
human rights advocate to individuals and authorized representatives.
6. Assure one LHRC affiliation within the region as defined
by the SHRC. The SHRC may require multi-site providers to have more than one
LHRC affiliation within a region if the SHRC determines that additional
affiliations are necessary to protect individuals' human rights.
7. Assure that the appropriate staff attend LHRC meetings
in accordance with the LHRC meeting schedule to report on human rights
activities, to impart information to the LHRC at the request of the human
rights advocate or LHRC, and discuss specific concerns or issues with the LHRC.
8. Cooperate with the human rights advocate and the LHRC to
investigate and correct conditions or practices interfering with the free
exercise of individuals' human rights and make sure that all employees cooperate
with the human rights advocate and the LHRC in carrying out their duties under
these regulations. Notwithstanding the requirements for complaints pursuant to
Part V (12VAC35-115-150 et seq.) of this chapter, the provider shall submit a
written response indicating intended action to any written recommendation made
by the human rights advocate or LHRC within 15 days of the receipt of such
recommendation.
9. Provide the advocate unrestricted access to individuals
and individual services records whenever the human rights advocate deems access
necessary to carry out rights protection, complaint resolution, and advocacy.
10. Submit to the human rights advocate for review and
comment any proposed policies, procedures, or practices that may affect
individual human rights.
11. Comply with requests by the SHRC, LHRC, and human
rights advocate for information, policies, procedures, and written reports
regarding compliance with these regulations.
12. Name a liaison to the LHRC, who shall give the LHRC
suitable meeting accommodations, clerical support and equipment, and assure the
availability of records and employee witnesses upon the request of the LHRC.
Oversight and assistance with the LHRC's substantive implementation of these
regulations shall be provided by the SHRC. See subsection E of this section.
13. Submit applications for variances to these regulations
only as a last resort.
14. Post in program locations information about the
existence and purpose of the human rights program.
15. Not influence or attempt to influence the appointment
of any person to an LHRC associated with the provider or director.
16. Perform any other duties required under these
regulations.
B. Employees of the provider shall, as a condition of
employment:
1. Become familiar with these regulations, comply with them
in all respects, and help individuals understand and assert their rights.
2. Protect individuals from any form of abuse, neglect, or
exploitation (i) by not abusing, neglecting or exploiting any individual; (ii)
by not permitting or condoning anyone else abusing, neglecting, or exploiting
any individual; and (iii) by reporting all suspected abuse, neglect, or
exploitation to the director. Protecting individuals receiving services from
abuse also includes using the minimum force necessary to restrain an
individual.
3. Cooperate with any investigation, meeting, hearing, or
appeal held under these regulations. Cooperation includes giving statements or
sworn testimony.
4. Perform any other duties required under these
regulations.
C. The human rights advocate shall:
1. Represent any individual making a complaint or, upon
request, consult with and help any other representative the individual chooses.
2. Monitor the implementation of an advocacy system for
individuals receiving services from the provider or providers to which the
advocate is assigned.
3. Promote and monitor provider compliance with these and
other applicable individual rights laws, regulations, and policies.
4. Investigate and try to prevent or correct, informally or
formally, any alleged rights violations by interviewing, mediating,
negotiating, advising, and consulting with providers and their respective
governing bodies, directors, and employees.
5. Whenever necessary, file a written complaint with the
LHRC for an individual or, where general conditions or practices interfere with
individuals' rights, for a group of individuals.
6. Investigate and examine all conditions or practices that
may interfere with the free exercise of individuals' rights.
7. Help the individual or the individual's chosen
representative during any meeting, hearing, appeal, or other proceeding under
these regulations unless the individual or his chosen representative chooses
not to involve the human rights advocate.
8. Provide orientation, training, and technical assistance
to the LHRCs for which he is responsible.
9. Tell the LHRC about any recommendations made to the
director, the provider, the provider's governing body, the state human rights
director, or the department for changes in policies, procedures, or practices
that have the potential to adversely affect the rights of individuals.
10. Make recommendations to the state human rights director
concerning the employment and supervision of other advocates where appropriate.
11. Submit regular reports to the state human rights
director, the LHRC, and the SHRC about provider implementation of and
compliance with these regulations.
12. Provide consultation to individuals, providers and
their governing bodies, directors, and employees regarding individuals' rights,
providers' duties, and complaint resolution.
13. Perform any other duties required under these
regulations.
D. The Local Human Rights Committee shall:
1. Consist of five or more members appointed by the SHRC.
a. Membership shall be broadly representative of
professional and consumer interests. At least two members shall be individuals
who are receiving or have received public or private mental health, mental
retardation, or substance abuse treatment or habilitation services within five years
of their initial appointment. At least one-third of the members shall be
consumers or family members of consumers. Remaining appointments shall include
persons with interest, knowledge, or training in the mental health, mental
retardation, or substance abuse field.
b. At least one member shall be a health care provider.
c. No current employee of the department or a provider
shall serve as a member of any LHRC that serves an oversight function for the
employing facility or provider.
d. Initial appointments to an LHRC shall be staggered, with
approximately one-third of the members appointed for a term of three years,
approximately one-third for a term of two years, and the remainder for a term
of one year. After that, all appointments shall be for a term of three years.
e. A person may be appointed for no more than two
consecutive three-year terms. A person appointed to fill a vacancy may serve
out that term and then be eligible for two additional consecutive terms.
f. Nominations for membership to LHRCs shall be submitted
directly to the SHRC through the state human rights director at the
department's Office of Human Rights.
2. Permit affiliations of local providers in accordance
with the recommendations from the human rights advocate. SHRC approval is required
for the denial of an affiliation request.
3. Receive complaints of alleged rights violations filed by
or for individuals receiving services from providers with which the LHRC is
affiliated and hold hearings according to the procedures set forth in Part V
(12VAC35-115-150 et seq.) of this chapter.
4. Conduct investigations as requested by the SHRC.
5. Upon the request of the human rights advocate, provider,
director, or an individual or individuals, or on its own initiative, an LHRC
may review any existing or proposed policies, procedures, practices, or
behavioral treatment plans that could jeopardize the rights of individuals
receiving services from the provider with which the LHRC is affiliated. In
conducting this review, the LHRC may consult with any human rights advocate,
employee of the provider, or anyone else. After this review, the LHRC shall
make recommendations to the director concerning changes in these plans,
policies, procedures, and practices.
6. Receive, review, and act on applications for variances
to these regulations according to 12VAC35-115-220.
7. Receive, review and comment on all behavioral treatment
plans involving the use of restraint or time out and seclusion, restraint, or
time out policies for affiliated providers.
8. Adopt written bylaws that address procedures for
conducting business, electing the chairperson, secretary, and other officers,
designating standing committees, and setting the frequency of meetings.
9. Elect from its own members a chairperson to coordinate
the activities of the LHRC and to preside at regular committee meetings and any
hearings held pursuant to these regulations.
10. Conduct a meeting every quarter or more frequently as
necessary to adhere to all time lines as set forth in these regulations.
11. Require members to recuse themselves from all cases
wherein they have a financial or other conflict of interest.
12. The LHRC may delegate summary decision-making authority
to a subcommittee when expedited decisions are required before the next
scheduled LHRC meeting to avoid seriously compromising an individual's quality
of care, habilitation, or quality of life. The decision of the subcommittee
shall be reviewed by the full LHRC at its next meeting.
13. Perform any other duties required under these regulations.
E. The State Human Rights Committee shall:
1. Consist of nine members appointed by the board.
a. Members shall be broadly representative of professional
and consumer interests and of geographic areas in the Commonwealth. At least
two members shall be individuals who are receiving or have received public or
private mental health, mental retardation, or substance abuse treatment or
habilitation services within five years of their initial appointment. At least
one-third of the members shall be consumers or family members of consumers.
Remaining appointments shall include persons with interest, knowledge, or
training in the mental health, mental retardation, or substance abuse field.
b. At least one member shall be a health care professional.
c. No member can be an employee or board member of the
department or a CSB.
d. If there is a vacancy, interim appointments may be made
for the remainder of the unexpired term.
e. A person may be appointed for no more than two
consecutive three-year terms. A person appointed to fill a vacancy may serve
out that term, and then be eligible for two additional consecutive terms.
2. Elect a chairperson from its own members who shall:
a. Coordinate the activities of the SHRC;
b. Preside at regular meetings, hearings, and appeals; and
c. Have direct access to the commissioner and the board in
carrying out these duties.
3. Upon request of the commissioner, human rights advocate,
provider, director, or an individual or individuals, or on its own initiative,
a SHRC may review any existing or proposed policies, procedures, or practices
that could jeopardize the rights of individuals receiving services from any
provider. In conducting this review, the SHRC may consult with any human rights
advocate, employee of the director, or anyone else. After this review, the SHRC
shall make recommendations to the director or commissioner concerning changes
in these policies, procedures, and practices.
4. Determine the appropriate number and geographical
boundaries of LHRCs and consolidate LHRCs serving only one provider into
regional LHRCs whenever consolidation would assure greater protection of rights
under these regulations.
5. Appoint members of LHRCs with the advice of the
respective LHRC, human rights advocate, and the state human rights director.
6. Advise the commissioner about the employment of the
state human rights director and human rights advocates.
7. Conduct at least eight regular meetings per year.
8. Review decisions of LHRCs and, if appropriate, hold
hearings and make recommendations to the commissioner, the board, and
providers' governing bodies regarding alleged violations of individuals' rights
according to the procedures specified in these regulations.
9. Provide oversight and assistance to LHRCs in the
performance of their duties hereunder, including the development of guidance
documents such as sample bylaws, affiliation agreements, and minutes to
increase operational consistency among LHRCs.
10. Review denials of LHRC affiliations.
11. Notify the commissioner and the state human rights
director whenever it determines that its recommendations in a particular case
are of general interest and applicability to providers, human rights advocates,
or LHRCs and assure the availability of the opinion or report to providers,
human rights advocates, and LHRCs as appropriate. No document made available
shall identify the name of individuals or employees in a particular case.
12. Grant or deny variances according to the procedures
specified in Part VI (12VAC35-115-220) of this chapter and review approved
variances at least once every year.
13. Make recommendations to the board concerning proposed
revisions to these regulations.
14. Make recommendations to the commissioner concerning
revisions to any existing or proposed laws, regulations, policies, procedures,
and practices to ensure the protection of individuals' rights.
15. Review the scope and content of training programs
designed by the department to promote responsible performance of the duties
assigned under these regulations by providers, employees, human rights
advocates, and LHRC members, and, where appropriate, make recommendations to
the commissioner.
16. Evaluate the implementation of these regulations and
make any necessary and appropriate recommendations to the board, the commissioner,
and the state human rights director concerning interpretation and enforcement
of the regulations.
17. Submit to the board and publish an annual report of its
activities and the status of human rights in mental health, mental retardation,
and substance abuse treatment and services in Virginia and make recommendations
for improvement.
18. Adopt written bylaws that address procedures for
conducting business; making membership recommendations to the board; electing a
chairperson, vice chairperson, secretary, and other officers; appointing
members of LHRCs; designating standing committees and their responsibilities;
establishing ad hoc committees; and setting the frequency of meetings.
19. Review and approve the bylaws of LHRCs.
20. Require members to recuse themselves from all cases
where they have a financial or other conflict of interest.
21. Perform any other duties required under these
regulations.
F. The state human rights director shall:
1. Lead the implementation of the statewide human rights
program and make ongoing recommendations to the commissioner, the SHRC, and
LHRCs for continuous improvements in the program.
2. Advise the commissioner concerning the employment and
retention of human rights advocates.
3. Advise providers, directors, advocates, LHRCs, the SHRC,
and the commissioner concerning their responsibilities under these regulations
and other applicable laws, regulations, policies, and departmental instructions
that protect individuals' rights.
4. Organize, coordinate, and oversee training programs
designed to promote responsible performance of the duties assigned under these
regulations.
5. Periodically visit service settings to monitor the free
exercise of rights enumerated in these regulations.
6. Supervise human rights advocates in the performance of
their duties under these regulations.
7. Support the SHRC and LHRCs in carrying out their duties
under these regulations.
8. Review LHRC decisions and recommendations for general
applicability and provide suggestions for training to appropriate entities.
9. Monitor implementation of corrective action plans
approved by the SHRC.
10. Perform any other duties required under these
regulations.
G. The commissioner shall:
1. Employ the state human rights director after
consultation with the SHRC.
2. Employ advocates following consultation with the state
human rights director.
3. Provide or arrange for assistance and training necessary
to carry out and enforce these regulations.
4. Cooperate with the SHRC and the state human rights
director to investigate providers and correct conditions or practices that
interfere with the free exercise of individuals' rights.
5. Advise and consult with the SHRC and the state human
rights director concerning the appointment of members of LHRCs.
6. Maintain current and regularly updated data and perform
regular trend analyses to identify the need for corrective action in the areas
of abuse, neglect, and exploitation; seclusion and restraint; complaints;
deaths and serious injuries; and variance applications.
7. Assure regular monitoring and enforcement of these
regulations, including authorizing unannounced compliance reviews at any time.
8. Perform any other duties required under these
regulations.
H. The board shall:
1. Adopt regulations that further define the rights of
individuals receiving services from providers covered by these regulations.
2. Appoint members of the SHRC.
3. Review and approve the bylaws of the SHRC.
4. Perform any other duties required under these
regulations.
12VAC35-115-260. Provider and department responsibilities.
A. Providers, through their directors, shall:
1. Designate a person or persons responsible for helping
individuals exercise their rights and resolve complaints regarding services;
2. Take all steps necessary to perform duties required by,
and ensure compliance with, this chapter in all services provided;
3. Post information in program locations about the
existence and purpose of the human rights program;
4. Communicate information about the availability of a
human rights advocate to individuals and authorized representatives, in
accordance with 12VAC35-115-40 B 1 and B 2;
5. Ensure access, as needed, to the LHRC for all
individuals receiving services;
6. Provide the human rights advocate unrestricted access to
an individual and his services records whenever the advocate deems access is
necessary to carry out rights protection, complaint resolution, and advocacy on
behalf of the individual;
7. Require competency-based training of employees on this
chapter upon employment and at least annually thereafter. Documentation of such
competency shall be maintained in the employee's personnel file;
8. Comply with all state laws governing the reporting of
abuse and neglect and all procedures set forth in this chapter for reporting
allegations of abuse, neglect, or exploitation;
9. Submit to the human rights advocate for review and
comment proposed policies, procedures, or practices that may affect individual
human rights;
10. Ensure appointment of a designated liaison to, and
appropriate staff participation with, the LHRC, as required;
11. Cooperate with the human rights advocate and the LHRC
to investigate and correct conditions or practices interfering with the free
exercise of individuals' human rights and make sure that all employees cooperate
with the human rights advocate, the LHRC, and the SHRC in carrying out their
duties under this chapter;
12. Comply with requests by the SHRC, LHRC, or human rights
advocate for information, policies, procedures, and written reports regarding
compliance with this chapter;
13. Ensure the availability of records and employee
witnesses upon the request of the LHRC or SHRC;
14. Submit applications for variances to this chapter only
as a last resort; and
15. Not influence or attempt to influence the appointment
of any person to an LHRC affiliated with the provider or director.
B. [ Employees of the provider shall, as a
condition of employment Providers shall require their employees to ]:
1. Become familiar with this chapter, comply with it in all
respects, and help individuals understand and assert their rights;
2. Protect individuals from any form of abuse, neglect, or
exploitation by:
a. Not abusing, neglecting, or exploiting any individual;
b. Using the minimum force necessary to restrain an
individual;
c. Not permitting or condoning anyone else abusing,
neglecting, or exploiting any individual; and
d. Reporting all suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation
to the director; and
3. Cooperate with any investigation, meeting, hearing, or
appeal held under this chapter. Cooperation includes giving statements or sworn
testimony.
C. Department human rights advocates shall:
1. Represent any individual making a complaint or, upon
request, consult with and help any other representative the individual chooses;
2. Provide training to individuals, family members, and
providers on this chapter;
3. Investigate and try to prevent or correct any alleged
rights violation by interviewing, mediating, negotiating, advising, or
consulting with providers and their respective governing bodies, directors, and
employees;
4. Provide orientation, training, and technical assistance
to the LHRCs for which he is responsible; and
5. Investigate and examine all conditions or practices that
may interfere with the free exercise of individuals' rights.
D. The department shall:
1. Employ the state human rights director to lead statewide
implementation of the human rights program;
2. Determine, in consultation with the SHRC, the
appropriate number and geographical boundaries of LHRCs;
3. Develop information, assistance, training tools, and
other resources for individuals and constituents on this chapter;
4. Provide for regular monitoring and enforcement of this
chapter, including conducting unannounced compliance reviews at any time;
5. Cooperate with and provide support to the SHRC and
LHRCs, including:
a. Training SHRC and LHRC members on their
responsibilities, roles, and functions under this chapter;
b. Providing access to topic area consultants as needed to
support their fulfilling of their duties under this chapter; and
c. Providing necessary support for SHRC and LHRC
investigations, meetings, and hearings; and
6. Maintain current and regularly updated data and perform
regular trend analyses to identify the need for corrective action in the areas
of abuse, neglect, and exploitation; seclusion and restraint; complaints;
deaths and serious injuries; and variance applications.
12VAC35-115-270. State Human Rights Committee and local
human rights committees responsibilities.
A. Local human rights committees shall:
1. Review any restriction on the rights of any individual
imposed pursuant to 12VAC35-115-50 or 12VAC35-115-100 that lasts longer than
seven days or is imposed [ multiple three or more ]
times during a 30-day period for providers within the LHRC's jurisdiction in
accordance with 12VAC35-115-100 B 5;
2. Review next friend designations in accordance with
12VAC35-115-146 B 2;
3. Hold hearings according to the procedures set forth in
Part V (12VAC35-115-150 et seq.) of this chapter for any individual served by a
provider under the LHRC's jurisdiction;
4. Review behavioral treatment plans in accordance with
12VAC35-115-105;
5. Receive, review, and act on applications for variances
to this chapter in accordance with 12VAC35-115-220;
6. Consist of five or more members appointed by the SHRC.
a. Membership shall be broadly representative of
professional and consumer interests as required in § 37.2-204 of the Code
of Virginia.
b. At least one member shall be a health care provider.
c. No current employee of the department or a provider
shall serve as a member of any LHRC that serves an oversight function for the
employing facility or provider.
d. Members shall recuse themselves from all cases in which
they have a financial or other conflict of interest.
e. Initial appointments to an LHRC shall be staggered, with
approximately one-third of the members appointed for terms of three years,
approximately one-third for terms of two years, and the remainder for a term or
terms of one year. After that, all appointments shall be for terms of three
years.
f. A person may be appointed for no more than two
consecutive three-year terms. A person appointed to fill a vacancy may serve
out that term and then be eligible for two additional consecutive terms.
g. Nominations for membership to LHRCs shall be submitted
directly to the SHRC through the state human rights director at the
department's Office of Human Rights;
7. Elect a chairperson from its own members who shall:
a. Coordinate the activities of the LHRC; and
b. Preside at regular meetings and hearings held pursuant
to this chapter;
8. Meet every quarter or more frequently as necessary to
adhere to all timelines as set forth in this chapter; and
9. Adopt written bylaws that address procedures for
conducting business; electing the chairperson, secretary, and other officers;
designating standing committees; and setting the frequency of meetings.
B. Local human rights committees may delegate authority to
a subcommittee when expedited decisions are required before the next scheduled
LHRC meeting to avoid seriously compromising an individual's quality of care,
habilitation, or quality of life. The decision of the subcommittee shall be
reviewed by the full LHRC at its next meeting.
C. The State Human Rights Committee shall:
1. Perform the following responsibilities with respect to
the operation of LHRCs:
a. Appoint LHRC members with the advice of the respective
LHRC, human rights advocate, and the state human rights director;
b. Review and approve the bylaws of LHRCs; and
c. Provide oversight to and assist LHRCs in the performance
of their duties under this chapter, including the development of guidance
documents;
2. Review LHRC decisions when required by this chapter and,
if appropriate, hold hearings and make recommendations to the commissioner, the
board, and providers' governing bodies regarding alleged violations of
individuals' rights according to the procedures specified in this chapter;
3. Notify the commissioner and the state human rights
director whenever it determines that its recommendations in a particular case
are of general interest and applicability to providers, human rights advocates,
or LHRCs and ensure that:
a. Its recommendations are communicated to providers, human
rights advocates, and LHRCs as appropriate; and
b. The communication of its recommendations does not
identify the name of individuals or employees in a particular case;
4. Grant or deny variances according to the procedures
specified in Part VI (12VAC35-115-220) of this chapter and review approved
variances at least once every year;
5. Submit to the board and publish an annual report of its
activities and the status of human rights in services licensed, funded, or
operated by the department and make recommendations for improvement;
6. Evaluate the implementation of this chapter and make
necessary and appropriate recommendations to the board, the commissioner, and
the state human rights director concerning its interpretation and enforcement;
7. Review and make recommendations to the department and
board, as appropriate, concerning:
a. The scope and content of training programs designed by
the department to promote responsible performance of the duties assigned under
this chapter;
b. Existing or proposed policies, procedures, or practices that
could jeopardize the rights of individuals receiving services from any
provider;
c. Proposed revisions to this chapter; and
d. Revisions to existing or proposed laws, regulations,
policies, procedures, and practices that are needed to ensure the protection of
individuals' rights;
8. Consist of nine members appointed by the board.
a. Members shall be broadly representative of professional
and consumer interests as required in § 37.2-204 of the Code of Virginia;
b. Members shall recuse themselves from all cases in which
they have a financial or other conflict of interest;
c. If there is a vacancy, interim appointments may be made
by the board for the remainder of the unexpired term;
d. A person may be appointed for no more than two
consecutive three-year terms. A person appointed to fill a vacancy may serve
out that term and then be eligible for two additional consecutive terms; and
e. No current employee of the department, a CSB, or a
behavioral health authority may serve as a member of the SHRC;
9. Elect a chairperson from its own members who shall:
a. Coordinate the activities of the SHRC;
b. Preside at regular meetings, hearings, and appeals; and
c. Have direct access to the commissioner and the board in
carrying out these duties;
10. Conduct at least eight regular meetings per year; and
11. Adopt written bylaws that address procedures for
conducting business; making membership recommendations to the board; electing a
chairperson, vice chairperson, secretary, and other officers; appointing
members of LHRCs; designating standing committees and their responsibilities;
establishing ad hoc committees; and setting the frequency of meetings.
VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3502; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:08 p.m.
TITLE 16. LABOR AND EMPLOYMENT
DEPARTMENT OF LABOR AND INDUSTRY
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 16VAC15-11. Public Participation
Guidelines (amending 16VAC15-11-50).
Statutory Authority: §§ 2.2-4007.02 and 40.1-6 of the
Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: February 8, 2017.
Effective Date: February 24, 2017.
Agency Contact: Holly Raney, Regulatory Coordinator,
Department of Labor and Industry, Main Street Centre, 600 East Main
Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-2631, FAX (804) 786-8418, or
email holly.raney@doli.virginia.gov.
Basis: Pursuant to § 40.1-6 of the Code of Virginia, the
Commissioner of the Department of Labor and Industry is authorized to
"make such rules and regulations as may be necessary for the enforcement
of this title."
The amendments conform the regulation to Chapter 795 of the
2012 Acts of Assembly, which provides that in formulating any regulation or in
evidentiary hearings on regulations, an interested party shall be entitled to
be accompanied by and represented by counsel or other qualified representative.
Purpose: The purpose of this amendment is to make the
department's Public Participation Guidelines conform to those of the
Administrative Process Act. Participation by the public in the regulatory
process is essential to assist the department in the promulgation of
regulations that will protect the public health and safety.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
amendment was recommended by the Department of Planning and Budget and is
intended to merely conform the department's Public Participation Guidelines to
subsection B of § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of Virginia. The rulemaking is not
expected to be controversial and is appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking
process.
Substance: The amendment adds a requirement for the
department to afford interested persons an opportunity to present their views
and be accompanied by and represented by counsel or other representative in the
promulgation of any regulatory action.
Issues: Other than conformity and consistency between
law and regulation, there are no primary advantages or disadvantages to
the public in implementing the amended provisions since it is already in the
Code of Virginia. There are no primary advantages or disadvantages for the
agency or the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to
Chapter 795 of the 2012 Acts of Assembly,1 the Department of Labor
and Industry (DOLI) proposes to specify in this regulation that interested
persons shall be afforded an opportunity to be accompanied by and represented
by counsel or other representative when submitting data, views, and arguments,
either orally or in writing, to the agency.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The current Public Participation
Guidelines state that: "In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt
regulatory action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to
submit data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the
agency." DOLI proposes to append "and (ii) be accompanied by and
represented by counsel or other representative."
Chapter 795 of the 2012 Acts of Assembly added to the Code of
Virginia § 2.2-4007.02. "Public participation guidelines" that
interested persons also be afforded an opportunity to be accompanied by and
represented by counsel or other representative. Since the Code of Virginia
already specifies that interested persons shall be afforded an opportunity to
be accompanied by and represented by counsel or other representative, DOLI's
proposal to add this language to the regulation will not change the law in
effect, but will be beneficial in that it will inform interested parties who
read this regulation but not the statute of their legal rights concerning
representation.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendment
potentially affects all individuals who comment on pending regulatory changes.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendment does
not disproportionately affect particular localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendment does not
significantly affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
amendment does not affect the use and value of private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendment does not
affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendment does not affect
costs for small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
amendment does not adversely affect small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed amendment does not adversely affect
businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendment does not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendment does not adversely
affect other entities.
_________________________________
1 See http://leg1.state.va.us/cgi-bin/legp504.exe?121+ful+CHAP0795+hil
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Department of Labor and Industry has no additional comment in response to the
economic impact analysis.
Summary:
Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of
Virginia, the amendment provides that interested persons submitting data,
views, and arguments on a regulatory action may be accompanied by and
represented by counsel or another representative.
Part III
Public Participation Procedures
16VAC15-11-50. Public comment.
A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory
action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to (i)
submit data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency;
and (ii) be accompanied by and represented by counsel or other representative.
Such opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the
Town Hall.
1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide copies
of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic impact
analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the agency's
response to public comments received.
2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior to
or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments.
B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing after
the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as follows:
1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the publication
of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the publication
of a proposed regulation.
3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the publication
of a reproposed regulation.
4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the publication
of a final adopted regulation.
5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the publication
of a fast-track regulation.
6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the publication
of a notice of periodic review.
7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication
of a petition for rulemaking.
C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods
listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended.
D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with
substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the
agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public
comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia.
E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary
description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed
regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant
to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4989; Filed December 13, 2016, 8:20 a.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF NURSING
Fast-Track Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC90-19. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Nursing (adding 18VAC90-19-10 through 18VAC90-19-280).
18VAC90-20. Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing (repealing 18VAC90-20-10 through
18VAC90-20-460).
18VAC90-27. Regulations for Nursing Education Programs (adding 18VAC90-27-10 through 18VAC90-27-240).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: February 8, 2017.
Effective Date: February 24, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jay P. Douglas, R.N., Executive
Director, Board of Nursing, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA
23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4520, FAX (804) 527-4455, or email
jay.douglas@dhp.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 54.1-2400 authorizes the Board of Nursing
to promulgate regulations to administer the regulatory system. In addition,
§ 54.1-3005 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the Board of Nursing to
approve nursing education programs.
Purpose: The amended regulation clarifies several
provisions that have caused confusion for applicants or approved education
programs. To the extent the elimination of unworkable requirements for nursing
education programs facilitates the approval of such programs, the proposal may
enable programs to enroll nursing students and encourage hospitals to serve as
clinical sites for training. Such training is essential for students who will
be licensed nurses to protect the health and safety of patients and clients
whom they will serve.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
board is using the fast-track rulemaking process because the changes being made
to the regulations for nursing education programs are eliminating burdensome
and problematic requirements. Therefore, the board would like to promulgate
those amendments as soon as possible. The amendments to the regulations for
licensure and practice of nurses are clarifying only and do not change any
current requirement for nurses or clinical nurse specialists. There should
be no opposition to the amendments, so a fast-track action is appropriate.
Substance: 18VAC90-20 is repealed and repromulgated into
18VAC90-19, Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing, and 18VAC90-27,
Regulations Governing Nursing Education Programs. In 18VAC90-19, requirements
for licensure of nurses are not changed, but there are several amendments to
clarify the national examination required for licensure and the educational
qualifications for persons whose nursing education was completed in another
country. Amendments to the sections on clinical nurse specialists do not change
the current requirements but are consistent with legislation passed in the 2016
Session of the General Assembly.
In 18VAC90-27, amendments delete several requirements for
nursing education programs that have been problematic and include the State
Council of Higher Education for Virginia as the approving body for certain
nursing education programs.
Issues: There are no primary advantages or disadvantages
to the public; clarification of the regulations will benefit applicants for licensure,
and elimination of some current requirements will benefit nursing education
programs. The primary advantage to the Board of Nursing is the clarification of
qualifications for licensure, which may eliminate a few of the inquiries from
applicants. Likewise, the elimination of several problematic requirements for
education programs will reduce the time spent in assisting programs with
compliance.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. As the result
of a general review, the Board of Nursing (Board) proposes to repeal its
comprehensive nursing regulation and replace it with two new regulations. One
of the replacement regulations will govern the practice of nursing and the
other will govern nursing education programs. Although most of this proposed
action will only divide up the current regulation and migrate it unchanged into
the two new regulations, the Board also proposes several substantive changes to
regulatory requirements.
Specifically, the Board proposes to remove references to Board
approval of clinical nursing specialist education programs and to add the State
Council of Higher Education for Virginia (SCHEV) as an entity that may approve
nursing education programs. The Board also proposes to require educational
institutions to list the total clinical hours obtained in their program on
student transcripts instead of having to list the number of clinic hours
obtained from each course in their program. Further the Board proposes to
eliminate the requirement that entities which provide clinical experience
opportunities for educational programs specify the number of nursing students
allowed in each nursing unit in their written agreements with educational
programs. Finally, the Board proposes to remove general language that refers to
passage of examinations and replace it with examination requirements that
specifically reference the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX).
Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for all
proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, the Board has one
comprehensive regulation that covers both nursing licensure and nursing
education programs. In order to make the rules for nurses easier to search, the
Board now proposes to repeal this regulation and promulgate two replacement
regulations that will divide up the regulatory provisions into two parts. To
the extent that this action migrates regulatory requirements unchanged to one
of the new regulations, no regulated entity is likely to incur costs on account
of that migration. Regulated entities, as well as other interested parties, are
likely to benefit from this regulatory matter being split into shorter, easier
to read regulations.
In addition to dividing regulatory provisions into two separate
regulations, the Board proposes several changes to actual regulatory
requirements. Current regulation references the Board's authority to approve
educational programs for clinical nurse specialists. However, Chapter 83 of the
2016 Acts of Assembly removed this authority. The Board now proposes to conform
nursing regulations to this legislation by removing these regulatory
references. This change will benefit regulated entities as it removes now
obsolete language. No entity is likely to incur costs on account of this
change.
Current regulation requires that institutions that wish to
establish nursing education programs to be approved by the Virginia Department
of Education. The Board proposes to add SCHEV as an entity that may also approve
nursing education programs. No teaching institutions are likely to incur costs
on account of this change. These institutions will likely benefit from the
additional flexibility of having an additional entity that can approve
programs.
Current regulation requires that entities that contract with
nursing education programs1 to provide clinical experience
opportunities specify in their written agreements how many students will be
allowed in each nursing unit. It also requires nursing education programs to keep
student transcripts that include the number of clinical hours completed for
each clinical course completed. Board staff reports that requiring written
agreements to include the number of nursing students per nursing unit may
discourage large hospitals with many nursing units from signing agreements with
nursing education programs. Because of this, the Board now proposes to
eliminate this requirement. The Board also proposes to modify transcript
requirements so that nursing education programs will only have to keep records
on the total number of clinical hours completed by any student because the
Board does not need this information broken down by course. These changes will
provide more flexibility to both nursing education programs and the clinical
experience providers that contract with them.
Finally, current regulation references licensure examinations
(in the plural) in several places. Board staff reports that the only
examination that is acceptable for licensure in Virginia and other states is
the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX). In order to eliminate any
confusion that applicants might experience because of language that implies
that there is more than one acceptable licensure exam, the Board proposes to
replace this general language with specific references to the NCLEX. This
change will benefit affected entities by clarifying what examination they need
to pass in order to be licensed.
Businesses and Entities Affected. This proposed regulatory
action will affect all nursing education programs and all applicants for
nursing licensure. Board staff reports that there are 82 registered nursing
(RN) and 61 licensed practical nursing (LPN) education programs in the
Commonwealth and that the Board receives approximately 10,000 applications for
RN and LPN licensure each year.
Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be
particularly affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect employment in the Commonwealth.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed changes will likely not affect the use or value of private property in
the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. No small businesses are likely to
incur any additional costs on account of these proposed changes.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No small
businesses are likely to incur any additional costs on account of these
proposed changes.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. No businesses are likely to incur any additional
costs on account of these proposed changes.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Other Entities. No other entities are likely to be adversely
affected by these proposed changes.
_______________________________
1 These entities can include any agencies or
institutions that provide skilled nursing services, like hospitals and nursing
homes, where students can complete required supervised clinical experience
hours.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
of Nursing concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget.
Summary:
The Board of Nursing repeals Regulations Governing the
Practice of Nursing (18VAC90-20) and replaces it with two regulatory chapters
derived from 18VAC60-20. The Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing
(18VAC60-19) includes provisions that are applicable to the licensure and
practice of nurses. The requirements for licensure of nurses are not changed,
but several clarifying amendments are made to the national examination required
for licensure and the educational qualifications for persons whose nursing
education was completed in another country. The requirements for clinical nurse
specialists are not changed but the board's authority to approve educational
programs for clinical nurse specialists is removed consistent with Chapter 83
of the 2016 Acts of Assembly. Regulations for Nursing Education Programs
(18VAC60-27) includes provisions that are applicable to nursing education
programs. Amendments include (i) adding the State Council of Higher Education
for Virginia as an approving body for certain nursing education programs, (ii)
requiring an educational institution to list the total clinical hours obtained
in its program on student transcripts instead of listing the number of clinic
hours obtained from each course, (iii) eliminating the requirement that an
entity providing clinical experience opportunities for educational programs
specify the number of nursing students allowed in each nursing unit in its
written agreements with educational programs, and (iv) replacing general
language to passage of an examination with a specific reference to the National
Council Licensure Examination.
CHAPTER 19
REGULATIONS GOVERNING THE PRACTICE OF NURSING
Part I
General Provisions
18VAC90-19-10. Definitions.
In addition to words and terms defined in §§ 54.1-3000 and
54.1-3030 of the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in
this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Active practice" means activities performed,
whether or not for compensation, for which an active license to practice
nursing is required.
"Board" means the Board of Nursing.
"CGFNS" means the Commission on Graduates of
Foreign Nursing Schools.
"Contact hour" means 50 minutes of continuing
education coursework or activity.
"National certifying organization" means an
organization that has as one of its purposes the certification of a specialty
in nursing based on an examination attesting to the knowledge of the nurse for
practice in the specialty area.
"NCLEX" means the National Council Licensure
Examination.
"NCSBN" means the National Council of State
Boards of Nursing.
"Primary state of residence" means the state of
a person's declared fixed, permanent, and principal home or domicile for legal
purposes.
18VAC90-19-20. Delegation of authority.
The executive director shall be delegated the authority to
issue licenses and certificates and execute all notices, orders, and official
documents of the board unless the board directs otherwise.
18VAC90-19-30. Fees.
Fees required by the board are:
1. Application for licensure by
examination - RN
|
$190
|
2. Application for licensure by
endorsement - RN
|
$190
|
3. Application for licensure by
examination - LPN
|
$170
|
4. Application for licensure by
endorsement - LPN
|
$170
|
5. Reapplication for licensure by
examination
|
$50
|
6. Biennial licensure renewal -
RN
|
$140
|
7. Biennial inactive licensure
renewal - RN
|
$70
|
8. Biennial licensure renewal -
LPN
|
$120
|
9. Biennial inactive licensure
renewal - LPN
|
$60
|
10. Late renewal - RN
|
$50
|
11. Late renewal - LPN
|
$40
|
12. Reinstatement of lapsed
license - RN
|
$225
|
13. Reinstatement of lapsed
license - LPN
|
$200
|
14. Reinstatement of suspended or
revoked license
|
$300
|
15. Duplicate license
|
$15
|
16. Replacement wall certificate
|
$25
|
17. Verification of license
|
$35
|
18. Transcript of all or part of
applicant or licensee records
|
$35
|
19. Returned check charge
|
$35
|
20. Application for CNS
registration
|
$130
|
21. Biennial renewal of CNS
registration
|
$80
|
22. Reinstatement of lapsed CNS
registration
|
$125
|
23. Verification of CNS
registration to another jurisdiction
|
$35
|
24. Late renewal of CNS
registration
|
$35
|
18VAC90-19-40. Duplicate license.
A duplicate license for the current renewal period shall
be issued by the board upon receipt of the required information and fee.
18VAC90-19-50. Identification; accuracy of records.
A. Any person regulated by this chapter who provides
direct client care shall, while on duty, wear identification that is clearly
visible and indicates the person's first and last name and the appropriate title
for the license, registration, or student status under which he is practicing
in that setting. Any person practicing in hospital emergency departments,
psychiatric and mental health units and programs, or in health care facilities
units offering treatment for clients in custody of state or local
law-enforcement agencies may use identification badges with first name and
first letter only of last name and appropriate title.
B. A licensee who has changed his name shall submit as
legal proof to the board a copy of the marriage certificate, a certificate of
naturalization, or court order evidencing the change. A duplicate license shall
be issued by the board upon receipt of such evidence and the required fee.
C. Each licensee shall maintain an address of record with
the board. Any change in the address of record or in the public address, if
different from the address of record, shall be submitted by a licensee
electronically or in writing to the board within 30 days of such change. All
notices required by law and by this chapter to be mailed by the board to any
licensee shall be validly given when mailed to the latest address of record on
file with the board.
18VAC90-19-60. Data collection of nursing workforce
information.
A. With such funds as are appropriated for the purpose of
data collection and consistent with the provisions of § 54.1-2506.1 of the Code
of Virginia, the board shall collect workforce information biennially from a
representative sample of registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, and certified
nurse aides and shall make such information available to the public. Data
collected shall be compiled, stored, and released in compliance with §
54.1-3012.1 of the Code of Virginia.
B. The information to be collected on nurses shall include
(i) demographic data to include age, sex, and ethnicity; (ii) level of
education; (iii) employment status; (iv) employment setting or settings such as
in a hospital, physician's office, or nursing home; (v) geographic location of
employment; (vi) type of nursing position or area of specialty; and (vii)
number of hours worked per week in each setting. In addition, the board may
determine other data to be collected as necessary.
18VAC90-19-70. Supervision of licensed practical nurses.
Licensed practical nursing shall be performed under the
direction or supervision of a licensed medical practitioner, a registered
nurse, or a licensed dentist.
Part II
Multistate Licensure Privilege
18VAC90-19-80. Issuance of a license with a multistate
licensure privilege.
A. To be issued a license with a multistate licensure
privilege by the board, a nurse currently licensed in Virginia or a person
applying for licensure in Virginia shall submit a declaration stating that his
primary residence is in Virginia. Evidence of a primary state of residence may
be required to include:
1. A driver's license with a home address;
2. A voter registration card displaying a home address;
3. A federal or state tax return declaring the primary
state of residence;
4. A Military Form No. 2058 – state of legal residence; or
5. A W-2 from the United States government or any bureau,
division, or agency thereof indicating the declared state of residence.
B. A nurse on a visa from another country applying for
licensure in Virginia may declare either the country of origin or Virginia as
the primary state of residence. If the foreign country is declared as the
primary state of residence, a single state license shall be issued by Virginia.
C. A nurse changing the primary state of residence from
another party state to Virginia may continue to practice under the former party
state license and multistate licensure privilege during the processing of the
nurse's licensure application by the board for a period not to exceed 90 days.
1. If a nurse is under a pending investigation by a former
home state, the licensure application in Virginia shall be held in abeyance and
the 90-day authorization to practice stayed until resolution of the pending
investigation.
2. A license issued by a former party state shall no longer
be valid upon issuance of a license by the board.
3. If the board denies licensure to an applicant from
another party state, it shall notify the former home state within 10 business
days, and the former home state may take action in accordance with the laws and
regulations of that state.
D. A license issued by a party state is valid for practice
in all other party states, unless clearly designated as valid only in the state
that issued the license. When a party state issues a license authorizing practice
only in that state and not authorizing practice in other party states, the
license shall be clearly marked with words indicating that it is valid only in
the state of issuance.
18VAC90-19-90. Limitations of a multistate licensure
privilege.
A. The board shall include in all disciplinary orders that
limit practice or require monitoring the requirement that the licensee subject
to the order shall agree to limit practice to Virginia during the period in
which the order is in effect. A nurse may be allowed to practice in other party
states while an order is in effect with prior written authorization from both
the board and boards of other party states.
B. An individual who had a license that was surrendered,
revoked, or suspended or an application denied for cause in a prior state of
primary residence may be issued a single state license in a new primary state
of residence until such time as the individual would be eligible for an
unrestricted license by the prior state of adverse action. Once eligible for licensure
in the prior state, a multistate license may be issued.
18VAC90-19-100. Access to information in the coordinated
licensure information system.
A licensee may submit a request in writing to the board to
review the public data relating to the licensee maintained in the coordinated
licensure information system. In the event a licensee asserts that any related
data is inaccurate, the burden of proof shall be upon the licensee to provide
evidence that substantiates such claim. The board shall verify and correct
inaccurate data in the information system within 10 business days.
Part III
Licensure and Renewal; Reinstatement
18VAC90-19-110. Licensure by examination.
A. The board shall authorize the administration of the
NCLEX for registered nurse licensure and practical nurse licensure.
B. A candidate shall be eligible to take the NCLEX
examination (i) upon receipt by the board of the completed application, the
fee, and an official transcript from the nursing education program and (ii)
when a determination has been made that no grounds exist upon which the board
may deny licensure pursuant to § 54.1-3007 of the Code of Virginia.
C. To establish eligibility for licensure by examination,
an applicant for the licensing examination shall:
1. File the required application, any necessary
documentation and fee, including a criminal history background check as
required by § 54.1-3005.1 of the Code of Virginia.
2. Arrange for the board to receive an official transcript
from the nursing education program that shows either:
a. That the degree or diploma has been awarded and the date
of graduation or conferral; or
b. That all requirements for awarding the degree or diploma
have been met and that specifies the date of conferral.
3. File a new application and reapplication fee if:
a. The examination is not taken within 12 months of the
date that the board determines the applicant to be eligible; or
b. Eligibility is not established within 12 months of the
original filing date.
D. The minimum passing standard on the examination for
registered nurse licensure and practical nurse licensure shall be determined by
the board.
E. Any applicant suspected of giving or receiving
unauthorized assistance during the examination may be noticed for a hearing
pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
seq. of the Code of Virginia) to determine eligibility for licensure or
reexamination.
F. Practice of nursing pending receipt of examination
results.
1. A graduate who has filed a completed application for
licensure in Virginia and has received an authorization letter issued by the
board may practice nursing in Virginia from the date of the authorization
letter. The period of practice shall not exceed 90 days between the date of
successful completion of the nursing education program, as documented on the
applicant's transcript, and the publication of the results of the candidate's
first licensing examination.
2. Candidates who practice nursing as provided in
subdivision 1 of this subsection shall use the designation "R.N.
Applicant" or "L.P.N. Applicant" on a nametag or when signing
official records.
3. The designations "R.N. Applicant" and
"L.P.N. Applicant" shall not be used by applicants who either do not
take the examination within 90 days following receipt of the authorization
letter from the board or who have failed the examination.
G. Applicants who fail the examination.
1. An applicant who fails the licensing examination shall
not be licensed or be authorized to practice nursing in Virginia.
2. An applicant for licensure by reexamination shall file
the required board application and reapplication fee in order to establish
eligibility for reexamination.
3. Applicants who have failed the examination for licensure
in another United States jurisdiction but satisfy the qualifications for
licensure in this jurisdiction may apply for licensure by examination in
Virginia. Such applicants shall submit the required application and fee. Such
applicants shall not, however, be permitted to practice nursing in Virginia
until the requisite license has been issued.
18VAC90-19-120. Licensure by endorsement.
A. A graduate of an approved nursing education program who
has been licensed by examination in another United States jurisdiction and
whose license is in good standing, or is eligible for reinstatement if lapsed,
shall be eligible for licensure by endorsement in Virginia provided the
applicant satisfies the same requirements for registered nurse or practical
nurse licensure as those seeking initial licensure in Virginia.
1. Applicants who have graduated from approved nursing
education programs that did not require a sufficient number of clinical hours
as specified in 18VAC90-27-100 may qualify for licensure if they can provide
evidence of at least 960 hours of clinical practice with an active,
unencumbered license in another United States jurisdiction.
2. Applicants whose basic nursing education was received in
another country shall meet the requirements of 18VAC90-19-130.
3. A graduate of a nursing school in Canada where English
was the primary language shall be eligible for licensure by endorsement
provided the applicant has passed the Canadian Registered Nurses Examination
and holds an unrestricted license in Canada.
B. An applicant for licensure by endorsement who has
submitted a criminal history background check as required by § 54.1-3005.1 of
the Code of Virginia and the required application and fee and has submitted the
required form to the appropriate credentialing agency for verification of
licensure may practice for 30 days upon receipt of an authorization letter from
the board. If an applicant has not received a Virginia license within 30 days
and wishes to continue practice, he shall seek an extension of authorization to
practice by submitting a request and evidence that he has requested
verification of licensure.
C. If the application is not completed within one year of
the initial filing date, the applicant shall submit a new application and fee.
18VAC90-19-130. Licensure of applicants from other
countries.
A. With the exception of applicants from Canada who are
eligible to be licensed by endorsement, applicants whose basic nursing
education was received in another country shall be scheduled to take the
licensing examination provided they meet the statutory qualifications for
licensure. Verification of qualification shall be based on documents submitted
as required in subsection B or C of this section.
B. Such applicants for registered nurse licensure shall:
1. Submit evidence from the CGFNS that the secondary
education and nursing education are comparable to those required for registered
nurses in the Commonwealth;
2. Submit evidence of passage of an English language
proficiency examination approved by the CGFNS, unless the applicant meets the
CGFNS criteria for an exemption from the requirement; and
3. Submit the required application and fee for licensure by
examination.
C. Such applicants for practical nurse licensure shall:
1. Submit evidence from the CGFNS that the secondary
education and nursing education are comparable to those required for practical
nurses in the Commonwealth;
2. Submit evidence of passage of an English language
proficiency examination approved by the CGFNS, unless the applicant meets the
CGFNS criteria for an exemption from the requirement; and
3. Submit the required application and fee for licensure by
examination.
D. An applicant for licensure as a registered nurse who
has met the requirements of subsections A and B of this section may practice
for a period not to exceed 90 days from the date of approval of an application
submitted to the board when he is working as a nonsupervisory staff nurse in a
licensed nursing home or certified nursing facility.
1. Applicants who practice nursing as provided in this
subsection shall use the designation "foreign nurse graduate" on
nametags or when signing official records.
2. During the 90-day period, the applicant shall take and
pass the licensing examination in order to remain eligible to practice nursing
in Virginia.
3. Any person practicing nursing under this exemption who
fails to pass the licensure examination within the 90-day period may not
thereafter practice nursing until he passes the licensing examination.
E. In addition to CGFNS, the board may accept credentials
from other recognized agencies that review credentials of foreign-educated
nurses if such agencies have been approved by the board.
18VAC90-19-140. Provisional licensure of applicants for
licensure as registered nurses.
A. Pursuant to § 54.1-3017.1 of the Code of Virginia, the
board may issue a provisional license to an applicant for the purpose of
meeting the 500 hours of supervised, direct, hands-on client care required of
an approved registered nurse education program.
B. Such applicants for provisional licensure shall submit:
1. A completed application for licensure by examination and
fee, including a criminal history background check as required by § 54.1-3005.1
of the Code of Virginia;
2. Documentation that the applicant has successfully
completed a nursing education program; and
3. Documentation of passage of the NCLEX in accordance with
18VAC90-19-110.
C. Requirements for hours of supervised clinical
experience in direct client care with a provisional license.
1. To qualify for licensure as a registered nurse, direct,
hands-on hours of supervised clinical experience shall include the areas of
adult medical/surgical nursing, geriatric nursing, maternal/infant (obstetrics,
gynecology, neonatal) nursing, mental health/psychiatric nursing, nursing
fundamentals, and pediatric nursing. Supervised clinical hours may be obtained
in employment in the role of a registered nurse or without compensation for the
purpose of meeting these requirements.
2. Hours of direct, hands-on clinical experience obtained
as part of the applicant's nursing education program and noted on the official
transcript shall be counted towards the minimum of 500 hours and in the
applicable areas of clinical practice.
3. For applicants with a current, active license as an LPN,
150 hours of credit shall be counted towards the 500-hour requirement.
4. 100 hours of credit may be applied towards the 500-hour
requirement for applicants who have successfully completed a nursing education
program that:
a. Requires students to pass competency-based assessments
of nursing knowledge as well as a summative performance assessment of clinical
competency that has been evaluated by the American Council on Education or any
other board-approved organization; and
b. Has a passage rate for first-time test takers on the
NCLEX that is not less than 80%, calculated on the cumulative results of the
past four quarters of all graduates in each calendar year regardless of where
the graduate is seeking licensure.
5. An applicant for licensure shall submit verification
from a supervisor of the number of hours of direct client care and the areas in
which clinical experiences in the role of a registered nurse were obtained.
D. Requirements for supervision of a provisional licensee.
1. The supervisor shall be on site and physically present
in the unit where the provisional licensee is providing clinical care of
clients.
2. In the supervision of provisional licensees in the
clinical setting, the ratio shall not exceed two provisional licensees to one
supervisor at any given time.
3. Licensed registered nurses providing supervision for a
provisional licensee shall:
a. Notify the board of the intent to provide supervision
for a provisional licensee on a form provided by the board;
b. Hold an active, unrestricted license or multistate
licensure privilege and have at least two years of active clinical practice as
a registered nurse prior to acting as a supervisor;
c. Be responsible and accountable for the assignment of
clients and tasks based on their assessment and evaluation of the supervisee's
clinical knowledge and skills;
d. Be required to monitor clinical performance and
intervene if necessary for the safety and protection of the clients; and
e. Document on a form provided by the board the frequency
and nature of the supervision of provisional licensees to verify completion of
hours of clinical experience.
E. The provisional status of the licensee shall be
disclosed to the client prior to treatment and shall be indicated on
identification worn by the provisional licensee.
F. All provisional licenses shall expire six months from
the date of issuance and may be renewed for an additional six months. Renewal
of a provisional license beyond the limit of 12 months may be granted and shall
be for good cause shown. A request for extension of a provisional license
beyond 12 months shall be made at least 30 days prior to its expiration.
18VAC90-19-150. Renewal of licenses.
A. Licensees born in even-numbered years shall renew their
licenses by the last day of the birth month in even-numbered years. Licensees
born in odd-numbered years shall renew their licenses by the last day of the
birth month in odd-numbered years.
B. A nurse shall be required to meet the requirements for
continued competency set forth in 18VAC90-19-160 to renew an active license.
C. A notice for renewal of license shall be sent by the
board to the last known address of the licensee. The licensee shall complete
the renewal form and submit it with the required fee.
D. Failure to receive the renewal form shall not relieve
the licensee of the responsibility for renewing the license by the expiration
date.
E. The license shall automatically lapse if the licensee
fails to renew by the expiration date.
F. Any person practicing nursing during the time a license
has lapsed shall be considered an illegal practitioner and shall be subject to
prosecution under the provisions of § 54.1-3008 of the Code of Virginia.
G. Upon renewal, all licensees shall declare their primary
state of residence. If the declared state of residence is another compact
state, the licensee is not eligible for renewal.
18VAC90-19-160. Continued competency requirements for
renewal of an active license.
A. To renew an active nursing license, a licensee shall
complete at least one of the following learning activities or courses:
1. Current specialty certification by a national certifying
organization, as defined in 18VAC90-19-10;
2. Completion of a minimum of three credit hours of
post-licensure academic education relevant to nursing practice, offered by a
regionally accredited college or university;
3. A board-approved refresher course in nursing;
4. Completion of nursing-related, evidence-based practice
project or research study;
5. Completion of publication as the author or co-author
during a renewal cycle;
6. Teaching or developing a nursing-related course
resulting in no less than three semester hours of college credit, a 15-week
course, or specialty certification;
7. Teaching or developing nursing-related continuing
education courses for up to 30 contact hours;
8. Fifteen contact hours of workshops, seminars,
conferences, or courses relevant to the practice of nursing and 640 hours of
active practice as a nurse; or
9. Thirty contact hours of workshops, seminars,
conferences, or courses relevant to the practice of nursing.
B. To meet requirements of subdivision A 8 or A 9 of this
section, workshops, seminars, conferences, or courses shall be offered by a
provider recognized or approved by one of the following:
1. American Nurses Credentialing Center American Nurses
Association;
2. National Council of State Boards of Nursing;
3. Area Health Education Centers (AHEC) in any state in
which the AHEC is a member of the National AHEC Organization;
4. Any state nurses association;
5. National League for Nursing;
6. National Association for Practical Nurse Education and
Service;
7. National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses;
8. A licensed health care facility, agency, or hospital;
9. A health care provider association;
10. Regionally or nationally accredited colleges or
universities;
11. A state or federal government agency;
12. The American Heart Association, the American Health and
Safety Institute, or the American Red Cross for courses in advanced
resuscitation; or
13. The Virginia Board of Nursing or any state board of
nursing.
C. Dual licensed persons.
1. Those persons dually licensed by this board as a
registered nurse and a licensed practical nurse shall only meet one of the
continued competency requirements as set forth in subsection A of this section.
2. Registered nurses who also hold an active license as a
nurse practitioner shall only meet the requirements of 18VAC90-30-105 and, for
those with prescriptive authority, 18VAC90-40-55.
D. A licensee is exempt from the continued competency
requirement for the first renewal following initial licensure by examination or
endorsement.
E. The board may grant an extension for good cause of up
to one year for the completion of continuing competency requirements upon
written request from the licensee 60 days prior to the renewal date. Such extension
shall not relieve the licensee of the continuing competency requirement.
F. The board may grant an exemption for all or part of the
continuing competency requirements due to circumstances beyond the control of
the licensee such as temporary disability, mandatory military service, or
officially declared disasters.
G. Continued competency activities or courses required by
board order in a disciplinary proceeding shall not be counted as meeting the
requirements for licensure renewal.
18VAC90-19-170. Documenting compliance with continued
competency requirements.
A. All licensees are required to maintain original
documentation of completion for a period of two years following renewal and to
provide such documentation within 30 days of a request from the board for proof
of compliance.
B. Documentation of compliance shall be as follows:
1. Evidence of national certification shall include a copy
of a certificate that includes name of licensee, name of certifying body, date
of certification, and date of certification expiration. Certification shall be
initially attained during the licensure period, have been in effect during the
entire licensure period, or have been recertified during the licensure period.
2. Evidence of post-licensure academic education shall
include a copy of transcript with the name of the licensee, name of educational
institution, date of attendance, name of course with grade, and number of
credit hours received.
3. Evidence of completion of a board-approved refresher
course shall include written correspondence from the provider with the name of
the licensee, name of the provider, and verification of successful completion
of the course.
4. Evidence of completion of a nursing research study or
project shall include an abstract or summary, the name of the licensee, role of
the licensee as principal or coprincipal investigator, date of completion,
statement of the problem, research or project objectives, methods used, and
summary of findings.
5. Evidence of authoring or co-authoring a published
nursing-related article, paper, book, or book chapter shall include a copy of
the publication that includes the name of the licensee and publication date.
6. Evidence of teaching a course for college credit shall
include documentation of the course offering, indicating instructor, course
title, course syllabus, and the number of credit hours. Teaching a particular
course may only be used once to satisfy the continued competency requirement
unless the course offering and syllabus has changed.
7. Evidence of teaching a course for continuing education
credit shall include a written attestation from the director of the program or
authorizing entity including the date or dates of the course or courses and the
number of contact hours awarded. If the total number of contact hours totals
less than 30, the licensee shall obtain additional hours in continuing learning
activities or courses.
8. Evidence of contact hours of continuing learning
activities or courses shall include the name of the licensee, title of educational
activity, name of the provider, number of contact hours, and date of activity.
9. Evidence of 640 hours of active practice in nursing
shall include documentation satisfactory to the board of the name of the
licensee, number of hours worked in calendar or fiscal year, name and address
of employer, and signature of supervisor. If self-employed, hours worked may be
validated through other methods such as tax records or other business records.
If active practice is of a volunteer or gratuitous nature, hours worked may be
validated by the recipient agency.
18VAC90-19-180. Inactive licensure.
A. A registered nurse or licensed practical nurse who
holds a current, unrestricted license in Virginia may, upon a request on the
renewal application and submission of the required fee, be issued an inactive
license. The holder of an inactive license shall not be entitled to practice
nursing in Virginia or practice on a multistate licensure privilege but may use
the title "registered nurse" or "licensed practical nurse."
B. Reactivation of an inactive license.
1. A nurse whose license is inactive may reactivate within
one renewal period by:
a. Payment of the difference between the inactive renewal
and the active renewal fee; and
b. Providing attestation of completion of at least one of
the learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two
years immediately preceding reactivation.
2. A nurse whose license has been inactive for more than
one renewal period may reactivate by:
a. Submitting an application;
b. Paying the difference between the inactive renewal and
the active renewal fee; and
c. Providing evidence of completion of at least one of the
learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two years
immediately preceding application for reactivation.
3. The board may waive all or part of the continuing
education requirement for a nurse who holds a current, unrestricted license in
another state and who has engaged in active practice during the period the
Virginia license was inactive.
4. The board may request additional evidence that the nurse
is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner.
5. The board may deny a request for reactivation to any
licensee who has been determined to have committed an act in violation of §
54.1-3007 of the Code of Virginia or any provision of this chapter.
18VAC90-19-190. Reinstatement of lapsed licenses or license
suspended or revoked.
A. A nurse whose license has lapsed may be reinstated
within one renewal period by:
1. Payment of the current renewal fee and the late renewal
fee; and
2. Providing attestation of completion of at least one of
the learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two
years immediately preceding reinstatement.
B. A nurse whose license has lapsed for more than one
renewal period shall:
1. File a reinstatement application and pay the
reinstatement fee;
2. Provide evidence of completing at least one of the
learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two years
immediately preceding application for reinstatement; and
3. Submit a criminal history background check as required
by § 54.1-3005.1 of the Code of Virginia.
C. The board may waive all or part of the continuing
education requirement for a nurse who holds a current, unrestricted license in
another state and who has engaged in active practice during the period the
Virginia license was lapsed.
D. A nurse whose license has been suspended or revoked by
the board may apply for reinstatement by filing a reinstatement application,
fulfilling requirements for continuing competency as required in subsection B
of this section, and paying the fee for reinstatement after suspension or
revocation. A nurse whose license has been revoked may not apply for
reinstatement sooner than three years from entry of the order of revocation.
E. The board may request additional evidence that the
nurse is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner.
18VAC90-19-200. Restricted volunteer license and
registration for voluntary practice by out-of-state licensees.
A. A registered or practical nurse may be issued a
restricted volunteer license and may practice in accordance with provisions of
§ 54.1-3011.01 of the Code of Virginia.
B. Any licensed nurse who does not hold a license to
practice in Virginia and who seeks registration to practice on a voluntary
basis under the auspices of a publicly supported, all volunteer nonprofit
organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of
underserved people shall:
1. File a complete application for registration on a form
provided by the board at least five business days prior to engaging in such
practice. An incomplete application will not be considered;
2. Provide evidence of current, unrestricted licensure in a
United States jurisdiction;
3. Provide the name of the nonprofit organization and the
dates and location of the voluntary provision of services;
4. Pay a registration fee of $10; and
5. Provide an attestation from a representative of the
nonprofit organization attesting to its compliance with provisions of
subdivision 11 of § 54.1-3001 of the Code of Virginia.
Part IV
Clinical Nurse Specialists
18VAC90-19-210. Clinical nurse specialist registration.
A. Initial registration. An applicant for initial
registration as a clinical nurse specialist shall:
1. Be currently licensed as a registered nurse in Virginia
or hold a current multistate licensure privilege as a registered nurse;
2. Submit evidence of current specialty certification as
required by § 54.1-3018.1 of the Code of Virginia or has an exception available
from March 1, 1990, to July 1, 1990; and
3. Submit the required application and fee.
B. Renewal of registration.
1. Registration as a clinical nurse specialist shall be
renewed biennially at the same time the registered nurse license is renewed. If
registered as a clinical nurse specialist with a multistate licensure privilege
to practice in Virginia as a registered nurse, a licensee born in even-numbered
years shall renew his license by the last day of the birth month in
even-numbered years and a licensee born in odd-numbered years shall renew his
license by the last day of the birth month in odd-numbered years.
2. The clinical nurse specialist shall complete the renewal
form and submit it with the required fee. An attestation of current specialty
certification is required unless registered in accordance with an exception.
3. Registration as a clinical nurse specialist shall lapse
if the registered nurse license is not renewed or the multistate licensure
privilege is lapsed and may be reinstated upon:
a. Reinstatement of RN license or multistate licensure
privilege;
b. Payment of reinstatement and current renewal fees; and
c. Submission of evidence of continued specialty
certification unless registered in accordance with an exception.
18VAC90-19-220. Clinical nurse specialist practice.
A. The practice of a clinical nurse specialist shall be
consistent with the education and experience required for clinical nurse
specialist certification.
B. The clinical nurse specialist shall provide those
advanced nursing services that are consistent with the standards of specialist
practice as established by a national certifying organization for the
designated specialty and in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 30 (§
54.1-3000 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
C. Advanced practice as a clinical nurse specialist shall
include performance as an expert clinician to:
1. Provide direct care and counsel to individuals and
groups;
2. Plan, evaluate, and direct care given by others; and
3. Improve care by consultation, collaboration, teaching,
and the conduct of research.
Part V
Disciplinary and Delegation Provisions
18VAC90-19-230. Disciplinary provisions.
A. The board has the authority to deny, revoke, or suspend
a license or multistate licensure privilege issued, or to otherwise discipline
a licensee or holder of a multistate licensure privilege upon proof that the
licensee or holder of a multistate licensure privilege has violated any of the
provisions of § 54.1-3007 of the Code of Virginia. For the purpose of
establishing allegations to be included in the notice of hearing, the board has
adopted the following definitions:
1. Fraud or deceit in procuring or maintaining a license
means, but shall not be limited to:
a. Filing false credentials;
b. Falsely representing facts on an application for initial
license, reinstatement, or renewal of a license; or
c. Giving or receiving assistance in the taking of the
licensing examination.
2. Unprofessional conduct means, but shall not be limited
to:
a. Performing acts beyond the limits of the practice of
professional or practical nursing as defined in Chapter 30 (§ 54.1-3000 et
seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or as provided by
§§ 54.1-2901 and 54.1-2957 of the Code of Virginia;
b. Assuming duties and responsibilities within the practice
of nursing without adequate training or when competency has not been
maintained;
c. Obtaining supplies, equipment, or drugs for personal or
other unauthorized use;
d. Employing or assigning unqualified persons to perform
functions that require a licensed practitioner of nursing;
e. Falsifying or otherwise altering patient, employer,
student, or educational program records, including falsely representing facts
on a job application or other employment-related documents;
f. Abusing, neglecting, or abandoning patients or clients;
g. Practice of a clinical nurse specialist beyond that
defined in 18VAC90-19-220 and § 54.1-3000 of the Code of Virginia;
h. Representing oneself as or performing acts constituting
the practice of a clinical nurse specialist unless so registered by the board;
i. Delegating nursing tasks to an unlicensed person in
violation of the provisions of Part VI (18VAC90-19-240 et seq.) of this
chapter;
j. Giving to or accepting from a patient or client property
or money for any reason other than fee for service or a nominal token of
appreciation;
k. Obtaining money or property of a patient or client by
fraud, misrepresentation, or duress;
l. Entering into a relationship with a patient or client
that constitutes a professional boundary violation in which the nurse uses his
professional position to take advantage of the vulnerability of a patient, a
client, or his family, to include actions that result in personal gain at the
expense of the patient or client, or a nontherapeutic personal involvement or
sexual conduct with a patient or client;
m. Violating state laws relating to the privacy of patient
information, including § 32.1-127.1:03 the Code of Virginia;
n. Providing false information to staff or board members in
the course of an investigation or proceeding;
o. Failing to report evidence of child abuse or neglect as
required in § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia or elder abuse or neglect as
required in § 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia; or
p. Violating any provision of this chapter.
B. Any sanction imposed on the registered nurse license of
a clinical nurse specialist shall have the same effect on the clinical nurse
specialist registration.
Part VI
Delegation of Nursing Tasks and Procedures
18VAC90-19-240. Definitions for delegation of nursing tasks
and procedures.
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings unless the content clearly indicates otherwise:
"Delegation" means the authorization by a
registered nurse to an unlicensed person to perform selected nursing tasks and
procedures in accordance with this part.
"Supervision" means guidance or direction of a
delegated nursing task or procedure by a qualified, registered nurse who
provides periodic observation and evaluation of the performance of the task and
who is accessible to the unlicensed person.
"Unlicensed person" means an appropriately
trained individual, regardless of title, who receives compensation, who functions
in a complementary or assistive role to the registered nurse in providing
direct patient care or carrying out common nursing tasks and procedures, and
who is responsible and accountable for the performance of such tasks and
procedures. With the exception of certified nurse aides, this shall not include
anyone licensed or certified by a health regulatory board who is practicing
within his recognized scope of practice.
18VAC90-19-250. Criteria for delegation.
A. Delegation of nursing tasks and procedures shall only
occur in accordance with the plan for delegation adopted by the entity
responsible for client care. The delegation plan shall comply with provisions
of this chapter and shall provide:
1. An assessment of the client population to be served;
2. Analysis and identification of nursing care needs and
priorities;
3. Establishment of organizational standards to provide for
sufficient supervision that assures safe nursing care to meet the needs of the
clients in their specific settings;
4. Communication of the delegation plan to the staff;
5. Identification of the educational and training
requirements for unlicensed persons and documentation of their competencies;
and
6. Provision of resources for appropriate delegation in
accordance with this part.
B. Delegation shall be made only if all of the following
criteria are met:
1. In the judgment of the delegating nurse, the task or
procedure can be properly and safely performed by the unlicensed person and the
delegation does not jeopardize the health, safety, and welfare of the client.
2. The delegating nurse retains responsibility and
accountability for nursing care of the client, including nursing assessment,
planning, evaluation, documentation, and supervision.
3. Delegated tasks and procedures are within the knowledge,
area of responsibility, and skills of the delegating nurse.
4. Delegated tasks and procedures are communicated on a
client-specific basis to an unlicensed person with clear, specific instructions
for performance of activities, potential complications, and expected results.
5. The person to whom a nursing task has been delegated is
clearly identified to the client as an unlicensed person by a name tag worn
while giving client care and by personal communication by the delegating nurse
when necessary.
C. Delegated tasks and procedures shall not be reassigned
by unlicensed personnel.
D. Nursing tasks shall only be delegated after an
assessment is performed according to the provisions of 18VAC90-19-260.
18VAC90-19-260. Assessment required prior to delegation.
Prior to delegation of nursing tasks and procedures, the
delegating nurse shall make an assessment of the client and unlicensed person
as follows:
1. The delegating nurse shall assess the clinical status
and stability of the client's condition; determine the type, complexity, and
frequency of the nursing care needed; and delegate only those tasks that:
a. Do not require the exercise of independent nursing
judgment;
b. Do not require complex observations or critical
decisions with respect to the nursing task or procedure;
c. Frequently recur in the routine care of the client or
group of clients;
d. Do not require repeated performance of nursing
assessments;
e. Utilize a standard procedure in which the tasks or
procedures can be performed according to exact, unchanging directions; and
f. Have predictable results and for which the consequences
of performing the task or procedures improperly are minimal and not life
threatening.
2. The delegating nurse shall also assess the training,
skills, and experience of the unlicensed person and shall verify the competency
of the unlicensed person to determine which tasks are appropriate for that
unlicensed person and the method of supervision required.
18VAC90-19-270. Supervision of delegated tasks.
A. The delegating nurse shall determine the method and
frequency of supervision based on factors that include:
1. The stability and condition of the client;
2. The experience and competency of the unlicensed person;
3. The nature of the tasks or procedures being delegated;
and
4. The proximity and availability of the registered nurse
to the unlicensed person when the nursing tasks will be performed.
B. In the event that the delegating nurse is not
available, the delegation shall either be terminated or delegation authority
shall be transferred by the delegating nurse to another registered nurse who
shall supervise all nursing tasks delegated to the unlicensed person, provided
the registered nurse meets the requirements of 18VAC90-19-250 B 3.
C. Supervision shall include:
1. Monitoring the performance of delegated tasks;
2. Evaluating the outcome for the client;
3. Ensuring appropriate documentation; and
4. Being accessible for consultation and intervention.
D. Based on an ongoing assessment as described in
18VAC90-19-260, the delegating nurse may determine that delegation of some or
all of the tasks and procedures is no longer appropriate.
18VAC90-19-280. Nursing tasks that shall not be delegated.
A. Nursing tasks that shall not be delegated are those
that are inappropriate for a specific, unlicensed person to perform on a
specific patient after an assessment is conducted as provided in
18VAC90-19-260.
B. Nursing tasks that shall not be delegated to any
unlicensed person are:
1. Activities involving nursing assessment, problem
identification, and outcome evaluation that require independent nursing
judgment;
2. Counseling or teaching except for activities related to
promoting independence in personal care and daily living;
3. Coordination and management of care involving
collaboration, consultation, and referral;
4. Emergency and nonemergency triage;
5. Administration of medications except as specifically
permitted by the Virginia Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq. of the Code of
Virginia); and
6. Circulating duties in an operating room.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly
Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (18VAC90-19)
Licensure by examination:
Instructions and Application for Licensure by Examination
for Registered Nurses (rev. 8/2011)
Instructions and Application for Licensure by
Examination -- Licensed Practical Nurse (rev. 8/2011)
Instructions
and Application for Licensure by Repeat Examination for Registered Nurse
(rev.12/2014)
Instructions
and Application for Licensure by Repeat Examination for Licensed Practical
Nurse (rev.12/2014)
License by endorsement:
Application for Licensure by Endorsement --
Registered Nurse (rev. 5/2011)
Instructions for Licensure by Endorsement --
Registered Nurse (rev. 5/2011)
Instructions for Licensure by Endorsement --
Licensed Practical Nurse (rev. 5/2011)
Application for Licensure by Endorsement --
Licensed Practical Nurse (rev. 6/2011)
Verification of Clinical Practice -- Licensure by
Endorsement (rev. 1/2010)
Reinstatement:
Instructions
and Application for Reinstatement -- Registered Nurse or Licensed Practical
Nurse (rev. 10/2016)
Instructions and Application for Reinstatement of
License as a Registered Nurse Following Suspension or Revocation (rev. 6/2011)
Instructions and Application for Reinstatement of
License as a Licensed Practical Nurse Following Suspension or Revocation (rev.
6/2011)
Clinical nurse specialist:
Procedure (rev. 3/10) and Application for
Registration as a Clinical Nurse Specialist (rev. 6/2011)
Instructions
and Application for Reinstatement of Registration as a Clinical Nurse
Specialist (rev. 3/2014)
Other:
Declaration
of Primary State of Residency for Purposes of the Nurse Licensure Compact (rev.
7/2015)
License
Verification Form (rev. 7/2016)
Application
for Registration for Volunteer Practice (undated, filed 12/2016)
Sponsor Certification for Volunteer Registration
(rev. 8/2008)
Verification of Supervised Clinical Practice --
Registered Nurse Provisional License (eff. 8/013)
Notification
of Intent to Supervise Clinical Practice -- Registered Nurse Provisional
License (rev. 4/2015)
Instructions
and Application for Restricted Volunteer Nursing License (rev. 5/2016)
Request
to Change License Status: Inactive to Active for RN and LPN (rev. 8/2016)
CHAPTER 27
REGULATIONS FOR NURSING EDUCATION PROGRAMS
Part I
General Provisions
18VAC90-27-10. Definitions.
In addition to words and terms defined in § 54.1-3000 of
the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in this chapter
shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Accreditation" means having been accredited by
the Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing, the Commission on
Collegiate Nursing Education, or a national nursing accrediting organization
recognized by the board.
"Advisory committee" means a group of persons
from a nursing education program and the health care community who meets
regularly to advise the nursing education program on the quality of its
graduates and the needs of the community.
"Approval" means the process by which the board
or a governmental agency in another state or foreign country evaluates and
grants official recognition to nursing education programs that meet established
standards not inconsistent with Virginia law.
"Associate degree nursing program" means a
nursing education program preparing for registered nurse licensure, offered by
a Virginia college or other institution and designed to lead to an associate
degree in nursing, provided that the institution is authorized to confer such
degree by SCHEV.
"Baccalaureate degree nursing program" or
"prelicensure graduate degree program" means a nursing education
program preparing for registered nurse licensure, offered by a Virginia college
or university and designed to lead to a baccalaureate or a graduate degree with
a major in nursing, provided that the institution is authorized to confer such
degree by SCHEV.
"Board" means the Board of Nursing.
"Clinical setting" means any location in which
the clinical practice of nursing occurs as specified in an agreement between
the cooperating agency and the school of nursing.
"Conditional approval" means a time-limited
status that results when an approved nursing education program has failed to
maintain requirements as set forth in this chapter.
"Cooperating agency" means an agency or
institution that enters into a written agreement to provide clinical or
observational experiences for a nursing education program.
"Diploma nursing program" means a nursing
education program preparing for registered nurse licensure, offered by a
hospital and designed to lead to a diploma in nursing, provided the hospital is
licensed in this state.
"Initial approval" means the status granted to a
nursing education program that allows the admission of students.
"National certifying organization" means an
organization that has as one of its purposes the certification of a specialty
in nursing based on an examination attesting to the knowledge of the nurse for
practice in the specialty area.
"NCLEX" means the National Council Licensure
Examination.
"NCSBN" means the National Council of State
Boards of Nursing.
"Nursing education program" means an entity
offering a basic course of study preparing persons for licensure as registered
nurses or as licensed practical nurses. A basic course of study shall include
all courses required for the degree, diploma, or certificate.
"Nursing faculty" means registered nurses who
teach the practice of nursing in nursing education programs.
"Practical nursing program" means a nursing
education program preparing for practical nurse licensure that leads to a
diploma or certificate in practical nursing, provided the school is authorized
by the Virginia Department of Education or by an accrediting agency recognized
by the U.S. Department of Education.
"Preceptor" means a licensed nurse who is
employed in the clinical setting, serves as a resource person and role model,
and is present with the nursing student in that setting, providing clinical
supervision.
"Program director" means a registered nurse who
holds a current, unrestricted license in Virginia or a multistate licensure privilege
and who has been designated by the controlling authority to administer the
nursing education program.
"Recommendation" means a guide to actions that
will assist an institution to improve and develop its nursing education
program.
"Requirement" means a mandatory condition that a
nursing education program must meet to be approved or maintain approval.
"SCHEV" means the State Council of Higher
Education for Virginia.
"Site visit" means a focused onsite review of
the nursing program by board staff, usually completed within one day for the
purpose of evaluating program components such as the physical location (skills
lab, classrooms, learning resources) for obtaining initial program approval, in
response to a complaint, compliance with NCLEX plan of correction, change of
location, or verification of noncompliance with this chapter.
"Survey visit" means a comprehensive onsite
review of the nursing program by board staff, usually completed within two days
(depending on the number of programs or campuses being reviewed) for the
purpose of obtaining and maintaining full program approval. The survey visit
includes the program's completion of a self-evaluation report prior to the
visit, as well as a board staff review of all program resources, including skills
lab, classrooms, learning resources, and clinical facilities, and other
components to ensure compliance with this chapter. Meetings with faculty,
administration, students, and clinical facility staff will occur.
18VAC90-27-20. Fees.
Fees required by the board are:
1. Application for approval of a
nursing education program.
|
$1,650
|
2. Survey visit for nursing
education program.
|
$2,200
|
3. Site visit for NCLEX passage
rate for nursing education program.
|
$1,500
|
Part II
Initial Approval of a Nursing Education Program
18VAC90-27-30. Application for initial approval.
An institution wishing to establish a nursing education
program shall:
1. Provide documentation of attendance by the program
director at a board orientation on establishment of a nursing education program
prior to submission of an application and fee.
2. Submit to the board an application to establish a
nursing education program along with a nonrefundable application fee as
prescribed in 18VAC90-27-20.
a. The application shall be effective for 12 months from
the date the application was received by the board.
b. If the program does not meet the board's requirements
for approval within 12 months, the institution shall file a new application and
fee.
3. Submit the following information on the organization and
operation of a nursing education program:
a. A copy of a business license and zoning permit to
operate a school in a Virginia location, a certificate of operation from the
State Corporation Commission, evidence of approval from the Virginia Department
of Education or SCHEV, and documentation of accreditation, if applicable;
b. The organizational structure of the institution and its
relationship to the nursing education program therein;
c. The type of nursing program, as defined in 18VAC90-27-10;
d. An enrollment plan specifying the beginning dates and
number of students for each class for a two-year period from the date of
initial approval including (i) the planned number of students in the first
class and in all subsequent classes and (ii) the planned frequency of
admissions. Any increase in admissions that is not stated in the enrollment
plan must be approved by the board. Also, transfer students are not authorized
until full approval has been granted to the nursing education program; and
e. A tentative time schedule for planning and initiating
the program through graduation of the first class and the program's receipt of
results of the NCLEX examination.
4. Submit to the board evidence documenting adequate
resources for the projected number of students and the ability to provide a
program that can meet the requirements of this part to include the following
information:
a. The results of a community assessment or market analysis
that demonstrates the need for the nursing education program in the geographic
area for the proposed school. The assessment or analysis shall include
employment opportunities of nurses in the community, the number of clinical
facilities or employers available for the size of the community to support the
number of graduates, and the number and types of other nursing education
programs in the area;
b. A projection of the availability of qualified faculty
sufficient to provide classroom instruction and clinical supervision for the
number of students specified by the program;
c. Budgeted faculty positions sufficient in number to
provide classroom instruction and clinical supervision;
d. Availability of clinical training facilities for the
program as evidenced by copies of contracts or letters of agreement specifying
the responsibilities of the respective parties and indicating sufficient
availability of clinical experiences for the number of students in the program,
the number of students, and clinical hours permitted at each clinical site and
on each nursing unit;
e. Documentation that at least 80% of all clinical
experiences are to be conducted in Virginia, unless an exception is granted by
the board. There shall be documentation of written approval for any clinical
experience conducted outside of Virginia by the agency that has authority to
approve clinical placement of students in that state. The use of any clinical
site in Virginia located 50 miles or more from the school shall require board
approval;
f. A diagram or blueprint showing the availability of
academic facilities for the program, including classrooms, skills laboratory,
and learning resource center. This information shall include the number of
restrooms for the student and faculty population, classroom and skills
laboratory space large enough to accommodate the number of the student body,
and sufficient faculty office space; and
g. Evidence of financial resources for the planning,
implementation, and continuation of the program with line-item budget
projections for the first three years of operations beginning with the
admission of students.
5. Respond to the board's request for additional
information within a timeframe established by the board.
18VAC90-27-40. Organization and administration.
A. The governing or parent institution offering Virginia
nursing education programs shall be approved by the Virginia Department of
Education or SCHEV or accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the
U.S. Department of Education.
B. Any agency or institution used for clinical experience
by a nursing education program shall be in good standing with its licensing
body.
C. The program director of the nursing education program
shall:
1. Hold a current license or multistate licensure privilege
to practice as a registered nurse in the Commonwealth without any disciplinary
action that currently restricts practice;
2. Have additional education and experience necessary to
administer, plan, implement, and evaluate the nursing education program;
3. Ensure that faculty are qualified by education and
experience to teach in the program or to supervise the clinical practice of
students in the program;
4. Maintain a current faculty roster, a current clinical
agency form, and current clinical contracts available for board review and
subject to an audit; and
5. Only serve as program director at one location or
campus.
D. The program shall provide evidence that the director
has authority to:
1. Implement the program and curriculum;
2. Oversee the admission, academic progression, and
graduation of students;
3. Hire and evaluate faculty; and
4. Recommend and administer the program budget, consistent
with established policies of the controlling agency.
E. An organizational plan shall indicate the lines of
authority and communication of the nursing education program to the controlling
body, to other departments within the controlling institution, to the
cooperating agencies, and to the advisory committee for the nursing education
program.
F. There shall be evidence of financial support and
resources sufficient to meet the goals of the nursing education program as
evidenced by a copy of the current annual budget or a signed statement from
administration specifically detailing its financial support and resources.
18VAC90-27-50. Philosophy and objectives.
Written statements of philosophy and objectives shall be
the foundation of the curriculum and shall be:
1. Formulated and accepted by the faculty and the program
director;
2. Descriptive of the practitioner to be prepared; and
3. The basis for planning, implementing, and evaluating the
total program through the implementation of a systematic plan of evaluation
that is documented in faculty or committee meeting minutes.
18VAC90-27-60. Faculty.
A. Qualifications for all faculty.
1. Every member of the nursing faculty, including the
program director, shall (i) hold a current license or a multistate licensure
privilege to practice nursing in Virginia as a registered nurse without any
disciplinary action that currently restricts practice and (ii) have had at
least two years of direct client care experience as a registered nurse prior to
employment by the program. Persons providing instruction in topics other than
nursing shall not be required to hold a license as a registered nurse.
2. Every member of a nursing faculty supervising the
clinical practice of students shall meet the licensure requirements of the
jurisdiction in which that practice occurs. Faculty shall provide evidence of
education or experience in the specialty area in which they supervise student
clinical experience for quality and safety. Prior to supervision of students,
the faculty providing supervision shall have completed a clinical orientation
to the site in which supervision is being provided.
3. The program director and each member of the nursing
faculty shall maintain documentation of professional competence through such
activities as nursing practice, continuing education programs, conferences,
workshops, seminars, academic courses, research projects, and professional
writing. Documentation of annual professional development shall be maintained
in employee files for the director and each faculty member until the next
survey visit and shall be available for board review.
4. For baccalaureate degree and prelicensure graduate
degree programs:
a. The program director shall hold a doctoral degree with a
graduate degree in nursing.
b. Every member of the nursing faculty shall hold a
graduate degree; the majority of the faculty shall have a graduate degree in
nursing. Faculty members with a graduate degree with a major other than in
nursing shall have a baccalaureate degree with a major in nursing.
5. For associate degree and diploma programs:
a. The program director shall hold a graduate degree with a
major in nursing.
b. The majority of the members of the nursing faculty shall
hold a graduate degree, preferably with a major in nursing.
c. All members of the nursing faculty shall hold a
baccalaureate or graduate degree with a major in nursing.
6. For practical nursing programs:
a. The program director shall hold a baccalaureate degree
with a major in nursing.
b. The majority of the members of the nursing faculty shall
hold a baccalaureate degree, preferably with a major in nursing.
B. Number of faculty.
1. The number of faculty shall be sufficient to prepare the
students to achieve the objectives of the educational program and to ensure
safety for clients to whom students provide care.
2. When students are giving direct care to clients, the
ratio of students to faculty shall not exceed 10 students to one faculty
member, and the faculty shall be on site solely to supervise students.
3. When preceptors are utilized for specified learning
experiences in clinical settings, the faculty member may supervise up to 15
students.
C. Functions. The principal functions of the faculty shall
be to:
1. Develop, implement, and evaluate the philosophy and
objectives of the nursing education program;
2. Design, implement, teach, evaluate, and revise the
curriculum. Faculty shall provide evidence of education and experience
necessary to indicate that they are competent to teach a given course;
3. Develop and evaluate student admission, progression, retention,
and graduation policies within the framework of the controlling institution;
4. Participate in academic advisement and counseling of
students in accordance with requirements of the Financial Educational Rights
and Privacy Act (20 USC § 1232g);
5. Provide opportunities for and evidence of student and
graduate evaluation of curriculum and teaching and program effectiveness; and
6. Document actions taken in faculty and committee meetings
using a systematic plan of evaluation for total program review.
18VAC90-27-70. Admission of students.
A. Requirements for admission to a registered nursing
education program shall not be less than the requirements of § 54.1-3017 A 1 of
the Code of Virginia that will permit the graduate to be admitted to the
appropriate licensing examination. The equivalent of a four-year high school
course of study as required pursuant to § 54.1-3017 shall be considered to be:
1. A General Educational Development (GED) certificate for
high school equivalence; or
2. Satisfactory completion of the college courses required
by the nursing education program.
B. Requirements for admission to a practical nursing
education program shall not be less than the requirements of § 54.1-3020 A 1 of
the Code of Virginia that will permit the graduate to be admitted to the
appropriate licensing examination.
C. Requirements for admission, readmission, advanced
standing, progression, retention, dismissal, and graduation shall be available
to the students in written form.
D. Except for high school students, all applicants to a
nursing education program shall be required to submit to a criminal background
check prior to admission.
E. Transfer students may not be admitted until a nursing
education program has received full approval from the board.
18VAC90-27-80. Resources, facilities, publications, and
services.
A. Classrooms, conference rooms, laboratories, clinical
facilities, and offices shall be sufficient to meet the objectives of the
nursing education program and the needs of the students, faculty, administration,
and staff and shall include private areas for faculty-student conferences. The
nursing education program shall provide facilities that meet federal and state
requirements, including:
1. Comfortable temperatures;
2. Clean and safe conditions;
3. Adequate lighting;
4. Adequate space to accommodate all students; and
5. Instructional technology and equipment needed for
simulating client care.
B. The program shall have learning resources and
technology that are current, pertinent, and accessible to students and faculty
and sufficient to meet the needs of the students and faculty.
C. Current information about the nursing education program
shall be published and distributed to applicants for admission and shall be
made available to the board. Such information shall include:
1. Description of the program to include whether the
program is accredited by a nursing education accrediting body;
2. Philosophy and objectives of the controlling institution
and of the nursing program;
3. Admission and graduation requirements, including the
policy on the use of a final comprehensive exam;
4. Fees and expenses;
5. Availability of financial aid;
6. Tuition refund policy;
7. Education facilities;
8. Availability of student activities and services;
9. Curriculum plan, to include course progression from
admission to graduation, the name of each course, theory hours, skills lab
hours, simulation hours (if used in lieu of direct client care hours), and
clinical hours;
10. Course descriptions, to include a complete overview of
what is taught in each course;
11. Faculty-staff roster;
12. School calendar;
13. Student grievance policy; and
14. Information about implications of criminal convictions.
D. Administrative support services shall be provided.
E. There shall be written
agreements with cooperating agencies that:
1. Ensure full control of student education by the faculty
of the nursing education program, including the selection and supervision of
learning experiences, to include the dismissal of students from the clinical
site if client safety is or may be compromised by the acts of the student;
2. Provide that faculty members or preceptors are present
in the clinical setting when students are providing direct client care;
3. Provide for cooperative planning with designated agency
personnel to ensure safe client care; and
4. Provide that faculty be readily available to students
and preceptors while students are involved in preceptorship experiences.
F. Cooperating agencies shall be approved by the
appropriate accreditation, evaluation, or licensing bodies, if such exist.
18VAC90-27-90. Curriculum.
A. Both classroom and online curricula shall reflect the
philosophy and objectives of the nursing education program and shall be
consistent with the law governing the practice of nursing.
B. Nursing education programs preparing for licensure as a
registered or practical nurse shall include:
1. Evidence-based didactic content and supervised clinical
experience in nursing, encompassing the attainment and maintenance of physical
and mental health and the prevention of illness for individuals and groups
throughout the life cycle and in a variety of acute, nonacute, community-based,
and long-term care clinical settings and experiences to include adult
medical/surgical nursing, geriatric nursing, maternal/infant (obstetrics,
gynecology, neonatal) nursing, mental health/psychiatric nursing, nursing
fundamentals, and pediatric nursing;
2. Concepts of the nursing process that include conducting
a focused nursing assessment of the client status that includes decision making
about who and when to inform, identifying client needs, planning for episodic
nursing care, implementing appropriate aspects of client care, contributing to
data collection and the evaluation of client outcomes, and the appropriate
reporting and documentation of collected data and care rendered;
3. Concepts of anatomy, physiology, chemistry, microbiology,
and the behavioral sciences;
4. Concepts of communication, growth and development,
nurse-client interpersonal relations, and client education, including:
a. Development of professional socialization that includes
working in interdisciplinary teams; and
b. Conflict resolution;
5. Concepts of ethics and the vocational and legal aspects
of nursing, including:
a. Regulations and sections of the Code of Virginia related
to nursing;
b. Client rights, privacy, and confidentiality;
c. Prevention of client abuse, neglect, and abandonment
throughout the life cycle, including instruction in the recognition,
intervention, and reporting by the nurse of evidence of child or elder abuse;
d. Professional responsibility, to include the role of the
practical and professional nurse;
e. Professional boundaries, to include appropriate use of
social media and electronic technology; and
f. History and trends in nursing and health care;
6. Concepts of pharmacology, dosage calculation, medication
administration, nutrition, and diet therapy;
7. Concepts of client-centered care, including:
a. Respect for cultural differences, values, and
preferences;
b. Promotion of healthy life styles for clients and
populations;
c. Promotion of a safe client environment;
d. Prevention and appropriate response to situations of
bioterrorism, natural and man-made disasters, and intimate partner and family
violence;
e. Use of critical thinking and clinical judgment in the
implementation of safe client care; and
f. Care of clients with multiple, chronic conditions; and
8. Development of management and supervisory skills,
including:
a. The use of technology in medication administration and
documentation of client care;
b. Participation in quality improvement processes and
systems to measure client outcomes and identify hazards and errors; and
c. Supervision of certified nurse aides, registered
medication aides, and unlicensed assistive personnel.
C. In addition to meeting curriculum requirements set
forth in subsection B of this section, registered nursing education programs
preparing for registered nurse licensure shall also include:
1. Evidence-based didactic content and supervised clinical
experiences in conducting a comprehensive nursing assessment that includes:
a. Extensive data collection, both initial and ongoing, for
individuals, families, groups, and communities addressing anticipated changes
in client conditions as well as emerging changes in a client's health status;
b. Recognition of alterations to previous client
conditions;
c. Synthesizing the biological, psychological, and social
aspects of the client's condition;
d. Evaluation of the effectiveness and impact of nursing
care;
e. Planning for nursing interventions and evaluating the
need for different interventions for individuals, groups, and communities;
f. Evaluation and implementation of the need to communicate
and consult with other health team members; and
g. Use of a broad and complete analysis to make independent
decisions and nursing diagnoses; and
2. Evidence-based didactic content and supervised
experiences in:
a. Development of clinical judgment;
b. Development of leadership skills and unit management;
c. Knowledge of the rules and principles for delegation of
nursing tasks to unlicensed persons;
d. Supervision of licensed practical nurses;
e. Involvement of clients in decision making and a plan of
care; and
f. Concepts of pathophysiology.
18VAC90-27-100. Curriculum for direct client care.
A. A nursing education program preparing a student for
licensure as a registered nurse shall provide a minimum of 500 hours of direct
client care supervised by qualified faculty. A nursing education program
preparing a student for licensure as a practical nurse shall provide a minimum
of 400 hours of direct client care supervised by qualified faculty. Direct
client care hours shall include experiences and settings as set forth in
18VAC90-27-90 B 1.
B. Licensed practical nurses transitioning into
prelicensure registered nursing programs may be awarded no more than 150
clinical hours of the 400 clinical hours received in a practical nursing
program. In a practical nursing to registered nursing transitional program, the
remainder of the clinical hours shall include registered nursing clinical
experience across the life cycle in adult medical/surgical nursing,
maternal/infant (obstetrics, gynecology, neonatal) nursing, mental
health/psychiatric nursing, and pediatric nursing.
C. Any observational experiences shall be planned in
cooperation with the agency involved to meet stated course objectives.
Observational experiences shall not be accepted toward the 400 or 500 minimum
clinical hours required. Observational objectives shall be available to
students, the clinical unit, and the board.
D. Simulation for direct client clinical hours.
1. No more than 25% of direct client contact hours may be
simulation. For prelicensure registered nursing programs, the total of
simulated client care hours cannot exceed 125 hours (25% of the required 500
hours). For prelicensure practical nursing programs, the total of simulated
client care hours cannot exceed 100 hours (25% of the required 400 hours).
2. No more than 50% of the total clinical hours for any
course may be used as simulation.
3. Skills acquisition and task training alone, as in the
traditional use of a skills laboratory, do not qualify as simulated client care
and therefore do not meet the requirements for direct client care hours.
4. Clinical simulation must be led by faculty who meet the
qualifications specified in 18VAC90-27-60.
5. Documentation of the following shall be available for
all simulated experiences:
a. Course description and objectives;
b. Type of simulation and location of simulated experience;
c. Number of simulated hours;
d. Faculty qualifications; and
e. Methods of debriefing.
18VAC90-27-110. Clinical practice of students.
A. In accordance with § 54.1-3001 of the Code of Virginia,
a nursing student, while enrolled in an approved nursing program, may perform
tasks that would constitute the practice of nursing. The student shall be
responsible and accountable for the safe performance of those direct client
care tasks to which he has been assigned.
B. Faculty shall be responsible for ensuring that students
perform only skills or services in direct client care for which they have
received instruction and have been found proficient by the instructor. Skills
checklists shall be maintained for each student.
C. Faculty members or preceptors providing onsite
supervision in the clinical care of clients shall be responsible and
accountable for the assignment of clients and tasks based on their assessment
and evaluation of the student's clinical knowledge and skills. Supervisors
shall also monitor clinical performance and intervene if necessary for the
safety and protection of the clients.
D. Clinical preceptors may be used to augment the faculty
and enhance the clinical learning experience. Faculty shall be responsible for
the designation of a preceptor for each student and shall communicate such
assignment with the preceptor. A preceptor may not further delegate the duties
of the preceptorship.
E. Preceptors shall provide to the nursing education
program evidence of competence to supervise student clinical experience for
quality and safety in each specialty area where they supervise students. The
clinical preceptor shall be licensed as a nurse at or above the level for which
the student is preparing.
F. Supervision of students.
1. When faculty are supervising direct client care by
students, the ratio of students to faculty shall not exceed 10 students to one
faculty member. The faculty member shall be on site in the clinical setting
solely to supervise students.
2. When preceptors are utilized for specified learning
experiences in clinical settings, the faculty member may supervise up to 15
students. In utilizing preceptors to supervise students in the clinical
setting, the ratio shall not exceed two students to one preceptor at any given
time. During the period in which students are in the clinical setting with a
preceptor, the faculty member shall be available for communication and
consultation with the preceptor.
G. Prior to beginning any preceptorship, the following
shall be required:
1. Written objectives, methodology, and evaluation
procedures for a specified period of time to include the dates of each
experience;
2. An orientation program for faculty, preceptors, and
students;
3. A skills checklist detailing the performance of skills
for which the student has had faculty-supervised clinical and didactic
preparation; and
4. The overall coordination by faculty who assume ultimate
responsibility for implementation, periodic monitoring, and evaluation.
18VAC90-27-120. Granting of initial program approval.
A. Initial approval may be granted when all documentation
required in 18VAC90-27-30 has been submitted and is deemed satisfactory to the
board and when the following conditions are met:
1. There is evidence that the requirements for organization
and administration and the philosophy and objectives of the program, as set
forth in 18VAC90-27-40 and 18VAC90-27-50, have been met;
2. A program director who meets board requirements has been
appointed, and there are sufficient faculty to initiate the program as required
in 18VAC90-27-60;
3. A written curriculum plan developed in accordance with
18VAC90-27-90 has been submitted and approved by the board;
4. A written systematic plan of evaluation has been
developed and approved by the board; and
5. The program is in compliance with requirements of
18VAC90-27-80 for resources, facilities, publications, and services as verified
by a satisfactory site visit conducted by a representative of the board.
B. If initial approval is granted:
1. The advertisement of the nursing program is authorized.
2. The admission of students is authorized, except that
transfer students are not authorized to be admitted until the program has
received full program approval.
3. The program director shall submit quarterly progress
reports to the board that shall include evidence of progress toward full
program approval and other information as required by the board.
18VAC90-27-130. Denying or withdrawing initial program
approval.
A. Denial of initial program approval.
1. Initial approval may be denied for causes enumerated in
18VAC90-27-140.
2. If initial approval is denied:
a. The program shall be given an option of correcting the
deficiencies cited by the board during the time remaining in its initial
12-month period following receipt of the application.
b. No further action regarding the application shall be
required of the board unless the program requests, within 30 days of the
mailing of the decision, an informal conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019
and 54.1-109 of the Code of Virginia.
3. If denial is recommended following the informal
conference, the recommendation shall be presented to the board or a panel
thereof for review and action.
4. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee to deny initial approval is accepted by the board or a panel thereof,
the decision shall be reflected in a board order, and no further action by the
board is required. The program may request a formal hearing within 30 days from
entry of the order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 of the Code of Virginia.
5. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to deny initial approval, the program shall be
advised of the right to appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court in
accordance with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the
Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
B. Withdrawal of initial program approval.
1. Initial approval shall be withdrawn and the program
closed if:
a. The program has not admitted students within six months
of approval of its application;
b. The program fails to submit evidence of progression
toward full program approval; or
c. For any of the causes enumerated in 18VAC90-27-140.
2. If a decision is made to withdraw initial approval, no
further action shall be required by the board unless the program within 30 days
of the mailing of the decision requests an informal conference pursuant to
§§ 2.2-4019 and 54.1-109 of the Code of Virginia.
3. If withdrawal of initial approval is recommended
following the informal conference, the recommendation shall be presented to the
board or a panel thereof for review and action.
4. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee to withdraw initial approval is accepted by the board or a panel
thereof, the decision shall be reflected in a board order, and no further
action by the board is required unless the program requests a formal hearing
within 30 days from entry of the order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 of
the Code of Virginia.
5. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to withdraw initial approval, the program shall
be advised of the right to appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court
in accordance with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the
Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
18VAC90-27-140. Causes for denial or withdrawal of nursing
education program approval.
A. Denial or withdrawal of program approval may be based
upon the following:
1. Failing to demonstrate compliance with program
requirements in Part II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.), III (18VAC90-27-150 et seq.),
or IV (18VAC90-27-210 et seq.) of this chapter.
2. Failing to comply with terms and conditions placed on a
program by the board.
3. Advertising for or admitting students without authority,
board approval, or contrary to a board restriction.
4. Failing to progress students through the program in
accordance with an approved timeframe.
5. Failing to provide evidence of progression toward
initial program approval within a timeframe established by the board.
6. Failing to provide evidence of progression toward full
program approval within a timeframe established by the board.
7. Failing to respond to requests for information required
from board representatives.
8. Fraudulently submitting documents or statements to the
board or its representatives.
9. Having had past actions taken by the board, other
states, or accrediting entities regarding the same nursing education program
operating in another jurisdiction.
10. Failing to maintain a pass rate of 80% on the NCLEX for
graduates of the program as required by 18VAC90-27-210.
11. Failing to comply with an order of the board or with
any terms and conditions placed upon it by the board for continued approval.
12. Having the program director, owner, or operator of the
program convicted of a felony or a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude or his
professional license disciplined by a licensing body or regulatory authority.
13. Failing to pay the required fee for a survey or site
visit.
B. Withdrawal of nursing education program approval may
occur at any stage in the application or approval process pursuant to
procedures enumerated in 18VAC90-27-130, 18VAC90-27-160, and 18VAC90-27-230.
C. Programs with approval denied or withdrawn may not
accept or admit additional students into the program effective upon the date of
entry of the board's final order to deny or withdraw approval. Further, the
program shall submit quarterly reports until the program is closed, and the
program shall comply with board requirements regarding closure of a program as
stated in 18VAC90-27-240.
Part III
Full Approval for a Nursing Education Program
18VAC90-27-150. Granting full program approval.
A. Full approval may be granted when:
1. A self-evaluation report of compliance with Part II
(18VAC90-27-30 et seq.) of this chapter and a survey visit fee as specified in
18VAC90-27-20 have been submitted and received by the board;
2. The program has achieved a passage rate of not less than
80% for the program's first-time test takers taking the NCLEX based on at least
20 graduates within a two-year period; and
3. A satisfactory survey visit and report have been made by
a representative of the board verifying that the program is in compliance with
all requirements for program approval.
B. If full approval is granted, the program shall continue
to comply with all requirements in Parts II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.) and III
(18VAC90-27-150 et seq.) of this chapter, and admission of transfer students is
authorized.
18VAC90-27-160. Denying full program approval.
A. Denial of full program approval may occur for causes
enumerated in 18VAC90-27-140.
B. If full program approval is denied, the board shall
also be authorized to do one of the following:
1. The board may continue the program on initial program
approval with terms and conditions to be met within the timeframe specified by
the board; or
2. The board may withdraw initial program approval.
C. If the board takes one of the actions specified in
subsection B of this section, the following shall apply:
1. No further action will be required of the board unless
the program within 30 days of the mailing of the decision requests an informal
conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019 and 54.1-109 the Code of Virginia.
2. If continued initial program approval with terms and
conditions or withdrawal of initial approval is recommended following the
informal conference, the recommendation shall be presented to the board or a
panel thereof for review and action.
3. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee is accepted by the board or a panel thereof, the decision shall be
reflected in a board order, and no further action by the board regarding the
application is required. The program may request a formal hearing within 30
days from entry of the order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 and subdivision 11
of § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia.
4. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to deny full approval or withdraw or continue on
initial approval with terms or conditions, the program shall be advised of the
right to appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court in accordance
with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme
Court of Virginia.
D. If a program is denied full approval and initial
approval withdrawn, no additional students may be accepted into the program,
effective upon the date of entry of the board's final order to deny or withdraw
approval. Further, the program shall submit quarterly reports until the program
is closed, and the program shall comply with board requirements regarding
closure of a program as stated in 18VAC90-27-240.
18VAC90-27-170. Requests for exception to requirements for
faculty.
After full approval has been granted, a program may
request board approval for exceptions to requirements of 18VAC90-27-60 for
faculty as follows:
1. Initial request for exception.
a. The program director shall submit a request for initial
exception in writing to the board for consideration prior to the academic year
during which the nursing faculty member is scheduled to teach or whenever an
unexpected vacancy has occurred.
b. A description of teaching assignment, a curriculum
vitae, and a statement of intent from the prospective faculty member to pursue
the required degree shall accompany each request.
c. The executive director of the board shall be authorized
to make the initial decision on requests for exceptions. Any appeal of that
decision shall be in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative
Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
2. Request for continuing exception.
a. Continuing exception will be based on the progress of
the nursing faculty member toward meeting the degree required by this chapter
during each year for which the exception is requested.
b. The program director shall submit the request for
continuing exception in writing prior to the next academic year during which
the nursing faculty member is scheduled to teach.
c. A list of courses required for the degree being pursued
and college transcripts showing successful completion of a minimum of two of
the courses during the past academic year shall accompany each request.
d. Any request for continuing exception shall be considered
by the informal factfinding committee, which shall make a recommendation to the
board.
18VAC90-27-180. Records and provision of information.
A. Requirements for admission, readmission, advanced
standing, progression, retention, dismissal, and graduation shall be readily
available to the students in written form.
B. A system of records shall be maintained and be made
available to the board representative and shall include:
1. Data relating to accreditation by any agency or body.
2. Course outlines.
3. Minutes of faculty and committee meetings, including
documentation of the use of a systematic plan of evaluation for total program
review and including those faculty members in attendance.
4. Record of and disposition of complaints.
C. A file shall be maintained for each student. Provision
shall be made for the protection of student and graduate files against loss,
destruction, and unauthorized use. Each file shall be available to the board
representative and shall include the student's:
1. Application, including the date of its submission and
the date of admission into the program;
2. High school transcript or copy of high school
equivalence certificate, and if the student is a foreign graduate, a transcript
translated into English;
3. Current record of achievement to include classroom
grades, skills checklists, and clinical hours for each course; and
4. A final transcript retained in the permanent file of the
institution to include dates of admission and completion of coursework,
graduation date, name and address of graduate, the dates of each semester or
term, course grades, and authorized signature.
D. Current information about the nursing education program
shall be published and distributed to students and applicants for admission and
shall be made available to the board. In addition to information specified in
18VAC90-27-80 C, the following information shall be included:
1. Annual passage rates on NCLEX for the past five years;
and
2. Accreditation status.
18VAC90-27-190. Evaluation of resources; written agreements
with cooperating agencies.
A. Periodic evaluations of resources, facilities, and
services shall be conducted by the administration, faculty, students, and
graduates of the nursing education program, including an employer evaluation
for graduates of the nursing education program. Such evaluation shall include
assurance that at least 80% of all clinical experiences are conducted in
Virginia unless an exception has been granted by the board.
B. Current written agreements with cooperating agencies shall
be maintained and reviewed annually and shall be in accordance with
18VAC90-27-80 E.
C. Upon request, a program shall provide a clinical agency
summary on a form provided by the board.
D. Upon request and if applicable, the program shall
provide (i) documentation of board approval for use of clinical sites located
50 or more miles from the school, and (ii) for use of clinical experiences
conducted outside of Virginia, documented approval from the agency that has
authority to approve clinical placement of students in that state.
18VAC90-27-200. Program changes.
A. The following shall be reported to the board within 10
days of the change or receipt of a report from an accrediting body:
1. Change in the program director, governing body, or
parent institution;
2. Adverse action taken by a licensing authority against
the program director, governing body, or parent institution;
3. Conviction of a felony or misdemeanor involving moral
turpitude against the program director, owner, or operator of the program;
4. Change in the physical location of the program;
5. Change in the availability of clinical sites;
6. Change in financial resources that could substantively
affect the nursing education program;
7. Change in content of curriculum, faculty, or method of
delivery that affects 25% or more of the total hours of didactic and clinical
instruction;
8. Change in accreditation status; and
9. A final report with findings and recommendations from
the accrediting body.
B. Other curriculum or faculty changes shall be reported
to the board with the annual report required in 18VAC90-27-220 A.
Part IV
Continued Approval of Nursing Education Programs
18VAC90-27-210. Passage rate on national examination.
A. For the purpose of continued approval by the board, a
nursing education program shall maintain a passage rate for first-time test
takers on the NCLEX that is not less than 80%, calculated on the cumulative
results of the past four quarters of all graduates in each calendar year
regardless of where the graduate is seeking licensure.
B. If an approved program falls below 80% for one year, it
shall submit a plan of correction to the board. If an approved program falls
below 80% for two consecutive years, the board shall place the program on
conditional approval with terms and conditions, require the program to submit a
plan of correction, and conduct a site visit. Prior to the conduct of such a visit,
the program shall submit the fee for a site visit for the NCLEX passage rate as
required by 18VAC90-27-20. If a program falls below 80% for three consecutive
years, the board may withdraw program approval.
C. For the purpose of program evaluation, the board may
provide to the program the NCLEX examination results of its graduates. However,
further release of such information by the program shall not be authorized
without written authorization from the candidate.
18VAC90-27-220. Maintaining an approved nursing education
program.
A. The program director of each nursing education program
shall submit an annual report to the board.
B. Each nursing education program shall be reevaluated as
follows:
1. Every nursing education program that has not achieved
accreditation as defined in 18VAC90-27-10 shall be reevaluated at least every
five years by submission of a comprehensive self-evaluation report based on
Parts II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.) and III (18VAC90-27-150 et seq.) of this
chapter and a survey visit by a representative or representatives of the board
on dates mutually acceptable to the institution and the board.
2. A program that has maintained accreditation as defined
in 18VAC90-27-10 shall be reevaluated at least every 10 years by submission of
a comprehensive self-evaluation report as provided by the board. As evidence of
compliance with specific requirements of this chapter, the board may accept the
most recent study report, site visit report, and final decision letter from the
accrediting body. The board may require additional information or a site visit
to ensure compliance with requirements of this chapter. If accreditation has
been withdrawn or a program has been placed on probation by the accrediting
body, the board may require a survey visit. If a program fails to submit the
documentation required in this subdivision, the requirements of subdivision 1
of this subsection shall apply.
C. Interim site or survey visits shall be made to the
institution by board representatives at any time within the initial approval
period or full approval period as deemed necessary by the board. Prior to the
conduct of such a visit, the program shall submit the fee for a survey visit as
required by 18VAC90-27-20.
D. Failure to submit the required fee for a survey or site
visit may subject an education program to board action or withdrawal of board
approval.
18VAC90-27-230. Continuing and withdrawal of full approval.
A. The board shall receive and review the self-evaluation
and survey reports required in 18VAC90-27-220 B or complaints relating to
program compliance. Following review, the board may continue the program on
full approval so long as it remains in compliance with all requirements in
Parts II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.), III (18VAC90-27-150 et seq.), and IV (18VAC90-27-210
et seq.) of this chapter.
B. If the board determines that a program is not
maintaining the requirements of Parts II, III, and IV of this chapter or for
causes enumerated in 18VAC90-27-140, the board may:
1. Place the program on conditional approval with terms and
conditions to be met within the timeframe specified by the board; or
2. Withdraw program approval.
C. If the board either places a program on conditional
approval with terms and conditions to be met within a timeframe specified by
the board or withdraws approval, the following shall apply:
1. No further action will be required of the board unless
the program requests an informal conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019 and
54.1-109 of the Code of Virginia.
2. If withdrawal or continued program approval with terms
and conditions is recommended following the informal conference, the
recommendation shall be presented to the board or a panel thereof for review
and action.
3. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee is accepted by the board or a panel thereof, the decision shall be
reflected in a board order and no further action by the board is required
unless the program requests a formal hearing within 30 days from entry of the
order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 of the Code of Virginia.
4. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to withdraw approval or continue on conditional
approval with terms or conditions, the program shall be advised of the right to
appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court in accordance with
§ 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme
Court of Virginia.
D. If a program approval is withdrawn, no additional
students may be admitted into the program effective upon the date of entry of
the board's final order to withdraw approval. Further, the program shall submit
quarterly reports until the program is closed, and the program must comply with
board requirements regarding closure of a program as stated in 18VAC90-27-240.
18VAC90-27-240. Closing of an approved nursing education
program; custody of records.
A. When the governing institution anticipates the closing
of a nursing education program, the governing institution shall notify the
board in writing, stating the reason, plan, and date of intended closing.
The governing institution shall assist in the transfer of
students to other approved programs with the following conditions:
1. The program shall continue to meet the standards
required for approval until all students are transferred and shall submit a
quarterly report to the board regarding progress toward closure.
2. The program shall provide to the board a list of the
names of students who have been transferred to approved programs, and the date
on which the last student was transferred.
3. The date on which the last student was transferred shall
be the closing date of the program.
B. When the board denies or withdraws approval of a
program, the governing institution shall comply with the following procedures:
1. The program shall be closed according to a timeframe
established by the board.
2. The program shall provide to the board a list of the
names of students who have transferred to approved programs and the date on
which the last student was transferred shall be submitted to the board by the
governing institution.
3. The program shall provide quarterly reports to the board
regarding progress toward closure.
C. Provision shall be made for custody of records as
follows:
1. If the governing institution continues to function, it
shall assume responsibility for the records of the students and the graduates.
The governing institution shall inform the board of the arrangements made to
safeguard the records.
2. If the governing institution ceases to exist, the
academic transcript of each student and graduate shall be transferred by the
institution to the board for safekeeping.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building,
2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (18VAC90-27)
Application
to Establish a Nursing Education Program (rev. 10/2016)
Survey
Visit Report (rev. 10/2016)
Survey
Visit Report for Programs Having Accreditation (rev. 10/2016)
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4643; Filed December 17, 2016, 1:47 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF NURSING
Fast-Track Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC90-19. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Nursing (adding 18VAC90-19-10 through 18VAC90-19-280).
18VAC90-20. Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing (repealing 18VAC90-20-10 through
18VAC90-20-460).
18VAC90-27. Regulations for Nursing Education Programs (adding 18VAC90-27-10 through 18VAC90-27-240).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: February 8, 2017.
Effective Date: February 24, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jay P. Douglas, R.N., Executive
Director, Board of Nursing, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA
23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4520, FAX (804) 527-4455, or email
jay.douglas@dhp.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 54.1-2400 authorizes the Board of Nursing
to promulgate regulations to administer the regulatory system. In addition,
§ 54.1-3005 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the Board of Nursing to
approve nursing education programs.
Purpose: The amended regulation clarifies several
provisions that have caused confusion for applicants or approved education
programs. To the extent the elimination of unworkable requirements for nursing
education programs facilitates the approval of such programs, the proposal may
enable programs to enroll nursing students and encourage hospitals to serve as
clinical sites for training. Such training is essential for students who will
be licensed nurses to protect the health and safety of patients and clients
whom they will serve.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
board is using the fast-track rulemaking process because the changes being made
to the regulations for nursing education programs are eliminating burdensome
and problematic requirements. Therefore, the board would like to promulgate
those amendments as soon as possible. The amendments to the regulations for
licensure and practice of nurses are clarifying only and do not change any
current requirement for nurses or clinical nurse specialists. There should
be no opposition to the amendments, so a fast-track action is appropriate.
Substance: 18VAC90-20 is repealed and repromulgated into
18VAC90-19, Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing, and 18VAC90-27,
Regulations Governing Nursing Education Programs. In 18VAC90-19, requirements
for licensure of nurses are not changed, but there are several amendments to
clarify the national examination required for licensure and the educational
qualifications for persons whose nursing education was completed in another
country. Amendments to the sections on clinical nurse specialists do not change
the current requirements but are consistent with legislation passed in the 2016
Session of the General Assembly.
In 18VAC90-27, amendments delete several requirements for
nursing education programs that have been problematic and include the State
Council of Higher Education for Virginia as the approving body for certain
nursing education programs.
Issues: There are no primary advantages or disadvantages
to the public; clarification of the regulations will benefit applicants for licensure,
and elimination of some current requirements will benefit nursing education
programs. The primary advantage to the Board of Nursing is the clarification of
qualifications for licensure, which may eliminate a few of the inquiries from
applicants. Likewise, the elimination of several problematic requirements for
education programs will reduce the time spent in assisting programs with
compliance.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. As the result
of a general review, the Board of Nursing (Board) proposes to repeal its
comprehensive nursing regulation and replace it with two new regulations. One
of the replacement regulations will govern the practice of nursing and the
other will govern nursing education programs. Although most of this proposed
action will only divide up the current regulation and migrate it unchanged into
the two new regulations, the Board also proposes several substantive changes to
regulatory requirements.
Specifically, the Board proposes to remove references to Board
approval of clinical nursing specialist education programs and to add the State
Council of Higher Education for Virginia (SCHEV) as an entity that may approve
nursing education programs. The Board also proposes to require educational
institutions to list the total clinical hours obtained in their program on
student transcripts instead of having to list the number of clinic hours
obtained from each course in their program. Further the Board proposes to
eliminate the requirement that entities which provide clinical experience
opportunities for educational programs specify the number of nursing students
allowed in each nursing unit in their written agreements with educational
programs. Finally, the Board proposes to remove general language that refers to
passage of examinations and replace it with examination requirements that
specifically reference the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX).
Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for all
proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, the Board has one
comprehensive regulation that covers both nursing licensure and nursing
education programs. In order to make the rules for nurses easier to search, the
Board now proposes to repeal this regulation and promulgate two replacement
regulations that will divide up the regulatory provisions into two parts. To
the extent that this action migrates regulatory requirements unchanged to one
of the new regulations, no regulated entity is likely to incur costs on account
of that migration. Regulated entities, as well as other interested parties, are
likely to benefit from this regulatory matter being split into shorter, easier
to read regulations.
In addition to dividing regulatory provisions into two separate
regulations, the Board proposes several changes to actual regulatory
requirements. Current regulation references the Board's authority to approve
educational programs for clinical nurse specialists. However, Chapter 83 of the
2016 Acts of Assembly removed this authority. The Board now proposes to conform
nursing regulations to this legislation by removing these regulatory
references. This change will benefit regulated entities as it removes now
obsolete language. No entity is likely to incur costs on account of this
change.
Current regulation requires that institutions that wish to
establish nursing education programs to be approved by the Virginia Department
of Education. The Board proposes to add SCHEV as an entity that may also approve
nursing education programs. No teaching institutions are likely to incur costs
on account of this change. These institutions will likely benefit from the
additional flexibility of having an additional entity that can approve
programs.
Current regulation requires that entities that contract with
nursing education programs1 to provide clinical experience
opportunities specify in their written agreements how many students will be
allowed in each nursing unit. It also requires nursing education programs to keep
student transcripts that include the number of clinical hours completed for
each clinical course completed. Board staff reports that requiring written
agreements to include the number of nursing students per nursing unit may
discourage large hospitals with many nursing units from signing agreements with
nursing education programs. Because of this, the Board now proposes to
eliminate this requirement. The Board also proposes to modify transcript
requirements so that nursing education programs will only have to keep records
on the total number of clinical hours completed by any student because the
Board does not need this information broken down by course. These changes will
provide more flexibility to both nursing education programs and the clinical
experience providers that contract with them.
Finally, current regulation references licensure examinations
(in the plural) in several places. Board staff reports that the only
examination that is acceptable for licensure in Virginia and other states is
the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX). In order to eliminate any
confusion that applicants might experience because of language that implies
that there is more than one acceptable licensure exam, the Board proposes to
replace this general language with specific references to the NCLEX. This
change will benefit affected entities by clarifying what examination they need
to pass in order to be licensed.
Businesses and Entities Affected. This proposed regulatory
action will affect all nursing education programs and all applicants for
nursing licensure. Board staff reports that there are 82 registered nursing
(RN) and 61 licensed practical nursing (LPN) education programs in the
Commonwealth and that the Board receives approximately 10,000 applications for
RN and LPN licensure each year.
Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be
particularly affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect employment in the Commonwealth.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed changes will likely not affect the use or value of private property in
the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. No small businesses are likely to
incur any additional costs on account of these proposed changes.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No small
businesses are likely to incur any additional costs on account of these
proposed changes.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. No businesses are likely to incur any additional
costs on account of these proposed changes.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Other Entities. No other entities are likely to be adversely
affected by these proposed changes.
_______________________________
1 These entities can include any agencies or
institutions that provide skilled nursing services, like hospitals and nursing
homes, where students can complete required supervised clinical experience
hours.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
of Nursing concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget.
Summary:
The Board of Nursing repeals Regulations Governing the
Practice of Nursing (18VAC90-20) and replaces it with two regulatory chapters
derived from 18VAC60-20. The Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing
(18VAC60-19) includes provisions that are applicable to the licensure and
practice of nurses. The requirements for licensure of nurses are not changed,
but several clarifying amendments are made to the national examination required
for licensure and the educational qualifications for persons whose nursing
education was completed in another country. The requirements for clinical nurse
specialists are not changed but the board's authority to approve educational
programs for clinical nurse specialists is removed consistent with Chapter 83
of the 2016 Acts of Assembly. Regulations for Nursing Education Programs
(18VAC60-27) includes provisions that are applicable to nursing education
programs. Amendments include (i) adding the State Council of Higher Education
for Virginia as an approving body for certain nursing education programs, (ii)
requiring an educational institution to list the total clinical hours obtained
in its program on student transcripts instead of listing the number of clinic
hours obtained from each course, (iii) eliminating the requirement that an
entity providing clinical experience opportunities for educational programs
specify the number of nursing students allowed in each nursing unit in its
written agreements with educational programs, and (iv) replacing general
language to passage of an examination with a specific reference to the National
Council Licensure Examination.
CHAPTER 19
REGULATIONS GOVERNING THE PRACTICE OF NURSING
Part I
General Provisions
18VAC90-19-10. Definitions.
In addition to words and terms defined in §§ 54.1-3000 and
54.1-3030 of the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in
this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Active practice" means activities performed,
whether or not for compensation, for which an active license to practice
nursing is required.
"Board" means the Board of Nursing.
"CGFNS" means the Commission on Graduates of
Foreign Nursing Schools.
"Contact hour" means 50 minutes of continuing
education coursework or activity.
"National certifying organization" means an
organization that has as one of its purposes the certification of a specialty
in nursing based on an examination attesting to the knowledge of the nurse for
practice in the specialty area.
"NCLEX" means the National Council Licensure
Examination.
"NCSBN" means the National Council of State
Boards of Nursing.
"Primary state of residence" means the state of
a person's declared fixed, permanent, and principal home or domicile for legal
purposes.
18VAC90-19-20. Delegation of authority.
The executive director shall be delegated the authority to
issue licenses and certificates and execute all notices, orders, and official
documents of the board unless the board directs otherwise.
18VAC90-19-30. Fees.
Fees required by the board are:
1. Application for licensure by
examination - RN
|
$190
|
2. Application for licensure by
endorsement - RN
|
$190
|
3. Application for licensure by
examination - LPN
|
$170
|
4. Application for licensure by
endorsement - LPN
|
$170
|
5. Reapplication for licensure by
examination
|
$50
|
6. Biennial licensure renewal -
RN
|
$140
|
7. Biennial inactive licensure
renewal - RN
|
$70
|
8. Biennial licensure renewal -
LPN
|
$120
|
9. Biennial inactive licensure
renewal - LPN
|
$60
|
10. Late renewal - RN
|
$50
|
11. Late renewal - LPN
|
$40
|
12. Reinstatement of lapsed
license - RN
|
$225
|
13. Reinstatement of lapsed
license - LPN
|
$200
|
14. Reinstatement of suspended or
revoked license
|
$300
|
15. Duplicate license
|
$15
|
16. Replacement wall certificate
|
$25
|
17. Verification of license
|
$35
|
18. Transcript of all or part of
applicant or licensee records
|
$35
|
19. Returned check charge
|
$35
|
20. Application for CNS
registration
|
$130
|
21. Biennial renewal of CNS
registration
|
$80
|
22. Reinstatement of lapsed CNS
registration
|
$125
|
23. Verification of CNS
registration to another jurisdiction
|
$35
|
24. Late renewal of CNS
registration
|
$35
|
18VAC90-19-40. Duplicate license.
A duplicate license for the current renewal period shall
be issued by the board upon receipt of the required information and fee.
18VAC90-19-50. Identification; accuracy of records.
A. Any person regulated by this chapter who provides
direct client care shall, while on duty, wear identification that is clearly
visible and indicates the person's first and last name and the appropriate title
for the license, registration, or student status under which he is practicing
in that setting. Any person practicing in hospital emergency departments,
psychiatric and mental health units and programs, or in health care facilities
units offering treatment for clients in custody of state or local
law-enforcement agencies may use identification badges with first name and
first letter only of last name and appropriate title.
B. A licensee who has changed his name shall submit as
legal proof to the board a copy of the marriage certificate, a certificate of
naturalization, or court order evidencing the change. A duplicate license shall
be issued by the board upon receipt of such evidence and the required fee.
C. Each licensee shall maintain an address of record with
the board. Any change in the address of record or in the public address, if
different from the address of record, shall be submitted by a licensee
electronically or in writing to the board within 30 days of such change. All
notices required by law and by this chapter to be mailed by the board to any
licensee shall be validly given when mailed to the latest address of record on
file with the board.
18VAC90-19-60. Data collection of nursing workforce
information.
A. With such funds as are appropriated for the purpose of
data collection and consistent with the provisions of § 54.1-2506.1 of the Code
of Virginia, the board shall collect workforce information biennially from a
representative sample of registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, and certified
nurse aides and shall make such information available to the public. Data
collected shall be compiled, stored, and released in compliance with §
54.1-3012.1 of the Code of Virginia.
B. The information to be collected on nurses shall include
(i) demographic data to include age, sex, and ethnicity; (ii) level of
education; (iii) employment status; (iv) employment setting or settings such as
in a hospital, physician's office, or nursing home; (v) geographic location of
employment; (vi) type of nursing position or area of specialty; and (vii)
number of hours worked per week in each setting. In addition, the board may
determine other data to be collected as necessary.
18VAC90-19-70. Supervision of licensed practical nurses.
Licensed practical nursing shall be performed under the
direction or supervision of a licensed medical practitioner, a registered
nurse, or a licensed dentist.
Part II
Multistate Licensure Privilege
18VAC90-19-80. Issuance of a license with a multistate
licensure privilege.
A. To be issued a license with a multistate licensure
privilege by the board, a nurse currently licensed in Virginia or a person
applying for licensure in Virginia shall submit a declaration stating that his
primary residence is in Virginia. Evidence of a primary state of residence may
be required to include:
1. A driver's license with a home address;
2. A voter registration card displaying a home address;
3. A federal or state tax return declaring the primary
state of residence;
4. A Military Form No. 2058 – state of legal residence; or
5. A W-2 from the United States government or any bureau,
division, or agency thereof indicating the declared state of residence.
B. A nurse on a visa from another country applying for
licensure in Virginia may declare either the country of origin or Virginia as
the primary state of residence. If the foreign country is declared as the
primary state of residence, a single state license shall be issued by Virginia.
C. A nurse changing the primary state of residence from
another party state to Virginia may continue to practice under the former party
state license and multistate licensure privilege during the processing of the
nurse's licensure application by the board for a period not to exceed 90 days.
1. If a nurse is under a pending investigation by a former
home state, the licensure application in Virginia shall be held in abeyance and
the 90-day authorization to practice stayed until resolution of the pending
investigation.
2. A license issued by a former party state shall no longer
be valid upon issuance of a license by the board.
3. If the board denies licensure to an applicant from
another party state, it shall notify the former home state within 10 business
days, and the former home state may take action in accordance with the laws and
regulations of that state.
D. A license issued by a party state is valid for practice
in all other party states, unless clearly designated as valid only in the state
that issued the license. When a party state issues a license authorizing practice
only in that state and not authorizing practice in other party states, the
license shall be clearly marked with words indicating that it is valid only in
the state of issuance.
18VAC90-19-90. Limitations of a multistate licensure
privilege.
A. The board shall include in all disciplinary orders that
limit practice or require monitoring the requirement that the licensee subject
to the order shall agree to limit practice to Virginia during the period in
which the order is in effect. A nurse may be allowed to practice in other party
states while an order is in effect with prior written authorization from both
the board and boards of other party states.
B. An individual who had a license that was surrendered,
revoked, or suspended or an application denied for cause in a prior state of
primary residence may be issued a single state license in a new primary state
of residence until such time as the individual would be eligible for an
unrestricted license by the prior state of adverse action. Once eligible for licensure
in the prior state, a multistate license may be issued.
18VAC90-19-100. Access to information in the coordinated
licensure information system.
A licensee may submit a request in writing to the board to
review the public data relating to the licensee maintained in the coordinated
licensure information system. In the event a licensee asserts that any related
data is inaccurate, the burden of proof shall be upon the licensee to provide
evidence that substantiates such claim. The board shall verify and correct
inaccurate data in the information system within 10 business days.
Part III
Licensure and Renewal; Reinstatement
18VAC90-19-110. Licensure by examination.
A. The board shall authorize the administration of the
NCLEX for registered nurse licensure and practical nurse licensure.
B. A candidate shall be eligible to take the NCLEX
examination (i) upon receipt by the board of the completed application, the
fee, and an official transcript from the nursing education program and (ii)
when a determination has been made that no grounds exist upon which the board
may deny licensure pursuant to § 54.1-3007 of the Code of Virginia.
C. To establish eligibility for licensure by examination,
an applicant for the licensing examination shall:
1. File the required application, any necessary
documentation and fee, including a criminal history background check as
required by § 54.1-3005.1 of the Code of Virginia.
2. Arrange for the board to receive an official transcript
from the nursing education program that shows either:
a. That the degree or diploma has been awarded and the date
of graduation or conferral; or
b. That all requirements for awarding the degree or diploma
have been met and that specifies the date of conferral.
3. File a new application and reapplication fee if:
a. The examination is not taken within 12 months of the
date that the board determines the applicant to be eligible; or
b. Eligibility is not established within 12 months of the
original filing date.
D. The minimum passing standard on the examination for
registered nurse licensure and practical nurse licensure shall be determined by
the board.
E. Any applicant suspected of giving or receiving
unauthorized assistance during the examination may be noticed for a hearing
pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
seq. of the Code of Virginia) to determine eligibility for licensure or
reexamination.
F. Practice of nursing pending receipt of examination
results.
1. A graduate who has filed a completed application for
licensure in Virginia and has received an authorization letter issued by the
board may practice nursing in Virginia from the date of the authorization
letter. The period of practice shall not exceed 90 days between the date of
successful completion of the nursing education program, as documented on the
applicant's transcript, and the publication of the results of the candidate's
first licensing examination.
2. Candidates who practice nursing as provided in
subdivision 1 of this subsection shall use the designation "R.N.
Applicant" or "L.P.N. Applicant" on a nametag or when signing
official records.
3. The designations "R.N. Applicant" and
"L.P.N. Applicant" shall not be used by applicants who either do not
take the examination within 90 days following receipt of the authorization
letter from the board or who have failed the examination.
G. Applicants who fail the examination.
1. An applicant who fails the licensing examination shall
not be licensed or be authorized to practice nursing in Virginia.
2. An applicant for licensure by reexamination shall file
the required board application and reapplication fee in order to establish
eligibility for reexamination.
3. Applicants who have failed the examination for licensure
in another United States jurisdiction but satisfy the qualifications for
licensure in this jurisdiction may apply for licensure by examination in
Virginia. Such applicants shall submit the required application and fee. Such
applicants shall not, however, be permitted to practice nursing in Virginia
until the requisite license has been issued.
18VAC90-19-120. Licensure by endorsement.
A. A graduate of an approved nursing education program who
has been licensed by examination in another United States jurisdiction and
whose license is in good standing, or is eligible for reinstatement if lapsed,
shall be eligible for licensure by endorsement in Virginia provided the
applicant satisfies the same requirements for registered nurse or practical
nurse licensure as those seeking initial licensure in Virginia.
1. Applicants who have graduated from approved nursing
education programs that did not require a sufficient number of clinical hours
as specified in 18VAC90-27-100 may qualify for licensure if they can provide
evidence of at least 960 hours of clinical practice with an active,
unencumbered license in another United States jurisdiction.
2. Applicants whose basic nursing education was received in
another country shall meet the requirements of 18VAC90-19-130.
3. A graduate of a nursing school in Canada where English
was the primary language shall be eligible for licensure by endorsement
provided the applicant has passed the Canadian Registered Nurses Examination
and holds an unrestricted license in Canada.
B. An applicant for licensure by endorsement who has
submitted a criminal history background check as required by § 54.1-3005.1 of
the Code of Virginia and the required application and fee and has submitted the
required form to the appropriate credentialing agency for verification of
licensure may practice for 30 days upon receipt of an authorization letter from
the board. If an applicant has not received a Virginia license within 30 days
and wishes to continue practice, he shall seek an extension of authorization to
practice by submitting a request and evidence that he has requested
verification of licensure.
C. If the application is not completed within one year of
the initial filing date, the applicant shall submit a new application and fee.
18VAC90-19-130. Licensure of applicants from other
countries.
A. With the exception of applicants from Canada who are
eligible to be licensed by endorsement, applicants whose basic nursing
education was received in another country shall be scheduled to take the
licensing examination provided they meet the statutory qualifications for
licensure. Verification of qualification shall be based on documents submitted
as required in subsection B or C of this section.
B. Such applicants for registered nurse licensure shall:
1. Submit evidence from the CGFNS that the secondary
education and nursing education are comparable to those required for registered
nurses in the Commonwealth;
2. Submit evidence of passage of an English language
proficiency examination approved by the CGFNS, unless the applicant meets the
CGFNS criteria for an exemption from the requirement; and
3. Submit the required application and fee for licensure by
examination.
C. Such applicants for practical nurse licensure shall:
1. Submit evidence from the CGFNS that the secondary
education and nursing education are comparable to those required for practical
nurses in the Commonwealth;
2. Submit evidence of passage of an English language
proficiency examination approved by the CGFNS, unless the applicant meets the
CGFNS criteria for an exemption from the requirement; and
3. Submit the required application and fee for licensure by
examination.
D. An applicant for licensure as a registered nurse who
has met the requirements of subsections A and B of this section may practice
for a period not to exceed 90 days from the date of approval of an application
submitted to the board when he is working as a nonsupervisory staff nurse in a
licensed nursing home or certified nursing facility.
1. Applicants who practice nursing as provided in this
subsection shall use the designation "foreign nurse graduate" on
nametags or when signing official records.
2. During the 90-day period, the applicant shall take and
pass the licensing examination in order to remain eligible to practice nursing
in Virginia.
3. Any person practicing nursing under this exemption who
fails to pass the licensure examination within the 90-day period may not
thereafter practice nursing until he passes the licensing examination.
E. In addition to CGFNS, the board may accept credentials
from other recognized agencies that review credentials of foreign-educated
nurses if such agencies have been approved by the board.
18VAC90-19-140. Provisional licensure of applicants for
licensure as registered nurses.
A. Pursuant to § 54.1-3017.1 of the Code of Virginia, the
board may issue a provisional license to an applicant for the purpose of
meeting the 500 hours of supervised, direct, hands-on client care required of
an approved registered nurse education program.
B. Such applicants for provisional licensure shall submit:
1. A completed application for licensure by examination and
fee, including a criminal history background check as required by § 54.1-3005.1
of the Code of Virginia;
2. Documentation that the applicant has successfully
completed a nursing education program; and
3. Documentation of passage of the NCLEX in accordance with
18VAC90-19-110.
C. Requirements for hours of supervised clinical
experience in direct client care with a provisional license.
1. To qualify for licensure as a registered nurse, direct,
hands-on hours of supervised clinical experience shall include the areas of
adult medical/surgical nursing, geriatric nursing, maternal/infant (obstetrics,
gynecology, neonatal) nursing, mental health/psychiatric nursing, nursing
fundamentals, and pediatric nursing. Supervised clinical hours may be obtained
in employment in the role of a registered nurse or without compensation for the
purpose of meeting these requirements.
2. Hours of direct, hands-on clinical experience obtained
as part of the applicant's nursing education program and noted on the official
transcript shall be counted towards the minimum of 500 hours and in the
applicable areas of clinical practice.
3. For applicants with a current, active license as an LPN,
150 hours of credit shall be counted towards the 500-hour requirement.
4. 100 hours of credit may be applied towards the 500-hour
requirement for applicants who have successfully completed a nursing education
program that:
a. Requires students to pass competency-based assessments
of nursing knowledge as well as a summative performance assessment of clinical
competency that has been evaluated by the American Council on Education or any
other board-approved organization; and
b. Has a passage rate for first-time test takers on the
NCLEX that is not less than 80%, calculated on the cumulative results of the
past four quarters of all graduates in each calendar year regardless of where
the graduate is seeking licensure.
5. An applicant for licensure shall submit verification
from a supervisor of the number of hours of direct client care and the areas in
which clinical experiences in the role of a registered nurse were obtained.
D. Requirements for supervision of a provisional licensee.
1. The supervisor shall be on site and physically present
in the unit where the provisional licensee is providing clinical care of
clients.
2. In the supervision of provisional licensees in the
clinical setting, the ratio shall not exceed two provisional licensees to one
supervisor at any given time.
3. Licensed registered nurses providing supervision for a
provisional licensee shall:
a. Notify the board of the intent to provide supervision
for a provisional licensee on a form provided by the board;
b. Hold an active, unrestricted license or multistate
licensure privilege and have at least two years of active clinical practice as
a registered nurse prior to acting as a supervisor;
c. Be responsible and accountable for the assignment of
clients and tasks based on their assessment and evaluation of the supervisee's
clinical knowledge and skills;
d. Be required to monitor clinical performance and
intervene if necessary for the safety and protection of the clients; and
e. Document on a form provided by the board the frequency
and nature of the supervision of provisional licensees to verify completion of
hours of clinical experience.
E. The provisional status of the licensee shall be
disclosed to the client prior to treatment and shall be indicated on
identification worn by the provisional licensee.
F. All provisional licenses shall expire six months from
the date of issuance and may be renewed for an additional six months. Renewal
of a provisional license beyond the limit of 12 months may be granted and shall
be for good cause shown. A request for extension of a provisional license
beyond 12 months shall be made at least 30 days prior to its expiration.
18VAC90-19-150. Renewal of licenses.
A. Licensees born in even-numbered years shall renew their
licenses by the last day of the birth month in even-numbered years. Licensees
born in odd-numbered years shall renew their licenses by the last day of the
birth month in odd-numbered years.
B. A nurse shall be required to meet the requirements for
continued competency set forth in 18VAC90-19-160 to renew an active license.
C. A notice for renewal of license shall be sent by the
board to the last known address of the licensee. The licensee shall complete
the renewal form and submit it with the required fee.
D. Failure to receive the renewal form shall not relieve
the licensee of the responsibility for renewing the license by the expiration
date.
E. The license shall automatically lapse if the licensee
fails to renew by the expiration date.
F. Any person practicing nursing during the time a license
has lapsed shall be considered an illegal practitioner and shall be subject to
prosecution under the provisions of § 54.1-3008 of the Code of Virginia.
G. Upon renewal, all licensees shall declare their primary
state of residence. If the declared state of residence is another compact
state, the licensee is not eligible for renewal.
18VAC90-19-160. Continued competency requirements for
renewal of an active license.
A. To renew an active nursing license, a licensee shall
complete at least one of the following learning activities or courses:
1. Current specialty certification by a national certifying
organization, as defined in 18VAC90-19-10;
2. Completion of a minimum of three credit hours of
post-licensure academic education relevant to nursing practice, offered by a
regionally accredited college or university;
3. A board-approved refresher course in nursing;
4. Completion of nursing-related, evidence-based practice
project or research study;
5. Completion of publication as the author or co-author
during a renewal cycle;
6. Teaching or developing a nursing-related course
resulting in no less than three semester hours of college credit, a 15-week
course, or specialty certification;
7. Teaching or developing nursing-related continuing
education courses for up to 30 contact hours;
8. Fifteen contact hours of workshops, seminars,
conferences, or courses relevant to the practice of nursing and 640 hours of
active practice as a nurse; or
9. Thirty contact hours of workshops, seminars,
conferences, or courses relevant to the practice of nursing.
B. To meet requirements of subdivision A 8 or A 9 of this
section, workshops, seminars, conferences, or courses shall be offered by a
provider recognized or approved by one of the following:
1. American Nurses Credentialing Center American Nurses
Association;
2. National Council of State Boards of Nursing;
3. Area Health Education Centers (AHEC) in any state in
which the AHEC is a member of the National AHEC Organization;
4. Any state nurses association;
5. National League for Nursing;
6. National Association for Practical Nurse Education and
Service;
7. National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses;
8. A licensed health care facility, agency, or hospital;
9. A health care provider association;
10. Regionally or nationally accredited colleges or
universities;
11. A state or federal government agency;
12. The American Heart Association, the American Health and
Safety Institute, or the American Red Cross for courses in advanced
resuscitation; or
13. The Virginia Board of Nursing or any state board of
nursing.
C. Dual licensed persons.
1. Those persons dually licensed by this board as a
registered nurse and a licensed practical nurse shall only meet one of the
continued competency requirements as set forth in subsection A of this section.
2. Registered nurses who also hold an active license as a
nurse practitioner shall only meet the requirements of 18VAC90-30-105 and, for
those with prescriptive authority, 18VAC90-40-55.
D. A licensee is exempt from the continued competency
requirement for the first renewal following initial licensure by examination or
endorsement.
E. The board may grant an extension for good cause of up
to one year for the completion of continuing competency requirements upon
written request from the licensee 60 days prior to the renewal date. Such extension
shall not relieve the licensee of the continuing competency requirement.
F. The board may grant an exemption for all or part of the
continuing competency requirements due to circumstances beyond the control of
the licensee such as temporary disability, mandatory military service, or
officially declared disasters.
G. Continued competency activities or courses required by
board order in a disciplinary proceeding shall not be counted as meeting the
requirements for licensure renewal.
18VAC90-19-170. Documenting compliance with continued
competency requirements.
A. All licensees are required to maintain original
documentation of completion for a period of two years following renewal and to
provide such documentation within 30 days of a request from the board for proof
of compliance.
B. Documentation of compliance shall be as follows:
1. Evidence of national certification shall include a copy
of a certificate that includes name of licensee, name of certifying body, date
of certification, and date of certification expiration. Certification shall be
initially attained during the licensure period, have been in effect during the
entire licensure period, or have been recertified during the licensure period.
2. Evidence of post-licensure academic education shall
include a copy of transcript with the name of the licensee, name of educational
institution, date of attendance, name of course with grade, and number of
credit hours received.
3. Evidence of completion of a board-approved refresher
course shall include written correspondence from the provider with the name of
the licensee, name of the provider, and verification of successful completion
of the course.
4. Evidence of completion of a nursing research study or
project shall include an abstract or summary, the name of the licensee, role of
the licensee as principal or coprincipal investigator, date of completion,
statement of the problem, research or project objectives, methods used, and
summary of findings.
5. Evidence of authoring or co-authoring a published
nursing-related article, paper, book, or book chapter shall include a copy of
the publication that includes the name of the licensee and publication date.
6. Evidence of teaching a course for college credit shall
include documentation of the course offering, indicating instructor, course
title, course syllabus, and the number of credit hours. Teaching a particular
course may only be used once to satisfy the continued competency requirement
unless the course offering and syllabus has changed.
7. Evidence of teaching a course for continuing education
credit shall include a written attestation from the director of the program or
authorizing entity including the date or dates of the course or courses and the
number of contact hours awarded. If the total number of contact hours totals
less than 30, the licensee shall obtain additional hours in continuing learning
activities or courses.
8. Evidence of contact hours of continuing learning
activities or courses shall include the name of the licensee, title of educational
activity, name of the provider, number of contact hours, and date of activity.
9. Evidence of 640 hours of active practice in nursing
shall include documentation satisfactory to the board of the name of the
licensee, number of hours worked in calendar or fiscal year, name and address
of employer, and signature of supervisor. If self-employed, hours worked may be
validated through other methods such as tax records or other business records.
If active practice is of a volunteer or gratuitous nature, hours worked may be
validated by the recipient agency.
18VAC90-19-180. Inactive licensure.
A. A registered nurse or licensed practical nurse who
holds a current, unrestricted license in Virginia may, upon a request on the
renewal application and submission of the required fee, be issued an inactive
license. The holder of an inactive license shall not be entitled to practice
nursing in Virginia or practice on a multistate licensure privilege but may use
the title "registered nurse" or "licensed practical nurse."
B. Reactivation of an inactive license.
1. A nurse whose license is inactive may reactivate within
one renewal period by:
a. Payment of the difference between the inactive renewal
and the active renewal fee; and
b. Providing attestation of completion of at least one of
the learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two
years immediately preceding reactivation.
2. A nurse whose license has been inactive for more than
one renewal period may reactivate by:
a. Submitting an application;
b. Paying the difference between the inactive renewal and
the active renewal fee; and
c. Providing evidence of completion of at least one of the
learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two years
immediately preceding application for reactivation.
3. The board may waive all or part of the continuing
education requirement for a nurse who holds a current, unrestricted license in
another state and who has engaged in active practice during the period the
Virginia license was inactive.
4. The board may request additional evidence that the nurse
is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner.
5. The board may deny a request for reactivation to any
licensee who has been determined to have committed an act in violation of §
54.1-3007 of the Code of Virginia or any provision of this chapter.
18VAC90-19-190. Reinstatement of lapsed licenses or license
suspended or revoked.
A. A nurse whose license has lapsed may be reinstated
within one renewal period by:
1. Payment of the current renewal fee and the late renewal
fee; and
2. Providing attestation of completion of at least one of
the learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two
years immediately preceding reinstatement.
B. A nurse whose license has lapsed for more than one
renewal period shall:
1. File a reinstatement application and pay the
reinstatement fee;
2. Provide evidence of completing at least one of the
learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two years
immediately preceding application for reinstatement; and
3. Submit a criminal history background check as required
by § 54.1-3005.1 of the Code of Virginia.
C. The board may waive all or part of the continuing
education requirement for a nurse who holds a current, unrestricted license in
another state and who has engaged in active practice during the period the
Virginia license was lapsed.
D. A nurse whose license has been suspended or revoked by
the board may apply for reinstatement by filing a reinstatement application,
fulfilling requirements for continuing competency as required in subsection B
of this section, and paying the fee for reinstatement after suspension or
revocation. A nurse whose license has been revoked may not apply for
reinstatement sooner than three years from entry of the order of revocation.
E. The board may request additional evidence that the
nurse is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner.
18VAC90-19-200. Restricted volunteer license and
registration for voluntary practice by out-of-state licensees.
A. A registered or practical nurse may be issued a
restricted volunteer license and may practice in accordance with provisions of
§ 54.1-3011.01 of the Code of Virginia.
B. Any licensed nurse who does not hold a license to
practice in Virginia and who seeks registration to practice on a voluntary
basis under the auspices of a publicly supported, all volunteer nonprofit
organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of
underserved people shall:
1. File a complete application for registration on a form
provided by the board at least five business days prior to engaging in such
practice. An incomplete application will not be considered;
2. Provide evidence of current, unrestricted licensure in a
United States jurisdiction;
3. Provide the name of the nonprofit organization and the
dates and location of the voluntary provision of services;
4. Pay a registration fee of $10; and
5. Provide an attestation from a representative of the
nonprofit organization attesting to its compliance with provisions of
subdivision 11 of § 54.1-3001 of the Code of Virginia.
Part IV
Clinical Nurse Specialists
18VAC90-19-210. Clinical nurse specialist registration.
A. Initial registration. An applicant for initial
registration as a clinical nurse specialist shall:
1. Be currently licensed as a registered nurse in Virginia
or hold a current multistate licensure privilege as a registered nurse;
2. Submit evidence of current specialty certification as
required by § 54.1-3018.1 of the Code of Virginia or has an exception available
from March 1, 1990, to July 1, 1990; and
3. Submit the required application and fee.
B. Renewal of registration.
1. Registration as a clinical nurse specialist shall be
renewed biennially at the same time the registered nurse license is renewed. If
registered as a clinical nurse specialist with a multistate licensure privilege
to practice in Virginia as a registered nurse, a licensee born in even-numbered
years shall renew his license by the last day of the birth month in
even-numbered years and a licensee born in odd-numbered years shall renew his
license by the last day of the birth month in odd-numbered years.
2. The clinical nurse specialist shall complete the renewal
form and submit it with the required fee. An attestation of current specialty
certification is required unless registered in accordance with an exception.
3. Registration as a clinical nurse specialist shall lapse
if the registered nurse license is not renewed or the multistate licensure
privilege is lapsed and may be reinstated upon:
a. Reinstatement of RN license or multistate licensure
privilege;
b. Payment of reinstatement and current renewal fees; and
c. Submission of evidence of continued specialty
certification unless registered in accordance with an exception.
18VAC90-19-220. Clinical nurse specialist practice.
A. The practice of a clinical nurse specialist shall be
consistent with the education and experience required for clinical nurse
specialist certification.
B. The clinical nurse specialist shall provide those
advanced nursing services that are consistent with the standards of specialist
practice as established by a national certifying organization for the
designated specialty and in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 30 (§
54.1-3000 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
C. Advanced practice as a clinical nurse specialist shall
include performance as an expert clinician to:
1. Provide direct care and counsel to individuals and
groups;
2. Plan, evaluate, and direct care given by others; and
3. Improve care by consultation, collaboration, teaching,
and the conduct of research.
Part V
Disciplinary and Delegation Provisions
18VAC90-19-230. Disciplinary provisions.
A. The board has the authority to deny, revoke, or suspend
a license or multistate licensure privilege issued, or to otherwise discipline
a licensee or holder of a multistate licensure privilege upon proof that the
licensee or holder of a multistate licensure privilege has violated any of the
provisions of § 54.1-3007 of the Code of Virginia. For the purpose of
establishing allegations to be included in the notice of hearing, the board has
adopted the following definitions:
1. Fraud or deceit in procuring or maintaining a license
means, but shall not be limited to:
a. Filing false credentials;
b. Falsely representing facts on an application for initial
license, reinstatement, or renewal of a license; or
c. Giving or receiving assistance in the taking of the
licensing examination.
2. Unprofessional conduct means, but shall not be limited
to:
a. Performing acts beyond the limits of the practice of
professional or practical nursing as defined in Chapter 30 (§ 54.1-3000 et
seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or as provided by
§§ 54.1-2901 and 54.1-2957 of the Code of Virginia;
b. Assuming duties and responsibilities within the practice
of nursing without adequate training or when competency has not been
maintained;
c. Obtaining supplies, equipment, or drugs for personal or
other unauthorized use;
d. Employing or assigning unqualified persons to perform
functions that require a licensed practitioner of nursing;
e. Falsifying or otherwise altering patient, employer,
student, or educational program records, including falsely representing facts
on a job application or other employment-related documents;
f. Abusing, neglecting, or abandoning patients or clients;
g. Practice of a clinical nurse specialist beyond that
defined in 18VAC90-19-220 and § 54.1-3000 of the Code of Virginia;
h. Representing oneself as or performing acts constituting
the practice of a clinical nurse specialist unless so registered by the board;
i. Delegating nursing tasks to an unlicensed person in
violation of the provisions of Part VI (18VAC90-19-240 et seq.) of this
chapter;
j. Giving to or accepting from a patient or client property
or money for any reason other than fee for service or a nominal token of
appreciation;
k. Obtaining money or property of a patient or client by
fraud, misrepresentation, or duress;
l. Entering into a relationship with a patient or client
that constitutes a professional boundary violation in which the nurse uses his
professional position to take advantage of the vulnerability of a patient, a
client, or his family, to include actions that result in personal gain at the
expense of the patient or client, or a nontherapeutic personal involvement or
sexual conduct with a patient or client;
m. Violating state laws relating to the privacy of patient
information, including § 32.1-127.1:03 the Code of Virginia;
n. Providing false information to staff or board members in
the course of an investigation or proceeding;
o. Failing to report evidence of child abuse or neglect as
required in § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia or elder abuse or neglect as
required in § 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia; or
p. Violating any provision of this chapter.
B. Any sanction imposed on the registered nurse license of
a clinical nurse specialist shall have the same effect on the clinical nurse
specialist registration.
Part VI
Delegation of Nursing Tasks and Procedures
18VAC90-19-240. Definitions for delegation of nursing tasks
and procedures.
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings unless the content clearly indicates otherwise:
"Delegation" means the authorization by a
registered nurse to an unlicensed person to perform selected nursing tasks and
procedures in accordance with this part.
"Supervision" means guidance or direction of a
delegated nursing task or procedure by a qualified, registered nurse who
provides periodic observation and evaluation of the performance of the task and
who is accessible to the unlicensed person.
"Unlicensed person" means an appropriately
trained individual, regardless of title, who receives compensation, who functions
in a complementary or assistive role to the registered nurse in providing
direct patient care or carrying out common nursing tasks and procedures, and
who is responsible and accountable for the performance of such tasks and
procedures. With the exception of certified nurse aides, this shall not include
anyone licensed or certified by a health regulatory board who is practicing
within his recognized scope of practice.
18VAC90-19-250. Criteria for delegation.
A. Delegation of nursing tasks and procedures shall only
occur in accordance with the plan for delegation adopted by the entity
responsible for client care. The delegation plan shall comply with provisions
of this chapter and shall provide:
1. An assessment of the client population to be served;
2. Analysis and identification of nursing care needs and
priorities;
3. Establishment of organizational standards to provide for
sufficient supervision that assures safe nursing care to meet the needs of the
clients in their specific settings;
4. Communication of the delegation plan to the staff;
5. Identification of the educational and training
requirements for unlicensed persons and documentation of their competencies;
and
6. Provision of resources for appropriate delegation in
accordance with this part.
B. Delegation shall be made only if all of the following
criteria are met:
1. In the judgment of the delegating nurse, the task or
procedure can be properly and safely performed by the unlicensed person and the
delegation does not jeopardize the health, safety, and welfare of the client.
2. The delegating nurse retains responsibility and
accountability for nursing care of the client, including nursing assessment,
planning, evaluation, documentation, and supervision.
3. Delegated tasks and procedures are within the knowledge,
area of responsibility, and skills of the delegating nurse.
4. Delegated tasks and procedures are communicated on a
client-specific basis to an unlicensed person with clear, specific instructions
for performance of activities, potential complications, and expected results.
5. The person to whom a nursing task has been delegated is
clearly identified to the client as an unlicensed person by a name tag worn
while giving client care and by personal communication by the delegating nurse
when necessary.
C. Delegated tasks and procedures shall not be reassigned
by unlicensed personnel.
D. Nursing tasks shall only be delegated after an
assessment is performed according to the provisions of 18VAC90-19-260.
18VAC90-19-260. Assessment required prior to delegation.
Prior to delegation of nursing tasks and procedures, the
delegating nurse shall make an assessment of the client and unlicensed person
as follows:
1. The delegating nurse shall assess the clinical status
and stability of the client's condition; determine the type, complexity, and
frequency of the nursing care needed; and delegate only those tasks that:
a. Do not require the exercise of independent nursing
judgment;
b. Do not require complex observations or critical
decisions with respect to the nursing task or procedure;
c. Frequently recur in the routine care of the client or
group of clients;
d. Do not require repeated performance of nursing
assessments;
e. Utilize a standard procedure in which the tasks or
procedures can be performed according to exact, unchanging directions; and
f. Have predictable results and for which the consequences
of performing the task or procedures improperly are minimal and not life
threatening.
2. The delegating nurse shall also assess the training,
skills, and experience of the unlicensed person and shall verify the competency
of the unlicensed person to determine which tasks are appropriate for that
unlicensed person and the method of supervision required.
18VAC90-19-270. Supervision of delegated tasks.
A. The delegating nurse shall determine the method and
frequency of supervision based on factors that include:
1. The stability and condition of the client;
2. The experience and competency of the unlicensed person;
3. The nature of the tasks or procedures being delegated;
and
4. The proximity and availability of the registered nurse
to the unlicensed person when the nursing tasks will be performed.
B. In the event that the delegating nurse is not
available, the delegation shall either be terminated or delegation authority
shall be transferred by the delegating nurse to another registered nurse who
shall supervise all nursing tasks delegated to the unlicensed person, provided
the registered nurse meets the requirements of 18VAC90-19-250 B 3.
C. Supervision shall include:
1. Monitoring the performance of delegated tasks;
2. Evaluating the outcome for the client;
3. Ensuring appropriate documentation; and
4. Being accessible for consultation and intervention.
D. Based on an ongoing assessment as described in
18VAC90-19-260, the delegating nurse may determine that delegation of some or
all of the tasks and procedures is no longer appropriate.
18VAC90-19-280. Nursing tasks that shall not be delegated.
A. Nursing tasks that shall not be delegated are those
that are inappropriate for a specific, unlicensed person to perform on a
specific patient after an assessment is conducted as provided in
18VAC90-19-260.
B. Nursing tasks that shall not be delegated to any
unlicensed person are:
1. Activities involving nursing assessment, problem
identification, and outcome evaluation that require independent nursing
judgment;
2. Counseling or teaching except for activities related to
promoting independence in personal care and daily living;
3. Coordination and management of care involving
collaboration, consultation, and referral;
4. Emergency and nonemergency triage;
5. Administration of medications except as specifically
permitted by the Virginia Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq. of the Code of
Virginia); and
6. Circulating duties in an operating room.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly
Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (18VAC90-19)
Licensure by examination:
Instructions and Application for Licensure by Examination
for Registered Nurses (rev. 8/2011)
Instructions and Application for Licensure by
Examination -- Licensed Practical Nurse (rev. 8/2011)
Instructions
and Application for Licensure by Repeat Examination for Registered Nurse
(rev.12/2014)
Instructions
and Application for Licensure by Repeat Examination for Licensed Practical
Nurse (rev.12/2014)
License by endorsement:
Application for Licensure by Endorsement --
Registered Nurse (rev. 5/2011)
Instructions for Licensure by Endorsement --
Registered Nurse (rev. 5/2011)
Instructions for Licensure by Endorsement --
Licensed Practical Nurse (rev. 5/2011)
Application for Licensure by Endorsement --
Licensed Practical Nurse (rev. 6/2011)
Verification of Clinical Practice -- Licensure by
Endorsement (rev. 1/2010)
Reinstatement:
Instructions
and Application for Reinstatement -- Registered Nurse or Licensed Practical
Nurse (rev. 10/2016)
Instructions and Application for Reinstatement of
License as a Registered Nurse Following Suspension or Revocation (rev. 6/2011)
Instructions and Application for Reinstatement of
License as a Licensed Practical Nurse Following Suspension or Revocation (rev.
6/2011)
Clinical nurse specialist:
Procedure (rev. 3/10) and Application for
Registration as a Clinical Nurse Specialist (rev. 6/2011)
Instructions
and Application for Reinstatement of Registration as a Clinical Nurse
Specialist (rev. 3/2014)
Other:
Declaration
of Primary State of Residency for Purposes of the Nurse Licensure Compact (rev.
7/2015)
License
Verification Form (rev. 7/2016)
Application
for Registration for Volunteer Practice (undated, filed 12/2016)
Sponsor Certification for Volunteer Registration
(rev. 8/2008)
Verification of Supervised Clinical Practice --
Registered Nurse Provisional License (eff. 8/013)
Notification
of Intent to Supervise Clinical Practice -- Registered Nurse Provisional
License (rev. 4/2015)
Instructions
and Application for Restricted Volunteer Nursing License (rev. 5/2016)
Request
to Change License Status: Inactive to Active for RN and LPN (rev. 8/2016)
CHAPTER 27
REGULATIONS FOR NURSING EDUCATION PROGRAMS
Part I
General Provisions
18VAC90-27-10. Definitions.
In addition to words and terms defined in § 54.1-3000 of
the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in this chapter
shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Accreditation" means having been accredited by
the Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing, the Commission on
Collegiate Nursing Education, or a national nursing accrediting organization
recognized by the board.
"Advisory committee" means a group of persons
from a nursing education program and the health care community who meets
regularly to advise the nursing education program on the quality of its
graduates and the needs of the community.
"Approval" means the process by which the board
or a governmental agency in another state or foreign country evaluates and
grants official recognition to nursing education programs that meet established
standards not inconsistent with Virginia law.
"Associate degree nursing program" means a
nursing education program preparing for registered nurse licensure, offered by
a Virginia college or other institution and designed to lead to an associate
degree in nursing, provided that the institution is authorized to confer such
degree by SCHEV.
"Baccalaureate degree nursing program" or
"prelicensure graduate degree program" means a nursing education
program preparing for registered nurse licensure, offered by a Virginia college
or university and designed to lead to a baccalaureate or a graduate degree with
a major in nursing, provided that the institution is authorized to confer such
degree by SCHEV.
"Board" means the Board of Nursing.
"Clinical setting" means any location in which
the clinical practice of nursing occurs as specified in an agreement between
the cooperating agency and the school of nursing.
"Conditional approval" means a time-limited
status that results when an approved nursing education program has failed to
maintain requirements as set forth in this chapter.
"Cooperating agency" means an agency or
institution that enters into a written agreement to provide clinical or
observational experiences for a nursing education program.
"Diploma nursing program" means a nursing
education program preparing for registered nurse licensure, offered by a
hospital and designed to lead to a diploma in nursing, provided the hospital is
licensed in this state.
"Initial approval" means the status granted to a
nursing education program that allows the admission of students.
"National certifying organization" means an
organization that has as one of its purposes the certification of a specialty
in nursing based on an examination attesting to the knowledge of the nurse for
practice in the specialty area.
"NCLEX" means the National Council Licensure
Examination.
"NCSBN" means the National Council of State
Boards of Nursing.
"Nursing education program" means an entity
offering a basic course of study preparing persons for licensure as registered
nurses or as licensed practical nurses. A basic course of study shall include
all courses required for the degree, diploma, or certificate.
"Nursing faculty" means registered nurses who
teach the practice of nursing in nursing education programs.
"Practical nursing program" means a nursing
education program preparing for practical nurse licensure that leads to a
diploma or certificate in practical nursing, provided the school is authorized
by the Virginia Department of Education or by an accrediting agency recognized
by the U.S. Department of Education.
"Preceptor" means a licensed nurse who is
employed in the clinical setting, serves as a resource person and role model,
and is present with the nursing student in that setting, providing clinical
supervision.
"Program director" means a registered nurse who
holds a current, unrestricted license in Virginia or a multistate licensure privilege
and who has been designated by the controlling authority to administer the
nursing education program.
"Recommendation" means a guide to actions that
will assist an institution to improve and develop its nursing education
program.
"Requirement" means a mandatory condition that a
nursing education program must meet to be approved or maintain approval.
"SCHEV" means the State Council of Higher
Education for Virginia.
"Site visit" means a focused onsite review of
the nursing program by board staff, usually completed within one day for the
purpose of evaluating program components such as the physical location (skills
lab, classrooms, learning resources) for obtaining initial program approval, in
response to a complaint, compliance with NCLEX plan of correction, change of
location, or verification of noncompliance with this chapter.
"Survey visit" means a comprehensive onsite
review of the nursing program by board staff, usually completed within two days
(depending on the number of programs or campuses being reviewed) for the
purpose of obtaining and maintaining full program approval. The survey visit
includes the program's completion of a self-evaluation report prior to the
visit, as well as a board staff review of all program resources, including skills
lab, classrooms, learning resources, and clinical facilities, and other
components to ensure compliance with this chapter. Meetings with faculty,
administration, students, and clinical facility staff will occur.
18VAC90-27-20. Fees.
Fees required by the board are:
1. Application for approval of a
nursing education program.
|
$1,650
|
2. Survey visit for nursing
education program.
|
$2,200
|
3. Site visit for NCLEX passage
rate for nursing education program.
|
$1,500
|
Part II
Initial Approval of a Nursing Education Program
18VAC90-27-30. Application for initial approval.
An institution wishing to establish a nursing education
program shall:
1. Provide documentation of attendance by the program
director at a board orientation on establishment of a nursing education program
prior to submission of an application and fee.
2. Submit to the board an application to establish a
nursing education program along with a nonrefundable application fee as
prescribed in 18VAC90-27-20.
a. The application shall be effective for 12 months from
the date the application was received by the board.
b. If the program does not meet the board's requirements
for approval within 12 months, the institution shall file a new application and
fee.
3. Submit the following information on the organization and
operation of a nursing education program:
a. A copy of a business license and zoning permit to
operate a school in a Virginia location, a certificate of operation from the
State Corporation Commission, evidence of approval from the Virginia Department
of Education or SCHEV, and documentation of accreditation, if applicable;
b. The organizational structure of the institution and its
relationship to the nursing education program therein;
c. The type of nursing program, as defined in 18VAC90-27-10;
d. An enrollment plan specifying the beginning dates and
number of students for each class for a two-year period from the date of
initial approval including (i) the planned number of students in the first
class and in all subsequent classes and (ii) the planned frequency of
admissions. Any increase in admissions that is not stated in the enrollment
plan must be approved by the board. Also, transfer students are not authorized
until full approval has been granted to the nursing education program; and
e. A tentative time schedule for planning and initiating
the program through graduation of the first class and the program's receipt of
results of the NCLEX examination.
4. Submit to the board evidence documenting adequate
resources for the projected number of students and the ability to provide a
program that can meet the requirements of this part to include the following
information:
a. The results of a community assessment or market analysis
that demonstrates the need for the nursing education program in the geographic
area for the proposed school. The assessment or analysis shall include
employment opportunities of nurses in the community, the number of clinical
facilities or employers available for the size of the community to support the
number of graduates, and the number and types of other nursing education
programs in the area;
b. A projection of the availability of qualified faculty
sufficient to provide classroom instruction and clinical supervision for the
number of students specified by the program;
c. Budgeted faculty positions sufficient in number to
provide classroom instruction and clinical supervision;
d. Availability of clinical training facilities for the
program as evidenced by copies of contracts or letters of agreement specifying
the responsibilities of the respective parties and indicating sufficient
availability of clinical experiences for the number of students in the program,
the number of students, and clinical hours permitted at each clinical site and
on each nursing unit;
e. Documentation that at least 80% of all clinical
experiences are to be conducted in Virginia, unless an exception is granted by
the board. There shall be documentation of written approval for any clinical
experience conducted outside of Virginia by the agency that has authority to
approve clinical placement of students in that state. The use of any clinical
site in Virginia located 50 miles or more from the school shall require board
approval;
f. A diagram or blueprint showing the availability of
academic facilities for the program, including classrooms, skills laboratory,
and learning resource center. This information shall include the number of
restrooms for the student and faculty population, classroom and skills
laboratory space large enough to accommodate the number of the student body,
and sufficient faculty office space; and
g. Evidence of financial resources for the planning,
implementation, and continuation of the program with line-item budget
projections for the first three years of operations beginning with the
admission of students.
5. Respond to the board's request for additional
information within a timeframe established by the board.
18VAC90-27-40. Organization and administration.
A. The governing or parent institution offering Virginia
nursing education programs shall be approved by the Virginia Department of
Education or SCHEV or accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the
U.S. Department of Education.
B. Any agency or institution used for clinical experience
by a nursing education program shall be in good standing with its licensing
body.
C. The program director of the nursing education program
shall:
1. Hold a current license or multistate licensure privilege
to practice as a registered nurse in the Commonwealth without any disciplinary
action that currently restricts practice;
2. Have additional education and experience necessary to
administer, plan, implement, and evaluate the nursing education program;
3. Ensure that faculty are qualified by education and
experience to teach in the program or to supervise the clinical practice of
students in the program;
4. Maintain a current faculty roster, a current clinical
agency form, and current clinical contracts available for board review and
subject to an audit; and
5. Only serve as program director at one location or
campus.
D. The program shall provide evidence that the director
has authority to:
1. Implement the program and curriculum;
2. Oversee the admission, academic progression, and
graduation of students;
3. Hire and evaluate faculty; and
4. Recommend and administer the program budget, consistent
with established policies of the controlling agency.
E. An organizational plan shall indicate the lines of
authority and communication of the nursing education program to the controlling
body, to other departments within the controlling institution, to the
cooperating agencies, and to the advisory committee for the nursing education
program.
F. There shall be evidence of financial support and
resources sufficient to meet the goals of the nursing education program as
evidenced by a copy of the current annual budget or a signed statement from
administration specifically detailing its financial support and resources.
18VAC90-27-50. Philosophy and objectives.
Written statements of philosophy and objectives shall be
the foundation of the curriculum and shall be:
1. Formulated and accepted by the faculty and the program
director;
2. Descriptive of the practitioner to be prepared; and
3. The basis for planning, implementing, and evaluating the
total program through the implementation of a systematic plan of evaluation
that is documented in faculty or committee meeting minutes.
18VAC90-27-60. Faculty.
A. Qualifications for all faculty.
1. Every member of the nursing faculty, including the
program director, shall (i) hold a current license or a multistate licensure
privilege to practice nursing in Virginia as a registered nurse without any
disciplinary action that currently restricts practice and (ii) have had at
least two years of direct client care experience as a registered nurse prior to
employment by the program. Persons providing instruction in topics other than
nursing shall not be required to hold a license as a registered nurse.
2. Every member of a nursing faculty supervising the
clinical practice of students shall meet the licensure requirements of the
jurisdiction in which that practice occurs. Faculty shall provide evidence of
education or experience in the specialty area in which they supervise student
clinical experience for quality and safety. Prior to supervision of students,
the faculty providing supervision shall have completed a clinical orientation
to the site in which supervision is being provided.
3. The program director and each member of the nursing
faculty shall maintain documentation of professional competence through such
activities as nursing practice, continuing education programs, conferences,
workshops, seminars, academic courses, research projects, and professional
writing. Documentation of annual professional development shall be maintained
in employee files for the director and each faculty member until the next
survey visit and shall be available for board review.
4. For baccalaureate degree and prelicensure graduate
degree programs:
a. The program director shall hold a doctoral degree with a
graduate degree in nursing.
b. Every member of the nursing faculty shall hold a
graduate degree; the majority of the faculty shall have a graduate degree in
nursing. Faculty members with a graduate degree with a major other than in
nursing shall have a baccalaureate degree with a major in nursing.
5. For associate degree and diploma programs:
a. The program director shall hold a graduate degree with a
major in nursing.
b. The majority of the members of the nursing faculty shall
hold a graduate degree, preferably with a major in nursing.
c. All members of the nursing faculty shall hold a
baccalaureate or graduate degree with a major in nursing.
6. For practical nursing programs:
a. The program director shall hold a baccalaureate degree
with a major in nursing.
b. The majority of the members of the nursing faculty shall
hold a baccalaureate degree, preferably with a major in nursing.
B. Number of faculty.
1. The number of faculty shall be sufficient to prepare the
students to achieve the objectives of the educational program and to ensure
safety for clients to whom students provide care.
2. When students are giving direct care to clients, the
ratio of students to faculty shall not exceed 10 students to one faculty
member, and the faculty shall be on site solely to supervise students.
3. When preceptors are utilized for specified learning
experiences in clinical settings, the faculty member may supervise up to 15
students.
C. Functions. The principal functions of the faculty shall
be to:
1. Develop, implement, and evaluate the philosophy and
objectives of the nursing education program;
2. Design, implement, teach, evaluate, and revise the
curriculum. Faculty shall provide evidence of education and experience
necessary to indicate that they are competent to teach a given course;
3. Develop and evaluate student admission, progression, retention,
and graduation policies within the framework of the controlling institution;
4. Participate in academic advisement and counseling of
students in accordance with requirements of the Financial Educational Rights
and Privacy Act (20 USC § 1232g);
5. Provide opportunities for and evidence of student and
graduate evaluation of curriculum and teaching and program effectiveness; and
6. Document actions taken in faculty and committee meetings
using a systematic plan of evaluation for total program review.
18VAC90-27-70. Admission of students.
A. Requirements for admission to a registered nursing
education program shall not be less than the requirements of § 54.1-3017 A 1 of
the Code of Virginia that will permit the graduate to be admitted to the
appropriate licensing examination. The equivalent of a four-year high school
course of study as required pursuant to § 54.1-3017 shall be considered to be:
1. A General Educational Development (GED) certificate for
high school equivalence; or
2. Satisfactory completion of the college courses required
by the nursing education program.
B. Requirements for admission to a practical nursing
education program shall not be less than the requirements of § 54.1-3020 A 1 of
the Code of Virginia that will permit the graduate to be admitted to the
appropriate licensing examination.
C. Requirements for admission, readmission, advanced
standing, progression, retention, dismissal, and graduation shall be available
to the students in written form.
D. Except for high school students, all applicants to a
nursing education program shall be required to submit to a criminal background
check prior to admission.
E. Transfer students may not be admitted until a nursing
education program has received full approval from the board.
18VAC90-27-80. Resources, facilities, publications, and
services.
A. Classrooms, conference rooms, laboratories, clinical
facilities, and offices shall be sufficient to meet the objectives of the
nursing education program and the needs of the students, faculty, administration,
and staff and shall include private areas for faculty-student conferences. The
nursing education program shall provide facilities that meet federal and state
requirements, including:
1. Comfortable temperatures;
2. Clean and safe conditions;
3. Adequate lighting;
4. Adequate space to accommodate all students; and
5. Instructional technology and equipment needed for
simulating client care.
B. The program shall have learning resources and
technology that are current, pertinent, and accessible to students and faculty
and sufficient to meet the needs of the students and faculty.
C. Current information about the nursing education program
shall be published and distributed to applicants for admission and shall be
made available to the board. Such information shall include:
1. Description of the program to include whether the
program is accredited by a nursing education accrediting body;
2. Philosophy and objectives of the controlling institution
and of the nursing program;
3. Admission and graduation requirements, including the
policy on the use of a final comprehensive exam;
4. Fees and expenses;
5. Availability of financial aid;
6. Tuition refund policy;
7. Education facilities;
8. Availability of student activities and services;
9. Curriculum plan, to include course progression from
admission to graduation, the name of each course, theory hours, skills lab
hours, simulation hours (if used in lieu of direct client care hours), and
clinical hours;
10. Course descriptions, to include a complete overview of
what is taught in each course;
11. Faculty-staff roster;
12. School calendar;
13. Student grievance policy; and
14. Information about implications of criminal convictions.
D. Administrative support services shall be provided.
E. There shall be written
agreements with cooperating agencies that:
1. Ensure full control of student education by the faculty
of the nursing education program, including the selection and supervision of
learning experiences, to include the dismissal of students from the clinical
site if client safety is or may be compromised by the acts of the student;
2. Provide that faculty members or preceptors are present
in the clinical setting when students are providing direct client care;
3. Provide for cooperative planning with designated agency
personnel to ensure safe client care; and
4. Provide that faculty be readily available to students
and preceptors while students are involved in preceptorship experiences.
F. Cooperating agencies shall be approved by the
appropriate accreditation, evaluation, or licensing bodies, if such exist.
18VAC90-27-90. Curriculum.
A. Both classroom and online curricula shall reflect the
philosophy and objectives of the nursing education program and shall be
consistent with the law governing the practice of nursing.
B. Nursing education programs preparing for licensure as a
registered or practical nurse shall include:
1. Evidence-based didactic content and supervised clinical
experience in nursing, encompassing the attainment and maintenance of physical
and mental health and the prevention of illness for individuals and groups
throughout the life cycle and in a variety of acute, nonacute, community-based,
and long-term care clinical settings and experiences to include adult
medical/surgical nursing, geriatric nursing, maternal/infant (obstetrics,
gynecology, neonatal) nursing, mental health/psychiatric nursing, nursing
fundamentals, and pediatric nursing;
2. Concepts of the nursing process that include conducting
a focused nursing assessment of the client status that includes decision making
about who and when to inform, identifying client needs, planning for episodic
nursing care, implementing appropriate aspects of client care, contributing to
data collection and the evaluation of client outcomes, and the appropriate
reporting and documentation of collected data and care rendered;
3. Concepts of anatomy, physiology, chemistry, microbiology,
and the behavioral sciences;
4. Concepts of communication, growth and development,
nurse-client interpersonal relations, and client education, including:
a. Development of professional socialization that includes
working in interdisciplinary teams; and
b. Conflict resolution;
5. Concepts of ethics and the vocational and legal aspects
of nursing, including:
a. Regulations and sections of the Code of Virginia related
to nursing;
b. Client rights, privacy, and confidentiality;
c. Prevention of client abuse, neglect, and abandonment
throughout the life cycle, including instruction in the recognition,
intervention, and reporting by the nurse of evidence of child or elder abuse;
d. Professional responsibility, to include the role of the
practical and professional nurse;
e. Professional boundaries, to include appropriate use of
social media and electronic technology; and
f. History and trends in nursing and health care;
6. Concepts of pharmacology, dosage calculation, medication
administration, nutrition, and diet therapy;
7. Concepts of client-centered care, including:
a. Respect for cultural differences, values, and
preferences;
b. Promotion of healthy life styles for clients and
populations;
c. Promotion of a safe client environment;
d. Prevention and appropriate response to situations of
bioterrorism, natural and man-made disasters, and intimate partner and family
violence;
e. Use of critical thinking and clinical judgment in the
implementation of safe client care; and
f. Care of clients with multiple, chronic conditions; and
8. Development of management and supervisory skills,
including:
a. The use of technology in medication administration and
documentation of client care;
b. Participation in quality improvement processes and
systems to measure client outcomes and identify hazards and errors; and
c. Supervision of certified nurse aides, registered
medication aides, and unlicensed assistive personnel.
C. In addition to meeting curriculum requirements set
forth in subsection B of this section, registered nursing education programs
preparing for registered nurse licensure shall also include:
1. Evidence-based didactic content and supervised clinical
experiences in conducting a comprehensive nursing assessment that includes:
a. Extensive data collection, both initial and ongoing, for
individuals, families, groups, and communities addressing anticipated changes
in client conditions as well as emerging changes in a client's health status;
b. Recognition of alterations to previous client
conditions;
c. Synthesizing the biological, psychological, and social
aspects of the client's condition;
d. Evaluation of the effectiveness and impact of nursing
care;
e. Planning for nursing interventions and evaluating the
need for different interventions for individuals, groups, and communities;
f. Evaluation and implementation of the need to communicate
and consult with other health team members; and
g. Use of a broad and complete analysis to make independent
decisions and nursing diagnoses; and
2. Evidence-based didactic content and supervised
experiences in:
a. Development of clinical judgment;
b. Development of leadership skills and unit management;
c. Knowledge of the rules and principles for delegation of
nursing tasks to unlicensed persons;
d. Supervision of licensed practical nurses;
e. Involvement of clients in decision making and a plan of
care; and
f. Concepts of pathophysiology.
18VAC90-27-100. Curriculum for direct client care.
A. A nursing education program preparing a student for
licensure as a registered nurse shall provide a minimum of 500 hours of direct
client care supervised by qualified faculty. A nursing education program
preparing a student for licensure as a practical nurse shall provide a minimum
of 400 hours of direct client care supervised by qualified faculty. Direct
client care hours shall include experiences and settings as set forth in
18VAC90-27-90 B 1.
B. Licensed practical nurses transitioning into
prelicensure registered nursing programs may be awarded no more than 150
clinical hours of the 400 clinical hours received in a practical nursing
program. In a practical nursing to registered nursing transitional program, the
remainder of the clinical hours shall include registered nursing clinical
experience across the life cycle in adult medical/surgical nursing,
maternal/infant (obstetrics, gynecology, neonatal) nursing, mental
health/psychiatric nursing, and pediatric nursing.
C. Any observational experiences shall be planned in
cooperation with the agency involved to meet stated course objectives.
Observational experiences shall not be accepted toward the 400 or 500 minimum
clinical hours required. Observational objectives shall be available to
students, the clinical unit, and the board.
D. Simulation for direct client clinical hours.
1. No more than 25% of direct client contact hours may be
simulation. For prelicensure registered nursing programs, the total of
simulated client care hours cannot exceed 125 hours (25% of the required 500
hours). For prelicensure practical nursing programs, the total of simulated
client care hours cannot exceed 100 hours (25% of the required 400 hours).
2. No more than 50% of the total clinical hours for any
course may be used as simulation.
3. Skills acquisition and task training alone, as in the
traditional use of a skills laboratory, do not qualify as simulated client care
and therefore do not meet the requirements for direct client care hours.
4. Clinical simulation must be led by faculty who meet the
qualifications specified in 18VAC90-27-60.
5. Documentation of the following shall be available for
all simulated experiences:
a. Course description and objectives;
b. Type of simulation and location of simulated experience;
c. Number of simulated hours;
d. Faculty qualifications; and
e. Methods of debriefing.
18VAC90-27-110. Clinical practice of students.
A. In accordance with § 54.1-3001 of the Code of Virginia,
a nursing student, while enrolled in an approved nursing program, may perform
tasks that would constitute the practice of nursing. The student shall be
responsible and accountable for the safe performance of those direct client
care tasks to which he has been assigned.
B. Faculty shall be responsible for ensuring that students
perform only skills or services in direct client care for which they have
received instruction and have been found proficient by the instructor. Skills
checklists shall be maintained for each student.
C. Faculty members or preceptors providing onsite
supervision in the clinical care of clients shall be responsible and
accountable for the assignment of clients and tasks based on their assessment
and evaluation of the student's clinical knowledge and skills. Supervisors
shall also monitor clinical performance and intervene if necessary for the
safety and protection of the clients.
D. Clinical preceptors may be used to augment the faculty
and enhance the clinical learning experience. Faculty shall be responsible for
the designation of a preceptor for each student and shall communicate such
assignment with the preceptor. A preceptor may not further delegate the duties
of the preceptorship.
E. Preceptors shall provide to the nursing education
program evidence of competence to supervise student clinical experience for
quality and safety in each specialty area where they supervise students. The
clinical preceptor shall be licensed as a nurse at or above the level for which
the student is preparing.
F. Supervision of students.
1. When faculty are supervising direct client care by
students, the ratio of students to faculty shall not exceed 10 students to one
faculty member. The faculty member shall be on site in the clinical setting
solely to supervise students.
2. When preceptors are utilized for specified learning
experiences in clinical settings, the faculty member may supervise up to 15
students. In utilizing preceptors to supervise students in the clinical
setting, the ratio shall not exceed two students to one preceptor at any given
time. During the period in which students are in the clinical setting with a
preceptor, the faculty member shall be available for communication and
consultation with the preceptor.
G. Prior to beginning any preceptorship, the following
shall be required:
1. Written objectives, methodology, and evaluation
procedures for a specified period of time to include the dates of each
experience;
2. An orientation program for faculty, preceptors, and
students;
3. A skills checklist detailing the performance of skills
for which the student has had faculty-supervised clinical and didactic
preparation; and
4. The overall coordination by faculty who assume ultimate
responsibility for implementation, periodic monitoring, and evaluation.
18VAC90-27-120. Granting of initial program approval.
A. Initial approval may be granted when all documentation
required in 18VAC90-27-30 has been submitted and is deemed satisfactory to the
board and when the following conditions are met:
1. There is evidence that the requirements for organization
and administration and the philosophy and objectives of the program, as set
forth in 18VAC90-27-40 and 18VAC90-27-50, have been met;
2. A program director who meets board requirements has been
appointed, and there are sufficient faculty to initiate the program as required
in 18VAC90-27-60;
3. A written curriculum plan developed in accordance with
18VAC90-27-90 has been submitted and approved by the board;
4. A written systematic plan of evaluation has been
developed and approved by the board; and
5. The program is in compliance with requirements of
18VAC90-27-80 for resources, facilities, publications, and services as verified
by a satisfactory site visit conducted by a representative of the board.
B. If initial approval is granted:
1. The advertisement of the nursing program is authorized.
2. The admission of students is authorized, except that
transfer students are not authorized to be admitted until the program has
received full program approval.
3. The program director shall submit quarterly progress
reports to the board that shall include evidence of progress toward full
program approval and other information as required by the board.
18VAC90-27-130. Denying or withdrawing initial program
approval.
A. Denial of initial program approval.
1. Initial approval may be denied for causes enumerated in
18VAC90-27-140.
2. If initial approval is denied:
a. The program shall be given an option of correcting the
deficiencies cited by the board during the time remaining in its initial
12-month period following receipt of the application.
b. No further action regarding the application shall be
required of the board unless the program requests, within 30 days of the
mailing of the decision, an informal conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019
and 54.1-109 of the Code of Virginia.
3. If denial is recommended following the informal
conference, the recommendation shall be presented to the board or a panel
thereof for review and action.
4. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee to deny initial approval is accepted by the board or a panel thereof,
the decision shall be reflected in a board order, and no further action by the
board is required. The program may request a formal hearing within 30 days from
entry of the order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 of the Code of Virginia.
5. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to deny initial approval, the program shall be
advised of the right to appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court in
accordance with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the
Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
B. Withdrawal of initial program approval.
1. Initial approval shall be withdrawn and the program
closed if:
a. The program has not admitted students within six months
of approval of its application;
b. The program fails to submit evidence of progression
toward full program approval; or
c. For any of the causes enumerated in 18VAC90-27-140.
2. If a decision is made to withdraw initial approval, no
further action shall be required by the board unless the program within 30 days
of the mailing of the decision requests an informal conference pursuant to
§§ 2.2-4019 and 54.1-109 of the Code of Virginia.
3. If withdrawal of initial approval is recommended
following the informal conference, the recommendation shall be presented to the
board or a panel thereof for review and action.
4. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee to withdraw initial approval is accepted by the board or a panel
thereof, the decision shall be reflected in a board order, and no further
action by the board is required unless the program requests a formal hearing
within 30 days from entry of the order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 of
the Code of Virginia.
5. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to withdraw initial approval, the program shall
be advised of the right to appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court
in accordance with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the
Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
18VAC90-27-140. Causes for denial or withdrawal of nursing
education program approval.
A. Denial or withdrawal of program approval may be based
upon the following:
1. Failing to demonstrate compliance with program
requirements in Part II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.), III (18VAC90-27-150 et seq.),
or IV (18VAC90-27-210 et seq.) of this chapter.
2. Failing to comply with terms and conditions placed on a
program by the board.
3. Advertising for or admitting students without authority,
board approval, or contrary to a board restriction.
4. Failing to progress students through the program in
accordance with an approved timeframe.
5. Failing to provide evidence of progression toward
initial program approval within a timeframe established by the board.
6. Failing to provide evidence of progression toward full
program approval within a timeframe established by the board.
7. Failing to respond to requests for information required
from board representatives.
8. Fraudulently submitting documents or statements to the
board or its representatives.
9. Having had past actions taken by the board, other
states, or accrediting entities regarding the same nursing education program
operating in another jurisdiction.
10. Failing to maintain a pass rate of 80% on the NCLEX for
graduates of the program as required by 18VAC90-27-210.
11. Failing to comply with an order of the board or with
any terms and conditions placed upon it by the board for continued approval.
12. Having the program director, owner, or operator of the
program convicted of a felony or a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude or his
professional license disciplined by a licensing body or regulatory authority.
13. Failing to pay the required fee for a survey or site
visit.
B. Withdrawal of nursing education program approval may
occur at any stage in the application or approval process pursuant to
procedures enumerated in 18VAC90-27-130, 18VAC90-27-160, and 18VAC90-27-230.
C. Programs with approval denied or withdrawn may not
accept or admit additional students into the program effective upon the date of
entry of the board's final order to deny or withdraw approval. Further, the
program shall submit quarterly reports until the program is closed, and the
program shall comply with board requirements regarding closure of a program as
stated in 18VAC90-27-240.
Part III
Full Approval for a Nursing Education Program
18VAC90-27-150. Granting full program approval.
A. Full approval may be granted when:
1. A self-evaluation report of compliance with Part II
(18VAC90-27-30 et seq.) of this chapter and a survey visit fee as specified in
18VAC90-27-20 have been submitted and received by the board;
2. The program has achieved a passage rate of not less than
80% for the program's first-time test takers taking the NCLEX based on at least
20 graduates within a two-year period; and
3. A satisfactory survey visit and report have been made by
a representative of the board verifying that the program is in compliance with
all requirements for program approval.
B. If full approval is granted, the program shall continue
to comply with all requirements in Parts II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.) and III
(18VAC90-27-150 et seq.) of this chapter, and admission of transfer students is
authorized.
18VAC90-27-160. Denying full program approval.
A. Denial of full program approval may occur for causes
enumerated in 18VAC90-27-140.
B. If full program approval is denied, the board shall
also be authorized to do one of the following:
1. The board may continue the program on initial program
approval with terms and conditions to be met within the timeframe specified by
the board; or
2. The board may withdraw initial program approval.
C. If the board takes one of the actions specified in
subsection B of this section, the following shall apply:
1. No further action will be required of the board unless
the program within 30 days of the mailing of the decision requests an informal
conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019 and 54.1-109 the Code of Virginia.
2. If continued initial program approval with terms and
conditions or withdrawal of initial approval is recommended following the
informal conference, the recommendation shall be presented to the board or a
panel thereof for review and action.
3. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee is accepted by the board or a panel thereof, the decision shall be
reflected in a board order, and no further action by the board regarding the
application is required. The program may request a formal hearing within 30
days from entry of the order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 and subdivision 11
of § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia.
4. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to deny full approval or withdraw or continue on
initial approval with terms or conditions, the program shall be advised of the
right to appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court in accordance
with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme
Court of Virginia.
D. If a program is denied full approval and initial
approval withdrawn, no additional students may be accepted into the program,
effective upon the date of entry of the board's final order to deny or withdraw
approval. Further, the program shall submit quarterly reports until the program
is closed, and the program shall comply with board requirements regarding
closure of a program as stated in 18VAC90-27-240.
18VAC90-27-170. Requests for exception to requirements for
faculty.
After full approval has been granted, a program may
request board approval for exceptions to requirements of 18VAC90-27-60 for
faculty as follows:
1. Initial request for exception.
a. The program director shall submit a request for initial
exception in writing to the board for consideration prior to the academic year
during which the nursing faculty member is scheduled to teach or whenever an
unexpected vacancy has occurred.
b. A description of teaching assignment, a curriculum
vitae, and a statement of intent from the prospective faculty member to pursue
the required degree shall accompany each request.
c. The executive director of the board shall be authorized
to make the initial decision on requests for exceptions. Any appeal of that
decision shall be in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative
Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
2. Request for continuing exception.
a. Continuing exception will be based on the progress of
the nursing faculty member toward meeting the degree required by this chapter
during each year for which the exception is requested.
b. The program director shall submit the request for
continuing exception in writing prior to the next academic year during which
the nursing faculty member is scheduled to teach.
c. A list of courses required for the degree being pursued
and college transcripts showing successful completion of a minimum of two of
the courses during the past academic year shall accompany each request.
d. Any request for continuing exception shall be considered
by the informal factfinding committee, which shall make a recommendation to the
board.
18VAC90-27-180. Records and provision of information.
A. Requirements for admission, readmission, advanced
standing, progression, retention, dismissal, and graduation shall be readily
available to the students in written form.
B. A system of records shall be maintained and be made
available to the board representative and shall include:
1. Data relating to accreditation by any agency or body.
2. Course outlines.
3. Minutes of faculty and committee meetings, including
documentation of the use of a systematic plan of evaluation for total program
review and including those faculty members in attendance.
4. Record of and disposition of complaints.
C. A file shall be maintained for each student. Provision
shall be made for the protection of student and graduate files against loss,
destruction, and unauthorized use. Each file shall be available to the board
representative and shall include the student's:
1. Application, including the date of its submission and
the date of admission into the program;
2. High school transcript or copy of high school
equivalence certificate, and if the student is a foreign graduate, a transcript
translated into English;
3. Current record of achievement to include classroom
grades, skills checklists, and clinical hours for each course; and
4. A final transcript retained in the permanent file of the
institution to include dates of admission and completion of coursework,
graduation date, name and address of graduate, the dates of each semester or
term, course grades, and authorized signature.
D. Current information about the nursing education program
shall be published and distributed to students and applicants for admission and
shall be made available to the board. In addition to information specified in
18VAC90-27-80 C, the following information shall be included:
1. Annual passage rates on NCLEX for the past five years;
and
2. Accreditation status.
18VAC90-27-190. Evaluation of resources; written agreements
with cooperating agencies.
A. Periodic evaluations of resources, facilities, and
services shall be conducted by the administration, faculty, students, and
graduates of the nursing education program, including an employer evaluation
for graduates of the nursing education program. Such evaluation shall include
assurance that at least 80% of all clinical experiences are conducted in
Virginia unless an exception has been granted by the board.
B. Current written agreements with cooperating agencies shall
be maintained and reviewed annually and shall be in accordance with
18VAC90-27-80 E.
C. Upon request, a program shall provide a clinical agency
summary on a form provided by the board.
D. Upon request and if applicable, the program shall
provide (i) documentation of board approval for use of clinical sites located
50 or more miles from the school, and (ii) for use of clinical experiences
conducted outside of Virginia, documented approval from the agency that has
authority to approve clinical placement of students in that state.
18VAC90-27-200. Program changes.
A. The following shall be reported to the board within 10
days of the change or receipt of a report from an accrediting body:
1. Change in the program director, governing body, or
parent institution;
2. Adverse action taken by a licensing authority against
the program director, governing body, or parent institution;
3. Conviction of a felony or misdemeanor involving moral
turpitude against the program director, owner, or operator of the program;
4. Change in the physical location of the program;
5. Change in the availability of clinical sites;
6. Change in financial resources that could substantively
affect the nursing education program;
7. Change in content of curriculum, faculty, or method of
delivery that affects 25% or more of the total hours of didactic and clinical
instruction;
8. Change in accreditation status; and
9. A final report with findings and recommendations from
the accrediting body.
B. Other curriculum or faculty changes shall be reported
to the board with the annual report required in 18VAC90-27-220 A.
Part IV
Continued Approval of Nursing Education Programs
18VAC90-27-210. Passage rate on national examination.
A. For the purpose of continued approval by the board, a
nursing education program shall maintain a passage rate for first-time test
takers on the NCLEX that is not less than 80%, calculated on the cumulative
results of the past four quarters of all graduates in each calendar year
regardless of where the graduate is seeking licensure.
B. If an approved program falls below 80% for one year, it
shall submit a plan of correction to the board. If an approved program falls
below 80% for two consecutive years, the board shall place the program on
conditional approval with terms and conditions, require the program to submit a
plan of correction, and conduct a site visit. Prior to the conduct of such a visit,
the program shall submit the fee for a site visit for the NCLEX passage rate as
required by 18VAC90-27-20. If a program falls below 80% for three consecutive
years, the board may withdraw program approval.
C. For the purpose of program evaluation, the board may
provide to the program the NCLEX examination results of its graduates. However,
further release of such information by the program shall not be authorized
without written authorization from the candidate.
18VAC90-27-220. Maintaining an approved nursing education
program.
A. The program director of each nursing education program
shall submit an annual report to the board.
B. Each nursing education program shall be reevaluated as
follows:
1. Every nursing education program that has not achieved
accreditation as defined in 18VAC90-27-10 shall be reevaluated at least every
five years by submission of a comprehensive self-evaluation report based on
Parts II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.) and III (18VAC90-27-150 et seq.) of this
chapter and a survey visit by a representative or representatives of the board
on dates mutually acceptable to the institution and the board.
2. A program that has maintained accreditation as defined
in 18VAC90-27-10 shall be reevaluated at least every 10 years by submission of
a comprehensive self-evaluation report as provided by the board. As evidence of
compliance with specific requirements of this chapter, the board may accept the
most recent study report, site visit report, and final decision letter from the
accrediting body. The board may require additional information or a site visit
to ensure compliance with requirements of this chapter. If accreditation has
been withdrawn or a program has been placed on probation by the accrediting
body, the board may require a survey visit. If a program fails to submit the
documentation required in this subdivision, the requirements of subdivision 1
of this subsection shall apply.
C. Interim site or survey visits shall be made to the
institution by board representatives at any time within the initial approval
period or full approval period as deemed necessary by the board. Prior to the
conduct of such a visit, the program shall submit the fee for a survey visit as
required by 18VAC90-27-20.
D. Failure to submit the required fee for a survey or site
visit may subject an education program to board action or withdrawal of board
approval.
18VAC90-27-230. Continuing and withdrawal of full approval.
A. The board shall receive and review the self-evaluation
and survey reports required in 18VAC90-27-220 B or complaints relating to
program compliance. Following review, the board may continue the program on
full approval so long as it remains in compliance with all requirements in
Parts II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.), III (18VAC90-27-150 et seq.), and IV (18VAC90-27-210
et seq.) of this chapter.
B. If the board determines that a program is not
maintaining the requirements of Parts II, III, and IV of this chapter or for
causes enumerated in 18VAC90-27-140, the board may:
1. Place the program on conditional approval with terms and
conditions to be met within the timeframe specified by the board; or
2. Withdraw program approval.
C. If the board either places a program on conditional
approval with terms and conditions to be met within a timeframe specified by
the board or withdraws approval, the following shall apply:
1. No further action will be required of the board unless
the program requests an informal conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019 and
54.1-109 of the Code of Virginia.
2. If withdrawal or continued program approval with terms
and conditions is recommended following the informal conference, the
recommendation shall be presented to the board or a panel thereof for review
and action.
3. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee is accepted by the board or a panel thereof, the decision shall be
reflected in a board order and no further action by the board is required
unless the program requests a formal hearing within 30 days from entry of the
order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 of the Code of Virginia.
4. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to withdraw approval or continue on conditional
approval with terms or conditions, the program shall be advised of the right to
appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court in accordance with
§ 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme
Court of Virginia.
D. If a program approval is withdrawn, no additional
students may be admitted into the program effective upon the date of entry of
the board's final order to withdraw approval. Further, the program shall submit
quarterly reports until the program is closed, and the program must comply with
board requirements regarding closure of a program as stated in 18VAC90-27-240.
18VAC90-27-240. Closing of an approved nursing education
program; custody of records.
A. When the governing institution anticipates the closing
of a nursing education program, the governing institution shall notify the
board in writing, stating the reason, plan, and date of intended closing.
The governing institution shall assist in the transfer of
students to other approved programs with the following conditions:
1. The program shall continue to meet the standards
required for approval until all students are transferred and shall submit a
quarterly report to the board regarding progress toward closure.
2. The program shall provide to the board a list of the
names of students who have been transferred to approved programs, and the date
on which the last student was transferred.
3. The date on which the last student was transferred shall
be the closing date of the program.
B. When the board denies or withdraws approval of a
program, the governing institution shall comply with the following procedures:
1. The program shall be closed according to a timeframe
established by the board.
2. The program shall provide to the board a list of the
names of students who have transferred to approved programs and the date on
which the last student was transferred shall be submitted to the board by the
governing institution.
3. The program shall provide quarterly reports to the board
regarding progress toward closure.
C. Provision shall be made for custody of records as
follows:
1. If the governing institution continues to function, it
shall assume responsibility for the records of the students and the graduates.
The governing institution shall inform the board of the arrangements made to
safeguard the records.
2. If the governing institution ceases to exist, the
academic transcript of each student and graduate shall be transferred by the
institution to the board for safekeeping.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building,
2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (18VAC90-27)
Application
to Establish a Nursing Education Program (rev. 10/2016)
Survey
Visit Report (rev. 10/2016)
Survey
Visit Report for Programs Having Accreditation (rev. 10/2016)
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4643; Filed December 17, 2016, 1:47 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF NURSING
Fast-Track Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC90-19. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Nursing (adding 18VAC90-19-10 through 18VAC90-19-280).
18VAC90-20. Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing (repealing 18VAC90-20-10 through
18VAC90-20-460).
18VAC90-27. Regulations for Nursing Education Programs (adding 18VAC90-27-10 through 18VAC90-27-240).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: February 8, 2017.
Effective Date: February 24, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jay P. Douglas, R.N., Executive
Director, Board of Nursing, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA
23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4520, FAX (804) 527-4455, or email
jay.douglas@dhp.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 54.1-2400 authorizes the Board of Nursing
to promulgate regulations to administer the regulatory system. In addition,
§ 54.1-3005 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the Board of Nursing to
approve nursing education programs.
Purpose: The amended regulation clarifies several
provisions that have caused confusion for applicants or approved education
programs. To the extent the elimination of unworkable requirements for nursing
education programs facilitates the approval of such programs, the proposal may
enable programs to enroll nursing students and encourage hospitals to serve as
clinical sites for training. Such training is essential for students who will
be licensed nurses to protect the health and safety of patients and clients
whom they will serve.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
board is using the fast-track rulemaking process because the changes being made
to the regulations for nursing education programs are eliminating burdensome
and problematic requirements. Therefore, the board would like to promulgate
those amendments as soon as possible. The amendments to the regulations for
licensure and practice of nurses are clarifying only and do not change any
current requirement for nurses or clinical nurse specialists. There should
be no opposition to the amendments, so a fast-track action is appropriate.
Substance: 18VAC90-20 is repealed and repromulgated into
18VAC90-19, Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing, and 18VAC90-27,
Regulations Governing Nursing Education Programs. In 18VAC90-19, requirements
for licensure of nurses are not changed, but there are several amendments to
clarify the national examination required for licensure and the educational
qualifications for persons whose nursing education was completed in another
country. Amendments to the sections on clinical nurse specialists do not change
the current requirements but are consistent with legislation passed in the 2016
Session of the General Assembly.
In 18VAC90-27, amendments delete several requirements for
nursing education programs that have been problematic and include the State
Council of Higher Education for Virginia as the approving body for certain
nursing education programs.
Issues: There are no primary advantages or disadvantages
to the public; clarification of the regulations will benefit applicants for licensure,
and elimination of some current requirements will benefit nursing education
programs. The primary advantage to the Board of Nursing is the clarification of
qualifications for licensure, which may eliminate a few of the inquiries from
applicants. Likewise, the elimination of several problematic requirements for
education programs will reduce the time spent in assisting programs with
compliance.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. As the result
of a general review, the Board of Nursing (Board) proposes to repeal its
comprehensive nursing regulation and replace it with two new regulations. One
of the replacement regulations will govern the practice of nursing and the
other will govern nursing education programs. Although most of this proposed
action will only divide up the current regulation and migrate it unchanged into
the two new regulations, the Board also proposes several substantive changes to
regulatory requirements.
Specifically, the Board proposes to remove references to Board
approval of clinical nursing specialist education programs and to add the State
Council of Higher Education for Virginia (SCHEV) as an entity that may approve
nursing education programs. The Board also proposes to require educational
institutions to list the total clinical hours obtained in their program on
student transcripts instead of having to list the number of clinic hours
obtained from each course in their program. Further the Board proposes to
eliminate the requirement that entities which provide clinical experience
opportunities for educational programs specify the number of nursing students
allowed in each nursing unit in their written agreements with educational
programs. Finally, the Board proposes to remove general language that refers to
passage of examinations and replace it with examination requirements that
specifically reference the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX).
Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for all
proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. Currently, the Board has one
comprehensive regulation that covers both nursing licensure and nursing
education programs. In order to make the rules for nurses easier to search, the
Board now proposes to repeal this regulation and promulgate two replacement
regulations that will divide up the regulatory provisions into two parts. To
the extent that this action migrates regulatory requirements unchanged to one
of the new regulations, no regulated entity is likely to incur costs on account
of that migration. Regulated entities, as well as other interested parties, are
likely to benefit from this regulatory matter being split into shorter, easier
to read regulations.
In addition to dividing regulatory provisions into two separate
regulations, the Board proposes several changes to actual regulatory
requirements. Current regulation references the Board's authority to approve
educational programs for clinical nurse specialists. However, Chapter 83 of the
2016 Acts of Assembly removed this authority. The Board now proposes to conform
nursing regulations to this legislation by removing these regulatory
references. This change will benefit regulated entities as it removes now
obsolete language. No entity is likely to incur costs on account of this
change.
Current regulation requires that institutions that wish to
establish nursing education programs to be approved by the Virginia Department
of Education. The Board proposes to add SCHEV as an entity that may also approve
nursing education programs. No teaching institutions are likely to incur costs
on account of this change. These institutions will likely benefit from the
additional flexibility of having an additional entity that can approve
programs.
Current regulation requires that entities that contract with
nursing education programs1 to provide clinical experience
opportunities specify in their written agreements how many students will be
allowed in each nursing unit. It also requires nursing education programs to keep
student transcripts that include the number of clinical hours completed for
each clinical course completed. Board staff reports that requiring written
agreements to include the number of nursing students per nursing unit may
discourage large hospitals with many nursing units from signing agreements with
nursing education programs. Because of this, the Board now proposes to
eliminate this requirement. The Board also proposes to modify transcript
requirements so that nursing education programs will only have to keep records
on the total number of clinical hours completed by any student because the
Board does not need this information broken down by course. These changes will
provide more flexibility to both nursing education programs and the clinical
experience providers that contract with them.
Finally, current regulation references licensure examinations
(in the plural) in several places. Board staff reports that the only
examination that is acceptable for licensure in Virginia and other states is
the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX). In order to eliminate any
confusion that applicants might experience because of language that implies
that there is more than one acceptable licensure exam, the Board proposes to
replace this general language with specific references to the NCLEX. This
change will benefit affected entities by clarifying what examination they need
to pass in order to be licensed.
Businesses and Entities Affected. This proposed regulatory
action will affect all nursing education programs and all applicants for
nursing licensure. Board staff reports that there are 82 registered nursing
(RN) and 61 licensed practical nursing (LPN) education programs in the
Commonwealth and that the Board receives approximately 10,000 applications for
RN and LPN licensure each year.
Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be
particularly affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect employment in the Commonwealth.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed changes will likely not affect the use or value of private property in
the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. No small businesses are likely to
incur any additional costs on account of these proposed changes.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No small
businesses are likely to incur any additional costs on account of these
proposed changes.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. No businesses are likely to incur any additional
costs on account of these proposed changes.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Other Entities. No other entities are likely to be adversely
affected by these proposed changes.
_______________________________
1 These entities can include any agencies or
institutions that provide skilled nursing services, like hospitals and nursing
homes, where students can complete required supervised clinical experience
hours.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
of Nursing concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget.
Summary:
The Board of Nursing repeals Regulations Governing the
Practice of Nursing (18VAC90-20) and replaces it with two regulatory chapters
derived from 18VAC60-20. The Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing
(18VAC60-19) includes provisions that are applicable to the licensure and
practice of nurses. The requirements for licensure of nurses are not changed,
but several clarifying amendments are made to the national examination required
for licensure and the educational qualifications for persons whose nursing
education was completed in another country. The requirements for clinical nurse
specialists are not changed but the board's authority to approve educational
programs for clinical nurse specialists is removed consistent with Chapter 83
of the 2016 Acts of Assembly. Regulations for Nursing Education Programs
(18VAC60-27) includes provisions that are applicable to nursing education
programs. Amendments include (i) adding the State Council of Higher Education
for Virginia as an approving body for certain nursing education programs, (ii)
requiring an educational institution to list the total clinical hours obtained
in its program on student transcripts instead of listing the number of clinic
hours obtained from each course, (iii) eliminating the requirement that an
entity providing clinical experience opportunities for educational programs
specify the number of nursing students allowed in each nursing unit in its
written agreements with educational programs, and (iv) replacing general
language to passage of an examination with a specific reference to the National
Council Licensure Examination.
CHAPTER 19
REGULATIONS GOVERNING THE PRACTICE OF NURSING
Part I
General Provisions
18VAC90-19-10. Definitions.
In addition to words and terms defined in §§ 54.1-3000 and
54.1-3030 of the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in
this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Active practice" means activities performed,
whether or not for compensation, for which an active license to practice
nursing is required.
"Board" means the Board of Nursing.
"CGFNS" means the Commission on Graduates of
Foreign Nursing Schools.
"Contact hour" means 50 minutes of continuing
education coursework or activity.
"National certifying organization" means an
organization that has as one of its purposes the certification of a specialty
in nursing based on an examination attesting to the knowledge of the nurse for
practice in the specialty area.
"NCLEX" means the National Council Licensure
Examination.
"NCSBN" means the National Council of State
Boards of Nursing.
"Primary state of residence" means the state of
a person's declared fixed, permanent, and principal home or domicile for legal
purposes.
18VAC90-19-20. Delegation of authority.
The executive director shall be delegated the authority to
issue licenses and certificates and execute all notices, orders, and official
documents of the board unless the board directs otherwise.
18VAC90-19-30. Fees.
Fees required by the board are:
1. Application for licensure by
examination - RN
|
$190
|
2. Application for licensure by
endorsement - RN
|
$190
|
3. Application for licensure by
examination - LPN
|
$170
|
4. Application for licensure by
endorsement - LPN
|
$170
|
5. Reapplication for licensure by
examination
|
$50
|
6. Biennial licensure renewal -
RN
|
$140
|
7. Biennial inactive licensure
renewal - RN
|
$70
|
8. Biennial licensure renewal -
LPN
|
$120
|
9. Biennial inactive licensure
renewal - LPN
|
$60
|
10. Late renewal - RN
|
$50
|
11. Late renewal - LPN
|
$40
|
12. Reinstatement of lapsed
license - RN
|
$225
|
13. Reinstatement of lapsed
license - LPN
|
$200
|
14. Reinstatement of suspended or
revoked license
|
$300
|
15. Duplicate license
|
$15
|
16. Replacement wall certificate
|
$25
|
17. Verification of license
|
$35
|
18. Transcript of all or part of
applicant or licensee records
|
$35
|
19. Returned check charge
|
$35
|
20. Application for CNS
registration
|
$130
|
21. Biennial renewal of CNS
registration
|
$80
|
22. Reinstatement of lapsed CNS
registration
|
$125
|
23. Verification of CNS
registration to another jurisdiction
|
$35
|
24. Late renewal of CNS
registration
|
$35
|
18VAC90-19-40. Duplicate license.
A duplicate license for the current renewal period shall
be issued by the board upon receipt of the required information and fee.
18VAC90-19-50. Identification; accuracy of records.
A. Any person regulated by this chapter who provides
direct client care shall, while on duty, wear identification that is clearly
visible and indicates the person's first and last name and the appropriate title
for the license, registration, or student status under which he is practicing
in that setting. Any person practicing in hospital emergency departments,
psychiatric and mental health units and programs, or in health care facilities
units offering treatment for clients in custody of state or local
law-enforcement agencies may use identification badges with first name and
first letter only of last name and appropriate title.
B. A licensee who has changed his name shall submit as
legal proof to the board a copy of the marriage certificate, a certificate of
naturalization, or court order evidencing the change. A duplicate license shall
be issued by the board upon receipt of such evidence and the required fee.
C. Each licensee shall maintain an address of record with
the board. Any change in the address of record or in the public address, if
different from the address of record, shall be submitted by a licensee
electronically or in writing to the board within 30 days of such change. All
notices required by law and by this chapter to be mailed by the board to any
licensee shall be validly given when mailed to the latest address of record on
file with the board.
18VAC90-19-60. Data collection of nursing workforce
information.
A. With such funds as are appropriated for the purpose of
data collection and consistent with the provisions of § 54.1-2506.1 of the Code
of Virginia, the board shall collect workforce information biennially from a
representative sample of registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, and certified
nurse aides and shall make such information available to the public. Data
collected shall be compiled, stored, and released in compliance with §
54.1-3012.1 of the Code of Virginia.
B. The information to be collected on nurses shall include
(i) demographic data to include age, sex, and ethnicity; (ii) level of
education; (iii) employment status; (iv) employment setting or settings such as
in a hospital, physician's office, or nursing home; (v) geographic location of
employment; (vi) type of nursing position or area of specialty; and (vii)
number of hours worked per week in each setting. In addition, the board may
determine other data to be collected as necessary.
18VAC90-19-70. Supervision of licensed practical nurses.
Licensed practical nursing shall be performed under the
direction or supervision of a licensed medical practitioner, a registered
nurse, or a licensed dentist.
Part II
Multistate Licensure Privilege
18VAC90-19-80. Issuance of a license with a multistate
licensure privilege.
A. To be issued a license with a multistate licensure
privilege by the board, a nurse currently licensed in Virginia or a person
applying for licensure in Virginia shall submit a declaration stating that his
primary residence is in Virginia. Evidence of a primary state of residence may
be required to include:
1. A driver's license with a home address;
2. A voter registration card displaying a home address;
3. A federal or state tax return declaring the primary
state of residence;
4. A Military Form No. 2058 – state of legal residence; or
5. A W-2 from the United States government or any bureau,
division, or agency thereof indicating the declared state of residence.
B. A nurse on a visa from another country applying for
licensure in Virginia may declare either the country of origin or Virginia as
the primary state of residence. If the foreign country is declared as the
primary state of residence, a single state license shall be issued by Virginia.
C. A nurse changing the primary state of residence from
another party state to Virginia may continue to practice under the former party
state license and multistate licensure privilege during the processing of the
nurse's licensure application by the board for a period not to exceed 90 days.
1. If a nurse is under a pending investigation by a former
home state, the licensure application in Virginia shall be held in abeyance and
the 90-day authorization to practice stayed until resolution of the pending
investigation.
2. A license issued by a former party state shall no longer
be valid upon issuance of a license by the board.
3. If the board denies licensure to an applicant from
another party state, it shall notify the former home state within 10 business
days, and the former home state may take action in accordance with the laws and
regulations of that state.
D. A license issued by a party state is valid for practice
in all other party states, unless clearly designated as valid only in the state
that issued the license. When a party state issues a license authorizing practice
only in that state and not authorizing practice in other party states, the
license shall be clearly marked with words indicating that it is valid only in
the state of issuance.
18VAC90-19-90. Limitations of a multistate licensure
privilege.
A. The board shall include in all disciplinary orders that
limit practice or require monitoring the requirement that the licensee subject
to the order shall agree to limit practice to Virginia during the period in
which the order is in effect. A nurse may be allowed to practice in other party
states while an order is in effect with prior written authorization from both
the board and boards of other party states.
B. An individual who had a license that was surrendered,
revoked, or suspended or an application denied for cause in a prior state of
primary residence may be issued a single state license in a new primary state
of residence until such time as the individual would be eligible for an
unrestricted license by the prior state of adverse action. Once eligible for licensure
in the prior state, a multistate license may be issued.
18VAC90-19-100. Access to information in the coordinated
licensure information system.
A licensee may submit a request in writing to the board to
review the public data relating to the licensee maintained in the coordinated
licensure information system. In the event a licensee asserts that any related
data is inaccurate, the burden of proof shall be upon the licensee to provide
evidence that substantiates such claim. The board shall verify and correct
inaccurate data in the information system within 10 business days.
Part III
Licensure and Renewal; Reinstatement
18VAC90-19-110. Licensure by examination.
A. The board shall authorize the administration of the
NCLEX for registered nurse licensure and practical nurse licensure.
B. A candidate shall be eligible to take the NCLEX
examination (i) upon receipt by the board of the completed application, the
fee, and an official transcript from the nursing education program and (ii)
when a determination has been made that no grounds exist upon which the board
may deny licensure pursuant to § 54.1-3007 of the Code of Virginia.
C. To establish eligibility for licensure by examination,
an applicant for the licensing examination shall:
1. File the required application, any necessary
documentation and fee, including a criminal history background check as
required by § 54.1-3005.1 of the Code of Virginia.
2. Arrange for the board to receive an official transcript
from the nursing education program that shows either:
a. That the degree or diploma has been awarded and the date
of graduation or conferral; or
b. That all requirements for awarding the degree or diploma
have been met and that specifies the date of conferral.
3. File a new application and reapplication fee if:
a. The examination is not taken within 12 months of the
date that the board determines the applicant to be eligible; or
b. Eligibility is not established within 12 months of the
original filing date.
D. The minimum passing standard on the examination for
registered nurse licensure and practical nurse licensure shall be determined by
the board.
E. Any applicant suspected of giving or receiving
unauthorized assistance during the examination may be noticed for a hearing
pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
seq. of the Code of Virginia) to determine eligibility for licensure or
reexamination.
F. Practice of nursing pending receipt of examination
results.
1. A graduate who has filed a completed application for
licensure in Virginia and has received an authorization letter issued by the
board may practice nursing in Virginia from the date of the authorization
letter. The period of practice shall not exceed 90 days between the date of
successful completion of the nursing education program, as documented on the
applicant's transcript, and the publication of the results of the candidate's
first licensing examination.
2. Candidates who practice nursing as provided in
subdivision 1 of this subsection shall use the designation "R.N.
Applicant" or "L.P.N. Applicant" on a nametag or when signing
official records.
3. The designations "R.N. Applicant" and
"L.P.N. Applicant" shall not be used by applicants who either do not
take the examination within 90 days following receipt of the authorization
letter from the board or who have failed the examination.
G. Applicants who fail the examination.
1. An applicant who fails the licensing examination shall
not be licensed or be authorized to practice nursing in Virginia.
2. An applicant for licensure by reexamination shall file
the required board application and reapplication fee in order to establish
eligibility for reexamination.
3. Applicants who have failed the examination for licensure
in another United States jurisdiction but satisfy the qualifications for
licensure in this jurisdiction may apply for licensure by examination in
Virginia. Such applicants shall submit the required application and fee. Such
applicants shall not, however, be permitted to practice nursing in Virginia
until the requisite license has been issued.
18VAC90-19-120. Licensure by endorsement.
A. A graduate of an approved nursing education program who
has been licensed by examination in another United States jurisdiction and
whose license is in good standing, or is eligible for reinstatement if lapsed,
shall be eligible for licensure by endorsement in Virginia provided the
applicant satisfies the same requirements for registered nurse or practical
nurse licensure as those seeking initial licensure in Virginia.
1. Applicants who have graduated from approved nursing
education programs that did not require a sufficient number of clinical hours
as specified in 18VAC90-27-100 may qualify for licensure if they can provide
evidence of at least 960 hours of clinical practice with an active,
unencumbered license in another United States jurisdiction.
2. Applicants whose basic nursing education was received in
another country shall meet the requirements of 18VAC90-19-130.
3. A graduate of a nursing school in Canada where English
was the primary language shall be eligible for licensure by endorsement
provided the applicant has passed the Canadian Registered Nurses Examination
and holds an unrestricted license in Canada.
B. An applicant for licensure by endorsement who has
submitted a criminal history background check as required by § 54.1-3005.1 of
the Code of Virginia and the required application and fee and has submitted the
required form to the appropriate credentialing agency for verification of
licensure may practice for 30 days upon receipt of an authorization letter from
the board. If an applicant has not received a Virginia license within 30 days
and wishes to continue practice, he shall seek an extension of authorization to
practice by submitting a request and evidence that he has requested
verification of licensure.
C. If the application is not completed within one year of
the initial filing date, the applicant shall submit a new application and fee.
18VAC90-19-130. Licensure of applicants from other
countries.
A. With the exception of applicants from Canada who are
eligible to be licensed by endorsement, applicants whose basic nursing
education was received in another country shall be scheduled to take the
licensing examination provided they meet the statutory qualifications for
licensure. Verification of qualification shall be based on documents submitted
as required in subsection B or C of this section.
B. Such applicants for registered nurse licensure shall:
1. Submit evidence from the CGFNS that the secondary
education and nursing education are comparable to those required for registered
nurses in the Commonwealth;
2. Submit evidence of passage of an English language
proficiency examination approved by the CGFNS, unless the applicant meets the
CGFNS criteria for an exemption from the requirement; and
3. Submit the required application and fee for licensure by
examination.
C. Such applicants for practical nurse licensure shall:
1. Submit evidence from the CGFNS that the secondary
education and nursing education are comparable to those required for practical
nurses in the Commonwealth;
2. Submit evidence of passage of an English language
proficiency examination approved by the CGFNS, unless the applicant meets the
CGFNS criteria for an exemption from the requirement; and
3. Submit the required application and fee for licensure by
examination.
D. An applicant for licensure as a registered nurse who
has met the requirements of subsections A and B of this section may practice
for a period not to exceed 90 days from the date of approval of an application
submitted to the board when he is working as a nonsupervisory staff nurse in a
licensed nursing home or certified nursing facility.
1. Applicants who practice nursing as provided in this
subsection shall use the designation "foreign nurse graduate" on
nametags or when signing official records.
2. During the 90-day period, the applicant shall take and
pass the licensing examination in order to remain eligible to practice nursing
in Virginia.
3. Any person practicing nursing under this exemption who
fails to pass the licensure examination within the 90-day period may not
thereafter practice nursing until he passes the licensing examination.
E. In addition to CGFNS, the board may accept credentials
from other recognized agencies that review credentials of foreign-educated
nurses if such agencies have been approved by the board.
18VAC90-19-140. Provisional licensure of applicants for
licensure as registered nurses.
A. Pursuant to § 54.1-3017.1 of the Code of Virginia, the
board may issue a provisional license to an applicant for the purpose of
meeting the 500 hours of supervised, direct, hands-on client care required of
an approved registered nurse education program.
B. Such applicants for provisional licensure shall submit:
1. A completed application for licensure by examination and
fee, including a criminal history background check as required by § 54.1-3005.1
of the Code of Virginia;
2. Documentation that the applicant has successfully
completed a nursing education program; and
3. Documentation of passage of the NCLEX in accordance with
18VAC90-19-110.
C. Requirements for hours of supervised clinical
experience in direct client care with a provisional license.
1. To qualify for licensure as a registered nurse, direct,
hands-on hours of supervised clinical experience shall include the areas of
adult medical/surgical nursing, geriatric nursing, maternal/infant (obstetrics,
gynecology, neonatal) nursing, mental health/psychiatric nursing, nursing
fundamentals, and pediatric nursing. Supervised clinical hours may be obtained
in employment in the role of a registered nurse or without compensation for the
purpose of meeting these requirements.
2. Hours of direct, hands-on clinical experience obtained
as part of the applicant's nursing education program and noted on the official
transcript shall be counted towards the minimum of 500 hours and in the
applicable areas of clinical practice.
3. For applicants with a current, active license as an LPN,
150 hours of credit shall be counted towards the 500-hour requirement.
4. 100 hours of credit may be applied towards the 500-hour
requirement for applicants who have successfully completed a nursing education
program that:
a. Requires students to pass competency-based assessments
of nursing knowledge as well as a summative performance assessment of clinical
competency that has been evaluated by the American Council on Education or any
other board-approved organization; and
b. Has a passage rate for first-time test takers on the
NCLEX that is not less than 80%, calculated on the cumulative results of the
past four quarters of all graduates in each calendar year regardless of where
the graduate is seeking licensure.
5. An applicant for licensure shall submit verification
from a supervisor of the number of hours of direct client care and the areas in
which clinical experiences in the role of a registered nurse were obtained.
D. Requirements for supervision of a provisional licensee.
1. The supervisor shall be on site and physically present
in the unit where the provisional licensee is providing clinical care of
clients.
2. In the supervision of provisional licensees in the
clinical setting, the ratio shall not exceed two provisional licensees to one
supervisor at any given time.
3. Licensed registered nurses providing supervision for a
provisional licensee shall:
a. Notify the board of the intent to provide supervision
for a provisional licensee on a form provided by the board;
b. Hold an active, unrestricted license or multistate
licensure privilege and have at least two years of active clinical practice as
a registered nurse prior to acting as a supervisor;
c. Be responsible and accountable for the assignment of
clients and tasks based on their assessment and evaluation of the supervisee's
clinical knowledge and skills;
d. Be required to monitor clinical performance and
intervene if necessary for the safety and protection of the clients; and
e. Document on a form provided by the board the frequency
and nature of the supervision of provisional licensees to verify completion of
hours of clinical experience.
E. The provisional status of the licensee shall be
disclosed to the client prior to treatment and shall be indicated on
identification worn by the provisional licensee.
F. All provisional licenses shall expire six months from
the date of issuance and may be renewed for an additional six months. Renewal
of a provisional license beyond the limit of 12 months may be granted and shall
be for good cause shown. A request for extension of a provisional license
beyond 12 months shall be made at least 30 days prior to its expiration.
18VAC90-19-150. Renewal of licenses.
A. Licensees born in even-numbered years shall renew their
licenses by the last day of the birth month in even-numbered years. Licensees
born in odd-numbered years shall renew their licenses by the last day of the
birth month in odd-numbered years.
B. A nurse shall be required to meet the requirements for
continued competency set forth in 18VAC90-19-160 to renew an active license.
C. A notice for renewal of license shall be sent by the
board to the last known address of the licensee. The licensee shall complete
the renewal form and submit it with the required fee.
D. Failure to receive the renewal form shall not relieve
the licensee of the responsibility for renewing the license by the expiration
date.
E. The license shall automatically lapse if the licensee
fails to renew by the expiration date.
F. Any person practicing nursing during the time a license
has lapsed shall be considered an illegal practitioner and shall be subject to
prosecution under the provisions of § 54.1-3008 of the Code of Virginia.
G. Upon renewal, all licensees shall declare their primary
state of residence. If the declared state of residence is another compact
state, the licensee is not eligible for renewal.
18VAC90-19-160. Continued competency requirements for
renewal of an active license.
A. To renew an active nursing license, a licensee shall
complete at least one of the following learning activities or courses:
1. Current specialty certification by a national certifying
organization, as defined in 18VAC90-19-10;
2. Completion of a minimum of three credit hours of
post-licensure academic education relevant to nursing practice, offered by a
regionally accredited college or university;
3. A board-approved refresher course in nursing;
4. Completion of nursing-related, evidence-based practice
project or research study;
5. Completion of publication as the author or co-author
during a renewal cycle;
6. Teaching or developing a nursing-related course
resulting in no less than three semester hours of college credit, a 15-week
course, or specialty certification;
7. Teaching or developing nursing-related continuing
education courses for up to 30 contact hours;
8. Fifteen contact hours of workshops, seminars,
conferences, or courses relevant to the practice of nursing and 640 hours of
active practice as a nurse; or
9. Thirty contact hours of workshops, seminars,
conferences, or courses relevant to the practice of nursing.
B. To meet requirements of subdivision A 8 or A 9 of this
section, workshops, seminars, conferences, or courses shall be offered by a
provider recognized or approved by one of the following:
1. American Nurses Credentialing Center American Nurses
Association;
2. National Council of State Boards of Nursing;
3. Area Health Education Centers (AHEC) in any state in
which the AHEC is a member of the National AHEC Organization;
4. Any state nurses association;
5. National League for Nursing;
6. National Association for Practical Nurse Education and
Service;
7. National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses;
8. A licensed health care facility, agency, or hospital;
9. A health care provider association;
10. Regionally or nationally accredited colleges or
universities;
11. A state or federal government agency;
12. The American Heart Association, the American Health and
Safety Institute, or the American Red Cross for courses in advanced
resuscitation; or
13. The Virginia Board of Nursing or any state board of
nursing.
C. Dual licensed persons.
1. Those persons dually licensed by this board as a
registered nurse and a licensed practical nurse shall only meet one of the
continued competency requirements as set forth in subsection A of this section.
2. Registered nurses who also hold an active license as a
nurse practitioner shall only meet the requirements of 18VAC90-30-105 and, for
those with prescriptive authority, 18VAC90-40-55.
D. A licensee is exempt from the continued competency
requirement for the first renewal following initial licensure by examination or
endorsement.
E. The board may grant an extension for good cause of up
to one year for the completion of continuing competency requirements upon
written request from the licensee 60 days prior to the renewal date. Such extension
shall not relieve the licensee of the continuing competency requirement.
F. The board may grant an exemption for all or part of the
continuing competency requirements due to circumstances beyond the control of
the licensee such as temporary disability, mandatory military service, or
officially declared disasters.
G. Continued competency activities or courses required by
board order in a disciplinary proceeding shall not be counted as meeting the
requirements for licensure renewal.
18VAC90-19-170. Documenting compliance with continued
competency requirements.
A. All licensees are required to maintain original
documentation of completion for a period of two years following renewal and to
provide such documentation within 30 days of a request from the board for proof
of compliance.
B. Documentation of compliance shall be as follows:
1. Evidence of national certification shall include a copy
of a certificate that includes name of licensee, name of certifying body, date
of certification, and date of certification expiration. Certification shall be
initially attained during the licensure period, have been in effect during the
entire licensure period, or have been recertified during the licensure period.
2. Evidence of post-licensure academic education shall
include a copy of transcript with the name of the licensee, name of educational
institution, date of attendance, name of course with grade, and number of
credit hours received.
3. Evidence of completion of a board-approved refresher
course shall include written correspondence from the provider with the name of
the licensee, name of the provider, and verification of successful completion
of the course.
4. Evidence of completion of a nursing research study or
project shall include an abstract or summary, the name of the licensee, role of
the licensee as principal or coprincipal investigator, date of completion,
statement of the problem, research or project objectives, methods used, and
summary of findings.
5. Evidence of authoring or co-authoring a published
nursing-related article, paper, book, or book chapter shall include a copy of
the publication that includes the name of the licensee and publication date.
6. Evidence of teaching a course for college credit shall
include documentation of the course offering, indicating instructor, course
title, course syllabus, and the number of credit hours. Teaching a particular
course may only be used once to satisfy the continued competency requirement
unless the course offering and syllabus has changed.
7. Evidence of teaching a course for continuing education
credit shall include a written attestation from the director of the program or
authorizing entity including the date or dates of the course or courses and the
number of contact hours awarded. If the total number of contact hours totals
less than 30, the licensee shall obtain additional hours in continuing learning
activities or courses.
8. Evidence of contact hours of continuing learning
activities or courses shall include the name of the licensee, title of educational
activity, name of the provider, number of contact hours, and date of activity.
9. Evidence of 640 hours of active practice in nursing
shall include documentation satisfactory to the board of the name of the
licensee, number of hours worked in calendar or fiscal year, name and address
of employer, and signature of supervisor. If self-employed, hours worked may be
validated through other methods such as tax records or other business records.
If active practice is of a volunteer or gratuitous nature, hours worked may be
validated by the recipient agency.
18VAC90-19-180. Inactive licensure.
A. A registered nurse or licensed practical nurse who
holds a current, unrestricted license in Virginia may, upon a request on the
renewal application and submission of the required fee, be issued an inactive
license. The holder of an inactive license shall not be entitled to practice
nursing in Virginia or practice on a multistate licensure privilege but may use
the title "registered nurse" or "licensed practical nurse."
B. Reactivation of an inactive license.
1. A nurse whose license is inactive may reactivate within
one renewal period by:
a. Payment of the difference between the inactive renewal
and the active renewal fee; and
b. Providing attestation of completion of at least one of
the learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two
years immediately preceding reactivation.
2. A nurse whose license has been inactive for more than
one renewal period may reactivate by:
a. Submitting an application;
b. Paying the difference between the inactive renewal and
the active renewal fee; and
c. Providing evidence of completion of at least one of the
learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two years
immediately preceding application for reactivation.
3. The board may waive all or part of the continuing
education requirement for a nurse who holds a current, unrestricted license in
another state and who has engaged in active practice during the period the
Virginia license was inactive.
4. The board may request additional evidence that the nurse
is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner.
5. The board may deny a request for reactivation to any
licensee who has been determined to have committed an act in violation of §
54.1-3007 of the Code of Virginia or any provision of this chapter.
18VAC90-19-190. Reinstatement of lapsed licenses or license
suspended or revoked.
A. A nurse whose license has lapsed may be reinstated
within one renewal period by:
1. Payment of the current renewal fee and the late renewal
fee; and
2. Providing attestation of completion of at least one of
the learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two
years immediately preceding reinstatement.
B. A nurse whose license has lapsed for more than one
renewal period shall:
1. File a reinstatement application and pay the
reinstatement fee;
2. Provide evidence of completing at least one of the
learning activities or courses specified in 18VAC90-19-160 during the two years
immediately preceding application for reinstatement; and
3. Submit a criminal history background check as required
by § 54.1-3005.1 of the Code of Virginia.
C. The board may waive all or part of the continuing
education requirement for a nurse who holds a current, unrestricted license in
another state and who has engaged in active practice during the period the
Virginia license was lapsed.
D. A nurse whose license has been suspended or revoked by
the board may apply for reinstatement by filing a reinstatement application,
fulfilling requirements for continuing competency as required in subsection B
of this section, and paying the fee for reinstatement after suspension or
revocation. A nurse whose license has been revoked may not apply for
reinstatement sooner than three years from entry of the order of revocation.
E. The board may request additional evidence that the
nurse is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner.
18VAC90-19-200. Restricted volunteer license and
registration for voluntary practice by out-of-state licensees.
A. A registered or practical nurse may be issued a
restricted volunteer license and may practice in accordance with provisions of
§ 54.1-3011.01 of the Code of Virginia.
B. Any licensed nurse who does not hold a license to
practice in Virginia and who seeks registration to practice on a voluntary
basis under the auspices of a publicly supported, all volunteer nonprofit
organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of
underserved people shall:
1. File a complete application for registration on a form
provided by the board at least five business days prior to engaging in such
practice. An incomplete application will not be considered;
2. Provide evidence of current, unrestricted licensure in a
United States jurisdiction;
3. Provide the name of the nonprofit organization and the
dates and location of the voluntary provision of services;
4. Pay a registration fee of $10; and
5. Provide an attestation from a representative of the
nonprofit organization attesting to its compliance with provisions of
subdivision 11 of § 54.1-3001 of the Code of Virginia.
Part IV
Clinical Nurse Specialists
18VAC90-19-210. Clinical nurse specialist registration.
A. Initial registration. An applicant for initial
registration as a clinical nurse specialist shall:
1. Be currently licensed as a registered nurse in Virginia
or hold a current multistate licensure privilege as a registered nurse;
2. Submit evidence of current specialty certification as
required by § 54.1-3018.1 of the Code of Virginia or has an exception available
from March 1, 1990, to July 1, 1990; and
3. Submit the required application and fee.
B. Renewal of registration.
1. Registration as a clinical nurse specialist shall be
renewed biennially at the same time the registered nurse license is renewed. If
registered as a clinical nurse specialist with a multistate licensure privilege
to practice in Virginia as a registered nurse, a licensee born in even-numbered
years shall renew his license by the last day of the birth month in
even-numbered years and a licensee born in odd-numbered years shall renew his
license by the last day of the birth month in odd-numbered years.
2. The clinical nurse specialist shall complete the renewal
form and submit it with the required fee. An attestation of current specialty
certification is required unless registered in accordance with an exception.
3. Registration as a clinical nurse specialist shall lapse
if the registered nurse license is not renewed or the multistate licensure
privilege is lapsed and may be reinstated upon:
a. Reinstatement of RN license or multistate licensure
privilege;
b. Payment of reinstatement and current renewal fees; and
c. Submission of evidence of continued specialty
certification unless registered in accordance with an exception.
18VAC90-19-220. Clinical nurse specialist practice.
A. The practice of a clinical nurse specialist shall be
consistent with the education and experience required for clinical nurse
specialist certification.
B. The clinical nurse specialist shall provide those
advanced nursing services that are consistent with the standards of specialist
practice as established by a national certifying organization for the
designated specialty and in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 30 (§
54.1-3000 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
C. Advanced practice as a clinical nurse specialist shall
include performance as an expert clinician to:
1. Provide direct care and counsel to individuals and
groups;
2. Plan, evaluate, and direct care given by others; and
3. Improve care by consultation, collaboration, teaching,
and the conduct of research.
Part V
Disciplinary and Delegation Provisions
18VAC90-19-230. Disciplinary provisions.
A. The board has the authority to deny, revoke, or suspend
a license or multistate licensure privilege issued, or to otherwise discipline
a licensee or holder of a multistate licensure privilege upon proof that the
licensee or holder of a multistate licensure privilege has violated any of the
provisions of § 54.1-3007 of the Code of Virginia. For the purpose of
establishing allegations to be included in the notice of hearing, the board has
adopted the following definitions:
1. Fraud or deceit in procuring or maintaining a license
means, but shall not be limited to:
a. Filing false credentials;
b. Falsely representing facts on an application for initial
license, reinstatement, or renewal of a license; or
c. Giving or receiving assistance in the taking of the
licensing examination.
2. Unprofessional conduct means, but shall not be limited
to:
a. Performing acts beyond the limits of the practice of
professional or practical nursing as defined in Chapter 30 (§ 54.1-3000 et
seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or as provided by
§§ 54.1-2901 and 54.1-2957 of the Code of Virginia;
b. Assuming duties and responsibilities within the practice
of nursing without adequate training or when competency has not been
maintained;
c. Obtaining supplies, equipment, or drugs for personal or
other unauthorized use;
d. Employing or assigning unqualified persons to perform
functions that require a licensed practitioner of nursing;
e. Falsifying or otherwise altering patient, employer,
student, or educational program records, including falsely representing facts
on a job application or other employment-related documents;
f. Abusing, neglecting, or abandoning patients or clients;
g. Practice of a clinical nurse specialist beyond that
defined in 18VAC90-19-220 and § 54.1-3000 of the Code of Virginia;
h. Representing oneself as or performing acts constituting
the practice of a clinical nurse specialist unless so registered by the board;
i. Delegating nursing tasks to an unlicensed person in
violation of the provisions of Part VI (18VAC90-19-240 et seq.) of this
chapter;
j. Giving to or accepting from a patient or client property
or money for any reason other than fee for service or a nominal token of
appreciation;
k. Obtaining money or property of a patient or client by
fraud, misrepresentation, or duress;
l. Entering into a relationship with a patient or client
that constitutes a professional boundary violation in which the nurse uses his
professional position to take advantage of the vulnerability of a patient, a
client, or his family, to include actions that result in personal gain at the
expense of the patient or client, or a nontherapeutic personal involvement or
sexual conduct with a patient or client;
m. Violating state laws relating to the privacy of patient
information, including § 32.1-127.1:03 the Code of Virginia;
n. Providing false information to staff or board members in
the course of an investigation or proceeding;
o. Failing to report evidence of child abuse or neglect as
required in § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia or elder abuse or neglect as
required in § 63.2-1606 of the Code of Virginia; or
p. Violating any provision of this chapter.
B. Any sanction imposed on the registered nurse license of
a clinical nurse specialist shall have the same effect on the clinical nurse
specialist registration.
Part VI
Delegation of Nursing Tasks and Procedures
18VAC90-19-240. Definitions for delegation of nursing tasks
and procedures.
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings unless the content clearly indicates otherwise:
"Delegation" means the authorization by a
registered nurse to an unlicensed person to perform selected nursing tasks and
procedures in accordance with this part.
"Supervision" means guidance or direction of a
delegated nursing task or procedure by a qualified, registered nurse who
provides periodic observation and evaluation of the performance of the task and
who is accessible to the unlicensed person.
"Unlicensed person" means an appropriately
trained individual, regardless of title, who receives compensation, who functions
in a complementary or assistive role to the registered nurse in providing
direct patient care or carrying out common nursing tasks and procedures, and
who is responsible and accountable for the performance of such tasks and
procedures. With the exception of certified nurse aides, this shall not include
anyone licensed or certified by a health regulatory board who is practicing
within his recognized scope of practice.
18VAC90-19-250. Criteria for delegation.
A. Delegation of nursing tasks and procedures shall only
occur in accordance with the plan for delegation adopted by the entity
responsible for client care. The delegation plan shall comply with provisions
of this chapter and shall provide:
1. An assessment of the client population to be served;
2. Analysis and identification of nursing care needs and
priorities;
3. Establishment of organizational standards to provide for
sufficient supervision that assures safe nursing care to meet the needs of the
clients in their specific settings;
4. Communication of the delegation plan to the staff;
5. Identification of the educational and training
requirements for unlicensed persons and documentation of their competencies;
and
6. Provision of resources for appropriate delegation in
accordance with this part.
B. Delegation shall be made only if all of the following
criteria are met:
1. In the judgment of the delegating nurse, the task or
procedure can be properly and safely performed by the unlicensed person and the
delegation does not jeopardize the health, safety, and welfare of the client.
2. The delegating nurse retains responsibility and
accountability for nursing care of the client, including nursing assessment,
planning, evaluation, documentation, and supervision.
3. Delegated tasks and procedures are within the knowledge,
area of responsibility, and skills of the delegating nurse.
4. Delegated tasks and procedures are communicated on a
client-specific basis to an unlicensed person with clear, specific instructions
for performance of activities, potential complications, and expected results.
5. The person to whom a nursing task has been delegated is
clearly identified to the client as an unlicensed person by a name tag worn
while giving client care and by personal communication by the delegating nurse
when necessary.
C. Delegated tasks and procedures shall not be reassigned
by unlicensed personnel.
D. Nursing tasks shall only be delegated after an
assessment is performed according to the provisions of 18VAC90-19-260.
18VAC90-19-260. Assessment required prior to delegation.
Prior to delegation of nursing tasks and procedures, the
delegating nurse shall make an assessment of the client and unlicensed person
as follows:
1. The delegating nurse shall assess the clinical status
and stability of the client's condition; determine the type, complexity, and
frequency of the nursing care needed; and delegate only those tasks that:
a. Do not require the exercise of independent nursing
judgment;
b. Do not require complex observations or critical
decisions with respect to the nursing task or procedure;
c. Frequently recur in the routine care of the client or
group of clients;
d. Do not require repeated performance of nursing
assessments;
e. Utilize a standard procedure in which the tasks or
procedures can be performed according to exact, unchanging directions; and
f. Have predictable results and for which the consequences
of performing the task or procedures improperly are minimal and not life
threatening.
2. The delegating nurse shall also assess the training,
skills, and experience of the unlicensed person and shall verify the competency
of the unlicensed person to determine which tasks are appropriate for that
unlicensed person and the method of supervision required.
18VAC90-19-270. Supervision of delegated tasks.
A. The delegating nurse shall determine the method and
frequency of supervision based on factors that include:
1. The stability and condition of the client;
2. The experience and competency of the unlicensed person;
3. The nature of the tasks or procedures being delegated;
and
4. The proximity and availability of the registered nurse
to the unlicensed person when the nursing tasks will be performed.
B. In the event that the delegating nurse is not
available, the delegation shall either be terminated or delegation authority
shall be transferred by the delegating nurse to another registered nurse who
shall supervise all nursing tasks delegated to the unlicensed person, provided
the registered nurse meets the requirements of 18VAC90-19-250 B 3.
C. Supervision shall include:
1. Monitoring the performance of delegated tasks;
2. Evaluating the outcome for the client;
3. Ensuring appropriate documentation; and
4. Being accessible for consultation and intervention.
D. Based on an ongoing assessment as described in
18VAC90-19-260, the delegating nurse may determine that delegation of some or
all of the tasks and procedures is no longer appropriate.
18VAC90-19-280. Nursing tasks that shall not be delegated.
A. Nursing tasks that shall not be delegated are those
that are inappropriate for a specific, unlicensed person to perform on a
specific patient after an assessment is conducted as provided in
18VAC90-19-260.
B. Nursing tasks that shall not be delegated to any
unlicensed person are:
1. Activities involving nursing assessment, problem
identification, and outcome evaluation that require independent nursing
judgment;
2. Counseling or teaching except for activities related to
promoting independence in personal care and daily living;
3. Coordination and management of care involving
collaboration, consultation, and referral;
4. Emergency and nonemergency triage;
5. Administration of medications except as specifically
permitted by the Virginia Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq. of the Code of
Virginia); and
6. Circulating duties in an operating room.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly
Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (18VAC90-19)
Licensure by examination:
Instructions and Application for Licensure by Examination
for Registered Nurses (rev. 8/2011)
Instructions and Application for Licensure by
Examination -- Licensed Practical Nurse (rev. 8/2011)
Instructions
and Application for Licensure by Repeat Examination for Registered Nurse
(rev.12/2014)
Instructions
and Application for Licensure by Repeat Examination for Licensed Practical
Nurse (rev.12/2014)
License by endorsement:
Application for Licensure by Endorsement --
Registered Nurse (rev. 5/2011)
Instructions for Licensure by Endorsement --
Registered Nurse (rev. 5/2011)
Instructions for Licensure by Endorsement --
Licensed Practical Nurse (rev. 5/2011)
Application for Licensure by Endorsement --
Licensed Practical Nurse (rev. 6/2011)
Verification of Clinical Practice -- Licensure by
Endorsement (rev. 1/2010)
Reinstatement:
Instructions
and Application for Reinstatement -- Registered Nurse or Licensed Practical
Nurse (rev. 10/2016)
Instructions and Application for Reinstatement of
License as a Registered Nurse Following Suspension or Revocation (rev. 6/2011)
Instructions and Application for Reinstatement of
License as a Licensed Practical Nurse Following Suspension or Revocation (rev.
6/2011)
Clinical nurse specialist:
Procedure (rev. 3/10) and Application for
Registration as a Clinical Nurse Specialist (rev. 6/2011)
Instructions
and Application for Reinstatement of Registration as a Clinical Nurse
Specialist (rev. 3/2014)
Other:
Declaration
of Primary State of Residency for Purposes of the Nurse Licensure Compact (rev.
7/2015)
License
Verification Form (rev. 7/2016)
Application
for Registration for Volunteer Practice (undated, filed 12/2016)
Sponsor Certification for Volunteer Registration
(rev. 8/2008)
Verification of Supervised Clinical Practice --
Registered Nurse Provisional License (eff. 8/013)
Notification
of Intent to Supervise Clinical Practice -- Registered Nurse Provisional
License (rev. 4/2015)
Instructions
and Application for Restricted Volunteer Nursing License (rev. 5/2016)
Request
to Change License Status: Inactive to Active for RN and LPN (rev. 8/2016)
CHAPTER 27
REGULATIONS FOR NURSING EDUCATION PROGRAMS
Part I
General Provisions
18VAC90-27-10. Definitions.
In addition to words and terms defined in § 54.1-3000 of
the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in this chapter
shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Accreditation" means having been accredited by
the Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing, the Commission on
Collegiate Nursing Education, or a national nursing accrediting organization
recognized by the board.
"Advisory committee" means a group of persons
from a nursing education program and the health care community who meets
regularly to advise the nursing education program on the quality of its
graduates and the needs of the community.
"Approval" means the process by which the board
or a governmental agency in another state or foreign country evaluates and
grants official recognition to nursing education programs that meet established
standards not inconsistent with Virginia law.
"Associate degree nursing program" means a
nursing education program preparing for registered nurse licensure, offered by
a Virginia college or other institution and designed to lead to an associate
degree in nursing, provided that the institution is authorized to confer such
degree by SCHEV.
"Baccalaureate degree nursing program" or
"prelicensure graduate degree program" means a nursing education
program preparing for registered nurse licensure, offered by a Virginia college
or university and designed to lead to a baccalaureate or a graduate degree with
a major in nursing, provided that the institution is authorized to confer such
degree by SCHEV.
"Board" means the Board of Nursing.
"Clinical setting" means any location in which
the clinical practice of nursing occurs as specified in an agreement between
the cooperating agency and the school of nursing.
"Conditional approval" means a time-limited
status that results when an approved nursing education program has failed to
maintain requirements as set forth in this chapter.
"Cooperating agency" means an agency or
institution that enters into a written agreement to provide clinical or
observational experiences for a nursing education program.
"Diploma nursing program" means a nursing
education program preparing for registered nurse licensure, offered by a
hospital and designed to lead to a diploma in nursing, provided the hospital is
licensed in this state.
"Initial approval" means the status granted to a
nursing education program that allows the admission of students.
"National certifying organization" means an
organization that has as one of its purposes the certification of a specialty
in nursing based on an examination attesting to the knowledge of the nurse for
practice in the specialty area.
"NCLEX" means the National Council Licensure
Examination.
"NCSBN" means the National Council of State
Boards of Nursing.
"Nursing education program" means an entity
offering a basic course of study preparing persons for licensure as registered
nurses or as licensed practical nurses. A basic course of study shall include
all courses required for the degree, diploma, or certificate.
"Nursing faculty" means registered nurses who
teach the practice of nursing in nursing education programs.
"Practical nursing program" means a nursing
education program preparing for practical nurse licensure that leads to a
diploma or certificate in practical nursing, provided the school is authorized
by the Virginia Department of Education or by an accrediting agency recognized
by the U.S. Department of Education.
"Preceptor" means a licensed nurse who is
employed in the clinical setting, serves as a resource person and role model,
and is present with the nursing student in that setting, providing clinical
supervision.
"Program director" means a registered nurse who
holds a current, unrestricted license in Virginia or a multistate licensure privilege
and who has been designated by the controlling authority to administer the
nursing education program.
"Recommendation" means a guide to actions that
will assist an institution to improve and develop its nursing education
program.
"Requirement" means a mandatory condition that a
nursing education program must meet to be approved or maintain approval.
"SCHEV" means the State Council of Higher
Education for Virginia.
"Site visit" means a focused onsite review of
the nursing program by board staff, usually completed within one day for the
purpose of evaluating program components such as the physical location (skills
lab, classrooms, learning resources) for obtaining initial program approval, in
response to a complaint, compliance with NCLEX plan of correction, change of
location, or verification of noncompliance with this chapter.
"Survey visit" means a comprehensive onsite
review of the nursing program by board staff, usually completed within two days
(depending on the number of programs or campuses being reviewed) for the
purpose of obtaining and maintaining full program approval. The survey visit
includes the program's completion of a self-evaluation report prior to the
visit, as well as a board staff review of all program resources, including skills
lab, classrooms, learning resources, and clinical facilities, and other
components to ensure compliance with this chapter. Meetings with faculty,
administration, students, and clinical facility staff will occur.
18VAC90-27-20. Fees.
Fees required by the board are:
1. Application for approval of a
nursing education program.
|
$1,650
|
2. Survey visit for nursing
education program.
|
$2,200
|
3. Site visit for NCLEX passage
rate for nursing education program.
|
$1,500
|
Part II
Initial Approval of a Nursing Education Program
18VAC90-27-30. Application for initial approval.
An institution wishing to establish a nursing education
program shall:
1. Provide documentation of attendance by the program
director at a board orientation on establishment of a nursing education program
prior to submission of an application and fee.
2. Submit to the board an application to establish a
nursing education program along with a nonrefundable application fee as
prescribed in 18VAC90-27-20.
a. The application shall be effective for 12 months from
the date the application was received by the board.
b. If the program does not meet the board's requirements
for approval within 12 months, the institution shall file a new application and
fee.
3. Submit the following information on the organization and
operation of a nursing education program:
a. A copy of a business license and zoning permit to
operate a school in a Virginia location, a certificate of operation from the
State Corporation Commission, evidence of approval from the Virginia Department
of Education or SCHEV, and documentation of accreditation, if applicable;
b. The organizational structure of the institution and its
relationship to the nursing education program therein;
c. The type of nursing program, as defined in 18VAC90-27-10;
d. An enrollment plan specifying the beginning dates and
number of students for each class for a two-year period from the date of
initial approval including (i) the planned number of students in the first
class and in all subsequent classes and (ii) the planned frequency of
admissions. Any increase in admissions that is not stated in the enrollment
plan must be approved by the board. Also, transfer students are not authorized
until full approval has been granted to the nursing education program; and
e. A tentative time schedule for planning and initiating
the program through graduation of the first class and the program's receipt of
results of the NCLEX examination.
4. Submit to the board evidence documenting adequate
resources for the projected number of students and the ability to provide a
program that can meet the requirements of this part to include the following
information:
a. The results of a community assessment or market analysis
that demonstrates the need for the nursing education program in the geographic
area for the proposed school. The assessment or analysis shall include
employment opportunities of nurses in the community, the number of clinical
facilities or employers available for the size of the community to support the
number of graduates, and the number and types of other nursing education
programs in the area;
b. A projection of the availability of qualified faculty
sufficient to provide classroom instruction and clinical supervision for the
number of students specified by the program;
c. Budgeted faculty positions sufficient in number to
provide classroom instruction and clinical supervision;
d. Availability of clinical training facilities for the
program as evidenced by copies of contracts or letters of agreement specifying
the responsibilities of the respective parties and indicating sufficient
availability of clinical experiences for the number of students in the program,
the number of students, and clinical hours permitted at each clinical site and
on each nursing unit;
e. Documentation that at least 80% of all clinical
experiences are to be conducted in Virginia, unless an exception is granted by
the board. There shall be documentation of written approval for any clinical
experience conducted outside of Virginia by the agency that has authority to
approve clinical placement of students in that state. The use of any clinical
site in Virginia located 50 miles or more from the school shall require board
approval;
f. A diagram or blueprint showing the availability of
academic facilities for the program, including classrooms, skills laboratory,
and learning resource center. This information shall include the number of
restrooms for the student and faculty population, classroom and skills
laboratory space large enough to accommodate the number of the student body,
and sufficient faculty office space; and
g. Evidence of financial resources for the planning,
implementation, and continuation of the program with line-item budget
projections for the first three years of operations beginning with the
admission of students.
5. Respond to the board's request for additional
information within a timeframe established by the board.
18VAC90-27-40. Organization and administration.
A. The governing or parent institution offering Virginia
nursing education programs shall be approved by the Virginia Department of
Education or SCHEV or accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the
U.S. Department of Education.
B. Any agency or institution used for clinical experience
by a nursing education program shall be in good standing with its licensing
body.
C. The program director of the nursing education program
shall:
1. Hold a current license or multistate licensure privilege
to practice as a registered nurse in the Commonwealth without any disciplinary
action that currently restricts practice;
2. Have additional education and experience necessary to
administer, plan, implement, and evaluate the nursing education program;
3. Ensure that faculty are qualified by education and
experience to teach in the program or to supervise the clinical practice of
students in the program;
4. Maintain a current faculty roster, a current clinical
agency form, and current clinical contracts available for board review and
subject to an audit; and
5. Only serve as program director at one location or
campus.
D. The program shall provide evidence that the director
has authority to:
1. Implement the program and curriculum;
2. Oversee the admission, academic progression, and
graduation of students;
3. Hire and evaluate faculty; and
4. Recommend and administer the program budget, consistent
with established policies of the controlling agency.
E. An organizational plan shall indicate the lines of
authority and communication of the nursing education program to the controlling
body, to other departments within the controlling institution, to the
cooperating agencies, and to the advisory committee for the nursing education
program.
F. There shall be evidence of financial support and
resources sufficient to meet the goals of the nursing education program as
evidenced by a copy of the current annual budget or a signed statement from
administration specifically detailing its financial support and resources.
18VAC90-27-50. Philosophy and objectives.
Written statements of philosophy and objectives shall be
the foundation of the curriculum and shall be:
1. Formulated and accepted by the faculty and the program
director;
2. Descriptive of the practitioner to be prepared; and
3. The basis for planning, implementing, and evaluating the
total program through the implementation of a systematic plan of evaluation
that is documented in faculty or committee meeting minutes.
18VAC90-27-60. Faculty.
A. Qualifications for all faculty.
1. Every member of the nursing faculty, including the
program director, shall (i) hold a current license or a multistate licensure
privilege to practice nursing in Virginia as a registered nurse without any
disciplinary action that currently restricts practice and (ii) have had at
least two years of direct client care experience as a registered nurse prior to
employment by the program. Persons providing instruction in topics other than
nursing shall not be required to hold a license as a registered nurse.
2. Every member of a nursing faculty supervising the
clinical practice of students shall meet the licensure requirements of the
jurisdiction in which that practice occurs. Faculty shall provide evidence of
education or experience in the specialty area in which they supervise student
clinical experience for quality and safety. Prior to supervision of students,
the faculty providing supervision shall have completed a clinical orientation
to the site in which supervision is being provided.
3. The program director and each member of the nursing
faculty shall maintain documentation of professional competence through such
activities as nursing practice, continuing education programs, conferences,
workshops, seminars, academic courses, research projects, and professional
writing. Documentation of annual professional development shall be maintained
in employee files for the director and each faculty member until the next
survey visit and shall be available for board review.
4. For baccalaureate degree and prelicensure graduate
degree programs:
a. The program director shall hold a doctoral degree with a
graduate degree in nursing.
b. Every member of the nursing faculty shall hold a
graduate degree; the majority of the faculty shall have a graduate degree in
nursing. Faculty members with a graduate degree with a major other than in
nursing shall have a baccalaureate degree with a major in nursing.
5. For associate degree and diploma programs:
a. The program director shall hold a graduate degree with a
major in nursing.
b. The majority of the members of the nursing faculty shall
hold a graduate degree, preferably with a major in nursing.
c. All members of the nursing faculty shall hold a
baccalaureate or graduate degree with a major in nursing.
6. For practical nursing programs:
a. The program director shall hold a baccalaureate degree
with a major in nursing.
b. The majority of the members of the nursing faculty shall
hold a baccalaureate degree, preferably with a major in nursing.
B. Number of faculty.
1. The number of faculty shall be sufficient to prepare the
students to achieve the objectives of the educational program and to ensure
safety for clients to whom students provide care.
2. When students are giving direct care to clients, the
ratio of students to faculty shall not exceed 10 students to one faculty
member, and the faculty shall be on site solely to supervise students.
3. When preceptors are utilized for specified learning
experiences in clinical settings, the faculty member may supervise up to 15
students.
C. Functions. The principal functions of the faculty shall
be to:
1. Develop, implement, and evaluate the philosophy and
objectives of the nursing education program;
2. Design, implement, teach, evaluate, and revise the
curriculum. Faculty shall provide evidence of education and experience
necessary to indicate that they are competent to teach a given course;
3. Develop and evaluate student admission, progression, retention,
and graduation policies within the framework of the controlling institution;
4. Participate in academic advisement and counseling of
students in accordance with requirements of the Financial Educational Rights
and Privacy Act (20 USC § 1232g);
5. Provide opportunities for and evidence of student and
graduate evaluation of curriculum and teaching and program effectiveness; and
6. Document actions taken in faculty and committee meetings
using a systematic plan of evaluation for total program review.
18VAC90-27-70. Admission of students.
A. Requirements for admission to a registered nursing
education program shall not be less than the requirements of § 54.1-3017 A 1 of
the Code of Virginia that will permit the graduate to be admitted to the
appropriate licensing examination. The equivalent of a four-year high school
course of study as required pursuant to § 54.1-3017 shall be considered to be:
1. A General Educational Development (GED) certificate for
high school equivalence; or
2. Satisfactory completion of the college courses required
by the nursing education program.
B. Requirements for admission to a practical nursing
education program shall not be less than the requirements of § 54.1-3020 A 1 of
the Code of Virginia that will permit the graduate to be admitted to the
appropriate licensing examination.
C. Requirements for admission, readmission, advanced
standing, progression, retention, dismissal, and graduation shall be available
to the students in written form.
D. Except for high school students, all applicants to a
nursing education program shall be required to submit to a criminal background
check prior to admission.
E. Transfer students may not be admitted until a nursing
education program has received full approval from the board.
18VAC90-27-80. Resources, facilities, publications, and
services.
A. Classrooms, conference rooms, laboratories, clinical
facilities, and offices shall be sufficient to meet the objectives of the
nursing education program and the needs of the students, faculty, administration,
and staff and shall include private areas for faculty-student conferences. The
nursing education program shall provide facilities that meet federal and state
requirements, including:
1. Comfortable temperatures;
2. Clean and safe conditions;
3. Adequate lighting;
4. Adequate space to accommodate all students; and
5. Instructional technology and equipment needed for
simulating client care.
B. The program shall have learning resources and
technology that are current, pertinent, and accessible to students and faculty
and sufficient to meet the needs of the students and faculty.
C. Current information about the nursing education program
shall be published and distributed to applicants for admission and shall be
made available to the board. Such information shall include:
1. Description of the program to include whether the
program is accredited by a nursing education accrediting body;
2. Philosophy and objectives of the controlling institution
and of the nursing program;
3. Admission and graduation requirements, including the
policy on the use of a final comprehensive exam;
4. Fees and expenses;
5. Availability of financial aid;
6. Tuition refund policy;
7. Education facilities;
8. Availability of student activities and services;
9. Curriculum plan, to include course progression from
admission to graduation, the name of each course, theory hours, skills lab
hours, simulation hours (if used in lieu of direct client care hours), and
clinical hours;
10. Course descriptions, to include a complete overview of
what is taught in each course;
11. Faculty-staff roster;
12. School calendar;
13. Student grievance policy; and
14. Information about implications of criminal convictions.
D. Administrative support services shall be provided.
E. There shall be written
agreements with cooperating agencies that:
1. Ensure full control of student education by the faculty
of the nursing education program, including the selection and supervision of
learning experiences, to include the dismissal of students from the clinical
site if client safety is or may be compromised by the acts of the student;
2. Provide that faculty members or preceptors are present
in the clinical setting when students are providing direct client care;
3. Provide for cooperative planning with designated agency
personnel to ensure safe client care; and
4. Provide that faculty be readily available to students
and preceptors while students are involved in preceptorship experiences.
F. Cooperating agencies shall be approved by the
appropriate accreditation, evaluation, or licensing bodies, if such exist.
18VAC90-27-90. Curriculum.
A. Both classroom and online curricula shall reflect the
philosophy and objectives of the nursing education program and shall be
consistent with the law governing the practice of nursing.
B. Nursing education programs preparing for licensure as a
registered or practical nurse shall include:
1. Evidence-based didactic content and supervised clinical
experience in nursing, encompassing the attainment and maintenance of physical
and mental health and the prevention of illness for individuals and groups
throughout the life cycle and in a variety of acute, nonacute, community-based,
and long-term care clinical settings and experiences to include adult
medical/surgical nursing, geriatric nursing, maternal/infant (obstetrics,
gynecology, neonatal) nursing, mental health/psychiatric nursing, nursing
fundamentals, and pediatric nursing;
2. Concepts of the nursing process that include conducting
a focused nursing assessment of the client status that includes decision making
about who and when to inform, identifying client needs, planning for episodic
nursing care, implementing appropriate aspects of client care, contributing to
data collection and the evaluation of client outcomes, and the appropriate
reporting and documentation of collected data and care rendered;
3. Concepts of anatomy, physiology, chemistry, microbiology,
and the behavioral sciences;
4. Concepts of communication, growth and development,
nurse-client interpersonal relations, and client education, including:
a. Development of professional socialization that includes
working in interdisciplinary teams; and
b. Conflict resolution;
5. Concepts of ethics and the vocational and legal aspects
of nursing, including:
a. Regulations and sections of the Code of Virginia related
to nursing;
b. Client rights, privacy, and confidentiality;
c. Prevention of client abuse, neglect, and abandonment
throughout the life cycle, including instruction in the recognition,
intervention, and reporting by the nurse of evidence of child or elder abuse;
d. Professional responsibility, to include the role of the
practical and professional nurse;
e. Professional boundaries, to include appropriate use of
social media and electronic technology; and
f. History and trends in nursing and health care;
6. Concepts of pharmacology, dosage calculation, medication
administration, nutrition, and diet therapy;
7. Concepts of client-centered care, including:
a. Respect for cultural differences, values, and
preferences;
b. Promotion of healthy life styles for clients and
populations;
c. Promotion of a safe client environment;
d. Prevention and appropriate response to situations of
bioterrorism, natural and man-made disasters, and intimate partner and family
violence;
e. Use of critical thinking and clinical judgment in the
implementation of safe client care; and
f. Care of clients with multiple, chronic conditions; and
8. Development of management and supervisory skills,
including:
a. The use of technology in medication administration and
documentation of client care;
b. Participation in quality improvement processes and
systems to measure client outcomes and identify hazards and errors; and
c. Supervision of certified nurse aides, registered
medication aides, and unlicensed assistive personnel.
C. In addition to meeting curriculum requirements set
forth in subsection B of this section, registered nursing education programs
preparing for registered nurse licensure shall also include:
1. Evidence-based didactic content and supervised clinical
experiences in conducting a comprehensive nursing assessment that includes:
a. Extensive data collection, both initial and ongoing, for
individuals, families, groups, and communities addressing anticipated changes
in client conditions as well as emerging changes in a client's health status;
b. Recognition of alterations to previous client
conditions;
c. Synthesizing the biological, psychological, and social
aspects of the client's condition;
d. Evaluation of the effectiveness and impact of nursing
care;
e. Planning for nursing interventions and evaluating the
need for different interventions for individuals, groups, and communities;
f. Evaluation and implementation of the need to communicate
and consult with other health team members; and
g. Use of a broad and complete analysis to make independent
decisions and nursing diagnoses; and
2. Evidence-based didactic content and supervised
experiences in:
a. Development of clinical judgment;
b. Development of leadership skills and unit management;
c. Knowledge of the rules and principles for delegation of
nursing tasks to unlicensed persons;
d. Supervision of licensed practical nurses;
e. Involvement of clients in decision making and a plan of
care; and
f. Concepts of pathophysiology.
18VAC90-27-100. Curriculum for direct client care.
A. A nursing education program preparing a student for
licensure as a registered nurse shall provide a minimum of 500 hours of direct
client care supervised by qualified faculty. A nursing education program
preparing a student for licensure as a practical nurse shall provide a minimum
of 400 hours of direct client care supervised by qualified faculty. Direct
client care hours shall include experiences and settings as set forth in
18VAC90-27-90 B 1.
B. Licensed practical nurses transitioning into
prelicensure registered nursing programs may be awarded no more than 150
clinical hours of the 400 clinical hours received in a practical nursing
program. In a practical nursing to registered nursing transitional program, the
remainder of the clinical hours shall include registered nursing clinical
experience across the life cycle in adult medical/surgical nursing,
maternal/infant (obstetrics, gynecology, neonatal) nursing, mental
health/psychiatric nursing, and pediatric nursing.
C. Any observational experiences shall be planned in
cooperation with the agency involved to meet stated course objectives.
Observational experiences shall not be accepted toward the 400 or 500 minimum
clinical hours required. Observational objectives shall be available to
students, the clinical unit, and the board.
D. Simulation for direct client clinical hours.
1. No more than 25% of direct client contact hours may be
simulation. For prelicensure registered nursing programs, the total of
simulated client care hours cannot exceed 125 hours (25% of the required 500
hours). For prelicensure practical nursing programs, the total of simulated
client care hours cannot exceed 100 hours (25% of the required 400 hours).
2. No more than 50% of the total clinical hours for any
course may be used as simulation.
3. Skills acquisition and task training alone, as in the
traditional use of a skills laboratory, do not qualify as simulated client care
and therefore do not meet the requirements for direct client care hours.
4. Clinical simulation must be led by faculty who meet the
qualifications specified in 18VAC90-27-60.
5. Documentation of the following shall be available for
all simulated experiences:
a. Course description and objectives;
b. Type of simulation and location of simulated experience;
c. Number of simulated hours;
d. Faculty qualifications; and
e. Methods of debriefing.
18VAC90-27-110. Clinical practice of students.
A. In accordance with § 54.1-3001 of the Code of Virginia,
a nursing student, while enrolled in an approved nursing program, may perform
tasks that would constitute the practice of nursing. The student shall be
responsible and accountable for the safe performance of those direct client
care tasks to which he has been assigned.
B. Faculty shall be responsible for ensuring that students
perform only skills or services in direct client care for which they have
received instruction and have been found proficient by the instructor. Skills
checklists shall be maintained for each student.
C. Faculty members or preceptors providing onsite
supervision in the clinical care of clients shall be responsible and
accountable for the assignment of clients and tasks based on their assessment
and evaluation of the student's clinical knowledge and skills. Supervisors
shall also monitor clinical performance and intervene if necessary for the
safety and protection of the clients.
D. Clinical preceptors may be used to augment the faculty
and enhance the clinical learning experience. Faculty shall be responsible for
the designation of a preceptor for each student and shall communicate such
assignment with the preceptor. A preceptor may not further delegate the duties
of the preceptorship.
E. Preceptors shall provide to the nursing education
program evidence of competence to supervise student clinical experience for
quality and safety in each specialty area where they supervise students. The
clinical preceptor shall be licensed as a nurse at or above the level for which
the student is preparing.
F. Supervision of students.
1. When faculty are supervising direct client care by
students, the ratio of students to faculty shall not exceed 10 students to one
faculty member. The faculty member shall be on site in the clinical setting
solely to supervise students.
2. When preceptors are utilized for specified learning
experiences in clinical settings, the faculty member may supervise up to 15
students. In utilizing preceptors to supervise students in the clinical
setting, the ratio shall not exceed two students to one preceptor at any given
time. During the period in which students are in the clinical setting with a
preceptor, the faculty member shall be available for communication and
consultation with the preceptor.
G. Prior to beginning any preceptorship, the following
shall be required:
1. Written objectives, methodology, and evaluation
procedures for a specified period of time to include the dates of each
experience;
2. An orientation program for faculty, preceptors, and
students;
3. A skills checklist detailing the performance of skills
for which the student has had faculty-supervised clinical and didactic
preparation; and
4. The overall coordination by faculty who assume ultimate
responsibility for implementation, periodic monitoring, and evaluation.
18VAC90-27-120. Granting of initial program approval.
A. Initial approval may be granted when all documentation
required in 18VAC90-27-30 has been submitted and is deemed satisfactory to the
board and when the following conditions are met:
1. There is evidence that the requirements for organization
and administration and the philosophy and objectives of the program, as set
forth in 18VAC90-27-40 and 18VAC90-27-50, have been met;
2. A program director who meets board requirements has been
appointed, and there are sufficient faculty to initiate the program as required
in 18VAC90-27-60;
3. A written curriculum plan developed in accordance with
18VAC90-27-90 has been submitted and approved by the board;
4. A written systematic plan of evaluation has been
developed and approved by the board; and
5. The program is in compliance with requirements of
18VAC90-27-80 for resources, facilities, publications, and services as verified
by a satisfactory site visit conducted by a representative of the board.
B. If initial approval is granted:
1. The advertisement of the nursing program is authorized.
2. The admission of students is authorized, except that
transfer students are not authorized to be admitted until the program has
received full program approval.
3. The program director shall submit quarterly progress
reports to the board that shall include evidence of progress toward full
program approval and other information as required by the board.
18VAC90-27-130. Denying or withdrawing initial program
approval.
A. Denial of initial program approval.
1. Initial approval may be denied for causes enumerated in
18VAC90-27-140.
2. If initial approval is denied:
a. The program shall be given an option of correcting the
deficiencies cited by the board during the time remaining in its initial
12-month period following receipt of the application.
b. No further action regarding the application shall be
required of the board unless the program requests, within 30 days of the
mailing of the decision, an informal conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019
and 54.1-109 of the Code of Virginia.
3. If denial is recommended following the informal
conference, the recommendation shall be presented to the board or a panel
thereof for review and action.
4. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee to deny initial approval is accepted by the board or a panel thereof,
the decision shall be reflected in a board order, and no further action by the
board is required. The program may request a formal hearing within 30 days from
entry of the order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 of the Code of Virginia.
5. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to deny initial approval, the program shall be
advised of the right to appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court in
accordance with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the
Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
B. Withdrawal of initial program approval.
1. Initial approval shall be withdrawn and the program
closed if:
a. The program has not admitted students within six months
of approval of its application;
b. The program fails to submit evidence of progression
toward full program approval; or
c. For any of the causes enumerated in 18VAC90-27-140.
2. If a decision is made to withdraw initial approval, no
further action shall be required by the board unless the program within 30 days
of the mailing of the decision requests an informal conference pursuant to
§§ 2.2-4019 and 54.1-109 of the Code of Virginia.
3. If withdrawal of initial approval is recommended
following the informal conference, the recommendation shall be presented to the
board or a panel thereof for review and action.
4. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee to withdraw initial approval is accepted by the board or a panel
thereof, the decision shall be reflected in a board order, and no further
action by the board is required unless the program requests a formal hearing
within 30 days from entry of the order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 of
the Code of Virginia.
5. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to withdraw initial approval, the program shall
be advised of the right to appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court
in accordance with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the
Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
18VAC90-27-140. Causes for denial or withdrawal of nursing
education program approval.
A. Denial or withdrawal of program approval may be based
upon the following:
1. Failing to demonstrate compliance with program
requirements in Part II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.), III (18VAC90-27-150 et seq.),
or IV (18VAC90-27-210 et seq.) of this chapter.
2. Failing to comply with terms and conditions placed on a
program by the board.
3. Advertising for or admitting students without authority,
board approval, or contrary to a board restriction.
4. Failing to progress students through the program in
accordance with an approved timeframe.
5. Failing to provide evidence of progression toward
initial program approval within a timeframe established by the board.
6. Failing to provide evidence of progression toward full
program approval within a timeframe established by the board.
7. Failing to respond to requests for information required
from board representatives.
8. Fraudulently submitting documents or statements to the
board or its representatives.
9. Having had past actions taken by the board, other
states, or accrediting entities regarding the same nursing education program
operating in another jurisdiction.
10. Failing to maintain a pass rate of 80% on the NCLEX for
graduates of the program as required by 18VAC90-27-210.
11. Failing to comply with an order of the board or with
any terms and conditions placed upon it by the board for continued approval.
12. Having the program director, owner, or operator of the
program convicted of a felony or a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude or his
professional license disciplined by a licensing body or regulatory authority.
13. Failing to pay the required fee for a survey or site
visit.
B. Withdrawal of nursing education program approval may
occur at any stage in the application or approval process pursuant to
procedures enumerated in 18VAC90-27-130, 18VAC90-27-160, and 18VAC90-27-230.
C. Programs with approval denied or withdrawn may not
accept or admit additional students into the program effective upon the date of
entry of the board's final order to deny or withdraw approval. Further, the
program shall submit quarterly reports until the program is closed, and the
program shall comply with board requirements regarding closure of a program as
stated in 18VAC90-27-240.
Part III
Full Approval for a Nursing Education Program
18VAC90-27-150. Granting full program approval.
A. Full approval may be granted when:
1. A self-evaluation report of compliance with Part II
(18VAC90-27-30 et seq.) of this chapter and a survey visit fee as specified in
18VAC90-27-20 have been submitted and received by the board;
2. The program has achieved a passage rate of not less than
80% for the program's first-time test takers taking the NCLEX based on at least
20 graduates within a two-year period; and
3. A satisfactory survey visit and report have been made by
a representative of the board verifying that the program is in compliance with
all requirements for program approval.
B. If full approval is granted, the program shall continue
to comply with all requirements in Parts II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.) and III
(18VAC90-27-150 et seq.) of this chapter, and admission of transfer students is
authorized.
18VAC90-27-160. Denying full program approval.
A. Denial of full program approval may occur for causes
enumerated in 18VAC90-27-140.
B. If full program approval is denied, the board shall
also be authorized to do one of the following:
1. The board may continue the program on initial program
approval with terms and conditions to be met within the timeframe specified by
the board; or
2. The board may withdraw initial program approval.
C. If the board takes one of the actions specified in
subsection B of this section, the following shall apply:
1. No further action will be required of the board unless
the program within 30 days of the mailing of the decision requests an informal
conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019 and 54.1-109 the Code of Virginia.
2. If continued initial program approval with terms and
conditions or withdrawal of initial approval is recommended following the
informal conference, the recommendation shall be presented to the board or a
panel thereof for review and action.
3. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee is accepted by the board or a panel thereof, the decision shall be
reflected in a board order, and no further action by the board regarding the
application is required. The program may request a formal hearing within 30
days from entry of the order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 and subdivision 11
of § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia.
4. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to deny full approval or withdraw or continue on
initial approval with terms or conditions, the program shall be advised of the
right to appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court in accordance
with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme
Court of Virginia.
D. If a program is denied full approval and initial
approval withdrawn, no additional students may be accepted into the program,
effective upon the date of entry of the board's final order to deny or withdraw
approval. Further, the program shall submit quarterly reports until the program
is closed, and the program shall comply with board requirements regarding
closure of a program as stated in 18VAC90-27-240.
18VAC90-27-170. Requests for exception to requirements for
faculty.
After full approval has been granted, a program may
request board approval for exceptions to requirements of 18VAC90-27-60 for
faculty as follows:
1. Initial request for exception.
a. The program director shall submit a request for initial
exception in writing to the board for consideration prior to the academic year
during which the nursing faculty member is scheduled to teach or whenever an
unexpected vacancy has occurred.
b. A description of teaching assignment, a curriculum
vitae, and a statement of intent from the prospective faculty member to pursue
the required degree shall accompany each request.
c. The executive director of the board shall be authorized
to make the initial decision on requests for exceptions. Any appeal of that
decision shall be in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative
Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
2. Request for continuing exception.
a. Continuing exception will be based on the progress of
the nursing faculty member toward meeting the degree required by this chapter
during each year for which the exception is requested.
b. The program director shall submit the request for
continuing exception in writing prior to the next academic year during which
the nursing faculty member is scheduled to teach.
c. A list of courses required for the degree being pursued
and college transcripts showing successful completion of a minimum of two of
the courses during the past academic year shall accompany each request.
d. Any request for continuing exception shall be considered
by the informal factfinding committee, which shall make a recommendation to the
board.
18VAC90-27-180. Records and provision of information.
A. Requirements for admission, readmission, advanced
standing, progression, retention, dismissal, and graduation shall be readily
available to the students in written form.
B. A system of records shall be maintained and be made
available to the board representative and shall include:
1. Data relating to accreditation by any agency or body.
2. Course outlines.
3. Minutes of faculty and committee meetings, including
documentation of the use of a systematic plan of evaluation for total program
review and including those faculty members in attendance.
4. Record of and disposition of complaints.
C. A file shall be maintained for each student. Provision
shall be made for the protection of student and graduate files against loss,
destruction, and unauthorized use. Each file shall be available to the board
representative and shall include the student's:
1. Application, including the date of its submission and
the date of admission into the program;
2. High school transcript or copy of high school
equivalence certificate, and if the student is a foreign graduate, a transcript
translated into English;
3. Current record of achievement to include classroom
grades, skills checklists, and clinical hours for each course; and
4. A final transcript retained in the permanent file of the
institution to include dates of admission and completion of coursework,
graduation date, name and address of graduate, the dates of each semester or
term, course grades, and authorized signature.
D. Current information about the nursing education program
shall be published and distributed to students and applicants for admission and
shall be made available to the board. In addition to information specified in
18VAC90-27-80 C, the following information shall be included:
1. Annual passage rates on NCLEX for the past five years;
and
2. Accreditation status.
18VAC90-27-190. Evaluation of resources; written agreements
with cooperating agencies.
A. Periodic evaluations of resources, facilities, and
services shall be conducted by the administration, faculty, students, and
graduates of the nursing education program, including an employer evaluation
for graduates of the nursing education program. Such evaluation shall include
assurance that at least 80% of all clinical experiences are conducted in
Virginia unless an exception has been granted by the board.
B. Current written agreements with cooperating agencies shall
be maintained and reviewed annually and shall be in accordance with
18VAC90-27-80 E.
C. Upon request, a program shall provide a clinical agency
summary on a form provided by the board.
D. Upon request and if applicable, the program shall
provide (i) documentation of board approval for use of clinical sites located
50 or more miles from the school, and (ii) for use of clinical experiences
conducted outside of Virginia, documented approval from the agency that has
authority to approve clinical placement of students in that state.
18VAC90-27-200. Program changes.
A. The following shall be reported to the board within 10
days of the change or receipt of a report from an accrediting body:
1. Change in the program director, governing body, or
parent institution;
2. Adverse action taken by a licensing authority against
the program director, governing body, or parent institution;
3. Conviction of a felony or misdemeanor involving moral
turpitude against the program director, owner, or operator of the program;
4. Change in the physical location of the program;
5. Change in the availability of clinical sites;
6. Change in financial resources that could substantively
affect the nursing education program;
7. Change in content of curriculum, faculty, or method of
delivery that affects 25% or more of the total hours of didactic and clinical
instruction;
8. Change in accreditation status; and
9. A final report with findings and recommendations from
the accrediting body.
B. Other curriculum or faculty changes shall be reported
to the board with the annual report required in 18VAC90-27-220 A.
Part IV
Continued Approval of Nursing Education Programs
18VAC90-27-210. Passage rate on national examination.
A. For the purpose of continued approval by the board, a
nursing education program shall maintain a passage rate for first-time test
takers on the NCLEX that is not less than 80%, calculated on the cumulative
results of the past four quarters of all graduates in each calendar year
regardless of where the graduate is seeking licensure.
B. If an approved program falls below 80% for one year, it
shall submit a plan of correction to the board. If an approved program falls
below 80% for two consecutive years, the board shall place the program on
conditional approval with terms and conditions, require the program to submit a
plan of correction, and conduct a site visit. Prior to the conduct of such a visit,
the program shall submit the fee for a site visit for the NCLEX passage rate as
required by 18VAC90-27-20. If a program falls below 80% for three consecutive
years, the board may withdraw program approval.
C. For the purpose of program evaluation, the board may
provide to the program the NCLEX examination results of its graduates. However,
further release of such information by the program shall not be authorized
without written authorization from the candidate.
18VAC90-27-220. Maintaining an approved nursing education
program.
A. The program director of each nursing education program
shall submit an annual report to the board.
B. Each nursing education program shall be reevaluated as
follows:
1. Every nursing education program that has not achieved
accreditation as defined in 18VAC90-27-10 shall be reevaluated at least every
five years by submission of a comprehensive self-evaluation report based on
Parts II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.) and III (18VAC90-27-150 et seq.) of this
chapter and a survey visit by a representative or representatives of the board
on dates mutually acceptable to the institution and the board.
2. A program that has maintained accreditation as defined
in 18VAC90-27-10 shall be reevaluated at least every 10 years by submission of
a comprehensive self-evaluation report as provided by the board. As evidence of
compliance with specific requirements of this chapter, the board may accept the
most recent study report, site visit report, and final decision letter from the
accrediting body. The board may require additional information or a site visit
to ensure compliance with requirements of this chapter. If accreditation has
been withdrawn or a program has been placed on probation by the accrediting
body, the board may require a survey visit. If a program fails to submit the
documentation required in this subdivision, the requirements of subdivision 1
of this subsection shall apply.
C. Interim site or survey visits shall be made to the
institution by board representatives at any time within the initial approval
period or full approval period as deemed necessary by the board. Prior to the
conduct of such a visit, the program shall submit the fee for a survey visit as
required by 18VAC90-27-20.
D. Failure to submit the required fee for a survey or site
visit may subject an education program to board action or withdrawal of board
approval.
18VAC90-27-230. Continuing and withdrawal of full approval.
A. The board shall receive and review the self-evaluation
and survey reports required in 18VAC90-27-220 B or complaints relating to
program compliance. Following review, the board may continue the program on
full approval so long as it remains in compliance with all requirements in
Parts II (18VAC90-27-30 et seq.), III (18VAC90-27-150 et seq.), and IV (18VAC90-27-210
et seq.) of this chapter.
B. If the board determines that a program is not
maintaining the requirements of Parts II, III, and IV of this chapter or for
causes enumerated in 18VAC90-27-140, the board may:
1. Place the program on conditional approval with terms and
conditions to be met within the timeframe specified by the board; or
2. Withdraw program approval.
C. If the board either places a program on conditional
approval with terms and conditions to be met within a timeframe specified by
the board or withdraws approval, the following shall apply:
1. No further action will be required of the board unless
the program requests an informal conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019 and
54.1-109 of the Code of Virginia.
2. If withdrawal or continued program approval with terms
and conditions is recommended following the informal conference, the
recommendation shall be presented to the board or a panel thereof for review
and action.
3. If the recommendation of the informal conference
committee is accepted by the board or a panel thereof, the decision shall be
reflected in a board order and no further action by the board is required
unless the program requests a formal hearing within 30 days from entry of the
order in accordance with § 2.2-4020 of the Code of Virginia.
4. If the decision of the board or a panel thereof
following a formal hearing is to withdraw approval or continue on conditional
approval with terms or conditions, the program shall be advised of the right to
appeal the decision to the appropriate circuit court in accordance with
§ 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme
Court of Virginia.
D. If a program approval is withdrawn, no additional
students may be admitted into the program effective upon the date of entry of
the board's final order to withdraw approval. Further, the program shall submit
quarterly reports until the program is closed, and the program must comply with
board requirements regarding closure of a program as stated in 18VAC90-27-240.
18VAC90-27-240. Closing of an approved nursing education
program; custody of records.
A. When the governing institution anticipates the closing
of a nursing education program, the governing institution shall notify the
board in writing, stating the reason, plan, and date of intended closing.
The governing institution shall assist in the transfer of
students to other approved programs with the following conditions:
1. The program shall continue to meet the standards
required for approval until all students are transferred and shall submit a
quarterly report to the board regarding progress toward closure.
2. The program shall provide to the board a list of the
names of students who have been transferred to approved programs, and the date
on which the last student was transferred.
3. The date on which the last student was transferred shall
be the closing date of the program.
B. When the board denies or withdraws approval of a
program, the governing institution shall comply with the following procedures:
1. The program shall be closed according to a timeframe
established by the board.
2. The program shall provide to the board a list of the
names of students who have transferred to approved programs and the date on
which the last student was transferred shall be submitted to the board by the
governing institution.
3. The program shall provide quarterly reports to the board
regarding progress toward closure.
C. Provision shall be made for custody of records as
follows:
1. If the governing institution continues to function, it
shall assume responsibility for the records of the students and the graduates.
The governing institution shall inform the board of the arrangements made to
safeguard the records.
2. If the governing institution ceases to exist, the
academic transcript of each student and graduate shall be transferred by the
institution to the board for safekeeping.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building,
2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (18VAC90-27)
Application
to Establish a Nursing Education Program (rev. 10/2016)
Survey
Visit Report (rev. 10/2016)
Survey
Visit Report for Programs Having Accreditation (rev. 10/2016)
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4643; Filed December 17, 2016, 1:47 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF PHARMACY
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC110-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Pharmacy (amending 18VAC110-20-110).
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3307 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Caroline Juran, RPh, Executive Director,
Board of Pharmacy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463,
telephone (804) 367-4416, FAX (804) 527-4472, or email
caroline.juran@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments establish that (i) except in an emergency, a
pharmacy cannot require a pharmacist to work longer than 12 continuous hours in
any work day and shall allow at least six hours of off-time between consecutive
shifts and (ii) a pharmacist working longer than six continuous hours is
allowed to take a 30-minute break.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained
from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of
Regulations.
Part IV
Pharmacies
18VAC110-20-110. Pharmacy permits generally.
A. A pharmacy permit shall not be issued to a pharmacist to
be simultaneously in charge of more than two pharmacies.
B. Except in an emergency, a permit holder shall not
require a pharmacist to work longer than 12 continuous hours in any work day
[ without being allowed and shall allow ] at
least six hours of off-time between consecutive shifts. A pharmacist working
longer than six continuous hours shall be allowed to take a 30-minute break.
B. C. The pharmacist-in-charge (PIC) or the
pharmacist on duty shall control all aspects of the practice of pharmacy. Any
decision overriding such control of the PIC or other pharmacist on duty shall
be deemed the practice of pharmacy and may be grounds for disciplinary action
against the pharmacy permit.
C. D. When the PIC ceases practice at a
pharmacy or no longer wishes to be designated as PIC, he shall immediately
return the pharmacy permit to the board indicating the effective date on which
he ceased to be the PIC.
D. E. Although not required by law or
regulation, an outgoing PIC shall have the opportunity to take a complete and
accurate inventory of all Schedule II through V controlled substances on hand
on the date he ceases to be the PIC, unless the owner submits written notice to
the board showing good cause as to why this opportunity should not be allowed.
E. F. A PIC who is absent from practice for
more than 30 consecutive days shall be deemed to no longer be the PIC.
Pharmacists-in-charge having knowledge of upcoming absences for longer than 30
days shall be responsible for notifying the board and returning the permit. For
unanticipated absences by the PIC, which exceed 15 days with no known return
date within the next 15 days, the owner shall immediately notify the board and
shall obtain a new PIC.
F. G. An application for a permit designating
the new PIC shall be filed with the required fee within 14 days of the original
date of resignation or termination of the PIC on a form provided by the board.
It shall be unlawful for a pharmacy to operate without a new permit past the
14-day deadline unless the board receives a request for an extension prior to the
deadline. The executive director for the board may grant an extension for up to
an additional 14 days for good cause shown.
G. H. Only one pharmacy permit shall be issued
to conduct a pharmacy occupying the same designated prescription department
space. A pharmacy shall not engage in any other activity requiring a license or
permit from the board, such as manufacturing or wholesale-distributing, out of
the same designated prescription department space.
H. I. Before any permit is issued, the
applicant shall attest to compliance with all federal, state and local laws and
ordinances. A pharmacy permit shall not be issued to any person to operate from
a private dwelling or residence after September 2, 2009.
VA.R. Doc. No. R12-19; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:23 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC115-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Professional Counseling (amending 18VAC115-20-20).
18VAC115-30. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Substance Abuse Counselors and Substance Abuse Counseling (amending 18VAC115-30-30).
18VAC115-40. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Rehabilitation Providers (amending 18VAC115-40-20).
18VAC115-50. Regulations Governing the Practice of Marriage
and Family Therapy (amending 18VAC115-50-20).
18VAC115-60. Regulations Governing the Practice of Licensed
Substance Abuse Treatment Practitioners (amending 18VAC115-60-20).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
(804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) increase renewal fees for licensed
professional counselors, marriage and family therapists, and substance abuse
professionals (licensed professions) from $105 to $130 and for certified
substance abuse counselors and rehabilitation providers (certified professions)
from $55 to $65; (ii) increase application and initial licensure fees for the
licensed professions from $140 to $175 and for the certified professions from
$90 to $115; and (iii) increase all other fees by approximately 25%.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public
comments were received by the promulgating agency.
18VAC115-20-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a professional counselor:
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Initial licensure by examination: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of licensure to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-30-30. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of substance abuse counselors and substance abuse counseling
assistants:
Substance abuse counselor annual certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant annual certification
renewal
|
$40 $50
|
Substance abuse counselor initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement of substance abuse
counselors:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
18VAC115-40-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of rehabilitation providers:
Initial certification by examination: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed
certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. Fees shall be paid to the board. All fees are
nonrefundable.
18VAC115-50-20. Fees.
A. The board has established fees for the following:
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Penalty for late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Additional or replacement licenses
|
$5 $10
|
Additional or replacement wall certificates
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-60-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a substance abuse treatment practitioner:
Registration of supervision (initial)
|
$50 $65
|
Add/change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4525; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:22 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC115-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Professional Counseling (amending 18VAC115-20-20).
18VAC115-30. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Substance Abuse Counselors and Substance Abuse Counseling (amending 18VAC115-30-30).
18VAC115-40. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Rehabilitation Providers (amending 18VAC115-40-20).
18VAC115-50. Regulations Governing the Practice of Marriage
and Family Therapy (amending 18VAC115-50-20).
18VAC115-60. Regulations Governing the Practice of Licensed
Substance Abuse Treatment Practitioners (amending 18VAC115-60-20).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
(804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) increase renewal fees for licensed
professional counselors, marriage and family therapists, and substance abuse
professionals (licensed professions) from $105 to $130 and for certified
substance abuse counselors and rehabilitation providers (certified professions)
from $55 to $65; (ii) increase application and initial licensure fees for the
licensed professions from $140 to $175 and for the certified professions from
$90 to $115; and (iii) increase all other fees by approximately 25%.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public
comments were received by the promulgating agency.
18VAC115-20-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a professional counselor:
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Initial licensure by examination: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of licensure to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-30-30. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of substance abuse counselors and substance abuse counseling
assistants:
Substance abuse counselor annual certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant annual certification
renewal
|
$40 $50
|
Substance abuse counselor initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement of substance abuse
counselors:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
18VAC115-40-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of rehabilitation providers:
Initial certification by examination: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed
certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. Fees shall be paid to the board. All fees are
nonrefundable.
18VAC115-50-20. Fees.
A. The board has established fees for the following:
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Penalty for late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Additional or replacement licenses
|
$5 $10
|
Additional or replacement wall certificates
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-60-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a substance abuse treatment practitioner:
Registration of supervision (initial)
|
$50 $65
|
Add/change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4525; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:22 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC115-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Professional Counseling (amending 18VAC115-20-20).
18VAC115-30. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Substance Abuse Counselors and Substance Abuse Counseling (amending 18VAC115-30-30).
18VAC115-40. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Rehabilitation Providers (amending 18VAC115-40-20).
18VAC115-50. Regulations Governing the Practice of Marriage
and Family Therapy (amending 18VAC115-50-20).
18VAC115-60. Regulations Governing the Practice of Licensed
Substance Abuse Treatment Practitioners (amending 18VAC115-60-20).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
(804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) increase renewal fees for licensed
professional counselors, marriage and family therapists, and substance abuse
professionals (licensed professions) from $105 to $130 and for certified
substance abuse counselors and rehabilitation providers (certified professions)
from $55 to $65; (ii) increase application and initial licensure fees for the
licensed professions from $140 to $175 and for the certified professions from
$90 to $115; and (iii) increase all other fees by approximately 25%.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public
comments were received by the promulgating agency.
18VAC115-20-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a professional counselor:
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Initial licensure by examination: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of licensure to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-30-30. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of substance abuse counselors and substance abuse counseling
assistants:
Substance abuse counselor annual certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant annual certification
renewal
|
$40 $50
|
Substance abuse counselor initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement of substance abuse
counselors:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
18VAC115-40-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of rehabilitation providers:
Initial certification by examination: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed
certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. Fees shall be paid to the board. All fees are
nonrefundable.
18VAC115-50-20. Fees.
A. The board has established fees for the following:
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Penalty for late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Additional or replacement licenses
|
$5 $10
|
Additional or replacement wall certificates
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-60-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a substance abuse treatment practitioner:
Registration of supervision (initial)
|
$50 $65
|
Add/change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4525; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:22 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC115-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Professional Counseling (amending 18VAC115-20-20).
18VAC115-30. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Substance Abuse Counselors and Substance Abuse Counseling (amending 18VAC115-30-30).
18VAC115-40. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Rehabilitation Providers (amending 18VAC115-40-20).
18VAC115-50. Regulations Governing the Practice of Marriage
and Family Therapy (amending 18VAC115-50-20).
18VAC115-60. Regulations Governing the Practice of Licensed
Substance Abuse Treatment Practitioners (amending 18VAC115-60-20).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
(804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) increase renewal fees for licensed
professional counselors, marriage and family therapists, and substance abuse
professionals (licensed professions) from $105 to $130 and for certified
substance abuse counselors and rehabilitation providers (certified professions)
from $55 to $65; (ii) increase application and initial licensure fees for the
licensed professions from $140 to $175 and for the certified professions from
$90 to $115; and (iii) increase all other fees by approximately 25%.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public
comments were received by the promulgating agency.
18VAC115-20-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a professional counselor:
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Initial licensure by examination: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of licensure to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-30-30. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of substance abuse counselors and substance abuse counseling
assistants:
Substance abuse counselor annual certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant annual certification
renewal
|
$40 $50
|
Substance abuse counselor initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement of substance abuse
counselors:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
18VAC115-40-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of rehabilitation providers:
Initial certification by examination: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed
certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. Fees shall be paid to the board. All fees are
nonrefundable.
18VAC115-50-20. Fees.
A. The board has established fees for the following:
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Penalty for late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Additional or replacement licenses
|
$5 $10
|
Additional or replacement wall certificates
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-60-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a substance abuse treatment practitioner:
Registration of supervision (initial)
|
$50 $65
|
Add/change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4525; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:22 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF COUNSELING
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC115-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Professional Counseling (amending 18VAC115-20-20).
18VAC115-30. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Substance Abuse Counselors and Substance Abuse Counseling (amending 18VAC115-30-30).
18VAC115-40. Regulations Governing the Certification of
Rehabilitation Providers (amending 18VAC115-40-20).
18VAC115-50. Regulations Governing the Practice of Marriage
and Family Therapy (amending 18VAC115-50-20).
18VAC115-60. Regulations Governing the Practice of Licensed
Substance Abuse Treatment Practitioners (amending 18VAC115-60-20).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
of Counseling, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
(804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) increase renewal fees for licensed
professional counselors, marriage and family therapists, and substance abuse
professionals (licensed professions) from $105 to $130 and for certified
substance abuse counselors and rehabilitation providers (certified professions)
from $55 to $65; (ii) increase application and initial licensure fees for the
licensed professions from $140 to $175 and for the certified professions from
$90 to $115; and (iii) increase all other fees by approximately 25%.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public
comments were received by the promulgating agency.
18VAC115-20-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a professional counselor:
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Initial licensure by examination: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Application processing and
initial licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of licensure to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-30-30. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of substance abuse counselors and substance abuse counseling
assistants:
Substance abuse counselor annual certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant annual certification
renewal
|
$40 $50
|
Substance abuse counselor initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Substance abuse counseling assistant initial certification by
examination:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement of substance abuse
counselors:
Application processing and initial certification
|
$90 $115
|
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
18VAC115-40-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
the certification of rehabilitation providers:
Initial certification by examination: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Initial certification by endorsement: Processing and initial
certification
|
$90 $115
|
Certification renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate certificate
|
$5 $10
|
Late renewal
|
$20 $25
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed
certificate
|
$100 $125
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. Fees shall be paid to the board. All fees are
nonrefundable.
18VAC115-50-20. Fees.
A. The board has established fees for the following:
Registration of supervision
|
$50 $65
|
Add or change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Penalty for late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Additional or replacement licenses
|
$5 $10
|
Additional or replacement wall certificates
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
18VAC115-60-20. Fees required by the board.
A. The board has established the following fees applicable to
licensure as a substance abuse treatment practitioner:
Registration of supervision (initial)
|
$50 $65
|
Add/change supervisor
|
$25 $30
|
Initial licensure by examination: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Initial licensure by endorsement: Processing and initial
licensure
|
$140 $175
|
Active annual license renewal
|
$105 $130
|
Inactive annual license renewal
|
$55 $65
|
Duplicate license
|
$5 $10
|
Verification of license to another jurisdiction
|
$25 $30
|
Late renewal
|
$35 $45
|
Reinstatement of a lapsed license
|
$165 $200
|
Replacement of or additional wall certificate
|
$15 $25
|
Returned check
|
$35
|
Reinstatement following revocation or suspension
|
$500 $600
|
B. All fees are nonrefundable.
C. Examination fees shall be determined and made payable as
determined by the board.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4525; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:22 p.m.
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
DEPARTMENT FOR AGING AND REHABILITATIVE SERVICES
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 22VAC30-20. Provision of
Vocational Rehabilitation Services (amending 22VAC30-20-10 through 22VAC30-20-40,
22VAC30-20-60 through 22VAC30-20-181, 22VAC30-20-200; repealing 22VAC30-20-50).
Statutory Authority: § 51.5-131 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 8, 2017.
Agency Contact: Vanessa S. Rakestraw, Ph.D., CRC, Policy
Analyst, Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services, 8004 Franklin Farms
Drive, Richmond, VA 23229, telephone (804) 662-7612, FAX (804) 662-7663, TTY
(800) 464-9950, or email vanessa.rakestraw@dars.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) remove or change the maximum amounts
that the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services (DARS) pays for
certain services; (ii) require that an individual seeking assistance with a
four-year academic program must first attend two years at a community college
unless the program is not offered or the disability-related need cannot be met
at a community college; (iii) clarify that the minimum grade requirement
established by the academic program must be met for continued sponsorship in
postsecondary schools; (iv) clarify that DARS follows the federal poverty
guidelines in establishing the amount individuals are required to contribute to
their vocational rehabilitation programs; (v) add specific procedures and
specific guidelines to the review of determinations by DARS; and (vi) remove
unnecessary or redundant provisions.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No
public comments were received by the promulgating agency.
22VAC30-20-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Act" means the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 USC
§ 701 et seq.), as amended.
"Applicant" means an individual who submits an
application for vocational rehabilitation services.
"Appropriate modes of communication" means
specialized aids and supports that enable an individual with a disability to
comprehend and respond to information that is being communicated. Appropriate
modes of communication include, but are not limited to, the use of
interpreters, open and closed captioned videos, specialized telecommunications
services and audio recordings, Brailled and large-print materials, materials in
electronic formats, augmentative communication devices, graphic presentations,
and simple language materials.
"Assistive technology" means any item, piece of
equipment, or product system, whether acquired commercially off the shelf,
modified, or customized, that is used to increase, maintain, or improve the
functional capabilities of an individual with a disability.
"Assistive technology service" means any service
that directly assists an individual with a disability in the selection,
acquisition, or use of an assistive technology device, including:
1. The evaluation of the needs of an individual with a
disability, including a functional evaluation of the individual in his
customary environment;
2. Purchasing, leasing, or otherwise providing for the
acquisition by an individual with a disability of an assistive technology
device;
3. Selecting, designing, fitting, customizing, adapting,
applying, maintaining, repairing, or replacing assistive technology devices;
4. Coordinating and using other therapies, interventions, or
services with assistive technology devices, such as those associated with
existing education and rehabilitation plans and programs;
5. Training or technical assistance for an individual with a
disability or, if appropriate, the family members, guardians, advocates, or
authorized representatives of the individual; and
6. Training or technical assistance for professionals
(including individuals providing education and rehabilitation services),
employers, or others who provide services to, employ, or are otherwise
substantially involved in the major life functions of individuals with
disabilities, to the extent that training or technical assistance is necessary
to the achievement of an employment outcome by an individual with a disability.
"Audiological examination" means the testing of the
sense of hearing.
"Board" means the Board of Rehabilitative
Services.
"Clear and convincing evidence" means that the
designated state unit shall have a high degree of certainty before it can
conclude that an individual is incapable of benefiting from services in terms
of an employment outcome. The clear and convincing standard constitutes the
highest standard used in our civil system of law and is to be individually
applied on a case-by-case basis. The term "clear" means unequivocal.
Given these requirements, a review of existing information generally would not
provide clear and convincing evidence. For example, the use of an intelligence
test result alone would not constitute clear and convincing evidence. Clear and
convincing evidence might include a description of assessments, including
situational assessments and supported employment assessments, from service
providers who have concluded that they would be unable to meet the individual's
needs due to the severity of the individual's disability. The demonstration of
clear and convincing evidence must include, if appropriate, a functional
assessment of skill development activities, with any necessary supports
(including assistive technology), in real life settings. (S. Rep. No. 357, 102d
Cong., 2d. Sess. 37-38 (1992))
"Client Assistance Program" means the program
located within the disAbility Law Center of Virginia for the purpose of
advising applicants or eligible individuals about all available services under
the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 USC § 701 et seq.), as amended, and to
assist applicants and eligible individuals in their relationship with programs,
projects, and facilities providing vocational rehabilitation services.
[ " ]
"Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the
Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services.
"Community rehabilitation program" means a program
that directly provides or facilitates the provision of one or more of the
following vocational rehabilitation services to individuals with disabilities
to enable those individuals to maximize their opportunities for employment,
including career advancement:
1. Medical, psychiatric, psychological, social, and vocational
services that are provided under one management;
2. Testing, fitting, or training in the use of prosthetic and
orthotic devices;
3. Recreational therapy;
4. Physical and occupational therapy;
5. Speech, language, and hearing therapy;
6. Psychiatric, psychological, and social services, including
positive behavior management;
7. Assessment for determining eligibility and vocational
rehabilitation needs;
8. Rehabilitation technology;
9. Job development, placement, and retention services;
10. Evaluation or control of specific disabilities;
11. Orientation and mobility services for individuals who are
blind;
12. Extended employment;
13. Psychosocial rehabilitation services;
14. Supported employment services and extended services;
15. Services to family members, if necessary, to enable the
applicant or eligible individual to achieve an employment outcome;
16. Personal assistance services; or
17. Services similar to the services described in subdivisions
1 through 16 of this definition.
For the purposes of this definition, the word
"program" means an agency, organization, or institution, or unit of
an agency, organization, or institution, that directly provides or facilitates
the provision of vocational rehabilitation services as one of its major
functions.
"Comparable services and benefits" means services
and benefits that are provided or paid for, in whole or in part, by other
federal, state, or local public agencies, by health insurance, or by
employee benefits; available to the individual at the time needed to ensure the
individual's progress toward achieving the employment outcome in the
individual's individualized plan for employment; and commensurate to the
services that the individual would otherwise receive from the vocational
rehabilitation agency. For the purposes of this definition, comparable benefits
do not include awards and scholarships based on merit.
"Competitive employment" means work in the
competitive labor market that is performed on a full-time or part-time basis in
an integrated setting, and for which an individual is compensated at or above
the minimum wage, but not less than the customary wage and level of benefits
paid by the employer for the same or similar work performed by individuals who
are not disabled.
"Department" means the Department for Aging and
Rehabilitative Services. The department is considered the "designated
state agency" or "state agency," meaning the sole state agency
designated in accordance with 34 CFR 361.13(a) to administer or supervise local
administration of the state plan for vocational rehabilitation
services. The department also is considered the "designated state
unit" or "state unit," meaning the state agency, vocational
rehabilitation bureau, division, or other organizational unit that is primarily
concerned with vocational rehabilitation or vocational and other rehabilitation
of individuals with disabilities and that is responsible for the administration
of the vocational rehabilitation program of the state agency as required under
34 CFR 361.13(b), or the state agency that is primarily concerned with
vocational rehabilitation or vocational and other rehabilitation of individuals
with disabilities.
"Designated state agency" or "state
agency" means the sole state agency designated in accordance with 34 CFR
361.13(a) to administer or supervise local administration of the state plan for
vocational rehabilitation services.
"Designated state unit" or "state
unit" means either the state agency, vocational rehabilitation bureau,
division, or other organizational unit that is primarily concerned with vocational
rehabilitation or vocational and other rehabilitation of individuals with
disabilities and that is responsible for the administration of the vocational
rehabilitation program of the state agency as required under 34 CFR 361.13(b),
or the state agency that is primarily concerned with vocational rehabilitation
or vocational and other rehabilitation of individuals with disabilities.
"Eligible individual" means an applicant for
vocational rehabilitation services who meets the eligibility requirements of 22VAC30-20-30
and 22VAC30-20-40.
"Employment outcome" means, with respect to an
individual, entering or retaining full-time or, if appropriate, part-time
competitive employment in the integrated labor market; supported employment; or
any other type of employment in an integrated setting including
self-employment, telecommuting, or business ownership that is consistent with
an individual's strengths, resources, priorities, concerns, abilities,
capabilities, interests, and informed choice. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(16))
"Evaluation of vocational rehabilitation potential"
means, as appropriate, in each case (i) a preliminary diagnostic study to
determine that an individual is eligible for vocational rehabilitation
services; (ii) a thorough diagnostic study consisting of a comprehensive
evaluation of pertinent factors bearing on the individual's impediment to
employment and vocational rehabilitation potential, in order to determine which
vocational rehabilitation services may be of benefit to the individual in terms
of employability; (iii) any other the provision of goods or
services necessary to determine the nature of the disability and whether it may
reasonably be expected that the individual can benefit from vocational
rehabilitation services in terms of an employment outcome; (iv) referral
referrals to other agencies or organizations for services, when
appropriate; and (v) the provision of vocational rehabilitation services to an
individual during an extended evaluation of rehabilitation potential for the
purpose of determining whether the individual with a disability is capable of
achieving an employment outcome.
"Extended employment" means work in a nonintegrated
or sheltered setting for a public or private nonprofit agency or organization
that provides compensation in accordance with the Fair Labor Standards Act (29
USC § 201 et seq.). (34 CFR 361.5(b)(20))
"Extended evaluation" means the provision of
vocational rehabilitation services necessary for a determination of vocational
rehabilitation potential.
"Extended services" as used in the definition of
"supported employment" means ongoing support services and other
appropriate services that are needed to support and maintain an individual with
a most significant disability in supported employment and that are provided by
a state agency, a private nonprofit organization, employer, or any other
appropriate resource, from funds other than funds received under this
section, 34 CFR Part 363 after an individual with a most significant
disability has made the transition from support provided by the designated
state unit department.
"Extreme medical risk" means a probability of
substantially increasing functional impairment or death if medical services,
including mental health services, are not provided expeditiously.
"Family member" or "member of the family"
means an individual (i) who is either a relative or guardian of an
applicant or eligible individual, or lives in the same household as an
applicant or eligible individual; (ii) who has a substantial interest in
the well-being of that individual; and (iii) whose receipt of
vocational rehabilitation services is necessary to enable the applicant or
eligible individual to achieve an employment outcome.
"Higher education/institutions of higher
education" means training or training services provided by universities,
colleges, community or junior colleges, vocational schools, technical
institutes, or hospital schools of nursing.
"Impartial hearing officer" means an individual who
is not an employee of a public agency (other than an administrative law judge,
hearing examiner, or employee of an institution of higher education); is not a
member of the State Rehabilitation Council for the designated state unit
department; has not been involved previously in the vocational
rehabilitation of the applicant or eligible individual; has knowledge of the
delivery of vocational rehabilitation services, the state plan, and the federal
and state regulations governing the provision of services; has received
training with respect to the performance of official duties; and has no
personal, professional, or financial interest that would be in conflict with
the objectivity of the individual. An individual may is not be
considered to be an employee of a public agency for the purposes of this
definition solely because the individual is paid by the agency to serve as a
hearing officer. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(25))
"Individual who is blind" means a person who is
blind within the meaning of the applicable state law.
"Individual with a disability," except as provided
in 34 CFR 361.5(b)(29), means an individual (i) who has a physical or
mental impairment; (ii) whose impairment constitutes or results in a
substantial impediment to employment; and (iii) who can benefit in terms of an
employment outcome from the provision of vocational rehabilitation services.
(34 CFR 361.5(b)(28))
"Individual with a disability," for purposes of
34 CFR 361.5 (b)(14), 34 CFR 361.13(a), 34 CFR 361.13(b)(1), 34 CFR 361.17(a),
(b), (c), and (j), 34 CFR 361.18(b), 34 CFR 361.19, 34 CFR 361.20, 34 CFR
361.23(b)(2), 34 CFR 361.29(a) and (d)(5) and 34 CFR 361.51(b), means an
individual (i) who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially
limits one or more major life activities; (ii) who has a record of such an
impairment; or (iii) who is regarded as having such an impairment. (34 CFR
361.5(b)(29))
"Individual with a most significant disability"
means an individual with a significant disability who meets the designated
state unit's department's criteria for an individual with a most
significant disability. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(30))
"Individual with a significant disability" means an
individual with a disability (i) who has a severe physical or mental impairment
that seriously limits one or more functional capacities (such as mobility,
communication, self-care, self-direction, interpersonal skills, work tolerance,
or work skills) in terms of an employment outcome; (ii) whose vocational
rehabilitation can be expected to require multiple vocational rehabilitation
services over an extended period of time; and (iii) who has one or more
physical or mental disabilities resulting from amputation, arthritis, autism,
blindness, burn injury, cancer, cerebral palsy, cystic fibrosis, deafness, head
injury, heart disease, hemiplegia, hemophilia, respiratory or pulmonary
dysfunction, mental retardation intellectual disability, mental
illness, multiple sclerosis, muscular dystrophy, musculoskeletal disorders,
neurological disorders (including stroke and epilepsy), spinal cord conditions
(including paraplegia and quadriplegia), sickle cell anemia, specific learning
disability, end-stage renal disease, or another disability or combination of
disabilities determined on the basis of an assessment for determining
eligibility and vocational rehabilitation needs to cause comparable substantial
functional limitation. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(31))
"Individual's representative" means any
representative chosen by an applicant or eligible individual, as appropriate,
including a parent, guardian, other family member, or advocate, unless a
representative has been appointed by a court to represent the individual, in
which case the court-appointed representative is the individual's
representative. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(32))
"Integrated setting," with respect to the provision
of services, means a setting typically found in the community in which
applicants or eligible individuals interact with nondisabled individuals other
than nondisabled individuals who are providing services to those applicants or
eligible individuals. "Integrated setting," with respect to an
employment outcome, means a setting typically found in the community in which
applicants or eligible individuals interact with nondisabled individuals, other
than nondisabled individuals who are providing services to those applicants or
eligible individuals, to the same extent that nondisabled individuals in
comparable positions interact with other persons. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(33))
"Local workforce investment board" means a local
workforce investment board established under section § 117
of the Workforce Investment Act of 1998. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(34))
"Maintenance" means monetary support provided to an
individual for expenses, such as food, shelter, and clothing, that are in
excess of the normal expenses of the individual and that are necessitated by
the individual's participation in an assessment for determining eligibility and
vocational rehabilitation needs or the individual's receipt of vocational
rehabilitation services under an individualized plan for employment. (34 CFR
361.5(b)(35))
"Mediation" means the act or process of using an
independent third party to act as a mediator, intermediary, or conciliator to
assist persons or parties in settling differences or disputes prior to pursuing
formal administrative or other legal remedies. Mediation under the program must
be conducted in accordance with the requirements in 34 CFR 361.57(d) by a
qualified impartial mediator. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(36))
"Mental disability" means (i) having a
disability attributable to mental retardation, autism, or any other
neurologically disabling condition closely related to mental retardation and
requiring treatment similar to that required by mentally retarded individuals;
or (ii) an organic or mental impairment that has substantial adverse effects on
an individual's cognitive or volitional functions, including central nervous
system disorders or significant discrepancies among mental functions of an
individual.
"Nonprofit," with respect to a community
rehabilitation program, means a community rehabilitation program carried out by
a corporation or association, no part of the net earnings of which inures, or
may lawfully inure, to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual and
the income of which is exempt from taxation under § 501(c)(3) of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(37))
"One-stop center" means a center designed to
provide a full range of assistance to job seekers under one roof. Established
under the Workforce Investment Act of 1998, the centers offer training, career
counseling, job listings, and similar employment related services.
"Ongoing support services," as used in the
definition of "supported employment," means services that are needed
to support and maintain an individual with a most significant disability in
supported employment; identified based on a determination by the designated
state unit department of the individual's needs as specified in an
individualized plan for employment; and furnished by the designated state
unit department from the time of job placement until transition to
extended services, unless post-employment services are provided following
transition, and thereafter by one or more extended services providers
throughout the individual's term of employment in a particular job placement or
multiple placements if those placements are being provided under a program of
transitional employment. These services must shall include an
assessment of employment stability and provision of specific services or the
coordination of services at or away from the worksite that are needed to
maintain stability based on, at a minimum, twice-monthly monitoring at the
worksite of each individual in supported employment; or if under specific
circumstances, especially at the request of the individual, the individualized
plan for employment provides for off-site monitoring, twice-monthly meetings
with the individual. These services must shall consist of any
particularized assessment supplementary to the comprehensive assessment of
rehabilitation needs described in this section subsection A of
22VAC30-20-100; the provision of skilled job trainers who accompany the
individual for intensive job skill training at the work site worksite;
job development and placement training; social skills training;
regular observation or supervision of the individual; follow-up services
including regular contact with the employers, the individuals, the parents,
family members, guardians, advocates or authorized representatives of the
individuals, and other suitable professional and informed advisors in order to
reinforce and stabilize the job placement; facilitation of natural supports at
the worksite; any other service identified in the scope of vocational
rehabilitation services for individuals described in 22VAC30-20-120; or any
service similar to the foregoing services. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(38))
"Otological examination" means any examination
conducted by a physician skilled in otology.
"Personal assistance services" means a range of
services provided by one or more persons designed to assist an individual with
a disability to perform daily living activities on or off the job that the
individual would typically perform without assistance if the individual did not
have a disability. The services must be designed to increase the individual's
control in life and ability to perform everyday activities on or off the job.
The services must be necessary to the achievement of an employment outcome and
may be provided only while the individual is receiving other vocational rehabilitation
services. The services may include training in managing, supervising, and
directing personal assistance services.
"Physical and mental restoration services" means
corrective surgery or therapeutic treatment that is likely, within a reasonable
period of time, to correct or modify substantially a stable or slowly
progressive physical or mental impairment that constitutes a substantial
impediment to employment; diagnosis of and treatment for mental or emotional
disorders by qualified personnel in accordance with state licensure laws;
dentistry; nursing services; necessary hospitalization (either inpatient or
outpatient care) in connection with surgery or treatment and clinic services;
drugs and supplies; prosthetic, orthotic, or other assistive devices, including
hearing aids; eyeglasses and visual services, including visual training, and
the examination and services necessary for the prescription and provision of
eyeglasses, contact lenses, microscopic lenses, telescopic lenses, and other
special visual aids provided by the department in accordance with the
cooperative agreement established with the Department for the Blind and Vision
Impaired and prescribed by personnel that are qualified in accordance with
state licensure laws; podiatry; physical therapy; occupational therapy; speech
or hearing therapy; mental health services; treatment of either acute or
chronic medical complications and emergencies that are associated with or arise
out of the provision of physical and mental restoration services or that are
inherent in the condition under treatment; special services for the treatment
of individuals with end-stage renal disease, including transplantation,
dialysis, artificial kidneys, and supplies; and other medical or medically
related rehabilitation services.
"Physical or mental impairment" means any
physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss
affecting one or more of the following body systems: neurological, musculo-skeletal
musculoskeletal, special sense organs, respiratory (including speech
organs), cardiovascular, reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, hemic, and
lymphatic, skin, and endocrine; or any mental or psychological disorders
such as mental retardation intellectual disability, organic brain
syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. (34
CFR 361.5(b)(41))
"Post-employment services" means one or more of the
services identified in 22VAC30-20-120 that are provided subsequent to the
achievement of an employment outcome and that are necessary for an individual
to maintain, regain, or advance in employment consistent with the individual's
strengths, resources, priorities, concerns, abilities, capabilities, and
interests and informed choice. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(42))
"Prevocational training" means individual and group
instruction or counseling, the controlled use of varied activities, and the
application of special behavior modification techniques; individuals.
Individuals or patients are helped to: (i) develop physical and
emotional tolerance for work demands and pressures, (ii) acquire
personal-social behaviors which would make them acceptable employees and
coworkers on the job, and (iii) develop the basic manual, academic, and
communication skills needed to acquire basic job skills.
"Prosthetic and orthotic appliances" means any
mechanical equipment that improves or substitutes for one or more of man's
senses or for impaired mobility or motor coordination.
"Public safety officer" means an individual who
performs duties directly related to the enforcement, execution, and
administration of law or fire prevention, firefighting, or related public
safety activities, and whose substantially limiting condition arose from a
disability sustained in the line of duty while performing as a public safety
officer and the immediate cause of such disability was a criminal act, apparent
criminal act, or a hazardous condition.
"Qualified and impartial mediator" means an
individual who is not an employee of a public agency (other than an
administrative law judge, hearing examiner, employee of a state office of
mediators, or employee of an institution of higher education); is not a member
of the State Rehabilitation Council for the designated state unit department;
has not been involved previously in the vocational rehabilitation of the
applicant or eligible individual; is knowledgeable of the vocational
rehabilitation program and the applicable federal and state laws, regulations,
and policies governing the provision of vocational rehabilitation services; has
been trained in effective mediation techniques consistent with any state
approved or recognized certification, licensing, registration, or other
requirements; and has no personal, professional, or financial interest that
would be in conflict with the objectivity of the individual during the
mediation proceedings. An individual serving as a mediator is not considered to
be an employee of the designated state agency or designated state unit department
for the purposes of this definition solely because the individual is paid by
the designated state agency or designated state unit department
to serve as a mediator. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(43))
"Rehabilitation facility" means a facility which
is operated for the primary purpose of providing vocational rehabilitation
services to individuals with disabilities, and which provides singly or in
combination one or more of the following services for individuals with
disabilities: (i) vocational rehabilitation services, including under one
management, medical, psychiatric, psychological, social, and vocational
services; (ii) testing, fitting, or training in the use of prosthetic and
orthotic devices; (iii) prevocational conditioning or recreational therapy;
(iv) physical and occupational therapy; (v) speech and hearing therapy; (vi)
psychological and social services; (vii) evaluation of rehabilitation
potential; (viii) personal and work adjustment; (ix) vocational training with a
view toward career advancement (in combination with other rehabilitation
services); (x) evaluation or control of specific disabilities; (xi) orientation
and mobility services and other adjustment services to individuals who are
blind; and (xii) transitional or extended employment for those individuals with
disabilities who cannot be readily absorbed in the competitive labor market.
"Rehabilitation technology" means the systematic
application of technologies, engineering methodologies, or scientific
principles to meet the needs of, and address the barriers confronted by,
individuals with disabilities in areas that include education, rehabilitation,
employment, transportation, independent living, and recreation. The term
includes rehabilitation engineering, assistive technology devices, and
assistive technology services.
"Services to groups" means the provision of
facilities and services which may be expected to contribute substantially to
the vocational rehabilitation of a group of individuals, but which are not
related directly to the individualized rehabilitation program of any one
individual with a disability.
"State" means the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"State plan" means the state plan for vocational
rehabilitation services or the vocational rehabilitation services part of a
consolidated rehabilitation plan submitted under 34 CFR
361.10(c). (34 CFR 361.5(b)(51))
"State workforce investment board" means a state
workforce investment board established under § 111 of the Workforce
Investment Act of 1998. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(49))
"Substantial impediment to employment" means that a
physical or mental impairment (in light of attendant medical, psychological,
vocational, educational, and other related factors) hinders an individual from
preparing for, entering into, engaging in, or retaining employment consistent
with the individual's abilities and capabilities.
"Supported employment" means (i) competitive
employment in an integrated setting, or employment in integrated work
settings in which individuals are working toward competitive employment,
consistent with the strengths, resources, priorities, concerns, abilities,
capabilities, interests, and informed choice of the individuals with ongoing
support services for individuals with the most significant disabilities for
whom competitive employment has not traditionally occurred or for whom
competitive employment has been interrupted or intermittent as a result of a
significant disability; and who, because of the nature of their
disabilities, need intensive supported employment services from the designated
state unit department and extended services after transition to
perform this work or (ii) transitional employment for individuals with the most
significant disabilities due to mental illness. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(53))
"Supported employment services" means ongoing
support services and other appropriate services needed to support and maintain
an individual with a most significant disability in supported employment that
are provided by the designated state unit department (i) for a
period of time not to exceed 18 months, unless under special circumstances the
eligible individual and the rehabilitation counselor or coordinator jointly
agree to extend the time in order to achieve the employment outcome
identified in the individualized plan for employment; and (ii)
following transition, as post-employment services that are unavailable
from an extended services provider and that are necessary to maintain or regain
the job placement or advance in employment. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(54))
"Transition services" means a coordinated set of
activities for a student designed within an outcome-oriented process that promotes
movement from school to post-school activities, including post-secondary
postsecondary education, vocational training, integrated employment
(including supported employment), continuing and adult education, adult
services, independent living, or community participation. The coordinated set
of activities must be based upon the individual student's needs, taking into
account the student's preferences and interests, and must include instruction,
community experiences, the development of employment and other post-school
adult living objectives, and, if appropriate, acquisition of daily living
skills and functional vocational evaluation. Transition services must promote
or facilitate the achievement of the employment outcome identified in the
student's individualized plan for employment. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(55))
"Transitional employment," as used in the
definition of "supported employment," means a series of temporary job
placements in competitive work in integrated settings with ongoing support
services for individuals with the most severe significant
disabilities due to mental illness. In transitional employment, the provision
of ongoing support services must include continuing sequential job placements
until job permanency is achieved.
"Transportation" means travel and related expenses
that are necessary to enable an applicant or eligible individual to participate
in a vocational rehabilitation service, including expenses for training in the
use of public transportation vehicles and systems. (34 CFR 361.5(b)(57))
"Vocational rehabilitation potential" mean the
ability of the individual with a disability to benefit in terms of an
employment outcome from the provision of vocational rehabilitation services.
"Vocational rehabilitation services" means those
services listed in 22VAC30-20-120.
"Work adjustment training" means a treatment and
training process utilizing individual and group work, or work related
activities, to assist individuals in understanding the meaning, value and
demands of work; to modify or develop attitudes, personal characteristics, work
behavior, and to develop functional capacities, as required in order to assist
individuals toward their optimum level of vocational development.
22VAC30-20-20. Processing referrals and applications.
A. Referrals. The designated state unit department
must establish and implement standards for the prompt and equitable handling of
referrals of individuals for vocational rehabilitation services, including
referrals of individuals made through the One-Stop service delivery systems
established under § 121 of the Workforce Investment Act of 1998 a
one-stop center. The standards must include timelines for making good faith
efforts to inform these individuals of application requirements and to gather
information necessary to initiate an assessment for determining eligibility and
priority for services. (34 CFR 361.41(a))
B. Applications.
1. Once an individual has submitted an application for
vocational rehabilitation services, an eligibility determination shall be made
within 60 days, unless (i) exceptional and unforeseen circumstances beyond the
control of the designated state unit department preclude making a
determination within 60 days and the designated state agency department
and the individual agree to a specific extension of time or (ii) an exploration
of the individual's abilities, capabilities, and capacity to perform in work
situations is carried out in accordance with 22VAC30-20-50 or, if
appropriate, an extended evaluation is necessary. (34 CFR 361.41(b)(1))
2. An individual is considered to have submitted an
application when the individual or the individual's representative, as
appropriate (i) has completed and signed an agency application form, a common
intake application form in a One-Stop one-stop center requesting
vocational rehabilitation services, or has otherwise requested services from
the designated state unit department; (ii) has provided
information to the designated state unit department that is
necessary to initiate an assessment to determine eligibility and priority for
services; and (iii) is available to complete the assessment process. (34 CFR
361.41(b)(2))
3. The designated state unit department shall
ensure that its application forms are widely available throughout the state,
particularly in the One-Stop one-stop centers established
under § 121 of the Workforce Investment Act of 1998. (34 CFR
361.41(b)(3))
4. A face-to-face interview with the applicant is required.
22VAC30-20-30. Assessment for determining eligibility and
priority for services.
In order to determine whether an individual is eligible for
vocational rehabilitation services and the individual's priority under an order
of selection for services (if the state is operating under an order of
selection), the designated state unit will department shall
conduct an assessment for determining eligibility and priority for services.
The assessment must shall be conducted in the most integrated
setting possible, consistent with the individual's needs and informed choice,
and in accordance with the following provisions:
1. Eligibility requirements are applied without regard to
race, age, gender, color, or national origin;
2. No applicant or group of applicants is excluded or found
ineligible solely on the basis of the type of disability;
3. The eligibility requirements are applied without regard to
the particular service needs or anticipated cost of services required by an
applicant or the income level of an applicant or applicant's family, or the
type of expected employment outcome, or the source of referral for vocational
rehabilitation services; and
4. No duration of residence requirement is imposed that
excludes from services any individual who is present in the state. (34 CFR
361.42(c))
22VAC30-20-40. Eligibility requirements.
A. Basic requirements. The designated state unit's department's
determination of an applicant's eligibility for vocational rehabilitation
services is shall be based only on the following requirements:
(i) a determination by qualified personnel that the applicant has a physical or
mental impairment; (ii) a determination by qualified personnel that the
applicant's physical or mental impairment constitutes or results in a
substantial impediment to employment for the applicant; (iii) a presumption, in
accordance with subsection B of this section, that the applicant can benefit in
terms of an employment outcome from the provision of vocational rehabilitation
services; and (iv) a determination by a qualified vocational rehabilitation
counselor employed by the designated state unit department that
the applicant requires vocational rehabilitation services to prepare for,
secure, retain, or regain employment consistent with the applicant's
strengths, resources, priorities, concerns, abilities, capabilities, and
informed choice.
B. Presumption of benefit. The designated state unit will
department shall presume that an applicant who meets the basic
eligibility requirements in clauses (i) and (ii) of subsection A of this
section can benefit in terms of an employment outcome unless it the
department demonstrates, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the
applicant is incapable of benefiting in terms of an employment from vocational
rehabilitation services due to the severity of the applicant's disability.
C. Presumption of eligibility for Social Security
beneficiaries. The designated state unit must department shall
assure that, if an applicant has appropriate evidence, such as an award
letter, that establishes the applicant's eligibility for Social Security
benefits under Title II or Title XVI of the Social Security Act, the designated
state unit will department shall presume that the applicant (i)
meets the eligibility requirements in clauses (i) and (ii) of subsection A of
this section and (ii) is an individual with a significant disability as defined
in 22VAC30-20-10.
D. Achievement of an employment outcome. Any eligible
individual, including an individual whose eligibility for vocational
rehabilitation services is based on the individual being eligible for Social
Security benefits under Title II or Title XVI of the Social Security Act, must
intend to achieve an employment outcome that is consistent with the applicant's
individual's unique strengths, resources, priorities, concerns,
abilities, capabilities, interests, and informed choice.
1. The state unit is department shall be
responsible for informing individuals, through its application process for
vocational rehabilitation services, that individuals who receive services under
the program must intend to achieve an employment outcome.
2. The applicant's completion of the application process for
vocational rehabilitation services is shall be sufficient
evidence of the individual's intent to achieve an employment outcome, and no
additional demonstration on the part of the applicant is required for purposes
of satisfying this section.
E. Interpretation of entitlement. Nothing in this section is
to shall be construed to create an entitlement to any vocational
rehabilitation service.
F. Review and assessment of data for eligibility
determination. Except as provided in 22VAC30-20-60, the designated state
unit department shall base its determination of each of the basic
eligibility requirements in subsection A of this section on:
1. A review and assessment of existing data, including
counselor observations, education records, information provided by the
individual or the individual's family, information used by the Social Security
Administration, and determinations made by officials of other agencies; and
2. To the extent existing data do not describe the current
functioning of the individual or are unavailable, insufficient, or
inappropriate to make an eligibility determination, an assessment of additional
data resulting from the provision of vocational rehabilitation services,
including assistive technology devices and services and worksite assessments,
that are necessary to determine whether an individual is eligible.
G. Trial work experience for individuals with significant
disabilities. Prior to any determination that an individual with a disability
is incapable of benefiting from vocational rehabilitation services in terms of
an employment outcome because of the severity of that individual's disability, an
exploration of the department shall explore the individual's
abilities, capabilities, and capacity to perform in a realistic work situation is
required in accordance with 34 CFR 361.42 to determine whether or not there
is clear and convincing evidence to support such a determination.
22VAC30-20-50. Evaluation of vocational rehabilitation
potential. (Repealed.)
A. Required evaluations. The current general health of the
individual shall be assessed, based, to the maximum extent possible, on
available medical information. In all cases of mental or emotional disorders an
examination shall be provided by a physician licensed to diagnose and treat
such disorders or a psychologist licensed or certified in accordance with state
laws and regulations. If eligibility cannot be determined from medical evidence
of record, medical specialist examinations needed to determine eligibility shall
be provided.
B. Hospitalization for diagnosis may be provided when all
of the following conditions are met:
1. This service is required in order to determine
eligibility for services or type of services needed; and
2. This service is recommended by a licensed medical
doctor.
The maximum period of diagnostic hospitalization shall be
three days.
22VAC30-20-60. Extended evaluation for individuals with
significant disabilities.
A. Under limited circumstances, if an individual cannot take
advantage of trial work experiences or if options for trial work experiences
have been exhausted before the state unit department is able to
make an eligibility determination for vocational rehabilitation services, the state
unit must department shall conduct an extended evaluation to make
the determination that (i) there is sufficient evidence to conclude that the
individual can benefit from the provision of vocational rehabilitation services
in terms of an employment outcome or (ii) there is clear and convincing evidence
that the individual is incapable of benefiting from vocational rehabilitation
services in terms of an employment outcome due to the severity of the
individual's disability
B. During the extended evaluation period, which may not
exceed 18 months, vocational rehabilitation services must shall
be provided in the most integrated setting possible, consistent with the
informed choice and rehabilitation needs of the individual.
C. During the extended evaluation period, the designated
state unit must department shall develop a written plan for
providing services that are necessary to make the determinations in subsection
A of this section. The state unit department may provide during
this period only those services that are necessary to make these two
determinations. (34 CFR 361.42)
D. The state unit department shall assess the
individual's progress as frequently as necessary, but at least once every 90
days, during the extended evaluation period.
E. The state unit department shall terminate
extended evaluation services at any point during the 18-month extended
evaluation period if the state unit department determines that
(i) there is sufficient evidence to conclude that the individual can benefit
from vocational rehabilitation services in terms of an employment outcome or
(ii) there is clear and convincing evidence that the individual is incapable of
benefiting from vocational rehabilitation services in terms of an employment
outcome.
22VAC30-20-70. Certification of eligibility.
A. For vocational rehabilitation services;,
before or at the same time the applicant is accepted for services, the
department shall certify that the applicant has met the basic eligibility
requirements as specified in 22VAC30-20-40.
B. For extended evaluation;, as a basis for
providing an extended evaluation to determine vocational rehabilitation
potential, there shall be certification that the applicant has met the
requirements as specified in 22VAC30-20-60.
22VAC30-20-80. Procedures for ineligibility determination.
A. Certification of ineligibility. If the state unit department
determines that an applicant is ineligible for vocational rehabilitation
services or determines that an individual receiving services under an
individualized plan for employment is no longer eligible for services, that
state unit must the department shall:
1. Make the determination only after providing an opportunity
for full consultation with the individual or, as appropriate, with the
individual's representative.;
2. Inform the individual in writing, supplemented as necessary
by other appropriate modes of communication consistent with the informed choice
of the individual, of the ineligibility determination, including the reasons
for that determination, the requirements under this section and the means by
which the individual may express and seek remedy for any dissatisfaction,
including the procedures for review of a state unit department
personnel determination in accordance with 22VAC30-20-181.;
3. Provide the individual with a description of services
available under the Client Assistance Program, Virginia Office of Protection
and Advocacy, and information on how to contact that program.;
4. Refer the individual to other training or
employment-related programs that are part of the One-Stop service delivery
system under the Workforce Investment Act. one-stop centers or, if the
ineligibility determination is based on a finding that the individual is
incapable of achieving an employment outcome as defined in 22VAC30-20-10, to
local extended employment providers; and
5. Review within 12 months and annually thereafter if
requested by the individual or, if appropriate, by the individual's
representative, any ineligibility determination that is based on a
finding that the individual is incapable of achieving an employment outcome.
The review need not be conducted in situations in which the individual has
refused it, the individual is no longer present in the Commonwealth state,
the individual's whereabouts are unknown, or the individual's medical condition
is rapidly progressive or terminal.
B. Case closure without eligibility determination. The state
unit may department shall not close an applicant's record of
services prior to making an eligibility determination unless the applicant
declines to participate in, or is unavailable to complete, an assessment
for determining eligibility and priority for services, and the state unit
department has made a reasonable number of attempts to contact the
applicant or, if appropriate, the applicant's representative to encourage the
applicant's participation.
22VAC30-20-90. Order of selection for services.
A. In the event that the full range of vocational
rehabilitation services cannot be provided to all eligible individuals who apply
for services because of insufficient resources, an order of selection system
may be implemented by the commissioner following consultation with the State
Rehabilitation Council. The order of selection shall determine those persons to
be provided services. It shall be the policy of the department to encourage
referrals and applications of all persons with disabilities and, to the extent
resources permit, provide services to all eligible persons.
The following order of selection is implemented when services
cannot be provided to all eligible persons:
1. Person Persons eligible and presently
receiving services under an individualized plan for employment.;
2. Those persons Persons referred and needing
diagnostic services to determine eligibility.; and
3. Persons determined to be eligible for services, but not
presently receiving services under an individualized plan for employment,
shall be served according to the following order of priorities:
a. Priority I. An individual with a most significant
disability in accordance with the definition in 22VAC30-20-10.;
b. Priority II. An individual with a significant disability
that results in serious functional limitations in two functional capacities.;
c. Priority III. An individual with a significant disability
that results in a serious functional limitation in one functional capacity.;
and
d. Priority IV. Other persons determined to be disabled, in
order of eligibility determination.
B. An order of selection may shall not be based
on any other factors, including (i) any duration of residency requirement,
provided the individual is present in the state; (ii) type of disability; (iii)
age, gender, race, color, or national origin; (iv) source of referral; (v) type
of expected employment outcome; (vi) the need for specific services or
anticipated cost of services required by the individual; or (vii) the income
level of an individual or an individual's family.
C. In administering the order of selection, the designated
state unit must department shall (i) implement the order of
selection on a statewide basis; (ii) notify all eligible individuals of the
priority categories in a state's the order of selection, their
assignment to a particular category, and their right to appeal their
category assignment; (iii) continue to provide all needed services to any
eligible individual who has begun to receive services under an individualized
plan for employment prior to the effective date of the order of selection,
irrespective of the severity of the individual's disability; and (iv) ensure
that its funding arrangements for providing services under the state plan,
including third-party arrangements and awards under the establishment
authority, are consistent with the order of selection. If any funding
arrangements are inconsistent with the order of selection, the designated
state unit must department shall renegotiate these funding
arrangements so that they are consistent with the order of selection.
D. Consultation with the State Rehabilitation Council must
shall include (i) the need to establish an order of selection, including
any reevaluation of the need; (ii) priority categories of the particular order
of selection; (iii) criteria for determining individuals with the most
significant disabilities; and (iv) administration of the order of selection.
22VAC30-20-95. Information and referral services.
A. The designated state unit will department shall
implement an information and referral system adequate to ensure that
individuals with disabilities, including eligible individuals who do not meet
the state unit's department's order of selection criteria for
receiving vocational rehabilitation services if the agency department
is operating on under an order of selection, are provided
accurate vocational rehabilitation information and guidance (which may include
counseling and referral for job placement) using appropriate modes of
communication to assist them in preparing for, securing, retaining, or
regaining employment.
B. The state unit will department shall refer
individuals with disabilities to other appropriate federal and state programs,
including other components of the statewide workforce investment system. In
making these referrals, the designated state unit must department
shall:
1. Refer the individuals to federal or state programs,
including programs carried out by other components of the statewide workforce
investment system, best suited to address the specific employment needs of an
individual with a disability; and
2. Provide the individual who is being referred (i) a notice
of the referral by the designated state unit department to the
agency carrying out the program; (ii) information identifying a specific point
of contact within the agency to which the individual is being referred; and
(iii) information and advice regarding the most suitable services to assist the
individual to prepare for, secure, retain, or regain employment.
22VAC30-20-100. The individualized plan for employment
procedures.
A. General requirements.
1. An individualized plan for employment meeting the
requirements of this section shall be developed and implemented in a timely
manner for each individual determined to be eligible for vocational
rehabilitation services, or, if the designated state unit department
is operating under an order of selection in accordance with 22VAC30-20-90, for
each eligible individual to whom the state unit department is
able to provide services. Services will shall be provided in
accordance with the provisions of the individualized plan for employment.
2. The state unit must department shall conduct
an assessment for determining vocational rehabilitation needs, if appropriate,
for each eligible individual, or, if the state department
is operating under an order of selection, the department shall conduct an
assessment for each eligible individual to whom the state department
is able to provide services. The purpose of this assessment is to determine the
employment outcome and the nature and scope of vocational rehabilitation
services to be included in the individualized plan for employment.
a. To the extent possible, the employment outcome and the
nature and scope of rehabilitation services to be included in the
individualized plan for employment must shall be determined based
on data from assessment of eligibility and priority of services under
22VAC30-20-30.
b. If additional data are necessary to determine the
employment outcome and the nature and scope of services, the state unit must
department shall conduct a comprehensive assessment of the unique
strengths, resources, priorities, concerns, abilities, capabilities, interests,
and informed choice, including the need for supported employment services, of
the eligible individual, in the most integrated setting possible. In preparing
the comprehensive assessment, the state unit must department shall
use, to the maximum extent possible and appropriate and in accordance with
confidentiality requirements, existing information that is current as of the
date of the development of the individualized plan for employment. This
includes information (i) available from other programs and providers, particular
particularly information used by the education system and the Social
Security Administration; (ii) information provided by the individual and
the individual's family; and (iii) information obtained under the
assessment for determining the individual's eligibility and vocational needs.
3. The individualized plan for employment shall be a written
document prepared on forms provided by the state unit department.
4. Vocational rehabilitation services shall be provided in
accordance with the provisions of the individualized plan for employment. An
eligible individual or, as appropriate, the individual's representative may
develop all or part of the individualized plan for employment with or without
assistance from the state unit department or other entity. The
individualized plan for employment must shall be approved and
signed by the qualified vocational rehabilitation counselor employed by the designated
state unit department and the individual or, as appropriate, the
individual's representative. The state unit department shall
establish and implement standards for the prompt development of individualized
plans for employment for the individuals identified in subdivision 1 of this
subsection, including timelines that take into consideration the needs of the
individual.
5. The state unit department shall promptly
provide each individual or, as appropriate, the individual's representative a
written copy of the individualized plan for employment and its amendments in
the native language or appropriate mode of communication of the individual or,
as appropriate, of the individual's representative.
6. The state unit department shall advise in
writing each individual or, as appropriate, the individual's representative of
all state unit department procedures and requirements affecting
the development and review of an individualized plan for employment, including
the availability of appropriate modes of communication.
7. The individualized plan for employment for a student with a
disability who is receiving special education services must be coordinated with
the IEP individualized education program for that individual in
terms of goals, objectives, and services identified in the IEP individualized
education program.
B. Individualized plan for employment review. The state
unit department shall review the plan with the individual or, as
appropriate, the individual's representative as often as necessary, but at
least once each year to assess the individual's progress in achieving the
identified employment outcome. The plan may be amended as necessary if there
are substantive changes in the employment outcome, the vocational
rehabilitation services to be provided, or the providers of the vocational
rehabilitation services. Amendments to the plan do not take effect until agreed
to and signed by the individual or, as appropriate, the individual's representative
and by a qualified vocational rehabilitation counselor employed by the designated
state unit department.
C. Review of ineligibility determination. If the state
unit determines that an applicant is ineligible for vocational rehabilitation
services or determines that an individual receiving services under an
individualized plan for employment is no longer eligible for services, the
state unit shall:
1. Make the determination only after providing an
opportunity for full consultation with the individual or, as appropriate, with
the individual's representative;
2. Inform the individual in writing, supplemented as
necessary by other appropriate modes of communication consistent with the
informed choice of the individual, of the ineligibility determination,
including the reasons for that determination, the requirements under this
section, and the means by which the individual may express and seek remedy for
any dissatisfaction, including the procedures for review of a determination by
the rehabilitation counselor or coordinator. The state unit shall provide the
individual with a description of services available from the Client Assistance
Program, Virginia Office of Protection and Advocacy, established under 34 CFR
Part 370, and information on how to contact that program;
3. Refer the individual to other training or
employment-related programs that are part of the One-Stop delivery system under
the Workforce Investment Act; and
4. Review within 12 months and annually thereafter if
requested by the individual or, if appropriate, by the individual's
representative, any ineligibility determination that is based on a
finding that the individual is incapable of achieving an employment outcome.
This review need not be conducted in situations in which the individual has
refused it, the individual is no longer present in the state, the individual's
whereabouts are unknown, or the individual's medical condition is rapidly
progressive or terminal (34 CFR 361.43).
22VAC30-20-110. Individualized plan for employment content.
A. Regardless of the option in 22VAC30-20-100 chosen by the
eligible individual for developing the individualized plan for employment, each
plan for employment must shall include the following:
1. A description of the specific employment outcome, as
defined in 22VAC30-20-10, that is chosen by the eligible individual and is
consistent with the individual's unique strengths, resources, priorities,
concerns, abilities, capabilities, career interests, and informed choice of the
individual, and results in employment in an integrated setting;
2. A description of the specific vocational
rehabilitation services provided under 22VAC30-20-120 that are needed to
achieve the employment outcome, including, as appropriate, the provision of
assistive technology devices and services and personal assistance services,
including training in the management of those services, and providing in the
most integrated setting that is appropriate for the services involved and is
consistent with the informed choice of the eligible individual;
3. Timelines for the achievement of the employment outcome and
for the initiation of services;
4. A description of the entity or entities chosen by the
eligible individual or, as appropriate, the individual's representative that
will provide the vocational rehabilitation services and the methods used to
procure those services;
5. A description of the criteria that will be used to evaluate
progress toward achievement of the employment outcome;
6. The terms and conditions of the individualized plan for
employment, including, as appropriate, information describing the
responsibilities of the designated state unit department, the
responsibilities the eligible individual will shall assume in
relation to achieving the employment outcome, the extent of the eligible
individual's participation in paying for the cost of services, the
responsibility of the individual with regard to applying for and securing
comparable services and benefits as described in 22VAC30-20-170, and the
responsibilities of other entities as the result of arrangements made pursuant
to comparable services or benefits requirements in 22VAC30-20-170;
7. The A statement of the rights of the
individual under this part chapter and the means by which the
individual may express and seek remedy for any dissatisfaction, including the
opportunity for a review of determinations made by designated state unit
department personnel;
8. The A statement of the availability of the
Client Assistance Program, with the Virginia Office of Protection and
Advocacy;
9. The basis on which the individual has been determined to
have achieved an employment outcome;
10. A statement concerning the expected need for
post-employment services prior to closing the record of services of an
individual who has achieved an employment outcome;
11. A description of the terms and conditions for the
provision of any post-employment services; and
12. If appropriate, a statement of how post-employment
services will shall be provided or arranged through other
entities as the result of arrangements made pursuant to the comparable benefits
and services requirement.
B. Supported employment. In addition to the requirements in
subsection A of this section, the individualized plan for employment for an
individual with a most significant disability for whom supported employment has
been determined appropriate must shall also:
1. Specify the supported employment services to be provided by
the designated state unit department;
2. Specify the expected extended services needed, which may
include natural supports;
3. Identify the source of extended services or, to the extent
that it is not possible to identify the source of extended services at the time
the individualized plan for employment is developed, include a description of
the basis for concluding that there is a reasonable expectation that those
sources will become available;
4. Provide for periodic monitoring to ensure that the
individual is making satisfactory progress toward meeting the weekly work
requirement established in the individualized plan for employment by the time
of transition to extended services;
5. Provide for the coordination of services provided under an
individualized plan for employment with services provided under other
individualized plans established under other federal or state programs;
6. To the extent that job skills training is provided,
identify that the training will shall be provided on site; and
7. Include placement in an integrated setting for the maximum
number of hours possible based on the unique strengths, resources, priorities,
concerns, abilities, capabilities, interests, and informed choice of
individuals with the most significant disabilities.
22VAC30-20-120. Scope of vocational rehabilitation services for
individuals.
As appropriate to the vocational rehabilitation needs of each
individual and consistent with each individual's informed choice, the designated
state unit must department shall ensure that the following
vocational rehabilitation services are available to assist the individual with
a disability in preparing for, securing, retaining, or regaining an employment
outcome that is consistent with the individual's strengths, resources,
priorities, concerns, abilities, capabilities, interests, and informed choice:
1. Assessment for determining eligibility and priority for
services and assessment for determining vocational rehabilitation needs by
qualified personnel including, if appropriate, an assessment by personnel
skilled in rehabilitation technology in accordance with 22VAC30-20-10.
2. Vocational rehabilitation counseling and guidance,
including information and support services to assist an individual in
exercising informed choice.
3. Referral and other services necessary to assist applicants
and eligible individuals to secure needed services from other agencies,
including other components of the statewide workforce investment system and to
advise those individuals about the Client Assistance Program under the
Virginia Office of Protection and Advocacy.
4. Physical and mental restoration services, in accordance
with the definition of 22VAC30-20-10, to the extent that financial support is
not readily available from a source other than the designated state unit
department (such as through health insurance or comparable services and
benefits as defined in 22VAC30-20-10).
a. These services include but are not limited to:
(1) Convalescent care, nursing or rest home care when the
services are directly related to the vocational rehabilitation objective for an
individual who needs continued medical supervision after department-sponsored
treatment for his condition. This service must be recommended by the proper
medical practitioner before the service is authorized and is contingent upon
the individual being able to reengage in the vocational rehabilitation program.
This service may be provided for 30 days, and the commissioner or his designee
may approve an additional 30 days of service.
(2) Dentistry.
(3) Drugs and supplies. When medication is to be continuous
(e.g., treatment of diabetes or epilepsy), and while the individual is
receiving vocational training, the department may purchase medication during
the training period and for a period not to exceed 90 days after achieving
employment. When counseling, medication and placement are the only services
provided, the department may pay for medication for a period not to exceed 90
days. Generic drugs shall be utilized when possible.
(4) Necessary hospitalization (either inpatient or
outpatient care, in connection with surgery or treatment and clinic services).
The department may pay for hospitalization for medical diagnosis, surgical or
medical treatment when deemed necessary for the vocational rehabilitation of
the individual and recommended by a licensed practitioner. Hospitalization
shall be provided in hospitals, medically oriented treatment facilities, or
continuing care facilities in Virginia or out of state, with which the
department has a contract. Payment to hospitals, medically oriented treatment
facilities, or continuing care facilities shall be made in accordance with the
department fee schedules. The maximum period of hospitalization, excluding
diagnostic, to be authorized based upon financial resources available to the
department shall be 10 days. Extension of the maximum period of hospitalization
shall be allowed when due to acute medical complications and emergencies
associated with or arising out of the provision of physical or mental restoration
services. Treatment of acute medical complications or emergencies which impact
negatively on the individual's progress toward the individual's vocational goal
shall be provided.
(5) Eyeglasses and visual services, including visual
training, and the examination and services necessary for the prescription and
provision of eyeglasses, contact lenses, microscopic lenses, telescopic lenses,
and other special visual aids prescribed by personnel that are qualified in
accordance with state licensure laws. These services may be provided to an
individual when their visual disability, as established by an opthalmological
or an optometric examination, is of such severity that their employment
opportunities are considerably limited. Visual services shall be provided by
the department in accordance with the cooperative agreement established with
the Department for the Blind and Vision Impaired. Visual aids may also be
provided to individuals who are unable to satisfactorily pursue their
vocational rehabilitation program due to impaired vision.
(6) Nursing services.
(7) Physical restoration in a rehabilitation facility.
(8) Physical and occupational therapy when prescribed by a
doctor of medicine.
(9) Prosthetic, orthotic, or other assistive devices,
including hearing aids. The department may purchase an original appliance only
upon the recommendation of the medical specialist. When an individual has a
history of satisfactory appliance use and the general medical examination
report indicates no pathological change, this report may be sufficient medical
basis for the replacement or repair of the appliance. The department shall
purchase prosthetic or othotic appliances from vendors approved in accordance
with the department's vendor approval process.
(10) Mental health services or diagnosis of and treatment
for mental or emotional disorders by qualified personnel in accordance with
state licensure laws shall be provided by a psychiatrist or psychologist. If
the department purchases the services from either, they must be qualified in
the area of psychotherapy and be licensed in accordance with the laws of the
Commonwealth. The maximum number of sessions to be sponsored shall be 27. If
the individual needs additional psychotherapy, the department will make an
effort to assist the individual in securing it.
(11) Speech or hearing therapy. Speech therapy may be
provided to individuals when treatment is recommended by a speech pathologist
who is licensed in accordance with the laws of the Commonwealth. Hearing aid
orientation and lip reading may be provided when recommended by a specialist in
hearing disabilities.
(12) Corrective surgery or therapeutic treatment that is
likely, within a reasonable period of time, to correct or substantially modify
a stable or slowly progressive physical or mental impairment that constitutes a
substantial impediment to employment.
(13) Podiatry.
(14) Treatment of either acute or chronic medical
complications and emergencies that are associated with or arise out of the
provision of physical and mental restoration services that are inherent in the
condition under treatment.
(15) Special services for the treatment of individuals with
end stage renal disease, including transplantation, dialysis, artificial
kidneys, and supplies.
(16) Chiropractic services, after consultation with a
doctor of medicine.
(17) Cardiac exercise therapy for individuals who have had
a myocardial infarction or a coronary bypass not more than six months prior to
the recommended exercise therapy. A maximum of 24 sessions may be authorized.
(18) Other medical or medically related rehabilitation
services.
b. a. Eligibility requirements.
(1) Stable or slowly progressive. The physical or mental
condition must shall be stable or slowly progressive. The
condition must shall not be acute or transitory, or of such
recent origin that the resulting functional limitations and the extent to which
the limitations affect occupational performance cannot be identified.
(2) Refusal of service. When an individual has a physical or
mental disability with resulting limitations that constitute a handicap barrier
to employment, and when in the opinion of licensed medical personnel these
limitations can be removed by physical or mental restoration services without
injury to the individual, they the individual shall not be
eligible for any rehabilitation services, except counseling, guidance and
placement if they refuse he refuses to accept the appropriate
physical or mental restoration services. A second opinion may be provided at
the individual's request. In the event of conflicting medical opinions, the
department shall secure a third opinion and the decision shall be made on the
two concurring opinions.
c. b. Provision of physical and mental
restoration services. These services are shall be provided only
when:
(1) Recommended by a licensed practitioner;
(2) Services are not available from another source; and
(3) They are provided in conjunction with counseling and
guidance, and other services, as deemed appropriate.
The department shall not make case expenditures for acute or
intermediate medical care except for medical complications and emergencies which
that are associated with or arise out of the provision of Vocational
Rehabilitation (VR) vocational rehabilitation services under an
individualized plan for employment and which that are inherent in
the condition under treatment.
d. c. Services not sponsored by the department.
The board department, in consultation with appropriate medical
resources, shall determine those physical restoration services that
shall not be provided by the department. The following circumstances
or conditions procedures shall not be considered provided:
(1) Experimental procedures shall not be sponsored;
(2) High risk procedures;
(3) Procedures with limited vocational outcomes or
procedures not related to the vocational outcome; and
(4) Procedures with uncertain outcomes.
5. Vocational and other training services, including personal
and vocational adjustment training, books, tools, and other training materials,
except that no training or training services in institutions of higher education
(universities, colleges, community/junior community or junior
colleges, vocational schools, technical institutes, or hospital schools of
nursing) may be paid for with funds under this section unless maximum efforts
have been made by the state unit department and the individual to
secure grant assistance in whole or in part from other sources to pay for that
training.
All training services provided shall be related to attainment
of the vocational objective or provide for the determination of eligibility for
vocational rehabilitation services. Vocational training includes any organized
form of instruction which that provides the knowledge and skills
essential for performing the tasks involved in an occupation. Vocational
training may be obtained in institutions such as colleges, universities,
business schools, nursing schools, and trade and technical schools. It
may also be obtained by on-the-job training, apprenticeship programs, tutorial
training, or correspondence study.
a. Business schools and business colleges, trade and
technical schools, and two-year college terminal courses. The training
institution selected shall be approved in accordance with the department's
vendor approval process. Approved training institutions. Only training
institutions approved in accordance with the department's vendor approval
process shall be used.
b. College and university academic training.
(1) Academic requirements. The individual shall take
sufficient academic credit hours based on the requirement of the college attended
for classification as a full-time student, unless this is, in the opinion of
the department, contraindicated by the individual's disability. Courses shall
meet the institution's requirement towards the obtainment of the degree or
certificate. Continuation of financial assistance by the department shall be
dependent upon the individual maintaining a "C" average calculated
on an academic year the grade average required by the institution for
the particular course of study. When the institution has no grade
requirement, continuation of financial assistance by the department shall be
dependent upon the individual maintaining a "C" average calculated
over the academic year. When the individual fails to maintain a
"C" the required academic grade average, assistance may be
discontinued. The department's assistance may be reinstated when the individual
completes one semester or quarter with a the minimum of a
"C" required grade average.
Each individual shall be advised that failure to provide
grades to the department shall be grounds for termination of departmental
financial assistance.
(2) Graduate degree program. The department shall assist only
eligible individuals with severe disabilities in securing a
graduate degree and only when it is judged essential to achieving an
employment goal agreed to by the department and the individual.
(3) Virginia colleges and universities. Vocational training,
including college or university training, shall be provided by the department
in any department approved institution department-approved
institutions located within the boundaries of the Commonwealth, unless such
training is not available within the Commonwealth. Institutions in the areas of
Washington, D.C.; Bristol-Johnson City-Kingsport, Tennessee; the city of Bluefield,
West Virginia; and other cities where the services may be provided more
effectively and economically and shall be treated as if located in Virginia.
(4) Tuition and mandatory fees. The department may pay tuition
for college and university training in an amount not in excess of the highest
amount charged for tuition by a state-supported institution or the rate
published in the catalog, whichever is less, except where out-of-state or
private college is necessary, published. Published tuition
costs in excess of the highest amount charged by a state-supported
institution may be necessary and may be paid by the department if
no state-supported institution is available that offers the degree program
needed to achieve the established employment goal, if no state-supported
program offers disability-related supports to enable the individual to achieve
the established employment goal, or if an out-of-state or private program is
more economical for the department.
Any individual enrolling into any college/university course
or courses for the primary purpose of course or program certification and not
for the purpose of obtaining a degree shall be exempt from the application of
the annual maximum tuition rate.
(5) Scholarships and grants. Training services in
institutions of higher education shall be paid for with departmental funds only
after maximum efforts have been made by the individual to secure assistance in
whole or in part from other sources; however, any individual eligible for
vocational rehabilitation training services but not meeting the financial need
test of the department may be provided an assistance grant annually in an
amount not to exceed the equivalent of one quarter's tuition of a full time
full-time community college student.
c. Correspondence study. The correspondence study training may
be authorized only when:
(1) The individual requires specific preliminary training in
order to enter a training program or training cannot be arranged by any other
method; and
(2) Satisfactory progress is maintained.
d. On-the-job training. The department may enter into
agreements with employers in the private or public sector to provide on-the-job
training services. The terms and conditions of each individual agreement shall
be established by the department.
e. Part-time training. Part-time training may be utilized only
when the severity of the individual's disability shall not allow the individual
to pursue training on a full-time basis.
Part-time training shall be authorized only at
department-approved facilities and schools.
f. Work adjustment training. Work adjustment training may be
provided if needed for the individual to engage in subsequent vocational
rehabilitation services as indicated by the thorough diagnostic study
assessment of medical, vocational, psychological, and other factors. This
service may be provided only by the department or approved vendors.
g. Prevocational training. Prevocational training may be
provided if needed for the individual to engage in subsequent vocational
rehabilitation services as indicated by the thorough diagnostic study
assessment of medical, vocational, psychological, and other factors. This
service may be provided only by the department or approved vendors.
h. Tutorial training. Tutorial training may be provided if
needed for the individual to achieve a vocational goal as indicated by the
thorough diagnostic study assessment of medical, vocational, psychological,
and other factors. This service may be provided only by the department or
approved vendors.
i. Other higher education training concerns.
(1) Required textbooks and supplies. The maximum amount of department
departmental financial assistance for required textbooks and supplies
(pencils, paper, etc.) shall be $400 annually for a normal school year or
$500 if summer school is attended not exceed the amount determined by
the institution for books and supplies in the student's school budget.
(2) Required training materials. Training materials may be
provided when required by the instructor.
6. Maintenance in accordance with the definition of that term
in 22VAC30-20-10.
a. Clothes. Clothes are shall be provided when
specifically required for participation in a training program or for placement
in a specialized job area as determined by the department.
b. Room, board, and utilities. The maximum rate paid
for room, board, and utilities shall be established annually by the board
department.
c. (1) Training cases. The maximum amount of department
departmental financial assistance for room and board at a training
institution (college, vocational school, rehabilitation center facility), when
the institution is able to provide room and board, shall not exceed the
published room and board rates charged by the institution, or the actual cost,
whichever is less.
d. (2) While living at home. Maintenance shall
be provided for an individual living at home only when the individual's income
supports the family unit of the individual, when it is more cost effective for
the department, or when it is in the best interest of the individual's
vocational rehabilitation program based on mutual agreement of the
rehabilitation counselor and the individual.
7. Transportation in connection with the rendering of any
vocational rehabilitation service and in accordance with the definition of that
term in 22VAC30-20-10. Transportation may include relocation and moving
expenses necessary for achieving a vocational rehabilitation objective.
a. Transportation costs. The department shall pay the most
economical rate for accessible public transportation. When public
transportation is not available, or the individual, because of disability,
cannot travel by public transportation, transportation may be provided at a
rate not to exceed $0.12 a mile established by the department.
b. For and during training services. When the individual must
live at the training location, the department may only pay for a one-way trip
from the residence to the training location at the beginning of the training,
and a one-way trip from the training location to the residence or job site at
the conclusion of the training program. Transportation may be paid to and from
the residence in case of emergency (severe illness, or death in family;
acute business emergency or prolonged school closing such as Christmas
holidays). Local bus fare also may be furnished also provided.
When the individual's physical condition is such that travel by public
conveyance is impossible, taxi fare may be allowed from place of residence to
training site and return. When the individual lives at home and the training
site requires daily transportation, the cost of such transportation may be
paid.
8. Vocational rehabilitation services to family members of an
applicant or eligible individual if necessary to enable the applicant or
eligible individual to achieve an employment outcome. Services to family
members of the individual may be provided when such services may be expected to
contribute substantially to the determination of vocational
rehabilitation potential or to the rehabilitation of the individual. In order
for the department to furnish these services, they shall not be available from
any other source.
a. Family member is defined in 22VAC30-20-10.
b. Day care services for dependent children. The department
may pay up to the amount paid per child, per day, by the local social services
department in the locality in which the child is located. When more than one
child is involved, rates for the additional children should may
be lower. When satisfactory accommodations can be secured at a rate lower than
that paid by the local social services department, the lower rate shall be paid
by the department.
9. Interpreter services, including sign language and oral
interpreter services, for individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing and;
tactile interpreting services for individuals who are deaf-blind; and reader
services, rehabilitation teaching services, and orientation and mobility services
for individuals who are blind.
a. Upon request of the individual or as needed, these services
may be provided at any stage during the rehabilitation process. Interpreting
may be primarily in the form of sign language (manual method) or oral interpretation
(oral method).
b. The department shall pay for interpreting services when
these services contribute to the individual's vocational rehabilitation
program.
c. The interpreter must be, whenever possible, certified by
the National Registry of the Deaf, Virginia Registry of the Deaf, or approved
by the Virginia Department for the Deaf and Hard-of-Hearing shall hold
at least one of the credentials approved by the Virginia Department for the
Deaf and Hard-of-Hearing pursuant to § 51.5-113 of the Code of Virginia.
d. When individuals with deafness are in a training program,
the department shall arrange for note taking or reader services, unless the
individual indicates such service is not needed or desired.
10. Rehabilitation technology, in accordance with the
definition of that term in 22VAC30-20-10, including vehicular modification,
telecommunications, sensory, and other technological aids and devices.
a. Telecommunications system. Services related to use of a
telecommunications system shall meet established federal or state health and
safety standards and be consistent with written state policies.
b. Sensory and other technological aids and devices. The
department may provide electronic or mechanical pieces of equipment or hardware
intended to improve or substitute for one or more of the human senses, or for
impaired mobility, or motor coordination.
Services related to use of sensory and other technological
aids and devices shall meet established federal or state health and safety
standards and be consistent with state law and regulations.
(1) An otological evaluation may be required, and an
audiological examination is shall be required before the
department may purchase a hearing aid.
(2) The department shall purchase hearing aids only for those individuals
identified as benefiting in terms of employability as a direct result of such
aid.
(3) Cross and bicross aids may be purchased only when it is
justifiable on the basis of the vocational objective.
(4) Eyeglasses and hearing aids may be purchased only when
they are equal in performance in terms of volume and speech discrimination and
if the cost is not higher than that of a comparable body aid or a behind the
ear aid.
11. Technical assistance and other consultation services to
conduct market analyses, develop business plans, and otherwise provide
resources, to the extent those resources are authorized to be provided through
the statewide workforce investment system, to eligible individuals who are
pursuing self-employment or telecommuting or establishing a small business
operation as an employment outcome.
12. Job search and placement assistance and job retention
services, follow-up services, and follow-along services. Placement shall be in
accordance with the mutually agreed upon vocational objective and is the
responsibility of both the individual and the department,
particularly the rehabilitation counselor.
13. Post-employment services, in accordance with the
definition of that term in 22VAC30-20-10.
a. Selection criteria. Any rehabilitated All
individuals whose vocational rehabilitation cases have been closed as
achieving an employment outcome may be considered for post-employment
services. The department may evaluate with each individual the need for such
services.
b. All of the following criteria shall be met for the
selection of individuals an individual to receive post-employment
services:
(1) The individual has shall have been
determined to be rehabilitated have achieved an employment outcome;
(2) The disabling medical condition shall be stable or slowly
progressive;
(3) Post-employment services are shall be
necessary to assist the individual in maintaining employment; and
(4) Solution of the problem The problem interfering
with the individual maintaining employment does not require a complex or
comprehensive rehabilitation effort, i.e. that is, a new and
distinct handicapping disabling condition has not occurred which
should be handled as a new case that requires a new application.
If needed services exceed any of the aforementioned
conditions in subdivisions 13 b (1) through 13 b (4) of this section,
the department may take a new application.
14. Supported employment services, in accordance with the
definition of that term as defined in 22VAC30-20-10, to any
individual with a most significant disability who:.
a. An individual with a most significant disability shall
be eligible for supported employment services if he meets all of the following
criteria:
a. (1) Has not worked, or has worked only
intermittently, in competitive employment.;
b. (2) Has been determined on the basis of any
evaluation of rehabilitation and career needs, including a consideration of
whether supported employment is a possible vocational outcome, to meet the
eligibility criteria for the State Vocational Rehabilitation Services
Program as established in federal regulations. 22VAC30-20-40; and
c. (3) Has a need for ongoing support services
in order to perform competitive work.
b. The following activities are shall be
authorized under this the supported employment program:
a. (1) Evaluation of rehabilitation and career
needs of individuals with the most severe significant
disabilities in terms of a supported employment outcome.;
b. (2) Development of and placement in jobs for
individuals with the most severe significant disabilities.;
and
c. (3) Provision of time-limited services needed
to support individuals with the most severe significant
disabilities in employment, including:
(1) (a) Intensive on-the-job skills training
provided by skilled job trainers, coworkers, and other qualified individuals.;
(2) (b) Ongoing support services needed to
support and maintain an individual's supported employment placement. These
must that shall include, at a minimum, twice monthly monitoring to
assess the individual's employment stability. Monitoring activities
generally take place at the work site unless the individualized plan for
employment provides for off-site monitoring. If off-site monitoring is
determined to be appropriate, it must, at a minimum, consist of two meetings
with the individual and one contact with the employer each month.;
(3) Follow-up (c) Extended services
designed to reinforce and stabilize the job placement.; and
(4) (d) Discrete post-employment services
unavailable from the extended services provider that are necessary to maintain
the job placement, including but not limited to job station redesign, repair
and maintenance of assistive technology, and replacement of prosthetic and
orthotic devices.
d. c. Transitional employment services for
individuals with chronic mental illness may be provided under the State
Supported Employment Program supported employment program.
Transitional employment means a series of temporary job placements in
competitive work in an integrated work setting with ongoing support services.
Ongoing support services must shall include continuing sequential
job placements until job permanency is achieved.
e. d. The agency department shall
provide for the transition of an individual with the most severe significant
disabilities to extended services no later than 18 months after placement in
supported employment, unless a longer period to achieve job stabilization has
been established in the individualized plan for employment, before an
individual with a most significant disability makes the transition to extended
services as defined in 22VAC30-20-10.
15. Occupational licenses, tools, equipment, initial stocks
(including livestock), and supplies.
a. Licenses. Licenses required for entrance into selected
vocations may be provided. These may be occupational or business licenses as
required by the local governing body, state board examinations required by the
Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, and motor vehicle
operator's license.
b. Tools and equipment. Tools and equipment shall be provided
for an individual when:
(1) They are required for a job or occupation that is best
suited to the utilization of their the individual's abilities and
skills;
(2) The employer does not ordinarily furnish these articles;
and
(3) They are for the exclusive use of the individual.
Such articles shall be for the individual's own use in the
performance of his work and must remain in his possession and under his control
as long as he engages in the job or occupation for which they are provided.
If the individual alleges that tools and equipment are stolen,
the individual shall file a stolen property report with the local police.
Computer equipment and software shall be provided either
if required as indicated in subdivision subdivisions 15 b (1), 15
b (2), and 15 b (3) of this subsection section,
or if it is necessary for vocational training. The department's financial
participation in the cost of such equipment and software shall not exceed
$3,500.
c. Title retention and release. The department shall comply
with state law laws and regulations on the retention of title and
release of title of equipment to individuals.
d. Repossession of tools and equipment. The department shall
repossess all occupational tools and equipment to which the department retains
title when they are no longer being used for the purposes intended by the
individual for whom they were purchased.
16. Transition services, in accordance with the
definition of that term in 22VAC30-20-10.
17. Personal assistance services, in accordance with
the definition of that term in 22VAC30-20-10.
18. Other goods and services determined necessary for the
individual with a disability to achieve an employment outcome. These include,
but are not limited to, such services as: peer counseling, independent
living skills training, attendant care, and attendant training if
they can reasonably be expected to benefit an individual in terms of
employability.
The department's financial participation in the cost of
certain goods and services shall be limited as follows: home modifications,
$7,500; and vehicle modifications, $7,500. The department shall not
purchase or participate in the purchase of automotive vehicles.
19. Services to groups. The department may provide vocational
rehabilitation services to groups of individuals with disabilities when the
services may contribute substantially to the needs of the group,;
although they the services are not related directly to the
individualized employment plan of any one person with a disability.
22VAC30-20-130. Individuals determined to have achieved an
employment outcome.
An individual is determined to have achieved an employment
outcome only if all of the following requirements have been are
met:
1. The provisions provision of services under
the individual's individualized plan for employment has contributed to the
achievement of an employment outcome;
2. The employment outcome is consistent with the individual's
strengths, resources, priorities, concerns, abilities, capabilities, interests,
and informed choice;
3. The employment outcome is in an integrated setting;
4. The individual has maintained the employment outcome for a
period of at least 90 days; and
5. At the end of the appropriate applicable
period under this section, the individual and the rehabilitation counselor or
coordinator consider the employment outcome to be satisfactory and agree that
the individual is performing well on the job.
22VAC30-20-140. Authorization of services.
Written authorization for services shall be made,
either before or at the same time as the purchase of services. When an oral
authorization is given in an emergency situation, there shall be prompt
documentation and the authorization shall be confirmed in writing and forwarded
to the provider of the services.
22VAC30-20-150. Written standards for facilities and providers
of services.
The designated state unit department shall
establish, maintain, make available to the public, and implement written
minimum standards for the various types of facilities and providers of services
used by the state unit department in providing vocational
rehabilitation services, in accordance with the following requirements:
1. Accessibility of facilities. Any facility in which
vocational rehabilitation services are provided must be accessible to
individuals receiving services and must comply with the requirements of the
Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, the Americans with Disabilities Act of
1990, and § 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 Act,
as amended, and regulations implementing these laws. (34 CFR 361.51)
2. Personnel standards.
a. Qualified personnel. Providers of vocational rehabilitation
services shall use qualified personnel, in accordance with any applicable
national or state approved or recognized certification, licensing, or
registration requirements or, in the absence of these requirements, other
comparable requirements (including state personnel requirements) that apply to
the profession or discipline in which that category of personnel is providing
vocational rehabilitation services.
b. Affirmative action. Providers of vocational rehabilitation
services shall take affirmative action to employ and advance in employment
qualified individuals with disabilities.
c. Special communication needs personnel. Providers of
vocational rehabilitation services shall include among their personnel, or
obtain the services of, individuals able to communicate in the native languages
of applicants and eligible individuals who have limited English speaking
ability; and ensure that appropriate modes of communication for all applicants
and eligible individuals are used.
3. Fraud, waste, and abuse. Providers of vocational
rehabilitation services shall have adequate and appropriate policies and
procedures to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse.
22VAC30-20-160. Participation of individuals in the cost of
services based on financial need.
A. A financial need needs test is established
because of the limited resources of the department.
B. A financial need needs test shall be
utilized to determine the extent of participation by eligible individuals or
individuals receiving services during an extended evaluation in the cost of
vocational rehabilitation services.
1. The state unit department shall maintain
written policies covering the determination of financial need.
2. The state plan must specify the types of vocational
rehabilitation services for which the unit department has
established a financial needs test. No financial needs test shall be applied
and no financial participation shall be required as a condition for furnishing
the following vocational rehabilitation services: assessment for determining
eligibility and priority for services, except those nonassessment services that
are provided during an extended evaluation for an individual with a significant
disability; assessment for determining vocational rehabilitation needs;
counseling, guidance, and referral services; interpreter and reader
services; personal assistance services; placement services; on-the-job
training; and unpaid work experience. Also excluded from financial
participation shall be services necessary to assist in the diagnostic and
evaluation process, such as transportation, maintenance, and interpreter
service for the deaf. Services which that require an economic
need a financial needs test are: physical and mental
restoration; training other than on-the-job training (OJT); maintenance;
transportation; services to family members; telecommunications; recruitment and
training services; post-employment [ services ]; occupational
licenses and other goods and services.
3. The policies must shall be applied uniformly
to all individuals in similar circumstances; the policies may require different
levels of need for different geographic regions in the state, but must shall
be applied uniformly to all individuals within each geographic region; and the
policies must shall ensure that the level of an individual's
participation in the cost of vocational rehabilitation services is reasonable
based on the individual's financial need, including consideration of any
disability-related expenses paid by the individual, and not so high as to effectively
deny the individual a necessary service.
C. Groups exempt from a financial needs test are:
1. Recipients of General Relief;
2. Recipients of Temporary Assistance for Needy Families
(TANF) by the individual or family on which the individual is dependent; and
3. Individuals determined eligible for Social Security
benefits under Titles II or XVI of the Social Security Act.
D. Income and resources of the family are to be used when the
client is a part of the family unit. The client is a part of the parent or
legal guardian family unit upon occurrence of either: 1. Dependency of support
evidenced on the last federal income tax return of the parent or legal guardian
regardless of residency; or 2. When temporarily absent from the home due
to illness, school, vacation, or military leave. The family unit is
every person listed on the client's most recent federal income tax return.
E. The financial need needs test shall consider
the following income:
1. Annual taxable income (gross income).
2. Annual nontaxable income such as social security benefits,
retirement benefits, workers' compensation, and veterans' benefits.
3. Total cash assets, including checking and savings accounts,
certificates, stocks, and bonds.
F. The financial need test shall provide for the following
allowances and exclusions:
1. The gross income shall be adjusted by the for
annual taxes, health insurance, and retirement savings by the applicable
percentage indicated in the table below:
Gross Income
|
Allowance
|
Under $10,000
|
15%
|
$10,000 to $14,999
|
20%
|
$15,000 to $24,999
|
25%
|
$25,000 to $34,999
|
30%
|
Over $34,999
|
35%
|
2. Income shall be excluded from consideration based upon
family size using the table below:
Size of Family
|
Income Exclusion
|
1
|
$10,608
|
2
|
$13,143
|
3
|
$15,678
|
4
|
$18,213
|
5
|
$20,748
|
6
|
$23,283
|
7
|
$25,818
|
8
|
$28,353
|
For each additional dependent, add $2,535. The table above
is based upon the federal law income for a family of four. It shall be updated
annually by the department. federal poverty guidelines updated
periodically in the Federal Register by the U.S. Department of Health and Human
Services under the authority of 42 USC § 9902(2). The department shall use
the federal poverty level for a family of four to determine the income
exclusion for a family of one. The family income exclusion shall be increased
by the amount established in the annual federal poverty guidelines for each
additional dependent.
3. Excluded from income shall be estimated client cost
specifically related to the client's disability and disabilities of
family unit members not covered by comparable services and benefits.
4. Excluded from cash assets is $5,000.
5. Individual retirement accounts shall be excluded from
income considerations.
G. Determination of the annual client financial contribution
results from an examination of: (i) the number of persons in the family
unit; (ii) annual taxable income minus allowances; (iii) annual nontaxable
income; (iv) cash assets minus exclusions; and (v) exceptional exclusions based
on client cost specifically related to client's disability.
The financial resources to be considered shall be tabulated
using the method noted herein in this section. The positive
balance (resources exceeding exclusions) shall be determined to be available
for participation in the rehabilitation program.
22VAC30-20-170. Availability of comparable services and
benefits.
A. Prior to providing any vocational rehabilitation services
to an eligible individual or to members of the individual's family, except
those services listed in subsection D of this section, the state unit department
shall determine whether comparable services and benefits as defined in
22VAC30-20-10 exist under any other program and whether those services and
benefits are available to the individual.
B. If comparable services or benefits exist under any other
program and are available to the eligible individual at the time needed to
achieve the rehabilitation objectives in the individual's individualized plan
for employment, the state unit department shall use those
comparable services or benefits to meet, in whole or in part, the cost of
vocational rehabilitation services.
C. If comparable services or benefits exist under any other
program but are not available to the individual at the time needed to achieve
ensure the rehabilitation objectives progress of the
individual toward achieving the employment outcome in the individual's
individualized plan for employment, the state unit department
shall provide vocational rehabilitation services until those comparable
services and benefits become available.
D. The following services are shall be exempt
from a determination of the availability of comparable services and benefits
under subsection A of this section: assessment for determining eligibility and
priority for services; assessment for determining vocational rehabilitation
needs; vocational rehabilitation counseling, guidance, and referral services;
job-related services, including job search and placement services; job
retention services,; follow-up services; rehabilitation
technology; and post-employment services consisting of those services listed in
this subsection.
E. The requirements of subsection A of this section also do
shall not apply if the determination of the availability of comparable
services and benefits under any other program would delay the provision of
vocational rehabilitation services to any individual who is determined to be at
extreme medical risk based on medical evidence provided by an appropriate
qualified medical professional; or an immediate job placement would be lost due
to a delay in the provision of comparable services and benefits.
22VAC30-20-181. Review of rehabilitation counselor or
coordinator determinations made by the department.
A. The designated state unit must establish and implement
procedures, including standards of review under subsection D of this section,
established by the Commissioner of the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative
Services to ensure that any An applicant, or eligible
individual, or, if appropriate, individual's representative who is
dissatisfied with any determinations determination made by a
rehabilitation counselor or coordinator concerning the furnishing or denial of
department personnel that affects the provision of vocational rehabilitation
services may request, or, if appropriate, may request through the
individual's representative, a timely review of those determinations
the determination. The procedures established by the Commissioner of
the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services must be in accordance with
this section.
B. Informal dispute resolution. The Department for
Aging and Rehabilitative Services may establish an informal process to resolve
a request for review without conducting mediation or a formal hearing. However,
the
1. A request for review shall be made within 60 days after
the determination. The applicant, eligible individual, or, if appropriate, the
individual's representative may request a meeting with the supervisor of the
staff member who made the determination and request an informal administrative
review conducted by the supervisor.
2. Within 10 working days of the request, the supervisor
shall send a written decision and grounds to the applicant or eligible
individual, with a copy to the individual's representative, if applicable, and
it shall become part of the case record.
3. The informal dispute resolution process must
shall not be used to deny or delay the right of an applicant
or eligible individual to proceed directly to a hearing under
subsection D of this section or mediation under subsection C of this section.
The informal resolution or the mediation process or both must be conducted
and concluded within the time period established under subdivision D 1 of this
section for holding a formal hearing. If neither the informal resolution nor
mediation is successful, a formal hearing must be conducted by the end of this
same period, unless the parties agree to a specific extension of time.
C. Mediation.
1. The department shall establish mediation
procedures that allow an applicant or eligible individual and the state unit to
resolve disputes. The procedures shall provide that:
1. The mediation process is conducted by a qualified and
impartial mediator as defined in 22VAC30-20-10 who must be selected from a list
of qualified and impartial mediators maintained by the state;
2. Mediation be available, at a minimum, whenever an
applicant, eligible individual or, as appropriate, the individual's
representative requests an impartial due process hearing under this section;
3. Participation in the mediation process is voluntary on
the part of the applicant or eligible individual, as appropriate, and on the
part of the state unit;
4. The mediation process not be used to deny or delay the
applicant or eligible individual's right to pursue resolution of the dispute
through a formal hearing process in the time specified in subsection D of this
section or any other rights provided under this part;
5. Either party or the mediator may elect to terminate
mediation at any time and pursue resolution through a formal hearing if
desired;
6. Mediation sessions are scheduled and conducted in a
timely manner and held in a location and manner convenient to the parties in
dispute;
7. Discussions that occur during mediation remain
confidential and may not be used as evidence in any subsequent due process
hearing or civil proceeding and parties may be required to sign a
confidentiality pledge prior to mediation;
8. Any agreement reached by the parties to the dispute will
be described in a written mediation agreement that is developed by the parties
with the assistance of the mediator, signed by both parties, with a copy given
to both parties; and
9. The cost of the mediation process will be paid by the
state, but the state is not required to pay for any costs related to the
representation of an applicant or eligible individual.
a mediation process conducted by a qualified and impartial
mediator as defined in 22VAC30-20-10, who shall be selected from a list of
qualified and impartial mediators maintained by the department. Mediation shall
be requested within 60 days after a determination or informal administrative
review decision. The department shall include in the mediation process the
guardian of an applicant or eligible individual who has been judged
incompetent. Participation in the mediation process is voluntary on the part of
the applicant or eligible individual and on the part of the department.
Mediation may be requested while a hearing is pending but shall not be used to
deny or delay the applicant or eligible individual's right to a hearing
conducted and concluded within the time period established under subdivision D
1 of this section.
2. The mediator shall schedule and conduct the mediation
sessions in a timely manner and in a location convenient to the parties in
dispute. The mediator shall afford both parties an opportunity to be
represented by counsel or other advocate and to submit evidence or other
information. Discussions that occur during mediation remain confidential and
shall not be used as evidence in any subsequent hearing or civil proceeding,
and parties shall be required to sign a confidentiality pledge prior to
mediation. Either party or the mediator may terminate mediation at any time,
and the applicant, eligible individual, or the department may seek resolution
through a hearing.
3. Any agreement reached by the parties in a mediation
shall be described in a written mediation agreement. Both parties to the
dispute shall have an opportunity to review the agreement with their
representative, supervisor, or legal advisor before signing it. An agreement
signed by both parties shall become part of the case record, with a copy given
to the applicant or eligible individual and any representative.
4. The cost of the mediation process shall be paid by the
department, but the department is not required to pay for any costs related to
the representation of an applicant or eligible individual.
D. The department shall establish formal review procedures
that provide that: Due process hearing.
1. A The applicant, eligible individual, or, if
appropriate, individual's representative may request a hearing within 60 days
after the determination to be reviewed, meeting or informal administrative
review decision under subsection B of this section, or mediation refusal or
mediation termination date. Department personnel may request a hearing within
60 days after termination of the mediation process under subsection C of this
section.
a. The hearing shall be scheduled and conducted
by an a qualified and impartial hearing officer, as
defined and selected in accordance with subsection E of this section,
must be held according to subdivision 2 of this subsection.
b. The hearing officer shall conduct the hearing within
60 days of the department receiving an individual's request for
review, unless informal resolution is achieved prior to before
the 60th day, or the parties agree to a specific extension of time;
2. The department may not institute a suspension, reduction, or termination of
services being provided under an individualized plan for employment pending a
final determination of the formal hearing under this subdivision, informal
resolution under subsection B of this section, or mediation under subsection C
of this section unless the individual or, in an appropriate case, the
individual's representative so requests or the agency has evidence that the
services have been obtained through misrepresentation, fraud, collusion, or
criminal conduct on the part of the individual or the individual's
representative; 3. The individual or, if appropriate, the individual's
representative must be afforded, or the hearing officer grants a
postponement request for good cause that would result in a fair representation
of the issues.
c. The hearing officer shall provide both parties to the
dispute an opportunity to present additional evidence, information,
and witnesses to the impartial hearing officer,; to be
represented by counsel or other appropriate advocate,; and to
examine all witnesses and other relevant sources of, information,
and evidence; 4. The impartial. All testimony shall be given under
oath. Hearsay testimony and redundant evidence may be admitted at the
discretion of the hearing officer. Because the hearing officer cannot issue
subpoenas, the department shall be responsible for the appearance of current
department personnel on the witness list of either party.
d. Within 30 days after the hearing, the hearing
officer shall make issue a written decision with a full
report of the findings and grounds for the decision to the applicant, eligible
individual, individual's representative, and the department. The decision shall
be based on the provisions of the approved state plan, the federal
Rehabilitation Act of 1973 as amended (the Act), federal vocational
rehabilitation regulations, and state regulations and policies that are
consistent with federal requirements and shall provide to the individual or,
if appropriate, the individual's representative and to the commissioner a full
written report of the findings and grounds for the decision within 30 days of
the completion of the hearing; 5. The hearing officer's decision is shall
be final, except that a party may request an impartial administrative
review under subdivision 6 of this subsection if the state has
established procedures for review, and a party involved in a hearing may
bring a civil action under subsection H G of this section;.
6. The state may establish procedures to enable a party who
is dissatisfied with the decision of the impartial hearing officer to seek an
impartial administrative review of the decision consistent with 34 CFR 361.57;
7. Except for the time limitations established in
subdivision 1 of this subsection, each state's review procedures may provide
for reasonable time extensions for good cause shown at the request of a party
or at the request of both parties.
E. Selection of impartial hearing officers.
2. The impartial hearing officer for a
particular case must shall be selected (i) randomly by
the department from among the pool of persons qualified to be an impartial
hearing officer, as defined in 34 CFR 361.5(b)(22) and 29 USC § 722(b) and (d),
who are identified jointly by the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative
Services commissioner and those members of the State Rehabilitation
Council designated in § 102(d)(2)(C) of the Act (29 USC § 722(b) and
(d)) and (ii) on a random basis.
E. Administrative review of hearing officer decision.
1. If the state has established procedures for an
administrative review, the request and statutory, regulatory, or policy grounds
for the request shall be made in writing to the department within 20 days of
the hearing decision date. The review shall be a paper review of the entire
hearing record and shall be conducted by a designee of the [ governor's
Governor's ] office who shall not delegate the review to any
personnel of the department.
2. The reviewing official shall provide both parties an
opportunity to submit additional written evidence and information relevant to
the final decision concerning the matter under review. The reviewing official
may not overturn or modify the hearing officer's decision, or any part of that
decision, that supports the position of the applicant or eligible individual,
unless the reviewing official concludes, based on clear and convincing
evidence, that the hearing officer's decision is clearly erroneous on the basis
of being contrary to the approved state plan, the Act, federal vocational
rehabilitation regulations, and state regulations and policies that are
consistent with federal requirements.
3. Within 30 days after the request, the reviewing official
shall issue an independent decision and full report of the findings and the
statutory, regulatory, or policy grounds for the decision to the applicant,
eligible individual, individual's representative, and department. The decision
of the reviewing official is final and shall be implemented pending review by
the court if either party chooses under subsection G of this section to bring a
civil action regarding the matter in dispute.
F. Informing affected individuals. The department shall
inform, through appropriate modes of communication, all applicants and eligible
individuals of: 1. Their right to review under this section their
right to request a review of a determination made by department personnel that
affects provision of vocational rehabilitation services, including the
names and addresses of individuals with whom appeals mediation and
hearing requests may be filed and how the mediator and hearing officer
shall be selected; and their right to proceed directly to a
hearing; their right to an informal administrative review; their right to
pursue mediation; and their right to contact the Client Assistance Program to
assist during mediation and hearing processes. Notification shall be provided
in writing at the time of application for vocational rehabilitation services;
assignment to a priority category if the department is operating under an order
of selection; individualized plan for employment development; and reduction,
suspension, or termination of services.
2. The manner in which an impartial hearing officer will be
selected consistent with the requirements of subsection E of this section.
G. Implementation of final decisions. If a party brings a
civil action under subsection H of this section to challenge the final decision
of a hearing officer under subsection D of this section or to challenge the
final decision of a state reviewing official under subsection D of this
section, the final decision of the hearing officer or state reviewing official
must be implemented pending review by the court.
H. G. Civil action. Any party who disagrees
with the findings or decisions decision of an impartial hearing
officer under subdivision D 4 of this section if the state that has not
established administrative review procedures under subdivision D 6 of this
section, and any party who disagrees with the findings and decision under
subdivision D 6 of this section, if the state has established an administrative
review procedure, has a subsection D of this section or an
administrative review under subsection E of this section shall have the
right to bring a civil action with respect to the matter in dispute. The
action may be brought in any state court of competent jurisdiction or in a
district court of the United States of competent jurisdiction without regard to
the amount in controversy. In any action brought under this section subsection,
the court receives the records related to the impartial due process hearing and
the records related to the administrative review, if applicable; hears
additional evidence at the request of a party; and basing its decision on the
preponderance of the evidence, grants the relief that the court determines to
be appropriate.
22VAC30-20-200. Review of extended employment and other
employment under special certificate provisions of the Fair Labor Standards
Act.
A. For two years after the an individual's
record of services is closed (and thereafter if requested by the individual or,
if appropriate, the individual's representative), the state unit department
shall annually review and reevaluate the status of each individual determined
by the state unit department to have achieved an employment
outcome in which the individual is compensated in accordance with § 14(c)
of the Fair Labor Standards Act or whose record of services is closed while the
individual is in extended employment on the basis that the individual is unable
to achieve an employment outcome consistent with 22VAC30-20-10 or that
the individual made an informed choice to remain in extended employment. This
The annual review or and reevaluation must shall
include input from the individual or, in an appropriate case if
appropriate, the individual's representative to determine the interests,
priorities, and needs of the individual with respect to competitive employment.
B. The state unit department shall make maximum
effort, including the identification of vocational rehabilitation services,
reasonable accommodations, and other support services, to enable the eligible
individual to engage in competitive employment.
C. The state unit department shall obtain the individual's
signed acknowledgment of the individual, or, as appropriate, the
individual's representative's signed acknowledgement representative,
that the annual review and reevaluations have been conducted.
VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3609; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:10 p.m.
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
DEPARTMENT FOR AGING AND REHABILITATIVE SERVICES
Emergency Regulation
Title of Regulation: 22VAC30-80. Auxiliary Grants
Program (amending 22VAC30-80-10, 22VAC30-80-20,
22VAC30-80-30, 22VAC30-80-45 through 22VAC30-80-70; adding 22VAC30-80-35).
Statutory Authority: §§ 51.5-131 and 51.5-160 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Dates: January 9, 2017, through July 8, 2018.
Agency Contact: Tishaun Harris-Ugworji, Program
Consultant, Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services, 8004 Franklin
Farms Drive, Richmond, VA 23229, telephone (804) 662-7531, or email
tishaun.harrisugworji@dars.virginia.gov.
Preamble:
The second enactment of Chapter 567 of the 2016 Acts of
Assembly directed the Commissioner of the Department for Aging and
Rehabilitative Services to promulgate regulations for the provision of
supportive housing for individuals receiving auxiliary grants within 180 days.
Therefore, emergency regulations are needed to meet this requirement.
Currently, the Auxiliary Grants Program regulations address
standards for the two settings, assisted living facility (ALF) and adult foster
care home (AFC), in which an individual has traditionally received the
auxiliary grant. The intent of this emergency action is to (i) add supportive
housing, which is a new living arrangement that individuals who receive
auxiliary grant payments may choose, as a third setting in which individuals
may receive the auxiliary grant, (ii) define requirements to participate in the
supportive housing setting, (iii) clarify providers' responsibilities for each
setting, and (iv) update terminology and guidelines for the Auxiliary Grant
Program. As ALF and AFC placements are limited, amending the auxiliary grant
regulations to allow supportive housing settings will assist individuals who
may be unable to locate an ALF or AFC placement to meet their needs. Adding
supportive housing as an approved setting for the auxiliary grant will protect
the health, safety, and welfare of individuals who choose this living
arrangement by ensuring that they will receive safe, high quality support to
meet their daily living needs.
22VAC30-80-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Adult foster care" or "AFC" means a
locally optional program that provides room and board, supervision, and special
services to an adult who has a physical or mental health need. Adult foster
care may be provided for up to three adults by any one provider who is approved
by the local department of social services.
"Assisted living care" means a level of service
provided by an assisted living facility for adults who may have physical or
mental impairments and require at least moderate assistance with the activities
of daily living. Included in this level of service are individuals who are
dependent in behavior pattern (i.e., abusive, aggressive, disruptive) as
documented on the Uniform Assessment Instrument.
"Assisted living facility" or "ALF"
means, as defined in § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia, any congregate
residential setting that provides or coordinates personal and health care
services, 24-hour supervision, and assistance (scheduled and unscheduled) for
the maintenance or care of four or more adults who are aged, infirm or disabled
and who are cared for in a primarily residential setting, except (i) a facility
or portion of a facility licensed by the State Board of Health or the
Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, but including any
portion of such facility not so licensed; (ii) the home or residence of an
individual who cares for or maintains only persons related to him by blood or
marriage; (iii) a facility or portion of a facility serving infirm or disabled
persons between the ages of 18 and 21, or 22 if enrolled in an educational
program for the handicapped pursuant to § 22.1-214 of the Code of Virginia,
when such facility is licensed by the department as a children's residential
facility under Chapter 17 (§ 63.2-1700 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of
Virginia, but including any portion of the facility not so licensed; and (iv)
any housing project for persons 62 years of age or older or the disabled that
provides no more than basic coordination of care services and is funded by the
U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, by the U.S. Department of
Agriculture, or by the Virginia Housing Development Authority. Included in this
definition are any two or more places, establishments or institutions owned or
operated by a single entity and providing maintenance or care to a combined
total of four or more aged, infirm or disabled adults. Maintenance or care
means the protection, general supervision and oversight of the physical and
mental well-being of an aged, infirm or disabled individual. Assuming
responsibility for the well-being of individuals residing in an ALF, either
directly or through contracted agents, is considered "general supervision
and oversight."
"Auxiliary Grants Program" or "AG" means
a state and locally funded assistance program to supplement income of an individual
receiving Supplemental Security Income (SSI) or adult who would be eligible for
SSI except for excess income, who resides in an ALF or in, an AFC,
or a supportive housing setting with an established rate. The total
number of individuals within the Commonwealth of Virginia eligible to receive
AG in a supportive housing setting shall not exceed the number designated in
the signed agreement between the department and the Social Security
Administration.
"Certification" means a form provided by the department
and prepared by the an ALF or a supportive housing provider.
Each ALF shall annually certifying certify that the ALF
it has properly managed the personal funds and personal needs allowances
of individuals residing in the ALF and is in compliance with program
regulations and appropriate licensing regulations. Each supportive housing
provider shall annually certify that it is in compliance with the regulations
for the administration of the auxiliary grants programs (22VAC30-80).
"Department" means the Department for Aging and
Rehabilitative Services.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral
Health and Developmental Services.
"Established rate" means the rate as set forth in
the appropriation act or as set forth to meet federal maintenance of effort
requirements.
"Personal needs allowance" means an amount of money
reserved for meeting the adult's personal needs when computing the amount of
the AG payment.
"Personal representative" means the person
representing or standing in the place of the individual for the conduct of his
affairs. This may include a guardian, conservator, attorney-in-fact under
durable power of attorney, next-of-kin, descendent, trustee, or other person
expressly named by the individual as his agent.
"Personal toiletries" means hygiene items provided
to the individual by the ALF or AFC home including deodorant, razor, shaving
cream, shampoo, soap, toothbrush, and toothpaste.
"Program" means the Auxiliary Grant Program.
"Provider" means an ALF that is licensed by the
Department of Social Services or an AFC provider that is approved by a local
department of social services or a supportive housing provider as defined in
§ 37.2-421.1 of the Code of Virginia.
"Provider agreement" means a document written
agreement that the ALF ALFs and supportive housing providers
must complete and submit to the department when requesting to be approved
for admitting approval to admit individuals receiving AG.
"Qualified assessor" means an individual who is
authorized by 22VAC30-110 to perform an assessment, reassessment, or change in
level of care for an individual applying for AG or residing in an ALF or a
supportive housing setting. For individuals receiving services from a community
services board or behavioral health authority, a qualified assessor is an
employee or designee of the community services board or behavioral health
authority.
"Rate" means the established rate.
"Residential living care" means a level of service
provided by an ALF for adults who may have physical or mental impairments and
require only minimal assistance with the activities of daily living. Included
in this level of service are individuals who are dependent in medication
administration as documented on the Uniform Assessment Instrument (UAI).
"Supportive housing" or "SH" means a
residential setting with access to supportive services for an AG recipient in
which tenancy as described in § 37.2-421.1 of the Code of Virginia is provided
or facilitated by a provider licensed to provide mental health community
support services, intensive community treatment, programs of assertive
community treatment, supportive in-home services, or supervised living
residential services that has entered into an agreement with the DBHDS pursuant
to § 37.2-421.1 of the Code of Virginia.
"Uniform Assessment Instrument" or "UAI"
means the department-designated assessment form. It is used to record
assessment information for determining the level of service that is needed.
22VAC30-80-20. Assessment.
A. In order to receive payment from the program for care in
an ALF or in AFC, an individual applying for AG shall have been assessed by a
qualified assessor using the UAI and determined to need residential or assisted
living care or AFC.
B. As a condition of eligibility for the program, a UAI shall
be completed on an individual prior to admission, except for an emergency
placement as documented and approved by a Virginia adult protective services
worker, at least once annually, and whenever there is a significant change in
the individual's level of care, and a determination is made that the individual
needs residential or assisted living care in an ALF or AFC.
C. The ALF or AFC provider is prohibited from charging a
security deposit or any other form of compensation for providing a room and
services to the individual. The collection or receipt of money, gift, donation
or other consideration from or on behalf of an individual for any services
provided is prohibited.
D. In order to receive payment from the AG program for
care in the SH setting, an individual shall be evaluated by a qualified
assessor in accordance with § 51.5-160 E of the Code of Virginia. Eligible
individuals shall be notified of the SH setting option and the availability of
approved SH providers at the time of their annual level of care assessment.
22VAC30-80-30. Basic services in an assisted living facility
or an adult foster care home.
A. The rate established under the program for the
ALF setting shall cover the following services:
1. Room and board.
a. Provision of a furnished room;
b. Housekeeping services based on the needs of the individual;
c. Meals and snacks provided in accordance with 22VAC40-72
including, but not limited to food service, nutrition, number and timing of
meals, observance of religious dietary practices, special diets, menus for
meals and snacks, and emergency food and water. A minimum of three
well-balanced meals shall be provided each day. When a diet is prescribed for
an individual by his physician, it shall be prepared and served according to
the physician's orders. Basic and bedtime snacks shall be made available for
all individuals desiring them and shall be listed on the daily menu. Unless
otherwise ordered in writing by the individual's physician, the daily menu,
including snacks, for each individual shall meet the guidelines of the U.S.
Department of Agriculture's Food Guide Pyramid guidance system or the
dietary allowances of the Food and Nutritional Board of the National Academy of
Sciences, taking into consideration the age, sex, and activity of the resident.
Second servings shall be provided, if requested, at no additional charge. At
least one meal each day shall include a hot main dish; and
d. Clean bed linens and towels as needed by the individual and
at least once a week.
2. Maintenance and care.
a. Minimal assistance with personal hygiene including bathing,
dressing, oral hygiene, hair grooming and shampooing, care of clothing,
shaving, care of toenails and fingernails, arranging for haircuts as needed,
and care of needs associated with menstruation or occasional bladder or bowel
incontinence;
b. Medication administration as required by licensing
regulations including insulin injections;
c. Provision of personal toiletries including toilet paper;
d. Minimal assistance with the following:
(1) Care of personal possessions;
(2) Care of personal funds if requested by the individual and
provider policy allows this practice, and in compliance with 22VAC40-72-140 and
22VAC40-72-150, Standards for Licensed Assisted Living Facilities;
(3) Use of the telephone;
(4) Arranging transportation;
(5) Obtaining necessary personal items and clothing;
(6) Making and keeping appointments; and
(7) Correspondence;
e. Securing health care and transportation when needed for
medical treatment;
f. Providing social and recreational activities; and
g. General supervision for safety.
B. The AFC provider shall adhere to the standards in
22VAC30-120-40.
22VAC30-80-35. Basic services in supportive housing
settings.
A. The rate established under the program for SH, as defined
in 22VAC30-80-10, shall cover a residential setting with access to SH services
that include:
1. Development of individualized SH service plans;
2. Access to skills training;
3. Assistance with accessing available community-based
services and supports;
4. Initial identification and ongoing review of the level
of care needs; and
5. Ongoing monitoring of services described in the
individual's individualized SH plan.
B. The residential setting covered under the program for
SH, as defined in 22VAC30-80-10, shall be the least restrictive and most
integrated setting practicable for the individual and shall:
1. Comply with federal habitability standards;
2. Provide cooking and bathroom facilities in each unit;
3. Afford dignity and privacy to the individual; and
4. Include rights of tenancy pursuant to the Virginia
Residential Landlord and Tenant Act (§ 55-248.2 et seq. of the Code of
Virginia).
22VAC30-80-45. Conditions of participation in the program.
A. Provider agreement for ALF.
1. As a condition of participation in the program, the ALF
provider is required to complete and submit to the department a signed provider
agreement as stipulated below in this section. The agreement is
to be submitted prior to the ALF accepting AG payment for qualified individuals.
A copy of the ALF's current license must be submitted with the provider
agreement.
2. The ALF provider shall agree to the following conditions in
the provider agreement to participate in the program:
a. Provide services in accordance with all laws, regulations,
policies, and procedures that govern the provision of services in the facility;
b. Submit an annual certification form by October 1 of each
year;
c. Care for individuals with AG in accordance with the
requirements herein at the current established rate;
d. Refrain from charging the individual, his family, or his
authorized personal representative a security deposit or any other form of
compensation as a condition of admission or continued stay in the facility;
e. Accept the established rate as payment in full for services
rendered;
f. Account for the personal needs allowances in a separate
bank account and apart from other facility funds and issue a monthly statement
to each individual regarding his account balance;
g. Provide a 60-day written notice to the regional licensing
office in the event of the facility's closure or ownership change;
h. Provide written notification of the date and place of an
individual's discharge or the date of an individual's death to the local
department of social services determining the individual's AG eligibility and
to the qualified assessor within 10 days of the individual's discharge or
death; and
i. Return to the local department of social services
determining the individual's AG eligibility, all AG funds received after the
death or discharge date of an individual in the facility.
B. As a condition of participation in the program, the AFC
provider shall be approved by a local department of social services and comply
with the requirements set forth in 22VAC30-120.
C. Provider agreement for SH. As a condition of
participating in the AG program, the SH provider shall enter an agreement with
DBHDS pursuant to § 37.2-421.1 of the Code of Virginia. The SH provider shall
submit a copy of the executed agreement and a copy of its current DBHDS license
prior to the SH provider receiving payments from the AG program on behalf of
qualified individuals. The SH provider shall provide SH services for each
individual in accordance with § 37.2-421.1 of the Code of Virginia and all other
applicable laws, regulations, and policies and procedures.
22VAC30-80-50. Establishment of rate.
The established rate for individuals authorized to reside in
an ALF or in, an AFC, or a supportive housing setting is
the established rate as set forth in the appropriation act or as set forth by
changes in the federal maintenance of effort formula. The AG payment is
determined by adding the rate plus the personal needs allowance minus the
individual's countable income. The effective date is the date of the
individual's approval for AG by the local department of social services.
22VAC30-80-60. Reimbursement.
A. Any moneys contributed toward the cost of care basic
services as defined in 22VAC30-80-30 and 22VAC30-80-35 pending AG
eligibility determination shall be reimbursed to the individual or contributing
party by the ALF or, AFC, or SH provider once eligibility
for AG is established and that payment received. The payment shall be made
payable to the individual, who will then reimburse the provider for care
appropriate providers for basic services. If the individual is not
capable of managing his finances, his personal representative is responsible
for reimbursing the provider.
B. In the event an ALF is closed, the facility shall prorate
the rate up to the date of the individual's discharge and return the balance to
the local department of social services that determined the individual's
eligibility for the grant. If the facility maintained the individual's personal
needs allowance, the facility shall provide a final accounting of the
individual's personal needs allowance account within 60 days of the
individual's discharge. Verification of the accounting and of the reimbursement
to the individual shall be mailed to the case management agency responsible for
the individual's annual reassessment. In the event of the individual's death,
the provider shall give to the individual's personal representative a final
accounting of the individual's funds within 60 calendar days of the event. All
AG funds received after the death or discharge date shall be returned to the
local department of social services responsible for determining the
individual's AG eligibility as soon as practicable. Providers who do not comply
with the requirements of this regulation may be subject to adverse action.
22VAC30-80-70. Certification.
A. ALFs ALF and SH providers shall submit to
the department an annual certification form by October 1 of each year for
the preceding state fiscal year. The certification shall include the following:
identifying information about the ALF provider, census
information including a list of individuals who resided in the facility or
SH setting and received AG during the reporting period and personal needs
allowance accounting information if such personal needs accounting
information is required by the setting. If a provider fails to submit an
annual certification form, the provider will not be authorized to accept
additional individuals with AG.
B. All information reported by an ALF or SH provider
on the certification form shall be subject to audit by the department.
Financial information that is not reconcilable to the provider's general ledger
or similar records could result in establishment of a liability to the
provider. Records shall be retained for three years after the end of the
reporting period or until audited by the department, whichever is first.
C. All records maintained by an AFC provider, as required by
22VAC30-120, shall be made available to the department or the approving local
department of social services upon request. All records are subject to audit by
the department. Financial information that is not reconcilable to the provider's
records could result in establishment of a liability to the provider. Records
shall be retained for three years after the end of the reporting period or
until audited by the department, whichever is first.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4816; Filed December 16, 2016, 4:22 p.m.
TITLE 23. TAXATION
DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 23VAC10-220. Aircraft Sales and
Use Tax (amending 23VAC10-220-5, 23VAC10-220-10,
23VAC10-220-20).
Statutory Authority: § 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: March 10, 2017.
Effective Date: March 27, 2017.
Agency Contact: Joe Mayer, Lead Policy Analyst,
Department of Taxation, P.O. Box 27185, Richmond, VA 23261-7185, telephone
(804) 371-2299, FAX (804) 371-2355, or email joseph.mayer@tax.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Tax Commissioner to issue regulations relating to the
interpretation and enforcement of the laws governing taxes administered by the
Department of Taxation. The Aircraft Sales and Use Tax is administered by the
Department of Taxation pursuant to § 58.1-1503 of the Code of Virginia.
Purpose: This regulatory action is needed to remove
references to a previous retail sales and use tax rate that provide no guidance
regarding the aircraft sales and use tax. The regulatory action does not
reflect any change in current tax policy and will have no impact on the
administration of the aircraft sales and use tax. Removal of the retail sales
and use tax rate from the regulation will eliminate confusion caused by listing
the wrong rate in the regulation and will eliminate the need to update the rate
in the event that it is changed again. The action does not have an impact on
the health, safety, and welfare of the public.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process:
Amending the Aircraft Sales and Use Tax regulation to repeal references to a
previous retail sales and use tax rate that provide no guidance regarding the
aircraft sales and use tax is expected to be noncontroversial and appropriate
for the fast-track rulemaking process.
Substance: This action will amend 23VAC10-220-5,
23VAC10-220-10, and 23VAC10-220-20 to remove references to the previous rate of
the retail sales and use tax.
The rate of the retail sales and use tax has been increased
twice since the rate listed in the regulation, 4.0%, was in effect. The retail
sales and use tax rate is currently 5.3% statewide, with an additional 0.7%
state tax in the Northern Virginia and Hampton Roads Regions. Removal of the
retail sales and use tax rate from the Aircraft Sales and Use Tax regulation
will have no impact on the usefulness of the regulation. The listing of the
retail sales and use tax rate provides no guidance regarding the aircraft sales
and use tax. The retail sales and use tax rate is not necessary for any
examples or explanation provided in the regulation. Removal of the retail sales
and use tax rate from the regulation will eliminate confusion caused by listing
the wrong rate in the regulation and will eliminate the need to update the
regulation in the event that it is changed in the future.
The aircraft sales and use tax is generally imposed at the rate
of 2.0% on the retail sale of every aircraft sold in Virginia and upon the use
in Virginia of any aircraft required to be licensed by the Department of
Aviation. However, commercial dealers may elect to pay the aircraft sales and
use tax at the rate of 2.0% of the monthly gross receipts from the lease,
charter, or other use of any aircraft licensed for commercial use instead.
Revenues from the tax are deposited into a special fund within the Commonwealth
Transportation Fund for the administration of aviation laws by the Department
of Aviation; for the construction, maintenance, and improvement of airports and
landing fields; and for the promotion of aviation.
The regulatory action does not reflect any change in current
tax policy and will have no impact on the administration of the aircraft sales
and use tax.
Issues: The primary advantage of this action for the
public and the agency is that it will remove an incorrect listing of the retail
sales and use tax rate that may cause confusion. As this regulatory action will
repeal references to a former retail sales and use tax rate that provide no
guidance regarding the aircraft sales and use tax, there are no issues or
disadvantages to the public or the Commonwealth associated with this regulatory
action.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The
Department of Taxation (Department) proposes to amend its regulation for the
Aircraft Sales and Use Tax to make clarifying changes and to remove references
to a now obsolete retail sales and use tax rate.
Result of Analysis. Benefits outweigh costs for all proposed
changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The Department proposes several
changes to this regulation that do not change current rules or practice. For
instance, the Department proposes to reword the preface to the definition
section of the regulation to make it more easily understandable. Changes such
as these do not impose any costs on any affected entity but provide the benefit
of additional clarity to interested parties reading the regulation.
Currently, this regulation states that the retail sales and use
tax for aircraft is four percent. Department staff report, however, that this
tax rate has increased twice in statute since it was listed in this regulation.
The tax as mandated by the General Assembly is currently five and three tenths
percent state wide with an additional seven tenths percent tax in the Northern
Virginia and Hampton Roads regions. Because the tax rate listed in this
regulation is obsolete, the Department proposes to remove it. No entity will
incur any costs on account of this change. Removing this obsolete language will
benefit interested parties by ensuring that the regulation does not cause
confusion by representing that the tax rate is lower than it actually is.
Businesses and Entities Affected. These proposed regulatory
changes will affect all entities who are subject to the Aircraft Sales and Use
Tax. The Department reports that 228 entities paid this tax in fiscal year
2014, 226 paid it in fiscal year 2015 and 278 paid it in fiscal year 2016.
Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be
particularly affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect employment in the Commonwealth.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use or value of private
property in the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. No small businesses will be adversely
affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No small
businesses will be adversely affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. No businesses will be adversely affected by these
proposed regulatory changes.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Other Entities. No other entities are likely to be adversely
affected by these proposed changes.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Department of Taxation agrees with the Department of Planning and Budget's
economic impact analysis.
Summary:
The amendments amend the aircraft sales and use tax
provisions by removing outdated references to the rate of the retail sales and
use tax.
23VAC10-220-5. Definitions.
The following words, terms and phrases are defined herein
for the tax imposed by Chapter 15 of Title 58.1-1501 of the Code of Virginia
only and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following
meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Aircraft" means any contrivance used or designed
for and capable of untethered navigation or flight in the air carrying one or
more persons at an altitude greater than twenty-four 24 inches
above the ground, except such term shall not include a parachute or a
"hang glider." (See § 5.1-1 of the Code of Virginia.)
"Commissioner" means the Tax Commissioner.
"Dealer" means any person the Tax Commissioner
finds to be in the regular business of selling aircraft and who owns five or
more aircraft at anytime during the calendar year which that are
held for resale or used for compensation. For purposes of this chapter, the
The term "owns" includes aircraft acquired under leases
qualifying as sales as defined in this section.
"Gross receipts" means hourly rental, maintenance,
and all other charges for use of such aircraft. Also, unless separately stated
on the invoice, "gross receipts" includes all charges for services of
pilots or instructors in such aircraft.
"Person" means every natural person, firm,
partnership, association, corporation, or other entity.
"Sale" means any transfer of ownership or
possession, or both, exchange, barter, lease or rental, conditional or
otherwise, in any manner or by any means whatsoever, of an aircraft, including
transactions whereby possession is transferred but title is retained by the
seller as security. For purposes of this chapter, the The term
"lease or rental" shall be restricted to include only a lease or
rental for a period of time substantially equal to the remaining life of the
aircraft as determined at the beginning of the lease term or a lease or rental
in which the payments during the term of the lease will substantially equal the
value of the aircraft.
1. The remaining life of the aircraft shall be estimated in
accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, considering factors
such as physical deterioration, normal obsolescence, maintenance, and intensity
of use.
2. For purposes of this chapter, the The term
"substantially equal" shall mean "equal to or exceeds eighty
percent." 80%."
3. For purposes of this chapter, the The term
"value of the aircraft" shall mean the current market value of the
aircraft in accordance with such publications or other data as are customarily
employed in ascertaining the maximum sale price of an aircraft.
The same sale will not be subject to the tax more than once.
However, unless it is an exempt transfer, each time a transfer of ownership or
possession takes place, the new owner will be subject to the tax on the
transfer.
As used in this chapter, the term "sale" "Sale"
does not include the following:
1. Any transfer of ownership or possession which transfer is
made to secure payment of an obligation.
2. Any transfer of ownership or possession which that
is incidental to repossession under a lien and under which ownership is
transferred to the lien holder, his nominee, or a trustee, pending
ultimate disposition or sale of the collateral.
3. Any transfer of ownership or possession which that
is part of the sale of all or substantially all the assets of a business. The
exemption applies only to aircraft upon which Virginia aircraft sales and use
tax has been paid upon acquisition or use by the transferor and does not
include nonlicensed aircraft held for resale by a dealer or manufacturer or any
other aircraft held or used for exempt purposes by the transferor. The tax
status of such aircraft will be determined by the transferee's purposes and use
of the aircraft. For purposes of this chapter, the The term
"substantially all the assets" shall mean "eighty percent
"80% or more."
4. Any transfer of ownership or possession by survivorship,
inheritance, or gift. The exclusion from "sale" referred to in
this paragraph subdivision 4 is limited to bona fide gifts
without consideration. A gift for services rendered or any other form of
consideration is a sale and is subject to Virginia aircraft sales tax.
5. Any transfer of ownership or possession from an individual
or partnership to a corporation or from a corporation to an individual or
partnership if the transfer is incidental to the formation, organization,
reorganization, or dissolution of a corporation in which the individual or
partnership holds a controlling interest. For purposes of this exclusion, a
controlling interest means the ownership of at least eighty percent 80%
of all outstanding shares of voting stock.
6. Any transfer of ownership from a partner to the partnership
in which he is a partner will be deemed a taxable sale only to the extent of
the aggregate interests of partners other than the transferring partner.
Similarly, any transfer of ownership from a partnership to a partner will be
deemed a taxable sale only to the extent of the aggregate interests of partners
other than the transferee partner.
7. Any transfer of ownership or possession between affiliated
corporations if Virginia aircraft sales and use tax or Virginia retail sales
and use tax was paid on the acquisition or use of the transferred aircraft by
the transferring corporation. For purposes of this exclusion, two or more
corporations shall be deemed affiliated if (i) one corporation owns at least
80% of the outstanding shares of voting stock of the other or others or (ii) at
least 80% of the outstanding shares of voting stock of two or more corporations
is owned by the same interests.
Example 1: Corporation A purchased in 1980 an aircraft and
paid Virginia aircraft sales and use tax on the purchase. In 1983, Corporation
A acquired all of the capital stock of Corporation B and transferred its
aircraft to Corporation B. The transfer would not be subject to Virginia
aircraft sales and use tax because it would represent a transfer between
qualified affiliates (parent owning as least 80 percent 80% of
subsidiary).
Example 2: Corporation C purchased an aircraft in Delaware in
March 1982. In June 1982, Corporation C acquired all of the capital stock of
Corporation D, a Virginia corporation, and transferred its aircraft to
Corporation D. The acquisition of the aircraft by Corporation D is subject to
Virginia aircraft sales and use tax. While this would represent a transfer
between qualified affiliates, Virginia aircraft sales and use tax was not paid
on the acquisition of the transferred asset by the transferring corporation.
Example 3: Individual A owns 100 percent 100% of
the voting stock of Corporation E and 85 percent 85% of the
voting stock of Corporation F. Both corporations operate businesses in
Virginia. In 1982, Corporation E transfers to Corporation F an aircraft which
it had previously purchased and on which that it had paid
aircraft sales and use tax. The transfer would not be subject to Virginia
aircraft sales and use tax because it would represent a transfer between
qualified affiliates (at least 80 percent 80% of the voting stock
of each corporation is owned by the same owner) and because Virginia aircraft
sales and use tax was paid on the acquisition of the transferred aircraft by
the transferring corporation.
Example 4: Individual A is the sole owner of an aircraft. A
transfers the aircraft to Partnership ABC in which he is a partner owning a 1/3
interest in the partnership property. A's 1/3 interest in the aircraft is not
subject to tax since A is deemed to have retained 1/3 of his previous 100%
ownership on which he had paid aircraft sales and use tax. The 2/3 interest in
the aircraft owned by Partners B and C is subject to the aircraft sales and use
tax. To the extent of this interest, a transfer qualifying as a sale took
place.
Example 5: Partnership XYZ transferred its aircraft which
that it had purchased and on which it had paid Virginia aircraft sales
and use tax to Partner Z on January 1, 1983. Each partner is deemed to own a
1/3 interest in the aircraft. The taxable portion of the transfer is the 2/3
interest owned by Partners X and Y.
8. Transfer of aircraft repair parts, accessories,
attachments, and lubricants, not included in the same transaction with the
transfer of aircraft. Sales of all such tangible personal property are subject
to the Virginia retail sales and use tax and reportable on Form ST-9, Dealer's
Retail Sales and Use Tax Return.
"Retail sale," as used in this chapter, sale"
means a sale to a consumer or to any person for any purpose other than for
resale and includes any transaction the Commissioner commissioner,
upon investigation, finds to be in lieu of a sale.
"Retail sale" does not include the mere transfer of
titled ownership between husband and wife, where there has been no contractual
consideration for the transfer and where no loss resulting from the transfer
would constitute an allowable deduction for federal or state income tax
purposes. No substantive change in equity ownership has occurred and the
transfer is not subject to Virginia aircraft sales and use tax. Likewise, a
similar transfer, as described above, to joint ownership with husband and wife
would not be subject to tax as a retail sale.
"Sale price," as used in this chapter, price"
means the total price paid for an aircraft and all attachments thereon and
accessories thereto, without any allowance or deduction for trade-ins or unpaid
liens or encumbrances, but exclusive of any federal manufacturers' excise tax.
"Attachments thereon" and "accessories
thereto" as used herein mean all tangible personal property that is physically
attached to the aircraft, including installation charges, or property that is
customarily used in aircraft, whether or not affixed to the structure of the
aircraft, and which that was transferred in the same transaction
as the aircraft as a part of the aircraft sale. Such tangible personal property
transferred other than in the same transaction with the aircraft will be
subject to the four percent Virginia retail sales and use tax imposed
pursuant to Chapter 6 (§ 58.1-600 et seq.) of Title 58.1 of the Code of
Virginia.
Charges for lettering and get-ready charges (i.e., cleaning,
washing, and preparing) are also included in the sale price when made in the
same transaction with the aircraft transfer.
Charges for federal manufacturer's excise tax, insurance, and
gasoline are excluded from the sale price, when separately stated on the
invoice.
23VAC10-220-10. Tax levied.
A. Generally. The Virginia aircraft sales and use tax is
imposed at the rate of two percent 2.0% upon the retail sale of
every aircraft sold in this state the Commonwealth and upon the
nonexempt use in Virginia of any aircraft.
B. Tax rate application. The tax is to be collected by
applying the 2% 2.0% rate as follows:
1. Aircraft sold in Virginia. For aircraft sold in Virginia,
the amount of tax is two percent 2.0% of the sale price of the
aircraft. The tax is levied on the date the application was required to be made
to the Department of Aviation to obtain the license to operate the aircraft.
See 23VAC10-220-50.
a. The Virginia aircraft sales tax applies to all aircraft
sold and required to be licensed in Virginia, including occasional sales.
"Occasional sale" refers to means a sale of an aircraft
by anyone not a dealer in aircraft. See 23VAC10-220-50 for information
concerning payment of tax.
b. No tax is applicable to an aircraft which that
is not required to be licensed by the Department of Aviation.
Example 1: Individual A purchased a plane in Virginia
on January 1, 1983, and applied for a license to operate the aircraft on the
same day. The purchase price of the plane was $12,000. The tax is levied on the
date of purchase and A must pay the Virginia aircraft sales tax of $240 based
upon the sale price.
Example 2: Individual B purchased a plane in Virginia
for $25,000 on January 1, 1982, and stored the plane for use in Virginia while
she took flying lessons. B applied to the Department of Aviation for a license
to operate the aircraft on September 1, 1982. The tax is levied September 1,
1982, on the original purchase price of $25,000.
Note: 23VAC10-220-50 requires the aircraft sales and use tax
to be paid prior to the time the owner applies to the Department of Aviation
for and obtains a license to operate the aircraft. 23VAC10-220-20 requires the
tax to be based upon the current market value of the aircraft if first used or
stored for use in Virginia six months or more after its acquisition. The
current market value is not applicable in the case at hand because the plane
qualified as an aircraft when purchased on January 1, 1982, and was first
stored for use in this state on that date, even though the aircraft was not
required to be licensed until nine months later.
Example 3: Individual C purchased a plane kit in
Virginia on June 1, 1982. The kit is subject to the 4.0% retail sales
and use tax when purchased since the kit does not meet the definition of an
aircraft at the time of purchase. When the kit is assembled, and qualifies as
an aircraft, it is subject to the 2.0% aircraft sales and use tax on the
assembled cost. See 23VAC10-220-30 D C.
2. Aircraft not sold in Virginia. For aircraft not sold in
Virginia but required to be licensed for use in Virginia, the amount of tax is two
percent 2.0% of the sale price of the aircraft, wherever sold;
however, if the aircraft is not sold in Virginia and is first required to be
licensed in Virginia six months or more after its acquisition, the tax is
imposed at two percent 2.0% of the current market value of the
aircraft if such current market value is less than the sale price of the
aircraft including the cost of any modifications, improvements, or
additions subsequent to initial acquisition. Also, see See
23VAC10-220-20.
a. The term "required to be licensed" as used in
this section refers to the licensing provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 5.1-1 et
seq.) of Title 5.1 of the Code of Virginia. Section 5.1-5 requires that
before operating any aircraft, the owner must obtain from the Department of
Aviation an aircraft license for such aircraft.
b. The term "current market value" as used in this
section means an average value considering age, make, model, and included
accessories in accordance with such publications or other data as are
customarily employed in ascertaining the sale price of used aircraft.
c. The same transaction will not be subject to the tax more
than once. However, each time a sale takes place, or an aircraft is brought
into use in Virginia and required to be licensed, the new owner or new user in
Virginia will be subject to the tax on the transaction.
d. The Virginia aircraft sales and use tax is not applicable
to the use of any aircraft which that is not required to be
licensed by the Department of Aviation.
3. Aircraft leased, rented, or chartered. Dealers in
aircraft as defined in 23VAC10-220-5 may elect to license for commercial use
one or more aircraft held for lease, rental, charter, or other
compensatory use, without payment of the Virginia aircraft sales and use tax
based upon the sale price, subject to certain requirements and restrictions as
regulated.
Any person who revokes his election immediately becomes liable
for the Virginia aircraft sales and use tax as regulated in Paragraph B
above subdivisions 1 and 2 of this subsection.
C. Tax levy on lease or rental defined as sale. The Virginia
aircraft sales tax is imposed upon the retail sale of an aircraft; however, the
purchaser is responsible for payment of the tax. For purposes of a lease or
rental defined as a sale under 23VAC10-220-5, the lessee or person renting the
aircraft is deemed the purchaser of the aircraft and is responsible for payment
of the applicable tax.
23VAC10-220-20. Basis of tax; estimate of tax; penalty for
misrepresentation.
A. Basis of tax for sale or use. The Commissioner commissioner
shall levy and collect tax for the use or sale of an aircraft upon the basis of
the sale price of the aircraft.
1. Invoice required. Any person who sells an aircraft in
Virginia must supply the buyer with an invoice signed by the seller or his
representative. The invoice must state the sale price of the aircraft. The
buyer must present the invoice to the Commissioner commissioner
with his return and payment of the tax.
2. Basis of tax. The basis of the tax is the sale price,
including any amount credited for trade-in or any other transaction of like
nature, except that if the aircraft is first used or stored for use in Virginia
six months or more after its acquisition, the tax will be based on the current
market value.
a. Under the regulated definition of "aircraft," the
six month six-month period referred to in this section begins
only when a plane is capable of flight.
Example 1: Individual D purchased in Virginia on
January 1, 1982, an inoperable wrecked plane. The aircraft was stored for
repairs until September 1, 1982, when the aircraft license application was
made. The aircraft sales and use tax is levied on the acquisition cost on
September 1, 1982, when the plane qualified as an "aircraft."
No credit is allowable for the 4.0% retail sales and use tax imposed
pursuant to Chapter 6 (§ 58.1-600 et seq.) of Title 58.1 of the Code of
Virginia paid on the purchase of repair parts.
Example 2: Individual E purchased an aircraft in
Maryland on January 1, 1982, and used it in Maryland until September 1,
1982, when licensed for use in Virginia. The tax is levied on the current
market value of the aircraft on September 1, 1982, since it was brought into
Virginia for use more than six months after acquisition.
Example 3: On January 1, 1982, individual A purchased
an inoperable wrecked plane in North Carolina and transported the wreckage to
Virginia on the day of purchase. The plane was brought into Virginia for
restoration and ultimate use in this state the Commonwealth. The
repairs were completed and the aircraft license application was made on
September 1, 1982. The tax is levied on September 1, 1982, on the original cost
of the wrecked plane plus restoration cost. The plane did not qualify as an
aircraft in Virginia until capable of flight and therefore the tax is levied at
such date.
B. Basis of tax for monthly gross receipts return. An
approved and registered dealer must submit monthly returns to the Department
department and remit Virginia aircraft sales and use tax upon the gross
receipts from the lease, rental, charter, or other compensatory use of
any aircraft he elects to exclude from the sales tax at time of purchase. 1.
For purposes of this section, the terms "lease" and
"rental" refer only to leases or rentals not qualifying as sales
under 23VAC10-220-5.
C. Invoice not available, assessment by Commissioner commissioner.
Where the invoice is not available, or where the Commissioner commissioner
has reason to believe the invoice does not reflect the true sale price, or the
aircraft was purchased more than six months prior to its use or storage in
Virginia, the Commissioner commissioner may assess the tax. Under
these circumstances, the tax may be assessed in accordance with such
publications or other data as are customarily employed in ascertaining the
maximum sale price of aircraft.
D. Fair price for rental or use. If the Commissioner commissioner
finds that a dealer has made a charge for the rental or use of an aircraft that
is lower than the fair market value of such rental or use, he may estimate a
fair price. An estimate of fair price as used here means in accordance with the
cost of the aircraft, the cost of maintenance, the normal rental value as shown
in similar transactions, or other relevant data. The amount by which the fair
price estimated under this section exceeds the charge actually made by the
dealer will be included in "gross receipts" as used in this section.
E. Misrepresentation. Any person who knowingly misrepresents
on an invoice between buyer and seller, on any return, or to the Commissioner
commissioner the value of an aircraft or the amount of tax due shall be,
upon conviction, guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed
at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd
Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (23VAC10-220)
Dealer's Aircraft Sales and Use Tax Return, Form AST-2 (rev.
5/06).
Virginia Aircraft Sales and Use Tax Return, Form AST-3
(rev. 12/06).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For dealers
who purchase tangible personal property for resale, lease or rental), Form
ST-10 (rev. 10/99).
Business Registration Application, Form R-1 (rev. 3/08).
Virginia
Aircraft Sales and Use Tax Return, Form AST-3 (rev. 7/2012)
Sales
and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption, Form ST-10 (rev. 9/2015) (For a
Virginia dealer who purchases tangible personal property for resale, or for
lease or rental, or who purchases materials or containers to package tangible
personal property for sale.)
Retail
Sales and Use Tax Return, Form ST-9 (rev. 3/2013)
Business
Registration Application, Form R-1 (rev. 9/2016)
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4842; Filed December 14, 2016, 4:07 p.m.
TITLE 23. TAXATION
DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 23VAC10-310. Tax on Wills and
Administration (amending 23VAC10-310-20, 23VAC10-310-30).
Statutory Authority: § 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: March 10, 2017.
Effective Date: March 27, 2017.
Agency Contact: Joe Mayer, Lead Policy Analyst,
Department of Taxation, P.O. Box 27185, Richmond, VA 23261-7185, telephone
(804) 371-2299, FAX (804) 371-2355, or email joseph.mayer@tax.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia provides
that the "Tax Commissioner shall have the power to issue regulations
relating to the interpretation and enforcement of the laws of this Commonwealth
governing taxes administered by the Department." The authority for the
current regulatory action is discretionary.
Purpose: This regulatory action amends 23VAC10-310, Tax
on Wills and Administration, to update references to sections of the Code of
Virginia to reflect the changes made by Chapter 614 of the 2012 Acts of
Assembly, which recodified Title 64.1 of the Code of Virginia to Title 64.2.
The regulation section affected by this action was promulgated prior to the
enactment of Chapter 614. This regulatory action does not reflect any change in
current tax policy and has no impact on the administration of any taxes.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
fast-track rulemaking process is intended for proposed regulations that are
expected to be noncontroversial. As this regulatory action will merely correct
references to sections of the Code of Virginia, this action is not expected to
be controversial.
Substance: This regulatory action will amend
23VAC10-310, Tax on Wills and Administration, to update references to sections
of the Code of Virginia to reflect the recodification changes made by Chapter
614 of the 2012 Acts of Assembly. Specifically, references to sections of Title
64.1 are corrected to the appropriate sections of Title 64.2.
Issues: As this regulatory action will merely correct
references to sections of the Code of Virginia, there are no issues or disadvantages
to the public or the Commonwealth associated with this regulatory action.
Small Business Impact Review Report of Findings: This
regulatory action serves as the report of the findings of the regulatory review
pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The
Department of Taxation proposes several amendments to update references to
sections of the Code of Virginia to reflect the recodification changes made by
2012 Acts of Assembly, Chapter 614.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The proposed updating of Code of
Virginia references will not affect tax rates, rules and policies, but will be
beneficial by increasing clarity and reducing potential confusion for readers
of the regulation.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments
affect anyone who may potentially read the regulation. The regulation pertains
to anyone who may have a will or may be the beneficiary of a will.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do
not disproportionately affect particular localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not affect
employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
amendments do not affect the use and value of private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not
affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments do not
significantly affect costs for small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
amendments do not create adverse impact for small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendments will not adversely
affect other entities.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Department of Taxation agrees with the Department of Planning and Budget's
economic impact analysis.
Summary:
The amendments update references to sections of the Code of
Virginia to reflect changes enacted by Chapter 614 of the 2012 Acts of
Assembly, which recodified Title 64.1 of the Code of Virginia.
23VAC10-310-20. Levy.
The following are examples of the application or
nonapplication of the tax:
1. The tax is imposed even if a will is probated without
qualification.
2. A will, already admitted to probate and on which a tax has
been paid in a Virginia court, will not be taxed in order to be recorded in any
other Virginia county or city where there is real or personal property subject
to the will. See § 64.1-94, 64.2-455 of the Code of Virginia.
3. The qualification of an administrator de bonis non
(D.B.N.), is ordinarily not subject to tax when the tax has been paid on the
original qualification of the personal representative; however, if the estate
value has been determined to be in excess of the originally taxed value, the
excess is taxable.
4. The filing of an affidavit with the clerk of court
relating to real estate of an intestate decedent is not subject to tax. See § 64.1-135
64.2-510 of the Code of Virginia.
5. A recovery for death by wrongful act is not taxable
because it does not pass property by will or by intestacy.
23VAC10-310-30. Value of estate.
A.1. Resident. Upon the probate of the will of a resident
decedent who owned real, tangible and intangible personal property, the tax is
measured by the value of all intangible property wherever located and the value
of the real and tangible property located in Virginia. "Resident"
means a decedent who was domiciled in the Commonwealth of Virginia at his
death.
2. Nonresident. Upon the probate of an authenticated copy of
the will of a nonresident decedent, the tax is measured only by the value of
the real or tangible property located in the Commonwealth. See § 64.1-92
64.2-450 of the Code of Virginia.
3. B. The following are examples of property
not included in the valuation of the estate for purposes of the tax:
a. 1. Property passing by the exercise of a
power of appointment.
b. 2. Jointly held property with right of
survivorship.
c. 3. Insurance proceeds, unless payable to the
estate.
d. 4. Property that passes by inter vivos trust.
e. 5. Bonds payable on debt to a named
beneficiary.
4. C. Assets owned as tenants in common or
joint tenants without right of survivorship are included to the extent of the
interest of the deceased tenant.
5. D. Where a testator owned several parcels of
real estate, but only devised certain of the parcels by will, leaving other
parcels to pass according to the law of descent, the tax should be based upon
all the real estate in the Commonwealth owned by the decedent at the date of
valuation, and not only on the value of the parcels devised by will.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4893; Filed December 12, 2016, 1:25 p.m.