TITLE 8. EDUCATION
GEORGE MASON UNIVERSITY
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 8VAC35-30. Space Utilization  and Scheduling Policies and Procedures (repealing 8VAC35-30-10 through  8VAC35-30-240).
    8VAC35-31. Space Use (adding 8VAC35-31-10 through 8VAC35-31-50).
    Statutory Authority: § 23-91.29 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Agency Contact: Kenneth W. Hubble, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, George Mason University, 4400 University Drive, Fairfax, VA 22030,  telephone (703) 993-3091 or email khubble@gmu.edu.
    Summary:
    This action repeals the current space use regulation and  promulgates a new space use regulation to incorporate university policies  within designated areas.
    CHAPTER 31
  SPACE USE
    8VAC35-31-10. Scope.
    This chapter applies to all George Mason University  faculty, staff, students, university contractors, and the general public.
    8VAC35-31-20. Policy statement.
    George Mason University facilities are intended primarily  for the use of its students, faculty, and staff in their efforts to advance the  educational mission of the university. No use shall be permitted that is  inconsistent with the mission of the university.
    8VAC35-31-30. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Educational enclave" means that portion of  university property in academic buildings, administrative office buildings,  student residence buildings, dining facilities, athletic facilities, child care  facilities, or that portion of university property in use for  university-sponsored or university-sanctioned sporting, entertainment, or  educational events.
    "University property" means any property owned,  leased, or controlled by George Mason University.
    8VAC35-31-40. Entry upon, and use of, university property.
    A. Entry upon, or use of, university property in the  educational enclave shall be in accord with all applicable university policies.  
    B. Entry upon, or use of, university property outside the  educational enclave for noncommercial purposes is permitted if otherwise lawful  and does not interfere with educational functions.
    C. Entry upon, or use of, university property for  commercial purposes shall be in accord with all applicable university policies.  
    8VAC35-31-50. Persons lawfully in charge.
    In addition to individuals authorized by university  policy, George Mason University police officers are lawfully in charge for the  purposes of forbidding entry upon or remaining upon university property in  violation of this regulation. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2188; Filed October 14, 2009, 3:34 p.m. 
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
GEORGE MASON UNIVERSITY
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 8VAC35-30. Space Utilization  and Scheduling Policies and Procedures (repealing 8VAC35-30-10 through  8VAC35-30-240).
    8VAC35-31. Space Use (adding 8VAC35-31-10 through 8VAC35-31-50).
    Statutory Authority: § 23-91.29 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Agency Contact: Kenneth W. Hubble, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, George Mason University, 4400 University Drive, Fairfax, VA 22030,  telephone (703) 993-3091 or email khubble@gmu.edu.
    Summary:
    This action repeals the current space use regulation and  promulgates a new space use regulation to incorporate university policies  within designated areas.
    CHAPTER 31
  SPACE USE
    8VAC35-31-10. Scope.
    This chapter applies to all George Mason University  faculty, staff, students, university contractors, and the general public.
    8VAC35-31-20. Policy statement.
    George Mason University facilities are intended primarily  for the use of its students, faculty, and staff in their efforts to advance the  educational mission of the university. No use shall be permitted that is  inconsistent with the mission of the university.
    8VAC35-31-30. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Educational enclave" means that portion of  university property in academic buildings, administrative office buildings,  student residence buildings, dining facilities, athletic facilities, child care  facilities, or that portion of university property in use for  university-sponsored or university-sanctioned sporting, entertainment, or  educational events.
    "University property" means any property owned,  leased, or controlled by George Mason University.
    8VAC35-31-40. Entry upon, and use of, university property.
    A. Entry upon, or use of, university property in the  educational enclave shall be in accord with all applicable university policies.  
    B. Entry upon, or use of, university property outside the  educational enclave for noncommercial purposes is permitted if otherwise lawful  and does not interfere with educational functions.
    C. Entry upon, or use of, university property for  commercial purposes shall be in accord with all applicable university policies.  
    8VAC35-31-50. Persons lawfully in charge.
    In addition to individuals authorized by university  policy, George Mason University police officers are lawfully in charge for the  purposes of forbidding entry upon or remaining upon university property in  violation of this regulation. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2188; Filed October 14, 2009, 3:34 p.m. 
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
GEORGE MASON UNIVERSITY
Proposed Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 8VAC35-40. Vending Sales and  Solicitation (repealing 8VAC35-40-10 through  8VAC35-40-160).
    Statutory Authority: § 23-91.26 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Agency Contact: Kenneth W. Hubble, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, George Mason University, 4400 University Drive, Fairfax, VA 22030,  telephone (703) 993-3091 or email khubble@gmu.edu.
    Summary:
    The proposed action repeals the Vending Sales and  Solicitation regulation. Activity proscribed in this regulation is either  subject to other regulation or governed by contract.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2192; Filed October 14, 2009, 3:33 p.m. 
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
GEORGE MASON UNIVERSITY
Proposed Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 8VAC35-50. Poster Posting Policy  and Procedures (repealing 8VAC35-50-10 through  8VAC35-50-180).
    Statutory Authority: § 23-91.29 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Agency Contact: Kenneth W. Hubble, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, George Mason University, 4400 University Drive, Fairfax, VA 22030,  telephone (703) 993-3091 or email khubble@gmu.edu.
    Summary:
    The proposed action repeals the Poster Posting Policy and  Procedures regulation. Activity proscribed in the regulation is either subject  to other regulation or governed by contract.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2193; Filed October 14, 2009, 3:33 p.m. 
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Proposed Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-580. Underground Storage  Tanks: Technical Standards and Corrective Action Requirements (amending 9VAC25-580-10, 9VAC25-580-20,  9VAC25-580-50, 9VAC25-580-120, 9VAC25-580-130, 9VAC25-580-140; adding  9VAC25-580-125, 9VAC25-580-370).
    Statutory Authority: §§ 62.1-44.15 and 62.1-44.34:9  of the Code of Virginia; 40 CFR Parts 280 and 281.
    Public Hearing Information:
    December 17, 2009 - 1 p.m. - Department of Environmental  Quality, 629 East Main Street, 2nd Floor Training Room, Richmond, VA
    Public Comment Deadline: January 8, 2010.
    Agency Contact: Russell Ellison, Department of  Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218,  telephone (804) 698-4269, FAX (804) 698-4266, or email  russell.ellison@deq.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The legal basis is the State Water Control Law.  Specifically, § 62.1-44.34:9 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the board  to promulgate such regulations as may be necessary to carry out its powers and  duties with regard to underground storage tanks in accordance with applicable  federal laws and regulations. Section 62.1-44.34:9 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the board to apply for such funds as may become available under  federal acts and transmit such funds to appropriate persons.
    Purpose: The amendments are necessary to protect the  health, safety, or welfare of citizens of the Commonwealth. Secondary  containment for new and replaced USTs within 1,000 feet of a public water  supply or potable well will help prevent future UST leaks and limit the extent  and impact of contamination. A delivery prohibition program will provide added  incentive for UST owner/operators to maintain compliant tank systems. Compliant  tank systems reduce the likelihood and severity of petroleum leaks into the  environment. An operator training program will educate UST operators about how  to maintain compliant tank systems and how to recognize and respond to problems  associated with leaking USTs. Operator familiarity with UST regulatory  requirements and with their own UST systems will increase compliance, help  prevent future UST releases, and limit the extent, impact, and cleanup costs of  contamination in the event of a release.
    Substance: Key changes are as follows:
    1. Amend 9VAC25-580-10 to add new definitions that will  apply to the new secondary containment, delivery prohibition, and operator  training requirements.
    2. Minor changes to 9VAC25-580-20 accommodate proper  references to the other substantive changes.
    3. Amend 9VAC25-580-50 and 9VAC25-580-140 to require  secondary containment for all new tanks and piping within 1,000 feet of  existing community water systems or other potable drinking water wells.
    4. Add 9VAC25-580-125 to identify specific classes of UST  operators and require training for those classes of UST operators.
    5. Add 9VAC25-580-370 to prohibit delivery of petroleum  products to tanks deemed ineligible by the board due to noncompliance. This new  section of the regulation will contain criteria for determining what tanks are  ineligible for petroleum delivery, the process for identifying a tank as  ineligible, the methods for marking the tanks and providing notice to  owners/operators and delivery companies that the tanks are ineligible, and the  criteria for reclassifying ineligible tanks as eligible.
    The board followed the U.S. Environmental Protection  Agency's (EPA) grant guidelines for secondary and containment, delivery  prohibition, and operator training to develop the amendments.
    Issues: The primary advantages to the public are the  diminished impacts from leaking USTs to drinking water supplies, wells, and the  reduction in the extent of any future releases. The disadvantages are the  incremental cost burden to businesses that will be incurred to install and  replace USTs with required secondary containment and train their operators, and  the cost to UST owners who have lost the ability to accept fuel deliveries to a  noncompliant UST.
    The primary advantages to the agency include better deterrence  against noncompliant USTs (Delivery Prohibition) and early discovery of leaking  USTs in cases where secondarily contained systems exist. The primary agency  disadvantage is the cost to implement and oversee the new program activities.
    Operator training and delivery prohibition efforts have been in  existence and worked in other states for years to better limit violations and  releases.
    The Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to  the requirements of the federal Energy Policy Act of 2005, the State Water  Control Board is proposing 1) to require secondary containment of all new and  replacement underground storage tanks and associated piping within 1000 feet of  an existing community water system or other potable drinking water well; 2) to  establish criteria for determining what tanks are ineligible for petroleum  delivery, the methods for marking the tanks, providing notice to  owners/operators and delivery companies that the tanks are ineligible and for  developing criteria for reclassifying ineligible tanks as eligible; and (3) to  require training for certain classes of underground storage tank operators. 
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Pursuant to the requirements of the  federal Energy Policy Act of 2005, the State Water Control Board is proposing  1) to require secondary containment of all new and replacement underground  storage tanks (UST) and associated piping within 1000 feet of an existing  community water system or other potable drinking water well; 2) to establish  criteria for determining what tanks are ineligible for petroleum delivery, the  methods for marking the tanks, providing notice to owners/operators and  delivery companies that the tanks are ineligible and for developing criteria  for reclassifying ineligible tanks as eligible; and (3) to require training for  certain classes of UST operators. The goal of the amendments is to reduce the  number and severity of petroleum leaks from UST systems by strengthening  pollution prevention requirements and encouraging UST owners and operators to  maintain compliant UST systems.
    The proposal to require secondary containment of all new and  replacement USTs is expected to add to the costs of operating these tanks.  According to the Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ), the price of a  10,000 gallon single walled tank is $11,100 while the price of double walled  tank is $17,900. However, the additional costs are believed to be the lowest  possible between the two options made available by the Energy Policy Act of  2005. The federal policy requires states to promulgate regulations either to  require UST owners and operators to provide secondary containment for new and  replacement USTs and piping if the system is within 1,000 feet of any existing  community water system or any existing potable drinking water well; or require  tank manufacturers and installers to maintain evidence of financial  responsibility for releases associated with improper installation or  manufacture of tanks.  The Energy Act mandates that states choose between  requiring secondary containment and requiring tank manufacturers and installer  to be financially responsible.
    According to DEQ, the board chose secondary containment as in  54 other states and territories because it is the most environmentally  protective alternative and preliminary research indicates that the majority of  new tanks (66%) and piping (72%) installed today are secondarily contained. The  complexities of implementing a financial responsibility program for all UST  equipment installed in the state would require significant administrative  resources to audit installer and manufacturer financial responsibility  requirements and referee litigations. Further, establishing a program for  manufacturer and installer financial responsibility may result in an additional  burden on the Virginia Petroleum Storage Tank Fund. The Fund currently acts as  a financial responsibility mechanism for tank owners and operators in addition  to funding petroleum cleanups. Requiring this additional financial  responsibility could mean the Fund will be called upon to act as an additional  financial responsibility mechanism for manufacturers and installers, as well,  potentially resulting in fewer funds available for petroleum cleanups.
    The proposed regulations will also establish criteria for  determining what tanks are ineligible for petroleum delivery, the methods for  marking the tanks, providing notice to owners/operators and delivery companies  that the tanks are ineligible and for developing criteria for reclassifying  ineligible tanks as eligible. These requirements are expected to strengthen the  enforcement of prevention of delivery for problematic USTs.
    Finally, the proposed regulations will require training for  certain classes of underground storage tank operators. There are three main  types of operator classes. Class A for owners, Class B for managers, Class C  for cashiers. One person could be certified as all three types of classes. The  training of these operators would increase compliance costs in terms of the  actual expense of the training classes, the wages associated with the time  spent in completing the training, and any room and board expenses if necessary.  While there are approximately 6842 facilities in the Commonwealth, it is not  known how many individuals would be required to complete training classes.
    In addition to reducing the number and severity of petroleum  leaks from UST systems by strengthening pollution prevention requirements and  encouraging UST owners and operators to maintain compliant UST systems, the  proposed regulations will also satisfy the federal Energy Policy Act  requirements to maintain approximately $2.5 million in federal grants.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed regulations  apply to approximately 6842 facilities with underground storage tanks.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulations  apply throughout the Commonwealth.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed requirements are  expected to increase compliance costs of UST operators and may reduce their  demand for labor. However, higher UST standards and training requirements are  expected to increase demand for labor in other areas. More importantly, the  proposed regulations are expected to prevent loss of approximately $2.5 million  in federal grant funds and maintain associated demand for labor through this  grant.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed regulations  are expected to increase compliance costs of UST facilities and consequently  reduce their asset values. To the extent the proposed regulations reduce the  frequency and severity of UST leaks, the value of real estate that may have  been otherwise adversely affected would be maintained. Also, the asset value of  operator training businesses and double walled UST systems are expected to  increase.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. Most of the affected  facilities are believed to be small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed alternative is the one that is believed to have the  minimum adverse impact on small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed regulations are not  expected to have a significant effect on real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  36 (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation.  The analysis presented above represents DPB's best  estimate of these economic impacts.
    Agency's Response to the Department of Planning and Budget's  Economic Impact Analysis: The department has reviewed the economic impact  analysis prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget and has no comment.
    Summary:
    Pursuant to the requirements of the federal Energy Policy  Act of 2005, the board is amending the regulation to accomplish the following:  (i) require secondary containment of all new and replacement underground  storage tanks (USTs) and associated piping within 1,000 feet of an existing  community water system (this includes the piping distribution system) or other  potable drinking water well; (ii) develop criteria for determining what tanks  are ineligible for petroleum delivery, the methods for marking the tanks,  providing notice to owners/operators and delivery companies that the tanks are  ineligible, and for developing criteria for reclassifying ineligible tanks as  eligible; and (iii) require training for certain classes of UST operators. The goal  of the amendments is to reduce the number and severity of petroleum leaks from  UST systems by strengthening pollution prevention requirements and encouraging  UST owners and operators to maintain compliant UST systems. The full text of  this new federal legislation can be found at  http://www.epa.gov/oust/fedlaws/nrg05_01.htm. This proposal consolidates two  Notices of Intended Regulatory Action: Amendment Regarding Operator Training  for Owners and Operators (24:14 VA.R. 1887 March 17, 2008) and Incorporation of  Requirements of Federal Energy Policy Act of 2005 (23:25 VA.R. 4100 August 20,  2007).
    Part I 
  Definitions, Applicability and Interim Prohibition 
    9VAC25-580-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Aboveground release" means any release to the  surface of the land or to surface water. This includes, but is not limited to,  releases from the aboveground portion of a UST system and aboveground releases  associated with overfills and transfer operations as the regulated substance  moves to or from a UST system.
    "Ancillary equipment" means any devices including,  but not limited to, such devices as piping, fittings, flanges, valves, and  pumps used to distribute, meter, or control the flow of regulated substances to  and from an UST.
    "Below ground release" means any release to the  subsurface of the land and to ground water. This includes, but is not limited  to, releases from the belowground portions of an underground storage tank  system and belowground releases associated with overfills and transfer  operations as the regulated substance moves to or from an underground storage  tank.
    "Beneath the surface of the ground" means beneath  the ground surface or otherwise covered with earthen materials.
    "Board" means the State Water Control Board.
    "Building official" means the executive official of  the local government building department empowered by § 36-105 of the Code  of Virginia to enforce and administer the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building  Code (USBC).
    "Cathodic protection" is a technique to prevent  corrosion of a metal surface by making that surface the cathode of an  electrochemical cell. For example, a tank system can be cathodically protected  through the application of either galvanic anodes or impressed current. 
    "Cathodic protection tester" means a person who can  demonstrate an understanding of the principles and measurements of all common  types of cathodic protection systems as applied to buried or submerged metal  piping and tank systems. At a minimum, such persons must have education and  experience in soil resistivity, stray current, structure-to-soil potential, and  component electrical isolation measurements of buried metal piping and tank  systems. 
    "CERCLA" means the Comprehensive Environmental  Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (42 USC § 9601 et  seq.).
    "Compatible" means the ability of two or more  substances to maintain their respective physical and chemical properties upon  contact with one another for the design life of the tank system under  conditions likely to be encountered in the UST.
    "Community water system" means a public water  system that serves at least 15 service connections used by year-round residents  or regularly serves at least 25 year-round residents.
    "Connected piping" means all underground piping  including valves, elbows, joints, flanges, and flexible connectors attached to  a tank system through which regulated substances flow. For the purpose of  determining how much piping is connected to any individual UST system, the  piping that joins two UST systems should be allocated equally between them. 
    "Corrosion expert" means a person who, by reason of  thorough knowledge of the physical sciences and the principles of engineering  and mathematics acquired by a professional education and related practical  experience, is qualified to engage in the practice of corrosion control on  buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks. Such a person must be  accredited or certified as being qualified by the National Association of  Corrosion Engineers or be a registered professional engineer who has  certification or licensing that includes education and experience in corrosion  control of buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks. 
    "De minimis" means trivial and beyond the intent of  regulation, as that term is used at 53 Fed. Reg. 37108-37109.
    "Delivery prohibition" is prohibiting the  delivery, deposit, or acceptance of product to an underground storage tank  system that has been determined to be ineligible by the board for such  delivery, deposit, or acceptance.
    "Delivery prohibition tag" means a tag, device,  or mechanism on the tank's fill pipes that clearly identifies an underground  storage tank system as ineligible for product delivery. The tag or device is  easily visible to the product deliverer and clearly states and conveys that it  is unlawful to deliver to, deposit into, or accept product into the ineligible  underground storage tank system. The tag, device, or mechanism is generally  tamper resistant.
    "Dielectric material" means a material that does  not conduct direct electrical current. Dielectric coatings are used to  electrically isolate UST systems from the surrounding soils. Dielectric  bushings are used to electrically isolate portions of the UST system (e.g.,  tank from piping). 
    "Director" means the director of the Department of  Environmental Quality. 
    "Electrical equipment" means underground equipment  that contains dielectric fluid that is necessary for the operation of equipment  such as transformers and buried electrical cable. 
    "Excavation zone" means the volume containing the  tank system and backfill material bounded by the ground surface, walls, and  floor of the pit and trenches into which the UST system is placed at the time  of installation. 
    "Existing community water system or existing potable  drinking water well" means a community water system or potable drinking  water well is in place when a new installation or replacement of an underground  tank, piping, or motor fuel dispensing system begins.
    "Existing tank system" means a tank system used to  contain an accumulation of regulated substances or for which installation has  commenced on or before December 22, 1988. Installation is considered to have commenced  if: 
    1. The owner or operator has obtained all federal, state, and  local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction of the site  or installation of the tank system; and if 
    2. a. Either a continuous on-site physical construction or  installation program has begun; or 
    b. The owner or operator has entered into contractual  obligations-which cannot be cancelled or modified without substantial loss-for  physical construction at the site or installation of the tank system to be  completed within a reasonable time. 
    "Farm tank" is a tank located on a tract of land  devoted to the production of crops or raising animals, including fish, and  associated residences and improvements. A farm tank must be located on the farm  property. "Farm" includes fish hatcheries, rangeland and nurseries  with growing operations. 
    "Flow-through process tank" is a tank that forms an  integral part of a production process through which there is a steady,  variable, recurring, or intermittent flow of materials during the operation of  the process. Flow-through process tanks do not include tanks used for the  storage of materials prior to their introduction into the production process or  for the storage of finished products or by-products from the production  process. 
    "Free product" refers to a regulated substance that  is present as a nonaqueous phase liquid (e.g., liquid not dissolved in water). 
    "Gathering lines" means any pipeline, equipment,  facility, or building used in the transportation of oil or gas during oil or gas  production or gathering operations. 
    "Hazardous substance UST system" means an  underground storage tank system that contains a hazardous substance defined in  § 101(14) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and  Liability Act (CERCLA) of 1980 (42 USC § 9601 et seq.) (but not including  any substance regulated as a hazardous waste under subtitle C of RCRA) or any  mixture of such substances and petroleum, and which is not a petroleum UST  system. 
    "Heating oil" means petroleum that is No. 1, No. 2,  No. 4-light, No. 4-heavy, No. 5-light, No. 5-heavy, and No. 6 technical grades  of fuel oil; other residual fuel oils (including Navy Special Fuel Oil and  Bunker C); and other fuels when used as substitutes for one of these fuel oils.  Heating oil is typically used in the operation of heating equipment, boilers,  or furnaces. 
    "Hydraulic lift tank" means a tank holding  hydraulic fluid for a closed-loop mechanical system that uses compressed air or  hydraulic fluid to operate lifts, elevators, and other similar devices. 
    "Liquid trap" means sumps, well cellars, and other  traps used in association with oil and gas production, gathering, and  extraction operations (including gas production plants), for the purpose of  collecting oil, water, and other liquids. These liquid traps may temporarily  collect liquids for subsequent disposition or reinjection into a production or  pipeline stream, or may collect and separate liquids from a gas stream. 
    "Maintenance" means the normal operational upkeep  to prevent an underground storage tank system from releasing product. 
    "Motor fuel" means petroleum or a petroleum-based  substance that is motor gasoline, aviation gasoline, No. 1 or No. 2 diesel  fuel, or any grade of gasohol, and is typically used in the operation of a motor  engine. This definition applies to blended petroleum motor fuels such as  biodiesel and ethanol blends that contain more than a de minimis amount of  petroleum or petroleum-based substance.
    "Motor fuel dispenser system" means the motor  fuel dispenser and the equipment necessary to connect the dispenser to the  underground storage tank system. The equipment necessary to connect the motor  fuel dispenser to the underground storage tank system may include check valves,  shear valves, unburied risers or flexible connectors, or other transitional  components that are beneath the dispenser and connect the dispenser to the  underground piping.
    "New tank system" means a tank system that will be  used to contain an accumulation of regulated substances and for which installation  has commenced after December 22, 1988 (See also "existing tank  system"). 
    "Noncommercial purposes" with respect to motor fuel  means not for resale. 
    "On the premises where stored" with respect to  heating oil means UST systems located on the same property where the stored  heating oil is used. 
    "Operational life" refers to the period beginning  when installation of the tank system has commenced until the time the tank  system is properly closed under Part VII (9VAC25-580-310 et seq.) of this  chapter.
    "Operator" means any person in control of, or  having responsibility for, the daily operation of the UST system. 
    "Overfill release" is a release that occurs when a  tank is filled beyond its capacity, resulting in a discharge of the regulated  substance to the environment. 
    "Owner" means: 
    1. In the case of a UST system in use on November 8, 1984, or  brought into use after that date, any person who owns an UST system used for  storage, use, or dispensing of regulated substances; and 
    2. In the case of any UST system in use before November 8,  1984, but no longer in use on that date, any person who owned such UST  immediately before the discontinuation of its use. 
    The term "owner" shall not include any person who,  without participating in the management of an underground storage tank or being  otherwise engaged in petroleum production, refining, and marketing, holds  indicia of ownership primarily to protect the holder's security interest in the  tank. 
    "Person" means an individual, trust, firm, joint  stock company, corporation, including a government corporation, partnership,  association, any state or agency thereof, municipality, county, town,  commission, political subdivision of a state, any interstate body, consortium,  joint venture, commercial entity, the government of the United States or any  unit or agency thereof. 
    "Petroleum UST system" means an underground storage  tank system that contains petroleum or a mixture of petroleum with de minimis  quantities of other regulated substances. Such systems include those containing  motor fuels, jet fuels, distillate fuel oils, residual fuel oils, lubricants,  petroleum solvents, and used oils. 
    "Pipe" or "piping" means a hollow  cylinder or the tubular conduit that is constructed of nonearthen  materials that routinely contains and conveys regulated substances from the  underground tank(s) to the dispenser(s) or other end-use equipment. Such piping  includes any elbows, couplings, unions, valves, or other in-line fixtures that  contain and convey regulated substances from the underground tank(s) to the  dispenser(s). Pipe or piping does not include vent, vapor recovery, or fill  lines.
    "Pipeline facilities (including gathering lines)"  are new and existing pipe rights-of-way and any associated equipment,  facilities, or buildings.
    "Potable drinking water well" means any hole  (dug, driven, drilled, or bored) that extends into the earth until it meets  groundwater that supplies water for a noncommunity public water system, or  otherwise supplies water for household use (consisting of drinking, bathing,  cooking, or other similar uses). Such wells may provide water to entities such  as a single-family residence, group of residences, businesses, schools, parks,  campgrounds, and other permanent or seasonal communities. 
    "Product deliverer" is any person who delivers  or deposits product into an underground storage tank.
    "Public water system" means a system for the  provision to the public of water for human consumption through pipes or, after  August 5, 1998, other constructed conveyances, if such system has at least 15  service connections or regularly serves an average of at least 25 individuals  daily at least 60 days out of the year. Such term includes (i) any collection,  treatment, storage, and distribution facilities under control of the operator of  such system and used primarily in connection with such system and (ii) any  collection or pretreatment storage facilities not under such control that are  used primarily in connection with such system. Such term does not include any  "special irrigation district." A public water system is either a  "community water system" or a "noncommunity water system."
    "RCRA" means the federal Resource Conservation and  Recovery Act of 1976 as amended (42 USC § 6901 et seq.). 
    "Regulated substance" means an element, compound,  mixture, solution, or substance that, when released into the environment, may  present substantial danger to the public health or welfare, or the environment.  The term "regulated substance" includes: 
    1. Any substance defined in § 101(14) of the Comprehensive  Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) of 1980 (42  USC § 9601 et seq.), but not any substance regulated as a hazardous waste  under subtitle C of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1976  (42 USC § 6901 et seq.); and 
    2. Petroleum, including crude oil or any fraction thereof,  that is liquid at standard conditions of temperature and pressure (60°F and  14.7 pounds per square inch absolute). The term "regulated substance"  includes but is not limited to petroleum and petroleum-based substances  comprised of a complex blend of hydrocarbons derived from crude oil through  processes of separation, conversion, upgrading, and finishing, such as motor  fuels, jet fuels, distillate fuel oils, residual fuel oils, lubricants, petroleum  solvents, and used oils.
    "Release" means any spilling, leaking, emitting,  discharging, escaping, leaching or disposing from an UST into ground water,  surface water or subsurface soils. 
    "Release detection" means determining whether a  release of a regulated substance has occurred from the UST system into the  environment or into the interstitial space between the UST system and its  secondary barrier or secondary containment around it. 
    "Repair" means to restore a tank or UST system  component that has caused a release of product from the UST system.
    "Replace" means, when applied to underground  storage tanks and piping, to remove an underground storage tank and install a  new underground storage tank or to remove and put back greater than 50% of the  length of a piping run excluding connectors (such as flexible connectors)  connected to an underground storage tank.
    "Residential tank" is a tank located on property  used primarily for dwelling purposes.
    "SARA" means the Superfund Amendments and  Reauthorization Act of 1986.
    "Secondary containment" means a release  prevention and release detection system for an underground tank and/or piping.  For purposes of this definition, release prevention means an underground tank  and/or piping having an inner and outer barrier and release detection means a  method of monitoring the space between the inner and outer barriers for a leak  or release of regulated substances from the underground tank and/or piping. 
    "Septic tank" is a water-tight covered receptacle  designed to receive or process, through liquid separation or biological  digestion, the sewage discharged from a building sewer. The effluent from such  receptacle is distributed for disposal through the soil and settled solids and  scum from the tank are pumped out periodically and hauled to a treatment  facility. 
    "Storm water or waste water collection system"  means piping, pumps, conduits, and any other equipment necessary to collect and  transport the flow of surface water run-off resulting from precipitation, or  domestic, commercial, or industrial wastewater to and from retention areas or  any areas where treatment is designated to occur. The collection of storm water  and wastewater does not include treatment except where incidental to  conveyance. 
    "Surface impoundment" is a natural topographic  depression, man-made excavation, or diked area formed primarily of earthen  materials (although it may be lined with man-made materials) that is not an  injection well. 
    "Tank" is a stationary device designed to contain  an accumulation of regulated substances and constructed of nonearthen materials  (e.g., concrete, steel, plastic) that provide structural support.
    "Underdispenser containment" means containment  underneath a dispenser that will prevent leaks from the dispenser from reaching  soil or groundwater. 
    "Underground area" means an underground room, such  as a basement, cellar, shaft or vault, providing enough space for physical  inspection of the exterior of the tank situated on or above the surface of the  floor. 
    "Underground release" means any belowground  release. 
    "Underground storage tank" or "UST" means  any one or combination of tanks (including underground pipes connected thereto)  that is used to contain an accumulation of regulated substances, and the volume  of which (including the volume of underground pipes connected thereto) is 10%  or more beneath the surface of the ground. This term does not include any: 
    1. Farm or residential tank of 1,100 gallons or less capacity  used for storing motor fuel for noncommercial purposes; 
    2. Tank used for storing heating oil for consumption on the  premises where stored; 
    3. Septic tank; 
    4. Pipeline facility (including gathering lines) regulated  under: 
    a. The Regulated under the Natural Gas Pipeline  Safety Act of 1968 (49 USC App. § 1671, et seq.); 
    b. The Regulated under the Hazardous Liquid  Pipeline Safety Act of 1979 (49 USC App. § 2001, et  seq.); or 
    c. Which is an intrastate pipeline facility regulated under  state laws comparable to the provisions of the law referred to in subdivisions  4 a or 4 b of this definition; 
    5. Surface impoundment, pit, pond, or lagoon; 
    6. Storm water or wastewater collection system; 
    7. Flow-through process tank; 
    8. Liquid trap or associated gathering lines directly related  to oil or gas production and gathering operations; or 
    9. Storage tank situated in an underground area (such as a  basement, cellar, mineworking, drift, shaft, or tunnel) if the storage tank is  situated upon or above the surface of the floor. 
    The term "underground storage tank" or  "UST" does not include any pipes connected to any tank which is  described in subdivisions 1 through 9 of this definition. 
    "Upgrade" means the addition or retrofit of some  systems such as cathodic protection, lining, or spill and overfill controls to  improve the ability of an underground storage tank system to prevent the  release of product. 
    "UST system" or "tank system" means an  underground storage tank, connected underground piping, underground ancillary  equipment, and containment system, if any. 
    "Wastewater treatment tank" means a tank that is  designed to receive and treat an influent wastewater through physical,  chemical, or biological methods. 
    9VAC25-580-20. Applicability.
    A. The requirements of this chapter apply to all owners and  operators of an UST system as defined in 9VAC25-580-10 except as otherwise  provided in subsections B, C, and D of this section. Any UST system listed in  subsection C of this section must meet the requirements of 9VAC25-580-30. 
    B. The following UST systems are excluded from the requirements  of this chapter: 
    1. Any UST system holding hazardous wastes listed or  identified under Subtitle C of the Solid Waste Disposal Act (33 USC § 1251 et  seq.), or a mixture of such hazardous waste and other regulated substances. 
    2. Any wastewater treatment tank system that is part of a  wastewater treatment facility regulated under § 402 or § 307(b) of  the Clean Water Act. 
    3. Equipment or machinery that contains regulated substances  for operational purposes such as hydraulic lift tanks and electrical equipment  tanks. 
    4. Any UST system whose capacity is 110 gallons or less. 
    5. Any UST system that contains a de minimis concentration of  regulated substances. 
    6. Any emergency spill or overflow containment UST system that  is expeditiously emptied after use. 
    C. Deferrals. Parts II, III, IV, V, and VII, and IX  of this chapter do not apply to any of the following types of UST systems: 
    1. Wastewater treatment tank systems; 
    2. Any UST systems containing radioactive material that are  regulated under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 USC § 2011 et  seq.); 
    3. Any UST system that is part of an emergency generator  system at nuclear power generation facilities regulated by the Nuclear  Regulatory Commission under 10 CFR Part 50, Appendix A; 
    4. Airport hydrant fuel distribution systems; and 
    5. UST systems with field-constructed tanks. 
    D. Deferrals. Part IV does not apply to any UST system that was  installed before the effective date of the secondary containment requirements  in subdivision 7 of 9VAC25-580-50 and stores fuel solely for use by  emergency power generators. 
    Part II 
  UST Systems: Design, Construction, Installation, and Notification 
    9VAC25-580-50. Performance standards for new UST systems.
    Owners and operators must obtain a permit, the required  inspections and a Certificate of Use issued in accordance with the  provisions of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code. No UST system shall  be installed or placed into use without the owner and operator having obtained  the required permit, inspections and Certificate of Use from the building  official under the provisions of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (Chapter  6 (§ 36-97 et seq.) of Title 36 of the Code of Virginia). 
    In the case of state-owned facilities the Department of  General Services shall function as the building official in accordance with § 36-98.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    In the case of federal facilities the building official must  be contacted. Owners and operators must obtain a permit, the required  inspections and a Certificate of Use must be issued in accordance with the  provisions of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code. 
    In order to prevent releases due to structural failure,  corrosion, or spills and overfills for as long as the UST system is used to  store regulated substances, all owners and operators of new UST systems must  meet the following requirements. 
    1. Tanks. 
    Each tank must be properly designed and constructed, and any  portion underground that routinely contains product must be protected from  corrosion, in accordance with a code of practice developed by a nationally  recognized association or independent testing laboratory as specified below: 
    a. The tank is constructed of fiberglass-reinforced plastic; 
    NOTE: The following industry codes may be used to comply with  subdivision 1 a of this section: Underwriters Laboratories Standard 1316,  "Standard for Glass-Fiber-Reinforced Plastic Underground Storage Tanks for  Petroleum Products"; Underwriters Laboratories of Canada CAN4-S615-M83,  "Standard for Reinforced Plastic Underground Tanks for Petroleum  Products"; or American Society of Testing and Materials Standard D4021-86,  "Standard Specification for Glass-Fiber-Reinforced Polyester Underground  Petroleum Storage Tanks." 
    b. The tank is constructed of steel and cathodically protected  in the following manner: 
    (1) The tank is coated with a suitable dielectric material; 
    (2) Field-installed cathodic protection systems are designed  by a corrosion expert; 
    (3) Impressed current systems are designed to allow  determination of current operating status as required in subdivision 3 of  9VAC25-580-90; and 
    (4) Cathodic protection systems are operated and maintained in  accordance with 9VAC25-580-90; or 
    NOTE: The following codes and standards may be used to comply  with subdivision 1 b of this section: 
    (a) Steel Tank Institute "Specification for STI-P3 System  of External Corrosion Protection of Underground Steel Storage Tanks"; 
    (b) Underwriters Laboratories Standard 1746, "Corrosion  Protection Systems for Underground Storage Tanks"; 
    (c) Underwriters Laboratories of Canada CAN4-S603-M85,  "Standard for Steel Underground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible  Liquids," and CAN4-G03.1-M85, "Standard for Galvanic Corrosion  Protection Systems for Underground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids,"  and CAN4-S631-M84, "Isolating Bushings for Steel Underground Tanks  Protected with Coatings and Galvanic Systems"; or 
    (d) National Association of Corrosion Engineers Standard  RP-02-85, "Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried,  or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems," and Underwriters Laboratories  Standard 58 "Standard for Steel Underground Tanks for Flammable and  Combustible Liquids." 
    c. The tank is constructed of a  steel-fiberglass-reinforced-plastic composite; or 
    NOTE: The following industry codes may be used to comply with  subdivision 1 c of this section: Underwriters Laboratories Standard 1746,  "Corrosion Protection Systems for Underground Storage Tanks," or the  Association for Composite Tanks ACT-100, "Specification for the  Fabrication of FRP Clad Underground Storage Tanks." 
    d. The tank construction and corrosion protection are  determined by the board to be designed to prevent the release or threatened  release of any stored regulated substance in a manner that is no less  protective of human health and the environment than subdivisions 1 a through c  of this section. 
    2. Piping. The piping that routinely contains regulated  substances and is in contact with the ground must be properly designed,  constructed, and protected from corrosion in accordance with a code of practice  developed by a nationally recognized association or independent testing  laboratory as specified below: 
    a. The piping is constructed of fiberglass-reinforced plastic.  
    NOTE: The following codes and standards may be used to comply  with subdivision 2 a of this section: 
    (1) Underwriters Laboratories Subject 971, "UL Listed  Non-Metal Pipe Nonmetallic Underground Piping for Flammable Liquids";
    (2) Underwriters Laboratories Standard 567, "Pipe  Connectors for Flammable and Combustible and LP Gas"; 
    (3) Underwriters Laboratories of Canada Guide ULC-107,  "Glass Fiber Reinforced Plastic Pipe and Fittings for Flammable  Liquids"; and 
    (4) Underwriters Laboratories of Canada Standard CAN  4-S633-M81, "Flexible Underground Hose Connectors." 
    b. The piping is constructed of steel and cathodically  protected in the following manner: 
    (1) The piping is coated with a suitable dielectric material; 
    (2) Field-installed cathodic protection systems are designed  by a corrosion expert; 
    (3) Impressed current systems are designed to allow  determination of current operating status as required in subdivision 3 of  9VAC25-580-90; and 
    (4) Cathodic protection systems are operated and maintained in  accordance with 9VAC25-580-90; or 
    NOTE: The following codes and standards may be used to comply  with subdivision 2 b of this section: 
    (a) National Fire Protection Association Standard 30,  "Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code"; 
    (b) American Petroleum Institute Publication 1615,  "Installation of Underground Petroleum Storage Systems"; 
    (c) American Petroleum Institute Publication 1632,  "Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping  Systems"; and 
    (d) National Association of Corrosion Engineers Standard  RP-01-69, "Control of External Corrosion on Submerged Metallic Piping  Systems." 
    c. The piping construction and corrosion protection are  determined by the board to be designed to prevent the release or threatened  release of any stored regulated substance in a manner that is no less  protective of human health and the environment than the requirements in  subdivisions 2 a through b of this section. 
    3. Spill and overfill prevention equipment. 
    a. Except as provided in subdivision 3 b of this section, to  prevent spilling and overfilling associated with product transfer to the UST  system, owners and operators must use the following spill and overfill  prevention equipment: 
    (1) Spill prevention equipment that will prevent release of  product to the environment when the transfer hose is detached from the fill  pipe (for example, a spill catchment basin); and 
    (2) Overfill prevention equipment that will: 
    (a) Automatically shut off flow into the tank when the tank is  no more than 95% full; 
    (b) Alert the transfer operator when the tank is no more than  90% full by restricting the flow into the tank or triggering a high-level  alarm; or 
    (c) Restrict the flow 30 minutes prior to overfilling, alert  the operator with a high level alarm one minute before overfilling, or  automatically shut off flow into the tank so that none of the fittings located  on top of the tank are exposed to product due to overfilling. 
    b. Owners and operators are not required to use the spill and  overfill prevention equipment specified in subdivision 3 a of this section if: 
    (1) Alternative equipment is used that is determined by the  board to be no less protective of human health and the environment than the  equipment specified in subdivision 3 a (1) or (2) of this section; or 
    (2) The UST system is filled by transfers of no more than 25  gallons at one time. 
    4. Installation. All tanks and piping must be properly  installed in accordance with a code of practice developed by a nationally  recognized association or independent testing laboratory and in accordance with  the manufacturer's instructions. 
    NOTE: Tank and piping system installation practices and  procedures described in the following codes may be used to comply with the  requirements of subdivision 4 of this section: 
    a. American Petroleum Institute Publication 1615, "Installation  of Underground Petroleum Storage System"; 
    b. Petroleum Equipment Institute Publication RP100,  "Recommended Practices for Installation of Underground Liquid Storage  Systems"; or 
    c. American National Standards Institute Standard B31.3,  "Petroleum Refinery Piping," and American National Standards  Institute Standard B31.4 "Liquid Petroleum Transportation Piping  System." 
    NOTE: These industry codes require that prior to bringing the  system into use the following tests be performed: (i) tank tightness test  (air); (ii) pipe tightness test (air or hydrostatic); and (iii) precision  system test in accordance with NFPA 329 (detection of .05 gal/hr leak rate). 
    5. Certification of installation. All owners and operators  must ensure that one or more of options a through d of the following methods of  certification, testing, or inspection is performed, and a Certificate of Use  has been issued in accordance with the provisions of the Virginia Uniform  Statewide Building Code to demonstrate compliance with subdivision 4 of this  section. A certification of compliance on the UST Notification form must be  submitted to the board in accordance with 9VAC25-580-70. 
    a. The installer has been certified by the tank and piping  manufacturers; 
    b. The installation has been inspected and certified by a  registered professional engineer with education and experience in UST system  installation; 
    c. All work listed in the manufacturer's installation  checklists has been completed; or 
    d. The owner and operator have complied with another method  for ensuring compliance with subdivision 4 of this section that is determined  by the board to be no less protective of human health and the environment. 
    6. Release detection. Release detection shall be provided in  accordance with Part IV (9VAC25-580-130 et seq.) of this chapter.
    7. Secondary containment.
    a. Each new or replaced petroleum underground storage tank,  or piping connected to any petroleum underground storage tank, installed within  1,000 feet of any existing community water system or existing potable drinking  water well must be secondarily contained in accordance with 9VAC25-580-140 A.  In the case of a replacement of a petroleum underground storage tank or the  piping connected to the petroleum underground storage tank, the secondary containment  requirements shall apply only to the specific petroleum underground storage  tank or piping run being replaced, not to other petroleum underground storage  tanks and connected pipes comprising such system. The entire piping run must be  secondarily contained if more than 50% of the length of a piping run connected  to a petroleum underground storage tank is to be replaced.
    b. Motor fuel dispenser systems. Each new motor fuel  dispenser system installed within 1,000 feet of any existing community water system  or existing potable drinking water well shall have underdispenser containment  in accordance with 9VAC25-580-140 B. A motor fuel dispenser system is  considered new when:
    (1) A dispenser is installed at a location where there  previously was no dispenser (new UST system or new dispenser location at an  existing UST system), or
    (2) An existing dispenser is removed and replaced with  another dispenser and the equipment used to connect the dispenser to the UST  system is replaced. This equipment may include unburied flexible connectors or  risers or other transitional components that are beneath the dispenser and  connect the dispenser to the piping.
    c. If an owner or operator intends to install a new  petroleum UST system that is located greater than 1,000 feet from any existing  community water system or existing potable drinking water well and the owner or  operator will install a potable drinking water well at the new facility that is  within 1,000 feet of the petroleum underground storage tanks, piping, or motor fuel  dispenser systems as part of the new UST installation, then secondary  containment and underdispenser containment are required, regardless of whether  the well is installed before or after the petroleum underground storage tanks,  piping, and motor fuel dispenser systems are installed. 
    d. A tank owner or operator who intends to install an UST  system or motor fuel dispenser system that will not meet the requirements in  subdivision 7 a or c of this subsection must demonstrate to the board that the  distance from the proposed new or replacement petroleum underground storage  tank or piping or motor fuel dispenser system to the existing community water  system or existing potable drinking water well is greater than 1,000 feet.
    (1) The tank owner or operator shall make such a  demonstration by submitting to the board a map showing the distance from the  proposed new or replacement petroleum underground storage tank or piping or  motor fuel dispenser system to the existing community water system or existing  potable drinking water well. If the distance is greater than 1,000 feet but  less than 2,000 feet, the map must be prepared by a licensed professional  surveyor. If the distance is greater than 2,000 feet, the map is not required  to be prepared by a licensed professional surveyor. The tank owner or operator  must submit the map to the board at least 30 days prior to the installation.
    (2) The map must delineate the distance from the proposed  new or replacement petroleum underground storage tank or piping or motor fuel  dispenser system to the closest existing community water system or existing  potable drinking water well. The distance must be measured from the closest  part of the proposed new or replacement petroleum underground storage tank or  piping or motor fuel dispenser system to:
    (a) The closest part of the nearest existing community  water system including such components as the location of the wellhead(s) for  ground water or location of the intake point(s) for surface water, water lines,  processing tanks, and water storage tanks; and water distribution or service  lines under the control of the community water system operator; and
    (b) The wellhead of the nearest existing potable drinking  water well.
    e. The requirement for secondary containment does not apply  to:
    (1) Petroleum underground storage tanks that are not new or  not replaced in a manifolded UST system; 
    (2) Piping runs that are not new or not replaced on  petroleum underground storage tanks with multiple piping runs; 
    (3) Suction piping that meets the requirements at 9VAC  25-580-140 C 2 b or piping that manifolds two or more petroleum USTs together; 
    (4) Repairs meant to restore a petroleum underground  storage tank, pipe, or dispenser to operating condition. For purposes of this  subsection, a repair is any activity that does not meet the definition of  "replace"; and
    (5) Other instances approved by the board where equivalent  protection is provided. 
    9VAC25-580-120. Reporting and recordkeeping.
    Owners and operators of UST systems must cooperate fully with  inspections, monitoring and testing conducted by the board, as well as requests  for document submission, testing, and monitoring by the owner or operator  pursuant to § 9005 of Subtitle I of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act,  as amended. 
    1. Reporting. Owners and operators must submit the following  information to the board:
    a. Notification for all UST systems (9VAC25-580-70), which  includes certification of installation for new UST systems (9VAC25-580-50 5)  (subdivision 5 of 9VAC25-580-50),
    b. Reports of all releases including suspected releases  (9VAC25-580-190), spills and overfills (9VAC25-580-220), and confirmed releases  (9VAC25-580-240);
    c. Corrective actions planned or taken including initial  abatement measures (9VAC25-580-250), site characterization (9VAC25-580-260),  free product removal (9VAC25-580-270), and corrective action plan  (9VAC25-580-280); and
    d. An amended notification form must be submitted within 30  days after permanent closure or change-in-service (9VAC25-580-320).
    2. Recordkeeping. Owners and operators must maintain the  following information:
    a. Documentation of operation of corrosion protection  equipment (9VAC25-580-90);
    b. Documentation of UST system repairs (9VAC25-580-110 6)  (subdivision 6 of 9VAC25-580-110);
    c. Recent compliance with release detection requirements  (9VAC25-580-180); and 
    d. Results of the site investigation conducted at permanent  closure (9VAC25-580-350).
    e. Documentation of operator training required by  9VAC25-580-125, including verification of training for current Class A, Class  B, and Class C operators, and current list of operators and written  instructions or procedures for Class C operators in accordance with  9VAC25-580-125 (relating to operator training).
    3. Availability and maintenance of records. Owners and operators  must keep the records required either:
    a. At the UST site and immediately available for inspection by  the board; or
    b. At a readily available alternative site and be provided for  inspection to the board upon request.
    In the case of permanent closure records required under  9VAC25-580-350, owners and operators are also provided with the additional  alternative of mailing closure records to the board if they cannot be kept at  the site or an alternative site as indicated above.
    Part IV
  Release Detection
    9VAC25-580-125. Operator training.
    A. Definitions.
    1. For purposes of this section, "Class A  operator" means an operator who has primary responsibility to operate and  maintain the underground storage tank system and facility. The Class A  operator's responsibilities include managing resources and personnel, such as  establishing work assignments, to achieve and maintain compliance with  regulatory requirements. In general, Class A operators focus on the broader  aspects of the underground storage tank statutory and regulatory requirements  and standards necessary to properly operate and maintain the underground  storage tank system and facility.
    2. For purposes of this section, "Class B  operator" means an operator who implements applicable underground storage  tank regulatory requirements and standards in the field or at the underground  storage tank facility. A Class B operator oversees and implements the  day-to-day aspects of operations, maintenance, and recordkeeping for the  underground storage tanks at one or more facilities.
    3. For purposes of this section, "Class C  operator" means the person responsible for responding to alarms or other  indications of emergencies caused by spills or releases from underground  storage tank systems and equipment failures. A Class C operator, generally, is  the first line of response to events indicating emergency conditions.
    B. Requirements for trained operators.
    1. Owners and operators of UST systems shall designate  Class A, Class B, and Class C operators for each UST system or facility that  has underground storage tanks.
    a. A person may be designated for more than one class of  operator.
    b. Any person designated for more than one class of  operator shall successfully complete the required training under subsection C  of this section for each operator class for which he is designated.
    c. Persons trained in accordance with subsection C of this  section may perform operator duties consistent with their training when  employed or contracted by the tank owner or operator to perform these  functions. 
    2. Designated operators shall successfully complete  required training under subsection C of this section no later than August 8,  2012.
    3. Class A operators shall be familiar with training  requirements for each class of operator and may provide required training for  Class C operators.
    4. Class B operators shall be familiar with Class B and  Class C operator responsibilities and may provide training for Class C  operators.
    5. Trained operators shall be readily available to respond  to suspected/confirmed releases, other unusual operating conditions and  equipment shut-offs or failures.
    a. The Class A or Class B operator shall be available for  immediate telephone consultation when an UST facility is in operation. A Class  A or Class B operator shall be able to be onsite at the facility within 24  hours.
    b. For manned facilities, a Class C operator shall be  onsite whenever the UST facility is in operation. After [effective date]  written instructions or procedures shall be maintained and visible at  manned UST facilities for persons performing duties of the Class C operator to  follow and to provide notification necessary in the event of emergency  conditions.
    c. For unmanned facilities, a Class C operator shall be  available for immediate telephone consultation and shall be able to be onsite  within two hours of being contacted. Emergency contact information shall be  prominently displayed at the site. After [effective date] written instructions  or procedures shall be maintained and visible at unmanned UST facilities  for persons performing duties of the Class C operator to follow and to provide  notification necessary in the event of emergency conditions.
    C. Required training.
    1. Class A operators shall successfully complete a training  course approved by the board that includes a general knowledge of UST system  requirements. Training shall provide information that should enable the  operator to make informed decisions regarding compliance and ensuring that  appropriate persons are fulfilling operation, maintenance, and recordkeeping  requirements and standards of this chapter and/or federal underground storage  tank requirements in 40 CFR Part 280 (relating to technical standards and  corrective action requirements for owners and operators of underground storage  tanks (UST)), including, at a minimum, the following:
    a. Spill and overfill prevention;
    b. Release detection and related reporting requirements;
    c. Corrosion protection;
    d. Emergency response;
    e. Product and equipment compatibility;
    f. Financial responsibility;
    g. Notification and storage tank registration requirements;
    h. Temporary and permanent closure requirements; and
    i. Class B and Class C operator training requirements.
    2. Class B operators shall successfully complete a training  course approved by the board that includes an in-depth understanding of  operation and maintenance aspects of UST systems and related regulatory  requirements. Training shall provide specific information on the components of  UST systems, materials of construction, methods of release detection and release  prevention applied to UST systems and components. Training shall address  operation and maintenance requirements of this chapter and/or federal  underground storage tank requirements in 40 CFR Part 280, including, at a  minimum, the following:
    a. Spill and overfill prevention;
    b. Release detection and related reporting requirements;
    c. Corrosion protection and related testing;
    d. Emergency response;
    e. Product and equipment compatibility;
    f. Reporting and recordkeeping requirements; and
    g. Class C operator training requirements.
    3. Class C operators. At a minimum, training provided by  the tank owner or Class A or Class B operator shall enable the Class C operator  to take action in response to emergencies caused by spills or releases and  alarms from an underground storage tank. Training shall include written  instructions or procedures for the Class C operator to follow and to provide  notification necessary in the event of emergency conditions.
    4. Successful completion for Class A and Class B operators  means completion of the entire training course and demonstration of knowledge  of the course material as follows:
    a. Receipt of a passing grade (a score of 80% or better) on  an examination of material presented in the training course, or demonstration  through practical (hands-on) application to the trainer of operation and  maintenance checks of underground storage tank equipment, including performance  of release detection at the UST facility, at the conclusion of onsite training;  and
    b. Receipt of a training certificate by an approved trainer  upon verification of successful completion of training under this section.
    5. Reciprocity. The board may also recognize successful  completion of Class A and Class B operator training on regulatory standards  consistent with 40 CFR Part 280, which is recognized by other state or  implementing agencies and which is approved by EPA as meeting operator training  grant guidelines published by EPA.
    6. The tank owner and operator shall incur the costs of the  training. 
    D. Timing of training.
    1. An owner and operator shall ensure that Class A, Class B  and Class C operators are trained as soon as practicable after [effective date]  contingent upon availability of approved training providers, but not later than  August 8, 2012.
    2. When a Class A or Class B operator is replaced after  August 8, 2012, a new operator shall be trained within 60 days of assuming  duties for that class of operator.
    3. Class C operators shall be trained before assuming  duties of a Class C operator. After [effective date] written instructions or  procedures shall be provided to Class C operators to follow and to provide  notification necessary in the event of emergency conditions. Class C operators  shall be briefed on these instructions or procedures at least annually (every  12 months), which may be concurrent with annual safety training required under  Occupational Safety and Health Administration, 29 CFR Part 1910 (relating to  Occupational Safety and Health Standards).
    E. Retraining.
    1. Owners and operators of UST systems shall ensure that  Class A and B operators in accordance with subsection C of this section are  retrained if the board determines that the UST system is out of compliance with  the requirements of 9VAC25-580-30 through 9VAC25-580-190. At a minimum, Class A  and Class B operators shall successfully complete retraining in the areas  identified as out of compliance.
    2. Class A and B operators shall complete training pursuant  to this subsection no later than 90 days from the date the board identifies the  noncompliance.
    F. Documentation.
    1. Owners and operators of underground storage tank  facilities shall prepare and maintain a list of designated Class A, Class B,  and Class C operators. The list shall represent the current Class A, Class B,  and Class C operators for the UST facility and shall include:
    a. The name of each operator, class of operation trained  for, and the date each operator successfully completed initial training and  refresher training, if any. 
    b. For Class A and Class B operators that are not  permanently onsite or assigned to more than one facility, telephone numbers to  contact the operators.
    2. A copy of the certificates of training for Class A and  Class B operators shall be on file and readily available and a copy of the  facility list of Class A, Class B, and Class C operators and Class C operator  instructions or procedures shall be kept onsite and immediately available  for manned UST facilities and readily available for unmanned facilities (see  subdivision 2 e of 9VAC25-580-120 relating to reporting and recordkeeping).
    3. Class C operator and owner contact information,  including names and telephone numbers, and any emergency information shall be  conspicuously posted at unmanned facilities.
    Part IV
  Release Detection
    9VAC25-580-130. General requirements for all petroleum and  hazardous substance UST systems.
    A. Owners and operators of new and existing UST systems must  provide a method, or combination of methods, of release detection that: 
    1. Can detect a release from any portion of the tank and the  connected underground piping that routinely contains product; 
    2. Is installed, calibrated, operated, and maintained in  accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, including routine maintenance  and service checks for operability or running condition; and 
    3. Meets the performance requirements in 9VAC25-580-160 or  9VAC25-580-170, with any performance claims and their manner of determination  described in writing by the equipment manufacturer or installer. In addition,  methods used after December 22, 1990, except for methods permanently installed  prior to that date, must be capable of detecting the leak rate or quantity  specified for that method in subsections subdivisions 2, 3 and 4  of 9VAC25-580-160 or subdivisions 1 and 2 of 9VAC25-580-170 with a probability  of detection of 0.95 and a probability of false alarm of 0.05. 
    B. When a release detection method operated in accordance  with the performance standards in 9VAC25-580-160 or 9VAC25-580-170 indicates a  release may have occurred, owners and operators must notify the board in  accordance with Part V (9VAC25-580-190 et seq.) of this chapter. 
    C. Owners and operators of all UST systems must comply with  the release detection requirements of this part by December 22 of the year  listed in the following table: 
           | SCHEDULE FOR PHASE-IN OF RELEASE DETECTION  | 
       | Year system was installed | Year when release detection is required(by December 22 of the year indicated)
 | 
       | 1989 | 1990 | 1991 | 1992 | 1993 | 
       | Before 1965 or date unknown | RD | P |   |   |   | 
       | 1965-1969 |   | P/RD |   |   |   | 
       | 1970-1974 |   | P | RD |   |   | 
       | 1975-1979 |   | P |   | RD |   | 
       | 1980-1988 |   | P |   |   | RD | 
  
    New tanks (after December 22, 1988) immediately upon  installation. 
    P = Must begin release detection for all pressurized piping in  accordance with subdivision C 2 a of 9VAC25-580-140. 
    RD = Must begin release detection for tanks and suction piping  in accordance with subsection subdivisions C 1 and subdivision  C 2 b of 9VAC25-580-140, and 9VAC25-580-150. 
    D. Any existing UST system that cannot apply a method of  release detection that complies with the requirements of this part must  complete the closure procedures in Part VII (9VAC25-580-310 et seq.) of this  chapter by the date on which release detection is required for that UST  system under subsection C of this section. 
    9VAC25-580-140. Requirements for petroleum UST systems.
    A. Owners and operators of petroleum UST systems required  to have secondary containment under subdivision 7 of 9VAC25-580-50 must  provide secondary containment and release detection for tanks and piping  as follows:
    1. Secondary containment systems must be designed,  constructed, and installed to: 
    a. Contain regulated substances released from the tank  system until they are detected and removed; 
    b. Prevent the release of regulated substances to the  environment at any time during the operational life of the UST system; and 
    c. Be checked for evidence of a release at least every 30  days. 
    2. Double-walled tanks must be designed, constructed, and  installed to: 
    a. Contain a release from any portion of the inner tank  within the outer wall; and 
    b. Detect the failure of the inner wall. 
    3. External liners (including vaults) must be designed,  constructed, and installed to: 
    a. Contain 100% of the capacity of the largest tank within  its boundary; 
    b. Prevent the interference of precipitation or groundwater  intrusion with the ability to contain or detect a release of regulated  substances; and 
    c. Surround the tank completely (i.e., it is capable of  preventing lateral as well as vertical migration of regulated substances).
    4. Underground piping must be equipped with secondary  containment that satisfies the requirements of subdivision 1 of this subsection  (e.g., trench liners, jacketing of double-walled pipe). In addition,  underground piping that conveys regulated substances under pressure must be  equipped with an automatic line leak detector in accordance with subdivision 1  of 9VAC25-580-170.
    5. Perform interstitial monitoring in accordance with  subdivision 7 of 9VAC 25-580-160.
    B. Owners and operators of petroleum USTs required to have  secondary containment under subdivision 7 of 9VAC25-580-50 must have motor fuel  underdispenser containment that is liquid-tight on its sides, bottom, and at  any penetrations; be compatible with the substance conveyed by the piping; and  allow for visual inspection and access to the components in the containment  system or be monitored.
    C. Owners and operators of petroleum UST systems not  required to have secondary containment under subdivision 7 of 9VAC25-580-50  must provide release detection for tanks and piping as follows: 
    1. Tanks. Tanks must be monitored at least every 30 days for  releases using one of the methods listed in subsections subdivisions  4 through 8 of 9VAC25-580-160 except that: 
    a. UST systems that meet the performance standards in subsections  subdivisions 1 through 5 of 9VAC25-580-50 or subsections subdivisions  1 through 4 of 9VAC25-580-60 may use both monthly inventory control  requirements in subsection subdivision 1 or 2 of 9VAC25-580-160,  and tank tightness testing (conducted in accordance with subsection subdivision  3 of 9VAC25-580-160 at least every five years until December 22, 1998, or until  10 years after the tank is installed or upgraded under subsection subdivision  2 of 9VAC25-580-60, whichever is later; 
    b. UST systems that do not meet the performance standards in  9VAC25-580-50 or 9VAC25-580-60 may use monthly inventory controls (conducted in  accordance with subsection subdivision 1 or 2 of 9VAC25-580-160)  and annual tank tightness testing (conducted in accordance with subsection  subdivision 3 of 9VAC25-580-160) until December 22, 1998, when the tank  must be upgraded under 9VAC25-580-60 or permanently closed under  9VAC25-580-320; and 
    c. Tanks with capacity of 550 gallons or less may use weekly  tank gauging (conducted in accordance with subsection subdivision  2 of 9VAC25-580-160). 
    2. Piping. Underground piping that routinely contains  regulated substances must be monitored for releases in a manner that meets one  of the following requirements: 
    a. Pressurized piping. Underground piping that conveys  regulated substances under pressure must: 
    (1) Be equipped with an automatic line leak detector conducted  in accordance with subdivision 1 of 9VAC25-580-170; and 
    (2) Have an annual line tightness test conducted in accordance  with subdivision 2 of 9VAC25-580-170 or have monthly monitoring conducted in  accordance with subdivision 3 of 9VAC25-580-170. 
    b. Suction piping. Underground piping that conveys regulated  substances under suction must either have a line tightness test conducted at  least every three years and in accordance with subdivision 2 of 9VAC25-580-170,  or use a monthly monitoring method conducted in accordance with subdivision 3  of 9VAC25-580-170. No release detection is required for suction piping that is  designed and constructed to meet the following standards: 
    (1) The below-grade piping operates at less than atmospheric  pressure; 
    (2) The below-grade piping is sloped so that the contents of  the pipe will drain back into the storage tank if the suction is released; 
    (3) Only one check valve is included in each suction line; 
    (4) The check valve is located directly below and as close as  practical to the suction pump; and 
    (5) A method is provided that allows compliance with  subdivisions 2 b (2) through (4) of this section subsection to be  readily determined. 
    9VAC25-580-370. Requirements for delivery prohibition.
    A. No person shall deliver to, deposit into, or accept a  petroleum product or other regulated substance into an underground storage tank  that has been identified by the board to be ineligible for such delivery,  deposit, or acceptance. Unless authorized in writing by the board, no person  shall alter, deface, remove, or attempt to remove a tag that prohibits  delivery, deposit, or acceptance of a petroleum product or other regulated  substance to an underground storage tank. 
    B. When an inspection or other information provides reason  to believe one or more of the following violations exists, the board shall  initiate a proceeding in accordance with subsection D of this section:
    1. Spill prevention equipment is not installed on the UST  system properly as required by 9VAC25-580-50 or 9VAC25-580-60 or is disabled;
    2. Overfill protection equipment is not installed on the  UST system properly as required by 9VAC25-580-50 or 9VAC25-580-60 or is  disabled;
    3. Release detection equipment is not installed on the UST  system properly or is disabled or a release detection method is not being  performed as required by 9VAC25-580-50 or 9VAC25-580-60;
    4. Corrosion protection equipment is not installed on the  UST system properly as required by 9VAC25-580-50 or 9VAC25-580-60 or is  disabled;
    5. Secondary containment is not installed on the UST system  properly as required by 9VAC25-580-50, 9VAC25-580-60, or 9VAC25-580-150 or is  disabled; or
    6. The board has reason to believe that an UST system is  leaking and the owner or operator has failed to initiate and complete the  investigation and confirmation requirements of 9VAC25-580-190 through  9VAC25-580-210.
    C. For purposes of subsection B of this section, spill  prevention, overfill prevention, corrosion protection, release detection, or  secondary containment equipment that is not verifiable as installed is not  installed.
    D. The board shall provide written notice to the owner and  operator pursuant to subdivision G 1 of this section that it will conduct an  informal fact finding pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia to  determine whether the underground storage tank(s) shall be ineligible for  delivery, deposit, or acceptance of a petroleum product or other regulated  substance. The fact finding shall be scheduled as soon as practicable after the  notice, and within 10 business days in any event. Upon a finding to impose  delivery prohibition, the board shall affix a tag to the fill pipe of the  underground storage tank(s) prohibiting delivery, deposit, or acceptance of a  petroleum product or other regulated substance. 
    E. When the board issues a notice of alleged violation  based on an inspection or other information that provides reason to believe a  UST system is not in compliance with the requirements of Part II, III, or IV of  this chapter not listed in subsection B of this section, the requirements of  9VAC25-580-240 through 9VAC25-580-280, or the requirements of 9VAC25-590  (Petroleum Underground Storage Tank Financial Responsibility Requirements), and  the owner or operator fails to comply with the notice of alleged violation  within the time prescribed by the board, the board may proceed in accordance  with subsection D of this section.
    F. The board may classify all underground storage tanks  containing petroleum or any other regulated substance at a facility as  ineligible for delivery, deposit, or acceptance of a petroleum product or other  regulated substance if one or more underground storage tanks at the facility  has been classified as ineligible for more than 90 days and the ineligible  underground storage tank(s) has neither been closed in accordance with  9VAC25-580-310 or 9VAC25-580-320 nor returned to compliance. The board shall  provide written notice to the owner and operator pursuant to subdivision G 1 of  this section that it will conduct an informal fact finding pursuant to  § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia to determine whether all the  underground storage tanks shall be ineligible for delivery, deposit, or  acceptance of a petroleum product or other regulated substance. The fact  finding shall be scheduled as soon as practicable after the notice, and within  10 business days in any event.
    G. Notice. 
    1. The board shall provide written notice of an informal  fact finding to consider delivery prohibition to the owner and operator. The  notice shall meet the requirements of § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia.  The notice shall further advise the owner and operator of the possibility of a  special order pursuant to subsection I of this section.
    2. The presence of the delivery prohibition tag on the fill  pipe of an ineligible underground storage tank shall be sufficient notice to  any person, including the owner, the operator, and product deliverers, that the  underground storage tank is ineligible for delivery or deposit. The board may  use other methods in addition to the delivery prohibition tag to provide notice  to product deliverers.
    H. An owner or operator shall notify the board in writing  once an ineligible underground storage tank has been returned to compliance and  provide a written report detailing all actions that have been taken to return  the UST system to compliance, as well as supporting evidence such as test  reports, invoices, receipts, inventory records, etc. As soon as practicable after  confirming that the underground storage tank is in compliance with the  requirements of this chapter or 9VAC25-590, or both, but in no event later than  two business days, the board shall remove or authorize the owner or operator,  in writing, to remove the delivery prohibition tag.
    I. If the board determines that a violation exists that  warrants the imposition of delivery prohibition, the board may further consider  whether the threat posed by the violation is outweighed by the need for fuel  from the underground storage tank(s) in question to meet an emergency situation  or the need for availability of or access to motor fuel in any rural and remote  area. If the board finds that such a condition outweighs the immediate risk of  the violation, the board may defer imposition of delivery prohibition for up to  180 days. In every such case the director shall consider (i) issuing a special  order under the authority of subdivision 10 of § 10.1-1186 of the Code of  Virginia prescribing a prompt schedule for abating the violation and (ii)  imposing a civil penalty.
    J. The board may temporarily authorize an owner or  operator to accept delivery into an ineligible underground storage tank(s) if  such activity is necessary to test or calibrate the underground storage tank(s)  or dispenser system.
    K. Nothing in this section shall prevent the board or the  director from exercising any other enforcement authority including, without  limitation, their authority to issue emergency orders and their authority to  seek injunctive relief.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2193; Filed October 14, 2009, 3:33 p.m. 
 
 
w  TITLE 13. HOUSING
VIRGINIA HOUSING DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY
Proposed Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Virginia Housing Development Authority is exempt from the Administrative  Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) pursuant to  § 2.2-4002 A 4; however, under the provisions of § 2.2-4031, it is  required to publish all proposed and final regulations.
         Title of Regulation: 13VAC10-180. Rules and Regulations  for Allocation of Low-Income Housing Tax Credits (amending 13VAC10-180-60; repealing  13VAC10-180-80).
    Statutory Authority: § 36-55.30:3 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    November 17, 2009 - Virginia Housing Development Authority, 601  S. Belvidere Street, Richmond, VA
    Public Comment Deadline: November 17, 2009.
    Agency Contact: J. Judson McKellar, Jr., General  Counsel, Virginia Housing Development Authority, 601 S. Belvidere Street,  Richmond, VA 23220, telephone (804) 343-5540 or email judson.mckellar@vhda.com.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments (i) add a source of financing to  the subsidized funding category, (ii) add a negative point category to  discourage construction of new rental space in areas anticipated to have little  or no increase in rent-burdened households, (iii) add a point category to  encourage new rental space in urban development growth areas or zoned areas with  an affordable dwelling unit bonus, (iv) revise the amenity category for high  efficiency heat pumps and gas furnaces, (v) add a point amenity category for  geothermal heat pump systems, (vi) add a point amenity category for solar  electric systems, (vii) revise the point category for units for persons with  disabilities with federal project-based subsidy, (viii) delete the point  category for a LEED-certified design team member, (ix) suspend the preservation  pool for credit year 2010, and (x) make other miscellaneous administrative  clarification changes.
    13VAC10-180-60. Review and selection of applications;  reservation of credits.
    The executive director may divide the amount of credits into  separate pools and each separate pool may be further divided into separate  tiers. The division of such pools and tiers may be based upon one or more of  the following factors: geographical areas of the state; types or  characteristics of housing, construction, financing, owners, occupants, or  source of credits; or any other factors deemed appropriate by him to best meet  the housing needs of the Commonwealth.
    An amount, as determined by the executive director, not less  than 10% of the Commonwealth's annual state housing credit ceiling for credits,  shall be available for reservation and allocation to buildings or developments  with respect to which the following requirements are met:
    1. A "qualified nonprofit organization" (as  described in § 42(h)(5)(C) of the IRC) which is authorized to do business  in Virginia and is determined by the executive director, on the basis of such  relevant factors as he shall consider appropriate, to be substantially based or  active in the community of the development and is to materially participate  (regular, continuous and substantial involvement as determined by the executive  director) in the development and operation of the development throughout the  "compliance period" (as defined in § 42(i)(1) of the IRC); and
    2. (i) The "qualified nonprofit organization"  described in the preceding subdivision 1 is to own (directly or through a  partnership), prior to the reservation of credits to the buildings or  development, all of the general partnership interests of the ownership entity  thereof; (ii) the executive director of the authority shall have determined that  such qualified nonprofit organization is not affiliated with or controlled by a  for-profit organization; (iii) the executive director of the authority shall  have determined that the qualified nonprofit organization was not formed by one  or more individuals or for-profit entities for the principal purpose of being  included in any nonprofit pools (as defined below) established by the executive  director, and (iv) the executive director of the authority shall have  determined that no staff member, officer or member of the board of directors of  such qualified nonprofit organization will materially participate, directly or  indirectly, in the proposed development as a for-profit entity.
    In making the determinations required by the preceding  subdivision 1 and clauses (ii), (iii) and (iv) of subdivision 2 of this  section, the executive director may apply such factors as he deems relevant,  including, without limitation, the past experience and anticipated future  activities of the qualified nonprofit organization, the sources and manner of  funding of the qualified nonprofit organization, the date of formation and  expected life of the qualified nonprofit organization, the number of paid staff  members and volunteers of the qualified nonprofit organization, the nature and  extent of the qualified nonprofit organization's proposed involvement in the  construction or rehabilitation and the operation of the proposed development,  the relationship of the staff, directors or other principals involved in the  formation or operation of the qualified nonprofit organization with any persons  or entities to be involved in the proposed development on a for-profit basis,  and the proposed involvement in the construction or rehabilitation and  operation of the proposed development by any persons or entities involved in  the proposed development on a for-profit basis. The executive director may  include in the application of the foregoing factors any other nonprofit  organizations which, in his determination, are related (by shared directors,  staff or otherwise) to the qualified nonprofit organization for which such  determination is to be made.
    For purposes of the foregoing requirements, a qualified  nonprofit organization shall be treated as satisfying such requirements if any  qualified corporation (as defined in § 42(h)(5)(D)(ii) of the IRC) in  which such organization (by itself or in combination with one or more qualified  nonprofit organizations) holds 100% of the stock satisfies such requirements.
    The applications shall include such representations and  warranties and such information as the executive director may require in order  to determine that the foregoing requirements have been satisfied. In no event  shall more than 90% of the Commonwealth's annual state housing credit ceiling  for credits be available for developments other than those satisfying the  preceding requirements. The executive director may establish such pools  (nonprofit pools) of credits as he may deem appropriate to satisfy the  foregoing requirement. If any such nonprofit pools are so established, the  executive director may rank the applications therein and reserve credits to  such applications before ranking applications and reserving credits in other  pools, and any such applications in such nonprofit pools not receiving any  reservations of credits or receiving such reservations in amounts less than the  full amount permissible hereunder (because there are not enough credits then  available in such nonprofit pools to make such reservations) shall be assigned  to such other pool as shall be appropriate hereunder; provided, however, that  if credits are later made available (pursuant to the IRC or as a result of  either a termination or reduction of a reservation of credits made from any  nonprofit pools or a rescission in whole or in part of an allocation of credits  made from such nonprofit pools or otherwise) for reservation and allocation by  the authority during the same calendar year as that in which applications in  the nonprofit pools have been so assigned to other pools as described above,  the executive director may, in such situations, designate all or any portion of  such additional credits for the nonprofit pools (or for any other pools as he  shall determine) and may, if additional credits have been so designated for the  nonprofit pools, reassign such applications to such nonprofit pools, rank the  applications therein and reserve credits to such applications in accordance  with the IRC and this chapter. In the event that during any round (as  authorized hereinbelow) of application review and ranking the amount of credits  reserved within such nonprofit pools is less than the total amount of credits  made available therein, the executive director may either (i) leave such  unreserved credits in such nonprofit pools for reservation and allocation in  any subsequent round or rounds or (ii) redistribute, to the extent permissible  under the IRC, such unreserved credits to such other pool or pools as the  executive director shall designate reservations therefore in the full amount  permissible hereunder (which applications shall hereinafter be referred to as  "excess qualified applications") or (iii) carry over such unreserved  credits to the next succeeding calendar year for the inclusion in the state  housing credit ceiling (as defined in § 42(h)(3)(C) of the IRC) for such year.  Notwithstanding anything to the contrary herein, no reservation of credits  shall be made from any nonprofit pools to any application with respect to which  the qualified nonprofit organization has not yet been legally formed in accordance  with the requirements of the IRC. In addition, no application for credits from  any nonprofit pools or any combination of pools may receive a reservation or  allocation of annual credits in an amount greater than $750,000 unless credits  remain available in such nonprofit pools after all eligible applications for  credits from such nonprofit pools receive a reservation of credits.
    Notwithstanding anything to the contrary herein, applicants  relying on the experience of a local housing authority for developer experience  points described hereinbelow and/or using Hope VI funds from HUD in connection  with the proposed development shall not be eligible to receive a reservation of  credits from any nonprofit pools.
    The authority shall review each application, and, based on  the application and other information available to the authority, shall assign  points to each application as follows:
    1. Readiness.
    a. Written evidence satisfactory to the authority of  unconditional approval by local authorities of the plan of development or site  plan for the proposed development or that such approval is not required. (40  points; applicants receiving points under this subdivision 1 a are not eligible  for points under subdivision 5 a below)
    b. Written evidence satisfactory to the authority (i) of  proper zoning or special use permit for such site or (ii) that no zoning  requirements or special use permits are applicable. (40 points)
    2. Housing needs characteristics.
    a. Submission of the form prescribed by the authority with any  required attachments, providing such information necessary for the authority to  send a letter addressed to the current chief executive officer (or the  equivalent) of the locality in which the proposed development is located,  soliciting input on the proposed development from the locality within the  deadlines established by the executive director. (minus 50 points for failure  to make timely submission)
    b. (1) A letter dated within three months prior to the  application deadline addressed to the authority and signed by the chief  executive officer of the locality in which the proposed development is to be  located stating, without qualification or limitation, the following:
    "The construction or rehabilitation of (name of  development) and the allocation of federal housing tax credits available under  IRC Section 42 for that development will help meet the housing needs and  priorities of (name of locality). Accordingly, (name of locality) supports the  allocation of federal housing tax credits requested by (name of applicant) for  that development." (50 points)
    (2) No letter from the chief executive officer of the locality  in which the proposed development is to be located, or a letter addressed to  the authority and signed by such chief executive officer stating neither support  (as described in subdivision b (1) above) nor opposition (as described in  subdivision b (3) below) as to the allocation of credits to the applicant for  the development. (25 points)
    (3) A letter in response to its notification to the chief  executive officer of the locality in which the proposed development is to be  located opposing the allocation of credits to the applicant for the  development. In any such letter, the chief executive officer must certify that  the proposed development is not consistent with current zoning or other  applicable land use regulations. (0 points)
    c. Documentation in a form approved by the authority from the  chief executive officer (or the equivalent) of the local jurisdiction in which  the development is to be located (including the certification described in the  definition of revitalization area in 13VAC10-180-10) that the area in which the  proposed development is to be located is a revitalization area and the proposed  development is an integral part of the local government's plan for  revitalization of the area. (30 points)
    d. If the proposed development is located in a qualified  census tract as defined in § 42(d)(5)(C)(ii) of the IRC and is in a  revitalization area. (5 points)
    e. Commitment by the applicant to give leasing preference to  individuals and families (i) on public housing waiting lists maintained by the  local housing authority operating in the locality in which the proposed  development is to be located and notification of the availability of such units  to the local housing authority by the applicant or (ii) on section 8 (as  defined in 13VAC10-180-90) waiting lists maintained by the local or nearest  section 8 administrator for the locality in which the proposed development is  to be located and notification of the availability of such units to the local  section 8 administrator by the applicant. (10 points; Applicants receiving  points under this subdivision may not require an annual minimum income  requirement for prospective tenants that exceeds the greater of $3,600 or 2.5 times  the portion of rent to be paid by such tenants.)
    f. Any of the following: (i) firm financing commitment(s) from  the local government, local housing authority, Federal Home Loan Bank  affordable housing funds, Commonwealth of Virginia Department of Behavioral  Health and Development Services funds from Item 315-Z of the 2008-2010  Appropriation Act, or the Rural Development for a below-market rate loan or  grant or Rural Development's interest credit used to reduce the interest rate  on the loan financing the proposed development; (ii) a resolution passed by the  locality in which the proposed development is to be located committing such  financial support to the development in a form approved by the authority; or  (iii) a commitment to donate land, buildings or waive tap fee waivers from the  local government. (The amount of such financing or dollar value of local  support will be divided by the total development sources of funds and the  proposed development receives two points for each percentage point up to a maximum  of 40 points.)
    g. Any development subject to (i) HUD's Section 8 or Section  236 programs or (ii) Rural Development's 515 program, at the time of  application. (20 points, unless the applicant is, or has any common interests  with, the current owner, directly or indirectly, the application will only  qualify for these points if the applicant waives all rights to any developer's  fee and any other fees associated with the acquisition and rehabilitation (or  rehabilitation only) of the development unless permitted by the executive  director for good cause.)
    h. Any development receiving (i) a real estate tax abatement  on the increase in the value of the development or (ii) new project-based  subsidy from HUD or Rural Development for the greater of 5 units or 10% of the  units of the proposed development. (10 points)
    i. Any proposed development located in a census tract that has  less than a 10% poverty rate (based upon Census Bureau data) with no other tax  credit units in such census tract. (25 points)
    j. Any proposed development listed in the top 25 developments  identified by Rural Development as high priority for rehabilitation at the time  the application is submitted to the authority. (15 points)
    k. Any proposed new construction development (including  adaptive re-use and rehabilitation that creates additional rental space)  located in a pool identified by the authority as a pool with little or no  increase in rent-burdened population. (up to minus 20 points, depending upon  the portion of the development that is additional rental space, in all pools  except the at-large pool, 0 points in the at-large pool. The executive director  may make exceptions in the following circumstances:
    (1) Specialized types of housing designed to meet special  needs that cannot readily be addressed utilizing existing residential  structures;
    (2) Housing designed to serve as a replacement for housing  being demolished through redevelopment; or
    (3) Housing that is an integral part of a neighborhood  revitalization project sponsored by a local housing authority.)
    l. Any proposed new construction development (including  adaptive re-use and rehabilitation that creates additional rental space) that  is located in a pool identified by the authority as a pool with an increasing  rent-burdened population and is also in an urban development area as defined in  § 15.2-2223.1 of the Code of Virginia or participating in a locally  adopted affordable housing dwelling unit program as described in either  § 15.2-2304 or 15.2-2305 of the Code of Virginia. (up to 20 points,  depending upon the portion of the development that is additional rental space,  in all pools except the at-large pool, 0 points in the at-large pool)
    3. Development characteristics.
    a. The average unit size. (100 points multiplied by the sum of  the products calculated by multiplying, for each unit type as defined by the  number of bedrooms per unit, (i) the quotient of the number of units of a given  unit type divided by the total number of units in the proposed development,  times (ii) the quotient of the average actual gross square footage per unit for  a given unit type minus the lowest gross square footage per unit for a given  unit type established by the executive director divided by the highest gross  square footage per unit for a given unit type established by the executive  director minus the lowest gross square footage per unit for a given unit type  established by the executive director. If the average actual gross square  footage per unit for a given unit type is less than the lowest gross square  footage per unit for a given unit type established by the executive director or  greater than the highest gross square footage per unit for a given unit type  established by the executive director, the lowest or highest, as the case may  be, gross square footage per unit for a given unit type established by the  executive director shall be used in the above calculation rather than the  actual gross square footage per unit for a given unit type.)
    b. Evidence satisfactory to the authority documenting the  quality of the proposed development's amenities as determined by the following:
    (1) The following points are available for any application:
    (a) If 2-bedroom units have 1.5 bathrooms and 3-bedroom units  have 2 bathrooms. (15 points multiplied by the percentage of units meeting  these requirements)
    (b) If a community/meeting room with a minimum of 749 square  feet is provided. (5 points)
    (c) Brick covering 30% or more of the exterior walls. (20  points times the percentage of exterior walls covered by brick)
    (d) If all kitchen and laundry appliances meet the EPA's  Energy Star qualified program requirements. (5 points)
    (e) If all the windows meet the EPA's Energy Star qualified  program requirements. (5 points)
    (f) If every unit in the development is heated and air  conditioned cooled with either (i) heat pump units equipment  with both a SEER rating of 14.0 15.0 or more and a HSPF rating of  8.2 8.5 or more and a variable speed air handling unit or  thru-the-wall heat pump equipment that has an EER rating of 11.0 or more or  (ii) air conditioning units equipment with a SEER rating of 14.0  15.0 or more and a variable speed air handling unit, combined  with a gas furnace with an AFUE rating of 90% or more. (10 points)
    (g) If the water expense is submetered (the tenant will pay  monthly or bimonthly bill). (5 points)
    (h) If each bathroom contains only low-flow faucets and  showerheads as defined by the authority. (3 points)
    (i) If each unit is provided with the necessary infrastructure  for high-speed cable, DSL or wireless Internet service. (1 point)
    (j) Beginning January 1, 2009, if If all the  water heaters meet the EPA's Energy Star qualified program requirements. (5  points)
    (k) If every unit in the development is heated and cooled  with a geothermal heat pump that meets the EPA's Energy Star qualified program  requirements. (5 points)
    (l) If the development has a solar electric system that  will remain unshaded year-round, be oriented to within 15 degrees of true  south, and be angled horizontally within 15 degrees of latitude. (1 point for  each 2.0% of the development's electrical load that can be met by the solar  electric system, up to 5 points)
    (2) The following points are available to applications  electing to serve elderly and/or physically disabled tenants:
    (a) If all cooking ranges have front controls. (1 point)
    (b) If all units have an emergency call system. (3 points)
    (c) If all bathrooms have an independent or supplemental heat  source. (1 point)
    (d) If all entrance doors to each unit have two eye viewers,  one at 48 inches and the other at standard height. (1 point)
    (3) If the structure is historic, by virtue of being listed  individually in the National Register of Historic Places, or due to its  location in a registered historic district and certified by the Secretary of  the Interior as being of historical significance to the district, and the  rehabilitation will be completed in such a manner as to be eligible for  historic rehabilitation tax credits. (5 points)
    The maximum number of points that may be awarded under any  combination of the scoring categories under subdivision 3 b of this section is 60  70 points.
    c. Any nonelderly development in which (i) the greater  of 5 units or 10% of the units (i) provide will be subject to  federal project-based rent subsidies or equivalent assistance in order to  ensure occupancy by extremely low-income persons; and (ii) the  greater of 5 units or 10% of the units will conform to HUD regulations  interpreting the accessibility requirements of § 504 of the Rehabilitation Act;  and (iii) are be actively marketed to people with special needs  in accordance with a plan submitted as part of the application for credits (if  special needs includes mobility impairments (all the units described  in (ii) above must include roll-in showers and roll-under sinks and ranges)  ranges, unless agreed to by the authority prior to the applicant's  submission of its application). (50 points)
    d. Any nonelderly development in which the greater of 5 units  or 10% of the units (i) have rents within HUD's Housing Choice Voucher (HCV)  payment standard; (ii) conform to HUD regulations interpreting the  accessibility requirements of § 504 of the Rehabilitation Act; and (iii)  are actively marketed to people with mobility impairments including HCV holders  in accordance with a plan submitted as part of the application for credits. (30  points)
    e. Any nonelderly development in which 4.0% of the units (i)  conform to HUD regulations interpreting the accessibility requirements of § 504  of the Rehabilitation Act and (ii) are actively marketed to people with mobility  impairments in accordance with a plan submitted as part of the application for  credits. (15 points)
    f. Any development located within one-half mile of an existing  commuter rail, light rail or subway station or one-quarter mile of one or more  existing public bus stops. (10 points, unless the development is located within  the geographical area established by the executive director for a pool of  credits for northern Virginia, in which case, the development will receive 20  points if the development is ranked against other developments in such northern  Virginia pool, 10 points if the development is ranked against other  developments in any other pool of credits established by the executive  director)
    g. Any development for which the applicant agrees to obtain either  (i) EarthCraft certification or (ii) US Green Building Council LEED  green-building certification prior to the issuance of an IRS Form 8609 with the  proposed development's architect certifying in the application that the  development's design will meet the criteria for such certification, provided  that the proposed development's architect is on the Authority's list of  LEED/EarthCraft certified architects. The executive director may, if needed,  designate a proposed development as requiring an increase in credit in order to  be financially feasible and such development shall be treated as if in a  difficult development area as provided in the IRC for any applicant receiving  points under this subdivision and 60 points under either subdivision 7 a or b  of this section, provided however, any resulting increase in such development's  eligible basis shall be limited to 5.0% of the development's eligible basis.  (30 points)
    h. Any development for which the applicant agrees to use an  authority-certified property manager to manage the development. (25 points)
    i. If units are constructed to meet the authority's universal  design standards, provided that the proposed development's architect is on the  Authority's list of universal design certified architects. (15 points, if all  the units in an elderly development meet this requirement; 15 points multiplied  by the percentage of units meeting this requirement for nonelderly  developments)
    j. Any development in which the applicant proposes to produce  less than 100 low-income housing units. (20 points for producing 50 low-income  housing units or less, minus.4 points for each additional low-income housing  unit produced down to 0 points for any development that produces 100 or more  low-income housing units.) 
    4. Tenant population characteristics. Commitment by the  applicant to give a leasing preference to individuals and families with  children in developments that will have no more than 20% of its units with one  bedroom or less. (15 points; plus 0.75 points for each percent of the low-income  units in the development with three or more bedrooms up to an additional 15  points for a total of no more than 30 points)
    5. Sponsor characteristics.
    a. Evidence that the principal or principals, as a group or  individually, for the proposed development have developed, as controlling  general partner or managing member, (i) at least three tax credit developments  that contain at least three times the number of housing units in the proposed  development or (ii) at least six tax credit developments that contain at least  the number of housing units in the proposed development. (50 points; applicants  receiving points under this subdivision 5 a are not eligible for points under  subdivision 1 a above)
    b. Evidence that the principal or principals for the proposed  development have developed at least one tax credit development that contains at  least the number of housing units in the proposed development. (10 points)
    c. Any applicant that includes a principal that was a  principal in a development at the time the authority reported such development  to the IRS for an uncorrected life-threatening hazard under HUD's Uniform  Physical Condition Standards. (minus 50 points for a period of three years  after the violation has been corrected)
    d. Any applicant that includes a principal that was a  principal in a development that either (i) at the time the authority  reported such development to the IRS for noncompliance that has not been  had not corrected such noncompliance by the time a Form 8823 is  was filed by the authority or (ii) remained out-of-compliance with  the terms of its extended use commitment after notice and expiration of any  cure period set by the authority. (minus 15 points for a period of three  years after the time the authority filed Form 8823 or expiration of such  cure period, unless the executive director determines that such principal's  attempts to correct such noncompliance was prohibited by a court, local  government or governmental agency, in which case, no negative points will be  assessed to the applicant)
    e. Any applicant that includes a principal that is or was a  principal in a development that (i) did not build a development as represented  in the application for credit (minus two times the number of points assigned to  the item or items not built or minus 20 points for failing to provide a minimum  building requirement, for a period of three years after the last Form 8609 is  issued for the development, in addition to any other penalties the authority  may seek under its agreements with the applicant), or (ii) has a reservation of  credits terminated by the authority (minus 10 points a period of three years  after the credits are returned to the authority).
    f. Any applicant that includes a management company in its  application that is rated unsatisfactory by the executive director or if the  ownership of any applicant includes a principal that is or was a principal in a  development that hired a management company to manage a tax credit development  after such management company received a rating of unsatisfactory from the  executive director during the compliance period and extended use period of such  development. (minus 25 points)
    g. Evidence that a US Green Building Council LEED certified  design professional participated in the design of the proposed development. (10  points)
    6. Efficient use of resources.
    a. The percentage by which the total of the amount of credits  per low-income housing unit (the "per unit credit amount") of the  proposed development is less than the standard per unit credit amounts  established by the executive director for a given unit type, based upon the  number of such unit types in the proposed development. (180 points multiplied  by the percentage by which the total amount of the per unit credit amount of  the proposed development is less than the applicable standard per unit credit  amount established by the executive director, negative points will be assessed  using the percentage by which the total amount of the per unit credit amount of  the proposed development exceeds the applicable standard per unit credit amount  established by the executive director.)
    b. The percentage by which the cost per low-income housing  unit (the "per unit cost"), adjusted by the authority for location,  of the proposed development is less than the standard per unit cost amounts  established by the executive director for a given unit type, based upon the  number of such unit types in the proposed development. (75 points multiplied by  the percentage by which the total amount of the per unit cost of the proposed  development is less than the applicable standard per unit cost amount  established by the executive director.)
    The executive director may use a standard per square foot  credit amount and a standard per square foot cost amount in establishing the  per unit credit amount and the per unit cost amount in subdivision 6 above. For  the purpose of calculating the points to be assigned pursuant to such  subdivision 6 above, all credit amounts shall include any credits previously  allocated to the development, and the per unit credit amount for any building  documented by the applicant to be located in both a revitalization area and  either (i) a qualified census tract or (ii) difficult development area (such  tract or area being as defined in the IRC) shall be determined based upon 100%  of the eligible basis of such building, in the case of new construction, or  100% of the rehabilitation expenditures, in the case of rehabilitation of an  existing building, notwithstanding any use by the applicant of 130% of such  eligible basis or rehabilitation expenditures in determining the amount of  credits as provided in the IRC.
    7. Bonus points.
    a. Commitment by the applicant to impose income limits on the  low-income housing units throughout the extended use period (as defined in the  IRC) below those required by the IRC in order for the development to be a  qualified low-income development. Applicants receiving points under this  subdivision a may not receive points under subdivision b below. (The product of  (i) 50 points multiplied by (ii) the percentage of housing units in the  proposed development both rent restricted to and occupied by households at or  below 50% of the area median gross income; plus 1 point for each percentage  point of such housing units in the proposed development which are further restricted  to rents at or below 30% of 40% of the area median gross income up to an  additional 10 points.)
    b. Commitment by the applicant to impose rent limits on the  low-income housing units throughout the extended use period (as defined in the  IRC) below those required by the IRC in order for the development to be a  qualified low-income development. Applicants receiving points under this  subdivision b may not receive points under subdivision a above. (The product of  (i) 25 points (50 points for proposed developments in low-income jurisdictions)  multiplied by (ii) the percentage of housing units in the proposed development  rent restricted to households at or below 50% of the area median gross income;  plus 1 point for each percentage point of such housing units in the proposed  development which are further restricted to rents at or below 30% of 40% of the  area median gross income up to an additional 10 points.)
    c. Commitment by the applicant to maintain the low-income  housing units in the development as a qualified low-income housing development  beyond the 30-year extended use period (as defined in the IRC). Applicants  receiving points under this subdivision c may not receive bonus points under  subdivision d below. (40 points for a 10-year commitment beyond the 30-year  extended use period or 50 points for a 20-year commitment beyond the 30-year  extended use period.)
    d. Participation by a local housing authority or qualified  nonprofit organization (substantially based or active in the community with at  least a 10% ownership interest in the general partnership interest of the  partnership) and a commitment by the applicant to sell the proposed development  pursuant to an executed, recordable option or right of first refusal to such  local housing authority or qualified nonprofit organization or to a wholly  owned subsidiary of such organization or authority, at the end of the 15-year  compliance period, as defined by IRC, for a price not to exceed the outstanding  debt and exit taxes of the for-profit entity. The applicant must record such  option or right of first refusal immediately after the low-income housing  commitment described in 13VAC10-180-70 and give the qualified nonprofit veto  power over any refinancing of the development. Applicants receiving points  under this subdivision d may not receive bonus points under subdivision c  above. (60 points; plus 5 points if the local housing authority or qualified  nonprofit organization submits a homeownership plan satisfactory to the  authority in which the local housing authority or qualified nonprofit  organization commits to sell the units in the development to tenants.)
    In calculating the points for subdivisions 7 a and b above,  any units in the proposed development required by the locality to exceed 60% of  the area median gross income will not be considered when calculating the  percentage of low-income units of the proposed development with incomes below  those required by the IRC in order for the development to be a qualified  low-income development, provided that the locality submits evidence  satisfactory to the authority of such requirement.
    After points have been assigned to each application in the  manner described above, the executive director shall compute the total number  of points assigned to each such application. Any application that is assigned a  total number of points less than a threshold amount of 450 points for  calendar year 2008, and 500 points after January 1, 2009 (425 (475  points for developments financed with tax-exempt bonds in such amount so as not  to require under the IRC an allocation of credits hereunder for calendar  year 2008, and 475 points for such developments after January 1, 2009),)  shall be rejected from further consideration hereunder and shall not be  eligible for any reservation or allocation of credits.
    During its review of the submitted applications, the  authority may conduct its own analysis of the demand for the housing units to  be produced by each applicant's proposed development. Notwithstanding any  conclusion in the market study submitted with an application, if the authority  determines that, based upon information from its own loan portfolio or its own  market study, inadequate demand exists for the housing units to be produced by  an applicant's proposed development, the authority may exclude and disregard  the application for such proposed development.
    The executive director may exclude and disregard any  application which he determines is not submitted in good faith or which he  determines would not be financially feasible.
    Upon assignment of points to all of the applications, the  executive director shall rank the applications based on the number of points so  assigned. If any pools shall have been established, each application shall be  assigned to a pool and, if any, to the appropriate tier within such pool and  shall be ranked within such pool or tier, if any. The amount of credits made  available to each pool will be determined by the executive director. Available  credits will include unreserved per capita dollar amount credits from the  current calendar year under § 42(h)(3)(C)(i) of the IRC, any unreserved per  capita credits from previous calendar years, and credits returned to the  authority prior to the final ranking of the applications and may include up to  10% of next calendar year's per capita credits as shall be determined by the  executive director. Those applications assigned more points shall be ranked  higher than those applications assigned fewer points. However, if any  set-asides established by the executive director cannot be satisfied after  ranking the applications based on the number of points, the executive director  may rank as many applications as necessary to meet the requirements of such  set-aside (selecting the highest ranked application, or applications, meeting  the requirements of the set-aside) over applications with more points.
    In the event of a tie in the number of points assigned to two  or more applications within the same pool, or, if none, within the  Commonwealth, and in the event that the amount of credits available for reservation  to such applications is determined by the executive director to be insufficient  for the financial feasibility of all of the developments described therein, the  authority shall, to the extent necessary to fully utilize the amount of credits  available for reservation within such pool or, if none, within the  Commonwealth, select one or more of the applications with the highest  combination of points from subdivision 7 above, and each application so  selected shall receive (in order based upon the number of such points,  beginning with the application with the highest number of such points) a  reservation of credits. If two or more of the tied applications receive the  same number of points from subdivision 7 above and if the amount of credits  available for reservation to such tied applications is determined by the  executive director to be insufficient for the financial feasibility of all the  developments described therein, the executive director shall select one or more  of such applications by lot, and each application so selected by lot shall  receive (in order of such selection by lot) a reservation of credits.
    For each application which may receive a reservation of  credits, the executive director shall determine the amount, as of the date of  the deadline for submission of applications for reservation of credits, to be  necessary for the financial feasibility of the development and its viability as  a qualified low-income development throughout the credit period under the IRC.  In making this determination, the executive director shall consider the sources  and uses of the funds, the available federal, state and local subsidies  committed to the development, the total financing planned for the development  as well as the investment proceeds or receipts expected by the authority to be  generated with respect to the development, and the percentage of the credit  dollar amount used for development costs other than the costs of  intermediaries. He shall also examine the development's costs, including  developer's fees and other amounts in the application, for reasonableness and,  if he determines that such costs or other amounts are unreasonably high, he  shall reduce them to amounts that he determines to be reasonable. The executive  director shall review the applicant's projected rental income, operating  expenses and debt service for the credit period. The executive director may  establish such criteria and assumptions as he shall deem reasonable for the  purpose of making such determination, including, without limitation, criteria  as to the reasonableness of fees and profits and assumptions as to the amount  of net syndication proceeds to be received (based upon such percentage of the  credit dollar amount used for development costs, other than the costs of  intermediaries, as the executive director shall determine to be reasonable for  the proposed development), increases in the market value of the development,  and increases in operating expenses, rental income and, in the case of  applications without firm financing commitments (as defined hereinabove) at  fixed interest rates, debt service on the proposed mortgage loan. The executive  director may, if he deems it appropriate, consider the development to be a part  of a larger development. In such a case, the executive director may consider,  examine, review and establish any or all of the foregoing items as to the  larger development in making such determination for the development.
    At such time or times during each calendar year as the  executive director shall designate, the executive director shall reserve  credits to applications in descending order of ranking within each pool and  tier, if applicable, until either substantially all credits therein are  reserved or all qualified applications therein have received reservations. (For  the purpose of the preceding sentence, if there is not more than a de minimis  amount, as determined by the executive director, of credits remaining in a pool  after reservations have been made, "substantially all" of the credits  in such pool shall be deemed to have been reserved.) The executive director may  rank the applications within pools at different times for different pools and  may reserve credits, based on such rankings, one or more times with respect to  each pool. The executive director may also establish more than one round of  review and ranking of applications and reservation of credits based on such  rankings, and he shall designate the amount of credits to be made available for  reservation within each pool during each such round. The amount reserved to each  such application shall be equal to the lesser of (i) the amount requested in  the application or (ii) an amount determined by the executive director, as of  the date of application, to be necessary for the financial feasibility of the  development and its viability as a qualified low-income development throughout  the credit period under the IRC; provided, however, that in no event shall the  amount of credits so reserved exceed the maximum amount permissible under the  IRC.
    Not more than 20% of the credits in any pool may be reserved  to developments intended to provide elderly housing, unless the feasible credit  amount, as determined by the executive director, of the highest ranked elderly  housing development in any pool exceeds 20% of the credits in such pool, then  such elderly housing development shall be the only elderly housing development  eligible for a reservation of credits from such pool. However, if credits  remain available for reservation after all eligible nonelderly housing  developments receive a reservation of credits, such remaining credits may be  made available to additional elderly housing developments. The above limitation  of credits available for elderly housing shall not include elderly housing  developments with project-based subsidy providing rental assistance for at  least 20% of the units that are submitted as rehabilitation developments or  assisted living facilities licensed under Chapter 17 of Title 63.2 of the Code  of Virginia.
    If the amount of credits available in any pool is determined  by the executive director to be insufficient for the financial feasibility of  the proposed development to which such available credits are to be reserved,  the executive director may move the proposed development and the credits  available to another pool. If any credits remain in any pool after moving  proposed developments and credits to another pool, the executive director may  for developments that meet the requirements of § 42(h)(1)(E) of the IRC only,  reserve the remaining credits to any proposed development(s) scoring at or  above the minimum point threshold established by this chapter without regard to  the ranking of such application with additional credits from the Commonwealth's  annual state housing credit ceiling for the following year in such an amount necessary  for the financial feasibility of the proposed development, or developments.  However, the reservation of credits from the Commonwealth's annual state  housing credit ceiling for the following year shall be in the reasonable  discretion of the executive director if he determines it to be in the best  interest of the plan. In the event a reservation or an allocation of credits  from the current year or a prior year is reduced, terminated or cancelled, the  executive director may substitute such credits for any credits reserved from  the following year's annual state housing credit ceiling.
    In the event that during any round of application review and  ranking the amount of credits reserved within any pools is less than the total  amount of credits made available therein during such round, the executive  director may either (i) leave such unreserved credits in such pools for  reservation and allocation in any subsequent round or rounds or (ii)  redistribute such unreserved credits to such other pool or pools as the  executive director may designate or (iii) carry over such unreserved credits to  the next succeeding calendar year for inclusion in the state housing credit  ceiling (as defined in § 42(h)(3)(C) of the IRC) for such year.
    Notwithstanding anything contained herein, the total amount  of credits that may be awarded in any credit year after credit year 2001 to any  applicant or to any related applicants for one or more developments shall not  exceed 15% of Virginia's per capita dollar amount of credits for such credit  year (the "credit cap"). However, if the amount of credits to be  reserved in any such credit year to all applications assigned a total number of  points at or above the threshold amount set forth above shall be less than  Virginia's dollar amount of credits available for such credit year, then the  authority's board of commissioners may waive the credit cap to the extent it  deems necessary to reserve credits in an amount at least equal to such dollar  amount of credits. Applicants shall be deemed to be related if any principal in  a proposed development or any person or entity related to the applicant or  principal will be a principal in any other proposed development or  developments. For purposes of this paragraph, a principal shall also include  any person or entity who, in the determination of the executive director, has  exercised or will exercise, directly or indirectly, substantial control over  the applicant or has performed or will perform (or has assisted or will assist  the applicant in the performance of), directly or indirectly, substantial  responsibilities or functions customarily performed by applicants with respect  to applications or developments. For the purpose of determining whether any  person or entity is related to the applicant or principal, persons or entities  shall be deemed to be related if the executive director determines that any  substantial relationship existed, either directly between them or indirectly  through a series of one or more substantial relationships (e.g., if party A has  a substantial relationship with party B and if party B has a substantial  relationship with party C, then A has a substantial relationship with both  party B and party C), at any time within three years of the filing of the  application for the credits. In determining in any credit year whether an  applicant has a substantial relationship with another applicant with respect to  any application for which credits were awarded in any prior credit year, the  executive director shall determine whether the applicants were related as of  the date of the filing of such prior credit year's application or within three  years prior thereto and shall not consider any relationships or any changes in  relationships subsequent to such date. Substantial relationships shall include,  but not be limited to, the following relationships (in each of the following  relationships, the persons or entities involved in the relationship are deemed  to be related to each other): (i) the persons are in the same immediate family  (including, without limitation, a spouse, children, parents, grandparents,  grandchildren, brothers, sisters, uncles, aunts, nieces, and nephews) and are  living in the same household; (ii) the entities have one or more common general  partners or members (including related persons and entities), or the entities  have one or more common owners that (by themselves or together with any other  related persons and entities) have, in the aggregate, 5.0% or more ownership  interest in each entity; (iii) the entities are under the common control (e.g.,  the same person or persons and any related persons serve as a majority of the  voting members of the boards of such entities or as chief executive officers of  such entities) of one or more persons or entities (including related persons  and entities); (iv) the person is a general partner, member or employee in the  entity or is an owner (by himself or together with any other related persons  and entities) of 5.0% or more ownership interest in the entity; (v) the entity  is a general partner or member in the other entity or is an owner (by itself or  together with any other related persons and entities) of 5.0% or more ownership  interest in the other entity; or (vi) the person or entity is otherwise  controlled, in whole or in part, by the other person or entity. In determining  compliance with the credit cap with respect to any application, the executive  director may exclude any person or entity related to the applicant or to any  principal in such applicant if the executive director determines that (i) such person  or entity will not participate, directly or indirectly, in matters relating to  the applicant or the ownership of the development to be assisted by the credits  for which the application is submitted, (ii) such person or entity has no  agreement or understanding relating to such application or the tax credits  requested therein, and (iii) such person or entity will not receive a financial  benefit from the tax credits requested in the application. A limited partner or  other similar investor shall not be determined to be a principal and shall be  excluded from the determination of related persons or entities unless the  executive director shall determine that such limited partner or investor will,  directly or indirectly, exercise control over the applicant or participate in  matters relating to the ownership of the development substantially beyond the  degree of control or participation that is usual and customary for limited  partners or other similar investors with respect to developments assisted by  the credits. If the award of multiple applications of any applicant or related  applicants in any credit year shall cause the credit cap to be exceeded, such  applicant or applicants shall, upon notice from the authority, jointly  designate those applications for which credits are not to be reserved so that  such limitation shall not be exceeded. Such notice shall specify the date by  which such designation shall be made. In the absence of any such designation by  the date specified in such notice, the executive director shall make such  designation as he shall determine to best serve the interests of the program.  Each applicant and each principal therein shall make such certifications, shall  disclose such facts and shall submit such documents to the authority as the  executive director may require to determine compliance with credit cap. If an  applicant or any principal therein makes any misrepresentation to the authority  concerning such applicant's or principal's relationship with any other person  or entity, the executive director may reject any or all of such applicant's  pending applications for reservation or allocation of credits, may terminate  any or all reservations of credits to the applicant, and may prohibit such  applicant, the principals therein and any persons and entities then or  thereafter having a substantial relationship (in the determination of the  executive director as described above) with the applicant or any principal  therein from submitting applications for credits for such period of time as the  executive director shall determine.
    Within a reasonable time after credits are reserved to any  applicants' applications, the executive director shall notify each applicant  for such reservations of credits either of the amount of credits reserved to  such applicant's application (by issuing to such applicant a written binding  commitment to allocate such reserved credits subject to such terms and  conditions as may be imposed by the executive director therein, by the IRC and  by this chapter) or, as applicable, that the applicant's application has been  rejected or excluded or has otherwise not been reserved credits in accordance  herewith. The written binding commitment shall prohibit any transfer, direct or  indirect, of partnership interests (except those involving the admission of  limited partners) prior to the placed-in-service date of the proposed  development unless the transfer is consented to by the executive director. The  written binding commitment shall further limit the developers' fees to the  amounts established during the review of the applications for reservation of  credits and such amounts shall not be increased unless consented to by the  executive director. The executive director shall, as a condition to the  binding commitment, require each applicant to obtain a market study, in form  and substance satisfactory to the authority, that shows adequate demand for the  housing units to be produced by each applicant's proposed development.
    If credits are reserved to any applicants for developments  which have also received an allocation of credits from prior years, the  executive director may reserve additional credits from the current year equal  to the amount of credits allocated to such developments from prior years,  provided such previously allocated credits are returned to the authority. Any  previously allocated credits returned to the authority under such circumstances  shall be placed into the credit pools from which the current year's credits are  reserved to such applicants.
    The executive director shall make a written explanation  available to the general public for any allocation of housing credit dollar  amount which is not made in accordance with established priorities and  selection criteria of the authority.
    The authority's board shall review and consider the analysis  and recommendation of the executive director for the reservation of credits to  an applicant, and, if it concurs with such recommendation, it shall by  resolution ratify the reservation by the executive director of the credits to  the applicant, subject to such terms and conditions as it shall deem necessary  or appropriate to assure compliance with the aforementioned binding commitment  issued or to be issued to the applicant, the IRC and this chapter. If the board  determines not to ratify a reservation of credits or to establish any such  terms and conditions, the executive director shall so notify the applicant.
    Subsequent to such ratification of the reservation of  credits, the executive director may, in his discretion and without ratification  or approval by the board, increase the amount of such reservation by an amount  not to exceed 10% of the initial reservation amount.
    The executive director may require the applicant to make a  good faith deposit or to execute such contractual agreements providing for  monetary or other remedies as it may require, or both, to assure that the  applicant will comply with all requirements under the IRC, this chapter and the  binding commitment (including, without limitation, any requirement to conform  to all of the representations, commitments and information contained in the  application for which points were assigned pursuant to this section). Upon  satisfaction of all such aforementioned requirements (including any  post-allocation requirements), such deposit shall be refunded to the applicant  or such contractual agreements shall terminate, or both, as applicable.
    If, as of the date the application is approved by the  executive director, the applicant is entitled to an allocation of the credits  under the IRC, this chapter and the terms of any binding commitment that the  authority would have otherwise issued to such applicant, the executive director  may at that time allocate the credits to such qualified low-income buildings or  development without first providing a reservation of such credits. This  provision in no way limits the authority of the executive director to require a  good faith deposit or contractual agreement, or both, as described in the  preceding paragraph, nor to relieve the applicant from any other requirements  hereunder for eligibility for an allocation of credits. Any such allocation  shall be subject to ratification by the board in the same manner as provided  above with respect to reservations.
    The executive director may require that applicants to whom  credits have been reserved shall submit from time to time or at such specified  times as he shall require, written confirmation and documentation as to the  status of the proposed development and its compliance with the application, the  binding commitment and any contractual agreements between the applicant and the  authority. If on the basis of such written confirmation and documentation as  the executive director shall have received in response to such a request, or on  the basis of such other available information, or both, the executive director  determines any or all of the buildings in the development which were to become  qualified low-income buildings will not do so within the time period required  by the IRC or will not otherwise qualify for such credits under the IRC, this  chapter or the binding commitment, then the executive director may (i)  terminate the reservation of such credits and draw on any good faith deposit,  or (ii) substitute the reservation of credits from the current credit year with  a reservation of credits from a future credit year, if the delay is caused by a  lawsuit beyond the applicant's control that prevents the applicant from  proceeding with the development. If, in lieu of or in addition to the foregoing  determination, the executive director determines that any contractual  agreements between the applicant and the authority have been breached by the  applicant, whether before or after allocation of the credits, he may seek to  enforce any and all remedies to which the authority may then be entitled under  such contractual agreements.
    The executive director may establish such deadlines for  determining the ability of the applicant to qualify for an allocation of  credits as he shall deem necessary or desirable to allow the authority  sufficient time, in the event of a reduction or termination of the applicant's  reservation, to reserve such credits to other eligible applications and to  allocate such credits pursuant thereto.
    Any material changes to the development, as proposed in the  application, occurring subsequent to the submission of the application for the  credits therefor shall be subject to the prior written approval of the  executive director. As a condition to any such approval, the executive director  may, as necessary to comply with this chapter, the IRC, the binding commitment  and any other contractual agreement between the authority and the applicant,  reduce the amount of credits applied for or reserved or impose additional terms  and conditions with respect thereto. If such changes are made without the prior  written approval of the executive director, he may terminate or reduce the  reservation of such credits, impose additional terms and conditions with  respect thereto, seek to enforce any contractual remedies to which the  authority may then be entitled, draw on any good faith deposit, or any  combination of the foregoing.
    In the event that any reservation of credits is terminated or  reduced by the executive director under this section, he may reserve, allocate  or carry over, as applicable, such credits in such manner as he shall determine  consistent with the requirements of the IRC and this chapter.
    Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the executive  director may make a reservation of credits to any applicant that proposes a  nonelderly development that (i) provides rent subsidies or equivalent  assistance in order to ensure occupancy by extremely low-income persons; (ii)  conforms to HUD regulations interpreting the accessibility requirements of §  504 of the Rehabilitation Act; and (iii) will be actively marketed to people  with disabilities in accordance with a plan submitted as part of the  application for credits and approved by the executive director for at least 50%  of the units in the development. Any such reservations made in any calendar  year may be up to 6.0% of the Commonwealth's annual state housing credit  ceiling for the applicable credit year. However, such reservation will be for  credits from the Commonwealth's annual state housing credit ceiling from the  following calendar year.
    Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the executive  director may, except in calendar year 2010 make a reservation of  credits, to any applicant that proposes to acquire and rehabilitate a  nonelderly development that the executive director determines (i) cannot be acquired  within the schedule for the competitive scoring process described in this  section and (ii) cannot be financed with tax-exempt bonds using the authority's  normal underwriting criteria for its multifamily tax-exempt bond program. Any  proposed development subject to an application submitted under this paragraph  must meet the following criteria: (i) at least 20% of the units in the  development must be low-income housing units for residents at 50% of the area  median income or less, (ii) the development must be eligible for points under  subdivision 3 b (1) (g) of this section or a combination of at least 20 points  under subdivisions 3 b (1) (b) through 3 b (1) (j), excluding subdivision 3 b  (1) (c), (iii) the executive director's review of the application must confirm  that the portion of the developer's fee to be deferred is at least 5.0% of the  total development costs, (iv) participation by the local government in the form  of low-interest loan/grant moneys from such locality's affordable housing funds  in an amount equal to or greater than 20% of the total development costs, and  (v) the application for the development must obtain as many points as the  lowest ranked development that could have received a partial reservation of  credits from the geographic pool in which the applicant would have been ranked  in the most recent competitive scoring round. Any such reservations made in any  calendar year may be up to 15% of the Commonwealth's annual state housing  credit ceiling for the applicable credit year, of which at least 10% of the  Commonwealth's annual state housing credit ceiling for the applicable credit  year will be reserved for developments within Arlington County, Fairfax County,  Alexandria City, Fairfax City or Falls Church City. However, such reservation will  be for credits from the Commonwealth's annual state housing credit ceiling from  the following calendar year. 
    13VAC10-180-80. Reservation and allocation of additional  credits. (Repealed.)
    Prior to the initial determination of the qualified basis  (as defined in the IRC) of the qualified low-income buildings of a development  pursuant to the IRC, an applicant to whose buildings' credits have been  reserved may submit an application for a reservation of additional credits.  Subsequent to such initial determination of the qualified basis, the applicant  may submit an application for an additional allocation of credits by reason of  an increase in qualified basis based on an increase in the number of low-income  housing units or in the amount of floor space of the low-income housing units.  Any application for an additional allocation of credits shall include such  information, opinions, certifications and documentation as the executive  director shall require in order to determine that the applicant's buildings or development  will be entitled to such additional credits under the IRC and this chapter. The  application shall be submitted, reviewed, ranked and selected by the executive  director in accordance with the provisions of 13VAC10-180-60, and any  allocation of credits shall be made in accordance with 13VAC10-180-70. For the  purposes of such review, ranking and selection and the determinations to be  made by the executive director under the rules and regulations as to the  financial feasibility of the development and its viability as a qualified  low-income development during the credit period, the amount of credits  previously reserved to the application or allocated to the buildings or  development (or, in the case of any development or building to be financed by  certain tax-exempt bonds in an amount so as not to require an allocation of  credits hereunder, the amount of credit which may be claimed by the applicant)  shall be included with the amount of such credits so requested. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2185; Filed October 21, 2009, 10:02 a.m. 
TITLE 14. INSURANCE
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Proposed Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 14VAC5-90. Rules Governing  Advertisement of Accident and Sickness Insurance (amending 14VAC5-90-170).
    Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 38.2-223 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: A public hearing will be  held upon request.
    Public Comment Deadline: November 16, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Jacqueline Cunningham, Deputy  Commissioner, Bureau of Insurance, State Corporation Commission, 1300 East Main  Street, P.O. Box 1157, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9074, FAX (804)  371-9944, or email jackie.cunningham@scc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendment eliminates the requirement for  insurers to file a Certificate of Advertising Compliance with its Annual  Statement filing. Subsection B of 14VAC5-90-170 is being deleted, as well as  accompanying Form R04.
    AT RICHMOND, OCTOBER 8, 2009
    COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA
    At the relation of the
    STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
    CASE NO. INS-2009-00221
    Ex Parte: In the matter of Adopting
  Amendments to the Rules Governing
  Advertisement of Accident and
  Sickness Insurance
    ORDER TO TAKE NOTICE
    Section 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia provides that the  State Corporation Commission ("Commission") shall have the power to  promulgate rules and regulations in the enforcement and administration of all  laws within its jurisdiction. Section 38.2-223 of the Code of Virginia provides  that the Commission may issue any rules and regulations necessary or  appropriate for the administration and enforcement of Title 38.2 of the Code of  Virginia. The regulations issued by the Commission pursuant to § 38.2-223  are set forth in Title 14 of the Virginia Administrative Code.
    The Bureau of Insurance ("Bureau") has submitted to  the Commission a request to amend the regulations set forth in Chapter 90 of  Title 14 of the Virginia Administrative Code, entitled "Rules Governing  Advertisement of Accident and Sickness Insurance." The proposed amendment  of 14 VAC 5-90-170 is necessary because the certification statement contained  in subsection B has not improved the quality of advertisement by insurers.  Advertisement quality is better served through the standards set forth in the  regulations. Therefore, the Bureau has recommended that subsection B be  deleted, as well as the associated Form R04.
    The Commission is of the opinion that the proposed amendment  submitted by the Bureau should be considered for adoption with an effective  date of January 1, 2010.
    Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
    (1) The proposed regulation entitled "Rules  Governing Advertisement of Accident and Sickness Insurance," which amends  14 VAC 5-90-170, be attached hereto and made a part hereof.
    (2) All interested persons who desire to comment or  request a hearing on the proposed regulation shall file such comments or  hearing request on or before November 16, 2009, in writing with Joel H. Peck,  Clerk, State Corporation Commission, c/o Document Control Center,  1300 East Main Street, 1st Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219 and shall refer  to Case No. INS-2009-00221. Requests for a hearing shall state why a hearing is  necessary and why the issues cannot be adequately addressed in written  comments. Interested persons desiring to submit comments electronically may do  so by following the instructions available at the Commission's website:  http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
    (3) If no written request for a hearing on the proposed  regulation is filed on or before November 16, 2009, the Commission, upon  consideration of any comments submitted in support of or in opposition to the  proposed regulation, may adopt the proposed regulation as submitted by the  Bureau.
    (4) The Commission's Division of Information Resources  shall cause a copy of this Order, together with the proposed regulation, to be  forwarded to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for appropriate publication  in the Virginia Register of Regulations and shall make this Order and the  attached proposed regulation available on the Commission's website,  http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
    (5) AN ATTESTED COPY hereof, together with a copy of the  proposed regulation, shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to the Bureau  in care of Deputy Commissioner Jacqueline K. Cunningham, who shall mail a copy  of this Order, together with the proposed regulation, to all insurance  companies licensed by the Commission to write accident and sickness insurance  in the Commonwealth of Virginia, and certain other interested parties  designated by the Bureau.
    (6) The Bureau shall file with the Clerk of the  Commission an affidavit of compliance with the notice requirements of paragraph  (5) above. 
    14VAC5-90-170. Enforcement procedures; advertising file; certificate  of compliance; corrective advertising. 
    A. Each insurer shall maintain at its home or principal  office a complete file containing every printed, published or prepared advertisement  of its individual policies and typical printed, published or prepared  advertisements of its blanket, franchise and group policies hereafter  disseminated in this or any other state, whether or not licensed in another  state, with a notation attached to each advertisement that indicates the manner  and extent of distribution and the form number of any policy advertised. The  file shall be subject to regular and periodical inspection by the commission.  All the advertisements shall be maintained in a file for the longer of four  years or until the filing of the next regular report on examination of the  insurer. 
    B. Each insurer required to file an Annual Statement with  the commission shall file with its Annual Statement, a Certificate of  Advertising Compliance executed by an authorized officer of the insurer stating  that, to the best of the officer's knowledge, information, and belief, the  advertisements that were disseminated by the insurer during the preceding  statement year complied or were made to comply in all respects with the  provisions of this chapter and Title 38.2 of the Code of Virginia as  implemented and interpreted by this chapter. 
    C. B. If the commission finds, after notice and  opportunity to be heard, as provided in § 38.2-219 of the Code of Virginia,  that any advertisement is in violation of the provisions of this chapter and  that the violation was to substantially deceive or to mislead the public, the  commission may, in addition to any other remedy or monetary penalty it may  otherwise impose, order the insurer responsible for the dissemination of such  advertisement to publish at the insurer's expense, a corrective advertisement  in a form to be approved by the commission. If an insurer fails to publish a  corrective advertisement as required by the commission, the commission may  cause a corrective advertisement to be published, and the insurer shall, in  addition to any other penalty that may have been imposed, reimburse the  commission for the expenses incurred in connection with the publication of the  advertisement. 
    FORMS (14VAC5-90) (Repealed.)
    Certificate of Advertising Compliance, Form R04 (eff.  11/03). 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2173; Filed October 9, 2009, 2:45 p.m. 
TITLE 14. INSURANCE
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 14VAC5-310. Rules Governing  Actuarial Opinions and Memoranda (amending 14VAC5-310-90).
    14VAC5-321. Use of the 2001 CSO Mortality Table in  Determining Reserve Liabilities and Nonforfeiture Benefits (amending 14VAC5-321-30).
    Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 38.2-223 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: A public hearing will be  scheduled upon request.
    Public Comment Deadline: November 29, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Raquel C. Pino-Moreno, Principal  Insururance Analyst, Bureau of Insurance, State Corporation Commission, 1300 E.  Main Street, P.O. Box 1157, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9499, FAX  (804) 371-9511, or email raquel.pino-moreno@scc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The revisions allow the Bureau of Insurance to authorize  insurance companies to use the 2001 CSO Mortality Table for policies issued on  or after January 1, 2004 (14VAC5-321), the current provision is applicable for  policies issued on or after July 1, 2004. The proposed revisions also require  an appointed actuary to produce a report attesting to the fact that a company  has booked reserves satisfying the minimum reserve requirements and describing  how they reached their conclusion regarding adequacy (14VAC5-310). The proposed  revisions to the rules are based on the National Association of Insurance  Commissioner's (NAIC) revisions to its Actuarial Opinion and Memorandum  Regulation Model, which was adopted by the NAIC on September 23, 2009, and its  Recognition of the 2001 CSO Mortality Table for Use in Determining Minimum  Reserve Liabilities and Nonforfeiture Benefits Model Regulation, which was adopted  by the NAIC in 2002.
    AT RICHMOND, OCTOBER 21, 2009
    COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA
    At the relation of the
    STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
    CASE NO. INS-2009-00230
    Ex Parte: In the matter of Adopting
  Revisions to the Rules Governing
  Actuarial Opinions and Memoranda
  and Use of the 2001 CSO Mortality Table
  in Determining Reserve Liabilities
  and Nonforfeiture Benefits
    ORDER TO TAKE NOTICE
    Section 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia provides that the  State Corporation Commission ("Commission") shall have the power to promulgate  rules and regulations in the enforcement and administration of all laws within  its jurisdiction, and § 38.2-223 of the Code of Virginia provides that the  Commission may issue any rules and regulations necessary or appropriate for the  administration and enforcement of Title 38.2 of the Code of Virginia. The rules  and regulations issued by the Commission pursuant to § 38.2-223 of the  Code of Virginia are set forth in Title 14 of the Virginia Administrative Code.
    The Bureau of Insurance ("Bureau") has submitted to  the Commission proposed amendments to the regulations set forth in Chapter 310  and 321 of Title 14 of the Virginia Administrative Code entitled "Rules  Governing Actuarial Opinions and Memoranda" and "Use of the 2001 CSO  Mortality Table in Determining Reserve Liabilities and Nonforfeiture  Benefits."
    The proposed amendments to the Rules Governing Actuarial  Opinions and Memoranda are based on the National Association of Insurance  Commissioners' ("NAIC") revisions to the model regulation on the same  subject which were adopted on September 23, 2009. The proposed amendments to  the Use of the 2001 CSO Mortality Table in Determining Reserve Liabilities for  Nonforfeiture Benefits are based on the NAIC's revisions to the model  regulations on the same subject which were adopted in 2002.
    The Commission is of the opinion that the proposed amendments  submitted by the Bureau and set out at 14 VAC 5-310-90 and 14 VAC 5-321-30  should be considered for adoption with an effective date of December 31, 2009.
    Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
    (1) The proposed regulations entitled "Rules  Governing Actuarial Opinions and Memoranda" and "Use of the 2001 CSO  Mortality Table in Determining Reserve Liabilities and Nonforfeiture  Benefits," which amend the regulations at 14 VAC 5-310-90 and  14 VAC 5‑321‑30, be attached hereto and made a part  hereof.
    (2) All interested persons who desire to comment in  support of or in opposition to, or request a hearing to oppose the adoption of  the proposed regulations, shall file such comments or hearing request on or  before November 29, 2009, in writing, with Joel H. Peck, Clerk, State  Corporation Commission, c/o Document Control Center, P.O. Box 2118, Richmond,  Virginia 23218, and shall refer to Case No. INS-2009-00230. Interested persons desiring  to submit comments electronically may do so by following the instructions  available at the Commission's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
    (3) If no written request for a hearing on the proposed  regulations is filed on or before November 29, 2009, the Commission, upon  consideration of any comments submitted in support of or in opposition to the  proposed regulations, may adopt the proposed regulations as submitted by the  Bureau.
    (4) The Commission's Division of Information Resources  forthwith shall cause a copy of this Order, together with the proposed  regulations, to be forwarded to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for  appropriate publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations and shall make  available this Order and the attached proposed regulations on the Commission's  website, http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
    (5) AN ATTESTED COPY hereof, together with a copy of the  proposed regulations, shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to the  Bureau in care of Deputy Commissioner Douglas C. Stolte, who forthwith shall  give further notice of the proposed adoption of the amended regulations by  mailing a copy of this Order, together with the proposed regulations, to all  licensed life insurers, burial societies, fraternal benefit societies, qualified  reinsurers, and certain interested parties designated by the Bureau.
    (6) The Bureau shall file with the Clerk of the  Commission an affidavit of compliance with the notice requirements of Ordering  Paragraph (5) above.
    14VAC5-310-90. Description of actuarial memorandum issued for  an asset adequacy analysis and regulatory asset adequacy issues summary. 
    A. The following general provisions shall apply with respect  to the preparation and submission of the asset adequacy memorandum required by  § 38.2-3127.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    1. In accordance with § 38.2-3127.1 of the Code of  Virginia, the appointed actuary shall prepare a memorandum to the company  describing the analysis done in support of his opinion regarding the reserves.  The memorandum shall be made available for examination by the commission upon  its request but shall be returned to the company after such examination and  shall not be considered a record of the Bureau of Insurance or subject to  automatic filing with the commission. 
    2. In preparing the memorandum, the appointed actuary may rely  on, and include as a part of his memorandum, memoranda prepared and signed by  other actuaries who are qualified within the meaning of 14VAC5-310-50 B, with  respect to the areas covered in such memoranda, and so state in their  memoranda. 
    3. If the commission requests a memorandum and no such  memorandum exists or if the commission finds that the analysis described in the  memorandum fails to meet the standards of the Actuarial Standards Board or the  standards and requirements of this chapter, the commission may designate a  qualified actuary to review the opinion and prepare such supporting memorandum  as is required for review. The reasonable and necessary expense of the  independent review shall be paid by the company but shall be directed and  controlled by the commission. 
    4. The reviewing actuary shall have the same status as an  examiner for purposes of obtaining data from the company and the work papers  and documentation of the reviewing actuary shall be retained by the commission;  provided, however, that any information provided by the company  to the reviewing actuary and included in the work papers shall be considered as  material provided by the company to the commission and shall be kept  confidential to the same extent as is prescribed by law with respect to other  material provided by the company to the commission pursuant to the statute  governing this chapter. The reviewing actuary shall not be an employee of a  consulting firm involved with the preparation of any prior memorandum or  opinion for the insurer pursuant to this chapter for any one of the current  year or the preceding three years. 
    5. In accordance with § 38.2-3127.1 of the Code of  Virginia, the appointed actuary shall prepare a regulatory asset adequacy  issues summary, the contents of which are specified in subsection C of this  section. The regulatory asset adequacy issues summary shall be submitted no  later than March 15 of the year following the year for which a statement of  actuarial opinion based on asset adequacy is required. The regulatory asset  adequacy issues summary is to be kept confidential to the same extent and under  the same conditions as the actuarial memorandum. 
    B. A section of the memorandum shall document asset adequacy  testing by demonstrating that the analysis has been done in accordance with the  standards for asset adequacy referred to in 14VAC5-310-50 D and any additional  standards under this chapter. It shall specify: 
    1. For reserves: 
    a. Product descriptions including market description,  underwriting and other aspects of a risk profile, and the specific risks the  appointed actuary deems significant; 
    b. Source of liability in force; 
    c. Reserve method and basis; 
    d. Investment reserves; 
    e. Reinsurance arrangements; 
    f. Identification of any explicit or implied guarantees made  by the general account in support of benefits provided through a separate  account policy or contract and the methods used by the appointed actuary to  provide for the guarantees in the asset adequacy analysis; and 
    g. Documentation of assumptions to test reserves for (i) lapse  rates, whether base or excess, (ii) interest crediting rate strategy, (iii)  mortality, (iv) policyholder dividend strategy, (v) competitor or market  interest rate, (vi) annuitization rates, (vii) commission and expenses, and  (viii) morbidity. 
    The documentation of the assumptions shall be such that an  actuary reviewing the actuarial memorandum could form a conclusion as to the  reasonableness of the assumption. 
    2. For assets: 
    a. Portfolio descriptions, including a risk profile disclosing  the quality, distribution and types of assets; 
    b. Investment and disinvestment assumptions; 
    c. Source of asset data; 
    d. Asset valuation bases; and 
    e. Documentation of assumptions made for (i) default costs,  (ii) bond call function, (iii) mortgage prepayment function, (iv) determining  market value for assets sold due to disinvestment strategy, and (v) determining  yield on assets acquired through the investment strategy. 
    The documentation of the assumptions shall be such that an  actuary reviewing the actuarial memorandum could form a conclusion as to the  reasonableness of the assumption. 
    3. For the analysis basis: 
    a. Methodology; 
    b. Rationale for inclusion or exclusion of different blocks of  business and how pertinent risks were analyzed; 
    c. Rationale for degree of rigor in analyzing different blocks  of business, including the rationale for the level of "materiality"  that was used in determining how rigorously to analyze different blocks of business;  
    d. Criteria for determining asset adequacy, including in the  criteria the precise basis for determining if assets are adequate to cover  reserves under "moderately adverse conditions" or other conditions as  specified in relevant actuarial standards of practice; and 
    e. Whether the impact of federal income taxes was considered  and the method of treating reinsurance in the asset adequacy analysis. 
    4. Summary of material changes in methods, procedures, or  assumptions from prior year's asset adequacy analysis; 
    5. Summary of results; and 
    6. Conclusion. 
    C. The regulatory asset adequacy issues summary shall contain  the name of the company for which the regulatory asset adequacy issues summary  is being supplied and shall be signed and dated by the appointed actuary  rendering the actuarial opinion. The regulatory asset adequacy issues summary  also shall include each of the following: 
    1. Descriptions of the scenarios tested, including whether  those scenarios are stochastic or deterministic, and the sensitivity testing  done relative to those scenarios. If negative ending surplus results under  certain tests in the aggregate, the actuary should describe those tests and the  amount of additional reserve as of the valuation date which, if held, would  eliminate the negative aggregate surplus values. Ending surplus values shall be  determined by either extending the projection period until the in-force and  associated assets and liabilities at the end of the projection period are  immaterial or by adjusting the surplus amount at the end of the projection  period by an amount that appropriately estimates the value that reasonably can  be expected to arise from the assets and liabilities remaining in force; 
    2. The extent to which the appointed actuary uses assumptions  in the asset adequacy analysis that are materially different from the  assumptions used in the previous asset adequacy analysis; 
    3. The amount of reserves and the identity of the product  lines that had been subjected to asset adequacy analysis in the prior opinion  but were not subject to analysis for the current opinion; 
    4. Comments on any interim results that may be of significant  concern to the appointed actuary. For example, the impact of the  insufficiency of assets to support the payment of benefits and expenses and the  establishment of statutory reserves during one or more interim periods; 
    5. The methods used by the actuary to recognize the impact of  reinsurance on the company's cash flows, including both assets and liabilities,  under each of the scenarios tested; and 
    6. Whether the actuary has been satisfied that all options  whether explicit or embedded, in any asset or liability, including but not  limited to those affecting cash flows embedded in fixed income securities, and  equity-like features in any investments have been appropriately considered in  the asset adequacy analysis. 
    D. The actuarial methods, considerations, and analyses shall  conform to appropriate standards of practice and the memorandum shall include  the following statement: 
    "Actuarial methods, considerations and analyses used in  the preparation of this memorandum conform to the appropriate Standards of  Practice as promulgated by the Actuarial Standards Board, which standards form  the basis for this memorandum." 
    E. An appropriate allocation of assets in the amount of  Interest Maintenance Reserve (IMR), whether positive or negative, shall be used  in any asset adequacy analysis. Analysis of risks regarding asset default shall  include an appropriate allocation of assets supporting the Asset Valuation  Reserve (AVR); these AVR assets shall not be applied for any other risks with  respect to reserve adequacy. Analysis of these and other risks shall include  assets supporting other mandatory or voluntary reserves available to the extent  not used for risk analysis and reserve support. The amount of the assets used  for the AVR shall be disclosed in the Table of Reserves and Liabilities of the  opinion and in the memorandum. The method used for selecting particular assets  or allocated portions of assets shall be disclosed in the memorandum. 
    14VAC5-321-30. 2001 CSO Mortality Table.
    A. At the election of the insurer for any one or more  specified plans of insurance and subject to the conditions stated in this  chapter, the 2001 CSO Mortality Table may be used as the minimum standard for  policies issued on or after July January 1, 2004, and before the  date specified in subsection B of this section to which subdivision 1 of  § 38.2-3130 and § 38.2-3209 of the Code of Virginia are applicable.  If the insurer elects to use the 2001 CSO Mortality Table, it shall do so for  both valuation and nonforfeiture purposes.
    B. Subject to the conditions stated in this chapter, the 2001  CSO Mortality Table shall be used in determining minimum standards for policies  issued on and after January 1, 2009, to which subdivision 1 of § 38.2-3130  and § 38.2-3209 of the Code of Virginia are applicable.
    C. A table from the 2001 CSO Preferred Class Structure  Mortality Table used in place of a 2001 CSO Mortality Table, pursuant to the  requirements of 14VAC5-322, will be treated as part of the 2001 CSO Mortality  Table only for purposes of reserve valuation pursuant to the requirements of  this chapter.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2018; Filed October 21, 2009, 11:15 a.m. 
TITLE 14. INSURANCE
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 14VAC5-310. Rules Governing  Actuarial Opinions and Memoranda (amending 14VAC5-310-90).
    14VAC5-321. Use of the 2001 CSO Mortality Table in  Determining Reserve Liabilities and Nonforfeiture Benefits (amending 14VAC5-321-30).
    Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 38.2-223 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: A public hearing will be  scheduled upon request.
    Public Comment Deadline: November 29, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Raquel C. Pino-Moreno, Principal  Insururance Analyst, Bureau of Insurance, State Corporation Commission, 1300 E.  Main Street, P.O. Box 1157, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9499, FAX  (804) 371-9511, or email raquel.pino-moreno@scc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The revisions allow the Bureau of Insurance to authorize  insurance companies to use the 2001 CSO Mortality Table for policies issued on  or after January 1, 2004 (14VAC5-321), the current provision is applicable for  policies issued on or after July 1, 2004. The proposed revisions also require  an appointed actuary to produce a report attesting to the fact that a company  has booked reserves satisfying the minimum reserve requirements and describing  how they reached their conclusion regarding adequacy (14VAC5-310). The proposed  revisions to the rules are based on the National Association of Insurance  Commissioner's (NAIC) revisions to its Actuarial Opinion and Memorandum  Regulation Model, which was adopted by the NAIC on September 23, 2009, and its  Recognition of the 2001 CSO Mortality Table for Use in Determining Minimum  Reserve Liabilities and Nonforfeiture Benefits Model Regulation, which was adopted  by the NAIC in 2002.
    AT RICHMOND, OCTOBER 21, 2009
    COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA
    At the relation of the
    STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
    CASE NO. INS-2009-00230
    Ex Parte: In the matter of Adopting
  Revisions to the Rules Governing
  Actuarial Opinions and Memoranda
  and Use of the 2001 CSO Mortality Table
  in Determining Reserve Liabilities
  and Nonforfeiture Benefits
    ORDER TO TAKE NOTICE
    Section 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia provides that the  State Corporation Commission ("Commission") shall have the power to promulgate  rules and regulations in the enforcement and administration of all laws within  its jurisdiction, and § 38.2-223 of the Code of Virginia provides that the  Commission may issue any rules and regulations necessary or appropriate for the  administration and enforcement of Title 38.2 of the Code of Virginia. The rules  and regulations issued by the Commission pursuant to § 38.2-223 of the  Code of Virginia are set forth in Title 14 of the Virginia Administrative Code.
    The Bureau of Insurance ("Bureau") has submitted to  the Commission proposed amendments to the regulations set forth in Chapter 310  and 321 of Title 14 of the Virginia Administrative Code entitled "Rules  Governing Actuarial Opinions and Memoranda" and "Use of the 2001 CSO  Mortality Table in Determining Reserve Liabilities and Nonforfeiture  Benefits."
    The proposed amendments to the Rules Governing Actuarial  Opinions and Memoranda are based on the National Association of Insurance  Commissioners' ("NAIC") revisions to the model regulation on the same  subject which were adopted on September 23, 2009. The proposed amendments to  the Use of the 2001 CSO Mortality Table in Determining Reserve Liabilities for  Nonforfeiture Benefits are based on the NAIC's revisions to the model  regulations on the same subject which were adopted in 2002.
    The Commission is of the opinion that the proposed amendments  submitted by the Bureau and set out at 14 VAC 5-310-90 and 14 VAC 5-321-30  should be considered for adoption with an effective date of December 31, 2009.
    Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
    (1) The proposed regulations entitled "Rules  Governing Actuarial Opinions and Memoranda" and "Use of the 2001 CSO  Mortality Table in Determining Reserve Liabilities and Nonforfeiture  Benefits," which amend the regulations at 14 VAC 5-310-90 and  14 VAC 5‑321‑30, be attached hereto and made a part  hereof.
    (2) All interested persons who desire to comment in  support of or in opposition to, or request a hearing to oppose the adoption of  the proposed regulations, shall file such comments or hearing request on or  before November 29, 2009, in writing, with Joel H. Peck, Clerk, State  Corporation Commission, c/o Document Control Center, P.O. Box 2118, Richmond,  Virginia 23218, and shall refer to Case No. INS-2009-00230. Interested persons desiring  to submit comments electronically may do so by following the instructions  available at the Commission's website: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
    (3) If no written request for a hearing on the proposed  regulations is filed on or before November 29, 2009, the Commission, upon  consideration of any comments submitted in support of or in opposition to the  proposed regulations, may adopt the proposed regulations as submitted by the  Bureau.
    (4) The Commission's Division of Information Resources  forthwith shall cause a copy of this Order, together with the proposed  regulations, to be forwarded to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for  appropriate publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations and shall make  available this Order and the attached proposed regulations on the Commission's  website, http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
    (5) AN ATTESTED COPY hereof, together with a copy of the  proposed regulations, shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to the  Bureau in care of Deputy Commissioner Douglas C. Stolte, who forthwith shall  give further notice of the proposed adoption of the amended regulations by  mailing a copy of this Order, together with the proposed regulations, to all  licensed life insurers, burial societies, fraternal benefit societies, qualified  reinsurers, and certain interested parties designated by the Bureau.
    (6) The Bureau shall file with the Clerk of the  Commission an affidavit of compliance with the notice requirements of Ordering  Paragraph (5) above.
    14VAC5-310-90. Description of actuarial memorandum issued for  an asset adequacy analysis and regulatory asset adequacy issues summary. 
    A. The following general provisions shall apply with respect  to the preparation and submission of the asset adequacy memorandum required by  § 38.2-3127.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    1. In accordance with § 38.2-3127.1 of the Code of  Virginia, the appointed actuary shall prepare a memorandum to the company  describing the analysis done in support of his opinion regarding the reserves.  The memorandum shall be made available for examination by the commission upon  its request but shall be returned to the company after such examination and  shall not be considered a record of the Bureau of Insurance or subject to  automatic filing with the commission. 
    2. In preparing the memorandum, the appointed actuary may rely  on, and include as a part of his memorandum, memoranda prepared and signed by  other actuaries who are qualified within the meaning of 14VAC5-310-50 B, with  respect to the areas covered in such memoranda, and so state in their  memoranda. 
    3. If the commission requests a memorandum and no such  memorandum exists or if the commission finds that the analysis described in the  memorandum fails to meet the standards of the Actuarial Standards Board or the  standards and requirements of this chapter, the commission may designate a  qualified actuary to review the opinion and prepare such supporting memorandum  as is required for review. The reasonable and necessary expense of the  independent review shall be paid by the company but shall be directed and  controlled by the commission. 
    4. The reviewing actuary shall have the same status as an  examiner for purposes of obtaining data from the company and the work papers  and documentation of the reviewing actuary shall be retained by the commission;  provided, however, that any information provided by the company  to the reviewing actuary and included in the work papers shall be considered as  material provided by the company to the commission and shall be kept  confidential to the same extent as is prescribed by law with respect to other  material provided by the company to the commission pursuant to the statute  governing this chapter. The reviewing actuary shall not be an employee of a  consulting firm involved with the preparation of any prior memorandum or  opinion for the insurer pursuant to this chapter for any one of the current  year or the preceding three years. 
    5. In accordance with § 38.2-3127.1 of the Code of  Virginia, the appointed actuary shall prepare a regulatory asset adequacy  issues summary, the contents of which are specified in subsection C of this  section. The regulatory asset adequacy issues summary shall be submitted no  later than March 15 of the year following the year for which a statement of  actuarial opinion based on asset adequacy is required. The regulatory asset  adequacy issues summary is to be kept confidential to the same extent and under  the same conditions as the actuarial memorandum. 
    B. A section of the memorandum shall document asset adequacy  testing by demonstrating that the analysis has been done in accordance with the  standards for asset adequacy referred to in 14VAC5-310-50 D and any additional  standards under this chapter. It shall specify: 
    1. For reserves: 
    a. Product descriptions including market description,  underwriting and other aspects of a risk profile, and the specific risks the  appointed actuary deems significant; 
    b. Source of liability in force; 
    c. Reserve method and basis; 
    d. Investment reserves; 
    e. Reinsurance arrangements; 
    f. Identification of any explicit or implied guarantees made  by the general account in support of benefits provided through a separate  account policy or contract and the methods used by the appointed actuary to  provide for the guarantees in the asset adequacy analysis; and 
    g. Documentation of assumptions to test reserves for (i) lapse  rates, whether base or excess, (ii) interest crediting rate strategy, (iii)  mortality, (iv) policyholder dividend strategy, (v) competitor or market  interest rate, (vi) annuitization rates, (vii) commission and expenses, and  (viii) morbidity. 
    The documentation of the assumptions shall be such that an  actuary reviewing the actuarial memorandum could form a conclusion as to the  reasonableness of the assumption. 
    2. For assets: 
    a. Portfolio descriptions, including a risk profile disclosing  the quality, distribution and types of assets; 
    b. Investment and disinvestment assumptions; 
    c. Source of asset data; 
    d. Asset valuation bases; and 
    e. Documentation of assumptions made for (i) default costs,  (ii) bond call function, (iii) mortgage prepayment function, (iv) determining  market value for assets sold due to disinvestment strategy, and (v) determining  yield on assets acquired through the investment strategy. 
    The documentation of the assumptions shall be such that an  actuary reviewing the actuarial memorandum could form a conclusion as to the  reasonableness of the assumption. 
    3. For the analysis basis: 
    a. Methodology; 
    b. Rationale for inclusion or exclusion of different blocks of  business and how pertinent risks were analyzed; 
    c. Rationale for degree of rigor in analyzing different blocks  of business, including the rationale for the level of "materiality"  that was used in determining how rigorously to analyze different blocks of business;  
    d. Criteria for determining asset adequacy, including in the  criteria the precise basis for determining if assets are adequate to cover  reserves under "moderately adverse conditions" or other conditions as  specified in relevant actuarial standards of practice; and 
    e. Whether the impact of federal income taxes was considered  and the method of treating reinsurance in the asset adequacy analysis. 
    4. Summary of material changes in methods, procedures, or  assumptions from prior year's asset adequacy analysis; 
    5. Summary of results; and 
    6. Conclusion. 
    C. The regulatory asset adequacy issues summary shall contain  the name of the company for which the regulatory asset adequacy issues summary  is being supplied and shall be signed and dated by the appointed actuary  rendering the actuarial opinion. The regulatory asset adequacy issues summary  also shall include each of the following: 
    1. Descriptions of the scenarios tested, including whether  those scenarios are stochastic or deterministic, and the sensitivity testing  done relative to those scenarios. If negative ending surplus results under  certain tests in the aggregate, the actuary should describe those tests and the  amount of additional reserve as of the valuation date which, if held, would  eliminate the negative aggregate surplus values. Ending surplus values shall be  determined by either extending the projection period until the in-force and  associated assets and liabilities at the end of the projection period are  immaterial or by adjusting the surplus amount at the end of the projection  period by an amount that appropriately estimates the value that reasonably can  be expected to arise from the assets and liabilities remaining in force; 
    2. The extent to which the appointed actuary uses assumptions  in the asset adequacy analysis that are materially different from the  assumptions used in the previous asset adequacy analysis; 
    3. The amount of reserves and the identity of the product  lines that had been subjected to asset adequacy analysis in the prior opinion  but were not subject to analysis for the current opinion; 
    4. Comments on any interim results that may be of significant  concern to the appointed actuary. For example, the impact of the  insufficiency of assets to support the payment of benefits and expenses and the  establishment of statutory reserves during one or more interim periods; 
    5. The methods used by the actuary to recognize the impact of  reinsurance on the company's cash flows, including both assets and liabilities,  under each of the scenarios tested; and 
    6. Whether the actuary has been satisfied that all options  whether explicit or embedded, in any asset or liability, including but not  limited to those affecting cash flows embedded in fixed income securities, and  equity-like features in any investments have been appropriately considered in  the asset adequacy analysis. 
    D. The actuarial methods, considerations, and analyses shall  conform to appropriate standards of practice and the memorandum shall include  the following statement: 
    "Actuarial methods, considerations and analyses used in  the preparation of this memorandum conform to the appropriate Standards of  Practice as promulgated by the Actuarial Standards Board, which standards form  the basis for this memorandum." 
    E. An appropriate allocation of assets in the amount of  Interest Maintenance Reserve (IMR), whether positive or negative, shall be used  in any asset adequacy analysis. Analysis of risks regarding asset default shall  include an appropriate allocation of assets supporting the Asset Valuation  Reserve (AVR); these AVR assets shall not be applied for any other risks with  respect to reserve adequacy. Analysis of these and other risks shall include  assets supporting other mandatory or voluntary reserves available to the extent  not used for risk analysis and reserve support. The amount of the assets used  for the AVR shall be disclosed in the Table of Reserves and Liabilities of the  opinion and in the memorandum. The method used for selecting particular assets  or allocated portions of assets shall be disclosed in the memorandum. 
    14VAC5-321-30. 2001 CSO Mortality Table.
    A. At the election of the insurer for any one or more  specified plans of insurance and subject to the conditions stated in this  chapter, the 2001 CSO Mortality Table may be used as the minimum standard for  policies issued on or after July January 1, 2004, and before the  date specified in subsection B of this section to which subdivision 1 of  § 38.2-3130 and § 38.2-3209 of the Code of Virginia are applicable.  If the insurer elects to use the 2001 CSO Mortality Table, it shall do so for  both valuation and nonforfeiture purposes.
    B. Subject to the conditions stated in this chapter, the 2001  CSO Mortality Table shall be used in determining minimum standards for policies  issued on and after January 1, 2009, to which subdivision 1 of § 38.2-3130  and § 38.2-3209 of the Code of Virginia are applicable.
    C. A table from the 2001 CSO Preferred Class Structure  Mortality Table used in place of a 2001 CSO Mortality Table, pursuant to the  requirements of 14VAC5-322, will be treated as part of the 2001 CSO Mortality  Table only for purposes of reserve valuation pursuant to the requirements of  this chapter.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2018; Filed October 21, 2009, 11:15 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF AUDIOLOGY AND SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S  NOTICE: The Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology is claiming an  exemption from the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006  A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to  conform to changes in Virginia statutory law where no agency discretion is  involved. The Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology will receive,  consider, and respond to petitions from any interested person at any time with  respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 18VAC30-20. Regulations Governing the  Practice of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology (amending 18VAC30-20-70).
    Statutory  Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective  Date: December 9, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Leslie L. Knachel, Executive Director,  Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite  300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4630, FAX (804) 527-4413, or  email leslie.knachel@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    In compliance with Chapter 687 of the 2009 Acts of  Assembly, the Board of Audiology and Speech-language Pathology has amended its  regulations relating to the responsibility of the licensee or registrant to  provide current addresses. Every licensee and registrant is required to provide  an address of record for use by the board, and is permitted to provide a second  address to be used as the public address. If a second address is not provided,  the address of record becomes the public address. Regulations are amended to  use the statutory terminology of address of record and to clarify that the  regulant has a responsibility to notify the board within 30 days if there is a  change in the address of record or the public address, if different from the  address of record.
    18VAC30-20-70. Records; accuracy of information.
    A. All changes of mailing address or name, address  of record or public address, if different from the address of record, shall  be furnished to the board within 30 days after the change occurs.
    B. All notices required by law and by this chapter to be mailed  by the board to any registrant or licensee shall be validly given when mailed  to the latest address of record on file with the board.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2117; Filed October 20, 2009, 10:31 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF AUDIOLOGY AND SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following regulatory action is exempt from the Administrative Process Act in  accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 7 of the Code of Virginia, which excludes  regulations of the regulatory boards served by the Department of Health  Professions pursuant to Title 54.1 that are limited to reducing fees charged to  regulants and applicants. The Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology  will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any interested person at  any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 18VAC30-20. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology (amending 18VAC30-20-80).
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: December 9, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Leslie L. Knachel, Executive Director,  Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite  300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4630, FAX (804) 527-4413, or  email leslie.knachel@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    In order to reduce an accumulated surplus in the budget of  the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology, a one-time reduction in  renewal fees has been adopted. The renewal fee for audiologists and  speech-language pathologists will be reduced for the annual renewal from $75 to  $40, and for school speech-language pathologists, the renewal fee will be  reduced from $40 to $20. Fees for inactive licensure and provisional licensure  in audiology (which are approximately one-half the active renewal fee) are  reduced correspondingly.
    18VAC30-20-80. Fees.
    A. The following fees shall be paid as applicable for  licensure:
           |   | 1. Application for audiology or speech-language pathology    license | $135 | 
       |   | 2. Application for school speech-language pathology license | $70 | 
       |   | 3. Verification of licensure requests from other states | $20 | 
       |   | 4. Annual renewal of audiology or speech-language pathology    license | $75 | 
       |   | 5. Late renewal of audiology or speech-language pathology    license | $25 | 
       |   | 6. Annual renewal of school speech-language pathology    license | $40 | 
       |   | 7. Late renewal of school    speech-language pathology license | $15 | 
       |   | 8. Reinstatement of audiology or speech-language pathology    license | $135 | 
       |   | 9. Reinstatement of school speech-language pathology license | $70 | 
       |   | 10. Duplicate wall certificates | $25 | 
       |   | 11. Duplicate license | $5 | 
       |   | 12. Returned check | $35 | 
       |   | 13. Inactive license renewal for audiology or    speech-language pathology | $40 | 
       |   | 14. Inactive license renewal for school speech-language    pathology | $20 | 
       |   | 15. Approval of a continuing education sponsor | $200 | 
       |   | 16. Application for provisional license in audiology | $50 | 
       |   | 17. Renewal of provisional license in audiology | $25 | 
  
    B. Fees shall be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia  and shall not be refunded once submitted.
    C. For the renewal of licenses by December 31, 2009, the  fees shall be as follows:
           |   | 1. Annual renewal of audiology or speech-language    pathology license | $40 | 
       |   | 2. Annual renewal of school speech-language pathology    license | $20 | 
       |   | 3. Inactive license renewal for audiology or    speech-language pathology | $20 | 
       |   | 4. Renewal of provisional license in audiology | $15 | 
  
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2166; Filed October 20, 2009, 10:31 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF NURSING
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC90-20. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Nursing (amending 18VAC90-20-181).
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: December 9, 2009.
    Effective Date: December 24, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Jay P. Douglas, R.N., Executive  Director, Board of Nursing, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA  23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4515, FAX (804) 527-4455, or email  jay.douglas@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Chapter 24 (§ 54.1-2400 et seq.) of Title  54.1 of the Code of Virginia establishes the general powers and duties of  health regulatory boards including the responsibility to promulgate  regulations.
    Purpose: The purpose of the action is to update  requirements for issuance of a license with a multistate licensure privilege.  Consistency with Model Rules for the Compact is necessary to ensure that nurses  with a multistate privilege are appropriately licensed and able to provide  services to protect the health and safety of patients in Virginia. If a compact  state has restricted the privilege and only issued a single state license, such  action must be acknowledged on the license.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: The board is  merely conforming language in its regulations with the Model Rules for the  Nurse Licensure Compact, so the changes are not more restrictive and not  expected to be controversial.
    Substance: Two new identification forms would be  acceptable evidence as primary residency, and a nurse from another country  would have a choice of declaring either the country of origin or Virginia as  the primary state. Additionally, a new regulation would specify that a single  state license should be clearly marked that it is valid only in the state of  issuance.
    Issues: There are no advantages or disadvantages to the  public. The primary advantage to the agency is consistency with the Nurse  Licensure Compact of which Virginia is a member. There are no pertinent issues.
    The Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Nursing (Board) proposes to amend its Regulations Governing the Practice of  Nursing to allow two new forms of identification as proof of primary residency  for the purposes of obtaining a license with multistate licensure privileges.  The board also proposes to allow foreign nurses who are in the United States on  a visa and are applying for licensure in Virginia to declare either Virginia or  their country of origin as their primary state of residence.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Current regulations allow Virginia  to issue a license with a multistate licensure privilege, for nurses who are  currently licensed in Virginia or who are applying for licensure in Virginia,  so long as the primary residence of the nurse seeking such a license is in Virginia.  Currently, nurses may offer 1) a driver's license with a home address listed,  2) a voter registration card with a home address listed or 3) a federal or  state tax return declaring Virginia as primary state of residence as evidence  that they meet the requirements for the multistate licensure privilege.
    The Board proposes to add two new forms of identification, 1)  Military Form No. 2058— state of legal residence and 2) form W2 from the United  States Government or any bureau, division or agency thereof indicating Virginia  as a declared state of residence, to this list of acceptable proof of  residence. The Board also proposes to allow foreign nurses who are in the  United States on a visa, and are applying for Virginia licensure, to choose  whether they will list Virginia or their home country as their primary state of  residence. If a foreign nurse declares his or her home country as the primary  state of residence, he/she will only be eligible for a single state (Virginia)  license. These proposed changes will make Virginia regulations consistent with  the model rules for the compact that governs multistate licensure. 
    Since the proposed changes do not impose any new restrictions  on licensees, no entity is likely to incur any additional costs on account of  this regulatory action. Licensed Nurses, and applicants for nursing licensure,  are likely to benefit from being able to use a wider variety of proof of  residency as this will allow nurses who, for instance, have recently moved to  Virginia and who have changed their addresses on their W2s… but who have not  yet obtained a Virginia driver's license or registered to vote… to obtain  multistate licensure.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The Department of Health  Professions (DHP) reports that the Board currently licenses 5,200 registered  nurses and 784 licensed practical nurses.
    Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be  particularly affected by this proposed regulatory action.
    Projected Impact on Employment. This regulatory action will  likely have no impact on employment in the Commonwealth.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. This  regulatory action will likely have no effect on the use or value of private  property in the Commonwealth.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects Small businesses in  the Commonwealth are unlikely to incur any costs on account of this regulatory  action.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. Small businesses in the Commonwealth are unlikely to incur any costs on  account of this regulatory action.
    Real Estate Development Costs. This regulatory action will  likely have no effect on real estate development costs in the Commonwealth.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  36 (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    Agency's Response to the Department of Planning and Budget's  Economic Impact Analysis: The Board of Nursing concurs with the analysis of  the Department of Planning and Budget on proposed amended regulations for  18VAC90-20, Regulations Governing the Practice of Nursing.
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments make board regulations for the  issuance of a multistate licensure privilege consistent with the Model Rules of  the Nurse Licensure Compact. Two new identification forms are acceptable  evidence as primary residency, and a nurse from another country has a choice of  declaring either the country of origin or Virginia as the primary state.   Additionally, a new regulation specifies that a single state license should be  clearly marked that it is valid only in the state of issuance.
    18VAC90-20-181. Issuance of a license with a multistate  licensure privilege.
    A. In order to be issued a license with a multistate  licensure privilege by the board, a nurse currently licensed in Virginia or a  person applying for licensure in Virginia shall submit a declaration stating  that his primary residence is in Virginia. Evidence of a primary state of  residence may be required to include but not be limited to: 
    1. A driver's license with a home address; 
    2. A voter registration card displaying a home address; or  
    3. A federal or state tax return declaring the primary state  of residence. ;
    4. A Military Form No. 2058 – state of legal residence; or
    5. A W-2 from the United States government or any bureau,  division, or agency thereof indicating the declared state of residence.
    B. A nurse on a visa from another country applying for  licensure in Virginia may declare either the country of origin or Virginia as  the primary state of residence. If the foreign country is declared as the  primary state of residence, a single state license shall be issued by Virginia.
    C. A nurse changing the primary state of residence  from another party state to Virginia may continue to practice under the former  party state license and multistate licensure privilege during the processing of  the nurse's licensure application by the board for a period not to exceed 30  days. 
    1. If a nurse is under a pending investigation by a former  home state, the licensure application in Virginia shall be held in abeyance and  the 30-day authorization to practice stayed until resolution of the pending  investigation. 
    2. A license issued by a former party state shall no longer be  valid upon issuance of a license by the board. 
    3. If the board denies licensure to an applicant from another  party state, it shall notify the former home state within 10 business days, and  the former home state may take action in accordance with the laws and  regulations of that state. 
    D. A license issued by a party state is valid for practice  in all other party states, unless clearly designated as valid only in the state  that issued the license. When a party state issues a license authorizing  practice only in that state and not authorizing practice in other party states,  the license shall be clearly marked with words indicating that it is valid only  in the state of issuance.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-1938; Filed October 20, 2009, 10:31 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
REAL ESTATE BOARD
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Real Estate Board is claiming  an exemption from the Administrative Process Act  in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes  regulations that are necessary to conform to changes in Virginia statutory law  where no agency discretion is involved. The Real Estate Board will receive,  consider, and respond to petitions from any interested person at any time with  respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 18VAC135-40. Time-Share  Regulations (repealing 18VAC135-40-20, 18VAC135-40-50,  18VAC135-40-60, 18VAC135-40-80, 18VAC135-40-100, 18VAC135-40-110,  18VAC135-40-140, 18VAC135-40-150, 18VAC135-40-160, 18VAC135-40-420,  18VAC135-40-430).
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-201 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: December 11, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Christine Martine, Executive Director,  Real Estate Board, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone  (804) 367-8552, FAX (804) 527-4299, or email reboard@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    Chapters 851 and 871 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly  established the Common Interest Community Board. In addition, Clause 2 of  Chapters 851 and 871 states that the Common Interest Community Board is  successor in interest to the Real Estate Board to the extent that the law  transfers powers and duties. As a result of the transfer of powers and duties  to the Common Interest Community Board, the Real Estate Board Time-Share  regulations should be repealed. The transfer of the regulations to the Common  Interest Community Board became effective November 27, 2008.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2181; Filed October 13, 2009, 2:22 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
REAL ESTATE BOARD
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  Real Estate Board is claiming  an exemption from the Administrative Process Act  in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes  regulations that are necessary to conform to changes in Virginia statutory law  where no agency discretion is involved. The Real Estate Board will receive,  consider, and respond to petitions from any interested person at any time with  respect to reconsideration or revision.
         Title of  Regulation: 18VAC135-60. Common Interest Community Management  Information Fund Regulations (repealing 18VAC135-60-10 through  18VAC135-60-60).
    Statutory  Authority: § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective  Date: December 11, 2009.
    Agency Contact: Thomas Perry, Property Registration  Administrator, Real Estate Board, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA  23233, telephone (804) 367-8510, FAX (804) 527-4299, or email  propreg@dpor.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    Chapters 851 and 871 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly  established the Common Interest Community Board. In addition, Clause 2 of  Chapters 851 and 871 states that the Common Interest Community Board is  successor in interest to the Real Estate Board to the extent that the law  transfers powers and duties. As a result of the transfer of powers and duties  to the Common Interest Community Board, the Real Estate Board Common Interest  Community Management Information Fund regulations should be repealed. The  transfer of the regulations to the Common Interest Community Board became  effective November 27, 2008.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2182; Filed October 13, 2009, 2:21 p.m. 
TITLE 24. TRANSPORTATION AND MOTOR VEHICLES
COMMISSION ON THE VIRGINIA ALCOHOL SAFETY ACTION PROGRAM
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 24VAC35-60. Ignition Interlock  Program Regulations (adding 24VAC35-60-10 through 24VAC35-60-110).
    Statutory Authority: § 18.2-270.2 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: January 1, 2010.
    Agency Contact: Richard L. Foy, Technical Instructor,  Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program, 701 East Franklin  Street, Suite 1110, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-5895, FAX (804)  786-6286, or email rfoy.vasap@state.va.us.
    Summary:
    This regulation provides information regarding the  certification of service providers and ignition interlock devices in Virginia.  Procedures for the installation, maintenance, and removal of ignition interlock  devices are outlined as well as requirements for reporting and recordkeeping.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No  public comments were received by the promulgating agency. 
    CHAPTER 60 
  IGNITION INTERLOCK PROGRAM REGULATIONS 
    24VAC35-60-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of these regulations is to establish a set of  standards for the Commonwealth of Virginia's ignition interlock program.  Authority to issue these regulations is granted to the Executive Director of  the Commission on Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program (VASAP) or authorized  designee by § 18.2-270.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    24VAC35-60-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Alcohol" means ethyl alcohol, also called  ethanol (C2H5OH).
    "BAC" or "blood alcohol concentration"  means the amount of alcohol in an offender's blood or breath as determined by  chemical analysis, which shall be measured by the number of grams of alcohol  per 100 milliliters of blood, or 210 liters of breath.
    "Breath test" means an analysis of the breath  alcohol concentration of a deep lung breath sample.
    "Calibration" means the process that ensures an  accurate alcohol concentration reading is being obtained on the ignition  interlock device.
    "Commission" means the Commission on Virginia  Alcohol Safety Action Program (VASAP).
    "Deep lung breath sample," also known as  "alveolar breath sample," means an air sample that is the last  portion of a prolonged, uninterrupted exhalation and that gives a quantitative  measurement of alcohol concentration from which breath alcohol concentrations  can be determined. "Alveolar" refers to the aveoli, which are the  smallest air passages in the lungs, surrounded by capillary blood vessels and through  which an interchange of gases occurs during respiration.
    "Device" means a breath alcohol ignition  interlock device.
    "Device certification" means the testing and  approval process required by the Commission on Virginia Alcohol Safety Action  Program (VASAP).
    "DMV" means the Virginia Department of Motor  Vehicles.
    "Fail point" means the point at which the breath  alcohol level of 0.02% is met.
    "Free restart" means the ability to start the  engine again within a preset period of time without completion of another  breath test, when the condition exists where a breath test is successfully  completed and the motor vehicle is started, but then the engine stops for any  reason (including stalling).
    "Ignition interlock system" means a device that  (i) connects a motor vehicle ignition system to an analyzer that measures an  offender's blood alcohol concentration; (ii) prevents a motor vehicle ignition  from starting if the offender's blood alcohol concentration is at or above the  fail point; and (iii) is equipped with the ability to perform a rolling retest  and to electronically log the blood alcohol concentration during ignition,  attempted ignition, and rolling retest.
    "Interlock event" means vehicle operator  activity that is recorded by the ignition interlock to include, but not limited  to, vehicle starts and attempted starts, rolling retests, breath tests,  lockouts, ignition shutoffs, power outages, and interlock tampering.
    "Licensing" means the process of determining  that a service center meets the requirements set by the Commission on VASAP.
    "Lockout" means the ability of the ignition  interlock device to prevent a motor vehicle's engine from starting.
    "Manufacturer" means the actual maker of the  ignition interlock device who assembles the product and distributes it to  service providers.
    "Motor vehicle" means every vehicle as defined  in § 46.2-100 of the Code of Virginia, that is self-propelled, or designed  for self-propulsion, to exclude bicycles, electric power-assisted mobility  devices, electric powered-assisted bicycles, and mopeds.
    "Offender" means the individual required by the  court or the Department of Motor Vehicles to drive only motor vehicles that  have certified ignition interlock devices installed. 
    "Permanent lockout" means a feature of the  ignition interlock device in which a motor vehicle will not start until the  ignition interlock device is reset by a service provider.
    "Retest" means an additional opportunity to  provide a deep lung breath sample below the alcohol fail point.
    "Rolling retest" means a test of the offender's  blood alcohol concentration required at random intervals during operation of  the motor vehicle, which triggers the sounding of the horn and flashing of  lights if (i) the test indicates that the offender has a blood alcohol  concentration that is at or above the fail point or (ii) the offender fails to  take the test.
    "Service center" means the physical location  where the service provider installs, calibrates, and removes the ignition  interlock device on the offender's vehicle.
    "Service provider" means [ the  an ] authorized supplier and installer of the approved ignition  interlock devices. In some cases, the service provider may also be a  manufacturer of an ignition interlock device.
    "Tampering" means an unlawful act or attempt to  disable or circumvent the legal operation of the ignition interlock device to  include providing samples other than the natural breath of the offender,  starting the motor vehicle without using the ignition switch, any other act  intended to start the motor vehicle without first taking and passing a breath  test, or physically tampering with the device to disable or otherwise  disconnect the device from its power source.
    "Temporary lockout" means a feature of the  ignition interlock device that will not allow the motor vehicle to start for a  preset time period after a breath test result indicates a BAC at or above the  fail point.
    "Vendor certification" means the process of  determining that a vendor has been approved to provide services in the  Commonwealth of Virginia.
    "Violation" means an event, such as a breath  test indicating a BAC at or above the fail point upon initial startup, a  refusal to provide a rolling retest deep lung breath sample, a rolling retest  with a BAC at or above the fail point, or tampering, which breaches the  guidelines for use of the interlock device.
    "Violation reset" means a feature of the  ignition interlock device in which a service reminder is activated due to a  violation.
    24VAC35-60-30. When ignition interlock devices are required.
    Ignition interlock devices are required: 
    1. When ordered by a court of proper jurisdiction pursuant  to § 18.2-270.1 of the Code of Virginia; or
    2. When administratively enforced by DMV pursuant to § 46.2-391.01  of the Code of Virginia.
    24VAC35-60-40. Approval of manufacturers and service  providers.
    A. The commission shall issue a request for proposals  (RFPs) in compliance with the state procurement procedures to contract with  ignition interlock service providers for the services and commodities required  for the implementation and maintenance of the Commonwealth's ignition interlock  program. Contracts will be for three years with an optional two-year renewal.
    B. Integrity of the Ignition Interlock Program shall be  upheld by restricting the delivery of interlock client service to the actual  provider of the product (authorized service provider), thereby effectively  preventing the extension of subcontracts to other persons or businesses who  lack long-term investment, long-term experience, or in-depth knowledge of  product and service, potentially resulting in a higher likelihood of neglect of  duty or illegal exchange of funds. Denial of subcontracting of the interlock  service to the consumer is an integral part of protecting the chain of evidence  for court testimony and evidentiary procedures.
    C. Each service provider seeking to contract with the  commission shall submit:
    1. Evidence of a strong background in the development and  maintenance of a statewide ignition interlock service program and evidence of  operational programs in other states. The service provider must be dedicated to  the installation and maintenance of ignition interlock devices and must supply  and train staff and service center supervisors to assure good customer service  and compliance with all contract requirements. [ Any personnel  Personnel ] hired to install, calibrate, or inspect ignition  interlock devices may not have ever been convicted of [ a  any ] felony or a crime substantially related to the  qualifications, functions, and duties associated with the installation and  inspection of the [ devices, devices; ] or  within a five-year period prior to hiring [ , ] been  convicted of a misdemeanor potentially punishable by confinement. The service  provider must be able to ensure that technicians are trained and available to  testify in court if required for noncompliance hearings.
    2. A description of the service provider's present or  planned provisions for distribution of the device in Virginia including all  locations in the state where the device may be installed, serviced, repaired,  calibrated, inspected, and monitored. Each facility shall be approved by the  Commission on VASAP prior to its use and meet the following criteria:
    a. Must pay an annual review fee to the Commission on  VASAP.
    b. Must comply with all local business license and zoning  regulations, and with all federal, state, and local health, fire, and building  code requirements.
    c. Must [ meet the offender's physical needs  for access comply with all local, state, and federal laws pertaining  to the provision of physical access to persons with disabilities ].
    d. Must maintain offender records in a manner that complies  with federal confidentiality guidelines.
    In addition, all services must be available statewide  within a 50-mile drive to the home location of all residents of the  Commonwealth.
    3. Documentation of insurance covering product liability,  including coverage in Virginia, with a minimum policy limit of $1 million per  occurrence, and $3 million aggregate total. The service provider shall provide  a signed statement from the manufacturer holding harmless the Commonwealth of  Virginia, the commission, and its members, employees, and agents from all  claims, demands, and actions, as a result of damage or injury to persons or  property that may arise, directly or indirectly, out of any act or omission by  the manufacturer or their service provider relating to the installation,  service, repair, use, and/or removal of an ignition interlock device.
    4. Documentation that the service provider will provide a  full-time state ignition interlock coordinator who will work exclusively with  the Virginia interlock program and reside in the Richmond, Virginia area. Among  other duties, the coordinator will be expected to (i) respond promptly to any  problems in the field, (ii) testify in court upon request, and (iii) assist and  provide training to VASAP staff.
    D. Provided that all vendor and device certification  requirements are met, the commission shall contract with those manufacturers or  service providers, and may approve multiple makes and models of ignition  interlock devices for use in the Commonwealth.
    24VAC35-60-50. Fees.
    A. All potential service providers desiring to conduct  business in the Commonwealth of Virginia's ignition interlock program shall  submit a $250 nonrefundable application fee.
    B. The Commission on VASAP will establish by contract the  following additional fees to be paid by the service provider:
    1. Annual contract review fee to the Commission on VASAP.
    2. Annual review fee for each service center to the  Commission on VASAP.
    3. Monthly fee to the Commission on VASAP for each offender  with an ignition interlock installed until the device is removed.
    4. Monthly fee to the local servicing ASAP for each  offender with an ignition interlock device installed until the device is  removed.
    C. All service providers shall create and maintain an  indigency fund for offenders who are eligible for a reduction in fees based  upon a declaration of indigency by the court and approval by the commission.
    24VAC35-60-60. Cancellation, suspension, and revocation of  manufacturers, service providers, and ignition interlock devices.
    A. The commission may cancel, suspend, or revoke  certification of an ignition interlock device and/or its manufacturer and  service provider for the following reasons:
    1. When there is a voluntary request by a manufacturer to  cancel certification of a device.
    2. When a device is discontinued by the manufacturer.
    3. When the manufacturer's liability insurance is  terminated or cancelled.
    4. When the manufacturer or service provider attempts to  conceal its true ownership.
    5. When materially false or inaccurate information is  provided relating to a device's performance standards.
    6. When there are defects in design, materials, or  workmanship causing repeated failures of a device.
    7. When the manufacturer or service provider knowingly  permits nonqualified service technicians to perform work.
    8. When a manufacturer or service provider assists users  with circumventing or tampering with a device.
    9. When service or the submission of required reports is  not provided in a timely manner.
    10. When required fees are not paid to the commission or  local programs.
    11. When there is a pattern of substandard customer  service.
    12. When the manufacturer or service provider interferes  with or obstructs a site review or investigation by the commission.
    13. When there are any other violations of the provisions  contained in the Code of Virginia, commission regulations, or the ignition  interlock contract.
    14. When a manufacturer or service provider solicits the  employment of another manufacturer's or service provider's technician, facility  manager, or state ignition interlock coordinator.
    15. When a manufacturer or service provider solicits  business outside of the VASAP, or otherwise solicits individual ASAP branches  through operational incentives, gratuities, or any other personal incentives.
    16. When a manufacturer or service provider solicits  business via direct influence or marketing to judicial, court, or DMV  personnel.
    B. If such cancellation, suspension, or revocation occurs,  the manufacturer or service provider may request (within 15 days of  notification) a hearing with the commission to contest the decision. Should the  cancellation, suspension, or revocation be upheld, the manufacturer or service  provider shall remain responsible for removal of all devices from customers'  motor vehicles, and will bear the costs associated with the required removal  and installation of a new approved device.
    24VAC35-60-70. Ignition interlock device specifications.
    A. All ignition interlock devices used pursuant to §§ 18.2-270.1  and 46.2-391.01 of the Code of Virginia must be approved by the commission. The  commission shall maintain a list of approved ignition interlock devices.
    B. Each service provider seeking to contract with the  commission shall submit:
    1. The name and address of the ignition interlock device  manufacturer.
    2. The name and model number of the ignition interlock  device.
    3. A detailed description of the device including drawings,  schematics, wiring protocols, and instructions for its installation and  operation.
    C. The manufacturer or service provider shall provide to  the commission, for distribution to the local ASAPs, literature promoting its  device.
    D. The manufacturer or service provider shall provide  certification from an independent laboratory that its ignition interlock device  has been tested in accordance with the [ latest ] model  specifications published in the Federal Register by the National Highway  Traffic Safety Administration [ (57 FR 11772-11787 (April 7, 1992)) ],  and that the ignition interlock device meets or exceeds those specifications.  Included with the certification report should be the name and location of the  testing laboratory, the address and phone number of the testing laboratory, a  description of the tests performed, copies of the data and results of the  testing procedures, and the names and qualifications of the individuals  performing the tests.
    E. If a device is submitted for approval by a service  provider other than the manufacturer, the submitting party shall submit a  notarized affidavit from the manufacturer of the device certifying that the  submitting party is an authorized manufacturer's representative.
    F. All ignition interlock devices will be required to meet  the model specifications for Breath Alcohol Ignition Interlock Devices (BAIID)  as set forth in the most recent model specifications published in the Federal  Register by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). At a  minimum, the following specifications will be met:
    1. The ignition interlock device shall work accurately and  reliably in an unsupervised environment, at minimal inconvenience to others,  and without impeding the safe operation of the motor vehicle.
    2. The ignition interlock device shall be able to analyze a  specimen of alveolar breath for alcohol concentration, correlate accurately  with established measures of blood alcohol concentration, and be calibrated  according to the manufacturer's specifications.
    3. The ignition interlock device shall be alcohol specific,  using an electrochemical fuel cell that reacts to and measures ethanol,  minimizing positive results from any other substance. 
    4. The ignition interlock device shall indicate when a  sufficient sample of breath has been collected and shall indicate this by  audible or visual means.
    5. The ignition interlock device shall detect and record a  BAC that is at or above the fail point for each ignition, attempted ignition,  and rolling retest.
    6. The results of the test shall be noted through the use  of green, yellow, and red signals or similar pass/fail indicators. No digital  blood alcohol concentration shall be indicated to the offender.
    7. The ignition interlock device shall lock out an offender  when a BAC at or above the fail point is detected.
    8. The ignition interlock device shall have the ability to  prevent the normal operation of the motor vehicle by an offender who fails to  retest.
    9. The ignition interlock device shall have the ability to  perform a permanent lockout if the offender fails to appear for a scheduled  monitoring appointment after the applicable five-day grace period.
    10. The ignition interlock device shall automatically purge  alcohol before allowing subsequent analyses.
    11. The ignition interlock device shall issue a warning of  an impending lockout.
    12. The ignition interlock device shall be capable of  random retesting and timed retesting.
    13. The ignition interlock device shall warn the offender  of upcoming service appointments for [ at least ] three  days prior to the appointment. Should the offender fail to appear, the device  shall lock out on the fifth day after the scheduled appointment, and the motor  vehicle shall not be operable until the service provider has reset the device.
    14. The internal memory of the ignition interlock device  shall be capable of recording and storing a minimum of 500 interlock events and  shall enter a service reminder if the memory reaches 90% of capacity.
    15. The ignition interlock device shall be designed and  installed in such manner as to minimize opportunities to be tampered with,  altered, bypassed, or circumvented. The ignition interlock device shall not  spontaneously bypass the ignition system nor shall it be able to be made  operational by any mechanical means of providing air to simulate alveolar  breath. Any bogus breath anti-circumvention features used to pass laboratory  testing of the ignition interlock device shall be turned on.
    16. The ignition interlock device shall be capable of  recording and providing evidence of any actual or attempted tampering,  alteration, bypass, or circumvention.
    17. The ignition interlock device must operate at  temperatures between -20 and 70 degrees Celsius.
    18. The ignition interlock device shall operate up to  altitudes of 2.5 km above sea level.
    19. The readings of the ignition interlock device shall not  be affected by humidity, dust, electromagnetic interference, smoke, exhaust  fumes, food substance, or normal automobile vibration.
    20. The operation of the ignition interlock device shall  not be affected by normal fluctuations of power source voltage.
    G. All ignition interlock devices that have been approved  by the commission shall have affixed a warning label with the following  language: "Any person tampering with or attempting to circumvent this  ignition interlock system shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor and, upon  conviction, be subject to a fine or incarceration or both." The cost and  supply of the warning labels to be affixed to the ignition interlock devices  shall be borne by the manufacturer or service provider. The manufacturer or  service provider shall submit to the commission a prototype of the warning  label for approval.
    H. For initial startup of  the motor vehicle:
    1. The ignition interlock device shall enable the ignition  relay after the successful completion of a breath alcohol test. 
    2. The device shall allow two minutes to elapse between the  time the ignition is enabled and the start of the motor vehicle.
    3. The ignition interlock device shall allow the motor  vehicle to be restarted within two minutes of the engine being stopped without  requiring an additional test.
    4. If the initial test results in a lockout due to the  offender's BAC level, the ignition interlock device shall not allow an  additional attempt for five minutes.
    5. If the offender's BAC is at or above the fail point on  the second retest, the machine shall lock out for an additional 15 minutes and  shall do so thereafter for each failed retest. A violation reset message shall  instruct the offender to return the ignition interlock device to the service  provider for servicing within five days.
    6. If the ignition interlock device is not reset within  five days, a permanent lockout will occur.
    I. A rolling retest feature is required for all ignition  interlock devices.
    1. An ignition interlock device shall require a rolling  retest within the first 10 to 20 minutes after the start of the motor vehicle  and randomly thereafter at least once every 20 to 40 minutes as long as the  motor vehicle is in operation. 
    2. The ignition interlock device shall produce a visual and  audible signal of the need to produce a breath sample for the rolling retest.  The offender shall have six minutes in which to provide the required rolling  retest breath sample.
    3. A free restart shall not apply if the ignition interlock  device was awaiting a rolling retest that was not delivered.
    4. Any deep lung breath sample at or above the fail point  or any failure to provide a rolling retest deep lung breath sample within the  required time, shall activate the motor vehicle's horn and cause the motor  vehicle's headlights, parking lights, or emergency lights to flash until the  engine is shut off by the offender.
    5. Once the vehicle has been turned off, all prestart  requirements shall become applicable.
    6. The violations reset message shall instruct the offender  to return the ignition interlock device to the service provider for servicing  within five days.
    7. If the ignition interlock device is not reset within  five days, a permanent lockout will occur.
     
    J. Additional technical  specifications for the operation and installation of the ignition interlock  device may be described in the contract between the commission and the service  provider.
    24VAC35-60-80. Ignition interlock device installation.
    A. No offender who has a case pending in the court system  shall have an interlock installed in Virginia unless enrolled in, and monitored  by, the ASAP program in the area where the case originated. This enables VASAP  to maintain consistency in policy and use of ignition interlock devices in the  Commonwealth, and allows for a consistent pattern of instruction to the service  provider.
    B. The ignition interlock device must be installed by a  manufacturer or authorized service provider within 30 days of the date of the  court order; if not, the service provider will notify the ASAP.
    C. All agreements between the service provider and the  offender shall be in the form of a contract and be signed by the service  provider and the offender. Copies of the written contract shall be retained by  the service provider with a copy given to the offender and the local ASAP  office.
    D. Prior to installation of the ignition interlock device,  offenders must provide to the service provider:
    1. Photo identification.
    2. The name and policy number of their automobile  insurance.
    3. The vehicle identification number (VIN) of all motor  vehicles owned or routinely driven by the offender, and a statement disclosing  the names of all other operators of the motor vehicles owned or driven by the  offender.
    4. A notarized affidavit from the registered owner of the  vehicle granting permission to install the device if the car is not registered  to the offender.
    5. Written authorization from the commission if the air  volume requirement, blow pressure, or anti-circumvention features of the  ignition interlock device are to be lowered or disabled in order to compensate  for an offender's diminished lung capacity.
    E. Under no circumstances shall an offender be permitted  to observe the installation of the device.
    F. The service provider must inspect all motor vehicles  prior to installation of the device to ensure that they are in acceptable  mechanical and electrical condition. Under no circumstances shall staff of the  authorized service provider install any device until, and unless, the motor  vehicle is approved following the inspection.
    G. Each installation shall include all of the  tamper-resistant features required by the service provider such as unique  seals, epoxies, or resins at all openings and exposed electrical connections.
    H. An oral, written, or video orientation to the ignition  interlock device will be developed and delivered by the service provider to the  offender and other persons who may drive the motor vehicle, including  information on the use and maintenance of the device as well as all service  center locations, and procedures for regular and emergency servicing. A  demonstration interlock will be available at each installation site for use in  the training of customers.
    I. If, during the installation, the offender fails to pass  the initial breath test, the installation will be halted and the ASAP notified.
    J. The manufacturer and/or service provider must maintain  a toll-free 24-hour emergency phone service that may be used to request  assistance in the event of failure of the ignition interlock device or motor  vehicle problems related to operation of the ignition interlock device. The  assistance provided by the authorized service provider shall include technical  information and aid in obtaining towing or roadside service. The expense of  towing and roadside service shall be borne by the offender unless it is  determined by the service center technician that the ignition interlock device  failed through no fault of the offender, in which case the manufacturer or  service provider will be responsible for applicable expenses. The ignition  interlock device shall be made functional within 48 hours of the call for  assistance or the ignition interlock device shall be replaced.
    K. At the time of device installation, a service provider  may charge an installation fee. The maximum permissible cost for installation  shall be set by the Commission on VASAP through contract, and service providers  will not be permitted to exceed the maximum fee established by the commission.  A portion of these fees shall include costs for offender indigency funds. In  addition to the maximum fee permitted, service providers may collect applicable  taxes and charge for optional insurance to cover device theft or damage. No  installation fees shall be collected from the user until such services have  been provided.
    L. The manufacturer or service provider must provide  indigent service to those offenders who are eligible for a reduction in fees  based upon a declaration of indigence by the court and approval by the  commission.
    M. No later than the first service appointment, the  offender must provide to the service provider a statement from every licensed  driver who will be driving the offender's motor vehicle acknowledging their  understanding of the requirements of the use of the ignition interlock device.
    24VAC35-60-90. Calibration and monitoring visit.
    A. The offender must present photo identification to the  service provider for all required services.
    B. The service provider must:
    1. Provide service/monitoring of the ignition interlock  device every 30 days; the offender will be given a five-day grace period to  have the device inspected.
    2. Calibrate the ignition interlock device at each service  appointment using a dry gas reference sample.
    3. Retrieve data from the ignition interlock device data log  for the previous period and electronically submit it to the local ASAP within  24 hours of calibration.
    4. Record the odometer reading of the motor vehicle in  which the ignition interlock device is installed.
    5. Check the ignition interlock device and wiring for signs  of circumvention or tampering, and electronically report to the local ASAP any  violation within 24 hours of servicing.
    6. Collect the monthly monitoring fee from the offender.
    C. All malfunctions of the ignition interlock device will  be repaired or the ignition interlock device replaced by the service provider  within 48 hours at no additional expense to the offender. If it is shown that  the malfunction is due to mistreatment by the offender, and the offender has  not purchased optional insurance, then the offender will be responsible for  applicable repair fees.
    D. A certified technician shall be available at the  service center during specified hours to answer questions and to deal with any  mechanical concerns that may arise with a motor vehicle as a result of the  ignition interlock device.
    E. The ignition interlock device shall record, at a  minimum, the following data:
    1. The time and date of each failed breath test;
    2. The time and date of each passed breath test;
    3. The breath alcohol level of each test; and
    4. The time and date of any attempt to tamper or circumvent  the ignition interlock device.
    F. At the time of device calibration, a service provider  may charge a monthly monitoring fee. The maximum permissible cost for  monitoring and calibration shall be set by the Commission on VASAP through  contract, and service providers shall not be permitted to exceed the maximum  fee established by the commission. A portion of these fees shall include costs  for VASAP administrative support and offender indigency funds. In addition to  the maximum fee permitted, service providers may collect applicable taxes and  charge for optional insurance to cover device theft or damage. Fees for the  first monthly monitoring and calibration visit will be collected from the user  in advance at the time of installation and monthly thereafter as such services  are rendered.
    24VAC35-60-100. Ignition interlock device removal.
    A. Prior to removal of the ignition interlock device, the  service provider must receive written authorization from the ASAP.
    B. Offenders may not have their ignition interlock device  removed or replaced by another manufacturer without written authorization from  the ASAP.
    C. If, at the time of removal, the service provider  notices any failed tests that have not been backed up by a successful test  within 10-15 minutes of the original test, the ASAP will be notified for  approval before the removal is made.
    D. Once the interlock has been removed, the service  provider will send an authorized removal report to the ASAP via fax, email, or  online database, documenting that the ignition interlock device has been  removed and that all fees have been paid. Once verification of an authorized  removal has been received by the ASAP, DMV will be notified that the offender has  successfully completed the interlock requirements.
    E. Whenever an ignition interlock device is removed, all  components of the motor vehicle altered by the installation or servicing of the  ignition interlock device must be restored to their original, preinstallation  condition and removed in such a manner as not to impair the safe operation of  the vehicle. All severed wires must be permanently reconnected (soldered) and  insulated with heat shrink tubing or its equivalent.
    F. No fee shall be charged to the offender for removal of  the ignition interlock device.
    24VAC35-60-110. Records and reporting.
    A. The service provider shall be subject to announced or  unannounced site reviews for the purpose of inspecting the facilities and  offender records. Access to all service provider locations, records, and  financial information shall be provided to any member of the commission staff  for the purpose of verifying compliance with state law, commission regulations,  and the service provider agreement. 
    B. In accordance with federal confidentiality guidelines,  all personal and medical information provided to the service provider regarding  offenders shall be kept confidential, maintained in individual offender files  and secured within a lockable filing cabinet at the offender's service center.  This filing cabinet shall remain locked during any period that the service  center is unattended by a service provider employee.
    C. Within 24 hours of installing an interlock, the service  provider will provide the ASAP with an installation report that includes:
    1. The name, address, and telephone number of the offender;
    2. The owner, make, model, year, vehicle identification  number, license plate number, and registration information of the motor  vehicle; and
    3. The serial number of the ignition interlock device  installed. 
    D. Within 24 hours after performing a  monitoring/calibration check, the service provider shall submit to the local  ASAP all data generated to include:
    1. Name of the offender whose device was monitored.
    2. Name, address, and telephone number of the monitoring  official.
    3. Date of monitoring/calibration.
    4. Motor vehicle make, model, year, identification number,  and odometer.
    5. Number of miles driven during the monitoring period.
    6. Make, model, and serial number of the ignition interlock  device.
    7. Any change out of the device (handset and/or control  box) and reason for the change out.
    8. Any data indicating that the offender has attempted to  start or drive the motor vehicle with a positive BAC at or above the fail  point.
    9. Any attempts to alter, tamper, circumvent, bypass, or  otherwise remove the device.
    10. Any noncompliance with conditions of the ASAP or  interlock program.
    11. Any offender concerns.
    12. All charges incurred for the monitoring visit.
    13. Date of next scheduled monitoring visit.
    E. In addition, the service provider must have available  monthly reports detailing:
    1. All installations during the period covered.
    2. All calibrations performed during the period, by date  and offender name, detailing any unit replacements made during the monitoring  period.
    3. All datalogger information from each ignition interlock  device.
    4. Any evidence of misuse, abuse, or attempts to tamper  with the ignition interlock device.
    5. Any device failure due to material defect or improper  installation.
    6. A summary of all complaints received and corrective  action taken.
    F. The service provider shall be responsible for  purchasing and providing necessary computer hardware and software to convey all  data and information requested by the commission if such equipment is not  already present at the commission office or local ASAP.
    G. Reports shall be submitted to the local ASAP in the  format specified by the Commission on VASAP.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R09-1589; Filed October 16, 2009, 11:31 a.m.